Page Range | 22389-22607 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 22391 - Strengthening the Cybersecurity of Federal Networks and Critical Infrastructure | |
82 FR 22389 - Establishment of Presidential Advisory Commission on Election Integrity | |
82 FR 22452 - Draft Guidance for Reporting of Chemical Substances When Manufactured or Processed as Nanoscale Materials; Notice of Availability and Request for Comment | |
82 FR 22441 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Deep-Water Species Fishery by Vessels Using Trawl Gear in the Gulf of Alaska | |
82 FR 22565 - Sunshine Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 22573 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 22602 - Notice of Determinations: Culturally Significant Objects Re-imported or Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Paint the Revolution: Mexican Modernism, 1910-1950” Exhibition | |
82 FR 22503 - Marine Mammals; File No. 20605 | |
82 FR 22419 - Final Priorities, Requirements, Definitions, and Selection Criteria-Striving Readers Comprehensive Literacy (SRCL) Program | |
82 FR 22523 - Applications for New Awards; Striving Readers Comprehensive Literacy Program | |
82 FR 22500 - Endangered Species; File No. 21318 | |
82 FR 22544 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
82 FR 22543 - Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
82 FR 22546 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 22542 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
82 FR 22545 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 22427 - 2014 Quadrennial Regulatory Review | |
82 FR 22547 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 22448 - Anchorages; Captain of the Port Puget Sound Zone, WA | |
82 FR 22414 - Special Local Regulation, Stuart, FL | |
82 FR 22603 - BNSF Railway Company-Abandonment Exemption-in Flathead County, Montana | |
82 FR 22560 - Helical Spring Lock Washers From China and Taiwan; Determinations | |
82 FR 22564 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Correction | |
82 FR 22515 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits | |
82 FR 22562 - Bureau of Justice Statistics; Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection: Annual Survey of Jails; Deaths in Custody Reporting Program-Local Jails; Survey of Jails in Indian Country | |
82 FR 22428 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; Fisheries Off West Coast States; Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery; 2017-2018 Biennial Specifications and Management Measures; Inseason Adjustments | |
82 FR 22499 - Magnuson-Stevens Act Provisions; General Provisions for Domestic Fisheries; Application for Exempted Fishing Permits | |
82 FR 22557 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Notice of Appeal or Motion, Form I-290B; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
82 FR 22606 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to Executive Order 13224 | |
82 FR 22497 - Polyethylene Terephthalate Film, Sheet and Strip From the United Arab Emirates: Partial Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 22490 - Silicon Metal From Australia, Brazil, and Kazakhstan: Postponement of Preliminary Determinations of Countervailing Duty Investigations | |
82 FR 22485 - Steel Wire Garment Hangers From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Court Decision Not in Harmony With Final Results of Administrative Review and New Shipper Review and Notice of Amended Final Results Pursuant to Court Decision | |
82 FR 22491 - Certain Cold-Drawn Mechanical Tubing of Carbon and Alloy Steel From the Federal Republic of Germany, India, Italy, the Republic of Korea, the People's Republic of China, and Switzerland: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigations | |
82 FR 22486 - Certain Cold-Drawn Mechanical Tubing of Carbon and Alloy Steel From India and the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigations | |
82 FR 22563 - Fire Protection in Shipyard Employment Standard; Extension of the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Approval of Information Collection (Paperwork) Requirements | |
82 FR 22558 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Reporting for HUD Research, Evaluation, and Demonstration Cooperative Agreements | |
82 FR 22559 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Resident Opportunity and Self-Sufficiency Service Coordinator (ROSS-SC) Program Evaluation | |
82 FR 22498 - Marine Mammals; File No. 20311 | |
82 FR 22504 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Seabird and Pinniped Research Activities in Central California, 2017-2018 | |
82 FR 22417 - Safety Zone; Tall Ships Charleston, Cooper River, Charleston, SC | |
82 FR 22551 - Meeting of the Advisory Committee on Minority Health | |
82 FR 22452 - Use of U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Reservoir Projects for Domestic, Municipal & Industrial Water Supply | |
82 FR 22551 - Solicitation of Public Comments on the Draft Federal Pain Research Strategy | |
82 FR 22556 - Request for Comments on National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research's 2030 Strategic Visioning Initiative | |
82 FR 22483 - Current Mandatory Business Surveys | |
82 FR 22603 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
82 FR 22517 - Improving the Accuracy of the Trademark Register: Request for Comments on Possible Streamlined Version of Cancellation Proceedings on Grounds of Abandonment and Nonuse | |
82 FR 22605 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
82 FR 22517 - Marine Mammals; File No. 20951 | |
82 FR 22521 - Defense Science Board; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting | |
82 FR 22477 - Announcement of Grant Application Deadlines and Funding Levels | |
82 FR 22548 - Request for Comments on Food and Drug Administration Accreditation Scheme for Conformity Assessment Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22516 - Marine Mammals; File No. 21045 | |
82 FR 22443 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 22445 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
82 FR 22411 - Special Conditions: Airbus, Models A318, A319, A320, and A321 Series Airplanes; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 22402 - Special Conditions: The Boeing Company, Model 747-8 Series Airplanes; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 22405 - Special Conditions: Textron Aviation Inc., Model 560XL Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 22408 - Special Conditions: Embraer S. A., Model EMB-135BJ Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 22399 - Special Conditions: Airbus, Model A380-800 Series Airplanes; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 22411 - Special Conditions: Dassault Aviation Model Falcon 900EX Airplane; Electronic System-Security Protection From Unauthorized External Access | |
82 FR 22563 - Baxter International Inc. (Baxter); Located in Deerfield, IL | |
82 FR 22565 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 22602 - Advisory Committee for the Study of Eastern Europe and the Independent States of the Former Soviet Union (TITLE VIII); Renewal of Charter and Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 22602 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Modernism on the Ganges: Raghubir Singh Photographs” Exhibition | |
82 FR 22502 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 22516 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 22503 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 22502 - Pacific Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
82 FR 22531 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; G5 System Post Award Budget Drawdown e-Form | |
82 FR 22522 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Written Application for the Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind Formula Grant | |
82 FR 22483 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Idaho Advisory Committee To Vote on 2016 School Equity Report | |
82 FR 22600 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 7.46 To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22581 - Self-Regulatory Organizations: Investors Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Exchange Rule 11.340 To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web Site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22595 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Establish INET Ports | |
82 FR 22590 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Amend Rule 67-Equities To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web Site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22574 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web Site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22589 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend FINRA Rule 6191 To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web Site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22587 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BYX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees | |
82 FR 22580 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fees Schedule | |
82 FR 22572 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 67 To Modify the Date of Appendix B Web Site Data Publication Pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
82 FR 22583 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Bats BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Related to Fees | |
82 FR 22598 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Shorten the Settlement Cycle From T+3 to T+2 | |
82 FR 22576 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees To Amend Pricing Related to Options Overlying NDX and MNX | |
82 FR 22568 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change to Schedule of Fees to Amend Pricing Related to Options Overlying NDX and MNX | |
82 FR 22519 - Responses to Office Action and Voluntary Amendment Forms | |
82 FR 22566 - Allianz Funds, et al. | |
82 FR 22532 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
82 FR 22541 - Dominion Transmission, Inc.; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 22537 - DTE Midstream Appalachia, LLC; Notice of Application for Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity | |
82 FR 22536 - WBI Energy Transmission, Inc.; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 22539 - Texas Gas Transmission, LLC; Notice of Application | |
82 FR 22533 - Northwest Pipeline LLC; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment for the Proposed North Fork Nooksack Line Lowering Project Request for Comments on Environmental Issues | |
82 FR 22541 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
82 FR 22538 - Maysville Pumped Storage, LLC; Notice of Preliminary Permit Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Competing Applications | |
82 FR 22532 - New York Power Authority; Notice of Application Tendered for Filing With the Commission and Establishing Procedural Schedule for Licensing and Deadline for Submission of Final Amendments | |
82 FR 22540 - Energy Unlimited, Inc.; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request For Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
82 FR 22536 - City of Hailey; Notice of Declaration of Intention and Soliciting Comments, Protests, and Motions To Intervene | |
82 FR 22540 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
82 FR 22535 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 22552 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Charter Renewal | |
82 FR 22554 - Government-Owned Invention; Availability for Licensing | |
82 FR 22553 - Government-Owned Invention; Availability for Licensing | |
82 FR 22592 - Sierra Total Return Fund, et al. | |
82 FR 22561 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Supplementary Homicide Report | |
82 FR 22561 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Law Enforcement Officers Killed and Assaulted Program, Analysis of Officers Feloniously Killed and Assaulted; and Law Enforcement Officers Killed and Assaulted Program, Analysis of Officers Accidentally Killed | |
82 FR 22556 - National Institute of Nursing Research; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22553 - National Institute on Minority Health and Health Disparities; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22554 - National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22555 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22555 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22556 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 22555 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 22552 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 22448 - Safety Zone; Recurring Marine Events, Sector Key West, Florida. | |
82 FR 22550 - Solicitation of Nominations for Appointment to the Presidential Advisory Council on Combating Antibiotic-Resistant Bacteria | |
82 FR 22607 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; New Issue Bond Program and Temporary Credit and Liquidity Program | |
82 FR 22566 - New Postal Products | |
82 FR 22453 - Accelerating Wireline Broadband Deployment by Removing Barriers to Infrastructure Investment |
Rural Utilities Service
Census Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Federal Bureau of Investigation
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
National Endowment for the Arts
National Endowment for the Humanities
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Airbus Model A380-800 series airplanes. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Airbus on May 16, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 30, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0371 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Airbus holds type certificate no. A58NM, which provides the certification basis for the A380-800 series airplanes. The A380-800 series airplanes are four engine, transport category airplanes with a passenger seating capacity of 853 and a maximum takeoff weight of 1,124,400 to 1,254,400 pounds, depending on the specific design.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the A380-800 series airplanes. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Airbus must show that the A380-800 series airplanes meet the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. A58NM or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same or similar novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the A380-800 series airplanes must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the A380-800 series airplanes. Should Airbus apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Airbus Model A380-800 series airplanes.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on The Boeing Company (Boeing) Model 747-8 series airplanes. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on The Boeing Company on May 16, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 30, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0385 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington, 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Boeing holds type certificate no. A20WE, which provides the certification basis for the 747-8 series airplanes. The 747-8 airplane is a four engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 605 and a maximum takeoff weight of 970,000 pounds.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the 747-8 series airplanes. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Boeing must show that the 747-8 series airplanes meet the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. A20WE or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the 747-8 series airplanes must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the 747-8 series airplanes. Should Boeing apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Boeing Model 747-8 series airplanes.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Textron Aviation Inc. (Textron) Model 560XL airplane. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Textron on May 16, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 30, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0375 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident site in Alaskan terrain. The FAA considers that the safety benefits from upgrading to a 406 MHz ELT for Alaskan operations will outweigh the battery fire risk.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Textron holds type certificate no. A22CE, which provides the certification basis for the Model 560XL airplane. The Model 560XL is a twin-engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 12 and a maximum takeoff weight of 20,000 pounds.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Model 560XL airplane. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Textron must show that the Model 560XL airplane meets the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. A22CE or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the Model 560XL airplane must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the Model 560XL airplane. Should Textron apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subject to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Textron Model 560XL airplane.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Embraer S. A. (Embraer) Model EMB-135BJ airplane. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Embraer on May 16, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 30, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0372 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington, 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident site in Alaskan terrain. The FAA considers that the safety benefits from upgrading to a 406 MHz ELT for Alaskan operations will outweigh the battery fire risk.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Embraer holds type certificate no. T00011AT, which provides the certification basis for the EMB-135BJ airplane. The EMB-135BJ is a twin engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 19 and a maximum takeoff weight of 48,943 to 53,572 pounds, depending on the specific design.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the EMB-135BJ airplane. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Embraer must show that the EMB-135BJ airplane meets the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. T00011AT or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the EMB-135BJ must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the EMB-135BJ airplane. Should Embraer apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Embraer S.A. Model EMB-135BJ airplane.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions, request for comment; withdrawal.
The FAA is withdrawing a previously published special conditions for the Dassault Aviation (Dassault) Model Falcon 900EX airplane. We are withdrawing the special conditions in response to Dassault's comments, submitted to the Federal Docket on December 5, 2014.
This withdrawal of special conditions is effective on Dassault on April 7, 2017.
Varun Khanna, FAA, Airplane and Flightcrew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone (425) 227-1298; facsimile (425) 227-1320.
On November 14, 2014, the
Note that the original publication of the special conditions incorrectly indicates, in the document header, Special Conditions No. 25-XXX-SC. This withdrawal document reflects the correct special conditions number.
The FAA withdraws Special Conditions No. 25-573-SC after considering comments Dassault submitted during the public-comment period. Dassault's comment, in pertinent part, is as follows, with minor edits for clarity:
The Proposed Special Conditions indicate that they are applicable to the “new Model 900EX airplane.” This statement is factually wrong. Dassault believes that these special conditions were intended for a Dassault Aviation Services (DAS) supplemental type certificate (STC) regarding the replacement of the display unit on the Dassault Model 900EX airplane (FAA project number ST07490NY-T). Furthermore, previous discussions between the FAA and DAS led to the conclusion that the STC for the replacement of the display unit on the Dassault Model 900EX airplane (FAA project number ST07490NY-T) did not contain any changes involving the connectivity to the avionics system. Accordingly, there is no specific vulnerability to the systems due to the replacement of the display unit. Therefore, there was no novelty in the STC that would require the issuance of the proposed special conditions. The STC was approved in [2014] (ST03371NY) without any special conditions on this subject.
In view of the foregoing, Dassault Aviation respectfully requests that the FAA rescind [Special Conditions No. 25-573-SC].
The FAA agrees with Dassault's comments and withdraws the special conditions. These special conditions are not included in, and are not a part of, the type certificate for the Dassault Model Falcon 900EX airplane.
This action affects only the special conditions indicated above for the Dassault Model Falcon 900EX airplane.
In light of Dassault's comments, the FAA agrees that these special conditions are not necessary, and that withdrawal of the special conditions is not detrimental to the operation of the airplane. Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, Special Conditions No. 25-573-SC is withdrawn.
The FAA finds that good cause exists to make this withdrawal of special conditions effective upon issuance.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on Airbus Models A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Airbus on May 16, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 30, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0368 using any of the following methods:
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•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident site in Alaskan terrain. The FAA considers that the safety benefits from upgrading to a 406 MHz ELT for Alaskan operations will outweigh the battery fire risk.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Airbus holds type certificate no. A28NM, which provides the certification basis for the A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. The A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes are twin engine, transport category airplanes with a passenger seating capacity of 136 to 220 and a maximum takeoff weight of 123,458 to 206,132 pounds, depending on the specific design.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Airbus must show that the A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes meet the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. A28NM or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
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•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes. Should Airbus
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on the subject models of airplanes. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for Airbus Models A318, A319, A320, and A321 series airplanes.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a special local regulation on the Indian River located northeast of Ernest F. Lyons Bridge and south of Joes Cove, in Stuart, Florida during the Stuart Sailfish Regatta, a series of high-speed boat races. This special local regulation is necessary for the safety of race participants, participant vessels, spectators, and the general public during the event. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the regulated area while high-speed boats are operating.
This rule will be effective from 9 a.m. on May 19 through 6 p.m. on May 21, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Petty Officer Mara Brown, Sector Miami Waterways Management Division, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 305-535-4317, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), for the reasons cited above, the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under the authority in 33 U.S.C. 1233. The Captain of the Port Miami (COTP) has determined that potential hazards associated with the regatta will pose a risk to anyone in the established race and buffer zone. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment in the navigable waters within the regulated area while high-speed boats are operating.
From May 19 through May 21, 2017, Stuart Sailfish Regatta, Inc. is hosting the Stuart Sailfish Regatta, a series of high-speed boat races. The races will be held on the Indian River located northeast of Ernest F. Lyons Bridge and south of Joes Cove, in Stuart, Florida. Approximately 150 high-speed power boats are participating in the event. It is anticipated that at least 100 spectator vessels will be present during the event.
This rule establishes a special local regulation that encompasses certain navigable waters of the Indian River located northeast of Ernest F. Lyons Bridge and south of Joes Cove, in Stuart, Florida. The special local regulation consists of the following four areas: (1) A race area, where all persons and vessels, except those participating in the high-speed boat races, are prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within; (2) a buffer zone around the race area, where all persons and vessels, except those persons and vessels enforcing the buffer zone or authorized participants or vessels transiting to the race area, are prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within; (3) spectator area one, north of the race area where all persons are prohibited from entering the water or swimming in the designated area; and (4) spectator area two, west of the race area, where all persons are prohibited from entering the water or swimming in the designated area.
Persons and vessels may request authorization to enter the regulated area by contacting the Captain of the Port Miami by telephone at 305-535-4472, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16, to request authorization. If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area is granted by the Captain of the Port Miami or a designated representative, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the Captain of the Port Miami or a designated representative.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
E.O.s 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”) and 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (“Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs”), directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.”
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, OMB has not reviewed it.
As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration, and time-of-year of the special local regulation. Non-participant persons and vessels may enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area during their respective enforcement periods if authorized by the Captain of the Port Miami or a designated representative. Non-participant persons and vessels not able to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated areas without authorization from the Captain of the Port Miami or a designated representative may operate in the surrounding areas during the respective enforcement periods. The Coast Guard will provide advance notification of the special local regulation to the local maritime community by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners and on-scene designated representative.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 19, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the regulated area may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A. above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a special local regulation issued in conjunction with a regatta or marine parade. This rule is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(h) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. We seek any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of a significant environmental impact from this rule.
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 100 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1233.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(b)
(c)
(2) The Coast Guard will provide notice of the regulated area by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners and/or on-scene designated representatives.
(d)
Coast Guard, DHS.
Final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone on the waters of the Cooper River in Charleston, South Carolina. This safety zone is necessary to provide for the safety of participant vessels and the general public during Tall Ships Charleston, an event allowing for public tours of tall ships (large sailing vessels) from various countries while at the docks of Veterans Terminal on the Cooper River in Charleston, South Carolina. This rule is intended to prohibit persons and vessels from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the safety zone unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Charleston (COTP) or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from May 18, 2017 through May 21, 2017.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Lieutenant Commander John Downing, Sector Charleston Office of Waterways Management, Coast Guard; telephone (843) 740-3184, email
On December 1, 2016, Tall Ships Charleston notified the Coast Guard that they would be sponsoring the Tall Ships Charleston event on May 18, 2017 through May 21, 2017. In response, on March 29, 2017 the Coast Guard published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) titled “Safety Zone; Tall Ships Charleston, Cooper River, Charleston, SC” (82 FR 15476). There we stated why we issued the NPRM, and invited comments on our proposed regulatory action related to this event. During the comment period that ended April 29, 2017, we received no comments.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The purpose of the rule is to ensure safety of life on the navigable water of the United States during Tall Ships Charleston.
As noted above, we received no comments on the NPRM, which published March 29, 2017. There are no changes in the regulatory text of this rule from the proposed rule in the NPRM.
This rule establishes a safety zone from May 18, 2017 through May 21, 2017. Persons and vessels desiring to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area may contact the Captain of the Port Charleston (COTP) by telephone at (843) 740-7050, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16, to request authorization. If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area is granted, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the COTP or a designated representative. The Coast Guard will provide notice of the safety zone by Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners, and on-scene designated representatives.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive Orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive Orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) and 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (Reducing Regulation and Controlling
OMB has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, OMB has not reviewed it. As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771. See the OMB Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
The economic impact of this rule is not significant for the following reasons: (1) Although persons and vessels may not enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the safety zone without authorization from the COTP or a designated representative, they may operate in the surrounding area during the enforcement period; (2) persons and vessels will still be able to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area if authorized by the COTP; and (3) the Coast Guard will provide advance notification of the safety zone to the local maritime community by Local Notice to Mariners and Broadcast Notice to Mariners.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard received no comments from the Small Business Administration on this rulemaking. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a temporary safety zone issued in conjunction with a regatta or marine parade that will prohibit persons and vessels from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within a limited area on the waters of the Cooper River in Charleston, SC. This rule is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. A Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Persons and vessels desiring to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area may contact the COTP by telephone at (843) 740-7050, or a designated representative via VHF radio on channel 16, to request authorization. If authorization to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain within the regulated area is granted, all persons and vessels receiving such authorization must comply with the instructions of the COTP or a designated representative.
(3) The Coast Guard will provide notice of the regulated area by Marine Safety Information Bulletins, Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast Notice to Mariners, and on-scene designated representatives.
(d)
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, Department of Education.
Announcement of final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria.
The Assistant Secretary for Elementary and Secondary Education (Assistant Secretary) announces priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria under the SRCL program. These priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria replace the priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria in the SRCL notice inviting applications for new awards for Fiscal Year (FY) 2011, published in the
These priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria are effective July 17, 2017.
Cindy Savage, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3E237, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 453-5998 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
In this document, we announce three priorities. The first priority focuses on how SEAs will ensure that (a) the comprehensive literacy instruction programs funded under this grant are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence and (b) local literacy plans are aligned with the State comprehensive literacy plan. Under the second priority, SEAs must describe a high-quality plan to ensure that local projects serve the greatest numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children. The third priority encourages SEAs to prioritize local literacy plans that align pre-literacy strategies for children aged birth through five with pre-literacy and literacy strategies for students from kindergarten through grade five.
We also announce requirements to ensure that State literacy teams assess the State comprehensive literacy plans on a regular basis and that these plans include continuous improvement activities. In addition, we announce 13 definitions that clarify terms used in the SRCL program.
Finally, we announce selection criteria intended to help identify high-quality applications. These selection criteria will assist the Department in determining the extent to which eligible SEAs submitting applications under the SRCL program will: (1) Provide support and technical assistance, based on an assessment of local needs, to SRCL subgrantees to ensure improvement in the literacy and pre-literacy achievement of children from birth to grade 12 and ensure effectiveness in addressing the needs of disadvantaged children; (2) establish an independent peer review process for awarding subgrants to prioritize awards to eligible subgrantees that propose a high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction program and are supported by moderate or strong evidence; (3) monitor subgrantees' implementation of interventions and practices to ensure fidelity to the local plan, as well as alignment between the SEA's State comprehensive literacy plan and
We published a notice of proposed priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria (NPP) for this program in the
There are differences between the NPP and this notice of final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria (NFP) as discussed under
We group major issues according to subject matter. Generally, we do not address technical and other minor changes, or suggested changes the law does not authorize us to make under the applicable statutory authority.
As to the comment that States be allowed to update existing literacy plans, we recognize that most SEAs will have already developed and implemented comprehensive literacy plans. Indeed, the FY 2010 Striving Readers formula grant program required SEAs to establish or support a State Literacy Team with expertise in literacy development and education for children from birth through grade 12 to assist the State in developing a comprehensive literacy plan. While nothing in the proposed requirement would have precluded an eligible SEA from modifying its existing comprehensive literacy plan, we believe it is helpful to clarify that SEAs may revise an existing plan in order to meet the requirement. Similarly, we recognize the need for State comprehensive literacy plans to be informed by a recent comprehensive needs assessment. We believe that a comprehensive needs assessment conducted within the past five years would be considered sufficently recent.
At the time of the publication of the NPP, only a few months following the enactment of the ESSA, we did not believe that the Department would be ready to begin aligning programs with the ESSA definition of
At the same time, however, we want the SRCL program to maintain a focus on literacy activities supported by the highest levels of evidence. In our review of existing research on literacy interventions for children from early childhood to grade 12, we determined that sufficient evidence exists at the moderate and strong levels to warrant an approach for this program that incorporates only the two highest levels of the ESSA definition of
Under this priority, a State educational agency (SEA) must ensure that evidence plays a central role in the SRCL subgrants. Specifically, in its high-quality plan, an SEA must assure that (1) it will use an independent peer review process to prioritize awards to eligible subgrantees that propose high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction programs that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence, where evidence is applicable and available, and (2) the comprehensive literacy instruction program proposed by eligible subgrantees will align with the State's comprehensive literacy plan as well as local needs.
Under this priority, an SEA must describe in its application a high-quality plan to award subgrants that will serve the greatest numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children, including children living in poverty, English learners, and children with disabilities.
Under this priority, an SEA must describe in its application a high-quality plan to align, through a progression of approaches appropriate for each age group, early language and literacy projects supported by this grant that serve children from birth to age five with programs and systems that serve students in kindergarten through grade five to improve school readiness and transitions for children across this continuum.
When inviting applications for a competition using one or more priorities, we designate the type of each priority as absolute, competitive preference, or invitational through a notice in the
The Assistant Secretary establishes the following requirements for the purposes of the SRCL program. We may apply one or more of these requirements in any year in which this program is in effect.
The Assistant Secretary establishes the following definitions for the purposes of the SRCL program. We may apply one or more of these definitions in any year in which this program is in effect.
(a) Includes developmentally appropriate, contextually explicit, and
(b) Includes age-appropriate, explicit, systematic, and intentional instruction in phonological awareness, phonic decoding, vocabulary, language structure, reading fluency, and reading comprehension;
(c) Includes age-appropriate, explicit instruction in writing, including opportunities for children to write with clear purposes, with critical reasoning appropriate to the topic and purpose, and with specific instruction and feedback from instructional staff;
(d) Makes available and uses diverse, high-quality print materials that reflect the reading and development levels, and interests, of children;
(e) Uses differentiated instructional approaches, including individual and small group instruction and discussion;
(f) Provides opportunities for children to use language with peers and adults in order to develop language skills, including developing vocabulary;
(g) Includes frequent practice of reading and writing strategies;
(h) Uses age-appropriate, valid, and reliable screening assessments, diagnostic assessments, formative assessment processes, and summative assessments to identify a child's learning needs, to inform instruction, and to monitor the child's progress and the effects of instruction;
(i) Uses strategies to enhance children's motivation to read and write and children's engagement in self-directed learning;
(j) Incorporates the principles of universal design for learning;
(k) Depends on teachers' collaboration in planning, instruction, and assessing a child's progress and on continuous professional learning; and
(l) Links literacy instruction to the State's challenging academic standards, including standards relating to the ability to navigate, understand, and write about complex subject matters in print and digital formats.
(a) Who is aged 3 through 21;
(b) Who is enrolled or preparing to enroll in an elementary school or secondary school;
(c)(i) Who was not born in the United States or whose native language is a language other than English;
(ii)(I) Who is a Native American or Alaska Native, or a native resident of the outlying areas; and
(II) Who comes from an environment where a language other than English has had a significant impact on the individual's level of English language proficiency; or
(iii) Who is migratory, whose native language is a language other than English, and who comes from an environment where a language other than English is dominant; and
(d) Whose difficulties in speaking, reading, writing, or understanding the English language may be sufficient to deny the individual—
(i) The ability to meet the challenging State academic standards;
(ii) The ability to successfully achieve in classrooms where the language of instruction is English; or
(iii) The opportunity to participate fully in society.
(a) Demonstrates a statistically significant effect on improving student outcomes or other relevant outcomes based on—
(i) Strong evidence from at least one-well designed and well-implemented experimental study;
(ii) moderate evidence from at least one well-designed and well-implemented quasi-experimental study; or
(iii) promising evidence from at least one well-designed and well-implemented correlational study with statistical controls for selection bias; or
(b)(i) demonstrates a rationale based on high-quality research findings or positive evaluation that such activity, strategy, or intervention is likely to improve student outcomes or other relevant outcomes; and
(ii) includes ongoing efforts to examine the effects of such activity, strategy or intervention.
(a) The key goals of the plan;
(b) The key activities to be undertaken and the rationale for how the activities support the key goals;
(c) A realistic timeline, including key milestones, for implementing each key activity;
(d) The party or parties responsible for implementing each activity and other key personnel assigned to each activity;
(e) A strong theory, including a rationale for the plan and a corresponding logic model as defined in 34 CFR 77.1;
(f) Performance measures at the State and local levels; and
(g) Appropriate financial resources to support successful implementation of the plan.
(a) Are an integral part of school and LEA strategies for providing educators (including teachers, principals, other school leaders, specialized instructional support personnel, paraprofessionals, and, as applicable, early childhood educators) with the knowledge and skills necessary to enable students to succeed in a well-rounded education and to meet the State's challenging academic standards;
(b) Are sustained (not stand-alone, one-day, or short term workshops), intensive, collaborative, job-embedded, data-driven, and classroom-focused; and
(c) May include activities that—
(1) Improve and increase teachers'—
(i) Knowledge of the academic subjects the teachers teach;
(ii) Understanding of how students learn; or
(iii) Ability to analyze student work and achievement from multiple sources, including how to adjust instructional strategies, assessments, and materials based on such analysis;
(2) Are an integral part of broad schoolwide and districtwide educational improvement plans;
(3) Allow personalized plans for each educator to address the educator's specific needs identified in observation or other feedback;
(4) Improve classroom management skills;
(5) Support the recruitment, hiring, and training of effective teachers, including teachers who became certified through State and local alternative routes to certification;
(6) Advance teacher understanding of—
(i) Effective instructional strategies that are evidence-based; or
(ii) Strategies for improving student academic achievement or substantially increasing the knowledge and teaching skills of teachers;
(7) Are aligned with, and directly related to, academic goals of the school or LEA;
(8) Are developed with extensive participation of teachers, principals, other school leaders, parents, representatives of Indian Tribes (as applicable), and administrators of schools to be served under this program;
(9) Are designed to give teachers of English learners, and other teachers and instructional staff, the knowledge and skills to provide instruction and appropriate language and academic support services to those children, including the appropriate use of curricula and assessments;
(10) To the extent appropriate, provide training for teachers, principals, and other school and community-based early childhood program leaders in the use of technology (including education about the harms of copyright piracy), so that technology and technology applications are effectively used in the classroom to improve teaching and learning in the curricula and academic subjects in which the teachers teach;
(11) As a whole, are regularly evaluated for their impact on teacher effectiveness and student academic achievement, with the findings of the evaluations used to improve the quality of professional development;
(12) Are designed to give teachers of children with disabilities or children with developmental delays, and other teachers and instructional staff, the knowledge and skills to provide instruction and academic support services to those children, including positive behavioral interventions and supports, multi-tier system of supports, and use of accommodations;
(13) Provide instruction in the use of data and assessments to inform classroom practice;
(14) Provide instruction in ways that teachers, principals, other school leaders, specialized instructional support personnel, and school administrators may work more effectively with parents and families;
(15) Involve the forming of partnerships with institutions of higher education, including, as applicable, Tribal Colleges and Universities as defined in section 316(b) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1059c(b)), to establish school-based teacher, principal, and other school leader training programs that provide prospective teachers, novice teachers, principals, and other school leaders with an opportunity to work under the guidance of experienced teachers, principals, other school leaders, and faculty of such institutions;
(16) Create programs to enable paraprofessionals (assisting teachers employed by an LEA receiving assistance under part A of title I) to obtain the education necessary for those paraprofessionals to become certified and licensed teachers;
(17) Provide follow-up training to teachers who have participated in activities described in this paragraph (c) that are designed to ensure that the knowledge and skills learned by the teachers are implemented in the classroom; or
(18) Where practicable, provide for school staff and other early childhood education program providers to address jointly the transition to elementary school, including issues related to school readiness.
(a) Implementing literacy development practices and instruction for children in the following age/grade levels: Birth through age five, kindergarten through grade 5, grades 6 through 8, and grades 9 through 12;
(b) Managing and implementing literacy programs that are supported by strong evidence or moderate evidence;
(c) Evaluating comprehensive literacy instruction programs;
(d) Planning for and implementing effective literacy interventions and practices, particularly for disadvantaged children, children living in poverty, struggling readers, English learners, and children with disabilities;
(e) Implementing assessments in the areas of phonological awareness, word recognition, phonics, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and writing; and
(f) Implementing professional development on literacy development and instruction.
A literacy team member may have expertise in more than one area. Team members may also include, but are not limited to: Library/media specialists; parents; literacy coaches; instructors of adult education; representatives of community-based organizations providing educational services to disadvantaged children and families; family literacy service providers; representatives from local or State school boards; and representatives from related child services agencies.
(a) Provides flexibility in the ways information is presented, in the ways students respond or demonstrate knowledge and skills, and in the ways students are engaged; and
(b) Reduces barriers in instruction, provides appropriate accommodations, supports, and challenges, and maintains high achievement expectations for all students, including students with disabilities and students who are limited English proficient.
The Assistant Secretary establishes the following selection criteria for evaluating an application under this program. We may apply one or more of these criteria in any year in which this program is in effect. In the NIA, the application package, or both, we will announce the maximum possible points assigned to each criterion.
(a)
To determine the quality of the applicant's State-level activities, the Secretary considers—
(1) The extent to which the SEA will support and provide technical assistance to its SRCL program subgrantees to ensure they implement a high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction program that will improve student achievement, including technical assistance on identifying and implementing with fidelity interventions and practices that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence and align with local needs; and
(2) The extent to which the SEA will collect data and other information to inform the continuous improvement, and evaluate the effectiveness and impact, of local projects.
(b)
To determine the quality of the applicant's SEA plan for subgrants, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA has a high-quality plan to use an independent peer review process to award subgrants that propose a high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction program, including—
(1) A plan to prioritize projects that will use interventions and practices that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence; and
(2) A process to determine—
(i) The alignment of the local project to the State's comprehensive literacy plan and the local literacy plan;
(ii) The relevance of cited studies to the project proposed and identified needs;
(iii) The extent to which the intervention or practice is supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence; and
(iv) The extent to which the interventions and practices are differentiated and are appropriate for children from birth through age five and children in kindergarten through grade 5.
(c)
To determine the quality of the applicant's SEA monitoring plan, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA describes a high-quality plan for monitoring local projects, including how it will ensure that—
(1) The interventions and practices that are part of the comprehensive literacy instruction program are aligned with the SEA's State comprehensive literacy plan;
(2) The interventions and practices that subgrantees implement are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence, to the extent appropriate and available;
(3) The interventions and practices are differentiated and are appropriate for children from birth through age five and children in kindergarten through grade 5; and
(4) The interventions and practices are implemented with fidelity and aligned with the SEA's State comprehensive literacy plan and the local literacy plan.
(d)
To determine the quality of the applicant's alignment of resources, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA will: (1) Target subgrants supporting projects that will improve instruction for the greatest numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children; and (2) award subgrants of sufficient size to fully and effectively implement the local plan while also ensuring that at least—
(a) 15 percent of the subgranted funds serve children from birth through age five;
(b) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in kindergarten through grade five; and
(c) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in middle and high school, through grade 12, including an equitable distribution of funds between middle and high schools.
This notice does not preclude us from proposing additional priorities, requirements, definitions, or selection criteria, subject to meeting applicable rulemaking requirements.
Under Executive Order 12866, the Secretary must determine whether this regulatory action is “significant” and, therefore, subject to the requirements of the Executive order and subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 defines a “significant regulatory action” as an action likely to result in a rule that may—
(1) Have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more, or adversely affect a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, or Tribal governments or communities in a material way (also referred to as an “economically significant” rule);
(2) Create serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency;
(3) Materially alter the budgetary impacts of entitlement grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or
(4) Raise novel legal or policy issues arising out of legal mandates, the President's priorities, or the principles stated in the Executive order.
This final regulatory action will have an annual effect on the economy of more than $100 million because the amount of government transfers through the SRCL program exceeds that amount. Therefore, this final regulatory action is “economically significant” and subject to review by OMB under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866. Notwithstanding this determination, we have assessed the potential costs and benefits, both quantitative and qualitative, of this regulatory action and have determined that the benefits justify the costs.
Under Executive Order 13771, for each new regulation that the Department proposes for notice and comment or otherwise promulgates that is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, it must identify two deregulatory actions. For FY 2017, any new incremental costs associated with a new regulation must be fully offset by the elimination of existing costs through deregulatory actions. Although this regulatory action is an economically significant regulatory action, the requirements of Executive Order 13771 do not apply because this regulatory action is a “transfer rule” not covered by the Executive order.
We have also reviewed this final regulatory action under Executive Order 13563, which supplements and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, Executive Order 13563 requires that an agency—
(1) Propose or adopt regulations only upon a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify);
(2) Tailor its regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives and taking into account—among other things and to the extent practicable—the costs of cumulative regulations;
(3) In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, select those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety,
(4) To the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than the behavior or manner of compliance a regulated entity must adopt; and
(5) Identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including economic incentives—such as user fees or marketable permits—to encourage the desired behavior, or provide information that enables the public to make choices.
Executive Order 13563 also requires an agency “to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible.” The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB has emphasized that these techniques may include “identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes.”
We are issuing these final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria only on a reasoned determination that their benefits justify their costs. In choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, we selected those approaches that maximize net benefits. Based on the analysis that follows, the Department believes that this regulatory action is consistent with the principles in Executive Order 13563.
We also have determined that this final regulatory action does not unduly interfere with State, local, and tribal governments in the exercise of their governmental functions.
In this regulatory impact analysis, we discuss the need for regulatory action, the potential costs and benefits, net budget impacts, assumptions, limitations, and data sources, as well as regulatory alternatives we considered.
These final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria are needed to implement the SRCL program award process in the manner that the Department believes will best enable the program to achieve its objectives of implementing effective literacy and pre-literacy interventions and practices, at the local level, for disadvantaged children.
The Department believes that the final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria will not impose significant costs on SEAs. Program participation is voluntary, and the costs imposed on applicants by the final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria are limited to paperwork burden related to preparing an application. The potential benefits of implementing the program using the final priorities, requirements, definitions, and selection criteria are designed to outweigh any costs incurred by applicants, and the costs of actually carrying out activities associated with the application may be paid for with program funds. For these reasons, the Department has determined that the costs of implementation will not be an undue burden for eligible applicants, including small entities.
As required by OMB Circular A-4 (available at
The SRCL program will provide approximately $357,200,000 in competitive grants to eligible SEAs.
This document provides early notification of our specific plans and actions for this program.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the information collection requirements associated with the Commission's
Changes to FCC Form 301, FCC Form 314, and FCC Form 315, published at 81 FR 76220-01, Nov. 1, 2016, are effective on May 16, 2017.
Cathy Williams by email at
This document announces that on January 11, 2017, OMB approved the information collection requirements, OMB Control Numbers 3060-0027 and 3060-0031, for the non-substantive changes to the forms associated with the Commission's
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that on January 11, 2017, OMB approved non-substantive changes to FCC Form 301, FCC Form 314, and FCC Form 315. In doing so, OMB approved non-substantive changes to the pre-approved information collection requirements of OMB Control Numbers 3060-0027 and 3060-0031. Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Numbers are 3060-0027 and 3060-0031.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, October 1, 1995, and 44 U.S.C. 3507.
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
FCC Form 315 and applicable exhibits/explanations are required to be filed when applying for transfer of control of an entity holding an AM, FM, LPFM or TV broadcast station construction permit or license. In addition, the applicant must notify the Commission when an approved transfer of control of a broadcast station construction permit or license has been consummated. Due to the similarities in the information collected by these two forms, OMB has assigned both forms OMB Control Number 3060-0031.
The revised information collection requirements associated with FCC Forms 314 and 315 contain non-substantive changes related to the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and
Final rule; inseason adjustments to biennial groundfish management measures.
This final rule announces inseason changes to management measures in the Pacific Coast groundfish fisheries. This action, which is authorized by the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (PCGFMP), is intended to allow fisheries to access more abundant groundfish stocks while protecting overfished and depleted stocks.
This final rule is effective May 12, 2017.
Gretchen Hanshew, phone: 206-526-6147, fax: 206-526-6736, or email:
This rule is accessible via the Internet at the Office of the Federal Register Web site at
The Council, in coordination with Pacific Coast Treaty Indian Tribes and the States of Washington, Oregon, and California, recommended changes to current groundfish management measures at its April 6-11, 2017 meeting. The Council recommended taking a portion of the Pacific ocean perch (POP) initially deducted from the ACL that would likely go unharvested in 2017 and making it available to the mothership (MS) and catcher/processor (C/P) sectors of the at-sea Pacific whiting fishery; 3.5 metric tons (mt) to each sector. The Council also recommended a modest increase in sablefish trip limits in the open access fishery for the area north of 36° N. lat. based on the best available fishery data.
As part of biennial harvest specifications and management measures, annual catch limits (ACLs) are set for non-whiting groundfish species, deductions are made “off-the-top” from the ACL for various sources of mortality (including non-groundfish fisheries that catch groundfish incidentally, also called incidental open access fisheries) and the remainder, the fishery harvest guideline, is allocated among the groundfish fisheries. Regulations at § 660.60(c)(3)(ii) allow NMFS to distribute these “off-the-top” deductions from the ACL to fisheries inseason under certain circumstances. Also, consistent with section 6.5.2 of the PCGFMP, NMFS has the authority to implement management measures to reduce bycatch of non-groundfish species and, under certain circumstances, the measures may be implemented inseason. However, under no circumstances may the intention of such management measures be simply to provide more fish to a different user group or to achieve other allocation objectives.
Pacific whiting fisheries encounter Klamath River Chinook salmon incidentally, particularly when fishing off the central and southern Oregon coast. At its March, 2017 meeting, the Council received the most recent projections of salmon stock status (Preseason Report I) and considered that Klamath River Chinook will not meet escapement goals for 2017 by a historically large margin. At its April meeting the Council recommended complete closure of commercial salmon fisheries off southern Oregon and northern California (approximately 44° N. lat. to 40°10′ N. lat.) and closure of recreational salmon fisheries in similar areas (approximately 42°45′ N. lat. to 40°10′ N. lat.) to protect Klamath River Chinook salmon.
Chinook salmon bycatch in the Pacific whiting fishery varies by latitude, with 81 percent of Chinook being taken when fishing between Cape Falcon (45°46′ N. lat.) and Cape Blanco (42°50′ N. lat.). This is a similar area in which Klamath River Chinook stocks are commonly encountered, where all commercial and recreational salmon fishing in 2017 is closed. At-sea processing of Pacific whiting is currently prohibited south of 42° N. lat. (the Oregon-California border) per regulations at § 660.131(e). Both the MS and C/P sectors expressed willingness to modify operations to avoid Chinook salmon bycatch, but acknowledged that difficulties were likely given their rockfish allocations and historically high Pacific whiting allocations. While moving harvesting operations north to Washington and northern Oregon would likely reduce impacts of the Pacific whiting fishery on Klamath River Chinook, bycatch of POP in the Pacific whiting fisheries has been highest when fishing off Washington.
At the April meeting, the MS sector requested an increase to their POP set-aside to accommodate northern movement of the fleet to reduce harvest of Klamath River Chinook and to prevent closure of the MS sector prior to harvesting their full allocation of Pacific whiting. At the start of 2017, the MS and C/P sectors of the Pacific whiting fishery were allocated 9.0 mt and 12.7 mt of POP, respectively, per regulations at § 660.55(c)(1)(i)(B). The limited availability of overfished species that can be taken as incidental catch in the Pacific whiting fisheries, particularly darkblotched rockfish and POP, led NMFS to implement sector-specific allocations for these species to the Pacific whiting fisheries. If the sector-specific allocation for a non-whiting species is reached, NMFS may close one or more of the at-sea sectors automatically, per regulations at § 660.60(d).
To accommodate movement of the at-sea fleets farther north, away from Klamath River Chinook and into waters with historically higher bycatch rates of POP, the Council considered moving POP quota that would otherwise go unharvested in the incidental open access fishery (primarily the pink shrimp fishery) to the MS and C/P sectors. The Council's intent is to maintain 2017 harvest opportunities for the MS and C/P sectors of the Pacific whiting fishery, while protecting Klamath River Chinook. At the start of 2017 a total of 49.4 mt of POP was deducted off-the-top from the ACL, including 10 mt to account for mortality in the incidental open access fishery.
The Council also considered best available information regarding mortality levels of POP in the incidental open access fishery to evaluate whether all 49.4 mt would be taken in 2017, and if any of those fish that would go unharvested and could be transferred to the MS and C/P sectors inseason to accommodate higher POP bycatch if the fleet moves north to avoid Chinook. Mortality of POP in the incidental open access fisheries in 2011-2013 was below 0.6 mt per year, with uncharacteristically high mortality in 2014 of 10 mt. However, mortality of rockfish in the pink shrimp trawl fishery reduced dramatically again in 2015, with an estimated POP mortality of 0.3 mt. Following a 2014 research study, it is likely that use of light emitting diode (LED) lights in the pink shrimp fishery has become widespread. When LED lights were affixed to the shrimp trawl gear, the 2014 study showed a drastic reduction in bycatch of rockfish, which is supported by 2015 total mortality estimates. Therefore, it is likely that mortality of POP in the incidental open access fishery will be less than 1 mt in 2017.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing a redistribution of 7 mt of POP, from the off-the-top deductions that were made at
This rule redistributes 7 mt of POP that is anticipated to go unharvested in the incidental open access fisheries through the end of 2017 to the MS and C/P sectors, implementing the Council's recommendation to increase the POP set-asides to 12.5 mt for the MS sector and 16.2 mt for the C/P sector, and providing the fleet added flexibility to fish in areas where Klamath River Chinook are less likely to be encountered while reducing the risk of closure of the MS and C/P sectors prior to full attainment of the Pacific whiting allocation if higher bycatch rates of POP occur as expected in 2017. Mortality of POP in the incidental open access fishery was lower than anticipated in 2015, and the projected mortality for 2017 indicates it will be within the remaining 3 mt off-the-top deduction after transferring the 7 mt to the MS and C/P sectors. Transfer of POP to the MS and C/P sectors, when combined with projected impacts from all other sources, is not expected to result in greater impacts to POP or other overfished species than originally projected through the end of the year.
To increase harvest opportunities for OA fixed gear sablefish DTL fisheries north of 36° N. lat., the Council considered increases to trip limits. The Council's Groundfish Management Team (GMT) made model-based landings projections for the OA fixed gear sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N. lat. for the remainder of the year. These projections were based on the most recent information available. The model predicted harvest of 80 percent (338 mt) of the OA harvest guideline (HG) (425 mt) under current trip limits. This indicated that projected catch in the OA fishery was lower than anticipated when the trip limits were initially established (98 percent (418 mt) of the OA HG). With the increase in trip limits, predicted harvest is 90 percent (382 mt) of the OA HG (425 mt). Projections for the limited entry fixed gear fishery north of 36° N. lat. and for fixed gear sablefish fisheries south of 36° N. lat. were similar to levels anticipated in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures, and no requests were made by industry for changes; therefore, and no inseason actions were considered. This increase in trip limits does not change projected impacts to co-occurring overfished species, as the projected impacts to those species assume that the entire sablefish ACL is harvested.
Therefore, the Council recommended and NMFS is implementing trip limit changes for the OA sablefish DTL fishery north of 36° N. lat. The trip limits for sablefish in the OA fishery north of 36° N. lat. are increased from “300 lb (136 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 900 lb (408 kg), not to exceed 1,800 lb (817 kg) per two months” to “300 lb (136 kg) per day, or one landing per week of up to 1,000 lb (454 kg), not to exceed 2,000 lb (907 kg) per two months” during period 3 through the end of the year.
This final rule makes routine inseason adjustments to groundfish fishery management measures, based on the best available information, consistent with the PCGFMP and its implementing regulations.
This action is taken under the authority of 50 CFR 660.60(c) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The aggregate data upon which these actions are based are available for public inspection at the Office of the Administrator, West Coast Region, NMFS, during business hours.
NMFS finds good cause to waive prior public notice and comment on the revisions to groundfish management measures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) because notice and comment would be impracticable and contrary to the public interest. Also, for the same reasons, NMFS finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), so that this final rule may become effective May 12, 2017. The adjustments to management measures in this document affect commercial fisheries in Washington, Oregon and California. No aspect of this action is controversial, and changes of this nature were anticipated in the biennial harvest specifications and management measures established for 2017-2018.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated below, NMFS finds good cause to waive prior notice and comment and to waive the delay in effectiveness.
At the April 2017 Council meeting, the Council recommended that the redistribution of POP to the MS and C/P sectors and be implemented as quickly as possible to facilitate fishing for Pacific whiting in northern waters to avoid bycatch of Klamath River Chinook salmon. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking before this action needs to be in effect. Affording the time necessary for prior notice and opportunity for public comment would postpone transfer of POP to the MS and C/P sectors until later in the season, or potentially eliminate the possibility of doing so during the 2017 calendar year entirely, and is therefore impractical. Failing to reapportion POP to the MS and C/P sectors in a timely manner could result in additional impacts to Klamath River Chinook salmon if catch of POP approaches the MS or C/P sectors POP allocations and the fleet moves south to prevent a closure prior to their Pacific whiting allocations being harvested. It could also disproportionally disadvantage vessels that fish early in the season because raising the allocation during the season only benefits vessels fishing after the reapportionment. The 2015 West Coast Groundfish Observer Program groundfish mortality report, released over winter, indicated that harvest of POP in the pink shrimp fishery was much lower in 2015 than in 2014 and supports anecdotal information that the impacts of this fishery on rockfish has decreased due to recent gear modifications. Therefore, new information and analyses available to the Council in April indicate that over 7 mt of POP will go unharvested in the incidental open access fishery and could be redistributed per regulations at § 660.60(c)(3)(ii).
It is in the public interest for the MS and C/P sector fishermen to have an opportunity to harvest their limits of Pacific whiting without interruption and without exceeding their POP bycatch limits because the Pacific whiting fishery contributes a large amount of revenue to the coastal communities of Washington and Oregon. This action facilitates fleet dynamics to avoid bycatch of Klamath River Chinook salmon, allows continued harvest of Pacific whiting, and allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available.
At the April 2017 Council meeting, the Council recommended an increase to OA sablefish trip limits be implemented as quickly as possible to allow harvest of sablefish to approach but not exceed the 2017 ACL. There was not sufficient time after that meeting to undergo proposed and final rulemaking
It is in the public interest for fishermen to have an opportunity to harvest the sablefish ACL north of 36° N. lat. because the sablefish fishery contributes revenue to the coastal communities of Washington, Oregon, and California. This action, if implemented quickly, is anticipated to allow catch of sablefish through the end of the year to approach but not exceed the ACL, and allows harvest as intended by the Council, consistent with the best scientific information available.
Fisheries, Fishing, Indian fisheries.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 660 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; opening.
NMFS is opening directed fishing for species that comprise the deep-water species fishery by vessels using trawl gear in the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to fully use the 2017 groundfish total allowable catch specified for the species comprising the deep-water species category in the GOA.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), May 15, 2017, through 1200 hours, A.l.t., July 1, 2017.
Comments must be received at the following address no later than 4:30 p.m., A.l.t., May 31, 2017.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by FDMS Docket Number NOAA-NMFS-2016-0127 by any of the following methods:
•
•
Obren Davis, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone
NMFS prohibited directed fishing for species that comprise the deep-water species fishery by vessels using trawl gear in the GOA, effective 1200 hours, A.l.t., April 13, 2017 (82 FR 18252; April 18, 2017) under § 679.21(d)(6)(i). That action was necessary because the second seasonal apportionment of the Pacific halibut bycatch allowance specified for the deep-water species fishery in the GOA was reached. The species and species groups that comprise the deep-water species fishery include sablefish, rockfish, deep-water flatfish, rex sole, and arrowtooth flounder.
Regulations at § 679.21(d)(4)(iii)(D) require NMFS to combine management of the available trawl halibut PSC limits in the second season (April 1 through July 1) deep-water and shallow-water species fishery categories for use in either fishery from May 15 through June 30 of each year. The combined second seasonal apportionment of Pacific halibut PSC is 810 metric tons (mt). This includes the deep-water and shallow water Pacific halibut PSC limits carried forward from the first seasonal apportionments (January 20 through April 1). The deep-water and shallow-water Pacific halibut PSC apportionments were established by the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish of the GOA (82 FR 12032; February 27, 2017).
As of May 11, 2017, NMFS has determined that there is approximately 337 mt of the trawl Pacific halibut PSC limit remaining in the deep-water fishery and shallow-water fishery seasonal apportionments. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.25(a)(1)(i), (a)(2)(i)(C), and (a)(2)(iii)(D), and to fully utilize the 2017 groundfish total allowable catch available in the deep-water species fishery category NMFS is terminating the previous closure and is reopening directed fishing for species comprising the deep-water fishery category in the GOA. The Administrator, Alaska Region (Regional Administrator) considered the following factors in reaching this decision: (1) The current harvest of Pacific halibut PSC in the deep-water species trawl fishery the of the GOA and, (2) the harvest capacity and stated intent on future harvesting patterns of vessels in participating in this fishery.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Acting Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the opening of directed fishing for species comprising the deep-water species fishery category in the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of May 11, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
Without this inseason adjustment, NMFS could not allow the trawl deep-water species fishery in the GOA to be harvested in an expedient manner and in accordance with the regulatory schedule. Under § 679.25(c)(2), interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this action to the above address until May 31, 2017.
This action is required by § 679.21 and § 679.25 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 767 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of cracking of the vertical stiffener in the nose wheel well. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of the nose wheel well bulkhead stiffener for any cracking, and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by June 30, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Wayne Lockett, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6447; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report of cracking of the vertical stiffener in the nose wheel well. The stiffener was made of 7075-T73511 material. This condition, if not corrected, could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane and possibly lead to cabin depressurization or a nose landing gear collapse.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017. The service information describes procedures for a detailed inspection and a medium frequency eddy current inspection of the nose wheel well bulkhead stiffener for any cracking, and corrective actions if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between This Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
The phrase “corrective actions” is used in this proposed AD. Corrective actions correct or address any condition found. Corrective actions in an AD could include, for example, repairs.
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 144 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do certain repairs that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this repair:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for other repairs specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by June 30, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 767-200, -300, -300F, and -400ER series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53; Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of cracking in the vertical stiffener at the nose wheel well. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct any cracking, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane and possibly lead to cabin depressurization or a nose landing gear collapse.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017; except as specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this AD: Do a detailed inspection and a medium frequency eddy current inspection of the nose wheel well bulkhead stiffener for any cracking, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017; except as specified in paragraph (h)(2) of this AD. Do all corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspections, thereafter, at the times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) If any cracking is found and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 767-53A0275, dated January 5, 2017, specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance): Before further flight repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Wayne Lockett, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM 120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6447; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2014-13-17, for all Airbus Model A300 series airplanes; Airbus Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, and F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes); and Airbus Model A310 series airplanes. AD 2014-13-17 currently requires repetitive functional tests of the circuit breakers for the fuel pump power supply, and replacement of certain circuit breakers. Since we issued AD 2014-13-17, we have determined that installation of a newly developed fuel pump standard will better address the unsafe condition. This proposed AD would require installation of fuel pumps having the new standard, which would terminate the repetitive functional tests. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by June 30, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On June 25, 2014, we issued AD 2014-13-17, Amendment 39-17893 (79 FR 41098, July 15, 2014) (“AD 2014-13-17”). AD 2014-13-17 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on all Airbus Model A300 series airplanes; Model A300-600 series airplanes; and Airbus Model A310 series airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2014-13-17, a new fuel pump standard was developed that has improved thermal protection. This improved thermal protection prevents a fuel pump from overheating, and possibly resulting in a fuel tank explosion and loss of the airplane. We have determined that installation of the fuel pump standard will better address the unsafe condition than the currently required repetitive functional tests.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0080, dated April 21, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A300 series airplanes; Model A300-600 series airplanes; and Airbus Model A310 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Two successive failures have been reported of a Right Hand # 1 inner tank fuel pump, Part Number (P/N) 2052Cxx series (where “xx” represents any numerical combination). These occurrences were solved by replacement of the pump, associated circuit breaker (CB) and the alternating current (AC) bus load relay.
Investigations determined that, in case of loss of one phase on the pump supply and the associated CB failing to trip, the fuel pump thermal fuses may not operate as quickly as expected.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to an overheat condition of the fuel pump in excess of 200°C, possibly resulting in a fuel tank explosion and loss of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Airbus issued Alert Operator Transmission (AOT) A28W002-13 providing instructions for functional tests of CBs.
As a temporary measure, EASA issued AD 2013-0163 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2014-13-17] to require repetitive functional tests of the affected fuel pump power supply CBs, and, depending on findings, replacement.
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, a new standard of fuel pump was developed, which improves the thermal protection, thereby preventing the potential unsafe condition and cancelling the need for repetitive functional tests of the affected CBs, as required by EASA AD 2013-0163. Airbus issued Service Bulletin (SB) A300-28-0093, SB A300-28-6111, SB A300-28-9025 and SB A310-28-2176 to provide instructions for this upgrade of the fuel pump for all positions on the aeroplane.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements EASA AD 2013-0163, which is superseded, and requires installation of the new standard fuel pump, which constitutes terminating action for the repetitive functional tests.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Airbus has issued the following service information, which describes procedures for installing new standard fuel pumps with improved thermal protection. These documents are distinct since they apply to different airplane models in different configurations.
• Service Bulletin A300-28-0093, dated December 15, 2015.
• Service Bulletin A300-28-6111, Revision 01, dated February 29, 2016.
• Service Bulletin A310-28-2176, dated December 15, 2015.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 128 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2014-13-17 and retained in this proposed AD take about 1 work-hour per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 2014-13-17 is $85 per product, per inspection cycle.
We also estimate that it would take up to 21 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts cost per product is not available. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be up to $228,480, or up to $1,785 per product.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by June 30, 2017.
This AD replaces AD 2014-13-17, Amendment 39-17893 (79 FR 41098, July 15, 2014) (“AD 2014-13-17”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Airbus Model A300 B2-1A, B2-1C, B2K-3C, B2-203, B4-2C, B4-103, and B4-203 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A300 B4-605R and B4-622R airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes.
(5) Airbus Model A300 F4-605R and F4-622R airplanes.
(6) Airbus Model A310-203, -204, -221, -222, -304, -322, -324, and -325 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by reports of failures of the right inner tank fuel pump. We are issuing this AD to prevent a fuel pump from overheating, which could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2014-13-17, with a new terminating action.
(1) Within 6 months or 500 flight hours after August 19, 2014 (the effective date of AD 2014-13-17), whichever occurs first: Do a functional test of the circuit breakers for the fuel pump power supply, as identified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i), (g)(1)(ii), and (g)(1)(iii) of this AD, as applicable, in accordance with Airbus Alert Operators Transmission A28W002-13, dated July 23, 2013. Repeat the functional test thereafter at intervals not to exceed 6 months or 500 flight hours, whichever occurs first, until the fuel pump installation required by paragraph (h) of this AD is accomplished.
(i) For Airbus Model A300 B2-1A, B2-1C, B2K-3C, and B2-203 airplanes: Inner and outer pump, No. 1 and No. 2, left-hand (LH) side and right-hand (RH) side.
(ii) For Airbus Model A300 B4-2C, B4-103, B4-203, B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes; and A310-203, -204, -221, and -222 airplanes:
(A) Inner and outer pump, No. 1 and No. 2, LH and RH; and
(B) Center pump, LH and RH.
(iii) For Airbus Model A300 B4-605R, B4-622R, F4-605R, F4-622R, and C4-605R Variant F airplanes; and Model A310-304, -322, -324, and -325 airplanes:
(A) Inner and outer pump, No. 1 and No. 2, LH and RH;
(B) Center pump, LH and RH; and
(C) Trim tank pump No. 1 and No. 2.
(2) If, during any functional test required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, any circuit breaker fails any functional test, or any circuit breaker is found to be stuck closed, before further flight, replace the affected circuit breaker with a serviceable part, in accordance with Airbus Alert Operators Transmission A28W002-13, dated July 23, 2013.
(3) The replacement of one or more circuit breakers as required by paragraph (g)(2) of this AD does not terminate the repetitive functional tests required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
Within 72 months after the effective date of this AD: Install a fuel pump having a new standard at each applicable location on the airplane, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraph (h)(1), (h)(2), or (h)(3) of this AD. Accomplishment of the installation of fuel pumps having the new standard terminates the requirement for the repetitive functional tests required by paragraph (g)(1) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-28-0093, dated December 15, 2015.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-28-6111, Revision 01, dated February 29, 2016.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-28-2176, dated December 15, 2015.
After the installation of any fuel pump having a new standard on an airplane, as required by paragraph (h) of this AD, no person may install any fuel pump having part number 2052Cxx (where “xx” represents any numerical combination) on that airplane.
This paragraph provides credit for the installation required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if the installation was done before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A300-28-6111, dated December 15, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2016-0080, dated April 21, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For more information about this AD, contact Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Coast Guard, DHS.
Change in comment period on notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard is adding an additional 90 days to the comment period on the notice of proposed rulemaking for “Anchorages; Captain of the Port Puget Sound Zone, WA” published in the
The comment period for the proposed rule published February 10, 2017 (82 FR 10313) has been changed. Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before August 9, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2016-0916 using the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
If you have questions about this proposed rulemaking, call or email Mr. Laird Hail, U.S. Coast Guard Sector Puget Sound; telephone 206-217-6051, email
The Coast Guard is adding an additional 90 days to the comment period on the notice of proposed rulemaking for “Anchorages; Captain of the Port Puget Sound Zone, WA” that we published in the
In the notice of proposed rulemaking, the Coast Guard proposes the creation of several new anchorages and holding areas as well as a non-anchorage area, the expansion of one existing general anchorage, and the establishment of new and clarification of existing regulations governing such anchorages and areas in the Puget Sound area. This action is necessary to provide enhanced safety for maritime traffic in the Puget Sound area.
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
The NPRM we are seeking comments on, and documents mentioned in the NPRM as being available in the docket—including all public comments, will be in our online docket at
This document is issued under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 553.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Coast Guard proposes to establish moving safety zones for certain waters within the Sector Key West Captain of the Port (COTP) Zone for five annually recurring marine events. This action is necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, participant vessels, and the general public on the navigable waters of the United States during these events. When these safety zones are activated and subject to enforcement, this rule would prohibit persons and vessels, other than those participating in the event, from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the regulated area unless authorized by the COTP Key West or a designated representative. We invite your comments on this proposed rule.
Comments and related material must be received by the Coast Guard on or before June 15, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2017-0159 using the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal at
If you have questions on this proposed rulemaking, call or email Lieutenant Scott Ledee, Waterways Management Division Chief, Sector Key West, FL, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone (305) 292-8768, e-mail
Swim events and marine events are held on an annual recurring basis on the navigable waters within the Sector Key West COTP Zone. In the past, the Coast Guard has established safety zones for these annual recurring events on a case by case basis to ensure the protection of the maritime public and event participants from the hazards associated with these events. This proposed rule will consistently apprise the public in a timely manner through permanent publication in Title 33 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The Table in this proposed rule lists each annual recurring event requiring a regulated area as administered by the Coast Guard.
By establishing a permanent regulation containing these annual recurring marine events, the Coast Guard would eliminate the need to establish temporary rules for events that occur on an annual basis.
The legal basis and authorities for this proposed rule is found in 33 U.S.C. 1231.
The Coast Guard proposes to add five new annually recurring marine events to 33 CFR 165.786, as listed in the attached Table to § 165.786 The Table provides the event name, the sponsor name, the location of the event, and the approximate date and time of each event. The specific times, dates, regulated areas and enforcement period for each event will be provided through Broadcast Notice to Mariners, a Notice of Enforcement published in the
The safety zones created by this proposed rule would cover all waters within 50 yards in front of the lead safety vessel preceding the first event participants, 50 yards behind the safety vessel trailing the last event participants, and at all times extend 100 yards on either side of the safety vessels.
This proposed rule would prevent vessels from transiting areas specifically designated as safety zones during the periods of enforcement to ensure the protection of the maritime public and event participants from the hazards associated with the listed annual recurring events. No vessel or person would be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP Key West or a designated representative.
The regulatory text we are proposing appears at the end of this document.
We developed this proposed rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and executive orders and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review) and 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. Executive Order 13771 (Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs) directs agencies to reduce regulation and control regulatory costs and provides that “for every one new regulation issued, at least two prior regulations be identified for elimination, and that the cost of planned regulations be prudently managed and controlled through a budgeting process.”
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has not designated this rule a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, OMB has not reviewed it. As this rule is not a significant regulatory action, this rule is exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 13771.
We expect the economic impact of this proposed rule to not be significant. Although this regulation may restrict access to small portions of the waterway within the Sector Key West COTP Zone, the effect of this regulation will be minimized for the following reasons: (1) The safety zones would only be enforced during limited time intervals during the swim and paddle events; (2) vessels may be authorized to enter the regulated areas with permission of the COTP Key West or a designated representative; and (3) advanced notification of closures will be made via Local Notice to Mariners, Broadcast to Mariners, and through a Notice of Enforcement published in the
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zones may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section IV.A above, this proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121),
This proposed rule would not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this proposed rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this proposed rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this proposed rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this proposed rule would not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this proposed rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have made a preliminary determination that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This proposed rule involves the establishment of safety zones. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. A Record of Environmental Consideration (REC) supporting this determination is available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
We view public participation as essential to effective rulemaking, and will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. Your comment can help shape the outcome of this rulemaking. If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this rulemaking, indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this NPRM as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
Harbors, Marine Safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and record keeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard proposes to amend 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(2) These regulations will be enforced for the duration of each event. Notifications of exacts dates and times of the enforcement period will be made to the local maritime community through the Local Notice to Mariners and Broadcast Notice to Mariners and through a Notice of Enforcement in the
(3) During periods of enforcement, upon being hailed by a Coast Guard vessel by siren, radio, flashing light or other means, the operator must proceed as directed.
(4) Vessel operators desiring to enter, transit through, anchor in, or remain
(b)
(c) The COTP Key West or designated representative may delay or terminate any event in this subpart at any time to ensure safety of life or property. Such action may be justified as a result of weather, traffic density, spectator operation, or participant behavior.
(d) The regulated area for all marine events listed in Table 1 of § 165.786 is that area of navigable waters within 50 yards in front of the lead safety vessel preceding the first event participants, 50 yards behind the safety vessel trailing the last event participants, and at all times extend 100 yards on either side of safety vessels.
Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of proposed rulemaking; extension of time for public comments.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) is extending the public comment period for the notice of proposed rulemaking that appeared in the
The comment period for the proposed rule published December 16, 2016 at 81 FR 91556 is extended until August 18, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and/or Regulatory Information Number (RIN) and title, by any of the following methods:
In response to requests from multiple parties, USACE is extending the time for public comments to August 18, 2017. The date listed in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Draft guidance; request for comment.
With this document, EPA is announcing the availability of and requesting public comment on the draft guidance document, entitled: “Guidance on EPA's Section 8(a) Information Gathering Rule on Nanomaterials in Commerce”. This guidance provides answers to questions the Agency has received from manufacturers (includes importers) and processors of certain chemical substances when they are manufactured or processed at the nanoscale as described in a final rule that appeared in the
Comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2010-0572, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture or process or intend to manufacture or process nanoscale forms (forms with particle sizes of 1-100 nm) of certain chemical substances as defined in TSCA section 3. You may also want to consult 40 CFR 704.3 and 704.5, and the January 2017 final rule, for further information on the applicability of the reporting requirements as well as exemptions to the rule. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document may apply to them:
• Chemical Manufacturing or Processing (NAICS codes 325).
• Synthetic Dye and Pigment Manufacturing (NAICS code 325130).
• Other Basic Inorganic Chemical Manufacturing (NAICS code 325180).
• Rolled Steel Shape Manufacturing (NAICS code 331221).
• Semiconductor and Related Device Manufacturing (NAICS code 334413).
• Carbon and Graphite Product Manufacturing (NAICS code 335991).
• Home Furnishing Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 423220).
• Roofing, Sliding, and Insulation Material Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 423330).
• Metal Service Centers and Other Metal Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 423510).
The nanoscale reporting rule that appeared in the
EPA is announcing the availability of and requesting public comment on the draft guidance document, entitled: “Guidance on EPA's Section 8(a) Information Gathering Rule on Nanomaterials in Commerce”. This draft guidance provides answers to questions the Agency has received from manufacturers (includes importers) and processors regarding the rule.
This draft guidance is being made available on the Agency's Web site at
EPA is accepting comments regarding the guidance, but is not accepting comments regarding the rule itself, which has already been finalized.
The final rule was issued under the authority in section 8(a) of the Toxic Substances Control Act as amended by the Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act (TSCA), 15 U.S.C. 2601
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15 U.S.C. 2601
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
Comments are due on or before June 15, 2017, and reply comments are due on or before July 17, 2017. Written comments on the Paperwork Reduction Act proposed information collection requirements must be submitted by the public, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and other interested parties on or before July 17, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by WC Docket No. 17-84, by any of the following methods:
For detailed instructions for submitting comments and additional information on the rulemaking process, see the
Wireline Competition Bureau, Competition Policy Division, Michele Berlove, at (202) 418-1477,
This is a summary of the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (
Pursuant to sections 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS).
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1. High-speed broadband is an increasingly important gateway to jobs, health care, education, information, and economic development. Access to high-speed broadband can create economic opportunity, enabling entrepreneurs to create businesses, immediately reach customers throughout the world, and revolutionize entire industries. Today, we propose and seek comment on a number of actions designed to accelerate the deployment of next-generation networks and services by removing barriers to infrastructure investment.
2. This
3. Pole attachments are a key input for many broadband deployment projects. Reforms which reduce pole attachment costs and speed access to utility poles would remove significant barriers to broadband infrastructure deployment and in turn increase broadband availability and competition in the provision of high-speed services.
4. The Communications Act of 1934, as amended (Act), grants the Commission authority to regulate attachments to utility-owned and -controlled poles, ducts, conduits, and rights-of-way (collectively, poles). Among other things, the Act authorizes the Commission to prescribe rules ensuring “just and reasonable” “rates, terms, and conditions” for pole attachments and “nondiscriminatory access” to poles, rules defining pole attachment rates for attachers that are cable television systems and telecommunications carriers, rules regarding the apportionment of make-ready costs between utilities and attachers, and rules requiring all local exchange carriers (LECs) to “afford access to the poles, ducts, conduits, and rights-of-way of such carrier to competing providers of telecommunications service . . . .” Section 224(a)(4) of the Act defines a pole attachment as any attachment by a cable television system or provider of telecommunications service to a pole, duct, conduit, or right-of-way owned or controlled by a utility. Accordingly, unless specified otherwise, we use the term “pole attachment” in this
5. We seek to exercise this authority to accelerate the deployment of next-generation infrastructure so that consumers in all regions of the Nation can enjoy the benefits of high-speed Internet access as well as additional competition.
6. We seek comment on proposals to streamline and accelerate the Commission-established timeline for processing pole attachment requests, which currently envisions up to a five-month process (assuming all contemplated deadlines are met). Several proposals to speed pole access allow telecommunications and cable providers seeking to add equipment to a utility pole (a “new attacher”) to adjust, on an expedited basis, the preexisting equipment of the utility and other providers already on that pole (“existing attachers”). We emphasize at the outset that we are seeking to develop an approach that balances the legitimate needs and interests of new attachers, existing attachers, utilities, and the public. In particular, we recognize that speeding access to poles could raise meaningful concerns about safety and protection of existing infrastructure. We intend to work toward an approach that facilitates new attachments without creating undue risk of harm. We intend for the proposals below to be a starting point that will stimulate refinements as we work toward potential adoption of a final pole attachment process.
7. We seek comment on potential reforms to the various steps of the Commission's current pole attachment timeline to facilitate timely access to poles. Access to poles, including the preparation of poles for new attachments, must be timely in order to constitute just and reasonable access under section 224 of the Act. The Commission's current four-stage timeline for wireline and wireless requests to access the “communications space” on utility poles, adopted in 2011, provides for periods that do not exceed: application review and engineering survey (45 days), cost estimate (14 days), attacher acceptance (14 days), and make-ready (60-75 days). It also allows timeline modifications for wireless attachments above the communications space and for large requests.
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9. In addition, we seek comment on retaining the existing Commission rule allowing utilities 15 extra days to consider pole attachment applications in the case of large orders (
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12. In addition, the Commission has adopted longer maximum periods for existing attachers and utilities to complete make-ready work in the case of large pole attachment orders (an additional 45 days) and in the case of wireless attachments above the communications space (a total of up to 90 days for such attachments or up to 135 days in the case of large wireless attachment orders). We seek comment on whether it is reasonable to retain these extended time periods for large pole attachment orders and for wireless attachments above the communications space. We seek comment on reasonable alternatives to these timelines, bearing in mind the safety concerns inherent in make-ready work above the communications space on a pole and the manpower concerns of existing attachers and utilities when having to perform make-ready on large numbers of poles in a condensed time period.
13. We seek comment generally on possible alternatives to the Commission's current pole attachment process that might speed access to poles. We also seek comment on potential remedies, penalties, and other ways to incent utilities, existing attachers, and new attachers to work together to speed the pole attachment timeline. If the Commission were to adopt any of the revisions proposed below or other revisions to our process, would section 224 of the Act support such an approach? What other statutory authority could the Commission rely on in adopting such changes? In considering the proposals below for alternatives to the pole attachment timeline, we seek comment on the need to balance the benefits of these alternatives against the safety and property concerns that are paramount to the pole attachment process. For example, we seek comment on the extent to which any of the proposals may violate the Fifth Amendment protections of utilities and existing attachers against the taking of their property without just compensation.
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15. We seek comment on balancing the benefits of allowing new attachers to use utility-approved contractors to perform make-ready work against any drawbacks of allowing contractors that may not be approved by existing attachers to move existing equipment on a pole. We urge commenters, whenever possible, to provide quantifiable data or evidence supporting their position. We note that AT&T, in its federal court challenge of Louisville, Kentucky's pole attachment ordinance, argued that utility-approved contractors “have on occasion moved AT&T's network facilities, with less-than-satisfactory results,” while Comcast argued in its federal court challenge to Nashville, Tennessee's pole attachment ordinance that third-party contractors “are significantly more likely to damage Comcast's equipment or interfere with its services.” We seek comment on other safety and property concerns that the Commission should account for in considering whether to allow an expanded role in the make-ready process for utility-approved contractors. We also seek comment on liability safe harbors that would protect the property and safety interests of existing attachers, utilities, and their customers when new attachers use utility-approved contractors to perform make-ready work on poles and existing equipment on the poles. For example, to ensure protections for existing attachers and utilities, would it be reasonable to impose on new attachers requirements such as surety bonds, indemnifications for outages and damages, and self-help remedies for utilities and existing attachers to fix problems caused by new attacher contractors? Are there other safeguards that we can adopt to protect existing attachers, utilities, and their customers in the event that the new attacher's contractors err in the performance of make-ready work?
16. For make-ready work that would be considered “routine” in the communications space of a pole, is it reasonable to allow a new attacher to use a utility-approved contractor to perform such work after notice has been sent to existing attachers? Would it be reasonable to allow new attachers to use utility-approved contractors to perform complex make-ready work as well? Also, because of the special skills required to work on wireless attachments above the communications space on a pole, we seek comment on whether utilities should be required to keep a separate list of contractors authorized to perform this specialized make-ready work. Currently, utilities are required to make available and keep up-to-date a reasonably sufficient list of contractors authorized to perform make-ready work in the communications space on a utility pole. Should utility-approved contractors that work for new attachers be allowed to perform make-ready work on wireless attachments above the communications space on a pole?
17. We also seek comment on the following proposals that address the safety and property concerns of existing attachers and utilities:
• Requiring all impacted attachers (new, existing, and utilities) to agree on a contractor or contractors that the new attacher could use to perform make-ready work; and/or
• requiring that existing attachers (or their contractors) be given the reasonable opportunity to observe the make-ready work being done on their existing equipment by the new attachers' contractors.
We seek comment on the benefits of these and other alternative proposals involving the use of utility-approved contractors to perform make-ready work.
18.
19. We also recognize that a number of carriers have raised concerns about allowing new attachers to conduct routine make-ready work on equipment belonging to existing attachers. As AT&T pointed out in its challenge to Louisville's pole attachment ordinance, the movement and rearrangement of communications facilities has public safety implications; we thus seek comment on AT&T's claim that the “service provider whose pre-existing facilities are at issue plainly is in the best position to determine whether required make-ready work could be service-affecting or threaten the reliability of its network.” Charter, in a separate challenge to Louisville's ordinance, argues that allowing competitors to perform make-ready work on its equipment could intentionally or unintentionally “damage or disrupt [Charter]'s ability to serve its customers, creating an inaccurate perception in the market about [Charter]'s service quality and harming its goodwill.” We seek comment on Charter's claim and whether make-ready procedures that exclude existing attachers could lead to consumer misunderstandings in the event of service disruptions that occur during make-ready work by other attachers. Should new attachers that perform make-ready work be required to indemnify, defend, and hold harmless existing attachers for damages or outages that occur as a result of make-ready work on their equipment?
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22. Under the Nashville OTMR ordinance, the pole attachment process works as follows: (1) A new attacher submits an attachment application to the utility and after approval of the application, the new attacher notifies the utility of the need for make-ready work; (2) the new attacher then contracts with a utility-approved contractor to perform all of the necessary make-ready work; (3) the new attacher gives 15 days' prior written notice to existing attachers before initiating make-ready work; (4) within 30 days after the completion of make-ready, the new attacher sends written notice of the make-ready work to existing attachers; (5) upon receipt of such notice, the existing attachers may conduct a field inspection of the make-ready work within 60 days; (6) if an existing attacher finds a problem with the make-ready work, then it may notify the new attacher in writing (within the 60-day inspection window) and elect to either fix the problem itself at the new attacher's expense or instruct the new attacher to fix the issue; and (7) if a new attachment involves “complex” make-ready work, then the new attacher must notify each existing attacher of the make-ready work at least 30 days before commencement of the work in order to allow the existing attachers the opportunity to rearrange their equipment to accommodate the new attacher—if such work is not performed by the existing attachers within 30 days, then the new attacher can perform the required make-ready work using utility-approved contractors. We seek detailed comment on the benefits and drawbacks of this approach. Are there steps in the Nashville pole attachment process where utilities, new attachers, and existing attachers could all benefit from streamlined access to poles, especially as compared to the current Commission pole attachment timeline? Rather than adopting a wholesale OTMR approach to the pole attachment process, are there individual OTMR elements that could form the basis of a more preferable timeline than what currently exists in the Commission's rules?
23. The Louisville OTMR ordinance differs from the one in Nashville in that it does not require new attachers to send pre-make-ready notices to existing attachers for routine requests, it shortens the timeline for the post-make-ready field inspection for routine make-ready work from 60 days to 14 days, it requires existing attachers to notify the new attacher of any problems (and the election of how to fix those problems) within 7 days after the field inspection, and it requires new attachers to correct any problems within 30 days of the notice. We seek comment on the alternatives advanced in the Louisville OTMR ordinance and whether the Commission should incorporate any or all of these concepts into a new pole attachment regime. Does the Louisville ordinance better balance the concerns of existing attachers and utilities than the Nashville approach?
24. In addition, CPS Energy, a utility based in San Antonio, Texas, has implemented an OTMR approach for access to its poles. Under the CPS Energy policy, the timeline for the pole attachment process is as follows: (1) 21 days for CPS Energy to review completed pole attachment applications (with a unilateral option for an additional 7 days), survey affected poles, and produce a make-ready cost estimate; (2) 21 days for the new attacher to approve the make-ready cost estimate and provide payment; (3) CPS Energy notice to existing attachers of impending make-ready work; (4) 60 days for CPS Energy to complete any required make-ready work in the electrical space, and 90 days for the new attacher to complete all other routine make-ready work at its expense using contractors approved by CPS Energy (with option to request additional 30 days); (5) new attachers must give 3 days' notice to existing attachers of impending make-ready work and must specify whether the work is complex, such that it “poses a risk of disconnection or interruption of service to a Critical Communications Facility” (any complex make-ready work must be completed by the new attacher within 30 days after notice is provided to affected existing attachers); (6) 15 days' notice from new attachers to affected existing attachers after completion of make-ready work; (7) 15 days for existing attachers to inspect make-ready work on their equipment; and (8) 15 days for new attachers to fix any problems after notice from existing attachers. We seek comment on this approach, which varies from the ordinances adopted in Nashville and Louisville, especially in terms of the timing of the various pole attachment stages and the ability of new attachers to perform complex make-ready work themselves. What are the benefits and drawbacks of the process adopted by CPS Energy? Is it significant that this process is a utility-adopted approach as opposed to a government-adopted approach? What can the Commission do to encourage other utilities to adopt pole attachment policies like the one instituted by CPS Energy?
25.
26. As another way to incent accelerated make-ready timelines, could there be a standard “bonus” payment or multiplier applied to the make-ready reimbursements sought by existing attachers from new attachers if the overall timelines are met? By basing such incentive payments on the overall timeline being achieved by existing attachers, does this create effective incentives for parties to collaborate and find opportunities for efficiency? For instance, might multiple existing attachers agree to use the same make-ready contractor so they all can reap the reward of the incentive payments? While such incentives could theoretically be arranged through private contracting, would using this as the default system benefit smaller, new attachers who may find complicated negotiations a challenge?
27. Making more information publicly available regarding the rates, location, and availability of poles also could lead to faster pole attachment timelines. We seek comment on the types of pole attachment data resources currently available. Are there ways the Commission could incentivize utilities to establish online databases, maps, or other public information sources regarding pole rates, locations, and availability? To what extent are utilities or other entities already aggregating pole information online, either for internal tracking purposes or externally for potential or existing attachers? What pole-related information other than rates, location, and availability could utilities make publicly available (
28. We seek comment on these proposals and any others (or combinations thereof) that could help speed the pole attachment process, yet still address the safety and property concerns of existing attachers and utilities. Might there be “hybrid” approaches that incent parties to expeditiously complete the make-ready process when private negotiations fail within a given time period? For instance, if utilities, existing attachers, and new attachers cannot agree on make-ready plans within 15 days, could the following arrangement be used: First, the new attacher would select a “default” contractor (approved by the utility); second, the existing attachers would be able to accept the default contractor or do the make-ready work themselves (and be reimbursed by the new attacher) within a specified timeframe with penalties for failure to meet the make-ready deadline? If having a single default contractor do all the work at once will speed deployment, are there ways within this framework to incent existing attachers to allow the new attacher to use the default contractor? For instance, might existing attachers choosing to do make-ready work themselves be limited in the amount they charge for the work? Could such a limit be set as a proportional split among existing attachers that is based on the total make-ready costs that the new attacher would have incurred under an OTMR approach? Would such incentives encourage existing attachers to choose the default contractor in situations where they have little concern about harm to their equipment but still allow them to do the work themselves when they have concerns?
29. We seek discussions of the relative merits and drawbacks of these pole attachment approaches or combinations thereof. For example, would an OTMR approach (or some variant thereof) benefit consumers through increased efficiencies that could lower the costs of deployment? Is there any evidence to show how much less pole attachment costs are if using an OTMR approach as compared with the Commission's current pole attachment timeline? How should we balance the benefits to society from greater speed of deployment and cost savings versus the need to ensure that safety and property concerns are not compromised?
30. We also recognize that some broadband providers encounter difficulties in accessing poles, ducts, conduits, and rights-of-way owned by entities that are not subject to section 224 of the Communications Act, such as municipalities, electric cooperatives, and railroads. ACA members also submit that there are instances where accessing infrastructure owned by municipalities, electric cooperatives, and railroads is cost prohibitive due to the pole attachment rates charged. We seek comment on actions that the Commission might be able to undertake to speed deployment of next generation networks by facilitating access to infrastructure owned by entities not subject to section 224. How can the Commission encourage or facilitate access to information about pole attachment rates and costs with respect to these entities, and what are the benefits and drawbacks of these potential steps? Would increased transparency regarding pole attachment rates and costs for Commission-regulated pole owners, discussed above, benefit potential attachers to non-Commission-regulated poles by providing data that would be useful in contractual negotiations? If so, would this facilitate broadband deployment?
31.
32. We seek comment on proposals to reduce make-ready costs and to make
33.
34. Further, we seek comment on whether and how schedules of common make-ready charges are made available, used, and implemented by both utilities and potential new attachers today. In the
35.
36. We also seek comment on other alternatives for reducing make-ready costs. For example, would it be reasonable to allow utilities to set a standard charge per pole that a new attacher may choose in lieu of a cost-allocated charge? Should the choice belong to the utility or the new attacher? Would a per-pole charge of, for example, $300, $400, or $500 permit utilities to recover their reasonable make-ready costs and provide new attachers with an affordable alternative to negotiating with the utility over the applicable costs to be included in make-ready charges? We seek comment on the viability of such an approach. We also ask whether it would be reasonable to require utilities to reimburse new attachers for make-ready costs for improvements that subsequently benefit the utility (
37. We also seek comment on whether the Commission's complaint process provides a sufficient mechanism by which to ensure that make-ready costs are just and reasonable. Commenters arguing that the Commission's complaint process is not a sufficient limitation on make-ready costs should propose specific alternatives to ensure the reasonableness of make-ready charges and explain why the benefits of such alternatives would outweigh the burdens of a new Commission-imposed mandate for make-ready charges. Are there state regulatory approaches or alternatives governing the reasonableness of make-ready charges that the Commission should consider implementing?
38.
39. We seek comment on whether amending section 1.1409(c) of our rules to exclude capital expenses already recovered via make-ready fees from “actual capital costs” is sufficient to ensure no double recovery occurs by utilities. We seek comment on whether any other changes to the Commission's rules are necessary and reasonable to provide certainty to attachers and utilities about the treatment of pole capital costs that already have been recovered via make-ready.
40.
41. We note that although the rate formula for operators “solely” providing cable service sets an upper bound explicitly tied to “actual capital costs,” the rate formula for telecommunications carriers is tied only to “costs.” The Commission has previously interpreted the term “cost” in the latter formula to exclude at least some capital costs. Should we revisit this interpretation and interpret the term “cost” in the telecommunications pole attachment formula to exclude all capital costs? Would doing so avoid the awkward interpretation contained in our present rules that defines the term “cost” in two separate different ways at the same time?
42. Similarly, we note that our more general authority over pole attachments only requires that rates be “just and reasonable.” We seek comment on the appropriate rate for commingled services, including when a cable operator or a telecommunications carrier offers information services as well as cable or telecommunications services over a single attachment. Should we set that rate for commingled services based on the upper bound of the cable rate formula, the telecommunications rate formula, or some third option? Should we exclude capital costs from the rate formula we use to determine the commingled services rate? The cable rate formula also sets a lower bound of “the additional costs of providing pole attachments.” How would that differ from any of the rates discussed heretofore? Should we set the commingled services rate equal to the lower bound of the cable rate formula?
43. We seek comment on what specific amendments we should consider to section 1.1409 of our rules to effectuate any changes.
44. In the
45. To end this controversy, we propose that the “just and reasonable rate” under section 224(b) for incumbent LEC attachers should presumptively be the same rate paid by other telecommunications attachers,
46. Given that the Commission based its decision in the
47.
48.
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50.
51.
52.
53. According to CenturyLink, the disparate treatment of incumbent LECs and competitive LECs in section 224(a) prevents incumbent LECs from gaining access to competitive LEC-controlled infrastructure and in doing so dampens the incentives for all local exchange carriers to build and deploy the infrastructure necessary for advanced services. The Commission initially examined this issue during its implementation of the 1996 Act in the
54.
55. Additionally, we seek comments and data that will help establish how often incumbent LECs request access to competitive LEC infrastructure. How often do incumbent LECs request access to infrastructure controlled by competitive LECs, how frequently are incumbent LECs denied access, and how much of an effect does this have on competition and broadband deployment? Would the frequency of incumbent LEC requests for access to competitive LEC poles change if we decide to change our interpretation, and how would that impact broadband deployment?
56. Section 251 of the Act imposes specific obligations on incumbent LECs to promote competition so as to allow industry to bring “increased innovation to American consumers.” To that end, section 251(c)(5) and the Commission's part 51 implementing rules require incumbent LECs to provide public notice of network changes, including copper retirement, that would affect a competing carrier's performance or ability to provide service. We propose revisions to our Part 51 network change disclosure rules to allow providers greater flexibility in the copper retirement process and to reduce associated regulatory burdens, to facilitate more rapid deployment of next-generation networks. We also seek comment on streamlining and/or eliminating provisions of the more generally applicable network change notification rules.
57. We seek comment on revisiting our copper retirement and notice of network change requirements to reduce regulatory barriers to the deployment of next-generation networks. First, we seek comment on eliminating some or all of the changes to the copper retirement process adopted by the Commission in the
58.
59. The
60. The
61. The
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63.
• Requiring an incumbent LEC to serve its notice only to telephone exchange service providers that directly interconnect with the incumbent LEC's network, as was the case under the predecessor rules, rather than “each entity within the affected service area that directly interconnects with the incumbent LEC's network.”
• Reducing the waiting period to 90 days from 180 days after the Commission releases its public notice before the incumbent LEC may implement the planned copper retirement.
• Providing greater flexibility regarding the time in which an incumbent LEC must file the requisite certification.
• Reducing the waiting period to 30 days where the copper facilities being retired are no longer being used to serve any customers in the affected service area.
Should we adopt different timing thresholds than those specified above, and if so, what thresholds and why would different thresholds be better? Should we reduce the waiting period to one month and remove the notification requirements in emergency situations? Should we modify the existing requirements for the content of the notice, and if so, how? Have competitive LECs availed themselves of the good faith communication requirement, and if so, has that requirement caused any difficulties? If we eliminate the good faith communication requirement, should we include an objection period, and what form should it take? Alternatively, should we retain the good faith communication requirement and not include an objection period?
64. If we modify section 51.332, we seek comment on eliminating the requirement that incumbent LECs provide direct notice of planned copper retirements to retail customers, both residential and non-residential. Specifically, we seek comment on eliminating sections 51.332(b)(3), (c)(2), (d)(6)-(8), and (e)(3)-(4). What would be the likely impact of eliminating such notice to consumers, including consumers who have disabilities and senior citizens? How do the benefits of notification compare with the costs in terms of slower transitions to next-generation networks? Are there alternative ways in which the Commission can streamline these retail customer notice rules to make the process more flexible and less burdensome on carriers retiring their copper, while still ensuring consumers are protected? Finally, how, if at all, should we modify the requirements for providing notice under current section 51.332(b)(4) to the states, Tribal entities, and the Secretary of Defense?
65.
66. Next, we seek comment on methods to reduce the burden of our network change notification processes generally. The Commission's network
67.
68. What are the potential advantages and disadvantages of eliminating or revising section 51.325(c)? When this rule was first adopted, the goal was to prevent “preferential disclosure to selected entities.” Are these concerns still warranted? We anticipate that providing incumbent LECs greater flexibility to disclose information and discuss contemplated changes before cementing definitive plans would benefit these carriers, interconnecting carriers, and any other interested entities to which disclosure may be useful by providing all such entities greater time to consider or respond to possible network changes. We seek comment on this expectation. To the extent that concerns about some entities receiving advanced notice remain warranted, do any of the specific revisions proposed above obviate such concerns, and if not, what approach can we adopt to address such concerns while still introducing additional flexibility?
69.
70. We seek comment on eliminating or modifying section 68.110(b) of our rules, which requires that “[i]f . . . changes [to a wireline telecommunications provider's communications facilities, equipment, operations or procedures] can be reasonably expected to render any customer's terminal equipment incompatible with the communications facilities of the provider of wireline telecommunications, or require modification or alteration of such terminal equipment, or otherwise materially affect its use or performance, the customer shall be given adequate notice in writing, to allow the customer an opportunity to maintain uninterrupted service.” We seek comment on the benefits and costs of the current rule and whether the benefits outweigh the costs. How is such notice under that rule provided today, and specifically, how would a carrier be able to know whether “any” terminal equipment would be affected? Do customers still rely on or benefit from the notice required by section 68.110(b)? To what extent do individuals with disabilities still rely on TTYs or other specialized devices or services in an analog environment? To what extent have individuals with disabilities adopted alternative means of communications, whether using telecommunications relay services, texting, videophones, or other online communications? To what extent have such individuals relied on terminal-equipment-incompatibility notices in the past, and are alternative means available that would be more effective at targeting affected individuals with disabilities? We seek comment on the benefits and costs of the current rule and whether the benefits outweigh the costs. Alternatively, should the rule be retained but certain types of changes categorically exempted? The Commission's current copper retirement rules require incumbent LECs to certify compliance with section 68.110(b). If we eliminate section 68.110(b), we propose eliminating this certification requirement, and we seek comment on this proposal.
71. Among other things, section 214(a) requires carriers to obtain authorization from the Commission before discontinuing, reducing, or impairing service to a community or part of a community. Note that for convenience, in certain circumstances this
72. We believe that modifying our discontinuance processing for legacy systems to reduce burdens and protect customers will facilitate carriers' ability to retire legacy network infrastructure and will accelerate the transition to next generation IP-based networks. We seek comment on this view.
73.
74. As a threshold matter, we seek comment on whether expediting the review and authorization of applications to grandfather low-speed services offers benefits to discontinuing carriers generally. Will grandfathering a particular service create greater regulatory parity for telecommunications carriers compared to other segments of the industry? What sort of costs does such a requirement impose on carriers and customers relative to the benefits it imparts? We believe that section 214 provides us ample authority to implement the streamlining measures we propose. We seek comment on this belief.
75. More specifically, we seek comment on the streamlined 10-day comment period we have proposed. Will this comment period allow adequate time for interested parties to review and consider discontinuance applications from carriers and to file comments on these applications, if necessary? Is there a different time period we should consider,
76.
77. Is there a different auto-grant period we should consider when reviewing applications to grandfather low-speed services, periods that are either shorter or longer than the 25-day interval we have proposed? Is there reason to maintain disparate auto-grant periods for dominant versus non-dominant carriers rather than subject both types of carriers to a uniform auto-grant period as we have proposed to do? Alternatively, what role should an objection from a potential customer or other interested party take in the application for grandfathering? Should such an objection result in an application being taken off of streamlined treatment?
78. In addition to potentially reducing the auto-grant period for applications seeking to grandfather low-speed services, we seek comment on whether to adopt an even more abbreviated auto-grant period for grandfathered discontinuance applications that receive no comments during the specified comment period. In conjunction with our efforts to expedite the automatic granting of these applications, we seek comment on whether we should establish a “shot-clock” applicable to the time period within which the Commission receives applications to grandfather low-speed legacy services and when the Commission releases the Public Notice seeking comment on such applications. Have carriers filing section 214 discontinuance applications experienced seemingly unreasonable delay between the time the Commission receives their applications and when they are placed on Public Notice?
79.
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81. If the Commission grants certain applications to grandfather low-speed services without a period of public comment, what criteria should applications satisfy in order to qualify for such a grant? For example, there may be cases in which the carrier has not sold the service to any new customer for a particular period of time and only a limited number of existing customers continue to take the service, and we seek comment on whether there is a particular period of time and/or number of customers that warrants automatic grant without a comment period. Should such grants be contingent on a baseline showing, attestation, or affirmative statement in a carrier's application that there are reasonable alternatives to the service that is to be grandfathered? If so, what type of
82.
83. NTIA suggests that the Commission must ensure that carriers provide information to federal agencies, including the direction and pace of any network changes, so that agencies are able to plan and fund the service, equipment, and systems upgrades needed to maintain critical operations without interruption. NTIA asks that the Commission require carriers to state in their section 214 discontinuance applications: (1) whether and to what extent they have discussed the proposed network or service change with affected federal customers; and (2) what actions they have taken or what plans, if any, they have made to ensure the continuity of mission-critical agency communications networks, systems, and services.
84. We seek comment on this proposal both in general and in the context of our section 214 proposals herein. How would such requirements benefit federal customers, and would such requirements benefit others in the communications ecosystem? How could we measure compliance with any such requirements? Would such requirements prove unduly burdensome on carriers relative to any potential benefit for government users? We seek comment on whether the service agreements or contracts into which carriers enter with government entities could sufficiently include provisions that address the types of concerns NTIA raises generally. With respect to grandfathering, would prong (1) of NTIA's proposed certification have any relevance since it is addressed to present customers, and how could carriers undertake the consultation described in prong (2)? Are there specific concerns applicable to Tribal, state, or local government customers? If so, would the NTIA proposal address them? If not, what additional or alternative steps would?
85. We propose to streamline the discontinuance process for any application seeking authorization to discontinue legacy data services that have previously been grandfathered for a period of no less than 180 days. We propose to adopt a streamlined uniform comment period of 10 days and an auto-grant period of 31 days for both dominant and non-dominant carriers. We seek comment on these proposals and on other potential alternatives. We believe that section 214 provides us ample authority to streamline the process for reviewing and granting applications to discontinue legacy data services that have previously been grandfathered for a period of at least 180 days. Do commenters agree with this conclusion? Why or why not?
86. Should this proposed streamlined process be restricted to only previously grandfathered legacy data services below a certain speed? Should dominant and non-dominant carriers continue to be subject to different comment and auto-grant timeframes for discontinuing legacy data services that have previously been grandfathered, as is currently the case? If so, what should these timeframes be? We encourage commenters to advance specific alternative proposals they believe would better address the Commission's objective to accelerate the deployment of next-generation networks by eliminating unnecessary delays in the discontinuance process. To that end, are there other steps we could take, beyond condensing the comment and auto-grant periods, which would help streamline the review and authorization of applications to discontinue legacy data services that have previously been grandfathered? Please explain.
87. We propose to require carriers seeking this streamlined discontinuance processing for legacy data services to make a showing that they received Commission authority to grandfather such services at least 180 days previously. Is the 180-day grandfathering requirement too restrictive? Should we consider a shorter grandfathering timeframe? Should we require any additional showings to qualify for this streamlined treatment? For example, should we
88. We also propose to require only a statement from the discontinuing carrier demonstrating that it received Commission authority to grandfather the services at issue at least 180 days previously. Is a statement sufficient, or should some other showing be required? If commenters believe we should require more than a statement, what type of showing should a carrier be obligated to make? If we adopt a requirement that carriers must demonstrate the availability of one or more alternative comparable data services from the discontinuing provider or a third party, would a statement identifying such alternative services be sufficient to satisfy this requirement? For carriers seeking to rely on a third-party service, what type of showing would be necessary to demonstrate the existence of alternative data services? Would such a statement suffice for this purpose?
89. Finally, we seek comment on whether special consideration should be given to applications seeking to discontinue previously grandfathered legacy data services to federal, state, local, and Tribal government users for the same reasons we address this question in considering streamlining grandfathered and legacy voice service discontinuance applications. Should providers be required to make some additional showing beyond what we have proposed when seeking to discontinue previously grandfathered legacy data services to government users? If so, with what additional conditions should they be required to comply and why?
90. We seek comment on reversing the Commission's 2015 “clarification” of section 214(a) that substantially expanded the scope of end users that a carrier must consider in determining whether it is required to obtain section 214 discontinuance authority. In the
91. We seek comment on the practical effect of the 2015 interpretation. What benefits flow to the retail end-user customers of the carrier's wholesale carrier customers as a result of that interpretation? Does it make sense to take away those benefits? Does it make sense to maintain a regulatory obligation that requires a carrier, most often an incumbent LEC, to obtain information about third parties,
92. We also seek comment on how carrier-customers' discontinuance obligations should inform our interpretation. What weight should we give to the fact that a carrier-customer is itself obligated to file a discontinuance application under section 214(a) of the Act and section 63.71 of the Commission's rules if it discontinues, reduces, or impairs service as a result of the loss of a wholesale input from an upstream carrier? Can we find that the objectives of section 214(a) are met because the carrier-customer itself is subject to section 214(a)'s requirement to obtain Commission approval if a change in the inputs relied on by the carrier-customer results in a discontinuance, reduction, or impairment of services to the carrier-customer's retail end users? Or, are there situations in which end-user customers would be inadequately protected by such an interpretation? Do the contractual and business relationships between upstream carriers and their carrier-customers provide additional safeguards to retail end users?
93. We also seek comment on the relationship between sections 214(a) and 251(c)(5) of the Act. When section 214(a) was enacted during World War II, “one of Congress's main concerns was that [domestic telegraph] mergers might result in a loss or impairment of service during this war time period.” By contrast, 53 years later, Congress revised the Act “to promote competition and reduce regulation . . . and encourage the rapid deployment of new telecommunications technologies.” Congress enacted section 251(c)(5) of the Act to require incumbent LECs to “provide reasonable public notice of changes in the information necessary for the transmission and routing of services using that local exchange carrier's facilities or networks, as well as of any other changes that would affect the interoperability of those facilities and networks.” The Commission's regulations implementing section 251(c)(5), require, among other things, that an incumbent LEC “must provide public notice regarding any network change that [w]ill affect a competing service provider's performance or ability to provide service.” In enacting section 251(c)(5), did Congress signal its intent that incumbent LECs need only provide notice, not obtain approval, when making changes to wholesale inputs relied upon by competing carriers? At the time of the 1996 Act, the Commission interpreted its section 214(a) discontinuance authority not to apply to wholesale customers. Did that interpretation have any bearing on Congress's intent when enacting section 251(c)(5)? How should we reconcile the Congressional mandates in sections 214(a) and 251(c)(5) of the Act to best eliminate regulatory barriers to the deployment of next-generation networks and services, avoid unnecessary capital expenditure on legacy services, and protect consumers and the public interest? Alternatively, was the Commission's statutory interpretation in the
94. Finally, we seek comment on whether the Commission correctly interpreted the precedent upon which it relied to support its expansive 2015 clarification. Prior to the
95.
96. We also seek comment on the best approach for granting streamlined treatment to these types of discontinuances. In circumstances where a discontinuing carrier's service overlaps with an alternative fiber, IP-based, or wireless service, should we require a section 214 discontinuance application? If not, should we either grant limited blanket discontinuance authority or forbear on a limited basis from section 214? If we require an application, would a grant of the section 214 application upon acceptance for filing be appropriate or would allowing for public notice and comment be necessary to satisfy the requirements of section 214(a)? If we maintain a comment period, should we reduce the comment and automatic grant timeframe? As another alternative, should we instead require carriers to file only a notice of discontinuance accompanied by proof that fiber, IP-based, or wireless alternatives are available to the affected community, in lieu of a full application for approval? If so, what proof would suffice, and how should the Commission review that filing?
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100. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Commission has prepared this present Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities by the policies and rules proposed in this
101. The
102. First, the
103. Second, the
104. Third, the
105. Fifth, the
106. The proposed action is authorized under sections 1, 2, 4(i), 214, 224, 251, and 253 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended; 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 214, 224, 251, 253.
107. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules and by the rule revisions on which the
108. The majority of our proposals and the changes on which we seek comment in the
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113. Competitive Local Exchange Carriers (competitive LECs), Competitive Access Providers (CAPs), Shared-Tenant Service Providers, and Other Local Service Providers. Neither the Commission nor the SBA has developed a small business size standard specifically for these service providers. The appropriate NAICS Code category is Wired Telecommunications Carriers, as defined in paragraph 12 of this IRFA. Under that size standard, such a business is small if it has 1,500 or fewer employees. U.S. Census data for 2012 indicate that 3,117 firms operated during that year. Of that number, 3,083 operated with fewer than 1,000 employees. Based on this data, the Commission concludes that the majority of Competitive LECs, CAPs, Shared-Tenant Service Providers, and Other Local Service Providers are small entities. According to Commission data, 1,442 carriers reported that they were engaged in the provision of either competitive local exchange services or competitive access provider services. Of these 1,442 carriers, an estimated 1,256 have 1,500 or fewer employees. In addition, 17 carriers have reported that they are Shared-Tenant Service Providers, and all 17 are estimated to have 1,500 or fewer employees. In addition, 72 carriers have reported that they are Other Local Service Providers. Of this total, 70 have 1,500 or fewer employees. Consequently, the Commission estimates that most providers of competitive local exchange service, competitive access providers, Shared-Tenant Service Providers, and Other Local Service Providers are small entities that may be affected by the adopted rules.
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125. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
126. The Commission proposes to adopt specific changes to its pole attachment timeline that would provide a predictable, timely process for parties to obtain pole attachments, while maintaining the interests of utilities and existing attachers in preserving safety, reliability, and sound engineering. In consideration of the new timeline, the Commission seeks comments on alternatives that might help smaller utilities and attachers: (1) Whether it would be reasonable to cap at 45 days a utility's review of a large number of pole attachment applications; (2) whether it is reasonable to combine the survey, estimate, and acceptance stages of the current Commission pole attachment timeline into one step with a condensed timeframe; and (3) whether 30 days is long enough for existing attachers to complete routine make-ready work. The Commission also seeks alternatives to its current make-ready process in the areas of: (1) The expanded use of utility-approved contractors to perform make-ready work; (2) allowing existing attachers to observe the make-ready work being performed by new attachers and their contractors; (3) requiring utilities and attachers to agree on the specific contractors to perform make-ready work on their equipment; (4) allowing new attachers to perform routine make-ready work on all pole equipment without involving existing attachers; and (5) establishing pole attachment processes modeled after “one-touch, make-ready”, “right-touch, make-ready”, and other approaches. The Commission also seeks alternatives to its current complaint process as the best way to keep make-ready costs just and reasonable, asks whether a bonus payment or multiplier could be used to incent existing attachers to meet their make-ready timelines, asks about ways to incent private negotiations between new and existing attachers to govern the make-ready process (
127. The
128. The
129. The
130. The
131. The
132. The Commission believes that its proposals and potential rule changes upon which the
133. None.
134. The proceeding related to this
135. Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Commission has prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA) of the possible significant economic impact on small entities of the policies and actions considered in this
136. This document contains proposed new and modified information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, invites the general public and the Office of Management and Budget to comment on the information collection requirements contained in this document, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. In addition, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), we seek specific comment on how we might further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
137. Accordingly, it is ordered that, pursuant to the authority contained in sections 1-4, 201, 202, 214, 224, 251, 253 and 303(r) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151-154, 201, 202, 214, 224, 251, 253, 303(r), this
138. It is further ordered that the Commission's Consumer & Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center, shall send a copy of this
Practice and procedure.
Interconnection.
Extension of lines, new lines, and discontinuance, reduction, outage and impairment of service by common carriers; and Grants of recognized private operating agency status.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR parts 1, 51, and 63 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 79
(a) A utility shall provide a cable television system or any telecommunications carrier with nondiscriminatory access to any pole, duct, conduit, or right-of-way owned or controlled by it. A utility that is a local exchange carrier shall provide any incumbent local exchange carrier (as defined in 47 U.S.C. 251(h)) with nondiscriminatory access to any pole, duct, conduit, or right-of-way owned or controlled by it. Notwithstanding either of the foregoing obligations, a utility may deny a cable television system or any telecommunications carrier, and a utility that is a local exchange carrier may deny an incumbent local exchange carrier, access to its poles, ducts, conduits, or rights-of-way, on a non-discriminatory basis where there is insufficient capacity or for reasons of safety, reliability and generally applicable engineering purposes.
(b) Requests for access to a utility's poles, ducts, conduits, or rights-of-way by a telecommunications carrier or cable operator must be in writing. If access is not granted within 15 days of the request for access, the utility must confirm the denial in writing by the 15th day (or within the timelines set forth in section 1.1420(g)). The utility's denial of access shall be specific, shall include all relevant evidence and information supporting its denial, and shall explain how such evidence and information relate to a denial of access for reasons of lack of capacity, safety, reliability or engineering standards.
(k) The complaint shall include:
(1) A certification that the complainant has, in good faith, engaged or attempted to engage in executive-level discussions with the respondent to resolve the pole attachment dispute. Executive-level discussions are discussions among representatives of the parties who have sufficient authority to make binding decisions on behalf of the company they represent regarding the subject matter of the discussions. Such certification shall include a statement that, prior to the filing of the complaint, the complainant mailed a certified letter to the respondent outlining the allegations that form the basis of the complaint it anticipated filing with the Commission, inviting a response within a reasonable period of time, and offering to hold executive-level discussions regarding the dispute; and
(2) A certification that the complainant and respondent have, in good faith, engaged in discussions to resolve procedural issues and deadlines associated with the pole attachment complaint process. Such certification shall include a statement that the complainant has contacted the Commission to disclose the results of the pre-complaint discussions with respondent.
(3) A refusal by a respondent to engage in the discussions contemplated in this paragraph shall constitute an unreasonable practice under section 224 of the Act.
(c) The Commission shall determine whether the rate, term or condition complained of is just and reasonable. For the purposes of this paragraph, a rate is just and reasonable if it assures a utility the recovery of not less than the additional costs of providing pole attachments, nor more than an amount determined by multiplying the percentage of the total usable space, or the percentage of the total duct or conduit capacity, which is occupied by the pole attachment by the sum of the operating expenses and actual capital costs of the utility attributable to the entire pole, duct, conduit, or right-of-way. The Commission shall exclude from actual capital costs those reimbursements received by the utility from cable operators and telecommunications carriers for non-recurring costs as set forth in sections 1.1404(g)(1)(xiii) and 1.1404(h)(1)(ix).
(b) The cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier requesting attachment shall be responsible only for the actual costs of make-ready made necessary solely as a result of its new attachments.
(c) The costs of modifying a facility shall be borne by all attachers and utilities that obtain access to the facility as a result of the modification and by all attachers and utilities that directly benefit from the modification. Each party described in the preceding sentence shall share proportionately in the cost of the modification. An attacher or a utility with a preexisting attachment to the modified facility shall be deemed to directly benefit from a modification if, after receiving notification of such modification as provided in subpart J of this part, it adds to or modifies its attachment. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an attacher or utility with a preexisting attachment to a pole, conduit, duct or right-of-way shall not be required to bear any of the costs of rearranging or replacing its attachment if such rearrangement or replacement is necessitated solely as a result of an additional attachment or the modification of an existing attachment sought by another party. If an attacher or utility makes an attachment to the facility after the completion of the modification, such party shall share proportionately in the cost of the modification if such modification rendered possible the added attachment.
(d) If a utility performs make-ready, the utility shall make available to the cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier requesting attachment a schedule of its common make-ready charges that the new attacher may be charged.
(c)
(d)
(1) A utility may withdraw an outstanding estimate of charges to perform make-ready work beginning 7 days after the estimate is presented.
(2) A cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier may accept a valid estimate and make payment anytime after receipt of an estimate but before the estimate is withdrawn.
(e) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) Set a date for completion of make-ready that is no later than 30 days after notification is sent (or 75 days in the case of larger orders as described in paragraph (g) of this section).
(g) * * *
(3) A utility may add 30 days to the survey period described in paragraph (c) of this section to pole attachment orders larger than the lesser of (i) 3000 poles or (ii) 5 percent of the utility's poles in a state.
(4) A utility may add 45 days to the make-ready periods described in paragraph (e) of this section to larger orders up to the lesser of 3000 poles or 5 percent of the utility's poles in a state.
(a) A utility shall make available and keep up-to-date a reasonably sufficient list of contractors it authorizes to perform surveys and make-ready in the communications space on its utility poles. A utility shall separately identify on that list the contractors it authorizes to perform make-ready above the communications space on its utility poles.
(c) A cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier that hires a contractor for survey or make-ready work shall provide a utility and existing attachers with a reasonable opportunity for their representatives to accompany and consult with the authorized contractor and the cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier requesting attachment.
Complaints by an incumbent local exchange carrier (as defined in 47 U.S.C. 251(h)) or an association of incumbent local exchange carriers alleging that a rate, term, or condition for a pole attachment is not just and reasonable shall follow the same complaint procedures specified for other pole attachment complaints in this part, as relevant. In complaint proceedings, there will be a rebuttable presumption that an incumbent local exchange carrier (or an association of incumbent local exchange carriers) is similarly situated to an attacher that is a telecommunications carrier (as defined in 47 U.S.C. 251(a)(5)) or a cable television system for purposes of obtaining comparable rates, terms or conditions. In pole attachment rate complaint proceedings, it is presumed that incumbent local exchange carriers (or an association of incumbent local exchange carriers) may be charged no higher than the rate determined in accordance with section 1.1409(e)(2), unless a utility can rebut the presumption by demonstrating that this maximum rate presumption should not apply.
(a) Except in extraordinary circumstances, final action on a complaint where a cable television system operator or telecommunications carrier claims that it has been denied access to a pole, duct, conduit, or right-of-way owned or controlled by a utility should be expected no later than 180 days from the date the complaint is filed with the Commission.
(b) The Commission shall have the discretion to pause the 180-day review period in situations where actions outside the Commission's control are responsible for unreasonably delaying Commission review of an access complaint.
47 U.S.C. 151-55, 201-05, 207-09, 218, 220, 225-27, 251-54, 256, 271, 303(r), 332, 1302.
Sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), 10, 11, 201-205, 214, 218, 403 and 651 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), 160, 201-205, 214, 218, 403, and 571, unless otherwise noted.
(d)
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, if any carrier, dominant or non-dominant, seeks to either grandfather legacy service operating at speeds lower than 1.544 Mbps; or discontinue, reduce, or impair legacy data service that has been grandfathered for a period of no less than 180 days consistent with the criteria established in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, the notice shall state: The FCC will normally authorize this proposed discontinuance of service (or reduction or impairment) unless it is shown that customers would be unable to receive service or a reasonable substitute from another carrier or that the public convenience and necessity is otherwise adversely affected. If you wish to object, you should file your comments as soon as possible, but no later than 10 days after the Commission releases public notice of the proposed discontinuance. You may file your comments electronically through the FCC's Electronic Comment Filing System using the docket number established in the Commission's public notice for this proceeding, or you may address them to the Federal Communications Commission, Wireline Competition Bureau, Competition Policy Division, Washington, DC 20554, and include in your comments a reference to the § 63.71 Application of (carrier's name). Comments should include specific information about the impact of this proposed discontinuance (or reduction or impairment) upon you or your company, including any inability to acquire reasonable substitute service.
(8) For applications to discontinue, reduce, or impair a legacy data service that has been grandfathered for a period of no less than 180 days, in order to be eligible for automatic grant under paragraph (f) of this section, an applicant must include in its application a statement confirming that they received Commission authority to grandfather the service at issue at least 180 days prior to filing the current application.
(c) The carrier shall file with this Commission, on or after the date on which notice has been given to all affected customers, an application which shall contain the following:
(1) Caption—“Section 63.71 Application”;
(2) Information listed in § 63.71(a) (1) through (4) above;
(3) Information listed in § 63.71(a) (6) through (8) above, if applicable;
(4) Brief description of the dates and methods of notice to all affected customers;
(5) Whether the carrier is considered dominant or non-dominant with respect to the service to be discontinued, reduced or impaired; and
(6) Any other information the Commission may require.
(f) Notwithstanding paragraph (e) of this section, an application filed by any carrier seeking to grandfather legacy service operating at speeds lower than 1.544 Mbps for existing customers shall be automatically granted on the 25th day after its filing with the Commission without any Commission notification to the applicant unless the Commission has notified the applicant that the grant will not be automatically effective. For purposes of this section, an application will be deemed filed on the date the Commission releases public notice of the filing.
(g) An application seeking to:
(1) Discontinue, reduce, or impair a service for which the requesting carrier has had no customers or reasonable requests for service during the 60-day period immediately preceding the filing of the application; or
(2) Discontinue, reduce, or impair a legacy data service that has been grandfathered for no less than the 180-day period immediately preceding the filing of the application, shall be automatically granted on the 31st day after its filing with the Commission without any Commission notification to the applicant, unless the Commission has notified the applicant that the grant will not be automatically effective.
Rural Utilities Service, USDA.
Notice of Solicitation of Applications (NOSA).
The Rural Utilities Service (RUS), an agency of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), herein referred to as RUS or the Agency, announces its Distance Learning and Telemedicine (DLT) Grant Program application window for Fiscal Year (FY) 2017. This notice is being issued in order to allow potential applicants time to submit proposals and give the Agency time to process applications within the current fiscal year. RUS will publish on its Web site at
In addition to announcing the application window, RUS announces the minimum and maximum amounts for DLT grants applicable for the fiscal year. The DLT Grant Program regulation can be found at 7 part CFR 1703 (Subparts D through E).
Submit completed paper or electronic applications for grants according to the following deadlines:
•
•
• If the submission deadline falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the application is due the next business day.
Copies of the FY 2017 Application Guide and materials for the DLT Grant Program may be obtained through:
(1) The DLT Web site at
(2) The RUS Office of Loan Origination and Approval at 202-720-0800.
(1)
(2)
Shawn Arner, Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Loan Origination and Approval, Rural Utilities Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, telephone: (202) 720-0800, fax: 1-884-885-8179.
DLT grants are designed to provide access to education, training, and health care resources for rural Americans. The DLT Program is authorized by 7 U.S.C. 950aaa and provides financial assistance to encourage and improve telemedicine and distance learning services in rural areas through the use of telecommunications, computer networks, and related advanced technologies that students, teachers, medical professionals, and rural residents can use. The regulation for the DLT Program can be found at 7 CFR part 1703 (Subparts D through E).
The grants, which are awarded through a competitive process, may be used to fund telecommunications-enabled information, audio and video equipment, and related advanced technologies which extend educational and medical applications into rural areas. Grants are intended to benefit end users in rural areas, who are often not in the same location as the source of the educational or health care service. Of the funds made available, $1,600,000.00 will be prioritized to provide for communication upgrades between ambulances, emergency transportation vehicles and medical facilities.
As in years past, the FY 2017 DLT Grant Application Guide has been updated based on program experience. All applicants should carefully review and prepare their applications according to instructions in the FY 2017 Application Guide and sample materials. Expenses incurred in developing applications will be at the applicant's own risk.
Under 7 CFR 1703.124, the Administrator established a minimum grant amount of $50,000 and a maximum grant amount of $500,000 for FY 2017.
Award documents specify the term of each award, and the standard grant agreement is available at
1.
a. Only entities legally organized as one of the following are eligible for DLT Grant Program financial assistance:
i. An incorporated organization or a partnership;
ii. An Indian tribe or tribal organization, as defined in 25 U.S.C. 450b;
iii. A state or local unit of government;
iv. A consortium, as defined in 7 CFR 1703.102; or
v. Other legal entity, including a private corporation organized on a for-profit or not-for-profit basis.
b. Electric and telecommunications borrowers under the Rural Electrification Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 901
c. Corporations that have been convicted of a Federal felony within the past 24 months are not eligible. Any corporation that has been assessed to have any unpaid federal tax liability, for which all judicial and administrative remedies have been exhausted or have lapsed and is not being paid in a timely manner pursuant to an agreement with the authority responsible for collecting the tax liability, is not eligible for financial assistance.
d. Applicants must have an active registration at time of application submittal with current information in the System for Award Management (SAM) (previously the Central Contractor Registry (CCR)) at
2.
The DLT Program requires matching contributions for grants. See 7 CFR 1703.122, 1703.125(g), and the FY 2017 Application Guide for information on required matching contributions.
a. Grant applicants must demonstrate matching contributions, in cash or in kind (new, non-depreciated items), of at least fifteen (15) percent of the total amount of financial assistance requested. Matching contributions must be used for eligible purposes of DLT grant assistance (see 7 CFR 1703.121 and Section D(7)(b) of this Notice).
b. Greater amounts of eligible matching contributions may increase an applicant's score (see 7 CFR 1703.126(b)(4)).
c. Applications that do not provide sufficient documentation of the required fifteen percent match will be declared ineligible.
d. Discounts and Donations. In review of applications submitted in FY 2014 and FY 2015, it was determined that vendor donated matches did not have any value without a corresponding purchase of additional equipment proposed to be purchased with grant funds. For example, for many of the proposed grant applications, software licenses were donated in support of grant applications. Without a corresponding purchase of the same vendor's equipment, this donation would have no value towards the project. This is considered a vendor discount which has never been eligible under this program. As a result, such matches were determined to be ineligible, which in some cases disqualified applicants from further consideration. In kind matches from vendors are, therefore, no longer considered eligible. This is consistent with past practices prior to FY 2014.
e. Eligible Equipment and Facilities. See 7 CFR 1703.102 and the FY 2017 Application Guide for more information regarding eligible and ineligible items.
3.
a. Minimum Rurality Requirements. To meet the minimum rurality requirements, applicants must propose end user sites that accrue a total average score of at least twenty (20) points. To receive points, an end user site must not be located within the boundaries of any incorporated or unincorporated city, village, or borough having a population in excess of 20,000 inhabitants. For more information regarding rurality requirements and scoring, see 7 CFR 1703.126(b)(2) and the FY 2017 Application Guide.
i. Hub sites may be located in rural or non-rural areas, but end-user sites need to be located in rural areas. If a hub is utilized as an end user site, the hub will be considered and scored as such.
ii. If a grant application includes a site that is included in any other DLT grant application for FY 2017, or a site that has been included in any DLT grant funded in FY 2016 or FY2015, the application should contain a detailed explanation of the related applications or grants. The Agency may not approve grants that lack a clear explanation to justify a nonduplication finding.
b. Ineligibility of Projects in Coastal Barrier Resources Act Areas. Projects located in areas covered by the Coastal Barrier Resources Act (16 U.S.C. 3501
The FY 2017 Application Guide provides specific, detailed instructions for each item in a complete application. The Agency emphasizes the importance of including every required item and strongly encourages applicants to follow the instructions carefully, using the examples and illustrations in the FY 2017 Application Guide. Applications submitted by the application deadline, but missing critical items, will be returned as ineligible. The Agency will not solicit or consider scoring eligibility information that is submitted after the application deadline. However, depending on the specific scoring criteria, applications that do not include all items necessary for scoring may still be eligible applications, but may not receive full or any credit if the information cannot be verified. See the FY 2017 Application Guide for a full discussion of each required item. For requirements of completed grant applications, refer to 7 CFR 1703.125.
1.
a. Electronic Copies are available at
b. Paper Copies are available from the Rural Utilities Service, Office of Loan Origination and Approval, 202-720-0800.
2.
a. Carefully review the DLT Application Guide and the 7 CFR part 1703, which detail all necessary forms and worksheets. A table summarizing the necessary components of a complete application can be found in this section.
b. Description of Project Sites. Most DLT grant projects contain several project sites. Site information must be consistent throughout the application. The Agency has provided a site worksheet that lists the required information. Applicants should complete the site worksheet with all requisite information. Applications without consistent site information will be returned as ineligible.
c. Submission of Application Items. Given the high volume of program interest, applicants should submit the required application items in the order indicated in the FY 2017 Application Guide. Applications that are not
d. Table of Required Application Items.
e. Number of copies of submitted applications.
i. Applications submitted on paper. Submit the original application and one (1) paper copy to RUS, as well as one digital copy on a CD/DVD or Flash Drive. Additionally, submit one (1) additional copy to the state government single point of contact as described below.
ii. Applications submitted electronically. Submit the electronic application once. The additional paper copy is unnecessary to send. Applicants should identify and number each page in the same manner as the paper application. Additionally, submit one (1) additional copy to the state government single point of contact as described below.
iii. State Government Single Point of Contact. Submit one (1) copy to the state government single point of contact, if one has been designated, at the same time as application submission to the Agency. If the project is located in more than one State, submit a copy to each state government single point of contact.
3.
4.
5.
a. Paper applications must be postmarked and mailed, shipped, or sent overnight no later than July 17, 2017 to be eligible for FY 2017 grant funding. Late applications, applications which do not include proof of mailing or shipping, and incomplete applications are not eligible for FY 2017 grant funding. In the event of an incomplete application, the Agency will notify the applicant in writing, return the application, and terminate all further action.
i. Address paper applications to the Telecommunications Program, RUS, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Room 2844, STOP 1597, Washington, DC 20250-1597 Applications should be marked, “Attention: Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Loan Origination and Approval.”
ii. Paper applications must show proof of mailing or shipping by the deadline consisting of one of the following:
A. A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service (USPS) postmark;
B. A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the USPS; or
C. A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
iii. Due to screening procedures at the U.S. Department of Agriculture, packages arriving via regular mail through the USPS are irradiated, which can damage the contents and delay delivery to the DLT Program. RUS encourages applicants to consider the impact of this procedure in selecting their application delivery method.
b. Electronic grant applications must be received no later than July 17, 2017 to be eligible for FY 2017 funding. Late or incomplete applications will not be eligible for FY 2017 grant funding.
i. Applications will not be accepted via fax or electronic mail.
ii. Electronic applications for grants must be submitted through the Federal government's
iii.
iv. Applicants must obtain a Dun and Bradstreet Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number as well as have current registration with the System for Award Management (SAM). Further information on DUNS and SAM can be found in sections D(3) and D(4) of this notice as well as in the FY 2017 Application Guide.
v. If system errors or technical difficulties occur, use the customer support resources available at the
c. If the submission deadline falls on Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, the application is due the next business day.
6.
The DLT Grant Program is subject to Executive Order 12372, “Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs.” As stated in section D(2)(e)(iii) of this notice, a copy of a DLT grant application must be submitted to the state single point of contact, if one has been designated.
7.
a. Hub sites not located in rural areas are not eligible for grant assistance unless they are necessary to provide DLT services to end-users in rural areas. See 7 CFR 1703.101(h).
b. Table of Ineligible and Eligible Items. The following table includes a list of common items and whether each item is eligible for financial assistance. Applicants should exclude ineligible items and ineligible matching contributions from the budget unless those items are clearly documented as vital to the project. See the FY 2017 Application Guide for a recommended budget format and detailed budget compilation instructions.
1.
Grants applications are scored competitively and are subject to the criteria listed below (total possible points: 235). See 7 CFR 1703.126 and the FY 2017 Application Guide for more information on the scoring criteria.
a.
i. Economic characteristics.
ii. Educational challenges.
iii. Health care needs.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
2.
Grant applications are ranked by the final score. RUS selects applications based on those rankings, subject to the availability of funds. In addition, the Agency has the authority to limit the number of applications selected in any one state or for any one project during a fiscal year. See 7 CFR 1703.127 for a description of the grant application selection process. In addition, it should be noted that an application receiving fewer points can be selected over a higher scoring application in the event that there are insufficient funds available to cover the costs of the higher scoring application, as stated in 7 CFR 1703.172(b)(3).
a. In addition to the scoring criteria that rank applications against each other, the Agency evaluates grant applications on the following items, in accordance with 7 CFR 1703.127:
i. Financial feasibility. A proposal that does not indicate financial feasibility or that is not sustainable will not be approved for an award.
ii. Technical considerations. An application that contains flaws that would prevent the successful implementation, operation, or sustainability of the project will not be approved for an award.
iii. Other aspects of proposals that contain inadequacies that would undermine the ability of the project to comply with the policies of the DLT Program.
b.
i. American Samoa, Guam, Virgin Islands, and Northern Mariana Islands applications are exempt from the matching requirement for awards having a match amount of up to $200,000 (see 48 U.S.C. 1469a; 91 Stat. 1164).
ii. Tribal Jurisdiction or Trust Areas. RUS will offer special consideration to applications that contain at least one end-user site within a trust area or a tribal jurisdictional area. Such applications will be awarded 15 points. The application must include a map that shows the end-user site(s) located in the trust or tribal jurisdictional areas and cites the geographical coordinates and physical address(es) of the end-user site(s). The applicant will also need to submit evidence indicating that the area where the end-user site is located is a trust area or a tribal jurisdictional area. See the DLT Grant Program regulation as well as the FY 2017 Application Guide for a list of accepted documentation.
iii. “Promise Zone” Areas. RUS will offer special consideration to applications that contain at least one end-user site within a “Promise Zone” area. Such applications will be awarded 15 points. The application must include a map that shows the end-user site(s) located in the “Promise Zone” area and cites the geographical coordinates and physical address(es) of the end-user site(s). Current “Promise Zones” include the South Carolina Low Country, Choctaw Nation, Pine Ridge Indian Reservation, and the Kentucky Highlands. For further information, see the “Promise Zone” Web site at
iv. “Strike Force” Areas. RUS will offer special consideration to applications that contain at least one end-user site within a “Strike Force” area. Such applications will be awarded 15 points. The application must include a map that shows the end-user site(s) located in the “Strike Force” area and cites the geographical coordinates and physical address(es) of the end-user site(s). For further information, see the “Strike Force” Web site at
c.
1.
RUS notifies applicants whose projects are selected for awards by mailing or emailing a copy of an award letter. The receipt of an award letter does not authorize the applicant to commence performance under the award. After sending the award letter, the Agency will send an agreement that contains all the terms and conditions for the grant. A copy of the standard agreement is posted on the RUS Web site at
2.
The items listed in Section E of this notice, the DLT Grant Program regulation, FY 2017 Application Guide and accompanying materials implement the appropriate administrative and national policy requirements, which include but are not limited to:
a. Executing a Distance Learning and Telemedicine Grant Agreement.
b. Using Form SF 270, “Request for Advance or Reimbursement,” to request reimbursements (along with the submission of receipts for expenditures, timesheets, and any other documentation to support the request for reimbursement).
c. Providing annual project performance activity reports until the expiration of the award.
d. Ensuring that records are maintained to document all activities and expenditures utilizing DLT grant funds and matching funds (receipts for expenditures are to be included in this documentation).
e. Providing a final project performance report.
f. Complying with policies, guidance, and requirements as described in the following applicable Code of Federal Regulations, and any successor regulations:
i. 2 CFR parts 200 and 400 (Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards).
ii. 2 CFR parts 417 and 180 (Government-wide Nonprocurement Debarment and Suspension).
g. Signing Form AD-3031 (“Assurance Regarding Felony Conviction or Tax Delinquent Status for Corporate Applicants”) (for corporate applicants only).
h. Signing Form 266 Assurance Agreement. Each prospective recipient must sign Form RD 400-4, Assurance Agreement, which assures USDA that
i. Collect and maintain data provided by ultimate recipients on race, sex, and national origin and ensure Ultimate Recipients collect and maintain this data. Race and ethnicity data will be collected in accordance with OMB
j. The applicant and the ultimate recipient must comply with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, Age Discrimination Act of 1975, Executive Order 12250, Executive Order 13166 Limited English Proficiency (LEP), and 7 CFR part 1901, subpart E.
k. Complying with Executive Order 13166, “Improving Access to Services for Persons with Limited English Proficiency.” For information on limited English proficiency and agency-specific guidance, go to
3.
a. Performance reporting. All recipients of DLT financial assistance must provide annual performance activity reports to RUS until the project is complete and the funds are expended. A final performance report is also required; the final report may serve as the last annual report. The final report must include an evaluation of the success of the project in meeting the DLT Grant Program objectives. See 7 CFR 1703.107 for additional information on these reporting requirements.
b. Financial reporting. All recipients of DLT financial assistance must provide an annual audit, beginning with the first year in which a portion of the financial assistance is expended. Audits are governed by United States Department of Agriculture audit regulations. See 7 CFR 1703.108 and 2 CFR part 200 (Subpart F) for a description of the financial reporting requirements.
c. Recipient and Sub-recipient Reporting. The applicant must have the necessary processes and systems in place to comply with the reporting requirements for first-tier sub-awards and executive compensation under the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act of 2006 in the event the applicant receives funding unless such applicant is exempt from such reporting requirements pursuant to 2 CFR 170.110(b). The reporting requirements under the Transparency Act pursuant to 2 CFR part 170 are as follows:
i. First Tier Sub-Awards of $25,000 or more (unless they are exempt under 2 CFR part 170) must be reported by the Recipient to
ii. The Total Compensation of the Recipient's Executives (the five most highly compensated executives) must be reported by the Recipient (if the Recipient meets the criteria under 2 CFR part 170) to
iii. The Total Compensation of the Sub-recipient's Executives (the five most highly compensated executives) must be reported by the Sub-recipient (if the Sub-recipient meets the criteria under 2 CFR part 170) to the Recipient by the end of the month following the month in which the sub-award was made.
d. Record Keeping and Accounting. The contract will contain provisions related to record keeping and accounting requirements.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
In accordance with Federal civil rights law and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) civil rights regulations and policies, the USDA, its Agencies, offices, and employees, and institutions participating in or administering USDA programs are prohibited from discriminating based on race, color, national origin, religion, sex, gender identity (including gender expression), sexual orientation, disability, age, marital status, family/parental status, income derived from a public assistance program, political beliefs, or reprisal or retaliation for prior civil rights activity, in any program or activity conducted or funded by USDA (not all bases apply to all programs). Remedies and complaint filing deadlines vary by program or incident.
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication for program information (
To file a program discrimination complaint, complete the USDA Program Discrimination Complaint Form, AD-3027, found online at
(1)
(2)
(3)
USDA is an equal opportunity provider, employer, and lender.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Idaho State Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:30 p.m. (Mountain Time) Wednesday May 31, 2017, for the purpose of voting on a Committee report on school equity in the state.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday May 31, 2017, at 1:30 p.m. MST.
Public Call Information: Dial: 800-967-7137 Conference ID: 5356448.
Ana Victoria Fortes at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 800-967-7137, conference ID number: 5356448. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
Please click on the “Meeting Details” and “Documents” links. Records generated from this meeting may also be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's Web site,
Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce.
Notice of determination.
The Bureau of the Census (U.S. Census Bureau) has determined that it is conducting the following current mandatory business surveys in 2017: Annual Retail Trade Survey, Annual Wholesale Trade Survey, Service Annual Survey, Company Organization Survey, Annual Survey of Manufactures, Manufacturers' Unfilled Orders Survey, Annual Capital Expenditures Survey, Business R&D and Innovation Survey, Annual Survey of Entrepreneurs, and the Business & Professional Classification Report. We have determined that data collected from these surveys are needed to aid the efficient performance of essential governmental functions and have significant application to the needs of the public and industry. The data derived from these surveys, most of which have been conducted for many years, are not publicly available from nongovernmental or other governmental sources.
The Census Bureau will make available the reporting instructions to the organizations included in the surveys. Additional copies are available upon written request to the Director, U.S. Census Bureau, Washington, DC 20233-0101.
Nick Orsini, Assistant Director for Economic Programs, U.S. Census Bureau, 5H160, Washington, DC 20233, Telephone: 301-763-2558; Email:
The surveys described herein are authorized by title 13, United States Code, sections 131 and 182 and are necessary to furnish current data on the subjects covered by the major censuses. These surveys are made mandatory under the provisions of sections 224 and 225 of title 13, United States Code. These surveys will provide continuing and timely national statistical data for the period between economic censuses. The data collected in the surveys will be within the general scope and nature of those inquiries covered in the economic census. The next economic census will be conducted in 2018 for the reference year 2017.
The Annual Retail Trade Survey collects data on annual sales, sales tax, e-commerce sales, year-end inventories held inside and outside the United States, total operating expenses, purchases, and accounts receivable from a sample of employer firms with establishments classified in retail trade as defined by the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS). These data serve as a benchmark for the more frequent estimates compiled from the Monthly Retail Trade Survey. A new sample will be introduced for the collection of data covering the 2016 reference year.
The Annual Wholesale Trade Survey collects data on annual sales, e-commerce sales, year-end inventories held both inside and outside of the United States, method of inventory valuation, total operating expenses, purchases, gross selling value, and commissions from a sample of employer firms with establishments classified in wholesale trade as defined by the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS). These data serve as a benchmark for the more frequent estimates compiled from the Monthly Wholesale Trade Survey. A new sample will be introduced for the collection of data covering the 2016 reference year.
The Service Annual Survey collects annual data on total revenue, select detailed revenue, total and detailed expenses, and e-commerce revenue for a sample of businesses in the service industries, including Utilities; Transportation and Warehousing; Information; Finance and Insurance; Real Estate and Rental and Leasing; Professional, Scientific, and Technical Services; Administration and Support and Waste Management and Remediation Services; Educational Services; Health Care and Social Assistance; Arts, Entertainment, and Recreation; Accommodation and Food Services; and Other Services as defined by the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS). These data serve as a benchmark for the more frequent estimates compiled from the Quarterly Services Survey. A new sample will be introduced for the collection of data covering the 2016 reference year, beginning with data collection in January 2017.
The Company Organization Survey collects annual data on ownership or control by a domestic or foreign parent and ownership of foreign affiliates; research and development; company activities such as employees from a professional employer organization, operational status, mid-March employment, first-quarter payroll, and annual payroll of establishments from a sample of multi-establishment enterprises in order to update and maintain a centralized, multipurpose Business Register (BR).
The Annual Survey of Manufactures collects annual industry statistics, such as total value of shipments, employment, payroll, workers' hours, capital expenditures, cost of materials consumed, supplemental labor costs, and so forth. This survey is conducted on a sample basis, and covers all manufacturing industries, including data on plants under construction but not yet in operation. The ASM data are used to benchmark and reconcile monthly data on manufacturing production and inventories.
The Manufacturers' Unfilled Orders Survey collects annual data on sales and unfilled orders in order to provide annual benchmarks for unfilled orders for the monthly Manufacturers' Shipments, Inventories, and Orders (M3) survey. The Manufacturers' Unfilled Orders Survey data are also used to determine whether it is necessary to collect unfilled orders data for specific industries on a monthly basis, as some industries are not requested to provide unfilled orders data in the M3 Survey.
The Annual Capital Expenditures Survey collects annual data on the amount of business expenditures for new and used structures and equipment from a sample of non-farm, non-governmental companies, organizations, and associations. Both employer and nonemployer companies are included in the survey. The data are the sole source of investment in buildings and other structures, machinery, and equipment by all private nonfarm businesses in the United States, by the investing industry, and by kind of investment. Every five years, detailed data by types of structures and types of equipment are collected from companies with employees. These detailed data will be collected for the 2016 reference year, beginning with data collection in March 2017.
The Business R&D and Innovation Survey (BRDIS) collects annual data on spending for research and development activities by businesses. This survey replaced the Survey of Industrial Research and Development that had been collected since the 1950s. The BRDIS collects global as well as domestic spending information, more detailed information about the R&D workforce, and information regarding innovation and intellectual property from U.S. businesses. The Census Bureau collects and compiles this information in accordance with a joint project agreement between the National Science Foundation (NSF) and the Census Bureau. The NSF posts the joint project's information results on their Web site. Beginning in 2017, and for the 2016 reference year, the BRDIS will collect R&D and innovation statistics from micro businesses, or firms with less than 5 employees.
The Annual Survey of Entrepreneurs (ASE) collects annual data from a sample of employer firms on the characteristics of the business and business owner(s). Estimates are produced for the number of firms, sales/receipts, annual payroll, and employment by gender, ethnicity, race, and veteran status. The ASE introduces a new topical module each year to measure a relevant business component related to business productivity and growth. The module fielded in 2017 for reference year 2016 will cover business advice and planning and regulations. The ASE is a joint effort funded by the Ewing Marion Kauffman Foundation, the Minority Business Development Agency (MBDA), and the Census Bureau.
The Business & Professional Classification Report collects one-time data on a firm's type of business activity from a sample of newly organized employer firms. The data are used to update the sampling frames for our current business surveys to reflect these newly opened establishments. Additionally, the business classification data will help ensure businesses are directed to complete the correct report in the economic census.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) unless that collection of information displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. In accordance with the PRA, 44 U.S.C., Chapter 45, OMB approved the surveys described in this notice under the following OMB control numbers: Annual Retail Trade Survey, 0607-0013; Annual Wholesale Trade Survey, 0607-0195; Service Annual Survey, 0607-0422; Company Organization Survey, 0607-0444; Annual Survey of Manufactures, 0607-0449; Manufacturers' Unfilled Orders Survey, 0607-0561; Annual Capital Expenditures Survey, 0607-0782; Business R&D and Innovation Survey, 0607-0912; Annual Survey of Entrepreneurs, 0607-0986; and Business & Professional Classification Report, 0607-0189.
Based upon the foregoing, I have directed that the current mandatory business surveys be conducted for the purpose of collecting these data.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Court of International Trade (CIT or Court) sustained the final remand results pertaining to the fourth administrative review and new shipper review of the antidumping duty order on steel wire garment hangers from the People's Republic of China (PRC) covering the period of October 1, 2011, through September 30, 2012. The Department of Commerce (Department) is notifying the public that this case is not in harmony with the final results of the administrative review and new shipper review. Therefore, the Department is amending the final results with respect to the dumping margin assigned to Hangzhou Yingqing Material Co. Ltd. (Yingqing).
Effective May 1, 2017.
Jessica Weeks, AD/CVD Operations Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC, 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4877.
On June 2, 2014, the Department published its
On December 21, 2016, the Court remanded A
In its decision in
Because there is now a final court decision, the Department amends the
In the event that the CIT's ruling is not appealed or, if appealed, is upheld by a final and conclusive court decision, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on unliquidated entries of subject merchandise based on the revised dumping margin listed above.
Because there is now a final court decision, we are amending the
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 516A(e)(1), 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective May 9, 2017.
Elfie Blum at (202) 482-0197 (India); Yasmin Bordas at (202) 482-3813 (the People's Republic of China), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On April 19, 2017, the U.S. Department of Commerce (the Department) received countervailing duty (CVD) Petitions concerning imports of certain cold-drawn mechanical tubing of carbon and alloy steel (cold-drawn mechanical tubing) from India and the People's Republic of China (the PRC), filed in proper form on behalf of ArcelorMittal Tubular Products; Michigan Seamless Tube, LLC; PTC Alliance Corp.; Webco Industries, Inc.; and Zekelman Industries, Inc. (collectively, the petitioners). The CVD Petitions were accompanied by antidumping duty (AD) Petitions concerning imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from each of the above countries, in addition to Italy, Switzerland, the Federal Republic of Germany, and the Republic of Korea.
On April 24, 2017, the Department requested supplemental information pertaining to certain areas of the Petitions.
In accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the petitioners allege that the Governments of India (GOI) and the PRC (GOC) are providing countervailable subsidies, within the meaning of sections 701 and 771(5) of the Act, to imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from India and the PRC, respectively, and that such imports are materially injuring the domestic industry producing cold-drawn mechanical tubing in the United States. Also, consistent with section 702(b)(1) of the Act, for those alleged programs on which we are initiating a CVD investigation, the Petitions are accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioners supporting their allegations.
The Department finds that the petitioners filed these Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because the petitioners are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. The Department also finds that the petitioners demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the CVD investigations that the petitioners are requesting.
Because the Petitions were filed on April 19, 2017, the period of investigation is January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
The product covered by these investigations is cold-drawn mechanical tubing from India and the PRC. For a full description of the scope of these investigations,
During our review of the Petitions, the Department issued questions to, and received responses from, the petitioners pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petitions would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (scope).
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigations be submitted during this time period. However, if a party
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
Pursuant to sections 702(b)(4)(A)(i) and (ii) of the Act, the Department notified representatives of the GOI and the GOC of the receipt of the Petitions, and provided representatives of the GOI and the GOC the opportunity for consultations with respect to the CVD Petitions. Consultations with the GOC were held
Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 702(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, the Department shall: (i) Poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioners do not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigations. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that cold-drawn mechanical tubing, as defined in the scope, constitutes a single domestic like product and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether the petitioners have standing under section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petitions with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigations,” in Appendix I of this notice. The petitioners provided 2016 production or U.S. shipments of the domestic like product for all supporters of the Petitions, and compared this to the estimated total production of the domestic like product for the entire domestic industry.
Our review of the data provided in the Petitions, General Issues Supplement, and other information readily available to the Department indicates that the petitioners have established industry support for the Petitions.
The Department finds that the petitioners filed the Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because they are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act and they have demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the CVD investigations that they are requesting that the Department initiate.
Because India and the PRC are “Subsidies Agreement Countries” within the meaning of section 701(b) of the Act, section 701(a)(2) of the Act applies to these investigations. Accordingly, the ITC must determine whether imports of the subject merchandise from India and the PRC materially injure, or threaten material injury to, a U.S. industry.
The petitioners allege that imports of the subject merchandise are benefitting from countervailable subsidies and that such imports are causing, or threaten to cause, material injury to the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product. In addition, the petitioners allege that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
The petitioners contend that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share; underselling and price suppression or depression; lost sales and revenues; decreased production, capacity utilization, and U.S. shipments; declines in employment of production-related workers, wages paid, and hours worked; and declines in financial performance.
Based on the examination of the CVD Petitions, we find that the Petitions meet the requirements of section 702 of the Act. Therefore we are initiating CVD investigations to determine whether imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from the PRC and India benefit from countervailable subsidies conferred by the governments of these countries. In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 65 days after the date of this initiation.
Under the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, numerous amendments to the AD and CVD laws were made.
Based on our review of the Petition, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on all of the 32 alleged programs. For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate on each program,
Based on our review of the Petition, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on all of the 34 alleged programs. For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate on each program,
A public version of the initiation checklist for each investigation is available on ACCESS.
In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 65 days after the date of this initiation.
The petitioners named 39 companies as producers/exporters of cold-drawn mechanical tubing in India and 91 in the PRC.
Interested parties may submit comments regarding the CBP data and respondent selection by 5:00 p.m. ET on the seventh calendar day after publication of this notice. Interested pParties wishing to submit rebuttal comments should submit those comments five calendar days after the deadline for initial comments.
Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully, in its entirety, by ACCESS no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on the date noted above. If respondent selection is necessary, within 20 days of publication of this notice, we intend to make our decisions regarding respondent selection based upon comments received from interested parties and our analysis of the record information.
In accordance with section 702(b)(4)(A)(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), copies of the public version of the Petitions have been provided to the GOI and GOC
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 702(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petitions were filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from India and the PRC are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). 19 CFR 351.301(b) requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301 expires. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. ET on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Parties should review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 702 and 777(i) of the Act.
The scope of these investigations covers cold-drawn mechanical tubing of carbon and alloy steel (cold-drawn mechanical tubing) of circular cross-section, in actual outside diameters less than 331 mm, and regardless of wall thickness, surface finish, end finish or industry specification. The subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing is a tubular product with a circular cross-sectional shape that has been cold-drawn or otherwise cold-finished after the initial tube formation in a manner that involves a change in the diameter or wall thickness of the tubing, or both. The subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing may be produced from either welded (
Subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing is typically certified to meet industry specifications for cold-drawn tubing including but not limited to:
(1) American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) or American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) specifications ASTM A-512, ASTM A-513 Type 3 (ASME SA513 Type 3), ASTM A-513 Type 4 (ASME SA513 Type 4), ASTM A-513 Type 5 (ASME SA513 Type 5), ASTM A-513 Type 6 (ASME SA513 Type 6), ASTM A-519 (cold-finished);
(2) SAE International (Society of Automotive Engineers) specifications SAE J524, SAE J525, SAE J2833, SAE J2614, SAE J2467, SAE J2435, SAE J2613;
(3) Aerospace Material Specification (AMS) AMS T-6736 (AMS 6736), AMS 6371, AMS 5050, AMS 5075, AMS 5062, AMS 6360, AMS 6361, AMS 6362, AMS 6371, AMS 6372, AMS 6374, AMS 6381, AMS 6415;
(4) United States Military Standards (MIL) MIL-T-5066 and MIL-T-6736;
(5) foreign standards equivalent to one of the previously listed ASTM, ASME, SAE, AMS or MIL specifications including but not limited to:
(a) German Institute for Standardization (DIN) specifications DIN 2391-2, DIN 2393-2, DIN 2394-2);
(b) European Standards (EN) EN 10305-1, EN 10305-2, EN 10305-4, EN 10305-6 and European national variations on those standards (
(c) Japanese Industrial Standard (JIS) JIS G 3441 and JIS G 3445; and
(6) proprietary standards that are based on one of the above-listed standards.
The subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing may also be dual or multiple certified to more than one standard. Pipe that is multiple certified as cold-drawn mechanical tubing and to other specifications not covered by this scope, is also covered by the scope of these investigations when it meets the physical description set forth above.
Steel products included in the scope of these investigations are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; and (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less by weight.
For purposes of this scope, the place of cold-drawing determines the country of origin of the subject merchandise. Subject merchandise that is subject to minor working in a third country that occurs after drawing in one of the subject countries including, but not limited to, heat treatment, cutting to length, straightening, nondestruction testing, deburring or chamfering, remains within the scope of the investigations.
All products that meet the written physical description are within the scope of these investigations unless specifically excluded or covered by the scope of an existing order. Merchandise that meets the physical description of cold-drawn mechanical tubing above is within the scope of the investigations even if it is also dual or multiple certified to an otherwise excluded specification listed below. The following products are outside of, and/or specifically excluded from, the scope of these investigations:
(1) Cold-drawn stainless steel tubing, containing 10.5 percent or more of chromium by weight and not more than 1.2 percent of carbon by weight;
(2) products certified to one or more of the ASTM, ASME or American Petroleum Institute (API) specifications listed below:
• ASTM A-53;
• ASTM A-106;
• ASTM A-179 (ASME SA 179);
• ASTM A-192 (ASME SA 192);
• ASTM A-209 (ASME SA 209);
• ASTM A-210 (ASME SA 210);
• ASTM A-213 (ASME SA 213);
• ASTM A-334 (ASME SA 334);
• ASTM A-423 (ASME SA 423);
• ASTM A-498;
• ASTM A-496 (ASME SA 496);
• ASTM A-199;
• ASTM A-500;
• ASTM A-556;
• ASTM A-565;
• API 5L; and
• API 5CT
The products subject to the investigations are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7304.31.3000, 7304.31.6050, 7304.51.1000, 7304.51.5005, 7304.51.5060, 7306.30.5015, 7306.30.5020, 7306.50.5030. Subject merchandise may also enter under numbers 7306.30.1000 and 7306.50.1000. The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigations is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective May 16, 2017.
Katherine Johnson at (202) 482-4929 (Australia and Brazil); and Terre Keaton at (202) 482-1280 (Kazakhstan), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On March 28, 2017, the Department of Commerce (Department) initiated countervailing duty investigations (CVD) on silicon metal from Australia, Brazil, and Kazakhstan.
Section 703(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in a CVD investigation within 65 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. However, if the petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement, section 703(c)(1)(A) of the Act allows the Department to postpone making the preliminary determination until no later than 130 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation.
On May 2, 2017, the petitioner
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 703(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective May 9, 2017.
Frances Veith at (202) 482-4295, or Shanah Lee at (202) 482-6386 (Federal Republic of Germany (Germany)), Omar Qureshi at (202) 482-5307 (India), Laurel LaCivita at (202) 482-4243 (Italy), Annathea Cook at (202) 482-0250 (Republic of Korea (Korea)), Paul Stolz at (202) 482-4474 (People's Republic of China), and Amanda Brings at (202) 482-3927 (Switzerland), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On April 19, 2017, the U.S. Department of Commerce (the Department) received antidumping duty (AD) Petitions concerning imports of certain cold-drawn mechanical tubing of carbon and alloy steel (cold-drawn mechanical tubing) from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the People's Republic of China (the PRC), and Switzerland, filed in proper form on behalf of ArcelorMittal Tubular Products; Michigan Seamless Tube, LLC; PTC Alliance Corp.; Webco Industries, Inc.; and Zekelman Industries, Inc. (collectively, the petitioners).
On April 24, 2017, the Department requested additional information and clarification of certain areas of the Petitions.
In accordance with section 732(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the petitioners allege that imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value within the meaning of section 731 of the Act, and that such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 732(b)(1) of the Act, the Petitions are accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioners supporting their allegations.
The Department finds that the petitioners filed these Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because the petitioners are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. The Department also finds that the petitioners demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the AD investigations that the petitioners are requesting.
Because the Petitions were filed on April 19, 2017, the period of investigation (POI) for all investigations except the PRC is April 1, 2016, through March 31, 2017. Because the PRC is a non-market economy (NME) country, the POI for that investigation is October 1, 2016, through March 31, 2017.
The product covered by these investigations is cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland. For a full description of the scope of these investigations,
During our review of the Petitions, the Department issued questions to, and received responses from, the petitioners pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petitions would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (scope).
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigations be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigations may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. All such comments must be filed on the records of each of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
The Department will provide interested parties an opportunity to comment on the appropriate physical characteristics of cold-drawn mechanical tubing to be reported in response to the Department's AD questionnaires. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the merchandise under consideration in order to report the relevant costs of production accurately as well as to develop appropriate product-comparison criteria.
Interested parties may provide any information or comments that they feel are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. Specifically, they may provide comments as to which characteristics are appropriate to use as: (1) General product characteristics and (2) product-comparison criteria. We note that it is not always appropriate to use all product characteristics as product-comparison criteria. We base product-comparison criteria on meaningful commercial differences among products. In other words, although there may be some physical product characteristics utilized by manufacturers to describe cold-drawn mechanical tubing, it may be that only a select few product characteristics take into account commercially meaningful physical characteristics. In addition, interested parties may comment on the order in which the physical characteristics should be used in matching products. Generally, the Department attempts to list the most important physical characteristics first and the least important characteristics last.
In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaires, all product characteristics comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on May 30, 2017, which is the first business day after 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice. Any rebuttal comments, must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on June 9, 2017. All comments and submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the records of the Germany, India, Italy, Korea, PRC, and Switzerland less-than-fair-value investigations.
Section 732(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, the Department shall: (i) Poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioners do not offer a definition of the domestic like product
In determining whether the petitioners have standing under section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petitions with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigations,” in Appendix I of this notice. The petitioners provided 2016 production or U.S. shipments of the domestic like product for all supporters of the Petitions, and compared this to the estimated total production of the domestic like product for the entire domestic industry.
Our review of the data provided in the Petitions, General Issues Supplement, and other information readily available to the Department indicates that the petitioners have established industry support for the Petitions.
The Department finds that the petitioners filed the Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because they are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act and they have demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the AD investigations that they are requesting that the Department initiate.
The petitioners allege that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product is being materially injured, or is threatened with material injury, by reason of the imports of the subject merchandise sold at less than normal value (NV). In addition, the petitioners allege that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
The petitioners contend that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share; underselling and price suppression or depression; lost sales and revenues; decreased production, capacity utilization, and U.S. shipments; declines in employment of production-related workers, wages paid, and hours worked; and declines in financial performance.
The following is a description of the allegations of sales at less than fair value upon which the Department based its decision to initiate AD investigations of imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and NV are discussed in greater detail in the country-specific initiation checklists.
For India, Italy, Korea, and the PRC, the petitioners based U.S. price on export price (EP) using price quotes for sales of cold-drawn mechanical tubing produced in, and exported from, the subject county and offered for sale in the United States.
For Germany, the petitioners had reason to believe that the first transaction relating to the entry of goods into the United States was to a U.S. affiliate. Therefore, the petitioners based constructed export price (CEP) on a sales offer which was obtained from a confidential source.
For Germany, India, Italy, Korea, and Switzerland, the petitioners provided home market price information obtained through market research for cold-drawn mechanical tubing produced in, and offered for sale in, each of these countries.
For Germany, Italy, Korea, and Switzerland, the petitioners also provided information that sales of cold-drawn mechanical tubing in the respective home markets were made at prices below the cost of production (COP). With respect to Germany, Italy, Korea, and Switzerland, the petitioners calculated NV based on home market prices and constructed value (CV).
With respect to the PRC, the petitioners stated that the Department has found the PRC to be a NME country in prior administrative proceedings in which the PRC has been involved.
The petitioners claim that Mexico is an appropriate surrogate country because it is a market economy country that is at a level of economic development comparable to that of the PRC, it is a significant producer of comparable merchandise, and public information from Mexico is available to value all material input factors.
Because information regarding the volume of inputs consumed by the PRC producers/exporters is not available, the petitioners relied on the production experience of a domestic producer of cold-drawn mechanical tubing in the United States as an estimate of Chinese manufacturers' FOPs.
Pursuant to section 773(b)(3) of the Act, COP consists of the cost of manufacturing (COM), SG&A, financial expenses, and packing expenses. The petitioners calculated COM based on the experience of a surrogate producer, adjusted for known differences between the surrogate producer and the producer(s) of the respective country (
For Germany, Italy, Korea, and Switzerland, because certain home market prices fell below COP, pursuant to sections 773(a)(4), 773(b), and 773(e) of the Act, as noted above, the petitioners also calculated NVs based on CV for those countries.
Based on the data provided by the petitioners, there is reason to believe that imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland are
Based upon the examination of the AD Petitions, we find that the Petitions meet the requirements of section 732 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating AD investigations to determine whether imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value. In accordance with section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determinations no later than 140 days after the date of this initiation.
Under the the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, numerous amendments to the AD and CVD law were made.
The petitioners identified eight companies in Germany,
Interested parties may submit comments regarding the CBP data and respondent selection by 5:00 p.m. ET on the seventh calendar day after publication of this notice. Parties wishing to submit rebuttal comments should submit those comments five calendar days after the deadline for initial comments.
Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully, in its entirety, by ACCESS no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on the date noted above. If respondent selection is necessary, within 20 days of publication of this notice, we intend to make our decisions regarding respondent selection based upon comments received from interested parties and our analysis of the record information.
With respect to the PRC, the petitioners named 12 PRC-producers/exporters as accounting for the majority of exports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing to the United States from the PRC.
Producers/exporters of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from the PRC that do not receive Q&V questionnaires by mail may still submit a response to the Q&V questionnaire and can obtain a copy from the Enforcement & Compliance Web site. The Q&V response must be submitted by the relevant PRC exporters/producers no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on May 24, 2017. All Q&V responses must be filed electronically via ACCESS.
In order to obtain separate-rate status in an NME investigation, exporters and producers must submit a separate-rate application.
The Department will calculate combination rates for certain respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in an NME investigation. The Separate Rates and Combination Rates Bulletin states:
In accordance with section 732(b)(3)(A)(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), copies of the public version of the Petitions have been provided to the governments of Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 732(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petitions were filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of cold-drawn mechanical tubing from Germany, India, Italy, Korea, the PRC, and Switzerland are materially injuring or threatening material injury to a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). 19 CFR 351.301(b) requires that any party, when submitting factual information, must specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. ET on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Parties should review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 732(c)(2) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.203(c).
The scope of these investigations covers cold-drawn mechanical tubing of carbon and
Subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing is typically certified to meet industry specifications for cold-drawn tubing including but not limited to:
(1) American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) or American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) specifications ASTM A-512, ASTM A-513 Type 3 (ASME SA513 Type 3), ASTM A-513 Type 4 (ASME SA513 Type 4), ASTM A-513 Type 5 (ASME SA513 Type 5), ASTM A-513 Type 6 (ASME SA513 Type 6), ASTM A-519 (cold-finished);
(2) SAE International (Society of Automotive Engineers) specifications SAE J524, SAE J525, SAE J2833, SAE J2614, SAE J2467, SAE J2435, SAE J2613;
(3) Aerospace Material Specification (AMS) AMS T-6736 (AMS 6736), AMS 6371, AMS 5050, AMS 5075, AMS 5062, AMS 6360, AMS 6361, AMS 6362, AMS 6371, AMS 6372, AMS 6374, AMS 6381, AMS 6415;
(4) United States Military Standards (MIL) MIL-T-5066 and MIL-T-6736;
(5) foreign standards equivalent to one of the previously listed ASTM, ASME, SAE, AMS or MIL specifications including but not limited to:
(a) German Institute for Standardization (DIN) specifications DIN 2391-2, DIN 2393-2, DIN 2394-2);
(b) European Standards (EN) EN 10305-1, EN 10305-2, EN 10305-4, EN 10305-6 and European national variations on those standards (
(c) Japanese Industrial Standard (JIS) JIS G 3441 and JIS G 3445; and
(6) proprietary standards that are based on one of the above-listed standards.
The subject cold-drawn mechanical tubing may also be dual or multiple certified to more than one standard. Pipe that is multiple certified as cold-drawn mechanical tubing and to other specifications not covered by this scope, is also covered by the scope of these investigations when it meets the physical description set forth above.
Steel products included in the scope of these investigations are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; and (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less by weight.
For purposes of this scope, the place of cold-drawing determines the country of origin of the subject merchandise. Subject merchandise that is subject to minor working in a third country that occurs after drawing in one of the subject countries including, but not limited to, heat treatment, cutting to length, straightening, nondestruction testing, deburring or chamfering, remains within the scope of the investigations.
All products that meet the written physical description are within the scope of these investigations unless specifically excluded or covered by the scope of an existing order. Merchandise that meets the physical description of cold-drawn mechanical tubing above is within the scope of the investigations even if it is also dual or multiple certified to an otherwise excluded specification listed below. The following products are outside of, and/or specifically excluded from, the scope of these investigations:
(1) Cold-drawn stainless steel tubing, containing 10.5 percent or more of chromium by weight and not more than 1.2 percent of carbon by weight;
(2) products certified to one or more of the ASTM, ASME or American Petroleum Institute (API) specifications listed below:
• ASTM A-53;
• ASTM A-106;
• ASTM A-179 (ASME SA 179);
• ASTM A-192 (ASME SA 192);
• ASTM A-209 (ASME SA 209);
• ASTM A-210 (ASME SA 210);
• ASTM A-213 (ASME SA 213);
• ASTM A-334 (ASME SA 334);
• ASTM A-423 (ASME SA 423);
• ASTM A-498;
• ASTM A-496 (ASME SA 496);
• ASTM A-199;
• ASTM A-500;
• ASTM A-556;
• ASTM A-565;
• API 5L; and
• API 5CT
The products subject to the investigations are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7304.31.3000, 7304.31.6050, 7304.51.1000, 7304.51.5005, 7304.51.5060, 7306.30.5015, 7306.30.5020, 7306.50.5030. Subject merchandise may also enter under numbers 7306.30.1000 and 7306.50.1000. The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigations is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective May 16, 2017.
Andrew Huston, Office VII, Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4261.
On November 4, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty (AD) order on polyethylene terephthalate film, sheet and strip from the United Arab Emirates covering the period November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Secretary will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if a party that requested the review withdraws the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The Department initiated the instant review on January 13, 2017 and the petitioners withdrew their request on April 13, 2017, which is within the 90-day period and is thus timely. Because the petitioners' withdrawal of their requests for review is timely and because no other party requested a review of Flex, we are rescinding this review, in part, with respect to Flex, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1). Polyplex did not withdraw its request for review of JBF and Uflex, and JBF did not withdraw its request for review of itself. As such, the instant review will continue with respect to Uflex and JBF.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess anti-dumping duties on all appropriate entries. Subject merchandise of Flex will be assessed antidumping duties at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, during the period November 1, 2015, through October 31, 2016, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of this notice.
This notice serves as a reminder to importers for whom this review is being rescinded, as of the publication date of this notice, of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of the antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent increase in the amount of antidumping duties assessed.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with section 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that the NMFS Pacific Islands Fisheries Science Center (PIFSC), 1845 Wasp Boulevard, Building 176, Honolulu, HI 96818 (Responsible Party: Dr. Evan Howell), has applied in due form for a permit to conduct scientific research on marine mammals.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Carrie Hubard or Sara Young, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
PIFSC request a five-year permit to permit to monitor the abundance, stock structure, distribution, movement patterns, and ecological relationships of cetaceans occurring in United States and international waters of the Pacific Islands Region. The study area includes the Hawaii archipelago, American Samoa, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Kingman Reef, Palmyra Atoll, Johnston Atoll, Wake Atoll, Howland Island, Baker Island, and Jarvis Island. Up to 34 cetacean species may be targeted for research, including the following endangered or threatened species/stocks: Blue (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that an Exempted Fishing Permit application contains all of the required information and warrants further consideration. This Exempted Fishing Permit would allow eight commercial fishing vessels to be exempt from limited access sea scallop regulations in support of a study on seasonal bycatch distribution and optimal scallop meat yield on Georges Bank.
Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for proposed Exempted Fishing Permits.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
You may submit written comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
Alyson Pitts, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9352.
Coonamesset Farm Foundation (CFF) has submitted an exempted fishing permit (EFP) application in support of a project titled “Optimizing the Georges Bank Scallop Fishery by Maximizing Meat Yield and Minimizing Bycatch,” that has been funded under the 2017 Atlantic Sea Scallop Research Set-Aside (RSA) Program. The project will look primarily at seasonal distribution of bycatch on the eastern part of Georges Bank in relation to sea scallop meat weight yield. Additional objectives include continued testing of a modified scallop dredge bag design to reduce flatfish bycatch and collecting biological samples to examine scallop meat quality and yellowtail flounder liver disease. Project investigators working on this project would also work with New Hampshire Fish and Game (NHFG) and the Atlantic Offshore Lobstermen's Association (AOLA) to tag female lobsters.
To enable this research, CFF is requesting exemptions for eight commercial fishing vessels from the Atlantic sea scallop days-at-sea (DAS) allocations at 50 CFR 648.53(b); crew size restrictions at § 648.51(c); observer program requirements at § 648.11(g); Closed Area II (CAII) scallop gear restrictions specified at § 648.81(b); and access area program requirements at § 648.59(a)(1)-(3), (b)(2), (b)(4); Closed Area II Scallop Access Area Seasonal Closure at § 648.60(d)(2), and Closed Area II Extension Scallop Rotational Area at § 648.60(e). CFF has also requested that vessels be exempt from possession limits and minimum size requirements specified in 50 CFR part 648, subsections B and D through O for biological sampling, and § 697.20 for lobster sampling and tagging purposes only.
Participating vessels would conduct scallop dredging in a year-round seasonal study, from August, 2017 through June, 2018. Vessels will condust a total of eight 7-day trips, for a total of 56 DAS. Closed Area II Access Area tows would take place in the central portion situated below the Closed Area II Habitat Closure Area, including the northern portion of Atlantic Sea Closed Area II Scallop Access Area Seasonal Closure and the northern part of Closed Area II Extension Scallop Rotational Area. Open area tows would be conducted on the northern half of Georges Bank, west of the boundary of Closed Area II Access Area. The applicant also requested to conduct tows inside the Closed Area II Habitat Closure Area. NMFS does not support access to the Habitat Closure Area for this project until a final measures from the Omnibus Habitat Amendment II have been proposed and implemented by NMFS. This project is designed to “optimize” the harvest of scallops by the scallop fishery. Because this area remains closed to bottom-tending mobile gear to protect sensitive benthic habitat, it is premature to grant access at this time. If the scallop fishery is authorized to fish in this area through a future rule making, it may be appropriate to amend this EFP to allow research in this area, as the information could be useful to supporting scallop harvest decisions.
There is a potential for gear conflict with lobster gear in the central portion of Closed Area II. In an effort to help mitigate gear interactions, CFF would distribute the time and location of stations to the lobster industry, work only during daylight hours, post an extra lookout to avoid gear, and actively avoid tangling in stationary gear. We do not expect the DAS, crew size, possession limits, or minimum size exemptions to generate any controversy or concern about the potential catch of egg-bearing female lobsters in this area during the months of August-June. The project would work in cooperation in with NHFG and AOLA to tag lobsters with the primary goal of documenting their movement on and off Georges Bank. Data from the tagging project could also help answer questions of lobster discard mortality in the scallop fishery.
All tows would be conducted with two tandem 15-foot (4.6-m) turtle deflector dredges for a duration of 30 minutes using an average tow speed of 4.8 knots. One dredge would be rigged with a 7-row apron and twine top hanging ratio of 2:1, while the other dredge would be rigged with a 5-row apron and 1.5:1 twine top hanging ratio. Both dredge frames would be rigged with identical rock and tickler chain configurations, 10-inch (25.4-cm) twine top, and 4-inch (10.2-cm) ring bag. Gear
For all tows the entire sea scallop catch would be counted into baskets and weighed. One basket from each dredge would be randomly selected and the scallops would be measured in 5-milimeter increments to determine size selectivity. All finfish catch would be sorted by species and then counted and measured. Weight, sex, and reproductive state would be determined for a random subsample (n=10) of yellowtail, winter, and windowpane flounders. Lobsters would be measured, sexed, and evaluated for damage and shell disease. No catch would be retained for longer than needed to conduct sampling and no finfish or lobsters would be landed for sale. All catch estimates for the project are listed in Table 1, below.
CFF needs these exemptions to allow them to conduct experimental dredge towing without being charged DAS, as well as to deploy gear in areas that are currently closed to scallop fishing. Participating vessels need crew size waivers to accommodate science personnel. Possession waivers would enable researchers to sample finfish and lobster catch that exceeds possession limits or prohibitions. The project would be exempt from the sea scallop observer program requirements because activities conducted on the trip are not consistent with normal fishing operations. The goal of the proposed work is to provide information on spatial and temporal patterns in bycatch rates in the scallop fishery, with the objective of identifying mechanisms to mitigate bycatch. The data collected would enhance understanding of groundfish bycatch and scallop yield as they relate to access and open area management.
If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the year. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that NMFS has received an application from Mr. Mark F. Strickland, Public Service Enterprise Group Inc. (PSEG) for an incidental take permit (permit), pursuant to the Endangered Species Act (ESA) of 1973, as amended, for activities associated with the operation and decommissioning of Mercer Generating Station in Trenton, NJ. As required by the ESA, PSEG's application includes a conservation plan designed to minimize and mitigate the impacts of any take of endangered or threatened species. The permit application is for the incidental take of ESA-listed Atlantic sturgeon (
NMFS is furnishing this notice in order to allow other agencies and the public an opportunity to review and comment on this document. All comments received will become part of the public record and will be available for review.
Written comments must be received at the appropriate address or fax number (see
The application is available for download and review at
You may submit comments, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2017-0036 by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Ron Dean or Lisa Manning, (301) 427-8403.
Section 9 of the ESA and Federal regulations prohibit the `taking' of a species listed as endangered or threatened. The ESA defines “take” to mean harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct. NMFS may issue permits, under limited circumstances to take listed species incidental to, and not the purpose of, otherwise lawful activities. Section 10(a)(1)(B) of the ESA provides for authorizing incidental take of listed species. NMFS regulations governing permits for threatened and endangered species are promulgated at 50 CFR 222.307.
Pursuant to the ESA, NMFS reviewed in PSEG's September 2016 draft Application, including the analytical methods for estimating potential takes. After PSEG announced its plans to retire two existing coal/natural gas fired units, they provided estimates of potential takes due to entrainment associated with the operation of service water pumps during the decommissioning period, and an analysis of the potential effects of vessel traffic associated with the removal of coal presently on-site at the plant. PSEG submitted an updated application on March 7, 2017.
PSEG is requesting that this permit cover operations through the decommissioning of the coal/natural gas-fired units. The total duration of decommissioning is undetermined; however, PSEG expects to complete the decommissioning of the coal/natural gas fired units no later than March 1, 2022. The duration of the proposed permit is therefore 5 years.
PSEG's application addresses the Delaware River Estuary in the immediate vicinity of Mercer's cooling water intake structure, including the circulating water pumps and the service water pumps, the areas potentially occupied by the station's thermal discharge plume, other effluent waste streams, and vessel traffic associated with the removal of coal from the station during the pre-retirement and decommissioning Periods. The permit application is for the incidental take of ESA-listed Atlantic sturgeon (
For entrainment, during the pre-retirement period, ending on June 1, 2017, PSEG proposes a take limit based on statistical models and historical data of 60 age-1 equivalent (
For impingement, based on statistical models and historical data, PSEG proposes a pre-retirement period take limit of 13 Atlantic sturgeon and 13 shortnose sturgeon. For the decommissioning period, no Atlantic or shortnose sturgeon are expected to be impinged because circulating water pumps will not be operating and no more than two service water pumps will operate. The velocity through the traveling water screens will therefore be well below 0.5 fps which is the generally accepted threshold velocity for impingement. No incidental take is expected from any of the other activities covered in the application.
Section 10 of the ESA specifies that no permit may be issued unless an applicant submits an adequate habitat conservation plan. The conservation plan prepared by PSEG describes measures designed to minimize and mitigate the impacts of any incidental takes of ESA-listed Atlantic and shortnose sturgeon.
To avoid and minimize take of sturgeon during the pre-retirement period, PSEG proposes to only run Mercer's circulating water pumps when the station is generating electricity, when cooling water is needed for other essential station operations, for incidental maintenance, or as required by a governmental agency or other entity. PSEG also proposes to run the minimum number of service water pumps required to support essential operations when possible. These measures are intended to avoid and minimize the incidental take of sturgeon due to entrainment or impingement by eliminating or reducing water withdrawals.
PSEG also has modified traveling screens and a fish return. Sturgeon that encounter the traveling screens and become impinged will be transferred to the fish return sluice and transported in flowing water back to the Delaware River. During the pre-retirement period, PSEG proposes to operate each of the modified traveling screens continuously whenever they operate the associated circulating water pump. PSEG also proposes to implement an operating and maintenance plan for the modified traveling screens and fish return system to ensure that the system is operating properly to return sturgeon the River.
During the decommissioning period, Mercer will not operate circulating water pumps, and will therefore avoid any take of sturgeon due to impingement and entrainment. Mercer plans to operate up to two service water pumps for equipment cooling and fire safety requirements during the decommissioning period, but the through-screen velocity of the traveling water screen is less than 0.1 fps, which is below the velocity generally accepted to not pose a risk of impingement.
Funding required to support the implementation of this permit and its habitat conservation plan would be included as part of PSEG's standard budgeting process for regulatory compliance.
PSEG evaluated three alternatives: (1) Retrofitting the Station to operate with a closed cycle recirculating system
This notice is provided pursuant to section 10(c) of the ESA and the National Environmental Policy Act regulations (40 CFR 1506.6). NMFS will evaluate the application, associated documents, and submitted comments to determine whether the application meets the requirements of the ESA section 10(a)(1)(B) permitting process. If it is determined that the requirements are met, a permit will be issued for incidental takes of ESA-listed Atlantic and shortnose sturgeon.
The final permit determinations will not be completed until after the end of the 30-day comment period and will fully consider all public comments received during the comment period. NMFS will publish a record of its final action in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Habitat Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Tuesday, May 30, 2017 at 10 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Four Points by Sheraton, 1 Audubon Road, Wakefield, MA 01880; phone: (781) 245-9300.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Habitat Committee will review public comments on the Deep-Sea Coral Amendment, and make any final recommendations to the Council regarding preferred approaches for coral management. A separate meeting notice describes the hearing locations and process for submitting comments. The Council plans to take final action on the amendment during their June 20-22 meeting in Portland, ME. The Committee may draft comments on the potential environmental effects of offshore oil development on the Atlantic Outer Continental Shelf. Other business may be discussed as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The Pacific Fishery Management Council's (Pacific Council) Ad Hoc Community Advisory Board (CAB) will hold a two-day meeting that is open to the public.
The CAB meeting will be begin Tuesday, May 30, 2017 at 10 a.m., and recess when business for the day is completed. It will continue at 8 a.m. Wednesday, May 31, adjourning when business for the day is completed.
The meeting will be held at the Sheraton Portland Airport Hotel, St. Helens Room, 8235 NE Airport Way, Portland, OR 97220. Telephone: (503) 281-2500.
Mr. Jim Seger, Pacific Council; phone: (503) 820-2416.
The primary purpose of the CAB meeting is to review an initial draft of the trawl catch share program review document and to develop, for recommendation to the Pacific Council, a prioritized list of issues that would be pursued following completion of the review process in November 2017 (follow-on actions). The Pacific Council is scheduled to prioritize possible follow-on actions at its June 2017 meeting, with the aim of developing a range of alternatives for each issue by November 2017.
Although nonemergency issues not contained in the meeting agenda may be discussed, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this document and any issues arising after publication of this document that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
The meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that Robin Baird, Ph.D., Cascadia Research Collective, 218
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Shasta McClenahan or Carrie Hubard, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant requests a 5-year permit to take marine mammals in the Atlantic and Pacific oceans to study population structure, size, range, movement rates and patterns, habitat use, social organization, diving behavior, diet, disease monitoring, behavior, and reactions to anthropogenic activity. Up to 53 species of cetaceans may be targeted for research including the following endangered, proposed endangered, or threatened species/stocks: blue (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Scallop Advisory Panel to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Wednesday, May 31, 2017 at 9:30 a.m.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Scallop Advisory Panel will review the general workload for 2017 based on Council priorities and a draft action plan for Scallop Framework 29 (FW29) and potentially identify recommendations for prioritizing work items in upcoming actions. They will also review progress on potential management measures that may be included in FW29, including: (1) Flatfish accountability measures; (2) Modifications to the management of the Northern Gulf of Maine area; (3)
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. Consistent with 16 U.S.C. 1852, a copy of the recording is available upon request.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed Incidental Harassment Authorization; request for comments
NMFS has received an application from Point Blue Conservation Science (Point Blue) for an Incidental Harassment Authorization (IHA) to take marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to seabird and pinniped research activities in central California. Pursuant to the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), NMFS is requesting comments on its proposal to issue an IHA to Point Blue to incidentally take marine mammals during the specified activities.
Comments and information must be received no later than June 15, 2017.
Comments on the applications should be addressed to Jolie Harrison, Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, National Marine Fisheries Service. Physical comments should be sent to 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910 and electronic comments should be sent to
Robert Pauline, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the applications and supporting documents, as well as a list of the references cited in this document, may be obtained by visiting the Internet at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings will be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, we adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
NMFS received a request from Point Blue for an IHA to take marine mammals incidental to seabird and marine mammal monitoring at three locations in central California. Point Blue's request was for harassment only and NMFS concurs that mortality is not expected to result from this activity. Therefore, an IHA is appropriate.
On March 7, 2017, NMFS received an application from Point Blue requesting the taking by harassment of marine mammals incidental to conducting seabird and marine mammal research activities on Southeast Farallon Island (SEFI), Año Nuevo Island (ANI), and Point Reyes National Seashore (PRNS). Point Blue, along with partners Oikonos Ecosystem Knowledge and PRNS, plan to conduct the proposed activities for one year. These partners are conducting this research under cooperative agreements with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service in consultation with the Gulf of the Farallones National
These proposed activities would occur in the vicinity of pinniped haul-out sites and could likely result in the incidental take of marine mammals. We anticipate take, by Level B harassment only, of individuals of California sea lions (
This is the organization's eighth request for an IHA. To date, we have issued authorizations to Point Blue (formerly known as PRBO Conservation Science) for the conduct of similar activities from 2007 to 2016 (72 FR 71121; December 14, 2007, 73 FR 77011; December 18, 2008, 75 FR 8677; February 19, 2010, 77 FR 73989; December 7, 2012, 78 FR 66686; November 6, 2013, 80 FR 80321; December 24, 2015, 81 FR 34978; June 1, 2016).
Point Blue proposes to monitor and census seabird colonies; observe seabird nesting habitat; restore nesting burrows; observe breeding elephant and harbor seals; and resupply a field station annually in central California (
The proposed authorization would be effective from June 16, 2017 through May 15, 2018. Surveys are conducted year-round at the specified locations. At SEFI, seabird monitoring sites are visited ~1-3 times per day for a maximum of 500 visits per year. Most seabird monitoring visits are brief (~15 minutes), though seabird observers are present from 2-5 hours daily at North Landing from early April-early August each year to conduct observational studies on breeding common murres. Boat landings to re-supply the field station, lasting 1-3 hours, are conducted once every 2 weeks at one of the these locations. At ANI, research is conducted once/week April-August, with occasional intermittent visits made during the rest of the year. The maximum number of visits per year would be 20. Nesting habitat restoration and monitoring activities require sporadic visits from September-November, between the seabird breeding season and the elephant seal pupping season. Landings and visits to nest boxes are brief (~15 minutes). Research may occur during any month, with an emphasis during the seabird nesting season with occasional intermittent visits the rest of the year. The maximum number of visits per year is 20. Habitat restoration and monitoring work requires sporadic visits from September-November, between the seabird breeding season and the elephant seal pupping season.
Point Blue will conduct their research activities within the vicinity of pinniped haul-out sites in the following locations:
•
•
•
Point Blue has conducted year round wildlife research and monitoring activities at SEFI, part of the Farallon National Wildlife Refuge, since 1968. This work is conducted through a collaborative agreement with the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS). Research focuses on marine mammals and seabirds and includes procedures involved in maintaining the SEFI field station. These activities may involve the incidental take of marine mammals.
Seabird research activities involve observational and marking (
Most intertidal areas of the island, where marine mammals are present, are rarely visited in seabird research. Most potential for incidental take will occur at the island's two landings, North Landing and East Landing. At both landings, research stations are located more than 50 ft above any pinnipeds that may be present and are visited 1-3 times per day. These pinnipeds are primarily California sea lions or northern elephant seals, to a lesser extent harbor seals, and very rarely Steller sea lions. Boat landings to re-supply the field station, lasting 1-3 hours, are conducted once every 2 weeks at either the North or East Landing. Activities involve launching of the boat with one operator, with 2-4 other researchers assisting with the operations from land. At East Landing, the primary landing site, all personnel assisting with the landing stay on the loading platform 30 ft above the water. At North Landing, loading operations occur at the water level in the intertidal zone.
Point Blue has also conducted seabird research and monitoring activities on ANI, part of the Año Nuevo State Reserve, since 1992. Collaborations with Oikonos Ecosystem Knowledge began in 2001 to research seabird burrow nesting habitat quality and restoration. All work is conducted through a collaborative agreement with California State Parks. The island is accessed by 12 ft Zodiac boat. Non-breeding pinnipeds may occasionally be present on the small beach in the center of the island where the boat is landed. California sea lions may also occasionally be present near a small group of subterranean seabird nest boxes on the island terrace. There are usually 2-3 researchers involved in island visits.
The National Park Service (NPS) conducts research, resource management and routine maintenance services at PRNS. This involves both marine mammal research and seabird research and includes maintaining the facilities around the seashore. Habitat restoration of the seashore occurs and includes restoration and removal of non-native invasive plants and coastal dune habitat. Non-native plant removal is timed to avoid the breeding seasons of pinnipeds; however, on occasion non-breeding animals may be present at various beaches throughout the year. Additionally, elephant seals will haul out on human structures and block access to facilities. They are known to haul out on a boat ramp at the Life Boat Station and in various car parking lots around the seashore.
Research along the seashore includes monitoring seabird breeding and roosting colonies. Seabird monitoring usually involves one or two observers. Surveys are conducted by small boats, 14-22 ft open motorboats, that survey along the shoreline.
Most areas where marine mammals are present are never visited, excepting the landing beaches along Point Reyes headland. In all locations researchers are located more than 50 ft away from any pinnipeds that may be hauled out. Elephant seals may haul out on boat ramps and parking lots year round.
We have reviewed Point Blue's species information—which summarizes available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, behavior and life history of the potentially affected species—for accuracy and completeness and refer the reader to Sections 3 and 4 of the application, as well as to NMFS's Stock Assessment Reports (SAR;
All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS's 2015 U.S. Pacific Stock Assessment Report (Carretta
Northern elephant seals are not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA, nor are they categorized as depleted or strategic under the MMPA. The estimated population of the California Breeding Stock is approximately 179,000 animals and the current population trend is increasing at
Northern elephant seals range in the eastern and central North Pacific Ocean, from as far north as Alaska to as far south as Mexico. Northern elephant seals spend much of the year, generally about nine months, in the ocean. They are usually underwater, diving to depths of about 1,000 to 2,500 ft (330-800 m) for 20- to 30-minute intervals with only short breaks at the surface. They are rarely seen out at sea for this reason. While on land, they prefer sandy beaches.
The northern elephant breeding population is distributed from central Baja California, Mexico to the Point Reyes Peninsula in northern California. Along this coastline there are 13 major breeding colonies. Northern elephant seals breed and give birth primarily on offshore islands (Stewart
At SEFI, the population consists of approximately 500 animals (FNMS 2013). Northern elephant seals began recolonizing the South Farallon Islands in the early 1970s (Stewart
Northern elephant seals are present on the islands and in the waters surrounding the South Farallones year-round for either breeding or molting; however, they are more abundant during breeding and peak molting seasons (Le Boeuf and Laws, 1994; Sydeman and Allen, 1999). They live and feed in deep, offshore waters the remainder of the year.
In mid-December, adult males begin arriving on the South Farallones, closely followed by pregnant females on the verge of giving birth. Females give birth to a single pup, generally in late December or January (Le Boeuf and Laws, 1994) and nurse their pups for approximately four weeks (Reiter
The lowest numbers of elephant seals present on the rookery occurs during June, July, and August, when sub-adult and adult males molt. Another peak of young seals return to the rookery for a haul-out period in October, and at that time some individuals undergo partial molt (Le Boeuf and Laws, 1994). At ANI the population ranges from 900 to 1,000 adults.
The estimated population of the U.S. stock of California sea lion is approximately 296,750 animals and the current maximum population growth rate is 12 percent (Carretta
Adult and juvenile males will migrate as far north as British Columbia, Canada while females and pups remain in southern California waters in the non-breeding season. In warm water (El Niño) years, some females are found as far north as Washington and Oregon, presumably following prey.
On the Farallon Islands, California sea lions haul out in many intertidal areas year round, fluctuating from several hundred to several thousand animals. California sea lions at PRNS haul out at only a few locations, but will occur on human structures such as boat ramps. The annual population averages around 300 to 500 during the fall through spring months, although on occasion, several thousand sea lions can arrive depending upon local prey resources (S. Allen, unpublished data). On ANI, California sea lions may haul out at one of eight beach areas on the perimeter of the island (see Point Blue's Application). The island's average population ranges from 4,000 to 9,500 animals (M. Lowry, unpublished data).
Pacific harbor seals are not listed as threatened or endangered under the ESA, nor are they categorized as depleted or strategic under the MMPA. The estimated population of the California stock of harbor seals is 30,968 animals (Carretta
The animals inhabit near-shore coastal and estuarine areas from Baja California, Mexico, to the Pribilof Islands in Alaska. Pacific harbor seals are divided into two subspecies:
In California, 400-600 harbor seal haul-out sites are widely distributed along the mainland and offshore islands, and include rocky shores, beaches and intertidal sandbars (Lowry
Steller sea lions consist of two distinct population segments: The western and eastern distinct population segments (DPS) divided at 144° West longitude (Cape Suckling, Alaska). The western segment of Steller sea lions inhabit central and western Gulf of Alaska, Aleutian Islands, as well as coastal waters and breed in Asia (
Despite the wide-ranging movements of juveniles and adult males in particular, exchange between rookeries by breeding adult females and males (other than between adjoining rookeries) appears low, although males have a higher tendency to disperse than females (NMFS, 1995; Trujillo
An estimated 50-150 Steller sea lions are located along the Farallon Islands while 400-600 may be found on ANI (Point Blue, unpublished data; Lowry, unpublished data). None are present at PRNS (NPS, unpublished data). Overall, counts of non-pups at trend sites in California and Oregon have been relatively stable or increasing slowly since the 1980s (Muto
Point Blue estimates that between 50 and 150 Steller sea lions live on the Farallon Islands. On SEFI, the abundance of females declined an average of 3.6 percent per year from 1974 to 1997 (Sydeman and Allen, 1999).
NMFS' Southwest Fisheries Science Center estimates between 400 and 600 live on ANI (Point Blue unpublished data, 2008; Southwest Fisheries Science Center unpublished data, 2008). At ANI, a steady decline in ground counts started around 1970, and there was an 85 percent reduction in the breeding population by 1987 (LeBoeuf
SEFI is one of two breeding colonies at the southern end of the Steller sea lion's range. On the Farallon and Año Nuevo Islands, Steller sea lion breeding colonies are located in closed areas where researchers never visited, eliminating any risk of disturbing breeding animals.
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document will include a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination” section will consider the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Proposed Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
Visual and acoustic stimuli generated by the appearance of researchers and motorboat operations may have the potential to cause Level B harassment of pinnipeds hauled out on SEFI, ANI, or PRNS. This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that the types of stressors associated with the specified activity (
The appearance of researchers may have the potential to cause Level B harassment of any pinnipeds hauled out at survey sites. Disturbance may result in reactions ranging from an animal simply becoming alert to the presence of researchers (
Reactions to human presence, if any, depend on species, state of maturity, experience, current activity, reproductive state, time of day, and many other factors (Richardson
In cases where vessels actively approached marine mammals (
In 1997, Henry and Hammil (2001) conducted a study to measure the impacts of small boats (
In 2004, Acevedo-Gutierrez and Johnson (2007) evaluated the efficacy of buffer zones for watercraft around harbor seal haul-out sites on Yellow Island, Washington. The authors estimated the minimum distance between the vessels and the haul-out sites; categorized the vessel types; and evaluated seal responses to the disturbances. During the course of the seven-weekend study, the authors recorded 14 human-related disturbances that were associated with stopped powerboats and kayaks. During these events, hauled out seals became noticeably active and moved into the water. The flushing occurred when stopped kayaks and powerboats were at distances as far as 453 and 1,217 ft (138 and 371 m) respectively. The authors note that the seals were unaffected by passing powerboats, even those approaching as close as 128 ft (39 m), possibly indicating that the animals had become tolerant of the brief presence of the vessels and ignored them. The authors reported that on average, the seals quickly recovered from the disturbances and returned to the haul-out site in less than or equal to 60 minutes. Seal numbers did not return to pre-disturbance levels within 180 minutes of the disturbance less than one quarter of the time observed. The study concluded that the return of seal numbers to pre-disturbance levels and the relatively regular seasonal cycle in abundance throughout the area counter the idea that disturbances from powerboats may result in site abandonment (Johnson and Acevedo-Gutierrez, 2007). As a general statement from the available information, pinnipeds exposed to intense (approximately 110 to 120 decibels re: 20 μPa) non-pulsed sounds often leave haul-out areas and seek refuge temporarily (minutes to a few hours) in the water (Southall
The potential for striking marine mammals is a concern with vessel traffic. Typically, the reasons for vessel strikes are fast transit speeds, lack of maneuverability, or not seeing the animal because the boat is so large. Point Blue's researchers will access areas at slow transit speeds in small boats that are easily maneuverable, minimizing any chance of an accidental strike.
There are other ways in which disturbance, as described previously, could result in more than Level B harassment of marine mammals. They are most likely to be consequences of stampeding, a potentially dangerous occurrence in which large numbers of animals succumb to mass panic and rush away from a stimulus. These situations are: (1) Falling when entering the water at high-relief locations; (2) extended separation of mothers and pups; and (3) crushing of pups by larger animals during a stampede. However, NMFS does not expect any of these scenarios to occur at SEFI, ANI, or PRNS. There is the risk of injury if animals stampede towards shorelines with precipitous relief (
Given the nature of the proposed activities (
There are no habitat modifications associated with the proposed activity other than the presence of existing blinds by researchers to monitor animals. These blinds disturb only a few square feet of habitat. The presence of the blinds will likely result in a net decrease in disturbance since the researchers will only be visible briefly as they enter and exit the blind. Thus, NMFS does not expect that the proposed activity would have any effects on marine mammal habitat and NMFS expects that there will be no long- or short-term physical impacts to pinniped habitat on SEFI, ANI, or PRNS.
This section includes an estimate of the number of incidental “takes” proposed for authorization pursuant to this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of whether the number of takes is “small” and the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only form of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as: Any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to researchers and motorboat operations. Based on the nature of the activity, Level A harassment is neither anticipated nor proposed to be authorized. Below we describe how the take is estimated.
NMFS bases these new take estimates on historical data from previous monitoring reports and anecdotal data for the same activities conducted in the same research areas. In brief, for four species (
The estimated take for California sea lions has been reduced from the figure authorized under the existing 2016-2017 IHA (55,583). NMFS noted that large numbers of California sea lions recorded in 2015-2016 were likely due to an El Niño event, which ended in May/June of 2016. The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a single climate phenomenon that periodically fluctuates between 3 phases: Neutral, La Niña or El Niño. La Niña and El Niño are opposite phases that require certain changes to take place in both the ocean and the atmosphere, before an event is declared. ENSO is currently in a neutral state, meaning that sea lion numbers may not approach the projected take for 2017-2018 shown in Table 2. Recent data suggests that there are increasing chances another El Niño could develop in the fall of 2017, although it is impossible to predict the length or severity of such an event (NOAA 2017). Therefore, sea lion numbers could occur at levels similar to what was observed in the 2015-2016 season under El Niño conditions.
Point Blue has provided preliminary data for recorded California sea lion takes at SEFI from calendar year 2016 (January-December), which shows 33,904 California sea lion takes at SEFI. Point Blue has not yet tabulated the data for ANI and PRNS. However, Point Blue estimates that approximately 1000 animals will be taken at ANI and few, if any, will be taken at PRNS based on preliminary analysis of 2016 data. Therefore, the result for calendar year 2016 is approximately 34,904 sea lion takes (33,904 from SEFI and 1,000 from ANI and PRNS). Note that a portion of the 2016 calendar year featured El Niño conditions (January-May/June), which are predicted to return in the fall of 2017. Therefore, the 2016 calendar year data can serve as a baseline for proposed 2017-2018 IHA. NMFS will conservatively add 15 percent to the estimated 2016 yearly total to arrive at a proposed authorized take of 40,139 California sea lions for the 2017-2018 IHA.
In order to issue an IHA under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance. NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully balance two primary factors: (1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat, which considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range), as well as the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented; and the likelihood of effective implementation, and; (2) the practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
Point Blue has based the mitigation measures, which they will employ during the proposed research, on the implementation of protocols used during previous Point Blue research activities under previous authorizations for these activities. Note that Point Blue and NMFS have refined mitigation requirements over the years in an effort to reduce behavioral disturbance impacts to marine mammals.
To reduce the potential for disturbance from acoustic and visual stimuli associated with the activities Point Blue has proposed to implement the following mitigation measures for marine mammals:
(1) Slow approach to beaches for boat landings to avoid stampede and provide animals opportunity to enter water.
(2) Select a pathway of approach to research sites that minimizes the number of marine mammals harassed.
(3) Avoid visits to sites used by pinnipeds for pupping.
(4) Monitor for offshore predators and do not approach hauled out pinnipeds if great white sharks (
(5) Keep voices hushed and bodies low to the ground in the visual presence of pinnipeds.
(6) Conduct seabird observations at North Landing on SEFI in an observation blind, shielded from the view of hauled out pinnipeds.
(7) Crawl slowly to access seabird nest boxes on ANI if pinnipeds are within view.
(8) Coordinate research visits to intertidal areas of SEFI (to reduce potential take) and coordinate research goals for ANI to minimize the number of trips to the island.
(10) Coordinate monitoring schedules on ANI, so that areas near any pinnipeds would be accessed only once per visit.
(11) Operate motorboats slowly with caution during approaches to landing sites in order to avoid vessel strikes.
Based on our evaluation of the applicant's proposed measures, as well as other measures considered by NMFS, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the proposed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, “requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking.” The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as to ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors;
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks;
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
Point Blue will contribute to the knowledge of pinnipeds in California by noting observations of: (1) Unusual behaviors, numbers, or distributions of pinnipeds, such that any potential follow-up research can be conducted by the appropriate personnel; (2) tag-bearing pinnipeds or carcasses, allowing transmittal of the information to appropriate agencies and personnel; and (3) rare or unusual species of marine mammals for agency follow-up.
Required monitoring protocols for Point Blue will include the following:
(1) Record of date, time, and location (or closest point of ingress) of each visit to the research site;
(2) Composition of the marine mammals sighted, such as species, gender and life history stage (
(3) Information on the numbers (by species) of marine mammals observed during the activities;
(4) Estimated number of marine mammals (by species) that may have been harassed during the activities;
(5) Behavioral responses or modifications of behaviors that may be attributed to the specific activities and a description of the specific activities occurring during that time (
(6) Information on the weather, including the tidal state and horizontal visibility.
For consistency, any reactions by pinnipeds to researchers will be recorded according to a three-point scale shown in Table 3. Note that only observations of disturbance Levels 2 and 3 should be recorded as takes.
This information will be incorporated into a monitoring report for NMFS. The monitoring report will cover the period from January 1, 2017 through December 31, 2017. NMFS has requested that Point Blue submit annual monitoring report data on a calendar year schedule, regardless of the current IHA's initiation or expiration dates. This will ensure that data from all consecutive months will be collected and, therefore, can be analyzed to estimate authorized take for future IHA's regardless of the existing IHA's issuance date. Point Blue will submit a draft monitoring report to NMFS Office of Protected Resources by April 1, 2018. The draft report will include monitoring data collected between January 1, 2017 and December 31, 2017. A final report will be prepared and submitted within 30 days following resolution of any comments on the draft report from NMFS. If no comments are received from NMFS, the draft final report will be considered to be the final report. This report must contain the informational elements described above, at minimum.
Point Blue must also report observations of unusual pinniped behaviors, numbers, or distributions and tag-bearing carcasses to NMFS West Coast Region office.
If at any time the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this IHA, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, Point Blue will immediately cease the specified activities and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, and the West Coast
(1) Time and date of the incident;
(2) Description of the incident;
(3) Environmental conditions (
(4) Description of all marine mammal observations in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
(5) Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
(6) Fate of the animal(s); and
(7) Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
Activities will not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS will work with Point Blue to determine what measures are necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. Pt. Blue may not resume the activities until notified by NMFS.
In the event that an injured or dead marine mammal is discovered and it is determined that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
In the event that an injured or dead marine mammal is discovered and it is determined that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, the discussion of our analyses applies generally to the four species for which take is authorized, given that the anticipated effects of these surveys on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. Where there are species-specific factors that have been considered, they are identified below.
For reasons stated previously in this document and based on the following factors, NMFS does not expect Point Blue's specified activities to cause long-term behavioral disturbance that would negatively impact an individual animal's fitness, or result in injury, serious injury, or mortality. Although Point Blue's survey activities may disturb marine mammals, NMFS expects those impacts to occur to localized groups of animals at or near survey sites. Behavioral disturbance would be limited to short-term startle responses and localized behavioral changes due to the short duration (ranging from <15 minutes for visits at most locations up to 2-5 hours from April-August at SEFI) of the research activities. At some locations, where resupply activities occur, visits will occur once every two weeks. Minor and brief responses, such as short-duration startle reactions or flushing, are not likely to constitute disruption of behavioral patterns, such as migration, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering. These short duration disturbances—in many cases animals will return in 30 minutes or less—will generally allow marine mammals to reoccupy haul-outs relatively quickly; therefore, these disturbances would not be anticipated to result in long-term disruption of important behaviors. No surveys will occur at or near rookeries as researchers will have limited access to SEFI, ANI, and PRNS during the pupping season and will not approach sites should pups be observed. Furthermore, breeding animals tend to be concentrated in areas that researchers are not scheduled to visit. Therefore, NMFS does not expect mother and pup separation or crushing of pups during stampedes.
Level B behavioral harassment of pinnipeds may occur during the operation of small motorboats. However, exposure to boats and associated engine noise would be brief and would not occur on a frequent basis. Results from studies demonstrate that pinnipeds generally return to their sites and do not permanently abandon haul-out sites after exposure to motorboats. The chance of a vessel strike is very low due to small boat size and slow transit speeds. Researchers will delay ingress into the landing areas until after the pinnipeds enter the water and will cautiously operate vessels at slow speeds.
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our preliminary determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• No mortality is anticipated or authorized;
• Limited behavioral disturbance in the form of short-duration startle reactions or flushing Mitigation requirements employed by researchers (
• No activity near rookeries and avoidance of pups; and
• Limited impact from boats due to their small size, maneuverability and the requirement to delay ingress until after hauled out pinnipeds have entered the water.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the proposed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS preliminarily finds
As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under Section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of the relevant species or stock size in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals.
As mentioned previously, NMFS estimates that four marine mammal species could potentially be affected by Level B harassment under the proposed authorization. For each species, these numbers are small relative to the population size. These incidental harassment numbers represent approximately 13.5 percent of the U.S. stock of California sea lion, 1.28 percent of the California stock of Pacific harbor seal, 0.11 percent of the California breeding stock of northern elephant seal, and 0.05 percent of the eastern distinct population segment of Steller sea lion. Note that the number of individual marine mammals taken is assumed to be less than the take estimate (number of exposures) since we assume that the same animals may be behaviorally harassed over multiple days.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the proposed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS preliminarily finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA: 16 U.S.C. 1531
No incidental take of ESA-listed species is proposed for authorization or expected to result from this activity. Therefore, NMFS has determined that formal consultation under section 7 of the ESA is not required for this action.
To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
Accordingly, NMFS has preliminarily determined that the issuance of the proposed IHA qualifies to be categorically excluded from further NEPA review. This action is consistent with categories of activities identified in CE B4 of the Companion Manual for NOAA Administrative Order 216-6A, which do not individually or cumulatively have the potential for significant impacts on the quality of the human environment and for which we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances that would preclude this categorical exclusion.
We will review all comments submitted in response to this notice prior to concluding our NEPA process or making a final decision on the IHA request.
As a result of these preliminary determinations, NMFS proposes to issue an IHA to Point Blue Conservation Science for conducting research surveys at SEFI, ANI, and PRNS from June 16, 2017 through June 15, 2018 provided the previously mentioned mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated. This section contains a draft of the IHA itself. The wording contained in this section is proposed for inclusion in the IHA (if issued).
1. This IHA is valid from June 16, 2017 through June 15, 2018.
2. This IHA is valid only for specified activities associated with seabird and marine mammal monitoring surveys located on or near Southeast Farallon Island, Año Nuevo Island, and Point Reyes National Seashore.
3. Species Authorized and Level of Take.
a. The incidental taking of marine mammals, by Level B harassment only is limited to the following species and associated authorized take numbers as shown below:
i. 399 harbor seal; (
ii. 40,138 California sea lions (
iii. 36 Steller sea lions (
iv. 203 northern elephant seals (
b. The taking by injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or death of any of the species listed in condition 3(a) of the IHA or any taking of any other species of marine mammal is prohibited and may result in the modification, suspension, or revocation of this IHA.
4. General Conditions.
a. A copy of this Authorization must be in the possession of Point Blue, its designees, and field crew personnel (including research collaborators from
5. Mitigation Measures.
The holder of this IHA is required to implement the following mitigation measures:
a. Slow approach to beaches for boat landings to avoid stampede and provide animals opportunity to enter water.
b. Select a pathway of approach to research sites that minimizes the number of marine mammals harassed.
c. Avoid visits to sites when pups are present.
d. Monitor for offshore predators and do not approach hauled out pinnipeds if great white sharks (
e. Keep voices hushed and bodies low to the ground in the visual presence of pinnipeds.
f. Conduct seabird observations at North Landing on Southeast Farallon Island in an observation blind, shielded from the view of hauled out pinnipeds.
g. Crawl slowly to access seabird nest boxes on Año Nuevo Island if pinnipeds are within view.
h. Coordinate research visits to intertidal areas of Southeast Farallon Island (to reduce potential take) and coordinate research goals for Año Nuevo Island to minimize the number of trips to the island.
i. Coordinate monitoring schedules on Año Nuevo Island, so that areas near pinnipeds would be accessed only once per visit.
j. Require beach landings on Año Nuevo Island only occur after any pinnipeds that might be present on the landing beach have entered the water.
k. Operate motorboats slowly with caution during approaches to landing sites in order to avoid vessel strikes.
l. Have the lead biologist serve as an observer to record incidental take.
6. Monitoring.
The holder of this Authorization is required to:
a. Record the date, time, and location (or closest point of ingress) of each visit to the research site.
b. Collect the following information for each visit:
i. Composition of the marine mammals sighted, such as species, gender and life history stage (
ii. information on the numbers (by species) of marine mammals observed during the activities;
iii. estimated number of marine mammals (by species) that may have been harassed during the activities;
iv. behavioral responses or modifications of behaviors that may be attributed to the specific activities and a description of the specific activities occurring during that time (
v. information on the weather, including the tidal state and horizontal visibility.
c. Observers will record marine mammal disturbances according to a three-point scale of intensity including:
(1) Seal head orientation or brief movement in response to disturbance, which may include turning head towards the disturbance, craning head and neck while holding the body rigid in au-shaped position, changing from a lying to a sitting position, or brief movement of less than twice the animal's body length, “alert”;
(2) movements in response to source of disturbance, ranging from short withdrawals at least twice the animal's body length to longer retreats over the beach, or if already moving a change of direction of greater than 90 degrees, “movement”; and
(3) all retreats (flushes) to the water, “flush”.
(4) Observations of disturbance Levels 2 and 3 will be recorded as takes.
d. If applicable, note observations of marked or tag-bearing pinnipeds or carcasses, as well as any rare or unusual species of marine mammal.
e. If applicable, note the presence of any offshore predators (date, time, number, and species).
7. Reporting.
The holder of this Authorization is required to:
a. Report observations of unusual behaviors of pinnipeds to the NMFS West Coast Region Office so that the appropriate personnel NMFS personnel may conduct any potential follow-up observations.
b. Submit a draft monitoring report to NMFS Office of Protected Resources by April 1, 2018 covering the time period of January 1, 2017 through December 31, 2017. A final report will be prepared and submitted within 30 days following resolution of any comments on the draft report from NMFS. If no comments are received from NMFS, the draft final report will be considered to be the final report
c. Reporting injured or dead marine mammals:
i. In the unanticipated event that the specified activity clearly causes the take of a marine mammal in a manner prohibited by this IHA, such as an injury (Level A harassment), serious injury, or mortality, Point Blue will immediately cease the specified activities and report the incident to the Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, and the West Coast Regional Stranding Coordinator, NMFS. The report must include the following information:
1. Time and date of the incident;
2. Description of the incident;
3. Environmental conditions (
4. Description of all marine mammal observations and active sound source use in the 24 hours preceding the incident;
5. Species identification or description of the animal(s) involved;
6. Fate of the animal(s); and
7. Photographs or video footage of the animal(s).
Activities will not resume until NMFS is able to review the circumstances of the prohibited take. NMFS will work with Point Blue to determine what measures are necessary to minimize the likelihood of further prohibited take and ensure MMPA compliance. Point Blue may not resume their activities until notified by NMFS.
ii. In the event that Point Blue discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the cause of the injury or death is unknown and the death is relatively recent (
iii. In the event that Point Blue discovers an injured or dead marine mammal, and the lead observer determines that the injury or death is not associated with or related to the activities authorized in the IHA (
8. This Authorization may be modified, suspended or withdrawn if
We request comment on our analyses, the draft authorization, and any other aspect of this Notice of Proposed IHA for the proposed taking of marine mammals incidental to seabird and pinniped research activities in central California. Please include with your comments any supporting data or literature citations to help inform our final decision on the request for MMPA authorization.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; request for comments.
The Assistant Regional Administrator for Sustainable Fisheries, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, has made a preliminary determination that these Exempted Fishing Permit applications contain all of the required information and warrant further consideration. These Exempted Fishing Permits would authorize three commercial fishing vessels to conduct independent projects testing the economic viability of using hook gear to selectively target healthy pollock and haddock stocks in the Western Gulf of Maine and Cashes Ledge Closure Areas (excluding Cashes Ledge Habitat Closed Area), and to temporarily retain undersized catch for measurement and data collection.
Regulations under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act require publication of this notification to provide interested parties the opportunity to comment on applications for proposed Exempted Fishing Permits.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
You may submit written comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
Claire Fitz-Gerald, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9255,
Three commercial fishermen submitted separate and complete applications requesting an Exempted Fishing Permit (EFP) to conduct commercial fishing activities that the regulations would otherwise restrict. In total, these EFPs would authorize three commercial fishing vessels to fish a combined total of 200 trips in the Western Gulf of Maine (WGOM) and Cashes Ledge Closure Areas (excluding the Cashes Ledge Habitat Closed Area) with hook gear and to temporarily retain undersized catch for measurement and data collection.
This EFP would authorize the applicants to use hook gear to selectively target pollock and haddock while maintaining minimal bycatch. In addition, the applicants propose to leverage these exemptions to explore and develop premium markets to increase the value of the catch. This study would be conducted in the WGOM and Cashes Ledge Closure Areas (excluding habitat closed areas); the applicants have requested access to these areas based on reports that there is a high concentration of the target species located in these areas. The exemptions are necessary to conduct this study because vessels on commercial groundfish trips are prohibited from fishing for groundfish in these closed areas and from retaining undersized groundfish. EFP trips would occur year-round (excluding seasonal closures), although the majority of trips would occur in the summer and fall months. Participating vessels would take a combined total of 200 trips to closed areas. Trips would be roughly 24 hours or less in length. Estimated average catch would be between 1,000 and 2,000 lb (453.5 to 907.2 kg) of pollock and haddock, combined, per trip. Bycatch is expected to be minimal; applicants estimate 50 to 100 lb (22.7 to 45.4 kg) of cod and 10 to 25 lb (4.5 to 11.3 kg) of redfish and cusk per trip. Participating vessels would use a combination of automated jigging machines and handlines to target pollock and haddock; one vessel would use two jigging machines and three rods; another would use four rods only; the final vessel would use three jigging machines only.
Because these vessels would be fishing in closed areas, the agency would monitor their catch closely to ensure minimal interactions with Gulf of Maine cod. Cod catch would be restricted to 5 percent of the total expected catch, to be applied cumulatively across each project. In the event that an applicant exceeds the vessel's cap, that EFP authorization would end. One-hundred-percent monitoring would be required for this EFP. A vessel may carry a Northeast Fishery Observer Program (NEFOP) or At-Sea Monitoring (ASM) observer assigned to the trip through the Pre-Trip Notification System (PTNS). In the event of a waiver, the applicant must secure data collection services from a third party ASM provider, at the vessel's expense. All observers would record lengths of kept and discarded fish, gear characteristics, and fishing location. Undersized fish would be sampled and returned to the water as quickly as possible. All legal-sized Northeast multispecies would be landed, and all catch would be attributed to the vessel's sector annual catch entitlement in accordance with standard catch accounting procedures. All proceeds from the sale of catch would be retained by the vessel. The applicant would maintain a record of all ex-vessel price information to inform the questions about the ability this gear to establish a premium market for the target species.
If approved, the applicant may request minor modifications and extensions to the EFP throughout the year. EFP modifications and extensions may be granted without further notice if they are deemed essential to facilitate completion of the proposed research and have minimal impacts that do not change the scope or impact of the initially approved EFP request. Any fishing activity conducted outside the scope of the exempted fishing activity would be prohibited.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of applications.
Notice is hereby given that the Matson Laboratory [Carolyn Nistler, Responsible Party], 135 Wooden Shoe Lane, Manhattan, MT 59741, has applied in due form for a permit to import, export, and receive marine mammal parts for scientific research.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
The applications and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on either of these applications should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Shasta McClenahan or Jennifer Skidmore, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant proposes to receive, import, and export teeth from pinnipeds to perform age analysis. Teeth may be received 500 individual harbor seals (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Scallop Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Thursday, June 1, 2017 at 9:30 a.m.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Scallop Committee will review the general workload for 2017 based on Council priorities and a draft action plan for Scallop Framework 29 (FW29) and potentially identify recommendations for prioritizing work items in upcoming actions. They will also review progress on potential management measures that may be included in FW29, including: (1) Flatfish accountability measures; (2) Modifications to the management of the Northern Gulf of Maine area; (3) Measures to modify scallop access areas consistent with potential changes to habitat and groundfish mortality closed areas. The committee will also discuss the establishment of a control date that may limit the ability of Limited Access General Category (LAGC) permit holders to move between permit categories. They will provide research recommendations for the 2018/19 Scallop Research Set-Aside (RSA) federal funding announcement. Other business may be discussed as necessary.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date. Consistent with 16
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; receipt of application.
Notice is hereby given that Ann Zoidis, Ph.D., Cetos Research Organization, 11 Des Isle Avenue, Bar Harbor, ME 04609, has applied in due form for a permit to conduct research on marine mammals.
Written, telefaxed, or email comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
The application and related documents are available for review by selecting “Records Open for Public Comment” from the “Features” box on the Applications and Permits for Protected Species (APPS) home page,
These documents are also available upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Written comments on this application should be submitted to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division, at the address listed above. Comments may also be submitted by facsimile to (301) 713-0376, or by email to
Those individuals requesting a public hearing should submit a written request to the Chief, Permits and Conservation Division at the address listed above. The request should set forth the specific reasons why a hearing on this application would be appropriate.
Shasta McClenahan or Carrie Hubard, (301) 427-8401.
The subject permit is requested under the authority of the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972, as amended (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361
The applicant requests a five-year research permit to study cetaceans in the Gulf of Maine to determine population behavior, size, distribution, seasonal variations, habitat utilization, and trophic ecology. The research would target 17 species of cetaceans including the following endangered species: Blue (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Concurrent with the publication of this notice in the
United States Patent and Trademark Office, Commerce.
Request for comments.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (“USPTO”) seeks comments from stakeholders, mark owners, and all those interested in the maintenance of an accurate U.S. Trademark Register, on the establishment of a streamlined version of the existing
To ensure consideration, comments should be submitted no later than August 14, 2017.
Comments should be sent by electronic mail message over the Internet addressed to:
The comments will be available for public inspection via the USPTO Web site at
Cynthia Lynch, Trademark Trial and Appeal Board, by email at
As part of the USPTO's ongoing effort to improve the accuracy of the U.S. Trademark Register, the USPTO has been consulting with stakeholders on
The USPTO has assessed many options, including making statutory and regulatory changes, as part of this ongoing effort and has decided to prioritize proposals for modifying existing regulations at this time. Accordingly, this Request for Comments addresses an option for a streamlined version of the existing
Under existing law, cancellation of a registration for nonuse requires a showing of either: (1) Abandonment as to some or all of the goods/services (nonuse plus intention not to resume use); or (2) no use for some or all of the goods/services in a Section 1-based registration prior to the relevant operative date (
The introduction of this flexibility in the relevant rules would include specific procedures and timing to facilitate speed and efficiency, including that the evidence must be submitted with the pleadings, very limited discovery only when granted by the TTAB for good cause shown, an abbreviated schedule, no oral hearing, and issuance of the TTAB's decision within an expedited timeframe. These proceedings would provide a significantly streamlined process because pleading, presentation of evidence, and limited briefing would occur simultaneously. The fee for a petition to cancel in a Streamlined Proceeding would be lower than for a petition in a full proceeding—with possible fees totaling $300 per class when filing through the Electronic System for Trademark Trials and Appeals (ESTTA), or $400 per class when filing on paper.
A petition to cancel in a Streamlined Proceeding would be required to set forth facts to establish the petitioner's standing and set forth with particularity the factual basis for the ground(s) asserted as the basis for cancellation. While the Streamlined Proceedings would be limited to assertion of two possible grounds, there may be cases in which the petitioner would assert both; and in that scenario, each ground would have to be stated with particularity. Additionally, the petition would be required to be supported by the proof upon which the petitioner relies to establish both standing and the claim of abandonment and/or nonuse. As proof for the claim, for example, a petitioner might provide a declaration outlining a search for use of the mark and the results, or other evidence of abandonment or nonuse.
The respondent's answer would be required within 40 days. In addition to the requirement that the respondent admit or deny the averments in the petition and, if applicable, state the defenses of either estoppel or prior judgments, the answer would be required to also include proof of use or other evidence on which the respondent seeks to rely to counter the abandonment or nonuse grounds for the goods or services as to which the grounds have been alleged, or to support any pleaded defenses.
After reviewing the answer and proof, within 40 days the petitioner may elect to:
(1) Reply, providing any rebuttal evidence, thereby submitting the Streamlined Proceeding for decision by the TTAB (typically within 90 days);
(2) Withdraw the petition for cancellation without prejudicing the right to file another cancellation proceeding
(3) File a notice of conversion to a full cancellation proceeding, along with the appropriate fee and any proposed amendment of the petition to cancel, including adding other grounds for cancellation. Upon any such conversion to a full proceeding, the TTAB would designate a time within which an amended answer must be filed, and issue a trial order setting deadlines and dates to allow for disclosures, discovery, trial and briefing. The cancellation proceeding then would continue pursuant to the usual practices and rules for non-streamlined proceedings. Notably, the respondent would
At the time of the answer, the respondent may, by separate motion, request limited discovery solely on the issue of standing, based on a showing of good cause. Upon the grant of such a motion, the TTAB would issue an order setting the deadline for discovery and deadlines by which the respondent may submit a motion to challenge standing and by which the petitioner may respond to such a motion, if filed. The TTAB would grant such a motion only when it appears that discovery could provide outcome determinative information with respect to standing. Such a motion would not stay or otherwise extend deadlines. Regardless of the request for discovery or any challenge to standing, the respondent must nonetheless still timely answer the petition and provide its proof, and the petitioner must provide any reply brief or conversion request.
Counterclaims would not be permitted in Streamlined Proceedings. To the extent that a respondent believes that it has the basis for a counterclaim, it would have to bring the claim in a separate proceeding. As a general rule, suspensions would be rare and would typically be available only when there is concurrent district court litigation involving the same mark(s) and issue(s).
The Streamlined Proceedings could offer a substantially quicker schedule than a full cancellation proceeding. In the case of a default judgment where the respondent does not respond to the petition, the entire proceeding could conclude within approximately 70 days. In a case where a respondent elects to respond, the entire proceeding could conclude within approximately 170 days in most cases. Extensions of time for the answer or reply would be limited to one per party.
The USPTO is requesting written public comments on the Streamlined Proceedings, as outlined above, or other options for a streamlined version of the existing
Proposed collection; comment request.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, invites comments on a proposed extension of an existing information collection: 0651-0050 (Responses to Office Action and Voluntary Amendment Forms).
Written comments must be submitted on or before July 17, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Requests for additional information should be directed to Catherine Cain, Attorney Advisor, Office of the Commissioner for Trademarks, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1450, Alexandria, VA 22313-1450, by telephone at 571-272-8946, or by email at
This collection of information is required by the Trademark Act, 15 U.S.C. 1051
In some cases, the USPTO issues Office Actions to applicants who have applied to register a mark, requesting information that was not provided with the initial submission, but is required before the issuance of a registration. Also, the USPTO may determine that a mark is not entitled to registration, pursuant to one or more provisions of the Trademark Act. In such cases, the USPTO will issue an Office Action advising the applicant of the refusal to register the mark. Applicants reply to these Office Actions by providing the required information and/or by putting forth legal arguments as to why the refusal of registration should be withdrawn.
The USPTO administers the Trademark Act through Chapter 37 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These rules allow the USPTO to request and receive information required to process applications. These rules also allow applicants to submit certain amendments to their applications.
Applicants may also supplement their applications and provide further information by filing a Voluntary Amendment Not in Response to USPTO Office Action/Letter, a Request for Reconsideration after Final Office Action, a Post-Approval/Publication/Post-Notice of Allowance (NOA) Amendment, a Petition to Amend Basis Post-Publication, or a Response to Suspension Inquiry or Letter of Suspension. In rare instances, an applicant may also submit a Substitute Trademark/Servicemark, Substitute Certification Mark, Substitute Collective Membership Mark, or Substitute Collective Trademark/Servicemark application.
The forms in this collection are available in electronic format through the Trademark Electronic Application System (TEAS), which may be accessed on the USPTO Web site. TEAS Global Forms are available for the items where a TEAS form with dedicated data fields is not yet available. Applicants may also submit the information in paper form by mail, fax, or hand delivery.
Customers incur postage costs when submitting non-electronic information to the USPTO by mail through the United States Postal Service. The USPTO expects that the majority (roughly 98%) of the paper forms are submitted to the USPTO via first-class mail. The USPTO estimates that these submissions will typically weigh approximately one ounce and that the first-class postage for these submissions is $0.49 per submission.
There are three filing fees associated with the collection, detailed in Table 3 below.
The USPTO estimates that the total (non-hour) respondent cost burden for this collection in the form of both postage costs and filing fees is $113,053.35 per year.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
The USPTO is soliciting public comments to: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Defense Science Board (DSB) will take place.
Day 1—Closed to the public Wednesday, May 17, 2017, from 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. and 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.; Day 2—Closed to the public Thursday, May 18, 2017 from 10:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. and 1:00 p.m. to 3:45 p.m.
The address of the closed meeting is the Nunn-Lugar Conference, Room 3E863, 3140 Defense Pentagon, Washington, DC 20301.
Defense Science Board Designated Federal Officer (DFO) Ms. Karen D.H. Saunders, (703) 571-0079 (Voice), (703) 697-1860 (Facsimile),
Due to circumstances beyond the control of the Designated Federal Officer and the Department of Defense, the Defense Science Board was unable to provide public notification concerning its meeting on May 17 through 18, 2017, as required by 41 CFR 102-3.150(a). Accordingly, the Advisory Committee Management Officer for the Department of Defense, pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150(b), waives the 15-calendar day notification requirement.
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., Appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of
Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services (OSERS), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing an extension of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 15, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact James Billy, 202-245-7273.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education, Department of Education.
Notice.
The Department of Education is issuing a notice inviting applications for new awards for fiscal year (FY) 2017 for Striving Readers Comprehensive Literacy Programs, Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) number 84.371C.
Cindy Savage, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., room 3E237, Washington, DC 20202-6450. Telephone: (202) 453-5998 or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
This priority is:
Under this priority, a State educational agency (SEA) must ensure that evidence plays a central role in the SRCL subgrants. Specifically, in its high-quality plan, an SEA must assure that (1) it will use an independent peer review process to prioritize awards to eligible subgrantees that propose high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction programs that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence, where evidence is applicable and available, and (2) the comprehensive literacy instruction program proposed by eligible subgrantees will align with the State's comprehensive literacy plan as well as local needs.
These priorities are:
Under this priority, an SEA must describe in its application a high-quality plan to award subgrants that will serve the greatest numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children, including children living in poverty, English learners, and children with disabilities.
Under this priority, an SEA must describe in its application a high-quality plan to align, through a progression of approaches appropriate for each age group, early language and literacy projects supported by this grant that serve children from birth to age five with programs and systems that serve students in kindergarten through grade five to improve school readiness and transitions for children across this continuum.
Grantees must—
(1) Subgrant no less than 95 percent of funds received under this competition to eligible subgrantees;
(2) Ensure that at least—
(a) 15 percent of the subgranted funds serve children from birth through age five;
(b) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in kindergarten through grade five; and
(c) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in middle and high school, including an equitable distribution of funds between middle and high schools.
To be considered for an award under this program, an SEA must submit a new or revised State comprehensive literacy plan that is informed by a recent (conducted in the past five years) and comprehensive needs assessment developed with the assistance of its State literacy team. Additionally, the plan must be reviewed by the State literacy team and updated annually if an SEA receives an award under this program.
Grantees must ensure that they will only fund subgrantees that submit a local literacy plan that: (1) is informed by a comprehensive needs assessment and that is aligned with the State comprehensive literacy plan; (2) provides for professional development; (3) includes interventions and practices that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence, where evidence is applicable and available; and (4) includes a plan to track children's outcomes consistent with all applicable privacy requirements.
In selecting among eligible subgrantees, an SEA must give priority to eligible subgrantees serving greater numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children.
Grantees must use data, including the results of monitoring and evaluations and other administrative data, to inform the program's continuous improvement and decisionmaking, to improve program participant outcomes, and to ensure that disadvantaged children are served. Additionally, grantees must ensure that subgrantees, educators, families, and other key stakeholders receive the results of the evaluations conducted on the effectiveness of the program in a timely fashion, consistent with all applicable Federal, State, and other privacy requirements.
Grantees must use funds under this program to supplement, and not supplant, any non-Federal funds that would be used to advance literacy skills for children from birth through grade 12.
Applicants must assure they will only fund subgrantees that provide a written assurance to cooperate with a national evaluation of the SRCL program. This may include adhering to the results of a random assignment process (
(a) Includes developmentally appropriate, contextually explicit, and systematic instruction, and frequent practice, in reading and writing across content areas;
(b) Includes age-appropriate, explicit, systematic, and intentional instruction in phonological awareness, phonic decoding, vocabulary, language structure, reading fluency, and reading comprehension;
(c) Includes age-appropriate, explicit instruction in writing, including opportunities for children to write with clear purposes, with critical reasoning appropriate to the topic and purpose, and with specific instruction and feedback from instructional staff;
(d) Makes available and uses diverse, high-quality print materials that reflect the reading and development levels, and interests, of children;
(e) Uses differentiated instructional approaches, including individual and small group instruction and discussion;
(f) Provides opportunities for children to use language with peers and adults in order to develop language skills, including developing vocabulary;
(g) Includes frequent practice of reading and writing strategies;
(h) Uses age-appropriate, valid, and reliable screening assessments, diagnostic assessments, formative assessment processes, and summative assessments to identify a child's learning needs, to inform instruction, and to monitor the child's progress and the effects of instruction;
(i) Uses strategies to enhance children's motivation to read and write and children's engagement in self-directed learning;
(j) Incorporates the principles of universal design for learning;
(k) Depends on teachers' collaboration in planning, instruction, and assessing a child's progress and on continuous professional learning; and
(l) Links literacy instruction to the State's challenging academic standards, including standards relating to the ability to navigate, understand, and write about complex subject matters in print and digital formats.
(a) Who is aged 3 through 21;
(b) Who is enrolled or preparing to enroll in an elementary school or secondary school;
(c)(i) Who was not born in the United States or whose native language is a language other than English;
(ii)(I) Who is a Native American or Alaska Native, or a native resident of the outlying areas; and
(II) Who comes from an environment where a language other than English has had a significant impact on the individual's level of English language proficiency; or
(iii) Who is migratory, whose native language is a language other than English, and who comes from an environment where a language other than English is dominant; and
(d) Whose difficulties in speaking, reading, writing, or understanding the English language may be sufficient to deny the individual—
(i) The ability to meet the challenging State academic standards;
(ii) The ability to successfully achieve in classrooms where the language of instruction is English; or
(iii) The opportunity to participate fully in society.
(a) Demonstrates a statistically significant effect on improving student outcomes or other relevant outcomes based on—
(i) Strong evidence from at least one well-designed and well-implemented experimental study;
(ii) Moderate evidence from at least one well-designed and well-implemented quasi-experimental study; or
(iii) Promising evidence from at least one well-designed and well-implemented correlational study with statistical controls for selection bias; or
(b)(i) Demonstrates a rationale based on high-quality research findings or positive evaluation that such activity, strategy, or intervention is likely to improve student outcomes or other relevant outcomes; and
(ii) Includes ongoing efforts to examine the effects of such activity, strategy or intervention.
(a) The key goals of the plan;
(b) The key activities to be undertaken and the rationale for how the activities support the key goals;
(c) A realistic timeline, including key milestones, for implementing each key activity;
(d) The party or parties responsible for implementing each activity and other key personnel assigned to each activity;
(e) A strong theory, including a rationale for the plan and a corresponding logic model as defined in 34 CFR 77.1;
(f) Performance measures at the State and local levels; and
(g) Appropriate financial resources to support successful implementation of the plan.
(a) Are an integral part of school and LEA strategies for providing educators (including teachers, principals, other school leaders, specialized instructional support personnel, paraprofessionals, and, as applicable, early childhood educators) with the knowledge and skills necessary to enable students to succeed in a well-rounded education and to meet the State's challenging academic standards;
(b) Are sustained (not stand-alone, one-day, or short term workshops), intensive, collaborative, job-embedded, data-driven, and classroom-focused; and
(c) May include activities that—
(1) Improve and increase teachers'—
(i) Knowledge of the academic subjects the teachers teach;
(ii) Understanding of how students learn; or
(iii) Ability to analyze student work and achievement from multiple sources, including how to adjust instructional strategies, assessments, and materials based on such analysis;
(2) Are an integral part of broad schoolwide and districtwide educational improvement plans;
(3) Allow personalized plans for each educator to address the educator's specific needs identified in observation or other feedback;
(4) Improve classroom management skills;
(5) Support the recruitment, hiring, and training of effective teachers, including teachers who became certified through State and local alternative routes to certification;
(6) Advance teacher understanding of—
(i) Effective instructional strategies that are evidence-based; or
(ii) Strategies for improving student academic achievement or substantially increasing the knowledge and teaching skills of teachers;
(7) Are aligned with, and directly related to, academic goals of the school or LEA;
(8) Are developed with extensive participation of teachers, principals, other school leaders, parents, representatives of Indian Tribes (as applicable), and administrators of schools to be served under this program;
(9) Are designed to give teachers of English learners, and other teachers and instructional staff, the knowledge and skills to provide instruction and appropriate language and academic support services to those children, including the appropriate use of curricula and assessments;
(10) To the extent appropriate, provide training for teachers, principals, and other school and community-based early childhood program leaders in the use of technology (including education about the harms of copyright piracy), so that technology and technology applications are effectively used in the classroom to improve teaching and learning in the curricula and academic subjects in which the teachers teach;
(11) As a whole, are regularly evaluated for their impact on teacher effectiveness and student academic achievement, with the findings of the evaluations used to improve the quality of professional development;
(12) Are designed to give teachers of children with disabilities or children with developmental delays, and other teachers and instructional staff, the knowledge and skills to provide instruction and academic support services to those children, including positive behavioral interventions and supports, multi-tier system of supports, and use of accommodations;
(13) Provide instruction in the use of data and assessments to inform classroom practice;
(14) Provide instruction in ways that teachers, principals, other school leaders, specialized instructional support personnel, and school administrators may work more effectively with parents and families;
(15) Involve the forming of partnerships with institutions of higher education, including, as applicable, Tribal Colleges and Universities as defined in section 316(b) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (20 U.S.C. 1059c(b)), to establish school-based teacher, principal, and other school leader training programs that provide prospective teachers, novice teachers, principals, and other school leaders with an opportunity to work under the guidance of experienced teachers, principals, other school leaders, and faculty of such institutions;
(16) Create programs to enable paraprofessionals (assisting teachers employed by an LEA receiving assistance under part A of title I) to obtain the education necessary for those paraprofessionals to become certified and licensed teachers;
(17) Provide follow-up training to teachers who have participated in activities described in this paragraph (c) that are designed to ensure that the knowledge and skills learned by the teachers are implemented in the classroom; or
(18) Where practicable, provide for school staff and other early childhood education program providers to address jointly the transition to elementary school, including issues related to school readiness.
(a) Implementing literacy development practices and instruction for children in the following age/grade levels: Birth through age five, kindergarten through grade 5, grades 6 through 8, and grades 9 through 12;
(b) Managing and implementing literacy programs that are supported by strong evidence or moderate evidence;
(c) Evaluating comprehensive literacy instruction programs;
(d) Planning for and implementing effective literacy interventions and practices, particularly for disadvantaged children, children living in poverty, struggling readers, English learners, and children with disabilities;
(e) Implementing assessments in the areas of phonological awareness, word recognition, phonics, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and writing; and
(f) Implementing professional development on literacy development and instruction.
A literacy team member may have expertise in more than one area. Team members may also include, but are not limited to: Library/media specialists; parents; literacy coaches; instructors of adult education; representatives of community-based organizations providing educational services to disadvantaged children and families; family literacy service providers; representatives from local or State school boards; and representatives from related child services agencies.
(a) Provides flexibility in the ways information is presented, in the ways students respond or demonstrate knowledge and skills, and in the ways students are engaged; and
(b) Reduces barriers in instruction, provides appropriate accommodations, supports, and challenges, and maintains high achievement expectations for all students, including students with disabilities and students who are limited English proficient.
Section 1502 of the ESEA, as amended by the NCLB, and Title III of Division H of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016 (Pub. L. 114-113).
Contingent upon the availability of funds and the quality of applications, we may make additional awards in subsequent years from the list of unfunded applications from this competition.
The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
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2. a.
matching.
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(b) The grantee may award subgrants to entities it selects through a competition under procedures established by the grantee.
1.
To obtain a copy via the internet, use the following address:
To obtain a copy from ED Pubs, write, fax, or call: ED Pubs, U.S. Department of Education, P.O. Box 22207, Alexandria, VA 22304. Telephone, toll free: 1-877-433-7827. FAX: (703) 605-6794. If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call, toll free: 1-877-576-7734.
You can contact ED Pubs at its Web site, also:
If you request an application package from ED Pubs, be sure to identify this program as follows: CFDA number 84.371C.
To obtain a copy from the program office, contact: Cindy Savage, U.S.
Individuals with disabilities can obtain a copy of the application package in an accessible format (
2.
• A “page” is 8.5″ × 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.
• Double space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.
• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).
• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.
The recommended page limit does not apply to the cover sheet; the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative, which includes responses to the priorities and selection criteria.
Requirements concerning the content and form of an application, together with the forms you must submit, are in the application package for this competition.
3.
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically using the
We do not consider an application that does not comply with the deadline requirements.
Individuals with disabilities who need an accommodation or auxiliary aid in connection with the application process should contact either person listed under
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6.
a. Have a Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS) number and a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN);
b. Register both your DUNS number and TIN with the System for Award Management (SAM), the Government's primary registrant database;
c. Provide your DUNS number and TIN on your application; and
d. Maintain an active SAM registration with current information while your application is under review by the Department and, if you are awarded a grant, during the project period.
You can obtain a DUNS number from Dun and Bradstreet at the following Web site:
If you are a corporate entity, agency, institution, or organization, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service. If you are an individual, you can obtain a TIN from the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration. If you need a new TIN, please allow two to five weeks for your TIN to become active.
The SAM registration process can take approximately seven business days, but may take upwards of several weeks, depending on the completeness and accuracy of the data you enter into the SAM database. Thus, if you think you might want to apply for Federal financial assistance under a program administered by the Department, please allow sufficient time to obtain and register your DUNS number and TIN. We strongly recommend that you register early.
Once your SAM registration is active, it may be 24 to 48 hours before you can access the information in, and submit an application through,
If you are currently registered with SAM, you may not need to make any changes. However, please make certain that the TIN associated with your DUNS number is correct. Also note that you will need to update your registration annually. This may take three or more business days.
Information about SAM is available at
In addition, if you are submitting your application via
7.
Applications for grants under this competition must be submitted electronically unless you qualify for an exception to this requirement in accordance with the instructions in this section.
a.
Applications for grants under the SRCL program, CFDA 84.371C, must be submitted electronically using the Governmentwide
We will reject your application if you submit it in paper format unless, as described elsewhere in this section, you qualify for one of the exceptions to the electronic submission requirement
You may access the electronic grant application for the SRCL program at
Please note the following:
• When you enter the
• Applications received by
• The amount of time it can take to upload an application will vary depending on a variety of factors, including the size of the application and the speed of your internet connection. Therefore, we strongly recommend that you do not wait until the application deadline date to begin the submission process through
• You should review and follow the Education Submission Procedures for submitting an application through
• You will not receive additional point value because you submit your application in electronic format, nor will we penalize you if you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, as described elsewhere in this section, and submit your application in paper format.
• You must submit all documents electronically, including all information you typically provide on the following forms: the Application for Federal Assistance (SF 424), the Department of Education Supplemental Information for SF 424, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs (ED 524), and all necessary assurances and certifications.
• You must upload any narrative sections and all other attachments to your application as files in a read-only, flattened Portable Document Format (PDF), meaning any fillable PDF documents must be saved as flattened non-fillable files. Therefore, do not upload an interactive or fillable PDF file. If you upload a file type other than a read-only, flattened PDF (
• After you electronically submit your application, you will receive from
Once your application is successfully validated by
These emails do not mean that your application is without any disqualifying errors. While your application may have been successfully validated by
• We may request that you provide us original signatures on forms at a later date.
If you are prevented from electronically submitting your application on the application deadline date because of technical problems with the
If you submit an application after 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, on the application deadline date, please contact the person listed under
The extensions to which we refer in this section apply only to the unavailability of, or technical problems with, the
• You do not have access to the internet; or
• You do not have the capacity to upload large documents to the
and
• No later than two weeks before the application deadline date (14 calendar days or, if the fourteenth calendar day before the application deadline date falls on a Federal holiday, the next business day following the Federal holiday), you mail or fax a written statement to the Department, explaining which of the two grounds for an exception prevents you from using the internet to submit your application.
If you mail your written statement to the Department, it must be postmarked no later than two weeks before the application deadline date. If you fax your written statement to the Department, we must receive the faxed statement no later than two weeks before the application deadline date.
Address and mail or fax your statement to: Cindy Savage, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 3E237, Washington, DC 20202. FAX: (202) 260-8969.
Your paper application must be submitted in accordance with the mail or hand-delivery instructions described in this notice.
b.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you may mail (through the U.S. Postal Service or a commercial carrier) your application to the Department. You must mail the original and two copies of your application, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: CFDA Number 84.371C, LBJ Basement Level 1, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20202-4260.
You must show proof of mailing consisting of one of the following:
(1) A legibly dated U.S. Postal Service postmark.
(2) A legible mail receipt with the date of mailing stamped by the U.S. Postal Service.
(3) A dated shipping label, invoice, or receipt from a commercial carrier.
(4) Any other proof of mailing acceptable to the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Education.
If you mail your application through the U.S. Postal Service, we do not accept either of the following as proof of mailing:
(1) A private metered postmark.
(2) A mail receipt that is not dated by the U.S. Postal Service.
The U.S. Postal Service does not uniformly provide a dated postmark. Before relying on this method, you should check with your local post office.
We will not consider applications postmarked after the application deadline date.
c.
If you qualify for an exception to the electronic submission requirement, you (or a courier service) may deliver your paper application to the Department by hand. You must deliver the original and two copies of your application by hand, on or before the application deadline date, to the Department at the following address: U.S. Department of Education, Application Control Center, Attention: CFDA Number 84.371C, 550 12th Street SW., Room 7039, Potomac Center Plaza, Washington, DC 20202-4260.
The Application Control Center accepts hand deliveries daily between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30:00 p.m., Washington, DC time, except Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
If you mail or hand deliver your application to the Department—
(1) You must indicate on the envelope and—if not provided by the Department—in Item 11 of the SF 424 the CFDA number, including suffix letter, if any, of the competition under which you are submitting your application; and
(2) The Application Control Center will mail to you a notification of receipt of your grant application. If you do not receive this notification within 15 business days from the application deadline date, you should call the U.S. Department of Education Application Control Center at (202) 245-6288.
1.
(a)
To determine the quality of the applicant's State-level activities, the Secretary considers—
(1) The extent to which the SEA will support and provide technical assistance to its SRCL program subgrantees to ensure they implement a high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction program that will improve student achievement, including technical assistance on identifying and implementing with fidelity interventions and practices that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence and align with local needs; and
(2) The extent to which the SEA will collect data and other information to inform the continuous improvement, and evaluate the effectiveness and impact, of local projects.
(b)
To determine the quality of the applicant's SEA plan for subgrants, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA has a high-quality plan to use an independent peer review process to award subgrants that propose a high-quality comprehensive literacy instruction program, including—
(1) A plan to prioritize projects that will use interventions and practices that are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence; and
(2) A process to determine—
(i) The extent to which the intervention or practice is supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence;
(ii) The alignment of the local project to the State's comprehensive literacy plan and the local literacy plan;
(iii) The extent to which the interventions and practices are differentiated and are appropriate for children from birth through age five and children in kindergarten through grade 5; and
(iv) The relevance of cited studies to the project proposed and identified needs.
(c)
To determine the quality of the applicant's SEA monitoring plan, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA describes a high-quality plan for monitoring local projects, including how it will ensure that—
(1) The interventions and practices that are part of the comprehensive literacy instruction program are aligned with the SEA's State comprehensive literacy plan;
(2) The interventions and practices that subgrantees implement are supported by moderate evidence or strong evidence, to the extent appropriate and available;
(3) The interventions and practices are differentiated and are appropriate for children from birth through age five and children in kindergarten through grade 5; and
(4) The interventions and practices are implemented with fidelity and aligned with the SEA's State comprehensive literacy plan and local literacy plan.
(d)
To determine the quality of the applicant's alignment of resources, the Secretary considers the extent to which the SEA will:
(1) Target subgrants supporting projects that will improve instruction for the greatest numbers or percentages of disadvantaged children; and
(2) Award subgrants of sufficient size to fully and effectively implement the local plan while also ensuring that at least—
(a) 15 percent of the subgranted funds serve children from birth through age five;
(b) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in kindergarten through grade five; and
(c) 40 percent of the subgranted funds serve students in middle and high school, through grade 12, including an equitable distribution of funds between middle and high schools.
(e)
The Secretary considers the adequacy of resources for the proposed project. In determining the adequacy of resources for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:
(1) The extent to which the costs are reasonable in relation to the objectives, design, and potential significance of the proposed project; and
(2) The extent to which the costs are reasonable in relation to the number of persons to be served and to the anticipated results and benefits.
(f)
The Secretary considers the quality of the project design. In determining the quality of the design of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the extent to which the proposed project is designed to build capacity and yield results that will extend beyond the period of Federal financial assistance.
2.
In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department of Education (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
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4.
Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, Appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.
1.
If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.
2.
We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the
3.
(b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Secretary under 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to
(c) Under 34 CFR 75.250(b), the Secretary may provide a grantee with additional funding for data collection analysis and reporting. In this case the Secretary establishes a data collection period.
4.
(1) The percentage of participating four-year-old children who achieve significant gains in oral language skills.
(2) The percentage of participating fifth-grade students who meet or exceed proficiency on State reading/language arts assessments under section 1111(b)(2)(B)(v)(I) of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA.
(3) The percentage of participating eighth-grade students who meet or exceed proficiency on State reading/language arts assessments under section 1111(b)(2)(B)(v)(I) of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA.
(4) The percentage of participating high school students who meet or exceed proficiency on State reading/language arts assessments under section 1111(b)(2)(B)(v)(I) of the ESEA, as amended by the ESSA.
These measures constitute the Department's indicator of success for this program. Consequently, we advise an applicant for a grant under this program to give careful consideration to these measures in conceptualizing the approach and evaluation for its proposed project. Each grantee will be required to provide, in its annual performance and final reports, data about its progress in meeting these measures.
5.
In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Office of Innovation and Improvement (OII), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before June 15, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Terpak Kelly, 202-205-5231.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meeting related to the wholesale markets of ISO New England Inc.:
Integrating Markets and Public Policy: May 17, 2017, 9:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m. (EST) Doubletree Hotel, 5400 Computer Drive, Westborough, MA 01581.
Further information may be found at
The discussion at the meeting described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact Michael Cackoski, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-6169 or
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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j. This application is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
k.
During operation, the Blenheim-Gilboa Project's pump-turbines may be turned on or off several times throughout the day, but the project typically generates electricity during the day when consumer demand is high and other power resources are more expensive. Pumping usually occurs at night and on weekends when there is excess electricity in the system available for use. According to a July 30, 1975, settlement agreement, NYPA releases a minimum flow of 10 cubic feet per second (cfs) during low-flow periods when 1,500 acre-feet of water is in storage, and 7 cfs when less than 1,500 acre-feet is in storage. For the period 2007 through 2016, the project's average annual generation was about 374,854 megawatt-hours (MWh) and average annual energy consumption from pumping was about 540,217 MWh.
l.
m. You may also register online at
n.
o. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission no later than 30 days from the issuance date of the notice of ready for environmental analysis.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental assessment (EA) that will discuss the environmental impacts of the North Fork Nooksack Line Lowering Project (Nooksack Lowering Project or Project) involving construction and operation of facilities by Northwest Pipeline LLC (Northwest) in Whatcom County, Washington. The Commission will use this EA in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.
This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies on the project. You can make a difference by providing us with your specific comments or concerns about the project. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the EA. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please send your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before June 8, 2017.
If you sent comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on April 6, 2017, you will need to refile those comments in Docket No. CP17-133-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.
This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.
If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, that approval conveys with it the right of eminent domain. Therefore, if easement negotiations fail to produce an agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings where compensation would be determined in accordance with state law.
Northwest provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” This fact sheet addresses a number of typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. It is also available for viewing on the FERC Web site (
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. The
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can file your comments electronically by using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP17-133-000) with your submission: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Northwest proposes to remove, replace, and lower about 1,700 feet of 30-inch-diameter pipeline in the north floodplain of the North Fork Nooksack River. The project also includes removal of about 1,550 feet of previously abandoned in place 26-inch-diameter pipeline that will become exposed during the replacement of the 30-inch pipeline. The Project is located in Whatcom County, near Deming, Washington. According to Northwest the Project would: (1) ensure system reliability; (2) preserve service continuity; and 3) to comply with Whatcom County requirements to complete a long-term solution and reduce long-term impediments to facilitate future natural channel migration.
The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb a total of about 24.3 acres of land for lowering of the 30-inch diameter pipeline and removal of 26-inch-diameter pipeline. No new permanent easement would be required. Following construction, all construction work areas would be restored and revert to former uses. The pipeline corridor in the Project area includes three existing pipelines and work would be completed within its existing right-of-way. About 100 percent of the proposed pipeline route parallels its existing pipeline.
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Commission to take into account the environmental impacts that could result from an action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. NEPA also requires us
In the EA we will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under these general headings:
• Geology and soils;
• land use;
• water resources, fisheries, and wetlands;
• cultural resources;
• vegetation and wildlife including migratory birds;
• air quality and noise;
• endangered and threatened species;
• public safety; and
• cumulative impacts.
We will also evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project, and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas.
The EA will present our independent analysis of the issues. The EA will be available in the public record through eLibrary. Depending on the comments received during the scoping process, we may also publish and distribute the EA to the public for an allotted comment period. We will consider all comments on the EA before making our recommendations to the Commission. To ensure we have the opportunity to consider and address your comments, please carefully follow the instructions in the Public Participation section, beginning on page 2.
With this notice, we are asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate with us in the preparation of the EA.
In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, we are using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office (SHPO), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
The environmental mailing list includes federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for
If we publish and distribute the EA, copies will be sent to the environmental mailing list for public review and comment. If you would prefer to receive a paper copy of the document instead of the CD version or would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please return the attached Information Request (appendix 2).
In addition to involvement in the EA scoping process, you may want to become an intervenor which is an official party to the Commission's proceeding. Intervenors play a more formal role in the process and are able to file briefs, appear at hearings, and be heard by the courts if they choose to appeal the Commission's final ruling. An intervenor formally participates in the proceeding by filing a request to intervene. Instructions for becoming an intervenor are in the Document-less Intervention Guide under the e-filing link on the Commission's Web site. Motions to intervene are more fully described at
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site at
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Finally, public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, protests, and motions to intervene using the Commission's eFiling system at
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When a Declaration of Intention is filed with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, the Federal Power Act requires the Commission to investigate and determine if the project would affect the interests of interstate or foreign commerce. The Commission also determines whether or not the project: (1) Would be located on a navigable waterway; (2) would occupy public lands or reservations of the United States; (3) would utilize surplus water or water power from a government dam; or (4) would be located on a non-navigable stream over which Congress has Commerce Clause jurisdiction and would be constructed or enlarged after 1935.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that on April 26, 2017, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc. (WBI Energy), 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503 filed an application pursuant to section 7 (c) of the Natural Gas Act requesting authorization to construct, install, operate and maintain the Valley Expansion Project (Project). Specifically, WBI proposes to construct, install, operate and maintain: (i) Interconnect facilities with Viking Gas Transmission Company in Clay County, Minnesota; (ii) approximately 37.3 miles of 16-inch diameter pipeline in Clay County, Minnesota and Cass County, North Dakota; (iii) approximately 3,000 horsepower electric compressor station in Cass County, North Dakota; and to (iv) replace two existing town border stations and construct a regulator station in Burleigh, Stutsman and Barnes Counties, North Dakota. WBI Energy states that the Project will provide an
Any questions regarding the proposed project should be directed to Lori Myerchin, Manager, Regulatory Affairs, WBI Energy Transmission, Inc., 1250 West Century Avenue, Bismarck, North Dakota 58503, or at (701) 530-1563, or
On October 17, 2016, the Commission staff granted WBI Energy's request to utilize the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Pre-Filing Process and assigned Docket No. PF16-10-000 to staff activities involving the project. Now, as of the filing of this application on April 26, 2017, the NEPA Pre-Filing Process for this project has ended. From this time forward, this proceeding will be conducted in Docket No. CP17-257-000, as noted in the caption of this Notice.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 7 copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
Take notice that on May 1, 2017, DTE Midstream Appalachia, LLC (DTE Midstream), 333 Technology Drive, Suite 255, Canonsburg, Pennsylvania 15317, filed with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission an abbreviated application under Section 7 of the Natural Gas Act requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity authorizing DTE Midstream to construct, install, own, operate and maintain a new interstate natural gas pipeline known as the Birdsboro Pipeline Project. DTE Midstream requests issuance of blanket certificates Pursuant to Part 284, Subpart G and Part 157, Subpart F of the Commission's regulations.
The project will have an initial design capacity of 79,000 Dekatherms per day (Dth/d) and will transport natural gas from a single receipt point at an interconnection with a Texas Eastern Transmission LP (Texas Eastern) interstate pipeline to a single delivery point at a new gas-fired generating facility (Birdsboro Facility), all in Berks County, Pennsylvania. DTE Midstream proposes initial recourse rates and requests approval of its
The filing may also be viewed on the Web at
Questions regarding this application may be directed to Kenneth Magyar, DTE Midstream Appalachia, LLC, 333 Technology Drive, Suite 255, Canonsburg, PA 15317; Phone: (724) 416-7263.
Specifically, DTE Midstream proposes 13.19 miles of 12-inch diameter pipeline; installation of a new pig receiver at the Birdsboro Facility; installation of one new meter site adjacent to the Texas Eastern right-of-way, one new pig launcher at the Texas Eastern interconnect; two new taps on the Texas Eastern pipeline; and four valves along the pipeline route spaced to meet the requirements of the U.S. Department of Transportation's Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration. DTE Midstream requests Commission issue the requested authorizations by December 15, 2017, in order to meet the June 30, 2018, proposed in-service date. The total cost of the Project is estimated to be approximately $47,276,982.
On October 28, 2016, the Commission granted DTE Midstream's request to utilize the Commission's Pre-Filing Process and assigned Docket Number PF17-1-000 to staff activities involved in the above referenced project. Now, as of the filing of the May 1, 2017 application, the Pre-Filing Process for this project has ended. From this time forward, this proceeding will be conducted in Docket No. CP17-409-000, as noted in the caption of this Notice.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit five copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commentors will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commentors will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentors will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
On July 1, 2016, Maysville Pumped Storage, LLC filed an application for a preliminary permit, pursuant to section 4(f) of the Federal Power Act (FPA), proposing to study the feasibility of a hydropower project located on the Ohio River in Mason County, Kentucky. The sole purpose of a preliminary permit, if issued, is to grant the permit holder priority to file a license application during the permit term. A preliminary permit does not authorize the permit holder to perform any land-disturbing activities or otherwise enter upon lands or waters owned by others without the owners' express permission.
The proposed project would be developed in three phases. In the final phase the following project would consist of: (1) A 15-foot-high, 40-foot-long concrete intake structure on the Ohio River; (2) two 10-foot-diameter, 1,050-foot-long steel pipes to supply water to the project; (3) a 135-foot-high, 500-foot-long earth fill or roller-compacted, concrete embankment dam surrounding; (4) an upper reservoir with a surface area of 20 acres and a storage capacity of 875 acre-feet; (5) five 12.5-foot to 18 foot-diameter, 2,800-foot-long penstocks; (6) a powerhouse 100-feet-below the lower reservoir containing five pump/generating units with a total capacity of 500 megawatts; (7) a lower reservoir established within an existing underground mine space with a surface area of 212 acres and a storage capacity of 9,540 acre-feet; and (8) a 10,500-foot-long, 230 kilo-volt transmission line to a point of interconnection with the PJM system. The project would have an
Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, competing applications (without notices of intent), or notices of intent to file competing applications: 60 days from the issuance of this notice. Competing applications and notices of intent must meet the requirements of 18 CFR 4.36.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, notices of intent, and competing applications using the Commission's eFiling system at
More information about this project, including a copy of the application, can be viewed or printed on the “eLibrary” link of Commission's Web site at
Take notice that on April 26, 2017, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC (Texas Gas), 9 Greenway Plaza, Suite 2800, Houston, Texas 77046, filed in Docket No. CP17-256-000, an application pursuant to Section 7(b) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and Part 157 of the Commission's regulations, requesting authorization to (i) abandon in place the Morgan City Compressor Station, which consists of one 9,100 horsepower (hp) gas-fired turbine compressor unit, a compressor building, yard and station piping, and appurtenant auxiliary facilities located in St. Mary Parish, Louisiana, (ii) abandon in place one 9,100 hp gas-fired turbine compressor unit and its compressor building at the Lafayette (also known as Youngsville) Compressor Station, located in Lafayette Parish, Louisiana, and (iii) relinquish the firm design capacity associated with the facilities, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. This filing may also be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Kathy D. Fort, Manager, Certificates and Tariffs, Texas Gas Transmission, LLC, 610 West Second Street, Owensboro, Kentucky 42301, or by calling (270) 688-6825 (telephone) or (270) 688-6896 (fax),
Pursuant to Section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding, or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
There are two ways to become involved in the Commission's review of this project. First, any person wishing to obtain legal status by becoming a party to the proceedings for this project should, on or before the comment date stated below, file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.214 or 385.211) and the Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.10). A person obtaining party status will be placed on the service list maintained by the Secretary of the Commission and will receive copies of all documents filed by the applicant and by all other parties. A party must submit 14 copies of filings made with the Commission and must mail a copy to the applicant and to every other party in the proceeding. Only parties to the proceeding can ask for court review of Commission orders in the proceeding.
However, a person does not have to intervene in order to have comments considered. The second way to participate is by filing with the Secretary of the Commission, as soon as possible, an original and two copies of comments in support of or in opposition to this project. The Commission will consider these comments in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but the filing of a comment alone will not serve to make the filer a party to the proceeding. The Commission's rules require that persons filing comments in opposition to the project provide copies of their protests only to the party or parties directly involved in the protest.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenters will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
Motions to intervene, protests and comments may be filed electronically via the Internet in lieu of paper; see, 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site under the e-Filing link. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Energy Unlimited, Inc.'s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is May 30, 2017.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on May 2, 2017, Dominion Transmission, Inc. (DTI), 120 Tredegar Street, Richmond, Virginia 23219 filed a prior notice request pursuant to sections 157.205 and 157.210 of the Commission's regulations under the Natural Gas Act pursuant to its Blanket Certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-537-000 for authorization to modify the certificated horsepower (HP) rating of a new unit at its Burch Ridge Compressor Station in Marshall County, West Virginia. Specifically, DTI seeks to increase the certificated HP of the compressor station unit authorized as part of DTI's Clarington Project in Docket No. CP14-496-000 from 6,130 HP to 6,276 HP. This change will not require any construction of facilities and will not alter the available capacity. The additional HP will not create any additional transportation capacity because the maximum throughput is regulated by site conditions, all as more fully set forth in the application which is on file with the Commission and open to public inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the Web at
Any questions regarding this Application should be directed to Matthew Bley, Dominion Transmission, Inc., 707 East Main Street, 20th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219, by phone (804) 771-4399, or by fax (804) 771-4804, or by email at
Any person may, within 60 days after the issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention. Any person filing to intervene or the Commission's staff may, pursuant to section 157.205 of the Commission's Regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205) file a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the time allowed for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: Complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding; or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenter's will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenter's will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commentary, will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests, and interventions via the Internet in lieu of paper. See 18 CFR 385.2001(a)(1)(iii) and the instructions on the Commission's Web site (
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before July 17, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission decided through notice-and-comment rulemaking that it will issue all eligible broadcasters and MVPDs an initial allocation of funds based on estimated costs, which will be available for draw down (from individual accounts in the U.S. Treasury) as the entities incur expenses, followed by a subsequent allocation to the extent necessary. The reason for allowing eligible entities to draw down funds as they incur expenses is to reduce the chance that entities will be unable to finance necessary relocation changes.
The information collection for which we are requesting approval is necessary for eligible entities to instruct the Commission on how to pay the amounts the entities draw down, and for the entities to make certifications that reduce the risk of waste, fraud, abuse and improper payments.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper perform ance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before June 15, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to
The Commission staff uses the information to advise the Commission about the efficacy of its rules and policies adopted to implement the Telecommunications Act of 1996. The data are necessary to evaluate the status of local telecommunications competition and broadband deployment. The Commission uses the data to prepare reports that help inform consumers and policy makers at the federal and state level on the deployment and adoption of broadband services, as well as on developments related to competition in the voice telephone services market. The Commission also uses the data to support its analyses in a variety of rulemaking proceedings under the Communications Act, including those related to fulfilling its universal service mandate.
The Commission releases to the public the broadband deployment and mobile voice deployment data that it began collecting in 2014 as a result of the Order. This information is used by consumers, federal and state government agencies, analysts, and others to determine broadband service availability by provider, technology, and speed.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before July 17, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of
This information collection is a result of responsibility placed on the FCC by the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969. NEPA requires that each federal agency evaluate the impact of “major actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.” It is the FCC's opinion that this is the most efficient and reasonable method of complying with NEPA with regard to the environmental issue of radiofrequency radiation from FCC-regulated transmitters.
The Commission requires applicants to submit limited information during the licensing and authorization process. In many services, the Commission simply requires licensees to provide reliable service to specific geographic areas, but does not require licensees to file site-specific information. It does not appear that the FCC's present licensing methods can provide public notification of site-specific information without imposing new and significant additional burden to the Commission's applicants. However, we note that applicants with the greatest potential to exceed the Commission's exposure limits are required to perform an environmental evaluation as part of the licensing and authorization process.
The Commission advises concerned members of the public, seeking site-specific information, to contact the FCC for the name and telephone number of the service providers in the concerned party's area. The Commission encourages all service providers to provide site-specific, technical information and environmental evaluation documentation upon public request. In addition, we note alternative sources of information may be state and local governments, which may collect some site-specific information as part of the zoning process.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before July 17, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before July 17, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, the FCC invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
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Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before July 17, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or the Agency), Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), is establishing a public docket to request comments related to the FDA Accreditation Scheme for Conformity Assessment (ASCA) Pilot Program. The purpose is to gain insight regarding the development and overall design/approach of the ASCA pilot program including program goals, pilot standards, design concepts, and overall program approach. The Agency is interested in gathering additional information to increase the efficiency of the ASCA Program.
Submit either electronic or written comments or information by June 30, 2017. Late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before June 30, 2017. The
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Scott Colburn, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5514, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6287,
Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards developed among different parties including governments and standard setting organizations, which play an important role in establishing the safety and performance criteria for many aspects of medical device design and manufacturing. These standards help to support claims of safety and quality of technical information in premarket review. FDA has authority to recognize voluntary consensus standards for use in establishing safety and performance criteria for medical device design and manufacturing. Sponsors can include a “Declaration of Conformity” to attest to which consensus standards they used in their premarket applications to meet premarket requirements for their devices. However, the appropriate use of an FDA recognized consensus standard via a declaration of conformity has not been consistently applied by sponsors in submissions. Many standards are highly complex and require substantial specialized knowledge to interpret and apply correctly. This is a challenge for manufacturers and FDA alike. During the Medical Device User Fee Act reauthorization negotiations, FDA and Industry agreed to establish an FDA Accreditation Scheme for Conformity Assessment (ASCA) Program for recognizing accredited testing laboratories that evaluate medical devices according to certain FDA-recognized standards. This initiative will benefit sponsors of submissions who can have the tests conducted at recognized accredited test labs and submit to FDA a determination from the test laboratory that their device conforms to the standards tested. FDA intends to rely on the results from the recognized accredited Test Laboratory for the purpose of premarket review without the need to address further questions related to standards conformance. Once developed, the ASCA will ease a regulatory burden on industry by allowing them to use recognized accredited test laboratories to ensure accurate conformance with the consensus standard.
FDA is requesting comments to gain insight regarding the development and overall design/approach of the ASCA pilot program, including program goals, pilot standards, design concepts, and overall program approach. FDA is not endorsing any of the models proposed at this time. The Agency is open to considering other options or models for the ASCA pilot program and invites comments on any additional options or suggestions that may assist FDA in its decision making.
FDA is also considering using private sector accreditation bodies to increase the efficiency of the ASCA Program. As a result, FDA is considering a number of different models to serve this purpose. FDA is not endorsing any of these models at this time and is open to considering other options or models for the ASCA pilot program.
The Agency invites comments on the ASCA pilot program, in general, and on the following questions, in particular. Each individual question is numbered; please clearly delineate which questions each of your comments are addressing in the written response.
1. For the ASCA pilot program to achieve success,
a. What FDA recognized consensus standards available at
b. What impact/efficiencies would you like to see from the pilot program?
c. What does success of the pilot program look like?
d. Outline any challenges in the use of recognized voluntary consensus standards (
2. To help reduce duplicative efforts, overlap, or conflict with other conformity assessment schemes, what benefits/concerns of the ASCA work to align with other existing schemes that utilize the same consensus standards?
3. What are the benefits, weaknesses, incentives/disincentives associated with a model that uses one or more private sector accreditation bodies to accredit testing laboratories to the appropriate scope of accreditation for ISO/IEC 17025 (General requirements for the
4. Where no appropriate accreditation bodies step forward to serve the needs for the specific areas within the ASCA program, FDA is considering a model under which it will serve as the accreditation body. What are the benefits, weaknesses, incentives/disincentives associated with this approach, and how do you compare this approach to the private sector approach?
5. Describe your familiarity with accreditation to ISO/IEC 17025 (General requirements for testing and calibration laboratories) or ISO 15189:2012—Medical laboratories—Requirements for quality and competence? If accredited, what is the scope of accreditation?
6. Do you utilize another management system other than ISO/IEC 17025 or ISO 15189:2012—Medical laboratories—Requirements for quality and competence? If so, what management system has been implemented?
7. Are there specific FDA recognized consensus standards available at
8. For more complex standards, such as those that have normative references or include references to management systems (
9. Would you consider participating in the ASCA Pilot Program? If so, what scope of testing would you consider?
10. Generally, are there any other comments that you would like to provide regarding the development of the ASCA pilot program? Do you have recommendations for other alternatives to consider?
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is soliciting nominations of individuals who are interested in being considered for appointment to the Presidential Advisory Council on Combating Antibiotic-Resistant Bacteria (Advisory Council) as a non-voting liaison representative member from an organization and/or interest group. Nominations from qualified individuals who wish to be considered for appointment to this member category of the Advisory Council are currently being accepted.
Nominations must be received no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on June 30, 2017.
Information on how to submit a nomination is on the Advisory Council Web site,
MacKenzie Robertson, Committee Management Officer, Presidential Advisory Council on Combating Antibiotic-Resistant Bacteria, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Health, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Room 715H, Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20201. Phone: (202) 690-5566; email:
Under Executive Order 13676, dated September 18, 2014, authority was given to the Secretary of HHS to establish the Advisory Council, in consultation with the Secretaries of Defense and Agriculture. Activities of the Advisory Council are governed by the provisions of Public Law 92-463, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), which sets forth standards for the formation and use of federal advisory committees. The Advisory Council will provide advice, information, and recommendations to the Secretary of HHS regarding programs and policies intended to preserve the effectiveness of antibiotics by optimizing their use; advance research to develop improved methods for combating antibiotic resistance and conducting antibiotic stewardship; strengthen surveillance of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections; prevent the transmission of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections; advance the development of rapid point-of-care and agricultural diagnostics; further research on new treatments for bacterial infections; develop alternatives to antibiotics for agricultural purposes; maximize the dissemination of up-to-date information on the appropriate and proper use of antibiotics to the general public and human and animal healthcare providers; and improve international coordination of efforts to combat antibiotic resistance.
The Advisory Council is authorized to consist of not more than 30 members, including the voting and non-voting members and the Chair and Vice Chair. The current composition of the Advisory Council consists of 15 voting members, including the Chair and Vice Chair, five non-voting liaison representative members, and 10 non-voting
This announcement is to solicit nominations to fill positions that are scheduled to be vacated during the 2017 calendar year in the non-voting liaison representative member category. Non-voting liaison representative members are appointed to serve two-year terms. Individuals from the following sectors are being sought to serve a non-voting liaison representatives: (1) Professional organizations representing infectious disease, epidemiology, infection control, physicians, nurses, pharmacists, microbiologists, and veterinarians; (2) public health organizations representing laboratories, health officials, epidemiologists (state/territorial, county, or local); (3) organizations advocating for patients and consumers; (4) organizations representing state departments of agriculture; (5) hospitals; (6) foundations with an interest in antibiotic resistance and promoting antibiotic stewardship; (7) pharmaceutical industry—animal and
Individuals who are appointed to serve as non-voting liaison representative members may be allowed to receive per diem and reimbursement for any applicable expenses for travel that is performed to attend meetings of the Advisory Council in accordance with federal travel regulations. The Advisory Council meets, at a minimum, two times per fiscal year depending on the availability of funds. Meetings are open to the public, except as determined otherwise by the Secretary or other official to whom the authority has been delegated in accordance with guidelines under the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(c).
Nominations, including self-nominations, of individuals who represent organizations that have the specified expertise and knowledge sought will be considered for appointment as non-voting liaison representative members of the Advisory Council. Every effort will be made to ensure that the Advisory Council is a diverse group of individuals with representation from various geographic locations, racial and ethnic minorities, all genders, and persons living with disabilities. Detailed information on what is required in a nomination package and how to submit one is on the Advisory Council Web site,
Office of Minority Health, Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice of meeting.
As stipulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) is hereby giving notice that the Advisory Committee on Minority Health (ACMH) will hold a meeting conducted as a telephone conference call. This call will be open to the public. Preregistration is required for both public participation and comment. Any individual who wishes to participate in the call should email
Information about the meeting is available from the designated contact and will be posted on the Web site for the Office of Minority Health (OMH),
The conference call will be held on June 1, 2017, 12:30 p.m.-2:30 p.m. ET.
Instructions regarding participating in the call will be given at the time of preregistration.
Dr. Minh Wendt, Designated Federal Officer, Advisory Committee on Minority Health, Office of Minority Health, Department of Health and Human Services, Tower Building, 1101 Wootton Parkway, Suite 600, Rockville, Maryland 20852. Phone: 240-453-8222; fax: 240-453-8223; email
In accordance with Public Law 105-392, the ACMH was established to provide advice to the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Minority Health on improving the health of each racial and ethnic minority group and on the development of goals and specific program activities of the OMH.
The topics to be discussed during the teleconference include creating a work plan for developing recommendations related to opioid usage and health disparities. The recommendations will be given to the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Minority Health.
This call will be limited to 125 participants. The OMH will make every effort to accommodate persons with special needs. Individuals who have special needs for which special accommodations may be required should contact Professional and Scientific Associates at (703) 234-1700 and reference this meeting. Requests for special accommodations should be made at least ten (10) business days prior to the meeting.
Members of the public will have an opportunity to provide comments at the meeting. Public comments will be limited to two minutes per speaker during the time allotted. Individuals who would like to submit written statements should email, mail, or fax their comments to the designated contact at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting.
Any members of the public who wish to have electronic or printed material distributed to ACMH members should email
National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, Interagency Pain Research Coordinating Committee Solicitation for Public Comments on the Draft Federal Pain Research Strategy
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App), notice is hereby given of a meeting hosted by the National Institutes of Health to present the Draft Federal Pain Research Strategy and to solicit public comments on this document. The meeting will be open to the public and videocast.
The meeting is open to the public and is free. More information can be found at
Individuals who participate in person or by videocast and who need special assistance, such as captioning of the call or other reasonable accommodations, should submit a request to the Contact Person listed on this notice at least seven days prior to the meeting.
Information about the IPRCC and the Federal Pain Research Strategy is available on the Web site at
In accordance with Title 41 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations, Section 102-3.65(a), notice is hereby given that the Charter for the Frederick National Laboratory Advisory Committee to the National Cancer Institute (FNLAC) was renewed for an additional two-year period on March 30, 2017.
It is determined that the FNLAC is in the public interest in connection with the performance of duties imposed on the Department of Health and Human Services by law, and that these duties can best be performed through the advice and counsel of this group.
Inquiries may be directed to Jennifer Spaeth, Director, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy, Office of the Director, National Institutes of Health, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Suite 1000, Bethesda, Maryland 20892 (Mail code 4875), Telephone (301) 496-2123, or
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are owned by an agency of the U.S. Government.
Licensing information may be obtained by emailing the indicated licensing contact at the National Heart, Lung, and Blood, Office of Technology Transfer and Development Office of Technology Transfer, 31 Center Drive Room 4A29, MSC 2479, Bethesda, MD 20892-2479; telephone: 301-402-5579. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement may be required to receive any unpublished information.
The following inventions are available for licensing in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Technology description follows.
(1) Carlsten M, Levy E, Karambelkar A, Li L, Reger R, Berg M, Peshwa MV and Childs RW (2016) Efficient mRNA-Based Genetic Engineering of Human NK Cells with High-Affinity CD16 and CCR7 Augments Rituximab-Induced ADCC against Lymphoma and Targets NK Cell Migration toward the Lymph Node-Associated Chemokine CCL19. Front. Immunol. 7:105. doi: 10.3389/fimmu.2016.00105.
(2) Carlsten M and Childs RW (2015) Genetic manipulation of NK cells for cancer immunotherapy: techniques and clinical implications. Front. Immunol. 6:266. doi: 10.3389/fimmu.2015.00266.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable materials, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are owned by an agency of the U.S. Government.
Licensing information may be obtained by emailing the indicated licensing contact at the National Heart, Lung, and Blood, Office of Technology Transfer and Development Office of Technology Transfer, 31 Center Drive Room 4A29, MSC 2479, Bethesda, MD 20892-2479; telephone: 301-402-5579. A signed Confidential Disclosure Agreement may be required to receive any unpublished information.
The following inventions are available for licensing in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404 to achieve expeditious commercialization of results of federally-funded research and development. Technology description follows.
1. Takahashi Y. et al. 2008. Regression of kidney cancer following allogeneic stem-cell transplantation associated with T-cells recognizing a HERV-E antigen. J. Clin. Invest. 118:1099-109.
2. Cherkasova E. et al. 2011. Inactivation of the von Hippel-Lindau tumor suppressor leads to selective expression of a human endogenous retrovirus in kidney cancer. Oncogene 30:4697-706.
3. Cherkasova E. et al. 2013. Endogenous retroviruses as targets for antitumor immunity in renal cell cancer and other tumors. Front. Oncol. 3:243-247.
4. Cherkasova E. et al. 2016. Detection of a HERV-E envelope with selective expression in clear cell kidney cancer. Cancer Res. 76:2177-2185.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
The National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research (NIDCR) is pleased to launch NIDCR 2030, a strategic visioning initiative designed to advance dental, oral, and craniofacial research over the next 15 years.
The purpose of this Request for Comments (RFC) is to seek input on how best to ensure that dental, oral, and craniofacial health and disease are understood in the context of the whole body, and that research transforms how we promote health, treat disease, and overcome health disparities.
Visit the NIDCR 2030 Web site to submit your research ideas and vote and comment on the ideas of others:
The Idea submission period ends May 19, 2017. All votes must be entered by June 2, 2017.
Ideas, comments, and votes can be submitted to
Questions about this request for comments should be directed to Dr. Morgan O'Hayre, National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research, National Institutes of Health, Building 31, Room 2C39, Bethesda, MD 20892,
The National Institute of Dental and Craniofacial Research is the nation's leading supporter of dental, oral, and craniofacial research. In 2030, we imagine a world where dental, oral, and craniofacial health and disease are understood in the context of the whole body, and research transforms how we promote health, treat disease, and overcome health disparities, so all people have the opportunity to lead healthy lives. To achieve what we've imagined, we need you. Please join us in a discussion about what it will take to reach our visionary goals in five key areas:
Idea submissions and comments will be reviewed by subject matter experts, including intramural and extramural NIDCR staff, based on five criteria:
Idea submissions and comments will be used to advance the goals of NIDCR 2030 and identify themes for potential funding opportunities. No financial rewards will be given for idea submissions.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until July 17, 2017.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0095 in the subject box, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2008-0027. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
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USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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Office of Policy Development and Research, HUD.
Notice: Paperwork Reduction Act.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone (202) 402-5534 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna P. Guido at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
Office of Policy Development and Research, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comments from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone (202) 402-5534 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna P. Guido at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
A web-based survey will allow the study team to investigate important Service Coordinator (SC) program characteristics not included in grant applications or current reporting tools, in order to provide generalizable evidence on the “effective and efficient use of resources” across all ROSS-SC service coordinators. These include SC qualifications and experience, program management structure, resident intake and assessment processes, services offered, partnerships utilized and leveraged, and case management data systems and outcome evaluation tools used to track participant activities and outcomes. Since there is no centralized database of service coordinator contact information, this must first be obtained through a brief online survey sent to each grantee contact person.
Site visits to seven high-performing grantees will include onsite observations and interviews with grantees, service coordinators, and program partners, as well as focus groups with program participants to gather context-specific data on both program processes and outcomes to aid in identifying best practices and common challenges across grantees.
Whereas many ROSS-SC grantee contact persons in HUD's database are a PHA Executive Director, PHA Division Director, or the Chief Executive Officer of the grantee, we estimated their cost per response by using the most recent (May 2015) Bureau of Labor Statistics, Occupational Employment Statistics median hourly wage for the labor category, Chief Executives (11-1011): $84.19.
Whereas ROSS-SC service coordinators and other grantee staff and service partners have a range of experience and skills, we averaged the median hourly wage for two labor categories: The Social and Community Service Manager (11-9151) median hourly wage of $30.54, and the Community and Social Service Specialists, All Other (21-1099) category with a rate of $20.14. This produces an average of both median hourly wage rates equal to $25.34.
Hourly costs for public housing resident focus group participants were estimated using FY 2016 HUD 30% Income Limit for All Areas calculations from the Office of Policy Development and Research through HUD's Web site located at
• 20% of potential respondents will live alone (21 respondents) with an average median income of $13,537.
• 10% will reside in a 2-person household (11 respondents) with an average median income of $15,464.
• 30% will reside in a 3-person household (32 respondents) with an average median income of $17,396.
• 30% will reside in a 4-person household (32 respondents) with an average median income of $19,305.
• 10% will reside in a 5-person household (11 respondents) with an average median income of $20,872.
To produce a basic hourly rate, we divide the average median annual income amount by 1,950 work hours per year, equaling 5 days at 37.5 hours per week for each of the 52 weeks out of the year.
All assumptions are reflected in the table below.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), instituted these reviews on November 1, 2016 (81 FR 75851) and determined on February 6, 2017 that it would conduct
The Commission made these determinations pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). It completed and filed its determinations in these reviews on May 16, 2017. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4689 (May 2017), entitled
By order of the Commission.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Criminal Justice Information Services Division (CJIS), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until July 17, 2017.
All comments, suggestions, or questions regarding additional information, to include obtaining a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, should be directed to Mrs. Amy C. Blasher, Unit Chief, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Information Services Division, Module E-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306; facsimile (304) 625-3566.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
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4. Affected public who will be asked or required to respond, as well as a brief abstract:
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Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Criminal Justice Information Services Division (CJIS), will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until July 17, 2017.
All comments, suggestions, or questions regarding additional information, to include obtaining a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, should be directed to Mrs. Amy C. Blasher, Unit Chief, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Information Services Division, Module E-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306; facsimile (304) 625-3566.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning
Overview of this information collection:
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Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.
60-day Notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting a revision to an existing information collection to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until July 17, 2017.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Mary Cowhig, Statistician, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this Information Collection Revision:
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Each year, prior to the next cycle of the Deaths in Custody Reporting Program—Local Jails data collection, verification calls are made to jail respondents to learn about changes in
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If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor.
Notice of technical correction.
On October 19, 2016, the Department published PTE 2016-08 in the
Due to a technical error, the effective date of the grant notice is incorrect. Accordingly, the Department is hereby revising that notice. On page 72120 of the grant notice, the third full paragraph beginning with “Effective Date” is revised to read:
This exemption is effective as of May 2, 2016, the date the Contribution was initiated by Baxter.
Mr. Erin Hesse of the Department, telephone (202) 693-8546. (This is not a toll-free number).
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Request for public comments.
OSHA solicits public comments concerning its proposal to extend the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Fire Protection in Shipyard Employment Standard.
Comments must be submitted (postmarked, sent or received) by July 17, 2017.
Todd Owen or Theda Kenney, Directorate of Standards and Guidance, OSHA, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3609, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2222.
The Department of Labor, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent (
The Fire Protection in Shipyard Employment Standard (29 CFR part 1915, subpart P) specifies a number of collection of information (paperwork) requirements. In general, the Standard requires employers to develop a written fire safety plan and written statements or policies that contain information about fire watches and fire response duties and responsibilities. The Standard also requires the employer to obtain medical exams for certain workers and to develop training programs and to train employees exposed to fire hazards. Additionally, the Standard requires employers to create and maintain records to certify that employees have been made aware of the details of the fire safety plan and that employees have been trained as required by the Standard.
OSHA has a particular interest in comments on the following issues:
• Whether the proposed information collection requirements are necessary for proper performance of the Agency's functions, including whether the information is useful;
• The accuracy of OSHA's estimate of the burden (time and costs) of the information collection requirements, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• The quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and
• Ways to minimize the burden on employers who must comply; for example, by using automated or other technological information collection and transmission techniques.
OSHA is requesting that OMB extend its approval of the information collection requirements specified in the Fire Protection in Shipyard Employment Standard (29 CFR part 1915, subpart P). The Agency is requesting an increase in burden hours from 6,051 to 6,603 burden hours (a total increase of 552 burden hours). The Agency will summarize the comments submitted in response to this notice and will include this summary in the request to OMB to extend the approval of the information collection requirements.
You may submit comments in response to this document as follows: (1) Electronically at
Because of security procedures, the use of regular mail may cause a significant delay in the receipt of comments. For information about security procedures concerning the delivery of materials by hand, express delivery, messenger, or courier service, please contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350, (TTY (877) 889-5627).
Comments and submissions are posted without change at
Information on using the
Dorothy Dougherty, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, directed the preparation of this notice. The authority for this notice is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3506
National Endowment for the Arts, National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice; correction.
The National Endowment for the Arts published a document in the
Patricia Loiko, 202-682-5541.
In the
National Endowment for the Humanities, National Foundation on the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) has submitted the following public information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments on this ICR must be submitted on or before June 15, 2017.
Send comments, identified by control number 3136-0139, to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for the National Endowment for the Humanities, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503; (202) 395-7316.
Mr. Joel Schwartz, Chief Guidelines Officer, NEH, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20506; (202) 606-8473;
OMB is particularly interested in comments which (1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
You may obtain copies of this ICR, with applicable supporting documentation, by contacting Joel Schwartz, Chief Guidelines Officer, NEH at (202) 606-8473 or
2:00 p.m., Wednesday, June 7, 2017.
Offices of the Corporation, Twelfth Floor Board Room, 1100 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC.
Hearing OPEN to the Public at 2:00 p.m.
Public Hearing in conjunction with each meeting of OPIC's Board of Directors, to afford an opportunity for any person to present views regarding the activities of the Corporation.
Individuals wishing to address the hearing orally must provide advance notice to OPIC's Corporate Secretary no later than 5 p.m. Wednesday, May 31, 2017. The notice must include the individual's name, title, organization, address, and telephone number, and a concise summary of the subject matter to be presented.
Oral presentations may not exceed ten (10) minutes. The time for individual presentations may be reduced proportionately, if necessary, to afford all participants who have submitted a timely request an opportunity to be heard.
Participants wishing to submit a written statement for the record must submit a copy of such statement to OPIC's Corporate Secretary no later than 5 p.m. Wednesday, May 31, 2017. Such statement must be typewritten, double spaced, and may not exceed twenty-five (25) pages.
Upon receipt of the required notice, OPIC will prepare an agenda, which will be available at the hearing, that identifies speakers, the subject on which each participant will speak, and the time allotted for each presentation.
A written summary of the hearing will be compiled, and such summary will be made available, upon written request to OPIC's Corporate Secretary, at the cost of reproduction.
Written summaries of the projects to be presented at the June 15, 2017 Board meeting will be posted on OPIC's Web site.
Information on the hearing may be obtained from Catherine F. I. Andrade at (202) 336-8768, via facsimile at (202) 408-0297, or via email at
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
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This notice will be published in the
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of an application for an order pursuant to: (a) Section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) granting an exemption from sections 18(f) and 21(b) of the Act; (b) section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act granting an exemption from section 12(d)(1) of the Act; (c) sections 6(c) and 17(b) of the Act granting an exemption from sections 17(a)(1), 17(a)(2) and 17(a)(3) of the Act; and (d) section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint arrangements and transactions. Applicants request an order that would permit certain registered open-end management investment companies to participate in a joint lending and borrowing facility.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants, c/o George B. Raine, Esq., Ropes & Gray LLP, 800 Boylston St., Boston, MA 02199.
Laura L. Solomon, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6915 or Nadya Roytblat, Assistant Chief Counsel, at (202) 551-6823 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. Applicants request an order that would permit the applicants to participate in an interfund lending facility where each Fund could lend money directly to and borrow money directly from other Funds to cover unanticipated cash shortfalls, such as unanticipated redemptions or trade fails.
2. Applicants anticipate that the proposed facility would provide a borrowing Fund with a source of liquidity at a rate lower than the bank borrowing rate at times when the cash position of the Fund is insufficient to meet temporary cash requirements. In addition, Funds making short-term cash loans directly to other Funds would earn interest at a rate higher than they otherwise could obtain from investing their cash in repurchase agreements or certain other short-term money market instruments. Thus, applicants assert that the facility would benefit both borrowing and lending Funds.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the application. Among others, an Adviser, through a designated committee, would administer the facility as a disinterested fiduciary as part of its duties under the investment management agreements with the Funds and would receive no additional fee as compensation for its services in connection with the administration of the facility. The facility would be subject to oversight and certain approvals by the Funds' Board, including, among others, approval of the interest rate formula and of the method for allocating loans across Funds, as well as review of the process in place to evaluate the liquidity implications for the Funds. A Fund's aggregate outstanding interfund loans will not exceed 15% of its net assets, and the Fund's loans to any one Fund will not exceed 5% of the lending Fund's net assets.
4. Applicants assert that the facility does not raise the concerns underlying section 12(d)(1) of the Act given that the Funds are part of the same group of investment companies and there will be no duplicative costs or fees to the Funds.
5. Applicants also believe that the limited relief from section 18(f)(1) of the Act that is necessary to implement the facility (because the lending Funds are not banks) is appropriate in light of the conditions and safeguards described in the application and because the Funds would remain subject to the requirement of section 18(f)(1) that all borrowings of a Fund, including combined interfund loans and bank borrowings, have at least 300% asset coverage.
6. Section 6(c) of the Act permits the Commission to exempt any persons or transactions from any provision of the Act if such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Section 12(d)(1)(J) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction, or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions, from any provision of section 12(d)(1) if the exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. Section 17(b) of the Act authorizes the Commission to grant an order permitting a transaction otherwise prohibited by section 17(a) if it finds that (a) the terms of the proposed transaction are fair and reasonable and do not involve overreaching on the part of any person concerned; (b) the proposed transaction is consistent with the policies of each registered investment company involved; and (c) the proposed transaction is consistent with the general purposes of the Act. Rule 17d-1(b) under the Act provides that in passing upon an application filed under the rule, the Commission will consider whether the participation of the registered investment company in a joint enterprise, joint arrangement or profit sharing plan on the basis proposed is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of the other participants.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees to amend pricing related to options overlying NDX
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees to make changes to pricing related to NDX and MNX. The proposed changes are discussed in the following sections.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees to make pricing changes related to NDX. The Exchange notes that NDX is transitioning to be exclusively listed on the Exchange and its affiliated markets in 2017.
Today, as set forth in Section I of the Schedule of Fees, the Exchange provides volume-based maker rebates to Market Maker
Specifically, the Exchange provides a maker rebate to Market Maker orders in Non-Penny Symbols that is $0.40 per contract in Tier 1, $0.42 per contract in Tier 2, $0.50 per contract in Tier 3, and $0.75 per contract in Tier 4. The Exchange also provides a maker rebate to Priority Customer orders in Non-Penny Symbols that is $0.75 per contract in Tier 1 (or $0.76 per contract for members that execute a Priority Customer Maker ADV of 5,000 to 19,999 contracts in a given month), $0.80 per contract in Tier 2, $0.85 per contract in Tier 3, and $1.05 per contract in Tier 4. Additionally, the Exchange provides a maker rebate to Non-Nasdaq GEMX Market Maker,
The Exchange also charges volume-based taker fees in Non-Penny Symbols to market participants based on achieving the volume thresholds in the table above. Currently, the Exchange charges a taker fee for Non-Priority Customer
In addition, different taker fees are charged for trades executed against a Priority Customer in Non-Penny Symbols. In particular, Non-Priority Customer orders are charged a taker fee of $1.10 per contract for trades executed against a Priority Customer. Priority Customer orders are charged a taker fee of $0.85 per contract for trades executed against a Priority Customer. Orders in Non-Penny Symbols that do not trade against a Priority Customer are currently charged at the rates described in the paragraph above and as set forth in the Non-Penny Symbols table in Section I of the Schedule of Fees.
The Exchange also currently assesses different fees for regular Non-Penny Symbol orders executed in the Exchange's crossing mechanisms, as set forth in Schedule I of the Schedule of Fees (such orders, “Auction Orders”). Specifically, the Exchange charges a fee for Non-Priority Customer Crossing Orders
In light of NDX's transition to becoming exclusively listed, the Exchange seeks to amend its pricing structure. Specifically, the Exchange seeks to eliminate the current pricing structure for NDX by excluding this index option from the fees and rebates applicable to all Non-Penny Symbol orders, and instead adopt standard transaction fees as set forth in a new table in Section I of the Schedule of Fees.
Currently, a number of index options are traded on the Exchange pursuant to license agreements for which the Exchange charges license surcharges. As set forth in Section II.B of the Schedule of Fees, the Exchange currently charges a $0.22 per contract license surcharge for all orders in NDX and MNX other than Priority Customer orders. For NDX only, the Exchange is proposing to amend Section II.B of the Schedule of Fees to increase the Non-Priority Customer License Surcharge from $0.22 to $0.25 per contract (“NDX Surcharge”), and to relocate the NDX Surcharge to note 9 in Section I of the Schedule of Fees, instead of stating the pricing within the current table in Section II.B of the Schedule of Fees. The proposed increase to $0.25 per contract will align the Exchange's NDX Surcharge with those of its affiliated markets, International Securities Exchange, LLC (“ISE”) and NASDAQ PHLX LLC (“Phlx”).
As it relates to MNX, the Exchange seeks to eliminate the $0.22 Non-Priority Customer License Surcharge (“MNX Surcharge”), and proposes to remove any references to MNX currently in Section II.B of the Schedule of Fees.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing changes for NDX are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as NDX transitions to an exclusively-listed product. Similar to other proprietary products, the Exchange seeks to recoup the operational costs for listing proprietary products.
As proposed, the Exchange seeks to eliminate the existing fee and rebate structure for NDX orders, and instead adopt standard transaction fees for all such orders. Specifically, the proposed pricing changes for NDX will result in a flat fee of $0.75 per contract for all Non-Priority Customer NDX orders (including Non-Priority Customer Auction Orders), and no fees for any Priority Customer NDX orders (including Priority Customer Auction Orders). The Exchange believes that it is reasonable to eliminate the maker rebates for all market participant orders in NDX because it is similar to other exchanges, which do not provide rebates for certain proprietary products. On Phlx, no rebates are paid on NDX contracts.
Further, the Exchange's proposal to eliminate the maker rebates for all market participant orders in NDX is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will eliminate the rebate for all similarly-situated market participant types. As noted above, the Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to eliminate the rebate for Priority Customer orders as well because these orders (including Priority Customer Auction Orders) will no longer be assessed any fees under the proposed pricing structure.
The proposed pricing changes for NDX will result in a uniform fee of $0.75 per contract for all Non-Priority Customer orders (including Non-Priority Customer Auction Orders), and no fees for all Priority Customer orders (including Priority Customer Auction Orders). While the proposed $0.75 transaction fee for all Non-Priority Customer NDX orders is higher than the current fees assessed to all Non-Priority Customer Crossing Orders and PIM orders in Non-Penny Symbols (including NDX), the Exchange believes that the proposed pricing for NDX is reasonable because the increased fees in those categories are offset by decreased fees proposed in other categories. In particular, the proposed $0.75 fee is lower than the existing taker fees and existing fees for Responses to Crossing Orders (excluding PIM), in both cases currently assessed to all market participant orders in Non-Penny Symbols (including NDX). Additionally, as it relates to all Non-Priority Customers other than Market Makers, the increased fee amounts for Non-Priority Customer Crossing Orders and PIM orders in NDX are reasonable because the total fee of $1.00 per contract under the Exchange's proposal is comparable to the total amounts charged for similar proprietary products on other exchanges. For example, C2 charges all market participants other than public customers and C2 market makers a $0.55 transaction fee and a $0.45 index license surcharge fee in RUT, for a total of $1.00.
Furthermore, the proposed uniform $0.75 per contract fee for Non-Priority Customer orders in NDX is reasonable because it is in line with Phlx's $0.75 per contract options transaction charge in NDX assessed to all electronic market participant orders other than customer orders.
The Exchange's proposed $0.75 per contract fee for all Non-Priority Customer orders in NDX is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly assess a $0.75 per contract fee for all such market participant orders. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess this fee on all participants except Priority Customers because the Exchange seeks to encourage Priority Customer order flow and the liquidity such order flow brings to the marketplace, which in turn benefits all market participants.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to increase the NDX Surcharge from $0.22 to $0.25 is reasonable because it is in line with the options surcharge of $0.25 for NDX transactions on ISE and Phlx, and is in fact lower than the $0.45 C2 Options Exchange surcharge applicable to non-public customer transactions in RUT.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to increase the NDX Surcharge is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will apply the increase to all similarly-situated members. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess this increased surcharge on all participants except Priority Customers because the Exchange seeks to encourage Priority Customer order flow and the liquidity such order flow brings to the marketplace, which in turn benefits all market participants.
Furthermore, the Exchange believes that its proposal to remove any references to MNX in Section II.B of the Schedule of Fees is reasonable because the Exchange seeks to eliminate the $0.22 MNX Surcharge. The Exchange's proposal to remove references to the MNX Surcharge is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will eliminate the surcharge for all similarly-situated members.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on inter-market or intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.
In terms of intra-market competition, the proposed changes to adopt separate pricing for orders in NDX will result in total fees for orders in NDX becoming more uniform across all classes of market participants, while still permitting Priority Customers to transact in NDX free of any transaction charge. Likewise, the increase in the NDX Surcharge will impact all Non-Priority Customers equally, and is designed to raise revenue for the Exchange without negatively impacting Priority Customers whose orders may enhance market quality for all Exchange members. Removing the maker rebate will also enhance the Exchange's ability to offer other rebates or reduced fees that could incentivize behavior that would enhance market quality on the Exchange, which would benefit all members.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 67 to modify the date of Appendix B Web site data publication pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
Rule 67(b) (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, the Exchange would publish the required Appendix B data for the Pre-Pilot Period through April 30, 2017, by August 31, 2017. Thereafter, Appendix B data for a given month would be published within 120 calendar days following month end.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide the Exchange with additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the requirement that the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing so that it may become operative on the date of filing.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. The Exchange states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will synchronize the timing for publication of Appendix B data for all Participants, which should enhance the consistency and usefulness of the data.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, May 18, 2017 at 2 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Piwowar, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
CHX proposes to amend Article 20, Rule 13(b) of the Rules of the Exchange (“CHX Rules”) to modify the date of Appendix B Web site data publication pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”).
The text of this proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at (
In its filing with the Commission, the CHX included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule changes and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The CHX has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Article 20, Rule 13(b) (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, the Exchange would publish the required Appendix B data for the Pre-Pilot Period through April 30, 2017 by August 31, 2017. Thereafter, Appendix B data for a given month would be published within 120 calendar days following month end.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. The operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide the Exchange with additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the requirement that the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing so that it may become operative on the date of filing.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. The Exchange states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will synchronize the timing for publication of Appendix B data for all Participants, which should enhance the consistency and usefulness of the data.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees to amend pricing related to options overlying NDX
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees to make changes to pricing related to NDX and MNX. The proposed changes are discussed in the following sections.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Schedule of Fees to make pricing changes related to NDX. The Exchange notes that NDX is transitioning to be exclusively listed on the Exchange and its affiliated markets in 2017.
Today, as set forth in Section I of the Schedule of Fees, the Exchange charges the following transaction fees for regular orders in Non-Select Symbols
The Exchange also currently assesses different fees for regular Non-Select Symbol orders executed in the Exchange's crossing mechanisms, as set forth in Section I of the Schedule of Fees (such orders, “Auction Orders”). In particular, the Exchange charges fees for Crossing Orders,
In addition, the Exchange charges a separate fee for regular Non-Priority Customer PIM orders of 100 or fewer contracts in Non-Select Symbols. This fee is currently $0.05 per contract for all regular Non-Priority Customer orders for 100 or fewer contracts executed in the PIM. For exchange members that execute an average daily volume (“ADV”) in regular Priority Customer PIM orders of 20,000 or more contracts in a given month, the fee for Non-Priority Customer orders is further reduced to $0.03 per contract, which will be applied retroactively to all eligible PIM volume in that month once the threshold has been reached.
The Exchange also provides a break-up rebate for certain PIM orders in Non-Select Symbols that do not trade with their contra order. Specifically, the Exchange assesses a break-up rebate of $0.15 per contract for regular Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Maker, Firm Proprietary/Broker-Dealer, Professional Customer, and Priority Customer orders in Non-Select Symbols.
In light of NDX's transition to becoming exclusively listed, the Exchange seeks to amend its NDX pricing structure. Specifically, the Exchange seeks to eliminate the current fee structure for NDX by excluding this index option from all the fees currently applicable to regular Non-Select Symbol orders, and instead adopt standard transaction fees as set forth in a new table in Section I of the Schedule of Fees.
As set forth in Section IV.B of the Schedule of Fees, the Exchange currently charges a $0.25 per contract license surcharge for all Non-Priority Customer orders in MNX (“MNX Surcharge”). The Exchange now seeks to eliminate the MNX Surcharge, and proposes to remove any references to MNX currently in Section IV.B of the Schedule of Fees.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange believes that the proposed pricing changes for NDX are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as NDX transitions to an exclusively-listed product. Similar to other proprietary products, the Exchange seeks to recoup the operational costs for listing proprietary products.
As proposed, the Exchange seeks to eliminate the existing fee structure for regular NDX orders, and instead adopt standard transaction fees for all such orders. Specifically, the proposed pricing changes for NDX will result in a flat fee of $0.75 per contract for all regular Non-Priority Customer orders, and no fees for all regular Priority Customer orders. While the proposed fee amounts for Non-Priority Customer orders in NDX are higher than the existing fees assessed for such orders, the Exchange believes, as noted above, that the proposed fee amounts are reasonable as NDX transitions to an exclusively-listed product. Similar to other proprietary products, the Exchange seeks to recoup the operational costs for listing proprietary products. The Exchange also believes that the proposed elimination of the Crossing Fee Cap for Firm Proprietary and Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Maker orders in NDX is reasonable for the same reason.
Furthermore, as it relates to the Existing Transaction Fees, the Exchange believes that the increased fees for Non-Priority Customer orders in NDX are reasonable because the proposed fee amounts are in line with NASDAQ PHLX LLC's $0.75 per contract options transaction charge in NDX assessed to all electronic market participant orders other than customer orders.
As it relates to Auction Orders in NDX, the Exchange believes that the increased fees for Market Maker orders in NDX are reasonable because the total fees are generally lower overall under the Exchange's proposal than the total fees historically assessed to such orders. As noted above, the Exchange recently waived the $0.70 marketing fee for NDX orders. As such, a Market Maker transacting a regular Crossing Order in NDX would previously be assessed a $0.25 or $0.20 (for orders sent by an EAM) per contract fee for orders in Non-Select Symbols, a $0.22 per contract NDX Surcharge, and a $0.70 per contract marketing fee for a total charge of $1.17 or $1.12 (for orders sent by an EAM). For Responses to Crossing Orders in NDX, a Market Maker would previously be assessed a $0.50 per contract fee for Responses to Crossing Orders in Non-Select Symbols, a $0.22 per contract NDX Surcharge, and a $0.70 per contract marketing fee for a total charge of $1.42. That Market Maker would be charged a considerably lower total amount of $1.00 for both types of Auction Orders under the Exchange's proposal. While the total fees assessed for Market Makers transacting regular PIM orders of 100 or fewer NDX contracts are slightly higher under this proposal than the total fees historically assessed to such orders,
The Exchange also believes that the increased fees for the other Non-Priority Customer Auction Orders in NDX are reasonable because the total fee of $1.00 per contract under the Exchange's proposal is comparable to the total amounts charged for similar proprietary products on other exchanges. For example, C2 Options Exchange, Inc. (“C2”) charges all market participants other than public customers and C2 market makers a $0.55 transaction fee and a $0.45 index license surcharge fee in RUT, which is another broad-based index option and similar proprietary product, for a total of $1.00.
Furthermore, the Exchange believes that its proposal to eliminate the break-up rebate for regular Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Maker, Firm Proprietary/Broker-Dealer, Professional Customer, and Priority Customer orders in NDX is reasonable because it is similar to other exchanges, which do not provide rebates for certain proprietary products. On Phlx, no rebates are paid on NDX contracts.
The Exchange's proposed fee amounts for all regular Non-Priority Customer orders in NDX (including Non-Priority Customer Auction Orders) is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will uniformly assess a $0.75 per contract fee for all such market participant orders. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to assess this increased fee on all participants except Priority Customers because the Exchange seeks to encourage Priority Customer order flow and the liquidity such order flow brings to the marketplace, which in turn benefits all market participants.
Additionally, the Exchange believes that the proposed elimination of the Crossing Fee Cap for Firm Proprietary and Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Maker orders in NDX is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will eliminate the Crossing Fee Cap for all similarly-situated members.
Finally, the Exchange's proposal to eliminate the break-up rebate for regular Non-Nasdaq ISE Market Maker, Firm Proprietary/Broker-Dealer, Professional Customer, and Priority Customer orders in NDX is an equitable allocation and is not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will eliminate the rebate for all similarly-situated members. As noted above, the Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to eliminate the rebate for Priority Customer NDX orders as well because these orders (including Priority Customer Auction Orders) will no longer be assessed any fees under the proposed pricing structure.
The Exchange believes its proposal to remove any references to MNX in Section IV.B of the Schedule of Fees is reasonable because the Exchange is seeking to eliminate the $0.25 MNX Surcharge. The Exchange's proposal to remove references to the MNX Surcharge is also equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange will eliminate the surcharge for all similarly-situated members.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on inter-market or intra-market competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.
In terms of intra-market competition, the proposed changes to adopt separate pricing for all regular orders in NDX will result in total fees for orders in NDX becoming more uniform across all classes of market participants, while still permitting Priority Customers to transact in NDX free of any transaction charge. Removing the break-up rebate will also enhance the Exchange's ability to offer other rebates or reduced fees that could incentivize behavior that would enhance market quality on the Exchange, which would benefit all members. Finally, the Exchange's proposal to remove any references to MNX from Section IV.B of the Schedule of Fees will not have an impact on competition as it is simply designed to eliminate the MNX Surcharge for all Non-Priority Customers. Lastly, it is also important to note that despite the proposed fee increases with respect to NDX, members may continue to separately execute options overlying PowerShares QQQ Trust (“QQQ”).
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is provided below. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Order Routing Subsidy (ORS) and Complex Order Routing Subsidy (CORS) Programs (collectively “Programs”). The proposed changes will be effective on May 1, 2017. By way of background, the ORS and CORS Programs allow CBOE to enter into subsidy arrangements with any CBOE Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”) (each, a “Participating TPH”) or Non-CBOE TPH broker-dealer (each a “Participating Non-CBOE TPH”) that meet certain criteria and provide certain order routing functionalities to other CBOE TPHs, Non-CBOE TPHs and/or use such functionalities themselves.
The Exchange proposes to increase the subsidy for all non-customer orders under both programs. The Exchange proposes that ORS/CORS participants whose total aggregate non-customer ORS and CORS volume is greater than 0.40% of the total national volume (excluding volume in options classes included in Underlying Symbol List A, DJX, MXEA, MXEF, XSP or XSPAM) will receive an additional payment of $0.07 per contract for all executed contracts exceeding that threshold during a calendar month. The Exchange notes that another exchange with a similar subsidy program offers an additional payment based on the percentage of national volume executed by the participant.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
In particular, the Exchange believes the proposed amendments to the ORS and CORS Programs are reasonable because the proposed changes still affords Participants an opportunity to
CBOE does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impose an unnecessary burden on intramarket competition because they will apply equally to all participating parties. Although the subsidy for orders routed to CBOE through a Participant's system only applies to Participants of the Programs, the subsidies are designed to encourage the sending of more orders to the Exchange, which should provide greater liquidity and trading opportunities for all market participants. Additionally, although customer orders will not be eligible for the increased subsidy under the Programs, customer orders are eligible for other rebates, discounts or fee caps.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549 on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-CBOE-2017-038 and should be submitted on or before June 6, 2017.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statement may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Rule 11.340(b) (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, FINRA [sic]
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, IEX has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. The operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. The Exchange states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will synchronize the timing for publication of Appendix B data for all Participants, which should enhance the consistency and usefulness of the data.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule applicable to its equities trading platform (“BZX Equities”) to: (i) Add the definition of OCC Customer Volume or OCV, to the Definitions section of the fee schedule; (ii) modify five definitions in the fee schedule to reflect the new definition of OCV; (iii) modify the criteria under footnotes 1 and 12 required to achieve certain Cross-Asset Tiers to reflect the new definition of OCV; (iv) add two Cross-Asset Add Volume Tiers under footnote 1; and (v) and eliminate the Cross-Asset Step-Up Tiers under footnote 3.
The Exchange proposes to add the definition of “OCC Customer Volume” or “OCV” to the Definitions section of its fee schedule. OCC Customer Volume or OCV will be defined as the total equity and Exchange Traded Fund (“ETF”) options volume that clears in the Customer
In connection with this change, the Exchange proposes to modify five definitions which reference TCV
• Currently “Options Add TCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV
• Currently “Options Customer Add TCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV resulting from Customer orders as a percentage of TCV, using the definitions of ADAV, Customer and TCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options. The Exchange proposes the definition be modified to, “Options Customer Add OCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV resulting from Customer orders as a percentage of OCV, using the definitions of ADAV, Customer and OCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options.
• Currently “Options Customer Remove TCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADV resulting from Customer orders that remove liquidity as a percentage of TCV, using the definitions of ADV, Customer and TCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options. The Exchange proposes the definition be modified to, “Options Customer Remove OCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADV resulting from Customer orders that remove liquidity as a percentage of OCV, using the definitions of ADV, Customer and OCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options.
• Currently “Options Market Maker Add TCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV resulting from Market Maker
• Currently “Options Step-Up Add TCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV as a percentage of TCV in January 2014 subtracted from current ADAV as a percentage of TCV, using the definitions of ADAV and TCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options. The Exchange proposes the definition be modified to, “Options Step-Up Add OCV” for purposes of equities pricing means ADAV as a percentage of OCV in January 2014 subtracted from current ADAV as a percentage of OCV, using the definitions of ADAV and OCV as provided under the Exchange's fee schedule for BZX Options.
By definition OCV is a smaller amount of volume than TCV, and thus, the Exchange proposes to slightly increase the volume percentages required to meet the criteria of the Cross-Asset volume tiers that utilize the definition of OCV. Doing so will keep each tier's criteria relatively unchanged from its current requirements.
• Currently, under Cross-Asset Add Volume Tier 1, Members may receive an enhanced rebate of $0.0028 where they have: (1) An ADAV as a percentage of TCV greater than or equal to 0.15%; and (2) an Options Customer Add TCV greater than or equal to 0.10%. As amended, Members must have: (1) An ADAV as a percentage of TCV greater than or equal to 0.15%; and (2) an Options Customer Add OCV greater than or equal to 0.15%. The Exchange does not propose to alter the rebate associated with this tier.
• Currently, under Cross-Asset Add Volume Tier 2, Members may receive an enhanced rebate of $0.0030 where they have: (1) On BZX Options an ADAV in Customer orders greater than or equal to 0.60% of average TCV; (2) on BZX Options an ADAV in Market Maker orders greater than or equal to 0.25% of average TCV; and (3) an ADAV greater than or equal to 0.30% of average TCV. As amended, Members must have: (1) an Options Customer Add OCV greater than or equal to 0.80%; (2) an Options Market Maker Add OCV greater than or equal to 0.35%; and (3) an ADAV greater than or equal to 0.30% of average TCV. The Exchange does not propose to alter the rebate associated with this tier.
• As proposed, under the new Cross-Asset Add Volume Tier 3 Members may receive an enhanced rebate of $0.0028 where they have on BZX Options an ADAV greater than or equal to 2.00% of average OCV.
• As proposed, under the new Cross-Asset Add Volume Tier 4 Members may receive an enhanced rebate of $0.0029 where they have: (1) An ADAV greater than or equal to 0.15% of the TCV; and (2) an Options Market Maker Add OCV greater than or equal to 2.75%.
The Exchange currently offers three Cross-Asset Step-Up Tiers pursuant to footnote 3 under which a Member is provided an enhanced rebate ranging from $0.0027 to $0.0029 per share and one Cross-Asset Step-Up Tier under which a Member pays a reduced fee of $0.00295 per share. The Exchange now proposes to delete these tiers as they were not incentivizing order flow as originally designed. Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to remove all text from footnote 3, reserving it for future use, and to remove footnote 3 from each of the fee codes in the Fee Codes and Associated Fees table to which it currently applies, namely, fee codes B, BB, N, V, W, and Y. The Exchange notes that Members that previously qualified for enhanced rebates under the Cross-Asset Step-Up Tiers of footnote 3 may achieve the same range of enhanced rebates by satisfying what the Exchange believes to be similar criteria as the existing and proposed Cross-Asset Add Volume Tiers discussed above, or the existing Step-Up Tier under footnote 2 of the fee schedule.
The Exchange proposes to implement these amendments to its fee schedule effective May 1, 2017.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange believes adopting a definition of OCV and utilizing OCV in lieu of TCV for its Cross-Asset Tiers and its associated definitions is reasonable, fair and equitable, and non-discriminatory because the Exchange also proposed to modify the tier's related criteria in order to maintain substantially identical requirements to qualify for the tier. The Exchange notes that its affiliate, Bats EDGX Exchange, Inc. (“EDGX”), also uses OCV in lieu of TCV for cross-asset pricing.
The Exchange believes that the proposed modifications to the tiered pricing structure are reasonable, fair and equitable, and non-discriminatory. The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants may readily send order flow to many competing venues if they deem fees at the Exchange to be excessive or incentives provided to be insufficient. The proposed fee structure
The Exchange believes that the proposed modifications to eliminate the Cross-Asset Step Up Tiers under footnote 3 is reasonable, fair, and equitable because the current tiers were not providing the desired result of incentivizing Members to increase their participation in BZX Equities and in BZX Options. Therefore, eliminating this tier will have a negligible effect on order flow and market behavior. The Exchange believes the proposed change is not unfairly discriminatory because it will apply equally to all participants. Further, as described above, the Exchange notes that Members that previously qualified for enhanced rebates under the Cross-Asset Step-Up Tier may achieve the same range of enhanced rebates by satisfying what the Exchange believes to be similar criteria as the existing and proposed Cross-Asset Add Volume Tiers discussed above, or the existing Step-Up Tier under footnote 2 of the fee schedule.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that any of the proposed change to the Exchange's tiered pricing structure burden competition, but instead, that they enhance competition as they are intended to increase the competitiveness of the Exchange by modifying pricing incentives in order to attract order flow and incentivize participants to increase their participation on the Exchange. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues if they deem fee structures to be unreasonable or excessive. The proposed changes are generally intended to enhance the rebates for liquidity added to the Exchange, which is intended to draw additional liquidity to the Exchange, and to eliminate a rebate that has not achieved its desired result. The Exchange does not believe the proposed amendments would burden intramarket competition as they would be available to all Members uniformly.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend the fee schedule applicable to Members
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its fee schedule to: (i) Add a new tier under footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers; and (ii) modify its description of fee code PX.
The Exchange currently offers four tiers under footnote 1, Add/Remove Volume Tiers that offer reduced fees for displayed orders that yield fee codes B,
In connection with this change, the Exchange proposes to add a definition of Step-Up ADAV to the “Definitions” section of the fee schedule. As proposed, “Step-Up ADAV” would be defined as “ADAV in the relevant baseline month subtracted from current ADAV.” The Exchange proposes to add this definition in connection with the new tier.
Fee code PX is appended to orders routed using the RMPL routing strategy
The Exchange proposes to implement the above changes to its fee schedule immediately.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the objectives of Section 6 of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed tier under footnote 1 is equitable and reasonable because such pricing programs reward a Member's growth pattern on the Exchange and such increased volume will allow the Exchange to continue to provide and potentially expand the its incentive
In addition, volume-based fees such as that proposed herein have been widely adopted by exchanges and are equitable because they are open to all Members on an equal basis and provide additional benefits or discounts that are reasonably related to: (i) The value to an exchange's market quality; (ii) associated higher levels of market activity, such as higher levels of liquidity provision and/or growth patterns; and (iii) the introduction of higher volumes of orders into the price and volume discovery processes. The Exchange believes that the proposed tier is a reasonable, fair and equitable, and not an unfairly discriminatory allocation of fees and rebates, because it will provide Members with an additional incentive to reach certain thresholds on the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that the proposed amendment to the description of fee code PX is reasonable and equitable because this change is purely clerical and does not amend the orders to which fee code PX is appended. The Exchange also believes that the proposal is non-discriminatory because it applies uniformly to all Members. The proposed change is intended to align it with the description of an identical fee code on Bats' affiliate exchange, EDGA.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that this change represents a significant departure from previous pricing offered by the Exchange or from pricing offered by the Exchange's competitors. The proposed rates would apply uniformly to all Members, and Members may opt to disfavor the Exchange's pricing if they believe that alternatives offer them better value. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of Members or competing venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets. Further, excessive fees would serve to impair an exchange's ability to compete for order flow and members rather than burdening competition. The Exchange believes that its proposal would not burden intramarket competition because the proposed rate would apply uniformly to all Members.
The Exchange has not solicited, and does not intend to solicit, comments on this proposed rule change. The Exchange has not received any unsolicited written comments from Members or other interested parties.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to amend Rule 6191 to modify the date of Appendix B Web site data publication pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Rule 6191(b) (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, FINRA would publish the required Appendix B data for the Pre-Pilot Period through April 30, 2017, by August 31, 2017. Thereafter, Appendix B data for a given month would be published within 120 calendar days following month end.
FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. The operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. FINRA believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide FINRA with additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the requirement that the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing so that it may become operative on the date of filing.
FINRA notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. FINRA states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will provide FINRA with additional time to develop the necessary systems changes to implement the anonymous, grouped masking methodology for Appendix B data related to OTC trading activity.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 67-Equities to modify the date of Appendix B Web site data publication pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”). The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
Rule 67(b)-Equities (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, the Exchange would publish the required Appendix B data for the Pre-Pilot Period through April 30, 2017, by August 31, 2017. Thereafter, Appendix B data for a given month would be published within 120 calendar days following month end.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide the Exchange with additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the requirement that the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing so that it may become operative on the date of filing.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. The Exchange states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will synchronize the timing for publication of Appendix B data for all Participants, which should enhance the consistency and usefulness of the data.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice.
Notice of an application under section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) for an exemption from sections 18(a)(2), 18(c) and 18(i) of the Act, under sections 6(c) and 23(c)(3) of the Act for an exemption from rule 23c-3 under the Act, and for an order pursuant to section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090; Applicants: 280 Park Ave., 6th Floor East, New York, NY 10017.
Hae-Sung Lee, Attorney-Adviser, at (202) 551-7345, or Robert H. Shapiro, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. STRF is a Delaware statutory trust that is registered under the Act as a continuously offered, non-diversified, closed-end management investment company. STRF's primary investment objective is to seek total return through a combination of current income and long-term capital appreciation by investing in a portfolio of debt securities and equities.
2. STRF Advisors is a Delaware limited liability company and is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (“Advisers Act”). STRF Advisors serves as investment adviser to STRF.
3. SOF is a Delaware statutory trust that is registered under the Act as a continuously offered, non-diversified, closed-end management investment company. SOF's primary investment objective is to generate current income and, as a secondary objective, long-term capital appreciation.
4. SOF Advisors is a Delaware limited liability company and is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. SOF Advisors serves as investment adviser to SOF.
5. The applicants seek an order to permit the Funds (as defined below) to issue multiple classes of shares, each having its own fee and expense structure and to impose early withdrawal charges and asset-based distribution and shareholder service fees with respect to certain classes.
6. Applicants request that the order also apply to any continuously-offered registered closed-end management investment company that has been previously organized or that may be organized in the future for which STRF Advisors, SOF Advisors or any entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with STRF Advisors and SOF Advisors, or any successor in interest to any such entity,
7. Each Fund intends to engage in a continuous offering of its shares of beneficial interest. Applicants state that additional offerings by any Fund relying on the order may be on a private placement or public offering basis. Shares of the Funds will not be listed on any securities exchange nor publicly traded. There is currently no secondary market for the Funds' shares and the Funds expect that no secondary market will develop.
8. If the requested relief is granted, STRF and SOF will offer Class A, Class T, Class I, Class S, and Class L shares, with each class having its own fee and expense structure, and may also offer additional classes of shares in the future. Because of the different distribution and/or shareholder services fees, services and any other class expenses that may be attributable to each of STRF's and SOF's Class A, Class T, Class I, Class S, and Class L shares, the net income attributable to, and the dividends payable on, each class of shares may differ from each other.
9. Applicants state that, from time to time, the Funds may create additional classes of shares, the terms of which may differ from Class A, Class T, Class I, Class S, and Class L shares in the following respects: (i) The amount of fees permitted by different distribution plans or different shareholder services fee arrangements; (ii) voting rights with respect to a distribution and/or shareholder services plan of a class; (iii) different class designations; (iv) the impact of any class expenses directly attributable to a particular class of shares allocated on a class basis as described in the application; (v) any differences in dividends and net asset value resulting from differences in fees under a distribution and/or shareholder services plan or in class expenses; (vi) any early withdrawal charge or other sales load structure; and (vii) exchange or conversion privileges of the classes as permitted under the Act.
10. Applicants state that each of STRF and SOF has adopted a fundamental policy to repurchase a specified percentage of its shares (no less than 5% and not more than 25%) at net asset value on a quarterly basis and on an annual basis, respectively. Such repurchase offers will be conducted pursuant to rule 23c-3 under the Act. Each of the other Funds will likewise adopt fundamental investment policies in compliance with rule 23c-3 and make repurchase offers to its shareholders at periodic intervals and/or provide periodic liquidity with respect to its shares pursuant to rule 13e-4 under the Exchange Act.
11. Applicants represent that any asset-based shareholder services and distribution fees for each class of shares will comply with the provisions of FINRA Rule 2341(d) (“FINRA Sales Charge Rule”).
12. Each of the Funds will comply with any requirements that the Commission or FINRA may adopt regarding disclosure at the point of sale and in transaction confirmations about the costs and conflicts of interest arising out of the distribution of open-end investment company shares, and regarding prospectus disclosure of sales loads and revenue sharing arrangements, as if those requirements applied to the Fund. In addition, each Fund will contractually require that any distributor of the Fund's shares comply with such requirements in connection with the distribution of such Fund's shares.
13. Each Fund will allocate all expenses incurred by it among the various classes of shares based on the net assets of the Fund attributable to each class, except that the net asset value and expenses of each class will reflect distribution fees, shareholder service fees, and any other incremental expenses of that class. Expenses of the Fund allocated to a particular class of shares will be borne on a pro rata basis by each outstanding share of that class. Applicants state that each Fund will comply with the provisions of rule 18f-3 under the Act as if it were an open-end investment company.
14. Applicants state that each Fund may impose an early withdrawal charge on shares submitted for repurchase that have been held less than a specified period and may waive the early withdrawal charge for certain categories of shareholders or transactions to be established from time to time. Applicants state that each of the Funds will apply the early withdrawal charge (and any waivers or scheduled variations of the early withdrawal charge) uniformly to all shareholders in a given class and consistently with the requirements of rule 22d-1 under the Act as if the Funds were open-end investment companies.
15. Each Fund operating as an interval fund pursuant to rule 23c-3 under the Act may offer its shareholders an exchange feature under which the shareholders of the Fund may, in connection with the Fund's periodic repurchase offers, exchange their shares of the Fund for shares of the same class of (i) registered open-end investment companies or (ii) other registered closed-end investment companies that comply with rule 23c-3 under the Act and continuously offer their shares at net asset value, that are in the Fund's group of investment companies (collectively, “Other Funds”). Shares of a Fund operating pursuant to rule 23c-3 that are exchanged for shares of Other Funds will be included as part of the amount of the repurchase offer amount for such Fund as specified in rule 23c-3 under the Act. Any exchange option will comply with rule 11a-3 under the Act, as if the Fund were an open-end investment company subject to rule 11a-3. In complying with rule 11a-3, each Fund will treat an early withdrawal charge as if it were a contingent deferred sales load.
1. Section 18(a)(2) of the Act provides that a closed-end investment company may not issue or sell a senior security that is a stock unless certain requirements are met. Applicants state that the creation of multiple classes of shares of the Funds may violate section 18(a)(2) because the Funds may not meet such requirements with respect to a class of shares that may be a senior security.
2. Section 18(c) of the Act provides, in relevant part, that a closed-end investment company may not issue or sell any senior security if, immediately thereafter, the company has outstanding more than one class of senior security. Applicants state that the creation of multiple classes of shares of the Funds may be prohibited by section 18(c), as a class may have priority over another class as to payment of dividends because shareholders of different classes would pay different fees and expenses.
3. Section 18(i) of the Act provides that each share of stock issued by a registered management investment company will be a voting stock and have equal voting rights with every other outstanding voting stock. Applicants state that multiple classes of shares of the Funds may violate section 18(i) of the Act because each class would be entitled to exclusive voting rights with respect to matters solely related to that class.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities or transactions from any provision of the Act, or from any rule or regulation under the Act, if and to the extent such exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants request an exemption under section 6(c) from sections 18(a)(2), 18(c) and 18(i) to permit the Funds to issue multiple classes of shares.
5. Applicants submit that the proposed allocation of expenses relating to distribution and voting rights among multiple classes is equitable and will not discriminate against any group or class of shareholders. Applicants submit that the proposed arrangements would permit a Fund to facilitate the distribution of its shares and provide investors with a broader choice of shareholder services. Applicants assert that the proposed closed-end investment company multiple class structure does not raise the concerns underlying section 18 of the Act to any greater degree than open-end investment companies' multiple class structures that are permitted by rule 18f-3 under the Act. Applicants state that each Fund will comply with the provisions of rule 18f-3 as if it were an open-end investment company.
1. Section 23(c) of the Act provides, in relevant part, that no registered closed-end investment company shall purchase securities of which it is the issuer, except: (a) On a securities exchange or other open market; (b) pursuant to tenders, after reasonable opportunity to submit tenders given to all holders of securities of the class to be purchased; or (c) under other circumstances as the Commission may permit by rules and regulations or orders for the protection of investors.
2. Rule 23c-3 under the Act permits a registered closed-end investment company (an “interval fund”) to make repurchase offers of between five and twenty-five percent of its outstanding shares at net asset value at periodic intervals pursuant to a fundamental policy of the interval fund. Rule 23c-3(b)(1) under the Act permits an interval fund to deduct from repurchase proceeds only a repurchase fee, not to exceed two percent of the proceeds, that is paid to the interval fund and is reasonably intended to compensate the fund for expenses directly related to the repurchase.
3. Section 23(c)(3) provides that the Commission may issue an order that would permit a closed-end investment company to repurchase its shares in circumstances in which the repurchase
4. Applicants request relief under section 6(c), discussed above, and section 23(c)(3) from rule 23c-3 to the extent necessary for the Funds to impose early withdrawal charges on shares of the Funds submitted for repurchase that have been held for less than a specified period.
5. Applicants state that the early withdrawal charges they intend to impose are functionally similar to contingent deferred sales loads imposed by open-end investment companies under rule 6c-10 under the Act. Rule 6c-10 permits open-end investment companies to impose contingent deferred sales loads, subject to certain conditions. Applicants note that rule 6c-10 is grounded in policy considerations supporting the employment of contingent deferred sales loads where there are adequate safeguards for the investor and state that the same policy considerations support imposition of early withdrawal charges in the interval fund context. In addition, applicants state that early withdrawal charges may be necessary for the distributor to recover distribution costs. Applicants represent that any early withdrawal charge imposed by the Funds will comply with rule 6c-10 under the Act as if the rule were applicable to closed-end investment companies. The Funds will disclose early withdrawal charges in accordance with the requirements of Form N-1A concerning contingent deferred sales loads.
1. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit an affiliated person of a registered investment company, or an affiliated person of such person, acting as principal, from participating in or effecting any transaction in connection with any joint enterprise or joint arrangement in which the investment company participates unless the Commission issues an order permitting the transaction. In reviewing applications submitted under section 17(d) and rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the participation of the investment company in a joint enterprise or joint arrangement is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act, and the extent to which the participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
2. Rule 17d-3 under the Act provides an exemption from section 17(d) and rule 17d-1 to permit open-end investment companies to enter into distribution arrangements pursuant to rule 12b-1 under the Act. Applicants request an order under section 17(d) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to the extent necessary to permit the Fund to impose asset-based distribution and shareholder service fees. Applicants have agreed to comply with rules 12b-1 and 17d-3 as if those rules applied to closed-end investment companies, which they believe will resolve any concerns that might arise in connection with a Fund financing the distribution of its shares through asset-based distribution fees.
For the reasons stated above, applicants submit that the exemptions requested under section 6(c) are necessary and appropriate in the public interest and are consistent with the protection of investors and the purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants further submit that the relief requested pursuant to section 23(c)(3) will be consistent with the protection of investors and will insure that applicants do not unfairly discriminate against any holders of the class of securities to be purchased. Finally, applicants state that the Funds' imposition of asset-based distribution and shareholder service fees is consistent with the provisions, policies and purposes of the Act and does not involve participation on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the following condition:
Each Fund relying on the order will comply with the provisions of rules 6c-10, 12b-1, 17d-3, 18f-3, 22d-1, and, where applicable, 11a-3 under the Act, as amended from time to time, as if those rules applied to closed-end management investment companies, and will comply with the FINRA Sales Charge Rule, as amended from time to time, as if that rule applied to all closed-end management investment companies.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to establish ports that members use to connect to the Exchange with the migration of the Exchange's trading system to the Nasdaq INET architecture.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to establish ports that members use to connect to the Exchange with the migration of the Exchange's
SQF is an interface that allows market makers to connect and send quotes, sweeps and auction responses into the Exchange. Data includes the following: (1) Options Auction Notifications (
SQF Purge is a specific port for the SQF interface that only receives and notifies of purge requests from the market maker. Dedicated SQF Purge Ports enable market makers to seamlessly manage their ability to remove their quotes in a swift manner.
OTTO is an interface that allows market participants to connect and send orders, auction orders and auction responses into the Exchange. Data includes the following: (1) Options Auction Notifications (
CTI is a real-time clearing trade update is a message that is sent to a member after an execution has occurred and contains trade details. The message containing the trade details is also simultaneously sent to The Options Clearing Corporation. The information includes, among other things, the following: (i) The Clearing Member Trade Agreement or “CMTA” or The Options Clearing Corporation or “OCC” number; (ii) Exchange badge or house number; (iii) the Exchange internal firm identifier; and (iv) an indicator which will distinguish electronic and non-electronically delivered orders; (v) liquidity indicators and transaction type for billing purposes; (vi) capacity
FIX is an interface that allows market participants to connect and send orders and auction orders into the Exchange. Data includes the following: (1) Options Symbol Directory Messages; (2) System Event Messages (
FIX Drop is a real-time order and execution update is a message that is sent to a member after an order been received/modified or an execution has occurred and contains trade details. The information includes, among other things, the following: (1) Executions (2) cancellations (3) modifications to an existing order (4) busts or post-trade corrections.
Disaster Recovery ports provide connectivity to the exchange's disaster recovery data center in Chicago to be utilized in the event the exchange has to fail over during the trading day. DR Ports are available for SQF, SQF Purge, CTI, OTTO, FIX and FIX Drop.
Market Data ports provide connectivity to the Exchange's proprietary market data feeds, including the Nasdaq GEMX Real-time Depth of Market Raw Data Feed (“Depth of Market Feed”),
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”)
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest as it establishes various ports used to connect to the GEMX INET trading system. The Exchange's port offerings are changing with the re-platform as the ports used by INET differ from the ports used to connect to the T7 trading system. Market participants that connect to the INET trading system may use the following ports mentioned above: SQF, SQF Purge, OTTO, CTI, FIX, FIX Drop, Disaster Recovery, and Market Data. These ports are the same as ports currently used by the Exchange's affiliates, and therefore offer a familiar experience for market participants. The ports described in this filing provide a range of important features to market participants, including the ability to submit orders and quotes, receive market data, and perform other functions necessary to manage trading on the Exchange. The Exchange recently adopted port fees for the ports described in this filing, and believes that filing separately to establish these ports will increase transparency to market participants regarding connectivity options provided by the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that it is consistent with the protection of investors and public interest to establish the Trades Feed as this feed, which is currently provided free of charge, provides valuable trade information to subscribers. The Trades Feed designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade by providing all subscribers with data that should enable them to make informed decisions on trading in GEMX options by using the data to assess current market conditions that directly affect such decisions. The market data provided by this feed removes impediments to, and is designed to further perfect, the mechanisms of a free and open market and a national market system by making the GEMX market more transparent and accessible to market participants making routing decisions concerning their options orders.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
In its filing, GEMX requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay in order to enable the Exchange to more quickly establish the Trades Feed and the ports used by members to connect to the Exchange's INET trading system. The Commission believes that such waiver is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. GEMX noted that its members have received numerous communications regarding the availability of the new port offerings, which are the same as the connectivity options used to connect to the Exchange's affiliates; in fact, members are already using these ports to connect to INET. Similarly, GEMX explained that the proposed Trades Feed has already been disclosed to members and that subscribers to GEMX market data have already been given access to the proposed Trades Feed. To avoid disrupting member usage of GEMX connectivity and data options, the Commission designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On March 9, 2017, NASDAQ BX, Inc. (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend Exchange Rules 11140 (Transactions in Securities “Ex-Dividend,” “Ex-Rights” or “Ex-Warrants”), 11150 (Transactions “Ex-Interest” in Bonds Which Are Dealt in “Flat”), 11210 (Sent by Each Party), 11320 (Dates of Delivery), 11620 (Computation of Interest), and IM-11810 (Sample Buy-In Forms), to conform to the Commission's proposed amendment to Rule 15c6-1(a) under the Act that would shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from T+3 to T+2.
Exchange Rule 11140(b)(1) concerns the determination of normal ex-dividend and ex-warrants dates for certain types of dividends and distributions. Currently, with respect to cash dividends or distributions, or stock dividends, and the issuance or distribution of warrants, which are less than 25% of the value of the subject security, if the definitive information is received sufficiently in advance of the record date, the date designated as the “ex-dividend date” is the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, or the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day designated by the Exchange's Regulation Department as a non-delivery day. Under the proposal, the “ex-dividend date” would be the first business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, or the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day designated by the Exchange's Regulation Department as a non-delivery date.
Exchange Rule 11150(a) concerns the determination of normal ex-interest dates for certain types of transactions. Currently, all transactions, except “cash” transactions, in bonds or similar evidences of indebtedness which are traded “flat” are “ex-interest” on the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, on the third business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day other than a business day, and on the third business day preceding the date on which an interest payment is to be made if no record date has been fixed. Under the proposal, these transactions would be “ex-interest” on the first business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a business day, on the second business day preceding the record date if the record date falls on a day other than a business day, and on the second business day preceding the date on which an interest payment is to be made if no record date has been fixed.
Exchange Rules 11210(c) and (d) set forth “DK” procedures using “Don't Know Notices” and other forms of notices, respectively.
The Exchange proposes similar changes to Exchange Rule 11210(d). Exchange Rule 11210(d) currently provides that, when a party to a transaction sends a comparison or confirmation of a trade, but does not receive a comparison or confirmation or a signed DK from the contra-member by the close of four business days following the date of the transaction, the party may use the procedures set forth in the rule. The Exchange proposes to shorten the “four business days” time period to one business day. Exchange Rule 11210(d)(5) currently provides that if the confirming member does not receive a response in the form of a notice from the contra-member by the close of four business days after receipt of the confirming member's notice, such shall constitute a DK and the confirming member shall have no further liability. The Exchange proposes to shorten the “four business days” time period to two business days.
Exchange Rule 11320 prescribes delivery dates for various types of transactions. Exchange Rule 11320(b) currently provides that in connection with a transaction “regular way,” delivery is made at the office of the purchaser on, but not before, the third business day following the date of the transaction. Under the proposal, delivery would be required to be made on, but not before, the second business day following the date of the transaction. Exchange Rule 11320(c) currently provides in part that, in connection with a transaction “seller's option,” delivery may be made by the seller on any business day after the third business day following the date of transaction and prior to the expiration of the option, provided the seller delivers at the office of the purchaser, on a business day preceding the day of delivery, written notice of intention to deliver. Under the proposal, delivery may be made by the seller on any business day after the second business day following the date of the transaction and prior to expiration of the option.
Exchange Rule 11620 governs the computation of interest. Exchange Rule 11620(a) currently provides in part that, in the settlement of contracts in interest-paying securities other than for “cash,” there shall be added to the dollar price interest at the rate specified in the security, which shall be computed up to but not including the third business day following the date of the transaction. Under the proposal, the interest would be computed up to but not including the second business day following the date of the transaction.
Exchange Rule IM-11810(i)(1)(A) sets forth the circumstances under which a receiving member may deliver a Liability Notice to the delivering member as an alternative to the close-out procedures set forth in Exchange Rule IM-11810(a)-(g). Currently, when the parties to a contract are not both participants in a registered clearing agency that has an automated service for notifying a failing party of the liability that will be attendant to a failure to deliver, the notice must be issued using written or comparable electronic media having immediate receipt capabilities “no later than one business day prior to the latest time and the date of the offer or other event” in order to obtain the protection provided by the rule. Under the proposal, the notice must be “sent as soon as practicable but not later than two hours prior to the cutoff time set forth in the instructions on a specific offer or other event” in order to obtain the protection provided by the rule.
The Exchange represents that it will announce the operative date of the proposed rule change in an Equity Regulatory Alert, which date would correspond with the industry-led transition to a T+2 standard settlement, and the compliance date of the amendment to Rule 15c6-1(a) under the Act.
After careful review of the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, the Commission finds that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange.
The Commission notes that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, would amend Exchange rules to conform to the amendment that the Commission has adopted to Rule 15c6-1(a) under the Act
For the reasons noted above, the Commission finds that the proposal, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 7.46 to modify the date of Appendix B Web site data publication pursuant to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
Rule 7.46(b) (Compliance with Data Collection Requirements)
Pursuant to this proposed amendment, the Exchange would publish the required Appendix B data for the Pre-Pilot Period through April 30, 2017, by August 31, 2017. Thereafter, Appendix B data for a given month would be published within 120 calendar days following month end.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, the Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. The Exchange believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is in furtherance of the objectives of Section VII(A) of the Plan in that it is designed to provide the Exchange with additional time to consider a methodology to mitigate concerns raised in connection with the publication of Appendix B data.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19(b)-4(f)(6) normally does not become operative prior to 30 days after the date of the filing. However, pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6)(iii), the Commission may designate a shorter time if such action is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest. The Exchange has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the requirement that the proposed rule change not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing so that it may become operative on the date of filing.
The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is intended to mitigate confidentiality concerns raised in connection with Section VII(A) of the Plan, which provides that the data made publicly available will not identify the Trading Center that generated the data. The Exchange states that the additional time would allow consideration of a methodology to mitigate concerns related to the publication of Appendix B data.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will synchronize the timing for publication of Appendix B data for all Participants, which should enhance the consistency and usefulness of the data.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
In accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Department of State has renewed the Charter for the Advisory Committee for the Study of Eastern Europe and the Independent States of the Former Soviet Union (Advisory Committee) effective April 3, 2017.
The Advisory Committee will convene on Monday, June 5, 2017, from 10:00 a.m. until approximately 12:00 p.m. The meeting will take place at the U.S. Department of State, Harry S Truman Building, 2201 C Street NW., Washington, DC, Room 1408.
The Advisory Committee will recommend grant recipients for the 2017 funding opportunity of the Program for the Study of Eastern Europe and the Independent States of the Former Soviet Union, in accordance with the Research and Training for Eastern Europe and the Independent States of the Former Soviet Union Act of 1983, Public Law 98-164, as amended. The agenda will include opening statements by the chairperson and members of the committee. The committee will provide an overview and discussion of grant proposals from “national organizations with an interest and expertise in conducting research and training concerning the countries of Eastern Europe and the Independent States of the Former Soviet Union,” based on the guidelines set forth in the March 8, 2017 request for proposals published on
This meeting will be open to the public; however, attendance is limited to available seating. Entry into the Harry S Truman building is controlled and must be arranged in advance of the meeting. Those planning to attend should notify the Title VIII Program Officer at the U.S. Department of State on (202) 647-4562 no later than close of business, Wednesday, May 31, 2017.
For pre-clearance into the Harry S Truman building, the Title VIII Program Officer will request identifying data pursuant to Public Law 99-399 (Omnibus Diplomatic Security and Antiterrorism Act of 1986), as amended; Public Law 107-56 (USA PATRIOT Act); and Executive Order 13356. The purpose of the collection is to validate the identity of individuals who enter Department facilities. The data will be entered into the Visitor Access Control System (VACS-D) database.
Please review the Security Records System of Records Notice (State-36) at
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the objects to which this notice pertains, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
On April 26, 2017, BNSF Railway Company (BNSF) filed with the Surface Transportation Board (Board) a petition under 49 U.S.C. 10502 for exemption from the prior approval requirements of 49 U.S.C. 10903 to abandon a 2.7-mile rail line extending from milepost 1225.19 to the south end of the line at milepost 1227.58 and to the west end of the line at Engineering Station 189+36 (milepost 1227.10) in Kalispell, Flathead County, Minn. (the Line). The Line traverses U.S. Postal Zip Code 55901.
According to BNSF, the leaseholder and local rail service operator on the Line, Mission Mountain Railroad, L.L.C., will seek authority to discontinue its service over the Line. BNSF represents that the two customers on the Line, Northwest Drywall & Building Supply and CHS Inc., will be relocated and do not oppose the abandonment.
BNSF states that the Line does not contain any federally granted rights-of-way. Any documentation in BNSF's possession will be made available promptly to those requesting it.
The interest of railroad employees will be protected by the conditions set forth in
By issuing this notice, the Board is instituting an exemption proceeding pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 10502(b). A final decision will be issued by August 14, 2017.
Any offer of financial assistance (OFA) under 49 CFR 1152.27(b)(2) for continued rail service will be due by August 24, 2017, or 10 days after service of a decision granting the petition for exemption, whichever occurs first. Each OFA must be accompanied by a $1,700 filing fee.
All interested persons should be aware that, following abandonment, the Line may be suitable for other public use, including interim trail use. Any request for a public use condition under 49 CFR 1152.28 or for interim trail use/rail banking under 49 CFR 1152.29 will be due no later than June 5, 2017. Each interim trail use request must be accompanied by a $300 filing fee.
Persons seeking further information concerning abandonment procedures may contact the Board's Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs, and Compliance at (202) 245-0238 or refer to the full abandonment or discontinuance regulations at 49 CFR part 1152. Questions concerning environmental issues may be directed to the Board's Office of Environmental Analysis (OEA) at (202) 245-0305. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339.
An environmental assessment (EA) (or environmental impact statement (EIS), if necessary) prepared by OEA will be served upon all parties of record and upon any agencies or other persons who commented during its preparation. Other interested persons may contact OEA to obtain a copy of the EA (or EIS). EAs in abandonment proceedings normally will be made available within 60 days of the filing of the petition. The deadline for submission of comments on the EA generally will be within 30 days of its service.
Board decisions and notices are available on our Web site at “
By the Board, Rachel D. Campbell, Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt seven individuals from the requirement in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) that interstate commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers have “no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.” The exemptions enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were effective on February 3, 2017. The exemptions will expire on February 3, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On December 29, 2016, FMCSA published a notice announcing receipt of applications from eight individuals requesting an exemption from the epilepsy prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) and requested comments from the public (81 FR 96189). The public comment period ended on January 30, 2017, and one comment was received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that granting exemptions to seven of the eight individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person:
Has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
FMCSA received one comment in this proceeding regarding Mr. William Harden from the New York State Department of Motor Vehicle (DMV) indicating that their records contained data that is discrepant with the information presented in the
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315(b), FMCSA may grant an exemption from the epilepsy/seizure standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
In reaching the decision to grant these exemption requests, FMCSA considered the 2007 recommendations of the Agency's Medical Expert Panel (MEP). The January 15, 2013,
The Agency's decision regarding these exemption applications is based on an individualized assessment of each applicant's medical information, including the root cause of the respective seizure(s) and medical information about the applicant's seizure history, the length of time that has elapsed since the individual's last seizure, the stability of each individual's treatment regimen and the duration of time on or off of anti-seizure medication. In addition, the Agency reviewed the treating clinician's medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV with a history of seizure and each applicant's driving record found in the Commercial Driver's License Information System (CDLIS) for commercial driver's license (CDL) holders, and interstate and intrastate inspections recorded in the Motor Carrier Management Information System (MCMIS). For non-CDL holders, the Agency reviewed the driving records from the State Driver's Licensing Agency (SDLA).
These seven applicants have been seizure-free over a range of 10 to 27 years while taking anti-seizure medication and maintained a stable medication treatment regimen for the last two years. In each case, the applicant's treating physician verified his or her seizure history and supports the ability to drive commercially.
A summary of each applicant's seizure history was discussed in the December 29, 2016,
The Agency acknowledges the potential consequences of a driver experiencing a seizure while operating a CMV. However, the Agency believes the drivers granted this exemption have demonstrated that they are unlikely to have a seizure and their medical condition does not pose a risk to public safety.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the epilepsy/seizure standard in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
The terms and conditions of the exemption are provided to the applicants in the exemption document and includes the following: (1) Each driver must remain seizure-free and maintain a stable treatment during the two-year exemption period; (2) each driver must submit annual reports from their treating physicians attesting to the stability of treatment and that the driver has remained seizure-free; (3) each driver must undergo an annual medical examination by a certified Medical Examiner, as defined by 49 CFR 390.5; and (4) each driver must provide a copy of the annual medical certification to the employer for retention in the driver's qualification file, or keep a copy of his/her driver's qualification file if he/she is self-employed. The driver must also have a copy of the exemption when driving, for presentation to a duly authorized Federal, State, or local enforcement official.
During the period the exemption is in effect, no State shall enforce any law or regulation that conflicts with this exemption with respect to a person operating under the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the eight exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the epilepsy/seizure standard, 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), subject to the requirements cited above:
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(1), each exemption is valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The individual fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to exempt 40 individuals from its rule prohibiting persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) from operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. The exemptions enable these individuals to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
The exemptions were effective on April 27, 2017. The exemptions expire on April 27, 2019.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On March 27, 2017, FMCSA published a notice of receipt of Federal diabetes exemption applications from 40 individuals and requested comments from the public (82 FR 15271). The public comment period closed on April 26, 2017, and no comments were received.
FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of the 40 applicants and determined that granting the exemptions to these individuals would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
The Agency established the current requirement for diabetes in 1970 because several risk studies indicated that drivers with diabetes had a higher rate of crash involvement than the general population. The diabetes rule provides that “A person is physically qualified to drive a commercial motor vehicle if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control” (49 CFR 391.41(b)(3)).
FMCSA established its diabetes exemption program, based on the Agency's July 2000 study entitled “A Report to Congress on the Feasibility of a Program to Qualify Individuals with Insulin-Treated Diabetes Mellitus to Operate in Interstate Commerce as Directed by the Transportation Act for the 21st Century.” The report concluded that a safe and practicable protocol to allow some drivers with ITDM to operate CMVs is feasible. The September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441),
These 40 applicants have had ITDM over a range of 1 to 35 years. These applicants report no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness or seizure, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning symptoms, in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the past 5 years. In each case, an endocrinologist verified that the driver has demonstrated a willingness to properly monitor and manage his/her diabetes mellitus, received education related to diabetes management, and is on a stable insulin regimen. These drivers report no other disqualifying conditions, including diabetes-related complications. Each meets the vision requirement at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10).
The qualifications and medical condition of each applicant were stated and discussed in detail in the March 27, 2017,
FMCSA received no comments in this proceeding.
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) if the exemption is likely to achieve an equivalent or greater level of safety than would be achieved without the exemption. The exemption allows the applicants to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
To evaluate the effect of these exemptions on safety, FMCSA considered medical reports about the applicants' ITDM and vision, and reviewed the treating endocrinologists' medical opinion related to the ability of the driver to safely operate a CMV while using insulin.
Consequently, FMCSA finds that in each case exempting these applicants from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) is likely to achieve a level of safety equal to that existing without the exemption.
Based upon its evaluation of the 40 exemption applications, FMCSA exempts the following drivers from the diabetes requirement in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3):
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 each exemption is valid for two years unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained before it was granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315. If the exemption is still effective at the end of the 2-year period, the person may apply to FMCSA for a renewal under procedures in effect at that time.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of 3 individuals and 1 entity whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism.”
OFAC's actions described in this notice were effective on May 11, 2017.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On May 11, 2017, OFAC blocked the property and interests in property of the following 3 individuals and 1 entity pursuant to E.O. 13224, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism”:
1. RAHMAN, Inayat ur (a.k.a. AL RAHMAN, Inayat al Rahman bin Sheikh Jamil; a.k.a. AL-RAHMAN, `Inayat; a.k.a. AL-RAHMAN, `Inayat al-Rahman bin Sheikh Jamil; a.k.a. AL-RAHMAN, 'Inayat al-Rahman Bin al-Sheikh Jamil; a.k.a. JALIL, Inayatullah ur-Rahman; a.k.a. JAMEAL, `Anayet el-Rahman; a.k.a. JAMEEL, Inayat; a.k.a. JAMIL, Enayat al-Rahman; a.k.a. JAMIL, Enayaturrahman; a.k.a. JAMIL, Enayetul Rahman; a.k.a. JAMIL, Inayat al-Rahman; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Anayat ur; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Anayatullah; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Enayat al; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Enayatullah; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Inayatu; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Inayat-u-; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Inayatullah; a.k.a. RAHMAN, Inayat-ur-; a.k.a. REHMAN, Inayat; a.k.a. REHMAN, Inayat ur; a.k.a. UR-RAHMAN, Anayat; a.k.a. UR-RAHMAN, Anyat; a.k.a. UR-RAHMAN, Enayat; a.k.a. UR-RAHMAN, Jamil Inayat; a.k.a. “AINAYATURAHMAN”; a.k.a. “ANAYATURAHMAN”; a.k.a. “INAYATURAHMAN”; a.k.a. “INAYATURRAHMAN”), Saidabad Pajagi Road, Peshawar, Pakistan; DOB 02 Dec 1973; POB Nangalam Village, Manugay District, Afghanistan; nationality Pakistan; Gender Male; Passport BG1744461 (Pakistan); National ID No. 1730156254465 (Pakistan) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: JAMA'AT UL DAWA AL-QU'RAN; Linked To: TALIBAN; Linked To: LASHKAR E-TAYYIBA).
2. TURAB, Ali Muhammad Abu (a.k.a. ABUTURAB, Ali Muhammad; a.k.a. MOHAMMAD, Ali Mohammad Abutorab Noor; a.k.a. MOHAMMAD, Ali Mohammad Noor; a.k.a. MOHD, Ali Mohd Abutorab Noor; a.k.a. MUHAMMAD, Abu Turab Ali; a.k.a. MUHAMMED, Ali Muhammed Noor; a.k.a. TORAB, Abu Ali; a.k.a. TORAB, Ali Mohammad Abu; a.k.a. TURAB, Ali Mohammad Abu; a.k.a. TURAB, Ali Mohammed Abu; a.k.a. “MOHAMMED, Ali”; a.k.a. “TURAB, Abu”), Jamia Salfia, Airport Road, Quetta, Pakistan; Patel Road, Quetta, Pakistan; Saudi Arabia; DOB 10 Sep 1964; alt. DOB 05 Jan 1968; POB Quetta, Balochistan, Pakistan; nationality Pakistan; Gender Male; Passport J349992 (Pakistan); National ID No. 2083655452 (Saudi Arabia) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: JAMA'AT UL DAWA AL-QU'RAN; Linked To: AMEEN AL-PESHAWARI, Fazeel-A-Tul Shaykh Abu Mohammed).
3. MUHAMMAD, Hayat Ullah Ghulam (a.k.a. HAYAATULLAH, Haji; a.k.a. HAYATOLLAH, Haji; a.k.a. HAYATULLAH, Haji; a.k.a. HIYATULLAH, Haji), Saeedabad, Pagi Road, Peshawar, Pakistan; Saeedabad, Pachagi Road, Peshawar, Pakistan; DOB 1957 to 1959; POB Nangalam Village, Dar-e-Pech, Kunar, Afghanistan; Gender Male; Passport TR030544 (Afghanistan); alt. Passport TR035506 (Afghanistan) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: JAMA'AT UL DAWA AL-QU'RAN; Linked To: LASHKAR E-TAYYIBA; Linked To: TALIBAN; Linked To: ISIL KHORASAN; Linked To: AL QA'IDA; Linked To: ISLAMIC STATE OF IRAQ AND THE LEVANT).
1. WELFARE AND DEVELOPMENT ORGANIZATION OF JAMAAT-UD-DAWAH FOR QUR'AN AND SUNNAH (a.k.a. AL-MUNADAMA AL-KHAYRIA LILTANMIA; a.k.a. AL-MUNADDAMA AL-KAIRYIA LIL-TANMIYA OF JAMA'AT AL-DA'WAH ILA
Departmental Offices, U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection request(s) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, on or after the date of publication of this notice. The public is invited to submit comments on the collection(s) listed below.
Comments should be received on or before July 17, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
(a) those laws, rules, policies, activities, strategies, and practices that enhance the American people's confidence in the integrity of the voting processes used in Federal elections;
(b) those laws, rules, policies, activities, strategies, and practices that undermine the American people's confidence in the integrity of the voting processes used in Federal elections; and
(c) those vulnerabilities in voting systems and practices used for Federal elections that could lead to improper voter registrations and improper voting, including fraudulent voter registrations and fraudulent voting.
(a) The term “improper voter registration” means any situation where an individual who does not possess the legal right to vote in a jurisdiction is included as an eligible voter on that jurisdiction's voter list, regardless of the state of mind or intent of such individual.
(b) The term “improper voting” means the act of an individual casting a non-provisional ballot in a jurisdiction in which that individual is ineligible to vote, or the act of an individual casting a ballot in multiple jurisdictions, regardless of the state of mind or intent of that individual.
(c) The term “fraudulent voter registration” means any situation where an individual knowingly and intentionally takes steps to add ineligible individuals to voter lists.
(d) The term “fraudulent voting” means the act of casting a non-provisional ballot or multiple ballots with knowledge that casting the ballot or ballots is illegal.
(b) Relevant executive departments and agencies shall endeavor to cooperate with the Commission.
(c) Insofar as the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.) (the “Act”), may apply to the Commission, any functions of the President under that Act, except for those in section 6 of the Act, shall be performed by the Administrator of General Services.
(d) Members of the Commission shall serve without any additional compensation for their work on the Commission, but shall be allowed travel expenses, including per diem in lieu of subsistence, to the extent permitted by law for persons serving intermittently in the Government service (5 U.S.C. 5701-5707).
(e) Nothing in this order shall be construed to impair or otherwise affect:
(f) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(g) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(A) document the risk mitigation and acceptance choices made by each agency head as of the date of this order, including:
(B) describe the agency's action plan to implement the Framework.
(A) the determination; and
(B) a plan to:
(A) Agency heads shall show preference in their procurement for shared IT services, to the extent permitted by law, including email, cloud, and cybersecurity services.
(B) The Director of the American Technology Council shall coordinate a report to the President from the Secretary of Homeland Security, the Director of OMB, and the Administrator of General Services, in consultation with the Secretary of Commerce, as appropriate, regarding modernization of Federal IT. The report shall:
(aa) one or more consolidated network architectures; and
(bb) shared IT services, including email, cloud, and cybersecurity services.
(C) The report described in subsection (c)(vi)(B) of this section shall assess the effects of transitioning all agencies, or a subset of agencies, to shared IT services with respect to cybersecurity, including by making recommendations to ensure consistency with section 227 of the Homeland Security Act (6 U.S.C. 148) and compliance with policies and practices issued in accordance with section 3553 of title 44, United States Code. All agency heads shall supply such information concerning their current IT architectures and plans as is necessary to complete this report on time.
(a)
(b)
(A) the authorities and capabilities identified pursuant to subsection (b)(i) of this section;
(B) the results of the engagement and determination required pursuant to subsection (b)(ii) of this section; and
(C) findings and recommendations for better supporting the cybersecurity risk management efforts of section 9 entities; and
(c)
(d)
(e)
The assessment shall be provided to the President, through the Assistant to the President for Homeland Security and Counterterrorism, within 90 days of the date of this order, and may be classified in full or in part, as appropriate.
(f)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(A) jointly assess the scope and sufficiency of efforts to educate and train the American cybersecurity workforce of the future, including cybersecurity-related education curricula, training, and apprenticeship programs, from primary through higher education; and
(B) within 120 days of the date of this order, provide a report to the President, through the Assistant to the President for Homeland Security and Counterterrorism, with findings and recommendations regarding how to support the growth and sustainment of the Nation's cybersecurity workforce in both the public and private sectors.
(A) review the workforce development efforts of potential foreign cyber peers in order to help identify foreign workforce development practices likely to affect long-term United States cybersecurity competitiveness; and
(B) within 60 days of the date of this order, provide a report to the President through the Assistant to the President for Homeland Security and Counterterrorism on the findings of the review carried out pursuant to subsection (d)(ii)(A) of this section.
(A) assess the scope and sufficiency of United States efforts to ensure that the United States maintains or increases its advantage in national-security-related cyber capabilities; and
(B) within 150 days of the date of this order, provide a report to the President, through the Assistant to the President for Homeland Security and Counterterrorism, with findings and recommendations on the assessment carried out pursuant to subsection (d)(iii)(A) of this section.
(a) The term “appropriate stakeholders” means any non-executive-branch person or entity that elects to participate in an open and transparent process established by the Secretary of Commerce and the Secretary of Homeland Security under section 2(d) of this order.
(b) The term “information technology” (IT) has the meaning given to that term in section 11101(6) of title 40, United States Code, and further includes hardware and software systems of agencies that monitor and control physical equipment and processes.
(c) The term “IT architecture” refers to the integration and implementation of IT within an agency.
(d) The term “network architecture” refers to the elements of IT architecture that enable or facilitate communications between two or more IT assets.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) All actions taken pursuant to this order shall be consistent with requirements and authorities to protect intelligence and law enforcement sources and methods. Nothing in this order shall be construed to supersede measures established under authority of law to protect the security and integrity of specific activities and associations that are in direct support of intelligence or law enforcement operations.
(d) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |