Page Range | 51297-51772 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 51511 - Sunshine Act Meetings; National Science Board | |
81 FR 51491 - Advisory Committee on Increasing Competitive Integrated Employment for Individuals With Disabilities; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 51440 - Farm Credit Administration Board; Sunshine Act; Regular Meeting | |
81 FR 51510 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
81 FR 51537 - U.S. Nationals Entitled to Pension From the Government of Belgium | |
81 FR 51536 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Statement of Claim Related to Pensions Provided by the Kingdom of Belgium | |
81 FR 51462 - Environmental Assessment for Commercial Wind Leasing and Site Assessment Activities on the Outer Continental Shelf (OCS) Offshore the Island of Oahu, Hawaii; Extension of Comment Period MMAA104000 | |
81 FR 51447 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 51447 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 51537 - 2016 Meetings of the Equip 2020 Plenary and Working Groups; Supplemental Notice | |
81 FR 51379 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Dusky Rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska | |
81 FR 51380 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Northern Rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska | |
81 FR 51379 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Pacific Ocean Perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska | |
81 FR 51426 - Plan for Periodic Review of Regulations | |
81 FR 51460 - National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP); Assistance to Private Sector Property Insurers, Availability of FY 2017 Arrangement | |
81 FR 51447 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Announcement of Board Approval Under Delegated Authority and Submission to OMB | |
81 FR 51548 - Pipeline Safety: Information Collection Activities | |
81 FR 51461 - Oklahoma; Major Disaster and Related Determinations | |
81 FR 51462 - Texas; Amendment No. 5 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 51453 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Announcement of Office of Management and Budget Approval; Food Labeling: Nutrition Facts and Supplement Facts Label and Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed per Eating Occasion | |
81 FR 51453 - Medical Devices; Availability of Safety and Effectiveness Summaries for Premarket Approval Applications | |
81 FR 51441 - Guidelines for Appeals of Material Supervisory Determinations | |
81 FR 51440 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request (3064-0070, -0079, -0103, -0139 & -0192) | |
81 FR 51465 - United States v. Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV et al.; Proposed Final Judgment and Competitive Impact Statement | |
81 FR 51459 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Record of Vessel Foreign Repair or Equipment Purchase | |
81 FR 51449 - Announcement of the Intent to Award a Supplemental Grant to the National Safe Place Network in Louisville, KY | |
81 FR 51541 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
81 FR 51538 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Epilepsy and Seizure Disorders | |
81 FR 51540 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
81 FR 51430 - Notice of Request for Extension of a Currently Approved Information Collection | |
81 FR 51439 - Virginia Electric and Power Company; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date | |
81 FR 51434 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 51433 - Rover Pipeline, LLC; Panhandle Eastern Pipe Line Company, LP; Trunkline Gas Company, LLC; Notice of Availability of the Final Environmental Impact Statement for the Proposed Rover Pipeline, Panhandle Backhaul, and Trunkline Backhaul Projects | |
81 FR 51438 - Otter Tail Power Company; Notice of Intent To File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document (PAD), Commencement of Pre-Filing Process, and Scoping; Request for Comments on the PAD and Scoping Document, and Identification of Issues and Associated Study Requests | |
81 FR 51436 - Golden Pass Pipeline, LLC; Golden Pass Products, LLC; Notice of Availability of the Final Environmental Impact Statement for the Proposed Golden Pass LNG Export Project | |
81 FR 51374 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Recreational Management Measures for the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Fisheries; Fishing Year 2016 | |
81 FR 51489 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection Comments Requested; New collection: Arrest-Related Deaths Program | |
81 FR 51433 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Experimental Sites Data Collection Instrument | |
81 FR 51488 - Notice of Filing of Notice of Settlement Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act and the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act | |
81 FR 51510 - Legal Services Corporation Strategic Plan Update 2017-2020; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 51527 - Joint Industry Plan; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on the Proposed National Market System Plan Governing the Consolidated Audit Trail by BATS Exchange, Inc., BATS-Y Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., EDGA Exchange, Inc., EDGX Exchange, Inc., Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc., International Securities Exchange, LLC, the Investors' Exchange, LLC, ISE Gemini, LLC, ISE Mercury, LLC, Miami International Securities Exchange LLC, NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc., NASDAQ OMX PHLX LLC, The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC, National Stock Exchange, Inc., New York Stock Exchange LLC, NYSE MKT LLC, and NYSE Arca, Inc. | |
81 FR 51532 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Revise the ICC Risk Management Model Description Document and the ICC Risk Management Framework | |
81 FR 51528 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Investors Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Correct Typographical Errors in Certain Referenced Time Frames | |
81 FR 51530 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Provide Web-Based Delivery of the Continuing Education Program | |
81 FR 51513 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt the Securities Trader Registration Category and the Series 57 Securities Trader Examination Registration Requirement | |
81 FR 51533 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Detail How Complex Orders Will Execute Through the Facilitation Auction Mechanism | |
81 FR 51517 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Order Granting Approval of Proposed Rule Change Relating to the Listing and Trading of the Shares of the First Trust Strategic Mortgage REIT ETF of First Trust Exchange-Traded Fund VIII | |
81 FR 51521 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Designation of a Longer Period for Commission Action on a Proposed Rule Change Amending NYSE Rule 6A To Exclude the Physical Area Within Fully Enclosed Telephone Booths Located in 18 Broad Street From the Definition of Trading Floor | |
81 FR 51522 - Notice of Applications for Deregistration Under Section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 | |
81 FR 51523 - Bain Capital Specialty Finance, Inc., et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 51512 - Investment Managers Series Trust and SilverPepper LLC; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 51446 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 51463 - Certain Recombinant Factor VIII Products; Determination To Review In Part a Final Initial Determination Finding No Violation of Section 337 and a Summary Determination; Schedule for Filing Written Submissions on One Issue Under Review and on Remedy, the Public Interest, and Bonding | |
81 FR 51455 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Certification of Identity for Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Requests | |
81 FR 51693 - Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing-Underwater Acoustic Thresholds for Onset of Permanent and Temporary Threshold Shifts | |
81 FR 51449 - Insanitary Conditions at Compounding Facilities; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 51431 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 51437 - North American Power Business, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 51439 - Antelope DSR 1, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 51437 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 51436 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 51490 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act | |
81 FR 51386 - Thresholds for De Minimis Activity and Exemptions From Licensing Under the Animal Welfare Act | |
81 FR 51297 - U.S. Standards for Grades of Fresh Fruits and Vegetables, Fruits and Vegetables for Processing, Nuts, and Specialty Crops | |
81 FR 51332 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 51430 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Minnesota Advisory Committee for a New Committee Orientation Meeting, To Discuss Civil Rights Issues in the State, and To Plan Future Activities | |
81 FR 51381 - Importation of Fresh Mango Fruit From Vietnam Into the Continental United States | |
81 FR 51339 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 51337 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 51461 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Public Assistance Program | |
81 FR 51432 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Generic Clearance for Federal Student Aid Customer Satisfaction Surveys and Focus Groups Master Plan | |
81 FR 51456 - Announcement of Requirements and Registration for the “MRC Serves” Video Challenge | |
81 FR 51450 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; National Direct-to-Consumer Advertising Survey | |
81 FR 51370 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Atlantic Bluefish Fishery; 2016-2018 Atlantic Bluefish Specifications | |
81 FR 51334 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
81 FR 51499 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Employee Benefit Plan Claims Procedure Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act | |
81 FR 51496 - Sherwin Alumina Company, LLC Including On-Site Leased Workers From CCC Group, McWhorter Electric, MMR Constructors, Inc., Dols Managed Workforce, First Instrument Solutions, T. Parker Host, Rexco, GP Strategies, JM Davidson, Palacios Marine & Industrial, All Specialty, LK Jordan, Strom, and St. James Stevedoring Partners, LLC Including Workers Whose Unemployment Insurance (UI) Wages Are Reported Through Host Terminals, Gregory, Texas: Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51497 - Modine Manufacturing Company Including On-Site Leased Workers From Seek Professionals, LLC, Securitas Security Services USA, Inc., and Entegee, Washington, Iowa: Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51493 - Notice of Determinations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51496 - GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization Atlanta, Georgia: Notice of Revised Determination After Statutory Reconsideration | |
81 FR 51491 - Investigations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51493 - General Electric Company; Transportation Division; Including On-Site Leased Workers From Adecco, YOH Services LLC, CH2MHILL, and GGS Information Services Erie, Pennsylvania; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51491 - Cooper Power Systems, Power Delivery Division, an Eaton Corporation Company, Formerly Cooper Industries Including On-Site Leased Workers From Manpower, TEC Staffing, Infotree Services and Advantage Resourcing, Fayetteville, Arkansas; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 51497 - Foxconn Assembly, LLC, Houston, Texas: Notice of Affirmative Determination Regarding Application for Reconsideration | |
81 FR 51497 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Work Opportunity Tax Credit (WOTC) | |
81 FR 51499 - Newport News Shipbuilding; Grant of a Permanent Variance | |
81 FR 51341 - Approval and Promulgation of Implementation Plans; Louisiana; Revisions to the New Source Review State Implementation Plan; Air Permit Procedure Revisions | |
81 FR 51425 - Notification of Submission to the Secretary of Agriculture; Procedural Rule Amendment; Required Use of Federal Register Notices | |
81 FR 51348 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Determination of Critical Habitat for the Marbled Murrelet | |
81 FR 51413 - Estate, Gift, and Generation-Skipping Transfer Taxes; Restrictions on Liquidation of an Interest | |
81 FR 51412 - Ensuring Program Uniformity at the Hearing and Appeals Council Levels of the Administrative Review Process | |
81 FR 51413 - Application of Section 409A to Nonqualified Deferred Compensation Plans; Correction | |
81 FR 51298 - Pecans Grown in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas; Order Regulating Handling | |
81 FR 51330 - Airworthiness Directives; Pacific Aerospace Limited Airplanes | |
81 FR 51343 - On-Time Performance Under Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 | |
81 FR 51314 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes | |
81 FR 51320 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 51312 - HUBZone and National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 Amendments | |
81 FR 51323 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 51328 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes | |
81 FR 51325 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 51317 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
81 FR 51383 - Cranberries Grown in the States of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York; Proposed Amendment to Marketing Order | |
81 FR 51404 - Truth in Lending (Regulation Z) | |
81 FR 51400 - Consumer Leasing (Regulation M) | |
81 FR 51394 - Appraisals for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans Exemption Threshold | |
81 FR 51725 - Data Collection for Analytics and Surveillance and Market-Based Rate Purposes | |
81 FR 51549 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Amending the Formats of the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants | |
81 FR 51607 - Disclosure Update and Simplification |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Rural Business—Cooperative Service
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Ocean Energy Management Bureau
Antitrust Division
Disability Employment Policy Office
Employment and Training Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents LISTSERV electronic mailing list, go to http://listserv.access.thefederalregister.org and select Online mailing list archives, FEDREGTOC-L, Join or leave the list (or change settings); then follow the instructions.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final notice.
The Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) is revising 41 U.S. Standards for Grades of fresh fruits and vegetables, fruits and vegetables for processing, nuts, and specialty crops by removing the “Unclassified” category from each standard. This revision brings these grade standards in line with other recently amended standards and current terminology. The change also updates the standards to more accurately represent today's marketing practices and provide the industry with greater flexibility.
September 6, 2016.
Standardization Branch, Specialty Crops Inspection Division, Specialty Crops Program, Agricultural Marketing Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, National Training and Development Center, Riverside Business Park, 100 Riverside Parkway, Suite 101, Fredericksburg, VA 22406.
Olivia Vernon, Standardization Branch, Specialty Crops Inspection Division, at the address above or by telephone at (540) 361-2743; fax (540) 361-1199; or, email
Section 203(c) of the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946 (7 U.S.C. 1621-1627), as amended, directs and authorizes the Secretary of Agriculture “to develop and improve standards of quality, condition, quantity, grade and packaging, and recommend and demonstrate such standards in order to encourage uniformity and consistency in commercial practices.” AMS is committed to carrying out this authority in a manner that facilitates the marketing of agricultural commodities and makes copies of official grade standards available upon request. The U.S. Standards for Grades of Fruits and Vegetables not connected with Federal Marketing Orders or U.S. import requirements no longer appear in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), but are maintained by USDA, AMS, Specialty Crops Program, and are available on the Internet at
AMS is revising these voluntary U.S. standards for grades using the procedures in part 36, title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations (7 CFR part 36).
AMS is eliminating the “Unclassified” section in 41 U.S. grade standards that were issued under the Agricultural Marketing Act of 1946.
The fresh fruit and vegetable grade standards covered by these changes are: Sweet anise, lima beans, beets, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, cucumbers, endive, garlic, collard greens or broccoli greens, mustard greens and turnip greens, horseradish roots, greenhouse leaf lettuce, mushrooms, common green onions, onion sets, parsnips, fresh peas, southern peas, rhubarb, romaine, bunched shallots, spinach plants, summer squash, turnips or rutabagas, dewberries and blackberries, American (eastern type) grapes, juice grapes (European or vinifera type), and raspberries.
In the Proposed Notice, AMS inadvertently included celery, honey dew and honey ball type melons, Persian limes, summer and fall pears, and winter pears in this rulemaking. The grade standards for these commodities are published in the CFR at 7 CFR part 51 whereas the standards for the 41 commodities addressed here are not published in the CFR. AMS ultimately intends to remove celery, honey dew and honey ball type melons, Persian limes, summer and fall pears, and winter pears standards from the CFR. At that time, the “Unclassified” section will be removed from the grade standards for celery, honey dew and honey ball type melons, Persian limes, summer and fall pears, and winter pears. The fresh fruit and vegetable for processing grade standards covered by these changes are spinach, berries, blueberries, red sour cherries for manufacture, sweet cherries for canning or freezing, cranberries for processing, currants, raspberries, growers' stock strawberries for manufacture, and washed and sorted strawberries for freezing.
The nut and specialty crops grade standards covered by these changes are: Brazil nuts in the shell, cut peonies in the bud, and tomato plants.
AMS continually reviews all fruit, vegetable, nut and specialty crop grade standards to ensure their usefulness to the industry. AMS determined that the “Unclassified” section should be eliminated from the aforementioned 41 U.S. Standards for Grade as the category is not a grade and only serves to show that no grade has been applied to the lot. It is no longer considered necessary.
On September 9, 2015, AMS published a Proposed Notice in the
The six private citizen commenters supported the revisions as a positive step forward for the USDA that will offer produce companies and everyday shoppers a clearer idea of the quality of produce they are purchasing. The final commenter suggested that making this change to the standards would create the need for additional grades and categories to cover all variants with in different commodities. The USDA stands by its decision to remove the unclassified category because there is no evidence of use of the category by industry, and for the reason that commodities would fall into one of the established grades currently listed in the standards.
Based on the information gathered, AMS is removing the “Unclassified” category from the aforementioned U.S.
7 U.S.C. 1621-1627.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Final rule.
This rule establishes a marketing agreement and order (order) for pecans grown in the states of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas. The order provides authority to collect industry data and to conduct research and promotion activities. In addition, the order provides authority for the industry to recommend grade, quality and size regulation, as well as pack and container regulation, subject to approval by the Department of Agriculture (USDA). The program will be financed by assessments on handlers of pecans grown in the production area and will be locally administered, under USDA oversight, by a Council of seventeen growers and shellers (handlers) nominated by the industry and appointed by USDA.
This rule is effective August 5, 2016.
Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237.
Melissa Schmaedick, Senior Marketing Specialist; Telephone: (202) 557-4783, Fax: (435) 259-1502, or Michelle Sharrow, Rulemaking Branch Chief; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on this proceeding by contacting Antoinette Carter, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Prior documents in this proceeding: Notice of Hearing issued on June 26, 2015, and published in the July 2, 2015, issue of the
This administrative action is governed by the provisions of sections 556 and 557 of title 5 of the United States Code and, therefore, is excluded from the requirements of Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175. Notice of this rulemaking action was provided to tribal governments through USDA's Office of Tribal Relations; no comments have been received.
The marketing agreement and order regulating the handling of pecans grown in the states of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas is based on the record of public hearing held July 20 through July 21, 2015, in Las Cruces, New Mexico; July 23 through July 24, 2015, in Dallas, Texas; and, July 27 through July 29, 2015, in Tifton, Georgia. The hearing was held to receive evidence on the marketing order from growers, handlers, and other interested parties located throughout the production area. The hearing was held pursuant to the provisions of the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act,” and the applicable rules of practice and procedure governing the formulation of marketing agreements and orders (7 CFR part 900). The marketing order is authorized under section 8(c) of the Act. Notice of this hearing was published in the
The proposal was submitted for consideration to the Department on May 22, 2015, by the American Pecan Board (Board), a proponent group established in 2013 to represent the interests of growers and handlers throughout the fifteen-state production area. A subsequent, modified draft of the regulatory text was submitted on June 10, 2015.
The order provides the pecan industry with tools to assist the industry in addressing a number of challenges, including: a lack of organized representation of industry-wide interests in a single organization; a lack of accurate data to assist the industry in its analysis of production, demand and prices; a lack of coordinated domestic promotion or research; and a forecasted increase in production as a result of new plantings.
Upon the basis of evidence introduced at the hearing and the record thereof, the Administrator of AMS on October 20, 2015, filed with the Hearing Clerk, USDA, a Recommended Decision and Opportunity to File Written Exceptions thereto by November 27, 2015. No exceptions were filed. That document also announced AMS's intent to request approval of new information collection requirements to implement the program. Written comments on the proposed information collection requirements were due by December 28, 2015. None were filed.
However, USDA provided two conforming changes to the order language as published in the Recommended Decision. These conforming changes replaced the word “redefining” in § 986.55 (c)(6) with “reestablishment,” and the word “redefining” in § 986.33(b) with “reestablishment,” thereby conforming to the terminology used in § 986.58.
Further, USDA provided a correction to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) analysis published in the Recommended Decision. The RFA incorrectly referenced a Small Business Administration (SBA) threshold of $7 million in annual receipts to identify small handler entities, while hearing testimony correctly identified a $7.5 million threshold.
The specifics of these corrections were addressed in the Secretary's Decision and Referendum Order issued on February 22, 2016, and published in the February 29, 2016, issue of the
That document also directed that a referendum be conducted during the period of March 9 through March 30, 2016, among growers who produced a minimum average, annual amount of 50,000 pounds of inshell pecans between August 1, 2011, and July 31, 2015, or who owned a minimum of 30 pecan acres, to determine whether they favored issuance of the order. In the referendum, the order was favored by more than two-thirds of the growers voting in the referendum by number and volume.
The marketing agreement was mailed to all pecan shellers (handlers) in the production area for approval. The marketing agreement was approved by more than 50 percent of the volume of pecans handled by all shellers (handlers) during the representative period of August 1, 2014, and July 31, 2015.
Pursuant to the requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, the AMS has prepared this final regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of business subject to such actions so that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Small agricultural producers have been defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) (13 CFR 121.201) as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000. Small agricultural service firms, which include handlers that will be regulated under the order, are defined as those with annual receipts of less than $7,500,000.
Interested persons were invited to present evidence at the hearing on the probable regulatory and informational impact of the order on small businesses. The record evidence is that while the program will impose some costs on the regulated parties, those costs will be outweighed by the benefits expected to accrue to the U.S. pecan industry.
Specific evidence on the number of large and small pecan farms (above and below the SBA threshold figure of $750,000 in annual sales) was not presented at the hearing. However, percentages can be estimated based on record evidence.
The 2014 season average grower prices per pound for improved and native seedling pecans were $2.12 and $0.88, respectively. A weighted grower price of $1.85 is computed by applying as weights the percentage split between improved and native acreage on a representative U.S. pecan farm, which are 78 and 22 percent, respectively. The average yield on the representative farm is 1,666.67 pounds per acre. Multiplying the $1.85 price by the average yield gives a total revenue per acre figure of $3,080. Dividing the $750,000 SBA annual sales threshold figure by the revenue per acre figure of $3,080 gives an estimate of 243 acres as the size of farm that would have annual sales about equal to $750,000, given the previous assumptions. Any farm of that size or larger would qualify as a large farm under the SBA definition.
Data presented in the record show that about 52 percent of commercial U.S. pecan farms have 250 or more acres of pecans. Since the 243 acre estimate above is close to 250 acres, it can be extrapolated that 52 percent is a reasonable approximation of the proportion of large farms and 48 percent is the proportion of small pecan farms. According to the record, this estimate does not include “backyard” production.
According to record evidence, there are an estimated 250 handlers in the U.S. Of these handlers, which include accumulators, there are an estimated 50 commercially viable shellers with production over 1 million pounds of inshell pecans operating within the production area. Fourteen of these shellers meet the SBA definition for large business entity and the remaining 36 are small business entities.
Record evidence indicates that implementing the order would not represent a disproportionate burden on small businesses. An economic impact study of the authority for generic promotion presented at the hearing provided that the program would likely benefit all industry participants.
The record shows that generic promotion over a wide variety of agricultural products stimulates product demand and translates into higher prices for growers than would have been the case without promotion.
Promotional impact studies of other tree nuts (almonds and walnuts), and of Texas pecans, show price increases as high as 6 percent, but the record indicates that 0 to 3 percent is a more representative range. Since the other tree nut promotion programs are well-established, the record shows that a representative middle (most likely) scenario would be a price increase from promotion of 1.5 percent for the early years of a new pecan promotion program. Low and high scenarios were 0.5 and 3.0 percent, respectively.
The record indicates that an analytical method used historical yearly prices from 1997 to 2014 in a simulation covering that period to obtain an expected average price without promotion. In a subsequent step, the simulation applied a demand increase of 1.5 percent to the entire distribution of prices to represent the impact of promotion. The projected increases in grower prices from promotion for improved and native pecans were 6.3 and 3.6 cents per pound, respectively, as shown in Table 1. These two price increase projections represent a range of results. Based on a range of simulated price increases as high as 3 percent, the low and high price increase projections for improved pecans were 4.0 and 9.6 cents, respectively. For native varieties, the results ranged from 2.7 to 4.2 cents.
The record indicates that a key analytical step was developing an example farm with specific characteristics to explain market characteristics and marketing order impacts. An important characteristic of this “representative farm” is the acreage allocation between improved and native pecans of 78 and 22 percent, respectively. This is similar to the proportion of the U.S. pecan crop in recent years allocated to improved and native varieties. Average yield per acre of the representative farm (covering all states and varieties) is 1,666.67 pounds per acre.
The acreage split of 78 and 22 percent are used as weights to compute weighted average prices (combining improved and native pecans) of 5.7 and 2.3 cents, respectively, as shown in the fourth column of Table 1.
The record shows that the initial ranges of marketing order assessments per pound are 2 to 3 cents for improved pecans and 1 to 2 cents for native pecans. The midpoints of these ranges (2.5 and 1.5 cents, respectively) are used to compute a benefit-cost ratio from promotion, with a weighted average assessment cost of 2.3 cents, as shown in Table 2. Assessments would be collected from handlers, not growers, but for purposes of this analysis, it is assumed that 100 percent of the assessment cost would be passed through to growers.
Table 1 shows that dividing the projected benefit of 5.7 cents per pound (weighted price increase from promotion) by the estimated assessment cost of 2.3 cents (weighted assessment rate per pound), yields a benefit-cost ratio of 2.5. Each dollar spent on pecan promotion through a Federal marketing order is expected to result in $2.50 in increased revenue to the pecan growers of the United States.
Examining potential costs and benefits from promotion across different farm sizes is done in Table 2. Record evidence showed that the minimum size of a commercial pecan farm is 30 acres, and that a representative average yield across the entire production area is 1,666.67 pounds per acre. This combination of acreage and yield results in a minimum threshold level of commercial production of 50,000 pounds. Witnesses stated that expenditures for the minimum necessary level of inputs for commercial pecan production cannot be justified for any operation smaller than this.
In Table 2, a very small farm is defined as being at the minimum commercial threshold level of 30 acres and 50,000 pounds. Small and large farms are represented by farm size levels of 175 and 500 acres, respectively. Multiplying those acreage levels by the average yield for the entire production area gives total annual production level estimates of 291,667 and 833,335 pounds, respectively.
Multiplying the 2014 grower price per pound of $2.14 by the 291,677 pounds of production from the small farm (175 acres) yields an annual crop value estimate of about $618,000. This computation shows that the small farm definition from the record is consistent with the SBA definition of a small farm (annual sales value of up to $750,000).
Table 2 shows for the three representative pecan farm sizes the allocation of total production levels between improved and native varieties (78 and 22 percent, respectively).
Although marketing order assessments are paid by handlers, not growers, it is nevertheless useful to estimate the impact on growers, based on the assumption that handlers may pass part or all of the assessment cost onto growers from whom they purchase pecans. To compute the marketing order burden for each farm size, the improved and native production quantities are multiplied by 2.5 and 1.5 cents per pound of improved and native pecans, respectively. For the representative small farm (175 acres), summing the improved and native assessments yields a total annual assessment cost of $6,650. For the large farm, the total assessment cost is $19,000.
A parallel computation is made to obtain the total dollar benefit for each farm size. The improved and native quantities for the representative farm sizes are multiplied by the corresponding projected price increases of 6.3 and 3.6 cents. Summing the improved and native benefits for the small and large farm size yields projected annual total benefits for the small and large representative farm sizes of $16,643 and $47,550, respectively. The results of dividing the benefits for each farm size by the corresponding costs is 2.5, which equals the benefit-cost ratio shown in Table 2.
The computations in Table 2 provide an illustration, based on evidence from the record, that there would be no disproportionate impact on smaller size farms from establishing a marketing order and implementing a promotion program. Costs are assessed per pound and thus represent an equal burden regardless of size. The projected benefits from promotion are realized through increases in price per pound and are thus distributed proportionally among different sizes of farms.
All of the grower and handler witnesses, both large and small, testified that the projected price increases from promotion of pecans (6.3 and 3.6 cents per pound for improved and native pecans, respectively) were reasonable estimates of the benefits from generic promotion of pecans. A number of them expressed the view that the price increase estimates were conservative and that, over time, the price impact would be larger.
As mentioned above, marketing order assessments are paid by handlers, not
Using the most recent three years of prices as examples of typical U.S. annual grower prices, Table 3 summarizes evidence from the record that shows the marketing order assessment rates as percentages of grower and handler prices received. Based on record evidence that a representative handler margin is 57.5 cents per pound, handler prices are estimated by summing the grower price and handler margin.
For both improved and native pecans, using 2012 to 2014 prices as examples, Table 3 shows that the potential burden of the program can be calculated at between 1 and 2 percent of operating expenses for growers and are approximately 1 percent of operating expenses for handlers. Grower and handler witnesses, both large and small, covering both improved and native pecans, testified that the initial marketing order assessment rates would not represent a significant burden to their businesses and that the benefits of the generic promotion program substantially outweigh the cost. Sheller witnesses (large and small) that would likely become handlers under a Federal marketing order testified that the additional recordkeeping required to collect assessments to send to the marketing order board (American Pecan Council) would not be a significant additional burden and that the benefits would substantially outweigh the costs. Several witnesses stated that one reason that collecting the assessments would have only a minor impact is that they already perform similar functions for promotion and other pecan-related programs (or other commodity programs) organized under state law.
Statements of support for additional benefits that could come from a Federal marketing order came from grower and handler witnesses, both large and small, covering both improved and native pecans. The additional benefits cited included: (1) Additional and more accurate market information, including data on production, inventory, and total supplies, (2) funding of research on health and nutrition aspects of pecans, improved technology relating to the pecan supply chain and crop health, consumer trends, and other topics, and (3) uniform, industry-wide quality standards for pecans, as well as packaging standards and shipping protocols. Witnesses testified that the burden of funding and participating in marketing order programs with these features would be minor, and that the benefits would substantially outweigh the costs.
The order will impose some reporting and recordkeeping requirements on handlers. However, testimony indicated that the expected burden that will be imposed with respect to these requirements would be negligible. Most of the information that will be reported to the Council is already compiled by handlers for other uses and is readily available. Reporting and recordkeeping requirements issued under other tree nut programs impose an average annual burden on each regulated handler of about 8 hours. It is reasonable to expect that a similar burden may be imposed under this marketing order on the estimated 250 handlers of pecans in the production area.
The record evidence also indicates that the benefits to small as well as large handlers are likely to be greater than would accrue under the alternatives to the order; namely, no marketing order.
In determining that the order and its provisions will not have a disproportionate economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, all of the issues discussed above were considered. Based on hearing record evidence and USDA's analysis of the economic information provided, the order provisions have been carefully reviewed to ensure that every effort has been made to eliminate any unnecessary costs or requirements.
Although the order may impose some additional costs and requirements on handlers, it is anticipated that the order will help to strengthen demand for pecans. Therefore, any additional costs would be offset by the benefits derived from expanded sales benefiting handlers and growers alike. Accordingly, it is determined that the order will not have a disproportionate economic impact on a substantial number of small handlers or growers.
In compliance with OMB regulations (5 CFR part 1320) which implement the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), the forms to be used for nomination and selection of the initial administrative council will be submitted to OMB for approval. Any additional information collection and recordkeeping requirements that may be imposed under the order as a result of future council recommendations and rulemaking would also be submitted to OMB for approval. Those requirements would not become effective prior to OMB approval.
The provisions of the marketing agreement and order have been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. They are not intended to have retroactive effect. The agreement and order will not preempt any State or local laws, regulations, or
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with the Department a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted there from. A handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, the USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review the Department's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
(a)
Upon the basis of evidence introduced at such hearing and the record thereof, it is found that:
(1) The marketing agreement and order, and all of the terms and conditions thereof, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act;
(2) The marketing agreement and order regulate the handling of pecans grown in the production area in the same manner as, and are applicable only to, persons in the respective classes of commercial and industrial activity specified in the marketing agreement and order upon which a hearing has been held;
(3) The marketing agreement and order are limited in its application to the smallest regional production area that is practicable, consistent with carrying out the declared policy of the Act, and the issuance of several orders applicable to subdivisions of the production area would not effectively carry out the declared policy of the Act;
(4) The marketing agreement and order prescribe, such different terms applicable to different parts of the production area as are necessary to give due recognition to the differences in the production and marketing of pecans grown in the production area; and
(5) All handling of pecans grown in the production area as defined in the marketing agreement and order is in the current of interstate or foreign commerce or directly burdens, obstructs, or affects such commerce.
(b)
In view of the foregoing, it is hereby found and determined that good cause exists for making the order provisions effective one day after publication in the
(c)
(1) The “Marketing Agreement Regulating the Handling of Pecans Grown in Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas,” upon which the aforesaid public hearing was held, has been signed by handlers who during the period of August 1, 2014, through July 31, 2015 handled not less than 50 percent of the volume of such pecans covered by the order, and
(2) The issuance of this order is favored or approved by at least two-thirds of the producers who participated in a referendum on the question of its approval and, who produced a minimum average, annual amount of 50,000 pounds of inshell pecans between August 1, 2011, and July 31, 2015, (which has been determined to be a representative period) or who owned a minimum of 30 pecan acres. Such producers also produced for market at least two-thirds of the volume of pecans represented in the referendum.
Marketing agreements, Pecans, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
The provisions of the marketing agreement and order are set forth in full herein.
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
(a)
(1) Owns an orchard and harvests its pecans for sale (even if a custom harvester is used); or
(2) Is a lessee of a pecan orchard and has the right to sell the harvest (even if
(b) The term “grower” shall only include those who produce a minimum of 50,000 pounds of inshell pecans during a representative period (average of four years) or who own a minimum of 30 pecan acres according to the FSA, including acres calculated by the FSA based on pecan tree density. In the absence of any FSA delineation of pecan acreage, the regular definition of an acre will apply. The Council may recommend changes to this definition subject to the approval of the Secretary.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(b) The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may recognize new or delete obsolete varieties or sub-varieties for each category.
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(b) With the approval of the Secretary, the boundaries of any region may be changed pursuant to § 986.58, Reapportionment and reestablishment of regions.
The American Pecan Council is hereby established consisting of 17 members selected by the Secretary, each of whom shall have an alternate member nominated with the same qualifications as the member. The 17 members shall include nine (9) grower seats, six (6) sheller seats, and two (2) at-large seats allocated to one accumulator and one public member. The grower and sheller nominees and their alternates shall be growers and shellers at the time of their nomination and for the duration of their tenure. Grower and sheller members and their alternates shall be selected by the Secretary from nominees submitted by the Council. The two at-large seats shall be nominated by the Council and appointed by the Secretary.
(a) Each region shall be allocated the following member seats:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(b) Within each region, the grower and sheller seats shall be defined as follows:
(1)
(2)
(c) The Council may recommend, subject to the approval of the Secretary, revisions to the above requirements for grower and sheller seats to accommodate changes within the industry.
Nomination of Council members and alternate members shall follow the procedure set forth in this section, or as may be changed as recommended by the Council and approved by the Secretary. All nominees must meet the requirements set forth in §§ 986.45, American Pecan Council, and 986.48, Eligibility, or as otherwise identified by the Secretary, to serve on the Council.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(ii) If a grower is engaged in producing pecans in more than one region, such grower shall nominate in the region in which they grow the largest volume of their production.
(iii) Nominations for the sheller member seats for each region shall be received from shellers in that region on approved forms containing the information stipulated in this section.
(iv) If a sheller is engaged in handling in more than one region, such sheller shall nominate in the region in which they shelled the largest volume in the preceding fiscal year.
(2)
(ii) If a grower is engaged in producing pecans in more than one region, such grower shall cast their nomination ballot in the region in which they grow the largest volume of their production. Notwithstanding this stipulation, such grower may vote their volume produced in any or all of the three regions.
(iii) Only shellers, through duly authorized officers or employees of shellers, if applicable, may participate in the nomination of the sheller member nominees and their alternates. Each sheller shall be entitled to cast only one nomination ballot for each of the two sheller seats in their region.
(iv) If a sheller is engaged in handling in more than one region, such sheller shall cast their nomination ballot in the region in which they shelled the largest
(v) If a person is both a grower and a sheller of pecans, such person may not participate in both grower and sheller nominations. Such person must elect to participate either as a grower or a sheller.
(3)
(ii) On the ballot, growers shall indicate their vote for the grower nominee candidates for the grower seats and also indicate their average annual volume of inshell pecan production for the preceding four fiscal years.
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(4)
(ii)
(iii)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(i)
(A) The name of the nominated grower;
(B) The name and signature of the nominating grower;
(C) Two additional names and respective signatures of growers in support of the nomination;
(D) Any other such information recommended by the Council and approved by the Secretary.
(ii)
(A) The name of the nominated sheller;
(B) The name and signature of the nominating sheller;
(C) One additional name and signature of a sheller in support of the nomination;
(D) Any other such information recommended by the Council and approved by the Secretary.
(8)
(a) Each member of the Council shall have an alternate member to be nominated in the same manner as the member.
(b) An alternate for a member of the Council shall act in the place and stead of such member in their absence or in the event of their death, removal, resignation, or disqualification, until the next nomination and elections take place for the Council or the vacancy has been filled pursuant to § 986.48, Eligibility.
(c) In the event any member of the Council and their alternate are both unable to attend a meeting of the Council, any alternate for any other
(a) Each grower member and alternate shall be, at the time of selection and during the term of office, a grower or an officer, or employee, of a grower in the region and in the classification for which nominated.
(b) Each sheller member and alternate shall be, at the time of selection and during the term of office, a sheller or an officer or employee of a sheller in the region and in the classification for which nominated.
(c) A grower can be a nominee for only one grower member seat. If a grower is nominated for two grower member seats, he or she shall select the seat in which he or she desires to run, and the grower ballot shall reflect that selection.
(d) Any member or alternate member who at the time of selection was employed by or affiliated with the person who is nominated shall, upon termination of that relationship, become disqualified to serve further as a member and that position shall be deemed vacant.
(e) No person nominated to serve as a public member or alternate public member shall have a financial interest in any pecan grower or handling operation.
Each person to be selected by the Secretary as a member or as an alternate member of the Council shall, prior to such selection, qualify by advising the Secretary that if selected, such person agrees to serve in the position for which that nomination has been made.
(a) Selected members and alternate members of the Council shall serve for terms of four years:
(1) Grower member Seat 2 in all regions shall be assigned a two-year term;
(2) Grower member Seat 3 in all regions shall, by drawing, identify one member seat to be assigned a two-year term; and,
(3) Sheller Seat 2 in all regions shall be assigned a two-year term.
(b) Council members and alternates may serve up to two consecutive, four-year terms of office. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, in no event shall any member or alternate serve more than eight consecutive years on the Council as either a member or an alternate. However, if selected, an alternate having served up to two consecutive terms may immediately serve as a member for two consecutive terms without any interruption in service. The same is true for a member who, after serving for up to two consecutive terms, may serve as an alternate if nominated without any interruption in service. A person having served the maximum number of terms as set forth above may not serve again as a member or an alternate for at least twelve consecutive months. For purposes of determining when a member or alternate has served two consecutive terms, the accrual of terms shall begin following any period of at least twelve consecutive months out of office.
(c) Each member and alternate member shall continue to serve until a successor is selected and has qualified.
(d) A term of office shall begin as set forth in the by-laws or as directed by the Secretary each year for all members.
(e) The Council may recommend, subject to approval of the Secretary, revisions to the start day for the term of office, the number of years in a term, and the number of terms a member or an alternate can serve.
Any vacancy on the Council occurring by the failure of any person selected to the Council to qualify as a member or alternate member due to a change in status making the member ineligible to serve, or due to death, removal, or resignation, shall be filled, by a majority vote of the Council for the unexpired portion of the term. However, that person shall fulfill all the qualifications set forth in this part as required for the member whose office that person is to fill. The qualifications of any person to fill a vacancy on the Council shall be certified in writing to the Secretary. The Secretary shall notify the Council if the Secretary determines that any such person is not qualified.
The members and their alternates of the Council shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for the reasonable and necessary expenses incurred by them in the performance of their duties under this part.
The Council shall have the following powers:
(a) To administer the provisions of this part in accordance with its terms;
(b) To make bylaws, rules and regulations to effectuate the terms and provisions of this part;
(c) To receive, investigate, and report to the Secretary complaints of violations of this part; and
(d) To recommend to the Secretary amendments to this part.
The duties of the Council shall be as follows:
(a) To act as intermediary between the Secretary and any handler or grower;
(b) To keep minute books and records which will clearly reflect all of its acts and transactions, and such minute books and records shall at any time be subject to the examination of the Secretary;
(c) To furnish to the Secretary a complete report of all meetings and such other available information as he or she may request;
(d) To appoint such employees as it may deem necessary and to determine the salaries, define the duties, and fix the bonds of such employees;
(e) To cause the books of the Council to be audited by one or more certified public accountants at least once for each fiscal year and at such other times as the Council deems necessary or as the Secretary may request, and to file with the Secretary three copies of all audit reports made;
(f) To investigate the growing, shipping and marketing conditions with respect to pecans and to assemble data in connection therewith;
(g) To investigate compliance with the provisions of this part; and,
(h) To recommend by-laws, rules and regulations for the purpose of administering this part.
(a) The members of the Council shall select a chairman from their membership, and shall select such other officers and adopt such rules for the conduct of Council business as they deem advisable.
(b) The Council may provide for meetings by telephone, or other means of communication, and any vote cast at such a meeting shall be confirmed promptly in writing. The Council shall give the Secretary the same notice of its meetings as is given to members of the Council.
(c)
(1) Actions of the Council with respect to the following issues shall require a two-thirds (12 members) concurring vote of the Council:
(i) Establishment of or changes to by-laws;
(ii) Appointment or administrative issues relating to the program's manager or chief executive officer;
(iii) Budget;
(iv) Assessments;
(v) Compliance and audits;
(vi) Reestablishment of regions and reapportionment or reallocation of Council membership;
(vii) Modifying definitions of grower and sheller;
(viii) Research or promotion activities under § 986.68;
(ix) Grade, quality and size regulation under § 986.69(a)(1) and (2);
(x) Pack and container regulation under § 986.69(a)(3); and,
(2) Actions of the Council with respect to the securing of commercial bank loans for the purpose of financing start-up costs of the Council and its activities or securing financial assistance in emergency situations shall require a unanimous vote of all members present at an in-person meeting;
The members and alternates for members and any agent or employee appointed or employed by the Council shall be subject to removal or suspension by the Secretary at any time. Each and every regulation, decision, determination, or other act shall be subject to the continuing right of the Secretary to disapprove of the same at any time, and, upon such disapproval, shall be deemed null and void, except as to acts done in reliance thereon or in compliance therewith prior to such disapproval by the Secretary.
(a) All funds received pursuant to any of the provisions of this part shall be used solely for the purposes specified in this part, and the Secretary may require the Council and its members to account for all receipts and disbursements.
(b) Upon the death, resignation, removal, disqualification, or expiration of the term of office of any member or employee, all books, records, funds, and other property in their possession belonging to the Council shall be delivered to their successor in office or to the Council, and such assignments and other instruments shall be executed as may be necessary to vest in such successor or in the Council full title to all the books, records, funds, and other property in the possession or under the control of such member or employee pursuant to this subpart.
The Council may recommend, subject to approval of the Secretary, reestablishment of regions, reapportionment of members among regions, and may revise the groups eligible for representation on the Council. In recommending any such changes, the following shall be considered:
(a) Shifts in acreage within regions and within the production area during recent years;
(b) The importance of new production in its relation to existing regions;
(c) The equitable relationship between Council apportionment and regions;
(d) Changes in industry structure and/or the percentage of crop represented by various industry entities; and
(e) Other relevant factors.
As soon as practicable before the beginning of each fiscal year, and as may be necessary thereafter, the Council shall prepare a budget of income and expenditures necessary for the administration of this part. The Council may recommend a rate of assessment calculated to provide adequate funds to defray its proposed expenditures. The Council shall present such budget to the Secretary with an accompanying report showing the basis for its calculations, and all shall be subject to Secretary approval.
(a) Each handler who first handles inshell pecans shall pay assessments to the Council. Assessments collected each fiscal year shall defray expenses which the Secretary finds reasonable and likely to be incurred by the Council during that fiscal year. Each handler's share of assessments paid to the Council shall be equal to the ratio between the total quantity of inshell pecans handled by them as the first handler thereof during the applicable fiscal year, and the total quantity of inshell pecans handled by all regulated handlers in the production area during the same fiscal year. The payment of assessments for the maintenance and functioning of the Council may be required under this part throughout the period it is in effect irrespective of whether particular provisions thereof are suspended or become inoperative. Handlers may avail themselves of an inter-handler transfer, as provided for in § 986.62, Inter-handler transfers.
(b) Based upon a recommendation of the Council or other available data, the Secretary shall fix three base rates of assessment for inshell pecans handled during each fiscal year. Such base rates shall include one rate of assessment for any or all varieties of pecans classified as native and seedling; one rate of assessment for any or all varieties of pecans classified as improved; and one rate of assessment for any pecans classified as substandard.
(c) Upon implementation of this part and subject to the approval of the Secretary, initial assessment rates per classification shall be set within the following prescribed ranges: Native and seedling classified pecans shall be assessed at one-cent to two-cents per pound; improved classified pecans shall be assessed at two-cents to three-cents per pound; and, substandard classified pecans shall be assessed at one-cent to two-cents per pound. These assessment ranges shall be in effect for the initial four years of the order.
(d) Subsequent assessment rates shall not exceed two percent of the aggregate of all prices in each classification across the production area based on Council data, or the average of USDA reported average price received by growers for each classification, in the preceding fiscal year as recommended by the Council and approved by the Secretary. After four years from the implementation of this part, the Council may recommend, subject to the approval of the Secretary, revisions to this calculation or assessment ranges.
(e) The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may revise the assessment rates if it determines, based on information including crop size and value, that the action is necessary, and if the revision does not exceed the assessment limitation specified in this section and is made prior to the final billing of the assessment.
(f) In order to provide funds for the administration of the provisions of this part during the first part of a fiscal year, before sufficient operating income is
(g) If a handler does not pay assessments within the time prescribed by the Council, the assessment may be increased by a late payment charge and/or an interest rate charge at amounts prescribed by the Council with approval of the Secretary.
(h) On August 31 of each year, every handler warehousing inshell pecans shall be identified as the first handler of those pecans and shall be required to pay the assessed rate on the category of pecans in their possession on that date. The terms of this paragraph may be revised subject to the recommendation of the Council and approval by the Secretary.
(i) On August 31 of each year, all inventories warehoused by growers from the current fiscal year shall cease to be eligible for inter-handler transfer treatment. Instead, such inventory will require the first handler that handles such inventory to pay the assessment thereon in accordance with the prevailing assessment rates at the time of transfer from the grower to the said handler. The terms of this paragraph may be revised subject to the recommendation of the Council and approval by the Secretary.
Any handler inside the production area, except as provided for in § 986.61(h) and (i), Assessments, may transfer inshell pecans to another handler inside the production area for additional handling, and any assessments or other marketing order requirements with respect to pecans so transferred may be assumed by the receiving handler. The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish methods and procedures, including necessary reports, to maintain accurate records for such transfers. All inter-handler transfers will be documented by forms or electronic transfer receipts approved by the Council, and all forms or electronic transfer receipts used for inter-handler transfers shall require that copies be sent to the selling party, the receiving party, and the Council. Such forms must state which handler has the assessment responsibilities.
The Council may accept voluntary contributions. Such contributions may only be accepted if they are free from any encumbrances or restrictions on their use and the Council shall retain complete control of their use. The Council may receive contributions from both within and outside of the production area.
(a) Assessments collected in excess of expenses incurred shall be accounted for in accordance with one of the following:
(1) Excess funds not retained in a reserve, as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be refunded proportionately to the persons from whom they were collected; or
(2) The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may carry over excess funds into subsequent fiscal periods as reserves:
(i) To defray expenses during any fiscal period prior to the time assessment income is sufficient to cover such expenses;
(ii) To cover deficits incurred during any fiscal period when assessment income is less than expenses;
(iii) To defray expenses incurred during any period when any or all provisions of this part are suspended or are inoperative; and
(iv) To cover necessary expenses of liquidation in the event of termination of this part.
(b) Upon such termination, any funds not required to defray the necessary expenses of liquidation shall be disposed of in such manner as the Secretary may determine to be appropriate. To the extent practical, such funds shall be returned pro rata to the persons from whom such funds were collected.
(c) All funds received by the Council pursuant to the provisions of this part shall be used solely for the purposes specified in this part and shall be accounted for in the manner provided for in this part. The Secretary may at any time require the Council and its members to account for all receipts and disbursements.
(d) Upon the removal or expiration of the term of office of any member of the Council, such member shall account for all receipts and disbursements and deliver all property and funds in their possession to the Council, and shall execute such assignments and other instruments as may be necessary or appropriate to vest in the Council full title to all of the property, funds, and claims vested in such member pursuant to this part.
(e) The Council may make recommendations to the Secretary for one or more of the members thereof, or any other person, to act as a trustee for holding records, funds, or any other Council property during periods of suspension of this subpart, or during any period or periods when regulations are not in effect and if the Secretary determines such action appropriate, he or she may direct that such person or persons shall act as trustee or trustees for the Council.
By the end of each fiscal year, the Council shall make a report and recommendation to the Secretary on the Council's proposed marketing policy for the next fiscal year. Each year such report and recommendation shall be adopted by the affirmative vote of at least two-thirds (
(a) Estimate of the grower-cleaned production and handler-cleaned production in the area of production for the fiscal year;
(b) Estimate of disappearance;
(c) Estimate of the improved, native, and substandard pecans;
(d) Estimate of the handler inventory on August 31, of inshell and shelled pecans;
(e) Estimate of unassessed inventory;
(f) Estimate of the trade supply, taking into consideration imports, and other factors;
(g) Preferable handler inventory of inshell and shelled pecans on August 31 of the following year;
(h) Projected prices in the new fiscal year;
(i) Competing nut supplies; and
(j) Any other relevant factors.
Upon complying with § 986.65, Marketing policy, the Council may propose regulations to the Secretary whenever it finds that such proposed regulations may assist in effectuating the declared policy of the Act.
The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish or provide for the establishment of production research, marketing research and development projects, and marketing promotion, including paid generic advertising, designed to assist, improve,
(a) The Council may recommend, subject to the approval of the Secretary, regulations that:
(1) Establish handling requirements or minimum tolerances for particular grades, sizes, or qualities, or any combination thereof, of any or all varieties or classifications of pecans during any period;
(2) Establish different handling requirements or minimum tolerances for particular grades, sizes, or qualities, or any combination thereof for different varieties or classifications, for different containers, for different portions of the production area, or any combination of the foregoing, during any period;
(3) Fix the size, capacity, weight, dimensions, or pack of the container or containers, which may be used in the packaging, transportation, sale, preparation for market, shipment, or other handling of pecans; and
(4) Establish inspection and certification requirements for the purposes of (a)(1) through (3) of this section.
(b) Regulations issued hereunder may be amended, modified, suspended, or terminated whenever it is determined:
(1) That such action is warranted upon recommendation of the Council and approval by the Secretary, or other available information; or
(2) That regulations issued hereunder no longer tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
(c) The authority to regulate as put forward in this subsection shall not in any way constitute authority for the Council to recommend volume regulation, such as reserve pools, producer allotments, or handler withholding requirements which limit the flow of product to market for the purpose of reducing market supply.
(d) The Council may recommend, subject to the approval of the Secretary, rules and regulations to effectuate this subpart.
Regulations in effect pursuant to § 986.69, Authorities regulating handling, may be modified, suspended, or terminated to facilitate handling of pecans for:
(a) Relief or charity;
(b) Experimental purposes; and
(c) Other purposes which may be recommended by the Council and approved by the Secretary.
The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish through rules such requirements as may be necessary to establish that shipments made pursuant to § 986.70, Handling for special purposes, were handled and used for the purpose stated.
The Secretary shall promptly notify the Council of regulations issued or of any modification, suspension, or termination thereof. The Council shall give reasonable notice thereof to industry participants.
Each handler shall submit to the Council in such form and on such dates as the Council may prescribe, reports showing their inventory of inshell and shelled pecans.
Each handler who handles merchantable pecans at any time during a fiscal year shall submit to the Council in such form and at such intervals as the Council may prescribe, reports showing the quantity so handled and such other information pertinent thereto as the Council may specify.
Each handler shall file such reports of their pecan receipts from growers, handlers, or others in such form and at such times as may be required by the Council with the approval of the Secretary.
Upon request of the Council made with the approval of the Secretary each handler shall furnish such other reports and information as are needed to enable the Council to perform its duties and exercise its powers under this part.
For the purpose of verifying and checking reports filed by handlers on their operations, the Secretary and the Council, through their duly authorized representatives, shall have access to any premises where pecans and pecan records are held. Such access shall be available at any time during reasonable business hours. Authorized representatives of the Council or the Secretary shall be permitted to inspect any pecans held and any and all records of the handler with respect to matters within the purview of this part. Each handler shall maintain complete records on the receiving, holding, and disposition of all pecans. Each handler shall furnish all labor necessary to facilitate such inspections at no expense to the Council or the Secretary. Each handler shall store all pecans held by him in such manner as to facilitate inspection and shall maintain adequate storage records which will permit accurate identification with respect to inspection certificates of respective lots and of all such pecans held or disposed of theretofore. The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish any methods and procedures needed to verify reports.
All reports submitted to the Council as required in this part shall be certified to the Secretary and the Council as to the completeness and correctness of the information contained therein.
All reports and records submitted by handlers to the Council, which include data or information constituting a trade secret or disclosing the trade position, or financial condition or business operations of the handler shall be kept in the custody of one or more employees of the Council and shall be disclosed to no person except the Secretary.
Each handler shall maintain such records of pecans received, held and disposed of by them as may be prescribed by the Council for the purpose of performing its duties under this part. Such books and records shall be retained and be available for examination by authorized representatives of the Council and the Secretary for the current fiscal year and the preceding three (3) fiscal years.
(a) Any handler may handle inshell pecans within the production area free of the requirements of this part if such pecans are handled in quantities not exceeding 1,000 inshell pounds during any fiscal year.
(b) Any handler may handle shelled pecans within the production area free of the requirements of this part if such pecans are handled in quantities not exceeding 500 shelled pounds during any fiscal year.
(c) Mail order sales are not exempt sales under this part.
(d) The Council, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish such rules,
Except as provided in this subpart, no handler shall handle pecans, the handling of which has been prohibited by the Secretary in accordance with provisions of this part, or the rules and regulations thereunder.
The benefits, privileges, and immunities conferred by virtue of this part shall cease upon termination hereof, except with respect to acts done under and during the existence of this part.
If any provision of this part is declared invalid, or the applicability thereof to any person, circumstance, or thing is held invalid, the validity of the remaining provisions and the applicability thereof to any other person, circumstance, or thing shall not be affected thereby.
Nothing contained in this part is or shall be construed to be in derogation of, or in modification of, the rights of the Secretary or of the United States to exercise any powers granted by the Act or otherwise, or, in accordance with such powers, to act in the premises whenever such action is deemed advisable.
No member or alternate of the Council nor any employee or agent thereof, shall be held personally responsible, either individually or jointly with others, in any way whatsoever, to any party under this part or to any other person for errors in judgment, mistakes, or other acts, either of commission or omission, as such member, alternate, agent or employee, except for acts of dishonesty, willful misconduct, or gross negligence. The Council may purchase liability insurance for its members and officers.
The Secretary may name, by designation in writing, any person, including any officer or employee of the USDA or the United States to act as their agent or representative in connection with any of the provisions of this part.
The provisions of this part and of any amendment thereto shall become effective at such time as the Secretary may declare, and shall continue in force until terminated in one of the ways specified in § 986.94.
(a) The Secretary may at any time terminate this part.
(b) The Secretary shall terminate or suspend the operation of any or all of the provisions of this part whenever he or she finds that such operation obstructs or does not tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
(c) The Secretary shall terminate the provisions of this part applicable to pecans for market or pecans for handling at the end of any fiscal year whenever the Secretary finds, by referendum or otherwise, that such termination is favored by a majority of growers;
(d) The Secretary shall conduct a referendum within every five-year period beginning from the implementation of this part, to ascertain whether continuance of the provisions of this part applicable to pecans are favored by two-thirds by number or volume of growers voting in the referendum. The Secretary may terminate the provisions of this part at the end of any fiscal year in which the Secretary has found that continuance of this part is not favored by growers who, during an appropriate period of time determined by the Secretary, have been engaged in the production of pecans in the production area:
(e) The provisions of this part shall, in any event, terminate whenever the provisions of the Act authorizing them cease to be in effect.
(a) Upon the termination of this part, the Council members serving shall continue as joint trustees for the purpose of liquidating all funds and property then in the possession or under the control of the Council, including claims for any funds unpaid or property not delivered at the time of such termination.
(b) The joint trustees shall continue in such capacity until discharged by the Secretary; from time to time accounting for all receipts and disbursements; delivering all funds and property on hand, together with all books and records of the Council and of the joint trustees to such person as the Secretary shall direct; and, upon the request of the Secretary, executing such assignments or other instruments necessary and appropriate to vest in such person full title and right to all of the funds, property, or claims vested in the Council or in said joint trustees.
(c) Any funds collected pursuant to this part and held by such joint trustees or such person over and above the amounts necessary to meet outstanding obligations and the expenses necessarily incurred by the joint trustees or such other person in the performance of their duties under this subpart, as soon as practicable after the termination hereof, shall be returned to the handlers pro rata in proportion to their contributions thereto.
(d) Any person to whom funds, property, or claims have been transferred or delivered by the Council, upon direction of the Secretary, as provided in this part, shall be subject to the same obligations and duties with respect to said funds, property, or claims as are imposed upon said joint trustees.
Amendments to this part may be proposed from time to time by the Council or by the Secretary.
Handlers may sign an agreement with the Secretary indicating their support for this marketing order. This agreement may be executed in multiple counterparts by each handler. If more than fifty percent of the handlers, weighted by the volume of pecans handled during an appropriate period of time determined by the Secretary, enter into such an agreement, then a marketing agreement shall exist for the pecans marketing order. This marketing agreement shall not alter the terms of this part. Upon the termination of this part, the marketing agreement has no further force or effect.
After this part becomes effective, any handler may become a party to the marketing agreement if a counterpart is executed by the handler and delivered to the Secretary.
Each signatory handler hereby requests the Secretary to issue, pursuant to the Act, an order for regulating the handling of pecans in the same manner as is provided for in this agreement.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Direct final rule.
This direct final rule contains several amendments to the regulations governing the HUBZone Program. The U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) is making changes to its regulations to implement section 866 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016 (2016 NDAA). Section 866 of the 2016 NDAA made the following changes to the HUBZone program: authorized Native Hawaiian Organizations to own HUBZone small business concerns; expanded the definition of “base closure area” under the HUBZone program; and authorized the inclusion of “qualified disaster areas” under the HUBZone program. This direct final rule would implement these changes in SBA's regulations.
This rule is effective on October 3, 2016 without further action, unless significant adverse comment is received by September 6, 2016. If significant adverse comment is received, SBA will publish a timely withdrawal of the rule in the
You may submit comments, identified by RIN 3245-AG81 by any of the following methods:
•
•
SBA will post all comments on
Mariana Pardo, Director, HUBZone Program, 409 Third Street SW., Washington, DC 20416, 202-205-2985,
This direct final rule implements several conforming amendments to SBA regulations from the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2016, Public Law 114-92, 129 Stat. 726, November 25, 2015 (2016 NDAA). The 2016 NDAA became effective on November 25, 2015. Section 866 of the 2016 NDAA made the following changes to the HUBZone program: authorized Native Hawaiian Organizations (NHOs) to own HUBZone small business concerns; expanded the definition of “base closure area” under the HUBZone program; and authorized the inclusion of “qualified disaster areas” under the HUBZone program.
SBA seeks to amend its HUBZone regulations to mirror the changes the 2016 NDAA made to the Small Business Act, and to avoid public confusion and possible misinterpretations of SBA's HUBZone program. Since these are conforming amendments, with no extraneous interpretation or other expanded materials, SBA expects no significant adverse comments. Based on that fact, SBA has decided to proceed with a direct final rule giving the public 30 days to comment. If SBA receives a significant adverse comment during the comment period, SBA will withdraw the rule, and proceed with a new proposed rule. The statute makes the following changes:
•
• “
• “
•
•
In order to implement the changes made by section 866 of the 2016 NDAA, SBA is amending §§ 126.103 and 126.200 of its regulations.
SBA is amending § 126.103 by revising the definitions of the terms “Base closure area”, “HUBZone”, “HUBZone small business concern (HUBZone SBC)”, and “Qualified base closure area”, and by adding new definitions for the terms “Native Hawaiian Organization (NHO)” and “Qualified disaster area”. This rules adopts the definitions of these terms provided in amended sections 3(p)(1), 3(p)(3), 3(p)(4)(D), and new section 3(p)(4)(E), of the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632(p)(1), 632(p)(3), 632(p)(4)(D), 632(p)(4)(E).
SBA is amending § 126.200 by revising paragraph (b)(1) to implement the statutory authority for HUBZone small business concerns to be wholly or partly owned by NHOs. This rule adopts the language provided in new section 3(p)(3)(D) of the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632(p)(3)(D).
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this direct final rule does not constitute a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. This rule is also not a major rule under the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 800.
This action meets applicable standards set forth in Sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden. The action does not have retroactive or preemptive effect.
For the purposes of Executive Order 13132, SBA has determined that this direct final rule will not have substantial, direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, for the purpose of Executive Order 13132, Federalism, SBA has determined that this direct final rule has no federalism implications warranting preparation of a federalism assessment.
SBA has determined that this direct final rule does not impose additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C., Chapter 35.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601, requires administrative agencies to consider the effect of their actions on small entities, small non-profit enterprises, and small local governments. Pursuant to the RFA, when an agency issues a rulemaking, the agency must prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis which describes the impact of the rule on small entities. However, section 605 of the RFA allows an agency to certify a rule, in lieu of preparing an analysis, if the rulemaking is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Within the meaning of RFA, SBA certifies that this direct rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Administrative practice and procedure, Government procurement, Small businesses.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the supplementary information, SBA amends 13 CFR part 126 as follows:
15 U.S.C. 632(a), 632(j), 632(p), 644 and 657a.
(1) Lands within the external boundaries of a military installation that were closed through a privatization process under the authority of:
(i) The Defense Base Closure and Realignment Act of 1990 (part A of title XXIX of division B of Pub. L. 101-510; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note);
(ii) Title II of the Defense Authorization Amendments and Base Closure and Realignment Act (Pub. L. 100-526; 10 U.S.C. 2687 note);
(iii) 10 U.S.C. 2687; or
(iv) Any other provision of law authorizing or directing the Secretary of Defense or the Secretary of a military department to dispose of real property at the military installation for purposes relating to base closures of redevelopment, while retaining the authority to enter into a leaseback of all or a portion of the property for military use;
(2) The census tract or nonmetropolitan county (excluding any qualified census tract and any qualified non-metropolitan county) in which the lands described in paragraph (1) of this definition are wholly contained;
(3) A census tract or nonmetropolitan county (excluding any qualified census tract and any qualified non-metropolitan county) the boundaries of which intersect the area described in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
(4) A census tract or nonmetropolitan county (excluding any qualified census tract and any qualified non-metropolitan county) the boundaries of which are contiguous to the area described in paragraph (2) or paragraph (3) of this definition.
(1) Qualified census tracts;
(2) Qualified non-metropolitan counties;
(3) Lands within the external boundaries of an Indian reservation;
(4) Qualified base closure areas;
(5) Redesignated areas; or
(6) Qualified disaster areas.
(1) At least 51% owned and controlled by 1 or more persons, each of whom is a United States citizen;
(2) An ANC owned and controlled by Natives (as determined pursuant to section 29(e)(1) of the ANCSA, 43 U.S.C. 1626(e)(1));
(3) A direct or indirect subsidiary corporation, joint venture, or partnership of an ANC qualifying pursuant to section 29(e)(1) of the ANCSA, 43 U.S.C. 1626(e)(1)), if that subsidiary, joint venture, or partnership is owned and controlled by Natives (as determined pursuant to section 29(e)(2) of the ANCSA, 43 U.S.C. 1626(e)(2));
(4) Wholly owned by one or more Indian Tribal Governments, or by a corporation that is wholly owned by one or more Indian Tribal Governments;
(5) An SBC that is owned in part by one or more Indian Tribal Governments or in part by a corporation that is wholly owned by one or more Indian Tribal Governments, if all other owners are either United States citizens or SBCs;
(6) An SBC that is wholly owned by a CDC or owned in part by one or more CDCs, if all other owners are either United States citizens or SBCs;
(7) An SBC that is a small agricultural cooperative organized or incorporated in the United States, wholly owned by one or more small agricultural cooperatives organized or incorporated in the United States or owned in part by one or more small agricultural cooperatives organized or incorporated in the United States, provided that all other owners are small business concerns or United States citizens;
(8) Wholly owned by one or more Native Hawaiian Organizations, or by a corporation that is wholly owned by one or more Native Hawaiian Organizations; or
(9) Owned in part by one or more Native Hawaiian Organizations or by a corporation that is wholly owned by one or more Native Hawaiian Organizations, if all other owners are either United States citizens or small business concerns.
(1) A base closure area that is treated as a HUBZone for a period of not less than 8 years, beginning on the date the military installation undergoes final closure and ending on the latter of the following:
(i) The date the Administrator makes a final determination as to whether or not to implement the applicable designations in accordance with the
(ii) The date 8 years after the base closure area was initially designated as a HUBZone.
(2) However, if a base closure area was treated as a HUBZone at any time after 2010, it shall be treated as a HUBZone until such time as the Administrator makes a final determination as to whether or not to implement the applicable designations in accordance with the results of the 2020 decennial census.
(1) In the case of a major disaster declared by the President, a census tract or nonmetropolitan county may be a qualified disaster area only during the 5-year period beginning on the date on which the President declared the major disaster for the area in which the census tract or nonmetropolitan county is located; and
(2) In the case of a catastrophic incident, a census tract or nonmetropolitan county may be a qualified disaster area only during the 10-year period beginning on the date on which the catastrophic incident occurred in the area in which the census tract or nonmetropolitan county is located.
(b)
A concern that is a partnership owned 50% by an individual who is a United States citizen and 50% by someone who is not a United States citizen, is not an eligible concern because it is not at least 51% owned by United States citizens.
(ii) The concern must be an ANC owned and controlled by Natives (determined pursuant to section 29(e)(1) of the ANCSA); or a direct or indirect subsidiary corporation, joint venture, or partnership of an ANC qualifying pursuant to section 29(e)(1) of ANCSA, if that subsidiary, joint venture, or partnership is owned and controlled by Natives (determined pursuant to section 29(e)(2)) of the ANCSA);
(iii) The concern must be wholly owned by one or more NHOs, or by a corporation that is wholly owned by one or more NHOs, or owned in part by one or more NHOs, if all other owners are either United States citizens or small business concerns; or
(iv) The concern must be wholly owned by a CDC, or owned in part by one or more CDCs, if all other owners are either United States citizens or SBCs.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a design review that revealed a hot spot may develop in the main fuel tank under certain failure conditions of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, or the solenoid of the main tank fueling shut-off valve. This AD requires installing fuses in the wiring of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, and the solenoid of the main tank fueling shut-off valve, as applicable. This AD also requires accomplishing concurrent actions and revising the airplane maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, by incorporating fuel airworthiness limitation items and critical design configuration control limitations (CDCCLs). We are issuing this AD to prevent an ignition source in the main fuel tank vapor space, which could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0107, dated May 7, 2014 (referred to after this the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Prompted by an accident * * *, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) published Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 88 [(66 FR 23086, May 7, 2001)], and the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) published Interim Policy INT/POL/25/12.
The review conducted by Fokker Services on the Fokker F28 design in response to these regulations revealed that, under certain failure conditions of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the main tank overflow valve reed switch, the collector tank level float switch or the main tank fuelling shut-off valve solenoid, a hot spot may develop in the tank.
This condition, if not corrected, could create an ignition source in the main tank vapour space, possibly resulting in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Fokker Services developed a modification to the wiring (installation of fuses) of the affected components.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires the installation of fuses in the wiring of the affected components [the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, and the solenoid of the main tank fuelling shut-off valve] and, subsequently, the implementation of the associated Critical Design Configuration Control Limitations (CDCCL) items [and revision of the maintenance or inspection program].
More information on this subject can be found in Fokker Services All Operators Message AOF28.038#02.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We revised certain document citations throughout this AD to meet the Office of the Federal Register's requirements for materials incorporated by reference. These changes are for formatting purposes and do not affect the requirements of this AD.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Fokker Services B.V. has issued Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-035, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014; and Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-049, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014. This service information describes procedures for installing fuses packed in jiffy junctions (
Fokker Services B.V. has also issued Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-034 Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014; and Service Bulletin SBF28-28-051, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014. This service information describes procedures for reworking the wiring and installing fuses packed in jiffy junctions in the power supply wire of the solenoid in the left and right level control pilot valves.
In addition, Fokker Services B.V. has issued Proforma Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056, dated January 9, 2014; and F28 Appendix Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056/APP01, dated July 15, 2014. This service information describes procedures for installing fuses in the wiring of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, and the solenoid of the main tank fueling shut-off valve. This service information also describes certain CDCCLs.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 5 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
This AD affects AD 2011-17-03, Amendment 39-16767 (76 FR 50115, August 12, 2011) (“AD 2011-17-03”); and AD 2011-21-01, Amendment 39-16824 (76 FR 63156, October 12, 2011) (“AD 2011-21-01”).
This AD applies to Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a design review that revealed a hot spot may develop in the main fuel tank under certain failure conditions of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, or the solenoid of the main tank fueling shut-off valve. We are issuing this AD to prevent an ignition source in the main fuel tank vapor space, which could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD, install fuses in the wiring of the solenoid of the level control pilot valve, the reed switch of the main tank overflow valve, the level float switch of the collector tank, and the solenoid of the main tank fueling shut-off valve, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker F28 Appendix Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056/APP01, dated July 15, 2014, and Fokker Proforma Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056, dated January 9, 2014.
Prior to or concurrently with accomplishing the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD. Accomplishment of the actions in this paragraph terminates the requirement of paragraph (g) of AD 2011-17-03.
(1) Install fuses packed in jiffy junctions (
(i) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-049, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014.
(ii) Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-035, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
Accomplishment of this action is required by AD 2011-17-03.
(2) Rework the wiring and install fuses packed in jiffy junctions in the power supply wire of the solenoid in the left and right level control pilot valves, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information identified in paragraph (h)(2)(i) and the instructions of the service information identified in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this AD. Accomplishment of the actions in this paragraph terminates the requirement of paragraph (g) of AD 2011-21-01, for the actions specified in the Accomplishment Instructions of the service information identified in paragraph (h)(2)(i) and the instructions of the service information identified in paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this AD only.
(i) Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation
MCNM-F28-034, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
(ii) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-051, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014.
Note 2 to paragraph (h)(2) of this AD: Accomplishment of this action is required by AD 2011-21-01.
Before further flight after completing the installation specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Revise the airplane maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, by incorporating the critical design configuration control limitations (CDCCLs) specified in paragraph 1.L.(1)(c) of Fokker Proforma Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056, dated January 9, 2014.
After accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (i) of this AD, no alternative CDCCLs may be used unless the CDCCLs are approved as an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0107, dated May 7, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Fokker F28 Appendix Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056/APP01, dated July 15, 2014.
(ii) Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-034 Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
(iii) Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-035, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
(iv) Fokker Proforma Service Bulletin SBF28-28-056, dated January 9, 2014.
(v) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-049, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014.
(vi) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-051, Revision 2, dated November 3, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX and FALCON 2000EX airplanes. This AD was prompted by a review that identified a nonconformity between the torque value applied to the screw-nuts of aileron servo actuators, and the torque value specified by the type design. This AD requires replacing certain aileron servo actuators with serviceable servo actuators. We are issuing this AD to prevent desynchronization between two servo actuator barrels, which could lead to reduced control of the airplane during roll maneuvers at low altitude.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Dassault Falcon Jet, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1139.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX and FALCON 2000EX airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0184, dated August 7, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX and FALCON 2000EX airplanes. The MCAI states:
A quality review of recently delivered aeroplanes identified a non-conformity concerning the torque value applied to screw-nuts of aileron servo actuators, which was inconsistent with the value specified by the type design.
The subsequent investigation demonstrated that the washer which is bent on nut and rod ensures the affected selector synchronisation between two servo actuator barrels for a minimum of 2,000 flight hours (FH). After this period, a possible de-synchronization of the affected selector assembly may occur.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to reduced control of the aeroplane during roll manoeuvers at low altitude.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Dassault Aviation issued Service Bulletin (SB) F900EX-476 Revision 1 and SB F2000EX-350 to provide replacement instructions for the affected aileron servo actuators, as applicable to aeroplane type.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires replacement of affected aileron servo actuators with serviceable parts. This [EASA] AD also identifies that the affected aileron servo actuators can be re-qualified as serviceable parts only after a refurbishment accomplished by an approved maintenance organization.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Dassault Service Bulletins F900EX-476, Revision 1, dated June 25, 2014; and F2000EX-350, dated April 9, 2014. The service information describes procedures for removing the aileron servo actuator. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 284 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 14 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts will cost about $43,460 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $12,680,600, or $44,650 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to all Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 900EX and FALCON 2000EX airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by a review that identified a nonconformity between the torque value applied to the screw-nuts of aileron servo actuators, and the torque value specified by the type design. We are issuing this AD to prevent desynchronization between two servo actuator barrels, which could lead to reduced control of the airplane during roll maneuvers at low altitude.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the applicable times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Replace each affected aileron servo actuator, as identified in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD (for Model FALCON 900EX airplanes) or figure 2 to paragraph (g) of this AD (for Model FALCON 2000EX airplanes), with a serviceable part in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-476, Revision 1, dated June 25, 2014; or Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-350, dated April 9, 2014; except where Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-476, Revision 1, dated June 25, 2014; or F2000EX-350, dated April 9, 2014; specify to “remove” the applicable aileron servo actuator, this AD requires replacement of the applicable aileron servo actuator. A serviceable part is one that is specified in the “New P/N” column in the table of paragraph 3., “Material Information,” of Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-476, Revision 1, dated June 25, 2014; or Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-350, dated April 9, 2014.
(1) For airplanes on which the aileron servo actuator was not replaced during maintenance: At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this AD.
(i) Within 25 months or 1,640 flight hours, whichever occurs first, since the date of issuance of the original airworthiness certificate or date of issuance for the original export certificate of airworthiness.
(ii) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
(2) For airplanes on which the aileron servo actuator was replaced during maintenance: At the later of the times specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) and (g)(2)(ii) of this AD.
(i) Within 1,640 flight hours after replacement of the aileron servo actuator during maintenance.
(ii) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
The affected aileron servo actuators are known to be installed before airplane delivery on Model FALCON 900EX airplanes having serial numbers (S/Ns) 265 through 270 inclusive, S/N 272 and S/N 273; Model FALCON 2000EX airplanes having S/N 243, S/Ns 246 through 258 inclusive, S/Ns 260 through 263 inclusive, S/Ns 702 through 710 inclusive and S/N 714; and during a maintenance operation on Model FALCON 900EX airplane having S/N 177, after airplane delivery.
As of the effective date of this AD, no aileron servo actuator having a P/N and S/N listed in figure 1 to paragraph (g) of this AD or figure 2 to paragraph (g) of this AD is allowed to be installed on any airplane, unless the mark “D1” is included on the actuator repair placard.
The mark “D1” on an aileron servo actuator repair placard indicates that the affected part has been refurbished by an approved maintenance organization and is qualified as a serviceable part.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0184, dated August 7, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Dassault Service Bulletin F900EX-476, Revision 1, dated June 25, 2014.
(ii) Dassault Service Bulletin F2000EX-350, dated April 9, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, and B4-622R airplanes; and Model A310-304, -324, and -325 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a crack found on door frame (FR) 73A between stringers 24 and 25. This AD requires inspections around the rivet heads of the seal retainer run-out holes at certain frames and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the door frame, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, and B4-622R airplanes; and Model A310-304, -324, and -325 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2014-0202R1, dated September 19, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A300 B4-603, B4-605R, and B4-622R airplanes; and Model A310-304, -324, and -325 airplanes The MCAI states:
During the preparation phase for conversion of an A300-600 aeroplane from passenger to freighter configuration, a crack was detected on door frame (FR) 73A, between stringer (STRG) 24 and STRG 25.
DGAC [Direction Générale de l'Aviation Civile] France had issued AD 1999-013-276R1 to require inspections at FR 73A in accordance with the instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) A310-53-2107 or SB A300-53-6116, as applicable. However, the new crack was found in an area not covered by the existing inspection and is therefore addressed by this new [EASA] AD. (DGAC France AD 1999-013-276R1 remains in place).
Further investigations identified that, on A300-600 aeroplanes, the areas at FR 56A and FR 57A have the same design and material as at FR 73A.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could affect the structural integrity of the airframe.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires repetitive [high frequency eddy current (HFEC)] inspections of the rivet heads of the seal retainer run out holes to detect cracks and, depending on findings, accomplishment of corrective actions [repair].
Even though no crack has been identified at FR 56A and FR 57A, as a preventive measure, the inspection is extended to these areas. On A310 aeroplanes, only the area at FR 73A needs to be inspected.
This [EASA] AD is revised to reduce the applicability to aeroplanes in post-MOD 06924 configuration.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comment received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to the comment.
An anonymous commenter asked why the NPRM has not yet been enacted. The commenter stated that they do not want to be on a plane that lacks structural integrity because of cracks on the door frame.
ADs are federal regulations that have the force and effect of law. In simple terms, the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), Title 5 of the United States Code (5 U.S.C.) § 553, requires all regulatory agencies such as the FAA to provide the public with notice and time for comment prior to issuing a regulation. ADs are issued in accordance with the public rulemaking procedures of the APA, FAA procedures in 14 CFR part 11, and several other relevant regulations. For this AD, we did not substantiate that a critical, immediate safety of flight problem exists that would warrant issuing a rule without prior notice or opportunity for public comment. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comment received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Airbus has issued Service Bulletins A300-53-6175 and A310-53-2138, both dated May 28, 2014. The service information describes procedures for doing HFEC inspections around the rivet heads of the seal retainer run-out holes at certain frame locations on the left-hand and right-hand sides. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 24 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Model A300 B4-603, A300 B4-605R, A300 B4-622R, A310-304, A310-324, and A310-325 airplanes; certificated in any category; all manufacturer serial numbers (MSNs) in post-modification (MOD) 06924 configuration, except MSNs 464, 477, 479, 481, 482, 483, 484, and 488.
Note 1 to paragraph (c) of this AD: MSNs 464, 477, 479, 481, 482, 483, 484 and 488 partially embodied MOD 06924 by means of modification proposal D05902.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of a crack found on door frame (FR) 73A between stringers 24 and 25. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the door frame, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the later of the compliance times specified in paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this AD: Do a high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection for any crack around the rivet heads of the seal retainer run-out holes at FR 56A, FR 57A, and FR 73A, left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) sides on Model A300-600 airplanes; and at FR 73A, LH and RH sides on Model A310 airplanes; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A310-53-2138, dated May 28, 2014; or Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6175, dated May 28, 2014; as applicable. Repeat the HFEC inspection thereafter at intervals not to exceed 7,500 flight cycles.
(1) Before the accumulation of 32,000 total flight cycles.
(2) Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, or before the accumulation of 36,000 total flight cycles, whichever occurs first.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, repair before further flight using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2014-0202R1, dated September 19, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-53-6175, dated May 28, 2014.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-53-2138, dated May 28, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a design review, which found that the burst pressure of the flexible hose used to vent oxygen from the high-pressure relief valve of the oxygen cylinder overboard is lower than the opening pressure of the high-pressure relief valve. This AD requires replacement of flexible relief hoses for the crew oxygen bottles with new metal design relief hoses. We are issuing this AD to prevent the accumulation of excess oxygen in an enclosed space, which could, if near a source of ignition, cause an uncontrolled oxygen-fed fire.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Fabio Buttitta, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Branch, ANE-171, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7303; fax 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2015-25, dated September 10, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes. The MCAI states:
A design review found that the burst pressure of the flexible hose used to vent oxygen from the high-pressure relief valve of the oxygen cylinder overboard is lower than the opening pressure of the high-pressure relief valve. This could cause the flexible hose to burst before it is able to vent the excess oxygen overboard. If an ignition source is present, the accumulation of oxygen in an enclosed space may result in an uncontrolled oxygen-fed fire.
This [Canadian] AD mandates the replacement of the oxygen [flexible] hose assembly with a new design oxygen [metal] hose assembly.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public. We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Bombardier, Inc. has issued the following service information:
• Service Bulletin 700-35-013, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
• Service Bulletin 700-35-5001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015;
• Service Bulletin 700-35-6001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015; and
• Service Bulletin 700-1A11-35-012, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
The service information describes procedures to replace the flexible oxygen hoses with metal hoses. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 73 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc. Model BD-700-1A10 and BD-700-1A11 airplanes, certificated in any category, having serial numbers (S/Ns) 9002 through 9704 inclusive, and 9998.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 35, Oxygen.
This AD was prompted by a design review, which found that the burst pressure of the flexible hose used to vent oxygen from the high-pressure relief valve of the oxygen cylinder overboard is lower than the opening pressure of the high-pressure relief valve. This pressure difference could cause the flexible hose to burst before it is able to vent excess oxygen overboard. We are issuing this AD to prevent the accumulation of excess oxygen in an enclosed space, which could, if near a source of ignition, cause an uncontrolled oxygen-fed fire.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 2,500 flight hours or 42 months, whichever occurs first, after the effective date of this AD, incorporate Bombardier Modsum R700T400542 by replacing the oxygen flexible relief hoses for the crew oxygen bottles with new metal design hoses, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this AD. Airplanes with serial numbers listed in table 1 of paragraph 1, “Planning information,” of the service information specified in paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(4) of this AD have incorporated Modsum R700T400542 and meet the requirements of this paragraph.
(1) For Model BD-700-1A10 airplanes having S/Ns 9002 through 9312 inclusive, 9314 through 9380 inclusive, and 9384 through 9429 inclusive: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-013, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(2) For Model BD-700-1A10 airplanes having S/Ns 9313, 9381, and 9432 through 9704 inclusive: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-6001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(3) For Model BD-700-1A11 airplanes having S/Ns 9127 through 9383 inclusive, 9389 through 9400 inclusive, 9404 through 9431 inclusive, and 9998: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-35-012, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(4) For Model BD-700-1A11 airplanes having S/Ns 9386, 9401, and 9445 through 9702 inclusive: Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-5001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install on any airplane oxygen hoses in the low-pressure/high-pressure discharge system with part numbers listed in the “Used Part No.” column of Section 3.A, “Kit,” of the applicable service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(4) of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using the applicable service information identified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(4) of this AD, which are not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(1) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-013, dated February 20, 2015;
(2) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-5001, dated February 20, 2015;
(3) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-6001, dated February 20, 2015; and
(4) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-35-012, dated February 20, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2015-25, dated September 10, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier, Inc. Service Bulletin 700-35-013, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(ii) Bombardier, Inc. Service Bulletin 700-35-5001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(iii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-35-6001, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(iv) Bombardier Service Bulletin 700-1A11-35-012, Revision 01, dated July 22, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, -200, and -300 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of a manufacturing defect that affects the durability of affected parts in the cargo and cabin compartment. This AD requires an inspection of affected structural parts in the cargo and cabin compartments to determine if proper heat treatment has been done, and replacement if necessary. We are issuing this AD to prevent crack initiation and propagation, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office-EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Vladimir Ulyanov, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1138; fax: 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, -200, and -300 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued European Airworthiness Directive 2015-0212, dated November 4, 2015, to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A330-200 Freighter, -200, and -300 series airplanes. The MCAI states:
Airbus quality controls identified that several structural parts, intended for cargo or
A detailed safety assessment was accomplished to identify the possible impact of affected parts on the airplane structure. The result of this structural analysis demonstrated the capability of the affected structure to sustain static limit loads, but failed to confirm that the affected structures met the certified fatigue life.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to crack initiation and propagation, possibly resulting in reduced structural integrity of the fuselage.
To address this potentially unsafe condition, Airbus issued Service Bulletin (SB) SB A330-53-3227 and SB A330-53-3228 to provide inspection instructions for affected cargo and cabin structural parts respectively.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time Special Detailed Inspection (SDI) [eddy current inspection] to measure the electrical conductivity of affected structural parts, to identify the presence or absence of heat treatment, and, depending on findings, corrective action [replacement].
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Airbus has issued the following service information:
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3227, dated August 18, 2015. The service information describes procedures to inspect affected structural parts in the cargo compartment to determine if proper heat treatment has been done, and replacement of parts; and
• Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3228, dated August 18, 2015. The service information describes procedures to inspect affected structural parts in the cabin compartment to determine if proper heat treatment has been done, and replacement of parts.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 20 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that will be required based on the results of the required inspection. We have received no definitive data that will enable us to provide the cost of replacement parts for the on-condition actions specified in this AD, nor the cost of repairs. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category, manufacturer serial numbers 1175, 1180, 1287 through 1475 inclusive, 1478, 1480, 1483, and 1506.
(1) Model A330-223F and -243F airplanes.
(2) Model A330-201, -202, -203, -223, and -243 airplanes.
(3) Model A330-301, -302, -303, -321, -322, -323, -341, -342, and -343 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a report of a manufacturing defect (
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 72 months since first flight of the airplane, do an eddy current inspection (
If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, an affected structural part in the cargo compartment is identified to have a measured value greater than 26 megasiemens per meter (MS/m), or greater than 44.8% International Annealed Copper Standard (IACS), before further flight, replace the affected structural part with a serviceable part, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3227, dated August 18, 2015.
If, during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, an affected structural part in the cargo compartment is identified to have a measured value other than those specified in Figure A-GFAAA, Sheet 01, “Inspection Flowchart,” of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-3227, dated August 18, 2015, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
Within 72 months since first flight of the airplane, do an eddy current inspection of affected structural parts in the cabin compartment to determine if proper heat treatment has been done as identified in, and in accordance with, the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3228, dated August 18, 2015.
If, during the inspection required by paragraph (j) of this AD, an affected structural part in the cabin compartment is identified to have a measured value greater than 26 MS/m or greater than 44.8% IACS, before further flight, replace the affected structural part with a serviceable part, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3228, dated August 18, 2015.
If, during the inspection required by paragraph (j) of this AD, an affected structural part in the cabin compartment is identified to have a measured value other than those specified in Figure A-GFAAA, Sheet 01, “Inspection Flowchart,” of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-53-3228, dated August 18, 2015, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the EASA; or Airbus's EASA DOA.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA AD 2015-0212, dated November 4, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3227, dated August 18, 2015.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A330-53-3228, dated August 18, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAL, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone: +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax: +33 5 61 93 45 80; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a design review that revealed insufficient measures were taken to ensure the correct locking of the attachments of the fuel quantity tank units (FQTUs) in each wing tank. When an FQTU becomes loose, this could lead to insufficient clearance between the FQTU and the adjacent tank structure or other metal parts, and under certain conditions, create an ignition source inside the wing fuel vapor space. This AD requires modifying the FQTUs by applying sealant to cover the nuts, washers, and stud ends at the FQTU attachments in each main wing tank. This AD also requires revising the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, by incorporating a fuel airworthiness limitation item and a critical design configuration control limitation (CDCCL). We are issuing this AD to prevent an ignition source in the wing fuel tank vapor space, which could result in a wing fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0106, dated May 7, 2014 (referred to after this the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Prompted by an accident * * *, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) published Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 88 [(66 FR 23086, May 7, 2001)], and the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) published Interim Policy INT/POL/25/12.
The review conducted by Fokker Services on the Fokker F28 design, in response to these regulations, revealed that insufficient measures were taken to ensure the correct locking of the attachments of the Fuel Quantity Tank Units (FQTUs). When a FQTU becomes loose, this could lead to insufficient clearance between the FQTU and the adjacent tank structure or other metal parts and, under certain conditions, create an ignition source inside the wing fuel tank vapour space.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could result in a wing fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Fokker Services developed a modification to ensure that each FQTU remains properly attached.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires the application of sealant covering the nuts, washers and stud ends at the FQTU attachment in each wing tank [and a revision to the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate a fuel airworthiness limitation item and a CDCCL]. More information on this subject can be found in Fokker Services All Operators Message AOF28.038#02.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Fokker Services B.V. has issued Service Bulletin SBF28-28-050, Revision 3, dated December 11, 2014. The service information describes the fuel airworthiness limitation item and the CDCCL. Fokker Services B.V. has also issued Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2014, which describes procedures for applying sealant to the attachment nuts, washers, and stud ends of the FQTU; and Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-037, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014, which describes related changes in the affected maintenance documents.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 5 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Fokker Services B.V. Model F.28 Mark 1000, 2000, 3000, and 4000 airplanes, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a design review that revealed insufficient measures were taken to ensure the correct locking of the attachments of the fuel quantity tank units (FQTUs) in each wing tank. When an FQTU becomes loose, this could lead to insufficient clearance between the FQTU and the adjacent tank structure or other metal parts, and under certain conditions, create an ignition source inside the wing fuel vapor space. We are issuing this AD to prevent an ignition source in the wing fuel tank vapor space, which could result in a wing fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the next scheduled opening of the fuel tanks after the effective date of this AD, but no later than 84 months after the effective date of this AD, modify the FQTU in each main wing tank by applying sealant to cover the nuts, washers, and stud ends of the FQTU attachments, and do an inspection for leakage of the tank access panels, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2014; and the information in Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-037, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014. If any fuel leakage is found, before further flight, reapply the sealant, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2014; and the information in Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-037, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
Before further flight after completing the modification specified in paragraph (g) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Revise the airplane maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, by incorporating the fuel airworthiness limitation item and critical design configuration control limitation (CDCCL) specified in paragraph 1.L.(1)(c) of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2014. The initial compliance times for these tasks are at the latest of the times specified in paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), and (h)(3) of this AD.
(1) At the applicable time specified in Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-050, Revision 3, dated December 11, 2014.
(2) Before further flight after completing the modification specified in paragraph (g) of this AD.
(3) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
After accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (h) of this AD, no alternative actions (
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, dated June 30, 2010.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0106, dated May 7, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (m)(3) and (m)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Fokker Manual Change Notification—Maintenance Documentation MCNM-F28-037, Rev 1, dated January 9, 2014.
(ii) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-050, Revision 3, dated December 11, 2014.
(iii) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF28-28-054, Revision 1, dated January 9, 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; request for comments.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Pacific Aerospace Limited Models FU24-954 and FU24A-954 airplanes. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by the aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracked elevator torque tubes. We are issuing this AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective September 8, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publication listed in this AD as of September 8, 2016.
We must receive comments on this AD by September 19, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this AD, contact Pacific Aerospace Limited, Airport Road, Hamilton, Private Bag 3027, Hamilton 3240, New Zealand; telephone: +64 7 843 6144; facsimile: +64 7 843 6134; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Karl Schletzbaum, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4123; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
The Civil Aviation Authority (CAA), which is the aviation authority for New Zealand, has issued AD No. DCA/FU24/184, dated July 7, 2016 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for Pacific Aerospace Limited Models FU24-954 and FU24A-954 airplanes and was based on mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country. The MCAI states:
This AD is prompted by two reports received by the CAA of finding a crack in the elevator torque tube on two Cresco 08-600 aircraft. The same P/N elevator torque tube if fitted to FU24 and FU24A series aircraft. The AD is issued to prevent failure of the elevator torque tube due to possible fatigue, which could result in cracks, and loss of elevator and aileron control.
The MCAI requires inspecting the elevator torque tube for cracks and replacing the elevator torque tube is any cracks are found. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Pacific Aerospace Limited (previously Pacific Aerospace Corporation Ltd.) has issued Chapter 27, Flight Controls, dated May 1980, of the Maintenance Manual for the Fletcher FU24 and FU24A Post-954. The information in Chapter 27 of the referenced maintenance manual describes procedures for replacing the elevator torque tube. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are issuing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by the State of Design Authority and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
An unsafe condition exists that requires the immediate adoption of this AD. The FAA has found that the risk to the flying public justifies waiving notice and comment prior to adoption of this rule because there are no airplanes currently on the U.S. registry and thus, does not have any impact upon the public. Therefore, we find that notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary.
This AD is a final rule that involves requirements affecting flight safety, and we did not precede it by notice and opportunity for public comment. We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We estimate that this AD will affect 0 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about .5 work-hour per product to comply with the basic inspection requirement of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the inspection requirement of this AD on U.S. operators to be $42.50 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 4 work-hours and require parts costing $3,012, for a cost of $3,352 per product.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative,
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective September 8, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Pacific Aerospace Limited Models FU24-954 and FU24A-954 airplanes, all serial numbers, that are:
(1) Equipped with an elevator torque tube, part number (P/N) 242837, 242527, 242835, or 242646; and
(2) Certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 27: Flight Controls.
This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as cracks found in the elevator torque tubes. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the elevator torque tube, which could cause loss of elevator and aileron control.
Unless already done, do the following actions.
(1) Within the next 25 hours time-in-service after September 8, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), do a detailed visual inspection of the elevator torque tube for cracks.
(2) Before further flight after the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, replace the elevator torque tube with a serviceable elevator torque tube if any cracks are found. Do the replacement following Chapter 27, Flight Controls, dated May 1980, of the Maintenance Manual for the Fletcher FU24 and FU24A Post-954, Pacific Aerospace Corporation, Ltd.
This AD does not affect the required repetitive inspections of the control column/elevator torque tubes as specified in the FAA-approved maintenance program.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Special flight permits are prohibited.
Refer to MCAI Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) AD No. DCA/FU24/184, dated July 7, 2016, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Chapter 27, Flight Controls, dated May 1980, of the Maintenance Manual for the Fletcher FU24 and FU24A Post-954, Pacific Aerospace Corporation, Ltd.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For Pacific Aerospace Limited (previously Pacific Aerospace Corporation Ltd.) service information identified in this AD, contact Pacific Aerospace Limited, Airport Road, Hamilton, Private Bag 3027, Hamilton 3240, New Zealand; telephone: +64 7 843 6144; facsimile: +64 7 843 6134; email:
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 816-329-4148. It is also available on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 4, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 4, 2016.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part § 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
RESCINDED: On July 11, 2016 (81 FR 44765), the FAA published an Amendment in Docket No. 31082, Amdt No. 3701 to Part 97 of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The following entry, effective July 21, 2016, is hereby rescinded in its entirety:
Hailey, ID, Friedman Memorial, RNAV (GPS) X RWY 31, Amdt 1, CANCELED
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 4, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 4, 2016.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420) Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal regulations, part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 4, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of August 4, 2016.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420) Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK. 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK. 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
This amendment provides the affected CFR sections, and specifies the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs with their applicable effective dates. This amendment also identifies the airport and its location, the procedure and the amendment number.
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective August 4, 2016. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd. Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4,
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving portions of revisions to the Louisiana New Source Review (NSR) State Implementation Plan (SIP) submitted by the Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality. These revisions to the Louisiana SIP provide updates to the minor NSR and nonattainment new source review (NNSR) permit programs in Louisiana contained within the Chapter 5 Permit Procedures and Chapter 6 Regulations on Control of Emissions through the Use of Emission Reduction Credits (ERC) Banking rules.
This final rule is effective on September 6, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R06-OAR-2014-0821. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Stephanie Kordzi, 214-665-7520,
Throughout this document wherever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean the EPA.
The background for this action is discussed in detail in our April 20, 2016, proposal (81 FR 23232). In that document, we proposed to approve portions of ten SIP submittals for the State of Louisiana. These amendments enhance the SIP by (1) defining insignificant activities that will not require permitting; (2) correcting contradictory language in the insignificant activities list; (3) providing edits to the Permit Procedure Rule as requested by the EPA; (4) including procedures for incorporating test results; (5) unifying and streamlining name and ownership changes for all media; and (6) revising references to various LDEQ divisions. This action is being taken under section 110 of the Act. We did not receive any comments regarding our proposal although the LDEQ did send a letter to the EPA on July 14, 2016, to update information on sections 525, 527, and 529.
We are approving the revisions to the Louisiana SIP as proposed in our April 20, 2016, proposal (81 FR 23232), with the exception of sections 525, 527, and 529, as discussed below. This includes SIP submittals from the State of Louisiana submitted on November 15, 1993, November 10, 1994, July 25, 1997, June 22, 1998, June 27, 2003, May 5, 2006, November 9, 2007, August 14, 2009, August 29, 2013, and November 3, 2014. These revisions provide clarity to the rules, correct contradictory language, update permit application and fee requirements, revise the rules to conform to the latest Louisiana laws, and add to the “Insignificant Activities List”. We approve the revisions to the SIP that meet CAA requirements. Specifically, we are approving revisions to the Louisiana SIP pertaining to the following sections:
• LAC 33:III.501 as submitted on November 15, 1993, November 10, 1994, June 22, 1998, June 27, 2003, May 5, 2006, November 9, 2007, August 14, 2009; and November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.502 as submitted on November 15, 1993, and November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.503 as submitted on November 15, 1993, and November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.504 as submitted on November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.511 as submitted on November 15, 1993;
• LAC 33:III.513 as submitted on November 15, 1993, and November 9, 2007;
• LAC 33:III.515 as submitted on November 15, 1993;
• LAC 33:III.517 as submitted on November 15, 1993, November 10, 1994, July 25, 1997, June 22, 1998, and May 5, 2006;
• LAC 33:III.519 as submitted on November 15, 1993;
• LAC 33:III.521 as submitted on November 10, 1994, and May 5, 2006;
• LAC 33:III.523 as submitted on November 15, 1993, August 29, 2013, and November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.601 as submitted on November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.603 as submitted on November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.605 as submitted on November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.607 as submitted on November 3, 2014;
• LAC 33:III.615 as submitted on November 3, 2014; and
• LAC 33:III.619 as submitted on November 3, 2014.
The EPA is not taking final action as proposed on the Louisiana SIP at this time pertaining to the following sections based on LDEQ's letter of July 14, 2016, which withdrew portions of sections 525, 527, and 529 because they apply exclusively to part 70 sources. The letter specifically identified citations that are already approved into Louisiana's Operating Permits program. EPA will take action on the portion of the citations in these sections that have not been withdrawn in a future action:
• LAC 33:III.525 as submitted on November 15, 1993;
• LAC 33:III.527 as submitted on November 15, 1993, and November 10, 1994; and
• LAC 33:III.529 as submitted on November 15, 1993.
This action is being taken under section 110 of the Act.
In this rule, we are finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, we are finalizing the incorporation by reference of the revisions to the Louisiana regulations as described in the Final Action section above. We have made, and will continue to make, these documents generally available electronically through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by October 3, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purpose of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Surface Transportation Board.
Final rule.
The Surface Transportation Board (STB or Board) is adopting a final rule to define “on time” and specify the formula for calculating “on-time performance” for purposes of Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008. The Board will use these regulations only for the purpose of determining whether the “less than 80 percent” threshold that Congress set for bringing an on-time performance complaint has been met. In light of comments received on the Board's notice of proposed rulemaking issued on December 28, 2015, the proposed rule has been modified to deem a train's arrival at, or departure from, a given station “on time” if it occurs no later than 15 minutes after its scheduled time and to adopt an “all-stations” calculation of “on-time performance.”
This rule is effective on August 27, 2016.
Scott M. Zimmerman at (202) 245-0386. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at (800) 877-8339.
The National Railroad Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) was established by Congress in 1970 to preserve passenger services and routes on the Nation's railroads.
Prior to 2008, the Board was not involved in the adjudication of Amtrak's preference rights. The only way that Amtrak could enforce its preference rights was by asking the Attorney General to bring a civil action for equitable relief. 49 U.S.C. 24103. Further, the Secretary of Transportation had the authority under section 24308(c) to grant a host rail carrier relief from the preference obligation and to establish the usage rights between Amtrak and the host carrier if the Secretary found that Amtrak's preference materially lessened the quality of freight transportation provided to shippers. In 2008, Congress enacted Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008 (PRIIA), 49 U.S.C. 24308(f), to address, among other things, the concern that one cause of Amtrak's inability to achieve reliable on-time performance was the failure of host railroads to honor Amtrak's right to preference.
PRIIA also transferred from the Secretary of Transportation to the Board the administration and enforcement of Amtrak's preference rights. Thus, PRIIA amended 49 U.S.C. 24308(c) to provide that: “Except in an emergency, intercity and commuter rail passenger transportation provided by or for Amtrak has preference over freight transportation in using a rail line, junction, or crossing unless
Under Section 213(a) of PRIIA, 49 U.S.C. 24308(f)(1), if the “on-time performance” (OTP) of any intercity passenger train averages less than 80% for any two consecutive calendar quarters, the Board may initiate an investigation, or upon complaint by Amtrak or another eligible complainant, the Board “shall” do so. The purpose of such an investigation is to determine whether and to what extent delays are due to causes that could reasonably be addressed by the passenger rail operator or the host railroad. Following the investigation, should the Board determine that Amtrak's substandard performance is “attributable to” the rail carrier's “failure to provide preference to Amtrak over freight transportation as required” by 49 U.S.C. 24308(c), the Board may “award damages” or other appropriate relief from a host railroad to Amtrak. 49 U.S.C. 24308(f )(2). If the Board finds it appropriate to award damages to Amtrak, Amtrak must use the award “for capital or operating expenditures on the routes over which delays” were the result of the host railroad's failure to grant the statutorily required preference to passenger transportation. 49 U.S.C. 24308(f )(4).
Thus, 49 U.S.C. 24308(f) sets up a two-stage process involving, first, a “less than 80 percent” threshold to indicate whether a train's OTP allows for an investigation; and second, if this prerequisite is satisfied, the Board may investigate (or on complaint, shall investigate) the causes of the deficient OTP, which could lead to findings, recommendations, and other possible relief as detailed in the statute.
On May 15, 2015, the Board instituted this rulemaking proceeding in response to a petition filed by the Association of American Railroads (AAR).
On December 28, 2015, the Board issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) that proposed a definition for OTP derived from a previous definition used by our predecessor, the Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC).
The Board received 121 comments and replies on its proposed rule from the railroad industry (both passenger and freight), states, the U.S. Department of Transportation, elected officials at all levels of government, individual members of the traveling public, and various stakeholder groups.
Shortly after the comment period in this docket closed, in
Although regulatory agencies like the Board typically have the authority to define the terms in provisions of the statutes that they administer, AAR and freight railroad commenters (Canadian National Railway Company (CN), CSX Transportation, Inc. (CSXT), and Norfolk Southern Railway Company (NS)) argue that the Board does not have the authority to define on-time performance because Congress gave that responsibility jointly to Amtrak and FRA in Section 207 of PRIIA. We disagree.
In
CN and AAR in their initial comments (
CN and AAR argue that the issue is not whether section 24308(f) survives if Section 207 of PRIIA is unconstitutional, but whether Congress delegated to the Board in section 24308(f)(1) the authority to define on-time performance. They contend that because Congress explicitly delegated the authority to define on-time performance to FRA and Amtrak in Section 207 of PRIIA, the Board lacks that authority even if FRA and Amtrak are found not to have the legal authority to meet the statutory command.
An agency has implied authority to implement “a particular statutory provision . . . when it appears that Congress delegated authority to the agency generally to make rules carrying the force of law, and that the agency interpretation claiming deference was promulgated in the exercise of that authority.”
Here, as in
Except for the freight railroad industry, virtually all commenters urge the Board to define “on time” based on train punctuality at all stations, rather than just at the endpoints (as originally proposed), because the majority of the traveling public are destined for intermediate rather than endpoint stations. (
As the freight railroads point out, and as FRA and Amtrak themselves acknowledged in their final metrics and standards under PRIIA Section 207 (in which they deferred application of an all-stations test for OTP for two years to allow for schedule adjustments), some schedules, particularly for long-distance trains, may need to be modified to more realistically distribute recovery time in light of an all-stations threshold. (
Several freight railroads and AAR claim that if the Board does not account for the problems with the schedules and simply relies on the published schedules as they are, it could result in an avalanche of complaints and “false positives”—trains that technically fall below the OTP threshold but are not necessarily poor performers because the schedules are allegedly “unrealistic.” (
Finally, some commenters (
Although the Board understands that concern, the attribution of delays to hosts and specific causes more properly pertains to—indeed, would likely be among the initial topics addressed in—the investigatory phase of a case. Moreover, the statutory mandate (49 U.S.C. 24308(f)) specifically refers to the “on-time performance of any intercity passenger train,” irrespective of the number of host carriers involved in the
The changes adopted in this final rule will lessen the potential impact of this issue. Endpoint OTP, as proposed in the NPRM, would not have included any train that does not serve both its scheduled endpoints. By contrast, under the all-stations calculation method, every departure from origin and every arrival at subsequent stations that actually occurs—regardless of whether the train originates at its scheduled origin or completes its run to its scheduled destination—will enter into the denominator. The Board will exclude, from its prescribed calculation method, only trains that do not operate at all, or stations on a curtailed train's route that do not actually receive service. This is consistent with the statute, which provides that Congressionally-mandated investigations in 49 U.S.C. 24308(f)(1) should analyze “delays” (not cancellations). In addition, in a train operation that does not take place, there typically would be no practical way to determine whether preference (the focus of 49 U.S.C. 24308(f)(2)) was granted or withheld. Finally, because Amtrak generally cancels or curtails its services only in the event of emergencies or extreme weather events (such as the severe flooding in South Carolina in the Fall of 2015), it is doubtful that inclusion of such incidents in the denominator of the calculation would shed light on what is taking place under typical operating conditions for a particular train. To clarify this point, language is being added to the final rule making clear that the OTP calculation includes only “actual” arrivals and departures.
Additional issues, including the following, were raised by certain commenters, but the issues are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
For the reasons discussed above, we are modifying the rule as initially proposed and adopting the all-stations approach. This approach will be codified at 49 CFR 1040. The final regulations are attached at the end of this decision.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, generally requires a description and analysis of new rules that would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. In drafting a rule, an agency is required to: (1) Assess the effect that its regulation will have on small entities; (2) analyze effective alternatives that may minimize a regulation's impact; and (3) make the analysis available for public comment. 5 U.S.C. 601-604. Under section 605(b), an agency is not required to perform an initial or final regulatory flexibility analysis if it certifies that the proposed or final rules will not have a “significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.”
Because the goal of the RFA is to reduce the cost to small entities of complying with federal regulations, the RFA requires an agency to perform a regulatory flexibility analysis of small entity impacts only when a rule directly regulates those entities. In other words, the impact must be a direct impact on small entities “whose conduct is circumscribed or mandated” by the proposed rule.
In the NPRM, the Board already certified under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the RFA. The Board explained that the proposed rule would not place any additional burden on small entities, but rather clarify an existing obligation. The Board further explained that, even assuming for the sake of argument that the proposed regulation were to create an impact on small entities, which it would not, the number of small entities so affected would not be substantial. A copy of the
The final rule adopted here uses a different measure of “on time” and “on-time performance” for purposes of Section 213 of PRIIA than those proposed in the NPRM. However, the same basis for the Board's certification of the proposed rule applies to the final rule adopted here. The final rule would not create a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. Host carriers have been required to allow Amtrak to operate over their rail lines since the 1970s. Moreover, an investigation concerning delays to intercity passenger traffic is a function of Section 213 of PRIIA rather than this rulemaking. The final rule only defines “on-time performance” for the purpose of implementing the rights and obligations already established in Section 213 of PRIIA. Thus, the rule does not place any additional burden on small entities, but rather clarifies an existing obligation. Moreover, even assuming, for the sake of argument, that the final rule were to create an impact on small entities, which it does not, the number of small entities so affected would not be substantial. The final rule applies in proceedings involving Amtrak, currently the only provider of intercity passenger rail transportation subject to PRIIA, and its host railroads. For almost all of its operations, Amtrak's host carriers are Class I rail carriers, which are not small businesses under the Board's new definition for RFA purposes.
The final rule is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c).
On-time performance of intercity passenger rail service.
1. The final rule set forth below is adopted and will be effective on August 27, 2016. Notice of the rule adopted here will be published in the
2. A copy of this decision will be served upon the Chief Counsel for Advocacy, Office of Advocacy, U.S. Small Business Administration.
3. This decision is effective on the date of service.
Decided: July 28, 2016.
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Surface Transportation Board amends title 49, chapter X, subchapter A, of the Code of Federal Regulations by adding part 1040 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 1321 and 24308(f).
This part defines “on time” and specifies the formula for calculating on-time performance for the purpose of implementing Section 213 of the Passenger Rail Investment and Improvement Act of 2008, 49 U.S.C. 24308(f).
An intercity passenger train's arrival at, or departure from, a given station is on time if it occurs no later than 15 minutes after its scheduled time.
In any given calendar quarter, an intercity passenger train's on-time performance shall be the percentage equivalent to the fraction calculated using the following formula:
(a) The denominator shall be the total number of the train's actual: Departures from its origin station, arrivals at all intermediate stations, and arrivals at its destination station, during that calendar quarter; and
(b) The numerator shall be the total number of the train's actual: Departures from its origin station, arrivals at all intermediate stations, and arrivals at its destination station, during that calendar quarter, that are on time as defined in § 1040.2.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final determination.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), determine the critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (
This final determination confirms the effective date of the final rule published at 61 FR 26256 and effective on June 24, 1996, as revised at 76 FR 61599, and effective on November 4, 2011.
This final rule is available on the internet at
Eric V. Rickerson, State Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Washington Fish and Wildlife Office, 510 Desmond Drive SE., Suite 102, Lacey, WA 98503-1273 (telephone 360-753-9440, facsimile 360-753-9008); Paul Henson, State Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Oregon Fish and Wildlife Office, 2600 SE 98th Avenue, Suite 100, Portland, OR 97266, telephone 503-231-6179, facsimile 503-231-6195; Bruce Bingham, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Arcata Fish and Wildlife Office, 1655 Heindon Road, Arcata, CA 95521, telephone 707-822-7201, facsimile 707-822-8411; Jennifer Norris, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Sacramento Fish and Wildlife Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Room W-2605, Sacramento, CA 95825, telephone 916-414-6700, facsimile 916-414-6713; or Stephen P. Henry, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Ventura Fish and Wildlife Office, 2493 Portola Road, Suite B, Ventura, CA 93003, telephone 805-644-1766, facsimile 805-644-3958. If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD), call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
For additional information on previous Federal actions concerning the marbled murrelet, refer to the final listing rule published in the
On September 12, 2006, we published in the
On July 31, 2008, we published in the
On October 5, 2011, we published in the
On January 24, 2012, AFRC filed suit against the Service to delist the marbled murrelet and vacate critical habitat. On March 30, 2013, the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia granted in part AFRC's motion for summary judgment and denied a joint motion for vacatur of critical habitat pending completion of a voluntary remand. Following this ruling, the Service moved for a remand of the critical habitat rule, without vacatur, in light of recent case law setting more stringent requirements on the Service for specifying how designated areas meet the definition of critical habitat. On September 5, 2013, the district court ordered the voluntary remand without vacatur of the critical habitat rule, and set deadlines of September 30, 2015, for a proposed rule and September 30, 2016, for a final rule. The court ruled in favor of the Service regarding the Service's denial of plaintiffs' petition to delist the species, and that ruling was affirmed on appeal. See
The Service, in conjunction with the National Marine Fisheries Service, published a rule revising 50 CFR 424.12, the criteria for designating critical habitat, on February 11, 2016 (81 FR 7413); the rule became effective on March 14, 2016. The revised regulations clarify, interpret, and implement portions of the Act concerning the procedures and criteria used for adding species to the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants and designating and revising critical habitat. Specifically, the amendments make minor edits to the scope and purpose, add and remove some definitions, and clarify the criteria and procedures for designating critical habitat. These amendments are intended to clarify expectations regarding critical habitat and provide for a more predictable and transparent critical habitat designation process.
As stated in the revised version of § 424.12, the regulatory provisions in that section apply only to rulemaking actions for which the proposed rule is published after that effective date. Thus, the prior version of § 424.12 will continue to apply to any rulemaking actions for which a proposed rule was published before that date. Since the proposed rule for marbled murrelet critical habitat was published on August 25, 2015, this final rule follows the version of § 424.12 that was in effect prior to March 14, 2016.
Based upon our evaluation of the best scientific data available and considering all information and comments received during the public comment period, we conclude that our evaluation and description of how all areas currently designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the statutory definition under the Act is accurate as described in the proposed rule. Furthermore, we conclude that our description of the probable incremental impacts of our proposed rulemaking is accurate as described in the proposed rule. Therefore, there are no changes from the proposed rule in this final rule.
A final rule designating critical habitat for the marbled murrelet was published in the
In this document, we have reconsidered our previous critical habitat designation for the marbled murrelet (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, as revised on October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599). The current designation consists of approximately 3,698,100 ac (1,497,000 ha) of critical habitat in Washington, Oregon, and California. The critical habitat consists of 101 subunits: 37 in Washington, 33 in Oregon, and 31 in California. We have reconsidered the final rule for the purpose of evaluating whether all areas currently designated meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act. We have described and assessed each of the elements of the definition of critical habitat, and evaluated whether these statutory criteria apply to the current designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. Here we present the following information relevant to our evaluation:
I. The statutory definition of critical habitat.
II. A description of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet, for the purpose of evaluating whether the areas designated as critical habitat provide these essential features.
III. The primary constituent elements for the marbled murrelet.
IV. A description of why those primary constituent elements may require special management considerations or protection.
V. Our standard for defining the geographical areas occupied by the species at the time of listing.
VI. The evaluation of those specific areas within the geographical area occupied at the time of listing for the purpose of determining whether designated critical habitat meets the definition under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act.
VII. An additional evaluation of all critical habitat to determine whether the designated units meet the standard of being essential to the conservation of the species, under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act. We conducted this analysis to assess whether all areas of critical habitat meet the statutory definition under either of the definition's prongs, regardless of occupancy. This approach is consistent with the ruling in
VIII. Restated correction to preamble language in 1996 critical habitat rule.
IX. Effects of critical habitat designation under section 7 of the Act.
X. As required by section 4(b)(2) of the Act, consideration of the potential economic impacts of the rule.
XI. Final determination that all areas currently designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the statutory definition under the Act.
XII. Summary of Comments and Responses
Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the Act as:
(1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features.
(a) Essential to the conservation of the species, and
(b) Which may require special management considerations or protection; and
(2) Specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.
Under the first prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat in section 3(5)(a)(i), areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed may be included in critical habitat if they contain physical or biological features: (1) Which are essential to the conservation of the species; and (2) which may require special management considerations or protection. For these areas, critical habitat designations identify, to the extent known using the best scientific data available, those physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the species (such as space, food, cover, and protected habitat). In identifying those physical and biological features within an area, we focus on the primary biological or physical constituent elements (primary constituent elements such as roost sites, nesting grounds, seasonal wetlands, water quality, tide, soil type) that are essential to the conservation of the species. Primary constituent elements (PCEs) are those specific elements of the physical or biological features that provide for a species' life-history processes and are essential to the conservation of the species.
Under the second prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat in section 3(5)(A)(ii), we can designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon the Secretary's determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species. For example, an area currently occupied by the species but that was not occupied at the time of listing may be essential for the conservation of the species and may be included in the critical habitat designation. In addition, if critical habitat is designated or revised subsequent to listing, we may designate areas as critical habitat that may currently be unoccupied but that were occupied at the time of listing. We designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area presently occupied by a species only when a designation limited to its present range would be inadequate to ensure the conservation of the species.
We identified the specific physical or biological features essential for the conservation of the marbled murrelet from studies of this species' habitat, ecology, and life history as described below. Additional information can be found in the final listing rule published in the
Where newer scientific information is available that refutes or validates the information presented in the 1996 final critical habitat rule, that information is provided here and is so noted. However, this final rule does not constitute a complete summary of all new scientific information on the biology of the marbled murrelet since 1996. Because this rule reconsideration addresses the 1996 final critical habitat, as revised in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599), which designated critical habitat only in the terrestrial environment, the following section will solely focus on the terrestrial nesting habitat features. Forested areas with conditions that are capable of supporting nesting marbled murrelets are referred to as “suitable nesting habitat.” Loss of such nesting habitat was the primary basis for listing the marbled murrelet as threatened; hence protection of such habitat is essential to the conservation of the species. We consider the information provided here to represent the best available scientific data with regard to the physical or biological features essential for the marbled murrelet's use of terrestrial habitat.
Throughout the forested portion of the species' range, marbled murrelets typically nest in forested areas containing characteristics of older forests (Binford
Individual tree attributes that provide conditions suitable for nesting (
Northwestern forests and trees typically require 200 to 250 years to attain the attributes necessary to support marbled murrelet nesting, although characteristics of nesting habitat sometimes develop in younger coastal redwood (
Through the 1995 nesting season, 59 active or previously used tree nests had been located in Washington (9 nests), Oregon (36 nests), and California (14 nests) (Hamer and Nelson 1995, pp. 70-71; Nelson and Wilson 2002, p. 134; Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife murrelet database; California Department of Fish and Game murrelet database). All of the nests for which data were available in 1996 in Washington, Oregon, and California were in large trees that were more than 32 in (81 cm) dbh (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). Of the 33 nests for which data were available, 73 percent were on a moss substrate and 27 percent were on litter, such as bark pieces, conifer needles, small twigs, or duff (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). The majority of nest platforms were created by large or deformed branches (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 79). Nests found subsequently have characteristics generally consistent with these tree diameter and platform sources (McShane
More than 94 percent of the nests for which data were available in 1996 were in the top half of the nest trees, which may allow easy nest access and provide shelter from potential predators and weather. Canopy cover directly over the nests was typically high (average 84 percent; range 5 to 100 percent) in Washington, Oregon, and California (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 74). This cover may provide protection from predators and weather. Such canopy cover may be provided by trees adjacent to the nest tree, or by the nest tree itself. Canopy closure of the nest stand/site varied between 12 and 99 percent and averaged 48 percent (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 73). Information gathered subsequent to 1996 confirms that additional attributes of the platform are important including both vertical and horizontal cover and substrate. Known nest sites have platforms that are generally protected by branches above (vertical cover) or to the side (horizontal cover) (Huff
Nests have been located in forested areas dominated by coastal redwood, Douglas-fir (
For nesting habitat to be accessible to marbled murrelets, it must occur close enough to the marine environment for marbled murrelets to fly back and forth. The farthest inland distance for a site with nesting behavior detections is 52 mi (84 km) in Washington. The farthest known inland sites with nesting behavior detections in Oregon and California are 40 and 24 mi (65 and 39 km), respectively (Evans Mack
Prior to Euroamerican settlement in the Pacific Northwest, nesting habitat for the marbled murrelet was well distributed, particularly in the wetter portions of its range in Washington, Oregon, and California. This habitat was generally found in large, contiguous blocks of forest (Ripple 1994, p. 47) as described under the
Areas where marbled murrelets are concentrated at sea during the breeding season are likely determined by a combination of terrestrial and marine conditions. However, nesting habitat appears to be the most important factor affecting marbled murrelet distribution and numbers. Marine survey data confirmed conclusions made in the supplemental proposed critical habitat rule (August 10, 1995; 60 FR 40892) that marine observations of marbled murrelets during the nesting season generally correspond to the largest remaining blocks of suitable forest nesting habitat (Nelson
Consistent with Varoujean
In contrast, where nesting habitat is limited in southwest Washington, northwest Oregon, and portions of California, few marbled murrelets are found at sea during the nesting season (Ralph and Miller 1995, p. 358; Varoujean and Williams 1995, p. 336; Thompson 1996, p. 11). For instance, as of 1996, the area between the Olympic Peninsula in Washington and Tillamook County in Oregon (100 mi (160 km)) had few sites with detections indicative of nesting behavior or sightings at sea of marbled murrelets. In California, approximately 300 mi (480 km) separate the large breeding populations to the north in Humboldt and Del Norte Counties from the southern breeding population in San Mateo and Santa Cruz Counties. This reach contained few marbled murrelets during the breeding season; however, the area likely contained significant numbers of marbled murrelets before extensive logging (Paton and Ralph 1988, p. 11, Larsen 1991, pp. 15-17). More recent at-sea surveys confirm the low numbers of marbled murrelets in marine areas adjacent to inland areas that have limited nesting habitat (Miller
Dispersal mechanisms of marbled murrelets are not well understood; however, social interactions may play an important role. The presence of marbled murrelets in a forest stand may attract other pairs to currently unused habitat within the vicinity. This may be one of the reasons marbled murrelets have been observed in habitat not currently suitable for nesting, but in close proximity to known nesting sites (Hamer and Cummins 1990, p. 14; Hamer
Marbled murrelets are believed to be highly vulnerable to predation when on the nesting grounds, and the species has evolved a variety of morphological and behavioral characteristics indicative of selection pressures from predation (Ralph
From 1974 through 1993, of those marbled murrelet nests in Washington, Oregon, and California where nest success or failure was documented, approximately 64 percent of the nests failed. Of those nests, 57 percent failed due to predation (Nelson and Hamer 1995b, p. 93). Continuing research further supports predation as a significant cause of nest failure (McShane
Several possible reasons exist for the high observed predation rates of marbled murrelet nests. One possibility is that these high predation rates are normal, although it is unlikely that a stable population could have been maintained historically under the predation rates observed (Beissinger 1995, p. 390).
In the 1996 rule we hypothesized that populations of marbled murrelet predators such as corvids (jays, crows, and ravens) and great horned owls are increasing in the western United States,
In the 1996 rule, we also posited that creation of greater amounts of forest edge habitat may increase the vulnerability of marbled murrelet nests to predation and ultimately lead to higher rates of predation. Edge effects have been implicated in increased forest bird nest predation rates for other species of birds (Chasko and Gates 1982, pp. 21-23; Yahner and Scott 1988, p. 160). In a comprehensive review of the many studies on the potential relationship between forest fragmentation, edge, and adverse effects on forest nesting birds, Paton (1994, p. 25) concluded that “strong evidence exists that avian nest success declines near edges.” Small patches of habitat have a greater proportion of edge than do large patches of the same shape. However, many of the studies Paton (1994, entire) reviewed involved lands where forests and agricultural or urban areas interface, or they involved experiments with ground nests that are not readily applicable to canopy nesters such as marbled murrelets. Paton (1994, p. 25), therefore, stressed the need for studies specific to forests fragmented by timber harvest in the Pacific Northwest and elsewhere.
Some research on this topic has been conducted in areas dominated by timber production and using nests located off the ground (Ratti and Reese 1988, entire; Rudnicky and Hunter 1993, entire; Marzluff
Studies of artificial and natural nests conducted in Pacific Northwest forests also indicate that predation of forest bird nests may be affected by habitat fragmentation, forest management, and land development (Hansen
More recent information indicates that marbled murrelets locate their nests throughout forest stands and fragments, including along various types of natural and human-made edges (Hamer and Meekins 1999, p. 1; Manley 1999, p. 66; Bradley 2002, pp. 42, 44; Burger 2002, p. 48; Nelson and Wilson 2002, p. 98). In California and southern Oregon, areas with abundant numbers of marbled murrelets were farther from roads, occurred more often in parks protected from logging, and were less likely to occupy old-growth habitat if they were isolated (greater than 3 mi (5 km)) from other nesting marbled murrelets (Meyer
The conversion of large tracts of native forest to small, isolated forest patches with large edge can create changes in microclimate, vegetation species, and predator-prey dynamics—such changes are often collectively referred to as “edge effects.” Unfragmented, older-aged forests have lower temperatures and solar radiation and higher humidity compared to clearcuts and other open areas (
A large body of research indicates that marbled murrelet productivity is greatest in large, complex-structured forests far from human activity due to the reduced levels of predation present in such landscapes. Marbled murrelet productivity is lowest in fragmented
In addition to studies of edge effects, some research initiated prior to 1996 looked at the importance of stand size. Among all Pacific Northwest birds, the marbled murrelet is considered to be one of the most sensitive to forest fragmentation (Hansen and Urban 1992, p. 168). Marbled murrelet nest stand size in Washington, Oregon, and California varied between 7 and 2,717 ac (3 and 1,100 ha) and averaged 509 ac (206 ha) (Hamer and Nelson 1995, p. 73). Nelson and Hamer (1995b, p. 96) found that successful marbled murrelets tended to nest in larger stands than did unsuccessful marbled murrelets, but these results were not statistically significant. Miller and Ralph (1995, entire) compared marbled murrelet survey detection rates among four stand size classes in California. Recording a relatively consistent trend, they observed that a higher percentage of large stands (33.3 percent) had nesting behavior detections when compared to smaller stands (19.8 percent), while a greater percentage of the smallest stands (63.9 percent) had no presence or nesting behavior detections when compared to the largest stands (52.4 percent) (Miller and Ralph 1995, pp. 210-212). However, these results were not statistically significant, and the authors did not conclude that marbled murrelets preferentially select or use larger stands. The authors suggested the effects of stand size on marbled murrelet presence and use may be masked by other factors such as stand history and proximity of a stand to other old-growth stands. Rodway
In addition to stand size, general landscape condition may influence the degree to which marbled murrelets nest in an area. In Washington, marbled murrelet detections increased when old-growth/mature forests make up more than 30 percent of the landscape (Hamer and Cummins 1990, p. 43). Hamer and Cummins (1990, p. 43) found that detections of marbled murrelets decreased in Washington when the percentage of clear-cut/meadow in the landscape increased above 25 percent. Additionally, Raphael
In summary, the best scientific information available strongly suggests that marbled murrelet reproductive success may be adversely affected by forest fragmentation associated with either natural disturbances, such as severe fire or windthrow, or certain land management practices, generally associated with timber harvest or clearing of forest. Based on this information, the Service concluded that the maintenance and development of suitable habitat in relatively large contiguous blocks as described in the 1996 rule and the draft Marbled Murrelet (Washington, Oregon, and California Population) Recovery Plan (draft recovery plan) (USFWS 1995, pp. 70-71, finalized in 1997) would contribute to the recovery of the marbled murrelet. These blocks of habitat should contain the structural features and spatial heterogeneity naturally found at the landscape level, the stand level, and the individual tree level in Pacific Northwest forest ecosystems (Hansen
Therefore, based on the information presented in the 1996 final critical habitat rule and more recent data that continue to confirm the conclusions drawn in that rule, we consider the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet to include forests that are capable of providing the characteristics required for successful nesting by marbled murrelets. Such forests are typically coniferous forests in contiguous stands with large core areas of old-growth or trees with old-growth characteristics and a low ratio of edge to interior. However, due to timber harvest history we recognize that, in some areas, such as south of Cape Mendocino in California, coniferous forests with relatively smaller core areas of old-growth or trees with old-growth characteristics are essential for the conservation of the marbled murrelet because they are all that remain on the landscape. Forests capable of providing for successful nesting throughout the range of the listed DPS are typically dominated by coastal redwood, Douglas-fir, mountain hemlock, Sitka spruce, western hemlock, or western red cedar, and must be within flight distance to marine foraging areas for marbled murrelets.
The most important characteristic of marbled murrelet nesting habitat is the presence of nest platforms. These structures are typically found in old-growth and mature forests, but can also be found in a variety of forest types including younger forests containing remnant large trees. Potential nesting areas may contain fewer than one suitable nesting tree per acre and nest trees may be scattered or clumped throughout the area. Large areas of unfragmented forest are necessary to minimize edge effects and reduce the impacts of nest predators to increase the probability of nest success. Forests are dynamic systems that occur on the landscape in a mosaic of successional stages, both as the result of natural disturbances (fire, windthrow) or anthropogenic management (timber harvest). On a landscape basis, forests with a canopy height of at least one-half the site-potential tree height in proximity to potential nest trees contribute to the conservation of the marbled murrelet. Trees of at least one-half the site-potential height are tall enough to reach up into the lower canopy of nest trees, which provides nesting murrelets more cover from predation. The site-potential tree height
As stated above under Previous Federal Actions, the rule revising 50 CFR 424.12 was published on February 11, 2016 (81 FR 7413), and became effective on March 14, 2016, and the revised version of § 424.12 applies only to rulemakings for which the proposed rule is published after that date. Thus, the prior version of § 424.12 will continue to apply to any rulemakings for which a proposed rule was published before that date. Because the proposed rule for marbled murrelet critical habitat was published on August 25, 2015, this final rule follows the version of § 424.12 that was in effect prior to March 14, 2016.
According to 50 CFR 424.12(b), we are required to identify the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet within the geographical area occupied at the time of listing, focusing on the “primary constituent elements” (PCEs) of those features. We consider PCEs to be those specific elements of the physical or biological features that provide for a species' life-history processes and are essential to the conservation of the species. For the marbled murrelet, those life-history processes associated with terrestrial habitat are specifically related to nesting. Therefore, as previously described in our designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (61 FR 26256; May 24, 1996), and further supported by more recent information, our designation of critical habitat focused on the following PCEs specific to the marbled murrelet:
(1) Individual trees with potential nesting platforms, and
(2) forested areas within 0.5 mile (0.8 kilometer) of individual trees with potential nesting platforms, and with a canopy height of at least one-half the site-potential tree height. This includes all such forest, regardless of contiguity.
These PCEs are essential to provide and support suitable nesting habitat for successful reproduction of the marbled murrelet.
In our evaluation of whether the current designation meets the statutory definition of critical habitat, we assessed not only whether the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing contain the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species, but also whether those features may require special management considerations or protection. Here we describe the special management considerations or protections that apply to the physical or biological features and PCEs identified for the marbled murrelet.
As discussed above and in the 1996 final rule designating critical habitat (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26261-26263), marbled murrelets are found in forests containing a variety of forest structure, which is in part the result of varied management practices and natural disturbance (Hansen
Current and historical loss of marbled murrelet nesting habitat is generally attributed to timber harvest and land conversion practices, although, in some areas, natural catastrophic disturbances such as forest fires have caused losses (Hansen
Some of the forests that were affected by past natural disturbances, such as forest fires and windthrow, currently provide suitable nesting habitat for marbled murrelets because they retain scattered individual or clumps of large trees that provide structure for nesting (Hansen
Within the range of the marbled murrelet on Federal lands, the Northwest Forest Plan (NWFP) (USDA and USDI 1994, entire) designated a system of Late Successional Reserves (LSRs), which provides large areas expected to eventually develop into contiguous, unfragmented forest. In addition to LSRs, the NWFP designated a system of Adaptive Management Areas, where efforts focus on answering management questions, and matrix areas, where most forest production occurs. Administratively withdrawn lands, as described in the individual National Forest or BLM land use plans, are also part of the NWFP.
In the 1996 final rule, we acknowledged the value of implementation of the NWFP as an integral role in marbled murrelet conservation. As a result, designated critical habitat on lands within the NWFP area administered by the National Forests and BLM was congruent with LSRs. These areas, as managed under the NWFP, should develop into large blocks of suitable murrelet nesting habitat given sufficient
In some areas, the large blocks of Federal land under the NWFP are presently capable of providing the necessary contribution for recovery of the species. However, the marbled murrelet's range includes areas that are south of the range of the northern spotted owl (the focus of the NWFP), where Federal lands are subject to timber harvest. Therefore, the critical habitat designated on Federal lands outside of the NWFP also require special management considerations or protection to enhance or restore the old-growth characteristics required for nesting by marbled murrelets, and to attain the large blocks of contiguous habitat necessary to reduce edge effects and predation.
In the 1996 critical habitat rule (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256), the Service designated selected non-Federal lands that met the requirements identified in the Criteria for Identifying Critical Habitat section, in those areas where Federal lands alone were insufficient to provide suitable nesting habitat for the recovery of the species. For example, State lands were considered to be particularly important in southwestern Washington, northwestern Oregon, and in California south of Cape Mendocino. Small segments of county lands were also included in northwestern Oregon and central California. Some private lands were designated as critical habitat because they provided essential elements and occurred where Federal lands were, and continue to be, very limited, although suitable habitat on private land is typically much more limited than on public lands. In California, south of Cape Mendocino, State, county, city, and private lands contain the last remnants of nesting habitat for the southernmost population of murrelets, which is the smallest, most isolated, and most susceptible to extirpation. All of the non-Federal lands have been and continue to be subject to some amount of timber harvest and habitat fragmentation and lower habitat effectiveness due to human activity. Therefore, all non-Federal lands within the designation require special management considerations or protection to preserve suitable nesting habitat where it is already present, and to provide for the development of suitable nesting habitat in areas currently in early successional stages.
In summary, areas that provide the essential physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet may require special management considerations or protection. Because succession has been set back or fragmentation has occurred due to either natural or anthropogenic disturbance, those essential features may require special management considerations or protections to promote the development of the large, contiguous blocks of unfragmented, undisturbed coniferous forest with old-growth characteristics (
Critical habitat is defined as “the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed” under section (3)(5)(A)(i) of the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species and which may require special management considerations or protection. For the purposes of critical habitat, the Service must first determine what constitutes the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing. We consider this to be a relatively broad-scale determination, as the wording of the Act clearly indicates that the specific areas that constitute critical habitat will be found within some larger geographical area. We consider the “geographical area occupied by the species” at the time of listing, for the purposes of section 3(5)(A)(i), to be the area that may be broadly delineated around the occurrences of a species, or generally equivalent to what is commonly understood as the “range” of the species. We consider a species occurrence to be a particular location in which individuals of the species are found throughout all or part of their life cycle, even if not used on a regular basis (
Within the listed DPS, at-sea observations indicate marbled murrelets use the marine environment along the Pacific Coast from the British Columbia, Canada/Washington border south to the Mexico/California border. Because they must fly back and forth to the nest from their marine foraging areas, marbled murrelets use inland areas for nesting that are nearby to those areas used by the species offshore. The inland extent of terrestrial habitat use varies from north to south and depends upon the presence of nesting structures in relation to marine foraging areas. Marbled murrelets have been detected as far inland as 70 miles (mi) (113 kilometers (km)) in Washington, but the inland extent narrows going south, where marbled murrelets generally occur within 25 mi (40 km) of the coast in California. At a broad scale, the geographical area occupied by the listed DPS of the marbled murrelet at the time of listing includes the west coast from the British Columbia, Canada/Washington border south to the Mexico/California border, ranging inland from approximately 70 mi (113 km) in Washington to roughly 25 mi (40 km) of the coast in California. However, the inland nesting habitat extends southward in California only to just south of Monterey Bay. Occurrence data that supports this geographic range includes at-sea surveys, radar detections, radio-telemetry studies, and audiovisual surveys.
At the time the marbled murrelet was listed (October 1, 1992; 57 FR 45328), occurrence data were very limited. However, the geographic range was generally known at that time, with the exception of the exact inland extent.
We now describe what is known about marbled murrelet use of the critical habitat subunits that were designated in 1996, as revised in 2011. In 1996, only terrestrial areas were
At the landscape scale, marbled murrelets show fidelity to marine foraging areas and may return to specific watersheds for nesting (Nelson 1997, pp. 13, 16-17, 20; Cam
Not all survey data are indicative of nesting. The specific types of data that we relied upon include audiovisual surveys and specific nest locations, which may have been located through radio-telemetry studies, tree climbing, chicks on the ground, or eggshell fragments. Audiovisual surveys result in a variety of detections, only some of which are specific indicators of nesting behavior tied to the area being surveyed. The types of behaviors that are indicative of nesting include: sub-canopy behaviors, circling above the canopy, and stationary calling. Other types of detections, such as radar and fly-overs observed during audiovisual surveys, provide information regarding the general use of an area, but generally do not tie the observed individual(s) to a specific forested area (Evans Mack
There continue to be gaps in our knowledge of marbled murrelet use in the terrestrial environment. Surveys are site/project specific and generally have been conducted for the purposes of allowing timber harvest. Surveys not conducted in adherence to the strict protocol may have missed nesting behaviors due to the cryptic nature of marbled murrelets and their nests. For example, a single visit to a location where marbled murrelets are present has only a 55 percent chance of detecting marbled murrelets (Evans Mack
We consider the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing for the purposes of critical habitat to be equivalent to the nesting range of the marbled murrelet, for the reasons described above. However, it is important to note that, at the time of listing, we may not have had data that definitively demonstrated the presence of nesting murrelets within each specific area designated as critical habitat. Some of these areas still lack adequate survey information. Yet because these areas fall within the broader nesting range of the species, we consider them to have been occupied at the time of listing. For the purposes of clarity, we further evaluated the specific areas within that broader geographic range to determine whether we have documented detections of behaviors indicative of nesting by the marbled murrelet at the scale of each subunit. The following types of data are indicative of the marbled murrelet's use of forested areas for nesting and will be relied upon to make the determination of whether we have documentation of nesting behavior by critical habitat subunit:
(a)
(1) Audiovisual surveys conducted according to the Pacific Seabird Group (PSG) survey protocol (Evans Mack
(2) Nest locations obtained through radio-telemetry tracking, tree climbing, eggshell fragments, and chicks on the ground.
(b)
Radar-based marbled murrelet detections and presence-only detections (such as flying over or heard only) resulting from audiovisual surveys were not used to classify a subunit as positive in terms of nesting behavior detections. Even though these detections indicate use of an area by marbled murrelets, these types of detections do not link murrelet nesting to specific areas of forested habitat.
In Washington and California, occurrence data, including nest locations and audiovisual survey data, are maintained in State wildlife agency databases. The Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife marbled murrelet data was obtained by the Service on June 19, 2014, and includes data collected through 2013. The California Department of Fish and Wildlife's marbled murrelet occurrence database, as currently maintained by the Arcata Fish and Wildlife Office, was accessed on February 5, 2015. The database includes information on some surveys conducted through 2006, with one observation from 2014, but is incomplete for the State. Audiovisual surveys in Oregon are not maintained in a centralized database. The Service, through a cooperative agreement, provided funds to the Oregon State University to obtain and collate Oregon survey data. The data provided to the Service included surveys through 2003, mainly on Federal lands. Additionally, the BLM and Oregon Department of Forestry provided a summary of current survey data, as of March 2015, within critical habitat in Oregon. Survey data for private lands in Oregon were not available.
We have determined that all 101 subunits designated as critical habitat in 1996, as revised in 2011, are within the geographical range occupied by the species at the time of listing, and all 101 subunits contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species. Evidence of the presence of PCEs is based on nests located within a subunit, nesting behavior detections, audiovisual survey station placements (generally surveys are conducted only if there are nesting platforms present in the forested area), and specific forest inventory data. All of these forms of evidence point to the presence of PCE 1, nesting platforms, within the subunit, as well as the presence of PCE 2. In addition, within all 101 subunits, the essential physical or biological features and PCEs may require special management considerations or protection, as described above, because these subunits have received or continue to receive some level of timber harvest, fragmentation of the forested landscape, and reduced habitat effectiveness from human activity. Therefore, all 101 subunits meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act.
Of the 101 subunits, 78 (all critical habitat subunits except for those identified in Table 1, below) have either specific nesting behavior detection data within the subunit or forested areas within the subunit that are contiguous with forested areas within which nesting behaviors have been observed. In total, the 78 subunits with nesting behavior detections account for 3,335,400 ac (1,349,800 ha), or 90 percent of the total designation. These 78 subunits all contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protection, as described above, because these subunits have received or continue to receive some level of timber harvest, fragmentation of the forested landscape, and reduced habitat effectiveness from human activity. Therefore, we conclude that these 78 subunits meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act.
There are 23 subunits that did not have data indicating marbled murrelet nesting behaviors at the time of listing (Table 1). All of these subunits, however, are within the range of the species at the time of listing, and, hence, we consider them to be occupied. Of these 23 subunits, 2 are in Washington, 5 are in Oregon, and 16 are in California, totaling up to 362,600 ac (145,800 ha) or 10 percent of the designation. We have determined that all 23 subunits contain the essential physical or biological features and PCEs based on specific forest inventory data and audiovisual survey station placements. Only 7 of these 23 subunits have received partial or complete surveys to determine use by marbled murrelets. Very limited inland distribution information was available when the species was listed (1992) and in 1996 when critical habitat was designated (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, pp. 26269-26270). However, continued survey efforts have filled in gaps in the distribution that were not known at the time of listing. For example, as of June 2014, the Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife murrelet detection database contained 5,225 nesting behavior detections. Of these 5,225 detections, only 254 were from surveys before 1992, and only 2,149 were prior to 1996. Therefore, our opinion is that, had surveys been conducted in many of these 23 subunits, nesting behaviors would likely have been detected.
Even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied at the time of listing because we do not have specific documentation of nesting behaviors, the Act permits designation of such areas as critical habitat if they are essential for the conservation of the species. We evaluated whether each of these 23 subunits are essential for the conservation of the species. In this evaluation we considered: (1) The importance of the areas to the future recovery of the species; (2) whether the areas have or are capable of providing the essential physical or biological features; and (3) whether the areas provide connectivity between marine and terrestrial habitats. As stated above, we determined that all 23 subunits contain the physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet; therefore, all 23 subunits provide essential nesting habitat that is currently limited on the landscape. In particular, 13 subunits in California that are south of Cape Mendocino contain the last remnants of nesting habitat in that part of California. All 101 designated subunits work together to create a distribution of essential nesting habitat from north to south and inland from marine foraging areas. All of the designated critical habitat units occur within areas identified in the draft and final recovery plans for the marbled murrelet (USFWS 1995 and 1997, entire) as essential for the conservation of the species. Maintaining and increasing suitable nesting habitat for the marbled murrelet is a key objective for the conservation and recovery of the species, by providing for increases in nest success and productivity needed to attain long-term population viability. Based upon this information, we have determined that all of the 23 subunits where nesting behaviors have not been documented are, nonetheless, essential for the conservation of the species. Therefore, even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied, we conclude that they meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act.
As described above, all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (101 subunits) contain the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protection. We recognize that the physical or biological features and PCEs may not be uniformly distributed throughout these 101 subunits because historical harvest patterns and natural disturbances have created a mosaic of
We have additionally evaluated all currently designated critical habitat for the marbled murrelet applying the standard under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, and have determined that all 101 subunits included in this designation are essential for the conservation of the species. As detailed above, we have determined that all areas of critical habitat, whether known to be occupied at the time of listing or not, contain the physical or biological features and PCEs for the marbled murrelet. All 101 designated subunits work together to create a distribution of essential nesting habitat from north to south and inland from marine foraging areas, and occur within areas identified in the draft and final recovery plans for the marbled murrelet (USFWS 1995 and 1997, entire) as essential for the conservation of the species. All areas designated as critical habitat are essential for the conservation and recovery of the marbled murrelet by maintaining and increasing suitable nesting habitat and limiting forest fragmentation, thereby providing for increases in nest success and productivity to attain long-term population viability of the species. Therefore, we have determined that all areas currently identified as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, whether confirmed to be occupied at the time of listing or not, are essential for the conservation of the species and meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act. Recent population and suitable habitat research confirms that these areas continue to be essential because the marbled murrelet population has declined since listing (Miller
The preamble to the 1996 final critical habitat rule (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26265) stated that, within the boundaries of designated critical habitat, only those areas that contain one or more PCEs are, by definition, critical habitat, and areas without any PCEs are excluded by definition. This statement was in error; we clarified this language in the revised critical habitat rule published in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599, p. 61604), and we reemphasize this correction here. By introducing some ambiguity in our delineation of critical habitat, this language was inconsistent with the requirement that each critical habitat unit be delineated by specific limits using reference points and lines (50 CFR 424.12(c)). The Service does its best not to include areas that obviously cannot attain PCEs, such as alpine areas, water bodies, serpentine meadows, lava flows, airports, buildings, parking lots, etc. (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256, p. 26269). However, the scale at which mapping is done for publication in the Code of Federal Regulations does not allow precise identification of these features, and, therefore, some may fall within the critical habitat boundaries. Hence, all lands within the mapped critical habitat boundaries for the marbled murrelet are critical habitat.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies, including the Service, to ensure that any action they fund, authorize, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered species or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat of such species.
We published a final regulation with a new definition of destruction or adverse modification on February 11, 2016 (81 FR 7214), which became effective on March 14, 2016. Destruction or adverse modification means a direct or indirect alteration that appreciably diminishes the value of critical habitat for the conservation of a listed species. Such alterations may include, but are not limited to, those that alter the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of a species or that preclude or significantly delay development of such features.
If a Federal action may affect a listed species or its critical habitat, the responsible Federal agency (action agency) must enter into consultation with us. Examples of actions that are subject to the section 7 consultation process are actions on State, tribal, local, or private lands that require a Federal permit (such as a permit from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers under section 404 of the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251
As a result of section 7 consultation, we document compliance with the requirements of section 7(a)(2) through our issuance of:
(1) A concurrence letter for Federal actions that may affect, but are not likely to adversely affect, listed species or critical habitat; or
(2) A biological opinion for Federal actions that may affect and are likely to adversely affect, listed species or critical habitat.
When we issue a biological opinion concluding that a project is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a listed species and/or destroy or adversely modify critical habitat, we provide reasonable and prudent alternatives to the project, if any are identifiable, that would avoid the likelihood of jeopardy and/or destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. We define “reasonable and prudent alternatives” (at 50 CFR 402.02) as alternative actions identified during consultation that:
(1) Can be implemented in a manner consistent with the intended purpose of the action,
(2) Can be implemented consistent with the scope of the Federal agency's legal authority and jurisdiction,
(3) Are economically and technologically feasible, and
(4) Would, in the Director's opinion, avoid the likelihood of jeopardizing the continued existence of the listed species and/or avoid the likelihood of destroying or adversely modifying critical habitat.
Reasonable and prudent alternatives can vary from slight project modifications to extensive redesign or relocation of the project. Costs associated with implementing a reasonable and prudent alternative are similarly variable.
Regulations at 50 CFR 402.16 require Federal agencies to reinitiate consultation on previously reviewed actions in instances where we have listed a new species or subsequently designated critical habitat that may be affected and the Federal agency has retained discretionary involvement or control over the action (or the agency's discretionary involvement or control is authorized by law). Consequently, Federal agencies sometimes may need to request reinitiation of consultation with us on actions for which formal consultation has been completed, if those actions with discretionary involvement or control may affect
We recognize that critical habitat designated at a particular point in time may not include all of the habitat areas that we may later determine are necessary for the recovery of the species. For these reasons, a critical habitat designation does not signal that habitat outside the designated area is unimportant or may not be needed for recovery of the species. Areas that are important to the conservation of the species, both inside and outside the critical habitat designation, will continue to be subject to: (1) Conservation actions implemented under section 7(a)(1) of the Act, (2) regulatory protections afforded by the requirement in section 7(a)(2) of the Act for Federal agencies to ensure their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species, and (3) section 9 of the Act's prohibitions on taking any individual of the species, including taking caused by actions that affect habitat. Federally funded or permitted projects affecting listed species outside their designated critical habitat areas may still result in jeopardy findings in some cases. These protections and conservation tools will continue to contribute to recovery of this species. Similarly, critical habitat designations made on the basis of the best available information at the time of designation will not control the direction and substance of future recovery plans, habitat conservation plans (HCPs), or other species conservation planning efforts if new information available at the time of these planning efforts calls for a different outcome.
The key factor related to the adverse modification determination is whether, with implementation of the proposed Federal action, the affected critical habitat would continue to serve its intended conservation role for the species. Activities that may destroy or adversely modify critical habitat are those that result in a direct or indirect alteration that appreciably diminishes the value of critical habitat for the conservation of the marbled murrelet. Such alterations may include, but are not limited to, those that alter the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species or that preclude or significantly delay development of such features. As discussed above, the role of critical habitat is to support physical or biological features essential to the conservation of a listed species and provide for the conservation of the species.
Section 4(b)(8) of the Act requires us to briefly evaluate and describe, in any proposed or final regulation that designates critical habitat, activities involving a Federal action that may destroy or adversely modify such habitat, or that may be affected by such designation.
Activities that may affect critical habitat, when carried out, funded, or authorized by a Federal agency, should result in consultation for the marbled murrelet. A detailed explanation of the regulatory effects of critical habitat in terms of consultation under section 7 of the Act and application of the adverse modification standard is provided in the October 5, 2011, final rule revising critical habitat for the marbled murrelet (76 FR 61599).
As required by section 4(b)(2) of the Act and its implementing regulations, we fully considered the economic impact that may result from specifying any particular area as critical habitat. If critical habitat has not been previously designated, the probable economic impact of a proposed critical habitat designation is analyzed by comparing scenarios both “with critical habitat” and “without critical habitat.” The “without critical habitat” scenario represents the baseline for the analysis, and includes the existing regulatory and socio-economic burden imposed on landowners, managers, or other resource users potentially affected by the designation of critical habitat (
Baseline protections as a result of the listed status of the marbled murrelet include sections 7, 9, and 10 of the Act, and any economic impacts resulting from these protections to the extent they are expected to occur absent the designation of critical habitat:
• Section 7 of the Act, even absent critical habitat designation, requires Federal agencies to consult with the Service to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out will not likely jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species. Consultations under the jeopardy standard result in administrative costs, as well as impacts of conservation efforts resulting from consideration of this standard.
• Section 9 defines the actions that are prohibited by the Act. In particular, it prohibits the “take” of endangered wildlife, where “take” means to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct. The economic impacts associated with this section manifest themselves in sections 7 and 10.
• Under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act, an entity (
In the present rulemaking, we are not starting from a “without critical habitat” baseline. In this particular case, critical habitat has been in place for the marbled murrelet since May 24, 1996 (61 FR 26256), and was most recently revised on October 5, 2011 (76 FR 61599). Because the 2011 revision resulted only in the removal of some areas of critical habitat, all areas remaining in the current designation have been critical habitat for the marbled murrelet since 1996. This current critical habitat designation formed the baseline for our consideration of the potential economic impacts of the proposed rule.
In the proposed rule, we described our evaluation and conclusion that all of the currently designated areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. Specifically, we clarified that all areas are within the range of the marbled murrelet and,
We considered the probable incremental economic impacts of the proposed rule with regard to critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. As described in our proposed rule, critical habitat has already been in place for the marbled murrelet for 20 years; as we are not changing any of the critical habitat boundaries or PCEs, and as Federal action agencies consult on the effects to the PCEs rather than the species itself with regard to actions in critical habitat, we do not anticipate any additional costs as a result of the clarification of areas occupied at the time of listing. Our evaluation of the probable economic impacts of our proposed determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet was available for public review during the comment period on our proposed rule from August 25, 2015, through October 26, 2015 (August 25, 2015; 80 FR 51506). Following the close of the comment period, we reviewed and evaluated all information submitted that may pertain to our consideration of the probable incremental economic impacts of this critical habitat rule. We fully considered public comment on our evaluation, as well as information supplied by the action agencies with whom we regularly consult with regard to marbled murrelet critical habitat (details below). Those action agencies confirmed our conclusion that our clarification of how the areas currently designated as critical habitat meet the statutory definition under the Act is unlikely to result in any additional costs, regardless of occupancy status.
Our conclusion that this critical habitat rule will not result in incremental economic impacts is based upon the following evaluation. Critical habitat designation will not affect activities that do not have any Federal involvement; designation of critical habitat affects only activities conducted, funded, permitted, or authorized by Federal agencies. In areas where the marbled murrelet is present, Federal agencies already are required to consult with the Service under section 7 of the Act on activities they fund, permit, or implement that may affect the species. In this particular case, because all areas that we have considered are already designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, where a Federal nexus occurs, consultations to avoid the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat have been incorporated into the existing consultation process. Federal agencies have been consulting under section 7 of the Act on critical habitat for the marbled murrelet for approximately 20 years. As our proposed rule did not include the addition of any new areas as critical habitat, any probable economic impacts resulting from the proposed rule would result solely from our clarification of how all of the areas currently designated meet the statutory definition of critical habitat. The incremental economic impacts of our rulemaking would, therefore, be equal to any additional costs incurred as the result of a difference between the outcome of consultations as they are currently conducted and consultations as they would be conducted if the proposed rule were to become final.
Based upon our evaluation and as described in our proposed rule, we do not anticipate changes to the consultation process or effect determinations made for critical habitat as a result of our evaluation and conclusion that all areas meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act. In addition, we do not anticipate requiring additional or different project modifications than are currently requested when an action “may affect” critical habitat. Therefore, it is the Service's expectation that this final rule clarifying the 1996 critical habitat designation, as revised in 2011, which explains how all areas within the boundaries of the current designation meet the definition of critical habitat under the Act, will result in no additional (incremental) economic impacts.
In order to confirm the accuracy of our assessment of the potential economic impacts of the proposed rule, we asked those Federal action agencies that manage lands that are critical habitat or with whom we have consulted over the past 20 years on marbled murrelet critical habitat to review our evaluation and characterization of the changes, if any, to consultation under section 7 that may be anticipated as a consequence of the proposed rule. We specifically asked each agency whether our proposed rule would be likely to result in any additional economic impacts on their agency (incremental impacts), above and beyond those already incurred as a result of the current critical habitat designation for the marbled murrelet (baseline impacts). Based on our consultation history with Federal agencies, it is our understanding that action agencies currently consult on effects to marbled murrelet critical habitat through an analysis of the effects to the PCEs. We asked the action agencies to confirm or correct this understanding, and to verify our characterization of how these consultations take place under the current designation, which we described as follows:
• If an action will take place within designated critical habitat, the action agency considers the action area to be critical habitat, irrelevant of the presence of PCEs. The action agency then determines whether there are PCEs within the action area. If the action agency determines there are no PCEs within the action area, the agency makes a “no effect” determination and the Service is not consulted.
• If the action agency determines there are PCEs within the action area, they analyze the action's potential effects on the PCEs, which may result in a “no effect” or “may effect” determination. If the action agency determines the action “may affect” the PCEs, they undergo section 7 consultation with the Service.
Whether the critical habitat subunit or action area is considered to be “occupied” by the species is irrelevant to the effect determination made for critical habitat. Rather, the determination of “occupancy” is relevant to the effect determination for the species and any minimization measures that may be implemented (such as project timing).
In the proposed rule we clarified that we consider all areas to have been occupied by the species at the time of listing, and that all of these areas have the PCEs. Because occupancy of the critical habitat subunit or action area is
As noted above, we solicited review and comment on our draft summary of the anticipated economic impacts of the proposed rule from seven Federal agencies with whom we regularly consult on marbled murrelet critical habitat (the U.S. Forest Service (USFS), U.S. Bureau of Land Management (BLM), National Park Service (NPS), Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA), U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Federal Highway Administration, and Federal Energy Regulatory Commission). We received responses from four of these agencies: The USFS representing multiple national forests, the BLM representing multiple districts, the NPS representing Redwood National Park and State Parks partnership, and the BIA. All responses agreed with our evaluation of the potential incremental effects of the proposed rule, and confirmed that they did not anticipate any additional costs as a result of the clarification of areas occupied at the time of listing. Our initial letter of inquiry and all responses received from the action agencies are available for review in the Supplemental Materials folder at
We additionally considered any potential economic impacts on non-Federal entities as a result of the proposed rule. In our experience, any economic impacts to non-Federal parties are generally associated with the development of HCPs under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act. However, as described above, in most cases the incentive for the development of an HCP is the potential issuance of an incidental take permit in connection with an activity or project in an area where a listed animal species occurs. HCPs are seldom undertaken in response to a critical habitat designation, but in such a case the costs associated with the development of an HCP prompted by the designation of critical habitat would be considered an incremental impact of that designation. In this particular situation, because we did not propose any changes to the boundaries of critical habitat, we did not anticipate the initiation of any new HCPs in response to the proposed rule; therefore, we did not anticipate any costs to non-Federal parties associated with HCP development. We did not receive any information during the public comment period that suggested this conclusion was in error.
Other potential costs to non-Federal entities as a result of critical habitat designation might include costs to third-party private applicants in association with Federal activities. In most cases, consultations under section 7 of the Act involve only the Service and other Federal agencies, such as the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers. Sometimes, however, consultations may include a third party involved in projects that involve a permitted entity, such as the recipient of a Clean Water Act section 404 permit. In such cases, these private parties may incur some costs, such as the cost of applying for the permit in question, or the time spent gathering and providing information for a permit. These costs and administrative effort on the part of third-party applicants, if attributable solely to critical habitat, would be incremental impacts of the designation. In this particular case, however, because we did not propose any boundary changes to the current critical habitat designation, we did not anticipate any change from the current baseline conditions in terms of potential costs to third parties; therefore, we expected any incremental impacts to non-Federal parties associated with the proposed rule to be minimal. Again, we did not receive any information during the public comment period that would suggest this conclusion is in error.
Based on our evaluation, the information provided to us by the Federal action agencies within the critical habitat area under consideration, and the information received during the public comment period on our proposed rule, we conclude that this final rule will result in little if any additional economic impact above baseline costs.
We have examined all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet in 1996 (May 24, 1996; 61 FR 26256), as revised in 2011 (October 5, 2011; 76 FR 61599), and evaluated whether all areas meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A) of the Act. Based upon our evaluation, we have determined that all 101 subunits designated as critical habitat are within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing, and each of these subunits provides the physical or biological features and PCEs essential to the conservation of the species, which may require special management considerations or protections. Therefore, we conclude that all areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act. Of the 101 subunits, 78 of those subunits had documented detections of nesting behavior at the time of listing. We have determined that we do not have sufficient data to definitively document nesting behavior within the other 23 subunits at the time of listing. However, even if these 23 subunits were considered unoccupied, the Secretary has determined that they are essential for the conservation of the species, as they contribute to the maintenance or increase of suitable nesting habitat required to achieve the conservation and recovery of the marbled murrelet; therefore, we conclude that they meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act.
In addition, recognizing that the detection of nesting behaviors or the presence of essential physical or biological features or PCEs within a subunit may be evaluated on multiple scales, such that at some finer scales some subset of the subunit may be considered unoccupied or lacking in PCEs, we evaluated the designation in its entirety as if it were unoccupied under section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act, and found that all areas of critical habitat are essential for the conservation of the species. We have here clarified that we have evaluated all critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, and have concluded that in all cases the areas designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the definition of critical habitat under section 3(5)(A) of the Act. In addition, as required by section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we have considered the potential economic impact of this clarification, and we have concluded that any potential economic effects resulting from this rulemaking are negligible.
Therefore, we conclude that, under the Act, critical habitat as currently designated for the marbled murrelet in the Code of Federal Regulations remains valid.
We requested written comments from the public on the proposed determination of critical habitat for the
Eleven of these letters provided substantive comments (beyond a succinct expression of agreement or opposition) on the proposed rule. Five of the comment letters expressed support of our 1996 designation, one opposed the 1996 designation, and five did not express a particular opinion regarding the 1996 designation and whether it meets the statutory definition, but offered other suggestions or information regarding critical habitat for the marbled murrelet.
Several comments we received were outside the scope of the proposed rule, which was limited to the specific purpose for which the court remanded this rule, which was to assess whether all of the designated areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat. Examples of comments outside of the scope of the proposed rule included:
(a) Requests that we designate additional critical habitat;
(b) A request that we apply the Service's proposed policy for excluding lands included in Habitat Conservation Plans (
(c) Requests that we designate marine areas as critical habitat;
(d) A request that surrounding encumbered lands be freed up as a more available revenue source; and
(e) A request to complete a 5-year review.
These comments are beyond the scope of the proposed rule, and some would require separate rulemaking to be considered. Accordingly, we have not specifically responded to these comments in this final rule.
All substantive information provided during the comment period has either been incorporated directly into this final determination or addressed below. Comments received were grouped into general issues specifically relating to the proposed critical habitat determination, and are addressed in the following summary and incorporated into the final rule as appropriate.
Section 4(i) of the Act states, “the Secretary shall submit to the State agency a written justification for his failure to adopt regulations consistent with the agency's comments or petition.” Comments received from the State regarding the determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet are addressed below.
(1)
(2)
The commenters also indicate that the nest and occupancy data we relied upon were outdated. We disagree. On page 51516 of the proposed rule (80 FR 51506; August 25, 2015), we denote the years of survey data that we relied upon, which included all available nests, occupied behaviors, and presence behaviors within the analysis area. In Washington, the information included data collected through 2013. In Oregon, some survey data was as recent as 2014. In California, most of the available data was collected through 2006, with one data point from 2014. These data present the most recent and best data available for us to use in our reconsideration.
(3)
(4)
(5)
Further, as noted above, the purpose of this proposed action was to consider whether our 1996 designation meets the statutory definition of critical habitat; we did not propose revision of critical habitat as a whole. Therefore, we did not propose to reconsider or reevaluate any of the exclusions contained in the 1996 final designation for consistency with our current exclusion policies.
(6)
(7)
Forests are dynamic systems, and cannot be expected to remain static on the landscape; the progression of forest habitats through a series of seral stages is a fundamental principle of forest ecology. As a result of both natural disturbance and anthropogenic activities, forests occur in a mosaic of age-structured conditions. It is, therefore, to be expected that the designation of critical habitat for a wide-ranging forest species requiring nest trees with mature or old-growth characteristics will additionally include surrounding forests in a mosaic of both old and younger forests; this simply reflects how forest patches of varying ages and structural condition are distributed across the landscape.
Our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(b)(5)(d) state: “When several habitats, each satisfying the requirements for designation as critical habitat, are located in proximity to one another, an inclusive area may be designated as critical habitat.” In this case, our designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet is focused primarily on areas of forest with late-successional characteristics that provide suitable nesting habitat (PCE 1), surrounded by areas of potentially younger forest (PCE 2). Because marbled murrelets require large blocks of contiguous forest habitat for successful nesting, we have noted that special management considerations may be required to provide for the development of suitable nesting habitat for those areas currently in early successional stages.
Taking all of these factors into consideration, we considered the best available scientific information and concluded that the 101 subunits of critical habitat designated here for the marbled murrelet contain the essential physical or biological features and PCEs at a scale appropriate for the conservation of the species and representative of the natural distribution of these features on the landscape. It is not biologically reasonable to expect the PCEs to be found on every acre of each subunit of a critical habitat designation for a wide-ranging species that requires large blocks of contiguous forest habitat for successful nesting. Furthermore, because of the fundamental dynamic nature of successional forests, we do not expect such features to be distributed uniformly across critical habitat. We dispute the commenter's argument that areas within the critical habitat designation do not meet the statutory standard because the physical or biological features and PCEs are not uniformly distributed throughout the subunits. There is no statutory or regulatory requirement that the physical or biological features or PCEs be “uniformly distributed” throughout critical habitat. Section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act requires in plain language only that the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species “are found” on those specific areas identified as critical habitat within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed. Our designation of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet clearly meets the statutory standard. We note that the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit recently affirmed a similar interpretation of the Act in
Finally, we recognize that there may be different approaches to defining the “geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed,” depending largely on the scale at which the area occupied is considered. Here we have defined that area on a relatively large scale, essentially equivalent to the range of the species, such that all critical habitat is considered occupied by the species. We have further determined, as described in this document, that the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species, and which may require special management considerations or protection, are found in each of the 101 subunits within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed, as identified in this designation of critical habitat. All critical habitat for the marbled murrelet therefore meets the definition of critical habitat under section (3)(5)(A)(i) of the Act.
This commenter asserted that the proposal includes “millions of acres that were not occupied at the time of listing.” In the proposed rule, we explained why this assertion is incorrect, in light of our interpretation of “occupied” as being equivalent to the range of the species. But, even if some areas of the critical habitat designation were considered unoccupied at the time of listing, we have determined that all critical habitat for the marbled murrelet, as currently designated, is essential for the conservation of the species (see section VII of the proposed rule). Hence, the designated areas meet the definition of critical habitat set forth in section 3(5)(A)(ii) of the Act. That alternative definition does not require that PCEs be present.
In this case, regardless of the scale at which the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed is considered, we have determined that all areas currently designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet meet the definition of critical habitat whether evaluated under the standards of subsection (i) or (ii) of section 3(5)(A) of the Act. This approach is consistent with the ruling in
(8)
(9)
Whether a subunit or action area is considered “occupied” by the species is irrelevant to the effect determination for critical habitat analysis, because the analysis is based on impacts to the PCEs, not impacts to the species. For this reason we did not anticipate any incremental economic impacts from our proposed rule. Federal agencies have been consulting under section 7 of the Act on impacts to PCE 1 and PCE 2 for marbled murrelet critical habitat since 1996. As described in detail in our proposed rule (p. 51520, 80 FR 51506; August 25, 2015), we contacted all Federal agencies with whom we have consulted on marbled murrelet critical habitat over the past 20 years to confirm our understanding that they consult on effects to critical habitat through an analysis of the effects to PCEs. Furthermore, we specifically inquired whether our proposed rule would be likely to result in any additional economic impacts on their agencies, should any areas change in occupancy status. All of the agencies that responded confirmed that they did not anticipate any additional costs as a result of the clarification of critical habitat subunits occupied at the time of listing.
(10)
We are not proposing any changes to the critical habitat designation that is already in place beyond this clarification of areas considered occupied or unoccupied at the time of listing, and a detailed description of how those areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat. We evaluated whether there would be any incremental costs incurred if there was a change in status of a critical habitat subunit from unoccupied to occupied (see our response to Comment 9, above). Incremental costs are those costs that are solely attributable to the proposed critical habitat rulemaking, over and above costs incurred for the conservation of the species absent the proposed critical habitat action. In this case, because there is no change in the geographic areas designated as critical habitat, the current designation would not trigger any additional obligations under State laws that had not already been triggered by the initial 1996 designation; therefore, there would be no indirect incremental impacts of this rulemaking in relation to State laws as suggested by the commenter. In addition, for the most part, private lands in Washington and California that were included in the final 1996 designation
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act, Federal agencies (including the Service) are required to evaluate the potential incremental impacts of a rulemaking only on directly regulated entities. The regulatory mechanism through which critical habitat protections are realized is section 7 of the Act, which requires Federal agencies, in consultation with the Service, to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out by the Agency is not likely to adversely modify critical habitat. Therefore, only Federal action agencies are directly subject to the specific regulatory requirement imposed by critical habitat designation (avoiding destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat). Under these circumstances, it is the Service's position that only Federal action agencies will be directly regulated by this designation.
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA; 5 U.S.C. 601
According to the Small Business Administration, small entities include small organizations such as independent nonprofit organizations; small governmental jurisdictions, including school boards and city and town governments that serve fewer than 50,000 residents; and small businesses (13 CFR 121.201). Small businesses include manufacturing and mining concerns with fewer than 500 employees, wholesale trade entities with fewer than 100 employees, retail and service businesses with less than $5 million in annual sales, general and heavy construction businesses with less than $27.5 million in annual business, special trade contractors doing less than $11.5 million in annual business, and agricultural businesses with annual sales less than $750,000. To determine if potential economic impacts to these small entities are significant, we considered the types of activities that might trigger regulatory impacts under this designation as well as types of project modifications that may result. In general, the term “significant economic impact” is meant to apply to a typical small business firm's business operations.
The Service's current understanding of the requirements under the RFA, as amended, and following recent court decisions, is that Federal agencies are required to evaluate the potential incremental impacts of rulemaking only on those entities directly regulated by the rulemaking itself and are not required to evaluate the potential impacts to indirectly regulated entities. The regulatory mechanism through which critical habitat protections are realized is section 7 of the Act, which requires Federal agencies, in consultation with the Service, to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried by the Agency is not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Therefore, under section 7 only Federal action agencies are directly subject to the specific regulatory requirement (avoiding destruction and adverse modification) imposed by critical habitat designation. Consequently, it is our position that only Federal action agencies will be directly regulated by this designation. There is no requirement under RFA to evaluate the potential impacts to entities not directly regulated. Moreover, Federal agencies are not small entities. Consequently, because no small entities are directly regulated by this rulemaking, the Service certifies that, if promulgated, the final critical habitat designation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
During the development of this final rule we reviewed and evaluated all information submitted during the comment period that may pertain to our consideration of the probable incremental economic impacts of this critical habitat designation. Based on this information, we affirm our certification that this final critical habitat designation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, and a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required.
Executive Order 13211 (Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use) requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain actions. OMB has provided guidance for implementing this Executive Order that outlines nine outcomes that may constitute “a significant adverse effect” when compared to not taking the regulatory action under consideration. Our consideration of potential economic impacts finds that none of these criteria are relevant to this analysis, thus, energy-related impacts associated with marbled murrelet conservation activities within critical habitat are not expected. This final rule only clarifies how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act. As such, the designation of critical habitat is not expected to significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Therefore, this action is not a
In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501
(1) This rule will not produce a Federal mandate. In general, a Federal mandate is a provision in legislation, statute, or regulation that would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, or tribal governments, or the private sector, and includes both “Federal intergovernmental mandates” and “Federal private sector mandates.” These terms are defined in 2 U.S.C. 658(5)-(7). “Federal intergovernmental mandate” includes a regulation that “would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, or tribal governments” with two exceptions. It excludes “a condition of Federal assistance.” It also excludes “a duty arising from participation in a voluntary Federal program,” unless the regulation “relates to a then-existing Federal program under which $500,000,000 or more is provided annually to State, local, and tribal governments under entitlement authority,” if the provision would “increase the stringency of conditions of assistance” or “place caps upon, or otherwise decrease, the Federal Government's responsibility to provide funding,” and the State, local, or tribal governments “lack authority” to adjust accordingly. At the time of enactment, these entitlement programs were: Medicaid; Aid to Families with Dependent Children work programs; Child Nutrition; Food Stamps; Social Services Block Grants; Vocational Rehabilitation State Grants; Foster Care, Adoption Assistance, and Independent Living; Family Support Welfare Services; and Child Support Enforcement. “Federal private sector mandate” includes a regulation that “would impose an enforceable duty upon the private sector, except (i) a condition of Federal assistance or (ii) a duty arising from participation in a voluntary Federal program.”
The designation of critical habitat does not impose a legally binding duty on non-Federal Government entities or private parties. Under the Act, the only regulatory effect is that Federal agencies must ensure that their actions do not destroy or adversely modify critical habitat under section 7. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency. Furthermore, to the extent that non-Federal entities are indirectly impacted because they receive Federal assistance or participate in a voluntary Federal aid program, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act would not apply, nor would critical habitat shift the costs of the large entitlement programs listed above onto State governments.
(2) We do not believe that this rule will significantly or uniquely affect small governments because this final rule only clarifies how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act. The rule does not change the boundaries of the current critical habitat; therefore, landownership within critical habitat does not change, and a Small Government Agency Plan is not required.
In accordance with Executive Order 12630 (“Government Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Private Property Rights”), we analyzed the potential takings implications of the proposed determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet. This final rule clarifies whether and how the designated critical habitat meets the definition of critical habitat under the Act; there are no changes to the boundaries of the current critical habitat, so landownership within critical habitat does not change. Thus, we conclude that this final rule does not pose additional takings implications for lands within or affected by the original 1996 designation. Critical habitat designation does not affect landowner actions that do not require Federal funding or permits, nor does it preclude development of habitat conservation programs or issuance of incidental take permits to permit actions that do require Federal funding or permits to go forward. Therefore, based on the best available information, as described above, we confirm the conclusions we reached in 1996 that the final determination of critical habitat for the marbled murrelet does not pose significant takings implications.
In accordance with E.O. 13132 (Federalism), this rule does not have significant Federalism effects. A Federalism assessment is not required. From a Federalism perspective, the designation of critical habitat directly affects only the responsibilities of Federal agencies. The Act imposes no other duties with respect to critical habitat, either for States and local governments, or for anyone else. As a result, the rule does not have substantial direct effects either on the States, or on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of powers and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The designation may have some benefit to these governments because the areas that contain the features essential to the conservation of the species are more clearly defined, and the physical and biological features of the habitat necessary to the conservation of the species are specifically identified. This information does not alter where and what federally sponsored activities may occur. However, it may assist these local governments in long-range planning (because these local governments no longer have to wait for case-by-case section 7 consultations to occur).
Where State and local governments require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for actions that may affect critical habitat, consultation under section 7(a)(2) would be required. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency.
In accordance with Executive Order 12988 (Civil Justice Reform), the Office of the Solicitor has determined that the rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order. We have reconsidered designated critical habitat for the marbled murrelet for the purpose of assessing whether all of the areas meet the statutory definition of critical habitat in accordance with the provisions of the Act. To assist the public in understanding the habitat needs of the species, the final rule identifies the elements of physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the marbled murrelet.
This rule does not contain any new collections of information that require approval by OMB under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
It is our position that, outside the jurisdiction of the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Tenth Circuit, we do not need to prepare environmental analyses pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 (Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951), Executive Order 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with recognized Federal Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretarial Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to tribes.
There are no tribal lands designated as critical habitat for the marbled murrelet.
A complete list of all references cited in this rule is available on the Internet at
The primary authors of this document are the staff members of the Washington Fish and Wildlife Office, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (see
The authority for this action is the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS is implementing final specifications for the 2016-2018 bluefish fishery, including catch restrictions for commercial and recreational fisheries. This action is necessary to comply with the implementing regulations for the Bluefish Fishery Management Plan that require us to publish specifications. The intent of this action is to implement specifications necessary to constrain harvest of this species within scientifically sound recommendations to prevent overfishing.
The final specifications for the 2016-2018 bluefish fishery are effective August 1, 2016, through December 31, 2018.
Copies of the specifications document, including the Environmental Assessment and Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (EA/IRFA) and other supporting documents for the specifications, are available from Dr. Christopher M. Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, Suite 201, 800 N. State Street, Dover, DE 19901. These documents are also accessible via the Internet at
Elizabeth Scheimer, Fishery Management Specialist, (978) 281-9236.
The Atlantic Bluefish fishery is jointly managed by the Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council and the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission. The management unit for bluefish specified in the Atlantic Bluefish Fishery Management Plan is U.S. waters of the western Atlantic Ocean. Regulations implementing the FMP appear at 50 CFR part 648, subparts A and J. The regulations requiring annual specifications are found at § 648.162, and are described in the proposed rule. The proposed rule for this action published in the
A description of the process used to estimate bluefish stock status and fishing mortality, as well as the process for deriving the annual catch limit (ACL) and associated quotas and harvest limits, is provided in the proposed rule and in the bluefish regulations at § 648.160 through 162, and are not repeated here. The stock is not overfished or experiencing overfishing, and the specifications described below reflect the best available scientific information for bluefish. The final 2016-2018 bluefish specifications are shown in Table 1.
A transfer of quota from the recreational fishery to the commercial sector is permitted under the FMP up to a commercial fishery quota of 10.50 million lb (4,763 mt), provided the combined expected recreational landings and the commercial quota does not exceed the total TAL. The proposed rule for this action contained a sector quota transfer based on preliminary 2015 recreational landings data. In the interim between the proposed rule and now, the final 2015 Marine Recreational Information Program (MRIP) estimates were released in June and subsequently revised in July. The final bluefish catch estimate is higher than the preliminary value used to calculate the proposed measures, but notably lower than the MRIP information provided in June. Using these updated recreational landings to project 2016 catch allows a transfer of quota from the recreational sector to the commercial fishery (1.57 million lb (715 mt)) and results in a final commercial quota of 4,884,780 lb (2,215 mt).
Consistent with Council recommendations, these final specifications do not allocate research set-aside quota for 2016 through 2018; therefore, no additional adjustments to commercial or recreational allocations are needed.
Given historical landings, the reduced commercial quota could be constraining to the fishery. Even though the commercial quota is reduced, the bluefish quota management system has been timely and effective at constraining catch in the past, and NMFS does not expect any state to exceed their quota.
Consistent with the recommendation of the Council, this final rule maintains the status quo daily recreational possession limit of up to 15 fish per person for 2016.
The final rule implementing Amendment 1 to the Bluefish Fishery Management Plan, which was published in the
During the processing of this final rule, the Commonwealth of Virginia agreed to transfer 50,000 lb (22,680 kg) of bluefish quota to the State of Rhode Island and 30,000 lb (13,607 kg) to the State of New York, and the State of Florida agreed to transfer 50,000 lb (22,680 kg) to the State of Rhode Island. The state commercial transfers will not preclude the overall annual quota from being fully harvested, and will address contingencies in the fishery. In addition, the transfers are consistent with the objectives of the FMP and the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). These transfers have been approved and are incorporated within this final rule and the individual state quota allocations have been adjusted to reflect the transfer. The final state commercial allocations for 2016-2018 are shown in Table 2. The initial quotas are based on percentages specified in the FMP. No states exceeded their quota in 2015, therefore, no accountability measures are being implemented for the 2016 fishing year.
The 2015 recreational catch for bluefish for was previously projected to be 10,980,469 lb (4.980 mt), which would have allowed for a transfer of 2,178,374 lb (984 mt) from the recreational sector to the commercial fishery. As previously noted, the 2015 MRIP estimate changed on two occasions when information was finalized. The final recreational catch for 2015 is now known to be 11,581,548 lb (5,253 mt), which results in a smaller commercial quota of 4,884,780 lb (2,215 mt) than was outlined in the proposed rule.
The public comment period for the proposed rule ended on April 15, 2016. There were four comments received from the public, including recreational and commercial fishermen.
Pursuant to section 304(b)(1)(A) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this final rule is consistent with the Atlantic Bluefish FMP, other provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.
This final rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
This final rule does not duplicate, conflict, or overlap with any existing Federal rules.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries finds there is a need to implement these measures as soon as possible in order to help achieve conservation objectives for the bluefish fishery. The bluefish fishing year began on January 1, 2016, and has been operating without an established bluefish quota. Currently landings data show that some states may soon approach their quotas. Development of this final rule was undertaken as quickly as possible; however, analyzing and incorporating the most up-to-date MRIP data necessarily created a delay. Until this final rule becomes effective, there will be no bluefish quota for 2016 and therefore no authority to close a fishery that is approaching a quota limit. A 30-day delay in implementing this final rule would delay the setting of a quota, which is necessary to properly manage and monitor bluefish stocks at the state and federal level. The need to implement these measures as soon as possible constitutes good cause, under authority contained in 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), to waive the 30-day delay in effectiveness and to make the 2016-2018 Atlantic bluefish specifications effective immediately upon filing with the Office of the Federal Register.
The FRFA included in this final rule was prepared pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 604(a), and incorporates the IRFA and a summary of analyses completed to support the action. A public copy of the EA/IRFA is available from the Council (see
The preamble to the proposed rule included a detailed summary of the analyses contained in the IRFA, and that discussion is not repeated here.
The comments NMFS received did not raise specific issues regarding the economic analyses summarized in the IRFA. Refer to the “Comments and Responses” section of this preamble for more detail. No changes to the proposed rule were required to be made as a result of public comment.
On December 29, 2015, the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA) current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act after July 1, 2016.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, and prior to July 1, 2016, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis was developed for this regulatory action using SBA's former size standards. NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. All of the entities directly regulated by this regulatory action are commercial finfish fishing businesses. The new standard could result in 13 fewer commercial finfish businesses being considered small.
Taking this change into consideration, NMFS has identified no additional significant alternatives that accomplish statutory objectives and minimize any significant economic impacts of the proposed rule on small entities. Other options considered by the Council, including those that could have less of an impact on small entities, fail to meet one or more of these statutory objectives and therefore cannot be implemented. Further, the new size standard does not affect the decision to prepare a FRFA as opposed to a certification for this regulatory action
No additional reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements are included in this final rule.
Specification of commercial quota, recreational harvest levels, and possession limits is constrained by the conservation objectives and derivation formula set forth in the FMP and implemented at 50 CFR part 648 under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. Furthermore, specifications must be based on the best available scientific information, consistent with National Standard 2 of the Magnuson-Stevens Act. With the specification options considered, the measures in this final rule are the only measures that both satisfy these overarching regulatory and statutory requirements while minimizing, to the extent possible, impacts on small entities. This rule implements the specifications outlined in Table 1. The impacts of the specifications, as implemented by this final rule, are not expected to disproportionately impact large or small entities.
Section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 states that, for each rule or group of related rules for which an agency is required to prepare a FRFA, the agency shall publish one or more guides to assist small entities in complying with the rule, and shall designate such publications as “small entity compliance guides.” The agency shall explain the actions a small entity is required to take to comply with a rule or group of rules. As part of this rulemaking process, a small entity compliance guide will be sent to all holders of Federal permits issued for the Atlantic bluefish fishery.
In addition, copies of this final rule and guide (
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Final rule.
NMFS is implementing management measures for the 2016 summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass recreational fisheries, changes to the commercial scup incidental possession limit, and two minor corrections to the summer flounder commercial fishery minimum mesh size regulations. The implementing regulations for these fisheries require NMFS to publish recreational measures for the fishing year. The intent of these measures is to constrain recreational catch to established limits and prevent overfishing of the summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass resources, to reduce unnecessary commercial discards by allowing more incidentally caught scup to be retained by vessels, and to correct inaccuracies within the summer flounder mesh regulations.
Effective August 4, 2016.
Copies of the Supplemental Information Report (SIR) and other supporting documents for the recreational harvest measures are available from Dr. Christopher M. Moore, Executive Director, Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council, Suite 201, 800 N. State Street, Dover, DE 19901. The recreational harvest measures document is also accessible via the Internet at:
Elizabeth Scheimer, Fisheries Management Specialist, (978) 281-9236.
The summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass fisheries are managed cooperatively under the provisions of the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Fishery Management Plan (FMP) developed by the Mid-Atlantic
A proposed rule to implement the 2016 Federal recreational management measures (minimum fish size, season, and possession limit) for the summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass fisheries, scup commercial possession limit change, and summer flounder mesh requirement clarifications was published in the
NMFS is implementing the following measures that would apply in the Federal waters of the EEZ:
These measures apply to all federally permitted party/charter vessels with applicable summer flounder, scup, or black sea bass permits, regardless of where they fish, unless the state in which they land implements measures that are more restrictive. These measures are intended to achieve, but not exceed, the previously-established recreational harvest limits for these fisheries. See 80 FR 80689, published December 28, 2015, for background information on 2016 harvest limits. Additional detail on the measures for each species is provided below.
NMFS is implementing conservation equivalency to manage the 2016 summer flounder recreational fishery, as recommended by the Council and Commission. The 2016 recreational harvest limit for summer flounder is 5.42 million lb (2,214 mt) and final landings for 2015, as estimated by the Marine Recreational Information Program (MRIP), were 4.88 million lb (2,096 mt). Maintaining the 2015 management measures is expected to effectively constrain 2016 summer flounder recreational landings and prevent the recreational harvest limit from being exceeded.
Conservation equivalency, as established by Framework Adjustment 2 (July 29, 2001; 66 FR 36208), allows each state to establish its own recreational management measures (per-angler possession limits, minimum fish size, and fishing seasons) to achieve its state harvest limit partitioned by the Commission from the coastwide recreational harvest limit, as long as the combined effect of all of the states' management measures achieves the same level of conservation as would Federal coastwide measures. Framework Adjustment 6 (July 26, 2006; 71 FR 42315) allowed states to form regions for conservation equivalency in order to minimize regulation differences for anglers fishing in adjacent waters.
The Commission implemented Addendum XXVII to its Summer Flounder FMP to continue regional conservation equivalency for fishing year 2016. The Commission has adopted the following mix of stand-alone state and regions for summer flounder measures: (1) Massachusetts; (2) Rhode Island; (3) Connecticut and New York; (4) New Jersey; (4) Delaware, Maryland, and Virginia; and (5) North Carolina. In order to provide the maximum amount of flexibility and to continue to adequately address the state-by-state differences in fish availability, each state in a region is required by the Council and Commission to establish fishing seasons of the same length, with identical minimum fish sizes and possession limits. The Commission certified, by letter dated June 7, 2016, that the Addendum XXVII measures implemented by individual states and regions, when combined, are the conservation equivalent of coastwide measures that would be expected to result in the recreational harvest limit being achieved, but not exceeded. More information on this addendum is available from the Commission (
Based on the recommendation of the Commission, we find that the recreational summer flounder fishing measures implemented for 2016 in state waters are, collectively, the conservation equivalent of the season, minimum size, and possession limit prescribed in §§ 648.104(b), 648.105, and 648.106(a). According to § 648.107(a)(1), vessels subject to the recreational fishing measures are not subject to Federal measures, and instead are subject to the recreational fishing measures implemented by the state in which they land. Section 648.107(a) is amended through this rule to recognize state-implemented measures as conservation equivalent of the coastwide recreational management measures for 2016. The 2016 summer flounder management measures adopted by the individual states vary according to the state of landing, as specified in Table 2.
In addition, this action maintains the current default coastwide measures (an 18-inch (45.7-cm) minimum size, 4-fish possession limit, and May 1-September 30 open fishing season), that become effective January 1, 2017, when the 2016 conservation equivalency program expires. These measures will remain effective until replaced by the 2017 recreational management measures in the spring of next year.
This rule maintains status quo scup measures for the 2016 fishery: A 9-inch (22.9-cm) minimum fish size, 50-fish per person possession limit, and year-round season. The 2016 scup recreational harvest limit is 6.09 million lb (2,763 mt) and 2015 recreational landings were 5.11 million lb (2,318 mt). Based on this, no changes in measures are needed to ensure the 2016 recreational harvest limit is not exceeded, and further liberalization of the management measures was not requested by the Council or Commission.
This rule implements a 12.5-inch (31.8-cm) minimum size, 15-fish possession limit, and open seasons of May 15-September 21 and October 22-December 31 in Federal waters. The states of Maryland, Delaware, Virginia and North Carolina have also adopted these measures for state waters. New Jersey, New York, Connecticut, Rhode Island, and Massachusetts have adopted different, more restrictive measures for their state waters, as required by the Commission's Addendum XXVII to the FMP. The Commission certified, by letter dated June 7, 2016, that the northern states (Massachusetts to New Jersey) have implemented measures consistent with Addendum XXVII.
The Council and the Commission made use of the preliminary MRIP estimates when developing 2016 management measures. It was, at the time of the development process, the best available information. In some years, the final MRIP estimates that are typically available in April have been slightly different than the preliminary year-end estimates available in February. The final 2015 MRIP estimates, delayed until June 13, 2016, are substantially different than the preliminary information used by the Council and Commission. The 2015 landings estimate increased from 3.62 (1,642 mt) to 3.97 million lb (1,801 mt)—a 350,000-lb (159-mt) increase. This would necessitate a 30.2-percent reduction from 2015 landings to constrain 2016 catch to the 2.82 million lb (1,279 mt) recreational harvest limit. The preliminary information used by the Council and Commission indicated a 22.1-percent reduction in landings was necessary.
The majority of black sea bass are caught inside state waters from New Jersey north. The Council and Commission recommend maintaining the 2015 management measures (12.5-inch (31.8-cm) minimum fish size, 15-fish possession limit with an open season of May 15-September 21 and October 22-December 31) in Federal waters and for state waters in Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, and North Carolina. Because catch from Federal waters and state waters from Delaware to North Carolina is generally less than 8 percent of the total catch, recreational measures must necessarily focus on state waters from New Jersey north. The Council and Commission's recommendations were contingent on the northern states (New Jersey north) implementing at least a 23-percent reduction to their state waters measures through a Commission Addendum. This approach also used the accountability measure methods developed for 2015. The accountability measure has been triggered again for 2016; however, because the previously developed and implemented approach (
The Council recommended a backup coastwide measure of a 14-inch (35.56-cm) minimum fish size and a 3-fish possession limit with an open season of July 15-September 15 to be implemented in Federal waters and for southern states
In response to the unexpected change in the final MRIP estimates for black sea bass, the Commission's Black Sea Bass Management Board held an emergency teleconference on July 6, 2016, to discuss the new MRIP estimates and to consider additional management action. In the discussion, Board members spoke about challenges in making any additional changes. They cited administrative burdens and timing complications of both receiving new information so late in the fishing year and difficulties implementing regulatory changes quickly mid-season. Many
NMFS is implementing the Council recommended original suite of measures, for the following reasons:
1. The Council and Commission developed appropriate measures on what was considered the best available information at the time of their decisionmaking processes. The backup coastwide provisions (
2. The final MRIP data were released substantially later than is normal and were considerably different than the preliminary estimates. It could not be foreseen that final information would increase 2015 landing estimates by nearly 10 percent, nor could it be anticipated that final estimates would be available much later than normal. Final MRIP estimates for black sea bass, usually released in mid-April, generally vary 1-2 percent from the preliminary estimates and in many years have been lower than preliminary estimates, not higher.
3. The 2016 recreational black sea bass fishery is well underway. Even acting quickly, several states indicated during the July 6 Board teleconference that they would be unable to implement regulatory changes before the end of summer. For many states, the fishery is effectively over by mid-September. Similarly, it is unlikely that an emergency action by NMFS could be implemented much more quickly. Federal measures alone would be insufficient to effectively reduce landings because the majority of catch occurs in northern state's waters.
4. A comprehensive stock assessment is scheduled for December 2016. Work has already begun on this assessment. NMFS is prepared to work quickly with the Council and Commission to react to new stock information as soon as it becomes available in early 2017.
5. Further delay to implement management measures would affect not only black sea bass management, but also scup and summer flounder. The latter species, summer flounder, currently lacks the conservation equivalency determination for Federal waters until a final rule is published in the
This rule increases the incidental winter season (November 1-April 30) scup commercial possession limit for vessels using mesh smaller than 5.0 inches (12.7 cm) from 500 lb (227 kg) to 1,000 lb (454 kg). This change is expected to allow vessels using small mesh that take scup incidental to other target species to convert some scup that would otherwise be discarded to landings. Vessels using mesh larger than 5 inches (12.7 cm) may continue to land up to the targeted commercial fishery possession limit according to the applicable Federal and state rules.
This rule also corrects two errors in the commercial summer flounder regulations. The summer flounder minimum mesh size regulations at § 648.108(a)(1) require that any vessel landing or possessing more than 100 lb (45 kg) of summer flounder from May 1 through October 31, or 200 lb (91 kg) of summer flounder from November 1 through April 30, use at least 5.5-inch (14-cm) diamond or 6.0-inch (15-cm) square mesh “throughout the body, extension(s), and codend portion of the net.” However, the turtle excluding device (TED) regulations require summer flounder trawls fishing in the sea turtle protection area to have a TED extension with webbing no larger than 3.5 inches (9 cm). This rule eliminates the conflict between these two regulations by specifying that the minimum mesh size restrictions do not apply to extensions needed to comply with the TED regulations.
This rule also corrects an erroneous reference to the Regional Administrator's authority to terminate the fly net exemption after review. This authority has been incorrectly listed at § 648.108(b)(3) and is corrected in this rule to reference § 648.108(b)(2)(iv).
Three comments were received on measures outlined in the May 23, 2016 (81 FR 32269), proposed rule. Two comments received supported the scup incidental trip limit increase contained in this rule. Both noted this change will assist fishermen in reducing regulatory discards in small-mesh fisheries during the November to April timeframe. NMFS agrees and is implementing this change as proposed.
The other comment received raised no issues with any of the proposed measures. Rather, the individual wanted more information in the final rule about what outreach and/or inclusion of commercial and recreational fishermen's input occurred during the development of the measures in this rule.
As outlined in the SIR prepared by the Council, the public had the opportunity to provide comments during the development of the 2016 catch limits, the 2016 recreational management measures, and the scup incidental trawl possession limits. Opportunities for public participation, including recreational and commercial fishermen, occurred as part the following meetings:
• Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Monitoring Committee Meetings; September 23, 2015, and November 7-10, 2015;
• Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass Advisory Panel Meetings; October 22, 2015, and November 17, 2015;
• Council meeting; December 8-10, 2015.
Furthermore, the measures of this rule have been subject to public comment through proposed rulemaking, as required under the Administrative Procedure Act.
The Administrator, Greater Atlantic Region, NMFS, determined that the 2016 recreational management measures and other specification measures of this rule for the Summer Flounder, Scup, and Black Sea Bass FMP are necessary for the conservation and management of the summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass fisheries and that the measures are consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and other applicable laws.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, finds good cause to waive the requirement for a 30-day delay in effectiveness under the provisions of section 553(d) of the Administrative Procedure Act because a delay in its effectiveness would not serve any legitimate purpose, while unfairly prejudicing federally permitted charter/party vessels. Recreational fisheries are already underway for summer flounder, scup, and black sea bass. Rulemaking has been delayed while final information from the MRIP program, provided many weeks later than is typical, has been evaluated. The Commission's Black Sea Bass Management Board met on July 6, 2016, to discuss the updated MRIP estimates. NMFS could not issue a final rule for black sea bass measures until the outcome of this meeting was known.
Because summer flounder fisheries are already open prior to the publication of this rule, additional delay will disadvantage federally permitted charter/party vessels that would be restricted to the existing summer flounder coastwide regulations (18-inch (45.7-cm) minimum size and a 4-fish per person possession limit) until the Federal regulations implementing conservation equivalency are effective. This would unnecessarily disadvantage federally permitted vessels, which would be subject to the more restrictive measures while state-licensed vessels could be engaged in fishing activities under this year's management measures. If this final rule were delayed for 30 days, the fishery would likely forego some amount of landings and revenues during the delay period. While these restrictions would be alleviated after this rule becomes effective, fishermen may be not able to recoup the lost economic opportunity of foregone trips that would result from delaying the effectiveness of this action.
Finally, requiring a 30-day delay before the final rule becomes effective would not provide any benefit to the regulated parties. Unlike actions that require an adjustment period to comply with new rules, charter/party operators will not have to purchase new equipment or otherwise expend time or money to comply with these management measures. Rather, complying with this final rule simply means adhering to the published management measures for each relevant species of fish while the charter/party operators are engaged in fishing activities.
For these reasons, the Assistant Administrator finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay and to implement this rule upon publication in the
This final rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
On December 29, 2015, the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS 11411) for Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). The $11 million standard became effective on July 1, 2016, and is to be used in place of the U.S. Small Business Administration's (SBA) current standards of $20.5 million, $5.5 million, and $7.5 million for the finfish (NAICS 114111), shellfish (NAICS 114112), and other marine fishing (NAICS 114119) sectors of the U.S. commercial fishing industry in all NMFS rules subject to the RFA after July 1, 2016.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act, and prior to July 1, 2016, a certification was developed for this regulatory action using SBA's former size standards. NMFS has reviewed the analyses prepared for this regulatory action in light of the new size standard. All of the entities directly regulated by this regulatory action are commercial finfish fishing businesses. The new standard could result in fewer commercial finfish businesses being considered small. However, NMFS has determined that the new size standard does not affect its decision to certify this regulatory action. The action results in essentially status quo measures for all three fisheries and would have a minimal, potentially slightly positive, impact on all regulated entities regardless of size.
Fisheries, Fishing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 648 is amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1801
(a) The Regional Administrator has determined that the recreational fishing measures proposed to be implemented by the states of Maine through North Carolina for 2016 are the conservation equivalent of the season, minimum size, and possession limit prescribed in §§ 648.102, 648.103, and 648.105(a), respectively. This determination is based on a recommendation from the Summer Flounder Board of the Atlantic States Marine Fisheries Commission.
The revision reads as follows:
(a)
(a)
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the 2016 total allowable catch of dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), August 1, 2016, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2016.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) of dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA is 173 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (81 FR 14740, March 18, 2016).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the 2016 TAC of dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA will soon be reached. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 100 mt, and is setting aside the remaining 73 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of directed fishing for dusky rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of July 29, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Pacific ocean perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the 2016 total allowable catch of Pacific ocean perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), August 1, 2016, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2016.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) of Pacific ocean perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA is 2,737 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (81 FR 14740, March 18, 2016).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the 2016 TAC of Pacific ocean perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA will soon be reached. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 2,637 mt, and is setting aside 100 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of directed fishing for Pacific ocean perch in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of July 29, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the 2016 total allowable catch of northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
Effective 1200 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), August 1, 2016, through 2400 hours, A.l.t., December 31, 2016.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the GOA exclusive economic zone according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2016 total allowable catch (TAC) of northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA is 457 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2016 and 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (81 FR 14740, March 18, 2016).
In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Administrator, Alaska Region, NMFS (Regional Administrator), has determined that the 2016 TAC of northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA will be soon be reached. Therefore, the Regional Administrator is establishing a directed fishing allowance of 50 mt, and is setting aside 407 mt as bycatch to support other anticipated groundfish fisheries. In accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), the Regional Administrator finds that this directed fishing allowance has been reached. Consequently, NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the closure of directed fishing for northern rockfish in the Western Regulatory Area of the GOA. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of July 29, 2016.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
We are proposing to amend the regulations to allow the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam into the continental United States. As a condition of entry, fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would be subject to a systems approach that would include orchard requirements, irradiation treatment, and port of entry inspection. The fruit would also be required to be imported in commercial consignments and accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the national plant protection organization of Vietnam with an additional declaration stating that the consignment was inspected and found free of
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Mr. Tony Román, Senior Regulatory Policy Specialist, Regulatory Coordination and Compliance, PPQ, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 133, Riverdale, MD 20737-1231; (301) 851-2242.
Under the regulations in “Subpart—Fruits and Vegetables” (7 CFR 319.56-1 through 319.56-75, referred to below as the regulations or the fruits and vegetables regulations), the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the United States Department of Agriculture prohibits or restricts the importation of fruits and vegetables into the United States from certain parts of the world to prevent plant pests from being introduced into and spread within the United States.
APHIS received a request from the national plant protection organization (NPPO) of Vietnam to amend the regulations to allow the importation of commercially produced fresh mango (
The PRA, titled “Importation of Fresh Mango Fruit,
The PRA identifies 18 quarantine pests that could be introduced into the United States in consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam. A quarantine pest is defined in § 319.56-2 as “a pest of potential economic importance to the area endangered thereby and not yet present there, or present but not widely distributed and being officially controlled.” The pests listed in the PRA are:
• Carambola fruit fly,
• Guava fruit fly,
• Melon fly,
• Oriental fruit fly,
• Pumpkin fruit fly,
• Peach fruit fly,
• Yellow peach moth,
• Mango seed borer,
• Old World bollworm,
• Pink hibiscus mealybug,
• The fungus
• Spherical mealybug,
• Coffee mealybug,
• Citriculus mealybug,
• Fruit tree mealybug,
• Chili thrips,
• Mango pulp weevil,
• Mango black spot,
Based on the findings of the PRA, APHIS has determined that measures beyond standard port-of-entry inspection are needed to mitigate the risks posed by these pests. These measures are identified in the RMD and are used as the basis for the requirements included in this proposed rule. We are therefore proposing to allow the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam into the continental United States if it is produced under a systems approach, which is described below. Requirements of the systems approach would be added to the regulations as a new § 319.56-76.
Only commercial consignments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would be allowed to be imported into the continental United States. Produce grown commercially is less likely to be infested with plant pests than noncommercial consignments. Noncommercial consignments are more prone to infestations because the commodity is often ripe to overripe, could be of a variety with unknown susceptibility to pests, and is often grown with little or no pest control. Commercial consignments, as defined in § 319.56-2, are consignments that an inspector identifies as having been imported for sale and distribution. Such identification is based on a variety of indicators, including, but not limited to: Quantity of produce, type of packing, identification of grower or packinghouse on the packaging, and documents consigning the fruits or vegetables to a wholesaler or retailer.
Under this proposed rule, fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would be required to be treated with a minimum absorbed irradiation dose of 400 gray in accordance with § 305.9 of the phytosanitary treatment regulations in 7 CFR part 305. This is the established generic dose for all insect pests except pupae and adults of the order Lepidoptera. While it is true that three of the pests associated with fresh mango fruit from Vietnam are Lepidopteran (yellow peach moth, mango seed borer, and Old World bollworm), irradiation is unique among quarantine treatments insofar as sublethal doses are effective in providing phytosanitary protection against Lepidopteran pests in the following ways:
• While the treatment is not lethal to pupae and adults of the order Lepidoptera it is lethal to larvae. Larvae are of greatest phytosanitary concern given that they are internal feeders and may therefore be overlooked upon inspection;
• Irradiation prevents normal adult emergence from the pupal stage;
• Irradiation also causes sterility in pupae and emerged adults, preventing further larval reproduction.
Shipments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would also have to meet all other relevant requirements in 7 CFR part 305, including monitoring of treatment by APHIS inspectors.
In order to mitigate the risks posed by
Symptoms of this plant pathogen can be easily seen and detected in the field on mango leaves and fruit during pre-harvest inspection. Post-harvest diseases do not occur without the presence of symptoms on leaves in the field. Orchard application of broad spectrum fungicide sprays protects fruit from infection by aerial spores produced on leaves or stems.
Each consignment of fruit would have to be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of Vietnam that contains an additional declaration stating that the fruit in the consignment was inspected and found free of
Inspection would mitigate the risks posed by
Requiring a phytosanitary certificate would ensure that the NPPO of Vietnam has inspected the fruit and certified that the fruit meets our requirements for export to the continental United States.
Shipments of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam would be subject to inspection at the port of entry. This will provide an additional layer of phytosanitary protection in order to prevent the dissemination of plant pests into the continental United States.
This proposed rule has been has been determined to be not significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have analyzed the potential economic effects of this action on small entities.
This proposed rule is in response to a request from Vietnam to be allowed to export fresh mango fruit to the continental United States. The annual quantity that Vietnam expects to export to the United States, 3,000 metric tons, represents less than 1 percent of U.S. fresh mango fruit imports, which averaged 396,070 metric tons per year, 2012 to 2015, primarily from Mexico, Peru, Ecuador, Brazil, and Guatemala. While mangoes are grown in Florida and Hawaii, and in smaller quantities in California and Texas, U.S. annual production totals only about 3,000 metric tons.
Most if not all U.S. mango farms and wholesalers are small entities. However, given the small quantity expected to be imported from Vietnam relative to current imports, the proposed rule would not have a significant impact on U.S. mango producers. While Vietnam's mango season runs from February to September, encompassing that of the United States (Florida's season is May to September), U.S. importers may benefit marginally in having Vietnam as another source of fresh mango fruit that would help meet demand.
Under these circumstances, the Administrator of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has determined that this action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
This proposed rule would allow fresh mango fruit to be imported into the continental United States from Vietnam under a systems approach. If this proposed rule is adopted, State and local laws and regulations regarding fresh mango fruit imported under this rule would be preempted while the fruit is in foreign commerce. Fresh fruits are generally imported for immediate distribution and sale to the consuming public and would remain in foreign commerce until sold to the ultimate consumer. The question of when foreign commerce ceases in other cases must be addressed on a case-by-case basis. If this proposed rule is adopted, no retroactive effect will be given to this rule, and this rule will not require administrative proceedings before parties may file suit in court challenging this rule.
In accordance with section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
This action would allow for the importation of fresh mango fruit from Vietnam while continuing to provide protection against the introduction of plant pests into the continental United States.
Implementing this rule will require irradiation facility requirements, orchard inspections, phytosanitary treatments, port of entry inspections, and phytosanitary certificates.
We are soliciting comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our proposed information collection and recordkeeping requirements. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper performance of our agency's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the information collection on those who are to respond (such as through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology;
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2727.
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service is committed to compliance with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes. For information pertinent to E-Government Act compliance related to this proposed rule, please contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2727.
Coffee, Cotton, Fruits, Imports, Logs, Nursery stock, Plant diseases and pests, Quarantine, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rice, Vegetables.
Accordingly, we propose to amend 7 CFR part 319 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 450, 7701-7772, and 7781-7786; 21 U.S.C. 136 and 136a; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.3.
Fresh mango (
(a) The fresh mango fruit may be imported in commercial consignments only.
(b) The fresh mango fruit must be treated for plant pests of the class Insecta, except pupae and adults of the order Lepidoptera, with irradiation in accordance with part 305 of this chapter.
(c) The risks presented by
(1) The mangoes are treated with a broad-spectrum post-harvest fungicidal dip; or
(2) The orchard of origin is inspected prior to the beginning of harvest and found free of
(3) Fruit must originate from an orchard that was treated with a broad-spectrum fungicide during the growing season.
(d) Each consignment of fresh mango fruit must be accompanied by a phytosanitary certificate issued by the NPPO of Vietnam that contains an additional declaration stating that the fruit in the consignment was inspected and found free of
(e) The fruit is subject to inspection at the port of entry for all quarantine pests of concern.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule invites comments on a proposed amendment to Marketing Orders, which regulates the handling of cranberries grown in the states of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York. The Cranberry Marketing Committee (Committee), which is responsible for the local administration of the order and is comprised of growers of cranberries operating within the production area, recommended adding authority to accept donations from domestic contributors. Contributed funds would be used solely for research and development activities authorized under the regulation of the order and would be free from any encumbrances as to their usage by the donor.
Comments must be received by October 3, 2016.
Written comments should be submitted to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence
Abdullah Orozco, Marketing Specialist, or Michelle P. Sharrow, Rulemaking Branch Chief, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Stop 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Antoinette Carter, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This proposal is issued under Marketing Order and Agreement No. 929, as amended (7 CFR part 929), regulating the handling of cranberries grown in the states of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York, hereinafter referred to as the “order.” The order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” Section 608c(17) of the Act and the applicable rules of practice and procedure governing the formulation of marketing agreements and orders (7 CFR part 900) authorizes amendment of the order through this informal rulemaking action. AMS will consider comments received in response to this rule, and based on all the information available, will determine if order amendment is warranted. If AMS determines amendment of the order is warranted, a subsequent proposed rule and referendum order would be issued, and producers of cranberries regulated within the production area would be allowed to vote for or against the proposed amendment. AMS would then issue a final rule effectuating the amendment if it is approved by producers in the referendum.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This proposal has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule is not intended to have retroactive effect. This rule shall not be deemed to preclude, preempt, or supersede any State program covering cranberries in the production area.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. A handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed no later than 20 days after the date of entry of the ruling.
Section 1504 of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (2008 Farm Bill) (Pub. L. 110-246) amended section 18c(17) of the Act, which in turn required the addition of supplemental rules of practice to 7 CFR part 900 (73 FR 49307; August 21, 2008). The amendment of section 18c(17) of the Act and additional supplemental rules of practice authorize the use of informal rulemaking (5 U.S.C. 553) to amend Federal fruit, vegetable, and nut marketing agreements and orders. USDA may use informal rulemaking to amend marketing orders based on the nature and complexity of the proposed amendments, the potential regulatory and economic impacts on affected entities, and any other relevant matters.
AMS has considered these factors and has determined that this proposed amendment is not unduly complex and its nature is appropriate for utilizing the informal rulemaking process to amend the order. A discussion of the potential regulatory and economic impacts on affected entities is discussed later in the “Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis” section of this rule.
The proposed amendment was unanimously recommended by the Committee following deliberations at a public meeting held August 17-18, 2015. The proposed amendment would give the Committee authority to receive and expend voluntary contributions from domestic sources to fund production research, marketing research, and market development projects, including paid advertising, designed to assist, improve, or promote the marketing, distribution, consumption or efficient production of cranberries, as authorized under § 929.45, Research and development.
Currently, program operations are solely financed through assessments collected from handlers regulated under the order. Sources not subject to the order have expressed an interest in supporting many of the research and development projects currently funded by the order. However, without the ability to accept financial contributions, the Committee has had to decline these offers. This proposal would provide authority to accept financial contributions. With the potential for additional funding, more research and development projects could be undertaken.
This proposal would add a new section, § 929.43, Contributions, to the order. If implemented, this section would authorize the Committee to accept voluntary financial contributions. Such contributions could only be accepted from domestic sources and would be free from any encumbrances or restrictions on their use by the donor. When received, the Committee would retain complete control of their use. The use of contributed funds would be limited to funding program activities authorized under § 929.45, Research and development.
Pursuant to the requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 1,200 cranberry growers in the regulated area and approximately 45 cranberry handlers who are subject to regulation under the marketing order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to the National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS), grower prices were $30.90 per barrel for cranberries during the 2014-15 marketing year. NASS also reported total bearing acres at 40,600 and average yield per acre at 10.3 tons for the 2014-15 marketing year.
Based on the total bearing acres provided by NASS and the approximate number of cranberry growers (1,200 growers), the average acreage per grower is 33.8 acres. Multiplying the average acreage per grower (33.8 acres) by the average yield per acre (10.3 tons) results in an average production of 348.5 tons. To convert the average production from tons to barrels, 348.5 tons is multiplied by 2,000 pounds (one ton equals 2,000 pounds) to equal 696,966.7 pounds and is then divided by 100 (100 pounds equals 1 barrel), resulting in an average production per growers of 6,969.7 barrels.
Multiplying the average production (6,967.7 barrels) by the grower price ($30.90 per barrel), provided by NASS, equals an average grower revenue of $215,301.90. Based on this calculation, the average annual grower revenue for the 2014-15 marketing year was below $750,000.
Using Committee information and shipment data, the majority of cranberry handlers could also be considered small businesses under SBA's definition. Therefore, the majority of cranberry growers and handlers may be classified as small entities under SBA definitions.
The amendment proposed by the Committee would add a new section, § 929.43, Contributions, to the order. If implemented, this section would authorize the Committee to accept voluntary financial contributions. Such contributions could only be accepted from domestic sources and would be free from any encumbrances or restrictions on their use by the donor. When received, the Committee would retain complete control of their use. The use of contributed funds would be limited to funding program activities authorized under § 929.45, Research and development.
The Committee's proposed amendment was unanimously recommended at a public meeting on August 17-18, 2015. If the proposal is approved in referendum, there would be no direct financial effect on growers or handlers. This proposal would provide authority to accept additional funding. With the potential for additional funding, more research and promotional projects could be undertaken. Therefore, it is anticipated that both small and large producer and handler businesses would benefit from its implementation.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189, “Generic Fruit Crops.” No changes in those requirements as a result of this action would be necessary. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would impose no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large cranberry handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
The Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the cranberry production area. All interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and encouraged to participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the August 17-18, 2015, meeting was public, and all entities, both large and small, were encouraged to express their views on these proposals. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on the proposed amendments to the order, including comments on the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
Following analysis of any comments received on the amendments proposed in this rule, AMS will evaluate all available information and determine whether to proceed. If appropriate, a proposed rule and referendum order would be issued, and producers would be provided the opportunity to vote for or against the proposed amendment. Information about the referendum, including dates and voter eligibility requirements, would be published in a future issue of the
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies, to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this action. A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
The findings hereinafter set forth are supplementary to the findings and determinations which were previously made in connection with the issuance of the marketing order; and all said previous findings and determinations are hereby ratified and affirmed, except insofar as such findings and determinations may be in conflict with the findings and determinations set forth herein.
1. The marketing order as hereby proposed to be amended and all of the terms and conditions thereof, would tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act;
2. The marketing order as hereby proposed to be amended regulates the handling of cranberries grown in the states of Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Jersey, Wisconsin, Michigan, Minnesota, Oregon, Washington, and Long Island in the State of New York in the same manner as, and is applicable only to, persons in the respective classes of commercial and industrial activity specified in the marketing order;
3. The marketing order as hereby proposed to be amended is limited in application to the smallest regional production area which is practicable, consistent with carrying out the declared policy of the Act, and the issuance of several orders applicable to subdivisions of the production area would not effectively carry out the declared policy of the Act;
4. The marketing order as hereby proposed to be amended prescribes, insofar as practicable, such different terms applicable to different parts of the production area as are necessary to give due recognition to the differences in the production and marketing of cranberries produced or handled in the production area; and
5. All handling of cranberries produced in the production area as defined in the order is in the current of interstate or foreign commerce or directly burdens, obstructs, or affects such commerce.
A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to these proposals. Any comments received on the amendments proposed in this rule will be analyzed, and if AMS determines to proceed based on all the information presented, a producer referendum would be conducted to determine producer support for the proposed amendments. If appropriate, a final rule would then be issued to effectuate the amendment favored by producers participating in the referendum.
Cranberries, Marketing agreements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 929 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
The Committee may accept voluntary contributions to pay expenses incurred pursuant to § 929.45, Research and development. Such contributions may only be accepted if they are sourced from domestic contributors and are free from any encumbrances or restrictions on their use by the donor. The Cranberry Marketing Committee shall retain complete control of their use.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
We are proposing to amend the Animal Welfare Act (AWA) regulations in response to a 2014 Farm Bill amendment to the Act that provides the Secretary of Agriculture with the authority to determine that animal dealers and exhibitors are not required to obtain a license under the Act and regulations if the size of the business conducting AWA-related activities is determined to be
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before November 2, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
Dr. Kay Carter-Corker, DVM, Director, National Policy Staff, USDA-APHIS-Animal Care, 4700 River Road, Unit 84, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3748.
Under the Animal Welfare Act (AWA or the Act, 7 U.S.C. 2131
The AWA seeks to ensure the humane handling, care, treatment, and transportation of animals intended for use by dealers, research facilities, and exhibitors, operators of auction sales, and carriers and intermediate handlers. Dealers (including breeders meeting the definition of “dealer”) and exhibitors of such animals must obtain licenses and comply with AWA regulations and standards, and their facilities are inspected by APHIS for compliance.
The Act defines “animal” in § 2132(g) specifically as any live or dead dog, cat, monkey (nonhuman primate mammal), guinea pig, hamster, rabbit, or such other warm-blooded animal, as the Secretary may determine is being used, or is intended for use, for research, testing, experimentation, or exhibition purposes, or as pets; but such term excludes birds, rats of the genus
In addition to the exclusions provided to persons under the definition of “animal,” the Act contains exclusions for certain persons who buy, sell, transport, or exhibit animals that are covered under the Act. Under the definition of “dealer” in § 2132, the Act excludes retail pet stores that do not sell any animals to a research facility, an exhibitor, or a dealer. Prior to its amendment by the 2014 Farm Bill,
The definition of “exhibitor” under § 2132(h) of the Act excludes retail pet stores, an owner of a common, domesticated household pet who derives less than a substantial portion of income from a nonprimary source (as determined by the Secretary) for exhibiting an animal that exclusively resides at the residence of the pet owner, organizations sponsoring and all persons participating in State and county fairs, livestock shows, rodeos, purebred dog and cat shows, and any other fairs or exhibitions intended to advance agricultural arts and sciences, as may be determined by the Secretary.
Section 2133 of the Act establishes a requirement for licensing of dealers and exhibitors but excludes retail pet stores from the licensing requirement. Prior to its amendment by the 2014 Farm Bill, the Act also specifically excluded from licensing any person “who derives less than a substantial portion of income (as determined by the Secretary) from the breeding and raising of dogs or cats on his own premises and sells any such dog or cat to a dealer or research facility.”
The current regulations include, among others, licensing exemptions based on the size of the business with respect to the number of breeding female animals maintained or gross income from the sale of animals. These exemptions are explained below.
Reflecting what is stated in § 2132 of the Act, § 2.1(a)(3)(i) of the AWA regulations affirms that retail pet stores are exempt from the licensing requirements. However, the Act itself provides no specific definition for the term “retail pet store.” In a 2013 final rule,
Our intent in amending the definition of “retail pet store” was to narrow the scope of the exemption to apply only to retailers who sell exclusively in face-to-face transactions so that pets sold by exempted retailers continue to be monitored for their humane care and treatment by the buying public. We made these changes to ensure that the definition of “retail pet store” was consistent with the original intent of the Act and to bring more pet animals sold at retail under its protection.
In the rulemaking to define “retail pet store,” we also preserved an exemption in § 2.1(a)(3)(vii) for purebred dog and cat fanciers with four or fewer breeding female dogs, cats, and/or small exotic or wild mammals who sell only the offspring of these animals and who, because of the size of their businesses, are capable of providing adequate care and treatment for the animals involved in regulated business activities without Federal licensing and inspection requirements to ensure animal welfare.
Section 2.1(a)(3)(iii) exempts from licensing any person maintaining four or fewer breeding female dogs, cats, and/or small exotic or wild mammals, and who sells, at wholesale,
The current AWA regulations also include the income-based exemption from licensing that was in § 2132(f)(ii) of the Act prior to its amendment by Congress in the 2014 Farm Bill. The $500 gross income limit for persons who sell animals other than wild or exotic animals, dogs, or cats excludes such persons from the definition of “dealer” in § 1.1 of the regulations and therefore exempts them from the licensing requirement in § 2.1(a)(3)(ii). The rationale for establishing this exemption was to conform the regulations to the 1970 statutory amendment to the Act.
In the 2014 Farm Bill, Congress amended § 2133 of the Act by giving the Secretary the authority to set thresholds for regulated activities involving animals under which businesses could be exempted from licensure as a dealer or exhibitor “if the size of business is determined by the Secretary to be
Congress noted in its Conference Report
We emphasize that the thresholds in the current exemptions for dealers are based on the total number of breeding females of all species combined on a premises, not four breeding female animals per each species. For example, if a breeder selling AWA-covered species at retail or wholesale has a total of three breeding female dogs and two breeding female guinea pigs, that breeder could not claim an exemption, as the total number of AWA-covered breeding females the person maintains is five breeding females and exceeds the threshold of four breeding females. We would apply the same provision to any person seeking a
In addition to dealers, in section 12308 of the 2014 Farm Bill, Congress amended the Act (7 U.S.C. 2132) to provide the Secretary with the authority to establish a
On December 31, 2012, we published a final rule
One issue that warranted further review was the impact of contingency planning and other licensing requirements on exhibitors whose businesses involve small numbers of animals. While these exhibitors do not typically pose risks to animal welfare, there was no legal mechanism for exempting them from licensing and contingency planning requirements as
In response to the amendments made to the Act, we propose to amend the definitions of
In § 1.1 of the regulations,
The 2014 Farm Bill amended the definition of “dealer” in § 2132(f) of the Act by striking language from the definition that excluded “any person who does not sell, or negotiate the purchase or sale of any wild animal, dog, or cat, and who derives no more than $500 gross income from the sale of other animals during any calendar year.”
We propose to make the definition of
In 2013, Congress amended
We propose to make changes and additions to the licensing exemptions in § 2.1(a)(3) so that the AWA regulations are consistent with the Act, as amended. These changes include adding
The
As noted previously, we propose no changes to the current retail licensing exemptions in § 2.1(a)(3)(i) and (a)(3)(iii) or the exemption in § 2.1(a)(3)(vii), and persons exempted under these provisions would not be affected by this proposal. Retailers exempted under the retail pet store licensing exemption who sell the offspring of their breeding females solely in face-to-face customer transactions would not be affected by the proposed
We propose in a new § 2.1(a)(3)(ix) to establish a
As indicated above, we also propose to establish
The
In a new § 2.1(a)(3)(x), we would establish a
Based on our extensive knowledge and experience of animals used for year-round exhibition purposes, we determined the threshold for this exemption to be four, as exhibitors with a small number of common, domesticated, non-dangerous animals are capable of providing adequate care and treatment for the animals involved in regulated business activities, based on compliance data on currently licensed exhibitors.
In a new § 2.1(a)(3)(xi), we would also include
We determined the
We based our determination of 30 or fewer days for this exemption on our experience with inspecting seasonal exhibitors holding a small number of common, domesticated, non-dangerous animals, which indicates that exhibitors with animals displayed to the public for 30 days or less annually are capable of providing adequate care and treatment for the animals involved in the exhibition.
Persons exhibiting regulated animals not included in the proposed thresholds table would not be eligible for a
In 2013, Congress amended
The exclusion from the definition of “exhibitor” under the Act is only applicable to persons meeting all the criteria listed in the amendment. Similarly, under our proposed revision of “exhibitor” in the regulations, a person exhibiting other than a “common, domesticated household pet” would not be eligible for the exclusion. Also, persons who derive their primary source of income from exhibiting the animals, or who generate a substantial amount of money from such exhibition as determined by APHIS, would not be eligible for the exclusion. We interpret “less than a substantial portion of income” in the Act to mean a minimal amount of money that the owner makes from exhibiting animals. We interpret “a nonprimary source” to mean the activity is not a full-time job or primary source of income.
Many persons eligible for this exclusion employ one or more common, domesticated household pets in intermittent or infrequent exhibition, such as brief film and television appearances. Based on the industry pay rates for pet animal film work
Therefore, we propose to include a regulatory licensing exemption in a new § 2.1(a)(3)(xii) for any person who maintains a total of four or fewer common, domesticated household pet animals, who uses them for intermittent or infrequent exhibition for no more than 30 days per calendar year, who derives less than a substantial portion of income from a nonprimary source for exhibiting such animals, whose animals reside exclusively at the residence of the owner, and who is not otherwise required to obtain a license. This exemption would not extend to any person residing in a household that collectively maintains a total of more than four pet animals, regardless of ownership, nor to any person maintaining pet animals on premises on which more than four pet animals are maintained, nor to any person acting in concert with others where they collectively maintain a total of more than four pet animals, regardless of ownership.
We determined the total number of animals for this exemption to be four because our experience indicates that exhibitors who maintain and exhibit four or fewer animals and those who exhibit resident pet animals infrequently or intermittently (
For easier reference, we also propose adding to the regulations a new § 2.1(a)(3)(xiii) that includes a summary table of the
The proposed thresholds are ultimately based on our experience that businesses conducting AWA-regulated activities with the animals indicated for each threshold present a minimal risk to animal welfare and therefore do not require APHIS licensing and inspection. However, the list of animals eligible for
We are also proposing to amend the regulations to remove a redundant provision. We would remove from § 2.1(c)(2) the phrase “and, in the case of a license renewal, the annual license fee has been received by the appropriate Animal Care regional office on or before the expiration date of the license.” This phrase is unnecessary because the same provision is repeated in paragraph (d)(1) of that section. In addition, we are proposing to remove §§ 3.28(b), 3.53(b), and 3.80(b)(1). These sections contain obsolete sheltering and minimum space requirements for dogs, cats, guinea pigs, hamsters, rabbits, and nonhuman primates that have been since replaced by updated sheltering and minimum space requirements. Removal of the obsolete requirements will minimize confusion with the current regulatory requirements and will have no impact on facilities and animal welfare. Similarly, we are revising § 3.6(a)(2)(xii) to remove phase-in dates which are no longer needed regarding primary enclosures for dogs and cats.
This proposed rule has been determined to be significant for the purposes of Executive Order 12866 and, therefore, has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
We have prepared an economic analysis for this rule. The economic analysis provides a cost-benefit analysis, as required by Executive Orders 12866 and 13563, and an initial regulatory flexibility analysis that examines the
A 2014 Farm Bill amendment to the Animal Welfare Act provides the Secretary of Agriculture with the authority to determine when animal dealers and exhibitors are not required to obtain a license under the Act if the size of the business conducting AWA-related activities is determined by the Secretary to be
APHIS' experience indicates that exhibitors who maintain or infrequently exhibit a small number of certain common non-dangerous animals are capable of providing adequate care and treatment to the animals involved in regulated business activities without Federal licensing and inspection requirements to ensure animal welfare. Because of the size of the business and their ability to provide adequate care and treatment, we consider such businesses to be engaged in a
By the very nature of this proposal, all entities that would be affected are considered small. The entities most likely to be affected by this proposal are businesses engaged in AWA-related exhibition activities that have small numbers of regulated animals. This proposed rule would relieve regulatory responsibilities for some currently licensed entities and reduce the cost of business for those entities. Those currently licensed exhibitors and dealers (including breeders meeting the definition of “dealer”) who are under the proposed
The cost of a license for the smallest entities is between $40 and $85 annually. Identification tags for dogs and cats cost from $1.12 to $2.50 each. Other covered animals can be identified by a label attached to the primary enclosure containing a description of the animals in the enclosure at negligible cost. We estimate that the average currently licensed entity potentially affected by this proposal spends about 10 hours annually to comply with the licensing paperwork and recordkeeping requirements. All of the currently licensed entities that would be considered
Based on our review of available information, APHIS does not expect the proposed rule to have a significant economic impact on small entities. We have prepared the initial regulatory flexibility analysis because we need public input to help establish the total number of entities that will be affected. While we have yet to determine the total number of entities that would fall below the thresholds we propose, those entities that do fall below the thresholds would benefit from the rule. Those currently licensed entities that do not fall below the thresholds would see no additional economic impact as a result of this rule. In the absence of apparent significant economic impacts, we have not identified alternatives that would minimize such impacts.
This program/activity is listed in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance under No. 10.025 and is subject to Executive Order 12372, which requires intergovernmental consultation with State and local officials. (See 2 CFR chapter IV.)
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. It is not intended to have retroactive effect. The Act does not provide administrative procedures which must be exhausted prior to a judicial challenge to the provisions of this rule.
This rule has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” Executive Order 13175 requires Federal agencies to consult and coordinate with tribes on a government-to-government basis on policies that have tribal implications, including regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service has assessed the impact of this rule on Indian tribes and determined that this rule does not, to our knowledge, have tribal implications that require tribal consultation under Executive Order 13175. If a Tribe requests consultation, APHIS will work with the Office of Tribal Relations to ensure meaningful consultation is provided where changes, additions and modifications identified herein are not expressly mandated by Congress.
This proposed rule contains no new information collection or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Animal welfare, Marine mammals, Pets, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Research, Transportation.
Accordingly, we propose to amend 9 CFR parts 1, 2, and 3 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.
The revisions read as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(3) * * *
(ii) Any person whose AWA-related business activity is determined by APHIS to be
(ix) Any person who maintains a total of four or fewer breeding female dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, and who sells, at retail or wholesale, only the offspring of these dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, which were born and raised on his or her premises, and is not otherwise required to obtain a license. This exemption does not extend to any person residing in a household that collectively maintains a total of more than four breeding female dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership, nor to any person maintaining breeding female dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep on premises on which more than four breeding female dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep are maintained, nor to any person acting in concert with others where they collectively maintain a total of more than four breeding female dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership.
(x) Any person who maintains a total of four or fewer dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, for exhibition and houses the animals permanently at the site where they are exhibited year-round, and is not otherwise required to obtain a license. This exemption does not extend to any person residing in a household that collectively maintains a total of more than four dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership, nor to any person maintaining dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep on premises on which more than four dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep are maintained, nor to any person acting in concert with others where they collectively maintain a total of more than four dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership.
(xi) Any person who maintains a total of eight or fewer dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, for seasonal exhibition and exhibits any or all of the animals for no more than 30 days per calendar year, and is not otherwise required to obtain a license. This exemption does not extend to any person residing in a household that collectively maintains a total of more than eight dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership, nor to any person maintaining eight dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep on premises on which more than eight dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep are maintained, nor to any person acting in concert with others where they collectively maintain a total of more than eight dogs, cats, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, cows, goats, pigs, and sheep, regardless of ownership.
(xii) Any person who maintains a total of four or fewer common, domesticated, non-dangerous household pet animals for infrequent or intermittent exhibition for no more than 30 days per calendar year, who derives less than a substantial portion of income from a nonprimary source for exhibiting such animals, whose animals reside exclusively at the residence of the owner, and who is not otherwise be required to obtain a license. This exemption would not extend to any person residing in a household that collectively maintains a total of more than four pet animals, regardless of ownership, nor to any person maintaining pet animals on premises on which more than four pet animals are maintained, nor to any person acting in concert with others where they collectively maintain a total of more than four pet animals, regardless of ownership.
(xiii) Following is a summary of the
(c) * * *
(2) The applicant has paid the application fee of $10 and the annual license fee indicated in § 2.6 to the appropriate Animal Care regional office for an initial license.
7 U.S.C. 2131-2159; 7 CFR 2.22, 2.80, and 371.7.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(xii) If the suspended floor of a primary enclosure is constructed of metal strands, the strands must either be greater than
The revision reads as follows:
(c) Innovative primary enclosures not precisely meeting the floor area and height requirements provided in paragraph (b) of this section, but that do provide nonhuman primates with a sufficient volume of space and the opportunity to express species-typical behavior, may be used at research facilities when approved by the Committee, and by dealers and exhibitors when approved by the Administrator.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board); Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau); and Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury (OCC).
Proposed rule; request for public comment.
The OCC, the Board and the Bureau are publishing proposed rules amending the official interpretations for their regulations that implement section 129H of the Truth in Lending Act (TILA). Section 129H of TILA establishes special appraisal requirements for “higher-risk mortgages,” termed “higher-priced mortgage loans” or “HPMLs” in the agencies' regulations. The OCC, the Board, the Bureau, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) and the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) (collectively, the Agencies) issued joint final rules implementing these requirements, effective January 18, 2014. The Agencies' rules exempted, among other loan types, transactions of $25,000 or less, and required that this loan amount be adjusted annually based on any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W). If there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, the OCC, the Board and the Bureau will not adjust this exemption threshold from the prior year. The proposal would memorialize this as well as the agencies' calculation method for determining the adjustment in years following a year in which there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W.
Comments must be received on or before September 6, 2016.
Interested parties are encouraged to submit written comments jointly to the OCC, the Board, and the Bureau. Commenters are encouraged to use the title “Appraisals for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans” to facilitate the organization and distribution of comments among the agencies. Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to:
•
• Click on the “Help” tab on the
•
•
•
•
You may review comments and other related materials that pertain to this notice of proposed rulemaking by any of the following methods:
•
• Click on the “Help” tab on the
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
All comments, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included. Comments will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.
The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act) amended the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) to add special appraisal requirements for “higher-risk mortgages.”
The Bureau's, the OCC's, and the Board's versions of the January 2013 Final Rule and December 2013 Supplemental Final Rule and corresponding official interpretations are substantively identical. The FDIC, NCUA, and FHFA adopted the Bureau's version of the regulations under the January 2013 Final Rule and December 2013 Supplemental Final Rule.
Section 34.203(b)(2) of subpart G of part 34 of the OCC's regulations, § 226.43(b)(2) of the Board's Regulation Z, and § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii) of the Bureau's Regulation Z, and their accompanying interpretations,
The OCC, the Board and the Bureau are proposing new commentary to memorialize the calculation method used by the agencies each year to adjust the exemption threshold. The new commentary is substantively identical for § 34.203(b)(2) of subpart G of part 34 of the OCC's regulations, § 226.43(b)(2) of the Board's Regulation Z, and § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii) of the Bureau's Regulation Z. For ease of reference, the “Commentary Revision” refers only to the section numbers of the commentary that will published in the Bureau's Regulation Z at 12 CFR part 1026, Supplement I.
Comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-1 to the Bureau's Regulation Z currently provides the threshold amount in effect during a particular period and details the rules the agencies use for rounding the threshold calculation to the nearest $100 or $1,000 increment, as discussed above in part I, “Background.” The OCC, the Board and the Bureau are proposing to revise comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-1 by moving the text regarding the threshold amount that is in effect during a particular period to a new proposed comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-3. The discussion of how the agencies round the threshold calculation would remain in comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-1. Current comments 35(c)(2)(ii)-2 and 35(c)(2)(ii)-3 would be renumbered as proposed comments 35(c)(2)(ii)-5 and 35(c)(2)(ii)-6, respectively.
As the Agencies have stated previously,
For the HPML appraisal rule exemption for smaller loans, the OCC, the Board, and the Bureau are proposing to memorialize this concept in proposed comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-2, which would provide that if the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. For example, if the threshold in effect from January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, is $27,500 and the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of 2019, indicates a 1.1 percent decrease from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2018, the threshold in effect for January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, will remain $27,500.
Proposed comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-2 would further set forth the calculation method the agencies would use in years following a year in which the exemption threshold was not adjusted because there was no increase in the CPI-W from the previous year. Specifically, as set forth under proposed comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-2, for the years after a year in which the threshold did not change because the CPI-W in effect on June 1 decreased from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold is calculated by applying the annual percentage change in the CPI-W to the dollar amount that would have resulted if the decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account. Proposed comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-2.i further states that, if the resulting amount is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
For example, assume that the threshold in effect from January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, is $27,500 and that, due to a 1.1 percent decrease from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2018, to the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, remains at $27,500. If, however, the threshold had been adjusted downward to reflect the decrease in the CPI-W over that time period, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, would have been $27,200. Further assume that the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020, increased by 1.6 percent from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019. The calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, is based on the impact of a 1.6 percent increase in the CPI-W on $27,200, rather than $27,500, resulting in a 2021 threshold of $27,600.
Furthermore, comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-2.ii states that, if the resulting amount calculated is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted. To illustrate, assume in the example above that the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020, increased by only 0.6 percent from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019. The calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, is based on the impact of a 0.6 percent increase in the CPI-W on $27,200. The resulting amount is $27,400, which is lower than $27,500, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. Therefore, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, will remain $27,500. However, the calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, will apply the percentage change in the CPI-W to $27,400, the amount that would have resulted based on the 0.6 percent change from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019, to the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020.
The agencies request comment on all aspects of the proposed rule.
In developing this proposal, the Bureau has considered potential benefits, costs, and impacts.
The Bureau has chosen to evaluate the benefits, costs and impacts of the proposed commentary against the current state of the world, which takes into account the current regulatory regime. The Bureau is not aware of any significant benefits or costs to consumers or covered persons associated with the proposal relative to the baseline. The OCC, the Board, and the Bureau previously stated that if there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, then the agencies will not adjust the exemption threshold from the prior year.
The proposed rule will have no unique impact on depository institutions or credit unions with $10 billion or less in assets as described in section 1026(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act or on rural consumers. The Bureau does not expect this final rule to affect consumers' access to credit.
As explained in the Commentary Revision section of the preamble, this proposed rule memorializes the calculation method used by the OCC, the Board, and the Bureau each year to adjust the threshold for exemption from the special appraisal requirements for HPMLs and clarifies the agencies' calculation method for determining the adjustment in the years following a year in which there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W. The economic impact of this proposed rule on national banks and Federal savings associations, regardless of size, is not expected to be significant. Accordingly, the OCC certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of OCC-supervised small entities.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
An IRFA is not required for this proposal because if adopted it would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As discussed in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above, this proposal does not introduce costs or benefits to covered persons because the proposal seeks only to clarify the method of threshold adjustment which has already been established in previous Agency rules. Therefore this proposed rule would not have a significant impact on small entities.
Accordingly, the Bureau Director, by signing below, certifies that this proposal, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
The OCC has analyzed the notice of proposed rulemaking under the factors set forth in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1532). Under this analysis, the OCC considered whether the proposed rule includes a Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year (adjusted annually for inflation).
The proposed rule memorializes the calculation method used by the OCC, the Board, and the Bureau each year to adjust the threshold for exemption from the special appraisal requirements for HPMLs and clarifies the agencies' calculation method for determining the adjustment in the years following a year in which there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W. Because the proposed rule is designed to clarify existing rules, and does not introduce any new requirements, the OCC has determined that it would not result in expenditures by State, local, and Tribal governments or by the private sector, of $100 million or more. Accordingly, the OCC has not prepared a written statement to accompany its proposed rule.
Appraisal, Appraiser, Banks, Banking, Consumer protection, Credit, Mortgages, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations, Truth in lending.
Advertising, Appraisal, Appraiser, Consumer protection, Credit, Federal
Advertising, Appraisal, Appraiser, Banking, Banks, Consumer protection, Credit, Credit unions, Mortgages, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations, Truth in lending.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the OCC proposes to amend 12 CFR part 34 as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 1
The additions and revisions read as follows:
1.
2.
i.
ii.
3.
i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
iii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
4.
5.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Board proposes to amend Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 226, as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 3806; 15 U.S.C. 1604, 1637(c)(5), 1639(l), and 1639h; Pub. L. 111-24, section 2, 123 Stat. 1734; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
1.
2.
i.
ii.
3.
i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
iii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
4.
5.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Bureau proposes to amend Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 2601, 2603-2605, 2607, 2609, 2617, 3353, 5511, 5512, 5532, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1601
35(c) Appraisals
35(c)(2) Exemptions
1.
2.
i.
ii.
3.
i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
iii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
4.
5.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board); and Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau).
Proposed rule; official interpretations.
The Board and the Bureau are proposing to amend the official interpretations and commentary for the agencies' regulations that implement the Consumer Leasing Act (CLA). The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) amended the CLA by requiring that the dollar threshold for exempt consumer credit transactions be adjusted annually by the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W). If there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, the Board and Bureau will not adjust this exemption threshold from the prior year. The proposal would memorialize this as well as the agencies' calculation method for determining the adjustment in years following a year in which there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W.
Because the Dodd-Frank Act also requires similar adjustments in the Truth in Lending Act's threshold for exempt consumer credit transactions, the Board and the Bureau are proposing similar amendments to the commentaries to each of their respective regulations implementing the Truth in Lending Act elsewhere in the
Comments must be received on or before September 6, 2016.
Interested parties are encouraged to submit written comments jointly to the Board and the Bureau. Commenters are encouraged to use the title “Consumer Leasing (Regulation M)” to facilitate the organization and distribution of comments among the agencies. Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to:
•
•
•
•
•
All public comments will be made available on the Board's Web site at
•
•
•
•
All comments, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included. Comments will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.
The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act) increased the threshold in the Consumer Leasing Act (CLA) for exempt consumer leases from $25,000 to $50,000, effective July 21, 2011.
Title X of the Dodd-Frank Act transferred rulemaking authority for a number of consumer financial protection laws from the Board to the Bureau, effective July 21, 2011. In connection with this transfer of rulemaking authority, the Bureau issued its own Regulation M implementing the CLA in an interim final rule, 12 CFR part 1013 (Bureau Interim Final Rule).
Section 213.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation M and § 1013.2(e)(1) of the Bureau's Regulation M, and their accompanying commentaries, provide that the exemption threshold will be adjusted annually effective January 1 of each year based on any annual percentage increase in the CPI-W that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
Since 2011, the Board and the Bureau have adjusted the Regulation M exemption threshold annually, consistent with these rules. The Board and the Bureau last published final rules implementing the exemption threshold in effect for January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, in November 2015.
The Board and the Bureau are proposing new commentary to memorialize the calculation method used by the agencies each year to adjust the exemption threshold. Comment 2(e)-9 to the Board's and Bureau's Regulation M currently provides the threshold amount in effect during a particular period and details the rules the agencies use for rounding the threshold calculation to the nearest $100 or $1,000 increment, as discussed above in part I, “Background.”
The Board and the Bureau are proposing to revise comment 2(e)-9 by moving the text regarding the threshold amount that is in effect during a particular period to a new proposed comment 2(e)-11. The discussion of how the agencies round the threshold calculation would remain in comment 2(e)-9.
As stated in the Board Final Threshold Rules, if there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, the Board and Bureau will not adjust the exemption threshold from the prior year.
Proposed comment 2(e)-10 would further set forth the calculation method the agencies would use in years following a year in which the exemption threshold was not adjusted because there was no increase in the CPI-W from the previous year. The proposed calculation method would ensure that the values for the exemption threshold keep pace with the CPI-W as contemplated by Section 1100E(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
Specifically, as set forth under proposed comment 2(e)-10, for the years after a year in which the threshold did not change because the CPI-W in effect on June 1 decreased from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold is calculated by applying the annual percentage change in the CPI-W to the dollar amount that would have resulted if the decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account. Proposed comment 2(e)-10.i further states that, if the resulting amount is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
For example, assume that the threshold in effect from January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, is $55,500 and that, due to a 1.1 percent decrease from the CPI-W in effect on June 1,
Furthermore, comment 2(e)-10.ii states that, if the resulting amount calculated is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted. To illustrate, assume in the example above that the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020, increased by only 0.6 percent from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019. The calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, is based on the impact of a 0.6 percent increase in the CPI-W on $54,900. The resulting amount is $55,200, which is lower than $55,500, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. Therefore, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, will remain $55,500. However, the calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, will apply the percentage change in the CPI-W to $55,200, the amount that would have resulted based on the 0.6 percent change from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019, to the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020.
The agencies request comment on all aspects of the proposed rule.
In developing this proposal, the Bureau has considered potential benefits, costs, and impacts.
The Bureau has chosen to evaluate the benefits, costs and impacts of the proposed commentary against the current state of the world, which takes into account the current regulatory regime. The Bureau is not aware of any significant benefits or costs to consumers or covered persons associated with the proposal relative to the baseline. The Board previously stated that if there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, then the Board (and now the Bureau) will not adjust the exemption threshold from the prior year.
The proposed rule will have no unique impact on depository institutions or credit unions with $10 billion or less in assets as described in section 1026(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act or on rural consumers. The Bureau does not expect this final rule to affect consumers' access to credit.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
An IRFA is not required for this proposal because if adopted it would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As discussed in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above, this proposal does not introduce costs or benefits to covered persons because the proposal seeks only to clarify the method of threshold adjustment which has already been established in previous Agency rules. Therefore this proposed rule would not have a significant impact on small entities.
Accordingly, the Bureau Director, by signing below, certifies that this proposal, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
Advertising, Consumer leasing, Consumer protection, Federal Reserve System, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Advertising, Consumer leasing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Truth in Lending.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Board proposes to amend Regulation M, 12 CFR part 213, as set forth below:
15 U.S.C. 1604 and 1667f; Pub. L. 111-203 § 1100E, 124 Stat. 1376.
9.
10.
i.
ii.
11.
i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From July 21, 2011 through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
iii. From January 1, 2012 through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
iv. From January 1, 2013 through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
v. From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
vi. From January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
vii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Bureau proposes to amend Regulation M, 12 CFR part 1013, as set forth below:
15 U.S.C. 1604 and 1667f; Pub. L. 111-203 § 1100E, 124 Stat. 1376.
9.
10.
i.
ii.
11.
i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From July 21, 2011 through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
iii. From January 1, 2012 through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
iv. From January 1, 2013 through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
v. From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
vi. From January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
vii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
By order of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, July 19, 2016.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board); and Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau).
Proposed rule; official interpretations.
The Board and the Bureau are proposing to amend the official interpretations and commentary for the agencies' regulations that implement the Truth in Lending Act (TILA). The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) amended TILA by requiring that the dollar threshold for exempt consumer credit transactions be adjusted annually by the annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W). If there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, the Board and Bureau will not adjust this exemption threshold from the prior year. The proposal would memorialize this as well as the agencies' calculation method for determining the adjustment in years following a year in which there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W.
Because the Dodd-Frank Act also requires similar adjustments in the Consumer Leasing Act's threshold for exempt consumer leases, the Board and the Bureau are proposing similar amendments to the commentaries to each of their respective regulations implementing the Consumer Leasing Act elsewhere in the
Comments must be received on or before September 6, 2016.
Interested parties are encouraged to submit written comments jointly to the Board and the Bureau. Commenters are encouraged to use the title “Truth in Lending (Regulation Z)” to facilitate the organization and distribution of comments among the agencies. Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to:
•
•
•
•
•
All public comments will be made available on the Board's Web site at
•
•
•
•
All comments, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, should not be included. Comments will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.
The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act) increased the threshold in the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) for exempt consumer credit transactions
Title X of the Dodd-Frank Act transferred rulemaking authority for a number of consumer financial protection laws from the Board to the Bureau, effective July 21, 2011. In connection with this transfer of rulemaking authority, the Bureau issued its own Regulation Z implementing TILA in an interim final rule, 12 CFR part 1026 (Bureau Interim Final Rule).
Section 226.3(b)(1)(ii) of the Board's Regulation Z and § 1026.3(b)(1)(ii) of the Bureau's Regulation Z, and their accompanying commentaries, provide that the exemption threshold will be adjusted annually effective January 1 of each year based on any annual percentage increase in the CPI-W that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
Since 2011, the Board and the Bureau have adjusted the Regulation Z exemption threshold annually, consistent with these rules. The Board and the Bureau last published final rules implementing the exemption threshold in effect for January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, in November 2015.
The Board and the Bureau are proposing new commentary to memorialize the calculation method used by the agencies each year to adjust the exemption threshold. Comment 3(b)-1 to the Board's and Bureau's Regulation Z currently provides the threshold amount in effect during a particular period and details the rules the agencies use for rounding the threshold calculation to the nearest $100 or $1,000 increment, as discussed above in part I, “Background.”
The Board and the Bureau are proposing to revise comment 3(b)-1 by moving the text regarding the threshold amount that is in effect during a particular period to a new proposed comment 3(b)-3. The discussion of how
As stated in the Board Final Threshold Rules, if there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, the Board and Bureau will not adjust the exemption threshold from the prior year.
Proposed comment 3(b)-2 would further set forth the calculation method the agencies would use in years following a year in which the exemption threshold was not adjusted because there was no increase in the CPI-W from the previous year. The proposed calculation method would ensure that the values for the exemption threshold keep pace with the CPI-W as contemplated by Section 1100E(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
Specifically, as set forth under proposed comment 3(b)-2, for the years after a year in which the threshold did not change because the CPI-W in effect on June 1 decreased from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold is calculated by applying the annual percentage change in the CPI-W to the dollar amount that would have resulted if the decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account. Proposed comment 3(b)-2.i further states that, if the resulting amount is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
For example, assume that the threshold in effect from January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, is $55,500 and that, due to a 1.1 percent decrease from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2018, to the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, remains at $55,500. If, however, the threshold had been adjusted downward to reflect the decrease in the CPI-W over that time period, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, would have been $54,900. Further assume that the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020, increased by 1.6 percent from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019. The calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, is based on the impact of a 1.6 percent increase in the CPI-W on $54,900, rather than $55,500, resulting in a 2021 threshold of $55,800.
Furthermore, comment 3(b)-2.ii states that, if the resulting amount calculated is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted. To illustrate, assume in the example above that the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020, increased by only 0.6 percent from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019. The calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, is based on the impact of a 0.6 percent increase in the CPI-W on $54,900. The resulting amount is $55,200, which is lower than $55,500, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. Therefore, the threshold in effect from January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, will remain $55,500. However, the calculation for the threshold that will be in effect from January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, will apply the percentage change in the CPI-W to $55,200, the amount that would have resulted based on the 0.6 percent change from the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2019, to the CPI-W in effect on June 1, 2020.
The agencies request comment on all aspects of the proposed rule.
In developing this proposal, the Bureau has considered potential benefits, costs, and impacts.
The Bureau has chosen to evaluate the benefits, costs and impacts of the proposed commentary against the current state of the world, which takes into account the current regulatory regime. The Bureau is not aware of any significant benefits or costs to consumers or covered persons associated with the proposal relative to the baseline. The Board previously stated that if there is no annual percentage increase in the CPI-W, then the Board (and now the Bureau) will not adjust the exemption threshold from the prior year.
The proposed rule will have no unique impact on depository institutions or credit unions with $10 billion or less in assets as described in section 1026(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act or on rural consumers. The Bureau does not expect this final rule to affect consumers' access to credit.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
An IRFA is not required for this proposal because if adopted it would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. As discussed in the Bureau's Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis above, this proposal does not introduce costs or benefits to covered persons because the proposal seeks only to clarify the method of threshold adjustment which has already been established in previous Agency rules. Therefore this proposed rule would not have a significant impact on small entities.
Accordingly, the Bureau Director, by signing below, certifies that this proposal, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
Advertising, Consumer protection, Federal Reserve System, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Truth in lending.
Advertising, Appraisal, Appraiser, Banking, Banks, Consumer protection, Credit, Credit unions, Mortgages, National banks, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations, Truth in Lending.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Board proposes to amend Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 226, as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 3806; 15 U.S.C. 1604, 1637(c)(5), and 1639(l); Pub. L. 111-24 § 2, 123 Stat. 1734; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
1.
2.
i.
ii.
3.
i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From July 21, 2011 through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
iii. From January 1, 2012 through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
iv. From January 1, 2013 through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
v. From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
vi. From January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
vii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
4.
i.
A. The creditor makes an initial extension of credit at or after account opening that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time the initial extension is made. If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit after account opening that does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made, the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this Part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable), including but not limited to the requirements of § 226.6 (account-opening disclosures), § 226.7 (periodic statements), § 226.52 (limitations on fees), and § 226.55 (limitations on increasing annual percentage rates, fees, and charges). For example:
(1) Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $60,000. In this circumstance, no requirements of this Part apply to the account.
(2) Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $50,000 or less. In this circumstance, the account is not exempt and the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this Part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable).
B. The creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the account is opened with no requirement of additional credit information for any advances on the account (except as permitted from time to time with respect to open-end accounts pursuant to § 226.2(a)(20)).
ii.
iii.
iv.
A.
(1) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $53,000, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b). However, if during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $40,000, the account is no longer exempt under § 226.3(b).
(2) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If the threshold amount is $56,000 on January 1 of year six as a result of increases in the CPI-W, the account remains exempt. However, if the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $54,000 on July 1 of year six, the account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b).
B.
(1) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. The account is not used for an extension of credit during year one. On January 1 of year two, the threshold amount is increased to $51,000 pursuant to § 226.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. On July 1 of year two, the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $52,000. As a result of this extension of credit, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if, after July 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $51,000 or less.
(2) Same facts as in paragraph iv.B(1) above except that the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $30,000 on July 1 of year two and for an extension of $22,000 on July 15 of year two. In these circumstances, the account is not exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the $30,000 initial extension of credit because that extension did not exceed the applicable threshold amount ($51,000), although the account remains exempt based on the firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit.
(3) Same facts as in paragraph iv.B(1) above except that, on April 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $50,000, which is below the $51,000 threshold then in effect. Because the account ceases to qualify for a § 226.3(b) exemption on April 1 of year two, the account does not qualify for a § 226.3(b) exemption based on a $52,000 initial extension of credit on July 1 of year two.
5.
i.
A. The creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if the amount owed is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the loan).
B. The creditor makes a commitment at consummation to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if the total amount of credit extended does not exceed the threshold amount.
ii.
6.
i.
ii.
7.
8.
i. Assume that, on July 20, 2011, the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $30,000 in credit. On November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $55,000. In these circumstances, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W.
ii. Same facts as paragraph i. above except, on November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $40,000. In these circumstances, the account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b)(2) after December 31, 2011, and the creditor must begin to comply with the applicable requirements of this Part.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Bureau proposes to amend Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, as set forth below:
12 U.S.C. 2601, 2603-2605, 2607, 2609, 2617, 3353, 5511, 5512, 5532, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1601
1.
2.
i.
ii.
3.
i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
ii. From July 21, 2011 through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
iii. From January 1, 2012 through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
iv. From January 1, 2013 through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
v. From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
vi. From January 1, 2015 through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
vii. From January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
4.
A. The creditor makes an initial extension of credit at or after account opening that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time the initial extension is made. If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit after account opening that does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made, the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable), including but not limited to the requirements of § 1026.6 (account-opening disclosures), § 1026.7 (periodic statements), § 1026.52 (limitations on fees), and § 1026.55 (limitations on increasing annual percentages rates, fees, and charges). For example:
B. The creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the account is opened with no requirement of additional credit information for any advances on the account (except as permitted from time
ii.
iii.
iv.
B.
5.
A. The creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if the amount owed is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the loan).
B. The creditor makes a commitment at consummation to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if the total amount of
ii.
6.
ii.
7.
8.
i. Assume that, on July 20, 2011, the account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $30,000 in credit. On November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $55,000. In these circumstances, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W.
ii. Same facts as paragraph i above except, on November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $40,000. In these circumstances, the account ceases to be exempt under § 1026.3(b)(2) after December 31, 2011, and the creditor must begin to comply with the applicable requirements of this part.
Social Security Administration.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM); reopening of the comment period.
On July 12, 2016, we published in the
The comment period for the NPRM published on July 12, 2016 (81 FR 45079), is extended by 15 days and thus will end on August 26, 2016.
You may submit comments by any one of three methods—Internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same comments multiple times or by more than one method. Regardless of which method you choose, please state that your comments refer to Docket No. SSA-2014-0052 so that we may associate your comments with the correct rule.
1.
2.
3.
Comments are available for public viewing on the Federal eRulemaking portal at
Maren Weight, Office of Appellate Operations, Social Security Administration, 5107 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041, (703) 605-7100. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213 or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
This document extends to August 26, 2016, the comment period for the NPRM that we published on July 12, 2016. We are extending the comment period in response to comments we received requesting additional time to review and comment on the proposed rules. If you have already provided comments on the proposed rules, we will consider your comments and you do not need to resubmit them.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correction to a partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of proposed rulemaking.
This document contains corrections to a partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-123854-12) that was published in the
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing for the notice of proposed rulemaking published at 81 FR 40569, June 22, 2016 are still being accepted and must be received by September 20, 2016.
Concerning the proposed regulations under sections 409A, Gregory Burns at (202) 927-9639, concerning submissions or comments and/or requests for a public hearing, Regina Johnson 202-317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-123854-12) that is the subject of this correction is under 409A of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published, the partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-123854-12) contains errors that may prove to be misleading and are in need of clarification.
Accordingly, the partial withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking; notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-123854-12) that was the subject of FR Doc. 2016-14331 is corrected as follows:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing.
This document contains proposed regulations concerning the valuation of interests in corporations and partnerships for estate, gift, and generation-skipping transfer (GST) tax purposes. Specifically, these proposed regulations concern the treatment of certain lapsing rights and restrictions on liquidation in determining the value of the transferred interests. These proposed regulations affect certain transferors of interests in corporations and partnerships and are necessary to prevent the undervaluation of such transferred interests.
Written and electronic comments must be received by November 2, 2016. Outlines of topics to be discussed at the public hearing scheduled for December 1, 2016, must be received by November 2, 2016.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-163113-02), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, POB 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions also may be hand delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 5 p.m. to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-163113-02), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue
Concerning the proposed regulations, John D. MacEachen, (202) 317-6859; concerning submissions of comments, the hearing, and/or to be placed on the building access list to attend the hearing, Regina L. Johnson at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
Section 2704 of the Internal Revenue Code provides special valuation rules for purposes of subtitle B (relating to estate, gift, and GST taxes) for valuing intra-family transfers of interests in corporations and partnerships subject to lapsing voting or liquidation rights and restrictions on liquidation. Lapses of voting or liquidation rights are treated as a transfer of the excess of the fair market value of all interests held by the transferor, determined as if the voting or liquidation rights were nonlapsing, over the fair market value of such interests after the lapse. Certain restrictions on liquidation are disregarded in determining the fair market value of the transferred interest. The legislative history of section 2704 states that the provision is intended, in part, to prevent results similar to that in
In
Section 2704(a)(1) provides generally that, if there is a lapse of any voting or liquidation right in a corporation or a partnership and the individual holding such right immediately before the lapse and members of such individual's family hold, both before and after the lapse, control of the entity, such lapse shall be treated as a transfer by such individual by gift, or a transfer which is includible in the gross estate, whichever is applicable. The amount of the transfer is the fair market value of all interests held by the individual immediately before the lapse (determined as if the voting and liquidation rights were nonlapsing) over the fair market value of such interests after the lapse.
Section 25.2704-1(a)(2)(v) of the current Gift Tax Regulations defines a liquidation right as the right or ability, including by reason of aggregate voting power, to compel the entity to acquire all or a portion of the holder's equity interest in the entity, whether or not its exercise would result in the complete liquidation of the entity.
Section 25.2704-1(c)(1) provides a rule that a lapse of a liquidation right occurs at the time a presently exercisable liquidation right is restricted or eliminated. However, under § 25.2704-1(c)(1), a transfer of an interest that results in the lapse of a liquidation right generally is not subject to this rule if the rights with respect to the transferred interest are not restricted or eliminated. The effect of this exception is that the inter vivos transfer of a minority interest by the holder of an interest with the aggregate voting power to compel the entity to acquire the holder's interest is not treated as a lapse even though the transfer results in the loss of the transferor's presently exercisable liquidation right.
The Treasury Department and the IRS, however, believe that this exception should not apply when the inter vivos transfer that results in the loss of the power to liquidate occurs on the decedent's deathbed.
Section 2704(b)(1) provides generally that, if a transferor transfers an interest in a corporation or partnership to (or for the benefit of) a member of the transferor's family, and the transferor and members of the transferor's family hold, immediately before the transfer, control of the entity, any “applicable restriction” is disregarded in valuing the transferred interest. Under section 2704(b)(2), an applicable restriction is defined as a restriction that effectively limits the ability of the entity to liquidate, but which, after the transfer, either in whole or in part, will lapse or may be removed by the transferor or the transferor's family, either alone or collectively. Section 2704(b)(3)(B) excepts from the definition of an applicable restriction any restriction “imposed, or required to be imposed, by any Federal or State law.”
Section 2704(b)(4) provides that the Secretary may by regulations provide that other restrictions shall be disregarded in determining the value of any interest in a corporation or a partnership transferred to a member of the transferor's family if the restriction has the effect of reducing the value of the transferred interest for transfer tax purposes but does not ultimately reduce the value of the interest to the transferee.
Section 25.2704-2(b) provides, in part, that an applicable restriction “is a limitation on the ability to liquidate the entity (in whole or in part) that is more restrictive than the limitations that would apply under the State law
The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that the current regulations have been rendered substantially ineffective in implementing the purpose and intent of the statute by changes in state laws and by other subsequent developments. First, courts have concluded that, under the current regulations, section 2704(b) applies only to restrictions on the ability to liquidate an entire entity, and not to restrictions on the ability to liquidate a transferred interest in that entity.
Second, as noted above, the current regulations except from the definition of an applicable restriction a restriction on liquidation that is no more restrictive than that of the state law that would apply in the absence of the restriction. The Tax Court viewed this as a regulatory expansion of the statutory exception to the application of section 2704(b) contained in section 2704(b)(3)(B) that excepts “any restriction imposed, or required to be imposed, by any Federal or State law.”
Third, taxpayers have attempted to avoid the application of section 2704(b) through the transfer of a partnership interest to an assignee rather than to a partner. Again relying on the regulatory exception for restrictions that are no more restrictive than those under state law, and the fact that an assignee is allocated partnership income, gain, loss, etc., but does not have (and thus may not exercise) the rights or powers of a partner, taxpayers argue that an assignee's inability to cause the partnership to liquidate his or her partnership interest is no greater a restriction than that imposed upon assignees under state law.
Finally, taxpayers have avoided the application of section 2704(b) through the transfer of a nominal partnership interest to a nonfamily member, such as a charity or an employee, to ensure that the family alone does not have the power to remove a restriction.
As the Tax Court noted in
Further, the Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that the grant of an insubstantial interest in the entity to a nonfamily member should not preclude the application of section 2704(b) because, in reality, such nonfamily member interest generally does not constrain the family's ability to remove a restriction on the liquidation of an individual interest.
Finally, since the promulgation of §§ 301.7701-1 through 301.7701-3 of the Procedure and Administration Regulations (the check-the-box regulations), an entity's classification for federal tax purposes may differ substantially from the entity's structure or form under local law. In addition, many taxpayers now utilize a limited liability company (LLC) as the preferred entity to hold family assets or business
The proposed regulations would amend § 25.2701-2 to address what constitutes control of an LLC or other entity or arrangement that is not a corporation, partnership, or limited partnership. The proposed regulations would amend § 25.2704-1 to address deathbed transfers that result in the lapse of a liquidation right and to clarify the treatment of a transfer that results in the creation of an assignee interest. The proposed regulations would amend § 25.2704-2 to refine the definition of the term “applicable restriction” by eliminating the comparison to the liquidation limitations of state law. Further, the proposed regulations would add a new section, § 25.2704-3, to address restrictions on the liquidation of an individual interest in an entity and the effect of insubstantial interests held by persons who are not members of the family.
The proposed regulations would clarify, in §§ 25.2704-1 through 25.2704-3, that section 2704 applies to corporations, partnerships, LLC's, and other entities and arrangements that are business entities within the meaning of § 301.7701-2(a), regardless of whether the entity or arrangement is domestic or foreign, regardless of how the entity or arrangement is classified for other federal tax purposes, and regardless of whether the entity or arrangement is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for other federal tax purposes.
Section 2704 speaks in terms of corporations and partnerships. Under the proposed regulations, a corporation is any business entity described in § 301.7701-2(b)(1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8), an S corporation within the meaning of section 1361(a)(1), and a qualified subchapter S subsidiary within the meaning of section 1361(b)(3)(B). For this purpose, a qualified subchapter S subsidiary is treated as a corporation that is separate from its parent owner. For most purposes under the proposed regulations, a partnership would be any other business entity within the meaning of § 301.7701-1(a), regardless of how the entity is classified for federal tax purposes.
However, these proposed regulations address two situations in which it is necessary to go beyond this division of entities into only the two categories of corporation and partnership. These situations (specifically, the test to determine control of an entity, and the test to determine whether a restriction is imposed under state law) require consideration of the differences among various types of business entities under the local law under which those entities are created and governed. As a result, for purposes of the test to determine control of an entity and to determine whether a restriction is imposed under state law, the proposed regulations would provide that in the case of any business entity or arrangement that is not a corporation, the form of the entity or arrangement would be determined under local law, regardless of how it is classified for other federal tax purposes, and regardless of whether it is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for other federal tax purposes. For this purpose, local law is the law of the jurisdiction, whether domestic or foreign, under which the entity or arrangement is created or organized. Thus, in applying these two tests, there would be three types of entities: Corporations, partnerships (including limited partnerships), and other business entities (which would include LLCs that are not S corporations) as determined under local law.
Section 2704(c)(1) incorporates the definition of control found in section 2701(b)(2). Control of a corporation, partnership, or limited partnership is defined in sections 2701(b)(2)(A) and (B). The proposed regulations would clarify, in § 25.2701-2, that control of an LLC or of any other entity or arrangement that is not a corporation, partnership, or limited partnership would constitute the holding of at least 50 percent of either the capital or profits interests of the entity or arrangement, or the holding of any equity interest with the ability to cause the full or partial liquidation of the entity or arrangement.
The proposed regulations would amend § 25.2704-1(a) to confirm that a transfer that results in the restriction or elimination of any of the rights or powers associated with the transferred interest (an assignee interest) is treated as a lapse within the meaning of section 2704(a). This is the case regardless of whether the right or power is exercisable by the transferor after the transfer because the statute is concerned with the lapse of rights associated with the transferred interest. Whether the lapse is of a voting or liquidation right is determined under the general rules of section 25.2704-1.
The proposed regulations also would amend § 25.2704-1(c)(1) to narrow the exception in the definition of a lapse of a liquidation right to transfers occurring three years or more before the transferor's death that do not restrict or eliminate the rights associated with the ownership of the transferred interest. In addition, the proposed regulations would amend § 25.2704-1(c)(2)(i)(B) to conform the existing provision for testing the family's ability to liquidate an interest with the proposed elimination of the comparison with local law, to clarify that the manner in which liquidation may be achieved is irrelevant, and to conform with the proposed provision for disregarding certain nonfamily-member interests in testing the family's ability to remove a restriction in proposed § 25.2704-3 regarding disregarded restrictions.
The proposed regulations would remove the exception in § 25.2704-2(b) that limits the definition of applicable restriction to limitations that are more restrictive than the limitations that would apply in the absence of the restriction under the local law generally applicable to the entity. As noted above, this exception is not consistent with section 2704(b) to the extent that the transferor and family members have the power to avoid any statutory rule. The proposed regulations also would revise § 25.2704-2(b) to provide that an applicable restriction does include a restriction that is imposed under the terms of the governing documents, as well as a restriction that is imposed under a local law regardless of whether that restriction may be superseded by or pursuant to the governing documents or otherwise. In applying this particular exception to the definition of an applicable restriction, this proposed rule is intended to ensure that a restriction that is not imposed or required to be imposed by federal or state law is disregarded without regard to its source.
Further, with regard to the exception for restrictions “imposed, or required to
A restriction is imposed or required to be imposed by law if the restriction cannot be removed or overridden and it is mandated by the applicable law, is required to be included in the governing documents, or otherwise is made mandatory. In addition, a restriction imposed by a state law, even if that restriction may not be removed or overridden directly or indirectly, nevertheless would constitute an applicable restriction in two situations. In each situation, although the statute itself is mandatory and cannot be overridden, another statute is available to be used for the entity's governing law that does not require the mandatory restriction, thus in effect making the purportedly mandatory provision elective. The first situation is that in which the state law is limited in its application to certain narrow classes of entities, particularly those types of entities most likely to be subject to transfers described in section 2704, that is, family-controlled entities. The second situation is that in which, although the state law under which the entity was created imposed a mandatory restriction that could not be removed or overridden, either at the time the entity was organized or at some subsequent time, that state's law also provided an optional provision or an alternative statute for the creation and governance of that same type of entity that did not mandate the restriction. Thus, an optional provision is one for the same category of entity that did not include the restriction or that allowed it to be removed or overridden, or that made the restriction optional, or permitted the restriction to be superseded, whether by the entity's governing documents or otherwise. For purposes of determining whether a restriction is imposed on an entity under state law, there would be only three types of entities, specifically, the three categories of entities described in § 25.2701-2(b)(5) of the proposed regulations: Corporations; partnerships (including limited partnerships); and other business entities. A similar proposed rule applies to the additional restrictions discussed later in this preamble.
If an applicable restriction is disregarded, the fair market value of the transferred interest is determined under generally applicable valuation principles as if the restriction does not exist (that is, as if the governing documents and the local law are silent on the question), and thus, there is deemed to be no such restriction on liquidation of the entity.
A new class of restrictions is described in the proposed regulations that would be disregarded, described as “disregarded restrictions.” This class of restrictions is identified pursuant to the authority contained in section 2704(b)(4). Note that, although it may appear that sections 2703 and 2704(b) overlap, they do not. While section 2703 and the corresponding regulations currently address restrictions on the sale or use of individual interests in family-controlled entities, the proposed regulations would address restrictions on the liquidation or redemption of such interests.
Under § 25.2704-3 of the proposed regulations, in the case of a family-controlled entity, any restriction described below on a shareholder's, partner's, member's, or other owner's right to liquidate his or her interest in the entity will be disregarded if the restriction will lapse at any time after the transfer, or if the transferor, or the transferor and family members, without regard to certain interests held by nonfamily members, may remove or override the restriction. Under the proposed regulations, such a disregarded restriction includes one that: (a) Limits the ability of the holder of the interest to liquidate the interest; (b) limits the liquidation proceeds to an amount that is less than a minimum value; (c) defers the payment of the liquidation proceeds for more than six months; or (d) permits the payment of the liquidation proceeds in any manner other than in cash or other property, other than certain notes.
“Minimum value” is the interest's share of the net value of the entity on the date of liquidation or redemption. The net value of the entity is the fair market value, as determined under section 2031 or 2512 and the applicable regulations, of the property held by the entity, reduced by the outstanding obligations of the entity. Solely for purposes of determining minimum value, the only outstanding obligations of the entity that may be taken into account are those that would be allowable (if paid) as deductions under section 2053 if those obligations instead were claims against an estate. For example, and subject to the foregoing limitation on outstanding obligations, if the entity holds an operating business, the rules of § 20.2031-2(f)(2) or 20.2031-3 apply in the case of a testamentary transfer and the rules of § 25.2512-2(f)(2) or 25.2512-3 apply in the case of an inter vivos transfer. The minimum value of the interest is the net value of the entity multiplied by the interest's share of the entity. For this purpose, the interest's share is determined by taking into account any capital, profits, and other rights inherent in the interest in the entity.
A disregarded restriction includes limitations on the time and manner of payment of the liquidation proceeds. Such limitations include provisions permitting deferral of full payment beyond six months or permitting payment in any manner other than in cash or property. For this purpose, the term “property” does not include a note or other obligation issued directly or indirectly by the entity, other holders of an interest in the entity, or persons related to either. An exception is made for the note of an entity engaged in an active trade or business to the extent that (a) the liquidation proceeds are not attributable to passive assets within the meaning of section 6166(b)(9)(B), and (b) the note is adequately secured, requires periodic payments on a non-deferred basis, is issued at market interest rates, and has a fair market value (when discounted to present value) equal to the liquidation proceeds. A fair market value determination assumes a cash sale.
Exceptions that apply to applicable restrictions under the current and these proposed regulations also apply to this new class of disregarded restrictions. One of the exceptions applicable to the definition of a disregarded restriction applies if (a) each holder of an interest in the entity has an enforceable “put” right to receive, on liquidation or redemption of the holder's interest, cash and/or other property with a value that is at least equal to the minimum value previously described, (b) the full amount of such cash and other property must be paid within six months after the holder gives notice to the entity of the holder's intent to liquidate any part or all of the holder's interest and/or withdraw from the entity, and (c) such other property does not include a note or other obligation issued directly or
In determining whether the transferor and/or the transferor's family has the ability to remove a restriction included in this new class of disregarded restrictions, any interest in the entity held by a person who is not a member of the transferor's family is disregarded if, at the time of the transfer, the interest: (a) Has been held by such person for less than three years; (b) constitutes less than 10 percent of the value of all of the equity interests in a corporation, or constitutes less than 10 percent of the capital and profits interests in a business entity described in § 301.7701-2(a) other than a corporation (for example, less than a 10-percent interest in the capital and profits of a partnership); (c) when combined with the interests of all other persons who are not members of the transferor's family, constitutes less than 20 percent of the value of all of the equity interests in a corporation, or constitutes less than 20 percent of the capital and profits interests in a business entity other than a corporation (for example, less than a 20-percent interest in the capital and profits of a partnership); or (d) any such person, as the owner of an interest, does not have an enforceable right to receive in exchange for such interest, on no more than six months' prior notice, the minimum value referred to in the definition of a disregarded restriction. If an interest is disregarded, the determination of whether the family has the ability to remove the restriction will be made assuming that the remaining interests are the sole interests in the entity.
Finally, if a restriction is disregarded under proposed § 25.2704-3, the fair market value of the interest in the entity is determined assuming that the disregarded restriction did not exist, either in the governing documents or applicable law. Fair market value is determined under generally accepted valuation principles, including any appropriate discounts or premiums, subject to the assumptions described in this paragraph.
Section 2704(b) applies to intra-family transfers for all purposes of subtitle B relating to estate, gift and GST taxes. Therefore, to the extent that an interest qualifies for the gift or estate tax marital deduction and must be valued by taking into account the special valuation assumptions of section 2704(b), the same value generally will apply in computing the marital deduction attributable to that interest. The value of the estate tax marital deduction may be further affected, however, by other factors justifying a different value, such as the application of a control premium.
Section 2704(b) does not apply to transfers to nonfamily members and thus has no application in valuing an interest passing to charity or to a person other than a family member. If part of an entity interest includible in the gross estate passes to family members and part of that interest passes to nonfamily members, and if (taking into account the proposed rules regarding the treatment of certain interests held by nonfamily members) the part passing to the decedent's family members is valued under section 2704(b), then the proposed regulations provide that the part passing to the family members is treated as a property interest separate from the part passing to nonfamily members. The fair market value of the part passing to the family members is determined taking into account the special valuation assumptions of section 2704(b), as well as any other relevant factors, such as those supporting a control premium. The fair market value of the part passing to the nonfamily member(s) is determined in a similar manner, but without the special valuation assumptions of section 2704(b). Thus, if the sole nonfamily member receiving an interest is a charity, the interest generally will have the same value for both estate tax inclusion and deduction purposes. If the interest passing to nonfamily members, however, is divided between charities and other nonfamily members, additional considerations (not prescribed by section 2704) may apply, resulting in a different value for charitable deduction purposes.
The amendments to § 25.2701-2 are proposed to be effective on and after the date of publication of a Treasury decision adopting these rules as final regulations in the
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required. Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6), it is hereby certified that this regulation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed regulations affect the transfer tax liability of individuals who transfer an interest in certain closely held entities and not the entities themselves. The proposed regulations do not affect the structure of such entities, but only the assumptions under which they are valued for federal transfer tax purposes. In addition, any economic impact on entities affected by section 2704, large or small, is derived from the operation of the statute, or its intended application, and not from the proposed regulations in this notice of proposed rulemaking. Accordingly, a regulatory flexibility analysis is not required. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, this regulation has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.
Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any written (a signed original and eight (8)
A public hearing on these proposed regulations has been scheduled for December 1, 2016, beginning at 10 a.m. in the Auditorium, Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224. Due to building security procedures, visitors must enter at the Constitution Avenue entrance. In addition, all visitors must present photo identification to enter the building. Because of access restrictions, visitors will not be admitted beyond the immediate entrance area more than 30 minutes before the hearing starts. For information about having your name placed on the building access list to attend the hearing, see the
The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the hearing. Persons who wish to present oral comments at the hearing must submit comments by November 2, 2016, and submit an outline of the topics to be discussed and the time to be devoted to each topic (signed original and eight (8) copies) by November 2, 2016.
A period of 10 minutes will be allotted to each person for making comments. Copies of the agenda will be available free of charge at the hearing.
The principal author of these proposed regulations is John D. MacEachen, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries). Other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.
Gift taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 25 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805. * * *
Section 25.2701-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 2701(e).
Section 25.2704-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 2704(a).
Sections 25.2704-2 and 25.2704-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 2704(b).
The revision and additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) * * * For purposes of section 2701, a controlled entity is a corporation, partnership, or any other entity or arrangement that is a business entity within the meaning of § 301.7701-2(a) of this chapter controlled, immediately before a transfer, by the transferor, applicable family members, and/or any lineal descendants of the parents of the transferor or the transferor's spouse. The form of the entity determines the applicable test for control. For purposes of determining the form of the entity, any business entity described in § 301.7701-2(b)(1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this chapter, an S corporation within the meaning of section 1361(a)(1), and a qualified subchapter S subsidiary within the meaning of section 1361(b)(3)(B) is a corporation. For this purpose, a qualified subchapter S subsidiary is treated as a corporation separate from its parent corporation. In the case of any business entity that is not a corporation under these provisions, the form of the entity is determined under local law, regardless of how the entity is classified for federal tax purposes or whether it is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner for federal tax purposes. For this purpose, local law is the law of the jurisdiction, whether domestic or foreign, under whose laws the entity is created or organized. * * *
(iv)
The revision and addition reads as follows:
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, §§ 25.2701-1 through 25.2701-4 and §§ 25.2701-6 and 25.2701-7 are effective as of January 28, 1992. * * *
(b) The first six sentences of § 25.2701-2(b)(5)(i) and (iv) are effective on the date these regulations are published as final regulations in the
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * * For purposes of subtitle B (relating to estate, gift, and generation-skipping transfer taxes), the lapse of a voting or a liquidation right in a corporation or a partnership (an entity), whether domestic or foreign, is a transfer by the individual directly or indirectly holding the right immediately prior to its lapse (the holder) to the extent provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. This section applies only if the entity is controlled by the holder and/or members of the holder's family immediately before and after the lapse. For purposes of this section, a
(2) * * *
(i) * * * For purposes of determining whether the group consisting of the holder, the holder's estate and members of the holder's family control the entity, a member of the group is also treated as holding any interest held indirectly by such member through a corporation, partnership, trust, or other entity under the rules contained in § 25.2701-6.
(iii) * * * In the case of a limited liability company, the right of a member to participate in company management is a voting right. * * *
(4)
(5)
(c) * * *
(1) * * * Except as otherwise provided, a transfer of an interest occurring more than three years before the transferor's death that results in the lapse of a voting or liquidation right is not subject to this section if the rights with respect to the transferred interest are not restricted or eliminated. * * * The lapse of a voting or liquidation right as a result of the transfer of an interest within three years of the transferor's death is treated as a lapse occurring on the transferor's date of death, includible in the gross estate pursuant to section 2704(a).
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(B)
(f) * * *
* * * More than three years before D's death, D transfers one-half of D's stock in equal shares to D's three children (14 percent each). Section 2704(a) does not apply to the loss of D's ability to liquidate Y because the voting rights with respect to the transferred shares are not restricted or eliminated by reason of the transfer, and the transfer occurs more than three years before D's death. However, had the transfers occurred within three years of D's death, the transfers would have been treated as the lapse of D's liquidation right occurring at D's death.
* * * More than three years before D's death, D transfers 30 shares of common stock to D's child. The transfer is not a lapse of a liquidation right with respect to the common stock because the voting rights that enabled D to liquidate prior to the transfer are not restricted or eliminated, and the transfer occurs more than three years before D's death. * * * However, had the transfer occurred within three years of D's death, the transfer would have been treated as the lapse of D's liquidation right with respect to the common stock occurring at D's death.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a)
(b)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(c)
(d)
(e) * * * If an applicable restriction is disregarded under this section, the fair market value of the transferred interest is determined under generally applicable valuation principles as if the restriction (whether in the governing documents, applicable law, or both) does not exist. * * *
(f)
(g) * * *
* * * The preferred stock carries a right to liquidate X that cannot be exercised until 1999. * * *
(a)
(b)
(i) The provision limits or permits the limitation of the ability of the holder of the interest to compel liquidation or redemption of the interest.
(ii) The provision limits or permits the limitation of the amount that may be received by the holder of the interest on liquidation or redemption of the interest to an amount that is less than a minimum value. The term
(iii) The provision defers or permits the deferral of the payment of the full amount of the liquidation or redemption proceeds for more than six months after the date the holder gives notice to the entity of the holder's intent to have the holder's interest liquidated or redeemed.
(iv) The provision authorizes or permits the payment of any portion of the full amount of the liquidation or redemption proceeds in any manner other than in cash or property. Solely for this purpose, except as provided in the following sentence, a note or other obligation issued directly or indirectly by the entity, by one or more holders of interests in the entity, or by a person related to either the entity or any holder of an interest in the entity, is deemed not to be property. In the case of an entity engaged in an active trade or business, at least 60 percent of whose value consists of the non-passive assets of that trade or business, and to the extent that the liquidation proceeds are not attributable to passive assets within the meaning of section 6166(b)(9)(B), such proceeds may include such a note or other obligation if such note or other obligation is adequately secured, requires periodic payments on a non-deferred basis, is issued at market interest rates, and has a fair market value on the date of liquidation or redemption equal to the liquidation proceeds. See § 25.2512-8. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(iv), a related person is any person whose relationship to the entity or to any holder of an interest in the entity is described in section 267(b), provided that for this purpose the term
(2)
(3)
(4)
(A) The interest has been held by the nonfamily member for at least three years immediately before the transfer;
(B) On the date of the transfer, in the case of a corporation, the interest
(C) On the date of the transfer, in the case of a corporation, the total of the equity interests in the corporation held by shareholders who are not members of the transferor's family constitutes at least 20 percent of the value of all of the equity interests in the corporation, and, in the case of a business entity within the meaning of § 301.7701-2(a) of this chapter other than a corporation, the total interests in the entity held by owners who are not members of the transferor's family is at least 20 percent of all the interests in the entity, for example, a 20-percent interest in the capital and profits of a partnership; and
(D) Each nonfamily member, as owner, has a put right as described in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
(ii)
(iii)
(5)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(6)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(i) D and D's children, A and B, are partners in Limited Partnership X that was created on July 1, 2016. D owns a 98 percent limited partner interest, and A and B each own a 1 percent general partner interest. The partnership agreement provides that the partnership will dissolve and liquidate on June 30, 2066, or by the earlier agreement of all the partners, but otherwise prohibits the withdrawal of a limited partner. Under applicable local law, a limited partner may withdraw from a limited partnership at the time, or on the occurrence of events, specified in the partnership agreement. Under the partnership agreement, the approval of all partners is required to amend the agreement. None of these provisions is mandated by local law. D transfers a 33 percent limited partner interest to A and a 33 percent limited partner interest to B.
(ii) By prohibiting the withdrawal of a limited partner, the partnership agreement imposes a restriction on the ability of a partner to liquidate the partner's interest in the partnership that is not required to be imposed by law and that may be removed by the transferor and members of the transferor's family, acting collectively, by agreeing to amend the partnership agreement. Therefore, under section 2704(b) and paragraph (a) of this section, the restriction on a limited partner's ability to liquidate that partner's interest is disregarded in determining the value of each transferred interest. Accordingly, the amount of each transfer is the fair market value of the 33 percent limited partner interest determined under generally applicable valuation principles taking into account all relevant factors affecting value including the rights determined under the governing documents and local law and assuming that the disregarded restriction does not exist in the governing documents, local law, or otherwise. See paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (f) of this section.
The facts are the same as in
The facts are the same as in
(i) The facts are the same as in
(ii) The fair market value of the 53 percent interest is determined for both inclusion and deduction purposes under generally applicable valuation principles taking into account all relevant factors affecting value, including the rights determined under the governing documents and local law, and assuming that the disregarded restriction does not exist in the governing documents, local law, or otherwise. The 45 percent interest passing to nonfamily members is not subject to section 2704(b), and will be valued as a single interest for inclusion purposes under generally applicable valuation principles, taking into account all relevant factors affecting value including the rights determined under the governing documents and local law as well as the restriction on a limited partner's ability to liquidate that partner's interest. The 20 percent passing to charity will be valued in a similar manner for purposes of determining the allowable charitable deduction. Assuming that, under the facts and circumstances, the 45 percent interest and the 20 percent interest are subject to the same discount factor, the charitable deduction will equal four-ninths of the value of the 45 percent interest.
(i) D and D's children, A and B, are partners in Limited Partnership Y. D owns a 98 percent limited partner interest, and A and B each own a 1 percent general partner interest. The partnership agreement provides that a limited partner may withdraw from the partnership at any time by giving six months' notice to the general partner. On withdrawal, the partner is entitled to receive the fair market value of his or her partnership interest payable over a five-year period. Under the partnership agreement, the approval of all partners is required to amend the agreement. None of these provisions are mandated by local law. D transfers a 33 percent limited partner interest to A and a 33 percent limited partner interest to B. Under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, the provision requiring that a withdrawing partner give at least six months' notice before withdrawing provides a reasonable waiting period and does not cause the restriction to be disregarded in valuing the transferred interests. However, the provision limiting the amount the partner may receive on withdrawal to the fair market value of the partnership interest, and permitting that amount to be paid over a five-year period, may limit the amount the partner may receive on withdrawal to less than the minimum value described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and allows the delay of payment beyond the period described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. The partnership agreement imposes a restriction on the ability of a partner to liquidate the partner's interest in the partnership that is not required to be imposed by law and that may be removed by the transferor and members of the transferor's family, acting collectively, by agreeing to amend the partnership agreement.
(ii) Under section 2704(b) and paragraph (a) of this section, the restriction on a limited partner's ability to liquidate that partner's interest is disregarded in determining the value of the transferred interests. Accordingly, the amount of each transfer is the fair market value of the 33 percent limited partner interest, determined under generally applicable valuation principles taking into account all relevant factors affecting value, including the rights determined under the governing documents and local law, and assuming that the disregarded restriction does not exist in the governing documents, local law, or otherwise. See paragraph (f) of this section.
The facts are the same as in
The facts are the same as in
D and D's children, A and B, organize Limited Liability Company X under the laws of State Y. D, A, and B each contribute cash to X. Under the operating agreement, X maintains a capital account for each member. The capital accounts are adjusted to reflect each member's contributions to and distributions from X and each member's share of profits and losses of X. On liquidation, capital account balances control distributions. Profits and losses are allocated on the basis of units issued to each member, which are not in proportion to capital. D holds 98 units, A and B each hold 1 unit. D is designated in the operating agreement as the manager of X with the ability to cause the liquidation of X. X is not a corporation. Under the laws of State Y, X is neither a partnership nor a limited partnership. D and D's family have control of X because they hold at least 50 percent of the profits interests (or capital interests) of X. Further, D and D's family have control of X because D holds an interest with the ability to cause the liquidation of X.
The facts are the same as in
D owns a 1 percent general partner interest and a 74 percent limited partner interest in Limited Partnership X, which in turn holds a 50 percent limited partner interest in Limited Partnership Y and a 50 percent limited partner interest in Limited Partnership Z. D owns the remaining interests in partnerships Y and Z. A, an unrelated individual, has owned a 25 percent limited partner interest in partnership X for more than 3 years. The governing documents of all three partnerships permit liquidation of the entity on the agreement of the owners of 90 percent of the interests but, with the exception of A's interest, prohibit the withdrawal of a limited partner. A may withdraw on 6-months' notice and receive A's interest's share of the minimum value of partnership X as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, which share includes a share of the minimum value of partnership Y and of partnership Z. Under the governing documents of all three partnerships, the approval of all partners is required to amend the documents. D transfers a 40 percent limited partner interest in partnership Y to D's children. For purposes of determining whether D and/or D's family members have the ability to remove a restriction after the transfer, A is treated as owning a 12.5 percent (.25 x.50) interest in partnership Y, thus more than a 10 percent interest, but less than a 20 percent interest, in partnership Y. Accordingly, under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(C) of this section, A's interest is disregarded for purposes of determining whether D and D's family hold the right to remove a restriction after the transfer (resulting in D and D's children being deemed to own 100 percent of Y for this purpose). However, if D instead had transferred a 40 percent limited partner interest in partnership X to D's children, A's ownership of a 25 percent interest in partnership X would not have been disregarded, with the result that D and D's family would not have had the ability to remove a restriction after the transfer.
(i) D owns 85 of the outstanding shares of X, a corporation, and A, an unrelated individual, owns the remaining 15 shares. Under X's governing documents, the approval of the shareholders holding 75 percent of the outstanding stock is required to liquidate X. With the exception of nonfamily members, a shareholder may not withdraw from X. Nonfamily members may withdraw on six months' notice and receive their interest's share of the minimum value of X as defined in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. D transfers 10 shares to C, a charity. Four years later, D dies. D bequeaths 10 shares to B, an unrelated individual, and the remaining 65 shares to trusts for the benefit of D's family.
(ii) The prohibition on withdrawal is a restriction described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. In determining whether D's estate and/or D's family may remove the restriction after the transfer occurring on D's death, the interest of B is disregarded because it was not held by B for at least three years prior to D's death. The interests of A and C, however, are not disregarded, because each held an interest of at least 10 percent for at least three years prior to D's death, the total of those interests represents at least 20 percent of X, and each had the right to withdraw on six months' notice and receive their interest's share of the minimum value of X. As a result, D and D's family hold 65 of the deemed total of 90 shares in X, or 72 percent, which is less than the 75 percent needed to liquidate X. Thus, D and D's family do not have the ability to remove the restriction after the transfer, and section 2704(b) does not apply in valuing D's interest in X for federal estate tax purposes.
The addition reads as follows:
(b)(1) With respect to § 25.2704-1, the first six sentences of paragraph (a)(1), the last sentence of paragraph (a)(2)(i), the third sentence of paragraph (a)(2)(iii), the first and last sentences of paragraph (a)(4), paragraph (a)(5), the second and last sentences of paragraph (c)(1), paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B), and
(2) With respect to § 25.2704-2, paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), and (f), the first sentence of paragraph (e), and
(3) Section 25.2704-3 applies to transfers of property subject to restrictions created after October 8, 1990, occurring 30 or more days after the date these regulations are published as final regulations in the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of submission to the Secretary of Agriculture.
This document notifies the public as required by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) that the EPA Administrator has forwarded to the Secretary of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) a draft regulatory document concerning a Procedural Rule Amendment; Required Use of FR Notices. The draft regulatory document is not available to the public until after it has been signed and made available by EPA.
See Unit I. under
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0103, is available at
Cameo G. Smoot, Field and External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-5454; email address:
Section 25(a)(2)(A) of FIFRA requires the EPA Administrator to provide the Secretary of USDA with a copy of any draft proposed rule at least 60 days before signing it in proposed form for publication in the
No. This document is merely a notification of submission to the Secretary of USDA. As such, none of the regulatory assessment requirements apply to this document.
Environmental protection, Pesticides, Registration.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of regulatory review; request for comments.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires that NMFS periodically review existing regulations that have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, such as small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. This plan describes how NMFS will perform this review and describes the regulations that are being proposed for review during the current review cycle.
Written comments must be received by NMFS by September 6, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0099, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Tara Scott, (301) 427-8579.
The RFA, 5 U.S.C. 601
Section 610 of the RFA requires Federal agencies to review existing regulations. It requires that NMFS publish a plan in the
The purpose of the review is to determine whether existing rules should be left unchanged, or whether they should be revised or rescinded in order to minimize significant economic impacts on a substantial number of small entities, consistent with the
(1) Whether the rule is still needed;
(2) What type of complaints or comments were received concerning the rule from the public;
(3) The complexity of the rule;
(4) How much the rule overlaps, duplicates or conflicts with other Federal rules, and, to the extent feasible, with State and local governmental rules; and
(5) How long it has been since the rule has been evaluated or how much the technology, economic conditions, or other factors have changed in the area affected by the rule.
NMFS will ensure that all rules which have or will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities are reviewed within 10 years of the year in which they were originally issued. By December 31, 2016, NMFS will review the following rules issued during 2009:
1. Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Reef Fish Fishery of the Gulf of Mexico; Amendment 30B. RIN 0648-AV80 (74 FR 17603; April 16, 2009). NMFS issued this final rule to implement Amendment 30B to the Fishery Management Plan for the Reef Fish Resources of the Gulf of Mexico prepared by the Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council. This final rule established annual catch limits (ACLs) and accountability measures (AMs) for commercial and recreational gag, red grouper, and shallow-water grouper (SWG); established a commercial quota for gag; adjusted the commercial quotas for red grouper and SWG; removed the commercial closed season for SWG; established an incidental bycatch allowance trip limit for commercial gag and red grouper; reduced the commercial minimum size limit for red grouper; reduced the gag bag limit and the aggregate grouper bag limit; increased the red grouper bag limit; extended the closed season for recreational SWG; eliminated the end date for the Madison-Swanson and Steamboat Lumps marine reserves; and required that federally permitted reef fish vessels comply with the more restrictive of Federal or state reef fish regulations when fishing in state waters. In addition, Amendment 30B established management targets and thresholds for gag consistent with the requirements of the Sustainable Fisheries Act (SFA); set the gag and red grouper total allowable catch (TAC); and established interim allocations for the commercial and recreational gag and red grouper fisheries. This final rule was intended to end overfishing of gag and maintain catch levels of red grouper consistent with achieving optimum yield (OY).
2. Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone off Alaska; Revisions to the Pollock Trip Limit Regulations in the Gulf of Alaska. RIN 0648-AW54 (74 FR 18156; April 21, 2009). NMFS issued this final rule to prohibit a catcher vessel from landing more than 300,000 lb (136 mt) of unprocessed pollock during a calendar day, and from landing a cumulative amount of unprocessed pollock from any Gulf of Alaska reporting area that exceeds 300,000 lb multiplied by the number of calendar days the pollock fishery is open to directed fishing in a season. This prevented catcher vessels from circumventing the intent of then-current trip limit regulations when making deliveries of pollock. Amending the then-current trip limit regulation to limit a vessel to 300,000 lb of pollock caught in a day allowed for the continued dispersion of catches of pollock in a manner that is consistent with the intent of Steller sea lion protection measures in the Gulf of Alaska. This action was intended to promote the goals and objectives of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (MSA) and other applicable laws.
3. Taking of Marine Mammals Incidental to Commercial Fishing Operations; Atlantic Pelagic Longline Take Reduction Plan. RIN 0648-AV65 (74 FR 23349; May 19, 2009). NMFS determined that the pelagic longline fishery had a high level of mortality and serious injury across a number of marine mammal stocks, and issued the final Atlantic Pelagic Longline Take Reduction Plan (PLTRP) and implemented regulations to reduce serious injuries and mortalities of pilot whales and Risso's dolphins in the Atlantic pelagic longline fishery. The PLTRP was based on consensus recommendations submitted by the Atlantic Pelagic Longline Take Reduction Team. The PLTRP was intended to meet the statutory mandates and requirements of the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) through both regulatory and non-regulatory measures, including a special research area, gear modifications, outreach material, observer coverage, and captains' communications.
4. Endangered and Threatened Species; Designation of Critical Habitat for Atlantic Salmon (
5. Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Snapper-Grouper Fishery off the Southern Atlantic States; Amendment 16. RIN 0648-AW64 (74 FR 30964; June 29, 2009). NMFS issued the final rule to implement the approved measures of Amendment 16 to the Fishery Management Plan for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic Region (Amendment 16), as prepared and submitted by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council. This final rule established a seasonal closure of the recreational and commercial fisheries for gag and associated shallow-water grouper species; established a seasonal closure of the recreational fishery for vermilion snapper; reduced the aggregate bag limit for grouper and tilefish; reduced the bag limit for gag or black grouper combined; reduced the bag limit for vermilion snapper; prohibited captain and crew of a vessel operating as a charter vessel or headboat from retaining any fish under the aggregate bag limit for grouper and tilefish or the vermilion snapper bag limit; established semiannual quotas for the commercial vermilion snapper fishery; established a quota for the commercial gag fishery; established restrictions on the possession, sale, and purchase of gag and associated shallow-water grouper species after the gag commercial quota is reached; and required possession of a dehooking device on board a vessel when fishing
6. International Fisheries; Western and Central Pacific Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species; Fishing Restrictions and Observer Requirements in Purse Seine Fisheries for 2009-2011 and Turtle Mitigation Requirements in Purse Seine Fisheries. RIN 0648-AX60. (74 FR 38544; August 4, 2009). NMFS issued regulations under authority of the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act (WCPFC Implementation Act) to implement certain decisions of the Commission for the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean (WCPFC). Those decisions required that the members of the WCPFC, including the United States, take certain measures with respect to their purse seine fisheries in the area of competence of the WCPFC, which included most of the western and central Pacific Ocean (WCPO). The regulations included limits on the number of days that may be fished, periods during which fishing may not be done on schools in association with fish aggregating devices (FADs), areas of high seas closed to fishing, requirements to retain tuna on board up to the first point of landing or transshipment, requirements to carry observers, and requirements to handle sea turtles in a specified manner. This action was necessary for the United States to satisfy its international obligations under the Convention on the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean, to which it is a Contracting Party.
7. Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone off Alaska; Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (Amendment 92) and Gulf of Alaska License (Amendment 82) Limitation Program. RIN 0648-AX14 (74 FR 41080; August 14, 2009). NMFS issued regulations to implement Amendment 92 to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area and Amendment 82 to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska. This action removed trawl gear endorsements on licenses issued under the license limitation program in specific management areas if those licenses had not been used on vessels that met minimum recent landing requirements using trawl gear. This action provided exemptions to this requirement for licenses that were used in trawl fisheries subject to certain limited access privilege programs. This action issued new area endorsements for trawl catcher vessel licenses in the Aleutian Islands if minimum recent landing requirements in the Aleutian Islands were met. This action was intended to promote the goals and objectives of the MSA, the Fishery Management Plans, and other applicable law.
8. Endangered and Threatened Species; Critical Habitat for the Endangered Distinct Population Segment of Smalltooth Sawfish. RIN 0648-AV74 (74 FR 45353; September 2, 2009). NMFS, issued a final rule to designate critical habitat for the U.S. distinct population segment (DPS) of smalltooth sawfish (
9. Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants: Final Rulemaking to Designate Critical Habitat for the Threatened Southern Distinct Population Segment of North American Green Sturgeon. RIN 0648-AX04 (74 FR 52299; October 9, 2009). NMFS designated critical habitat for the threatened Southern distinct population segment of North American green sturgeon (Southern DPS of green sturgeon) pursuant to section 4 of the ESA. Specific areas proposed for designation included: Coastal U.S. marine waters within 60 fathoms (fm) depth from Monterey Bay, CA (including Monterey Bay), north to Cape Flattery, WA, including the Strait of Juan de Fuca, WA, to its United States boundary; the Sacramento River, lower Feather River, and lower Yuba River in California; the Sacramento-San Joaquin Delta and Suisun, San Pablo, and San Francisco bays in California; the lower Columbia River estuary; and certain coastal bays and estuaries in California (Humboldt Bay), Oregon (Coos Bay, Winchester Bay, Yaquina Bay, and Nehalem Bay), and Washington (Willapa Bay and Grays Harbor). This rule designated approximately 515 kilometers (km) (320 miles (mi)) of freshwater river habitat, 2,323 km
10. Fisheries of the United States Exclusive Economic Zone off Alaska; Fisheries of the Arctic Management Area; Bering Sea Subarea. RIN 0648-AX71 (74 FR 56734; November 3, 2009). NMFS issued a final rule that implements the Fishery Management Plan for Fish Resources of the Arctic Management Area (Arctic FMP) and Amendment 29 to the Fishery Management Plan for Bering Sea/Aleutian Islands King and Tanner Crabs (Crab FMP). The Arctic FMP and
11. Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Snapper-Grouper Fishery off the Southern Atlantic States; Amendment 15B; Reef Fish Fishery of the Gulf of Mexico. RIN 0648-AW12 (74 FR 58902; November 16, 2009). NMFS issued this final rule to implement Amendment 15B to the Fishery Management Plan for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic Region, as prepared and submitted by the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council. This final rule, for South Atlantic snapper-grouper, required a private recreational vessel that fishes in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ), if selected by NMFS, to maintain and submit fishing records; required a vessel that fishes in the EEZ, if selected by NMFS, to carry an observer and install an electronic logbook and/or video monitoring equipment provided by NMFS; prohibited the sale of snapper-grouper harvested or possessed in the EEZ under the bag limits and prohibited the sale of snapper-grouper harvested or possessed under the bag limits by vessels with a Federal charter vessel/headboat permit for South Atlantic snapper-grouper regardless of where the snapper-grouper were harvested; required an owner and operator of a vessel for which a commercial or charter vessel/headboat permit has been issued and that has on board any hook-and-line gear to comply with sea turtle and smalltooth sawfish release protocols, possess on board specific gear to ensure proper release of such species, and comply with guidelines for proper care and release of such species that are incidentally caught; and expanded the allowable transfer of a commercial vessel permit under the limited access program and extended the allowable period for renewal of such a permit. Amendment 15B also revised the stock status determination criteria for golden tilefish and specified commercial/recreational allocations for snowy grouper and red porgy. In addition, NMFS removed language specifying commercial quotas for snowy grouper and red porgy that were no longer in effect and revised sea turtle bycatch mitigation requirements applicable to the Gulf reef fish fishery to add two devices that were inadvertently omitted from a prior rule. The intended effects of this final rule were to provide additional information for, and otherwise improve the effective management of, the South Atlantic snapper-grouper fishery; minimize the impacts on incidentally caught threatened and endangered sea turtles and smalltooth sawfish; and remove outdated language, all pursuant to the MSA.
12. International Fisheries Regulations; Fisheries in the Western Pacific; Pelagic Fisheries; Hawaii-Based Shallow-Set Longline Fishery. RIN 0648-AW49 (74 FR 65460; December 10, 2009). This final rule implemented the management provisions in Amendment 18 to the Pelagics Fishery Management Plan for the pelagic fisheries in the U.S. western Pacific, and made several housekeeping changes to the pelagic fishing regulations that were not related to Amendment 18. This final rule removed the annual limit on the number of fishing gear deployments (sets) for the Hawaii-based pelagic shallow-set longline fishery, and increased the annual number of allowable incidental interactions that occur between the fishery and loggerhead sea turtles. The final rule optimized yield from the fishery without jeopardizing the continued existence of sea turtles and other protected resources. This final rule also made several administrative clarifications to the regulations. The intent of this final rule was to achieve optimal yield from the fishery, pursuant to the MSA, without jeopardizing the continued existence of sea turtles and other protected resources.
Rural Business-Cooperative Service, USDA
Proposed collection, comments requested.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Rural Business-Cooperative Service's (RBS) intention to request an extension for a currently approved information collection in support of the Rural Cooperative Development Grants program.
Comments on this notice must be received by October 3, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Susan Horst, Management and Program Analyst, Cooperative Services, Rural Business-Cooperative Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Stop 3250, Room 4214, South Agriculture Building, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-3250. Telephone (202) 260-5952.
Copies of this information collection can be obtained from Jeanne Jacobs, Regulations and Paperwork Management Branch, at (202) 692-0040.
Comments:
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Minnesota Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Wednesday, August 31, 2016. The meeting will include an orientation of the Committee scope and duties for new members, a discussion of current civil rights issues in Minnesota, and a discussion of plans for the next Committee project. Members of the Advisory Committee will be presenting issues that they believe the Committee should research and issue a report to the Commission.
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, August 31, 2016, 1:00-3:00 p.m. CDT.
The meeting will be held at: City Hall, Martin Luther King Conference Room 241, 350 S. Fifth St.—Rm. 241, Minneapolis, MN 55415.
Members of the public are invited to make statements into the record at the meeting at the designated open comment period. Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 55 W. Monroe St., Suite 410, Chicago, IL 60603. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324, or emailed to Carolyn Allen at
Hearing-impaired persons who will attend the meeting and require the services of a sign language interpreter should contact the Midwestern Regional Office at least ten (10) working days
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
Defense Security Service (DSS), DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Center for Development of Security Excellence (CDSE), Training Division, ATTN: Brian K. Miller, 938 Elkridge Landing Road, Linthicum, MD 21090-2917, or call CDSE, Training Division, at 410-689-1134.
Respondents are education and training services customers of the CDSE who are pursuing professional development in security or are required to complete courses by their employers. Burden is reported as an annual average, and the actual burden depends on the number of selected learning events attended. No personally identifiable information is requested, and anonymity of responses is maintained. Responses are used in the conduct of continuous evaluation of education and training activities required by DoDM 3115.11 (“DoD Intelligence and Security Training Standards,” March 24, 2015), and 5 CFR 410.202 (“Responsibilities for Evaluating Training,” December 10, 2009).
Defense Security Service (DSS), DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Center for Development of Security Excellence (CDSE), Training Division, ATTN: Brian K. Miller, 938 Elkridge Landing Road, Linthicum, MD 21090-2917, or call CDSE, Training Division, at 410-689-1134.
Respondents are supervisors of security education and training customers who are required to participate in learning events by their employers or are engaged in professional development in security disciplines. Burden is reported as an annual average, and the actual burden depends on the number of learning events attended. No personally identifiable information is requested and anonymity of responses is maintained. Responses are used in the conduct of continuous evaluation of education and training activities required by DoDM 3115.11 (“DoD Intelligence and Security Training Standards,” March 24, 2015), and 5 CFR 410.202 (“Responsibilities for Evaluating Training,” December 10, 2009).
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 6, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-377-4018.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before September 6, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Warren Farr, 202-377-4380.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The experiment for which data is being reported relates to the William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan Program and limiting unsubsidized loan amounts.
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) has prepared a final environmental impact statement (EIS) for the Rover Pipeline, Panhandle Backhaul, and Trunkline Backhaul Projects (Projects), proposed by Rover Pipeline, LLC (Rover), Panhandle Eastern Pipe Line Company, LP (Panhandle), and Trunkline Gas Company, LLC (Trunkline), respectively, in the above-referenced dockets. Rover requests authorization to construct, operate, and maintain certain natural gas pipeline facilities to transport about 3.25 billion cubic feet per day (Bcf/d) of stranded natural gas from Marcellus and Utica production areas in West Virginia, Pennsylvania, and Ohio to markets in the United States and Canada. Panhandle requests authorization to modify existing facilities and install an interconnection
The final EIS assesses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the Projects in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The FERC staff concludes that approval of the Projects would have some adverse and significant environmental impacts; however, these impacts would be reduced to acceptable levels with the implementation of Rover's, Panhandle's, and Trunkline's proposed mitigation and the additional measures recommended by staff in the final EIS.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (COE), the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS), the Ohio Environmental Protection Agency (OHEPA), and the West Virginia Department of Environmental Protection (WVDEP) participated as cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EIS. Cooperating agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to resources potentially affected by the proposal and participate in the NEPA analysis. Although the cooperating agencies provided input to the conclusions and recommendations presented in the final EIS, the agencies will present their own conclusions and recommendations in their respective Records of Decision for the Projects.
The final EIS addresses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the following project facilities:
• 510.3 miles of new 24- to 42-inch-diameter natural gas pipeline and appurtenant facilities that include 10 new compressor stations, 21 new meter stations, 6 new tie-ins, 78 mainline valves, and 11 pig launcher and receiver facilities.
• modifications by Panhandle at four existing compressor stations, one interconnection, and three valve sites; and
• modifications by Trunkline at four existing compressor stations and one meter station.
The FERC staff mailed copies of the final EIS to federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; potentially affected landowners and other interested individuals and groups; newspapers and libraries in the project area; and parties to this proceeding. Paper copy versions of this EIS were mailed to those specifically requesting them; all others received a CD version. In addition, the final EIS is available for public viewing on the FERC's Web site (
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription that allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric securities filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) has prepared a final environmental impact statement (EIS) for the Golden Pass Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) Export Project, proposed by Golden Pass Products, LLC and Golden Pass Pipeline, LLC (collectively referred to as Golden Pass) in the above-referenced docket. Golden Pass requests authorization to expand and modify the existing Golden Pass LNG Import Terminal to allow the export of LNG, which would require construction and operation of various liquefaction, LNG distribution, and appurtenant facilities. The Project would also include construction of approximately 2.6 miles of 24-inch pipeline, three new compressor stations, and interconnections for bi-directional transport of natural gas to and from the Golden Pass LNG Export terminal.
The final EIS assesses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the Golden Pass LNG Export Project in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The FERC staff concludes that approval of the proposed project, with the mitigation measures recommended in the EIS, would result in some adverse environmental impact; however, those impacts would not be significant with implementation of Golden Pass' proposed mitigation and the additional measures recommended in the draft EIS.
The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Department of Energy, U.S. Department of Transportation, and U.S. Environmental Protection Agency participated as cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EIS. Cooperating agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to resources potentially affected by the proposal and participate in the NEPA analysis. Although the cooperating agencies provided input to the conclusions and recommendations presented in the EIS, the agencies will present their own conclusions and recommendations in their respective Records of Decision for the project.
The final EIS addresses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the following project facilities:
• Liquefaction facilities at the existing Golden Pass Export Terminal including three liquefaction trains, a truck unloading facility, refrigerant and condensate storage, safety and control systems, and associated infrastructure;
• a supply dock and alternate marine delivery facilities at the Terminal;
• three miles of a new 24-inch-diameter pipeline loop
• three new compressor stations;
• five new pipeline interconnections and modifications at existing pipeline interconnections; and
• miscellaneous appurtenant facilities.
The FERC staff mailed copies of the EIS to federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; potentially affected landowners and other interested individuals and groups; newspapers and libraries in the project area; and parties to this proceeding. Paper copy versions of this EIS were mailed to those specifically requesting them; all others received a CD version. In addition, the EIS is available for public viewing on the FERC's Web site (
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of North American Power Business, LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is August 17, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k. With this notice, we are initiating informal consultation with: (a) The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and/or NOAA Fisheries under section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and the joint agency regulations thereunder at 50 CFR part 402 and (b) the State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106, National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
l. With this notice, we are designating Otter Tail Power Company as the Commission's non-federal representative for carrying out informal consultation, pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.
m. Otter Tail Power Company filed with the Commission a Pre-Application Document (PAD; including a proposed process plan and schedule), pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations.
n. A copy of the PAD is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site (
Register online at
o. With this notice, we are soliciting comments on the PAD and Commission's staff Scoping Document 1 (SD1), as well as study requests. All comments on the PAD and SD1, and study requests should be sent to the address above in paragraph h. In addition, all comments on the PAD and SD1, study requests, requests for
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file all documents using the Commission's eFiling system at
All filings with the Commission must bear the appropriate heading: “Comments on Pre-Application Document,” “Study Requests,” “Comments on Scoping Document 1,” “Request for Cooperating Agency Status,” or “Communications to and from Commission Staff.” Any individual or entity interested in submitting study requests, commenting on the PAD or SD1, and any agency requesting cooperating status must do so by October 3, 2016.
p. Although our current intent is to prepare an environmental assessment (EA), there is the possibility that an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) will be required. Nevertheless, this meeting will satisfy the NEPA scoping requirements, irrespective of whether an EA or EIS is issued by the Commission.
Commission staff will hold two scoping meetings in the vicinity of the project at the time and place noted below. The daytime meeting will focus on resource agency, Indian tribes, and non-governmental organization concerns, while the evening meeting is primarily for receiving input from the public. We invite all interested individuals, organizations, and agencies to attend one or both of the meetings, and to assist staff in identifying particular study needs, as well as the scope of environmental issues to be addressed in the environmental document. The times and locations of these meetings are as follows:
Scoping Document 1 (SD1), which outlines the subject areas to be addressed in the environmental document, was mailed to the individuals and entities on the Commission's mailing list. Copies of SD1 will be available at the scoping meetings, or may be viewed on the Web at
The potential applicant and Commission staff will conduct an Environmental Site Review of the project on Tuesday, August 30, 2016, starting at 9:00 a.m. All participants should meet at Otter Tail Power Company, located at 215 South Cascade Street, Fergus Falls, Minnesota 56537. All participants are responsible for their own transportation. Please notify Sarah Casey at 218-739-8694, or
At the scoping meetings, staff will: (1) Initiate scoping of the issues; (2) review and discuss existing conditions and resource management objectives; (3) review and discuss existing information and identify preliminary information and study needs; (4) review and discuss the process plan and schedule for pre-filing activity that incorporates the time frames provided for in Part 5 of the Commission's regulations and, to the extent possible, maximizes coordination of federal, state, and tribal permitting and certification processes; and (5) discuss the appropriateness of any federal or state agency or Indian tribe acting as a cooperating agency for development of an environmental document.
Meeting participants should come prepared to discuss their issues and/or concerns. Please review the PAD in preparation for the scoping meetings. Directions on how to obtain a copy of the PAD and SD1 are included in paragraph n of this document.
The meetings will be recorded by a stenographer and will be placed in the public records of the project.
On July 28, 2016, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL16-89-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of certain aspects of Virginia Electric and Power Company's Reactive Service rates.
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL16-89-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Antelope DSR 1, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is August 17, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Farm Credit Administration.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the Government in the Sunshine Act, of the regular meeting of the Farm Credit Administration Board (Board).
The regular meeting of the Board will be held at the offices of the Farm Credit Administration in McLean, Virginia, on August 11, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. until such time as the Board concludes its business.
Dale L. Aultman, Secretary to the Farm Credit Administration Board, (703) 883-4009, TTY (703) 883-4056.
Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. Submit attendance requests via email to
Parts of this meeting of the Board will be open to the public (limited space available), and parts will be closed to the public. Please send an email to
* Session Closed-Exempt pursuant to 5 U.S.C. Section 552b(c)(8) and (9).
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Notice and request for comment.
The FDIC, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the renewal of existing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. On May 24, 2016, (81 FR 35752), the FDIC requested comment for 60 days on a proposal to renew the information collections described below. No comments were received. The FDIC hereby gives notice of its plan to submit to OMB a request to approve the renewal of these collections, and again invites comment on this renewal.
Comments must be submitted on or before September 6, 2016.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
All comments should refer to the relevant OMB control number. A copy of the comments may also be submitted to the OMB desk officer for the FDIC: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503.
Manny Cabeza, at the FDIC address above.
Proposal to renew the following currently-approved collections of information:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. All comments will become a matter of public record.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
Notice and request for comment.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) proposes to amend its Guidelines for Appeals of Material Supervisory Determinations (Guidelines) so that institutions have additional avenues of redress with respect to these determinations and for greater consistency with the appeals process of the other Federal banking agencies. Consistent with Section 309(a) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (“Riegle Act”), the FDIC, in 1995, established its Supervision Appeals Review Committee (SARC), an independent intra-agency appellate process to review appeals by institutions of “material supervisory determinations,” and has amended the Guidelines from time to time, as appropriate.
Written comments on the Proposal must be received by the FDIC on or before October 3, 2016 for consideration.
Interested parties are invited to submit written comments to the FDIC by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
•
•
Christopher Newbury, Associate Director, Division of Risk Management
The FDIC is publishing for notice and comment proposed amendments to the Guidelines for Appeals of Material Supervisory Determinations. The FDIC considers it desirable in this instance to seek comments regarding these amendments to the Guidelines, although notice and comment is not required. The proposed amendments would be effective upon adoption so that institutions have additional avenues of redress with respect to material supervisory determinations.
The proposed amendments would (1) permit appeal of the level of compliance with an existing formal enforcement action; (2) provide that a formal enforcement-related action or decision does not affect an appeal that is pending under the Guidelines; (3) make additional appeal rights available pursuant to the Guidelines with respect to material supervisory determinations in certain circumstances; and (4) make other limited technical and conforming amendments.
Section 309(a) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160) (“Riegle Act”), required the FDIC (as well as the other Federal banking agencies and the National Credit Union Administration Board) to establish an independent intra-agency appellate process to review material supervisory determinations. The Riegle Act defines the term “independent appellate process” to mean a review by an agency official who does not directly or indirectly report to the agency official who made the material supervisory determination under review. In the appeals process, the FDIC is required to ensure that: (1) An appeal of a material supervisory determination by an insured depository institution is heard and decided expeditiously; and (2) appropriate safeguards exist for protecting appellants from retaliation by agency examiners.
The term “material supervisory determinations” is defined in the Riegle Act to include determinations relating to: (1) Examination ratings; (2) the adequacy of loan loss reserve provisions; and (3) classifications on loans that are significant to an institution. The Riegle Act specifically excludes from the definition of “material supervisory determinations” a decision to appoint a conservator or receiver for an insured depository institution or to take prompt corrective action pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDI Act”), 12 U.S.C. 1831o. Finally, section 309(g) (12 U.S.C. 4806(g)) expressly provides that the Riegle Act's requirement to establish an appeals process shall not affect the authority of the Federal banking agencies to take enforcement or supervisory actions against an institution.
On December 28, 1994, the FDIC published in the
Commenters to the proposed Guidelines suggested that the proposed limitations on determinations eligible for appeal were too restrictive. In response to comments received, the FDIC modified the proposed Guidelines. The FDIC added a final clarifying sentence to the listing of “Determinations Not Eligible for Appeal” in the Guidelines as follows: “The FDIC recognizes that, although determinations to take prompt corrective action or initiate formal or informal enforcement actions are not appealable, the determinations upon which such actions may be based (
On March 18, 2004, the FDIC published in the
On May 27, 2008, the FDIC published in the
On April 19, 2010, the FDIC published in the
On March 23, 2012, the FDIC published in the
As noted above, the FDIC adopted amendments to the Guidelines in 2008 modifying the supervisory determinations eligible for appeal to eliminate the ability of an FDIC-supervised institution to file an appeal with the SARC for determinations or the facts and circumstances underlying a recommended or pending formal enforcement-related action or decision, including the initiation of an investigation. However, based on the FDIC's experience in administering the current appellate process, the FDIC believes that there are changes that could be beneficial to allow for additional avenues of redress with respect to certain material supervisory
Currently, the Guidelines state that “material supervisory determinations” subject to appeal do not include determinations regarding compliance with an existing formal enforcement action. The proposed amendment to the Guidelines would allow determinations regarding an institution's level of compliance with an existing formal enforcement action to be appealed; however, if the FDIC determines that lack of compliance with an existing enforcement action requires additional enforcement action, the proposed new enforcement action would not be appealable. This proposed amendment to the Guidelines would enhance institutions' opportunities to obtain an independent review of supervisory determinations, promoting the goals of the Riegle Act in a manner consistent with the statute's requirement that the appeals process shall not affect the authority of the Federal banking agencies to take enforcement or supervisory actions against an institution.
The FDIC notes that, similar to the proposed amendments, the current appeals process of the OCC allows institutions to appeal conclusions regarding their level of compliance with a formal enforcement action; however, if the OCC determines that the lack of compliance with an existing enforcement action requires additional enforcement action, the proposed new enforcement action is not appealable.
In addition, the proposed Guidelines would remove from the list of determinations that are not appealable the decision to initiate an informal enforcement action, such as a Memorandum of Understanding. This would better conform the FDIC's Guidelines to the current appeals process of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
Currently, the Guidelines state that a formal enforcement-related action or decision commences, and therefore becomes unappealable, when the FDIC initiates a formal investigation under 12 U.S.C. 1820(c) or provides written notice to the bank indicating its intention to pursue available formal enforcement remedies under applicable statutes or published enforcement-related policies of the FDIC, including written notice of a referral to the Attorney General pursuant to ECOA or a notice to HUD for violations of the FHA or ECOA. The proposed amendments would provide that a formal enforcement-related action or decision commences and becomes unappealable when the FDIC initiates a formal investigation under 12 U.S.C. 1820(c) or provides written notice to the bank of a recommended or proposed formal enforcement action under applicable statutes or published enforcement-related policies of the FDIC, including written notice of a referral to the Attorney General pursuant to the ECOA or a notice to HUD for violations of the FHA or ECOA. This change would make the Guidelines more consistent with the process of the OCC.
The proposed amendments also would provide that a formal enforcement-related action or decision does not affect the appeal of any material supervisory determination that is pending under the Guidelines.
The proposed amendments would make SARC appeal rights available with respect to material supervisory determinations in certain circumstances. In particular, SARC appeal rights would be made available pursuant to the Guidelines where the FDIC has provided an institution with written notice of a recommended or proposed formal enforcement action, but does not pursue an enforcement action within 120 days of the written notice. The FDIC may extend this 120-day period, with the approval of the SARC Chairperson, if the FDIC notifies the institution that the relevant Division Director is seeking formal authority to take an enforcement action.
In addition, SARC appeal rights would be made available in the case of a referral to the Attorney General for certain violations of the ECOA, if the Attorney General returns the matter to the FDIC and the FDIC does not initiate an enforcement action within 120 days of the date the referral is returned.
SARC appeal rights would also be made available if the FDIC provides notice to HUD for violations of the ECOA or FHA, but does not initiate an enforcement action within 120 days of the date the notice is provided.
Under the proposal, these additional appeal rights may be extended if the FDIC and the institution mutually agree and deem it appropriate in order to reach a mutually agreeable solution.
Institutions would be provided written notice of SARC appeal rights within 10 days of a determination that appeal rights have been made available.
Section 309(a) of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160) (“Riegle Act”) required the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) to establish an independent intra-agency appellate process to review material supervisory determinations made at insured depository institutions that it supervises. The Guidelines for Appeals of Material Supervisory Determinations (“guidelines”) describe the types of determinations that are eligible for review and the process by which appeals will be considered and decided. The procedures set forth in these guidelines establish an appeals process for the review of material supervisory determinations by the Supervision Appeals Review Committee (“SARC”).
The following individuals comprise the three (3) voting members of the SARC: (1) One inside FDIC Board member, either the Chairperson, the Vice Chairperson, or the FDIC Director (Appointive), as designated by the FDIC Chairperson (this person would serve as the Chairperson of the SARC); and (2) one deputy or special assistant to each of the inside FDIC Board members who are not designated as the SARC Chairperson. The General Counsel is a non-voting member of the SARC. The FDIC Chairperson may designate alternate member(s) to the SARC if there are vacancies so long as the alternate member was not involved in making or affirming the material supervisory determination under review. A member of the SARC may designate and authorize the most senior member of his or her staff within the substantive area of responsibility related to cases before the SARC to act on his or her behalf.
The guidelines apply to the insured depository institutions that the FDIC supervises (
An institution may appeal any material supervisory determination pursuant to the procedures set forth in these guidelines.
Material supervisory determinations include:
(a) CAMELS ratings under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System;
(b) IT ratings under the Uniform Interagency Rating System for Data Processing Operations;
(c) Trust ratings under the Uniform Interagency Trust Rating System;
(d) CRA ratings under the Revised Uniform Interagency Community Reinvestment Act Assessment Rating System;
(e) Consumer compliance ratings under the Uniform Interagency Consumer Compliance Rating System;
(f) Registered transfer agent examination ratings;
(g) Government securities dealer examination ratings;
(h) Municipal securities dealer examination ratings;
(i) Determinations relating to the adequacy of loan loss reserve provisions;
(j) Classifications of loans and other assets in dispute the amount of which, individually or in the aggregate, exceeds 10 percent of an institution's total capital;
(k) Determinations relating to violations of a statute or regulation that may affect the capital, earnings, or operating flexibility of an institution, or otherwise affect the nature and level of supervisory oversight accorded an institution;
(l) Truth in Lending (Regulation Z) restitution;
(m) Filings made pursuant to 12 CFR. 303.11(f), for which a request for reconsideration has been granted, other than denials of a change in bank control, change in senior executive officer or board of directors, or denial of an application pursuant to section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDI Act”), 12 U.S.C. 1829 (which are contained in 12 CFR. 308, subparts D, L, and M, respectively), if the filing was originally denied by the Director, Deputy Director, or Associate Director of the Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection (“DCP”) or the Division of Risk Management Supervision (“RMS”);
(n) Determinations regarding the institution's level of compliance with a formal enforcement action; however, if the FDIC determines that the lack of compliance with an existing enforcement action requires additional enforcement action, the proposed new enforcement action is not appealable; and
(o) Any other supervisory determination (unless otherwise not eligible for appeal) that may affect the capital, earnings, operating flexibility, or capital category for prompt corrective action purposes of an institution, or otherwise affect the nature and level of supervisory oversight accorded an institution.
Material supervisory determinations do not include:
(a) Decisions to appoint a conservator or receiver for an insured depository institution;
(b) Decisions to take prompt corrective action pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831o;
(c) Determinations for which other appeals procedures exist (such as determinations of deposit insurance assessment risk classifications and payment calculations); and
(d) Formal enforcement-related actions and decisions, including determinations and the underlying facts and circumstances that form the basis of a recommended or pending formal enforcement action.
A formal enforcement-related action or decision commences, and becomes unappealable, when the FDIC initiates a formal investigation under 12 U.S.C. 1820(c) or provides written notice to the bank of a recommended or proposed formal enforcement action under applicable statutes or published enforcement-related policies of the FDIC, including written notice of a referral to the Attorney General pursuant to the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (“ECOA”) or a notice to the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development (“HUD”) for violations of the ECOA or the Fair Housing Act (“FHA”). A formal enforcement-related action or decision does not affect the appeal of any material supervisory determination that is pending under these guidelines. For the purposes of these guidelines, remarks in a Report of Examination do not constitute written notice of a recommended or proposed enforcement action.
Additional SARC Rights:
(a) In the case of any written notice from the FDIC to the institution of a recommended or proposed formal enforcement action, including a draft consent order, if an enforcement action, such as the issuance of a notice of charges or the signing of a consent order, is not pursued within 120 days of the written notice, SARC appeal rights will be made available pursuant to these guidelines. The FDIC may extend this 120-day period, with the approval of the SARC Chairperson, if the FDIC notifies the institution that the relevant Division Director is seeking formal authority to take an enforcement action.
(b) In the case of a referral to the Attorney General for violations of the ECOA, if the Attorney General returns the matter to the FDIC and the FDIC does not initiate an enforcement action within 120 days of the date the referral is returned, SARC appeal rights will be made available pursuant to these guidelines.
(c) In the case of providing notice to HUD for violations of the ECOA or the FHA, if the FDIC does not initiate an enforcement action within 120 days of the date the notice is provided, SARC appeal rights will be made available under these guidelines.
(d) Written notification of SARC rights will be provided to the institution within 10 days of a determination that such rights have been made available.
(e) The FDIC and an institution may mutually agree to extend the timeframes in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) if the parties deem it appropriate in order to reach a mutually agreeable solution.
An institution should make a good-faith effort to resolve any dispute concerning a material supervisory determination with the on-site examiner and/or the appropriate Regional Office. The on-site examiner and the Regional Office will promptly respond to any concerns raised by an institution regarding a material supervisory determination. Informal resolution of disputes with the on-site examiner and/or the appropriate Regional Office is encouraged, but seeking such a resolution is not a condition to filing a request for review with the appropriate Division, either DCP or RMS, or to filing an appeal with the SARC under these guidelines.
An institution may file a request for review of a material supervisory determination with the Division that made the determination, either the Director, DCP, or the Director, RMS, (“Director” or “Division Director”), 550 17th Street NW., Room F-4076,
(a) A detailed description of the issues in dispute, the surrounding circumstances, the institution's position regarding the dispute and any arguments to support that position (including citation of any relevant statute, regulation, policy statement, or other authority), how resolution of the dispute would materially affect the institution, and whether a good-faith effort was made to resolve the dispute with the on-site examiner and the Regional Office; and
(b) A statement that the institution's board of directors has considered the merits of the request and has authorized that it be filed.
The Division Director will issue a written determination on the request for review, setting forth the grounds for that determination, within 45 days of receipt of the request. No appeal to the SARC will be allowed unless an institution has first filed a timely request for review with the appropriate Division Director.
An institution that does not agree with the written determination rendered by the Division Director must appeal that determination to the SARC within 30 calendar days from the date of that determination. The Director's determination will inform the institution of the 30-day time period for filing with the SARC and will provide the mailing address for any appeal the institution may wish to file. Failure to file within the 30-day time limit may result in denial of the appeal by the SARC. If the Division Director recommends that an institution receive relief that the Director lacks delegated authority to grant, the Director may, with the approval of the Chairperson of the SARC, transfer the matter directly to the SARC without issuing a determination. Notice of such a transfer will be provided to the institution. The Division Director may also request guidance from the SARC Chairperson as to procedural or other questions relating to any request for review.
An appeal to the SARC will be considered filed if the written appeal is received by the FDIC within 30 calendar days from the date of the Division Director's written determination or if the written appeal is placed in the U.S. mail within that 30-day period. If the 30th day after the date of the Division Director's written determination is a Saturday, Sunday, or a Federal holiday, filing may be made on the next business day. The appeal should be sent to the address indicated on the Division Director's determination being appealed.
The appeal should be labeled to indicate that it is an appeal to the SARC and should contain the name, address, and telephone number of the institution and any representative, as well as a copy of the Division Director's determination being appealed. If oral presentation is sought, that request should be included in the appeal. Only matters previously reviewed at the division level, resulting in a written determination or direct referral to the SARC, may be appealed to the SARC. Evidence not presented for review to the Division Director may be submitted to the SARC only if authorized by the SARC Chairperson. The institution should set forth all of the reasons, legal and factual, why it disagrees with the Division Director's determination. Nothing in the SARC administrative process shall create any discovery or other such rights.
The burden of proof as to all matters at issue in the appeal, including timeliness of the appeal if timeliness is at issue, rests with the institution.
The SARC may, in its discretion, whether or not a request is made, determine to allow an oral presentation. The SARC generally grants a request for oral presentation if it determines that oral presentation is likely to be helpful or would otherwise be in the public interest. Notice of the SARC's determination to grant or deny a request for oral presentation will be provided to the institution. If oral presentation is held, the institution will be allowed to present its positions on the issues raised in the appeal and to respond to any questions from the SARC. The SARC may also require that FDIC staff participate as the SARC deems appropriate.
An appeal may be dismissed by the SARC if it is not timely filed, if the basis for the appeal is not discernable from the appeal, or if the institution moves to withdraw the appeal. An appeal may be rejected if the right to appeal has been cut off under Section D, above.
The SARC will review the appeal for consistency with the policies, practices, and mission of the FDIC and the overall reasonableness of, and the support offered for, the positions advanced. The SARC will notify the institution, in writing, of its decision concerning the disputed material supervisory determination(s) within 45 days from the date the SARC meets to consider the appeal, which meeting will be held within 90 days from the date of the filing of the appeal. SARC review will be limited to the facts and circumstances as they existed prior to, or at the time the material supervisory determination was made, even if later discovered, and no consideration will be given to any facts or circumstances that occur or corrective action taken after the determination was made. The SARC may reconsider its decision only on a showing of an intervening change in the controlling law or the availability of material evidence not reasonably available when the decision was issued.
SARC decisions will be published, and the published SARC decisions will be redacted to avoid disclosure of exempt information. In cases in which redaction is deemed insufficient to prevent improper disclosure, published decisions may be presented in summary form. Published SARC decisions may be cited as precedent in appeals to the SARC.
Appeals to the SARC will be governed by these guidelines. The SARC will retain discretion to waive any provision of the guidelines for good cause. The SARC may adopt supplemental rules governing its operations; order that material be kept confidential; and consolidate similar appeals.
The subject matter of a material supervisory determination for which either an appeal to the SARC has been filed, or a final SARC decision issued, is not eligible for consideration by the Ombudsman.
In the event that a material supervisory determination subject to a request for review is the joint product of the FDIC and a State regulatory authority, the Director, DCP, or the Director, RMS, as appropriate, will
The use of the procedures set forth in these guidelines by any institution will not affect, delay, or impede any formal or informal supervisory or enforcement action in progress or affect the FDIC's authority to take any supervisory or enforcement action against that institution.
Any application or request for approval made to the FDIC by an institution that has appealed a material supervisory determination that relates to, or could affect the approval of, the application or request will not be considered until a final decision concerning the appeal is made unless otherwise requested by the institution.
The FDIC has an experienced examination workforce and is proud of its professionalism and dedication. FDIC policy prohibits any retaliation, abuse, or retribution by an agency examiner or any FDIC personnel against an institution. Such behavior against an institution that appeals a material supervisory determination constitutes unprofessional conduct and will subject the examiner or other personnel to appropriate disciplinary or remedial action. Institutions that believe they have been retaliated against are encouraged to contact the Regional Director for the appropriate FDIC region. Any institution that believes or has any evidence that it has been subject to retaliation may file a complaint with the Director, Office of the Ombudsman, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, Washington, DC 20429, explaining the circumstances and the basis for such belief or evidence and requesting that the complaint be investigated and appropriate disciplinary or remedial action taken. The Office of the Ombudsman will work with the appropriate Division Director to resolve the allegation of retaliation.
By order of the Board of Directors.
Federal Maritime Commission.
Final notice of submission for OMB review.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Federal Maritime Commission (FMC or Commission) hereby gives notice that it has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget a request for an extension of the existing collection requirements under 46 CFR part 532—NVOCC Negotiated Rate Arrangements. The FMC has requested an extension of an existing collection as listed below.
Written comments must be submitted on or before September 6, 2016.
Comments should be addressed to:
Copies of the submission(s) may be obtained by contacting Donna L. Lee on 202-523-5800 or email:
A notice that FMC would be submitting this request was published in the
The FMC hereby informs potential respondents that an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and that a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Modification of Tariff:
A total of 1,295 NVOCCs thus far have filed a rule or prominent notice in their tariffs invoking the exemption. For those, the recordkeeping burden is estimated as follows.
Recordkeeping:
Total annual burden is estimated to be 1,365 hours.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than August 22, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas (Robert L. Triplett III, Senior Vice President) 2200 North Pearl Street, Dallas, Texas 75201-2272:
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than August 22, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas (Robert L. Triplett III, Senior Vice President) 2200 North Pearl Street, Dallas, Texas 75201-2272:
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
Notice is hereby given of the final approval of a proposed information collection by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under OMB delegated authority. Board-approved collections of information are incorporated into the official OMB inventory of currently approved collections of information. Copies of the Paperwork Reduction Act Submission, supporting statements and approved collection of information instrument(s) are placed into OMB's public docket files. The Board may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Board Clearance Officer—Nuha Elmaghrabi—Office of the Chief Data Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551, (202) 452-3829. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) users may contact (202) 263-4869, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
OMB Desk Officer—Shagufta Ahmed—Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503.
Additionally, depending on the survey respondent, the information collection may be authorized under a more specific statute. These statutes are:
Under the appropriate authority, the Federal Reserve may make submission of survey information mandatory for entities such as financial institutions or payment card networks; submissions would otherwise be voluntary.
The ability of the Federal Reserve to maintain the confidentiality of information provided by respondents to the FR 3067 surveys will be determined on a case-by-case basis depending on the type of information provided for a particular survey. For instance, in some circumstances, no issue of confidentiality will arise as the surveys may be conducted by private firms under contract with the Federal Reserve and names or other directly identifying information would not be provided to the Federal Reserve. In circumstances where identifying information is provided to the Federal Reserve, such information could possibly be protected under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), exemptions 4 and 6. If the survey is mandatory and is undertaken as part of the supervisory process, information could be protected under FOIA exemption 8, which protects information relating to the examination reports (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8)).
Family and Youth Services Bureau, ACYF, ACF, HHS.
Notice.
The Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Administration on Children, Youth and Families (ACYF), Family and Youth Services Bureau (FYSB) announces its intent to award a non-competitive supplemental grant in the amount of up to $310,000 to the National Safe Place Network in Louisville, KY, to support and expand the grantee's activities under their award for the Runaway and Homeless Youth Training and Technical Assistance Center (RHYTTAC).
The proposed supplement is intended to support costs for the period of September 30, 2016, through September 29, 2017.
Ana Cody, Family and Youth Services Bureau, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20024. Telephone: 202-205-8418 Email:
The National Safe Place Network is the recipient agency of the RHYTTAC cooperative agreement that fulfills Section 342 of the Runaway and Homeless Youth (RHY) Act, which allows for grants to organizations to provide training and technical assistance to public and private entities that are eligible to receive grants under this title. The purpose of this agreement is for carrying out the programs, projects, or activities for which such grants are made. The original award was made as the result of a competition under ACF Funding Opportunity Announcement HHS-2012-ACF-ACYF-CY-0312.
The primary goal of the RHYTTAC program is to serve as a centralized, national Training and Technical Assistance (T&TA) resource for FYSB-funded RHY program grantees. Training and other resources are made available to assist grantees to improve the quality of their core services, build capacity to increase the number of youth served, and address the dynamic needs of the runaway and homeless youth population.
The total supplemental funding available for the proposed non-competitive award would allow for the allocation of $150,000 for T&TA to support 12 new Domestic Victims of Human Trafficking (DVHT) grantees and the allocation of $160,000 for T&TA to support 8 new Transitional Living Program (TLP) demonstration program grantees.
The supplemental funding will be used to provide each grantee in the DVHT program with an on-site T&TA visit by RHYTTAC to collect information from a Human Trafficking Specific Capacity Assessment. The assessment and on-site observations will be used to create individualized action plans for each grantee to direct RHYTTAC's work with them for the remainder of their projects. In addition, RHYTTAC will facilitate discussions with human trafficking experts and coordinate a peer-exchange meeting to encourage grantees to build a cohesive working group. It will operate as a unit to ensure that all programs are functioning from the same baseline performance level. The proposed funding also will support new approaches and strategies to better serve Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, Transgender, and Questioning (LGBTQ) youth and youth who are “aging out” of foster care.
A new, non-competitive application will be solicited from the National Safe Place Network. The application will receive an objective review by a panel using criteria related to the program's approach, objectives, outcomes and need for assistance, organizational profile, and an assessment of the proposed budget and budget justification.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Insanitary Conditions at Compounding Facilities.” Drug products compounded under insanitary conditions could become contaminated and cause serious adverse events in patients, including death. FDA is issuing this draft guidance to assist compounding facilities in identifying insanitary conditions so that they can implement appropriate corrective actions, and to assist State regulatory agencies in understanding some examples of what FDA considers to be insanitary conditions.
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
• Mail/Hand delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions): Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Sara Rothman, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5197, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3110.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Insanitary Conditions at Compounding Facilities.” Under section 501(a)(2)(A) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 351(a)(2)(A)), a drug is deemed to be adulterated if it has been prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions whereby it may have been contaminated with filth, or whereby it may have been rendered injurious to health. Drug products compounded under insanitary conditions could become contaminated and cause serious adverse events in patients, including death. Although sections 503A and 503B of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 353a and 353b) provide exemptions for compounded drugs from specified provisions of the FD&C Act if certain conditions are met, neither section provides an exemption from section 501(a)(2)(A) of the FD&C Act. Any drug that is prepared, packed, or held under insanitary conditions is deemed to be adulterated under the FD&C Act, including drugs produced by a compounding facility.
Since the 2012 fungal meningitis outbreak associated with injectable drug products that a compounding facility produced and shipped across the country, FDA has identified insanitary conditions at many of the compounding facilities that it has inspected, and numerous compounding facilities have voluntarily recalled drug products intended to be sterile and temporarily or permanently ceased sterile operations as a result of these findings. However, FDA does not inspect the vast majority of compounding facilities in the United States because they generally do not register with FDA unless they elect to become outsourcing facilities. Therefore, FDA is often not aware of these facilities and potential problems with their drug products, or conditions and practices, unless it receives a complaint such as a report of a serious adverse event or visible contamination. It is critical that compounding facilities avoid the presence of insanitary conditions and identify and remediate any insanitary conditions at their facilities before the conditions result in drug contamination and patient injury.
FDA is issuing this draft guidance to assist compounding facilities in identifying insanitary conditions so that they can implement appropriate corrective actions, and to assist State regulatory agencies in understanding some examples of what FDA considers to be insanitary conditions.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on insanitary conditions at compounding facilities. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by September 6, 2016.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance. National Direct-to-Consumer Advertising Survey—OMB Control Number 0910-NEW
Section 1701(a)(4) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 300u(a)(4)) authorizes FDA to conduct research relating to health information. Section 1003(d)(2)(C) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 393(d)(2)(c)) authorizes FDA to conduct research relating to drugs and other FDA regulated products in carrying out the provisions of the FD&C Act.
FDA last surveyed patients about their experiences with and attitudes toward DTC advertising in 2002 (Ref. 1). Numerous changes have affected the DTC landscape since 2002, including declines in print readership, the rise in online prescription drug promotion, and self-imposed industry guidelines for DTC advertising (Ref. 2). These changes may have affected consumers' exposure to different kinds of DTC advertising and its influence on their attitudes and behaviors. The purpose of the National Direct-to-Consumer Advertising Survey is to collect updated insights on consumer experiences with and attitudes towards DTC promotion of prescription drugs. This study will build on previous research by recruiting a wider range of respondents, weighting the data to make it nationally representative, and asking a wider range of questions about DTC promotion, including in online formats.
We plan to use an address-based mixed-mode methodology that will direct one randomly-chosen member of sampled households to complete a 20-minute online survey, with non-respondents receiving a paper questionnaire. The sample will be representative of the U.S. population. A sample of U.S. households will be drawn from the U.S. Postal Service Computerized Delivery Sequence File. Adults aged 18 or over will be eligible for participation. Up to five contacts will be sent to respondents by U.S. mail. The contacts will include the URL for the online survey and a unique personal identification number (PIN). This unique PIN will be used to track completed surveys without the use of personally identifying information. The contact method, based on recent recommendations (Ref. 3), includes a notification letter (Day 1), a reminder/thank-you postcard (Day 5), a second letter sent to non-responders (Day 12), a paper version of the survey mailed to non-responders (Day 19), and a reminder postcard sent to non-responders (Day 24).
Based on previous research (Refs. 4, 5, and 6), we plan to recruit using two $1 bills ($2 total per sampled respondent) mailed in advance with the initial invitation letter as a gesture to encourage response and maintain data quality. Offering a small token of value to respondents establishes a latent social contract and subsequent reciprocity (Ref. 3). In the second contact attempt, we will conduct an experiment to test whether a short statement mentioning the previously paid incentive increases survey response, thereby testing whether social exchange can be extended past the initial contact attempt. Half the sample will be provided language that reminds them they received a cash incentive in the previous letter; the remaining half will be reminded they received a letter but will not be specifically reminded about the incentive.
We estimate a 35 percent response rate, based on recent work on similar studies (Ref. 7). Prior to the main study, a pilot study will be conducted to test the data collection process. We estimate 35 respondents will complete the pilot study and 1,765 will complete the main study (see table 1).
The survey contains questions about respondents' knowledge of FDA's authority with respect to prescription drug advertising, their exposure to DTC advertising, their beliefs and attitudes about DTC advertising, and the influence of DTC advertising on further information search and patient-physician interactions. At the end of the survey, respondents will be randomly assigned to view one of two ads for fictional prescription drugs intended to treat high cholesterol. They will be asked questions about FDA's authority regarding specific claims within the ad. The survey will include a debriefing to inform respondents that the advertised drug was fictitious. We will also measure other potentially important characteristics such as demographics, insurance coverage, and prescription drug use. The survey is available upon request.
We will test for any differences between modes (online versus mail survey) and will account for any mode effects in our analyses. We will weight the data to account for different probability of selection and nonresponse. We will examine the frequencies for survey items and the relation between survey items and demographic and health characteristics. We also plan to compare responses between this survey and FDA's 2002 survey for repeated items.
In the
One comment suggested that respondents should watch a
Also, two comments suggested deleting survey questions. Two comments questioned the utility of a series of questions about the safety and efficacy of certain products. We agree that these questions are not as central to the survey topic and have deleted them. They also recommended deleting a series of questions about FDA approval of DTC promotion. These questions will highlight claims within the ad to determine whether consumers believe that advertising in general as well as specific claims are approved by FDA. Therefore, we have chosen to keep these questions on the survey. One comment recommended deleting a question perceived to be too negative whereas another comment recommended adding positive answer choices to balance the question; we chose the latter option.
In addition, four comments suggested additional topics for survey questions. In response we added questions about whether prescription drug advertising has caused respondents to talk with their healthcare provider about symptoms or side effects they've experienced, or to look for information about a prescription drug they thought might be helpful for a friend of family member. We also added a question about the respondents' primary language. Finally, we now ask whether respondents have seen prescription drug promotion on streaming services and whether they have looked for information on medical association Web sites.
One comment suggested adding places where consumers could see or hear advertisements (
One comment suggested adding additional response options to a question about where consumers might attain more information about prescription drugs. Because this question is focused on adequate provision in DTC television ads, we chose not to add any additional response options beyond those specific to adequate provision (
We note that the survey contains a series of questions about various new media, including social media, Web sites, and online videos. It also asks about respondents' attitudes about how benefits and risks are presented, whether they have seen information about the medical condition in TV ads, and whether they've looked for information on government Web sites. We chose not to ask whether they've looked for information on manufacturer Web sites because we don't want respondents to confuse it with the option, “a prescription drug Web site.”
Finally, three comments had suggestions for how we ask our questions. One comment recommended reducing or eliminating the number of open-ended questions. The main survey has only two questions with an open-ended option (allowing respondents to specify another response). If pilot testing reveals potential closed-ended response options for these two questions we will add them to the main survey. One comment suggested changing our scale for how we measure exposure to prescription drug promotion. We changed this scale from qualitative frequency to a yes/no scale. Similarly, one comment asked us to consider how we measure how much of an ad respondents saw or read because there may be many variables that affect this. We have chosen not to change this scale but will consider this point when interpreting the data. One comment suggested that we randomize response order for the paper-based surveys. We plan to create multiple versions of the paper-based scale to account for household sampling and viewing of the ad, so we are concerned that creating different versions to account for response option randomization will be too complex for a survey of this scale. However, we agree that response option order is important to take into account when interpreting results.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852 and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday; they are also available electronically at
1. Aikin, K.J., J.L. Swasy, and A.C. Braman, “Patient and Physician Attitudes and Behaviors Associated With DTC Promotion of Prescription Drugs—Summary of FDA Survey Research Results,” 2004. (
2. PhRMA Guiding Principles: Direct-to-Consumer Advertisements About Prescription Medicines 2008. (
3. Dillman, D.A., J.D. Smyth, and L.M. Christian,
4. American Association for Public Opinion Research, “Address-based Sampling,” 2016. (
5. Millar, M.M. and D.A. Dillman, “Improving Response to Web and Mixed-Mode Surveys,”
6. Shaw, M.J., T.J. Beebe, H.L. Jensen, and S.A. Adlis, “The Use of Monetary Incentives in a Community Survey: Impact on Response Rates, Data Quality, and Cost,”
7. Montaquila, J.M., J.M. Brick, D. Williams, K. Kim, et al., “A Study of Two-Phase Mail Survey Data Collection Methods,”
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a collection of information entitled “Food Labeling: Nutrition Facts and Supplement Facts Label and Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed Per Eating Occasion” has been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
On May 27, 2016, the Agency submitted a proposed collection of information entitled “Food Labeling: Nutrition Facts and Supplement Facts Label and Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed Per Eating Occasion” to OMB for review and clearance under 44 U.S.C. 3507. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. OMB has now approved the information collection and has assigned OMB control number 0910-0813. The approval expires on July 31, 2019. A copy of the supporting statement for this information collection is available on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing a list of premarket approval applications
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Joshua Nipper, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 1650, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-6524.
In accordance with section 515(d)(4) and (e)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360e(d)(4) and (e)(2)), notification of an order approving, denying, or withdrawing approval of a PMA will continue to include a notice of opportunity to request review of the order under section 515(g) of the FD&C Act. The 30-day period for requesting reconsideration of an FDA action under § 10.33(b) (21 CFR 10.33(b)) for notices announcing approval of a PMA begins on the day the notice is placed on the Internet. Section 10.33(b) provides that FDA may, for good cause, extend this 30-day period. Reconsideration of a denial or withdrawal of approval of a PMA may be sought only by the applicant; in these cases, the 30-day period will begin when the applicant is notified by FDA in writing of its decision.
The regulations provide that FDA publish a quarterly list of available safety and effectiveness summaries of PMA approvals and denials that were announced during that quarter. The following is a list of approved PMAs for which summaries of safety and effectiveness were placed on the Internet from April 1, 2016, through June 30, 2016. There were no denial actions during this period. The list provides the manufacturer's name, the product's generic name or the trade name, and the approval date.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the documents at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
•
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20851,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA will submit to the Office of Management and Budget a request to review and approve a new collection of information: Certification of Identity for Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act Requests. This new form provides the FDA with data necessary to identify an individual requesting a particular record under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) and the Privacy Act. The form is available at the following FDA FOIA page at:
Members of the public who wish to access particular records will be asked for certain information: Name, citizenship status, social security number, address, date of birth, place of birth, signature, and date of signature.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
As stated in table 1, the estimates are based on the following: The number of FOIA and Privacy Act requests received by FDA each year that require a certification of identity in order for FDA to process the request. Of the 10,000 requests received per year, only a small number require a certification of identity. In some cases, the requesters provide their own certification of identity. Therefore, we have estimated the number of affected individuals at 60 per year.
Office of the Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) Program housed under the Office of the Assistant Secretary for Preparedness and Response (ASPR) within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), announces the launch of the “MRC Serves” Video Challenge. The MRC is a national network of volunteers, organized locally to improve the health and safety of their communities. MRC volunteers have medical, public health, other backgrounds and have responded to natural disasters, public health and other emergencies, while also supporting community health activities. The MRC Program is looking for
Challenge begins on August 1, 2016, and ends on September 2, 2016 at 11 p.m. EDT. ASPR staff will judge eligible submissions and select semifinalists September 6-7, 2016. Judging of semifinalist videos will take place from September 8-26, 2016. The winners will be notified and announced no later than September 30, 2016. Timeline changes will be announced on
Contestants must be a member of a local Medical Reserve Corps unit. Videos must be submitted between August 1, 2016 and September 2, 2016. Contestants may be individuals or groups. A contestant can submit a video for each question for up to three total videos. Make sure to only answer one question per video. To register for the Challenge, each contestant will need to create a free account at
Please submit an inquiry via
MRC units consist of volunteers from all walks of life. We want to highlight the reasons that MRC volunteers join and continue to volunteer with the question, why I volunteer with the MRC? By answering the questions—How does MRC make my community healthier? and How does MRC make my community more prepared and resilient?—the goal is to highlight specific examples of how MRC units and their volunteers are making a difference. Contestants are encouraged to be creative when addressing these questions and sharing their story. The video can include other visuals such as footage or pictures of a MRC activity or event (see Contest Guidelines section for restrictions). Contestants are encouraged to wear MRC gear such as shirts and hats. Videos can also be submitted as a group with fellow MRC volunteers.
The challenge is authorized by Public Law 111-358, the America Creating Opportunities to Meaningfully Promote Excellence in Technology, Education and Science Reauthorization Act of 2010 (COMPETES Act).
• Contestants must be a member of a local Medical Reserve Corps unit;
• Contestants must submit their video by September 2, 2016, at 11 p.m. EDT;
• All videos must be submitted through the Challenge Web site at
• A video must be 60-90 seconds and must answer only one of these three questions:
1. Why I/we volunteer with the MRC?;
2. How does the MRC make my community healthier?;
3. How does the MRC make my community more prepared and resilient?;
• The video should be an MPEG-4 video file with an aspect ratio of 16 x 9;
• The trademarked MRC logo or the words Medical Reserve Corps/MRC should be clearly visible and accurately displayed in the video; view the MRC Identity Guide for guidance on correct logo use at
• Contestants may submit their entry as an individual or part of a group;
• Submissions by groups should be submitted only once by one member of the group (one prize will be awarded for each winning entry);
• Contestants must upload their video to YouTube (
• Each video must contain closed captioning;
• Only use royalty free music and/or images. No copyrighted images, footage, or music;
• Do not promote any company, service, or product in the video;
• Do not include any personal identifiable information in the video such as unit badges;
• Helpful links and information:
○ YouTube: How to upload
○ YouTube: How to add closed captions
• If under 18, a contestant must have their adult parent or legal guardian complete the Parental/Guardian Consent Form at
• Contestants must have the necessary documented permissions for individuals heard and/or seen on the submitted video. Please have individuals who are identifiable in the video complete a release form.
• The documented permission of the adult parent or guardian of each person under the age of 18 seen or heard in the video is also required.
• Any individual contestant or group entry with a member on the Excluded Parties List (
• The video must be an original creation. Contestants must not infringe upon any copyright or any other rights of any third party.
• By submitting a video to this contest, contestants grant a royalty-free license to ASPR to copy, distribute, modify, display and perform publicly and otherwise use, and authorize others to use, your video for any educational purpose throughout the world and in any media.
• By submitting a video to this contest, contestants agree that the MRC and ASPR may make your video available to the public from their Web sites (
• Contestants must agree that if your video is selected as a winner that you are willing to submit a digital file of the video for the above mentioned purposes.
• Contestants must agree to follow applicable local, state, and federal laws, regulations, and policies.
• ASPR reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to cancel, suspend, or otherwise modify the challenge, or not award prizes if no entries are deemed worthy.
• Contestants must comply with these terms and conditions of these rules.
• Clear and consistent message/Overall impact (35 percent): Is the story clear, educational, inspiring, and persuasive? Does it motivate others to serve as MRC volunteers? Is it clear how the MRC impacts their community?
• Creativity and originality (25 percent): How creatively does the video answer the challenge question? How original is the idea?
• Production quality (25 percent): Does the video effectively use lighting, sound, and editing to tell the story? Is the dialogue clear and easy to understand? Do visual effects (if any) contribute to the message or detract from it?
• MRC Identity (15 percent): Does the video do a good job of promoting the MRC brand by showing the trademarked logo or names Medical Reserve Corps and MRC?
To receive an award, contestant/submitter will not be required to transfer their intellectual property rights to ASPR or the MRC Program. Each contestant/submitter retains title to their entry, and expressly reserves all intellectual property rights (
• Is your original work, or is submitted by permission with full and proper credit given within your entry;
• Does not contain confidential information or trade secrets (yours or anyone else's);
• Does not knowingly violate or infringe upon the patent rights, industrial design rights, copyrights, trademarks, rights in technical data, rights of privacy, publicity or other intellectual property or other rights of any person or entity;
• Does not contain malicious code, such as viruses, malware, timebombs, cancelbots, worms, Trojan horses, or other potentially harmful programs or other material or information.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) of the Department of Homeland Security will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act: Record of Vessel Foreign Repair or Equipment Purchase (CBP Form 226). CBP is proposing that this information collection be extended with no change to the burden hours or to the information collected. This document is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments should be received on or before October 3, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0027 in the subject box, the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Regulations and Rulings, Office of Trade, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via telephone (202) 325-0123, Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs please contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP Web site at
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13). The comments should address: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimates of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden including the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology; and (e) the annual cost burden to respondents or record keepers from the collection of information (total capital/startup costs and operations and maintenance costs). The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the CBP request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record. In this document, CBP is soliciting comments concerning the following information collection:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Each year, the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is required by the Write-Your-Own (WYO) Program Financial Assistance/Subsidy Arrangement (Arrangement) to notify private insurance companies (Companies) and to make available to the Companies the terms for subscription or re-subscription to the Arrangement. In keeping with that requirement, this notice provides the terms to the Companies to subscribe or re-subscribe to the Arrangement.
Lloyd A. Hake, Product Delivery Division Director, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C. St. SW., Suite 313, Washington, DC 20472; 202-646-3428 (phone), 202-646-7970 (facsimile), or
Under the Write-Your-Own (WYO) Program Financial Assistance/Subsidy Arrangement (Arrangement), 74 (as of July 27, 2016) private sector property insurers sell flood insurance policies and adjust flood insurance claims under their own names based on an Arrangement with the Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration (FIMA) published at 44 CFR part 62, Appendix A.
The WYO insurers retain an expense allowance and remit the remaining premium to the Federal Government. The WYO insurers pay flood losses and pay loss adjustment expenses based on a fee schedule through the regulated access of federal funds. In addition, under certain circumstances, reimbursement for litigation costs, including court costs, attorney fees, judgments, and settlements, are paid by FEMA based on documentation submitted by the WYO insurers.
The complete Arrangement is published in 44 CFR part 62, Appendix A. Each year, FEMA is required to publish in the
Signatory Companies should remain aware that all requirements of the Arrangement, including, but not limited to, financial accounting in issues involving all transactions, must be met. As set forth in Article II.A.1. of Appendix A to Part 62—Federal Emergency Management Agency, Federal Insurance Administration, Financial Assistance/Subsidy Arrangement, the Company is responsible for meeting all fiduciary responsibilities for control and disbursement of funds in connection with policy administration. This includes ensuring that all accounting for policy administration is correct. If errors are made in policy administration, the Company shall be responsible for reimbursing any incorrect allocations, assessments, or other moneys compensated to that company by the Federal Government.
The Company is responsible for ensuring that all activities meet the requirements of this Arrangement and of the NFIP Financial Control Plan, 44 CFR part 62, Appendix B. The NFIP WYO Standards Committee may take remedial action in the event any such conduct is not corrected.
FEMA encourages all private insurance companies wishing to participate in the WYO Program for FY 2017 to contact the NFIP at
FEMA will send a copy of the offer for the FY 2017 Arrangement, together with related materials and submission instructions, to all private insurance companies successfully evaluated by the NFIP. If FEMA, after conducting its evaluation, chooses not to renew a Company's participation, FEMA, at its option, may require the continued performance of all or selected elements of the FY 2016 Arrangement for a period required for orderly transfer or cessation of the business and settlement of accounts, not to exceed 18 months, 44 CFR part 62, Appendix A, Article V.C. All evaluations, whether successful or unsuccessful, will inform both an overall assessment of the WYO Program and any potential changes FEMA may consider regarding the Arrangement in future fiscal years.
Any private insurance company with questions may contact FEMA in writing: DHS/FEMA, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Attn: Lloyd A. Hake, Product Delivery Division Director, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C. St. SW., Suite 313, Washington, DC 20472; 202-646-3428 (phone), 202-646-7970 (facsimile), or
44 CFR part 62, Appendix A, Article V.B.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This is a notice of the Presidential declaration of a major disaster for the State of Oklahoma (FEMA-4274-DR), dated July 15, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated July 15, 2016, the President issued a major disaster declaration under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Oklahoma resulting from severe storms and flooding during the period of June 11-13, 2016, is of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant a major disaster declaration under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
In order to provide Federal assistance, you are hereby authorized to allocate from funds available for these purposes such amounts as you find necessary for Federal disaster assistance and administrative expenses.
You are authorized to provide Public Assistance in the designated areas and Hazard Mitigation throughout the State. Consistent with the requirement that Federal assistance be supplemental, any Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Hazard Mitigation will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs. Federal funds provided under the Stafford Act for Public Assistance also will be limited to 75 percent of the total eligible costs, with the exception of projects that meet the eligibility criteria for a higher Federal cost-sharing percentage under the Public Assistance Alternative Procedures Pilot Program for Debris Removal implemented pursuant to section 428 of the Stafford Act.
Further, you are authorized to make changes to this declaration for the approved assistance to the extent allowable under the Stafford Act.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) hereby gives notice that pursuant to the authority vested in the Administrator, under Executive Order 12148, as amended, Charles Maskell, of FEMA is appointed to act as the Federal Coordinating Officer for this major disaster.
The following areas of the State of Oklahoma have been designated as adversely affected by this major disaster:
Caddo, Comanche, Cotton, Garvin, Grady, and Stephens Counties for Public Assistance.
All areas within the State of Oklahoma are eligible for assistance under the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program.
The following Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance Numbers (CFDA) are to be used for reporting and drawing funds: 97.030, Community Disaster Loans; 97.031, Cora Brown Fund; 97.032, Crisis Counseling; 97.033, Disaster Legal Services; 97.034, Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA); 97.046, Fire Management Assistance Grant; 97.048, Disaster Housing Assistance to Individuals and Households In Presidentially Declared Disaster Areas; 97.049, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance—Disaster Housing Operations for Individuals and Households; 97.050, Presidentially Declared Disaster Assistance to Individuals and Households—Other Needs; 97.036, Disaster Grants—Public Assistance (Presidentially Declared Disasters); 97.039, Hazard Mitigation Grant.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) will submit the information collection abstracted below to the Office of Management and Budget for review and clearance in accordance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The submission will describe the nature of the information collection, the categories of respondents, the estimated burden (
Comments must be submitted on or before September 6, 2016.
Submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the Desk Officer for the Department of Homeland Security, Federal Emergency Management Agency, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection should be made to Director, Records Management Division, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472-3100, or email address
This proposed information collection previously published in the
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas (FEMA-4272-DR), dated June 11, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
The notice of a major disaster declaration for the State of Texas is hereby amended to include the following areas among those areas determined to have been adversely affected by the event declared a major disaster by the President in his declaration of June 11, 2016.
Bosque, Callahan, Coleman, Comanche, Erath, Falls, Fisher, Leon, Madison, Somervell, Trinity, and Walker Counties for Public Assistance.
Lee, Palo Pinto, Stephens, and Tyler Counties for Public Assistance (already designated for Individual Assistance.)
Brazos County for Public Assistance [Categories A and C-G] (already designated for Individual Assistance and emergency protective measures [Category B], including direct federal assistance, under the Public Assistance program.)
Bureau of Ocean Energy Management (BOEM), Interior.
Extension of Comment Period.
BOEM is extending the comment period for the Notice of Intent entitled, “Environmental Assessment for Commercial Wind Leasing and Site Assessment Activities on the Outer Continental Shelf (OCS) Offshore the Island of Oahu, Hawaii,” which appeared in the
Comments should be submitted no later than September 7, 2016.
Mark Eckenrode, Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, Pacific OCS Region, 760 Paseo Camarillo, Suite 102, Camarillo, California 93010, (805) 384-6388, or
Federal, State, and local governments, Native Hawaiians, and the public are requested to send their written comments regarding environmental issues and the identification of reasonable alternatives related to the proposed action described in this notice through one of the following methods:
1.
2.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comments to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has determined to review in part (1) the final initial determination (“FID”) issued by the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) on May 27, 2016, finding no violation of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337); and (2) the initial determination issued on February 26, 2016, granting a summary determination of infringement of U.S. Patent No. 6,100,061 (the “Summary ID”) (Order No. 30). On review, the Commission has determined to reverse the FID's finding that the economic prong of the domestic industry was not met for either asserted patent. Other issues remain on review.
Ron Traud, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, (202) 205-3427. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained at
On May 22, 2015, the Commission instituted this investigation pursuant to section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, based on a complaint filed by Baxter Healthcare Corporation and Baxter Healthcare SA, both of Deerfield, Illinois. 80 FR 29745 (May 22, 2015). Baxalta Inc., Baxalta US Inc., and Baxalta GmbH were added as complainants after the filing of the complaint. 80 FR 62569 (Oct. 16, 2015). (The complainants are collectively referred to as “Baxter.”) The Commission sought to determine whether there is a violation of section 337(a)(1)(B) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation into the United States, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain recombinant factor VIII products by reason of infringement of any of claims 19-21, 36, 37, and 39 of U.S. Patent No. 6,100,061 (“the ’061 patent”); claims 20 and 21 of U.S. Patent No. 6,936,441 (“the ’441 patent”); and claims 1, 5, 8, 10, 14, and 18 of U.S. Patent No. 8,084,252 (“the ’252 patent”). 80 FR at 29746. The Commission directed the ALJ to make findings of fact and provide a recommended determination with respect to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1), (f)(1), and (g)(1).
On December 8, 2015, Baxter moved for partial termination of this investigation based on the withdrawal of claims 21, 36, 37, and 39 of the ’061 patent; claims 1 and 10 of the ’252 patent; and claims 20 and 21 of the ’441 patent. That motion was granted, leaving only claims 19 and 20 of the ’061 and claims 5, 8, 14, and 18 of the ’252 patent at issue. Order No. 23 (Dec. 10, 2016),
On September 17, 2015, the ALJ issued Order No. 11, which construed the terms “protein-free conditions” and “protein-free medium” in the asserted claims of each asserted patent. On December 4, 2015, Novo Nordisk moved for reconsideration. On January 7, 2016, the ALJ issued Order No. 25, which granted the motion and reaffirmed her previous claim constructions. On January 11, 2016, Baxter filed a motion requesting a summary determination that the accused products infringe claims 19 and 20 of the ’061 patent. On February 26, 2016, the ALJ issued an initial determination (“ID”) (Order No. 30), which granted the motion. On February 29, 2016, Novo Nordisk filed a petition requesting that the Commission review Order Nos. 11, 25, and 30. On March 29, 2016, the Commission determined to defer its decision on whether to review those orders until the date on which the Commission determines whether to review the ALJ's final ID (FID). Notice of Comm'n Determination to Extend the Date for Determining Whether to Review a Non-Final Initial Determination Granting Complainants' Motion for Summary Determination that the Accused Products Infringe U.S. Patent No. 6,100,061 (Mar. 29, 2016).
On May 27, 2016, the ALJ issued the FID, which found no violation of section 337 as to either remaining asserted patent. Regarding the ’061 patent, the ALJ concluded (1) claims 19 and 20 are invalid as anticipated under 35 U.S.C. 102(g) and obvious under 35 U.S.C. 103; (2) the economic prong of the domestic industry requirement is not met; and (3) the technical prong of the domestic industry requirement is met by Baxter's Advate product. Regarding the '252 patent, the ALJ concluded (1) Novo Nordisk has not established the invalidity of any asserted claim; (2) Baxter failed to establish the economic prong of the domestic industry requirement; (3) the technical prong of the domestic industry requirement is met by Advate; and (4) Novo Nordisk's Novoeight is made by a process that infringes claims 5, 8, 14, and 18.
On June 3, 2016, the ALJ issued her Recommended Determination on Remedy, Bonding, and the Public Interest, which contingently recommends both a limited exclusion order (“LEO”) and cease and desist orders (“CDOs”). If the Commission finds a Section 337 violation, the ALJ recommended that an LEO should be issued that excludes recombinant factor VIII products manufactured by processes that infringe the asserted claims. The ALJ further recommended that the LEO should not extend to products imported to support clinical trials in the United States and that Novo Nordisk should be required to certify to U.S. Customs and Border Protection that any imported Novoeight will be used solely for such trials. The ALJ additionally recommended that the LEO provide for a grace period of 60 days from the end of the Presidential review period before the LEO is enforced. Furthermore, the ALJ recommend that a CDO containing the above exception and grace period be directed to each respondent. The ALJ also recommended that no bond should be required during the Presidential review period.
On June 13, 2016, Baxter and OUII filed petitions for review of the FID, and Novo Nordisk filed a contingent petition for review. OUII and Baxter each
Having examined the record of this investigation, including the FID and Order Nos. 11, 25, and 30; the petitions for review; and the responses thereto; the Commission has determined to review the FID in part and Orders Nos. 11, 25, and 30. Specifically, the Commission has determined to review the construction of “protein-free medium” and “protein-free conditions” in Orders No. 11 and 25 and the ID granting summary determination of infringement of the asserted claims of the ’061 patent in Order No. 30. The Commission has also determined to review the ALJ's conclusion in the FID that the asserted claims of the ’061 patent are anticipated and obvious. The Commission has determined to review and, on review, to reverse the ALJ's determination in the FID that the economic prong of the domestic industry requirement is not met as to the ’061 and ’252 patents. The Commission has determined not to review the ALJ's conclusion in the FID that the ’252 patent is infringed.
The parties are requested to brief their positions regarding the FID's determination that the ’061 patent is anticipated, the relevant applicable law, and the evidentiary record. In connection with its review, the Commission is particularly interested in a response to the following:
The Federal Circuit has distinguished printed publication prior art from prior use/on sale prior art for purposes of the enablement requirement of 35 U.S.C. 102 and 103.
In connection with the final disposition of this investigation, the Commission may (1) issue an order that could result in the exclusion of the subject articles from entry into the United States, and/or (2) issue one or more cease and desist orders that could result in the respondent being required to cease and desist from engaging in unfair acts in the importation and sale of such articles. Accordingly, the Commission is interested in receiving written submissions that address the form of remedy, if any, that should be ordered. If a party seeks exclusion of an article from entry into the United States for purposes other than entry for consumption, the party should so indicate and provide information establishing that activity involving other types of entry either are adversely affecting it or likely to do so. For background, see
If the Commission contemplates some form of remedy, it must consider the effects of that remedy upon the public interest. The factors the Commission will consider include the effect that an exclusion order and/or cease and desist orders would have on (1) the public health and welfare, (2) competitive conditions in the U.S. economy, (3) U.S. production of articles that are like or directly competitive with those that are subject to investigation, and (4) U.S. consumers. The Commission is, therefore, interested in receiving written submissions that address the aforementioned public interest factors in the context of this investigation.
The parties and the public are requested to brief their positions regarding the public interest. The Commission is especially interested in public comments from hemophilia A patients and medical professionals with experience in treating hemophilia A patients. The Commission is particularly interested in responses to the following:
(1) What criteria are appropriate to assess the scope of alternative medications to Novoeight that are on the market and that are available to new or existing hemophilia A patients? For example, given the increased safety of third generation hemophilia A medicines, should the relevant scope be limited to third generation (or higher) medications? Should the relevant scope be limited to those alternative medications suitable for patients of all ages and suitable for prophylaxis treatment? Applying these criteria, please identify all available medications that are suitable alternatives to Novoeight.
(2) What is the likelihood that a patient currently using Novoeight and who has insurance coverage for Novoeight will also have insurance coverage for a comparable medication that has similar therapeutic efficacy for that patient?
(3) What costs will patients incur in the process of switching from Novoeight to a comparable alternative? For example, does insurance typically cover (and to what extent does insurance cover) consultations with medical professionals associated with the switching process? Do the associated consultations often take place at one of the approximately 141 federally funded Hemophilia Treatment Centers (“HTCs”)? If so, do patients commonly incur significant expenses in traveling to those HTCs?
(4) What are the therapeutic and safety advantages, if any, of choosing to use Novoeight over Advate and/or other competing medications available in the U.S.?
(5) Do some patients have better therapeutic outcomes with Novoeight than other alternatives? If so, what would the risks be of requiring a patient to switch from Novoeight to a medicine that is less effective for a given patient? Could the risk of switching to a less effective treatment include serious health risks or death?
(6) How should the Commission take into account hemophilia A patients' well-documented fear of developing an inhibitor upon switching hemophilia A medications, given the potentially serious consequences of developing an inhibitor, regardless of the likelihood of developing an inhibitor?
(7) How much weight should the Commission give the fact that Novoeight can be used by a patient for a longer period after reconstitution, and that it has a longer shelf life, than some other medications? For example, how much weight should the Commission give to the fact that some patients may have structured their lives around this increased convenience and flexibility?
(8) Is the ALJ's recommendation that any remedial order should be delayed for sixty days necessary and/or sufficient to allow all individuals who are currently using Novoeight to transition to a different medicine? For example,
(a) How much time is typically needed to establish the viability of a suitable alternative medicine for a particular patient?
(b) How should the Commission consider that some hemophilia A patients may need additional time to switch because (1) those patients have upcoming scheduled surgeries, and/or (2) those patients started using Novoeight near the time of the issuance
(c) If patients need to travel to and schedule appointments at HTCs, is the sixty day grace period sufficient?
(d) If all patients currently using Novoeight need to begin seeking alternative treatments at the same time, is the availability of medical professionals qualified to treat hemophilia A sufficient to meet that spike in demand such that all patients can find alternative treatments within a sixty day time frame?
(e) If the Commission were to limit a remedy so that patients who cannot find an alternative medicine within sixty days (or other time period), despite reasonable efforts, can continue to obtain Novoeight, how could the Commission do so without placing any or only a minimal burden on patients or medical professionals and still guarantee access to Novoeight by those patients? Could such a limit on the remedy be crafted so that the parties, Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”), U.S. distributors and vendors, doctors, and patients can maintain reliable supplies of Novoeight for patients in need?
(9) If the Commission were to tailor any remedial order to allow current users to continue to reliably obtain Novoeight, how could the Commission draft such an exception? Could such an exception be crafted so that the parties, CBP, U.S. distributors and vendors, the appropriate decisionmakers, doctors or other prescribers, and patients can maintain reliable supplies of Novoeight for patients in need while providing no or only a minimal burden on medical professionals and patients?
(10) If the Commission were to issue a remedial order, to what extent should the Commission craft the remedy so that individuals who are seeking treatment for hemophilia A for the first time and for whom relevant alternative medications are not suitable could access Novoeight? For example,
(a) If such modification is appropriate, how could it be accomplished?
(b) What standards should a physician or other decisionmaker use to determine whether such medicines are suitable for the patient?
(c) Could such a limit on the remedy be crafted so that the parties, CBP, U.S. distributors and vendors, the appropriate decisionmakers, doctors or other prescribers, and patients can maintain reliable supplies of Novoeight for patients in need while providing no or only a minimal burden on medical professionals and patients?
If the Commission orders some form of remedy, the U.S. Trade Representative, as delegated by the President, has 60 days to approve or disapprove the Commission's action.
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit eight true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 337-TA-956”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
The authority for the Commission's determination is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(b)-(h), that a proposed Final Judgment, Stipulation, and Competitive Impact Statement have been filed with the United States District Court for the District of Columbia in
Copies of the Complaint, proposed Final Judgment, and Competitive Impact Statement are available for inspection on the Antitrust Division's Web site at
Public comment is invited within 60 days of the date of this notice. Such comments, including the name of the submitter, and responses thereto, will be posted on the Antitrust Division's Web site, filed with the Court, and, under certain circumstances, published in the
1. The United States of America brings this civil antitrust action to enjoin Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV (“ABI”) from acquiring SABMiller plc (“SABMiller”). The United States alleges as follows:
2. On November 11, 2015, ABI agreed to acquire SABMiller in a transaction valued at $107 billion.
3. ABI is the largest brewing company both in the United States and worldwide. In the United States, ABI accounts for approximately 47% of all beer sales.
4. SABMiller is the second-largest global brewing company. In the United States, SABMiller owns 58% of MillerCoors LLC (“MillerCoors”), which is a joint venture between SABMiller and Molson Coors Brewing Company (“Molson Coors”). In the United States, MillerCoors is the second-largest brewing company, accounting for 25% of all beer sales, and is ABI's largest competitor.
5. ABI and MillerCoors are the two largest brewers in local beer markets throughout the United States and have combined market shares that range from 37% to 94% of beer sales in 58 Metropolitan Statistical Areas (“MSA”) in the United States.
6. ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller would give ABI a majority ownership interest in and 50% governance rights over MillerCoors. Consequently, this transaction would eliminate head-to-head competition between the two largest brewers in the United States—ABI and MillerCoors—both nationally and in every local market in the United States. This reduction in competition would likely result in increased beer prices and fewer choices for beer consumers across the United States.
7. This transaction threatens other likely anticompetitive effects. ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller would increase ABI's incentive and ability to disadvantage its remaining rivals by limiting or impeding the distribution of their beers, thereby restricting their ability to serve the millions of Americans who spend over $100 billion on beer every year. These exclusionary effects would fall especially on brewers and consumers of high-end beers that have served as an important constraint on ABI's ability to raise the price of its beers, and thus would allow ABI to charge consumers higher prices for its beers.
8. ABI, as the largest U.S. brewer, uses a variety of practices and contractual provisions to promote exclusivity from distributors that sell ABI beer. Among other things, ABI has established financial incentive programs that reward distributors based on the percentage of ABI beer that a distributor sells as compared to the beer of ABI competitors. Moreover, ABI insists on contractual terms that limit a distributor's ability to promote and sell a competitor's beer. If permitted to acquire SABMiller, ABI would be able to expand these practices in its current distribution channel and to pursue a similar strategy with distributors that currently sell the beers of MillerCoors and third-party rivals. Consequently, ABI's acquisition of a controlling interest in MillerCoors via its acquisition of SABMiller would likely harm competition by undermining the ability of its remaining rivals to compete with ABI, leading to higher prices, fewer choices, and less innovative products for U.S. beer consumers.
9. For these reasons, ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller violates Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18, and should be permanently enjoined.
10. The United States brings this action pursuant to Section 15 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 25, to prevent and restrain Defendants ABI and SABMiller from violating Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18. The Court has subject matter jurisdiction over this action pursuant to Section 15 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 25, and 28 U.S.C. 1331, 1337(a), and 1345.
11. ABI and SABMiller produce and sell beer in the flow of interstate commerce and their production and sale of beer substantially affect interstate commerce. ABI and SABMiller have each consented to personal jurisdiction and venue in this judicial district for purposes of this action. Venue is proper for ABI, a Belgium corporation, and SABMiller, a United Kingdom corporation, in this judicial district
12. ABI is a corporation organized and existing under the laws of Belgium, with its headquarters in Leuven, Belgium. ABI owns and operates 19 breweries in the United States. ABI owns more than 40 major beer brands sold in the United States, including Bud Light—the top-selling beer brand in the United States—and other popular beer brands, such as Budweiser, Busch, Michelob, Natural Light, Stella Artois, Shock Top, Goose Island, and Beck's.
13. SABMiller is a corporation organized and existing under the laws of the United Kingdom, with its headquarters in London, England. SABMiller operates in the United States through its 58% ownership interest in the MillerCoors joint venture.
14. MillerCoors is a limited liability company organized and existing under the laws of the State of Delaware, with its principal place of business in Chicago, Illinois. Under MillerCoors' corporate governance structure, SABMiller and Molson Coors, through their designated representatives, have an equal right to govern MillerCoors. MillerCoors owns and operates 12 breweries in the United States. MillerCoors has the sole right to produce and sell in the United States more than 40 major brands of beer, including Coors Light and Miller Lite—the second- and fourth-highest selling beer brands in the United States. MillerCoors also has the right to produce and sell in the United States other popular beer brands, such as Miller Genuine Draft, Coors Banquet, and Blue Moon. In addition, MillerCoors has the exclusive right to import into and sell in the United States certain beer brands owned by SABMiller, including Peroni, Grolsch, and Pilsner Urquell.
15. Beers sold in the United States are segmented based on price and quality. Beers in the United States can generally be grouped into three segments: Sub-premium, premium, and high-end. A large majority of the beers sold by ABI and MillerCoors in the United States fall into the premium and sub-premium beer segments.
16. The sub-premium segment, also referred to as the value segment, generally consists of lager beers, such as Natural and Keystone branded beer, and some ales and malt liquor. Sub-premium beers are priced lower than premium beers and are generally perceived as being of lower quality than premium beers.
17. The premium segment generally consists of medium-priced American lager beers, such as ABI's Budweiser, and the Miller and Coors brand families, including the “light” varieties.
18. The sub-premium and premium segments accounted for 69% of all beer sold in the United States in 2015.
19. The high-end segment generally consists of craft beers, which are often produced in small-scale breweries, and imported beers. High-end beers sell at a wide variety of prices, most of which are higher than the prices for premium beers. Examples of high-end craft beers include Dogfish Head, Flying Dog, and Sam Adams. Examples of high-end imports include Corona, Stella Artois, and Peroni.
20. High-end beers account for a much smaller portion of the beer sold by ABI and MillerCoors in the United States than premium and sub-premium beer. However, over the last five years, the high-end beer segment's market share in the United States has increased from 21% to 31%, while the market share of the premium and sub-premium segments has decreased from 79% to 69%.
21. Historically, ABI has employed a “price leadership” strategy whereby ABI, as the largest U.S. brewer, seeks to establish industry-wide price increases by being the first brewer to announce its prices for the upcoming year. In most local markets, ABI is the market share leader and issues its price announcement first, purposely making its price increases transparent to the market so its competitors will follow its lead. These price increases vary by region, but typically cover a broad range of beer brands and packages.
22. For many years, MillerCoors has followed ABI's price increases to a significant degree.
23. Brewers with a broad portfolio of beer brands, such as ABI and MillerCoors, seek to maintain “price gaps” between each beer segment to minimize competition across segments. As ABI has continued to raise premium prices, it is increasingly concerned about the threat of high-end brands constraining its ability to lead future price increases. As the prices of premium brands approach the prices of high-end brands, consumers are increasingly willing to trade up from one category of brands to another. Consequently, competition in the high-end beer segment serves as an important constraint on the ability of ABI and MillerCoors to raise—either unilaterally or through coordination—beer prices in the United States.
24. Most brewers use distributors to merchandise, sell, and deliver beer to retailers. Those retailers are primarily grocery stores, large retailers (such as Target and Walmart), convenience stores, liquor stores, restaurants, and bars. Retailers, in turn, sell beer to consumers. Beers brewed in foreign countries are typically sold to an importer that resells the beer to distributors.
25. Distributors owned by ABI currently distribute about 9% of ABI's beer in the United States. These distributors typically distribute only brands that are owned by or affiliated with ABI. To the extent that ABI-owned distributors sell beer brands that are not owned by or affiliated with ABI, those brands tend to be local craft beers with limited sales and high operating costs.
26. Almost all of the remaining volume of ABI's beer is sold by distributors who sell large volumes of ABI beer, including the Budweiser and Bud Light brands of beer, but are not owned by ABI (“ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers”). ABI beer brands account for approximately 90% by volume, on average, of the beer sold by ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers. ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers often also distribute high-end beers that compete with ABI's beers, such as Heineken or Sam Adams.
27. ABI exerts considerable influence over ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers, in part by requiring that these distributors enter into a Wholesaler Equity Agreement (“Equity Agreement”) with ABI. The Equity Agreement contains a number of provisions that are designed to encourage ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers to sell and promote ABI's beer brands instead of the beer brands of ABI's competitors.
28. For example, the Equity Agreement prohibits an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler from requesting that a bar replace an ABI tap handle with a competitor's tap handle or that a retailer replace ABI shelf space with a competitor's beer. Further, the Equity Agreement prohibits an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler from compensating its salespeople for their sales of competing beer brands (such as a dollar-per-case incentive) unless it provides the same
29. ABI also provides payments to ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers based on their ABI “alignment,” that is, the amount of ABI beer that they sell relative to the beer of ABI competitors. For example, under a program known as the Voluntary Anheuser-Busch Incentive for Performance Program, ABI offers ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers that are 90% or more “aligned” a payment for each case-equivalent of ABI beer they sell. The size of the payment increases based on the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's level of alignment. Only the sales of very small, local craft beers are excluded from the calculation of an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's level of alignment.
30. Beer is a relevant product market and line of commerce under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. Beer is usually made from a malted cereal grain, flavored with hops, and brewed via a fermentation process. Beer's taste, alcohol content, image, price, and other factors make it substantially different from other alcoholic beverages.
31. Other alcoholic beverages, such as wine and distilled spirits, are not sufficiently substitutable to discipline a small but significant and non-transitory increase in the price of beer, and relatively few consumers would substantially reduce their beer purchases in the event of such a price increase. Therefore, a hypothetical monopolist producer of beer likely would increase its prices by at least a small but significant and non-transitory amount.
32. ABI and MillerCoors are the two largest brewers in local markets throughout the United States. Appendix A lists the 58 MSAs in the United States for which reliable data on beer sales are available. These and the other MSAs in the United States are relevant geographic markets for antitrust purposes. These local markets currently benefit from head-to-head competition between ABI and MillerCoors, and in each local market the proposed acquisition would likely substantially lessen competition.
33. The relevant geographic markets for analyzing the effects of the proposed acquisition are best defined by the locations of the customers who purchase beer, rather than by the locations of breweries.
34. Brewers develop pricing and promotional strategies based on an assessment of local demand for their beer, local competitive conditions, and local brand strength. Thus, the price for a brand of beer can vary by local market.
35. Brewers are able to price differently in different locations, in part because arbitrage across local markets is unlikely to occur. Consumers buy beer near their homes and typically do not travel to other areas to buy beer when prices rise. Also, distributors' contracts with brewers and importers contain territorial limits and prohibit distributors from reselling beer outside their territories. In addition, each state has different laws and regulations regarding beer distribution and sales that would make arbitrage unfeasible.
36. A hypothetical monopolist of beer sold in each MSA in the United States would likely increase its prices in that local market by at least a small but significant and non-transitory amount. Therefore, these areas are relevant geographic markets and “sections of the country” within the meaning of Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
37. Competition also exists among brewers on a national level, which affects local markets throughout the United States. Decisions about beer brewing, marketing, and brand building typically take place on a national level. In addition, a significant portion of beer advertising is placed on national television, and brewers commonly compete for national retail accounts. General pricing strategy also typically originates at a national level.
38. A hypothetical monopolist of beer sold in the United States would likely increase its prices by at least a small but significant and non-transitory amount. Accordingly, the United States is a relevant geographic market under Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
39. The relevant beer markets are highly concentrated and would become significantly more concentrated as a result of the proposed acquisition. ABI and MillerCoors jointly account for approximately 72% of the national beer market. In every local market for which reliable data are available, ABI and MillerCoors have a combined market share that ranges from 37% to 94%. Indeed, in 18 MSAs, ABI and MillerCoors have a combined market share of 70% or greater.
40. Market concentration is often one useful indicator of the level of competitive vigor in a market and the likely competitive effects of a merger. The more concentrated a market, and the more a transaction would increase concentration in a market, the more likely it is that the transaction would result in harm to consumers by meaningfully reducing competition.
41. Concentration in relevant markets is typically measured by the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (or “HHI,” defined and explained in Appendix B). Markets in which the HHI is in excess of 2,500 points are considered highly concentrated.
42. The beer industry in the United States is highly concentrated and would become even more concentrated as a result of ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller. Market share estimates demonstrate that nationally, and in all but three local geographic markets identified in Appendix A, the post-acquisition HHI would exceed 2,500 points. In one local market (the Wichita, Kansas MSA), the post-acquisition HHI would be more than 8,900. Moreover, the HHI would increase in every relevant geographic market by at least 680 points. Based on the resulting HHI measures of concentration, and the increase in concentration that would result from the transaction, ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller is presumptively anticompetitive.
43. Today, ABI and MillerCoors compete directly against each other both nationally and in every local market in the United States.
44. ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller would give ABI a majority ownership interest in and 50% governance rights over MillerCoors and thereby eliminate competition between the two largest beer brewers in the United States. Thus, ABI's acquisition of SABMiller would likely substantially lessen competition both nationally and in every local market in the United States, and therefore violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act.
45. ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller would also harm competition by increasing ABI's incentive and ability to engage in anticompetitive conduct that limits and impedes the distribution of its high-end rivals' beer. With the elimination of MillerCoors as a competitive constraint, ABI's high-end rivals would become a more important constraint on ABI's ability to raise beer prices.
46. ABI currently encourages ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers to limit their sales of the beers of ABI's high-end rivals through the Equity Agreement and ABI's incentive programs. Consequently, the beers of ABI's competitors account for only a small percentage of the sales of many ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers. ABI has also purchased distributors in states in which those purchases are legal, allowing ABI directly to limit sales of ABI's high-end rivals.
47. After the proposed acquisition, ABI would have a greater incentive and ability to invest resources in distributor acquisitions and to use practices that restrict its rivals' access to distribution. With control over the MillerCoors brands, ABI could encourage the distributors of both ABI brands and MillerCoors brands to limit their sales of high-end rivals' beer, which would likely result in increased beer prices and fewer choices for consumers.
48. New entry and expansion by competitors likely will not be timely and sufficient in scope to prevent the acquisition's likely anticompetitive effects. Barriers to entry and expansion within each relevant market include: (i) The substantial time and expense required to build a brand's reputation; (ii) the substantial sunk costs for promotional and advertising activity needed to secure the distribution and placement of a new entrant's beer products in retail outlets; (iii) the time and cost of building new breweries and other facilities; and (iv) the difficulty of developing an effective network of beer distributors with incentives to promote and expand a new entrant's sales.
49. The anticompetitive effects of the proposed acquisition are not likely to be eliminated or mitigated by any efficiencies the proposed acquisition may achieve.
50. The United States hereby incorporates the allegations of paragraphs 1 through 49 above as if set forth fully herein.
51. The proposed transaction would likely substantially lessen competition in interstate trade and commerce, in violation of Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18, and would likely have the following anticompetitive effects, among others:
(a) Head-to-head competition between ABI and MillerCoors for beer sales in the relevant geographic markets would be eliminated or substantially lessened; and
(b) competition generally in the relevant geographic markets for beer would be substantially lessened.
The United States requests:
1. That the proposed acquisition be adjudged to violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 18;
2. That Defendants be permanently enjoined and restrained from carrying out the proposed transaction or from entering into or carrying out any other agreement, understanding, or plan by which ABI would acquire, be acquired by, or merge with SABMiller or MillerCoors;
3. That the United States be awarded costs in this action; and
4. That the United States have such other relief as the Court may deem just and proper.
“HHI” means the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index, a commonly accepted measure of market concentration. It is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm competing in the market and then summing the resulting numbers. For example, for a market consisting of four firms with shares of 30 percent, 30 percent, 20 percent, and 20 percent, the HHI is 2,600 (30
Markets in which the HHI is in excess of 2,500 are considered to be highly concentrated.
United States of America, Plaintiff, v. Anheuser-Busch InBEV SA/NV, and SABMILLER plc, Defendants.
Pursuant to Section 2(b) of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act (“APPA” or “Tunney Act”), 15 U.S.C. 16(b), Plaintiff United States of America (“United States”) files this Competitive Impact Statement relating to the proposed Final Judgment submitted on July 20, 2016, for entry in this civil antitrust proceeding.
On November 11, 2015, Defendant Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV (“ABI”) agreed to acquire Defendant SABMiller plc (“SABMiller”) in a transaction valued at $107 billion. The United States filed a civil antitrust Complaint against ABI and SABMiller (collectively, “Defendants”) on July 20, 2016, seeking
Specifically, the Complaint alleges that this proposed transaction will reduce competition by eliminating head-to-head competition between the two largest beer brewers in the United States—ABI and MillerCoors LLC (“MillerCoors”)—both nationally and in every local market in the United States. The Complaint also alleges that the elimination of competition between ABI and MillerCoors will increase ABI's incentive and ability to disadvantage its remaining rivals—in particular, brewers of high-end beers that serve as an important constraint on ABI's ability to raise its beer prices—by limiting or impeding the distribution of their beers. As detailed in the Complaint, these anticompetitive effects likely would result in higher beer prices and fewer choices for U.S. beer consumers.
Simultaneously with the filing of the Complaint, the United States filed a Hold Separate Stipulation and Order (“Hold Separate Stipulation and Order”) and a proposed Final Judgment, which seek to prevent the transaction's likely anticompetitive effects.
As detailed below, the proposed Final Judgment requires ABI to divest SABMiller's equity and ownership stake in MillerCoors, which is the joint venture through which SABMiller conducts substantially all of its operations in the United States, as well as certain other assets related to MillerCoors' business and the Miller-branded beer business outside of the United States. The divestiture will not only maintain MillerCoors as an independent competitor, but will protect MillerCoors' competitiveness by giving MillerCoors (or its majority owner) (i) perpetual, royalty-free licenses to products for which it currently must pay royalties, and (ii) ownership of the international rights to the Miller brands of beer.
To further help preserve and promote competition in the U.S. beer industry, the proposed Final Judgment (i) imposes certain restrictions on ABI's distribution practices and ownership of distributors, and (ii) requires ABI to provide the United States with notice of future acquisitions, including acquisitions of beer distributors and craft brewers, prior to their consummation. Among other things, the proposed Final Judgment prohibits ABI from:
• Acquiring a distributor if the acquisition would cause more than 10% of ABI's beer in the United States to be sold through ABI-owned distributors;
• Prohibiting or impeding a distributor that sells ABI's beer from using its best efforts to sell, market, advertise, promote, or secure retail placement for rivals' beers, including the beers of high-end brewers;
• Providing incentives or rewards to a distributor who sells ABI's beer based on the percentage of ABI beer the distributor sells as compared to the distributor's sales of the beers of ABI's rivals;
• Conditioning any agreement or program with a distributor that sells ABI's beer on the fact that it sells ABI's rivals' beer outside of the geographic area in which it sells ABI's beer;
• Exercising its rights over distributor management and ownership based on a distributor's sales of ABI's rivals' beers;
• Requiring a distributor to report financial information associated with the sale of ABI's rivals' beers;
• Requiring that a distributor who sells ABI's beer offer its sales force the same incentives for selling ABI's beer when the distributor promotes the beers of ABI's rivals with sales incentives; and
• Consummating non-reportable acquisitions of beer brewers—including craft brewers—without providing the United States with advance notice and an opportunity to assess the transaction's likely competitive effects.
Finally, under the terms of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, Defendants will take certain steps to ensure that, pending the ordered divestiture, MillerCoors will continue to be operated as an economically viable, ongoing business concern and that all divestiture assets will be preserved and will be independent from, and not influenced by, ABI.
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered after compliance with the APPA. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment would terminate this action, except that the Court would retain jurisdiction to construe, modify, or enforce the provisions of the proposed Final Judgment and to punish violations thereof.
ABI is a corporation organized and existing under the laws of Belgium, with headquarters in Leuven, Belgium. ABI brews and markets more beer sold in the United States than any other company, accounting for approximately 47% of beer sales nationally.
SABMiller is a corporation organized and existing under the laws of the United Kingdom, with its headquarters in London, England. In the United States, SABMiller operates through its ownership interest in MillerCoors. MillerCoors is a limited liability company organized and existing under the laws of the State of Delaware, with its principal place of business in Chicago, Illinois. MillerCoors is a joint venture between SABMiller and Molson Coors Brewing Company (“Molson Coors”). SABMiller and Molson Coors have, respectively, a 58% and 42% ownership interest in and equal governance rights over MillerCoors.
MillerCoors is the second-largest brewing company in the United States, accounting for 25% of beer sales nationally. MillerCoors owns and operates 12 breweries in the United States, and has the sole right to produce and sell in the United States more than 40 brands of beer, including Coors Light and Miller Lite, the second- and fourth-highest selling beer brands in the United States. MillerCoors also has the right to produce and sell in the United States other popular brands of beer, such as Miller Genuine Draft, Coors Banquet, and Blue Moon. In addition, MillerCoors has the exclusive right to import into and sell in the United States certain beer brands owned by SABMiller, including Peroni, Grolsch, and Pilsner Urquell.
At the same time that ABI agreed to acquire complete ownership of SABMiller, ABI also agreed to divest to Molson Coors (1) SABMiller's equity and ownership stake in MillerCoors; (2) perpetual, royalty-free licenses to
Beer is a relevant product market under Section 7 of the Clayton Act. Beer is usually made from malted cereal grain, flavored with hops, and brewed via a fermentation process. Wine, distilled liquor, and other alcoholic or non-alcoholic beverages do not substantially constrain the prices of beer, and a hypothetical monopolist in the beer market could profitably raise prices.
Beer brewers generally categorize beer into different segments based primarily on price. Beers in the United States can generally be grouped into three segments: Sub-premium, premium, and high-end.
Most sales of beer in the United States are of premium and sub-premium brands. The vast majority of premium and sub-premium beer sold in the United States is brewed by ABI and MillerCoors, which own most of the popular premium and sub-premium brands. But high-end brands—in particular, Mexican imports and craft brands—are increasingly gaining market share. This market trend is increasing the competition faced by ABI and MillerCoors and the choices available to consumers.
Both national and local geographic markets exist in the beer industry. At the local level, demand for beer is driven by the locations of the customers who purchase beer, rather than by the locations of the breweries that brew it. Beer brewers also make many pricing and promotional decisions at the local level, reflecting local brand preferences and demand, demographics, and other competitive conditions and factors, which can vary significantly from one local market to another. This is sustainable in part because arbitrage across local markets is unlikely to occur.
Important competitive decisions, however, are also made at the national level. At the national level, large beer companies, such as ABI and MillerCoors, make competitive decisions and develop strategies regarding product development, marketing, and brand building. Moreover, large beer brewers typically create and implement national pricing strategies, place a significant portion of beer advertising on national television, and compete for national retail accounts.
The beer industry in the United States is highly concentrated and would become significantly more so if ABI were allowed to acquire SABMiller, including its ownership interest in MillerCoors. As a majority owner with equal governance rights over MillerCoors, ABI would be able to direct the competitive behavior of MillerCoors, leading to a loss of competition between the firms both nationally and in every local market in the United States. Although Molson Coors would continue to own a minority equity interest in MillerCoors and have equal governance rights, Molson Coors' interest in MillerCoors would not eliminate the anticompetitive effects that would result from the acquisition. After the acquisition, ABI would have the right to appoint half of the board members of MillerCoors, who would have the same governance rights as other board members over MillerCoors' business. Given that ABI would have significant influence over MillerCoors, ABI and MillerCoors would be able to coordinate their competitive behavior, possibly to the extent where they behaved as a single, profit-maximizing entity.
The result would be a combination of the two largest beer brewers in the United States, leaving only a fringe of competitors with substantially smaller market shares than ABI and MillerCoors. ABI and MillerCoors account for more than 70% of beer sold in the United States. After the proposed acquisition, ABI would have a commanding market share ranging from 37% to 94% in every local U.S. market for which reliable data are available.
Effective distribution is important for a brewer to be competitive in the U.S. beer industry. Many states require large brewers to use independent distributors, and these distributors typically have exclusive and perpetual rights to sell the brands they carry within a particular territory. Most brewers use distributors to merchandise, sell, and deliver beer to retailers. Those retailers are primarily grocery stores, large retailers (such as Target and Walmart), convenience stores, liquor stores, restaurants, and bars. Retailers, in turn, sell beer to consumers.
ABI beers are distributed both through ABI-owned distributors and through distributors that are not owned by ABI but who sell large volumes of ABI beer, including the Budweiser and Bud Light brands (“ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers”). ABI beer brands account for approximately 90% of the volume of the beer sold by ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers. In spite of many state laws requiring that beer distributors be independent of brewers, ABI exerts considerable influence over ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers, in part by requiring them to enter into a Wholesaler Equity Agreement (“Equity Agreement”) with ABI.
The Equity Agreement contains a number of provisions that are designed to encourage ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers to sell and promote ABI's beer brands instead of the beer brands of ABI's competitors. For example, the Equity Agreement prohibits an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler from requesting that a bar replace an ABI tap handle with a competitor's tap handle or that a retailer replace ABI shelf space with a
ABI also promotes distributor exclusivity by providing payments to ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers based on their ABI “alignment,” that is, the amount of ABI beer that they sell relative to the beer of ABI's competitors. For example, under a program known as the Voluntary Anheuser-Busch Incentive for Performance Program, ABI offers ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers that are 90% or more “aligned” a payment for each case-equivalent of ABI beer they sell. The size of the payment increases based on the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's level of alignment. Only the sales of very small, local craft beers are excluded from the calculation of an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's level of alignment. This allows ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers to carry small, local craft beers but decreases or eliminates the payments to ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers that add craft beers that grow above a certain size or expand outside of a certain geographic area. Thus, this incentive program has the effect of impeding rival craft brewers from growing large enough to have the scale to better compete with ABI.
MillerCoors beers are distributed almost exclusively through distributors that are not owned by MillerCoors but who sell large volumes of MillerCoors beer (“MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesalers”). MillerCoors brands account for approximately 65% of the volume of the beer sold by MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesalers.
Other than MillerCoors and ABI, most brewers do not have a distribution network affiliated with their brands. Consequently, the majority of other brewers' beers are distributed either by the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler or the MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesaler in a given geographic area. For example, in 2014, 85% or more of the beer sold in the United States was distributed by a Miller-Coors Affiliated Wholesaler, an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler, or a distributor owned by ABI.
Although some brewers use alternative means to sell their beer to retailers, their only alternatives to an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler or MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesaler tend to be considerably smaller and significantly less efficient distributors. Indeed, some of these alternative distributors are not even primarily focused on selling beer. For instance, these distributors may be more focused on selling a broad range of wine and liquor while only offering a small selection of beers. Moreover, beer distributors who are not affiliated with ABI or MillerCoors typically service fewer retail establishments (or exclude entire classes of retailers), visit the establishments that they do service less frequently, and provide fewer resources (such as financial support and sales associates) than the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler or the MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesaler that operates in the same territory.
Unlike ABI, MillerCoors does not include in its agreements with MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesalers any provisions that discourage or impede the promotion and sales of the brands of Third-Party Brewers. There is, however, a practical limit to the number of brands that any distributor can effectively carry and promote to its retail accounts. As the number of brands carried by a distributor increases, the distributor may incur costs to manage the resulting complexities, and the distributor may become less focused on promoting the smaller brands that it carries. Consequently, the presence of a MillerCoors-Affiliated Wholesaler or a small distributor in a market does not eliminate the advantages that many independent craft brewers would receive from having access to ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers.
Even though ABI has proposed to divest SABMiller's interest in MillerCoors to Molson Coors, the divestiture to Molson Coors likely would not eliminate the anticompetitive effects of the transaction on beer distribution, which, as noted above, plays an important role in a brewer's ability to effectively compete in the U.S. beer industry.
Presently, MillerCoors competes against ABI only in the United States. Molson Coors, however, competes with ABI in multiple countries throughout the world—most significantly in Canada, where ABI and Molson Coors are the two largest brewers and together account for a large share of beer sales. ABI and Molson Coors also have certain cooperative arrangements in Eastern Europe. For example, ABI brews and distributes Molson Coors' beers in certain countries while Molson Coors provides such services to ABI in other countries. ABI and MillerCoors have no comparable business arrangements.
The change in ownership of MillerCoors—from a joint venture between SABMiller and Molson Coors to a wholly owned subsidiary of Molson Coors—will increase the number of highly concentrated markets across the world in which ABI competes directly against Molson Coors. By increasing the number of markets in which ABI and Molson Coors compete, the divestiture of SABMiller's interest in MillerCoors to Molson Coors could facilitate coordination between ABI and Molson Coors in the United States. For example, this multi-market contact could lead Molson Coors and ABI to be more accommodating to each other in the United States in order to avoid provoking a competitive response outside the United States or disrupting their cooperative business arrangements in other countries. Coordination could also be facilitated by the existing and newly-created cooperative agreements between ABI and Molson Coors around the world.
If the divestiture facilitates coordination between ABI and Molson Coors, it would also increase ABI's incentive to limit competition from its high-end rivals. This is because competition from high-end rivals would become an even more important constraint on the ability of ABI and Molson Coors to increase the prices of their beers across all segments. As a result, following a divestiture to Molson Coors, ABI may have a greater incentive to impede the growth and reduce the competitiveness of its high-end rivals by limiting their access to effective and efficient distribution. The extent to which craft and other brewers in the United States are able to compete with ABI and Molson Coors will thus affect the likelihood of the divestiture to Molson Coors leading to unilateral or coordinated anticompetitive effects.
Neither entry into the national or local beer markets in the United States, nor any repositioning of existing brewers, would undo the likely anticompetitive harm from ABI's acquisition of SABMiller. Many MillerCoors brands compete directly against ABI brands in terms of their brand position, reputation, taste profile, well-established marketing, acceptance by a wide range of consumers, and robust distribution networks. ABI and MillerCoors brands of beer are available in almost every establishment in which consumers can purchase or consume
Building nationally-recognized and accepted brands, which retailers will support with feature and display activity, is difficult, expensive, and time consuming. Although new beer breweries open frequently, new brewers face significant barriers to achieving efficient scale. In addition, ABI's distribution practices hinder new entrants from accessing effective and efficient distribution, which prevents them from growing to a scale that allows significant economies in production. While consumers have undoubtedly benefited from the launch of many individual craft and specialty beers in the United States, the multiplicity of such brands does not replace the nature, scale, and scope of the existing competition between ABI and MillerCoors, which would be eliminated by the proposed transaction.
The proposed Final Judgment contains a remedy designed to eliminate the likely anticompetitive effects of the acquisition in the national market for beer in the United States and local markets throughout the United States. The proposed Final Judgment contemplates that the divested assets will be sold to Molson Coors, which, on November 11, 2015, entered into an agreement with ABI to acquire the divested assets. If the divestiture to Molson Coors should fail to close, ABI would be required to make the same divestiture to another acquirer acceptable to the United States, in its sole discretion, for the purpose of enabling that alternative acquirer to assume SABMiller's role with respect to the ownership and governance of MillerCoors.
The divestiture required by the proposed Final Judgment will preserve MillerCoors as an independent and economically viable competitor and will strengthen MillerCoors by giving it valuable rights that it does not currently have. The divestiture includes assets that are necessary to preserve or enhance the viability of MillerCoors as a competitor in the national and local beer markets in the United States. Those assets include SABMiller's full interest in MillerCoors and the intangible assets necessary to permit Molson Coors to brew and import the Import Products for sale in the United States. The proposed divestiture also gives Molson Coors full rights to the Miller-Branded Products, as well as the tangible and intangible assets that are primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of the Miller-Branded Products outside the United States.
The distribution-related relief seeks to prohibit ABI from rewarding, penalizing, or otherwise conditioning its relationships with ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers, or any employees or agents of the wholesalers, based on the wholesalers' sale, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of rivals' beers—including ABI's high-end rivals. For example, the remedy seeks to prevent ABI from using its relationship with ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers to disadvantage, or maintain or erect barriers to scale for, ABI's high-end rivals. Under the proposed Final Judgment, ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers should be free to make independent decisions regarding their sale of ABI's high-end rivals' beers. By removing obstacles to effective distribution, competition in the high-end beer segment can continue to serve as an important constraint on the ability of ABI and MillerCoors (Molson Coors) to raise—either unilaterally or through coordination—beer prices in the United States.
In short, the remedy seeks to preserve and promote competition in the U.S. beer industry by maintaining MillerCoors as an independent competitor and by reducing the influence of ABI on the distribution of beer in the United States. In addition, the proposed Final Judgment also provides for supervision by this Court and the United States of the transition services and supply arrangements between ABI and Molson Coors. Those arrangements will allow Molson Coors time to establish the ability to brew the Import Products and Miller-Branded Products independently of ABI. The remedy also provides for supervision of ABI's compliance with the restrictions on its distribution practices.
The proposed Final Judgment requires ABI, within 90 days after entry of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order by the Court, to divest (1) SABMiller's equity and ownership stake in MillerCoors; (2) all raw material inventory exclusively related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the United States; (3) all other tangible and intangible assets of SABMiller and its subsidiaries (other than MillerCoors and its subsidiaries) that are primarily related to the Miller-Branded Products, both inside and outside the United States; and (4) perpetual, fully paid-up, royalty-free licenses to any intellectual property and any other intangible assets required to permit the acquirer of the divested assets to manufacture, import, distribute, market, or sell the Import Products and Licensed Products in the United States. Molson Coors will also have a one-year period in which to negotiate to hire employees of SABMiller whose primary responsibility is the production, manufacture, importation, distribution, marketing, or sale of Miller-Branded Products.
The proposed divestiture will permit MillerCoors to continue as a viable competitor in the relevant beer markets independent of ABI. After the divestiture, Molson Coors will own all assets in the United States that are used in the production, marketing, and sale of the MillerCoors brands of beer that are brewed in the United States. Under the proposed divestiture, Molson Coors will also obtain the international rights to brew and export the Miller-Branded Products. With respect to two beer brands, Redd's and Foster's, MillerCoors now produces those brands for sale in the United States under royalty-bearing licenses from SABMiller. The divestiture provides that Molson Coors will have perpetual, fully paid-up, royalty-free licenses and any other intangible assets required to manufacture and sell those brands in the United States. MillerCoors now has the right to import and sell in the United States certain SABMiller brands that are brewed internationally. The proposed divestiture provides that Molson Coors will have perpetual, royalty-free licenses to brew those brands and import them into the United States.
The European Commission also investigated the effects of ABI's proposed acquisition of SABMiller. To resolve concerns raised by the European Commission, ABI is divesting essentially all of the European business that it would have acquired from SABMiller. ABI has already agreed to sell to Asahi Group, a Japanese brewer, the Peroni, Grolsch, and Meantime brands of beer. ABI has also agreed to divest SABMiller's business in the Czech Republic, Hungary, Poland, and Romania, including the Pilsner Urquell brand of beer. The proposed Final
Sections IV.I and IV.J of the Final Judgment require ABI to enter into one or more transition services agreements and interim supply agreements with Molson Coors. The transition services agreements require ABI to provide Molson Coors with services with respect to the development, production, servicing, importing, distributing, marketing, and selling of Miller-Branded Products outside of the United States. The transition services agreements will allow Molson Coors to operate the business of selling Miller-Branded Products outside of the United States in a manner that is consistent with SABMiller's current operation of that business. The interim supply agreements will require ABI to supply beer such that Molson Coors can continue to import SABMiller brands of beer to the United States and can operate the Miller International Business.
The transition services and interim supply agreements are time-limited to assure that Molson Coors will become fully independent of ABI with respect to the supply of the Import Products and the Miller International Business as soon as practicable. As such, in conjunction with the nondisclosure of information provisions in the proposed Final Judgment, the terms of the transition services and interim supply agreements are intended to prevent the vertical supply arrangements from causing competitive harm in the near term. The proposed Final Judgment subjects these agreements, including any extensions, to monitoring by a trustee appointed by the United States and requires that the agreements be approved by the United States. Section V.C of the proposed Final Judgment further provides that if ABI and Molson Coors enter any new agreements with each other with respect to the brewing, packaging, production, marketing, importing, distribution, or sale of beer in the United States, ABI must notify the United States of the new agreements at least 60 calendar days in advance of such agreements becoming effective, and the United States must approve the agreements. To the extent that ABI has divested the worldwide rights to a brand, however, the provisions of the proposed Final Judgment relating to transition services and interim supply agreements do not apply to arrangements, if any, between Molson Coors and the new owner of the brand outside of the United States.
Section V.A of the proposed Final Judgment requires ABI and SABMiller to agree—and for ABI to further require Molson Coors to agree—not to cite the transaction or the required divestiture as a basis for modifying, renegotiating, or terminating any contract with any Distributor. This language prevents ABI, SABMiller, and Molson Coors from claiming that either the transaction or the divestiture is a change of ownership or control that would otherwise enable ABI or Molson Coors to make changes to their distribution contracts, potentially limiting their rival brewers' path to market.
Section V.B prevents ABI from acquiring any equity interests in, or ownership or control of the assets of, a Distributor if such acquisition would transform the Distributor into an ABI-Owned Distributor, and if more than 10% of ABI's beer sold in the United States, measured by volume, would be sold through ABI-Owned Distributors after such acquisition. The United States' investigation revealed that ABI-Owned Distributors typically distribute only brands owned by or affiliated with ABI, and that ABI-Owned Distributors currently sell approximately 9% of ABI's beer in the United States. This provision limits ABI's ability to acquire Distributors and then cause the Distributors to cease to promote or to expel rival brands from the Distributors' portfolios—thus preventing or impeding a rival from selling its beer through a Distributor or forcing the rival to find a different and potentially less effective path to market.
Section V.D prohibits ABI from instituting or continuing any practices or programs that impede or disincentivize ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers from selling, marketing, advertising, promoting, or maximizing the retail placement of the beers of Third-Party Brewers,
• Conditioning the availability of ABI's beer to an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler on the wholesaler's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of Third-Party Brewers' beers;
• Conditioning the prices, services, product support, rebates, discounts, buy backs, or other terms and conditions of sale of ABI's beer that are offered to an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler based on its sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of Third-Party Brewers' beers;
• Conditioning any agreement or program with an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler on the fact that it sells Third-Party Brewers' beers outside of the geographic area in which it sells ABI beer;
• Requiring an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler to offer any incentive for selling ABI beer in connection with or in response to any incentive that the wholesaler offers for selling Third-Party Brewers' beers; and
• Preventing an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler from using best efforts to sell, market, advertise, or promote any Third-Party Brewer's beers, which may be defined as efforts designed to achieve and maintain the highest practicable sales volume and retail placement of the Third Party Brewer's beers in a geographic area.
In sum, Section V.D seeks to ensure that ABI cannot use distribution-related practices and incentives to prevent or limit Third-Party Brewers from securing the distribution necessary to effectively compete with ABI. This is especially important with respect to brewers of high-end beers, which, as detailed above and in the Complaint, have served as an important constraint on ABI's ability to raise prices of its beers.
It should be noted, however, that the proposed Final Judgment—including Section V.D—does not prevent ABI from requiring that an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler use its best efforts to sell, market, advertise, or promote ABI's beers. The proposed Final Judgment also does not prohibit ABI from conditioning incentives, programs, or contractual terms based on an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's volume of sales of ABI beer,
The proposed Final Judgment also does not prevent ABI from requiring an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler to allocate to ABI's beers a proportion of the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's annual spending on beer promotions and incentives as long as the allocation does not exceed the proportion of revenues that ABI's beers constituted in the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's overall revenue for beer sales in the preceding year. The proposed Final Judgment permits this practice because, in any given geographic area, the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler provides the exclusive path to market for ABI's beers, and therefore ABI may be reluctant to invest in its distributors without some assurance that those investments will not be used primarily to benefit its rivals. ABI therefore may require an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler to promote ABI's beers in proportion to the revenues it earns on ABI's beers.
The proposed Final Judgment does not prohibit ABI from taking the above actions, because such actions can be undertaken in a way that does not undermine the proposed Final Judgment's objective of ensuring that Third-Party Brewers have access to the distribution networks necessary to effectively compete with ABI and meet consumer demand. The proposed Final Judgment is not designed to prevent ABI from competing. Rather, it is designed to ensure that Third-Party Brewers whose beer is sold by ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers have the opportunity to compete with ABI on a level playing field—not on a playing field in which ABI has used its influence over the distributor to favor ABI's beers at the expense of other beers in the distributor's portfolio.
The proposed Final Judgment contains provisions designed to ensure that ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers are free to carry and promote rival brands without concern that ABI will use its control over management and ownership changes to punish the wholesaler. Section V.E prohibits ABI from disapproving an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's selection of its own general manager, or a successor general manager, based on the ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's beer. Similarly, Section V.F requires that when ABI exercises any right related to the transfer of control, ownership, or equity in any Distributor to any other Distributor, ABI shall not give weight to or base any decision upon either Distributor's business relationship with a Third-Party Brewer—including, but not limited to, such Distributor's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's beer. These provisions are intended to prevent ABI from using its rights over management or ownership changes to promote alignment by selecting new owners because they have demonstrated a willingness not to carry or promote rival brands.
Section V.G prevents ABI from requesting or requiring an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler to report to ABI the wholesaler's revenues, profits, margins, costs, sales, volumes, or other financial information associated with the purchase, sale, or distribution of a Third-Party Brewer's beer. ABI, however, is not prohibited from requesting the reporting of general financial information by an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler to assess the overall financial condition and financial viability of such wholesaler, the percentage of total beer revenues received by the wholesaler associated with ABI's beer, or from conducting ordinary course due diligence in connection with any potential acquisition of an ABI-Affiliated Wholesaler.
Section V.I directs ABI to notify ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers of the changes to ABI's programs or agreements required by the proposed Final Judgment and the ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers' rights to bring to the attention of the Monitoring Trustee or the United States any actions by ABI which the distributor believes may violate Section V of the proposed Final Judgment. ABI must also provide ABI-Affiliated Wholesalers with a copy of the proposed Final Judgment. Further, under Section V.H, ABI may not discriminate against, penalize, or retaliate against a Distributor that brings to the attention of the Monitoring Trustee or the United States a potential violation by ABI of Section V of the Final Judgment.
In the event that ABI does not accomplish the divestiture as prescribed in the proposed Final Judgment, Section VI provides that, upon application of the United States, the Court will appoint a Divestiture Trustee selected by the United States to complete the divestiture. If a Divestiture Trustee is appointed, the proposed Final Judgment provides that ABI will pay all costs and expenses of the Divestiture Trustee. After his or her appointment becomes effective, the Divestiture Trustee will file monthly reports with the Court and the United States setting forth his or her efforts to accomplish the divestiture.
Section VIII of the proposed Final Judgment permits the appointment of a Monitoring Trustee by the United States in its sole discretion. The United States intends to appoint a Monitoring Trustee and to seek the Court's approval of such appointment. The Monitoring Trustee will ensure that Defendants expeditiously comply with all of their obligations and perform all of their responsibilities under the proposed Final Judgment and the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order; that the Divestiture Assets remain economically viable, competitive, and ongoing assets; and that competition in the sale of beer in the United States and in all local markets within the United States is maintained. The Monitoring Trustee will have the power and authority to monitor Defendants' compliance with the terms of the proposed Final Judgment and attendant interim supply and transition services agreements. The Monitoring Trustee will also have the authority to investigate complaints that ABI has violated the restrictions related to its distribution practices. The Monitoring Trustee will have access to all personnel, books, records, and information necessary to monitor Defendants' compliance with the proposed Final Judgment, and will serve at the cost and expense of ABI. The Monitoring Trustee will file reports every 90 days with the United States and, as appropriate, the Court setting forth Defendants' efforts to comply with their obligations under the proposed Final Judgment and the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order.
Defendants have entered into the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order attached as an exhibit to the Explanation of Consent Decree Procedures, which was filed simultaneously with the Court, to ensure that, pending the divestiture, the Divestiture Assets are maintained as an ongoing, economically viable, and active business. The Hold Separate Stipulation and Order ensures that the Divestiture Assets are preserved and maintained in a condition that allows the divestiture to be effective.
The Hold Separate Stipulation and Order requires that the Defendants take all steps that are within their power and
The Hold Separate Stipulation and Order further requires the Defendants to maintain and operate the Import Products and business of selling Miller-Branded Products outside of the United States—which are not today standalone businesses—in the same manner as they are currently operated. Defendants are required to use all reasonable efforts to achieve the sales and revenues targets for the Import Products and Miller-Branded Products in accordance with previously agreed upon business plans and budgets and are prohibited from sharing any competitively sensitive information regarding these products with any employee that is not currently involved in their operations or does not have a reasonable need to know such information.
Section XII of the proposed Final Judgment requires ABI to notify the United States in advance of executing certain transactions that would not otherwise be reportable under the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, as amended (the “HSR Act”). The transactions covered by these provisions include the acquisition or license of any interest in non-ABI beer brewing or distribution assets or brands, excluding acquisitions of: (1) Assets that do not generate at least $7.5 million in annual gross revenue from beer sold for resale in the United States; (2) distribution licenses that do not generate at least $3 million in annual gross revenue in the United States; and (3) beer distributors that do not generate at least $3 million in annual gross revenue in the United States. This provision significantly broadens ABI's pre-merger reporting requirements because the $3 million and $7.5 million threshold amounts are significantly less than the HSR Act's “size of the transaction” reporting threshold.
Section XII will provide the United States with advance notice of, and an opportunity to evaluate, ABI's acquisition of both beer distributors and craft brewers. Notification of distributor acquisitions allows the United States to evaluate whether ABI's acquisition of a distributor implicates the prohibitions in Section V or is otherwise likely to substantially lessen competition by hindering the effective distribution of the beers of ABI's rivals. Notification of brewer acquisitions allows the United States to evaluate any acquisition by ABI of, among other things, craft breweries. ABI has acquired multiple craft breweries over the past several years, some of which were not reportable under the HSR Act. Acquisitions of this nature, individually or collectively, have the potential to substantially lessen competition, and the proposed Final Judgment gives the United States an opportunity to evaluate such transactions in advance of their closing even if the purchase price is below the HSR Act's thresholds.
The proposed Final Judgment requires ABI to provide such notification to the Antitrust Division of the United States Department of Justice (the “Antitrust Division”) in the same format as, and in accordance with the instructions relating to, the Notification and Report Form set forth in the Appendix to Part 803 of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended. ABI must provide such notification at least 30 calendar days prior to acquiring any such interest. If within the 30-day period after notification the Antitrust Division makes a written request for additional information, ABI shall be precluded from consummating the proposed transaction or agreement until 30 calendar days after submitting all requested additional information. Early termination of the waiting periods in this paragraph may be requested and, where appropriate, granted in the same manner as is applicable under the requirements and provisions of the HSR Act and rules promulgated thereunder.
Section XIII of the proposed Final Judgment requires Defendants to implement and maintain procedures to prevent the disclosure of the confidential commercial information of MillerCoors and Molson Coors by Defendants to any of Defendants' affiliates who are involved in the marketing, distribution, or sale of beer in the United States. Within 10 days of the Court approving the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order described above, Defendants must submit to the United States their planned procedures to effect compliance with their nondisclosure obligations. Additionally, Defendants must provide a briefing as to the obligations required under Section XIII of the proposed Final Judgment to certain of Defendants' officers and employees who will (i) receive the confidential commercial information of MillerCoors or Molson Coors; (ii) be responsible for the transition services and interim supply agreements described above; or (iii) be responsible for making decisions regarding ABI's relationships with, agreements with, or policies regarding distributors. This provision ensures that Defendants cannot improperly use any confidential information that they receive from Molson Coors or from SABMiller concerning MillerCoors in ways that would harm competition in the U.S. beer industry.
Section 4 of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 15, provides that any person who has been injured as a result of conduct prohibited by the antitrust laws may bring suit in federal court to recover three times the damages the person has suffered, as well as costs and reasonable attorneys' fees. Entry of the proposed Final Judgment will neither impair nor assist the bringing of any private antitrust damages action. Under the provisions of Section 5(a) of the Clayton Act, 15 U.S.C. 16(a), the proposed Final Judgment has no prima facie effect in any subsequent lawsuit that may be brought against Defendants.
The United States and Defendants have stipulated that the proposed Final Judgment may be entered by the Court after compliance with the provisions of the APPA, provided that the United States has not withdrawn its consent. The APPA conditions entry upon the Court's determination that the proposed Final Judgment is in the public interest.
The APPA provides a period of at least 60 days preceding the effective date of the proposed Final Judgment within which any person may submit to the United States written comments regarding the proposed Final Judgment. Any person who wishes to comment should do so within 60 days of the date of publication of this Competitive Impact Statement in the
Written comments should be submitted to: Peter J. Mucchetti, Chief, Litigation I Section, Antitrust Division, United States Department of Justice, 450 Fifth Street NW., Suite 4100, Washington, DC 20530.
The proposed Final Judgment provides that the Court retains jurisdiction over this action, and the parties may apply to the Court for any necessary or appropriate modification, interpretation, or enforcement of the Final Judgment.
The United States considered, as an alternative to the proposed Final Judgment, seeking preliminary and permanent injunctions against Defendants' proposed transaction and proceeding to a full trial on the merits. The United States is satisfied, however, that the relief in the proposed Final Judgment will preserve competition in the national market and in each local market for beer in the United States. Thus, the proposed Final Judgment will protect competition as effectively as, and will achieve all or substantially all of the relief the United States would have obtained through, litigation, but avoids the time, expense, and uncertainty of a full trial on the merits.
The Clayton Act, as amended by the APPA, requires that proposed consent judgments in antitrust cases brought by the United States be subject to a 60-day comment period, after which the court shall determine whether entry of the proposed Final Judgment “is in the public interest.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(1). In making such a determination, the court, in accordance with the statute as amended in 2004, is required to consider:
(A) the competitive impact of such judgment, including termination of alleged violations, provisions for enforcement and modification, duration of relief sought, anticipated effects of alternative remedies actually considered, whether its terms are ambiguous, and any other competitive considerations bearing upon the adequacy of such judgment that the court deems necessary to a determination of whether the consent judgment is in the public interest; and
(B) the impact of entry of such judgment upon competition in the relevant market or markets, upon the public generally and individuals alleging specific injury from the violations set forth in the complaint including consideration of the public benefit, if any, to be derived from a determination of the issues at trial.
As the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit has held, under the APPA a court considers, among other things, the relationship between the remedy secured and the specific allegations set forth in the government's complaint, whether the decree is sufficiently clear, whether enforcement mechanisms are sufficient, and whether the decree may positively harm third parties.
[t]he balancing of competing social and political interests affected by a proposed antitrust consent decree must be left, in the first instance, to the discretion of the Attorney General. The court's role in protecting the public interest is one of insuring that the government has not breached its duty to the public in consenting to the decree. The court is required to determine not whether a particular decree is the one that will best serve society, but whether the settlement is “
Courts have greater flexibility in approving proposed consent decrees than in crafting their own decrees following a finding of liability in a litigated matter. “[A] proposed decree must be approved even if it falls short of the remedy the court would impose on its own, as long as it falls within the range of acceptability or is `within the reaches of public interest.' ”
Moreover, the court's role under the APPA is limited to reviewing the remedy in relationship to the violations that the United States has alleged in its complaint, and does not authorize the court to “construct [its] own hypothetical case and then evaluate the decree against that case.”
In its 2004 amendments, Congress made clear its intent to preserve the practical benefits of utilizing consent decrees in antitrust enforcement, adding the unambiguous instruction that “[n]othing in this section shall be construed to require the court to conduct an evidentiary hearing or to require the court to permit anyone to intervene.” 15 U.S.C. 16(e)(2);
There are no determinative materials or documents within the meaning of the APPA that were considered by the United States in formulating the proposed Final Judgment.
This Court has jurisdiction over the subject matter of this action and each of the parties. The Complaint states a claim upon which relief may be granted against Defendants under Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 18).
As used in the Final Judgment:
A. “ABI” means Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV, its domestic and foreign parents, predecessors, divisions, subsidiaries, affiliates, partnerships, successors in interest (including any successor in interest to Anheuser-Busch InBev SA/NV following the Completion of the Transaction), and joint ventures; and all directors, officers, employees, agents, and representatives of the foregoing. The terms “parent,” “subsidiary,” “affiliate,” and “joint venture” refer to any person in which there is majority (greater than 50%) or total ownership or control between the company and any other person.
B. “ABI Divested Brand” means any Import Product divested or sold pursuant to commitments offered to the
C. “ABI-Owned Distributor” means any Distributor in which ABI owns more than 50% of the outstanding equity interests or more than 50% of the assets.
D. “Acquirer” means:
1. Molson Coors; or
2. an alternative purchaser of the Divestiture Assets selected pursuant to the procedures set forth in this Final Judgment.
E. “Beer” means any fermented alcoholic beverage that is (1) composed in part of water, a type of malted starch, yeast, and hops or other flavoring, and (2) has undergone the process of brewing. As used herein, the term “Beer” shall also include flavored malt beverages, root beers, and ciders.
F. “Closing” means consummation of the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets pursuant to the Final Judgment.
G. “Completion of the Transaction” means the completion of the Transaction in accordance with its terms.
H. “Confidential Information” means confidential commercial information of the Acquirer or MillerCoors that has been obtained from the Acquirer, MillerCoors or SABMiller in connection with, or as a result of, (1) SABMiller's equity and ownership stake in the Divestiture Assets prior to the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets, (2) the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets, or (3) the entry into and performance under the Interim Supply Agreements, the License Agreements, or the Transition Services Agreements, including quantities, units, and prices of items ordered or purchased from Defendant ABI by the Acquirer, and any other competitively sensitive information regarding Defendant ABI's or the Acquirer's performance under the Interim Supply Agreements, the License Agreements, or the Transition Services Agreements.
I. “Covered Entity” means any Beer brewer, importer, distributor, or brand owner (other than ABI) that derives more than $7.5 million in annual gross revenue from Beer sold for further resale in the Territory, or from license fees generated by such Beer sales.
J. “Covered Interest” means ownership or control of any Beer brewing assets of, or any Beer brand assets of, or any Beer distribution assets of, or any interest in (including any financial, security, loan, equity, intellectual property, or management interest), a Covered Entity; except that a Covered Interest shall not include (i) a Beer brewery or Beer brand located outside the Territory that does not generate at least $7.5 million in annual gross revenue from Beer sold for resale in the Territory; (ii) a license to distribute a non-ABI Beer brand where said distribution license does not generate at least $3 million in annual gross revenue in the Territory; or (iii) a Beer distributor which does not generate at least $3 million in annual gross revenue in the Territory.
K. “Defendants” means ABI and SABMiller, and any successor or assignee to all or substantially all of the business or assets of ABI or SABMiller, involved in the brewing, development, production, servicing, distribution, marketing, or sale of Beer.
L. “Distributor” means a wholesaler in the Territory who acts as an intermediary between a brewer or importer of Beer and a retailer of Beer.
M. “Divestiture Assets” means:
1. SABMiller's equity and ownership stake in MillerCoors;
2. All intellectual property of SABMiller (other than MillerCoors) that is primarily related to any Miller-Branded Product, both inside and outside the Territory, including, but not limited to: (i) Patents (including all reissues, divisions, continuations, continuations-in-part, reexaminations, supplemental examinations, foreign counterparts, substitutions and extensions thereof) and patent applications; (ii) copyrights and all applications, registrations, and renewals therefor; (iii) trademarks, trade names, service marks, service names, trade dress, and other indicia of origin and all applications, registrations, and renewals therefor; (iv) technical information, know-how, trade secrets, and other proprietary and confidential information, including such information relating to inventions, technology, product formulations, recipes, production processes, customer lists, and marketing databases; and (v) domain names, social media accounts, and identifiers and registrations therefor;
3. All contracts, commitments, agreements, subcontracts, leases, subleases, licenses, sublicenses, purchase orders, or other legally binding promises or obligations, whether written or oral, to which SABMiller (other than MillerCoors) is a party and that are primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory, in each case other than any real estate leases or employment or independent contractor agreements;
4. All raw material inventory exclusively related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
5. All royalty or equivalent rights of SABMiller in respect of oil and gas deposits at the brewery operated by MillerCoors located at Fort Worth, Texas;
6. All research and development activities primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
7. All licenses, permits, and authorizations issued by any governmental organization primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory, to the extent such licenses, permits, and authorizations are capable of assignment or transfer by SABMiller;
8. All customer lists, contracts, accounts, and credit records primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
9. All repair, performance, and other records primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
10. All intangible assets including computer software and related documentation, safety procedures for the handling of materials and substances, design tools and simulation capability, and research data concerning historic and current research and development efforts, including, but not limited to, designs of experiments, and the results of successful and unsuccessful designs and experiments, primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
11. All drawings blueprints, designs, design protocols, specifications for materials, specifications for parts and devices, research data concerning historic and current research and development, quality assurance and control procedures, manuals and technical information Defendants provide to their own employees, customers, suppliers, agents or licensees, and all research data concerning historic and current research and development efforts, including, but not limited to, designs of experiments, and the results of successful and unsuccessful designs and experiments, primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded Products outside of the Territory;
12. All other assets primarily related to the manufacture, distribution, marketing, and sale of Miller-Branded
13. Perpetual, fully paid-up, royalty-free licenses, entered into only with the approval of the United States in its sole discretion, to any intellectual property and any other intangible assets required to permit the Acquirer to manufacture, import, distribute, market, or sell the Import Products and the Licensed Products in the Territory.
N. “Hold Separate Stipulation and Order” means the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order filed by the parties simultaneously herewith, which imposes certain duties on the Defendants with respect to the operation of the Divestiture Assets pending the proposed divestitures.
O. “Import Products” means Beer and any other beverages, excluding Miller-Branded Products and Licensed Products, imported, distributed, marketed, or sold in the Territory, under any of the brands or sub-brands set forth on Attachment B hereto and any other sub-brands of such brands.
P. “Independent Distributor” means any Distributor that is not an ABI-Owned Distributor and that has an exclusive contractual right to sell Budweiser or Bud Light branded Beer.
Q. “Interim Supply Agreements” means supply agreements covering any Miller-Branded Products or Import Products.
R. “License Agreement” means any agreement to license intellectual property pursuant to Section II.M.13 of this Final Judgment.
S. “Licensed Products” means Beer and any other beverages manufactured, distributed, marketed or sold in the Territory under the Foster's or Redd's brands or any sub-brands of such brands.
T. “MillerCoors” means MillerCoors LLC, its divisions, subsidiaries, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and all directors, officers, employees, agents, and representatives of the foregoing. The terms “subsidiary,” “affiliate,” and “joint venture” refer to any person in which there is majority (greater than 50%) or total ownership or control between the company and any other person. As used herein, the term “MillerCoors” shall not include SABMiller or Molson Coors.
U. “Miller-Branded Products” means Beer and any other beverages manufactured, distributed, marketed and sold, anywhere in the world, under any of the brands or sub-brands set forth on Attachment A hereto and any other sub-brands of such brands.
V. “Molson Coors” means Molson Coors Brewing Company, its domestic and foreign parents, predecessors, divisions, subsidiaries, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and all directors, officers, employees, agents, and representatives of the foregoing. The terms “parent,” “subsidiary,” “affiliate,” and “joint venture” refer to any person in which there is majority (greater than 50%) or total ownership or control between the company and any other person. As used herein, the term “Molson Coors” shall not include MillerCoors unless and until Molson Coors acquires the Divestiture Assets pursuant to Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment.
W. “SABMiller” means SABMiller plc, its domestic and foreign parents, predecessors, divisions, subsidiaries, affiliates, partnerships and joint ventures, and all directors, officers, employees, agents, and representatives of the foregoing. The terms “parent,” “subsidiary,” “affiliate,” and “joint venture” refer to any person in which there is majority (greater than 50%) or total ownership or control between the company and any other person. As used herein in connection with any obligation of SABMiller under this Order with respect to control of MillerCoors, the term SABMiller means SABMiller's non-controlling 58% equity interest and 50% voting rights in MillerCoors, which are subject to the MillerCoors LLC Amended and Restated Operating Agreement, until the Completion of the Transaction pursuant to Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment.
X. “Territory” means the fifty states of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and all United States military bases located in the fifty states of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico.
Y. “Third-Party Brewer” means any person (other than Defendants or the Acquirer, including any subsidiaries or joint ventures of the Acquirer), that manufactures, has a third party manufacture, or imports Beer for sale in the Territory.
Z. “Transaction” means ABI's proposed acquisition of all of the shares of SABMiller pursuant to the Co-Operation Agreement between Anheuser-Busch Inbev SA/NV and SABMiller plc, the joint announcement by Anheuser-Busch Inbev SA/NV and SABMiller plc in relation to the Transaction pursuant to Rule 2.7 of the UK City Code on Takeovers and Mergers and the letter agreement related to the Co-Operation Agreement between Anheuser-Busch Inbev SA/NV and SABMiller plc, each of which is dated November 11, 2015.
A. This Final Judgment applies to Defendants, as defined above, and all other persons in active concert or participation with any of them who receive actual notice of this Final Judgment by personal service or otherwise.
B. If, prior to complying with Sections IV and VI of this Final Judgment, Defendants sell or otherwise dispose of all or substantially all of their assets or of lesser business units that include the Divestiture Assets, they shall require the purchaser to be bound by the provisions of this Final Judgment unless such sale or disposition is pursuant to commitments offered to the European Commission pursuant to its review of the Transaction.
A. Defendant ABI is ordered and directed, within ninety (90) calendar days after the filing of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, to divest the Divestiture Assets, if the Completion of the Transaction has occurred, in a manner consistent with this Final Judgment to Molson Coors. The United States, in its sole discretion, may agree to one or more extensions of this time period not to exceed sixty (60) calendar days in total, and shall notify the Court in such circumstances. Defendant ABI agrees to use its best efforts to divest the Divestiture Assets as expeditiously as possible. Defendant ABI shall perform all duties and provide any and all services required of Defendant ABI pursuant to the agreements with the Acquirer to effect the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets (including the License Agreements, Transition Services Agreements, and Interim Supply Agreements).
B. In the event Molson Coors is not the Acquirer of the Divestiture Assets,
C. In the event that Molson Coors is not the Acquirer of the Divestiture Assets, Defendant ABI promptly shall make known, by usual and customary means, the availability of the Divestiture Assets. Defendant ABI shall inform any person inquiring about a possible purchase of the Divestiture Assets that they are being divested pursuant to this Final Judgment and provide that person with a copy of this Final Judgment.
D. Defendants shall offer to furnish to all prospective Acquirers, subject to customary confidentiality assurances, all information and documents relating to the Divestiture Assets customarily provided in a due diligence process except such information or documents subject to the attorney-client privilege or work-product doctrine. Defendants shall make available such information to the United States at the same time that such information is made available to any other person.
E. For a period beginning on the date of the filing of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order and continuing for not less than one (1) year from the date of the divestiture required by Section IV or VI of this Final Judgment, to the extent consistent with applicable law, Defendants shall provide the Acquirer and the United States information relating to the personnel who spend the majority of their time on or are otherwise material to the operation of the Divestiture Assets, including Defendant SABMiller employees who spend the majority of their time on or are otherwise material to the production, manufacture, importation, distribution, marketing, or sale of Miller-Branded Products outside the Territory, to enable the Acquirer to make offers of employment. Beginning as of the date of the filing of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, Defendants will not interfere with any negotiations by the Acquirer to retain, employ, or contract with any employee of MillerCoors or any Defendant SABMiller employee whose primary responsibility is the production, manufacture, importation, distribution, marketing, or sale of Miller-Branded Products.
F. In the event that Molson Coors is not the Acquirer of the Divested Assets, Defendants shall permit prospective Acquirers of the Divestiture Assets to have reasonable access to personnel and to make inspections of the physical facilities of MillerCoors; access to any and all environmental, zoning, and other permit documents and information; and access to any and all financial, operational, or other documents and information customarily provided as part of a due diligence process.
G. Defendant ABI shall warrant to the Acquirer that the Divestiture Assets will be operational on the date of sale to the extent such assets were operational on the date the Complaint was filed.
H. Defendants shall not take any action that will impede in any way the permitting, operation, or divestiture of the Divestiture Assets.
I. On or before the date of the divestiture pursuant to Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment, Defendant ABI shall enter into one or more transitional services agreements (collectively, the “Transition Services Agreements”) with the Acquirer for a period of up to one (1) year from the date of the divestiture required by Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment to provide such services with respect to the business of developing, producing, servicing, importing, distributing, marketing, and selling Miller-Branded Products outside the Territory (the “Miller International Business”) that are reasonably necessary to allow the Acquirer to operate the Miller International Business in a manner substantially consistent with the operation of such business prior to date of the divestiture of the Divestiture Assets. Defendant ABI shall perform all duties and provide any and all services required of Defendant ABI under the Transition Services Agreements. The Transition Services Agreements, and any amendments or modifications thereto, may be entered into only with the approval of the United States in its sole discretion. Nothing in the foregoing shall apply to any agreements regarding any ABI Divested Brands.
J. On or before the date of the divestiture pursuant to Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment, Defendant ABI shall enter into Interim Supply Agreements with the Acquirer for a period of up to three (3) years from the date of the divestiture required by Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment. Defendant ABI shall perform all duties and provide any and all services required of Defendant ABI under the Interim Supply Agreements. The Interim Supply Agreements, and any amendments, modifications, or extensions of the Interim Supply Agreements, may be entered into only with the approval of the United States in its sole discretion.
K. If the Acquirer seeks an extension of any of the Interim Supply Agreements covering Import Products, or if Defendant ABI and the Acquirer mutually agree to an extension of any of the Interim Supply Agreements covering Miller-Branded Products, the Acquirer shall so notify the United States in writing at least four (4) months prior to the date the Interim Supply Agreement(s) expires. The total term of the Interim Supply Agreements and any extension(s) so approved shall not exceed five (5) years. Nothing in the foregoing shall apply to any agreements regarding any ABI Divested Brands.
L. Unless the United States otherwise consents in writing, the divestiture pursuant to Section IV or Section VI shall include the entire Divestiture Assets, and shall be accomplished in such a way as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion, that the Divestiture Assets can and will be used by the Acquirer as part of a viable, ongoing business, engaged in brewing, developing, producing, distributing, marketing, and selling Beer. The divestiture shall be:
1. Made to an Acquirer that, in the United States' sole judgment, has the intent and capability (including the necessary managerial, operational, technical and financial capability) to compete in the business of brewing, developing, producing, and selling Beer;
2. accomplished so as to satisfy the United States, in its sole discretion, that none of the terms of the agreement between an Acquirer and Defendant ABI gives Defendants the ability unreasonably to raise the Acquirer's costs, to lower the Acquirer's efficiency, or otherwise to interfere in the ability of the Acquirer to compete effectively; and
3. made to an Acquirer who agrees to comply with the provisions of Section V.A of this Final Judgment, in a manner satisfactory to the United States, in its sole discretion.
A. Defendants agree, and Defendant ABI shall require any Acquirer to agree, that they will not cite the Transaction or the divestiture required by Section IV or VI of this Final Judgment as a basis for modifying, renegotiating, or terminating any contract with any Distributor.
B. Defendant ABI shall not acquire any equity interests in, or any ownership or control of the assets of, a Distributor if (i) such acquisition would transform said Distributor into an ABI-Owned Distributor, and (ii) as measured on the day of entering into an agreement for such acquisition more than ten percent (10%), by volume, of Defendant ABI's Beer sold in the Territory would be sold through ABI-Owned Distributors after such acquisition. Percentages of volume will be calculated using a twelve month trailing average as used in Defendant ABI's ordinary course, described in Attachment C.
C. If Defendants and the Acquirer enter into any new agreement(s) with each other with respect to the brewing, packaging, production, marketing, importing, distribution, or sale of Beer in the Territory, Defendants shall notify the United States of the new agreement(s) at least sixty (60) calendar days in advance of such agreement(s) becoming effective and such agreement(s) may only be entered into with the approval of the United States in its sole discretion.
D. Defendant ABI shall not unilaterally, or pursuant to the terms of any contract or agreement, provide any reward or penalty to, or in any other way condition its relationship with, an Independent Distributor or any employees or agents of that Independent Distributor based upon the amount of sales the Independent Distributor makes of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer or the marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of such Beer. Actions prohibited by this Sub-section include, but are not limited to:
1. Conditioning the availability of Defendant ABI's Beer on an Independent Distributor's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer;
2. Conditioning the prices, services, product support, rebates, discounts, buy backs, or other terms and conditions of sale of Defendant ABI's Beer that are offered to an Independent Distributor based on an Independent Distributor's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer;
3. Conditioning any agreement or program with an Independent Distributor on the fact that an Independent Distributor sells a Third-Party Brewer's Beer outside of the geographic area in which the Independent Distributor sells Defendant ABI's Beer;
4. Requiring an Independent Distributor to offer any incentive for selling Defendant ABI's Beer in connection with or in response to any incentive that the Independent Distributor offers for selling a Third-Party Brewer's Beer; and
5. Preventing an Independent Distributor from using best efforts to sell, market, advertise, or promote any Third-Party Brewer's Beer, which may be defined as efforts designed to achieve and maintain the highest practicable sales volume and retail placement of the Third Party Brewer's Beer in a geographic area.
E. Defendant ABI shall not disapprove an Independent Distributor's selection of a general manager or successor general manager based on the Independent Distributor's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer.
F. When exercising any right related to the transfer of control, ownership, or equity in any Distributor to any other Distributor, Defendant ABI shall not give weight to or base any decision to exercise such right upon either Distributor's business relationship with a Third-Party Brewer—including, but not limited to, such Distributor's sales, marketing, advertising, promotion, or retail placement of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer.
G. Defendant ABI shall not request or require an Independent Distributor to report to Defendant ABI, whether in aggregated or disaggregated form, the Independent Distributor's revenues, profits, margins, costs, sales volumes, or other financial information associated with the purchase, sale, or distribution of a Third-Party Brewer's Beer. Nothing in the foregoing sentence shall prohibit Defendant ABI from requesting the reporting of general financial information by an Independent Distributor to assess the overall financial condition and financial viability of such Independent Distributor, or the percentage of total Beer revenues received by the Independent Distributor in the prior year associated with the purchase, sale, or distribution of Defendant ABI's Beer distributed by the Independent Distributor, provided that the requested information does not disclose or enable Defendant ABI to infer the disaggregated revenues, profits, margins, costs, or sales volumes associated with the Independent Distributor's purchase, sale, or distribution of Third-Party Brewers' Beer. Nothing herein shall prevent Defendant ABI from conducting ordinary course due diligence in connection with any potential acquisition of an Independent Distributor.
H. Defendant ABI shall not discriminate against, penalize, or otherwise retaliate against any Distributor because such Distributor raises, alleges, or otherwise brings to the attention of the United States or the Monitoring Trustee an actual, potential, or perceived violation of Section V of this Final Judgment.
I. Within ten (10) business days after entry of this Final Judgment, Defendant ABI shall provide the United States, for the United States to approve in its sole discretion, with a proposed form of written notification to be provided to any Independent Distributor that
A. If following Completion of the Transaction Defendant ABI has not divested the Divestiture Assets within the time period specified in Section IV.A, Defendant ABI shall notify the United States of that fact in writing. Upon application of the United States, the Court shall appoint a Divestiture Trustee selected by the United States and approved by the Court to divest the Divestiture Assets in a manner consistent with this Final Judgment.
B. After the appointment of a Divestiture Trustee becomes effective, only the Divestiture Trustee shall have the right to sell the Divestiture Assets. The Divestiture Trustee shall have the power and authority to accomplish the divestiture to an Acquirer acceptable to the United States at such price and on such terms as are then obtainable upon reasonable effort by the Divestiture Trustee, subject to the provisions of Sections IV, VI, and VII of this Final Judgment, and shall have such other powers as this Court deems appropriate.
C. Subject to Section VI.E of this Final Judgment, the Divestiture Trustee may hire at the cost and expense of Defendant ABI any investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents, who shall be solely accountable to the Divestiture Trustee, reasonably necessary in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment to assist in the divestiture. Any such investment bankers, attorneys, or other agents shall serve on such terms and conditions as the United States approves including confidentiality requirements and conflict of interest certifications.
D. Defendant ABI shall not object to a sale by the Divestiture Trustee on any ground other than the Divestiture Trustee's malfeasance. Any such objection by Defendant ABI must be conveyed in writing to the United States and the Divestiture Trustee within ten (10) calendar days after the Divestiture Trustee has provided the notice required under Section VII.A.
E. The Divestiture Trustee shall serve at the cost and expense of Defendant ABI pursuant to a written agreement, on such terms and conditions as the United States approves including confidentiality requirements and conflict of interest certifications. The Divestiture Trustee shall account for all monies derived from the sale of the assets sold by the Divestiture Trustee and all costs and expenses so incurred. After approval by the Court of the Divestiture Trustee's accounting, including fees for its services yet unpaid and those of any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee, all remaining money shall be paid to Defendant ABI and the trust shall then be terminated. The compensation of the Divestiture Trustee and any professionals and agents retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall be reasonable in light of the value of the Divestiture Assets and based on a fee arrangement providing the Divestiture Trustee with an incentive based on the price and terms of the divestiture and the speed with which it is accomplished, but timeliness is paramount. If the Divestiture Trustee and Defendant ABI are unable to reach agreement on the Divestiture Trustee's or any agents' or consultants' compensation or other terms and conditions of engagement within fourteen (14) calendar days of appointment of the Divestiture Trustee, the United States may, in its sole discretion, take appropriate action, including making a recommendation to the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall, within three (3) business days of hiring any other professionals or agents, provide written notice of such hiring and the rate of compensation to Defendant ABI and the United States. Defendant ABI shall use its best efforts to assist the Divestiture Trustee in accomplishing the required divestiture. The Divestiture Trustee and any consultants, accountants, attorneys, and other persons retained by the Divestiture Trustee shall have full and complete access to the personnel, books, records, and facilities of the business to be divested, and Defendant ABI shall develop financial and other information relevant to such business as the Divestiture Trustee may reasonably request, subject to reasonable protection for trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information. Defendant ABI shall take no action to interfere with or to impede the Divestiture Trustee's accomplishment of the divestiture.
F. After its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall file monthly reports with the United States and the Court setting forth the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the divestiture ordered under this Final Judgment. To the extent such reports contain information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such reports shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. Such reports shall include the name, address, and telephone number of each person who, during the preceding month, made an offer to acquire, expressed an interest in acquiring, entered into negotiations to acquire, or was contacted or made an inquiry about acquiring the Divestiture Assets, and shall describe in detail each contact with any such person. The Divestiture Trustee shall maintain full records of all efforts made to divest the Divestiture Assets.
G. If the Divestiture Trustee has not accomplished the divestiture ordered under this Final Judgment within six (6) months after its appointment, the Divestiture Trustee shall promptly file with the Court a report setting forth (1) the Divestiture Trustee's efforts to accomplish the required divestiture, (2) the reasons, in the Divestiture Trustee's judgment, why the required divestiture has not been accomplished, and (3) the Divestiture Trustee's recommendations. To the extent such reports contain information that the Divestiture Trustee deems confidential, such reports shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court. The Divestiture Trustee shall at the same time furnish such report to Defendant ABI and to the United States, which shall have the right to make additional recommendations consistent with the purpose of the trust. The Court thereafter shall enter such orders as it shall deem appropriate to carry out the purpose of the Final Judgment, which may, if necessary, include extending the trust and the term of the Divestiture Trustee's appointment by a period requested by the United States.
H. If the United States determines that the Divestiture Trustee has ceased to act or failed to act diligently or in a reasonably cost-effective manner, it may recommend the Court appoint a substitute Divestiture Trustee.
A. Within two (2) business days following execution of a definitive divestiture agreement with an Acquirer other than Molson Coors, Defendant ABI or the Divestiture Trustee, whichever is then responsible for effecting the divestiture required herein, shall notify the United States of any proposed divestiture required by Section IV of this Final Judgment. If the Divestiture Trustee is responsible, it shall similarly notify Defendant ABI. The notice shall set forth the details of the proposed divestiture and list the name, address, and telephone number of each person who offered or expressed an interest in or desire to acquire any ownership interest in the Divestiture Assets or, in the case of the Divestiture Trustee, any update of the information required to be provided under Section VI.G above.
B. Within fifteen (15) calendar days of receipt by the United States of such notice, the United States may request from Defendant ABI, the proposed Acquirer, any other third party, or the Divestiture Trustee if applicable, additional information concerning the proposed divestiture, the proposed Acquirer, and any other potential Acquirer. Defendant ABI and the Divestiture Trustee shall furnish any additional information requested within fifteen (15) calendar days of the receipt of the request, unless the parties shall otherwise agree.
C. Within thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of the notice or within twenty (20) calendar days after the United States has been provided the additional information requested from Defendant ABI, the proposed Acquirer, any third party, and the Divestiture Trustee, whichever is later, the United States shall provide written notice to Defendant ABI and the Divestiture Trustee, stating whether or not it objects to the proposed divestiture. If the United States provides written notice that it does not object, the divestiture may be consummated, subject only to Defendant ABI's limited right to object to the sale under Section VI.D of this Final Judgment. Absent written notice that the United States does not object to the proposed Acquirer or upon objection by the United States, a divestiture proposed under Section VI shall not be consummated. Upon objection by Defendant ABI under Section VI.D, a divestiture proposed under Section VI shall not be consummated unless approved by the Court.
A. Upon the filing of this Final Judgment, the United States may, in its sole discretion, appoint a Monitoring Trustee, subject to approval by the Court.
B. The Monitoring Trustee shall have the power and authority to monitor Defendants' compliance with the terms of this Final Judgment and the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order entered by this Court, and shall have such other powers as this Court deems appropriate. The Monitoring Trustee shall investigate and report on the Defendants' compliance with their respective obligations under this Final Judgment and Defendants' efforts to effectuate the purposes of this Final Judgment, including but not limited to, reviewing (a) complaints that Defendant ABI has violated Section V of this Final Judgment; (b) the implementation of the compliance plan required by Section XIII.B of this Final Judgment; and (c) any claimed breach of the Transition Services Agreements, License Agreements, Interim Supply Agreements, or other agreement between Defendant ABI and the Acquirer that may affect the accomplishment of the purposes of this Final Judgment. If the Monitoring Trustee determines that any violation of the Final Judgment or breach of any related agreement has occurred, the Monitoring Trustee shall recommend an appropriate remedy to the Antitrust Division of the United States Department of Justice (the “Antitrust Division”), which, in its sole discretion, can accept, modify, or reject a recommendation to pursue a remedy.
C. Subject to Section VIII.E of this Final Judgment, the Monitoring Trustee may hire at the cost and expense of Defendant ABI, any consultants, accountants, attorneys, or other persons, who shall be solely accountable to the Monitoring Trustee, reasonably necessary in the Monitoring Trustee's judgment.
D. Defendants shall not object to actions taken by the Monitoring Trustee in fulfillment of the Monitoring Trustee's responsibilities on any ground other than the Monitoring Trustee's malfeasance. Any such objection by Defendants must be conveyed in writing to the United States and the Monitoring Trustee within ten (10) calendar days after the action taken by the Monitoring Trustee giving rise to Defendants' objection.
E. The Monitoring Trustee shall serve at the cost and expense of Defendant ABI on such terms and conditions as the United States approves. The compensation of the Monitoring Trustee and any consultants, accountants, attorneys, and other persons retained by the Monitoring Trustee shall be on reasonable and customary terms commensurate with the individuals' experience and responsibilities. The Monitoring Trustee shall, within three (3) business days of hiring any consultants, accountants, attorneys, or other persons, provide written notice of such hiring and the rate of compensation to Defendant ABI.
F. The Monitoring Trustee shall have no responsibility or obligation for the operation of Defendants' businesses.
G. Defendants shall use their best efforts to assist the Monitoring Trustee in monitoring Defendants' compliance with their respective obligations under this Final Judgment and under the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order. The Monitoring Trustee and any consultants, accountants, attorneys, and other persons retained by the Monitoring Trustee shall have full and complete access to the personnel, books, records, and facilities relating to compliance with this Final Judgment, subject to reasonable protection for trade secret or other confidential research, development, or commercial information or any applicable privileges, to the extent Defendants have the right to provide such access. Defendants shall take no action to interfere with or to impede the Monitoring Trustee's accomplishment of its responsibilities.
H. After its appointment, the Monitoring Trustee shall file reports every ninety (90) days, or more frequently as needed, with the United States and, as appropriate, the Court setting forth the Defendants' efforts to comply with their individual obligations under this Final Judgment and under the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order. To the extent such reports contain information that the Monitoring Trustee deems confidential, such reports shall not be filed in the public docket of the Court.
I. The Monitoring Trustee shall serve until the sale of all the Divestiture Assets is finalized pursuant to either Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment and the Transition Services Agreements and the Interim Supply Agreements have expired and all other relief has been completed as defined in Section V unless the United States, in its sole discretion, authorizes the early termination of the Monitoring Trustee's service.
Defendants shall not finance all or any part of any purchase made pursuant
Until the divestiture required by this Final Judgment has been accomplished, or the Transaction is abandoned by the Defendants in accordance with the terms of the Co-Operation Agreement between the Defendants dated November 11, 2015 and the United States has notified the Court, Defendants shall take all steps necessary to comply with the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order entered by this Court. Defendants shall take no action that would jeopardize the divestiture ordered by this Court.
A. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of this proposed Final Judgment, and every thirty (30) calendar days thereafter until the divestiture has been completed under Section IV or Section VI, each Defendant shall deliver to the United States an affidavit as to the fact and manner of its compliance with Section IV or Section VI of this Final Judgment. Each such affidavit on behalf of Defendant ABI shall also include the name, address, and telephone number of each person who, during the preceding thirty (30) calendar days, made an offer to acquire, expressed an interest in acquiring, entered into negotiations to acquire, or was contacted or made an inquiry about acquiring, any interest in the Divestiture Assets, and shall describe in detail each contact with any such person during that period. Defendant ABI's affidavit shall also include a description of the efforts Defendant ABI has taken to solicit buyers for the Divestiture Assets, and to provide required information to prospective Acquirers, including the limitations, if any, on such information. Assuming the information set forth in the affidavit is true and complete, any objection by the United States to information provided by Defendants, including limitation on information, shall be made within fourteen (14) calendar days of receipt of such affidavit.
B. Within twenty (20) calendar days of the filing of this proposed Final Judgment, each Defendant shall deliver to the United States an affidavit that describes in reasonable detail all actions it has taken and all steps it has implemented on an ongoing basis to comply with Section X of this Final Judgment. Each Defendant shall deliver to the United States an affidavit describing any changes to the efforts and actions outlined in its earlier affidavits filed pursuant to this section within fifteen (15) calendar days after the change is implemented.
C. Defendants shall keep all records of all efforts made to preserve and divest the Divestiture Assets until one year after the date of the divestiture.
A. Unless such transaction is otherwise subject to the reporting and waiting period requirements of the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18a (the “HSR Act”), Defendant ABI, without providing at least thirty (30) calendar days advance notification to the United States, shall not directly or indirectly acquire or license a Covered Interest in or from a Covered Entity.
B. Any such notification shall be provided to the Antitrust Division in the same format as, and per the instructions relating to the Notification and Report Form set forth in the Appendix to Part 803 of Title 16 of the Code of Federal Regulations as amended. Notification shall be provided at least thirty (30) calendar days prior to acquiring any such interest. If within the 30-day period after notification, representatives of the Antitrust Division make a written request for additional information, Defendant ABI shall not consummate the proposed transaction or agreement until thirty (30) calendar days after submitting all such additional information. Early termination of the waiting periods in this paragraph may be requested and, where appropriate, granted in the same manner as is applicable under the requirements and provisions of the HSR Act and rules promulgated thereunder.
C. All references to the HSR Act in this Final Judgment refer to the HSR Act as it exists at the time of the transaction or agreement and incorporate any subsequent amendments to the HSR Act. This Section XII shall be broadly construed and any ambiguity or uncertainty regarding the filing of notice under this Section XII shall be resolved in favor of filing notice.
A. Each Defendant shall implement and maintain procedures to prevent the disclosure of Confidential Information by or through Defendants to Defendants' respective affiliates who are involved in the marketing, distribution, or sale of Beer or other beverages in the Territory, or to any other person who does not have a need to know the information.
B. Each Defendant shall, within ten (10) business days of the entry of the Hold Separate Stipulation and Order, submit to the United States a compliance plan setting forth in detail the procedures implemented to effect compliance with Section XIII.A of this Final Judgment. In the event that the United States rejects a Defendant's compliance plan, that Defendant shall be given the opportunity to submit, within ten (10) business days of receiving the notice of rejection, a revised compliance plan. If the United States and a Defendant cannot agree on a compliance plan, the United States shall have the right to request that the Court rule on whether the Defendant's proposed compliance plan is reasonable.
C. Each Defendant may submit to the United States evidence relating to the actual operation of its respective compliance plan in support of a request to modify such compliance plan set forth in this Section XIII. In determining whether it would be appropriate to consent to modify the compliance plan, the United States, in its sole discretion, shall consider the need to protect Confidential Information and the impact the compliance plan has had on Defendant ABI's ability to efficiently provide services, supplies, and products under the Transition Services Agreements, the License Agreements, the Interim Supply Agreements, and any agreements entered into between Defendant ABI and the Acquirer subject to Section V.C.
D. Defendants shall prior to the Completion of the Transaction, and Defendant ABI shall following Closing:
1. Furnish a copy of this Final Judgment and related Competitive Impact Statement within sixty (60) days of entry of the Final Judgment to (a) each officer, director, and any other employee that will receive Confidential Information; (b) each officer, director, and any other employee that is involved in (i) any contact with the Acquirer or MillerCoors, (ii) making decisions under the Transition Services Agreements, the License Agreements, the Interim Supply Agreements, and any agreements entered into between Defendants and the Acquirer subject to Section V.C, or (iii) making decisions regarding Defendant ABI's relationships with, agreements with, or policies regarding Distributors; and (c) any successor to a person designated in Section XIII.D.1(a) or (b);
2. annually brief each person designated in Section XIII.D.1 on the meaning and requirements of this Final Judgment and the antitrust laws; and
3. obtain from each person designated in Section XIII.D.1, within sixty (60) days of that person's receipt of the Final Judgment, a certification that he or she (i) has read and, to the best of his or her ability, understands and agrees to abide
A. For the purposes of determining or securing compliance with this Final Judgment, or of determining whether the Final Judgment should be modified or vacated, and subject to any legally recognized privilege, from time to time authorized representatives of the Antitrust Division, including consultants and other persons retained by the United States, shall, upon written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, and on reasonable notice to Defendants, be permitted:
1. Access during Defendants' office hours to inspect and copy, or at the option of the United States, to require Defendants to provide hard copy or electronic copies of, all books, ledgers, accounts, records, data, and documents in the possession, custody, or control of Defendants, relating to any matters contained in this Final Judgment; and
2. to interview, either informally or on the record, Defendants' officers, employees, or agents, who may have their individual counsel present, regarding such matters. The interviews shall be subject to the reasonable convenience of the interviewee and without restraint or interference by Defendants.
B. Upon the written request of an authorized representative of the Assistant Attorney General in charge of the Antitrust Division, Defendants shall submit written reports or respond to written interrogatories, under oath if requested, relating to any of the matters contained in this Final Judgment as may be requested. Written reports authorized under this paragraph may, at the sole discretion of the United States, require Defendants to conduct, at Defendants' cost, an independent audit or analysis relating to any of the matters contained in this Final Judgment.
C. No information or documents obtained by the means provided in this section shall be divulged by the United States to any person other than an authorized representative of the executive branch of the United States, except in the course of legal proceedings to which the United States is a party (including grand jury proceedings), or for the purpose of securing compliance with this Final Judgment, or as otherwise required by law.
D. If at the time information or documents are furnished by Defendants to the United States, Defendants represent and identify in writing the material in any such information or documents to which a claim of protection may be asserted under the Protective Order, then the United States shall give Defendants ten (10) calendar days notice prior to divulging such material in any legal proceeding (other than a grand jury proceeding).
Defendant ABI may not reacquire any part of the Divestiture Assets during the term of this Final Judgment.
The failure of any party to any agreement entered into to comply with this Final Judgment to perform any remaining obligations of such party under the agreement shall not excuse performance by the other party of its obligations thereunder. Accordingly, for purposes of Section 365(n) of the Bankruptcy Reform Act of 1978, as amended, and codified as 11 U.S.C. 101
This Court retains jurisdiction to enable any party to this Final Judgment to apply to this Court at any time for further orders and directions as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out or construe this Final Judgment, to modify any of its provisions, to ensure and enforce compliance, and to punish violations of its provisions.
Unless this Court grants an extension, this Final Judgment shall expire ten (10) years from the date of its entry.
Entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest. The parties have complied with the requirements of the Antitrust Procedures and Penalties Act, 15 U.S.C. 16, including making copies available to the public of this Final Judgment, the Competitive Impact Statement, and any comments thereon and the United States' responses to comments. Based upon the record before the Court, which includes the Competitive Impact Statement and any comments and response to comments filed with the Court, entry of this Final Judgment is in the public interest.
For purposes of Section V.B., the percentage of Defendant ABI's Beer sold by ABI-Owned Distributors in the Territory will be calculated according to the following formula:
Where X and Y are defined as:
X = volume of Defendant ABI's Beer that was sold by ABI-Owned Distributors to retailers in the Territory, as indicated by the most comprehensive data then used by ABI (currently, ABI's BudNet system), during the Relevant Period. The Relevant Period, for purposes of this Attachment C, shall be the 12 month period ending at the month-end immediately prior to the execution of the acquisition agreement governing the acquisition by ABI of the assets or equity interest, as applicable, of a Distributor. For the avoidance of doubt, X will include the volume of Defendants' Beer that was sold during the Relevant Period to retailers in the territory by the Distributor whose assets or equity interests are the subject of the acquisition agreement.
Y = volume of Defendant ABI's Beer that was sold to retailers in the Territory during the Relevant Period, as indicated by the most comprehensive data then used by ABI (currently, ABI's BudNet system).
On July 28, 2016, a Notice of Settlement Among EFH Properties Company and the United States on behalf of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (“EPA”) and the U.S. Department of the Interior (“DOI”) was filed with the United States Bankruptcy Court for the District of Delaware in the bankruptcy proceeding entitled
The Settlement Agreement resolves a claim against EFH Properties Company (“EFH Properties”), as the alleged corporate successor to former mine operators, asserted by the United States on behalf of the Environmental Protection Agency under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act, 42 U.S.C. 9601-9675 (“CERCLA”). The claim sought to recover costs incurred and expected to be incurred in the future by the United States in response to releases and threats of releases of hazardous substances at or in connection with the Faith, Hope, Doris, and Isabella Uranium Mine Sites, located in McKinley County, New Mexico (“New Mexico Sites”).
Under the Settlement Agreement, EPA will receive $4,000,000.00. The Settlement Agreement contains covenants not to sue by the United States on behalf of EPA in favor of EFH Properties and its predecessors, Chaco Energy Company, TXU Industries Company LLC, and EFH Properties Company LLC (the “Covenant Beneficiaries”), under Sections 106 and 107 of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9606, 9607 and Section 7003 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, 42 U.S.C. 6973, with respect to the EPA claim or the New Mexico Sites. The Settlement Agreement also contains a covenant not to sue by the United States on behalf of DOI in favor of the Covenant Beneficiaries, for natural resources damages claims under Sections 107 of CERCLA, 42 U.S.C. 9607, with respect to the EPA claim or the New Mexico Sites.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the Settlement Agreement. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
Under section 7003(d) of RCRA, a commenter may request an opportunity for a public meeting in the affected area.
During the public comment period, the Settlement Agreement may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $13.50 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury.
Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until October 3, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Michael Planty, Deputy Director, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
Overview of this information collection:
(1)
(2)
(3)
This collection includes the following forms:
• Form CJ-11: Arrest-Related Deaths Quarterly Summary. This form is distributed to all law enforcement agencies (LEAs). This summary form requests that LEA respondents confirm deaths identified through open-source review, correct decedent name and date of death as appropriate, and identify any other arrest-related deaths that were not found through open-source review. It requests any LEAs without any deaths to provide an affirmative zero.
• Form CJ-11A: Arrest-Related Death Incident Report. This form is distributed to all
• Form CJ-12: Arrest-Related Deaths Quarterly Summary. This form is distributed to all medical examiner's or coroner's (ME/C) offices with jurisdiction concurrent with that of the LEAs with a potential arrest-related death. This summary form requests that ME/C respondents confirm deaths identified, correct decedent name and date of death as appropriate, and identify any other arrest-related deaths.
• Form CJ-12A: Arrest-Related Death Incident Report. This form is distributed to all
The applicable component within the Department of Justice is the Bureau of Justice Statistics, in the Office of Justice Programs.
(4)
The BJS designed the ARD program to be a census of all deaths that occur during the process of arrest or during an attempt to obtain custody by a state or local LEA in the United States. BJS defined the manner of arrest-related death to include law enforcement homicides, other homicides, accidents, suicides, or deaths due to natural causes. Law enforcement homicides included all deaths attributed to weapons or restraint tactics used by state or local law enforcement officers, including deaths due to officer-involved shootings; complications related to the use of conducted energy devices, such as Tasers and stun guns; accidents caused by the use of spike strips or other tire deflation devices; injuries due to the use of impact devices, such as batons and soft projectiles; complications due to the use of chemical agents such as pepper spray and tear gas; and other injuries or complications related to the use of restraint tactics.
The ARD program was the only national data collection that attempted to enumerate all arrest-related deaths in the United States, including accidental and natural deaths that occurred during the process of arrest in addition to law enforcement homicides. Because of concerns about variations in data collection methodology and coverage, BJS recently conducted an assessment of its ARD program. Because accurate and comprehensive accounting of deaths that occur during the process of arrest is critical for LEAs to demonstrate responsiveness to the citizens and communities they serve, transparency
The redesigned methodology includes a standardized mixed method, hybrid approach relying on open sources to identify eligible cases, followed by data requests from law enforcement and medical examiner/coroner offices for incident-specific information about the decedent and circumstances surrounding the event.
To identify respondents for the agency survey, open sources are reviewed and a list of potential arrest-related deaths are compiled. This list is checked for duplication to develop a list of unique cases. Then LEAs and ME/Cs with jurisdiction in these cases are contacted to (1) confirm, where indicated, whether the incident meets the definition of an arrest-related death and other inclusionary criteria; (2) identify any additional arrest-related deaths that BJS did not identify during its open-source review; and (3) collect additional information about the decedent and the circumstances surrounding the incident for all identified arrest-related deaths. Specifically the following items are collected:
(a) Identifying information, LEA involved, state, decedent name, date/time of death.
(b) Location of incident.
(c) Decedent demographics.
(d) Precipitating events, reason for initial contact, did decedent commit or allegedly commit any crimes.
(e) Decedent behavior during the incident, barricade, threaten, assault, escape; exhibit mental health problems or appear to be intoxicated; possess or appear to possess a weapon; use a weapon to threaten or assault; attempt to injure officers or others.
(f) Law enforcement actions during the incident, engage in pursuit or restraint tactics; use of force; if firearm discharged, how many shots fired; number of officers and LEAs that responded top incident.
(g) Manner of death.
(a) Identifying information, LEA involved, state, decedent name, date/time of death.
(b) Location of incident.
(c) Decedent demographics.
(d) Whether autopsy was performed.
(e) Manner of death
(f) Cause of death.
(g) If died from injuries, how were those injuries sustained.
(h) If weapon caused death, what type of weapon.
(5)
(6) For the 2017 collection, LEAs will be asked to report quarterly. It is expected that 19,106 will report zero incidents with an estimated total burden of 60 minutes for 2017. Approximately 1,066 agencies will report an average of 1.79 incidents with an estimated burden of 142 minutes. The burden is higher in 2017 due to quarterly reporting. A total LEAs burden of 20,440 hours associated with 2017. For ME/Cs, and estimated 685 offices will be asked to submit an average 2.79 incident forms incident form with an estimated burden 49 minutes. A total ME/C burden of 1,897 hours associated with 2017.
(7)
If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
On July 29, 2016, the Department of Justice lodged a proposed consent decree with the United States District Court for the Southern District of Georgia in the lawsuit entitled
The United States, on behalf of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), filed this lawsuit under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA). The complaint seeks performance of response actions to address contamination of mercury, polychlorinated biphenyls, lead, and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons in the saltwater marsh at the LCP Chemicals Superfund Site in Brunswick, Georgia. It also seeks recovery of costs that the United States will incur in overseeing implementation of the response actions. The marsh is known as “Operable Unit 1,” one of three contaminated areas at the Site.
The proposed consent decree would resolve the claims alleged in the complaint. It requires the defendants, Honeywell International Inc. and Georgia Power Company, to implement the remedy selected by EPA for Operable Unit 1, which is estimated to cost $28.6 million. The consent decree also requires the defendants to pay future response costs incurred by EPA at Operable Unit 1.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the consent decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to
During the public comment period, the consent decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $322.00 (25 cents per page reproduction cost) payable to the United States Treasury. For a paper copy without the exhibits and signature pages, the cost is $9.25.
The Advisory Committee on Increasing Competitive Integrated Employment for Individuals with Disabilities (the Committee) was mandated by section 609 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended by section 461 of the Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA). The Secretary of Labor established the Committee on September 15, 2014, in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 2. The purpose of the Committee is to study and prepare findings, conclusions and recommendations for Congress and the Secretary of Labor on (1) ways to increase employment opportunities for individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities or other individuals with significant disabilities in competitive, integrated employment; (2) the use of the certificate program carried out under section 14(c) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 (29 U.S.C. 214(c)); and (3) ways to improve oversight of the use of such certificates.
The Committee is required to meet no less than eight times. The committee submitted an Interim Report to the Secretary of Labor; the Senate Committee on Health, Education, Labor and Pensions; and the House Committee on Education and the Workforce on September 15, 2015. A Final Report must be submitted to the same entities no later than September 15, 2016. The Committee terminates one day after the submission of the Final Report.
The next meeting of the Committee will be open to the public and take place by webinar on Monday, August 29, 2016. The meeting will take from 1:00 p.m. to 2:00 p.m., Eastern Daylight Time.
On August 29th, the Committee will meet to confirm consensus on the Final Report. Members of the public wishing to participate in the webinar must register in advance of the meeting, by Friday, August 19, 2016, using the following link—
Organizations or members of the public wishing to submit a written statement may do so by submitting their statement on or before August 19, 2016, to
Please ensure that any written submission is in an accessible format or the submission will be returned. Further, it is requested that statements not be included in the body of an email. Statements deemed relevant by the Committee and received on or before August 19, 2016 will be included in the record of the meeting. Do not include any personally identifiable information (such as name, address, or other contact information) or confidential business information that you do not want publicly disclosed.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on July 29, 2015, applicable to workers and former workers of Cooper Power Systems, Power Delivery Division, an Eaton Corporation Company, formerly Cooper Industries, including on-site leased workers from Manpower, Tec Staffing, Infotree Services, Fayetteville, Arkansas. The Department's Notice of determination was published in the
At the request of State of Arkansas, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. Workers from Advantage Resourcing were employed on-site at the Fayetteville, Arkansas location of the subject firm. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm to be considered leased workers.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from Advantage Resourcing working on-site at the Fayetteville, Arkansas location of Cooper Power Systems.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-86,004 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Cooper Power Systems, Power Delivery Division, an Eaton Corporation Company, formerly Cooper Industries, including on-site leased workers from Manpower, Tec Staffing, Infotree Services, and Advantage Resourcing, Fayetteville, Arkansas, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after May 8, 2014, through July 29, 2017, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on the date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
Petitions have been filed with the Secretary of Labor under Section 221 (a) of the Trade Act of 1974 (“the Act”) and are identified in the Appendix to this notice. Upon receipt of these petitions, the Director of the Office of Trade
The purpose of each of the investigations is to determine whether the workers are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Title II, Chapter 2, of the Act. The investigations will further relate, as appropriate, to the determination of the date on which total or partial separations began or threatened to begin and the subdivision of the firm involved.
The petitioners or any other persons showing a substantial interest in the subject matter of the investigations may request a public hearing, provided such request is filed in writing with the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, no later than (insert date ten days after publication in FR).
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments regarding the subject matter of the investigations to the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, not later than (insert date ten days after publication in FR).
The petitions filed in this case are available for inspection at the Office of the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-5428, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on June 3, 2014, applicable to workers and former workers of General Electric Company, Transportation Division, including on-site leased workers from Adecco, Erie, Pennsylvania. On January 28, 2015, the Department issued an amended certification to include on-site leased workers from Yoh Services LLC.
At the request of the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm.
The company reports that workers leased from CH2MHill and GGS Information Services were on-site at the Erie, Pennsylvania location of General Electric Company, Transportation Division. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm to be considered leased workers.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from CH2MHill and GGS Information Services working on-site at the Erie, Pennsylvania location of General Electric Company, Transportation Division.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-83,328 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of General Electric Company, Transportation Division, including on-site leased workers from Adecco, Yoh Services LLC, CH2MHill, and GGS Information Services, Erie, Pennsylvania, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after December 20, 2012 through June 3, 2016, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on the date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2273) the Department of Labor herein presents summaries of determinations regarding eligibility to apply for trade adjustment assistance for workers by (TA-W) number issued during the period of
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for workers of a primary firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(a) of the Act must be met.
I. Under Section 222(a)(2)(A), the following must be satisfied:
(1) A significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the sales or production, or both, of such firm have decreased absolutely; and
(3) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) Imports of articles or services like or directly competitive with articles produced or services supplied by such firm have increased;
(B) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles into which one or more component parts produced by such firm are directly incorporated, have increased;
(C) imports of articles directly incorporating one or more component parts produced outside the United States that are like or directly competitive with imports of articles incorporating one or more component parts produced by such firm have increased;
(D) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles which are produced directly using services supplied by such firm, have increased; and
(4) the increase in imports contributed importantly to such workers' separation or threat of separation and to the decline in the sales or production of such firm; or
II. Section 222(a)(2)(B) all of the following must be satisfied:
(1) A significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) There has been a shift by the workers' firm to a foreign country in the production of articles or supply of services like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm;
(B) there has been an acquisition from a foreign country by the workers' firm of articles/services that are like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm; and
(3) the shift/acquisition contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected secondary workers of a firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(b) of the Act must be met.
(1) a significant number or proportion of the workers in the workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the workers' firm is a Supplier or Downstream Producer to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act, and such supply or production is related to the article or service that was the basis for such certification; and
(3) either—
(A) the workers' firm is a supplier and the component parts it supplied to the firm described in paragraph (2) accounted for at least 20 percent of the production or sales of the workers' firm; or
(B) a loss of business by the workers' firm with the firm described in paragraph (2) contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected workers in firms identified by the International Trade Commission and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group
(1) the workers' firm is publicly identified by name by the International Trade Commission as a member of a domestic industry in an investigation resulting in—
(A) an affirmative determination of serious injury or threat thereof under section 202(b)(1);
(B) an affirmative determination of market disruption or threat thereof under section 421(b)(1); or
(C) an affirmative final determination of material injury or threat thereof under section 705(b)(1)(A) or 735(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b)(1)(A) and 1673d(b)(1)(A));
(2) the petition is filed during the 1-year period beginning on the date on which—
(A) a summary of the report submitted to the President by the International Trade Commission under section 202(f)(1) with respect to the affirmative determination described in paragraph (1)(A) is published in the
(B) notice of an affirmative determination described in subparagraph (1) is published in the
(3) the workers have become totally or partially separated from the workers' firm within—
(A) the 1-year period described in paragraph (2); or
(B) not withstanding section 223(b)(1), the 1-year period preceding the 1-year period described in paragraph (2).
The following certifications have been issued. The date following the company name and location of each determination references the impact date for all workers of such determination.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(A) (increased imports) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(b) (supplier to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA) of the Trade Act have been met.
In the following cases, the investigation revealed that the eligibility criteria for worker adjustment assistance have not been met for the reasons specified.
The investigation revealed that the criterion under paragraph (a)(1) and (b)(1) (employment decline or threat of separation) of section 222 has not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs (a)(2)(A)(i) (decline in sales or production, or both) and (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country) of section 222 have not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs(a)(2)(A) (increased imports) and (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country) of section 222 have not been met.
After notice of the petitions was published in the
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioning groups of workers are covered by active certifications. Consequently, further investigation in these cases would serve no purpose since the petitioning group of workers cannot be covered by more than one certification at a time.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitions are the subject of ongoing investigations under petitions filed earlier covering the same petitioners.
I hereby certify that the aforementioned determinations were issued during the period of
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on June 1, 2016, applicable to workers of Sherwin Alumina Company, LLC, Gregory, Texas. The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of State Workforce Office, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers are engaged in activities related to the production of alumina.
New information shows that workers separated from employment at Sherwin Alumina Company, LLC, Gregory, Texas had their wages reported through a separate unemployment insurance (UI) tax account under the name Host Terminals. Host Terminals is a separate entity owned by T. Parker Host.
The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected by customer imports of alumina.
Accordingly, the Department is amending this certification to properly reflect this matter.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-91,611 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Sherwin Alumina Company, LLC, including on-site leased workers from CCC Group, McWhorter Electric, MMR Constructors, Inc., DOLS Managed Workforce, First Instrument Solutions, T. Parker Host, Rexco, GP Strategies, JM Davidson, Palacios Marine & Industrial, All Specialty, LK Jordan, Strom, and St. James Stevedoring Partners, LLC, including workers whose unemployment insurance (UI) wages are reported through Host Terminals, Gregory, Texas who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after March 21, 2015 through June 1, 2018, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
As required by the Trade Adjustment Assistance Reauthorization Act of 2015 (TAARA 2015), which was enacted as Title IV of the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, Public Law 114-27, section 405(a)(1)(A), the investigation into this petition was reopened for a reconsideration investigation to apply the requirements for worker group eligibility under chapter 2 of title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended by the TAARA 2015, to the facts of this petition (statutory reconsideration).
The initial investigation, initiated June 12, 2014, resulted in a negative determination, issued on September 30, 2014, that was based on worker separations not being attributable to increased imports or a shift in production. A complaint was filed with the United States Court of International Trade (USCIT) on November 28, 2014 (No. 14-00314); however, a joint dismissal of the case was filed on July 20, 2015. During the Remand investigation, the worker group was clarified to be GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization, Atlanta, Georgia (hereafter referred to as “GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization”). The workers' firm is engaged in activities related to the supply of designing, testing, documenting, and engineering services.
“Firm includes an individual proprietorship, partnership, joint venture, association, corporation (including a development corporation), business trust, cooperative, trustee in bankruptcy, and receiver under decree of any court.” 29 CFR 90.2
Based on information reviewed during the reconsideration investigation, the Department of Labor determines that a shift in services to a
Section 222(a)(1) has been met because a significant number or proportion of the workers in GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization, Atlanta, Georgia have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated.
Section 222(a)(2)(B) has been met because the workers' firm has shifted to a foreign country a portion of the supply of services like or directly competitive with the services supplied by the subject workers which contributed importantly to worker group separations at GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization, Atlanta, Georgia.
After careful review, I determine that workers of GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization, Atlanta, Georgia, who are engaged in activities related to the internal supply of designing, testing, documenting, and engineering services, meet the worker group certification criteria under Section 222(a) of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2272(a). In accordance with Section 223 of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2273, I make the following certification:
All workers of GE Industrial Solutions Service Engineering Organization, Atlanta, Georgia, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after June 11, 2013, through two years from the date of certification, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on the date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
By application dated December 9, 2015, the Department of Labor (Department) received a request for administrative reconsideration of the Department's Notice of Termination of Investigation regarding workers' eligibility to apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance (TAA) applicable to workers and former workers of the subject firm. The determination was issued on November 13, 2015. The determination was based on the Department's finding that the petitioning workers are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under an existing certification.
In the request for reconsideration, the State of Texas stated that the workers who filed the petition are not part of the certified worker group at 8801 Fallbrook Drive, Houston, Texas but are part of a separately identifiable worker group at 8807 Fallbrook Drive, Houston, Texas.
The Department has carefully reviewed the request for reconsideration and the existing record, and has determined that the Department will conduct further investigation to determine if the workers meet the eligibility requirements of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
After careful review of the application, I conclude that the claim is of sufficient weight to justify reconsideration of the U.S. Department of Labor's prior decision. The application is, therefore, granted.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on July 30, 2015, applicable to workers of Modine Manufacturing Company, including on-site leased workers from Seek Professionals, LLC and Securitas Security Services USA, Inc., Washington, Iowa. The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of State Workforce Office, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm.
The company reports that workers leased from Entegee were employed on-site at the Washington, Iowa location of Modine Manufacturing Company. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm to be considered leased workers.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from Entegee working on-site at the Washington, Iowa location of Modine Manufacturing Company.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-85,961 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Modine Manufacturing Company, including on-site leased workers from Seek Professionals, LLC, Securitas Security Services USA, Inc., and Entegee, Washington, Iowa, who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after April 24, 2014, through July 30, 2017, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on the date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL), Employment and Training Administration is soliciting comments concerning a proposed extension for the authority to conduct the information collection request (ICR) titled, “Work Opportunity Tax Credit (WOTC).” This comment request is part of continuing Departmental efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden in
Consideration will be given to all written comments received by October 3, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free by contacting Carmen Ortiz, WOTC National Coordinator, by telephone at 202-693-2786 (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
Submit written comments about, or requests for a copy of, this ICR by mail or courier to the U.S. Department of Labor, Employment and Training Administration, Attention: Carmen Ortiz, Room C-4510 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210; by email:
Contact Carmen Ortiz, WOTC National Coordinator, by telephone at 202-693-2786 (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
The DOL, as part of continuing efforts to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and Federal agencies an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information before submitting them to the OMB for final approval. This program helps to ensure requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements can be properly assessed.
The Work Opportunity Tax Credit (WOTC) program is authorized under § 51 and 3111(e) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) and the Small Business Job Protection Act of 1996, (Pub. L. 104-188), including Title 26 U.S.C. The WOTC program is currently extended and amended by the Protecting Americans from Tax Hikes Act of 2015, (Pub. L. 114-113), div. Q (PATH Act). See attached PATH Act, which authorizes this information collection. The WOTC is a Federal tax credit available to employers for hiring individuals from certain target groups who have consistently faced significant barriers to employment. On December 18, 2015, President Obama signed into law the PATH Act that retroactively reauthorizes the WOTC program and all its current target groups for a five-year period, from January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2019. Additionally the PATH Act extends the Empowerment Zones for a two-year period, from December 31, 2014 to December 31, 2016, and introduces a new target group, Qualified Long-term Unemployment Recipients, for new hires that begin to work for an employer on or after January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2019.
This submission includes seven WOTC processing and administrative program forms as follows: (1) ETA Form 9058, Report 1—Certification Workload and Characteristics of Certified Individuals; (2) ETA Form 9061, Individual Characteristics Form; (3) ETA Form 9061, Spanish version; (4) ETA Form 9062, Conditional Certification; (5) ETA Form 9063, Employer Certification, (6) ETA Form 9065, Agency Declaration of Verification Results Worksheet; and (7) ETA Form 9175, Long-term Unemployment Recipient Self-Attestation Form.
The data collected under this submission are necessary for effective Federal administration of the WOTC program, including allowing ETA and IRS to oversee state administration of the tax credit. Uniform program administration procedures and forms assure that businesses, especially multistate businesses that use the WOTC, receive consistent treatment from state to state regarding eligibility determinations, processing of their certification requests, and the statutory rules for receipt of the tax credit requests are administered in a consistent manner by the SWAs.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to provide comments to the contact shown in the
Submitted comments will also be a matter of public record for this ICR and posted on the Internet, without redaction. The DOL encourages commenters not to include personally identifiable information, confidential business data, or other sensitive statements/information in any comments.
The DOL is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A).
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) will submit the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Employee Benefit Plan Claims Procedure Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) on July 29, 2016, for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before September 6, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-EBSA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Employee Benefit Plan Claims Procedure Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) information collection. ERISA section 503 and regulations 29 CFR 2560.503-1 require an employee benefit plan subject to the Act to establish procedures for resolving benefit claims under the plan, including initial claims and appeal of denied claims. The regulation requires specific information to be disclosed at different stages of the claims process. The regulation also requires claims denial notices to be provided within specific time frames and that the notices include specific information. ERISA section 503 authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Notice.
In this notice, OSHA grants a permanent variance to Newport News
The permanent variance specified by this notice becomes effective on August 4, 2016 and shall remain in effect until it is modified or revoked.
Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:
Northrop Grumman Shipbuilding 4101 Washington Ave., Newport News, Virginia 23607, submitted on October 6, 2009, an application for a permanent multi-state variance under Section 6(d) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (“OSH Act”; 29 U.S.C. 655) and 29 CFR 1905.11 (“Variances and other relief under section 6(d)”) (Exhibit 1: Northrop Grumman Shipbuilding's original variance application dated 10/26/2009). On September 6, 2011, Newport News Shipbuilding (NNS), a division of Huntington Ingalls Industries, the successor to Northrop Grumman Shipbuilding, submitted an amended application for a permanent variance for the Newport News, Virginia, facility only (Exhibit 2: NNS's amended variance application).
NNS seeks a permanent variance from the provisions in OSHA shipyard-employment standards that regulate gear and equipment used for rigging and materials handling, specifically paragraphs (i), (j), and (q) of 29 CFR 1915.116. These provisions prohibit shipyard employers from permitting workers to ride the hook or the load, swinging or suspending loads over the heads of workers, or placing workers in a hazardous position between a swinging load and a fixed object. These paragraphs specify the following requirements:
•
•
•
In its application, NNS contends that the permanent variance provides its workers with a place of employment that is at least as safe and healthful as they are able to obtain under these standards. NNS certifies that it (1) provided the union representative
OSHA considered NNS' application for a permanent variance and on July 29, 2015, OSHA published a preliminary
NNS operates a shipyard in Newport News, Virginia, where it designs, builds, overhauls, and repairs a wide variety of ships for the U.S. government and navies of other countries. In the course of shipbuilding operations, NNS performs many operations that require the use of cranes or hoists during the course of vessel construction. Work processes include the erection of large modular units that, when assembled, comprise a vessel. In exceptional cases, workers may be beneath a portion of the unit for brief periods of time. Workers who work beneath units primarily remove interferences and ensure proper alignment of the units, as discussed below.
As noted above, § 1915.116(i), (j), and (q) prohibit workers from riding the hook or load, working on or under a suspended load, or working between a swinging load and a fixed object. However, the procedures and equipment used in shipbuilding today differ substantially from the procedures and equipment used when OSHA adopted these standards in 1982. Shipbuilding is no longer the “stick construction” industry it was when the standards were promulgated. With technological advancements, shipyards today build vessels using modular-production methods. Using these methods, shipyards completely construct major units of a vessel in modules. These modules include all components such as piping, electrical equipment, wiring, machinery, and ventilation. Modular-ship sections typically weigh 25 to 400 tons, but can weigh more. Generally, NNS uses cranes/hoists to lift and move ship sections during the following phases of modular production:
• End-to-end installation. This installation involves using cranes/hoists to move ship sections for end-to-end mating (horizontal assembly) of the sections, with brief worker exposure on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object.
• Stacking installation. In this phase, which involves using a crane/hoist to place a ship module on top of another module (vertical assembly), it is necessary to have workers work briefly on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, to identify and remove interferences (or obstructions) that preclude proper alignment and mating of the sections.
• Inserting installation. These installations involve a combination of end-to-end and stacking installations in which NNS uses cranes/hoists to both lower and move horizontally ship sections into their mating position. For inserting installations, it is necessary to have workers work briefly on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, to identify and remove interferences for properly aligning and mating the sections.
NNS argues that OSHA should grant a variance from 29 CFR 1915.116(i), (j), and (q) because modular shipbuilding occasionally requires workers to work briefly on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object.
NNS points to OSHA's past approval of an alternative standard for the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) for work performed under a suspended load (see Ex. 1, Appendix A). This alternative standard, NASA-STD-8719.9, establishes a specific set of controls when no alternative to working under a section or module is available. The NASA document provides 15 safety and engineering requirements that NASA uses in lieu of compliance with 29 CFR 1910.179(n)(3)(vi), 29 CFR 1910.180(h)(3)(vi), and 29 CFR 1910.180(h)(4)(ii).
As part of its variance application, NNS proposed an alternative means of compliance with the provisions prohibiting work on or under a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object. In its variance request, NNS states that “[m]odular ship construction and repair techniques require, in rare cases, personnel to be under, in, or on such a load as the final fit-up of a modular section is made” (Exhibit 2: NNS's amended variance application). NNS asserts that its alternative means of compliance provide equivalent protection with the provisions of the standard from which it seeks a variance.
NNS's application includes a description of the alternate means of compliance that it intends to implement during modular-ship construction and structural-repair operations. The protection of workers from exposure to the crushing hazards associated with work on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object during the lifting phase of modular-ship sections includes the application of significant engineering, administrative, coordination, and supervisory controls. The variance application further describes ship construction and ship-repair operations as: highly engineered; involving tested and certified equipment; and including continuous communication and monitoring between the workers involved. Hazard analysis, rigging procedures, rigging-lifting-plan with associated drawings, and crew briefings are among existing modular-ship-section lifting requirements adopted by the industry. All workers performing various jobs (
NNS defines a “suspended-load operation” as an operation that meets the following three criteria:
(a) Involves the use of a crane or hoist that supports the weight of a suspended load, whether the load is static or dynamic, including the rigging (
(b) When workers involved in the operation have any part of their body directly under the suspended load (Note: This condition does not apply when workers have their hands on the sides of a load,
(c) In the event of a crane or hoist failure, the falling load could contact workers working directly under it, with injury or death a possible result (Note: This condition does not apply when the falling load would push a worker's hand away such that no injury could result, or the load would come to rest on a holding fixture or block before injuring a worker).
NNS proposed to meet the following conditions prior to performing suspended-load operations:
(a) A Registered Professional Engineer familiar with the type of equipment used for the suspended-load operations, prepares and signs a written hazard analysis for each operation. The hazard analysis is to provide the following information:
(i) Justification of why NNS cannot perform the operation without workers on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, including procedural and design options investigated to determine if NNS could perform the operation without workers working on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object.
(ii) Detailed description of the precautions taken to protect workers should the load shift, move inadvertently or drop. This description includes an evaluation of the secondary support system,
(iii) The maximum number of exposed workers allowed under a load suspended from a crane/hoist. In this regard, NNS limits the number of workers working under a load suspended from a crane/hoist. NNS allows only those workers absolutely necessary to perform the operation to work in the safety-controlled access area. The rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s) identifies the name and exact location of each individual worker involved in the suspended-load operation and the drawing ensures that each worker is in the safest location.
(iv) The time of exposure. NNS ensures that workers' exposures under suspended loads are brief and that they do not remain under the load any longer than necessary to complete the work.
(b) The most senior manager at the site for crane operations and a qualified representative of NNS's health and safety department must review and approve in writing the suspended-load operation based on a detailed hazard analysis and rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s).
(c) NNS maintains written, up-to-date procedures that specify the minimum requirements for suspended loads. Accordingly, NNS is to revise the written hazard analysis and the Operational Procedures Document (or Lift Plan) (
(d) Each suspended-load operation is to have a separate hazard analysis and rigging-lifting-plan drawing performed and approved. A separate hazard analysis is not needed for a limited number of routine and repetitive operations for which a rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s) and procedures already exist and for which no new hazards are present.
(e) NNS is to design, test, inspect, maintain, and operate each crane/hoist used in a suspended-load operation in accordance with OSHA standards and internal written procedures.
(f) Each crane/hoist involved in suspended-load operations is to undergo a system safety review that uses all documentation available on the suspended-load operation, including the hazards analysis and the rigging-lifting-plan drawing, and with approval based on a detailed analysis of the potential hazards and rationale for acceptance. The review is to determine single failure points (SFPs) in all critical mechanical functional components and support systems in the drive trains and critical electrical components.
(i) For cranes/hoists identified as having no SFPs, but for which failure can result in inadvertent movement of the load, the total weight of the suspended load must not exceed the device's rated load.
(ii) For cranes/hoists identified as having SFPs the failure of which can result in inadvertent movement of the load, the most senior manager at the site for crane operations and a qualified representative of NNS's health and safety department is to approve the use of that device for suspended-load operations.
(g) Before lifting a load during a suspended-load operation, the crane/hoist is to undergo a visual inspection (without major disassembly) of components instrumental in controlling the lift (
(h) A trained and qualified operator (
(i) Safety-controlled access areas are to be established with appropriate barriers (rope, cones, safety watches etc.). All non-essential employees are required to remain outside the barriers.
(j) Prior to initiating any suspended-load operation, the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
(k) The most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
(l) Workers on or under a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, are to remain in continuous sight of the operator(s) and/or the signal person(s) when feasible. When NNS demonstrates that maintaining continuous sight is not feasible, these workers must remain in continuous communications with the operator and/or signal person.
(m) Workers are not altering their planned access/egress travel path without approval from the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
(n) NNS is to provide a list of approved suspended-load operations, a list of cranes/hoists used for suspended-load operations, and copies of the associated hazards analysis to OSHA's Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities (OTPCA) and the Norfolk Area Office within 15 working days after developing these documents.
After reviewing NNS's amended application, OSHA finds that NNS developed and intends to implement engineering and administrative controls that are designed to effectively control the hazards associated with work performed on or under a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object for brief periods.
NNS also developed and intends to implement an alternative means of compliance that provides workers with protection that is equivalent to the protection afforded to them by the OSHA standards that regulate work on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object (see, respectively, 29 CFR 1915.116(i), (j), and (q)). This alternative incorporates key elements of a job hazard analysis and lift planning, review, and approval to proceed (
In addition, NNS developed and proposes to implement a worker-training program to instruct affected and essential employees in the hazards associated with performing lifting and rigging operations.
OSHA recognized and addressed the need to work on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, when it granted NASA an alternative standard (Ex. 1). The alternative standard permitted NASA to expose its workers to these conditions when it complied with specific OSHA standards such as the construction hoisting and rigging standard (29 CFR 1926.753) and the conditions of the alternate standard (see Appendix A of
Based on a review of available information and NNS's variance application, OSHA made a number of additions and revisions to the application that it believes are necessary to protect NNS's workers involved in suspended-load operations. The following items describe these additions and revisions:
1. OSHA bases the scope of the revised variance application primarily on the scope specified in NNS's application. OSHA expanded the scope to include the types of modular-section lifts made from the Lift Staging Area (described earlier in this notice as Phase 3 of modular ship section lifts) to a ship and to describe the types of lifting operations excluded from the scope of the application. The expanded scope serves to increase worker protection from exposure to crushing hazards associated with work on or under a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, by providing precise identification and description of the limited circumstances under which the variance conditions apply.
2. OSHA added a section to the application that defined the terms “essential employee,” “modular-ship section,” “safety-controlled access area,” and “suspended-load operation” based on NNS's use of these terms in its variance application (Exhibit 2: NNS's amended variance application). OSHA defined the terms “competent person” and “qualified person, employee, or worker” based on existing OSHA standards. OSHA added a definition for “lift incident” based on conditions the Agency added to the variance. Further, OSHA added a definition of “on-site variance monitoring inspection,” based on existing inspection procedures described in the Field Operations Manual (FOM).
3. OSHA defines a number of abbreviations to the variance application. OSHA added these definitions to clarify the abbreviations and standardize their usage, thereby enhancing NNS's and its workers' understanding of the conditions specified by the variance application and to enhance their safety and health.
4. OSHA added a condition requiring the use of properly engineered lashing material to ensure that suspended loads do not inadvertently move or fall from cranes/hoists. This addition enhances worker safety and health by ensuring that lashing material is strong enough to prevent the load from dropping and injuring workers.
5. As part of the safety and engineering criteria, NNS proposed the development of a written hazard analysis in its application, and OSHA added a condition to this proposal that NNS perform a Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA) and approval to identify potential single point failures. Such analysis serves to further minimize the potential for inadvertent movement of the suspended load during modular-ship section lifts. This addition minimizes worker exposure to crushing hazards during modular-ship section lifts.
6. OSHA added a condition that the most senior manager at the site for crane operations approve in writing the written hazard analysis and rigging-lifting-plan drawings to ensure that these documents are technically accurate and reflect the knowledge and best practices of those responsible for supervising suspended-load operations.
7. NNS proposed to implement a system-safety review to determine SFPs. OSHA added the clarification to the variance application that a registered professional engineer (PE) must perform this review using a FMEA. This addition ensures that NNS conducts the system-safety review according to professional standards. OSHA also clarified that the FMEA include any weight calculations or structural analysis performed during the review. The FMEA protects worker safety and health by accurately and reliably identifying potential crane/hoist failures that might result in inadvertent movement of the suspended load, thereby endangering workers near this equipment.
8. NNS proposed in its application to develop an Operational Procedural Document. OSHA added a condition to the application requiring that the most senior manager at the site for crane operations (for example, the supervisor controlling the lift) review the Lift Plan with essential employees to ensure that these workers are familiar with and thoroughly understand the procedures governing the suspended-load operations. The Lift Plan enhances worker safety and health by ensuring that suspended-load operations occur according to procedures planned in advance to minimize hazards.
9. OSHA added a condition requiring that NNS implement procedures to control hazards from unplanned or unforeseen activities that were not included in the initial planning of the modular-ship section lift operations and not covered by the initial procedural documents (such as lift plan, hazard analysis, and rigging/lifting drawing(s)). This condition requires NNS to develop the Operational Procedural Document to cover the unplanned activities in order to protect worker safety and health by reducing the probability of worker exposure to unanticipated hazards.
10. NNS proposed a case-by-case review of planned suspended-load operations that follow the set of safety and engineering criteria (described by this condition). OSHA added to this condition that a senior crane operations manager and a health and safety representative must perform this review following development of the Operational Procedural Document. This addition enhances worker safety and health by ensuring that knowledgeable company officials responsible for suspended-load operations conduct the review.
11. NNS proposed a condition addressing use of the Operational Procedural Document, and OSHA added to this condition requirements that NNS: Comply with a program operated by an accredited agency under OSHA's Gear Certification Program (29 CFR part 1919); use registered PE-designed pad-eye connection points; comply with nationally recognized non-destructive testing methods;
12. NNS proposed a pre-lift inspection in its application. OSHA added a condition to this proposal requiring that safety devices be operational during any lifts conducted during the pre-lift inspections. This addition increases worker protection during pre-lift inspections.
13. OSHA added a condition specifying that NNS develop a written
14. Another condition added by OSHA requires that NNS conduct a test lift before beginning each suspended-load operation. The test lift protects worker safety and health by ensuring that equipment, including the rigging and crane/hoist systems, is in working order for the lift, thus minimizing the possibility of worker harm resulting from equipment failure.
15. NNS proposed a condition specifying that a trained and qualified operator remain at the crane/hoist controls while workers are on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object. OSHA added a condition requiring that the operator not initiate movement while workers are on or under a suspended load, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, and that NNS use safety devices such as brakes, dogs or stops to further ensure that no such movement takes place. This added condition protects workers from the hazards associated with inadvertent movement of suspended loads.
16. In its application, NNS proposed the use of safety-controlled access areas where all non-essential employees must remain outside the safety-controlled access areas during modular-ship section lift operations. This requirement protects by minimizing the number of workers exposed to this hazard.
17. OSHA added the prohibition of working under, in or on suspended loads requirement to limit the presence of essential employees in the safety-controlled access areas. Essential employees may enter the safety-controlled access areas for the purpose of adjusting chain falls, making initial connections or confirming clearances between hull structures and outfitting systems. Further, essential employees must not enter safety controlled access areas under suspended loads until the load is placed in the fit-up position and at the lowest point in the lift in order to minimize the potential drop distance and instability of the suspended load. This requirement protects workers by minimizing worker exposure to the hazards of working under, in, or on suspended loads.
18. OSHA added a condition that requires NNS to train its workers (including, but not limited to current and newly assigned workers to be involved in modular-ship section load operations, qualified, and essential employees). The training provided is to include the means workers are to use to recognize hazards associated with work under, in or on suspended modular-ship section loads and application of associated hazard-control methods which minimize their risk of harm during construction and assembly of the modular ship sections. This added condition includes refresher training to ensure that workers retain knowledge of the hazards and associated control methods or update this knowledge as changes occur in hazard-control technology, methods, and procedures. The added condition also requires NNS to document the training, provide a means of tracking the training received by its workers, and prompt the updating of that training if necessary. The training documentation requirement allows NNS to accurately identify when to update the training and to identify the workers to receive such updated and/or refresher training.
19. NNS proposed a pre-job briefing requirement in its variance application, and OSHA clarified this condition by specifying that: The pre-job briefing include all workers involved in the suspended-load operation, both essential and non-essential employees; NNS document worker attendance at the briefing using a signed roster; and the briefing address the rigging-lifting drawing(s). This clarification protects workers by refreshing their knowledge of procedures just before the suspended-load operation begins.
20. NNS proposed having continuous communication during suspended-load operations, and OSHA revised the condition by specifying that suspended-load operations must cease upon loss of communications. This requirement protects workers by minimizing their exposure to hazards during communications failure.
21. In its application, NNS proposed that workers remain in continuous sight of the operator(s) and/or signal person(s) when feasible during suspended-load operations. OSHA clarified this condition by specifying that all essential employees must remain in continuous sight and/or be in communication with the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
22. OSHA added a condition that if NNS postpones or discontinues a lift, the crane/hoist operator must lower the suspended load to the ground or other supporting structure. Alternatively, if a lift is postponed or discontinued, the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
23. Another condition added by OSHA requires a post-lift review of the suspended-load operation. This condition protects workers by assisting NNS in identifying and correcting shortcomings in the suspended-load program.
24. NNS proposed to develop a listing of the modular-ship section lift operations (suspended-load operations) scheduled to be performed during each quarter. OSHA is clarifying this condition by specifying that by the 15th calendar day of each new quarter NNS must prepare a list of planned modular-ship section lifts to be performed during the upcoming quarter (including the cranes/hoists used for suspended-load operations, the date and time of the operation, associated hazard analysis completed, and the calculated weight of each lift), and update the list when significant changes occur. OSHA also specified that workers and their representatives must have access to the list and that by the 15th calendar day of each new quarter NNS must provide a copy of the list to the Norfolk Area Office, Region 3 Regional Office, and OSHA's Office of Technical Programs and Coordination Activities. Further OSHA included a requirement that by January 15th of each year, NNS must provide to the Norfolk Area Office, Region 3 Regional Office, and OTPCA, a copy of the list of approved suspended-load operations completed
25. OSHA added a condition requiring that NNS conduct an investigation of all lift incidents related to suspended-load operations. This condition is intended to protect workers by ensuring that NNS investigates such incidents and takes actions necessary to prevent a recurrence.
26. OSHA included a records-management condition that is intended to assist the Agency in monitoring and enforcing the variance conditions. This requirement protects workers by ensuring that NNS implements and maintains these conditions.
27. OSHA added a new condition that requires NNS to permit OSHA compliance safety and health officers to enter its Newport News, VA establishment or site without delay and at reasonable times for the purpose of conducting an on-site variance monitoring inspection. It should be noted that as a corollary to this new condition, NNS is not to require that the CSHOs seek an inspection warrant prior to entering its Newport News, VA establishment or site for the purpose of conducting an on-site variance monitoring inspection. This new condition is significant because as an OSHA Voluntary Protection Program participant, NNS is removed from OSHA's programmed inspection lists, thereby allowing OSHA to focus its limited inspection resources on establishments in greater need of agency oversight and intervention. Consequently, OSHA added this new condition in order to enable its CSHOs to effectively monitor and enforce the conditions of the granted variance.
28. OSHA also added a condition that requires NNS to provide the Agency with up-to-date information regarding its corporate status. This information permits OSHA to monitor and enforce the conditions to the benefit of NNS's workers.
After reviewing the evidence described above, OSHA determined that the conditions included in this order provide a place of employment as safe and healthful as that provided by the standards from which NNS requested a variance, notably 29 CFR 1915.116(i), (j), and (q). As noted earlier, on July 29, 2015, OSHA published a preliminary
Additionally, under the terms of this variance, NNS must provide a copy of this
Except for the requirements specified by § 1915.116(i), (j), and (q), Newport News Shipbuilding must comply fully with all other safety and health provisions that are applicable to shipyard employment when implementing the permanent variance.
1. The variance applies to operations that satisfy all of the following:
(a) The operations are performed by Newport News Shipbuilding employees during modular-ship section construction and structural-repair operations at the company's Newport News, Virginia, facility;
(b) the operations involve lifting modular-ship sections from the lift-staging area to a ship during one of the following assembly phases:
(i) “End-to-End” (horizontal) assembly of modular-ship sections;
(ii) “Stacking” (vertical) assembly of modular-ship sections; or
(iii) “Inserting” (combined vertical/horizontal) assembly of modular-ship sections.
(c) the workers exposed to the hazards of the lift are those supporting modular-ship section lifts and essential employees working on or under a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, during vessel assembly, repair, overhaul, and removal of interferences (or obstructions) that preclude proper alignment and mating of sections (fit-up); and
(d) Workers are exposed to the hazards of the lift only for a brief period of time.
2. The variance does
(a) Lifting modular-ship sections in the fabrication (assembly) shop or area;
(b) Transporting modular-ship sections from the fabrication (assembly) shop or area to the lift-staging area;
(c) Lifting structures or equipment onto a ship's deck; and
(d) Loads consisting of tools, equipment, or other materials.
Under Condition B.1.c, if engineering calculations show that failure of the crane/hoist or rigging during the lifting process could dislodge the ship from its supporting blocks (
The following definitions apply to the permanent variance, and do not necessarily apply in other contexts:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
(a) Be well defined and easily recognizable;
(b) Have means to keep unauthorized personnel out of the zone such as appropriate barriers (
(c) Extend a safe distance beyond the radius of the crane when at its maximum extended lifting position as determined by a hazard analysis; and
(d) Monitored and controlled by a competent person.
12.
13.
(a) The operation involves the use of a crane/hoist or cranes/hoists that support the weight of a suspended modular-ship section, with no distinction made between static and dynamic loads. The load consists of all associated rigging equipment, including slings, Hydra Sets, lifting lugs, shackles, and straps, when attached to the crane hook;
(b) When workers involved in the operation have any part of their body directly under the suspended load;
(c) In the event of a crane or hoist failure (including a rigging failure), the falling load could contact workers working directly beneath it, with injury or death as a possible result.
Abbreviations used throughout the permanent variance include:
1. Hazard-avoidance protocol. Using a hazard-avoidance protocol, NNS must design hazards out of the suspended-load operations covered by the permanent variance to the greatest extent possible. Accordingly, NNS must:
(a) Engineer, design, install, and operate all future systems, hardware, and equipment associated with these operations to prevent exposing workers to the hazards associated with working under, in or on a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, unless NNS demonstrates that doing so is technically infeasible;
(b) Perform an operation in which employees work under, in or on a suspended modular-ship section, or work between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, only under specifically approved and controlled conditions; and
(c) Perform the operation specified under Condition E.1.b above only after meeting all the review, approval, documentation, and special requirements.
2. Use of properly engineered lashing materials.
(a) When the operation specified under Condition E.1.b above involves the use of a crane/hoist that supports the weight of a modular-ship section, NNS must use properly engineered lashing materials
(b) NNS must conduct a detailed weight calculation in determining
3. Engineering-hazard analysis.
(a) The most senior manager at the site for crane operations specified in paragraph E.1.b above must approve suspended modular-ship section load operations in writing based on: a detailed written hazard analysis, a rigging-lifting-plan, and a supporting drawing of the operation;
(b) NNS must ensure that the:
(i) Responsible crane-operations organization prepares the written engineering-hazards analysis under the direction of the most senior manager at the site for crane operations; and
(ii) Qualified representatives of NNS' engineering offices and the health and safety department review this analysis and indicate approval by signing the analysis;
(c) The engineering-hazard analysis must be in writing and include:
(i) A justification specifying why NNS cannot conduct the operation without its employees working under, in, or on suspended modular-ship sections, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, with this justification describing the procedures and design options NNS considered in determining that it could not conduct the operation without its employees working under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section, or working between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object;
(ii) Details of the engineering controls taken to prevent the modular-ship sections from moving or shifting when employees are under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, including the evaluation of testing and safety devices used for this purpose;
4. Secondary support systems. NNS must design any secondary support systems used during the operation specified in Condition E.1.b above in accordance with recognized engineering practices and designed with a minimum safety factor of 2 to yield.
NNS must limit employee exposure to the hazards of working under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object by:
1. Establishing a safety-controlled access area, taking into account the swing radius of the crane;
2. Allowing only essential personnel in the safety-controlled access area;
3. Ensuring that the rigging-lifting-plan drawings identify by name the exact location of each essential employee allowed in the safety-controlled access area and the location of that employee in the area;
4. Ensuring that each essential employee allowed in the safety-controlled access area is in the safest location possible for performing the work;
5. Ensuring that each essential employee moves to and from the work location using the safest route possible, and remains at that location only long enough to complete the work;
6. Verifying in writing that procedures are in place to prevent movement or shifting of the suspended modular-ship section when essential employees are under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object; and
7. Ensuring that a crane operator who meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.1427 and 1926.1430 is operating the crane used to suspend the modular-ship section while essential employees are working under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object.
Each operation specified under Condition E.1.b above must have a separate written job-hazard analysis that includes a detailed rigging specification drawing(s) and a detailed lifting plan drawing(s) approved and signed by the most senior manager at the site for crane operations. A separate hazard analysis is not needed for routine and repetitive operations where a rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s) and procedures already exist and where no new hazards are present.
1. Each crane involved in an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above must undergo a FMEA approved in writing by a Registered Professional Engineer.
2. The FMEA must:
(a) Determine SFPs by assessing the rigging equipment and all critical mechanical functional components and support systems in the drive trains and critical electrical components of the crane; and
(b) Include weight calculations and any structural analysis deemed necessary by the Registered Professional Engineer responsible for approving the FMEA.
3. For cranes and rigging equipment identified as not having any SFPs, the failure of which can result in movement of the modular-ship section, the total weight of the suspended modular-ship section load must not exceed the crane's rated load.
4. For those cranes and rigging equipment identified as having an SFP, the failure of which can result in movement of the modular-ship section, the most senior manager at the site for crane operations and a qualified representative of the health and safety department must have to approve in writing use of the crane and rigging equipment for an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above after reviewing all the documentation required by this order that addresses the operation, including the FMEA.
NNS must:
1. Develop and maintain written procedures that specify the requirements for an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above.
2. Revise the written detailed job-hazard analysis, rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s), and the operational-procedures documents (
3. Review any revisions made under Condition I.2 above with essential employees and make these revisions available on-site during an operation specified by Condition E.1.b above for inspection by affected employees, employee representatives, or OSHA personnel.
During an operation under Condition E.1.b above, if a new or unforeseen work activity or circumstance not covered by the original operational-procedural documents (
1. Immediately stop the lift and lower the modular-ship section to the ground or other supporting structure;
2. Before continuing the operation, obtain approval in writing from the most senior manager at the site for crane
3. Before repeating the operation on a subsequent occasion, prepare revised operational-procedures documents (
1. A Registered Professional Engineer must develop and approve inspection, testing, and maintenance procedures and competent persons must perform the procedures and resolve noted discrepancies.
2. An independent third-party such as an accredited agency under OSHA's Gear Certification Program (29 CFR 1919) must inspect all cranes and rigging equipment not more than one year before the modular-ship section lift being performed, and NNS must maintain the inspection results, and make them available to OSHA upon request.
3. The engineers who design the modular-ship section subject to the operation specified under Condition E.1.b above must design or approve the pad-eye (lifting-lugs) connection points on the section, and specify the size (length and diameter) of wire-rope slings that lift, move, and handle the section.
4. Before using lifting pad-eyes and other welded lifting connection points in the operation, NNS must perform non-destructive tests on these pad-eyes and connections according to nationally recognized non-destructive testing methods.
5. NNS must:
(a) Document the design specifications pertinent to the operation on engineering drawings;
(b) Ensure that these drawing accompany the modular-ship section during an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above; and
(c) Make the drawings available to the crane foreman/supervisor.
1. Before lifting the modular-ship section involved in an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above, the components of the crane and rigging equipment involved in lifting the load must undergo a visual inspection (without major disassembly, and documented with a written checklist).
2. NNS must resolve any discrepancies identified in this visual inspection before initiating an operation.
3. Before lifting modular-ship sections for assembly with the ship, a qualified person(s) must:
(a) Perform an inspection to identify and remove interferences to proper mating; and
(b) Use a written checklist to document the inspection, including the removal of litter, tools, and any other unnecessary or unsecured equipment or items.
4. Before initiating an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above, NNS must:
(a) Conduct a test lift that consists of lifting the modular-ship section one to three feet above the lift staging area for five minutes; and
(b) Ensure that all safety devices identified in the modular-ship section lift plan are operational during the test lift.
1. NNS must ensure that the crane operator who meets the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.1427 and 1926.1430 remains at the crane controls at all times during an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above.
2. Unless specifically authorized and required by the lift plan, the operator must:
(a) Not initiate movement of the suspended modular-ship section while an employee(s) is under, in, or on a modular-ship section, or between a swinging load and a fixed object, and
(b) Engage all safety devices such as brakes, dogs, or stops in accordance with the lifting plan when an employee(s) is under, in, or on a modular-ship section, or between a swinging load and a fixed object.
NNS must:
1. Establish safety-controlled access areas for all operations specified by Condition E.1.b above.
2. Ensure that all non-essential personnel remain outside the safety-controlled access areas.
When engaged in an operation specified under Condition E.1.b above, if engineering calculations show that a failure of the crane or rigging during the lifting process could result in dislodging the ship from its supporting blocks (
1. NNS's essential employees may be under, in, or on a suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, while ensuring the proper alignment and mating of modular-ship sections. Examples of work activities include, but are not limited to: Adjusting chain falls, confirming clearances between hull structures and outfitting systems, and identifying and removing interferences. Further, essential employees must not enter safety controlled access areas under suspended loads until the load is placed in the fit-up position and at the lowest point in the lift in order to minimize the potential drop distance and instability of the suspended load.
2. Only essential employees authorized by the most senior manager at the site for crane operations (
3. If NNS postpones or discontinues a lift, the crane/hoist operator must lower the suspended load to the ground or other supporting structure.
4. If NNS postpones or discontinues a lift and finds that the suspended load cannot be lowered to the ground or other supporting structure, the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
5. NNS must document such a determination and ensure that: (1) The crane/hoist operator remains on duty until the lift is either completed or lowered to the ground or other supporting structure; or (2) the most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee cordons off the
1. NNS must develop and implement a worker training program to instruct affected employees in the:
(a) Hazards associated with performing work under, in, or on suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object; and
(b) The controls mandated to protect affected employees from these hazards.
2. NNS must train and instruct the crane foreman/supervisor to strictly adhere to the lift plan and the rigging specifications on the approved drawings.
3. NNS must develop and implement a refresher training program, conducted periodically and as necessary, for all employees working under, in, or on suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object. At a minimum, the refresher training must:
(a) Consist of a lift briefing;
(b) Review each employee's responsibilities; and
(c) Take place before initiating the operation.
4. NNS must document all training provided under the permanent variance, and maintain training records as specified below under Condition U.2.a.
Prior to conducting an operation in which its employees work under, in, or on suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, NNS must:
1. Hold the briefing with all affected employees having a direct or supporting role in the operation (including workers and/or contractors performing tasks such as crane operator, signal person, essential employees, supervisors), to review the operational procedures involved in the operation, including procedures for entering and leaving the safety-controlled access area;
2. Use the written job-hazard analysis and rigging-lifting-plan drawing(s) during the briefing to supplement the information;
3. Cover all safety considerations;
4. Ensure that the employees understand the information provided at the briefing; and
5. Document the briefing using a signed roster of attendees, and maintain the roster as specified at Condition U.2.a.
NNS must:
1. Maintain communications (voice, radio, hard wired, or visual) between the crane/hoist operator(s), signal person(s), and employees working under, in, or on the suspended modular-ship section, or between a swinging modular-ship section and a fixed object, at all times;
2. Upon losing communications, stop the operation immediately, inform employees of the problem, ensure that the employees exit the safety-controlled access area, and that the modular-ship section is in a safe condition (
3. Commence the operation only after restoring communications and informing the affected employees about what action NNS is taking to avoid a reoccurrence.
The most senior manager at the site for crane operations or designee (
1. Post-lift review. NNS must conduct and document a post-lift review for each operation involving a suspended modular-ship section, including the identification of any incident that occurred during the operation.
2. Lift-incident investigation. NNS must investigate each lift incident. In doing so, NNS must:
(a) Initiate the investigation within 8 hours of the lift incident or 8 hours after becoming aware of the incident;
(b) Have a competent person(s) with expertise in the hazards associated with the operations involved in the incident conduct the investigation;
(c) Have the investigator(s) prepare a written report at the conclusion of the investigation which includes, at a minimum, the date of the incident, the date the investigation began, the date of the report, the location of the incident, the equipment or processes involved, a description of the incident, the root cause, the contributing factors, and any corrective actions resulting from the investigation (the completed OSHA 301 Incident Report form may be used for this purpose);
(d) Provide a copy of the report to OSHA's Norfolk Area Office and OTPCA at OSHA's National Office within 15 calendar days of the incident or 15 calendar days after becoming aware of the incident;
(e) Within 15 calendar days of completing the incident report, address the findings of the report and implement corrective actions;
(f) Document in writing the corrective actions taken;
(g) Review the findings of the report and corrective actions taken with all affected workers; and
(h) Provide certification to OSHA's Norfolk Area Office and OTPCA at OSHA's National Office within 15 calendar days of completing the incident report, that the employer informed affected workers of the incident and the results of the incident investigation (including the root cause determination and preventive and corrective actions identified and implemented).
1. By the 15th calendar day of each new quarter, NNS must prepare a list of planned modular-ship section lifts to be performed during the upcoming quarter (including the cranes/hoists used, the date and time of the operation, associated hazard analysis completed, and the calculated weight of the lift), and update the list when significant changes occur. NNS must:
(a) Make this document available for inspection by affected employees, employee representatives, and send a copy of this document to the OSHA Regional Office, Norfolk Area Office and OTPCA; and
(b) By January 15th of each year, NNS must provide to the Regional Office, Norfolk Area Office and OTPCA, a copy of the list of approved suspended-load operations completed the previous year.
2. NNS must:
(a) Retain all records required by the permanent variance for five years from the time it generates each such record (except when applicable regulations define a longer records-retention period); and
(b) Make all records and related documents available for inspection by affected employees, employee representatives, and OSHA upon request.
NNS must permit CSHOs to enter its Newport News, VA establishment or site
NNS must:
1. Inform OTPCA as soon as it has knowledge that it will:
(a) Cease to do business; or
(b) Transfer the activities covered by this permanent variance to a successor company.
2. Submit to the Norfolk Area Office and OTPCA, a copy of any incident-investigation report and associated corrective-action plan within 15 working days of the incident.
3. Submit to OTPCA annually, a written certification indicating whether the conditions of the permanent variance are effective and remain relevant and necessary, and any recommendations for modifying these conditions.
David Michaels, Ph.D., MPH, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, authorized the preparation of this notice. Accordingly, the Agency is issuing this notice pursuant to Section 29 U.S.C. 655(6)(d), Secretary of Labor's Order No. 1-2012 (77 FR 3912, Jan. 25, 2012), and 29 CFR 1905.11.
Legal Services Corporation.
Request for comments.
The Legal Services Corporation (“LSC”) Board of Directors (“Board”) is in the process of revising the 2012-2016 LSC Strategic Plan (“Plan”) and is seeking comments on the draft 2017-2020 LSC Strategic Plan. The LSC Board previously sought comments on its Plan, including comments on whether the existing goals are appropriate and attainable and whether new goals should be added or substituted. After receiving comments and recommendations from stakeholders, LSC now solicits comments on the proposed revisions to the Plan for 2017-2020.
All comments must be received on or before the close of business on September 6, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Rebecca Fertig Cohen,
As an entity created and funded by Congress, LSC has a duty to the American people to pursue its fundamental mission of equal access to justice. With this primary goal in mind, the LSC Board adopted a plan in 2012 setting forth the strategic goals that would guide LSC for five years, ending in 2016. The LSC Board is now in the process of updating and revising the strategic plan for an additional four-year period. As part of this process, the LSC Board sought input from the public and interested stakeholders on whether the goals articulated in the current LSC strategic plan for 2012-2016 are still suitable and timely and whether new goals, if any, should be considered. 81 FR 3836, Jan. 29, 2016.
Based on the feedback received from stakeholders, LSC proposes to continue working on the three goals identified in the 2012-2016 Strategic Plan over the next four years with only minor changes in focus. The three goals in the 2017-2020 strategic plan are:
1. Maximize the availability, quality, and effectiveness of the services LSC's grantees provide to eligible low-income individuals.
2. Expand the role of LSC as a convener and leading voice for civil legal services for low-income Americans.
3. Continue to achieve the highest standards of management for LSC and its grantees to sustain a capable, responsive, and accountable organization.
The full proposed Strategic Plan Update 2017-2020 is available at
Mississippi River Commission.
8:00 a.m., August 8, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at Lamberts Landing, St. Paul, Minnesota.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the St. Paul District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
2:00 p.m., August 11, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at the Hannibal City Front, Hannibal, Missouri.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the Rock Island District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
9:00 a.m., August 12, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at Mel Price L&D 4, Alton Illinois.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District
9:00 a.m., August 15, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at the Caruthersville City Front, Caruthersville, Missouri.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the Memphis District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
9:00 a.m., August 16, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at the Helena Harbor Boat Ramp, Helena, Arkansas.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the Memphis District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
9:00 a.m., August 17, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at the Natchez City Front, Natchez, Mississippi.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the Vicksburg District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
9:00 a.m., August 19, 2016.
On board MISSISSIPPI V at the Port Commission Dock, Morgan City, Louisiana.
Open to the public.
(1) Summary report by President of the Commission on national and regional issues affecting the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers and Commission programs and projects on the Mississippi River and its tributaries; (2) District Commander's overview of current project issues within the New Orleans District; and (3) Presentations by local organizations and members of the public giving views or comments on any issue affecting the programs or projects of the Commission and the Corps of Engineers.
Mr. Charles A. Camillo, telephone 601-634-7023.
The National Science Board, pursuant to NSF regulations (45 CFR part 614), the National Science Foundation Act, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 1862n-5), and the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), hereby gives notice of the scheduling of meetings for the transaction of National Science Board business as follows:
August 9, 2016 from 8:00 a.m. to 4:35 p.m., and August 10, 2016 from 8:00 a.m. to 2:20 p.m. EDT.
These meetings will be held at the National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Room 1235, Arlington, VA 22230. All visitors must contact the Board Office (call 703-292-7000 or send an email to
Public meetings and public portions of meetings will be webcast. To view the meetings, go to
Please refer to the National Science Board Web site for additional information. Meeting information and schedule updates (time, place, subject matter, and status of meeting) may be found at
John Veysey,
Nadine Lymn,
Portions open; portions closed.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of an application under Section 6(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) for an exemption from Section 15(a) of the Act and Rule 18f-2 under the Act, as well as from certain disclosure requirements in Rule 20a-1 under the Act, Item 19(a)(3) of Form N-1A, Items 22(c)(1)(ii), 22(c)(1)(iii), 22(c)(8) and 22(c)(9) of Schedule 14A under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and Sections 6-07(2)(a), (b), and (c) of Regulation S-X (“Disclosure Requirements”). The requested exemption would permit an investment adviser to hire and replace certain sub-advisers without shareholder approval and grant relief from the Disclosure Requirements as they relate to fees paid to the sub-advisers.
Investment Managers Series Trust (the “Trust”), a Delaware statutory trust registered under the Act as an open-end management investment company with multiple series, and SilverPepper LLC, a Delaware limited liability company registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Adviser,” and, collectively with the Trust, the “Applicants”).
The application was filed April 1, 2016, and amended on April 7, 2016, and July 6, 2016.
An order granting the application will
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Trust: c/o John K. Carter, Esq., Law Office of John K. Carter, 9455 Koger Blvd., Suite 102, St. Petersburg, Florida 33702 and Adviser: Patrick Reinkemeyer, President, SilverPepper LLC, 570 Oakwood Avenue, Lake Forest, Illinois 60045.
Emerson Davis, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6868, or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Adviser will serve as the investment adviser to the Subabvised SP Series pursuant to an investment advisory agreement with the Trust (the “Investment Management Agreement”).
2. Applicants request an exemption to permit the Adviser, subject to Board approval, to hire certain Sub-Advisers pursuant to Sub-Advisory Agreements and materially amend existing Sub-Advisory Agreements without obtaining the shareholder approval required under Section 15(a) of the Act and Rule 18f-2 under the Act.
3. Applicants agree that any order granting the requested relief will be subject to the terms and conditions stated in the Application. Such terms and conditions provide for, among other safeguards, appropriate disclosure to Subadvised SP Series shareholders and notification about sub-advisory changes and enhanced Board oversight to protect the interests of the Subadvised SP Series' shareholders.
4. Section 6(c) of the Act provides that the Commission may exempt any person, security, or transaction or any class or classes of persons, securities, or transactions from any provisions of the Act, or any rule thereunder, if such relief is necessary or appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors and purposes fairly intended by the policy and provisions of the Act. Applicants believe that the requested relief meets this standard because, as further explained in the Application, the Investment Management Agreements will remain subject to shareholder approval, while the role of the Sub-Advisers is substantially similar to that of individual portfolio managers, so that requiring shareholder approval of Sub-Advisory Agreements would impose unnecessary delays and expenses on the Subadvised SP Series. Applicants believe that the requested relief from the Disclosure Requirements meets this standard because it will improve the Adviser's ability to negotiate fees paid to the Sub-Advisers that are more advantageous for the Subadvised SP Series.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
CHX proposes to amend the Rules of the Exchange (“CHX Rules”) to adopt the Securities Trader registration
CHX has designated this proposed rule change as non-controversial pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
The text of this proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at (
In its filing with the Commission, the CHX included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule changes and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The CHX has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend various provisions under Article 6 to adopt the Securities Trader registration category and the Series 57 Securities Trader Examination registration requirement and to eliminate references to the Proprietary Trader registration category and the Series 56 Proprietary Trader Examination registration requirement. The Series 56 exam was discontinued by FINRA on January 4, 2016.
• Amend Rule 3(a) and Rule 3(d) to replace references to the Proprietary Trader registration category and the Series 56 exam with the Securities Trader registration category and the Series 57 exam, respectively.
• Amend Article 6, Rule 3(a) to require any Representative
Persons associated with a Participant who are engaged or will be engaged in the securities business of a Participant, or the management of such securities business, including the functions of supervision, solicitation, conduct of business or the training of persons associated with a Participant for any of these functions are Representatives.
A “Participant” is a “member” of the Exchange for purposes of the Act.
• Amend Article 6, Rule 3(b)(1) to modify the current Proprietary Trader Exception, which permits Chief Compliance Officers of Participants that engage solely in proprietary trading to maintain the Series 14, in lieu of the Series 24, as an expanded Securities Trading Exception for Participants that engage solely in securities trading activities, on either an agency or principal basis.
• Amend Article 6, Rule 2(c)(2) to replace the Limited Principal—Proprietary Trader registration category with the Securities Trader Principal registration category and update related requirements.
• Amend Article 6, Rule 11 to delete references to the S501 Series 56 Proprietary Trader Program for Series 56 registered persons and the Series 56 exam and, instead, require Securities Traders to take the S101 General Program to fulfill Regulatory Element requirements.
This filing is similar to SR-FINRA-2015-017,
Current CHX Rules provide that Representatives are required to be registered with the Exchange in the category of registration appropriate to the function to be performed.
• A Representative must register with the Exchange as a General Securities Representative (Series 7) or Proprietary Trader (Series 56)
• Each Representative is required to register as a General Securities Representative and pass the Series 7 General Securities Representative Examination; provided that in the event a Representative's activities are confined to making trading decisions regarding, or otherwise engaging in, proprietary trading for the broker-dealer with which he or she is associated, the Representative may register as a Proprietary Trader without registering as a General Securities Representative.
• In order to qualify as a Proprietary Trader, a Representative must pass either the Series 7 exam or Series 56 exam.
The Exchange now proposes to amend current Article 6, Rule 3(a). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to amend paragraph (a)(1) to provide that each Representative shall be required to register with the Exchange as a General Securities Representative and pass the Series 7 General Securities Representative Examination. However, a Representative that is engaged in securities trading activities, on either an agency or principal basis, for the Participant with which the Representative is associated, must register with the Exchange as a Securities Trader and pass the Series 57 Securities Trader Examination, subject to amended paragraph (a)(2).
Amended paragraph (a)(2)
Current Article 6, Rule 3(d) provides, among other things, that Institutional Broker Representatives
The Exchange also proposes to delete current Article 6, Rule 3(e) as it provides obsolete compliance dates.
Current Article 6, Rule 3(b)(1) permits the Chief Compliance Officer of a Participant Firm to maintain the Series 14 Compliance Official qualification, in lieu of the Series 24 General Securities Principal qualification, if the Participant Firm engages solely in proprietary trading and otherwise meets the requirements listed under current Article 6, Rule 3(b) and Article 6, Rule 2(c)(1).
(A) Sole Proprietors;
(B) Officers;
(C) Partners;
(D) Branch office managers; and
(E) Directors.
Current Article 6, Rule 2(c)(2) provides for a limited principal registration category called the “Limited Principal—Proprietary Trader.” Specifically, current subparagraph (A) provides that each person associated with a Participant who is included within the definition of a Principal
The Exchange now proposes to amend Article 6, Rule 2(c)(2)(A) to provide that each Principal shall register with the Exchange as a Securities Trader Principal if such Principal supervises the securities trading activities of a Participant. Moreover, a Principal is required to pass the Series 57 exam as a prerequisite to registration as a Securities Trader Principal.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Article 6, Rule 2(c)(2)(B) to provide that a person registered as a Securities Trader Principal shall only be qualified to supervise the securities trading activities of a Participant and shall not be qualified to supervise any other activities of a Participant. Moreover, a Principal shall not be qualified to supervise the trading activities of a Participant, unless such person is registered as a Securities Trader Principal.
The Exchange also proposes to amend Article 6, Rule 2(c) to provide that all persons engaged or to be engaged in the securities business of a Participant who are to function as a Principal shall be registered with the Exchange as a General Securities Principal, unless the Principal meets the requirements under this Rule 2(c), so as to contemplate the proposed Securities Trader Principal registration requirement. Moreover, for the purpose of clarifying the examination requirements for all Principals, the Exchange proposes to amend the last sentence of current Rule 2(c) to provide that each Principal shall pass the Series 24 or Series 14 exam, as applicable, pursuant to Article 6, Rule 3(b).
Current Article 6, Rule 11 provides continuing education requirements for registered persons, including Proprietary Traders. The Exchange now proposes to amend Article 6, Rule 11(a)(3) to eliminate reference to the S501 Series 56 Proprietary Trader continuing education program for Series 56 registered persons, as the S501 Series 56 Proprietary Trader continuing education program was phased out along with the Series 56 exam on January 4, 2016.
The Exchange also proposes to replace a reference to “Series 56” with “Series 57” under the first sentence of
The Exchange believes that proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
In particular, the Exchange believes that adoption of the Securities Trader registration category and Series 57 exam registration requirement is consistent with the Act. FINRA indicated that the Series 57 exam was being developed in an effort to adopt a more tailored examination. The Exchange believes that adopting the Series 57 exam for Representatives engaging in trading activities will help ensure professionalism among market participants, prevent fraudulent and manipulative practices, and promote just and equitable principles of trade. The Exchange also believes that it is in the interests of investors and the general public to adopt a tailored qualification examination for proprietary traders and that a uniform qualification standard may help ensure fair and orderly markets. Furthermore, the Exchange believes that it is in the interests of all market participants to provide consistent qualification and registration requirements across markets. The Exchange believes that harmonizing the Exchange's qualification and registration requirements with those of FINRA and the other national securities exchanges would further such interests.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change relating to Securities Traders, which is based upon and substantially similar to recent rule changes adopted by FINRA, which is similar to the filings of other national securities exchanges, will reduce the regulatory burden placed on market participants engaged in trading activities across different markets. The Exchange believes that the harmonization of these registration requirements across the various markets will reduce burdens on competition by removing impediments to participation in the national market system.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 3, 2016, The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“Exchange” or “Nasdaq”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act” or “Exchange Act”)
The Exchange proposes to list and trade the Shares under Nasdaq Rule 5735, which governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. The Fund will be an actively-managed exchange-traded fund (“ETF”). The Shares will be offered by the Trust, which was established as a Massachusetts business trust on February 22, 2016.
First Trust Advisors L.P. will be the investment adviser (“Adviser”) to the Fund. First Trust Portfolios L.P. (“Distributor”) will be the principal underwriter and distributor of the Fund's Shares. The Bank of New York Mellon Corporation will act as the administrator, accounting agent, custodian, and transfer agent to the Fund. The Exchange states that the Adviser is not a broker-dealer, but it is affiliated with the Distributor, a broker-dealer.
The Exchange has made the following representations and statements in describing the Fund and its investment strategy, including the Fund's portfolio holdings and investment restrictions.
The investment objective of the Fund will be to generate high current income. Under normal market conditions,
The Fund intends to qualify each year as a regulated investment company under Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
The Fund may invest (in the aggregate) up to 20% of its net assets in
(1) The Fund may invest in the exchange-traded preferred shares of U.S. exchange-traded mortgage REITs.
(2) The Fund may invest in (a) U.S. exchange-traded equity and preferred securities and (b) domestic over-the-counter (“OTC”) preferred securities, in each case, of companies engaged in the U.S. real estate industry (other than mortgage REITs) (collectively, “Real Estate Companies”).
(3) The Fund may invest in mortgage-backed securities,
(4) The Fund may invest in (a) exchange-traded and OTC options on mortgage REITs and Real Estate Companies; (b) OTC options on mortgage TBA transactions; (c) exchange-traded U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; (d) exchange-traded and OTC interest rate swap agreements; (e) exchange-traded options on U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; and (f) exchange-traded and OTC options on interest rate swap agreements. The use of these derivative transactions may allow the Fund to obtain net long or short exposures to selected interest rates. These derivatives may also be used to hedge risks, including interest rate risks and credit risks, associated with the Fund's portfolio investments. The Exchange represents that the Fund's investments in derivative instruments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and the 1940 Act and will not be used to seek to achieve a multiple or inverse multiple of an index. The Fund will only enter into transactions in OTC derivatives (including OTC options on mortgage REITs, Real Estate Companies, and mortgage TBA transactions; OTC interest rate swap agreements; and OTC options on interest rate swap agreements) with counterparties that the Adviser reasonably believes are capable of performing under the applicable contract or agreement.
(5) The Fund may invest in short-term debt securities and other short-term debt instruments (described below), as well as cash equivalents, or it may hold cash. The percentage of the Fund invested in such holdings or held in cash will vary and will depend on several factors, including market conditions. The Fund may invest in the following short-term debt instruments:
(6) The Fund may invest (but only, in the aggregate, up to 10% of its net assets) in the securities of money market funds and other ETFs that, in each case, will be investment companies registered under the 1940 Act.
The Fund may enter into short sales as part of its overall portfolio management strategies or to offset a potential decline in the value of a security; however, the Fund will not engage in short sales with respect to more than 30% of the value of its net assets. To the extent required under applicable federal securities laws, rules, and interpretations thereof, the Fund will “set aside” liquid assets or engage in other measures to “cover” open positions and short positions held in connection with the foregoing types of transactions.
The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including Rule 144A securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser.
The Fund may not invest 25% or more of the value of its total assets in securities of issuers in any one industry. This restriction does not apply to securities of issuers in the real estate sector, including real estate investment trusts; obligations issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government, its agencies or instrumentalities; or securities of other investment companies. The Fund will be concentrated in the real estate sector.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the Exchange's proposal to list and trade the Shares is consistent with the Exchange Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
The Commission also finds that the proposal to list and trade the Shares on the Exchange is consistent with Section 11A(a)(1)(C)(iii) of the Exchange Act,
The Fund's NAV will be determined as of the close of trading (normally 4:00 p.m. Eastern time) on each day the New York Stock Exchange LLC is open for business.
The Commission also believes that the proposal to list and trade the Shares is reasonably designed to promote fair disclosure of information that may be necessary to price the Shares appropriately and to prevent trading when a reasonable degree of transparency cannot be assured. The Exchange states that it will obtain a representation from the issuer of the Shares that the NAV per Share will be calculated daily and that the NAV and the Disclosed Portfolio will be made available to all market participants at the same time.
Nasdaq deems the Shares to be equity securities, thus rendering trading in the Shares subject to Nasdaq's existing rules governing the trading of equity securities. In support of this proposal, the Exchange represented that:
(1) The Shares will be subject to Nasdaq Rule 5735, which sets forth the initial and continued listing criteria applicable to Managed Fund Shares.
(2) Trading in the Shares will be subject to the existing trading surveillances administered by both Nasdaq and FINRA on behalf of the Exchange, which are designed to detect violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws, and these procedures are adequate to properly monitor Exchange trading of the Shares in all trading sessions and to detect and help deter violations of Exchange rules and applicable federal securities laws.
(3) FINRA, on behalf of the Exchange, will communicate as needed regarding trading in the Shares and the exchange-traded securities and instruments held by the Fund (including mortgage REITs (both common and preferred shares); exchange-traded Real Estate Companies; ETFs; exchange-traded options on mortgage REITs and Real Estate Companies; exchange-traded U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; exchange-traded interest rate swap agreements; exchange-traded options on U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; and exchange-traded options on interest rate swap agreements) with other markets and other entities that are members of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”),
(4) The Exchange has appropriate rules to facilitate transactions in the Shares during all trading sessions.
(5) Prior to the commencement of trading, the Exchange will inform its members in an Information Circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Shares. Specifically, the Information Circular will discuss the following: (a) The procedures for purchases and redemptions of Shares in Creation Units (and that Shares are not individually redeemable); (b) Nasdaq Rule 2111A, which imposes suitability obligations on Nasdaq members with respect to recommending transactions in the Shares to customers; (c) how information regarding the Intraday Indicative Value and the Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated; (d) the risks
(6) For initial and continued listing, the Fund must be in compliance with Rule 10A-3 under the Act.
(7) The Fund's investments in derivative instruments will be consistent with the Fund's investment objective and the 1940 Act and will not be used to seek to achieve a multiple or inverse multiple of an index, and the Fund will only enter into transactions in OTC derivatives (including OTC options on mortgage REITs, Real Estate Companies and mortgage TBA transactions; OTC interest rate swap agreements; and OTC options on interest rate swap agreements) with counterparties that the Adviser reasonably believes are capable of performing under the applicable contract or agreement.
(8) The Fund may invest (but only, in the aggregate, up to 10% of its net assets) in the securities of money market funds and other ETFs that, in each case, will be investment companies registered under the 1940 Act, and ETFs included in the Fund will be listed and traded in the U.S. on registered exchanges.
(9) The Fund will not invest in leveraged or inverse leveraged (
(10) The Fund will not engage in short sales with respect to more than 30% of the value of its net assets. To the extent required under applicable federal securities laws, rules, and interpretations thereof, the Fund will “set aside” liquid assets or engage in other measures to “cover” open positions and short positions held in connection with the foregoing types of transactions.
(11) The Fund may hold up to an aggregate amount of 15% of its net assets in illiquid assets (calculated at the time of investment), including securities deemed illiquid by the Adviser.
(12) At least 90% of the Fund's net assets that are invested in exchange-traded derivatives (including exchange-traded options on mortgage REITs and Real Estate Companies; exchange-traded U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; exchange-traded interest rate swap agreements; exchange-traded options on U.S. Treasury and Eurodollar futures contracts; and exchange-traded options on interest rate swap agreements) (in the aggregate) will be invested in instruments that trade in markets that are members of ISG or are parties to a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement with the Exchange.
(13) All of the Fund's net assets that are invested in exchange-traded equity securities (including mortgage REITs (both common and preferred shares); ETFs; and exchange-traded Real Estate Companies) (in the aggregate) will be invested in securities that trade in markets that are members of ISG or are parties to a comprehensive surveillance sharing agreement with the Exchange.
(14) A minimum of 100,000 Shares will be outstanding at the commencement of trading on the Exchange.
This approval order is based on all of the Exchange's representations, including those set forth above and in the Notice. The Commission notes that the Fund and the Shares must comply with the requirements of Nasdaq Rule 5735 to be listed and traded on the Exchange on an initial and continuing basis.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act
It is therefore ordered, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 31, 2016, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission finds it appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the proposed rule change so that it has sufficient time to consider this proposed rule change. Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to section 19(b)(2) of the Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
The following is a notice of applications for deregistration under section 8(f) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 for the month of July 2016. A copy of each application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
The Commission: Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Jessica Shin, Attorney-Adviser, at (202) 551-5921 or Chief Counsel's Office at (202) 551-6821; SEC, Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-8010.
Applicant states that in 1993 it voluntarily registered under the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act to permit certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F St. NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: Ranesh Ramanathan, Esq., General Counsel, Bain Capital Credit, LP, 200 Clarendon Street, 37th Floor, Boston, MA, 02116.
Elizabeth G. Miller, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-8707 or Holly Hunter-Ceci, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6825 (Chief Counsel's Office, Division of Investment Management).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. The Fund is a Delaware corporation organized as a closed-end management investment company that has elected to be regulated as a BDC under Section 54(a) of the Act.
2. The board of directors of the Fund (the “Board”) is comprised of five directors, three of whom are not “interested persons,” within the meaning of Section 2(a)(19) of the 1940 Act (the “Non-Interested Directors”), of the Fund.
3. BCSFA is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). BCSFA serves as investment adviser to the Fund. It is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bain.
4. Bain is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act. Bain serves as investment adviser to certain Existing Affiliated Funds and either it or another Adviser will serve as the investment adviser to any Future Affiliated Funds (defined below).
5. Bain Capital Credit (Australia), Pty. Ltd., an Australian proprietary company formed in 2012, is authorized and regulated by the Australian Securities and Investments Commission. It is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bain.
6. Bain Capital Credit (European Advisors), Ltd., a United Kingdom private limited company formed in 2014, and Bain Capital Credit, Ltd., a United Kingdom private limited company formed in 2005, are authorized and regulated by the U.K. Financial Conduct Authority. They are both wholly-owned subsidiaries of Bain.
7. Bain Capital Credit Asia, LLC is a limited liability company organized in the State of Delaware in 2014 that has been registered in Hong Kong under the Hong Kong Companies Ordinance. It is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Bain.
8. As Bain Capital, LP controls Bain, and will control any other Adviser, it may be deemed to control the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds. Applicants state that Bain Capital, LP is a holding company and does not currently offer investment advisory services to any person and is not expected to do so in the future. Applicants state that as a result, Bain Capital, LP has not been included as an Applicant.
9. Applicants seek an order (“Order”) to permit a Regulated Fund
The term “Adviser” means BCSFA and any Existing Bain Adviser and any future investment adviser that (i) controls, is controlled by or is under common control with Bain Capital, LP, and (ii) is registered as an investment adviser under the Advisers Act and (iii) is not a Regulated Fund or a subsidiary of a Regulated Fund.
10. Applicants state that a Regulated Fund may, from time to time, form one or more Wholly-Owned Investment Subs.
11. When considering Potential Co-Investment Transactions for any Regulated Fund, the applicable Adviser will consider only the Objectives and Strategies, investment policies, investment positions, capital available for investment, and other pertinent factors applicable to that Regulated Fund. The Regulated Fund Advisers expect that any portfolio company that is an appropriate investment for a Regulated Fund should also be an appropriate investment for one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds, with certain exceptions based on available capital or diversification.
12. Other than pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, and after making
13. With respect to the pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments provided in conditions 7 and 8, a Regulated Fund may participate in a pro rata disposition or Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if, among other things: (i) the proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition or Follow-On Investment, as the case may be; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved that Regulated Fund's participation in pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. If the Board does not so approve, any such disposition or Follow-On Investment will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors. The Board of any Regulated Fund may at any time rescind, suspend or qualify its approval of pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments with the result that all dispositions and/or Follow-On Investments must be submitted to the Eligible Directors.
14. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than through share ownership in one of the Regulated Funds.
1. Section 57(a)(4) of the Act prohibits certain affiliated persons of a BDC from participating in joint transactions with the BDC or a company controlled by a BDC in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Under section 57(b)(2) of the Act, any person who is directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with a BDC is subject to section 57(a)(4). Applicants submit that each of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds be deemed to be a person related to each Regulated Fund in a manner described by section 57(b) by virtue of being under common control. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will be deemed to apply to transactions subject to section 57(a)(4). Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 also applies to joint transactions with Regulated Funds that are BDCs. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act are applicable to Regulated Funds that are registered closed-end investment companies.
2. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit affiliated persons of a registered investment company from participating in joint transactions with the company unless the Commission has granted an order permitting such transactions. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
3. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, the Regulated Funds would be, in some circumstances, limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants believe that the proposed terms and conditions will ensure that the Co-Investment Transactions are consistent with the protection of each Regulated Fund's shareholders and with the purposes intended by the policies and provisions of the Act. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions will be consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and on a basis that is not different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
4. Applicants also represent that if the Advisers, certain employees and principals of Bain and its affiliated advisers (collectively, the “Principals”), any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Advisers or the Principals, and the Affiliated Funds (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting securities of a Regulated Fund (“Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as required under Condition 14. Applicants believe that this condition will ensure that the Non-Interested Directors will act independently in evaluating the Co-Investment Program, because the ability of the Advisers or the Principals to influence the Non-Interested Directors by a suggestion, explicit or implied, that the Non-Interested Directors can be removed will be limited significantly. Applicants represent that the Non-Interested Directors will evaluate and approve any such independent party, taking into account its qualifications, reputation for independence, cost to the shareholders, and other factors that they deem relevant.
Applicants agree that the Order will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Each time an Adviser considers a Potential Co-Investment Transaction for an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund that falls within a Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies, the Regulated Fund's Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for such Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
2. (a) If the Adviser deems a Regulated Fund's participation in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine an appropriate level of investment for the Regulated Fund.
(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Adviser to be invested by the applicable Regulated Fund in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each. The applicable Adviser will provide the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund with information concerning each participating party's available capital to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with these allocation procedures.
(c) After making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the applicable Adviser will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction (including the amount proposed to be invested by each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund) to the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will co-invest with
(i) the terms of the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its shareholders and do not involve overreaching in respect of the Regulated Fund or its shareholders on the part of any person concerned;
(ii) the Potential Co-Investment Transaction is consistent with:
(A) the interests of the shareholders of the Regulated Fund; and
(B) the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;
(iii) the investment by any other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds would not disadvantage the Regulated Fund, and participation by the Regulated Fund would not be on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds; provided that, if any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund itself, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors or the right to have a board observer or any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company, such event shall not be interpreted to prohibit the Required Majority from reaching the conclusions required by this condition 2(c)(iii), if:
(A) the Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any;
(B) the applicable Adviser agrees to, and does, provide periodic reports to the Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company; and
(C) any fees or other compensation that any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund or any affiliated person of any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund receives in connection with the right of an Affiliated Fund or a Regulated Fund to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among the participating Affiliated Funds (who each may, in turn, share its portion with its affiliated persons) and the participating Regulated Funds in accordance with the amount of each party's investment; and
(iv) the proposed investment by the Regulated Fund will not benefit the Advisers, the Affiliated Funds or the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of any of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by condition 13, (B) to the extent permitted by sections 17(e) or 57(k) of the Act, as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C).
3. Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
4. The applicable Adviser will present to the Board of each Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, a record of all investments in Potential Co-Investment Transactions made by any of the other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds during the preceding quarter that fell within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why the investment opportunities were not offered to the Regulated Fund. All information presented to the Board pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of the Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
5. Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with condition 8,
6. A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, settlement date, and registration rights will be the same for each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund. The grant to an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this condition 6, if conditions 2(c)(iii)(A), (B) and (C) are met.
7. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security that was acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed disposition at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to participation by each Regulated Fund in the disposition.
(b) Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the participating Affiliated Funds and any other Regulated Fund.
(c) A Regulated Fund may participate in such disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition; (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in such dispositions on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); and (iii) the Board of the Regulated Fund is provided on a quarterly basis with a list of all dispositions made in accordance with this condition. In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(d) Each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund will bear its own expenses in connection with any such disposition.
8. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in a portfolio company whose securities were acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including
(b) A Regulated Fund may participate in such Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application). In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(c) If, with respect to any Follow-On Investment:
(i) The amount of the opportunity is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and
(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the Adviser to be invested by each Regulated Fund in the Follow-On Investment, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the participating Affiliated Funds in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the opportunity; then the amount invested by each such party will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each.
(d) The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other conditions set forth in the application.
9. The Non-Interested Directors of each Regulated Fund will be provided quarterly for review all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Non-Interested Directors may determine whether all investments made during the preceding quarter, including those investments that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the conditions of the Order. In addition, the Non-Interested Directors will consider at least annually the continued appropriateness for the Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions.
10. Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f) of the Act.
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will also be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise an “affiliated person” (as defined in the Act), of an Affiliated Fund.
12. The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the Advisers under their respective investment advisory agreements with Affiliated Funds and the Regulated Funds, be shared by the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or to be acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
13. Any transaction fee
14. If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any other matter under either the Act or applicable State law affecting the Board's composition, size or manner of election.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
On February 27, 2015, BATS Exchange, Inc., BATS-Y Exchange, Inc., BOX Options Exchange LLC, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated, Chicago Stock Exchange, Inc., EDGA Exchange, Inc., EDGX Exchange, Inc.,
Rule 608
The Commission hereby extends the time period for Commission action on the proposed Plan and designates November 10, 2016, which is the last business day before the 180th day after publication of the proposed Plan,
Accordingly, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statement [sic] may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this proposed rule filing is to correct typographical errors in the referenced time frames for the Post-Market Hours and the Post-Market Session trading in Rule 1.160(aa), the referenced time frames for System Hours in Rule 1.160(oo), as well as the referenced time frames for the Regular Market Session, Pre-Market Session and Post-Market Session in Rule 16.105(a)(7) and (b)(7).
Specifically, Rule 1.160(aa) incorrectly states that the term “Post-Market Hours” or “Post Market Session” shall mean the time between 4:30 p.m. and 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time. The rule should instead state that the term “Post-Market Hours” or “Post Market Session” shall mean the time between 4:00 p.m. and 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time. Similarly, Rule 1.160(oo) incorrectly states that the term “System Hours” ends at 5:30 p.m. Eastern Time, rather than 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
In addition, Rule 16.105(a)(7) and (b)(7) incorrectly state that Regular Market Session trading occurs until 4:15 p.m. rather than 4:00 p.m. Those rule provisions also incorrectly state that the Pre-Market Session begins at 4:00 a.m. rather than 8:00 a.m. and that the Post-Market Session ends at 8:00 p.m. rather than 5:00 p.m.
The proposed rule change would correct the time frame references, and thus clarify exchange rules and alleviate any confusion among market participants.
IEX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)
IEX does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition because IEX is merely correcting its rules to correct inadvertent errors.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The Exchange has designated this rule filing as non-controversial under Section 19(b)(3)(A)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings under Section 19(b)(2)(B)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
CHX proposes to amend the Rules of the Exchange (“CHX Rules”) to provide for web-based delivery of the continuing education (“CE”) program (“CE Online System”).
CHX has designated this proposed rule change as non-controversial pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
The text of this proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at (
In its filing with the Commission, the CHX included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule changes and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The CHX has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The CE requirement under current Article 6, Rule 11 consists of a Regulatory Element
Given that test center delivery is no longer available for individuals other than those individuals that require accommodations due to a disability,
Before commencing a Web-based session, each candidate will be required to agree to the Rules of Conduct for Web-based delivery. Among other things, the Rules of Conduct will require each candidate to attest that he or she is in fact the person who is taking the Web-based session. The Rules of Conduct will also require that each candidate agree that the Regulatory Element content is intellectual property and that the content cannot be copied or redistributed by any means. If the Exchange discovers that a candidate has violated the Rules of Conduct, the candidate will forfeit the results of the Web-based session and may be subject to disciplinary action by the Exchange. Violation of the Rules of Conduct will
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act
In particular, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will improve Participants' compliance efforts and will allow registered persons to spend a greater amount of time on the review of CE materials and potentially achieve better learning outcomes, which will in turn enhance investor protection. Further, while the proposed rule change will provide more flexibility to members and registered persons, it will maintain the integrity of the Regulatory Element program and the CE program in general.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the harmonization of the Regulatory Element delivery requirements across the various markets will reduce burdens on competition by removing impediments to participation in the national market system.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed pursuant to Rule 19b-4(f)(6) under the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The principal purpose of the proposed rule change is to revise the ICC Risk Management Framework to incorporate certain risk model enhancements. ICC also proposes minor clarifying edits to the ICC Risk Management Model Description document and the ICC Risk Management Framework. These revisions do not require any changes to the ICC Clearing Rules (“Rules”).
In its filing with the Commission, ICC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. ICC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B and C below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
ICC proposes revising its risk management framework to incorporate risk model enhancements related to the single name credit default swap (“CDS”) liquidity charge methodology. ICC believes such revisions will facilitate the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions for which it is responsible. The proposed revisions are described in detail as follows.
ICC proposes a revised approach to computing single name CDS liquidity charges. Specifically, ICC proposes to introduce minimum instrument liquidity requirements independent of instrument maturities. ICC's current approach features instrument liquidity requirements that decay with time to maturity for fixed credit spread levels. The proposed approach introduces minimum liquidity requirements for individual instruments, independent of time to maturity for the considered instruments, and thus establishes minimum liquidity charges that do not decay over time as maturity is approached. The revised calculation for single name CDS liquidity charges at the instrument level incorporates a price-based bid-offer width floor component to provide stability of requirements, as well as a dynamic spread-based BOW component to reflect the additional risk associated with distressed market conditions. The values of such price-based BOW and spread-based BOW are fixed factors, which are subject to at least monthly reviews and updates by ICC Risk Management Department with consultation with the Risk Committee.
ICC also proposes enhancements to the liquidity charge calculation at the risk factor level. The current risk factor level liquidity requirements are based on forward CDS spread levels. Under the revised calculation, liquidity charges at the risk factor level are computed by first calculating the liquidity requirements for each individual instrument position in the portfolio, and then summing all instrument liquidity requirements for positions with the same directionality,
ICC expects these enhancements will ensure more stable liquidity requirements for instruments across the curve. Further, the enhancements simplify ICC's liquidity charge methodology, which promotes ease of understanding. As stated above, the current risk factor level liquidity requirements are based on forward CDS spread levels and are, in general, more difficult to replicate due to the inherited need for knowledge of spread levels across the entire term structure (“curve”). Additionally, to facilitate replication of the enhanced liquidity charge calculations, ICC will provide end-of-day data for instruments in which clients have open positions, allowing for additional transparency and easier replication for clients who wish to estimate liquidity charges for hypothetical and current positions.
ICC also proposes updating liquidity scaling factors to reflect the methodology enhancements. There is no price based component under the current methodology. To reflect the introduction of a price based component, the liquidity scaling factors have been decomposed and adjusted in order to maintain the same overall composition with both price and spread based components.
ICC also proposes minor clarifying edits to the ICC Risk Management Framework and the ICC Risk Management Model Description document. ICC added language to the Overview section of the Risk Management Framework to identify which ICC documents provide additional details regarding ICC's risk management approach. ICC added language to the Governance and Organization section of the Risk Management Framework to note that the reporting line of ICC's Chief Risk Officer to the Chairperson of the ICC Risk Committee, who is also a non-executive manager on the Board, allows the Chief Risk Officer to bring any issues or concerns directly to the Board without intermediation by other ICC personnel. ICC also made edits to the Governance and Organization section of the Risk Management Framework to revise the list of documents reviewed by the Risk Committee on at least an annual basis to include the ICC End-of-Day Price Discovery Policies and Procedures and the ICC Operational Risk Management
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
ICC does not believe the proposed rule changes would have any impact, or impose any burden, on competition. The risk model enhancements and clarifying changes apply uniformly across all market participants. Therefore, ICC does not believe the proposed rule changes impose any burden on competition that is inappropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments relating to the proposed rule change have not been solicited or received. ICC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by ICC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-ICC-2016-010 and should be submitted on or before August 25, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to detail how Complex Orders will execute through the Facilitation Auction mechanism. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to detail how the Facilitation Auction mechanism will treat Complex Orders on the Exchange.
This proposal only addresses how the Facilitation Auction mechanism will treat Complex Orders on the Exchange. Similar to the ISE's Block-Trade rules,
Upon the entry of a block-sized order into the Facilitation mechanism, a broadcast message will be sent to Options Participants, giving them one second to enter responses with the prices and sizes at which they would be willing to participate opposite the Agency Order (“Responses”).
Identical to the process for single-leg orders, Participants may enter Responses for Complex Orders in these auctions at net prices, and bids and offers for Complex Orders will participate in the execution of an order being executed as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of Rule 7270. However, the execution rules for Complex Orders detailed in BOX Rule 7240(b)(2) and (3) will continue to apply.
If there is no execution against the Implied Order, the Agency Order can execute against the Complex Order interest. The priority rules for the Facilitation Auction,
Since it is possible to execute the entire Complex Order against interest on the BOX Book (Implied Order) at the same price, the sell order will execute against the bids on A, B and C at $1.00 for 100 contracts each. And since this execution will exhaust the sell order, all the Responses, including the Public Customer's Response and the OFP's Facilitation Order will receive no trade allocation.
The pricing provision in BOX Rule 7270(a)(3)(i) will apply to Public Customer Complex Orders and Public Customer Responses. If there is not sufficient size to execute the entire Agency Order at a better price and there are Public Customer Complex Order bids (offers) and Public Customer Responses on BOX at the time the Agency Order is executed that are priced higher (lower) than the facilitation price, these will maintain their price priority but execute at the Facilitation Price.
The following example illustrates the allocation priority of BOX Rule 7270(a)(3)(ii). An OFP submits a Complex Order through the Facilitation auction to sell 500 A+B+C at $3.00. During the one second auction, BOX receives the following bids (offers) in time priority:
The following example illustrates allocation priority of interest on the BOX Book over an OFP's allocation priority.
The final example below illustrates allocation priority when the OFP has designated a surrender quantity under BOX Rule 7270(a)(3)(iii). An OFP submits a Complex Order through the Facilitation auction to sell 300 A+B+C at $3.00 with a surrender quantity of 220. During the one second auction, BOX receives the following bids (offers) in time priority:
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of section 6(b) of the Act,
The proposed change provides for the execution of Complex Orders through the Facilitation auction mechanism. As such, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
(a) This proposed rule change is filed pursuant to paragraph (A) of section 19(b)(3) of the Exchange Act
(b) Because this proposed rule change does not significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest, does not impose any significant burden on competition, and, by its terms, does not become operative for 30 days after the date of the filing, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act and Rule 19b-4(f)(6) thereunder.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice of request for public comment.
The Department of State is seeking Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we are requesting comments on this collection from all interested individuals and organizations. The purpose of this notice is to allow 60 days for public comment preceding submission of the collection to OMB.
The Department will accept comments from the public up to October 3, 2016.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
You must include the DS form number (if applicable), information collection title, and the OMB control number in any correspondence.
Direct requests for additional information regarding the collection listed in this notice, including requests for copies of the proposed collection instrument and supporting documents, to Alice Kottmyer, Office of the Legal Adviser for Management, who may be reached on 202-647-2318 or
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
We are soliciting public comments to permit the Department to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed information collection is necessary for the proper functions of the Department.
• Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the time and cost burden for this proposed collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
• Minimize the reporting burden on those who are to respond, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please note that comments submitted in response to this Notice are public record. Before including any detailed personal information, you should be aware that your comments as submitted, including your personal information, will be available for public review.
Department of State.
Notice of request for contact information.
This notice concerns all U.S. nationals who are entitled to pension payments from the Government of Belgium due to their work in the former Belgian overseas territories or as survivors of those who worked in such territories.
All submissions must be postmarked by October 3, 2016 in order to receive consideration.
Submissions may be emailed to
Office of International Claims and Investment Disputes, at (202) 776-8360.
This notice concerns all U.S. nationals who are entitled to pension payments from the Government of Belgium due to their work in the former Belgian overseas territories or as survivors of those who worked in such territories. These individuals, along with the estates of such individuals who died between January 1, 2012 and September 15, 2015, may be entitled to additional amounts in connection with their pension payments.
In order to evaluate whether compensation can be granted, the Department of State requests all such individuals, or their estate representatives, to contact the Department of State in writing and provide their contact information.
Individuals who have forwarded information regarding their pensions to the Department of State at the request of the Government of Belgium need not do so again.
The information is sought pursuant to the State Department Basic Authorities Act, 22 U.S.C. 2651a, 2656 and 2668a, as well as the 1982 Agreement between the United States of America and the Kingdom of Belgium on Social Security and related agreements. The information solicited will be used to determine whether persons are entitled to compensation under the Belgium Claims program. Certain information may be made available to other government agencies that might be involved in the processing of claims, principally the Department of the Treasury. The information may also be released to other government agencies having statutory or other lawful authority to maintain such information. More information on the Routine Uses for the system can be found in the System of Records Notice for Records of the Office of the Assistant Legal Adviser for International Claims and Investment Disputes (STATE-54). Providing this information is voluntary, but if you do not provide this information, we may not be able to determine whether you are entitled to compensation under this program.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Supplemental notice of meeting.
Due to scheduling conflicts, the FAA is rescheduling meeting dates that were published in the notice May 6, 2016, announcing the 2016 meetings of the Equip 2020 Plenary and Working Groups.
Meeting 2 is rescheduled for Thursday, September 29, at 8:30 a.m.; and meeting 3 is rescheduled for Tuesday, December 6, at 8:30 a.m.
Meetings 2 and 3 will be held at Helicopter Association International, 1920 Ballenger Ave., Alexandria, VA 22314.
Elisabeth Auld, Program Support—FAA AVS Safety Technical Support Services Flight Technologies and Procedures Division; Email:
(a) Meeting attendance is by invitation only, and is generally limited to those that have participated in previous meetings or are a proxy from their organization.
(b) All meetings start at 8:30 a.m. and conclude at approximately 3:30 p.m. Doors open 30 minutes prior to the beginning of each meeting
(c) Equip 2020 meetings generally start with 2 hours of Plenary briefings/discussion, 2-3 hours of working group meetings and 1-2 hours of Plenary for working group out briefs. Working groups are currently: Air Carrier Equipage, General Aviation Equipage
(d) Contact Elisabeth Auld (
(e) The meetings will not be formally recorded. However, minutes are posted approximately 2-3 weeks after the meeting on the Equip 2020 SharePoint site
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9665, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p.389.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA).
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 21 individuals for an exemption from the prohibition against persons with a clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition that is likely to cause a loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals who have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication to operate CMVs for up to 2 years in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 6, 2016.
You may submit comments to the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2015-0323 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001, or via email at
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption for up to a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statutes allow the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 21 individuals listed in this notice have requested an exemption from the epilepsy prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8), which applies to drivers who operate CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding epilepsy found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(8) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person:
Has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of epilepsy or any other condition which is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or any loss of ability to control a CMV.
In addition to the regulations, FMCSA has published advisory criteria
The advisory criteria states that if an individual has had a sudden episode of a non-epileptic seizure or loss of consciousness of unknown cause that did not require anti-seizure medication, the decision whether that person's condition is likely to cause the loss of consciousness or loss of ability to control a CMV should be made on an individual basis by the medical examiner in consultation with the treating physician. Before certification is considered, it is suggested that a 6-month waiting period elapse from the time of the episode. Following the waiting period, it is suggested that the individual have a complete neurological examination. If the results of the examination are negative and anti-seizure medication is not required, then the driver may be qualified.
In those individual cases where a driver had a seizure or an episode of loss of consciousness that resulted from a known medical condition (
Drivers who have a history of epilepsy/seizures, off anti-seizure
As a result of medical examiners misinterpreting advisory criteria as regulation, numerous drivers have been prohibited from operating a CMV in interstate commerce based on the fact that they have had one or more seizures and are taking anti-seizure medication, rather than an individual analysis of their circumstances by a qualified medical examiner based on the physical qualification standards and medical best practices.
Mr. Amoriello is a 42 year-old driver in Wisconsin. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure free since 1984. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2012. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Amoriello receiving an exemption.
Mr. Anderson is a 52 year-old class B CDL holder in North Carolina. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure free since 1991. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Anderson receiving an exemption.
Mr. Bienstock is a 48 year-old class A CDL holder in Arizona. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2003. He discontinued anti-seizure medication in 2008. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Bienstock receiving an exemption.
Mr. Bradbord is a 39 year-old class A CDL holder in Alabama. He has a history of epilepsy and has remained seizure-free since 2004. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2013. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Bradford receiving an exemption.
Mr. Drion is a 52 year-old class B CDL holder in Missouri. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2002. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Drion receiving an exemption.
Mr. Elder is a 49 year-old class A CDL holder in Kentucky. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2002. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Elder receiving an exemption.
Mr. Farver is a 50 year-old driver in Pennsylvania. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2008. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Farver receiving an exemption.
Mr. Foster is a 49 year-old driver in Oklahoma. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2007. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Foster receiving an exemption.
Mr. Green is a 42 year-old class B CDL holder in California. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2008. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Green receiving an exemption.
Mr. Harmon is a 39 year-old driver in West Virginia. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since January 2005. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since 2010. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Harmon receiving an exemption.
Mr. Horst is a 66 year-old driver in Maryland. He has a history of a single seizure in 2009. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Horst receiving an exemption.
Mr. Hyster is a 27 year-old class A CDL holder in Ohio. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since January 2009. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Hyster receiving an exemption.
Mr. Koger is a 42 year-old class A CDL holder in Pennsylvania. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2007. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Koger receiving an exemption.
Mr. Loney is a 32 year-old driver in Washington. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since January 2004. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Loney receiving an exemption.
Mr. Mallory is a 65 year-old driver in Vermont. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 1997. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Mallory receiving an exemption.
Mr. Nesbitt is a 44 year-old driver in New York. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure-free since 2009. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Nesbitt receiving an exemption.
Ms. Rialson is a 28 year-old driver in Minnesota. She has a history of epilepsy and has remained seizure-free since 2005. She takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. Her physician states that she is supportive of Ms. Rialson receiving an exemption.
Mr. Sanabria is a 61 year-old class B CDL holder in New York. He has a history of a seizure disorder as the result of brain lymphoma that was diagnosed in 2003. He remains in remission and has been seizure free since 2004. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Sanabria receiving an exemption.
Mr. Sica is a 53 year-old driver in Connecticut. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure free since 1985. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Sica receiving an exemption.
Mr. Van De Mark is a 62 class A CDL holder in New Jersey. He has a history of a seizure disorder and has remained seizure free since 1986. He takes anti-seizure medication with the dosage and frequency remaining the same since that time. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Van De Mark receiving an exemption.
Mr. Youse is a 24 year-old driver in North Carolina. He has a history of childhood epilepsy and has been seizure free since 2002. He has not taken anti-seizure medication since 2005. His physician states that he is supportive of Mr. Youse receiving an exemption.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date section of the notice.
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and materials received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of denials.
FMCSA announces its denial of 88 applications from individuals who requested an exemption from the Federal diabetes standard applicable to interstate truck and bus drivers and the reasons for the denials. FMCSA has statutory authority to exempt individuals from the diabetes requirement if the exemptions granted will not compromise safety. The Agency has concluded that granting these exemptions does not provide a level of safety that will be equivalent to, or greater than, the level of safety maintained without the exemptions for these commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers.
Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal diabetes standard for a renewable 2-year period if it finds “such an exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved absent such an exemption.” The procedures for requesting an exemption are set forth in 49 CFR part 381.
Accordingly, FMCSA evaluated 88 individual exemption requests on their merits and made a determination that these applicants do not satisfy the criteria eligibility or meet the terms and conditions of the Federal exemption program. Each applicant has, prior to this notice, received a letter of final disposition on the exemption request. Those decision letters fully outlined the basis for the denial and constitute final Agency action. The list published in this notice summarizes the Agency's recent denials as required under 49 U.S.C. 31315(b)(4) by periodically publishing names and reasons for denial.
The following 8 applicants met the diabetes requirements of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) and do not need an exemption:
The following 39 applicants were not operating CMVs in interstate commerce:
The following 2 applicants had renal insufficiency:
The following 8 applicants have had more than one hypoglycemic episode requiring hospitalization or the assistance of others, or has had one such episode but has not had one year of stability following the episode:
The following 4 applicants had other medical conditions making the applicant otherwise unqualified under the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations:
The following 2 applicants were unable to have an endocrinologist state the applicant is able to operate a CMV from a diabetes standpoint:
The following applicant, Kenneth M. Zakaib, currently resides in Canada. He is not eligible because the Federal exemption is for drivers operating only in the United States.
The following applicant, Jeffrey W. Sgrignoli, is unable or has not demonstrated willingness to properly monitor and manage his or her diabetes, whether by personal decision or medical inability.
The following applicant, Larry Bush, has peripheral neuropathy or circulatory insufficiency of the extremities likely to interfere with his or her ability to operate a CMV.
The following 2 applicants did not meet the minimum age criteria outlined in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(1) which states that an individual must be at least 21 years old to operate a CMV in interstate commerce:
The following 20 applicants were exempt from the diabetes standard:
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA).
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 47 individuals for exemption from the prohibition against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before September 6, 2016.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0043 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 47 individuals listed in this notice have recently requested such an exemption from the diabetes prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Ankerson, 47, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ankerson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ankerson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Beatty, 62, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Beatty understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Beatty meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Mississippi.
Mr. Bianco, 46, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bianco understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bianco meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Bittner, 40, has had ITDM since 2003. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bittner understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bittner meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from North Dakota.
Mr. Brown, 35, has had ITDM since 1992. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Brown understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Brown meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Tennessee.
Mr. Campbell, 27, has had ITDM since 1993. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Campbell understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Campbell meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Alabama.
Mr. Cicciari, 50, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2015 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Cicciari understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Cicciari meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Cockman, 67, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist
Mr. Dambra, 59, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Dambra understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Dambra meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Ms. Davis, 51, has had ITDM since 2016. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. Her endocrinologist certifies that Ms. Davis understands diabetes management and monitoring has stable control of her diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Ms. Davis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). Her optometrist examined her in 2016 and certified that she does not have diabetic retinopathy. She holds a Class B CDL from Indiana.
Mr. DeCarolis, 58, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. DeCarolis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. DeCarolis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Kansas.
Mr. Dominguez, 35, has had ITDM since 1994. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Dominguez understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Dominguez meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from California.
Mr. Fetzer, 61, has had ITDM since 2005. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Fetzer understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Fetzer meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Fisher, 64, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Fisher understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Fisher meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Gehrke, 34, has had ITDM since 1985. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Gehrke understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Gehrke meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Minnesota.
Mr. Glanville, 54, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Glanville understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Glanville meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from the District of Columbia.
Mr. Goanos, 44, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Goanos understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Goanos meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class C CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Gousie, 22, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Gousie understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Gousie meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Massachusetts.
Mr. Hampton, 50, has had ITDM since 1998. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hampton understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hampton meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Nevada.
Mr. Hart, 72, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2015 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hart understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hart meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Michigan.
Mr. Hart, 31, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hart understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hart meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Holbert, 29, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Holbert understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Holbert meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New York.
Mr. King, 54, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. King understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. King meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Carolina.
Mr. Kniffen, 57, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kniffen understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kniffen meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Lazzell, 47, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lazzell understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lazzell meets the
Mr. Lemaster, 36, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lemaster understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lemaster meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Carolina.
Mr. Leonard, 52, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Leonard understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Leonard meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Illinois.
Mr. Lockwood, 32, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lockwood understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lockwood meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Maryland.
Mr. Mace, 26, has had ITDM since 2005. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mace understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mace meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Washington.
Mr. McCabe, 43, has had ITDM since 1980. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McCabe understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McCabe meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Washington.
Mr. McKenzie, 53, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McKenzie understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McKenzie meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Ohio.
Mr. McNamara, 57, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. McNamara understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. McNamara meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from South Carolina.
Mr. Meulenberg, 60, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Meulenberg understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Meulenberg meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class C CDL from Michigan.
Mr. Neppl, 40, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or
Mr. Newton, 38, has had ITDM since 2005. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Newton understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Newton meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Pennington, 36, has had ITDM since 1986. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Pennington understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely.
Mr. Pennington meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Petty, 70, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Petty understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Petty meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from California.
Mr. Phipps, 46, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Phipps understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Phipps meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable proliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Maryland.
Mr. Roe, 59, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Roe understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Roe meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Roebuck, 71, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Roebuck understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Roebuck meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Texas.
Mr. Shipley, 48, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Shipley understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Shipley meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from South Dakota.
Mr. Shockley, 32, has had ITDM since 1994. His endocrinologist examined him in 2015 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Shockley understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Shockley meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016
Mr. Stafford, 48, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Stafford understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Stafford meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from West Virginia.
Mr. Tichnor, 56, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Tichnor understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Tichnor meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from New Jersey.
Mr. Waterman, 51, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Waterman understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Waterman meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from South Dakota.
Mr. Wojciak, 62, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wojciak understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wojciak meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Connecticut.
Mr. Young, 50, has had ITDM since 2008. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Young understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Young meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of business on the closing date indicated in the date section of the notice.
FMCSA notes that section 4129 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible and Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users requires the Secretary to revise its diabetes exemption program established on September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441).
Section 4129 requires: (1) Elimination of the requirement for 3 years of experience operating CMVs while being treated with insulin; and (2) establishment of a specified minimum period of insulin use to demonstrate stable control of diabetes before being allowed to operate a CMV.
In response to section 4129, FMCSA made immediate revisions to the diabetes exemption program established by the September 3, 2003 notice. FMCSA discontinued use of the 3-year driving experience and fulfilled the requirements of section 4129 while continuing to ensure that operation of CMVs by drivers with ITDM will achieve the requisite level of safety required of all exemptions granted under 49 U.S.C.. 31136 (e).
Section 4129(d) also directed FMCSA to ensure that drivers of CMVs with ITDM are not held to a higher standard than other drivers, with the exception of limited operating, monitoring and medical requirements that are deemed medically necessary.
The FMCSA concluded that all of the operating, monitoring and medical requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified, were in compliance with section 4129(d). Therefore, all of the requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified by the notice in the
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments on a previously approved information collection.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before September 6, 2016.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. You may also send comments by email to
Angela Dow by telephone at 202-366-1246, by fax at 202-366-4566, or by mail at U.S. Department of Transportation, PHMSA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., PHP-30, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, amend the format of the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants (Lists) to reflect current practices and standards that will make the regulations and Lists easier to understand. The Lists, in the new format, are included in their entirety and have been updated to correct identified errors.
This rule is effective August 4, 2016.
Don Morgan, Ecological Services Program, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041; telephone 703-358-2171. If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD), call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 800-877-8339.
The Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants (Lists), found in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) at 50 CFR 17.11 for wildlife and 50 CFR 17.12 for plants, contain the names of endangered species and threatened species officially listed pursuant to the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
The species were placed on the Lists as the result of rulemaking promulgated by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS), by the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) of the Department of Commerce's National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, or by both agencies via joint rulemaking actions. References to “Services” in the text of §§ 17.11 and 17.12 refer to both of these agencies.
The Lists represent the official Federal Government record of which species are listed and where they are considered listed under the ESA. The Lists also contain information regarding other designations and regulations issued under specific provisions of the ESA, such as section 4(d) regarding threatened species, section 10(j) regarding experimental populations, and critical habitat.
Over time, we have noted numerous unintentional errors, ambiguous entries, and confusing format and column titles in the Lists. After detailed research on the origin, history, and purpose of the Lists, we determined that the format, references, and standards needed to be updated to better reflect current practices and standards. Consequently, we published a proposed rule in the
The following adjustments have been made which are different from the proposed document. We have decreased the total columns to 5 instead of 8 for both Lists by removing the “Historical range” columns, and combining the “When listed”, “Critical habitat” and “Special rules” columns.
The first endangered species list was published March 11, 1967 (32 FR 4001), pursuant to the Endangered Species Preservation Act of 1966, and included only two columns, Common Name and Scientific Name. In 1970, after passage of the Endangered Species Conservation Act in 1969, that list was added to title 50 CFR in the newly created part 17. In 1971, that list was divided into two separate lists with appendix A being the “U.S. List of Endangered Foreign Fish and Wildlife” with three columns (Common Name, Scientific Name, and Where Found) and appendix D being the “United States' List of Endangered Native Fish and Wildlife” with only the original two columns (Common Name and Scientific Name).
In 1974, after enactment of the ESA, the two appendices were moved to § 17.11 and § 17.12, with appendix A becoming § 17.11 (Foreign) and appendix D becoming § 17.12 (Native). In 1975, the two lists were combined into one list at § 17.11 (Wildlife), and the columns were expanded from three to eight (Common Name, Scientific Name, Population, Known Distribution, Portion of Range Where Endangered or Threatened, Status, When Listed, and Special Rules). See figure 1, below. The footnote system denoting “When Listed” found in the current CFR was created with 11 footnotes. Section 17.12 was reserved for “Endangered and Threatened Plants”.
In 1977, § 17.12 was populated with only seven columns (Common Name, Scientific Name, Known Distribution, Portion of Range Where Threatened or Endangered, Status, When Listed, and Special Rules). See figure 2, below. The § 17.12 List had its own footnote system, which was only one footnote at that time.
In 1980, the Lists underwent the last major formatting change prior to this current rulemaking action. A proposed rule was published on August 15, 1979 (44 FR 47862), proposing to include the following columns for § 17.11 (Wildlife): Common name, Scientific name, Historic range, Population where endangered or threatened, Status, When listed, Critical habitat, and Special rules; and the following columns for § 17.12 (Plants): Scientific name, Common name, Historic range, Status, When listed, Critical habitat, and Special rules. A final rule that published on February 27, 1980 (45 FR 13010), set forth the following columns for § 17.11: Common name, Scientific name, Historic range, Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened, Status, When listed, Critical habitat, and Special rules. The final rule adopted the columns for § 17.12 as they had appeared in the proposed rule. See figures 3 and 4.
Neither the August 1979 proposed rule nor the February 1980 final rule included the entire contents of the Lists. The Lists in their entirety were published in the new format with corrections to technical errors on May 20, 1980 (45 FR 33767). On September 30, 1994 (59 FR 49848), the family grouping of the plants, which had resided in the scientific name column, was moved to a new column named “Family.” See figure 5.
Through this rulemaking, we are changing the format of the Lists to include current practices and standards, thereby ensuring that the regulations and Lists are easy for the public to understand. We are also standardizing entries and correcting numerous errors and ambiguous entries. Technical corrections in this rulemaking include updating or correcting footnotes, references to certain other applicable portions of title 50 CFR, synonyms, and the spelling of species' names. We also provide more current common names. Textual descriptions of the List format, such as the meaning of the column titles, are included within these changes to the regulations at §§ 17.11 and 17.12. None of the changes are regulatory in nature with respect to the entities on the List; these changes are for the purpose of clarity. These revisions do not alter species' protections or status in any way. Such actions would require separate rulemaking actions following the procedures of 50 CFR part 424.
With this rule, we are renaming, reorganizing, and removing columns in the Lists to clarify the types of information being presented. The following paragraphs describe the new columns.
For both Lists, we are replacing the column heading “When listed” with “Listing citations and applicable rules.” This column currently contains footnote numbers referencing a table of citations for final listing rules. When we proposed the changes to the format of the Lists in 1979 that instituted this footnote system, the Lists contained only 44 footnotes. The Lists now have more than 800 footnotes, and, consequently, the footnote system has become hard for us to manage and for the public to use. To correct this situation, we are replacing the footnote numbers that currently populate this column with the actual
These columns provide the citations for pertinent regulations for the listed species and were created solely for the convenience of the public. To consolidate these purely navigational columns, we are combining the “Special rules,” “Critical habitat,” and “When listed” columns into the renamed “Listing citations and applicable rules” column. Superscripts utilized in this column are identified in the revised regulatory text at §§ 17.11(f)(1) and 17.12(f)(1). For additional information concerning these entries and downloadable maps of proposed and designated critical habitat, please visit the Services' Web sites (
We originally published the entries for invertebrate species indicating “not applicable” (shown as “NA”) in the column “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” because that column applied only to distinct population segments of vertebrate species. In the October 1, 2000, edition of the CFR, in the Lists found at § 17.11(h), all of the entries for invertebrate species within the column “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” were erroneously changed to “Entire.” While it is generally true that the invertebrate species are listed wherever found thus, throughout their entire range, except where listed as experimental populations, it is more accurate to state that this column is not applicable since it pertains to vertebrate populations. The error was purely editorial; it in no way changed any of the applicable provisions of law. As indicated in the prior regulations at § 17.11(e), all individuals of the invertebrate species are protected wherever found, regardless of whether “NA” or “Entire” appeared in the column. However, amendments to the Act in 1982 included the addition of section 10(j) which allows for the designation of reintroduced populations of listed species as “experimental populations.” Under section 10(j) of the Act and our regulations at 50 CFR 17.81, the Service may designate as an experimental population a population of endangered or threatened species that has been or will be released into suitable natural habitat outside the species' current natural range. The format of the Lists published in 1980, prior to the 1982 amendments, did not envision this change and therefore did not provide specifically for indicating experimental population designations. When the Service published regulations regarding experimental population at 50 CFR 17.80 (49 FR 33885, August 27, 1984), we stated that experimental population designations would be indicated by a separate line in the Lists at §§ 17.11 and 17.12. Thus, the location information for experimental population designations of listed species began to be placed in the column originally intended to indicate species listed as distinct population segments of vertebrate species. Additionally, as the Service began to expand our use of section 10(j) in recovery of listed species, we also included location information for experimental population designations of invertebrate species, causing an inconsistency between the column's title and its application.
To address these issues, for the wildlife list (§ 17.11(h)) only, we are replacing the column heading “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” with “Where listed,” to more broadly accommodate the information regarding the geographic specificity of both distinct population segments of vertebrate species and experimental population designations. Thus, the new name “Where listed” better reflects the data within the column. We are also changing all the current “NA” entries to “Wherever found” to reflect the change in the column title. All current entries that have the word “Entire” will be changed to “Wherever found” to standardize all entries to the same format. And, lastly, we will no longer use the “ditto” system (shown as “do” in the current tables) to indicate duplicative information.
For the plants list (§ 17.12(h)), we are replacing the “Family” column with a “Where listed” column to standardize both Lists to identical columns and structure. We are also populating each entry for that column with “Wherever found” because the ESA protection for all of the plants currently on the list applies to all individuals of a plant species wherever found. Future additions to the list may have a more limited entry under the “Where listed” column if experimental populations of plant species are designated. Including the “Where listed” column in the List of plants facilitates our ability to provide more specific information in the future, if applicable. While we are no longer including a plant species' taxonomic family in order to standardize the format between the Lists, information regarding a species taxonomy is readily available through links provided on our species profile pages. A link to the Integrated Taxonomic Information System (ITIS), which displays the taxonomic hierarchy of a species, including its family name, is provided on each species' profile page accessible through the Services' Web sites (
The ESA defines “species” to include any “distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature.” (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). NMFS's Evolutionarily Significant Unit (ESU) policy (56 FR 58612, November 20, 1991) defines how it will apply this definition of “species” in evaluating Pacific salmon stocks for listing under the ESA. The Services' interagency Policy Regarding the Recognition of Distinct Vertebrate Population Segments (DPS) (61 FR 4721, February 7, 1996) clarifies their interpretation of the phrase “distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife” for the purpose of listing, delisting, and reclassifying species under the ESA. Currently, the “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” column distinguishes the different ESU and DPS entries for the same species by describing the geographic area where it is found, but without providing a name for the population or indicating it is an ESU or DPS listing. We are adding the ESU or DPS subtitle to the Common
The “Historic range” column is not required by the ESA (see section 4(c)(1)) and is part of the “other data in the list” currently referenced in 50 CFR 17.11(d) and 17.12(d) as “nonregulatory in nature” and “provided for the information of the reader.” However, since its creation in 1980, it has been a source of contention and confusion, leading to questions of how it is defined; its regulatory use; what time period it represents; and should it instead be changed to “Historical Range”. These and similar concerns were raised in the 1980 reformat (see 45 FR 13011, February 27, 1980), for which the Services took the following position regarding suggestions for specific criteria to define this column: “In light of this broad diversity and the guidance of both the Act and the legislative history, the Services find it inadvisable to establish new criteria as suggested. The Services will continue to consider this issue, however, and will propose criteria at a later date, if warranted.” Given prior concerns regarding this column in the 1980 reformat and continued long-standing confusion regarding its use and meaning, we revisited this issue in making our final determination on this action. The Services have consistently indicated that information provided regarding historic range is purely informational and does not alter or imply any limitation on the application of the prohibitions in the Act or implementing rules. Additionally, historic range information often only represented the Service's best approximation of historic range based on the scientific literature, given that past range was not always well or thoroughly documented for many species. We also indicated that only the columns entitled “Common Name,” “Scientific Name,” and “Vertebrate Population Where Endangered or Threatened” define the species of wildlife for purposes of implementing the Act. Despite this, the column “Historic range” column continued to be a point of confusion with regard to where protections of the Act apply to a species. Based on concerns raised by commenters on the 2008 proposed rule (See “Summary of Comments Received”) and to help alleviate confusion to the public, the Services have decided to remove the “Historic range” column from both tables. However, to provide further clarification regarding where protections of the Act apply, we state in our revised §§ 17.11(d) and 17.12(d) that unless the new “where listed” column indicates a distinct population segment of a vertebrate species, or an experimental population, prohibitions of the Act apply to all individuals of the species, wherever found. Please note that the general information regarding the historic range of a species, as previously provided in this column, is discussed in listing determinations and is available in the listing rule documents provided in the “Listing citations and applicable rules” column. See figures 6 and 7 for the new format of the tables.
For species' nomenclature (scientific and common names), we are changing the primary source upon which we rely. The current text introducing the lists in §§ 17.11 and 17.12 references two standards for scientific nomenclature: The International Code of Zoological Nomenclature and The International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. Respectfully, instead of referencing those International Codes, the Service now relies, to the extent practicable, on the Integrated Taxonomic Information System (ITIS), which incorporates both of the International Code standards and the standard references adopted for the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
ITIS is an authoritative taxonomic database (
CITES is an international convention among 182 signatory countries (Parties) to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival (50 CFR part 23). The CITES Parties have adopted standard nomenclatural and taxonomic references for species included in the CITES Appendices, which are listed in the most recent CITES resolution on standard nomenclature. (
Upon review of the regulations connected to the Lists, we noted that § 17.50 had three examples that were pre-1980 table format. Rather than update them to the new format, we determined that these examples are not necessary and are, therefore, removing them. We have also determined that the introductory paragraph of § 17.52 should read as set forth in the rule portion of this document to provide more specific cross-references within part 17. The revised language specifies the sections in part 17 that may include language that differs from the provisions in § 17.52. These changes to the regulations are nonsubstantive.
Additionally, in 50 CFR 17.11(h), the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife, we are removing the Beringia DPS of the bearded seal to comply with the U.S. District Court for the District of Alaska's decision vacating the December 28, 2012, final rule by NMFS that listed the Beringia DPS of the
We are removing the Arctic subspecies of the ringed seal to comply with the U.S. District Court for the District of Alaska's decision vacating the December 28, 2012, final rule by NMFS that listed the Arctic subspecies of the ringed seal,
We are removing slickspot peppergrass from the List of Endangered and Threatened Plants to comply with the decision of the U.S. District Court for the District of Idaho (
In our proposed rule (73 FR 45383, August 5, 2008), we requested that all interested parties submit information, data, and comments regarding the format of the Lists. The comment period ended September 4, 2008. During the 30-day comment period, we received a total of 14 comments, of which we consider 8 to be substantive. The following paragraphs discuss the comments received.
Several commenters were concerned that changing the “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” and “Family” columns to “Where listed” would allow for applying the protections of the Act to only limited geographic areas of a species' range. Commenters expressed concern that the proposed rule was an attempt to codify the March 16, 2007, opinion of the Solicitor of the Department of the Interior regarding “The Meaning of `In Danger of Extinction Throughout All or a Significant Portion of the Range',” which would have allowed in some cases applying protections to less than all members of the species (
On May 4, 2011, the Solicitor of the U.S. Department of the Interior (“Interior”) withdrew the 2007 opinion. On July 1, 2014, the Service published a new policy to clarify the interpretation of the phrase “significant portion of its range” in the ESA as it applies to decisions to list species as threatened or endangered (79 FR 37578). This policy stated that if a species is determined to be neither endangered nor threatened throughout all its range and a subsequent analysis reveals it is endangered or threatened within a significant portion of that range, then the entire species will be listed as an endangered species or threatened species and the Act's protections apply to all individuals of the species wherever found. To address this concern and to further clarify how the “Where listed” column will be used and protections applied, we have added language to §§ 17.11(d) and 17.12(d) to indicate that except when providing a geographic description of a DPS or ESU, or an experimental population designation, “Wherever found” will be used to indicate the Act's protections apply to all individuals of the species, wherever found.
One commenter suggested that the “Historic range” column is not “nonregulatory” nor “for informational purposes only” because it reinforced that a listed species may only receive protections in a portion of its range if it were found to be threatened or endangered in a significant portion of its current range.
Several commenters suggested that, by changing “Vertebrate population where endangered or threatened” to “Where Listed,” the Service was limiting the protection of the listed species.
Several commenters also suggested that defining the “Where listed” column as “the geographic area where the species is listed for purposes of the Act” also narrowed the protection of the listed species.
One commenter suggested that relying on the Integrated Taxonomic Information System (ITIS) could pose problems by being more limiting than, and not as comprehensive as, the previous standards, especially for foreign species.
The Services have determined that ITIS is a reviewer of current taxonomic literature and maintains generally accepted lists of taxa that are determined to be both valid and verified. As such, to the extent practicable, the Services, in combination with the professional judgment available both within the Services and the scientific community (§ 424.11(a)), will utilize ITIS and, for international species not covered by ITIS, the taxonomic nomenclature adopted for use under CITES. In cases where taxonomy is in dispute or there is a newly described taxa that might not be updated in ITIS, we will use our own best professional judgment and the expertise of the scientific community.
We find good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to make this rule effective upon the date set forth in
Executive Order 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rule is not significant.
Executive Order 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 while calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends.
The executive order directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives. E.O. 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this final rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.
The Department of the Interior certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule is not a major rule under 5 U.S.C. 804(2), the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act. This rule:
1. Will not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more.
2. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers; individual industries; Federal, State, or local government agencies; or geographic regions.
3. Will not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises.
This rule will not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. This rule will not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector. Our rule simply reorganizes and clarifies
In accordance with E.O. 12630, this rule will not have significant takings implications. We are only reorganizing and clarifying existing regulations and providing new standard references for species' nomenclature. This action will, therefore, not interfere with constitutionally protected private property rights. A takings implication assessment is not required.
In accordance with E.O. 13132, this rule does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism Assessment. As our rule involves reorganizing and clarifying existing regulations, and providing new standard references for species' nomenclature, we do not expect it will have any effect on State or local governments or their activities. A Federalism Assessment is not required.
In accordance with E.O. 12988, the Department of the Interior has determined that this rule does not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order.
This rule does not contain any information collection requirements for which Office of Management and Budget approval is required under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
We have analyzed this rule in accordance with the criteria of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and the Department of the Interior Manual. This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. We have determined this rule is categorically excluded under the Department of the Interior's NEPA regulations in 43 CFR 46.210(i). This categorical exclusion addresses policies, directives, regulations, and guidelines that are of an administrative, financial, legal, technical, or procedural nature.
Under the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994, “Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments” (59 FR 22951), and the Department of the Interior's Manual at 512 DM 2, we have evaluated possible effects on federally recognized Indian Tribes and have determined that there are no effects. Our rule will simply reorganize and clarify existing regulations and provide new standards references for species' nomenclature.
Executive Order 13211 requires agencies to prepare Statements of Energy Effects when undertaking certain actions that significantly affect energy supply, distribution, and use. This rule revises the formats of the Lists of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants and will not significantly affect energy supplies, distribution, or use. Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and no Statement of Energy Effects is required.
Michael Franz, Ecological Services, Headquarters, compiled this document.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
(a) The list in paragraph (h) of this section contains the wildlife species determined by the Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) of the Department of Commerce's National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (hereafter in this section referred to as “the Services”) to be endangered species or threatened species. It also contains the wildlife species treated as endangered species or threatened species because they are similar in appearance to and may be confused with endangered or threatened species (see §§ 17.50 through 17.52). The “Common name,” “Scientific name,” “Where listed,” and “Status” columns provide regulatory information; together, they identify listed wildlife species within the meaning of the Act and describe where they are protected. When a taxon has more than one entry, the “Where listed” or “Status” column will identify its status in each relevant geographic area. The listing of a particular taxon includes all lower taxonomic units.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Within the “Listing Citations and Applicable Rules” column, the following superscripts are used:
(2) Listing citations contain the volume, document starting page number, and publication date of the
(3) “Critical habitat” and “Species-specific” rules superscripts provide cross-references to other sections in this part or part 222, 223, or 226 of chapter II of this title where critical habitat and species-specific rules are found. The species-specific superscripts also identify experimental populations. Experimental populations (superscript “10j”) are a separate citation, with one of the following symbols in the “Status” column: “XE” for an essential experimental population and “XN” for a nonessential experimental population.
(4) This column is for reference and navigational purposes only. All other appropriate rules in this part, parts 217 through 226 of chapter II of this title, and part 402 of chapter IV of this title apply, if no species-specific rules are referenced. In addition, other rules in this title could relate to such species (for example, port-of-entry requirements). The references in the “Listing Citations and Applicable Rules” column do not comprise a comprehensive list of all regulations that the Services might apply to the species or to the regulations of other Federal agencies or State or local governments.
(g) The Services will rely to the extent practicable on ITIS (
(h) The “List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife” is provided in the table in this paragraph (h):
(a) The list in paragraph (h) of this section contains the plant species determined by the Service or the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) of the Department of Commerce's National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (hereafter in this section referred to as “the Services”) to be endangered species or threatened species. It also contains the plant species treated as endangered or threatened because they are similar in appearance to and may be confused with endangered or threatened species (see §§ 17.50 through 17.52). The “Common name,” “Scientific name,” “Where listed,” and “Status” columns provide regulatory information; together, they identify listed plant species within the meaning of the Act and describe where they are protected. When a taxon has more than one entry, the “Where listed” or “Status” column will identify its status in each relevant geographic area. The listing of a particular taxon includes all lower taxonomic units.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) Within the “Listing Citations and Applicable Rules” column, the following superscripts are used:
(2) Listing citations contain the volume, document starting page number, and publication date of the
(3) “Critical habitat” and “Species-specific” rules superscripts provide cross-references to other sections in part 17 or part 222, 223, or 226 of chapter II of this title where critical habitat and species-specific rules are found. The species-specific superscripts also identify experimental populations. Experimental populations (superscript “10j”) are a separate citation, with one of the following symbols in the “Status” column: “XE” for an essential experimental population and “XN” for a nonessential experimental population.
(4) This column is for reference and navigational purposes only. All other appropriate rules in part 17, parts 217 through 226 of chapter II of this title, and part 402 of chapter IV of this title apply, if no species-specific rules are referenced. In addition, other rules in this title could relate to such species (for example, port-of-entry requirements). The references in the “Listing Citations and Applicable Rules” column do not comprise a comprehensive list of all regulations that the Services might apply to the species or to the regulations of other Federal agencies or State or local governments.
(g) The Services will rely to the extent practicable on ITIS (
(h) The “List of Endangered and Threatened Plants” is provided in the table in this paragraph (h):
Upon receipt of a complete application and unless otherwise indicated in a rule found at §§ 17.40 through 17.48, §§ 17.73 through 17.78, or §§ 17.84 through 17.86, the Director may issue permits for any activity otherwise prohibited with a species designated as endangered or threatened due to its similarity of appearance. Such a permit may authorize a single transaction, a series of transactions, or a number of activities over a specified period of time.
Securities and Exchange Commission.
Proposed rule.
We are proposing amendments to certain of our disclosure requirements that may have become redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, in light of other Commission disclosure requirements, U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (“U.S. GAAP”), International Financial Reporting Standards (“IFRS”), or changes in the information environment. We are also soliciting comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the Financial Accounting Standards Board (“FASB”) for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP. The proposed amendments are intended to facilitate the disclosure of information to investors, while simplifying compliance efforts, without significantly altering the total mix of information provided to investors. These proposals are part of an initiative by the Division of Corporation Finance to review disclosure requirements applicable to issuers to consider ways to improve the requirements for the benefit of investors and issuers. We are also issuing these proposals as part of our efforts to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act.
Comments should be received on or before October 3, 2016.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Use the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
• Send paper comments to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
Studies, memoranda, or other substantive items may be added by the Commission or staff to the comment file during this rulemaking. A notification of the inclusion in the comment file of any such materials will be made available on the SEC's Web site. To ensure direct electronic receipt of such notifications, sign up through the “Stay Connected” option at
Nili Shah, Deputy Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-3255, Division of Corporation Finance; Duc Dang, Senior Special Counsel, at (202) 551-3386, Office of the Chief Accountant; Matt Giordano, Chief Accountant, at (202) 551-6918, Division of Investment Management; Valentina Minak Deng, Special Counsel, at (202) 551-5778 and Tim White, Special Counsel, at (202) 551-5777, Division of Trading and Markets; Harriet Orol, Branch Chief, at (212) 336-0554, Office of Credit Ratings; Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
The Commission is proposing amendments to, or soliciting comment on potential FASB referrals of, Rules 1-02, 2-01, 2-02, 3-01, 3-02, 3-03, 3-04, 3-05, 3-12, 3-14, 3-15, 3-17, 3-20, 3A-01, 3A-02, 3A-03, 3A-04, 4-01, 4-07, 4-08, 4-10, 5-02, 5-03, 5-04, 6-03, 6-04, 6-07, 6-09, 6A-04, 6A-05, 7-02, 7-03, 7-04, 7-05, 8-01, 8-02, 8-03, 8-04, 8-05, 8-06, 9-03, 9-04, 9-05, 9-06, 10-01, 11-02, 11-03, 12-16, 12-17, 12-18, 12-28, and 12-29 of Regulation S-X under the Securities Act of 1933 (the “Securities Act”) and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Exchange Act”), Items 10, 101, 103, 201, 302, 303, 503, 512, and 601 of Regulation S-K under the Securities Act and the Exchange Act, Item 1010 of Regulation M-A under the Securities Act and the Exchange Act, and Item 1118 of Regulation AB under the Securities Act and the Exchange Act, Rule 158 of the Securities Act, Rules 405 and 436 of Regulation C under the Securities Act, Forms S-1, S-3, S-11, S-4, F-1, F-3, F-4, F-6, F-7, F-8, F-10, F-80, SF-1, SF-3, 1-A, 1-K, and 1-SA under the Securities Act, Rules 3a51-1, 10A-1, 12b-2, 13a-10, 13b2-2, 14a-101, 15c3-1g, 15d-2, 15d-10, 17a-5, 17a-12, 17g-3, and 17h-1T of the Exchange Act, Forms 20-F, 40-F, 10-K, 11-K, 10-D, and X-17A-5 under the Exchange Act, Forms N-5, N-1A, N-2, N-3, N-4, and N-6 under the Securities Act and the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Investment Company Act”), and Form N-8B-2 under the Investment Company Act.
We are proposing amendments to certain of our disclosure requirements that may have become redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, in light of other Commission disclosure requirements, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or changes in the information environment. As discussed further below, the proposed amendments are a result of the Division of Corporation Finance's Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative and part of our efforts to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act
This release is part of a comprehensive evaluation of the Commission's disclosure requirements recommended in the staff's
In connection with the Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative, the Commission staff requested public input.
We are also issuing this release as part of our effort to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the FAST Act, which, among other things, requires the Commission to eliminate provisions of Regulation S-K that are duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or unnecessary.
The proposals, if adopted, would affect a variety of entities we regulate in different ways, as discussed below. For ease of discussion, throughout this release, we refer to the affected entities as issuers. The requirements under discussion may apply to entities other than issuers or to subsets of issuers and, thus, should be referenced for their specific scope. Entities other than issuers include significant acquirees for which financial statements are required under Rule 3-05 of Regulation S-X,
Because the proposals affect issuers filing forms prescribed under the Securities Act and the Exchange Act differently, our discussion is tailored accordingly. Our references to domestic issuers encompass large accelerated filers,
The Commission has proposed to amend this definition. Under the proposed amendments, the $75 million public float threshold would be increased to $250 million and the $50 million revenue threshold would be increased to $100 million.
• Proposals involving Regulation S-K relate only to domestic issuers
• Proposals involving Regulation S-X generally relate only to domestic issuers and foreign private issuers that report under U.S. GAAP or a comprehensive body of accounting principles other than U.S. GAAP or IFRS as issued by the International Accounting Standards Board (“IASB”)
• Proposals involving Commission forms relate to either domestic issuers or
Some of the proposals also affect asset-backed issuers.
Some of our proposals affect Regulation A issuers, as follows:
• Proposals involving Regulation S-K would affect Regulation A issuers that provide narrative disclosure that follows Part I of Form S-1
• Proposals involving Rule 4-10,
• Proposals involving Regulation A forms may affect issuers that report under U.S. GAAP or Canadian issuers that report under IFRS.
In this release, we have highlighted the Commission disclosure requirements that affect Regulation A issuers.
We are also soliciting comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP. As discussed in section III.E, we are not proposing amendments to this category of disclosure requirements in this release. Rather, the comments received in response to this release may inform both potential future Commission rulemaking and FASB standard-setting activities. One potential outcome of this feedback is a referral of these incremental requirements to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP.
Certain proposals affect requirements applicable to issuers regulated under the Investment Company Act, as follows:
• Proposals involving Regulation S-K would affect business development companies to which the regulation applies.
• Proposals involving Regulation S-X would affect investment companies to which the regulation applies.
• Proposals involving Investment Company Act forms may affect investment companies, depending on the form in question.
Certain proposals also affect requirements applicable to registered broker-dealers, investment advisors, and NRSROs.
The federal securities laws set forth the Commission's broad authority and responsibility to prescribe the methods to be followed in the preparation of accounts and the form and content of financial statements to be filed under those laws,
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002
As the designated private-sector accounting standard setter in the United States, the FASB seeks to undertake a transparent, public standard-setting process.
Although the FASB functions as the designated private-sector accounting standard setter in the United States, some Commission rules contain accounting and disclosure requirements. In some cases, these Commission requirements mandate disclosures which the FASB later added to U.S. GAAP.
In addition, a number of Commission disclosure requirements are related, but require information that is incremental, to U.S. GAAP. In this release, we solicit comment on certain of those incremental Commission disclosure requirements to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP.
The FASB maintains U.S. GAAP by updating it from time to time through its standard-setting projects. Among a number of projects on the FASB's agenda, there are two current standard-setting projects that we invite commenters to consider when evaluating the proposals and providing feedback.
In the other project, the FASB is addressing disclosures in interim reports. The FASB has reached a tentative decision that disclosures about matters required to be provided in annual financial statements should be updated in the interim report if there is a substantial likelihood that the updated information would be viewed by a reasonable investor as significantly altering the total mix of information available to the investor.
Both projects are subject to further stakeholder comment and FASB deliberation. If we ultimately decide to eliminate or revise certain of our disclosure requirements on the basis that U.S. GAAP requires the same or similar disclosure, these projects, if finalized, may impact certain disclosures currently provided under Commission disclosure requirements that we propose to eliminate or amend. In particular, for information currently provided under Commission rules that do not contain a specified disclosure threshold, investors may receive less information if such information is only required by U.S. GAAP and the issuer determines that the information is not material. Throughout this release, we identify those Commission disclosure requirements that contemplate a disclosure threshold in some manner, for example, through the use of terms such as “material” or “significant” or through the use of bright line disclosure thresholds.
1. Would the FASB's projects discussed above affect our: (1) Proposed amendments to eliminate certain Commission disclosure requirements due to a U.S. GAAP requirement or (2) potential referrals to the FASB of certain Commission disclosure requirements? If so, how?
2. Would the information provided to investors in the notes to the financial statements change if the source of the disclosure requirement (
3. Do the other proposed amendments within the FASB Exposure Draft related to notes to the financial statements
In reviewing our disclosure requirements, we have preliminarily identified a number of requirements that require substantially the same disclosures as U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements. We propose to eliminate these redundant or duplicative Commission disclosure requirements to
The table in section II.B below describes each redundant or duplicative requirement that we propose to eliminate and identifies the corresponding U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirement that requires substantially the same information.
4. We solicit comment on
a. Do the requirements proposed for elimination require substantially the same disclosures as U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements? If eliminated, would investors continue to receive substantially the same information? If not, which redundant or duplicative requirements preliminarily identified above do not require substantially the same disclosures and why?
b. Should any proposed amendments not be made? Should any proposed amendments be modified? If so, which ones and why? Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposals on which you provide comments.
5. Are there other Commission disclosure requirements that are redundant or duplicative with U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements that we should consider eliminating? If so, which requirements should be eliminated and how are they redundant or duplicative?
We also have preliminarily identified Commission disclosure requirements that are related to, but not the same as, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements, which we refer to in this release as overlapping requirements. In this section, we:
• Propose to delete Commission disclosure requirements that, as discussed further in section III.C below, we believe: (1) Require disclosures that convey reasonably similar information to or are encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements or (2) require disclosures incremental to the overlapping U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements and may no longer be useful to investors.
• Propose to integrate Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, other Commission disclosure requirements, as discussed further in section III.D below, or
• Solicit comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP, as discussed further in section III.E below.
Our objective with these proposals is to streamline disclosures for investors and simplify requirements for issuers. In some cases, the proposed streamlining of overlapping disclosure requirements would give rise to the considerations discussed below.
In some cases, the streamlining of disclosure requirements would result in the relocation of disclosures within a filing,
• Prominence Considerations—the current location of some disclosures may provide a certain level of prominence and/or context to other disclosures located with them. The relocation of these disclosures may affect investors by changing the prominence and/or context of both the relocated disclosures and the remaining disclosures. Throughout this release, we collectively refer to these consequences as “Disclosure Location—Prominence Considerations.”
• Financial Statement Considerations—the proposals related to some topics would result in the relocation of disclosures from outside to inside the financial statements, subjecting this information to annual audit and/or interim review, internal control over financial reporting, and XBRL tagging requirements, as applicable. The safe harbor under the Private Securities Litigation Reform Act of 1995 (“PSLRA”) would not be available for such disclosures.
We refer to the foregoing considerations collectively as “Disclosure Location Considerations.”
6. For each of the disclosures subject to Disclosure Location—Prominence Considerations discussed below:
a. Do investors benefit from the prominence of this information in its current location or from the context these disclosures provide to other disclosures located with them?
b. Would the proposed changes to the disclosure location either benefit or adversely affect investors or issuers? If so, how? Please be specific.
c. Should we mandate a cross-reference in the prior location of the disclosures to assist investors in navigating the issuer's disclosures and help maintain the prominence and/or context of the disclosures?
d. Do electronic data analysis tools affect the importance of the disclosure location?
7. For disclosures subject to Disclosure Location—Financial Statement Considerations, in addition to the above questions about prominence, what are the benefits and costs of the inclusion/exclusion of these disclosures in the financial statements for investors and issuers? How important are these benefits and costs to investors and issuers? Please quantify the benefits and costs, to the extent practicable.
Some overlapping requirements, while similar, are not redundant or duplicative because one set of requirements includes a bright line disclosure threshold, while the other set of requirements does not.
8. For each of the disclosures subject to Bright Line Disclosure Threshold Considerations discussed below, should there continue to be a bright line below which the disclosures would not be required? Should the Commission modify the threshold? Why or why not?
a. Are there any aspects to these disclosures that warrant bright line disclosure thresholds, as compared to other disclosures?
b. Does the bright line disclosure threshold help to ensure disclosure at an appropriate level of detail for investors? Alternatively, does the bright line disclosure threshold result in too much or too little detail for investors? Why or why not?
c. Are there alternative disclosure thresholds, in lieu of bright lines, that we should consider? Would the alternative disclosure threshold change the level of information provided to investors and the burdens and costs associated with the preparation of these disclosures for issuers?
This section discusses Commission disclosure requirements that we believe: (1) Require disclosures that convey reasonably similar information to or are encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements or (2) require disclosures incremental to the overlapping U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements and may no longer be useful to investors. In these cases, we propose to delete the specified Commission disclosure requirement.
Regulation S-X
Specifically, REITs are not subject to entity-level taxation on the amounts
In addition, the Commission staff has observed that, in practice, because REITs are required to distribute 90 percent of their taxable income in order to maintain their REIT status and often distribute more, REITs generally do not have undistributed amounts to disclose under this requirement.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Rule 3-15(a)(2).
9. Has the requirement to provide incremental disclosure about undistributed gains or losses on the sale of properties on a book basis resulted in the disclosure of useful information?
What would the impact to investors and issuers be of a deletion of this requirement?
Regulation S-K and Regulation S-X both require certain disclosures about an issuer's status as a REIT. Regulation S-K requires disclosure of the issuer's form of organization,
Regulation S-X also requires REITs to disclose in the notes to the financial statements their assumptions in making or not making federal income tax provisions.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Rule 3-15(b) of Regulation S-X. We note that because disclosures under Regulation S-K, unlike those required by Regulation S-X, may be provided outside of the audited financial statements, the proposed amendments give rise to Disclosure Location—Financial Statement Considerations.
10. Does Rule 3-15(b) require disclosures that are encompassed by disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping provisions, as discussed above? Why or why not?
11. Would deletion of Rule 3-15(b) as described above affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
12. Do disclosures of the subsidiary's fiscal year closing date and the explanation of the necessity for using different closing dates provide useful information to investors? What would the impact to investors and issuers be of a deletion of this requirement?
Regulation S-X requires disclosure in the notes to the financial statements of: (1) Material changes in the fiscal periods of an issuer's subsidiaries and (2) the manner in which the material changes are reflected in the financial statements.
First, U.S. GAAP limits changes in the difference between an issuer and its subsidiary's fiscal periods to situations where the change is preferable.
13. Do issuers rely on the broader language in Rule 3A-03(b) as a basis to change their subsidiaries' fiscal periods where differences did not previously exist? Are issuers and their auditors able to assert preferability of these changes?
14. Does the broader language in Rule 3A-03(b) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
The requirements in Regulation S-X governing repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements were adopted in 1986, following developments at that time in the government securities market.
Regulation S-X
While Regulation S-X
Second, Regulation S-X specifies tabular disclosure of the carrying amount of associated assets sold under repurchase agreements disaggregated by class of asset sold and maturity interval (
Despite some differences in form and content, we believe that disclosures required by Regulation S-X convey reasonably similar information as the disclosures that result from compliance with the U.S. GAAP provisions discussed above, along with their accompanying disclosure objectives and aggregation principles.
Third, Regulation S-X requires disaggregated disclosures of the market value of assets sold under repurchase agreements for which unrealized changes in market value are reported in income.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Rule 4-08(m)(1)(ii), with the exception of the requirement in Rule 4-08(m)(1)(ii)(A)(ii) to disclose the interest rate on repurchase liabilities, which we would retain. We note that, because Regulation S-X, unlike U.S. GAAP, sets forth a 10 percent threshold for the
15. Do disclosures required by Rule 4-08(m) convey reasonably similar information as the disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping provisions discussed above? Why or why not?
16. As described above, the form and content of the disclosures required under U.S. GAAP differ in certain respects from Rule 4-08(m). Should we refer any of the disclosure requirements in Rule 4-08(m) to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP? If so, which ones and why?
17. Would revision of Rule 4-08(m) as described above affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X, unlike U.S. GAAP, requires these disclosures when the aggregate carrying amount of reverse repurchase agreements exceeds 10 percent of total assets. As such, these differences also give rise to Bright Line Disclosure Threshold Considerations.
18. Does Rule 4-08(m)(2)(i)(B)(1) require disclosures that are encompassed by disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping provisions discussed above? Why or why not?
19. As described above, U.S. GAAP is not as specific as Regulation S-X about taking possession of collateral. Would elimination of Rule 4-08(m)(2)(i)(B)(1) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of accounting principles and methods that materially affect the financial statements, including those involving a selection from existing acceptable alternatives, and important judgments about the appropriateness of the principles.
In addition, for derivative financial instruments, as defined under U.S. GAAP, U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of how and why the issuer uses derivative instruments, how the derivative instruments and related hedged items are accounted for, and how they affect the financial statements.
In this adopting release, the Commission stated that in the absence of comprehensive accounting literature, registrants have developed accounting practices for options and complex derivatives by analogy to the limited amount of literature that does exist. The Commission also noted that those analogies are complicated because under existing accounting literature, there are at least three distinctively different methods of accounting for derivatives (
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Rule 4-08(n) and Note 2(b) to Rule 8-01.
20. Is the U.S. GAAP requirement to disclose accounting principles and methods that materially affect the financial statements reasonably similar to the corresponding requirements in Regulation S-X?
21. Are the specific disclosure requirements in Rule 4-08(n) applicable or necessary in light of the U.S. GAAP requirement? If so, which ones and why?
22. Would deletion of Rule 4-08(n) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive about derivative financial instruments, as defined under U.S. GAAP? If so, how?
23. Would deletion of Rule 4-08(n) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive about derivative commodity instruments that are not within the
24. Are the requirements in Rule 4-08(n) used by analogy for contracts that derive their value from an underlying price, index, rate, condition, or event, but do not meet the FASB ASC Master Glossary definition of “derivative financial instrument?” Would deletion of Rule 4-08(n) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive about accounting policy disclosures for these instruments? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
Based on the foregoing, we propose to amend Rule 6-04.17 to require presentation of the total, rather than the components, of distributable earnings on the balance sheet. We also propose to delete the requirement in Rule 6-09.7 for parenthetical disclosure of undistributed net investment income, one of the components of distributable earnings, on a book basis, on the statement of changes in net assets.
25. Do investors use the information about the three components (net investment income, net realized gains (losses) on investment transactions, and net unrealized appreciation (depreciation) in value of investments) of distributable earnings separately presented on registered investment company balance sheets? If so, how?
26. Would amendment of Rule 6-04.17 to require presentation of the total, rather than the components, of distributable earnings on the balance sheet affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
27. Would deletion of the requirement in Rule 6-09.7 for parenthetical disclosure of undistributed net investment income on the statement of changes in net assets affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
28. Would deletion of the requirement in Rule 7-03(a)(13)(b) for disclosures of the above three assumptions affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Rule 7-03(a)(13)(c). We note that because disclosures required by Item 303(a)(3)(i), unlike those required by Regulation S-X, may be provided outside of the audited financial statements, the proposed amendments give rise to Disclosure Location—Financial Statement Considerations.
29. Does Rule 7-03(a)(13)(c) require disclosures that are encompassed by disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping provisions discussed above? Why or why not?
30. Would deletion of the requirement in Rule 7-03(a)(13)(c) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
31. As stated above, U.S. GAAP does not require separate disclosure of nonrecurring transactions. Should we refer disclosure requirements specifically about the nature and effect of material nonrecurring reinsurance to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP?
Regulation S-X requires disclosure, in interim financial statements, of material events subsequent to the end of the most recent fiscal year.
Specifically, U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of a number of items occurring in the interim periods after the end of the most recent fiscal periods, including changes in accounting principles, changes in estimates, disposals, business combinations, and disclosures about segments, fair value, and pensions.
Rule 10-01(a)(5) incrementally requires disclosure of the status of long-term contracts and changes in capitalization, including significant new borrowings or modification of existing financing arrangements. Although Regulation S-K does not specify these two items, they would be required under Item 303(b) of Regulation S-K (or Item 9 of Form 1-A and Item 1 of Form 1-SA for Regulation A issuers), if material, as discussed above.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete the requirements to disclose material events subsequent to the end of the most recent fiscal year in Rule 8-03(b)(2) and Rule 10-01(a)(5). We note that because disclosures required by Item 303(b) (or Item 9 of Form 1-A and Item 1 of Form 1-SA for Regulation A issuers), unlike those required by Regulation S-X, may be provided outside of the interim financial statements, the proposed amendments give rise to Disclosure Location—Financial Statement Considerations.
32. Do the provisions in Rule 8-03(b)(2) and Rule 10-01(a)(5) to disclose material events subsequent to the end of the most recent fiscal year require disclosures that are encompassed by disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping provisions discussed above? Why or why not?
33. Rule 10-01(a)(5) specifies disclosure of the status of long-term contracts and changes in capitalization subsequent to the most recent fiscal year. Would deletion of this requirement affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-X requires disclosure in the notes to the interim financial statements of the date of any material accounting change.
34. Is disclosure of the date of any material accounting change unnecessary in light of the U.S. GAAP requirements discussed above? Why or why not?
Regulation S-X
First, with respect to scope, Regulation S-X requires disclosure of pro forma information for significant business combinations for SRCs and Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under U.S. GAAP and material business combinations for non-SRCs. U.S. GAAP, on the other hand, does not qualify the size of the business combinations to which pro forma information requirements apply. Accordingly, the requirements in U.S. GAAP would apply to the same or a greater number of business combinations and, thus, subsume the scope of the corresponding requirements in Regulation S-X.
Second, with respect to the line items required to be disclosed, Regulation S-X requires disclosure of pro forma revenue, net income, net income attributable to the issuer, and net income per share. Regulation S-X also requires SRCs and Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under U.S. GAAP to disclose pro forma income from continuing operations. U.S. GAAP only requires disclosure of pro forma revenue and earnings. This difference resulted from changes to U.S. GAAP for which Regulation S-X was not conformed, as discussed below.
The Commission originally adopted Rule 8-03(b)(4) and Rule 10-01(b)(4) to require in interim financial statements the same pro forma business combination disclosures provided in annual financial statements under Accounting Principles Board (“APB”) Opinion No. 16,
As a result of these changes, issuers are required to disclose more pro forma information about business combinations in interim periods than in annual periods,
In addition, we believe Item 9.01 of Form 8-K mitigates at least in part the absence of a U.S. GAAP requirement to present pro forma earnings per share, as it requires SRCs and non-SRCs to file, within approximately 75 days after the transaction, pro forma financial information for significant acquisitions, including earnings per share, through the issuer's most recently filed balance sheet. We note, however, this pro forma financial information would not cover the same periods as the pro forma information required under Rule 8-03(b)(4) and Rule 10-01(b)(4).
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete the requirements for pro forma financial information in interim filings for business combinations in Rule 8-03(b)(4) and Rule 10-01(b)(4).
35. Would elimination of the specific requirements discussed above to disclose the line items pro forma income from continuing operations, net income attributable to the issuer, and net income per share affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how? Do the pro forma disclosures in Form 8-K sufficiently substitute for the loss of these specific line items, despite the differences in timing discussed above?
For significant dispositions, Regulation S-X requires SRCs and Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under U.S. GAAP to disclose in the notes to the financial statements pro forma revenue, income from continuing operations, net income, net income attributable to the issuer, and net income per share for all interim periods presented, as though the disposition occurred at the beginning of the periods.
U.S. GAAP requires that the effects of discontinued operations be isolated and separately presented on the income statement on a retrospective basis,
For other dispositions, we believe that the disclosures required by U.S. GAAP and Item 9.01 of Form 8-K results in reasonably similar disclosures as the pro forma disclosures mandated by Rule 8-03(b)(4). Specifically, U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of pre-tax profit and pre-tax profit attributable to the parent for individually significant dispositions for all interim periods presented.
We believe Item 9.01 of Form 8-K provides some mitigation, as it requires SRCs to file within four business days after a significant disposition, pro forma financial information, including revenue, income from continuing operations, and income per share, through the most recently filed balance sheet date. We note, however, this pro forma financial information would not cover the same periods as the separate results required under Rule 8-03(b)(4).
In addition, Rule 8-03(b)(4) requires SRCs and Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under U.S. GAAP to disclose more information about dispositions in interim periods than in annual periods,
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete these requirements in Rule 8-03(b)(4).
36. Would elimination of the specific requirement discussed above to disclose pro forma revenue affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how? Do the pro forma disclosures in Form 8-K sufficiently substitute for this specific line item, despite the differences in timing discussed above?
Item 101(b) of Regulation S-K
Regulation A issuers are similarly required to cross-reference to their segment disclosures under U.S. GAAP or IFRS.
Regulation S-K
Item 101(d)(3) of Regulation S-K requires disclosures of any risks associated with an issuer's foreign operations and any segment's dependence on foreign operations. We believe that Item 101(d)(3) requires disclosures that are largely encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with other parts of Regulation S-K. Specifically, Item 503(c) of Regulation S-K requires disclosure of significant risk factors. Although Item 101(d)(3) is more expansive than Item 503(c) in its requirement to disclose “any” risk, rather than “significant” risk factors, we believe that disclosure of “significant” risk factors provides appropriate disclosure to investors and disclosure of “any” risk is not necessary.
In addition, Item 303(a) of Regulation S-K requires disclosure of trends and uncertainties by segment, if appropriate to an understanding of the issuer as a whole, which would include disclosure of a segment's dependence on foreign operations.
37. Would deletion of the requirements in Item 101(d)(3) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Regulation S-K
Instruction 5 and U.S. GAAP both require disclosures about seasonality in interim periods. Accordingly, we propose to delete Instruction 5. We note that because U.S. GAAP requires seasonality disclosures in the financial statements, whereas Instruction 5 requires disclosure in MD&A, its elimination gives rise to Disclosure Location—Prominence Considerations. With the proposed amendments, issuers may also be less willing to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures in the notes to the financial statements with forward-looking information because note disclosures are not subject to safe harbor protections under the PSLRA.
38. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Instruction 5? If so, would such a change affect the information available to investors?
Item 101(c)(1)(v) requires annual seasonality disclosure. Seasonality, by definition, relates to variations within annual periods, so the effects of seasonality are not evident in annual financial statements. We, therefore, believe that interim seasonality disclosures required under U.S. GAAP, as discussed above, are more useful to investors than annual seasonality disclosures.
Item 101(c)(1)(v), unlike U.S. GAAP, incrementally requires seasonality disclosure at the segment level, to the extent material to an understanding of the business as a whole. However, Item 303(b) of Regulation S-K requires disclosure of results of operations, liquidity, and capital resources in interim periods at the segment level, when appropriate to an understanding of the business.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Item 101(c)(1)(v). We note that because these disclosures are located in the business section and MD&A, while the corresponding disclosures are in MD&A and the notes to the financial statements, their elimination gives rise to Disclosure Location—Prominence Considerations. With the proposed amendments, issuers may also be less willing to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures in the notes to the financial statements with forward-looking information because note disclosures are not subject to safe harbor protections under the PSLRA.
39. Would deletion of the requirements in Item 101(c)(1)(v) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
40. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Item 101(c)(1)(v)? If so, would such a change affect the information available to investors?
Regulation S-K requires disclosures, if material, of the amount spent on research and development activities for all years presented.
First, Regulation S-K refers to the “amount spent,” while U.S. GAAP refers to “costs charged to expense” or “costs incurred.” We note, however, that the Regulation S-K adopting release used the term “expense” when discussing this requirement.
Regulation S-K also uses the term “company-sponsored,” but U.S. GAAP does not. However, the Regulation S-K adopting release specified that the amount of company-sponsored research and development expenses to be disclosed should be determined in accordance with U.S. GAAP, suggesting no difference in scope was intended.
In addition, Regulation S-K refers to “customer-sponsored” research and development activities, while U.S. GAAP refers to “research and development performed on behalf of others.” Because U.S. GAAP is broader in its reference to all other parties, rather than only customers, the disclosures required by U.S. GAAP would encompass those required by Regulation S-K.
Further, Item 101(c)(1)(xi) only refers to customer-sponsored “research activities” rather than research
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Item 101(c)(1)(xi) of Regulation S-K and Item 101(h)(4)(x) of Regulation S-K. We note that because the Item 101(c)(1)(xi) disclosures are located in the business section of the filing, while the corresponding disclosures are in the notes to the financial statements, their elimination gives rise to Disclosure Location—Prominence Considerations. With the proposed amendments, issuers may also be less willing to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures in the notes to the financial statements with forward-looking information because note disclosures are not subject to safe harbor protections under the PSLRA.
41. Would deletion of the requirements in Item 101(c)(1)(xi) and Item 101(h)(4)(x) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
42. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Item 101(c)(1)(xi) and Item 101(h)(4)(x)? If so, would such a change affect the information available to investors?
Item 5.C of Form 20-F requires foreign private issuers to describe their research and development policies, where significant, and disclose the amount spent on company-sponsored research and development activities. We propose to delete the requirement to disclose the amount spent, as foreign private issuers are already required to disclose the amount of research and development expenses in the notes to the financial statements.
43. Does the requirement in Item 5.C of Form 20-F to disclose the amount spent on company-sponsored research and development activities result in reasonably similar disclosure as IFRS, which requires disclosure of research and development expense?
44. Would deletion of the above requirements in Item 5.C of Form 20-F affect, in any material respect, the
45. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete the above requirement in Item 5.C of Form 20-F? If so, would such a change affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of the information that investors receive?
Form 1-A requires Regulation A issuers to disclose, if material, the amount spent on research and development activities for all years presented.
46. Would deletion of Item 7(a)(1)(iii) of Form 1-A affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
47. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Item 7(a)(1)(iii) of Form 1-A? If so, would such a change affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of the information that investors receive?
Regulation S-K requires disclosure on Form S-1 or Form 10 of the amount of common equity subject to outstanding options, warrants, or convertible securities, when the class of common equity has no established United States public trading market.
48. Would deletion of Item 201(a)(2)(i) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
Item 201(c)(1) of Regulation S-K
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete the requirement in Item 201(c)(1) to disclose the frequency and amount of cash dividends declared. We also propose to delete the reference to dividends in Instruction 2 to Item 201 to conform to the deletion of Item 201(c)(1).
Extending Rule 3-04 disclosures to interim periods may create some additional burden for issuers. However, we expect this burden would be minimal, as the required information is already available from the preparation of the interim financial statements.
49. Would deletion of Item 201(c)(1) affect, in any material respect, the
50. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Item 201(c)(1)? If so, would such a change affect the information available to investors?
Regulation S-K prescribes the form and content for the disclosure of existing equity compensation plans with equity securities authorized for issuance.
Regulation S-K incrementally requires: (1) For options, warrants, or rights assumed in a business combination, disclosure of the number of securities to be issued upon exercise and the weighted-average exercise price
Regulation S-K also incrementally requires disaggregation of information between equity compensation plans approved by security holders and those not approved by security holders. The Commission adopted these requirements in 2001
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Item 201(d) and the references to it in Part III of Form 10-K and Item 10(c) of Schedule 14A.
51. Would deletion of Item 201(d) affect, in any material respect, the usefulness of information that investors receive? If so, how?
52. Would the unavailability of the PSLRA safe harbor in this instance affect issuers or investors? If so, how? What disclosures, if any, are currently provided to voluntarily supplement the required disclosures above? Would issuers cease to provide these voluntary disclosures if we delete Item 201(d)? If so, would such a change affect the information available to investors?
53. Non-listed issuers and, in limited circumstances, listed issuers,
Regulation S-K requires issuers that register debt securities to disclose the historical and pro forma ratios of earnings to fixed charges.
The Commission first adopted the requirement to present a ratio of earnings to fixed charges in 1954 in connection with the adoption of Form S-9, a short-form registration statement for registration of non-convertible, fixed-interest debt.
In 1980, the Commission issued a concept release that requested comment on whether the requirements for the presentation of historical and pro forma ratios should be retained or deleted.
However, today, there are a variety of analytical tools available to investors that may accomplish a similar objective as the ratio of earnings to fixed charges.
Further, the requirement to disclose the ratio of earnings to fixed charges, as opposed to the various components (
Moreover, while debt agreements may contain fixed charge coverage covenants,
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete Item 503(d) and Item 601(b)(12), with conforming revisions to Item 503(e), Item 601(c), the Exhibit Table in Item 601, Item 1010(a)(3), Item 1010(b)(2), Item 1010(c)(4), Item 3 of Form S-1, Item 3 of Form S-3, Item 3 of Form S-4, Item 3 of Form S-11, Item 3 of Form F-1, Item 3 of Form F-3, and Item 3 of Form F-4. We also propose to delete Instruction 7 to “Instructions as to Exhibits” of Form 20-F.
54. As stated above, certain components of the ratio of earnings to fixed charges, such as the portion of rent expense that represents interest and the amortization of capitalized interest, are not readily available elsewhere.
a. Are there any other components to the ratio of earnings to fixed charges that are not readily available in the notes to the financial statements?
b. For the components of the ratio that are not readily available in the notes to
Item 601(b)(26)
55. We solicit comment on the foregoing proposed amendments to eliminate overlapping requirements. Should any proposed amendments not be adopted? Should any proposed amendments be modified? If so, which ones and why? Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposals on which you provide comments.
56. Are there other overlapping Commission disclosure requirements that: (1) Require disclosures that convey reasonably similar information to or are encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements or (2) require disclosures incremental to other U.S. GAAP or Commission disclosure requirements and may no longer be useful to investors? If so, what requirements do they overlap with and what action, if any, should we take to address the overlap?
This section discusses Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, other Commission disclosure requirements. In these cases, we propose to integrate the overlapping Commission disclosure requirements.
If consolidation of foreign subsidiaries is deemed appropriate in the presence of foreign currency exchange restrictions, Rule 3A-02(d) of Regulation S-X requires disclosure of the effect of foreign subsidiaries' currency exchange restrictions upon the consolidated financial position and operating results of the issuer and its subsidiaries. To streamline Commission disclosure requirements, we propose to relocate this requirement to Rule 3-20(b) of Regulation S-X,
Rule 3-20(b), however, applies only to foreign private issuers, whereas Rule 3A-02(d) applies to all issuers. To prevent any loss of disclosure from the relocation of Rule 3A-02(d) to Rule 3-20(b), we propose to delete the reference to foreign private issuers in the title of Rule 3-20, which would broaden the scope of Rule 3-20(b) and Rule 3-20(e) to all issuers.
Rule 3-20(b) also sets forth requirements for foreign private issuers if their reporting currency is not the U.S. dollar. Despite the proposed expansion of the scope of Rule 3-20(b) discussed above, we do not intend to expand the instances in which a reporting currency other than the U.S. dollar would be permitted. We are therefore proposing amendments to Rule 3-20(a) to require that a non-foreign private issuer present its financial statements in U.S. dollars.
57. Would disclosure of the reporting currency and the currency in which the issuer declares dividends result in significant burdens or costs for issuers? How would the requirement to use the same reporting currency for all periods presented affect the burdens and costs for issuers?
58. Foreign issuers that do not meet the definition of “foreign private issuer” would be required to report in U.S. dollars. Should such foreign issuers be permitted to report in a foreign currency?
Commission requirements mandate disclosure about restrictions on the payment of dividends and related items in a number of locations:
• Item 201(c)(1) of Regulation S-K requires disclosure of restrictions (including restrictions on the ability of issuer's subsidiaries to transfer funds to it in the form of cash dividends, loans or advances) that currently or are likely to materially limit the issuer's ability to pay dividends on its common equity.
• Rule 4-08(d)(2) of Regulation S-X requires disclosure of any restriction upon retained earnings that arises from the fact that upon involuntary liquidation the aggregate preferences of the preferred shares exceed the par or stated value of such shares.
• Rule 4-08(e) of Regulation S-X requires disclosure related to the most significant restrictions of the issuer's payment of dividends.
We propose to streamline these disclosure requirements into a single requirement for the disclosure of material restrictions on dividends and
Rule 5-04,
Form 20-F requires disclosure of dividend restrictions, as follows:
• Item 10.F requires disclosure of any dividend restrictions.
• Instruction to Item 14.B requires disclosure of any limitations on the payment of dividends.
Foreign private issuers are already required to disclose dividend restrictions in the notes to the financial statements. Specifically, foreign private issuers that report under U.S. GAAP or Another Comprehensive Body of Accounting Principles with a reconciliation to U.S. GAAP must comply with Rule 4-08(e), as discussed above. Foreign private issuers that report under IFRS must comply with paragraph 79(a)(v) of IAS 1,
Based on the foregoing, we propose to delete the dividend restriction disclosure requirements in Item 10.F and the Instruction to Item 14.B of Form 20-F.
Item 10.D.2 of Form 20-F requires disclosure of governmental laws, decrees, regulations, or other legislation which may affect the remittance of dividends, interest, or other payments to nonresident securityholders. Although this requirement covers dividend restrictions, we also do not propose amendments to it because, through its reference to interest and other payments to nonresident securityholders, its scope is broader than the requirements for the notes to the financial statements.
Item 101(d)(4) of Regulation S-K requires, when interim financial statements are presented, a discussion of the facts that indicate the three-year financial data for geographic performance may not be indicative of current or future operations. This requirement is similar to requirements in Instruction 3 to Item 303(a) and Instruction 4 to Item 303(b) to identify elements of income which are not necessarily indicative of the issuer's ongoing business, except that there is no explicit reference to “geographic areas” in either item requirement. To streamline the requirements in Regulation S-K, we propose to revise Item 303 to add an explicit reference to “geographic areas” and delete Item 101(d)(4).
59. We solicit comment on the foregoing proposed amendments to integrate overlapping Commission disclosure requirements. For each topic in this section:
a. Do investors use the disclosures required by the Commission disclosure requirement? If so, in what way?
b. Should any proposed amendments not be made? Should any proposed amendments be modified? If so, which ones and why? Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposed amendments on which you provide comments.
60. Are there additional Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, other Commission disclosure requirements? If so, what requirements do they overlap with and what action, if any, should we take to address the overlap?
This section discusses Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP for which we solicit comment to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP. The comments received in response to this release may inform both potential future Commission rulemaking and FASB standard-setting activities. Future amendments to these Commission disclosure requirements may depend on the outcome of any FASB standard-setting activities to address the Commission disclosure requirements. Our staff has discussed these overlapping requirements with the FASB staff.
Incorporating these overlapping Commission disclosure requirements into U.S. GAAP could alleviate any inconsistencies that currently arise when the corresponding Commission disclosure requirements are not simultaneously amended to conform to U.S. GAAP updates, as discussed in section V.A.
Because U.S. GAAP does not scale disclosure requirements by issuer status, incorporation into U.S. GAAP would result in the application of some of these requirements to SRCs, as identified below. Incorporation into U.S. GAAP would also potentially result in the application of all such requirements to Regulation A issuers
U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of a public entity's tax status.
Although Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X requires disclosure in the notes to the financial statements of the facts and amounts related to defaults of obligations or breaches of covenants that existed at the most recent balance sheet date and have not been subsequently cured.
61. Item 2.04 of Form 8-K requires disclosure of a triggering event that causes the increase or acceleration of a direct financial obligation, among other disclosures, if material. In addition, Part II, Item 3 of Form 10-Q and Part II, Item 13 of Form 20-F both require disclosure of material defaults and the amount of default for debt that exceeds 5 percent of total assets. Moreover, Item 303(a)(1) of Regulation S-K requires liquidity-related disclosures.
If a default of an obligation exists, but acceleration of the obligation has been waived for a period of time, Rule 4-08(c) requires disclosure of the amount of the obligation and the period of the waiver. This disclosure requirement is incremental to U.S. GAAP, which sets forth requirements for when to present debt subject to a covenant violation as a current liability on the balance sheet,
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Specifically, although U.S. GAAP and Regulation S-X both require disclosure of the components of income tax expense, Rule 4-08(h) incrementally: (1) Requires disclosure of the amount of domestic and foreign pre-tax income and income tax expense, (2) requires disaggregation of the foreign component of pre-tax income and income tax expense with the domestic component if it exceeds five percent of the respective total, and (3) defines “foreign” for purposes of this disclosure.
In addition, although U.S. GAAP and Regulation S-X both require a reconciliation of the domestic federal statutory tax rate to the effective tax rate, Rule 4-08(h) incrementally: (1) Requires disaggregation of reconciling items if they individually exceed five percent of the amount computed by multiplying pre-tax income by the applicable statutory income tax rate, (2) clarifies the statutory tax rate to use in the income tax rate reconciliation for foreign issuers, and (3) requires, when the statutory tax rate used differs from the U.S. federal corporate income tax rate, disclosure of the basis for using that rate.
62. Are there additional income tax disclosures that would be useful to investors? Please explain. As discussed above, Rule 4-08(h) requires disclosure of the amount of domestic and foreign pre-tax income and income tax expense. Would further disaggregation of foreign amounts be useful to investors? What, if any, burdens would such additional disclosure create for issuers? Issuers are currently required to provide foreign amounts. Would there be impediments to disaggregating these amounts by material jurisdiction? If so, what are the impediments?
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X
Although Commission disclosure requirements
Regulation S-X requires disclosure, in interim period financial statements, of material retroactive changes to prior period financial statements.
• Changes in accounting principle, as discussed in sections II.B.11 and III.C.8.
• Corrections of errors. Regulation S-X
• Changes in reporting entities.
Because U.S. GAAP does not scale disclosure requirements by SRC status, any incorporation of these requirements into U.S. GAAP would result in the application of these requirements to SRCs.
63. Would the application of the requirement to disclose the effect of retroactive prior period adjustments on retained earnings to SRCs result in additional costs? Please discuss any such costs. Would investors benefit from such disclosure? Does that affect your view as to whether we should refer this requirement to the FASB? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
However, as discussed in section III.E.11, ASC 250-10-50-6 does not explicitly apply to interim periods, while Rule 10-01(b)(3) does. Thus, any revision to U.S. GAAP to apply the provisions of ASC 250-10-50-6 to interim periods, to address the points raised in section E.E.11, would also address the points raised in this section.
64. Would the application of this disclosure requirement to SRCs result in additional costs? Please discuss any such costs. Would investors benefit from such disclosure? Does that affect your view as to whether we should refer this requirement to the FASB? If so, how?
Regulation S-K
65. Do issuers encounter challenges in disclosing revenue by products and services? If so, how significant are these challenges and how do issuers overcome these challenges, given that Regulation S-K does not provide an impracticability exception?
Regulation S-K
First, Item 101(c)(1)(vii) of Regulation S-K requires disclosure if loss of a customer, or a few customers, would have a material adverse effect on a segment. This threshold differs from U.S. GAAP in that it is qualitative and focuses on the impact on a segment. In contrast, U.S. GAAP requires disclosure, for each customer that comprises 10 percent or more of total revenue, of that fact. Although the requirements for SRCs in Item 101(h)(4)(vi) are more similar to U.S. GAAP in that they do not prescribe a segment focus, they also differ from U.S. GAAP in that they do not set forth a 10 percent bright line test for disclosure.
Second, Item 101(c)(1)(vii) requires disclosure of the name of any customer that represents 10 percent or more of the issuer's revenues and whose loss would have a material adverse effect on the issuer.
Because U.S. GAAP does not scale disclosure requirements by SRC status, any incorporation of these requirements into U.S. GAAP would result in the application to SRCs of the disclosure threshold and the requirement to name a customer in certain instances.
66. U.S. GAAP does not require identification of major customers by name because many constituents argued in the standard-setting process that it could be competitively harmful to either the enterprise or the customer.
67. What would be the impact on SRCs if the disclosure threshold discussed above and requirement to disclose a customer's name in certain circumstances were to apply to SRCs? Would investors benefit from such disclosure? Does any potential impact affect your view as to whether we should refer this requirement to the FASB? If so, how?
U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of loss contingencies.
Three commenters to the Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative generally noted similarities between the disclosures required by Item 103 of Regulation S-K and U.S. GAAP.
As further described below, although Item 103 and U.S. GAAP have overlapping requirements, they differ in certain respects. Incorporation of Item 103 requirements into U.S. GAAP would have implications for investors, issuers, and other stakeholders.
The discussion below is organized as follows:
• Section III.E.15.a identifies differences between Item 103 and U.S. GAAP.
• Section III.E.15.b discusses the potential consequences of incorporating the Item 103 requirements into U.S. GAAP.
• Section III.E.15.c discusses other considerations related to Item 103.
The table below presents differences in: (1) The types of matters covered by Item 103 and U.S. GAAP and (2) other criteria. Each type of matter in part (1) of the table is subject to each of the other criteria discussed in part (2) of the table. These differences give rise to Disclosure Location—Financial Disclosure Considerations and Bright Line Disclosure Threshold Considerations.
In
U.S. GAAP requires disclosure of the possible loss or range of loss in excess of amounts accrued
Certain disclosures made outside the audited financial statements would be included within the notes to the financial statements, giving rise to Disclosure Location—Financial Statement Considerations. Some issuers already include this information in their audited financial statements, and, thus, the additional burdens should not be significant for these issuers.
Item 103 requires disclosure of the court or agency in which the proceedings are pending, the date instituted, the principal parties involved, the alleged factual basis to the proceeding, and the relief sought. Where the scope of U.S. GAAP is more expansive than that of Item 103, incorporation of these factual disclosure requirements into U.S. GAAP may benefit investors, as they would newly receive these factual disclosures for incremental matters previously outside the scope of Item 103. Provision of this disclosure, however, may create additional burdens for issuers and auditors to develop and audit additional disclosures.
Under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1970 (“NEPA”),
See
68. For the following disclosures, would inclusion of these disclosures in the audited financial statements create significant burdens for issuers and auditors? Would it require revision to standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) (“PCAOB”) or the American Bar Association Statement of Policy Regarding Lawyers' Responses to Auditors' Requests for Information?
a. Proceedings known to be contemplated but which are not probable of being asserted.
b. Material bankruptcy, receivership, or similar proceeding.
c. Non-monetary damages.
d. Proceedings involving capital expenditures or deferred charges.
e. Environment proceedings in excess of the 10 percent or $100,000 thresholds that may not be otherwise material to the registrant.
f. Low probability-high magnitude proceedings.
g. The court or agency in which the proceedings are pending, the date instituted, the principal parties involved, the alleged factual basis to the proceeding, and the relief sought.
Regulation S-K
69. Would the application of this disclosure requirement to SRCs impose additional costs? Please describe any such costs. Would investors benefit from such disclosure? Does that affect your view as to whether we should refer this requirement to the FASB? If so, how?
70. Do investors use the incremental disclosures required by the overlapping Commission disclosure requirements? If so, in what way?
71. Should we retain, modify, eliminate, or refer the foregoing incremental Commission disclosure requirements to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP? If so, which ones and why? If not, please discuss why not. Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposed referrals on which you provide comments.
72. For each topic in this section:
a. What would be the potential costs and benefits of incorporating the incremental disclosure requirements into U.S. GAAP? Do these potential costs and benefits affect your views as to whether we should refer any or all of the foregoing disclosure requirements to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP? If so, which requirements and how?
b. Would the expansion of the disclosure requirements to Regulation A and crowdfunding issuers that report under U.S. GAAP result in additional costs and benefits? Please describe any such costs and benefits. Do any of these potential costs and benefits affect your views as to whether the disclosure requirements should be referred to the FASB? If so, how?
73. Are there other Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP? If so, what requirements do they overlap with and what action, if any, should we take to address the overlap?
We have also preliminarily identified Commission disclosure requirements that have become obsolete as a result of the passage of time or changes in the regulatory, business, or technological environment. We propose to amend these outdated requirements. The proposed amendments are intended to simplify issuer compliance efforts. To reduce any loss of information or increased burdens for investors, we also propose to require additional disclosure of information which is expected to be readily available to issuers at minimal to no cost.
Section IV.B below discusses each outdated Commission disclosure requirement and the proposed amendment.
In certain circumstances, when the Commission revised its disclosure requirements, it specified the date beyond which issuers are required to comply with the new requirements.
In February 1992, the FASB revised its income tax disclosure requirements, as part of a broader project on the accounting for income taxes,
Various Commission disclosure requirements and forms require issuers to disclose the availability of their filings for reading or copying at the Commission's Public Reference Room and the Public Reference Room's physical address and phone number.
Three commenters on the Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative recommended deleting the requirements to identify the Public Reference Room and disclose its location and phone number.
Although we are proposing to delete the requirements to identify the Public Reference Room, its physical address, and its phone number, the Public Reference Room will remain open and available for interested persons to access Commission filings.
Additionally, electronic filers are required to disclose the Commission's Internet address and that electronic SEC filings are available there. We intend to retain this requirement but propose to delete the qualifier “if you are an electronic filer” as all but a limited number of issuers are now required to file electronically.
74. Are the disclosures to identify the Public Reference Room and disclose its physical address and phone number useful to investors?
75. Are there significant burdens and costs associated with disclosing the Commission's Internet address and a statement that electronic SEC filings are available there?
In 2002, the Commission recognized that “[a]n efficient and economical method for companies to make information available about themselves to many investors is through their Internet Web sites.”
In the 2002 adopting release, the Commission noted that commenters supported extending this disclosure requirement to all issuers, including smaller issuers and foreign private issuers.
The Commission staff has observed that many non-accelerated filers already disclose their Internet addresses annually in their Form 10-Ks. This current practice, combined with the minimal costs of disclosing an Internet address, suggest that such a requirement would impose limited burden on issuers. In addition, the Commission has provided guidance about the liability framework for certain types of disclosures on company Web sites, including hyperlinked and archived data, so that investors could gain the benefits of Internet disclosure.
Based on the foregoing, we propose to amend Items 101(e) and 101(h)(5) of Regulation S-K and Forms S-3, S-4, F-1, F-3, F-4, 20-F, SF-1, and SF-3 to require all issuers to disclose their Internet addresses (or, in the case of asset-backed issuers, the address of the specified transaction party), if they have one.
76. Are there significant burdens and costs associated with disclosing the issuer's Internet address? Are the burdens or costs that may be imposed on non-accelerated filers, including
Item 201(a)(1) of Regulation S-K
• The principal U.S. market(s) where its common equity is traded. Foreign issuers must also disclose the principal established foreign public trading market, if applicable. Where applicable, issuers must disclose that there is no established public trading market for their common equity.
• If the principal U.S. market is an exchange, issuers must disclose the high and low sale prices for their common equity for each quarter within the two most recent fiscal years and subsequent interim period.
• If the principal U.S. market is not an exchange, issuers must disclose the high and low bid quotations for the same periods as above. Where applicable, issuers must identify the source of the quotations and include appropriate qualifying language.
• Foreign issuers that identify a principal established foreign trading market for common equity are also required to provide market price disclosure comparable to that of a domestic issuer. If the primary U.S. market for the foreign issuer trades using American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”), then foreign issuers must disclose prices based on the ADRs.
• When Item 201(a)(1) disclosure is included in a Securities Act registration statement or an Exchange Act proxy or information statement, issuers must also disclose the price for their common equity as of the latest practicable date.
Today, the daily market prices of most publicly traded common equity securities, including those quoted on an automated quotation system, are readily available for free on numerous Web sites, including the exchanges' or quotation systems' Web sites.
Based on the foregoing, we propose the following amendments to Item 201(a)(1) of Regulation S-K:
• Issuers with one or more classes of common equity would be required to disclose the principal U.S. market(s) where each class is traded and the trading symbol(s) used by the market(s) for each class of common equity. Foreign issuers also would be required to identify the principal established foreign public trading market, if any, and the trading symbol(s), for each class of their common equity.
• Issuers with common equity that is not traded on an exchange must indicate, as applicable, that any over-the-counter quotations in such trading systems reflect inter-dealer prices, without retail mark-up, mark-down or commission and may not necessarily represent actual transactions.
• Issuers with no class of common equity traded in an established public trading market would be required to state such fact and disclose the range of high and low bid information, if applicable, for each quarter over the last two fiscal years and any subsequent interim period.
As proposed to be amended, Item 201(a)(1) would eliminate the detailed disclosure requirement of sale or bid prices for most issuers whose common equity is traded in an established public trading market and replace it with disclosure of the trading symbol.
Foreign private issuers that file Form 20-F are subject to disclosure requirements similar to those included in Item 201(a)(1) of Regulation S-K. Item 9.A.4 of Form 20-F requires the following price history of the stock to be offered or listed for both the U.S. market and the principal trading market outside the United States, as applicable:
• The annual high and low market prices for the last five full financial years;
• Quarterly high and low market prices for the last two full financial years and any subsequent period; and
• Monthly high and low market prices for the last six months;
For preemptive share issuances, the issuer must disclose the market prices for the first trading day in the most recent six months, the last trading day before the announcement of the offering, and for the latest practicable date. If an issuer's securities are “not regularly traded in an organized market,” the issuer must discuss any lack of liquidity.
We propose to amend Item 9.A.4 to be consistent with the proposals related to Item 201(a)(1) of Regulation S-K. Specifically, we propose to amend Item 9.A.4 to require disclosure of the U.S. and principal market(s) where the issuer's common equity trades and the trading symbol(s) assigned to the issuer's common equity that is traded in the U.S. market and principal market. For those issuers whose common equity
77. Is disclosure of trading symbols an adequate substitute for the current required disclosures in Item 201(a)(1) of Regulation S-K and Item 9.A.4 of Form 20-F? Why or why not?
78. Would elimination of the detailed disclosure of sale or bid prices place a burden on retail investors? Would the proposed disclosures help retail investors by facilitating their research?
79. Where a class of common equity is traded in multiple markets, should issuers have to provide disclosure only for the principal established public trading market or every established public trading market? Why?
80. Should foreign issuers be required to disclose the trading symbol(s) for both the principal U.S. market and the principal established foreign public trading market(s), as applicable? Why or why not?
81. How do investors and issuers currently understand the term “established public trading market?” Is further guidance needed to determine what constitutes “limited or sporadic quotations” and whether a quotation or trading medium is an established public trading market?
82. Is there uncertainty in the current marketplace regarding the determination of the principal established public trading market?
Item 3.A.3 of Form 20-F requires foreign private issuers to provide exchange rate data where the financial statements required to be provided in the Form 20-F are prepared in a currency other than the U.S. dollar. In these situations, the exchange rate between the financial reporting currency and the U.S. dollar must be provided:
• At the latest practicable date;
• The high and low exchange rates for each month during the previous six months; and
• For the five most recent financial years and any subsequent interim period for which financial statements are presented, the average rates for each period, calculated by using the average of the exchange rates on the last day of each month during the period.
Exchange rate information is readily available for free on a number of Web sites.
Based on the foregoing, we proposed to delete Item 3.A.3 of Form 20-F.
83. Is the exchange rate information that is available on Web sites an adequate substitute for the current required disclosures? Why or why not?
84. Would the proposed amendments place a burden on retail investors?
85. What are the burdens and costs on registrants associated with disclosing this information?
Form F-1, through its reference to Item 8.A.4 of Form 20-F, requires that audited financial statements for an initial public offering by a foreign private issuer must not be older than 12 months as of the date of the filing.
Instruction 2 to Item 8.A.4 states that we will waive the 12-month requirement if the foreign private issuer adequately represents that it is not required to comply with the 12-month requirement in any jurisdiction outside the United States and that complying with the requirement is impracticable or involves undue hardship. However, the issuer must still comply with the 15-month requirement in these circumstances.
In light of this instruction, the Commission staff has almost always granted these waiver requests. Based on the foregoing, we propose to amend Instruction 2 to Item 8.A.4 to remove the requirement that foreign private issuers in these situations seek a waiver. This amendment would enable foreign private issuers that file the above representations as an exhibit to the registration statement, as currently required, to forgo the 12-month requirement and instead comply with the 15-month requirement without incurring the time and expense associated with the waiver process.
86. We solicit comment on the foregoing proposed amendments to address outdated requirements. Is our approach to these outdated requirements appropriate? Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposed amendments on which you provide comments.
87. Are there other Commission disclosure requirements that are outdated? If so, why is the requirement outdated and how should it be amended?
As accounting, auditing, and disclosure requirements change over time, inconsistencies may arise between the newer requirements and existing Commission disclosure requirements. We propose amendments to update Commission disclosure requirements to reflect, as applicable, recent legislation, more recently updated Commission disclosure requirements, or more recently updated U.S. GAAP requirements, as discussed in section I.C.2.
The Commission staff has observed in its filing reviews that, in practice, issuers typically navigate these inconsistencies by complying with the requirement that was updated more recently. This is particularly the case with respect to changes in U.S. GAAP requirements, as the Commission has designated the FASB as the private-sector accounting standard setter for U.S. financial reporting purposes, as discussed in section I.C.1. As such, we anticipate that these proposed amendments generally will not affect current disclosure practices. Periodically, however, issuers and their advisers express confusion about how the more recently updated requirements
Section V.B below discusses each Commission disclosure requirement that we believe is superseded and the proposed amendment.
Section 103(a) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act authorized the PCAOB to establish auditing and related professional practice standards used by registered public accountants when conducting audits of issuers.
In 2004, the Commission published interpretive guidance explaining that references to GAAS in Commission rules and staff guidance, as they relate to issuers, should be understood to mean the standards of the PCAOB plus any applicable rules of the Commission.
We propose to codify the 2004 interpretation by amending Rule 1-02(d) of Regulation S-X to refer to “the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) (“PCAOB”)” as it relates to the audit of issuers and to note that, for different types of non-issuers, the Commission requires PCAOB auditing standards or GAAS or permits the use of either.
In October 1992, to conform to changes in U.S. GAAP,
Regulation S-X requires REITs to present separately all gains and losses on the sale of properties outside of continuing operations in the income statement.
Prior to 2014, application of Regulation S-X often resulted in the same presentation as U.S. GAAP because most REIT dispositions met the definition of discontinued operations, such that any gains or losses were presented outside of continuing operations in compliance with both requirements. In 2014, the FASB narrowed the definition of discontinued operations in U.S. GAAP,
The Commission provided guidance on the presentation of consolidated and combined financial statements when it first issued Regulation S-X in 1940.
Regulation S-X prohibits the consolidation of an entity if its fiscal period differs substantially, for example by more than 93 days, from that of the issuer.
Regulation S-X permits the combination of entities under common control even if their fiscal periods differ by more than 93 days, but requires the recasting of the latest fiscal year to within 93 days and disclosure of amounts excluded or included more than once as a result of the recasting.
The Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (“BHC Act”)
Regulation S-X prohibits consolidation of subsidiaries of issuers subject to the BHC Act when a divestiture has been made or it is substantially likely that the divestiture will be necessary in order to comply with provisions of the BHC Act.
Regulation S-X provides disclosure requirements for intercompany transactions that are not eliminated.
When separate financial statements of a subset of a consolidated group, such as a parent, subsidiaries, or investees, are presented, Regulation S-X contemplates the elimination of some transactions between the subset of the consolidated group presented in the separate financial statements and other entities in the consolidated group.
Regulation S-X requires, for interim periods, the presentation of dividends per share on the face of the income statement.
To address this issue, we propose to eliminate the requirement to present dividends per share on the face of the income statement for interim periods in Rule 8-03(a)(2) and Rule 10-01(b)(2). Because we believe that the presentation of interim dividends per share is useful, however, we propose to require its presentation alongside disclosure of changes in stockholders' equity. To effect this relocation of the interim dividends per share disclosure, as discussed in section III.C.16, we propose to extend Rule 3-04 of Regulation S-X, which requires annual disclosure of changes in stockholders' equity and the amount of dividends per share for each class of shares, to interim periods.
For Regulation A issuers, we propose amendments directly to Forms 1-A and 1-SA to require interim disclosures of changes in stockholders' equity and dividends per share amounts to address the inconsistency described above with U.S. GAAP, rather than to refer to Rule 3-04. The proposed amendments to Form 1-A would apply to all Regulation A issuers and the proposed amendments to Form 1-SA would apply to all Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering, even though Rule 8-03(a)(2) only applies to Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under U.S. GAAP. However, we do not expect any increased burdens for Regulation A issuers in a Tier 2 offering that report under IFRS, as such issuers are already required to present a condensed statement of changes in equity and dividend amounts either in
This proposed amendment may create some additional burden for issuers, including Regulation A issuers, because it would require disclosure of dividends per share for each class of shares, rather than only for common stock. The proposed amendment, as discussed in section III.C.16, would also require disclosure of changes in stockholders' equity in interim periods.
88. Should we retain the option to present dividends per share on the face of the statement of stockholders' equity, despite the U.S. GAAP prohibition?
89. Should we extend requirements to disclose changes in stockholders' equity to interim periods, as proposed? Would doing so pose any significant burdens and costs on issuers? Would the proposed requirements benefit investors? If so, how?
Regulation S-X
Regulation S-X requires presentation in interim periods of cumulative financial information from inception for development stage companies.
Regulation S-X permits mutual life insurance companies and their wholly-owned stock insurance company subsidiaries to prepare financial statements in accordance with statutory accounting requirements.
Regulation S-X requires insurance company balance sheets to separately present an asset called “reinsurance recoverable on paid losses.”
Regulation S-X requires the amount of assets held in separate accounts—defined as assets used to fund liabilities related to variable annuities, pension funds, and similar activities—to be separately reported as a summary total, rather than included in other lines, on the balance sheet.
Regulation S-X requires federal funds sold and securities purchased under resale agreements or similar arrangements to be presented on the balance sheet gross of federal funds purchased and securities sold under agreement to repurchase.
Regulation S-X requires that goodwill net of amortization be presented on the balance sheet or disclosed in a note to the financial statements,
Regulation S-X and Regulation S-K contain specific requirements related to discontinued segments and disposed segments, respectively.
To update Commission disclosure requirements, we propose to replace the reference to “segments” in Instruction 1 to Rule 11-02(b) of Regulation S-X and Item 302(a)(3) of Regulation S-K with the more appropriate term, “discontinued operations.”
In April 2009, following the FASB's elimination of the pooling-of-interests method of accounting,
Various Commission disclosure requirements and forms refer to “income statements” and variations thereof. In June 2011, the FASB replaced the income statement with the statement of comprehensive income.
The statement of comprehensive income may be presented as either: (1) A single statement of comprehensive income or (2) two separate but consecutive statements, comprised of the income statement and a separate statement, which begins with net income and separately presents the components of other comprehensive income, a total of other comprehensive income, and a total of comprehensive income.
To update Commission disclosure requirements, we propose to replace (or, in some cases, supplement) the existing references to “income statement” and variations thereof with “statement of comprehensive income” in our rules and forms. We also propose to clarify the two presentation options for the statement by defining the term “statement of comprehensive income” in Regulation S-X.
Investment companies generally do not have any other comprehensive income. ASC 220-10-15-3(a) states that entities that have no items of other comprehensive income are not required to report other comprehensive income or comprehensive income. Accordingly, we are not proposing to include references to “statement of comprehensive income” within the rules and forms applicable to investment companies, other than a reference within Rule 6-07 of Regulation S-X to allow for statements of operations to be replaced with statements of comprehensive income, where applicable.
We further propose to amend Rule 5-03, Rule 7-04, and Rule 9-04 of Regulation S-X to add line items to present comprehensive income and related items in the statement of comprehensive income.
In addition, U.S. GAAP requires accumulated other comprehensive income to be separately presented in the equity section of the balance sheet.
Various Commission disclosure requirements and forms refer to extraordinary items. In January 2015, the FASB eliminated extraordinary items from U.S. GAAP.
Rule 3a51-1 of the Exchange Act contains a net income measure that is used in evaluating whether certain equity securities are penny stocks, which currently excludes “extraordinary and non-recurring items” from the net income calculation. As a result of the proposed amendment, the reference to “extraordinary items” will be deleted, but the exclusion of non-recurring items from net income will remain. The deletion of the “extraordinary items” reference from net income calculations under Rule 3a51-1 is not intended to affect the application of the rule, as the Commission believes that non-recurring items encompass items that would have been “extraordinary items” previously. Thus, the calculation of net income for purposes of Rule 3a51-1 should not change.
While the FASB has eliminated the concept of extraordinary items from U.S. GAAP for general purpose financial reporting, the concept of extraordinary expenses is still relevant for investment companies, particularly in disclosure of expense ratios in registration statements. Certain investment company registration forms eliminate extraordinary expenses from expense ratios in the fee table in order to disclose to investors the ongoing level of expense that can be expected. We believe it is appropriate to continue requiring that extraordinary expenses be excluded in the fee table and require footnote disclosure reflecting extraordinary expenses if they would have a material effect. Thus, the investment company registration forms (Form N-1A, Form N-3, Form N-4 [17 CFR 239.17b and 274.11c], and Form N-6) that reference extraordinary items in relation to expenses and the related historical U.S. GAAP definition are being amended to include a definition of extraordinary expenses, consistent with the historical U.S. GAAP definition. With these proposed amendments, we do not intend to change the content required to be presented in these forms.
Various Commission disclosure requirements and forms refer to a line on the income statement for a cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle. A change in accounting principle is a change from one generally accepted accounting principle to another generally accepted accounting principle when there are two or more generally accepted accounting principles that may be used or when the accounting principle formerly used is no longer generally accepted.
To update Commission disclosure requirements, we propose to eliminate references to cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle.
Prior to 2009, Forms 10-K and 10-Q required disclosure of the voting results for matters that were submitted to
In 2009, the Commission eliminated the requirement to disclose shareholder voting results in Forms 10-K and 10-Q and added it to Item 5.07 of Form 8-K.
We also propose to eliminate Item 5 of Form 10-D
Prior to 2005, Form 20-F required all foreign private issuers, including those that reported under IFRS, to present five years of selected financial data under their primary basis of accounting and U.S. GAAP.
• In April 2005, the Commission amended Form 20-F to allow foreign private issuers to present two years of financial statements, instead of three, in the year that they first adopt IFRS.
• In December 2007, the Commission eliminated the reconciliation requirement for foreign private issuers that prepare financial statements in accordance with IFRS.
However, General Instruction G(c) of Form 20-F continues to require an issuer that reports under IFRS to present selected financial data in accordance with U.S. GAAP for the five most recent years. To update Form 20-F, we propose to amend: (1) General Instruction G(c) of Form 20-F to delete the requirement to present selected financial data in accordance with U.S. GAAP and (2) Instruction 2 to Item 3.A of Form 20-F to explicitly state that selected financial data is required only for the periods for which the issuer has prepared financial statements in accordance with IFRS.
Foreign private issuers that report under IFRS must comply with IFRS requirements for form and content within the financial statements rather than the specific presentation and disclosure provisions in Regulation S-X.
Various Commission disclosure requirements contain non-existent or incorrect references. We propose to update them as follows:
• Rule 5-02 of Regulation S-X refers in four places
• Rule 5-02.22(a) of Regulation S-X refers to Rule 4-06 of Regulation S-X, which no longer exists. We propose to delete this reference.
• Rule 7-04.9 of Regulation S-X on income tax expense refers to Rule 4-08(g) of Regulation S-X, which addresses summarized financial information of investments accounted for under the equity method of accounting. This reference should be to Rule 4-08(h) of Regulation S-X, which addresses income tax expense. We propose to update this reference accordingly.
• Rule 9-03.7(e)(3) of Regulation S-X refers to Rule 4-08(L)(3), which no longer exists. We propose to delete this reference.
• Item 512(a)(4) of Regulation S-K provides that a post-effective amendment need not be filed to include on Form F-3 the financial statements and information required by Rule 3-19 of Regulation S-X, if such financial statements and information are filed or furnished on reports incorporated by reference in the Form F-3.
• General Instruction J(1)(e) to Form 10-K is blank. Although the Commission deleted the instruction in 2011,
• General Instruction J(1)(f) to Form 10-K permits asset-backed issuers to omit Item 5 of Form 10-K, but the Instruction incorrectly describes Item 5. We propose to conform the description in Instruction J(1)(f) to the title of Item 5 of Form 10-K: Market for Registrant's Common Equity, Related Stockholder Matters and Issuer Purchases of Equity Securities.
• Paragraph (c)(1)(i) of Part F/S of Form 1-A refers to the age of interim financial statements discussed in paragraphs (b)(3)-(4) of Part F/S. However, paragraphs (b)(3)-(4) address the age of both interim and annual financial statements. To correct this reference, we propose to delete “interim” in paragraph (c)(1)(i).
• Forms F-1, F-3, F-4, F-6,
90. We solicit comment on the foregoing proposed amendments to address superseded requirements. Should any proposed amendments not be made? Should any proposed amendments be modified? If so, which ones and why? Please be as specific as possible for each of the proposed amendments on which you provide comments.
91. Are there other superseded Commission disclosure requirements? If so, which requirements have been superseded and how should they be addressed?
We request and encourage any interested person to submit comments regarding the proposals, specific issues discussed in this release, and other matters that may have an effect on the proposals. With regard to any comments, we note that such comments are of particular assistance if accompanied by supporting data and analysis of the issues addressed in those comments.
This section analyzes the expected economic effects of the proposals relative to the current baseline, which consists of both the regulatory framework of disclosure requirements in existence today and the current use of such disclosure by investors and other users. As discussed above, we are proposing amendments to certain of our disclosure requirements that may have become redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, in light of other Commission disclosure requirements, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or changes in the information environment. We are also soliciting comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP. These proposals are a result of the Division of Corporation Finance's Disclosure Effectiveness Initiative and part of our efforts to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act.
The discussion below addresses the potential economic effects of the proposals, including the likely benefits and costs, as well as the likely effects on efficiency, competition, and capital formation.
Our baseline includes the current disclosure requirements in Regulation S-K, Regulation S-X, and other rules and Commission forms promulgated under the Securities Act, the Exchange Act, and the Investment Company Act. The parties that are likely to be affected by the proposals include investors and other users, auditors, and entities subject to Regulation S-K, Regulation S-X, and other rules and Commission forms promulgated under the Securities Act, the Exchange Act, and the Investment Company Act.
The proposals affect both domestic issuers and foreign private issuers. We estimate approximately 7,600 issuers that file on domestic forms
Certain proposals also affect requirements applicable to:
• Fewer than 100 asset-backed issuers.
• Issuers that rely on Regulation A exemptions.
• Approximately 4,100 investment companies, including approximately 100 business development companies, and the portion of the approximately 12,000 investment advisers to which Regulation S-X and Regulation S-K apply.
• Up to approximately 4,200 registered broker-dealers.
• 10 NRSROs.
This release also solicits comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements that overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP.
In this section, we discuss the anticipated economic benefits and costs of the proposals in each category of redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, and superseded disclosure requirements.
We have preliminarily identified redundant or duplicative Commission disclosure requirements that require substantially the same disclosures as U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements. The proposed amendments would eliminate certain redundant or duplicative Commission disclosure requirements.
Elimination of Commission disclosure requirements that are considered redundant or duplicative with U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements would simplify issuer compliance efforts by reducing the number of rules to consider. To the extent that the redundant or duplicative requirements result in duplicative disclosures, elimination of these requirements also would be potentially beneficial to investors and other users. Academic research suggests that duplication is associated with less efficient price discovery
The potential adverse effects of these proposed amendments on investors and other users are likely to be limited as these parties would still receive substantially the same information from issuers. However, potential costs to investors may arise if U.S. GAAP were to change in such a way that information previously required by Commission disclosure requirements is no longer provided under U.S. GAAP.
We have preliminarily identified Commission disclosure requirements that are related to, but not the same as, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements. For certain of these overlapping requirements, the proposed amendments would: (a) Delete the overlapping Commission disclosure requirements or (b) integrate them with other related Commission disclosure requirements. For certain other overlapping requirements, we are soliciting comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP. We discuss below the economic effects of the proposals and provide examples of requirements affected by the proposals.
First, some proposals may give rise to Disclosure Location Considerations. Where proposals relocate existing disclosure from outside the financial statements to within the financial statements, issuers may incur additional costs to comply with audit and/or interim review and internal control over financial reporting requirements, whereas investors and other users may benefit to the extent that information is considered more reliable.
The relocation of existing disclosures, for example, from outside the financial statements to within the financial statements or from the face of the financial statements to the notes to the financial statements, may also affect the prominence of the disclosures. Some experimental research provides indirect evidence that users may treat information differently depending on the location of the disclosure. For instance, research shows a weaker relation between equity prices and disclosed items (in the notes to the financial statements) versus recognized items (on the face of the financial statements).
The relocation of existing disclosures from outside the financial statements to within the financial statements may also subject the disclosures to XBRL tagging requirements. Issuers may incur additional costs to comply with these requirements, whereas investors and other users may benefit from more readily-available information in structured formats. In general, we believe the marginal costs of applying XBRL data tagging likely would be relatively low, as issuers already have implemented software enabled processes and controls to structure previously mandated disclosures.
Furthermore, the relocation of existing disclosures may affect the extent of information that investors receive. Since the PSLRA does not provide a safe harbor for forward-looking information located within the financial statements, issuers may be less likely to voluntarily supplement those disclosures with forward-looking information as compared with disclosures made outside the audited financial statements. However, issuers retain the option of providing forward-looking information outside the financial statements if they so choose.
Second, some proposed deletions, such as those related to bright line disclosure thresholds, may change the mix of information available to investors. Bright line thresholds set forth explicit quantitative criteria for disclosure. If the bright line thresholds are consistent with the preferences of investors and other users, they will result in disclosure at an appropriate level of detail. If the bright line thresholds differ from the preferences of investors and other users, they will result in too much or too little detail.
The economic effects of replacing the bright line thresholds with new criteria will depend on the nature of the new criteria. If the new criteria are more consistent with the preferences of investors and other users, the changes may benefit them. If the new criteria are less consistent with the preferences of investors and other users, the changes may have negative impacts on them. On one hand, bright line thresholds may be easier to apply. On the other hand, although other criteria may require more judgment, may be more difficult to apply, and may lead to more variation in disclosure, they may also permit more tailored information to be presented.
When we believe that Commission disclosure requirements: (1) Require disclosures that convey reasonably similar information to or are encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with the overlapping U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or Commission disclosure requirements or (2) require disclosures incremental to the overlapping U.S. GAAP or Commission disclosure requirements and are no longer useful to investors, we are proposing to eliminate the requirements.
In addition to the economic effects of changing disclosure location and bright line disclosure thresholds, as discussed above, potential costs to investors may arise if U.S. GAAP were to change in such a way that information previously required by Commission disclosure requirements is no longer provided under U.S. GAAP.
The effects of the proposed deletion of these overlapping Commission disclosure requirements may also depend on the level of overlap between the requirements. On the one hand, eliminating overlapping requirements may reduce search costs and lead to more efficient information processing for investors. This, in turn, may lead to better informed investment decisions and an increase in allocative efficiency. On the other hand, to the extent eliminating a requirement results in a loss of information incremental to the overlapping requirement, it could result in a loss of information for investors.
The examples below illustrate the potential effects of the proposed elimination of Commission disclosure requirements on issuers, investors, and other users.
One example of an item we propose to delete due to its sufficient overlap with another item is Item 101(d)(3) of Regulation S-K. Item 101(d)(3) requires risk disclosures outside the financial statements relating to geographic areas. We believe this provision requires disclosures that are largely encompassed by the disclosures that result from compliance with other parts of Regulation S-K. More specifically, Item 101(d)(3) requires disclosure of “any” risks associated with an issuer's foreign operations. This requirement is similar to Item 503(c) of Regulation S-K, which requires disclosure of “significant” risk factors. Item 101(d)(3) also requires disclosures of a segment's dependence on foreign operations. This requirement is similar to Item 303(a) of Regulation S-K, which requires disclosure of trends and uncertainties by segment, if appropriate to an understanding of the issuer as a whole.
Since Item 101(d)(3) is more expansive than other parts of Regulation S-K, the economic effects of the deletion would depend on the nature of the incremental information required by Item 101(d)(3). Research shows that international corporate diversification may affect issuers' stock market performance and valuation. For example, the required rate of return among U.S. firms listed on the NYSE has been shown to reflect the benefit of
Another example of an item we propose to delete because it results in reasonably similar disclosures as other requirements is Item 101(c)(1)(xi) of Regulation S-K. Item 101(c)(1)(xi) requires disclosure of the amount spent on research and development activities for all periods presented.
Finally, an example of a change that might affect the extent of information disclosed as a result of the disclosure no longer being subject to the PSLRA safe harbor involves Item 303(b) of Regulation S-K. Item 303(b) requires seasonality disclosures outside of the financial statements in interim periods. U.S. GAAP
When we believe that Commission disclosure requirements overlap with, but require information incremental to, other Commission disclosure requirements, the proposed amendments integrate the Commission disclosure requirements. In addition to the economic effects of changing disclosure location and bright line disclosure thresholds, as discussed above, integration of overlapping Commission disclosure requirements would simplify issuer compliance efforts by reducing the number of rules to consider and the extent of disclosures that need to be provided. Integration of these requirements should also facilitate more efficient information processing by investors.
One example to illustrate the potential effects of the proposed integration of Commission disclosure requirements is Item 101(d)(4) of Regulation S-K. Item 101(d)(4) requires, when interim financial statements are presented, a discussion of the facts that indicate that the three-year financial data for geographic performance may not be indicative of current or future operations. This requirement is similar to requirements in Instruction 3 to Item 303(a) of Regulation S-K and Instruction 4 to Item 303(b) of Regulation S-K to identify elements of income which are not necessarily indicative of the issuer's ongoing business, except that there is no explicit reference to “geographic areas” in either item requirement. To integrate the requirements into one location of Regulation S-K, we propose to amend Item 303 explicitly to refer to “geographic areas.” As noted above, integration of these requirements should facilitate more efficient information processing by investors. We note, however, that to the extent that some investors focus more on the business description section or find it is easier to interpret geographic performance information when presented with other business description disclosures, these investors might be negatively affected if this information is relocated to MD&A.
When we believe that the Commission disclosure requirements overlap with, but require information incremental to, U.S. GAAP requirements, we solicit comment on certain Commission disclosure requirements to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP. The comments received in response to this proposal may inform both potential future Commission rulemaking and FASB standard-setting activities. If the disclosure requirements are ultimately
In addition to the economic effects of changing disclosure location and bright line disclosure thresholds, as discussed above, a movement of disclosure requirements from Commission rules to U.S. GAAP may potentially increase costs to investors if U.S. GAAP were to change in a way that this information is no longer provided, as discussed above.
As an alternative to referring these requirements to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP, we could simply eliminate the overlapping requirements and forego disclosure of the incremental information. Although such an alternative would simplify issuer compliance efforts, it also may result in less informed investment decisions and diminished investor protections. To help inform commenters' assessment of possible future changes to Commission disclosure requirements, we provide below salient examples examined in academic studies of potential economic uses of the incremental information from some of the overlapping provisions.
Academic research shows that customer-supplier linkages affect stock performance—for instance, financial distress affecting the customer often spreads to suppliers.
Research shows that credit lines and short-term financing offer sources of liquidity to companies, affect investment decisions, and affect capital structure. With respect to saving cash, firms that may face capital market frictions save more cash out of cash flow,
Outdated requirements are Commission disclosure requirements that we believe have become obsolete as a result of the passage of time or changes in the regulatory, business, or technological environment. The proposed amendments would eliminate certain outdated Commission disclosure requirements. Elimination of outdated disclosure requirements would simplify issuer compliance efforts by reducing the number of rules to consider and the extent of disclosures that need to be provided. In some cases, the proposed amendments also would require additional disclosure of information to reduce any loss of information or decrease the burden for investors and other users to retrieve such information from other sources. Such information is expected to be readily available at minimal to no cost to issuers.
The effect of these proposed amendments on investors and other users will depend on the information. If investors do not use the deleted information to make informed decisions, these amendments may have limited effect on investors, or the amendments may have a positive effect on investors since elimination of such disclosures may reduce search costs and facilitate more efficient information processing. This, in turn, could enhance the allocative efficiency of the market and facilitate capital formation. If the information is used by investors but can be retrieved from alternative sources with little or no cost to investors (
One example of outdated disclosure is the disclosure of historical market price information. We propose substituting this disclosure with disclosure of the issuer's ticker symbol, which can be used to obtain information on stock price, among other information. This additional disclosure may help reduce any loss of information as well as facilitate access to additional information while imposing minimal or no cost on issuers and saving them the expense of disclosing information that is readily available in more up to date form from alternative sources.
Superseded requirements are Commission disclosure requirements that we believe are inconsistent with recent legislation, more recently updated Commission disclosure requirements, or more recently updated U.S. GAAP requirements. The proposed amendments would conform existing Commission disclosure requirements to the more recent requirements.
Elimination or amendment of Commission disclosure requirements that are inconsistent with recent legislation, more recently updated Commission disclosure requirements, or more recently updated U.S. GAAP may simplify issuer compliance efforts by resolving some confusion for issuers. Where there are superseded requirements, issuers may need to expend time and resources seeking advice from outside professionals or guidance from Commission staff as to compliance with such requirements. To the extent that, in practice, many issuers already comply with the more recently adopted requirements, we do not expect these costs to be significant. In addition, investors and other users may benefit from the reduction in the variation of disclosure practices that could result from confusion about the superseded requirements among issuers.
One example of superseded disclosure is the requirement to report the cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle in the income statement, which the FASB eliminated from U.S. GAAP in 2005. Instead, U.S. GAAP now requires the cumulative effect of retrospectively-applied changes in accounting principle to be reflected in the opening balance of retained earnings for the earliest period presented. The Commission disclosure requirements, by contrast, continue to refer to a line on the income statement for a cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle. Eliminating references to the cumulative effect of a change in accounting principle in the income statement in the Commission disclosure requirements would resolve this contradiction and remove any resulting issuer confusion.
As another example, Rule 10-01(b)(2) of Regulation S-X requires, for interim periods, the presentation of dividends per share applicable to common stock on the face of the income statement. These rules are inconsistent with U.S. GAAP, which prohibits presentation of dividends per share on the face of the income statement. We propose to delete Rule 10-01(b)(2) to conform to U.S. GAAP. We also propose to create a new requirement to disclose the amount of dividends per share for each class of shares, rather than only for common stock, as part of changes in stockholders' equity for interim periods.
As discussed above, the proposals may improve capital allocation efficiency by enabling investors and other users to make more efficient investment decisions. For example, the proposals may reduce search costs for investors by eliminating information that is redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated or superseded and therefore no longer useful to investors. Given that investors may have limited attention and limited information processing capabilities,
However, eliminating information could result in increased information asymmetries between issuers and investors. Such asymmetries may increase the cost of capital, reduce capital formation, and hamper efficient allocation of capital across companies. If a useful disclosure is no longer required, low-quality firms will be less likely to disclose information that signals their lower quality; this will make it more difficult for higher quality firms to distinguish their quality even with voluntary disclosures. Such negative effects might be more pronounced among smaller and younger issuers that suffer more from information asymmetries. Overall, though, to the extent that we are proposing to eliminate disclosure that is redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, we do not think these effects are likely.
In addition to our request for comments in sections II through VI of this release, we request comment on various aspects of the costs and benefits of our proposals. We also request comment on any effect the proposals may have on efficiency, competition, and capital formation. In particular, we appreciate any data or analysis that may help quantify the potential costs and benefits identified.
Certain provisions of the proposed amendments contain a “collection of information” within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”).
We adopted
We are proposing amendments as part of an initiative by the Division of Corporation Finance to review disclosure requirements applicable to issuers to consider ways to improve the requirements for the benefit of investors and issuers. We are also proposing these amendments as part of our efforts to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the FAST Act.
Compliance with the proposed amendments would be mandatory. Responses to the collection would not be kept confidential, and there would be no mandatory retention period for the information disclosed.
We propose amendments to certain of our disclosure requirements that may have become redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, in light of other Commission disclosure requirements, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or changes in the information environment.
By eliminating the redundancy, duplication, and overlap in current Commission disclosure requirements, respondents would need to consider fewer rules and requirements in their compliance efforts even as they are preparing a substantially similar level of disclosures. As such, except for the proposed amendment to eliminate the requirement to disclose the ratio of earnings to fixed charges, which may decrease the paperwork burden, we believe that the proposed elimination of these redundant, duplicative, and overlapping Commission requirements would marginally reduce, if at all, respondents' overall paperwork burden.
Similarly, we expect that the proposed amendments to eliminate outdated requirements would marginally reduce the information collection burden on respondents by eliminating any efforts that were undertaken to prepare these disclosures. With the exception of the proposed amendments to require the disclosure of an issuer's Web site address and the ticker symbol of their common equity that is publicly traded, the proposed amendments related to outdated requirements would have no change or a minimal reduction in the paperwork burden associated with preparing such information when respondents are providing information in response to Forms 10, 10-K, 20-F, S-1, and F-1.
Finally, we believe that our proposed amendments to update superseded Commission disclosure requirements would marginally reduce, if at all, respondents' collection of information burden, except for the extension of the application of Rule 3-04 of Regulation S-X to interim period disclosures,
We believe the proposed amendments to eliminate the requirement to disclose the market prices for an issuer's common equity for the two most recent fiscal years would nominally reduce affected issuers current paperwork burdens. We estimate that issuers currently expend an average of 2 hours internally preparing the market price disclosure for inclusion in their Forms 10-K and 20-F. As such, we estimate that affected issuers would experience a 2 hour reduction in their annual paperwork burden.
We believe the proposed amendments to require that issuers disclose their ticker symbol and internet address would result in a minimal increase in their paperwork burden. We estimate that these proposed requirements would increase the paperwork burden by 0.1 hours per year for the disclosure of the issuer's internet address and 0.05 hours per year for the disclosure of the issuer's ticker symbol.
The proposed amendments to eliminate the requirement to disclose the market prices for an issuer's common equity for the two most recent fiscal years would not reduce the paperwork burden for the overwhelming majority of Form 10 filers.
The proposed amendments discussed in sections III.C.16 and V.B.5, if adopted, would extend to interim periods the requirements under Rule 3-04 of Regulation S-X to disclose changes in stockholders' equity and dividends per share for each class of shares, rather than only for common stock. Currently, these disclosures are not required for interim periods. While this creates a new disclosure requirement for issuers, the information being required is generally readily available from the issuer's preparation of other aspects of its interim financial statements. As a result, we estimate that this proposed amendment would increase the paperwork burdens by 0.5 hours each time such information is required for inclusion.
The proposed amendments to eliminate the market prices disclosure and require the disclosure of the ticker symbol for an issuer's common equity and the issuer's internet address have the same paperwork burden effect for Forms S-1, S-4, S-11, F-1, and F-4.
Additionally, we estimate that the paperwork burdens associated with Forms SF-1 and SF-3 would be minimally increased by the proposed amendment to disclose the issuer's internet address. We estimate that there are approximately 77 annual responses made in connection with the referenced forms. The table below illustrates the overall impact on respondents filing the referenced forms as a result of these proposed amendments.
The proposed amendments discussed in sections III.C.16 and V.B.5 to extend Rule 3-04 of Regulation S-X to interim periods would also impact the paperwork burdens of registration statements filed on Forms 1-A, S-1, S-4, S-11, F-1, and F-4 because such forms require interim period financial disclosures, when applicable.
The proposed amendment to eliminate the requirements to disclose the ratio of earnings to fixed charges, when an issuer registers debt securities, and the ratio of combined fixed charges and preference dividends to earnings, when an issuer registers preference securities, would reduce the current paperwork burden for issuers registering such securities on Forms S-1, S-3, S-4, S-11, F-1, F-3 and F-4. Depending on the size and complexity of the issuer, the paperwork burden associated with preparing this information for inclusion in the aforementioned registration statements varies greatly. We estimate that issuers expend an average of 4 hours preparing this disclosure for inclusion in their registration statements. For the purposes of this analysis, we assume that the ratio is prepared internally, and we have estimated that there are approximately 2,195 annual responses made in connection with the referenced forms. Based on this average, the table below illustrates the overall impact on respondents filing the referenced forms as a result of the proposed amendments.
Pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(B), we request comment in order to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of our assumptions and estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
• Determine whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
• Evaluate whether there are ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who respond, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
• Evaluate whether the proposed amendments would have any effects on any other collection of information not previously identified in this section.
Any member of the public may direct to us any comments concerning the accuracy of these burden estimates and any suggestions for reducing these burdens. Persons submitting comments on the collection of information requirements should direct their comments to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503, and send a copy to, Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090, with reference to File No. S7-15-16. Requests for materials submitted to OMB by the Commission with regard to the collection of information should be in writing, refer to File No. S7-15-16 and be submitted to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, Office of FOIA Services, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-2736. OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this proposed rule. Consequently, a comment to OMB is best assured of having its full effect if the OMB receives it within 30 days of publication.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”)
The primary reason for, and objectives of, the proposed amendments is to update and simplify the Commission's current disclosure requirements. Specifically, the proposed amendments would:
• Eliminate certain Commission disclosure requirements that are redundant or duplicative of requirements in U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or other Commission disclosure requirements;
• Streamline certain overlapping Commission disclosure requirements by deleting or integrating provisions that address disclosure topics covered elsewhere in our rules or regulations.
• Revise certain Commission disclosure requirements that are outdated.
• Revise certain superseded Commission disclosure requirements to update and conform our rules with recent legislation, more recently updated Commission disclosure requirements, or more recently updated U.S. GAAP requirements.
Additionally, as discussed in section III.E above, we are soliciting comment on certain overlapping Commission disclosure requirements to determine whether to retain, modify, eliminate, or refer them to the FASB for potential incorporation into U.S. GAAP.
The proposed amendments are also part of our efforts to implement title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the FAST Act.
We are proposing the rule and form amendments pursuant to sections 7, 10, 19(a), and 28 of the Securities Act, sections 3(b), 12, 13, 15, 23(a), and 36 of the Exchange Act, sections 8, 24(a), 24(g), 30, and 38 of the Investment Company Act, and title LXXII, section 72002(2) of the FAST Act.
The proposed amendments would affect small entities that file registration statements under the Securities Act, the Exchange Act, and the Investment Company Act and periodic reports, proxy and information statements, or other reports under the Exchange Act and the Investment Company Act. The RFA defines “small entity” to mean “small business,” “small organization,” or “small governmental jurisdiction.”
For the purposes of the RFA, under our rules, an issuer of securities, other than an investment company, is a “small business” or “small organization” if it had total assets of $5 million or less on the last day of its most recent fiscal year and is engaged or proposing to engage in an offering of securities that does not exceed $5 million.
An investment company, including a business development company, is considered to be a “small business,” for the purposes of the RFA, if it, together with other investment companies in the same group of related investment companies, has net assets of $50 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year.
For the purposes of the RFA, an investment adviser generally is a small entity if it: (1) Has assets under management having a total value of less than $25 million; (2) did not have total assets of $5 million or more on the last day of the most recent fiscal year; and (3) does not control, is not controlled by, and is not under common control with another investment adviser that has assets under management of $25 million or more, or any person (other than a natural person) that had total assets of $5 million or more on the last day of its most recent fiscal year.
For the purposes of the RFA, a broker-dealer is considered to be a “small business” if its total capital (net worth plus subordinated liabilities) is less than $500,000 on the date in the prior fiscal year as of which its audited financial statements were prepared pursuant to
The Commission has also stated, and continues to believe, that an NRSRO with total assets of $5 million or less would qualify as a “small” entity for purposes of the RFA.
We believe that the proposed amendments would not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with other federal rules.
As noted above, the purpose of the proposed amendments is to update and simplify the Commission's disclosure requirements. As such, the proposed amendments do not impose any significant new disclosure obligations. If adopted, the majority of the proposed amendments would eliminate or integrate current Commission disclosure requirements and thus are expected to have a minimal effect on existing reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance burdens for all issuers, including small entities. To the extent the proposed amendments do have an impact, it would likely be a reduction in these burdens.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act directs us to consider alternatives that would accomplish the stated objectives of our proposed amendments, while minimizing any significant adverse impact on small entities. Specifically, we considered the following alternatives: (1) Establishing different compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) clarifying, consolidating, or simplifying compliance and reporting requirements for small entities; (3) using performance rather than design standards; and (4) exempting small entities from coverage of all or part of the proposed amendments.
With respect to clarification, consolidation, and simplification of compliance and reporting requirements for small entities, the proposed amendments do not impose any significant new disclosure obligations. As noted above, we are proposing amendments to certain of our disclosure requirements that may have become redundant, duplicative, overlapping, outdated, or superseded, in light of other Commission disclosure requirements, U.S. GAAP, IFRS, or changes in the information environment. The proposed amendments would simplify compliance for all issuers, including small entities.
For similar reasons, we do not believe it is necessary, and indeed would be contrary to the stated objectives of the proposed rulemaking, to establish different compliance or reporting requirements or timetables or to exempt small entities from all or part of the proposed amendments. We note in this regard that the Commission's existing disclosure requirements provide for scaled disclosure requirements and other accommodations for SRCs and EGCs, and the proposed amendments would not alter these existing accommodations.
Finally, with respect to use of performance rather than design standards, the proposed amendments to eliminate certain prescriptive Commission rules that call for information that duplicates or overlaps with information required by U.S. GAAP may result in issuers, including small entities, being provided with additional flexibility when preparing their disclosures. For instance, Rule 4-08(m) of Regulation S-X requires certain disclosures regarding repurchase agreements based on a 10 percent threshold and specified maturity levels. As we propose to delete the referenced requirements, as discussed in section III.C, under the proposed amendments issuers would be subject only to the corresponding the requirements in U.S. GAAP, which require similar disclosure but do not use similar bright line thresholds. While the proposed amendments do not use performance standards, they would have a similar effect—namely, to provide issuers, including small entities, with additional flexibility to present more tailored disclosures without meaningfully reducing the total mix of information provided to investors.
We encourage the submission of comments with respect to any aspect of this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis. In particular, we request comments regarding:
• How the proposed amendments can achieve their objective while lowering the burden on small entities;
• The number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed amendments;
• The existence or nature of the potential impact of the proposed amendments on small entities discussed in the analysis; and
• How to quantify the impact of the proposed amendments.
Respondents are asked to describe the nature of any impact of the proposed amendments on small entities and provide empirical data supporting the extent of the impact. Such comments will be considered in the preparation of the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, if the proposed amendments are adopted, and will be placed in the same public file as comments on the proposed amendments themselves.
For purposes of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, or “SBREFA,”
• An annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more (either in the form of an increase or a decrease);
• A major increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; or
• Significant adverse effects on competition, investment or innovation.
Commenters should provide empirical data on: (1) The potential annual effect on the economy; (2) any increase in costs or prices for consumers or individual industries; and (3) any potential effect on competition, investment, or innovation.
The amendments contained in this document are being proposed under the authority set forth in sections 7, 10, 19(a), and 28 of the Securities Act, sections 3(b), 12, 13, 15, 23(a), and 36
Accountants, Accounting, Banks, banking, Employee benefit plans, Holding companies, Insurance companies, Investment companies, Oil and gas exploration, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities, Utilities.
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Investment companies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Brokers, Fraud, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Brokers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
Investment companies, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Securities.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the SEC is proposing to amend title 17, chapter II of the Code of the Federal Regulations as follows:
15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77aa(25), 77aa(26), 77nn(25), 77nn(26), 78c, 78j-1, 78
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(d)
(w) * * *
(3) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests exceeds 10 percent of such income of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year.
(bb) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) Net sales or gross revenues, gross profit (or, alternatively, costs and expenses applicable to net sales or gross revenues), income or loss from continuing operations, net income or loss, and net income or loss attributable to the entity (for specialized industries, other information may be substituted for sales and related costs and expenses if necessary for a more meaningful presentation); and
(cc)
(dd)
(f) * * *
(7) * * *
(ii) * * *
(B) The partner conducting a quality review under applicable professional standards and any applicable rules of the Commission to evaluate the significant judgments and the related conclusions reached in forming the overall conclusion on the audit or review engagement. (“engagement quality reviewer” or “engagement quality control reviewer”);
(b) * * *
(1) Shall state the applicable professional standards under which the audit was conducted; and
(c) * * *
(2) For the most recent fiscal year for which audited financial statements are not yet available the registrant reasonably and in good faith expects to report income attributable to the registrant, after taxes; and
(3) For at least one of the two fiscal years immediately preceding the most recent fiscal year the registrant reported income attributable to the registrant, after taxes.
(a) There shall be filed, for the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated and for its predecessors, audited statements of comprehensive income and cash flows for each of the three fiscal years preceding the date of the most recent audited balance sheet being filed or such shorter period as the registrant (including predecessors) has been in existence.
(b) In addition, for any interim period between the latest audited balance sheet and the date of the most recent interim balance sheet being filed, and for the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year, statements of comprehensive income and cash flows shall be provided. Such interim financial statements may be unaudited and need not be presented in greater detail than is required by § 210.10-01.
(b) If the registrant is engaged primarily:
(1) In the generation, transmission or distribution of electricity, the manufacture, mixing, transmission or distribution of gas, the supplying or distribution of water, or the furnishing of telephone or telegraph service; or
(2) In holding securities of companies engaged in such businesses, it may at its option include statements of comprehensive income and cash flows (which may be unaudited) for the twelve-month period ending on the date of the most recent balance sheet being filed, in lieu of the statements of comprehensive income and cash flows for the interim periods specified.
(d) Any unaudited interim financial statements furnished shall reflect all adjustments which are, in the opinion of management, necessary to a fair statement of the results for the interim periods presented. A statement to that effect shall be included. If all such adjustments are of a normal recurring nature, a statement to that effect shall be made; otherwise, there shall be furnished information describing in appropriate detail the nature and amount of any adjustments other than normal recurring adjustments entering into the determination of the results shown.
(e) Disclosures regarding segments required by generally accepted accounting principles shall be provided for each year for which an audited statement of comprehensive income (or statement of net income if comprehensive income is presented in two separate but consecutive financial statements or if no other comprehensive income) is provided. To the extent that the segment information presented pursuant to this instruction complies with the provisions of Item 101 of Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.101), the disclosures may be combined by cross referencing to or from the financial statements.
An analysis of the changes in each caption of stockholders' equity and noncontrolling interests presented in the balance sheets shall be given in a note or separate statement. This analysis shall be presented in the form of a reconciliation of the beginning balance to the ending balance for each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed with all significant reconciling items described by appropriate captions with contributions from and distribution to owners shown separately. Also, state-separately the adjustments to the balance at the beginning of the earliest period presented for items which were retroactively applied to periods prior to that period. With respect to any dividends, state the amount per share and in the aggregate for each class of shares. Provide a separate schedule in the notes to the financial statements that shows the effects of any changes in the registrant's ownership interest in a subsidiary on the equity attributable to the registrant.
(b) * * *
(4) * * *
(iii) Separate financial statements of the acquired business need not be presented once the operating results of the acquired business have been reflected in the audited consolidated financial statements of the registrant for a complete fiscal year unless such financial statements have not been previously filed or unless the acquired business is of such significance to the registrant that omission of such financial statements would materially impair an investor's ability to understand the historical financial results of the registrant. For example, if, at the date of acquisition, the acquired business met at least one of the conditions in the definition of significant subsidiary in § 210.1-02 at the 80 percent level, the statements of comprehensive income of the acquired business should normally continue to be furnished for such periods prior to the purchase as may be necessary when added to the time for which audited statements of comprehensive income after the purchase are filed to cover the equivalent of the period specified in § 210.3-02.
(a) If the financial statements in a filing are as of a date the number of days specified in paragraph (g) of this section
The revision reads as follows:
(a) If, during the period for which statements of comprehensive income are required, the registrant has acquired one or more properties which in the aggregate are significant, or since the date of the latest balance sheet required has acquired or proposes to acquire one or more properties which in the aggregate are significant, the following shall be furnished with respect to such properties:
(a) In lieu of the financial statements otherwise required, a natural person may file an unaudited balance sheet as of a date within 90 days of date of filing and unaudited statements of comprehensive income for each of the three most recent fiscal years.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) An issuer that is not a foreign private issuer shall present its financial statements in U.S. dollars.
(b) * * *
(2) If there are material exchange restrictions or controls relating to the currency of a subsidiary's domicile, the currency held by a subsidiary, or the currency in which a subsidiary will pay dividends or transfer funds to the issuer or other subsidiaries, prominent disclosure of this fact shall be made in the financial statements.
(d) Notwithstanding the currency selected for reporting purposes, the issuer shall measure separately its own transactions, and those of each of its material operations (
The revisions read as follows:
In deciding upon consolidation policy, the registrant must consider what financial presentation is most meaningful in the circumstances and should follow in the consolidated financial statements principles of inclusion or exclusion which will clearly exhibit the financial position and results of operations of the registrant. There is a presumption that consolidated statements are more meaningful than separate statements and that they are usually necessary for a fair presentation when one entity directly or indirectly has a controlling financial interest in another entity. Other particular facts and circumstances may require combined financial statements, an equity method of accounting, or valuation allowances in order to achieve a fair presentation.
(a)
(b) As to each consolidated financial statement and as to each combined financial statement, if there has been a change in the persons included or excluded in the corresponding statement for the preceding fiscal period filed with the Commission that has a material effect on the financial statements, the persons included and the persons excluded shall be disclosed.
The revisions read as follows:
If applicable to the person for which the financial statements are filed, the following shall be set forth on the face of the appropriate statement or in appropriately captioned notes. The information shall be provided for each statement required to be filed, except that the information required by paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) of this section shall be provided as of the most recent audited balance sheet being filed and for paragraph (j) of this section as specified therein. When specific statements are presented separately, the pertinent notes shall accompany such statements unless cross-referencing is appropriate.
(d)
(e) * * *
(1) Describe the most significant restrictions on the payment of dividends by the registrant, indicating their sources, their pertinent provisions, and the amount of retained earnings or net income restricted or free of restrictions.
(3) The disclosures in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section shall be provided when material.
(f)
(h) * * *
(1) Disclosure shall be made in the statement of comprehensive income or a note thereto, of the components of income (loss) before income tax expense (benefit) as either domestic or foreign.
(2) In the reconciliation between the amount of reported total income tax expense (benefit) and the amount computed by multiplying the income (loss) before tax by the applicable statutory Federal income tax rate, if no individual reconciling item amounts to more than five percent of the amount computed by multiplying the income before tax by the applicable statutory Federal income tax rate, and the total difference to be reconciled is less than five percent of such computed amount, no reconciliation need be provided unless it would be significant in appraising the trend of earnings. Reconciling items that are individually less than five percent of the computed amount may be aggregated in the reconciliation. Where the reporting person is a foreign entity, the income tax rate in that person's country of domicile should normally be used in making the above computation, but different rates should not be used for subsidiaries or other segments of a reporting entity. When the rate used by a reporting person is other than the United States Federal corporate income tax rate, the rate used and the basis for using such rate shall be disclosed.
(k)
(2) In cases where separate financial statements are presented for the registrant, certain investees, or subsidiaries, any intercompany profits or losses resulting from transactions with related parties and the effects thereof shall be disclosed.
(m) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Separate presentation in the balance sheet of the aggregate amount of liabilities incurred pursuant to repurchase agreements shall include accrued interest payable thereon.
(ii) The interest rate(s) on the repurchase liabilities shall be disclosed.
(2) * * *
(i) If, as of the most recent balance sheet date, the aggregate carrying amount of “
(A) Disclose separately such amount in the balance sheet; and
(B) Disclose in an appropriately captioned footnote whether or not there are any provisions to ensure that the market value of the underlying assets remains sufficient to protect the registrant in the event of default by the counterparty and if so, the nature of those provisions.
(c) * * *
(7) * * *
(i) For each cost center for each year that a statement of comprehensive income is required, disclose the total amount of amortization expense (per equivalent physical unit of production if amortization is computed on the basis of physical units or per dollar of gross revenue from production if amortization is computed on the basis of gross revenue).
The revisions read as follows:
6. * * *
(a) * * *
(2) inventoried costs relating to long-term contracts or programs (see paragraph (d) of this section);
(3) work in process;
19. * * *
22. * * *
(a) State separately, in the balance sheet or in a note thereto, each issue or
27. * * *
(c) * * *
(3) the changes in each issue for each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed. (See also § 210.4-08(d).)
28.
29.
30.
(1) Additional paid-in capital;
(2) Other additional capital;
(3) Retained earnings;
(i) Appropriated; and
(ii) Unappropriated (See § 210.4-08(e)); and
(4) Accumulated other comprehensive income.
Additional paid-in capital and other additional capital may be combined with the stock caption to which it applies, if appropriate.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) The purpose of this section is to indicate the various line items which, if applicable, and except as otherwise permitted by the Commission, should appear on the face of the statements of comprehensive income filed for the persons to whom this article pertains (see § 210.4-01(a)).
(b) * * *
7.
9.
21.
22.
23.
24.
(a) * * *
(2) Schedule II of this section shall be filed for each period for which an audited statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed for each person or group.
(c) * * *
(1) Consolidated and combined statements filed for registered investment companies shall be prepared in accordance with §§ 210.3A-02 and 210.3A-03 (Article 3A), except that
17.
(a) Accumulated undistributed investment income—net;
(b) Accumulated undistributed net realized gains (losses) on investment transactions; and
(c) Net unrealized appreciation (depreciation) in value of investments at the balance sheet date.
Statements of operations, or statements of comprehensive income, where applicable, filed by registered investment companies, other than
7.
Statements of comprehensive income and changes in plan equity filed under this section shall comply with the following provisions:
(a) Schedule I of this section shall be filed as of the most recent audited statement of financial condition and any subsequent unaudited statement of financial condition being filed. Schedule II of this section shall be filed as of the date of each statement of financial condition being filed. Schedule III of this section shall be filed for each period for which a statement of comprehensive income and changes in plan equity is filed. All schedules shall be audited if the related statements are audited.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
6.
11.
23.
(a) * * *
(3) accumulated other comprehensive income,
(c) * * *
(2) property and liability insurance legal entities: The amount of statutory stockholders' equity as of the date of each balance sheet presented and the amount of statutory net income or loss for each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is presented.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The purpose of this section is to indicate the various items which, if applicable, should appear on the face of the statements of comprehensive income and in the notes thereto filed for persons to whom this article pertains. (See § 210.4-01(a).)
3. * * *
(b) Indicate in a footnote the registrant's policy with respect to whether investment income and realized gains and losses allocable to policyholders and separate accounts are included in the investment income and realized gain and loss amounts reported in the statement of comprehensive income. If the statement of comprehensive income includes investment income and realized gains and losses allocable to policyholders and separate accounts, indicate the amounts of such allocable investment income and realized gains and losses and the manner in which the insurance enterprise's obligation with respect to allocation of such investment income and realized gains and losses is otherwise accounted for in the financial statements.
(d) For each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is filed, include in a note an analysis of realized and unrealized investment gains and losses on fixed maturities and equity securities. For each period, state separately for fixed maturities [see § 210.7-03.1(a)] and for equity securities [see § 210.7-03.1(b)] the following amounts:
7.
9.
19.
20.
21.
22.
(a) * * *
(2) The schedules specified in this section as Schedule IV and V shall be filed for each period for which an audited statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed for each person or group.
The revisions read as follows:
* * *
Smaller reporting companies shall file an audited balance sheet as of the end of each of the most recent two fiscal years, or as of a date within 135 days if the issuer has existed for a period of less than one fiscal year, and audited statements of comprehensive income, cash flows and changes in stockholders' equity for each of the two fiscal years preceding the date of the most recent audited balance sheet (or such shorter period as the registrant has been in business).
The revisions and addition read as follows:
Interim financial statements may be unaudited; however, before filing, interim financial statements included in quarterly reports on Form 10-Q (§ 249.308(a) of this chapter) must be reviewed by an independent public accountant using applicable professional standards and procedures for conducting such reviews, as may be modified or supplemented by the Commission. If, in any filing, the issuer states that interim financial statements have been reviewed by an independent public accountant, a report of the accountant on the review must be filed with the interim financial statements. Interim financial statements shall include a balance sheet as of the end of the issuer's most recent fiscal quarter, a balance sheet as of the end of the preceding fiscal year, and statements of comprehensive income and statements of cash flows for the interim period up to the date of such balance sheet and the comparable period of the preceding fiscal year.
(a) * * *
(2) Statements of comprehensive income (or the statement of net income if comprehensive income is presented in two separate but consecutive financial statements) should include net sales or gross revenue, each cost and expense category presented in the annual financial statements that exceeds 20% of sales or gross revenues, provision for income taxes, and discontinued operations. (Financial institutions should substitute net interest income for sales for purposes of determining items to be disclosed.)
(5) Provide the information required by § 210.3-04.
(b) * * *
(5)
(b) * * *
(3) Compare the smaller reporting company's equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes of the acquiree exclusive of amounts attributable to any noncontrolling interests to such consolidated income of the smaller reporting company for the most recently completed fiscal year.
(b) * * *
(1) If the transaction was consummated during the most recent fiscal year or subsequent interim period, pro forma statements of comprehensive income reflecting the combined operations of the entities for the latest fiscal year and interim period, if any; or
(2) If consummation of the transaction has occurred or is probable after the date of the most recent balance sheet required by § 210.8-02 or § 210.8-03, a pro forma balance sheet giving effect to the combination as of the date of the most recent balance sheet. For a purchase, pro forma statements of comprehensive income reflecting the combined operations of the entities for the latest fiscal year and interim period, if any, are required.
If, during the period for which statements of comprehensive income are required, the smaller reporting company has acquired one or more properties that in the aggregate are significant, or since the date of the latest balance sheet required by § 210.8-02 or § 210.8-03, has acquired or proposes to acquire one or more properties that in the aggregate
The revisions read as follows:
3.
7. * * *
(e) * * *
(3) Notwithstanding the aggregate disclosure called for by paragraph (e)(1) of this section, if any loans were not made in the ordinary course of business during any period for which a statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed, provide an appropriate description of each such loan.
10.
(1) Goodwill.
(2) Other intangible assets (net of amortization).
(3) Investments in and indebtedness of affiliates and other persons.
(4) Other real estates.
(a) Disclose in a note the basis at which other real estate is carried. A reduction to fair market value from the carrying value of the related loan at the time of acquisition shall be accounted for as a loan loss. Any allowance for losses on other real estate which has been established subsequent to acquisition should be deducted from other real estate. For each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is required, disclosures should be made in a note as to the changes in the allowances, including balance at beginning and end of period, provision charged to income, and losses charged to the allowance.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The purpose of this section is to indicate the various items which, if applicable, should appear on the face of the statement of comprehensive income or in the notes thereto.
13. * * *
(h) Investment securities gains or losses. Related income taxes shall be disclosed.
23.
24.
25.
26.
(b) * * *
(2) For each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is filed, state the amount of revenue, income (loss) before taxes, and net income (loss) associated with foreign activities. Disclose significant estimates and assumptions (including those related to the cost of capital) used in allocating revenue and expenses to foreign activities; describe the nature and effects of any changes in such estimates and assumptions which have a significant impact on interperiod comparability.
The information prescribed by § 210.12-04 shall be presented in a note to the financial statements when the restricted net assets (§ 210.1-02(dd)) of consolidated subsidiaries exceed 25 percent of consolidated net assets as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year. The investment in and indebtedness of and to bank subsidiaries shall be stated separately in the condensed balance sheet from amounts for other subsidiaries; the amount of cash dividends paid to the registrant for each of the last three years by bank subsidiaries shall be stated separately in the condensed statement of comprehensive income from amounts for other subsidiaries.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(3) Interim statements of comprehensive income shall also include major captions prescribed by the applicable sections of this Regulation S-X (part 210 of this chapter). When any major statement of comprehensive income (or statement of net income if comprehensive income is presented in two separate but consecutive financial statements) caption is less than 15% of average net income for the most recent three fiscal years and the amount in the caption has not increased or decreased by more than 20% as compared to the corresponding interim period of the preceding fiscal year, the caption may be combined with others. In calculating average net income, loss years should be excluded. If losses were incurred in each of the most recent three years, the average loss shall be used for purposes of this test. Notwithstanding these tests, § 210.4-02 applies and de minimis amounts therefore need not be shown separately, except that registrants reporting under § 210.9 shall show investment securities gains or losses separately regardless of size.
(5) The interim financial information shall include disclosures either on the face of the financial statements or in accompanying footnotes sufficient so as to make the interim information presented not misleading. Registrants may presume that users of the interim financial information have read or have access to the audited financial statements for the preceding fiscal year and that the adequacy of additional
(7) Provide the information required by § 210.3-04.
(b) * * *
(1) Summarized statement of comprehensive income information shall be given separately as to each subsidiary not consolidated or 50 percent or less owned persons or as to each group of such subsidiaries or fifty percent or less owned persons for which separate individual or group statements would otherwise be required for annual periods. Such summarized information, however, need not be furnished for any such unconsolidated subsidiary or person which would not be required pursuant to § 240.13a-13 or § 240.15d-13 of this chapter to file quarterly financial information with the Commission if it were a registrant.
(2) The basis of the earnings per share computation shall be stated together with the number of shares used in the computation.
(3) If, during the most recent interim period presented, the registrant or any of its consolidated subsidiaries entered into a combination between entities under common control, supplemental disclosure of the separate results of the combined entities for periods prior to the combination shall be given, with appropriate explanations.
(6) For filings on Form 10-Q (§ 249.308(a) of this chapter), a letter from the registrant's independent accountant shall be filed as an exhibit (in accordance with the provisions of Item 601 of Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.601)) in the first Form 10-Q after the date of an accounting change indicating whether or not the change is to an alternative principle which, in the accountant's judgment, is preferable under the circumstances; except that no letter from the accountant need be filed when the change is made in response to a standard adopted by the Financial Accounting Standards Board that requires such change.
(8) Any unaudited interim financial statements furnished shall reflect all adjustments which are, in the opinion of management, necessary to a fair statement of the results for the interim periods presented. A statement to that effect shall be included. If all such adjustments are of a normal recurring nature, a statement to that effect shall be made; otherwise, there shall be furnished information describing in appropriate detail the nature and amount of any adjustments other than normal recurring adjustments entering into the determination of the results shown.
(c) * * *
(2) Interim statements of comprehensive income shall be provided for the most recent fiscal quarter, for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the corresponding periods of the preceding fiscal year. Such statements may also be presented for the cumulative twelve month period ended during the most recent fiscal quarter and for the corresponding preceding period.
(4) Registrants engaged in seasonal production and sale of a single-crop agricultural commodity may provide interim statements of comprehensive income and cash flows for the twelve month period ended during the most recent fiscal quarter and for the corresponding preceding period in lieu of the year-to-date statements specified in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section.
(d)
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(1) Pro forma financial information shall consist of a pro forma condensed balance sheet, pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income, and accompanying explanatory notes. In certain circumstances (
(3) The pro forma condensed financial information need only include major captions (
(5) The pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall disclose income (loss) from continuing operations before nonrecurring charges or credits directly attributable to the transaction. Material nonrecurring charges or credits and related tax effects which result directly from the transaction and which will be included in the income of the registrant within the 12 months succeeding the transaction shall be disclosed separately. It should be clearly indicated that such charges or credits were not considered in the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income. If the transaction for which pro forma
(6) Pro forma adjustments related to the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall be computed assuming the transaction was consummated at the beginning of the fiscal year presented and shall include adjustments which give effect to events that are directly attributable to the transaction, expected to have a continuing impact on the registrant, and factually supportable. Pro forma adjustments related to the pro forma condensed balance sheet shall be computed assuming the transaction was consummated at the end of the most recent period for which a balance sheet is required by § 210.3-01 and shall include adjustments which give effect to events that are directly attributable to the transaction and factually supportable regardless of whether they have a continuing impact or are nonrecurring. All adjustments should be referenced to notes which clearly explain the assumptions involved.
(7) Historical primary and fully diluted per share data based on continuing operations (or net income if the registrant does not report discontinued operations) for the registrant, and primary and fully diluted pro forma per share data based on continuing operations before nonrecurring charges or credits directly attributable to the transaction shall be presented on the face of the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income together with the number of shares used to compute such per share data. For transactions involving the issuance of securities, the number of shares used in the calculation of the pro forma per share data should be based on the weighted average number of shares outstanding during the period adjusted to give effect to shares subsequently issued or assumed to be issued had the particular transaction or event taken place at the beginning of the period presented. If a convertible security is being issued in the transaction, consideration should be given to the possible dilution of the pro forma per share data.
(8) * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) Pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall be filed for only the most recent fiscal year and for the period from the most recent fiscal year end to the most recent interim date for which a balance sheet is required. A pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income may be filed for the corresponding interim period of the preceding fiscal year. A pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income shall not be filed when the historical statement of comprehensive income reflects the transaction for the entire period.
(ii) For combinations between entities under common control, the pro forma statements of comprehensive income (which are in effect a restatement of the historical statements of comprehensive income as if the combination had been consummated) shall be filed for all periods for which historical statements of comprehensive income of the registrant are required.
(3) Pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income shall be presented using the registrant's fiscal year end. If the most recent fiscal year end of any other entity involved in the transaction differs from the registrant's most recent fiscal year end by more than 93 days, the other entity's statement of comprehensive income shall be brought up to within 93 days of the registrant's most recent fiscal year end, if practicable. This updating could be accomplished by adding subsequent interim period results to the most recent fiscal year-end information and deducting the comparable preceding year interim period results. Disclosure shall be made of the periods combined and of the sales or revenues and income for any periods which were excluded from or included more than once in the condensed pro forma statements of comprehensive income (
(4) Whenever unusual events enter into the determination of the results shown for the most recently completed fiscal year, the effect of such unusual events should be disclosed and consideration should be given to presenting a pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive
(a) A financial forecast may be filed in lieu of the pro forma condensed statements of comprehensive income required by § 210.11-02(b)(1).
(2) The forecasted statement of comprehensive income shall be presented in the same degree of detail as the pro forma condensed statement of comprehensive income required by § 210.11-02(b)(3).
If additions, except acquisitions through foreclosure, represent other than cash expenditures, explain. If any of the changes during the period result from transactions, directly or indirectly with affiliates, explain the bases of such transactions and state the amounts involved.
A similar reconciliation shall be furnished for the accumulated depreciation.
If additions represent other than cash expenditures, explain. If any of the changes during the period result from transactions, directly or indirectly with affiliates, explain the bases of such transactions, and state the amounts involved. State the aggregate mortgages (a) renewed and (b) extended. If the carrying amount of new mortgages is in excess of the unpaid amount of the extended mortgages, explain.
15 U.S.C. 77e, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77k, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77aa(25), 77aa(26), 77ddd, 77eee, 77ggg, 77hhh, 77iii, 77jjj, 77nnn, 77sss, 78c, 78i, 78j, 78j-3, 78
(b) * * *
(2)
(e) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) Excludes amounts, or is subject to adjustments that have the effect of excluding amounts, that are included in the most directly comparable measure calculated and presented in accordance with GAAP in the statement of comprehensive income, balance sheet or statement of cash flows (or equivalent statements) of the issuer; or
The revisions read as follows:
(e)
(2) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
(3) Disclose your Internet address, if you have one.
(h) * * *
(5) * * *
(iii) State that the Commission maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the Commission and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Identify the principal United States market or markets and the trading symbol(s) for each class of the registrant's common equity. In the case of foreign registrants, also identify the principal established foreign public trading market, if any, and the trading symbol(s), for each class of the registrant's common equity.
(ii) If the principal United States market for such common equity is not an exchange, indicate, as applicable, that any over-the-counter market quotations reflect inter-dealer prices, without retail mark-up, mark-down or commission and may not necessarily represent actual transactions.
(iii) Where there is no established public trading market for a class of common equity, furnish a statement to that effect and, if applicable, state the range of high and low bid information for each full quarterly period within the two most recent fiscal years and any subsequent interim period for which financial statements are included, or are required to be included by Article 3 of Regulation S-X (part 210 of this chapter), indicating the source of such quotations. Reference to quotations shall be qualified by appropriate explanation. For purposes of this Item the existence of limited or sporadic quotations should not of itself be deemed to constitute an “established public trading market.”
Instruction 2 to Item 201. Bid information reported pursuant to this Item shall be adjusted to give retroactive effect to material changes resulting from
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) Disclosure shall be made of net sales, gross profit (net sales less costs and expenses associated directly with or allocated to products sold or services rendered), income (loss), per share data based upon such income (loss), net income (loss) and net income (loss) attributable to the registrant, for each full quarter within the two most recent fiscal years and any subsequent interim period for which financial statements are included or are required to be included by Article 3 of Regulation S-X (part 210 of this chapter).
(3) Describe the effect of any discontinued operations and unusual or infrequently occurring items recognized in each full quarter within the two most recent fiscal years and any subsequent interim period for which financial statements are included or are required to be included by Article 3 of Regulation S-X, as well as the aggregate effect and the nature of year-end or other adjustments which are material to the results of that quarter.
(b) * * *
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a)
(b) * * *
(2)
Instruction 8 to paragraph (b). The term statement of comprehensive income shall mean a statement of comprehensive income as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) * * *
(4) If the registrant is a foreign private issuer, to file a post-effective amendment to the registration statement to include any financial statements required by Item 8.A of Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter) at the start of
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) Unaudited balance sheets, comparative year-to-date statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) and related earnings per share data and statements of cash flows required to be included in the company's most recent quarterly report filed under the Exchange Act; and
(b) * * *
(2) The company's statement of comprehensive income and earnings per share for the most recent fiscal year and the latest interim period provided under paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
(b) * * *
(2) State that the Commission maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the Commission and state the address of that site (
15 U.S.C. 77b, 77b note, 77c, 77d, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77r, 77s, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78d, 78j, 78
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) There is included the information required for statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) contained either:
A subsidiary issuing debt securities guaranteed by its parent will be deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the parent's statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) satisfy the criteria of this paragraph and information respecting the subsidiary is included to the same extent as was presented in the registration statement. An “earning statement” not meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may otherwise be sufficient for purposes of the last paragraph of section 11(a) of the Act.
(1) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' investments in and advances to the subsidiary exceed 10 percent of the total assets of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated as of the end of the most recently completed fiscal year (for a proposed combination between entities under common control, this condition is also met when the number of common shares exchanged or to be exchanged by the registrant exceeds 10 percent of its total common shares outstanding at the date the combination is initiated); or
(3) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes exceeds 10 percent of such income of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year.
(d) * * *
(4) A statement that a review of interim financial information is substantially less in scope than an audit conducted in accordance with the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) (“PCAOB”), the objective of which is an expression of an opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole, and, accordingly, no such opinion is expressed; and
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77sss, 78c, 78
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form S-1 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form S-3 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
2.
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form S-11 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form S-4 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(c) * * *
(2) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
(d) * * *
(2) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form F-1 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. A registrant must file the Form F-1 registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering and Retrieval System (EDGAR) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232), except that a registrant that has obtained a hardship exception under Regulation S-T Rule 201 or 202 (17 CFR 232.201 or 232.202) may file the registration statement in paper. For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
b. Information required by Item 18 of Form 20-F (Schedules required under Regulation S-X shall be filed as “Financial Statement Schedules Pursuant to Item 8, Exhibit and Financial Statement Schedules, of this Form), as well as any information required by Rule 3-05 and Article 11 of Regulation S-X (§ 210 of this chapter).
c. [Reserved]
d. Information required by Item 16F of Form 20-F.
e. State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
(b)
1. * * *
iii. Restated financial statements where a combination of entities under common control has been consummated subsequent to the most recent fiscal year and the transferred businesses, considered in the aggregate, are significant under Rule 11-01(b) (§ 210.11-01(b) of this chapter); or
(b) * * *
2. * * *
ii. State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form F-3 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
2. Primary Offerings of Non-Convertible Securities Other than Common Equity. Non-convertible securities, other than common equity, to be offered for cash by or on behalf of a registrant, provided the registrant (i) has issued (as of a date within 60 days prior to the filing of the registration statement) at least $1 billion in non-convertible securities, other than common equity, in primary offerings for cash, not exchange, registered under the Securities Act, over the prior three years; or (ii) has outstanding (as of a date within 60 days prior to the filing of the registration statement) at least $750 million of non-convertible securities, other than common equity, issued in primary offerings for cash, not exchange, registered under the Securities Act; or (iii) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of a well-known seasoned issuer (as defined in 17 CFR 230.405); or (iv) is a majority-owned operating partnership of a real estate investment trust that qualifies as a well-known seasoned issuer (as defined in 17 CFR 230.405).
3. Transactions Involving Secondary Offerings. Outstanding securities to be offered for the account of any person other than the issuer, including securities acquired by standby underwriters in connection with the call or redemption by the issuer of warrants or a class of convertible securities. The financial statements included in this registration statement must comply with Item 18 of Form 20-F. In addition, Form F-3 may be used by affiliates to register securities for resale pursuant to the conditions specified in General Instruction C to Form S-8 (§ 239.16b of this chapter). In the case of such securities, the financial statements included in this registration statement must comply with Item 18 of Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter).
4. Rights Offerings, Dividend or Interest Reinvestment Plans, and Conversions or Warrants. Securities to be offered: (a) Upon the exercise of outstanding rights granted by the issuer of the securities to be offered, if such rights are granted pro rata to all existing security holders of the class of securities to which the rights attach; or (b) pursuant to a dividend or interest reinvestment plan; or (c) upon the conversion of outstanding convertible securities or upon the exercise of outstanding transferable warrants issued by the issuer of the securities to be offered, or by an affiliate of such issuer. The financial statements included in this registration statement must comply with Item 18 of Form 20-F. The registration of securities to be offered or sold in a standby underwriting in the
D. A registrant must file the Form F-3 registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering and Retrieval System (EDGAR) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232), except that a registrant that has obtained a hardship exception under Regulation S-T Rule 201 or 202 (17 CFR 232.201 or 232.202) may file the registration statement in paper. For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
Instructions
1. Financial statements or information required to be furnished by this Item shall be reconciled pursuant to Item 18 of Form 20-F.
2. Material changes to be disclosed pursuant to Item 5(a) include changes in and disagreements with registrant's certifying accountant.
Item 6. Incorporation of Certain Information by Reference.
(e) * * *
(2) state that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form F-4 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
4. A registrant must file the Form F-4 registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering and Retrieval System (EDGAR) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232), except that a registrant that has obtained a hardship exception under Regulation S-T Rule 201 or 202 (17 CFR 232.201 or 232.202) may file the registration statement in paper. For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
INFORMATION REQUIRED IN THE PROSPECTUS
Instructions to paragraphs (e) and (f).
1. For a business combination accounted for as a purchase, the financial information required by paragraphs (e) and (f) shall be presented only for the most recent fiscal year and interim period. For a combination of entities under common control, the financial information required by paragraphs (e) and (f) (except for information with regard to book value) shall be presented for the most recent three fiscal years and interim period. For a combination of entities under common control, information with regard to book value shall be presented as of the end of the most recent fiscal year and interim period. Equivalent pro forma per share amounts shall be calculated by multiplying the pro forma income (loss) per share before non-recurring charges or credits directly attributable to the transaction, pro forma book value per share, and the pro forma dividends per share of the registrant by the exchange ratio so that the per share amounts are equated to the respective values for one share of the company being acquired.
(c) * * *
(3) Restated financial statements prepared in accordance with or, if prepared using a basis of accounting other than IFRS as issued by the IASB, reconciled to U.S. GAAP and Regulation S-X where one or more business combinations accounted for as combinations of entities under common control have been consummated subsequent to the most recent fiscal year and the transferred businesses, considered in the aggregate, are significant pursuant to Rule 11-01(b) of Regulation S-X (§ 210.11-01(b) of this chapter); or
(a) * * *
(b) * * *
(c) * * *
(2) state that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
If the registrant meets the requirements for use of Form F-3 or
(b) * * *
(2) Include financial statements and information as required by Item 18 of Form 20-F. In addition, provide: * * *
(iv) Restated financial statements prepared in accordance with or, if prepared using a basis of accounting other than IFRS as issued by the IASB, reconciled to U.S. GAAP and Regulation S-X where a combination of entities under common control has been consummated subsequent to the most recent fiscal year and the transferred businesses, considered in the aggregate, are significant pursuant to Rule 11-01(b) of Regulation S-X; and
(3) * * *
(vii) Financial statements required by Item 18 of Form 20-F, and financial information required by Rule 3-05 and Article 11 of Regulation S-X with respect to transactions other than that pursuant to which the securities being registered are to be issued;
(ix) Item 16F of Form 20-F, change in registrant's certifying accountant.
(b) * * *
(c) * * *
(2) state that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
(h) Financial statements required by Item 18 of Form 20-F. In addition, financial information required by Rule 3-05 and Article 11 of Regulation S-X with respect to transactions other than that pursuant to which the securities being registered are to be issued. (Schedules required by Regulation S-X shall be filed as “Financial Statement Schedules” pursuant to Item 21 of this Form.);
(j) Item 16F of Form 20-F, change in registrant's certifying accountant.
The text of Form F-6 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. You must file the Form F-6 registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The text of Form F-7 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. A registrant must file the registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The text of Form F-8 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. A registrant must file the registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The text of Form F-10 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
D. A registrant must file the registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The text of Form F-80 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
C. A registrant must file the registration statement in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The text of Form SF-1 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b)(2) * * *
(ii) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The text of Form SF-3 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(e)(1) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form 1-A does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(iii) [Reserved]
(b) [Reserved]
(a) * * *
* * *
(4)
(5)
(i) If a consolidated interim balance sheet is required by (b)(3) of Part F/S, consolidated interim statements of comprehensive income (either in a single continuous financial statement or in two separate but consecutive financial statements; or a statement of net income if there was no other comprehensive income) and cash flows shall be provided and must cover at least the first six months of the issuer's fiscal year and the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year. An analysis of the changes in each caption of stockholders' equity presented in the balance sheets must be provided in a note or separate statement. This analysis shall be presented in the form of a reconciliation of the beginning balance to the ending balance for each period for which a statement of comprehensive income is required to be filed with all significant reconciling items described by appropriate captions with contributions from and distributions to owners shown separately. Dividends per share for each class of shares shall also be provided.
(ii) Interim financial statements of issuers that report under U.S. GAAP may be condensed as described in Rule 8-03(a) of Regulation S-X.
(iii) The interim statements of comprehensive income for all issuers must be accompanied by a statement that in the opinion of management all adjustments necessary in order to make the interim financial statements not misleading have been included.
(c)
(1) * * *
(i) Issuers that report under U.S. GAAP and, when applicable, other entities for which financial statements are required, must comply with Article 8 of Regulation S-X, as if they were conducting a registered offering on Form S-1, except the age of financial statements may follow paragraphs (b)(3)-(4) of this Part F/S.
The text of Form 1-K does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(e)
The revisions and addition read as follows:
The text of Form 1-SA does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
The financial statements included pursuant to this item may be condensed, unaudited, and are not required to be reviewed. For additional guidance on presentation of the financial statements, issuers that report under U.S. GAAP should refer to Rule 8-03(a) of Regulation S-X. The financial statements for all issuers must include the following:
(b) Interim consolidated statements of comprehensive income (either in a single continuous financial statement or in two separate but consecutive financial statements; or a statement of net income if there was no other comprehensive income) must be provided for the six month interim period covered by this report and for the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year. Statements of comprehensive income must be accompanied by a statement that in the opinion of management all adjustments necessary in order to make the interim financial statements not misleading have been included.
(c) * * *
(d) An analysis of the changes in each caption of stockholders' equity presented in the balance sheets must be provided in a note or separate statement. This analysis shall be presented in the form of a reconciliation
(e) Footnote and other disclosures should be provided as needed for fair presentation and to ensure that the financial statements are not misleading. Issuers that report under U.S. GAAP should refer to Rule 8-03(b) of Regulation S-X for examples of disclosures that may be needed.
(f) Financial Statements of Guarantors and Issuers of Guaranteed Securities. * * *
15 U.S.C. 77c, 77d, 77g, 77j, 77s, 77z-2, 77z-3, 77eee, 77ggg, 77nnn, 77sss, 77ttt, 78c, 78c-3, 78c-5, 78d, 78e, 78f, 78g, 78i, 78j, 78j-1, 78k, 78k-1, 78
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) * * *
(
(b) * * *
(3) Submission of the report (or documentation) by the independent accountant as described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section shall not replace, or otherwise satisfy the need for, the newly engaged and former accountants' letters under Items 304(a)(2)(D) and 304(a)(3) of Regulation S-K, §§ 229.304(a)(2)(D) and 229.304(a)(3) of this chapter, respectively, and shall not limit, reduce, or affect in any way the independent accountant's obligations to comply fully with all other legal and professional responsibilities, including, without limitation, those under the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the rules or interpretations of the Commission that modify or supplement those auditing standards.
The revision reads as follows:
(3) The registrant's and its other subsidiaries' equity in the income from continuing operations before income taxes exclusive of amounts attributable to any non-controlling interests exceeds 10 percent of such income of the registrant and its subsidiaries consolidated for the most recently completed fiscal year.
(b) The report pursuant to this section shall be filed for the transition period not more than the number of days specified in paragraph (j) of this section after either the close of the transition period or the date of the determination to change the fiscal closing date, whichever is later. The report shall be filed on the form appropriate for annual reports of the issuer, shall cover the period from the close of the last fiscal year end and shall indicate clearly the period covered. The financial statements for the transition period filed therewith shall be audited. Financial statements, which may be unaudited, shall be filed for the comparable period of the prior year, or a footnote, which may be unaudited, shall state for the comparable period of the prior year, revenues, gross profits, income taxes, income or loss from continuing operations and net income or loss. The effects of any discontinued operations as classified under the provisions of generally accepted accounting principles also shall be shown, if applicable. Per share data based upon such income or loss and net income or loss shall be presented in conformity with applicable accounting standards. Where called for by the time span to be covered, the comparable period financial statements or footnote shall be included in subsequent filings.
(g) * * *
(3) The report for the transition period shall be filed on Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter) responding to all items to which such issuer is required to respond when Form 20-F is used as an annual report. The financial statements for the transition period filed therewith shall be audited. The report shall be filed within four months after either the close of the transition period or the date on which the issuer made the determination to change the fiscal closing date, whichever is later.
(b) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) To issue or reissue a report on an issuer's financial statements that is not warranted in the circumstances (due to material violations of generally accepted accounting principles, the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board, or other professional or regulatory standards);
(ii) Not to perform audit, review or other procedures required by the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or other professional standards;
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) A consolidated balance sheet and income statement (including notes to the financial statements) for the ultimate holding company and statements of allowable capital and allowances for market, credit, and operational risk computed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section,
(ii) * * *
(A) Consolidating balance sheets and income statements for the ultimate holding company. The consolidating balance sheet must provide information regarding each material affiliate of the ultimate holding company in a separate column, but may aggregate information regarding members of the affiliate group that are not material affiliates into one column. Statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) shall be included in place of an income statement, if required by the applicable generally accepted accounting principles;
(E) For a quarter-end that coincides with the ultimate holding company's fiscal year-end, the ultimate holding company need not include consolidated and consolidating balance sheets and income statements (or statements of comprehensive income, as applicable) in its quarterly reports. The consolidating balance sheet and income statement (or statement of comprehensive income, as applicable) for the quarter-end that coincides with the fiscal year-end may be filed at a later time to which the Commission agrees (when reviewing the affiliated broker's or dealer's application under § 240.15c3-1e(a));
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) Consolidated (including notes to the financial statements) and consolidating balance sheets and income statements for the ultimate holding company. Statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) shall be included in place of income statements, if required by the applicable generally accepted accounting principles;
(D) For a quarter-end that coincides with the ultimate holding company's fiscal year-end, the ultimate holding company need not include consolidated and consolidating balance sheets and income statements (or statements of comprehensive income, as applicable) in its quarterly reports. The consolidating balance sheet and income statement (or statement of comprehensive income, as applicable) for the quarter-end that coincides with the fiscal year-end may be filed at a later time to which the Commission agrees (when reviewing the affiliated broker's or dealer's application under § 240.15c3-1e(a)).
(a) If the registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933 did not contain certified financial statements for the registrant's last full fiscal year (or for the life of the registrant if less than a full fiscal year) preceding the fiscal year in which the registration statement became effective, the registrant shall, within 90 days after the effective date of the registration statement, file a special report furnishing certified financial statements for such last full fiscal year or other period, as the case may be, meeting the requirements of the form appropriate for annual reports of the registrant. If the registrant is a foreign private issuer as defined in § 230.405 of this chapter, then the special financial report shall be filed on the appropriate form for annual reports of the registrant and shall be filed by the later of 90 days after the date on which the registration statement became effective, or four months following the end of the registrant's latest full fiscal year.
(b) The report pursuant to this section shall be filed for the transition period not more than the number of days specified in paragraph (j) of this section after either the close of the transition period or the date of the determination to change the fiscal closing date, whichever is later. The report shall be filed on the form appropriate for annual reports of the issuer, shall cover the period from the close of the last fiscal year end and shall indicate clearly the period covered. The financial statements for the transition period filed therewith shall be audited. Financial statements, which may be unaudited, shall be filed for the comparable period of the prior year, or a footnote, which may be unaudited, shall state for the comparable period of the prior year, revenues, gross profits, income taxes, income or loss from continuing operations and net income or loss. The effects of any discontinued operations as classified under the provisions of generally accepted accounting principles also shall be shown, if applicable. Per share data based upon such income or loss and net income or loss shall be presented in conformity with applicable accounting standards. Where called for by the time span to be covered, the comparable period financial statements or footnote shall be included in subsequent filings.
(g) * * *
(3) The report for the transition period shall be filed on Form 20-F (§ 249.220f of this chapter) responding to all items to which such issuer is required to respond when Form 20-F is used as an annual report. The financial statements for the transition period filed therewith shall be audited. The report shall be filed within four months after either the close of the transition period or the date on which the issuer made the determination to change the fiscal closing date, whichever is later.
(d) * * *
(2) * * *
(i) * * *
If there is other comprehensive income in the period(s) presented, the financial report must contain a Statement of Comprehensive Income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) in place of a Statement of Income.
(b)
(2) * * *
If there is other comprehensive income in the period(s) presented, the financial report must contain a Statement of Comprehensive Income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) in place of a Statement of Income.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) Include a balance sheet, an income statement (or a statement of comprehensive income, as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter, if required by the applicable generally accepted accounting principles noted in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section) and statement of cash flows, and a statement of changes in ownership equity;
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
(v) * * *
Statements of comprehensive income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X of this chapter) must be included in place of income statements, if required by the applicable generally accepted accounting principles.
15 U.S.C. 78a
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form 20-F does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b) A foreign private issuer must file its annual report on this Form within four months after the end of the fiscal year covered by the report.
(a) You must file the Form 20-F registration statement or annual report in electronic format via our Electronic Data Gathering and Retrieval System (EDGAR) in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). The Form 20-F registration statement or annual report must be in the English language as required by Regulation S-T Rule 306 (17 CFR 232.306). You must provide the signatures required for the Form 20-F registration statement or annual report in accordance with Regulation S-T Rule 302 (17 CFR 232.302). If you have EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
(c)
(2) The issuer's financial statements must be audited in accordance with the standards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (United States) (“PCAOB”), and the auditor must be qualified and independent in accordance with Article 2 of Regulation S-X. The financial statements of entities other than the issuer must be audited in accordance with applicable professional standards. If you have any questions about these requirements, contact the Office of Chief Accountant in the Division of Corporation Finance at (202) 551-3400.
(c)
(f)
(1)
2.
A. * * *
8. State that the SEC maintains an Internet site that contains reports, proxy and information statements, and other information regarding issuers that file electronically with the SEC and state the address of that site (
A. * * *
1. * * *
(b) statement of comprehensive income (either in a single continuous financial statement or in two separate but consecutive financial statements; or a statement of net income if there was no other comprehensive income);
5. If the document is dated more than nine months after the end of the last audited financial year, it should contain consolidated interim financial statements, which may be unaudited (in which case that fact should be stated), covering at least the first six months of the financial year. The interim financial statements should include a balance sheet, statement of comprehensive income (either in a single continuous financial statement or in two separate but consecutive financial statements; or a statement of net income if there was no other comprehensive income), cash flow statement, and a statement showing either (i) changes in equity other than those arising from capital transactions with owners and distributions to owners, or (ii) all changes in equity (including a subtotal of all non-owner items recognized directly in equity). Each of these statements may be in condensed form as long as it contains the major line items from the latest audited financial statements and includes the major components of assets, liabilities and equity (in the case of the balance sheet); income and expenses (in the case of the statement of comprehensive income) and the major subtotals of cash flows (in the case of the cash flow statement). The interim financial statements should include comparative statements for the same period in the prior financial year, except that the requirement for comparative balance sheet information may be satisfied by presenting the year end balance sheet. If not included in the primary financial statements, a note should be provided analyzing the changes in each caption of shareholders' equity presented in the balance sheet. The interim financial statements should include selected note disclosures that will provide an explanation of events and changes that are significant to an understanding of the changes in financial position and performance of the enterprise since the last annual reporting date. If, at the date of the document, the company has published interim financial information that covers a more current period than those otherwise required by this standard, the more current interim financial information must be included in the document. Companies are encouraged, but not required, to have any interim financial statements in the document reviewed by an independent auditor. If such a review has been performed and is referred to in the document, a copy of the auditor's interim review report must be provided in the document.
2.
A. * * *
4. Identify the host and principal market(s) and trading symbol(s) for those markets for each class of the registrant's common equity. If significant trading suspensions occurred in the prior three years, they shall be disclosed. If the securities are not regularly traded in an organized market, information shall be given about any lack of liquidity.
F.
1. [Reserved]
1.
Item 16G only applies to annual reports, and not to registration statements on Form 20-F. Registrants should provide a brief and general discussion, rather than a detailed, item-by-item analysis.
3. [Reserved]
1.
6. [Reserved]
7. [Reserved]
The text of Form 40-F does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(7) A filer must file the Form 40-F registration statement or annual report in electronic format via the Commission's Electronic Data Gathering, Analysis, and Retrieval (EDGAR) system in accordance with the EDGAR rules set forth in Regulation S-T (17 CFR part 232). For assistance with EDGAR questions, call the Filer Support Office at (202) 551-8900.
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form 10-K does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
J. * * *
(1) * * *
(e) [Reserved]
(f) Item 5, Market for Registrant's Common Equity, Related Stockholder Matters and Issuer Purchases of Equity Securities;
Furnish the information required by Item 403 of Regulation S-K (§ 229.403 of this chapter).
The text of Form 11-K does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
2. An audited statement of comprehensive income (either in a single continuous financial statement or in two separate but consecutive financial statements; or a statement of net income if there was no other comprehensive income) and changes in plan equity for each of the latest three fiscal years of the plan (or such lesser period as the plan has been in existence).
The text of Form 10-D does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part II does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part II does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
If there are no items of other comprehensive income in the period presented, the broker or dealer is not required to report comprehensive income.
Report the amount of net income (loss) for the period reported on the Statement of Income (Loss) or Statement of Comprehensive Income, as applicable.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part IIA does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part IIA does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
If there are no items of other comprehensive income in the period presented, the broker or dealer is not required to report comprehensive income.
Report the amount of net income (loss) for the period reported on the Statement of Income (Loss) or Statement of Comprehensive Income, as applicable.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part IIB does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
The text of Form X-17A-5 Part III does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
□ (c) Statement of Income (Loss) or, if there is other comprehensive income in the period(s) presented, a Statement of Comprehensive Income (as defined in § 210.1-02 of Regulation S-X).
15 U.S.C. 77f, 77g, 77h, 77j, 77s, 78c(b), 78l, 78m, 78n, 78o(d), 80a-8, 80a-24, 80a-26, 80a-29, and Public Law 111-203, sec. 939A, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010), unless otherwise noted.
The text of Form N-5 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(i) Whether the registrant and its investment adviser and principal underwriter have adopted codes of ethics under Rule l 7j-1 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 [17 CFR 270.17j-1] and whether these codes of ethics permit personnel subject to the codes to invest in securities, including securities that may be purchased or held by the registrant. Also explain that these codes of ethics are available on the EDGAR Database on the Commission's Internet site at
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form N-1A does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b) * * *
(3) State that reports and other information about the Fund are available on the EDGAR Database on the Commission's Internet site at
3. * * *
(c) * * *
(ii) “Other Expenses” do not include extraordinary expenses. “Extraordinary expenses” refers to expenses that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of occurrence. Unusual nature means the expense has a high degree of abnormality and is clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the fund, taking into account the environment in which the fund operates. Infrequency of occurrence means the expense is not reasonably expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into consideration the environment in which the fund operates. The environment of a fund includes such factors as the characteristics of the industry or industries in which it operates, the geographical location of its operations, and the nature and extent of governmental regulation. If extraordinary expenses were incurred that materially affected the Fund's “Other Expenses,” disclose in a footnote to the table what “Other Expenses” would have been had the extraordinary expenses been included.
(d) * * *
(1) * * *
2. * * *
(a) * * *
(ii) For purposes of this Item 27(d)(1), “Other Expenses” include extraordinary expenses. “Extraordinary expenses” refers to expenses that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of occurrence. Unusual nature means the expense has a high degree of abnormality and is clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the fund, taking into account the environment in which the fund operates. Infrequency of occurrence means the expense is not reasonably expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into consideration the environment in which the fund operates. The environment of a fund includes such factors as the characteristics of the industry or industries in which it operates, the geographical location of its operations, and the nature and extent of governmental regulation.
(3).
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form N-2 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
15.
* * *
* * *
6. * * *
b. a statement that: (i) The Registrant files its complete schedule of portfolio holdings with the Commission for the first and third quarters of each fiscal year on Form N-Q; (ii) the Registrant's Forms N-Q are available on the Commission's Web site at
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form N-3 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
4. * * *
(c) * * *
(i) “Other Expenses” do not include extraordinary expenses. “Extraordinary expenses” refers to expenses that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of occurrence. Unusual nature means the expense has a high degree of abnormality and is clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the fund, taking into account the environment in which the fund operates. Infrequency of occurrence means the expense is not reasonably expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into consideration the environment in which the fund operates. The environment of a fund includes such factors as the characteristics of the industry or industries in which it operates, the geographical location of its operations, and the nature and extent of governmental regulation. If extraordinary expenses were incurred that materially affected the Registrant's “Other Expenses,” the Registrant should disclose in the narrative following the table what the “Other Expenses” would have been had extraordinary expenses been included.
(m) Provide a brief statement disclosing whether the Registrant and its investment adviser and principal underwriter have adopted codes of ethics under Rule 17j-1 of the 1940 Act [17 CFR 270.17j-1] and whether these codes of ethics permit personnel subject to the codes to invest in securities, including securities that may be purchased or held by the Registrant. Also explain in the statement that these codes of ethics are available on the EDGAR Database on the Commission's Internet site at
(a) * * *
(6) * * *
(ii) a statement that: (A) The Registrant files its complete schedule of portfolio holdings with the Commission for the first and third quarters of each fiscal year on Form N-Q; (B) the Registrant's Forms N-Q are available on the Commission's Web site at
The revisions read as follows:
The text of Form N-4 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(a) * * *
(v) a statement or statements that: (A) The prospectus sets forth the information about the Registrant that a prospective investor ought to know before investing; (B) the prospectus should be kept for future reference; (C) additional information about the Registrant has been filed with the Commission and is available upon written or oral request without charge (This statement should explain how to obtain the Statement of Additional Information, whether any of it has been incorporated by reference into the prospectus, and where the table of contents of the Statement of Additional Information appears in the prospectus. If the Registrant intends to disseminate its prospectus electronically, also include the information that the Commission maintains a Web site (
17. * * *
(b) “Total Annual [Portfolio Company] Operating Expenses” do not include extraordinary expenses. “Extraordinary expenses” refers to expenses that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of occurrence. Unusual nature means the expense has a high degree of abnormality and is clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the fund, taking into account the environment in which the fund operates. Infrequency of occurrence means the expense is not reasonably expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into consideration the environment in which the fund operates. The environment of a fund includes such factors as the characteristics of the industry or industries in which it operates, the geographical location of its operations, and the nature and extent of governmental regulation. If extraordinary expenses were incurred by any portfolio company that would, if included, materially affect the minimum or maximum amounts shown in the table, disclose in a footnote to the table what the minimum and maximum “Total Annual [Portfolio Company] Operating Expenses” would have been had the extraordinary expenses been included.
The text of Form N-6 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
(b) * * *
(3) State that reports and other information about the Registrant are available on the Commission's Internet site at
Instructions.
4. * * *
(c) “Total Annual [Portfolio Company] Operating Expenses” do not include extraordinary expenses. “Extraordinary expenses” refers to expenses that are distinguished by their unusual nature and by the infrequency of occurrence. Unusual nature means the expense has a high degree of abnormality and is clearly unrelated to, or only incidentally related to, the ordinary and typical activities of the fund, taking into account the environment in which the fund operates. Infrequency of occurrence means the expense is not reasonably expected to recur in the foreseeable future, taking into consideration the environment in which the fund operates. The environment of a fund includes such factors as the characteristics of the industry or industries in which it operates, the geographical location of its operations, and the nature and extent of governmental regulation.
The text of Form N-8B-2 does not, and this amendment will not, appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
52. * * *
(e) Provide a brief statement disclosing whether the trust and its principal underwriter have adopted codes of ethics under rule 17j-l of the Act [17 CFR 270.l7j- l] and whether these codes of ethics permit personnel subject to the codes to invest in securities, including securities that may be purchased or held by the trust. Also explain that these codes of ethics are available on the EDGAR Database on the Commission's Internet site at
By the Commission.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) announces the availability of its final Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing—Underwater Acoustic Thresholds for Onset of Permanent and Temporary Threshold Shifts (Technical Guidance or Guidance) that provides updated received levels, or acoustic thresholds, above which individual marine mammals under NMFS' jurisdiction are predicted to experience changes in their hearing sensitivity (either temporary or permanent) for all underwater anthropogenic sound sources.
The Technical Guidance is available in electronic form via the Internet at
Amy R. Scholik-Schlomer, Office of Protected Resources, 301-427-8449,
The National Marine Fisheries Service in consultation with the National Ocean Service has developed Technical Guidance to help assess the effects of underwater anthropogenic sound on marine mammal species under NMFS' jurisdiction. Specifically, the Guidance identifies the received levels, or acoustic thresholds, above which individual marine mammals are predicted to experience changes in their hearing sensitivity (either temporary or permanent) for all underwater anthropogenic sound sources. NMFS compiled, interpreted, and synthesized scientific literature to produce updated acoustic thresholds for the onset of both temporary (TTS) and permanent threshold shifts (PTS). This is the first time NMFS has presented this information in a single, comprehensive document. This Technical Guidance is intended for use by NMFS analysts and managers and other relevant user groups and stakeholders, including other federal agencies, when seeking to determine whether and how their activities are expected to result in hearing impacts to marine mammals via acoustic exposure.
The main body of the document contains NMFS' updated acoustic thresholds for onset of PTS for marine mammals exposed to underwater sound and NMFS' plan for periodically updating acoustic thresholds. Other information such as details on the development marine mammal auditory weighting functions and acoustic thresholds, research recommendations, alternative methodology (formerly referred to as a User Guide), the peer review and public comment process, and a glossary of acoustic terms can be found in the Technical Guidance appendices.
These thresholds update those currently in use by NMFS. Updates include a protocol for deriving PTS and TTS onset levels for impulsive (
Although NMFS has updated the acoustic thresholds, and these changes may necessitate new methodologies for calculating impacts, the application of the thresholds in the regulatory context of applicable statutes (Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), Endangered Species Act (ESA), and National Marine Sanctuaries Act (NMSA)) remains consistent with current NOAA practice (see Regulatory Context in this
NMFS recognizes that action proponents may have varying abilities to model and estimate exposure and that the Technical Guidance may be more complex than some action proponents are able to incorporate. Thus, NMFS has provided alternative methodology and an associated User Spreadsheet to aid action proponents with SEL
The Technical Guidance is classified as a Highly Influential Scientific Assessment (HISA) by the Office of Management and Budget. As such, three independent peer reviews were undertaken, at three different stages of the development of the Technical Guidance, including a follow-up to one of the peer reviews, prior to broad public dissemination by the Federal Government. Details of each peer review can be found within the Technical Guidance (Appendix C) and at the following Web site:
In additional to three independent peer reviews, the Technical Guidance was the subject of three public comment periods. NMFS evaluated all substantive comments made during each public comment period to determine their relevance to the Technical Guidance as it was revised. Public comments made on aspects of the Technical Guidance that are no longer relevant have not been included here. Substantive and relevant comments and NMFS' responses are included below (see Comments and Responses).
The Technical Guidance does not create or confer any rights for or on any person, or operate to bind the public. An alternative approach that has undergone independent peer review may be proposed (by federal agencies or prospective action proponents) and used if case-specific information/data indicate that the alternative approach is likely to produce a more accurate
NMFS considers the updated thresholds and associated weighting functions in the Technical Guidance to be the best available information for assessing whether exposure to specific activities is likely to result in changes in marine mammal hearing sensitivity (temporary or permanent). Prospective applicants for incidental take authorizations under the MMPA and federal agencies seeking ESA section 7 consultations that have not yet started their acoustic analyses should begin using the new Technical Guidance immediately. At the same time, we recognize that for some proposed actions, analyses may have already substantially progressed using the existing thresholds or other methods for assessing hearing effects, and it may be impractical to begin those analyses anew, taking into account timing constraints, expense, and other considerations. In such “pipeline” cases, the applicant or action agency should contact NMFS as soon as possible to discuss how to best include consideration of the Technical Guidance to satisfy the applicable requirements. A non-exhaustive list of factors that could affect the extent to which the Technical Guidance will be considered for an action include: The relative degree to which the Technical Guidance is expected to affect the results of the acoustic impact analyses; how far in the process the application or prospective application has progressed; when the activity is scheduled to begin or other timing constraints; the complexity of the analyses and the cost and practicality of redoing them; and the temporal and spatial scope of anticipated effects. We anticipate that after the initial transition period, all applications for MMPA incidental take authorization (ITA) and all requests for ESA section 7 consultations involving noise that may affect marine mammals will include full consideration of the Technical Guidance.
In 2005, NMFS published a
NAO 216-6, sec. 6.03c.3(i), provides that a categorical exclusion is appropriate for “policy directives, regulations, and guidelines of an administrative, technical, or procedural nature, or the environmental effects of which are too broad, speculative or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis and will be subject later to the NEPA process, either collectively or case by case.”
Although changes to the PTS and TTS thresholds will likely change the take estimates for at least some portion of activities, any environmental effects of the draft guidance alone, without reference to a specific activity, are too speculative or conjectural to lend themselves to meaningful analysis at this stage. Effects analyses under the MMPA, ESA, and NMSA (and appropriate mitigation and monitoring) are activity-specific exercises that cannot be conducted absent some level of specificity regarding the nature of the proposed activity, the general location, and the time and duration. Moreover, direct comparisons cannot be made between the thresholds currently used and the updated thresholds, due to the different metrics and taxa-specific frequency weighting used in the new thresholds.
Any environmental effects from application of the updated PTS and TTS thresholds will flow from future actions that are the subject of ITAs under the MMPA and related consultations under the ESA or NMSA. The nature and magnitude of such effects will depend on the specific actions themselves, each of which would be subject to the NEPA process.
Because any effects from the Technical Guidance are speculative and conjectural, NOAA has determined it cannot meaningfully analyze potential effects in the manner contemplated by NEPA, which is to inform agency decisions about the effects of an action (and reasonable alternatives) on the environment. Any changes in future effects analyses resulting from the Guidance will be part of the NEPA and other statutorily-required analyses conducted for specific actions in the future.
Finally, the proposed action does not trigger any of the exceptions for categorical exclusions described in section 5.05c of NAO 216-6. It does not involve a geographic area with unique characteristics, is not a subject of public controversy due to potential environmental consequences, have uncertain environmental impacts or unique or unknown risks, establish a precedent or decision in principle about future proposals, result in cumulatively significant impacts, or have any adverse effects upon endangered or threatened species or their habitats.
NMFS uses acoustic thresholds to help quantify “take” and as part of more comprehensive effects analyses under several statutes. The Technical Guidance's updated acoustic thresholds do not represent the entirety of the comprehensive effects analysis, but rather serve as one tool among others (
Under current agency practice, NMFS considers the onset of PTS, which is an auditory injury, as an example of “Level A Harassment” as defined in the MMPA and as “harm” as defined in ESA regulations, such that exposing an animal to weighted received sound levels at or above the indicated PTS threshold is predicted to result in these two types of “take” (
As explained below, NMFS does not consider a TTS to be an auditory injury under the MMPA or ESA, and thus it does not qualify as Level A harassment or harm. Nevertheless, TTS is an adverse effect that historically has been treated as “take” by “Level B Harassment” under the MMPA and “harassment” under the ESA. The broad definition of “injury” under the NMSA regulations includes both PTS and TTS (as well as other adverse changes in physical or behavioral characteristics that are not addressed in the Technical Guidance).
The MMPA prohibits the take of marine mammals, with certain exceptions, one of which is the issuance of ITAs. Sections 101(a)(5)(A) & (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
The term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, or kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture or kill any marine mammal. 16 U.S.C. 1362(13).
Except with respect to certain activities described below, “harassment” means any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which:
• Has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild
• Has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding or sheltering
Congress amended the definition of “harassment” as it applies to a “military readiness activity” or research conducted by or on behalf of the federal government consistent with MMPA section 104(c)(3) as follows (section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA):
• Any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild
• Any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered
The term “negligible impact” is defined as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival. 50 CFR 216.103.
In support of the analysis that is necessary to make the required statutory determinations, MMPA implementing regulations require ITA action proponents to provide NMFS with specific information. Although they may also be used to inform the development of mitigation measures, the updated acoustic thresholds are particularly relevant to the following two of the fourteen required pieces of information:
• The
• By age, sex, and reproductive condition (if possible), the
Section 9 of the ESA prohibits the take of ESA-listed species, with limited exceptions. Section 7 of the ESA requires that each federal agency, in consultation with NMFS and/or the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out by the agency is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat.
Under ESA, “take” means to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct.
Under NMFS and the USFWS implementing regulations for section 7 of the ESA, “jeopardize the continued existence of” means to engage in an action that reasonably would be expected, directly or indirectly, to reduce appreciably the likelihood of both the survival and recovery of a listed species in the wild by reducing the reproduction, numbers, or distribution of that species.
In support of the analysis necessary to conduct the consultation, the ESA implementing regulations state that in order to initiate formal consultation, the federal action agency must submit a written request for formal consultation to the Director (of NMFS or the USFWS) that includes, among other things, a description of the manner in which the action may affect any listed species.
Section 304(d) of the NMSA requires federal agencies whose actions are likely to destroy, cause the loss of, or injure a sanctuary resource to consult with the Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS) before taking the action.
The term “injure” is defined in the ONMS implementing regulations as to “change adversely, either in the short or long term, a chemical, biological or physical attribute of, or the viability of.” 15 CFR 922.3.
In support of the analysis necessary to conduct the consultation, the NMSA requires that any federal agency proposing an action that may injure a sanctuary resource provide ONMS with a written statement (“sanctuary resource statement”) describing the action and its potential effects on sanctuary resources.
The acoustic thresholds for PTS will be used in conjunction with sound source characteristics, environmental factors that influence sound propagation, anticipated marine mammal occurrence and behavior in the vicinity of the activity, as well as other available activity-specific factors, to quantitatively estimate (acknowledging the gaps in scientific knowledge and the
NMFS will use the same PTS acoustic thresholds in the identification and quantification of MMPA Level A harassment for both military readiness and non-military readiness activities. Because the acoustic thresholds for PTS predict the onset of PTS, they are inclusive of the “potential” and “significant potential” language in the two definitions of Level A harassment. The limited data now available do not support the parsing out of a meaningful quantitative difference between the “potential” and “significant potential” for injury and, therefore, the designated PTS acoustic thresholds will be treated as Level A harassment for both types of activities.
Estimating the numbers of take by Level A harassment and harm is one component of the fuller analyses that inform NMFS' “negligible impact” and “jeopardy” determinations under the MMPA and ESA, respectively, as well as “likely to injure” or “may affect” determinations under the NMSA. Last, the PTS acoustic thresholds may be used to inform the development of mitigation and monitoring measures (such as shut-down zones) pursuant to the MMPA, ESA, or NMSA.
When initiating any of the MMPA, ESA, or NMSA processes described above, agencies and other action proponents should utilize the PTS acoustic thresholds, in combination with activity-specific information, to predict whether, and if so how many, instances of PTS are expected to occur.
As previously stated, NMFS has not considered TTS an auditory injury for purposes of the MMPA and ESA, based on the work of a number of investigators that have measured TTS before and after exposure to intense sound. For example, Ward (1997) suggested that a TTS is within the normal bounds of physiological variability and tolerance and does not represent physical injury. In addition, Southall
MMPA Level B harassment and ESA harassment are broad categories that encompass not only TTS but also other behaviorally related impacts that almost always involve a lower onset threshold than that for onset of TTS. In quantifying take by Level B harassment or harassment, NMFS considers
With respect to instantaneous explosives (as distinguished from repeated explosives such as gunnery exercises), NMFS already requires quantification of TTS estimates because an instantaneous explosive will not have a separate behavioral component from a lower exposure threshold and there is no time accumulation involved. The rationale for calculating TTS for instantaneous explosives continues to apply with the updated TTS thresholds for explosives.
NMFS is aware of studies by Kujawa and Liberman (2009) and Lin
The occurrence of, and estimated number of, TTS takes is one component of the larger analysis that informs NMFS's “negligible impact” and “jeopardy” determinations under the MMPA and ESA, respectively, as well as “likely to injure” or “may affect” determinations under the NMSA. As with PTS, TTS acoustic thresholds also may be used to inform the development of mitigation and monitoring measures pursuant to the MMPA, ESA, or NMSA.
On December 27, 2013, NMFS published the initial Draft Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammals: Acoustic Thresholds for Onset of Permanent and Temporary Threshold Shifts for a 30-day public comment period (78 FR 78822), which was extended an additional 45-days (79 FR 4672; January 29, 2014) based on public request. During the public comment period, NMFS received comments from U.S. Representatives from Congress, Federal agencies, an international government agency, state governments, Alaskan native groups, industry groups, and non-governmental organizations, individual subject matter experts, a professional society, a regulatory watchdog group, and 89 private citizens.
After the close of the initial public comment period, as NMFS was addressing public comments and working towards finalizing the Guidance, a new methodology for identifying marine mammal auditory weighting functions and acoustic thresholds was developed by the U.S. Navy (Dr. James Finneran, SPAWAR Systems Center Pacific) based on new science. Additionally, NMFS re-evaluated its methods for defining threshold usage for sources characterized as impulsive or non-impulsive based on comments received during the initial public comment period. Incorporating these updated methodologies resulted in substantial changes to the Guidance, necessitating additional peer review, as well as another public comment period. As a result, NMFS solicited public comment on a revised Draft Guidance (July 2015) via a second 45-day public comment period (80 FR 45642, July 31, 2015). During the second public comment period, NMFS received 20 comments from Federal agencies, industry groups, environmental consultants, Alaskan native groups, non-governmental
While NMFS was working to address public comments from the second public comment period and finalize the Guidance, NMFS and the Navy (Dr. James Finneran, SPAWAR Systems Center Pacific) further evaluated certain aspects of the U.S. Navy's methodology. As a result of the Navy's and NMFS' review, several focused recommendations/modifications were suggested, which did not change the overall methodology provided in the July 2015 Draft Guidance (the primary changes were related to deriving a composite audiogram for LF cetaceans). After consideration of these recommendations, NMFS updated sections of the July 2015 Draft Guidance to reflect the suggested changes and solicited public comment on those focused revisions via a focused 14-day public comment period (81 FR 14095, March 16, 2016). During this third public comment period, NMFS received 20 comments from Federal agencies, industry groups, non-governmental organizations, individual subject matter experts, a professional society, and a private citizen. Please refer to these
During these three public comment periods several commenters' remarks pertained to topics beyond the scope of the final Technical Guidance (
NMFS disagrees that the March 2016 public comment period was rushed or resulted in arbitrary decisions. The March 2016 public comment period was the third opportunity given to the public to review our Draft Guidance (following the 75-day first public comment period and 45-day second public comment period). Previous versions of the Draft Guidance had already been revised based upon peer review and public input. Due to the focused nature of the proposed changes since the prior draft (which were described in a 24-page standalone document) and balanced against the lengthy process to date and need for updated thresholds, NMFS determined a 14-day public comment period was appropriate.
NMFS disagrees that the User Spreadsheet associated with the Technical Guidance's alternative methodology requires public comment. This spreadsheet precisely follows the alternative methodology provided in the Technical Guidance (Appendix D), which was available for public comment. There is nothing additional or new provided by this spreadsheet.
As for the sirenian data used in the March 2016 Proposed Changes document, in response to this comment, these references (Gerstein
NMFS acknowledges that future Technical Guidance is needed for non-auditory impacts, but is planning on addressing this in a separate guidance document and recommends current non-auditory thresholds for explosives remain in use until updates can be completed via the appropriate processes.
NMFS disagrees with the Commission's recommendation to incorporate by reference other reports or peer-reviewed literature and believes the process of developing Technical Guidance requires a more thorough evaluation of the science in the context of NOAA statutory requirements. Public comment would also be needed.
For the 2015 Draft Guidance, the Finneran Technical Report, used to derive updated marine mammal auditory weighting functions and thresholds for the Navy's Phase 3 analyses, was directly incorporated into the Guidance via Appendix A. This was the first time the Finneran Technical Report was made public, and thus, was subject to HISA requirements for inclusion in the Technical Guidance, including peer review. We also note that after the July 2015 public comment period, part of the Finneran Technical Report, specifically a summary of available data on noise-induced hearing loss in marine mammals, was published in a peer reviewed journal (Finneran
NMFS acknowledges that sound propagation is complex and the physical property of sounds change as they travel through the environment. The July 2015 Draft Guidance proposed a methodology for examining when impulsive sounds are less likely to possess the physical characteristics that make them more injurious (
For example, NMFS notes that data from Castellote
NMFS also finds an adjustment to bottlenose dolphin data is unnecessary. The Technical Guidance methodology for deriving marine mammal auditory weighting functions incorporates data from a multitude of species (~20 species), beyond just bottlenose dolphins, and is considered representative based on the best available science.
Further, Houser and Finneran 2006 attribute the lower thresholds recorded by the individual from Johnson (1968) to differences in methodology (
NMFS is aware of the Au
It also should be noted that marine mammal AEP audiograms have been based almost exclusively on measurements of the auditory brainstem response, and thus do not take into account contributions to hearing from higher centers of the brain and auditory nervous system, and no means have been established for “correcting” AEP data so that they may be more comparable to those obtained via behavioral methods. AEP thresholds are typically elevated compared to behavioral thresholds in a frequency-dependent manner, especially at lower frequencies (
Despite not directly including AEP audiograms in the development of a hearing groups' composite audiogram, these data were evaluated to ensure species were placed within the appropriate hearing group and to ensure that a species for which only AEP data were available were within the bounds of the composite audiogram for that hearing group. Further, AEP TTS data are presented within the Guidance for comparative purposes alongside TTS data collected by behavioral methods illustrating that the AEP TTS data are within the bounds (the majority of the time above) of those collected by behavioral methods (
Further, updated methodology in the July 2015 revised Draft Guidance used composite audiograms based on multiple species to derive marine mammal auditory weighting functions. Thus, data from more than just bottlenose dolphins were used to derive these functions (
As for how animal age could impact hearing susceptibility, please see Response to Comment 37.
Further, Wright (2015) claimed that inconsistencies within the methodology used to establish the auditory weighting functions and acoustic thresholds contributed to uncertainty; namely, that: (a) The hearing threshold (audiogram)-to-TTS onset component, on a per individual basis, is neglected (recommends calculating audiogram-to-TTS onset for each individual); (b) it is inappropriate for non-adjusted (non-normalized) TTS onset data points for individuals to be fit to composite audiograms; and (c) there is a discrepancy between the frequency of best sensitivity for the composite audiogram and exposure function, which results in the weighting/exposure function gain parameters (
Finally, it was requested that NMFS (1) provide the underlying data used to derive the weighting functions so that uncertainty and statistical analyses can be evaluated by those outside NMFS and (2) delay the Guidance's finalization until this outside process can be completed.
Human noise risk assessments (NIOSH 1998) are not equivalent (or applicable) to thresholds provided in the Technical Guidance, since they are used to predict hearing loss based on a daily 8-h exposure over 40 years (
With respect to specific comments made in Wright (2015), NMFS disagrees there are inconsistencies in the methodology in the Technical Guidance. Specifically related to the assertion in part (a) of the comment that NMFS neglected the hearing threshold (audiogram)-to-TTS onset component: In re-examining available data sets, in terms of offset between hearing threshold and TTS onset, only six individuals (three MF cetacean, one OW pinniped, and two PW pinnipeds) have measurements available for both hearing threshold and TTS onset. Differences in TTS onset at frequency of best hearing (from the exposure function) and threshold at frequency of best hearing (from the composite audiogram) are reflected by hearing group in the Technical Guidance in Table A7 (Appendix A, “Difference” column).
As for non-adjusted TTS data points being fit to normalized composite audiograms (point b), the Guidance's methodology examines the best fit of TTS data points to
As to point (c), NMFS acknowledges that there is a shift (discrepancy) in frequency between the best sensitivity in terms of the composite audiogram and resulting exposure function for a hearing group, but disagrees that this leads to an underestimation of TTS onset. Any difference in minimum value between the exposure function and audiogram is an outcome of the fitting process used to fit the exposure function to the available TTS data, and thus, reflects the underlying TTS data. This shift in minimal value results in an identical (PW and OW pinnipeds) or lower TTS onset threshold (MF and HF cetaceans) than predicted by considering the composite audiogram alone (See Table A7 vs. A8 in Technical Guidance). Further, the “
Finally, NMFS believes it is unnecessary to provide underlying datasets associated with the Technical Guidance and delay publication, since the majority of the underlying data (with a few exceptions) are published and freely available.
That said, based on this comment, NMFS re-evaluated AEP data available for consideration in the development of composite audiograms. The inclusion of AEP resulted in only minimal changes to the composite audiogram (
Counter to those recommendations, other commenters expressed concern that the low-frequency slope parameter (“
Finally, NMFS received a comment from a group of subject matter experts offering information on ambient noise levels below 2 kHz from Clark and Ellison (2004) as additional scientific justification for the LF cetacean weighting function contained in the March 2016 Proposed Changes.
Regarding the appropriateness of using vocal range to establish weighting functions, see Response to Comment 45. As for the frequencies used by fin and blue whales, NMFS acknowledges that the weighting function amplitude is >−16 dB at frequencies below 30 Hz. However, predicted hearing sensitivity for LF cetaceans based on ambient noise levels from Clark and Ellison (2004) offer additional scientific support to NMFS' weighting function below 2 kHz (for direct comparison to the 2016 LF cetacean weighting function see:
As for the low-frequency slope associated with the LF cetacean weighting function, NMFS believes it is reflective of currently available predictive data for this hearing group. For example, predictive audiograms based on anatomical modeling for minke whale (Tubelli
For HF cetaceans, composite audiograms are derived from more limited data (
However, numerous other commenters indicated that moving this species to a new hearing group was not scientifically supported. The Navy specifically recommended that this species remain in the MF cetacean hearing group based upon the following scientific support: (1) A hearing threshold comparison between white-beaked dolphin (Nachtigall
Upon re-evaluation, NMFS agrees that there was a slight discrepancy with the “
Finally, the March 2016 Proposed Changes document (Figure PC5) illustrates available TTS data for all hearing groups. NMFS agrees that data are limited particularly for PW pinnipeds (
As for the 3-dB adjustment JASCO Applied Sciences makes to the results of their propagation models, this adjustment is based on their best fit analysis, where 90 percent of all their measured values fall within 3 dB of the mean level (
Another commenter requested the Guidance make clear that a threshold shift is a symptom of noise exposure rather than an impact (
NMFS agrees that a threshold shift is a “symptom” rather than an “impact.” However, in the context of the Technical Guidance and in terms of how the acoustic thresholds will be used, the term/concept of “impact” is one that readers of the document will be more familiar with. NMFS also agrees that features of the signal at the receiver are most important, but are often most difficult to determine. The Technical Guidance includes more information explaining when choices are based on considerations of practicality because of complexity and makes various research recommendations to address these issues (Appendix B).
Regarding TTS, with the exception of underwater explosives (see Regulatory Context), NMFS does not currently recommend calculations of TTS exposures separate from assessments of Level B harassment or ESA harassment using the prior existing thresholds for enumerating behavioral takes. NMFS is in the process of evaluating behavioral effects thresholds and intends to develop related guidance for use in its regulatory processes. Because the effects in consideration when TTS is incurred are behavioral and temporary in nature, much like behavioral responses, we intend to address those effects in the context of regulatory compliance at that time.
The Technical Guidance includes information from Kujawa and Liberman (2009) and Lin
NMFS has added cumulative exposures to its recommended qualitative factors to consider within a comprehensive effects analysis. The discussion of qualitative factors has been moved from the main Guidance document to Appendix B (See Response to Comment 130).
As previously indicated, the acoustic thresholds do not represent the entirety of an effects analysis, but rather serve as one tool to help evaluate the effects of a proposed action and make findings required by NOAA's various statutes. Further, other measures can be employed to account for uncertainty beyond considerations within the Technical Guidance (
Contrary to the comments above, another commenter cautioned against relying on the lowest onset with limited data because these data could be outliers and result in overly conservative acoustic thresholds. The commenter further indicated that overly conservative thresholds could result in unrealistic exposure estimates and suggested NMFS' protocol be modified to examine the distribution of the data and make a reasoned decision about whether the lowest threshold might be an outlier and whether (and how) it should be included in the determination of a threshold.
NMFS used the best available science to develop the Technical Guidance. As more data are collected, NMFS will be better able to identify outliers (
In addition, new data have become available since the NMFS received this comment during the first public comment period. As indicated in the Technical Guidance, the acoustic threshold (SEL
NMFS recognizes that acoustic thresholds for HF cetaceans, which are based exclusively from harbor porpoise
Further, audiogram data from belugas (n=9; more individuals of this species than any other) were specifically used to derive composite audiograms for MF cetaceans. In addition, recent data from Castellote
Thus, data from Arctic species are directly incorporated into numerous aspects of the Technical Guidance's methodology. These data indicate additional conservative adjustments in determining thresholds unnecessary. Precautionary adjustments may be made elsewhere (
There have been limited comparisons of TTS data collected via behavioral versus AEP methods for any marine mammals, especially marine mammals. There is only one available marine mammal study (Finneran
Contrary to the Commission's recommendation, several commenters criticized NMFS' use of dynamic range to predict PK thresholds. Specifically, commenters questioned NMFS use of onset TTS to define dynamic range, since the onset of TTS is not equivalent to the threshold of pain and therefore overly conservative (
Additionally, one group of commenters requested NMFS provide more information on why the median dynamic range for MF and HF cetaceans was used as a surrogate for LF cetaceans.
As for comments criticizing the Technical Guidance's methodology for establishing PK thresholds based on dynamic range, NMFS notes that
As for the request for more information on why a surrogate dynamic range from MF and HF cetacean data was used for LF cetaceans, NMFS relied on the methodology used in other situations to derive surrogate values for species groups where data do not exist (
NMFS has included additional explanation in the final Technical Guidance's Appendix D. For situations where the full auditory weighting functions cannot be incorporated, updated weighting factor adjustments are provided, which are based on broader, simpler consideration of weighting functions (
Along these same lines, the Commission noted that the accumulation period should account for the biology, ecology, and ecological setting (
Further, NMFS acknowledges for exposure scenarios that occur in confined geographic areas with resident populations, case-specific modifications can be made, if appropriate, to the accumulation period to capture the
As previously addressed in a prior comment, because a sound operates 24-h a day does not necessarily mean a receiver is exposed to that source for that entire period (
Contrary to this comment, another commenter cautioned that recovery times have generally been measured only during quiet periods within laboratory settings and that in the open ocean, it is likely that free-ranging animals will be exposed to sound during the recovery period.
NMFS acknowledges that less sophisticated exposure models may result in higher exposure estimates because these models do not incorporate as many factors as more sophisticated models. Action proponents are encouraged to incorporate as many appropriate factors into their modeling as possible. An action proponent is not obligated to use the simpler tools provided by NMFS, if they can provide equally or more realistic exposure modeling on their own.
BOEM expressed concern that the methodology of Sivle
Addressing concerns raised by BOEM, it is correct that the methods of Sivle
Finally, the reason this optional methodology is independent of exposure duration is because it only considers one pass of the source relative to receiver, with the closest points of approach incurring the greatest accumulation (
Additionally, these commenters provided an example to assess the appropriateness of the “safe distance” methodology by examining the modeled radii from four parallel passes, within a 24-h period, from a 3300 cubic inch airgun. Based on their modeling, it was suggested that NMFS lower thresholds for LF cetacean and PW pinnipeds, raise thresholds for HF cetaceans, and adjust the same distance methodology to
As for BOEM's comments regarding MSP vs. EPWI terms, by following ANSI definitions within the Guidance, NMFS is implicitly using MSP terms. The term “source factor” within the Guidance is based on a source level being defined as pressure squared, which why it may appear to resemble cylindrical spreading, rather than spherical spreading. This additional information was added to provide clarity. BOEM is correct that the terms “
In response to the commenter's modeled example, NMFS disagrees with the appropriateness of this comparison. One of the assumptions associated with the optional “safe distance” methodology is that the source moves at a constant speed and in a constant direction. Thus, this model is not sophisticated enough to account for situations for multiple passes and should not be used for these situations (
NMFS incorporated several conservative assumptions in the development of the PTS onset thresholds to account for the potential for PTS onset (see Response to Comment 77). Further, there are several examples of marine mammal exposure exceeding the Guidance's PTS thresholds, where recovery has occurred (see recent review in Finneran 2015).
In addition, NMFS is aware that the Southall
The acoustic thresholds presented in the Technical Guidance use different metrics compared to the current thresholds. In some situations, depending on the sound source, species of interest, and duration of exposure, application of the updated acoustic thresholds may result in greater estimates of PTS (and therefore more “takes”) than under the existing thresholds, while in other situations the opposite result may occur. Examining all possible scenarios associated with the wide range of potential activities is not feasible.
In terms of effects on activities themselves, the Guidance does not address consequences for mitigation requirements in a regulatory context. This will depend on the particular aspects of an action, taking into account the comprehensive effects analysis and regulatory considerations. NMFS notes that there are no requirements that mitigation measures directly correspond to acoustic thresholds (See Response to Comment 11).
Further, one commenter remarked that NMFS' intention to update the acoustic thresholds based on newly available information is valid from a scientific point of view, but from a practical aspect could be confusing, could promote regulatory uncertainty, and has the potential to affect permitting timelines. The commenter indicated that planning for certain activities can take multiple years to complete, with the introduction of additional uncertainty potentially adversely affecting the ability of action proponents to plan for and comply with the Guidance.
Similarly, several commenters requested clarification as to how the Guidance would be implemented in (a) the context of a five-year incidental take regulation (ITR) (with specific take authorizations by letters of authorization (LOA)) and (b) when numerous IHAs are issued for a given area in the absence of an ITR. Specifically, a commenter asked if different methods will be used to estimate the amount of authorized incidental “take” in each of these contexts and how, if at all, will authorized “take” be allocated over certain periods of time in one or both of these contexts?
Similar to the Commission's concerns, another commenter indicated any alternative approach must be at least as protective as methods prescribed in the Guidance, which have at least undergone peer review and public notice and comment. Alternatively, the commenter suggested that more conservative approaches should be used if a project's circumstances require a lower threshold for “take” based on specific factors, such as geographic region, oceanographic conditions, low abundance, species site fidelity, prey impacts or cumulative impacts.
Contrary to the comments above, a few commenters indicated that they welcome the opportunity for action proponents to propose alternative approaches to those presented in the Guidance. The commenters noted that this flexibility will enable innovation within the bounds of regulatory compliance and that are appropriate and justified (
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) proposes to revise its regulations to collect certain data for analytics and surveillance purposes from market-based rate (MBR) sellers and entities trading virtual products or holding financial transmission rights and to change certain aspects of the substance and format of information submitted for MBR purposes. The revisions proposed herein include new requirements for those entities to report certain information about their legal and financial connections to other entities to assist the Commission in its analytics and surveillance efforts. The Commission previously proposed to require certain market participants in the Commission-jurisdictional organized wholesale electric markets to file similar information about their financial and legal connections in the Collection of Connected Entity Data from Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators Notice of Proposed Rulemaking issued in Docket No. RM15-23-000 (Connected Entity NOPR). However, as described herein, this proposal presents substantial revisions from what the Commission proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR, including, among other things: A different set of filers; a reworked and substantially narrowed definition of Connected Entity; and a different submission process. With respect to the MBR program, the proposals include: Adopting certain changes to reduce and clarify the scope of ownership information that MBR sellers must provide, similar to the notice of proposed rulemaking issued in Docket No. RM16-3-000 (Ownership NOPR); reducing the information required in asset appendices; and collecting currently-required MBR information and certain new information in a consolidated and streamlined manner. The Commission proposes all of these changes in order to eliminate duplication, ease compliance burdens, modernize its data collections, and render information collected through its programs usable and accessible for the Commission and its staff. In furtherance of this effort, in orders being issued concurrently with the instant NOPR, the Commission withdraws the Connected Entity NOPR issued in Docket No. RM15-23-000 and the Ownership NOPR issued in Docket No. RM16-3-000.
Comments are due September 19, 2016.
Comments, identified by docket number, may be filed in the following ways:
• Electronic Filing through
•
1. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) proposes in this Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR) to amend its regulations to add Subpart K to Title 18 of the Code of Federal Regulation (CFR), which would include data collection requirements for market-based rate (MBR) sellers
2. The purpose of this new data collection is to assist the Commission in understanding the financial and legal connections among market participants and other entities and their activities in Commission-jurisdictional electric markets. In this NOPR, the Commission also proposes to modify its regulations to change certain aspects of the substance and format of information submitted for MBR purposes. Specifically, we propose to collect currently-filed MBR information and the new information proposed to be collected in this NOPR in a consolidated and streamlined manner through a relational database,
3. As reflected in this NOPR, the Commission has reworked and substantially narrowed the definitions proposed in the Collection of Connected Entity Data from Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators NOPR in Docket No. RM15-23-000 (Connected Entity NOPR),
4. Recently, the Commission sought to improve its analytics and surveillance of the electric markets by issuing the Connected Entity NOPR, which proposed collecting information from participants in Commission-jurisdictional organized wholesale electric markets concerning their ownership, employee, debt, and contractual connections. This information was to be submitted to the RTOs and ISOs, which in turn would provide the necessary information to the Commission. In some cases, the information sought under the Connected Entity NOPR was similar to, but somewhat different from, the information to be provided by MBR sellers.
5. The desirability of consolidating MBR and Connected Entity data under one reporting regime was advocated to the Commission by members of the industry in comments responding to the Connected Entity NOPR. In the Connected Entity NOPR, the Commission proposed that each RTO and ISO be required to electronically deliver to the Commission, on an ongoing basis, data from its market participants
6. Many commenters objected to the proposed data submissions on the grounds that the information would be largely duplicative of other Commission reporting requirements, especially that of its MBR program. Several commenters objected to the Connected Entity NOPR on the grounds that the information to be submitted was based on a Connected Entity definition that was similar to, yet different from, the affiliate definition currently used in the MBR program. A common theme in the comments was the desirability of
7. In the Connected Entity NOPR, the Commission also proposed that the Connected Entity information be submitted to the RTOs and ISOs, who would then pass it on to the Commission. A number of commenters objected to this mechanism as unwieldy and unnecessarily burdensome.
8. Over the last two years, the Commission has also sought to modify, clarify, and streamline the Commission's MBR requirements to, among other things, ease burdens on industry and the Commission. This initiative involved eliminating or refining some existing MBR requirements. The resulting reforms were set forth in Order Nos. 816 and 816-A,
9. The information proposed to be collected under the two separate NOPRs was different in scope. Commenters to the Connected Entity NOPR suggested that this incongruity be removed and that the information proposed in the Ownership NOPR and Connected Entity NOPR be collected contemporaneously to eliminate the burden of submitting duplicative information to the Commission.
10. The Commission appreciates these comments and agrees that compliance burdens should be minimized where possible. In response, the Commission considered whether the various reporting requirements needed for MBR and analytics and surveillance purposes could be combined in such a way as to eliminate duplication and unnecessary differences, with the aim of providing the Commission with the information it needs in the least burdensome manner possible.
11. The result of these efforts is embodied in the instant NOPR. In this NOPR, we propose to collect certain data for analytics and surveillance purposes and to change certain aspects of the substance and format of information submitted for MBR purposes. Specifically, this NOPR sets out two categories of information submission requirements: requirements applicable only to MBR sellers (MBR Information); and requirements applicable to MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants (Connected Entity Information). Connected Entity Information would be submitted both by MBR sellers (although not pursuant to the MBR program), and Virtual/FTR Participants. MBR Information would be submitted only by MBR sellers. As discussed below, we propose certain changes to the types of information currently required for MBR purposes and to the electronic format in which certain data will be submitted.
12. In this NOPR, we first describe the revised proposals regarding Connected Entity Information and proposals regarding MBR Information. Next, we discuss the need and authority for the collection of the Connected Entity Information as well as the nature of that information. We then discuss the proposed use of LEIs and discuss confidentiality and due diligence relating to the submission of Connected Entity Information. We next propose certain submission requirements for existing and new Virtual/FTR Participants and a baseline submission required of existing MBR sellers. Lastly, we propose ongoing Connected Entity Information submission requirements and ongoing MBR seller filing requirements.
13. Like the Connected Entity NOPR, this NOPR does not impose any filing requirements on entities that only sell natural gas.
14. Specifically, we propose to consolidate the Commission's collection of certain information for MBR and analytics and surveillance purposes in a relational database. We propose that the relational database information be submitted using an extensible markup language (XML) schema,
15. A data dictionary posted on the Commission's Web site would define the framework,
16. We anticipate that the data dictionary, the XML schema definition with appropriate validations, and a temporary test environment will be posted on the Commission Web site upon issuance of a final rule in this proceeding. In addition, we would also provide an email portal and other points of contact on the Commission Web site for filers to seek guidance from Commission staff on the final rule and technical aspects of making the required submissions.
17. The Commission received many comments objecting to the scope of the Connected Entity NOPR. The Commission carefully considered those comments and substantially clarified and narrowed the definitions proposed in this NOPR from those proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR. In addition, the definitions proposed in this NOPR reflect, where possible, the affiliate definitions found in the MBR regulations. To better align the Connected Entity Information requirements with the MBR Information requirements, we propose that the definition of Connected Entity ownership information be limited to “affiliates,” as defined for purposes of MBR requirements in section 35.36(a)(9) of the Commission's regulations, that are either: (i) An “ultimate affiliate owner” of the entity, as defined for purposes of MBR requirements in section 35.37(a)(2); (ii) an entity that participates in Commission-jurisdictional organized wholesale electric markets; or (iii) an entity that purchases or sells financial natural gas or electric energy derivative products that settle off of the price of physical electric or natural gas energy products. We also propose to replace the category of “employees” proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR with a much narrower category of “Trader,” which we propose to define as “a person who makes, or participates in, decisions and/or devises strategies for buying and selling physical or financial electric or natural gas energy products.” In addition, we propose to eliminate entirely the reporting of debt instruments. We also propose to narrow and rework the category of contractual Connected Entities reported from that originally proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR. As narrowed, the category will refer only to entities that have entered into an agreement with a submitting entity that “confers control over an electric generation asset that is used in, or offered into, wholesale electric markets.”
18. We also propose a reporting process that would permit, where possible, unified submissions of both MBR and Connected Entity Information. Additionally, we propose that, as discussed below, all the required data be submitted directly to the Commission rather than to the RTOs and ISOs. This will obviate the need for RTOs and ISOs to act as middlemen in the collection process, as proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR, and eliminate the need for multiple RTO/ISO filings for entities that participate in more than one Commission-jurisdictional organized wholesale electric market.
19. Because there are separate legal justifications and regulations for the various data submissions proposed in this NOPR, it is useful to think of the requirements in two parts: those pertaining to the MBR program, and those pertaining to analytics and surveillance. As discussed below, we propose that all MBR sellers largely continue to submit data under the existing MBR regulations, with certain modifications proposed in this NOPR.
20. The Commission believes that entities submitting only Connected Entity data should be subject to the same candor requirements of section
21. The Commission uses a two-part approach when assessing whether a seller should be granted MBR authority: (1) Whether the seller and its affiliates lack, or have adequately mitigated, market power in generation (
22. With respect to the vertical market power analysis, in cases where a public utility or its affiliates owns, operates, or controls transmission facilities, the Commission requires that there be a Commission-approved Open Access Transmission Tariff (OATT) on file or that the seller or its applicable affiliate qualifies for waiver of the OATT requirement.
23. MBR sellers currently are required to submit an asset appendix in an electronic spreadsheet format listing all generation assets owned or controlled by the MBR seller and its affiliates, broken out by balancing authority and geographic region and including, among other things, the in-service date and certain capacity rating information. The asset appendix also must reflect all electric transmission and natural gas intrastate pipelines and/or gas storage facilities owned or controlled by the MBR seller and its affiliates and the location of such facilities and include the size of the facility. Finally, in Order No. 816, the Commission instituted a requirement that the asset appendix include certain information regarding long-term power purchase agreements and, in Order No. 816-A, the Commission modified certain asset appendix reporting requirements.
24. In Order No. 697-A, the Commission set forth a requirement that an MBR seller seeking to obtain or retain MBR authority must identify
A seller seeking market-based rate authority must provide information regarding its affiliates and its corporate structure or upstream ownership. To the extent that a seller's owners are themselves owned by others, the seller seeking to obtain or retain market-based rate authority must identify those upstream owners. Sellers must trace upstream ownership until all upstream owners are identified. Sellers must also identify all affiliates. Finally, an entity seeking market-based rate authority must describe the business activities of its owners, stating whether they are in any way involved in the energy industry.
25. As noted above, a seller seeking MBR authority must show that it and its affiliates do not have, or have adequately mitigated, horizontal and vertical market power. Given that information about owners that do not meet the definition of affiliates under section 35.36(a)(9) is not necessary to evaluate horizontal or vertical market power, continuing to require information on unaffiliated owners may create a burden that is unrelated to the Commission's determination whether a MBR seller qualifies for MBR authority. Thus, the instant NOPR proposes to revise the requirements of Order No. 697-A such that MBR sellers would only be required to provide information on certain “affiliate owners” (
26. In addition, consistent with the Commission's proposal in the Ownership NOPR, we propose that, where an MBR seller is directly or indirectly owned or controlled by a foreign government or any political subdivision of a foreign government or any corporation which is owned in whole or in part by such entity, the MBR seller identify such foreign government, political subdivision, or corporation as part of its ownership narrative.
27. We believe that limiting the category of owners for which MBR sellers have to provide information will be less burdensome for the industry and more useful to the Commission for purposes of determining whether a seller qualifies for MBR authority. We propose changes to the regulatory text in section 35.37(a)(2) to implement the changes to the level of ownership information required and to require that certain ownership information be provided in a format specified on the Commission's Web site, so that it can be included in the relational database.
28. We propose that the first time an entity is identified as an affiliate owner by an MBR seller in an XML submission, the relational database will create a unique identifier for that entity. A list of all of these entities and their associated unique identifiers, along with limited identifying information (
29. Once the MBR seller submits all the required affiliate owner information to the relational database through the XML filing, the database would be able to generate a corporate organizational chart. Thus, we also propose to amend § 35.37(a)(2) to remove the requirement for MBR sellers to submit corporate organizational charts adopted in Order No. 816.
30. While there will be some increased burden in the short-term associated with providing ownership information in the relational database, the reduction of ownership information required to be reported and the elimination of the corporate organizational chart requirement represent a net decrease in burden for MBR sellers. We seek comment on these proposals.
31. Currently, MBR sellers submit in an electronic spreadsheet format an asset appendix that contains information about long-term firm purchases and assets that they and all of their affiliates own or control. We propose to amend this requirement such that, for purposes of the asset appendix requirement: (i) Information be submitted in XML format as specified on the Commission's Web site so that it can be included in the relational database; and (ii) each MBR seller would no longer report assets owned by its affiliates with MBR authority.
32. We believe that this proposed approach would reduce the burden on MBR sellers given that they would no longer have to submit detailed information on all of their affiliates' assets. However, we recognize that an MBR seller's current asset appendix could include assets that are owned or controlled by an entity that does not have MBR authority, such as a generating plant owned by an affiliate that only makes sales under cost-based rates. If that MBR seller does not have a requirement to submit the information related to the affiliated generating plant into the relational database, that information could be “lost.” Accordingly, for purposes of completeness, we propose to require that the MBR seller include in its relational database filing any assets that are owned or controlled by an affiliate that does not have MBR authority. In that way, these assets would be included in the asset appendix that the relational database generates for the MBR seller.
33. A potential issue with this proposed approach is that the filing MBR seller would not be directly responsible for
34. As noted above, we believe that the approach proposed above in which an MBR seller reports only its own assets (and those of any affiliate without MBR authority) would represent an overall decrease in burden on MBR sellers. However, the Commission is also considering an alternative approach whereby MBR sellers continue to provide information on all of their affiliates' assets when submitting asset appendix information for the relational database. An advantage to this approach would be that the filer would be submitting all of the information itself and not having to rely on information submitted by its affiliates. One disadvantage to this approach is that, to the extent more than one MBR seller submits information about an asset, the more recently submitted data would overwrite the earlier-submitted data in the relational database such that the database would reflect only the most recently filed information. Thus, if Company A submits a triennial filing and reports that it sold a 150 MW generating plant (Plant 1), it would delete that plant from its asset appendix. The following day, if Company B, an affiliate of Company A, submits a triennial filing and is unaware of the sale of Plant 1 by Company A, and it includes Plant 1 in the asset appendix, because the more recently added information by Company B would “overwrite” the deletion made by Company A, it would appear in the relational database that Company A still owns Plant 1. While this “overwrite” would not impact the content of MBR sellers' filings, it would be problematic for the accuracy of the database given that more recently added information may not always represent the most current or accurate information. For this reason, we propose the option detailed above whereby each MBR seller does not report to the relational database the assets owned by its affiliates with MBR authority. As noted above, the owner of the facility generally should be the best source for information regarding its own facility. We seek comment on the proposed approach as well as the alternative approach.
35. In addition to these proposed changes in the submission of asset appendix information, we propose four additional discrete changes to the information required to be reported regarding assets. First, MBR sellers currently are free to report their generation in the asset appendix on a facility-wide basis,
36. Second, we propose that MBR sellers be required to report in the relational database the “Telemetered Location: Market/Balancing Authority Area” and “Telemetered Location: Geographic Region” in which the unit should be considered for market power purposes when that location differs from the reported physical location.
37. Third, we propose to require MBR sellers to include information on long-term firm sales (
38. Finally, similar to the requirement for reporting generating units, we propose that, for unit-specific power purchase agreements, MBR sellers provide the associated Plant Code and Generator ID from the Form EIA-860 database, which will provide the unique identifier for that unit.
39. We also propose to eliminate some of the asset information requirements currently reported in the asset appendix. For example, we propose that, for purposes of the relational database, MBR sellers no longer be required to report the size (kV and length) of transmission facilities and no longer be required to identify specific transmission facilities. Instead, we propose that MBR sellers only report in the relational database whether they have transmission facilities covered by an OATT in a particular balancing authority area and region. With respect to the natural gas pipeline information currently required to be reported in the
40. As noted above, current Commission regulations at § 35.37(c)(4) require that MBR sellers submit their indicative screens in an electronic spreadsheet format. We propose to amend that regulation to require that the indicative screen information instead be submitted in XML format as specified on the Commission's Web site, which will enable the information to be included in the relational database. We anticipate that once an MBR seller submits the required screen information to the relational database through the XML filing, the database will format the indicative screens for inclusion in the record in eLibrary. In this way, the generated indicative screens will be available for public comment, as part of the MBR seller's filing, and also be available to the Commission and staff in the relational database for ease of access and analysis. MBR sellers would still be required to submit to the Commission all work papers underlying their indicative screens. Such work papers would be included as an attachment to the relevant filing. We seek comments on these proposals.
41. The proposed information to be collected from MBR sellers via the new XML format is detailed in the attached draft data dictionary. As discussed above, most of this information is already part of a market-based rate filing, but some of it is new information. The types of existing MBR information that we propose to require an MBR seller to submit in XML for inclusion in the relational database include: (i) MBR seller category status for each region in which the MBR seller has MBR authority; (ii) markets in which the MBR seller is authorized to sell ancillary services; (iii) Commission-ordered seller-specific mitigation, if any; and (iv) whether the MBR seller's MBR authority is limited to certain balancing authority areas. In addition, we propose to require MBR sellers to submit two new categories of information in XML for inclusion in the relational database: (i) The effective date of the initial grant of market-based rate authority to the MBR seller and (ii) Connected Entity Information, as explained elsewhere in this NOPR.
42. As discussed above, we propose to amend the Commission's regulations at § 35.37 to include this additional information being reported for MBR purposes and to add a new § 35.51 to include a requirement for MBR sellers to provide Connected Entity Information in the relational database. We seek comment on these proposed changes.
43. In the Connected Entity NOPR, the Commission discussed the importance to its analytics and surveillance of understanding the financial and legal connections among market participants and other entities. The Commission pointed out that screening market activity for anomalies must include understanding the circumstances surrounding a given pattern of trading, including the possible motivations for that behavior, which can sometimes be found in the legal or contractual relationships entities bear to one another. However, as the Commission also found, the few existing sources of such relationship information are inadequate because of scope, format, or timing reasons.
44. In the instant NOPR, we propose to require the direct submission of Connected Entity Information not only from MBR sellers but also from entities that trade solely in virtuals and FTRs. The Commission has the authority under FPA section 205 to regulate the practices in which these entities engage insofar as those practices affect jurisdictional rates. Consequently, as discussed more fully below, we propose to now require that such entities submit Connected Entity Information and their LEIs within 30 days of commencing trading of virtual products or holding FTRs in Commission-jurisdictional organized markets and then provide ongoing updates to their Connected Entity Information to the Commission through the relational database.
45. The authority for obtaining Connected Entity data is found, as described in the Connected Entity NOPR, in the Commission's anti-manipulation authority under section 222 of the FPA, its investigative authority under section 307(a) of the FPA, its administrative powers under section 309 of the FPA, and its inspection and examination authority under section 301(b) of the FPA, as well as in sections 205 and 206 of the FPA.
46. The U.S. Supreme Court recently concluded that sections 205(a) and 206(a) grant the Commission the authority and the duty to ensure that the practices directly affecting the rates charged by public utilities for the sale of electric energy for resale, and the transmission of electric energy in interstate commerce, are just and reasonable.
47. The Commission has confirmed its jurisdiction to regulate FTRs under FPA sections 205 and 206 as charges or contracts “in connection with” jurisdictional transmission service and “affecting” such service,
48. Accordingly, the Commission's authority to require the submission of Connected Entity Information is unrelated to whether a given participant in the energy markets is a public utility or not, or whether it is seeking MBR authority or not. Consequently, the Commission has the authority to impose reasonable requirements on entities that solely trade virtuals and hold FTRs as a condition of participation in those product markets. These requirements include candor and the disclosure of Connected Entity Information.
49. MBR sellers would also be subject to Connected Entity reporting. The Commission proposes that FPA section 201(f) entities, which in the main consist of municipalities and certain cooperatives (as well as their associated joint action agencies), would not be included in the reporting requirements. These entities are not subject to FPA sections 205 and 206; furthermore, due to their financial structures, they have substantially reduced incentives to commit market manipulation.
50. Data proposed for submission by entities for the purpose of analytics and surveillance would be greatly streamlined from that proposed under the Connected Entity NOPR.
51. The Connected Entity Information requirements would be applicable to MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants. We propose to define the term “Virtual/FTR Participants” as entities that buy, sell, or bid for virtual instruments or financial transmission or congestion rights or contracts, or hold such rights or contracts in organized wholesale electric markets, not including entities defined in section 201(f) of the FPA. Organized wholesale electric markets would include ISOs and RTOs as those terms are defined in § 35.46 of the Commission's regulations. In addition, we propose to use the same definition for “Seller” as in the MBR context and defined in § 35.36(a)(1) of the Commission's regulations. We seek comments on these proposed definitions. The Commission is also not proposing to require entities that hold only Auction Revenue Rights to submit Connected Entity Information, but seeks comment on this aspect of the proposal.
52. We still propose to use the term “Connected Entity” under the proposed regulations, but the categories of entities included and their definitions are reduced and narrowed from that proposed in the Connected Entity NOPR, as described below.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
We seek comment on this proposed definition of Connected Entity. In particular, we seek comment on the proposed definition of “trader” as used in the Connected Entity definition.
53. We recognize that the agreements that would fall into the Contracts category of this proposed definition of Connected Entity are already reported to the Commission in EQR. However, for the Commission to be able to efficiently use EQR data in lieu of including the Contracts category of the Connected Entity definition, we would have to implement changes to how EQRs are filed that would allow staff to easily pair EQR data with Connected Entity Information. Therefore, as an alternative to including the Contracts category of the Connected Entity definition, we are also considering the option of requiring MBR sellers to include their LEIs in their EQR submissions, which would facilitate coordination between the two datasets. We request comment on: (1) The feasibility of this alternative approach; (2) whether this alternative approach is preferable to inclusion of the Contracts category of Connected Entity Information; and (3) the burden such a requirement would impose on MBR sellers.
54. We also propose to require MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants to provide their Purchaser Seller Entity (PSE) NAESB/OATI webRegistry Entity Code(s) (PSE ID), if available, as part of their Connected Entity Information submission. The PSE ID is the entity identifier that appears in the contract/market paths field of an e-Tag. The PSE ID would assist the Commission in
55. As mentioned above, certain information specified in this NOPR is sought for the purpose of determining whether MBR authority is to be granted or retained, while other information is sought for the Commission's analytics and surveillance. For that reason, the regulations pertaining to these data submissions are set out in different regulatory text sections, with the MBR-specific requirements set out in subpart H of part 35 and the regulatory text for the Connected Entity Information set out in a new subpart K of part 35. However, this NOPR proposes coordinating the deadlines for reporting the two types of data wherever possible, thereby allowing entities that must submit data under both categories (MBR and Connected Entity) to combine it in a single submission. As noted above, instructions on the specific formatting and other technical requirements for these submissions will be set out on the Commission's Web site. The Commission will hold substantial outreach meetings with members of the industry, to determine the most effective, expeditious, and cost-effective method of structuring these submissions.
56. In the Connected Entity NOPR, the Commission discussed its past dissatisfaction with the available methods for identifying entities that must make filings with the Commission.
57. As was the case with data to be collected under the Connected Entity NOPR, the information received under this proposal for analytics and surveillance would be treated as non-public and confidential. The Commission has long experience with maintaining the non-public status of information used for investigative purposes, and this applies equally to its analytics and surveillance program. Information submitted for MBR purposes will be made public via publication in eLibrary, and potentially through other means, such as the asset appendix interface discussed above unless confidential treatment is requested pursuant to the Commission regulations.
58. The Commission appreciates that when extensive data must be submitted to a regulatory entity, occasionally some data may, despite an entity's best efforts to achieve accuracy, turn out to be incomplete or incorrect. In the case of such inadvertent errors, the Commission's practice is simply to require that a corrected submittal be made without sanctions of any kind. The intentional or reckless submittal of incorrect or misleading information could, however, result in the imposition of sanctions, including civil penalties, as has occurred in other contexts.
59. We propose to require Virtual/FTR Participants to submit an Initial Connected Entity Submission, as defined in section 35.50(b), to engage, or continue to engage, in the virtual and/or FTR markets within the organized wholesale electric markets. The Initial Connected Entity Submission would: (i) Contain the ownership, trader, and contract information set forth in the regulation regarding Connected Entity Information; and (ii) report its LEI. The Commission would not issue an order approving the Initial Connected Entity Submission. We propose that any current Virtual/FTR Participant submit the Initial Connected Entity Submission within 90 days of the publication of a Final Rule in the
60. In the case of existing MBR sellers, we propose to require each MBR seller to make a baseline submission that will include both Connected Entity and MBR Information in order to establish the relational database.
61. The baseline submission would be due within 90 days of the publication of a Final Rule in the
(i) The Connected Entity Ownership information set forth in the regulation regarding Connected Entity Information (
(ii) its LEI;
(iii) the MBR information as set forth in the data dictionary (
(iv) MBR Ownership information (
(v) Connected Entity Trader and Contracts information; and
(vi) Asset Appendix information as set forth in the data dictionary.
MBR sellers should submit current information, even if different from information included in their most recent MBR filing with the Commission.
62. This submission is intended to establish a baseline of information in the relational database, not to evaluate an MBR seller's MBR authority. Thus, the Commission would not act on the baseline filing. The information in this baseline submission would not be deemed accepted or approved by the Commission.
63. Thereafter, in the case of both MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants, changes in connection would be required to be submitted within 30 days of the change. We propose to define a change in connection for purposes of updating Connected Entity Information as occurring when: (i) An entity becomes a Connected Entity of a Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant; or (ii) an entity ceases to be a Connected Entity of a Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant. With regard to the Contracts category of Connected Entity relationships, we propose to include a
64. The 30-day time period for submitting changes in connection corresponds to the time period to report MBR-required changes in status, thus permitting a single combined filing. For any submissions required under this NOPR, entities subject to both MBR and Connected Entity requirements may include both the MBR and Connected Entity Information in the same format, so long as the time periods for submission applicable to each category are met.
65. We further propose to revise our regulations to add a new § 35.51 requiring that new MBR sellers, within 30 days of the date of the issuance of the order granting MBR authority, make a submission of their: (i) Connected Entity Ownership information, as defined in § 35.49(c)(1); (ii) Trader information, as defined in § 35.49(d)(2); and (iii) Contract information, as defined in § 35.49(d)(3). Thereafter, Sellers shall make filings updating this information within 30 days of a change in connection, as defined in section 35.49(e). We also note that MBR sellers would still be required to make change in status filings pursuant to § 35.42(a), and would be required to update other information quarterly, as set forth in the proposed § 35.42(d).
66. We also propose a new § 35.42(d) to require MBR sellers to update the relational database on a quarterly basis to reflect any changes to previously-submitted information that did not trigger a change in status filing under § 35.42(a), a change in connection submission under the proposed § 35.49(e), or any other MBR-related filing such as a notice of cancellation of or revision to an MBR tariff to change an MBR seller's category status.
67. Maintaining the accuracy of the database is not only important to ensure the usefulness of the relational database for the Commission's analytics and surveillance program, but is also necessary to generate accurate asset appendices for inclusion in an MBR seller's MBR filings and organizational charts for use by the Commission. As described above, the relational database will generate an asset appendix for the MBR seller based on information that is provided by its affiliates. The quarterly update requirement will ensure that
68. Other than the changes identified herein, we propose that the substantive requirements for MBR-related filings (
69. The collections of information contained in this proposed rule are being submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507(d). We solicit comments on the Commission's need for this information, whether the information will have practical utility, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondents' burden, including the use of automated information techniques. Respondents subject to the filing requirements of this proposed rule will not be penalized for failing to respond to these collections of information unless the collections of information display a valid OMB control number.
70. The proposed rule will affect MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants. Burden estimates are provided for each category.
71. The Commission recognizes that there will be an initial implementation burden associated with providing the Commission the requested data. For example, MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants will be required to obtain an LEI if they do not already have one.
72. MBR sellers already submit most of the requested information to the Commission as part of their applications, notices of change in status and triennial updated market power analyses. For MBR sellers, the proposed rule enlarges the scope of information to be collected while also reducing requirements for some existing collections. In year one, we estimate that the average MBR seller will spend forty to one-hundred hours collecting and providing this additional information, with an ongoing burden in subsequent years of thirteen hours.
73. Under the proposed rule, Virtual/FTR Participants will be required to submit a subset of the information MBR sellers are required to submit. Because exclusively Virtual/FTR Participants tend to be smaller than MBR sellers and because the information collected is not as extensive, we estimate that Virtual/FTR Participants, on average, will spend twenty hours collecting and providing this information in year one, with an ongoing burden in subsequent years of eight hours.
74. Some of the ongoing, incremental costs will be incurred by MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants when they are required to submit information about certain changes within thirty days of the change. Based on the current average of change in status filings submitted by MBR sellers each year, we estimate that ten percent of affected entities will submit changes on an annual basis.
75. All MBR sellers will incur the cost associated with submitting quarterly updates to information previously submitted into the relational database to the extent such changes did not trigger a change in status or change in connection submission. We estimate that during a given year, approximately half of the 2,100 MBR sellers will be required to submit the quarterly report.
The following table summarizes the estimated burden and cost changes due to the proposed rule:
76. The table above contains estimates of the number of MBR sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants. We estimate that there are 2,100 MBR sellers based on the number of MBR filings; of those approximately half are Category 1 in all regions and half are Category 2 in one or more regions. We estimate 2,000 Virtual/FTR Participants using data submitted by the RTO/ISOs in accordance with Order No. 760.
77.
78.
79. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Office of the Executive Director, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attention: Ellen Brown, email:
80. Comments concerning the information collections proposed in this NOPR, and the associated burden estimates, should be sent to the Commission in this docket and may also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Washington, DC 20503 [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission]. For security reasons, comments should be sent by email to OMB at the following email address:
81. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
82. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
• Hydroelectric power generation, at 500 employees
• Fossil fuel electric power generation, at 750 employees
• Nuclear electric power generation, at 750 employees
• Other electric power generation (
• Electric bulk power transmission and control, at 500 employees
• Electric power distribution, at 1,000 employees
• Wholesale Trade Agents and Brokers,
83. Based on available data, the percentage of small firms affected by the NOPR is estimated to be at least 78 percent.
84. We estimate the cost in year one (including burden hours, plus cost of acquiring the LEI) for small companies to be $1,273-$6,644. The annual cost starting in Year 2 (including burden hours, plus cost of maintaining the LEI) is estimated to be $488-$826. According to SBA guidance, the determination of significance of impact “should be seen as relative to the size of the business, the size of the competitor's business, and the impact the regulation has on larger competitors.”
85. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals that commenters may wish to discuss. Comments are due September 19, 2016. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM16-17-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
86. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
87. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
88. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
89. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
90. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
91. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
Electric power rates, Electric utilities, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
By direction of the Commission.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission proposes to amend part 35 chapter I, title 18,
16 U.S.C. 791a-825r; 2601-2645; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352.
(a) * * *
(2) When submitting a market power analysis, whether as part of an initial application or an update, a Seller must include a description of its ownership structure that identifies all ultimate affiliate owner(s),
(c) * * *
(4) A Seller must provide its horizontal market power screens in an XML schema for input into the relational database, prepared in conformance with the instructions posted on the Commission's Web site.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(2) * * *
(iii) Owns, operates or controls transmission facilities;
(iv) Has a franchised service area; or
(v) Is an ultimate affiliate owner, defined as the furthest upstream affiliate(s) in the ownership chain.
(c) Changes in status must be prepared in conformance with the instructions posted on the Commission's Web site.
(d) A Seller must report on a quarterly basis any changes to its previously-submitted relational database information. These submissions will be made for each of the four calendar quarters of each year, in accordance with the following schedule: for the period from January 1 through March 31, submit by April 30; for the period from April 1 through June 30, submit by July 31; for the period July 1 through September 30, submit by October 31; and for the period October 1 through December 31, submit by January 31. The submission must be prepared in conformance with the instructions posted on the Commission's Web site.
This subpart establishes the requirements for Sellers and Virtual/FTR Participants for the purpose of providing information to the Commission to conduct surveillance and analysis of the wholesale electric markets.
As used in this subpart:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1)
(i) Is an ultimate affiliate owner of the Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant, as defined in § 35.37(a)(2);
(ii) Participates in organized wholesale electric markets; or
(iii) Purchases or sells financial natural gas or electric energy derivative products that settle off the price of physical electric or natural gas energy products.
(2)
(3)
(e)
(1) An entity becomes a Connected Entity of a Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant as defined in § 35.49(d); or
(2) An entity ceases to be a Connected Entity of a Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant as defined in § 35.49(d). With regard to the Contracts category of Connected Entity relationships as described in § 35.49(d)(3), a change in connection occurs when a Seller or Virtual/FTR Participant enters into, terminates, or amends an agreement that results in the parties conferring control of 100 MW or more of the output of an electric generation asset.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The following attachments A through D will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |