Page Range | 57105-57329 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 57265 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
82 FR 57201 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 57193 - Receipt of a Pesticide Petition Filed for α-Methyl Mannoside for Residues of Pesticide Chemicals in or on Various Commodities | |
82 FR 57271 - Submission for OMB Review; General Services Administration Acquisition Regulation; Zero Burden Information Collection Reports | |
82 FR 57298 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Federal Contractor Veterans' Employment Report | |
82 FR 57296 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Disaster Unemployment Assistance Activities Report | |
82 FR 57202 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57253 - Certain New Chemicals; Receipt and Status Information for September 2017 | |
82 FR 57325 - Guidance on Specified Persons Under Section 231 of the Countering Russian Influence in Europe and Eurasia Act of 2017 | |
82 FR 57137 - Pseudomonas fluorescens 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (HPPD-4); Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
82 FR 57140 - Prometryn; Pesticide Tolerances | |
82 FR 57205 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57135 - Bacillus thuringiensis Cry14Ab-1 Protein in or on Soybean; Temporary Exemption From the Requirement of a Tolerance | |
82 FR 57144 - Quinclorac; Pesticide Tolerances | |
82 FR 57201 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57304 - New Postal Products | |
82 FR 57295 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; New Collection; National Survey on Correctional Contraband (NCSS) | |
82 FR 57297 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Request for Comments; Nondisplacement of Qualified Workers Under Service Contracts, Executive Order 13495 | |
82 FR 57210 - Large Power Transformers From the Republic of Korea: Initiation of Antidumping Duty Changed Circumstances Review | |
82 FR 57219 - Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Order, Finding, or Suspended Investigation; Opportunity To Request Administrative Review | |
82 FR 57205 - Carbazole Violet Pigment 23 From India: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 57214 - Common Alloy Aluminum Sheet From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value and Countervailing Duty Investigations | |
82 FR 57212 - Application(s) for Duty-Free Entry of Scientific Instruments | |
82 FR 57213 - Yale School of Medicine; Notice of Decision on Application for Duty-Free Entry of Scientific Instruments | |
82 FR 57209 - Chlorinated Isocyanurates From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review; 2015 | |
82 FR 57208 - Stainless Steel Bar From Spain: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2017 | |
82 FR 57221 - Monosodium Glutamate From Indonesia: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
82 FR 57277 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57196 - Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Approval of Laboratories for Conducting Aquatic Animal Tests for Export Health Certificates | |
82 FR 57197 - Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; National Veterinary Services Laboratories Request Forms | |
82 FR 57195 - Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Foot-And-Mouth Disease: Prohibition on Importation of Farm Equipment | |
82 FR 57197 - Notice of Request for Revision to and Extension of Approval of an Information Collection; Importation of Poultry Meat and Other Poultry Products From Sinaloa and Sonora; Poultry and Pork Transiting the United States | |
82 FR 57240 - Agency Information Collection Extension, With Changes | |
82 FR 57280 - Site Visit Training Program for Office of Pharmaceutical Quality Staff; Information Available to Industry | |
82 FR 57265 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
82 FR 57240 - Application for Presidential Permit; Clean Power Northeast Development Inc. | |
82 FR 57237 - Notice of Intent To Prepare a Joint Environmental Impact Statement/Environmental Impact Report for the San Francisco Bay to Stockton General Reevaluation Report, San Francisco Bay, California | |
82 FR 57225 - Performance Review Board Membership | |
82 FR 57289 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Unitization | |
82 FR 57304 - Product Change-Parcel Select Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 57304 - Product Change-Priority Mail Negotiated Service Agreement | |
82 FR 57268 - Submission for OMB Review; Affirmative Procurement of Biobased Procurements Under Services and Construction Contracts | |
82 FR 57270 - Information Collection; Past Performance Information | |
82 FR 57162 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Reallocation of Pacific Cod in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
82 FR 57281 - Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997: Modifications to the List of Recognized Standards, Recognition List Number: 048 | |
82 FR 57282 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Establishing and Maintaining Lists of United States Manufacturers/Processors With Interest in Exporting Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition-Regulated Products to China | |
82 FR 57288 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Final Mexican Wolf Recovery Plan, First Revision | |
82 FR 57250 - Town of Canton, Connecticut; Notice of Application for License Reinstatement, Amendment, Transfer, Extension of License Term, and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, Protests, Recommendations, Terms and Conditions, and Fishway Prescriptions | |
82 FR 57246 - Sugar River Power LLC; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing, Soliciting Comments, Protests and Motions to Intervene | |
82 FR 57253 - City of Hailey, Idaho; Notice of Application for Surrender of License, Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
82 FR 57252 - Roseburg Resources Company, Mega Renewables, Shasta Cascade Timberlands LLC; Notice of Application for Partial Transfer of License and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
82 FR 57252 - Notice of Commission Staff Attendance | |
82 FR 57248 - Midship Pipeline Company, LLC; Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review of the Midcontinent Supply Header Interstate Pipeline Project | |
82 FR 57301 - Notice of Permit Applications Received Under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 | |
82 FR 57295 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension of a Currently Approved Collection; Comments Requested: National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS) | |
82 FR 57299 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension of Current Information Collection | |
82 FR 57225 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Notice of Intent To Renew Collection Number 3038-0062, Off-Exchange Foreign Currency Transactions; Correction | |
82 FR 57224 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; National Saltwater Angler Registry | |
82 FR 57224 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; West Coast Region Vessel Identification Requirements | |
82 FR 57223 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; West Coast Region Gear Identification Requirements | |
82 FR 57326 - Notice of OFAC Sanctions Actions | |
82 FR 57207 - Advisory Committee on Supply Chain Competitiveness Charter Renewal | |
82 FR 57278 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Public Comment Request; Revision of a Currently Approved Information Collection (OMB Approval Number 0985-0048); State Grants for Assistive Technology Program State Plan for Assistive Technology | |
82 FR 57286 - Current List of HHS-Certified Laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities Which Meet Minimum Standards To Engage in Urine Drug Testing for Federal Agencies | |
82 FR 57279 - Food and Drug Administration Fiscal Year 2017 Performance Review Board Members | |
82 FR 57279 - Receipt of Notice That a Patent Infringement Complaint Was Filed Against a Biosimilar Applicant | |
82 FR 57265 - Alimentation Couche-Tard Inc. and CrossAmerica Partners LP; Analysis To Aid Public Comment | |
82 FR 57174 - Obstetrical and Gynecological Devices; Reclassification of Single-Use Female Condom, To Be Renamed Single-Use Internal Condom | |
82 FR 57119 - Safety Standard Mandating ASTM F963 for Toys | |
82 FR 57290 - Certain Memory Modules and Components Thereof Institution of Investigation | |
82 FR 57291 - Meeting of the Judicial Conference; Committee on Rules of Practice and Procedure | |
82 FR 57227 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 57327 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Forms 5498-QA and1099-QA | |
82 FR 57327 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
82 FR 57328 - Advisory Group to the Commissioner of Internal Revenue; Renewal of Charter | |
82 FR 57328 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
82 FR 57248 - Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC; Notice of Request Under Blanket Authorization | |
82 FR 57251 - Paiute Pipeline Company; Notice of Availability of the Environmental Assessment for the Proposed 2018 Expansion Project | |
82 FR 57247 - Epsilon Trading, LLC, Chevron Products Company, Valero Marketing and Supply Company v. Colonial Pipeline Company; Notice of Complaint | |
82 FR 57249 - Spire STL Pipeline LLC; Supplemental Notice of Availability of the Environmental Assessment and Reopening of Comment Period for the Proposed Spire STL Pipeline Project | |
82 FR 57249 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
82 FR 57234 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 57291 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
82 FR 57181 - Privacy Act of 1974; Implementation | |
82 FR 57321 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq GEMX, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Implementation Delay of Qualified Contingent Cross Order Functionalities | |
82 FR 57317 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe C2 Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Clarify How the Options Regulatory Fee is Assessed and Collected | |
82 FR 57322 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE American LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 971.1NY To Amend the Duration of a Customer Best Execution Auction | |
82 FR 57306 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Options Clearing Corporation; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change Related to The Options Clearing Corporation's Margin Methodology | |
82 FR 57305 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe BZX Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change to Rule 19.6, Series of Options Contracts Open for Trading | |
82 FR 57313 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Cboe Exchange, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change Clarifying How the Options Regulatory Fee is Assessed and Collected | |
82 FR 57286 - National Institute of Nursing Research; Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 57284 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 57285 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 57286 - National Institute on Aging; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 57284 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 57285 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
82 FR 57232 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 57230 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 57320 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57316 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
82 FR 57301 - Sacramento Municipal Utility District; Rancho Seco Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation | |
82 FR 57225 - Arms Sales Notification | |
82 FR 57288 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Reporting for HUD Research, Evaluation, and Demonstration Cooperative Agreements | |
82 FR 57273 - Medicare, Medicaid, and Children's Health Insurance Programs; Provider Enrollment Application Fee Amount for Calendar Year 2018 | |
82 FR 57275 - Medicare Program; Town Hall Meeting on the FY 2019 Applications for New Medical Services and Technologies Add-On Payments | |
82 FR 57238 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Survey on the Use of Funds Under Title II, Part A: Supporting Effective Instruction Grants-Subgrants to LEAs | |
82 FR 57238 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Quarterly Cumulative Caseload Report | |
82 FR 57239 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) Regulatory Requirements | |
82 FR 57302 - Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., Vogtle Electric Generating Plant, Units 3 and 4; Clarification of Raceway and Raceway System Designations | |
82 FR 57203 - Modification of June 27, 2017 Renewal of Temporary Denial Order | |
82 FR 57200 - Information Collection; Qualified Products Lists for Fire Chemicals for Wildland Fire Management | |
82 FR 57183 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of Utah; Logan Nonattainment Area Fine Particulate Matter State Implementation Plan for Attainment of 2006 24-Hour Fine Particulate Matter National Ambient Air Quality Standards | |
82 FR 57299 - Notice of Proposed Information Collection Requests: 2019-2021 IMLS Grant Application Forms | |
82 FR 57199 - Information Collection; Timber Sale Contract Operations and Administration | |
82 FR 57267 - Information Collection; Reporting and Use of Information Concerning Integrity and Performance of Recipients of Grants and Cooperative Agreements | |
82 FR 57269 - Notice of Availability of a Draft Environmental Assessment for the Otay Mesa USDA Plant Inspection Station | |
82 FR 57272 - Availability of Draft Vessel Sanitation Program (VSP) Operations Manual and VSP Construction Guidelines | |
82 FR 57264 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 57261 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 57262 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
82 FR 57265 - Notice of Agency Relocation | |
82 FR 57161 - Rate-of-Return Reform | |
82 FR 57271 - Submission for OMB Review; System for Award Management Registration Requirements for Prime Grant Recipients | |
82 FR 57325 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Palmyra: Loss and Remembrance” Exhibition | |
82 FR 57125 - Air Plan Approval; Minnesota and Michigan; Regional Haze SIP; FIP for Regional Haze; Final Action on Petitions for Reconsideration | |
82 FR 57126 - Approval and Revision of Air Quality Implementation Plans; State of New York; Regional Haze State and Federal Implementation Plans | |
82 FR 57132 - Air Plan Approval; ID; 2012 PM2.5 | |
82 FR 57123 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District | |
82 FR 57130 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District | |
82 FR 57133 - Revisions to California State Implementation Plan; Bay Area Air Quality Management District; Emission Reduction Credit Banking | |
82 FR 57172 - Airworthiness Directives; Embraer S.A. Airplanes | |
82 FR 57117 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 57115 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
82 FR 57151 - Ethofumesate; Pesticide Tolerances | |
82 FR 57149 - Extension of Tolerances for Emergency Exemptions (Multiple Chemicals) | |
82 FR 57166 - Pecans Grown in the States of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas; Establishment of Reporting Requirements and New Information Collection | |
82 FR 57164 - Oranges and Grapefruit Grown in the Lower Rio Grande Valley in Texas; Decreased Assessment Rate | |
82 FR 57158 - Wireless Emergency Alerts; Emergency Alert System | |
82 FR 57105 - Procedures for Determining Eligibility for Access to Classified Matter or Special Nuclear Material |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
Forest Service
Economic Analysis Bureau
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Army Department
Engineers Corps
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Community Living Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement
Fish and Wildlife Service
Justice Programs Office
National Institute of Justice
Institute of Museum and Library Services
Federal Aviation Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Department of Energy.
Final rule.
The Department of Energy (DOE) is amending its regulations which set forth the policies and procedures for resolving questions concerning eligibility for DOE access authorization. The revisions update appendix A, and related text, with the most current national standards for determining eligibility for access to classified matter and special nuclear material, and delete references to Executive Order 10450, which was revoked pursuant to Executive Order 13764, dated January 17, 2017.
This rule is effective January 3, 2018.
U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Departmental Personnel Security, (202) 586-3249,
The Department of Energy is publishing this final rule in order to ensure it contains the most current national standards for determining access to classified matter and special nuclear material and to ensure listed authorities are still valid.
Appendix A to 10 CFR part 710 contained the
Laws, regulations and directives which may apply to part 710 include, but are not limited to: The Atomic Energy Act of 1954; Executive Order 13764 (81 FR 8115, January 23, 2017) Executive Order 13467 (73 FR 38103), June 30, 2008; Executive Order 12968 (60 FR 40245, August 2, 1995, as amended); Executive Order 13526 (75 FR 707, January 5, 2010); Executive Order 10865 (25 FR 1583, February 24, 1960, as amended); Presidential Policy Directive 19 (October 10, 2012).
DOE amends 10 CFR part 710 as follows:
1. In the contents section, appendix A has been revised to reflect it now contains Security Executive Agency Directive 4—National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.
2. In the contents section, under “Authority”, reference to E.O. 10450 has been deleted.
3. Section 710.1 “Purpose” deletes references to E.O. 10450 and the former Adjudicative Guidelines and replaces them with current citations.
4. Section 710.2 “Scope” removes reference to the Adjudicative Guidelines.
5. Section 710.3 “Reference” replaces “Adjudicative Guidelines” with “National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.”
6. Section 710.7 “Application of the Adjudicative Guidelines”, is retitled “Application of the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.”
7. Section 710.7(b) replaces “Adjudicative Guidelines” with “National Security Adjudicative Guidelines.”
8. Appendix A is retitled “SEAD 4, National Security Adjudicative Guidelines” and its content is changed to delete the former Adjudicative Guidelines and replace with the current SEAD 4 standards.
The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requires that a notice of proposed rulemaking be published in the
This final rule has been determined not to be a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (October 4, 1993). Accordingly, this rule is not subject to review under the Executive Order by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs within the Office of Management and Budget.
DOE has also reviewed the regulation pursuant to Executive Order 13563, issued on January 18, 2011 (76 FR 3281 (Jan. 21, 2011)). Executive Order 13563 is supplemental to and explicitly reaffirms the principles, structures, and definitions governing regulatory review established in Executive Order 12866. To the extent permitted by law, agencies are required by Executive Order 13563 to: (1) Propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs (recognizing that some benefits and costs are difficult to quantify); (2) tailor regulations to impose the least burden on society, consistent with obtaining regulatory objectives, taking into account, among other things, and to the extent practicable, the costs of cumulative regulations; (3) select, in choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, those approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity); (4) to the extent feasible, specify performance objectives, rather than specifying the behavior or manner of compliance that regulated entities must adopt; and (5) identify and assess available alternatives to direct regulation, including providing economic incentives to encourage the desired behavior, such as user fees or marketable permits, or providing information upon which choices can be made by the public.
DOE emphasizes as well that Executive Order 13563 requires agencies to use the best available techniques to quantify anticipated present and future benefits and costs as accurately as possible. In its guidance, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has emphasized that such techniques may include identifying changing future compliance costs that might result from technological innovation or anticipated behavioral changes. DOE believes that this rule is consistent with these principles, including the requirement that, to the extent permitted by law, agencies adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that its benefits justify its costs and, in choosing among alternative regulatory approaches, those approaches maximize net benefits.
With respect to the review of existing regulations and the promulgation of new regulations, section 3(a) of Executive Order 12988, “Civil Justice Reform,” 61 FR 4729 (February 7, 1996), imposes on Executive agencies the general duty to adhere to the following requirements: (1) Eliminate drafting errors and ambiguity; (2) write regulations to minimize litigation; and (3) provide a clear legal standard for affected conduct rather than a general standard and promote simplification and burden reduction.
With regard to the review required by section 3(a), section 3(b) of Executive Order 12988 specifically requires that Executive agencies make every reasonable effort to ensure that the regulation: (1) Clearly specifies the preemptive effect, if any; (2) clearly specifies any effect on existing Federal law or regulation; (3) provides a clear legal standard for affected conduct while promoting simplification and burden reduction; (4) specifies the retroactive effect, if any; (5) adequately defines key terms; and (6) addresses other important issues affecting clarity and general draftsmanship under any guidelines issued by the Attorney General. Section 3(c) of Executive Order 12988 requires Executive agencies to review regulations in light of applicable standards in section 3(a) and section 3(b) to determine whether they are met or it is unreasonable to meet one or more of them. DOE has completed the required review and determined that, to the extent permitted by law, this regulation meets the relevant standards of Executive Order 12988.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule amends procedures that apply to the determination of eligibility of individuals for access to classified information and access to special nuclear material. The rule applies to individuals, and would not apply to “small entities,” as that term is defined in the Regulatory Flexibility Act. In addition, as stated above, the Department has no discretion in adopting the guidelines; it is the guidelines themselves that impose any impact on affected individuals. As a result, the rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
Accordingly, DOE certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, and, therefore, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required. DOE's certification and supporting statement of factual basis will be provided to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for review under 5 U.S.C. 605(b).
This rule does not impose a collection of information requirement subject to
DOE has concluded that promulgation of this rule falls into a class of actions which would not individually or cumulatively have significant impact on the human environment, as determined by DOE's regulations (10 CFR part 1021, subpart D) implementing the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
Executive Order 13132, 64 FR 43255 (August 4, 1999), imposes certain requirements on agencies formulating and implementing policies or regulations that preempt State law or that have federalism implications. Agencies are required to examine the constitutional and statutory authority supporting any action that would limit the policymaking discretion of the States and carefully assess the necessity for such actions. DOE has examined this rule and has determined that it does not preempt State law and does not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. No further action is required by Executive Order 13132.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4) generally requires a Federal agency to perform a detailed assessment of costs and benefits of any rule imposing a Federal Mandate with costs to State, local or tribal governments, or to the private sector, of $100 million or more. This rulemaking does not impose a Federal mandate on State, local or tribal governments or on the private sector.
Section 654 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 1999 (Pub. L. 105-277), requires Federal agencies to issue a Family Policymaking Assessment for any rule or policy that may affect family well being. This rule, has no impact on family well-being. Accordingly, DOE has concluded that it is not necessary to prepare a Family Policymaking Assessment.
Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use,” 66 FR 28355 (May 22, 2001), requires Federal agencies to prepare and submit to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA), Office of Management and Budget, a Statement of Energy Effects for any significant energy action. A “significant energy action” is defined as any action by an agency that promulgates or is expected to lead to promulgation of a final rule, and that: (1) Is a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, or any successor order; and (2) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy, or (3) is designated by the Administrator of OIRA as a significant energy action. For any proposed significant energy action, the agency must give a detailed statement of any adverse effects on energy supply, distribution or use should the proposal be implemented, and of reasonable alternatives to the action and their expected benefits on energy supply, distribution and use. This rule is not a significant energy action. Accordingly, DOE has not prepared a Statement of Energy Effects.
The Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act, 2001 (44 U.S.C. 3516, note) provides for agencies to review most disseminations of information to the public under implementing guidelines established by each agency pursuant to general guidelines issued by OMB. OMB's guidelines were published at 67 FR 8452 (February 22, 2002), and DOE's guidelines were published at 67 FR 62446 (October 7, 2002). DOE has reviewed this rule under the OMB and DOE guidelines and has concluded that it is consistent with applicable policies in those guidelines.
The Secretary of Energy has approved issuance of this rule.
As required by 5 U.S.C. 801, DOE will report to Congress on the promulgation of this rule prior to its effective date. The report will state that it has been determined that the rule is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Administrative practice and procedure, Classified information, Government contracts, Government employees, Nuclear energy.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, DOE amends part 710 of title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below.
42 U.S.C. 2165, 2201, 5815, 7101,
(b) This part implements: Executive Order 12968, 60 FR 40245 (August 2, 1995), as amended; Executive Order 13526, 75 FR 707 (January 5, 2010) as amended; Executive Order 10865, 25 FR 1583 (February 24, 1960), as amended; and the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines, issued as Security Executive Agent Directive 4 by the Director of National Intelligence on December 10, 2016.
The procedures outlined in this rule apply to determinations of eligibility for access authorization for:
The National Security Adjudicative Guidelines are set forth in Appendix A to this part.
(b) All such determinations shall be based upon the application of the National Security Adjudicative Guidelines (Adjudicative Guidelines), or any successor national standard issued under authority of the President.
(
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a. A person who performs work for or on behalf of the executive branch or who seeks to perform work for or on behalf of the executive branch, but does not include the President or (except to the extent otherwise directed by the President) employees of the President under 3 U.S.C. 105 or 107, the Vice President, or (except to the extent otherwise directed by the Vice President) employees of the Vice President under 3 U.S.C. 106 or annual legislative branch appropriations acts;
b. A person who performs work for or on behalf of a state, local, tribal, or private sector entity as defined in E.O. 13549 requiring eligibility for access to classified information;
c. A person working in or for the legislative or judicial branches requiring eligibility for access to classified information and the investigation or determination is conducted by the executive branch, but does not include members of Congress; Justices of the Supreme Court; and Federal judges appointed by the President.
d. Covered individuals are not limited to government employees and include all persons, not excluded under paragraphs D.5.a., b., or c. of this appendix, who require eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position, including, but not limited to, contractors, subcontractors, licensees, certificate holders, grantees, experts, consultants, and government employees.
6.
7.
8.
1. The National Security Adjudicative Guidelines in annex A to this appendix shall be used by all authorized adjudicative agencies when rendering a determination for initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or initial or continued eligibility to hold a sensitive position.
2. Annex B to this appendix sets forth statutory restrictions on agencies making certain eligibility determinations for access to classified information, as well as waiver and congressional reporting requirements. These amendments to the IRTPA are commonly referred to as the Bond Amendment. By definition, the risk to national security is equivalent for covered individuals with access to classified information and covered individuals occupying a sensitive position. Occupants of sensitive positions could bring about, by virtue of the nature of the position, a material adverse effect on the national security regardless of whether the occupant has access to classified information. Due to the equivalent adverse effect on the national security and to ensure uniformity, consistency, and reciprocity of national security background investigations and adjudications, the statutory restrictions imposed by the Bond Amendment are extended to apply to all covered individuals who require initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position. Authorized adjudicative agencies shall maintain a record of the number and type of meritorious waivers granted under Bond Amendment criteria, to include the rationale for each waiver, and shall report this data annually to the SecEA in advance of the annual report to Congress. Authorized adjudicative agencies will also maintain a record of all disqualifications due to Bond Amendment criteria.
3. Exceptions, as provided for in annex C to this appendix, shall be used when a favorable adjudicative decision to grant initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position is made, despite failure to meet adjudicative or investigative standards.
4. Eligibility shall be determined by appropriately trained adjudicative personnel through the evaluation of all information bearing on an individual's loyalty and allegiance to the United States, including any information relevant to strength of character, honesty, discretion, sound judgment, reliability, ability to protect classified or sensitive information, and trustworthiness. Eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to occupy a sensitive position shall only be granted when the evaluation of all such information demonstrates that such eligibility is clearly consistent with the interests of the United States; any doubt shall be resolved in favor of the national security.
5. All adjudicative determinations, including any associated exceptions, shall be recorded in either Scattered Castles, the Joint Personnel Adjudication System within the Department of Defense, or the Central Verification System database within U.S. Office of Personnel Management or successor databases, unless authorized by the SecEA to withhold information from the database for national security purposes.
6. When an adjudicative determination is made to deny or revoke eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position, review proceedings, to the extent they are made available in E.O. 12968, as amended, Part 5, shall be afforded covered individuals at a minimum.
7. The agency with adjudicative authority remains responsible for the final determination.
8. Agencies shall update internal policies and replace existing national security adjudicative criteria or guidelines with the guidelines in this appendix A no later than June 8, 2017.
9. This Directive is not intended to, and does not, create any right to administrative or judicial review, or any other right or benefit, or trust responsibility substantive or procedural, enforceable by a party against the United States, its agencies or instrumentalities, its officers or employees, or any other person.
(a) The following National Security Adjudicative Guidelines (“guidelines”) are established as the single common criteria for all U.S. Government civilian and military personnel, consultants, contractors, licensees, certificate holders or grantees and their employees, and other individuals who require initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or eligibility to hold a sensitive position, to include access to sensitive compartmented information, restricted data, and controlled or special access program information (hereafter referred to as “national security eligibility”). These guidelines shall be used by all Executive Branch Agencies when rendering any final national security eligibility determination.
(b) National security eligibility determinations take into account a person's stability, trustworthiness, reliability, discretion, character, honesty, and judgment. Individuals must be unquestionably loyal to the United States. No amount of oversight or security procedures can replace the self-discipline and integrity of an individual entrusted to protect the nation's secrets or occupying a sensitive position. When a person's life history shows evidence of unreliability or untrustworthiness, questions arise as to whether the individual can be relied upon and trusted to exercise the responsibility necessary for working in an environment where protecting the national security is paramount.
(c) The U.S. Government does not discriminate on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, or sexual orientation in making a national security eligibility determination. No negative inference concerning eligibility under these guidelines may be raised solely on the basis of mental health counseling. No adverse action concerning these guidelines may be taken solely on the basis of polygraph examination technical calls in the absence of adjudicatively significant information.
(d) In accordance with E.O. 12968, as amended, eligibility for covered individuals shall be granted only when facts and circumstances indicate that eligibility is clearly consistent with the national security interests of the United States, and any doubt shall be resolved in favor of national security.
(a) The adjudicative process is an examination of a sufficient period and a careful weighing of a number of variables of an individual's life to make an affirmative determination that the individual is an acceptable security risk. This is known as the whole-person concept. All available, reliable information about the person, past and present, favorable and unfavorable, should be considered in reaching a national security eligibility determination.
(b) Each case must be judged on its own merits, and the final determination remains the responsibility of the authorized adjudicative agency. Any doubt concerning personnel being considered for national security eligibility will be resolved in favor of the national security.
(c) The ultimate determination of whether the granting or continuing of national security eligibility is clearly consistent with the interests of national security must be an overall common sense judgment based upon careful consideration of the following guidelines, each of which is to be evaluated in the context of the whole person.
(d) In evaluating the relevance of an individual's conduct, the adjudicator should consider the following factors:
(1) The nature, extent, and seriousness of the conduct;
(2) The circumstances surrounding the conduct, to include knowledgeable participation;
(3) The frequency and recency of the conduct;
(4) The individual's age and maturity at the time of the conduct;
(5) The extent to which participation is voluntary;
(6) The presence or absence of rehabilitation and other permanent behavioral changes;
(7) The motivation for the conduct;
(8) The potential for pressure, coercion, exploitation, or duress; and
(9) The likelihood of continuation or recurrence.
(e) Although adverse information concerning a single criterion may not be sufficient for an unfavorable eligibility determination, the individual may be found ineligible if available information reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or unstable behavior. However, a single criterion may be sufficient to make an unfavorable eligibility determination even in the absence of a recent occurrence or a recurring pattern. Notwithstanding the whole-person concept, pursuit of further investigation may be terminated by an appropriate adjudicative agency in the face of reliable, significant, disqualifying, adverse information.
(f) When information of security concern becomes known about an individual who is currently eligible for access to classified information or eligible to hold a sensitive position, the adjudicator should consider whether the individual:
(1) Voluntarily reported the information;
(2) Was truthful and complete in responding to questions;
(3) Sought assistance and followed professional guidance, where appropriate;
(4) Resolved or appears likely to favorably resolve the security concern;
(5) Has demonstrated positive changes in behavior; and
(6) Should have his or her national security eligibility suspended pending final adjudication of the information.
(g) If after evaluating information of security concern, the adjudicator decides the information is serious enough to warrant a recommendation of denial or revocation of the national security eligibility, but the specific risk to national security can be managed with appropriate mitigation measures, an adjudicator may recommend approval to grant initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position with an exception as defined in Appendix C of this document.
(h) If after evaluating information of security concern, the adjudicator decides that the information is not serious enough to warrant a recommendation of denial or revocation of the national security eligibility, an adjudicator may recommend approval with a warning that future incidents of a similar nature or other incidents of adjudicative concern may result in revocation of national security eligibility.
(i) It must be noted that the adjudicative process is predicated upon individuals providing relevant information pertaining to their background and character for use in investigating and adjudicating their national security eligibility. Any incident of intentional material falsification or
3.
4.
(a) Involvement in, support of, training to commit, or advocacy of any act of sabotage, espionage, treason, terrorism, or sedition against the United States;
(b) Association or sympathy with persons who are attempting to commit, or who are committing, any of the above acts; and
(c) Association or sympathy with persons or organizations that advocate, threaten, or use force or violence, or use any other illegal or unconstitutional means, in an effort to:
(1) Overthrow or influence the U.S. Government or any state or local government;
(2) Prevent Federal, state, or local government personnel from performing their official duties;
(3) Gain retribution for perceived wrongs caused by the Federal, state, or local government; and
(4) Prevent others from exercising their rights under the Constitution or laws of the United States or of any state.
5.
(a) The individual was unaware of the unlawful aims of the individual or organization and severed ties upon learning of these;
(b) The individual's involvement was humanitarian and permitted under U.S. law;
(c) Involvement in the above activities occurred for only a short period of time and was attributable to curiosity or academic interest; and
(d) The involvement or association with such activities occurred under such unusual circumstances, or so much time has elapsed, that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or allegiance.
6.
7.
(a) Contact, regardless of method, with a foreign family member, business or professional associate, friend, or other person who is a citizen of or resident in a foreign country if that contact creates a heightened risk of foreign exploitation, inducement, manipulation, pressure, or coercion;
(b) Connections to a foreign person, group, government, or country that create a potential conflict of interest between the individual's obligation to protect classified or sensitive information or technology and the individual's desire to help a foreign person, group, or country by providing that information or technology;
(c) Failure to report or fully disclose, when required, association with a foreign person, group, government, or country;
(d) Counterintelligence information, whether classified or unclassified, that indicates the individual's access to classified information or eligibility for a sensitive position may involve unacceptable risk to national security;
(e) Shared living quarters with a person or persons, regardless of citizenship status, if that relationship creates a heightened risk of foreign inducement, manipulation, pressure, or coercion;
(f) Substantial business, financial, or property interests in a foreign country, or in any foreignowned or foreign-operated business that could subject the individual to a heightened risk of foreign influence or exploitation or personal conflict of interest;
(g) Unauthorized association with a suspected or known agent, associate, or employee of a foreign intelligence entity;
(h) Indications that representatives or nationals from a foreign country are acting to increase the vulnerability of the individual to possible future exploitation, inducement, manipulation, pressure, or coercion; and
(i) Conduct, especially while traveling or residing outside the U.S., that may make the individual vulnerable to exploitation, pressure, or coercion by a foreign person, group, government, or country.
8.
(a) The nature of the relationships with foreign persons, the country in which these persons are located, or the positions or activities of those persons in that country are such that it is unlikely the individual will be placed in a position of having to choose between the interests of a foreign individual, group, organization, or government and the interests of the United States;
(b) There is no conflict of interest, either because the individual's sense of loyalty or obligation to the foreign person, or allegiance to the group, government, or country is so minimal, or the individual has such deep and longstanding relationships and loyalties in the United States, that the individual can be expected to resolve any conflict of interest in favor of the U.S. interest;
(c) Contact or communication with foreign citizens is so casual and infrequent that there is little likelihood that it could create a risk for foreign influence or exploitation;
(d) The foreign contacts and activities are on U.S. Government business or are approved by the agency head or designee;
(f) The value or routine nature of the foreign business, financial, or property interests is such that they are unlikely to result in a conflict and could not be used effectively to influence, manipulate, or pressure the individual.
9.
10.
(a) Applying for and/or acquiring citizenship in any other country;
(b) Failure to report, or fully disclose when required, to an appropriate security official, the possession of a passport or identity card issued by any country other than the United States;
(c) Failure to use a U.S. passport when entering or exiting the U.S.;
(d) Participation in foreign activities, including but not limited to:
(1) Assuming or attempting to assume any type of employment, position, or political office in a foreign government or military organization; and
(2) Otherwise acting to serve the interests of a foreign person, group, organization, or government in any way that conflicts with U.S. national security interests;
(e) Using foreign citizenship to protect financial or business interests in another country in violation of U.S. law; and
(f) An act of expatriation from the United States such as declaration of intent to renounce U.S. citizenship, whether through words or actions.
11.
(a) The foreign citizenship is not in conflict with U.S. national security interests;
(b) Dual citizenship is based solely on parental citizenship or birth in a foreign country, and there is no evidence of foreign preference;
(c) The individual has expressed a willingness to renounce the foreign citizenship that is in conflict with U.S. national security interests;
(d) The exercise of the rights, privileges, or obligations of foreign citizenship occurred before the individual became a U.S. citizen;
(e) The exercise of the entitlements or benefits of foreign citizenship do not present a national security concern;
(f) The foreign preference, if detected, involves a foreign country, entity, or association that poses a low national security risk;
(g) Civil employment or military service was authorized under U.S. law, or the employment or service was otherwise consented to as required by U.S. law; and
(h) Any potentially disqualifying activity took place after receiving the approval by the agency head or designee.
12.
13.
(a) Sexual behavior of a criminal nature, whether or not the individual has been prosecuted;
(b) A pattern of compulsive, self-destructive, or high-risk sexual behavior that the individual is unable to stop;
(c) Sexual behavior that causes an individual to be vulnerable to coercion, exploitation, or duress; and
(d) Sexual behavior of a public nature or that reflects lack of discretion or judgment.
14.
(a) The behavior occurred prior to or during adolescence and there is no evidence of subsequent conduct of a similar nature;
(b) The sexual behavior happened so long ago, so infrequently, or under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or judgment;
(c) The behavior no longer serves as a basis for coercion, exploitation, or duress;
(d) The sexual behavior is strictly private, consensual, and discreet; and
(e) The individual has successfully completed an appropriate program of treatment, or is currently enrolled in one, has demonstrated ongoing and consistent compliance with the treatment plan, and/or has received a favorable prognosis from a qualified mental health professional indicating the behavior is readily controllable with treatment.
15.
(a) Refusal, or failure without reasonable cause, to undergo or cooperate with security processing, including but not limited to meeting with a security investigator for subject interview, completing security forms or releases, cooperation with medical or psychological evaluation, or polygraph examination, if authorized and required; and
(b) Refusal to provide full, frank, and truthful answers to lawful questions of investigators, security officials, or other official representatives in connection with a personnel security or trustworthiness determination.
16.
(a) Deliberate omission, concealment, or falsification of relevant facts from any personnel security questionnaire, personal history statement, or similar form used to conduct investigations, determine employment qualifications, award benefits or status, determine national security eligibility or trustworthiness, or award fiduciary responsibilities;
(b) Deliberately providing false or misleading information; or concealing or omitting information, concerning relevant facts to an employer, investigator, security official, competent medical or mental health professional involved in making a recommendation relevant to a national security eligibility determination, or other official government representative;
(c) Credible adverse information in several adjudicative issue areas that is not sufficient for an adverse determination under any other single guideline, but which, when considered as a whole, supports a whole-person assessment of questionable judgment, untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of candor, unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations, or other characteristics indicating that the individual may not properly safeguard classified or sensitive information;
(d) Credible adverse information that is not explicitly covered under any other guideline and may not be sufficient by itself for an adverse determination, but which, when combined with all available information, supports a whole-person assessment of questionable judgment, untrustworthiness, unreliability, lack of candor, unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations, or other characteristics indicating that the individual may not properly safeguard classified or sensitive information. This includes, but is not limited to, consideration of:
(1) Untrustworthy or unreliable behavior to include breach of client confidentiality, release of proprietary information, unauthorized release of sensitive corporate or government protected information;
(2) Any disruptive, violent, or other inappropriate behavior;
(3) A pattern of dishonesty or rule violations; and
(4) Evidence of significant misuse of Government or other employer's time or resources;
(e) Personal conduct, or concealment of information about one's conduct, that creates a vulnerability to exploitation, manipulation, or duress by a foreign intelligence entity or other individual or group. Such conduct includes:
(1) Engaging in activities which, if known, could affect the person's personal, professional, or community standing;
(2) While in another country, engaging in any activity that is illegal in that country;
(3) While in another country, engaging in any activity that, while legal there, is illegal in the United States;
(f) Violation of a written or recorded commitment made by the individual to the employer as a condition of employment; and
(g) Association with persons involved in criminal activity.
17.
(a) The individual made prompt, good-faith efforts to correct the omission, concealment, or falsification before being confronted with the facts;
(b) The refusal or failure to cooperate, omission, or concealment was caused or significantly contributed to by advice of legal counsel or of a person with professional responsibilities for advising or instructing the individual specifically concerning security processes. Upon being made aware of the requirement to cooperate or provide the information, the individual cooperated fully and truthfully;
(c) The offense is so minor, or so much time has passed, or the behavior is so infrequent, or it happened under such unique circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(d) The individual has acknowledged the behavior and obtained counseling to change the behavior or taken other positive steps to alleviate the stressors, circumstances, or factors that contributed to untrustworthy, unreliable, or other inappropriate behavior, and such behavior is unlikely to recur;
(e) The individual has taken positive steps to reduce or eliminate vulnerability to exploitation, manipulation, or duress;
(f) The information was unsubstantiated or from a source of questionable reliability; and
(g) Association with persons involved in criminal activities was unwitting, has ceased, or occurs under circumstances that do not cast doubt upon the individual's reliability, trustworthiness, judgment, or willingness to comply with rules and regulations.
18.
19.
(a) Inability to satisfy debts;
(b) Unwillingness to satisfy debts regardless of the ability to do so;
(c) A history of not meeting financial obligations;
(d) Deceptive or illegal financial practices such as embezzlement, employee theft, check fraud, expense account fraud, mortgage fraud, filing deceptive loan statements and other intentional financial breaches of trust;
(e) Consistent spending beyond one's means or frivolous or irresponsible spending, which may be indicated by excessive indebtedness, significant negative cash flow, a history of late payments or of non-payment, or other negative financial indicators;
(f) Failure to file or fraudulently filing annual Federal, state, or local income tax returns or failure to pay annual Federal, state, or local income tax as required;
(g) Unexplained affluence, as shown by a lifestyle or standard of living, increase in net worth, or money transfers that are inconsistent with known legal sources of income;
(h) Borrowing money or engaging in significant financial transactions to fund gambling or pay gambling debts; and
(i) Concealing gambling losses, family conflict, or other problems caused by gambling.
20.
(a) The behavior happened so long ago, was so infrequent, or occurred under such circumstances that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The conditions that resulted in the financial problem were largely beyond the person's control (
(c) The individual has received or is receiving financial counseling for the problem from a legitimate and credible source, such as a non-profit credit counseling service, and there are clear indications that the problem is being resolved or is under control;
(d) The individual initiated and is adhering to a good-faith effort to repay overdue creditors or otherwise resolve debts;
(e) The individual has a reasonable basis to dispute the legitimacy of the past-due debt which is the cause of the problem and provides documented proof to substantiate the basis of the dispute or provides evidence of actions to resolve the issue;
(f) The affluence resulted from a legal source of income; and
(g) The individual has made arrangements with the appropriate tax authority to file or pay the amount owed and is in compliance with those arrangements.
21.
22.
(a) Alcohol-related incidents away from work, such as driving while under the influence, fighting, child or spouse abuse, disturbing the peace, or other incidents of concern, regardless of the frequency of the individual's alcohol use or whether the individual has been diagnosed with alcohol use disorder;
(b) Alcohol-related incidents at work, such as reporting for work or duty in an intoxicated or impaired condition, drinking on the job, or jeopardizing the welfare and safety of others, regardless of whether the individual is diagnosed with alcohol use disorder;
(c) Habitual or binge consumption of alcohol to the point of impaired judgment, regardless of whether the individual is diagnosed with alcohol use disorder;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical or mental health professional (
(e) The failure to follow treatment advice once diagnosed;
(f) Alcohol consumption, which is not in accordance with treatment recommendations, after a diagnosis of alcohol use disorder; and
(g) Failure to follow any court order regarding alcohol education, evaluation, treatment, or abstinence.
23.
(a) So much time has passed, or the behavior was so infrequent, or it happened under such unusual circumstances that it is unlikely to recur or does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her pattern of maladaptive alcohol use, provides evidence of actions taken to overcome this problem, and has demonstrated a clear and established pattern of modified consumption or abstinence in accordance with treatment recommendations;
(c) The individual is participating in counseling or a treatment program, has no previous history of treatment and relapse, and is making satisfactory progress in a treatment program; and
(d) The individual has successfully completed a treatment program along with any required aftercare, and has demonstrated a clear and established pattern of modified consumption or abstinence in accordance with treatment recommendations.
24.
25.
(a) Any substance misuse (see definition listed in paragraph 24);
(b) Testing positive for an illegal drug;
(c) Illegal possession of a controlled substance, including cultivation, processing, manufacture, purchase, sale, or distribution; or possession of drug paraphernalia;
(d) Diagnosis by a duly qualified medical or mental health professional (
(e) Failure to successfully complete a drug treatment program prescribed by a duly qualified medical or mental health professional;
(f) Any illegal drug use while granted access to classified information or holding a sensitive position; and
(g) Expressed intent to continue drug involvement and substance misuse, or failure to clearly and convincingly commit to discontinue such misuse.
26.
(a) The behavior happened so long ago, was so infrequent, or happened under such circumstances that it is unlikely to recur or does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual acknowledges his or her drug involvement and substance misuse, provides evidence of actions taken to overcome this problem, and has established a pattern of abstinence, including, but not limited to:
(1) Disassociation from drug-using associates and contacts;
(2) Changing or avoiding the environment where drugs were used; and
(3) Providing a signed statement of intent to abstain from all drug involvement and substance misuse, acknowledging that any future involvement or misuse is grounds for revocation of national security eligibility;
(c) Abuse of prescription drugs was after a severe or prolonged illness during which these drugs were prescribed, and abuse has since ended; and
(d) Satisfactory completion of a prescribed drug treatment program, including, but not limited to, rehabilitation and aftercare requirements, without recurrence of abuse, and a favorable prognosis by a duly qualified medical professional.
27.
28.
(a) Behavior that casts doubt on an individual's judgment, stability, reliability, or trustworthiness, not covered under any other guideline and that may indicate an emotional, mental, or personality condition, including, but not limited to, irresponsible, violent, self-harm, suicidal, paranoid, manipulative, impulsive, chronic lying, deceitful, exploitative, or bizarre behaviors;
(b) An opinion by a duly qualified mental health professional that the individual has a condition that may impair judgment, stability, reliability, or trustworthiness;
(c) Voluntary or involuntary inpatient hospitalization;
(d) Failure to follow a prescribed treatment plan related to a diagnosed psychological/psychiatric condition that may impair judgment, stability, reliability, or trustworthiness, including, but not limited to, failure to take prescribed medication or failure to attend required counseling sessions; and
(e) Pathological gambling, the associated behaviors of which may include unsuccessful attempts to stop gambling; gambling for increasingly higher stakes, usually in an attempt to cover losses; concealing gambling losses; borrowing or stealing money to fund gambling or pay gambling debts; and family conflict resulting from gambling.
29.
(a) The identified condition is readily controllable with treatment, and the individual has demonstrated ongoing and consistent compliance with the treatment plan;
(b) The individual has voluntarily entered a counseling or treatment program for a condition that is amenable to treatment, and the individual is currently receiving counseling or treatment with a favorable prognosis by a duly qualified mental health professional;
(c) Recent opinion by a duly qualified mental health professional employed by, or acceptable to and approved by, the U.S. Government that an individual's previous condition is under control or in remission, and has a low probability of recurrence or exacerbation;
(d) The past psychological/psychiatric condition was temporary, the situation has been resolved, and the individual no longer shows indications of emotional instability;
(e) There is no indication of a current problem.
30.
31.
(a) A pattern of minor offenses, any one of which on its own would be unlikely to affect a national security eligibility decision, but which in combination cast doubt on the individual's judgment, reliability, or trustworthiness;
(b) Evidence (including, but not limited to, a credible allegation, an admission, and matters of official record) of criminal conduct, regardless of whether the individual was formally charged, prosecuted, or convicted;
(c) Individual is currently on parole or probation;
(d) Violation or revocation of parole or probation, or failure to complete a court-mandated rehabilitation program; and
(e) Discharge or dismissal from the Armed Forces for reasons less than “Honorable.”
32.
(a) So much time has elapsed since the criminal behavior happened, or it happened under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual was pressured or coerced into committing the act and those pressures are no longer present in the person's life;
(c) No reliable evidence to support that the individual committed the offense; and
(d) There is evidence of successful rehabilitation; including, but not limited to, the passage of time without recurrence of criminal activity, restitution, compliance with the terms of parole or probation, job training or higher education, good employment record, or constructive community involvement.
33.
34.
(a) Deliberate or negligent disclosure of protected information to unauthorized persons, including, but not limited to, personal or business contacts, the media, or persons present at seminars, meetings, or conferences;
(b) Collecting or storing protected information in any unauthorized location;
(c) Loading, drafting, editing, modifying, storing, transmitting, or otherwise handling protected information, including images, on any unauthorized equipment or medium;
(d) Inappropriate efforts to obtain or view protected information outside one's need to know;
(e) Copying or modifying protected information in an unauthorized manner designed to conceal or remove classification or other document control markings;
(f) Viewing or downloading information from a secure system when the information is beyond the individual's need-to-know;
(g) Any failure to comply with rules for the protection of classified or sensitive information;
(h) Negligence or lax security practices that persist despite counseling by management; and
(i) Failure to comply with rules or regulations that results in damage to the national security, regardless of whether it was deliberate or negligent.
35.
(a) So much time has elapsed since the behavior, or it has happened so infrequently or under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's current reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The individual responded favorably to counseling or remedial security training and now demonstrates a positive attitude toward the discharge of security responsibilities;
(c) The security violations were due to improper or inadequate training or unclear instructions; and
(d) The violation was inadvertent, it was promptly reported, there is no evidence of compromise, and it does not suggest a pattern.
36.
37.
(a) Any employment or service, whether compensated or volunteer, with:
(1) The government of a foreign country;
(2) Any foreign national, organization, or other entity;
(3) A representative of any foreign interest; and
(4) Any foreign, domestic, or international organization or person engaged in analysis, discussion, or publication of material on intelligence, defense, foreign affairs, or protected technology; and
(b) Failure to report or fully disclose an outside activity when this is required.
38.
(a) Evaluation of the outside employment or activity by the appropriate security or counterintelligence office indicates that it does not pose a conflict with an individual's security responsibilities or with the national security interests of the United States; and
(b) The individual terminated the employment or discontinued the activity upon being notified that it was in conflict with his or her security responsibilities.
39.
40.
(a) Unauthorized entry into any information technology system;
(b) Unauthorized modification, destruction, or manipulation of, or denial of access to, an information technology system or any data in such a system;
(c) Use of any information technology system to gain unauthorized access to another system or to a compartmented area within the same system;
(d) Downloading, storing, or transmitting classified, sensitive, proprietary, or other protected information on or to any unauthorized information technology system;
(e) Unauthorized use of any information technology system;
(f) Introduction, removal, or duplication of hardware, firmware, software, or media to or from any information technology system when prohibited by rules, procedures, guidelines, or regulations or when otherwise not authorized;
(g) Negligence or lax security practices in handling information technology that persists despite counseling by management; and
(h) Any misuse of information technology, whether deliberate or negligent, that results in damage to the national security.
41.
(a) So much time has elapsed since the behavior happened, or it happened under such unusual circumstances, that it is unlikely to recur and does not cast doubt on the individual's reliability, trustworthiness, or good judgment;
(b) The misuse was minor and done solely in the interest of organizational efficiency and effectiveness;
(c) The conduct was unintentional or inadvertent and was followed by a prompt, good-faith effort to correct the situation and by notification to appropriate personnel; and
(d) The misuse was due to improper or inadequate training or unclear instructions.
On January 28, 2008, Congress amended the IRTPA of 2004, adding statutory restrictions on certain eligibility determinations and establishing waiver and congressional reporting requirements. These modifications are collectively referred to as the “Bond Amendments” and were made effective on January 1, 2008.
1.
(a) An “addict” is any individual who habitually uses any narcotic drug so as to endanger the public morals, health, safety, or welfare; or is so far addicted to the use of narcotic drugs as to have lost the power of self-control with reference to his addiction.
(b) A “controlled substance” means any “controlled substance” as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.
2.
(a) Has been convicted in any court of the U.S. of a crime, was sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, and was incarcerated as a result of that sentence for not less than one year;
(b) Has been discharged or dismissed from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions; or
(c) Is determined to be mentally incompetent; an individual is “mentally incompetent” when he or she has been declared mentally incompetent as determined by competency proceedings conducted in a court or administrative agency with proper jurisdiction.
3. W
(a) Meritorious waivers will be considered an “Exception” to the adjudicative guidelines and will be annotated as a “Waiver” in the adjudicative decision recorded in the appropriate databases listed in paragraph E.5 of this appendix. Adjudicators will provide a detailed justification for the meritorious waiver in the final adjudicative report.
(b) If, after applying the appropriate mitigating factors listed in these adjudicative guidelines, a meritorious waiver is not appropriate, the SCI, SAP, or RD access will be denied or revoked with a written explanation that cites the adjudicative guidelines applied and the Bond Amendment disqualifier. The authorized adjudicative agency's established administrative review procedures shall be followed in all such cases.
(c) Each authorized adjudicative agency shall maintain a record of the number and type of meritorious waivers granted, to include the rationale for each waiver, and shall report this data annually to the SecEA in advance of the annual report to Congress. Authorized adjudicative agencies will also maintain a record of all disqualifications, broken down by type, due to Bond Amendment requirements.
4. Authorized adjudicative agencies often have no ability to predict whether the covered individual for whom national security eligibility determinations are being made will also require access to SCI, SAP, or RD. Accordingly, the guidance in paragraphs 4(a) and (b) applies to all national security adjudicative determinations:
(a) All adjudicators will determine whether any of the Bond Amendment disqualifiers in paragraphs 2(a) through (c) of this annex B apply to the case being adjudicated.
(b) If a disqualifier exists, adjudicators shall annotate that fact in one of the databases identified in paragraph E.5 of this annex B to ensure that any subsequent requests for access to SCI, SAP, or RD for the individual will undergo appropriate re-adjudication and waiver procedures in meritorious cases.
Exceptions are an adjudicative decision to grant initial or continued eligibility for access to classified information or to hold a sensitive position despite failure to meet the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective December 4, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of December 4, 2017.
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide for the safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective December 4, 2017. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the Federal Register as of December 4, 2017.
Availability of matter incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001;
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 or,
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center online at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420) Flight Technologies and Procedures Division, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) by amending the referenced SIAPs. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP is listed on the appropriate FAA Form 8260, as modified by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC)/Permanent Notice to Airmen (P-NOTAM), and is incorporated by reference under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR 97.20. The large number of SIAPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make their verbatim publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as amended in the transmittal. For safety and timeliness of change considerations, this amendment incorporates only specific changes contained for each SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP as modified by FDC permanent NOTAMs.
The SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, as modified by FDC permanent NOTAM, and contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these changes to SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied only to specific conditions existing at the affected airports. All SIAP amendments in this rule have been previously issued by the FAA in a FDC NOTAM as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for these SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments require making them effective in less than 30 days.
Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making these SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97, (14 CFR part 97), is amended by amending Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
By amending: § 97.23 VOR, VOR/DME, VOR or TACAN, and VOR/DME or TACAN; § 97.25 LOC, LOC/DME, LDA, LDA/DME, SDF, SDF/DME; § 97.27 NDB, NDB/DME; § 97.29 ILS, ILS/DME, MLS, MLS/DME, MLS/RNAV; § 97.31 RADAR SIAPs; § 97.33 RNAV SIAPs; and § 97.35 COPTER SIAPs, Identified as follows:
Consumer Product Safety Commission.
Direct final rule.
Section 106 of the Consumer Product Safety Improvement Act (CPSIA) made ASTM F963-07ε1,
The rule is effective on February 28, 2018, unless we receive significant adverse comment by January 3, 2018. If we receive timely significant adverse comment, we will publish notification in the
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CPSC-2017-0010, by any of the following methods:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
Submit written submissions in the following way:
For information related to the toy standard, contact: Carolyn T. Manley, Lead Compliance Officer, Office of Compliance and Field Operations, Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814-4408; telephone: 301-504-7607; email:
ASTM F963-17 contains various grammatical corrections, editorial corrections, and substantive changes to provisions concerning projectiles and sound-producing toys. The 2017 revision was published less than 1 year after ASTM F963-16 to correct some of the drafting errors found in ASTM F963-16. In particular, ASTM notified CPSC staff of negative consequences of a 2016 drafting error. In response, CPSC used enforcement discretion in March 2017, regarding testing and certification requirements in one section of ASTM F963-16 that concerned low-energy projectiles with stored energy.
The changes from ASTM F963-16 to ASTM F963-17 are summarized below:
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•
•
•
•
•
•
•
The majority of the editorial revisions changed the word “must” to “shall,” which brings the revised standard in line with ASTM's current preferred language. In addition, new reference documents, references to tables/figures, and other editorial corrections were completed to fix known grammatical errors and incorrect references in the ASTM F963-16 version.
Two changes were substantive in nature. The first change, relating to requirements for projectile toys (Section 4.21), was a clarification that will neither increase, nor decrease, safety. The Commission had anticipated this change. However, the second change, relating to sound-producing toys, is substantive and reduces safety. This item was not balloted and was not reviewed by CPSC staff before ASTM published ASTM F963-17. ASTM added a sentence to the sound-producing toys test method in Section 8.20.1.5 (5) of ASTM F963-17 that functionally exempts push/pull toys from the A-weighted maximum sound pressure level (L
The additional text added in ASTM F963-17 is a substantial change that reduces safety, because the additional text in Section 8.20.1.5 (5) provides an exemption for push/pull toys to the L
Because addition of the text in Section 8.20.1.5(5) of ASTM F 963-17 would not improve the safety of toys, the Commission determined that this provision should not be allowed to become part of CPSC's mandatory toy standard. The other changes are either editorial non-substantive changes that will not affect safety, or they are substantive changes that will improve safety. Thus, the Commission accepts all changes in ASTM F963-17, with the exception of the addition of text in Section 8.20.1.5 (5) because it reduces safety.
Although ASTM F963-17 is mandatory by operation of statute, the Commission has incorporated by reference ASTM F963 in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) to indicate that ASTM F963 is a CPSC mandatory standard.
The Office of the Federal Register (OFR) has regulations concerning incorporation by reference. 1 CFR part 51. Under these regulations, agencies must discuss, in the preamble to the final rule, ways that the materials the agency incorporates by reference are reasonably available to interested persons and how interested parties can obtain the materials. In addition, the preamble to the final rule must summarize the material. 1 CFR 51.5(b).
In accordance with the OFR's requirements, section B of this preamble summarizes the ASTM F963-17 standard that the Commission incorporates by reference into 16 CFR part 1250. The standard is reasonably available to interested parties, and interested parties may purchase a copy of the standard from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959 USA; phone: 610-832-9585;
Section 14(a) of the CPSA imposes the requirement that products subject to a consumer product safety rule under the CPSA, or to a similar rule, ban, standard, or regulation under any other act enforced by the Commission, be certified as complying with all applicable CPSC requirements. 15 U.S.C. 2063(a). Such certification must be based on a test of each product, or on a reasonable testing program or, for children's products, on tests on a sufficient number of samples by a third party conformity assessment body accredited by the Commission to test according to the applicable requirements. As noted in the preceding discussion, standards issued under section 106(f)(1)(B) are “consumer product safety standards.” Thus, they are subject to the testing and certification requirements of section 14 of the CPSA.
Because toys are children's products, samples of these products must be tested by a third party conformity assessment body whose accreditation has been accepted by the Commission. These products also must comply with all other applicable CPSC requirements, such as the lead content requirements of section 101 of the CPSIA, the phthalates prohibitions of section 106 of the CPSIA, and the tracking label requirement in section 14(a)(5) of the CPSA.
In accordance with section 14(a)(3)(B)(vi) of the CPSA, the Commission has previously published three NORs for accreditation of third party conformity assessment bodies for testing toys (76 FR 46598 (Aug. 3, 2011), 78 FR 15836 (March 12, 2013), and 82 FR 8989 (February 2, 2017)). The last NOR provided the criteria and process for our acceptance of accreditation of third party conformity assessment bodies for testing toys to ASTM F963-16. The NOR for ASTM F963-16 is listed in the Commission's rule, “Requirements Pertaining to Third Party Conformity Assessment Bodies.” 16 CFR part 1112.
The previous NOR for the toy safety standard included 37 sections from ASTM F963-16 that required third party testing.
Certain provisions of ASTM F963-17 do not require third party testing as was the case in the previous NORs issued for ASTM F963. The ASTM F963-17 provisions that do not require third party testing are in the following areas:
• Any provision of ASTM F963 that section 106 of the CPSIA excepted from being a mandatory consumer product safety standards issued by the Commission. The CPSIA also excepted from ASTM F963, any provision that restates or incorporates an existing mandatory standard or ban promulgated by the Commission or by statute. In addition, the CPSIA excepted provisions from ASTM F963 that restate or incorporate a regulation promulgated by the Food and Drug Administration or any statute administered by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Section 4, Public Law 112-28, Aug 12, 2011.
• Those sections of ASTM F963-17 that pertain to the manufacturing process and, thus, cannot be evaluated meaningfully by a test of the finished product (
• Those provisions of ASTM F963-17 with requirements for labeling, instructional literature, or producer's markings.
• Those provision in ASTM F963-17 that sets a limit for a DI (2-ethylhexyl) phthalate in pacifiers, rattles, and teethers. This section is excepted from third party testing because section 108 of the CPSIA sets limits for this and other phthalates that are more stringent than this requirement in ASTM F963-17.
This latest revision of the toy safety standard, ASTM F963-17, had a much shorter period between revisions than is typical. In the earlier revisions, the transition period for CPSC acceptance of laboratory accreditation and the certification effective dates allowed adequate time for laboratories to update their accreditations to the latest standard. The revisions in earlier versions of the standard typically included several substantive changes in test requirements and testing methods. This is not the case when comparing ASTM F963-17 to ASTM F963-16. In response to the directions in the ASTM F963-16 NOR, testing laboratories began working with their accreditation bodies to update their scope of accreditation to include references to ASTM F963-16.
Since issuance of the ASTM F963-16 NOR, the CPSC has accepted applications from more than 100 testing laboratories for sections in ASTM F963-16 and posted the information for each laboratory on the CPSC Web site. However, there are still more than 100 CPSC-accepted laboratories that are listed only for ASTM F963-11 and have not yet updated their accreditation scope to include ASTM F963-16. Many of these laboratories may be in the process of updating their accreditation scope to ASTM F963-16. Other laboratories may be waiting on Commission action regarding adoption of ASTM F963-17 and the NOR for ASTM F963-17.
To address the transition just described, the Commission is permitting acceptance of testing that supports ASTM F963-17 certification, and acceptance of laboratory accreditation that take into account testing laboratories that are already CPSC-accepted for testing to relevant sections in ASTM F963-16, ASTM F963-11, and ASTM F963-07
The CPSC's online laboratory application and Web site listing for testing laboratories that have been CPSC-accepted to sections in ASTM F963-16 will be modified to show CPSC-acceptance to “ASTM F963-16/ASTM F963-17.” For example, CPSC-accepted laboratories currently listed on the CPSC Web site for:
For laboratories that are accredited to ASTM F963-11 and that have not yet updated their scope to later versions, they may elect scope revisions to reflect ASTM F963-16 or ASTM F963-17, or both. When these laboratories apply to the CPSC, the CPSC will accept references to either the -16 or -17 version, and the lab will be listed on the CPSC Web site for “4.x (ASTM F963-16/ASTM F963-17).”
This will provide an equitable approach for all the third party laboratories that applied and were CPSC-accepted for sections in ASTM F963-16 and for testing laboratories that are currently working with their accreditation bodies to update the ASTM F963 references in their accreditation scope. In addition, this will allow laboratories that are CPSC-
The NOR for ASTM F963-16 that was issued on February 2, 2017 (82 FR 8989), provided a transition period for CPSC-accepted labs to support certification testing to ASTM F963-16. During the transition period, CPSC will accept ASTM F963-16 testing results by test laboratories that are CPSC-accepted to ASTM F963-11 sections, or ASTM F963-07
The CPSC will open the application process for all sections of ASTM F963-17 when this direct final rule is published in the
The Commission is issuing this rule as a direct final rule. Although the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) generally requires notice and comment rulemaking, section 553 of the APA provides an exception when the agency, for good cause, finds that notice and public procedure are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” The Commission concludes that notice and comment is unnecessary because ASTM F963 automatically becomes a consumer product safety standard by operation of law. The Commission has voted to allow ASTM F963-17 to become the mandatory CPSC standard. Even without the incorporation by reference, ASTM F963-17, except for Section 8.20.1.5 (5) and provisions the CPSIA excluded, will take effect as the new mandatory CPSC standard pursuant to section 106(g) of the CPSIA. This rule amends 16 CFR part 1250 to reflect the standard that CPSC has allowed under section 106(g) of the CPSIA. Because this document merely incorporates by reference a standard that takes effect by operation of statute, public comment could not affect the changes to the standard or the effect of the revised standard as a consumer product safety standard under section 106(g) of the CPSIA. The rule also updates the corresponding provisions of the NOR for ASTM F963 in part 1112 to reflect the revision to the standard. The amendment to part 1112 does not establish substantive requirements, but updates the criteria and process for CPSC's acceptance of accreditation of third party conformity assessment bodies for testing toys under the revised ASTM F963 standard. Therefore, the Commission concludes that public comment is not necessary.
The Commission believes that issuing a direct final rule in these circumstances is appropriate. In Recommendation 95-4, the Administrative Conference of the United States (ACUS) endorsed direct final rulemaking as an appropriate procedure to expedite promulgation of rules that are noncontroversial and that are not expected to generate significant adverse comment.
Unless we receive a significant adverse comment within 30 days, the rule will become effective on February 28, 2018. In accordance with ACUS's recommendation, the Commission considers a significant adverse comment to be one where the commenter explains why the rule revising the incorporation by reference would be inappropriate. We note that comments on the underlying substantive provisions of ASTM F963-17 are not considered significant adverse comments because those provisions are mandatory by operation of the statute, and therefore, the Commission cannot change them in response to comments. The Commission could only make changes to the way the incorporation by reference appears in the CFR.
Should the Commission receive significant adverse comment, the Commission would withdraw this direct final rule. Depending on the comments and other circumstances, the Commission may then incorporate the adverse comment into a subsequent direct final rule or publish a notice of proposed rulemaking, providing an opportunity for public comment.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) generally requires that agencies review proposed and final rules for their potential economic impact on small entities, including small businesses, and prepare regulatory flexibility analyses. 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604. The RFA applies to any rule that is subject to notice and comment procedures under section 553 of the APA. 5 U.S.C. 603 and 604. As explained above, the Commission has determined that notice and comment is not necessary for this direct final rule. We also note the limited nature of this document. The incorporation by reference of ASTM F963-17 and the update to the notice of requirements in part 1112 will not result in any substantive changes to the standard. Thus, the rule does not create new substantive obligations for any entity, including any small entity. Rather, with this action, the CFR will reflect the mandatory CPSC standard that takes effect under the CPSIA and will update the corresponding NOR provisions in 16 CFR part 1112.
The toy standard contains information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). OMB has approved the collection of information for ASTM F963 under OMB Control No. 3041-0159.
The Commission's regulations provide a categorical exclusion for the Commission's rules from any requirement to prepare an environmental assessment or an environmental impact statement because they “have little or no potential for affecting the human environment.” 16 CFR 1021.5(c)(2). This rule falls within the categorical exclusion, so no environmental assessment or environmental impact statement is required.
Section 26(a) of the CPSA, 15 U.S.C. 2075(a), provides that where a “consumer product safety standard under [the CPSA)]” is in effect and applies to a product, no state or political subdivision of a state may either establish or continue in effect a requirement dealing with the same risk of injury, unless the state requirement is identical to the federal standard. Section 26(c) of the CPSA also provides that states or political subdivisions of states may apply to the Commission for an exemption from this preemption under certain circumstances.
Section 106(f) of the CPSIA states that rules issued under that section “shall be considered consumer product safety standards issued by the Commission under section of the Consumer Product Safety Act” thus, implying that the preemptive effect of section 26(a) of the CPSA would apply. Therefore, a rule issued under section 106 of the CPSIA will invoke the preemptive effect of section 26(a) of the CPSA when it becomes effective.
Under the procedure set forth in section 106(g) of the CPSIA, when ASTM revises ASTM F963, the revision becomes the CPSC standard within 180 days of notification to the Commission, unless the Commission determines that the revision does not improve the safety of the product. In accordance with this provision, this rule establishes an effective date that is 180 days after we received notification from ASTM of revisions to the standard. As discussed in section F of this preamble, this is a direct final rule. Unless we receive a significant adverse comment within 30 days, the rule will become effective on February 28, 2018. Additionally, the effective date for the NOR is February 28, 2018, the same date that the provisions of ASTM F963-17 become effective.
Administrative practice and procedure, Audit, Consumer protection, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Third party conformity assessment body.
Consumer protection, Imports, Incorporation by reference, Infants and children, Law enforcement, Safety, Toys.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Commission amends 16 CFR chapter II, as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2063; Pub. L. 110-314, section 3, 122 Stat. 3016, 3017 (2008).
The revisions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(32) 16 CFR part 1250, safety standard for toys. The CPSC only requires certain provisions of ASTM F963-17 to be subject to third party testing; and therefore, the CPSC only accepts the accreditation of third party conformity assessment bodies for testing under the following toy safety standards:
(ii) ASTM F963-17:
(c) * * *
(1) * * *
(ii) ASTM F963-17, “Standard Consumer Safety Specification for Toy Safety,” May 1, 2017.
Pub. L. 110-314, sec. 106, 122 Stat. 3016 (August 14, 2008); Pub. L. 112-28, 125 Stat. 273 (August 12, 2011).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Except as provided for in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, toys must comply with the provisions of ASTM F963-17, Standard Consumer Safety Specification for Toy Safety, approved May 1, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves the incorporation by reference listed in this section in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. You may obtain a copy of this ASTM standard from ASTM International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959 USA; phone: 610-832-9585;
(c) Instead of complying with section 8.20.1.5(5) of ASTM F963-17, comply with the following:
(1) Floor and tabletop toys that move, where the sound is caused as a result of the movement imparted on the toy (for example, a noise making mechanism attached to an axle of a toy vehicle) shall be tested using the method for push and pull toys. In addition to the C-weighted peak measurement maximum A-weighted sound pressure level,
(2) [Reserved]
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve a revision to the Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District (SMAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). This revision concerns volatile organic compound (VOC) emissions from Organic Chemical Manufacturing Operations. We are proposing to simultaneously approve a local rule and a rule rescission to regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
This rule is effective on January 3, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0740. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Arnold Lazarus, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3024,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On January 15, 2016 (81 FR 2136) the EPA proposed to partially approve and partially disapprove SMAQMD's SIP revision to address Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) requirements for the 1997 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based in part on our conclusion that the submittal did not satisfy the CAA section 182 requirements for RACT pertaining to pharmaceutical manufacturing operations. On August 12, 2016 we finalized our partial approval and partial disapproval and stated that sanctions would be imposed under CAA section 179 and 40 CFR 52.31 unless the EPA approved SIP revisions correcting this deficiency within 18 months of the effective date of our final rulemaking action.
On April 28, 2106 the SMAQMD repealed Rule 455, Pharmaceutical Manufacturing, and amended Rule 464, Organic Chemical Manufacturing Operations, to address the VOC RACT deficiencies. On August 22, 2016 the California Air Resources Board submitted these rules to the EPA for SIP approval and the EPA proposed to approve them into the California SIP on July 19, 2017 (82 FR 33030). Table 1 below summarizes the submittal timeline.
We proposed to approve these revisions because we determined that they correct the identified RACT deficiencies for the pharmaceuticals manufacturing category and comply with the relevant CAA requirements. Our proposed action contains more information on the rule and our evaluation.
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. During this period, we received no comments.
No comments were submitted. Therefore, as authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving Rule 464 and rescinding Rule 455. Please see the docket for a copy of the complete submitted documents. Final approval satisfies California's obligation, under CAA section 182 for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS, to implement RACT in the SMAQMD for the following control techniques guidelines VOC categories:
a. “Control of Volatile Organic Compound Emissions from Reactor Processes and Distillation Operations Processes in the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturing Industry,” EPA-450/4-91-031, August 1993.
b. “Control of Volatile Organic Compound Emissions from Manufacture of Synthesized Pharmaceutical Products,” EPA-450/2-78-029, December 1978.
Our August 12, 2016 partial disapproval of SMAQMD's RACT SIP demonstration for the 1997 NAAQS also stated that a SIP submittal in the form of a rule or permit provision was required to implement VOC RACT for the Kiefer Landfill, a major VOC source. We are taking a separate action elsewhere in today's
In this rule the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the SMAQMD rules described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866.
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by February 2, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52, Chapter I, Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(154) * * *
(iii) * * *
(D) Rule 455, previously approved on January 24, 1985 in paragraph (c)(154)(iii)(B) of this section, is deleted with replacement in (c)(488)(i)(C)(
(488) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District.
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of action denying petitions for reconsideration.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is providing notice of its denials of petitions for reconsideration of rules addressing regional haze planning requirements for the States of Michigan and Minnesota. Specifically, on November 26, 2013, the United States Steel Corporation (U.S. Steel) petitioned EPA to reconsider and stay the final rulemaking captioned “Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; States of Minnesota and Michigan; Regional Haze State Implementation Plan; Federal Implementation Plan for Regional Haze” published on February 6, 2013, as well as the final rulemaking captioned “Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; States of Michigan and Minnesota; Regional Haze,” published on September 30, 2013. Further, on June 13, 2016, U.S. Steel petitioned EPA to reconsider and stay the final rulemaking captioned “Air Plan Approval; Minnesota and Michigan; Revision to 2013 Taconite Federal Implementation Plan Establishing BART for Taconite Plants,” published on April 12, 2016. EPA has denied the petitions by final action signed January 18, 2017, for reasons that EPA explains in the document denying U.S. Steel's petitions.
December 4, 2017.
EPA has established dockets for these actions under EPA-R05-OAR-2017-0066 for the Petition to Reconsider the Original 2013 Taconite FIP and EPA-R05-OAR-2017-0067 for the Petition to Reconsider the 2016 Revisions to the Taconite FIP. These dockets include the petitions for reconsideration, EPA's response, and other related documents. All documents are listed on the
Steven Rosenthal, Environmental Engineer, Air Planning and Maintenance Section, at 312-886-6052,
Section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act indicates which Federal Courts of Appeal have venue for petitions for review of final actions by EPA. This action pertains to facilities in Minnesota and is not based on a determination of nationwide scope or effect. Thus, under section 307(b)(1), any petitions for review of EPA's action denying the U.S. Steel petition for reconsideration must be filed in the Court of Appeals for the Eighth Circuit on or before February 2, 2018.
This document was received for publication by the Office of the Federal Register on November 28, 2017.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a source-specific revision to the New York state implementation plan (SIP) that establishes Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) emission limits for the Danskammer Generating Station (“Danskammer”) Unit 4, owned and operated by Danskammer Energy LLC. The SIP revision establishes BART emission limits for sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, and particulate matter that are identical to the emission limits established by the EPA's federal implementation plan (FIP) for Danskammer Unit 4, which was published on August 28, 2012. The EPA finds that the SIP revision fulfills the requirements of the Clean Air Act and the EPA's Regional Haze Rule for BART at Danskammer Unit 4. In conjunction with this approval, we are withdrawing those portions of the FIP that address BART for Danskammer Unit 4.
This rule is effective on January 3, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R02-OAR-2017-0013. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Edward J. Linky, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Programs Branch, 290 Broadway, New York, New York 10007-1866 at 212-637-3764 or by email at
Throughout this document, “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to the EPA.
The EPA is approving a source-specific SIP revision for Danskammer Unit 4 (the “Danskammer SIP Revision”) that was submitted by the New York State Department of Environmental Conservation (NYSDEC) on August 10, 2015, and supplemented on August 5, 2016. Specifically, the EPA is approving BART emission limits for sulfur dioxide (SO
In its submittal, NYSDEC included the following BART emission limits for Danskammer Unit 4: 0.12 pounds of NO
EarthJustice (EJ) submitted the following comments on behalf of the National Parks Conservation Association (NPCA) and Sierra Club.
The EPA has evaluated the Danskammer SIP Revision and is determining that it meets the requirements of the CAA and the Regional Haze Rule. Therefore, the EPA is approving the BART emission limits and related administrative requirements (
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with the requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of a single-source SIP revision, dated August 10, 2015, and supplemented on August 5, 2016, from NYSDEC for Danskammer Unit 4 (Facility DEC ID 3334600011), including Title V permit conditions (permit ID 3-3346-00011/00017) with Best Available Retrofit Technology (BART) emission limits for NO
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is exempt from review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) because it will result in the approval of a SIP submitted by the New York State Department of Environmental Conservation for Danskammer Generation Station Unit No. 4. Approval of SIPs falls within a category of Actions that is exempted from review by OMB. It was therefore not submitted to OMB for review.
This action is not an Executive Order 13771 regulatory action because this action falls within the category of Actions that OMB has exempted from review. This action specifically is an Approval of a State Implementation Plan (SIP).
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA).
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This rule does not impose any requirements or create impacts on small entities as no small entities are subject to the requirements of this rule.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate of $100 million or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Because this final rule has identical BART emission limits and related administrative requirements (
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175. It will not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rule.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards. Therefore, the EPA is not considering the use of any voluntary consensus standards.
The EPA believes that this action does not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority populations, low-income populations and/or indigenous peoples, as specified in Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994). As explained previously, this action provides identical BART emission limits and related administrative requirements (
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by February 2, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(d) * * *
The revision reads as follows:
(a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve a revision to the Sacramento Metropolitan Air Quality Management District (SMAQMD) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). This revision concerns emissions of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from landfill gas flaring at the Kiefer Landfill in Sacramento, California. We are approving portions of two SMAQMD operating permits that limit VOC emissions from this facility under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
This rule will be effective on January 3, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-OAR-2017-0196. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Stanley Tong, EPA Region IX, (415) 947-4122,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On January 15, 2016 (81 FR 2136) the EPA proposed to partially approve and partially disapprove SMAQMD's SIP revision to address Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT) requirements for the 1997 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based in part on our conclusion that the submittal did not satisfy the CAA section 182 requirements for major source VOC RACT from landfill gas flaring operations at the Kiefer Landfill. On August 12, 2016 we finalized our partial approval and partial disapproval and stated that sanctions would be imposed under CAA section 179 and 40 CFR 52.31 unless the EPA approved SIP revisions correcting this deficiency within 18 months of the effective date of our final rulemaking action.
On July 28, 2016 the SMAQMD adopted portions of two operating permits (Operating Permit 24360—issued March 24, 2016 and reissued April 14, 2016; and Operating Permit 24361—issued March 24, 2016 and reissued April 14, 2016) to address the VOC RACT deficiency. On January 24, 2017 the California Air Resources Board (CARB) submitted these operating permits to the EPA for SIP approval and the EPA proposed to approve them into the California SIP on July 19, 2017 (82 FR 33032). Specifically, we proposed to approve permit conditions 2, 8, 13, 14, 16, 17, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 37, 39 and 40 (or portions thereof) and Attachment A from SMAQMD Operating Permit Nos. 24360 and 24361. We proposed to approve these portions of the operating permits into the SIP because we determined that they complied with the relevant CAA requirements. Our proposed action contains more information on these operating permits and our evaluation.
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. During this period, we received no comments.
No comments were submitted. Therefore, as authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving the submitted portions of the operating permits into the California SIP. Specifically, we are approving permit conditions 2, 8, 13, 14, 16, 17, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 37, 39 and 40 (or portions thereof) and Attachment A from SMAQMD Operating Permit Nos. 24360 and 24361, which together establish enforceable VOC limitations that satisfy RACT for the landfill gas flares at the Kiefer Landfill. Please see the docket for a copy of the complete submitted documents.
Final approval satisfies California's obligation, under CAA section 182 for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS, to implement RACT for the landfill gas flares at the Kiefer Landfill. Our August 12, 2016 partial disapproval of SMAQMD's RACT SIP demonstration for the 1997 NAAQS also stated that amendments to SMAQMD's pharmaceuticals manufacturing rule
In this rule the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the SMAQMD operating permits described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, these documents available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866.
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by February 2, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52, Chapter I, Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(497) New and/or amended regulations for the following AQMDs were submitted on January 24, 2017 by the Governor's designee.
(i)
(
(
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
Whenever a new or revised National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) is promulgated, each state must submit a plan for the implementation, maintenance and enforcement of such standard—commonly referred to as infrastructure requirements. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) finds that the Idaho State Implementation Plan (SIP) meets the infrastructure requirements for the 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
This final rule is effective January 3, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2015-0856. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Matthew Jentgen, Air Planning Unit, Office of Air and Waste (OAW-150), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 10, 1200 Sixth Ave., Suite 900, Seattle, WA 98101; telephone number: (206) 553-0340; email address:
On December 23, 2015, Idaho submitted a certification that the Idaho SIP meets the infrastructure requirements of Clean Air Act (CAA) sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 2012 PM
The EPA finds that the Idaho SIP meets the following CAA section 110(a)(2) infrastructure elements for the 2012 PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by February 2, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The revision and addition read as follows:
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is finalizing action on a revision to the Bay Area Air Quality Management District (BAAQMD or District) portion of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). We are finalizing a conditional approval of one rule. This revision consists of updates to provisions governing the issuance and banking of Emission Reduction Credits for use in the review and permitting of major sources and major modifications under part D of title I of the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This rule will be effective on January 3, 2018.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket No. EPA-R09-OAR-2017-0130. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Laura Yannayon, EPA Region 9, (415) 972-3534,
Throughout this document, the terms “we,” “us,” and “our” refer to EPA.
On September 14, 2017 (82 FR 43202), the EPA proposed a conditional approval of the following rule that was submitted for incorporation into the BAAQMD portion of the California SIP.
We proposed a conditional approval of Regulation 2, Rule 4 because we determined that, separate from the deficiencies listed in Section II.B of our proposed rulemaking action, the rule: ensures that issued ERCs will meet the criteria laid out in 40 CFR 51.165(a)(3)(ii)(C)(
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. During this period, we received no comments.
No comments were submitted. Therefore, as authorized in sections 110(k)(4) and 301(a) of the Act, the EPA is finalizing conditional approval of Regulation 2, Rule 4 into the BAAQMD portion of the California SIP. If the State meets its commitment to submit the required measures, the revisions to Rule 2-4 will remain a part of the SIP until EPA takes final action approving or disapproving the new SIP revisions. However, if the State fails to submit these revisions within the required timeframe, the conditional approval will automatically become a disapproval, and EPA will issue a finding of disapproval. EPA is not required to propose the finding of disapproval.
There are no sanctions or Federal Implementation Plan (FIP) implications should the conditional approval become a disapproval. Sanctions would not be imposed under CAA section 179(b) because the submittal of Rule 2-4 is discretionary (
In addition, because we are finalizing our proposed action, we are removing existing Regulation 2, Rule 4 from the BAAQMD portion of the California SIP.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of BAAQMD Regulation 2, Rule 4 (Permits, Emissions Banking), as described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will continue to make, this document generally available electronically through
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
This action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA because this action does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities beyond those imposed by state law.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. This action does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. Accordingly, no additional costs to State, local, or tribal governments, or to the private sector, will result from this action.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications, as specified in Executive Order 13175, because the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction, and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
Section 12(d) of the NTTAA directs the EPA to use voluntary consensus standards in its regulatory activities unless to do so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. The EPA believes that this action is not subject to the requirements of section 12(d) of the NTTAA because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA.
The EPA lacks the discretionary authority to address environmental justice in this rulemaking.
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by February 2, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this rule for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, New Source Review, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Part 52, chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(199) * * *
(i) * * *
(A) * * *
(
(429) * * *
(i) * * *
(E) * * *
(
(c) The EPA is conditionally approving a California State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted on April 22, 2013, updating Regulation 2—Permits, Rule 4—Emissions Banking. The conditional approval is based on a commitment from the State to submit a SIP revision that will correct the identified deficiencies in this rule. If the State fails to meet its commitment by November 1, 2018, the conditional approval is treated as a disapproval.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes a temporary exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of the
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0113, is available at
Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 174 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a(g), any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0113 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0113, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
EPA is establishing a temporary exemption that varies slightly from the request, as explained in Unit III.C.
Section 408(r) of FFDCA authorizes EPA to establish a temporary exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues covered by an experimental use permit issued under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act. That section states that the provisions of section 408(c)(2) of FFDCA apply to exemptions issued under FFDCA section 408(r). Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the exemption is “safe.” Section 408(c)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings but does not include occupational exposure. Pursuant to FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), in establishing or maintaining in effect an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance, EPA must take into account the factors set forth in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(C), which require EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance or tolerance exemption and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .” Additionally, FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D) requires that EPA consider “available information concerning the cumulative effects of [a particular pesticide's] . . . residues and other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”
EPA evaluated the available toxicity and exposure data on
There is likely to be exposure to Cry14Ab-1 through consumption of soybean plants containing the pesticide, and there is potential for exposure in drinking water. There is unlikely to be residential or non-occupational exposure due to incorporation within the plant and the lack of availability at this time of the plant for residential uses.
Although FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(C) provides for an additional tenfold margin of safety for infants and children in the case of threshold effects, EPA has determined that there are no such
Based upon its evaluation, EPA concludes that there is reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the U.S. population, including infants and children, from aggregate exposure to residues of the Cry14Ab-1 protein in or on soybean. This includes all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information. The Agency has arrived at this conclusion based on the lack of toxicity and allergenicity for the
An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes because EPA is establishing a temporary exemption from the requirement of a tolerance without any numerical limitation for which enforcement is unnecessary.
EPA's final rule revises the request from “plant-pesticide” to “plant-incorporated protectant” to align with the Agency's language published in 40 CFR 174.3; adds the term “temporary” to reflect that this exemption is linked to the pending experimental use permit action, and is published in part 174 rather than part 180, since PIP tolerance exemptions are published in part 174.
This action establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to EPA. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance exemption in this action, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes. As a result, this action does not alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, EPA has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, EPA has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require EPA's consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 136-136y; 21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
Residues of the protein Cry14Ab-1 in or on soybean are temporarily exempt from the requirement of a tolerance when used as a plant-incorporated protectant in soybean plants in accordance with the terms of Experimental Use Permit No. 264-EUP-151. This temporary exemption from the requirement of a tolerance expires on April 1, 2020.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of the HPPD-4 protein derived from the 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase enzyme of
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0115, is available at
Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 174 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a(g), any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0115 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0115, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
Two modifications have been made to the original request for a tolerance exemption. EPA changed “plant-pesticide inert” to “plant-incorporated protectant inert” to align with the Agency's vocabulary, which is published in 40 CFR part 174.3. Also, because EPA publishes all tolerances or exemptions for plant-incorporated protectants in part 174, EPA's rule is being issued in part 174, rather than part 180 as requested.
Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on food) only if EPA determines that the exemption is “safe.” Section 408(c)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings but does not include occupational exposure. Pursuant to FFDCA section 408(c)(2)(B), in establishing or maintaining in effect an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance, EPA must take into account the factors set forth in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(C), which require EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance or tolerance exemption and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .” Additionally, FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D) requires that EPA consider “available information concerning the cumulative effects of [a particular pesticide's] . . . residues and other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”
EPA evaluated the available toxicity and exposure data on HPPD-4 and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability, as well as the relationship of this information to human risk. A full explanation of the data upon which EPA relied and its risk assessment based on that data can be found within the October 2, 2017, document entitled “Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) Assessment of the plant-incorporated protectant inert
The HPPD-4 protein is derived from the 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase (HPPD) enzyme of the bacterium
Based upon available data, EPA concludes that the HPPD-4 protein derived from the
Given the lack of toxicity or allergenicity of the HPPD-4 protein, the Agency has not identified any toxicological endpoints for assessing risk. Consequently, the Agency's assessment of exposure is qualitative. In addition, due to the lack of any threshold effects, EPA has determined that the provision to retain a 10X safety factor for the protection of infants and children does not apply. Similarly, the lack of any toxic mode of action or toxic metabolites means that the provision requiring an assessment of cumulative effects does not apply.
Oral exposure may occur from ingestion of the raw crops containing HPPD-4, as well as their processed derivatives. Currently, HPPD-4 is only proposed to be used as a PIP inert ingredient in soybean, although it could be used in other crops in the future. The current proposed use results in the presence of HPPD-4 protein at low levels within the plant, although future uses could be higher. Based on the lack of adverse effects and the rapid digestibility of the protein, however, the Agency does not anticipate any risk from reasonably foreseeable levels of exposure. Residues in drinking water may theoretically be present because plant stubble may release modified HPPD-4 protein into ground water upon decay. However, the protein would not be expected to survive in the soil due to microbial degradation, adherence to soil components, and removal upon drinking water treatment procedures. In addition, oral toxicity testing showed no adverse effects. Moreover, because the PIP inert ingredient is currently only proposed to be used only in plants grown for commercial use, the Agency does not anticipate residential exposures. In the event that future uses are sold for residential use, the Agency does not expect there to be residential, non-occupational dermal or inhalation exposures, due to containment of the HPPD-4 protein within the plant.
Based on the lack of any evidence of adverse effects in the toxicological database, dietary exposure to the HPPD-4 protein is not anticipated to pose any harm to the U.S. population. EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the U.S. population, including infants and children, from aggregate exposure to residues of the HPPD-4 protein derived from the
An analytical method is not required because the lack of adverse effects makes enforcement and monitoring of residues unnecessary to ensure food safety.
This action establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to EPA. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance exemption in this action, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes. As a result, this action does not alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, EPA has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, EPA has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require EPA's consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
Residues of the HPPD-4 protein, which is a modified protein derived from the 4-hydroxyphenylpyruvate dioxygenase enzyme of
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of prometryn in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. Interregional Research Project Number 4 (IR-4) requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0495, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0495 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0495, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
In the
The documents referenced a summary of the petition prepared by Syngenta Crop Protection, the registrant, which is available in the docket,
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has corrected the number of significant figures used, modified one of the commodity definitions, and determined that the sesame oil tolerance was not necessary. The reason for these changes are explained in Unit IV.C.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for prometryn including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with prometryn follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
Following subchronic and chronic oral exposures to rabbits, mice, dogs and rats, the most consistent effects observed in the database were decreases in body weight and food consumption. Following chronic exposure, effects in the dog included degenerative hepatic changes, renal tubule degeneration, and bone marrow atrophy. In rats following chronic exposure, renal toxicity (mineralized concentrations) was observed. No adverse effects were seen in rabbits following dermal exposures up to the limit dose.
There was evidence of increased pre- and post-natal quantitative susceptibility for prometryn. While there was no evidence of susceptibility in the developmental toxicity studies in rabbits and rats, there was evidence of quantitative susceptibility in the two-generation reproduction study in rats, with offspring effects (decreased pup body weight) occurring at lower doses than those that resulted in parental effects (decreased absolute bodyweight and food consumption).
There was no evidence of neurotoxicity in the acute or subchronic neurotoxicity studies. In an immunotoxicity study in rats, there was a decreased humoral immune response using the sheep red blood cell assay, but only at a dose above the limit dose (1045 mg/kg/day).
Prometryn has been classified by EPA as “Group E:—Evidence of non-carcinogenicity for humans” based on the lack of oncogenic effects at any dose in both rats and mice. Prometryn was determined to be non-mutagenic and non-clastogenic in
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by prometryn as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for prometryn used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1 of this unit.
1.
i.
No such effects were identified in the toxicological studies for prometryn; therefore, a quantitative acute dietary exposure assessment is unnecessary.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Pesticide in Water Calculator (PWC) and Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM GW) model, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of prometryn for chronic exposures are estimated to be 127 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 433 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 433 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Prometryn is not registered for any specific use patterns that would result in residential exposure.
4.
EPA has not found prometryn to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and prometryn does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that prometryn does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for prometryn is complete.
ii. There is no indication that prometryn is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There was no evidence of increased quantitative or qualitative susceptibility in the developmental toxicity studies in rabbits or rats. However, there was evidence of increased quantitative susceptibility in the two-generation reproduction study. In the two-generation reproduction study, the offspring effects (decreased absolute pup bodyweight in the F
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to prometryn in drinking water. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by prometryn.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Short- and intermediate-term adverse effects were identified; however, prometryn is not registered for any use patterns that would result in either short- or intermediate-term residential exposure. Short- and intermediate-term risk is assessed based on short-and intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no short- or intermediate-term residential exposure and chronic dietary exposure has already been assessed under the appropriately protective cPAD (which is at least as protective as the POD used to assess short- or intermediate-term risk), no further assessment of either short- or intermediate-term risk is necessary, and EPA relies on the chronic dietary risk assessment for evaluating short- and intermediate-term risk for prometryn.
4.
5.
Adequate enforcement methodology is available to enforce the established and proposed tolerances. Prometryn is completely recovered (>80% recovery) using the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) Multiresidue Section 302. In addition, both Ciba-Geigy Method AG-559 (gas chromatography (GC)/flame-photometric detector (FPD)/S) and Method AG-673 (GC/nitrogen-phosphorous detector (NPD) method) are considered adequate for enforcement purposes.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established any MRLs for prometryn.
EPA modified the tolerance levels to reflect the correct number of significant figures and to be consistent with Agency policy. Also, the commodity definition for Florence fennel was modified to read “Fennel, Florence, fresh leaves and stalk” to be consistent with Agency nomenclature. Lastly, the petitioner recommended a tolerance for residues of prometryn in/on sesame, oil at 0.12 ppm. Residues in oil at a 5x application rate were 0.1076 which when extrapolated to 1x would be 0.02 ppm. As this value is well below the proposed raw agricultural commodity (RAC) tolerance, an oil tolerance is not necessary.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of prometryn, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997); or Executive Order 13771, entitled “Reducing Regulations and Controlling Regulatory Costs” (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of quinclorac in or on the bushberry subgroup 13-07B, the caneberry subgroup 13-07A, and asparagus. Interregional Research Project Number 4 (IR-4) requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0384, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0384 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0384, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has modified the levels at which the tolerances are being established. The reason for these changes is explained in Unit IV.C.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for quinclorac including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with quinclorac follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
Subchronic toxicity of quinclorac includes decreased body weight gains, increased water intake, increased liver enzymes (SGOT, SGPT) and focal chronic interstitial nephritis (rats). Chronic toxic effects of quinclorac include body weight decrement, increase in kidney and liver weights, and hydropic degeneration of the kidneys (dogs). At high doses, chronic
There was no increased qualitative or quantitative fetal or offspring susceptibility in the prenatal developmental or postnatal reproduction studies. Developmental toxicity in the rabbit consisted of increased resorptions, post-implantation loss, decreased number of live fetuses, and reduced fetal body weight. These effects occurred at much higher doses than the maternal effects of decreased food consumption and increased water consumption and decreased body weight gain. In the rat, no developmental toxicity was observed at the highest dose tested (438 mg/kg/day). In the 2-generation reproduction study, parental toxicity and offspring toxicity occurred at the same dose. Parental toxicity consisted of reduced body weight in both sexes during premating and lactation periods. Offspring toxicity consisted of decreased pup weight, developmental delays and possible marginal effect on pup viability. No reproductive toxicity occurred at the highest dose tested (480 mg/kg/day).
There are no mutagenicity concerns. Quinclorac is not mutagenic in bacterial assays and does not cause unscheduled DNA damage in primary rat hepatocytes. There is also no evidence of a genotoxic response in whole animal test systems (
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by quinclorac as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for quinclorac used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III.B. of the final rule published in the
1.
i.
For the general population including infants and children, no such effects were identified in the toxicological studies for quinclorac; therefore, a quantitative acute dietary exposure assessment for these population groups is unnecessary.
However, for females 13 to 49 years of age, such effects were identified for quinclorac. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used food consumption information from the 2003-2008 United States Department of Agriculture's (USDA) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America, (NHANES/WWEIA). As to residue levels in food, EPA assumed tolerance-level residues and 100 percent crop treated (PCT).
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Tier 1 Rice Model and the Pesticide Water Calculator-Ground Water exposure model, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of quinclorac for acute exposures are estimated to be 511 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 817 ppb for ground water and for chronic exposures are estimated to be 481 ppb for surface water and 543 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 817 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 543 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Quinclorac is currently registered for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: Turf grass and ornamentals. EPA assessed residential exposure using the following assumptions: Short-term residential handler inhalation exposure is expected from the existing uses. The quantitative exposure/risk assessment developed for residential handlers is based on the following scenarios: Loading/applying granules for belly grinder; loading/applying granules for push type rotary spreader; loading/applying granules for a spoon; loading/applying granules for a cup and shaker can; applying granules by hand; mixing/loading/applying liquid and dry flowable formulations via manually-pressurized handwand, a hose-end sprayer, a backpack, and a sprinkler can; and mixing/loading/applying ready-to-use formulation via a trigger sprayer, and a hose-end sprayer.
Post-application short-term dermal and incidental oral exposure is expected from quinclorac treated turf in residential settings (
The worst-case residential exposure scenario used in the adult aggregate assessment reflects inhalation exposure from residential handlers mixing/loading/applying water-dispersible granule/dry flowable formulations with a manually-pressurized handwand and/or backpack equipment.
The worst-case residential exposure scenario used in the children 1<2 years old aggregate assessment reflects hand-to-mouth exposures from post-application exposure to treated turf.
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at
4.
EPA has not found quinclorac to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and quinclorac does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that quinclorac does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for quinclorac is complete.
ii. There is no indication that quinclorac is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that quinclorac results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to quinclorac in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by quinclorac.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
Using the exposure assumptions discussed in this unit for acute exposure, the acute dietary exposure from food and water to quinclorac will occupy 2.4% of the aPAD for females 13 to 49 years old, the only population group of concern.
2.
3.
Quinclorac is currently registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure, and the Agency has determined that it is appropriate to aggregate chronic exposure through food and water with short-term residential exposures to quinclorac.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in aggregate MOEs of 2,100 for adults and 1,500 for children 1<2 years old. Because EPA's level of concern for quinclorac is a MOE of 100 or below, these MOEs are not of concern.
4.
Intermediate-term aggregate exposure takes into account intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic exposure to food and water (considered to be a background exposure level). An intermediate-term adverse effect was identified, however, quinclorac is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure; therefore, an intermediate-term aggregate risk assessment was not performed nor required. In addition, since the short- and intermediate-term PODs are the same, the estimates for short-term duration are protective of intermediate-term duration.
5.
6.
Adequate analytical methods (gas chromatography/electron capture detector (GC/ECD)) are available for enforcing quinclorac tolerances on plant and livestock commodities. The methods have undergone successful agency method validation trials and have been submitted to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for publication in the Pesticide Analytical Manual (PAM) II as the tolerance enforcement methods. The Limit of Quantitation (LOQ) of both methods is 0.05 ppm for all matrices.
Other adequate LC/MS/MS based analytical methods, BASF Method D9708/02 (for quinclorac) and BASF Method D9806/02 (for quinclorac methyl ester), are available for data collection and tolerance enforcement of residues of quinclorac and its methyl ester metabolite in/on plant commodities. The validated LOQ for both methods is 0.05 ppm. Both methods monitor two ion transitions. The Agency concurred with BASF's proposal to designate BASF Method D9708/02 and BASF Method D9806/02 as the new tolerance enforcement methods for quinclorac and quinclorac methy ester, respectively. These LC/MS/MS enforcement analytical methods without the methylation step are preferable to the previous GC/ECD method.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established any MRLs for quinclorac on any of the crops covered by this document.
Using the amended residue data in the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) tolerance calculation procedures, the Agency is establishing the tolerance of 0.08 ppm for combined residues of quinclorac and its methyl ester metabolite, in/on the bushberry subgroup 13-07B, the caneberry subgroup 13-07A, and asparagus. The tolerance of 0.08 ppm in/on the caneberry subgroup 13-07A and asparagus is higher than the petitioned-for tolerance (0.06 ppm) because the quinclorac residue values from the submitted field trial data did not include the residue values of methyl ester metabolite. However, the tolerance in/on the bushberry subgroup 13-07B is much lower than the petitioned-for tolerance (0.6 ppm). In blueberry trials, the petitioner included the single lowbush blueberry trial (ME03) in the tolerance calculation for bushberry subgroup 13-07B. Trial ME03 gives a quinclorac residue value (HAFT: 0.374 ppm) that is approximately sixteen times greater than the residue value (HAFT: 0.024 ppm) in/on blueberries from the six highbush blueberry trials. The difference in residue value is largely attributed to application patterns. The single lowbush blueberry sample (ME03) was subjected to two applications—one broadcast to the ground, the other broadcast to the foliage, whereas samples of highbush blueberry (subgroup 13-07B) were conducted with banded soil application twice. After excluding ME03 the tolerance value of blueberry from the OECD calculator (0.08 ppm) is significantly lower than the proposed tolerance (0.6 ppm).
Lastly, the Agency is modifying the proposed commodity definition of “Bushberry Subgroup 13-07B, except lowbush blueberry” to “Bushberry Subgroup 13-07B” because the lowbush blueberry tolerance is covered by the established tolerance at 1.5 ppm in/on berry, low growing, except strawberry, subgroup 13-07H.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of quinclorac, 3,7-dichloro-8-quinolinecarboxylic acid, in or on asparagus at 0.08 ppm; the bushberry, subgroup 13-07B at 0.08 ppm; and the
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001); Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997); or Executive Order 13771, entitled “Reducing Regulations and Controlling Regulatory Costs” (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a)(1) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation extends time-limited tolerances for the pesticides listed in this document. These actions are in response to EPA's granting of emergency exemptions under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) authorizing use of these pesticides. In addition, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) requires EPA to establish a time-limited tolerance or exemption from the requirement for a tolerance for pesticide chemical residues in food that will result from the use of a pesticide under an emergency exemption granted by EPA.
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0563, is available at
Michael L. Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0563 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All requests must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0563, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
EPA previously published final rules in the
EPA established the tolerances because FFDCA section 408(l)(6) requires EPA to establish a time-limited tolerance or exemption from the requirement for a tolerance for pesticide chemical residues in food that will result from the use of a pesticide under an emergency exemption granted by EPA under FIFRA section 18. Such tolerances can be established on EPA's own initiative and without providing notice or time for public comment.
EPA received requests to extend the emergency use of these chemicals for this year's growing season. After having reviewed these submissions, EPA concurs that emergency conditions exist. EPA assessed the potential risks presented by residues for each chemical in the listed commodities. In doing so, EPA considered the safety standard in FFDCA section 408(b)(2), and decided that the necessary tolerance under FFDCA section 408(l)(6) would be consistent with the safety standard and with FIFRA section 18.
The data and other relevant material have been evaluated and discussed in the final rules originally published to support these uses. Based on that data and information considered, the Agency reaffirms that extension of these time-limited tolerances will continue to meet the requirements of FFDCA section 408(l)(6). Therefore, the time-limited tolerances are extended until the date listed. EPA will publish a document in the
Tolerances for the use of the following pesticide chemicals on specific commodities are being extended:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as
The Codex has established MRLs for clothianidin in/on citrus fruits at 0.07 ppm. These MRLs are the same as the tolerance established for clothianidin in/on fruit, citrus, group 10-10 in the United States. The Codex has not established any MRLs for sulfoxaflor in/on sorghum commodities.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to petitions submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerances in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(b) * * *
(b) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of ethofumesate in or on beet, sugar, molasses and beet, sugar, roots. In addition, this regulation eliminates tolerances for residues of ethofumesate that are superseded by the tolerances established by this final rule. Interregional Research Project Number 4 (IR-4) requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective December 4, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 2, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0314, is available at
Michael L. Goodis, Director, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0314 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 2, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0314, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA is establishing tolerances that differ from what the petitioner requested. The reasons for these changes are explained in Unit IV.D.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for ethofumesate including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with ethofumesate follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity database and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
The liver is the main target organ in rats and dogs, and the major critical effects seen in oral studies are decreased body weight/body weight gain and hepatic toxicity in the rat, dog and/or rabbit. Mice are relatively insensitive to ethofumesate up to the limit dose following subchronic and chronic dietary exposure.
Ethofumesate did not demonstrate the potential to cause neurotoxicity in four species (rats, mice, dogs and rabbits).
Rats did not show evidence of developmental, maternal, or offspring toxicity or susceptibility in a three-generation reproduction study or any developmental or maternal toxicity in the developmental toxicity study. Although increased prenatal quantitative sensitivity (increased resorptions, increased post-implantation loss and incomplete ossification of the vertebral arches) was observed in the rabbit developmental toxicity study, the developmental toxicity no observed adverse effect levels (NOAELs) and lowest observed adverse effect levels (LOAELs) are well characterized. In maternal rabbits, effects included decreased body weight, increased mortality, abortions and complete litter resorption at levels in excess of the limit dose.
Ethofumesate is classified as “Not Likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans”, based on bioassays in the rat and the mouse, combined with a lack of
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by ethofumesate as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for ethofumesate used for human risk assessment is shown in the Table of this unit.
1.
i.
In estimating acute dietary exposure for females 13-49 years, EPA used food consumption information from the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA's) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America (NHANES/WWEIA) from 2003 through 2008. As to residue levels in food, EPA used an unrefined determination based on tolerance-level residues, 100 percent crop treated (PCT) information for all commodities, and Dietary Exposure Evaluation Model (DEEM) 7.81 default processing factors, where available.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Tier I: First Index Reservoir Screening Tool (FIRST) and Tier II: Pesticide Root Zone Model Ground Water (PRZM GW)/PWC, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of ethofumesate (parent compound only) for acute exposures are estimated to be 416 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 750 ppb for ground water. For chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments are estimated to be 123 ppb for surface water and 695 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations of ethofumesate for parent compound only, were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 750 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 695 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Ethofumesate is currently registered for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: ornamental lawns and turf (including golf courses, parks, cemeteries, and homeowner/commercial lawns). EPA assessed residential exposure using the following assumptions: All ethofumesate products are intended for either agricultural use or require professional application for ornamental turf. Although registered products are labeled for use on home lawns, residential handler exposures are not anticipated because the label language requiring personal protective equipment (PPE) and prohibiting the use of handheld equipment indicate that the product is not intended for homeowner use. Therefore, the Agency has not conducted a residential handler assessment.
There is potential for ethofumesate residential post-application exposure for individuals exposed as a result of being in an environment that has been previously treated. Residential post-application dermal (adults and children) and incidental oral (children only) exposures are anticipated from the registered turf uses. EPA conducted screening level calculations on the scenarios most likely to result in highest possible exposure. These scenarios are:
• For children 1 to <2 years old: incidental ingestion (hand-to-mouth), incidental ingestion (turf-to-mouth), incidental ingestion (soil-to-mouth), and dermal exposure
• for adults and youths (11 to <16 years old: dermal exposure (golfing, lawn mowing, etc.).
4.
Unlike other pesticides for which EPA has followed a cumulative risk approach based on a common mechanism of toxicity, EPA has not made a common mechanism of toxicity finding as to ethofumesate and any other substances and ethofumesate does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that ethofumesate does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for ethofumesate is sufficiently complete and adequate for characterizing potential pre- and/or post-natal risks to infants and children. Available studies supporting this decision include developmental toxicity studies in rats and rabbits, and a three-generation reproduction study in rats.
Based on all available hazard and exposure data for ethofumesate, the Agency determined that the subchronic inhalation, acute and subchronic neurotoxicity, and the immunotoxicity
ii. There is no indication that ethofumesate is a neurotoxic chemical. Ethofumesate did not cause clear clinical or histopathological signs of neurotoxicity in four species tested (rats, rabbits, mice and dogs) as evaluated by the current studies within the database. In addition, there was no evidence of neurotoxicity observed in the toxicity databases of chemicals in the same class as ethofumesate. Therefore, EPA is not requiring a developmental neurotoxicity study nor incorporating an additional UFs to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that ethofumesate results in increased susceptibility in
There was no quantitative or qualitative evidence of increased susceptibility in the three-generation reproduction study in rats with ethofumesate since maternal, reproductive and offspring toxicity were not observed at any dose tested up to 5000 ppm (397 and 463 mg/kg/day, males and females, respectively). Although a limit dose was not achieved and no maternal toxicity reported, a new study was not required because the highest dose tested was similar to the dose level that caused toxicity to rats in the chronic/carcinogenicity dietary study.
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary exposure analyses are unlikely to underestimate exposure. The acute and chronic dietary food and drinking water exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT information for all commodities, tolerance-level residues, and Dietary Exposure Evaluation Model (DEEM) 7.81 default processing factors where available. The dietary exposure analyses also assumed that all drinking water will contain ethofumesate at the highest EDWC levels modeled by EPA. The Agency used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of adults and children. The residential exposure estimates are based on EPA's 2012 Residential Standard Operations Procedures (SOPs). These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by ethofumesate.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute population-adjusted dose (aPAD) and chronic population-adjusted dose (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Ethofumesate is currently registered for uses that could result in short-term residential exposure. Residential exposure to ethofumesate is not anticipated from the amended uses that are the subject of this regulatory action; however, it is anticipated from currently registered residential uses of ethofumesate. Residential exposures are only expected to be short-term in duration; however, since the point of departure is the same for short and intermediate-term exposures, the short-term aggregate is protective of any longer-term exposures.
Aggregate risk estimates (MOEs) were derived using recommended exposure scenarios including: For adults, dermal post-application exposure from high contact activities on treated turf; for children, including ages 11 to <16 years and 6 to <11 years, dermal post-application exposure from golfing on treated turf; and for children (1 to <2 years), combined dermal plus hand-to-mouth post-application exposure from high contact activities on treated turf.
EPA short-term aggregate risk calculations of aggregate MOEs, combining average food and drinking water, plus residential exposures (total exposure), ranged from 120 for females 13-49 years; to 430 for children 1 to <2 years; to 770 for adults, 20-49 years and significantly higher for population subgroups, children 6 to 11 years and youth 11 to <16 years. These short-term aggregate risk estimates are not of concern to EPA (
4.
5.
Adequate enforcement methodology (Method I in PAM Vol. II is listed as an adequate tolerance enforcement method for plants) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905;
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
There are no Codex MRLs established for the residues of ethofumesate in/on any sugar beet raw agricultural or processed commodity.
One commenter supported the tolerance action but expressed concerns about the need for additional data to assess the toxicity of ethofumesate to bioaccumulate and to contribute to obesity and diabetes. To the extent the commenter is concerned about impacts on aquatic life, earthworms, and other non-human organisms, this comment is outside the scope of review appropriate for a tolerance safety assessment under section 408 of the FFDCA. If the commenter is raising concerns about potential human harm, the Agency has considered all the available data and determined that the tolerances are safe; there is nothing in the toxicity database that would suggest toxicity concerns related to diabetes or obesity.
The octanol-water partition coefficient (log K
EPA is not increasing the existing tolerance for “Beet, sugar, tops” because it is unnecessary due to the fact that this commodity is no longer a significant livestock feed item or a recognized human food.
Although the petitioner requested an increase in the existing sugar, beet, refined sugar tolerance, EPA has determined that the tolerance is not needed because the limit established for the raw agricultural commodity (RAC) (beet, sugar, roots at 1.5 ppm) is sufficient to cover residues in this processed commodity (at 1.0 ppm).
In setting the sugar beet molasses tolerance, EPA used the empirical processing factor previously derived for determining the concentration of residues in this processed commodity, which results in a tolerance of 2.0 ppm rather 2.5 ppm as requested.
The tolerance expressions at 180.345 paragraphs (a) and (c) for ethofumesate are being revised to comply with current EPA policies and to accommodate updated tolerance enforcement methods that convert the NC 20645 (2-(2-hydroxy-5-methanesulfonyloxyphenyl) methylpropanoic acid) metabolite to NC9607 (3,3-dimethyl-5-[(methylsulfonyl)oxy]-2(3
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of the herbicide ethofumesate in or on beet, sugar, molasses at 2.0 ppm and beet, sugar, roots at 1.5 ppm. Also, the tolerance for beet, sugar, refined is deleted because residues in that processed commodity are covered by the tolerance for beet, sugar, roots.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a)
(c)
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) grants the petition filed by CTIA for reconsideration the Commission's recent decision to revise its Wireless Emergency Alert (WEA) rules and grants in part and denies in part the Competitive Carrier Association's (CCA) request for a waiver or extension of time. Specifically, the Commission extends the timeframe for compliance with the requirement in the
Effective December 4, 2017.
Gregory Cooke of the Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, Policy and Licensing Division,
This is a summary of the Commission's Order on Reconsideration in PS Docket No. 15-91, No. 15-94, FCC 17-143, released on November 1, 2017. The document is available for download at
1. This Supplemental Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (Supplemental FRFA) supplements the Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (FRFA) of the September 2016
2. In the
3. In this
4. In light of reconsideration, waiver, and extension requests, the Commission considered the potential impact of the rules proposed in the IRFA on small entities and reduced the compliance burden in order to reduce the economic impact of the rules enacted herein on such entities.
5. Pursuant to the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, which amended the RFA, the Commission is required to respond to any comments filed by the Chief Counsel of the Small Business Administration (SBA), and to provide a detailed statement of any change made to the proposed rule(s) as a result of those comments.
6. The Chief Counsel did not file any comments in response to the proposed rule(s) in this proceeding.
7. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules, if adopted. The RFA generally defines the term small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A “small business concern” is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA).
8. As noted above, a FRFA was incorporated into the
9. The data, information and document collection required by the
10. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) and exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
11. The analysis of the Commission's efforts to minimize the possible significant economic impact on small entities as described in the previous FRFA in this proceeding is hereby incorporated by reference. Additionally, in this Order, in response to concerns raised by small entities,
12. The Commission will send a copy of this Order, including this Supplemental FRFA, in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. In addition, the Commission will send a copy of this Order, including the Supplemental FRFA, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration. A copy of this Order and Supplemental FRFA (or summaries thereof) will also be published in the
13. In this
14. In September 2016, the Commission adopted the WEA Report and Order, 81 FR 75710 (WEA R&O), which eliminated the prohibition on the use of embedded references in non-Presidential Alerts and required Participating CMS Providers to support embedded references within one year of the rules' publication in the
15. CTIA requests that the Commission defer mandating implementation of embedded references until after feasibility testing is completed (
16. CTIA makes three arguments: mandating compliance before comprehensive feasibility testing may lead to substantial network congestion; testing, prior to mandating compliance, is necessary to determine the feasibility of supporting embedded references; and the compliance deadline has no sound basis in the record.
17. On August 16, 2017, the CCA filed a Petition for Waiver, or in the
18. CCA requests that we waive or delay the November 1, 2017 deadline for basic geo-targeting (known as best approximates geo-targeting). We decline the request and reaffirm the current schedule for the deployment of basic geo-targeting for wireless emergency alerts.
19. The basic geo-targeting standard is designed to be flexible and to take into consideration the specific capabilities of each Participating CMS Provider. In the WEA R&O, the Commission set forth the expectation that Participating CMS Providers will take reasonable efforts to leverage existing technology to its fullest extent and articulated potential techniques and benchmarks for basic geo-targeting. As the Commission noted when it adopted the initial rules for WEA, the system is technologically neutral, and Participating CMS providers are in the best position to select and incorporate the technologies that will enable them to most effectively and efficiently deliver mobile alerts.
20. Although CCA asserts that many of its members cannot comply with the standard because they are still transitioning from 2G and 3G to 4G technologies and because the standards applicable to best approximates” are still in development, we reject CCA's contention that its ability to meet the basic geo-targeting standard is affected in any way by a particular technology such as cell broadcasting. Rather, we anticipate that CCA's members, like other Participating CMS Providers, will continue to employ the techniques that they have been deploying as a matter of best practice. Accordingly, given the inherent flexibility in the best approximates geo-targeting standard, we find no basis for granting relief from this requirement.
21. CTIA and CCA request we revise the compliance timeframe for the embedded reference requirement. We decline to do so for the five largest Participating CMS Providers—Verizon, AT&T, Sprint, T-Mobile, and U.S. Cellular—who have indicated that they are able to and intend to support embedded references on smartphones capable of processing them by the November 1, 2017 deadline. We observe that the WEA R&O explicitly made clear that the embedded reference requirement can be enabled through software updates, and that Participating CMS Providers could implement the necessary changes to their software to make the embedded reference capability available to customers. Mobile devices that support neither embedded references nor the software updates that would provide such capability will not be considered WEA capable.
22. We nonetheless grant 18 months of relief to smaller, regional operators—specifically, all Participating CMS Providers other than the largest five—so that they will have additional time to deploy network upgrades and learn from the deployment experiences of the largest Participating CMS Providers on how best to ensure embedded references are smoothly integrated into the WEA system.
23. CCA argues that its members, which are smaller and regional providers, have fewer resources, and that 18 additional months is sufficient time to implement the embedded references requirement. We agree. As CCA notes, smaller and regional wireless providers within its membership do not participate in the Alliance for Telecommunications Industry Solutions' (ATIS) standards-setting process and may need additional time to review and implement these standards. Further, as CCA notes, the capabilities necessary for some providers to implement enhanced WEA requirements are still in flux. For example, carriers that are currently participating in the WEA program through an application-based solution need additional time to coordinate, test, and implement updates to current standards. This transition may necessitate additional time for compliance, coordination, and testing. As the Commission has otherwise found, 30 months from the rules' publication in the
24. Finally, we are aware that there will be a short period of time between the original November 1, 2017 deadline for embedded references and the publication of this Order on Reconsideration in the
25. To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
26. This document does not contain new or modified information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. Therefore, it does not contain any new or modified information collection burdens for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4).
27. The Commission will send a copy of this Order in a report to be sent to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act. See 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
28. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended, we have prepared a Supplemental Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (Supplemental FRFA) addressing the actions taken in this Order.
29. People with Disabilities. To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
30. Additional Information. For additional information on this proceeding, contact Gregory Cooke of the Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, Policy and Licensing Division,
31. Accordingly,
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
The rules in this part are issued pursuant to the authority contained in the Warning, Alert, and Response Network Act, Title VI of the Security and Accountability for Every Port Act of 2006, Public Law 109-347, Titles I through III of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, and Executive Order 13407 of June 26, 2006, Public Alert and Warning System, 71 FR 36975 (2006).
Wireless emergency alerts.
Emergency alert system.
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
In this document, the Commission announces that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved, for a period of three years, the information collection requirements associated with the Commission's
The amendments to 47 CFR 51.917(f)(4), 69.4(k), 69.132, 69.311, and 69.416, published at 81 FR 24281, April 25, 2016, are effective December 4, 2017.
Amy Goodman, Pricing Policy Division, Wireline Competition Bureau, at (202) 418-1549, or email:
This document announces that, on September 20, 2016, OMB approved, for a period of three years, the information collection requirements relating to §§ 51.917(f)(4), 69.4(k), 69.132, 69.311, and 69.416 of the Commission's rules as a revision to OMB Control Number 3060-0298 (Part 61, Tariffs (Other than the Tariff Review Plan)). Also on September 20, 2016, OMB approved, for a period of three years, the information requirements relating to §§ 51.917(f)(4), 69.4(k), 69.132, 69.311, and 69.416 of the Commission's rules as a revision to 3060-0400 (Part 61, Tariff Review Plan (TRP)). The Commission publishes this document as an announcement of the effective date of the rules. If you have any comments on the burden estimates listed below, or how the Commission can improve the collections and reduce any burdens caused thereby, please contact Nicole Ongele, Federal Communications Commission, Room 1-A620, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554. Please include the OMB Control Number, 3060-0400, in your correspondence. The Commission will also accept your comments via email at
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
As required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), the FCC is notifying the public that it received final OMB approval on September 20, 2016, for the information collection requirements contained in §§ 51.917(f)(4), 69.4(k), 69.132, 69.311, and 69.416 of the Commission's rules. Under 5 CFR part 1320, an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a current, valid OMB Control Number.
No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act that does not display a current, valid OMB Control Number. The OMB Control Numbers are 3060-0298 and 3060-0400.
The foregoing notice is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995,
The total annual reporting burdens and costs for the respondents are as follows:
Part 61 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR part 61, prescribes the framework for the initial establishment of and subsequent revisions to tariffs. The information collected through the carriers' tariffs and supporting documentation is used by the Commission and state commissions to determine whether the services are offered in a just and reasonable manner.
Sections 201, 202, and 203 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, require common carriers to establish just and reasonable charges, practices, and regulations for their interstate telecommunications services. For services that are still covered under section 203, tariff schedules containing charges, rates, rules, and regulations must be filed with the Commission. Part 61 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR part 61, prescribes the framework for the establishment of and subsequent revisions to tariffs. Certain LECs are required to submit a biennial or annual Tariff Review Plan (TRP) in partial fulfillment of cost support material required by part 61. The Commission developed the TRP to minimize reporting burdens on reporting incumbent local exchange carriers (ILECs). TRPs set forth the summary material ILECs file to support revisions to their interstate access service tariffs. For those services still requiring cost support, TRPs assist the Commission in determining whether ILEC access charges are just and reasonable as required under the Act.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; reallocation.
NMFS is reallocating the projected unused amount of Pacific cod from trawl catcher vessels (3,083 metric tons (mt)), American Fisheries Act (AFA) trawl catcher/processors (205 mt), and jig vessels (94 mt) to hook-and-line catcher/processors (2,732 mt) and pot catcher/processors (650 mt) in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI). This action is necessary to allow the 2017 total allowable catch of Pacific cod to be harvested.
Effective November 29, 2017through 2400 hours, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), December 31, 2017.
Josh Keaton, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (BSAI) according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2017 Pacific cod total allowable catch (TAC) in the BSAI specified for trawl catcher is 47,246 metric tons (mt),
Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(a)(7)(iii), taking into account the capabilities of the sectors to harvest reallocated amounts of Pacific cod, and following the hierarchies set forth in § 679.20(a)(7)(iii)(A) and § 679.20(a)(7)(iii)(B), NMFS reallocates 2,732 mt of Pacific cod to hook-and-line catcher/processors and 650 mt to pot catcher/processors.
The harvest specifications for Pacific cod included in the final 2017 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (82 FR 11826, February 27, 2017) and two inseason adjustments (82 FR 8905, February 1, 2017 and 82 FR 41899, September 5, 2017) are revised as follows: 44,163 mt for trawl catcher vessels, 4,712 for AFA trawl catcher/processors, 13 mt for jig vessels, 106,444 mt for hook-and-line catcher/processors, and 4,844 mt pot catcher/processors.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the reallocation of Pacific cod specified from trawl catcher vessels, AFA catcher/processors, and jig gear to hook-and-line catcher/processors and pot catcher/processors in the BSAI management area. Since most of these fisheries are currently open, it is important to immediately inform the industry as to the revised allocations. Immediate notification is necessary to allow for the orderly conduct and efficient operation of this fishery, to allow the industry to plan for the fishing season, and to avoid potential disruption to the fishing fleet as well as processors. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as of November 21, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would implement a recommendation from the Texas Valley Citrus Committee (Committee) to decrease the assessment rate established for the 2017-18 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.09 to $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent of oranges and grapefruit handled under the Marketing Order (Order). The assessment rate would remain in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated. This proposed rule also makes administrative revisions to the subpart headings to bring the language into conformance with the Office of Federal Register requirements.
Comments must be received by January 3, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposed rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Doris Jamieson, Marketing Specialist, or Christian D. Nissen, Regional Director, Southeast Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (863) 324-3375, Fax: (863) 291-8614, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, proposes an amendment to regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j). This proposal is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 906, as amended (7 CFR part 906), regulating the handling of oranges and grapefruit grown in the Lower Rio Grande Valley in Texas. Part 906, (hereinafter referred to as the “Order”), is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The Committee locally administers the Order and is comprised of producers and handlers of oranges and grapefruit operating within the production area.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This action falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this proposal does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action, it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017, titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. Under the Marketing Order now in effect, Texas orange and grapefruit handlers are subject to assessments. Funds to administer the Order are derived from such assessments. It is intended that the assessment rate will be applicable to all assessable oranges and grapefruit beginning on August 1, 2017, and continue until amended, suspended, or terminated.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an order may file with USDA a petition stating that the order, any provision of the order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the order or to be exempted therefrom. Such handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This proposed rule would decrease the assessment rate for the 2017-18 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.09 to $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent of oranges and grapefruit handled.
The Texas orange and grapefruit Marketing Order provides authority for the Committee, with the approval of USDA, to formulate an annual budget of expenses and collect assessments from handlers to administer the program. The members of the Committee are producers and handlers of Texas oranges and grapefruit. They are familiar with the Committee's needs and with the costs of goods and services in their local area and are thus in a position to formulate an appropriate budget and assessment rate. The assessment rate is formulated and discussed in a public meeting. Thus, all directly affected persons have an
For the 2016-17 and subsequent fiscal periods, the Committee recommended, and USDA approved, an assessment rate that would continue in effect from fiscal period to fiscal period unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other information available to USDA.
The Committee met on August 8, 2017, and unanimously recommended 2017-18 expenditures of $152,920 and an assessment rate of $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent of oranges and grapefruit. In comparison, last year's budgeted expenditures were $751,148. The assessment rate of $0.02 is $0.07 lower than the rate currently in effect. The Committee recommended decreasing the assessment rate to reflect that they would not be funding the Mexican fruit fly control program, reducing their budget by more than $595,000.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2017-18 year include $79,220 for management, $50,000 for compliance, and $23,700 for operating expenses. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2016-17 were $77,200, $50,000, and $23,700, respectively.
The assessment rate recommended by the Committee was derived by considering anticipated expenses, expected shipments of 7.5 million 7/10-bushel cartons, and the amount of funds available in the authorized reserve. Income derived from handler assessments calculated at $150,000 (7.5 million × $0.02), along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve, would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses of $152,920. Funds in the reserve (currently $282,572) would be kept within the maximum permitted by the Order (approximately one fiscal period's expenses as stated in § 906.35).
The assessment rate recommended in this proposed rule would continue in effect indefinitely unless modified, suspended, or terminated by USDA upon recommendation and information submitted by the Committee or other available information.
Although this assessment rate would be effective for an indefinite period, the Committee will continue to meet prior to or during each fiscal period to recommend a budget of expenses and consider recommendations for modification of the assessment rate. The dates and times of Committee meetings are available from the Committee or USDA. Committee meetings are open to the public and interested persons may express their views at these meetings. USDA would evaluate Committee recommendations and other available information to determine whether modification of the assessment rate is needed. Further rulemaking will be undertaken as necessary. The Committee's 2017-18 budget and those for subsequent fiscal periods will be reviewed and, as appropriate, approved by USDA.
This proposed rule also makes administrative revisions to the subpart headings of the regulations.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this proposed rule on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and the rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 170 producers of oranges and grapefruit in the production area and 13 handlers subject to regulation under the Marketing Order. Small agricultural producers are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to Committee data, the average price for Texas citrus during the 2015-16 season was approximately $17.48 per box and total shipments were 7.5 million boxes. Using the average price and shipment information, the number of handlers (13), and assuming a normal distribution, the majority of handlers would have average annual receipts of greater than $7,500,000. Thus, the majority of Texas citrus handlers may be classified as large business entities.
In addition, based on information from the National Agricultural Statistics Service, the weighted grower price for Texas citrus during the 2015-16 season was approximately $14.64 per box. Using the weighted average price and shipment information, and assuming a normal distribution, the majority of producers would have annual receipts of less than $750,000. Thus, the majority of Texas citrus producers may be classified as small business entities.
This proposal would decrease the assessment rate collected from handlers for the 2017-18 and subsequent fiscal periods from $0.09 to $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent of Texas citrus. The Committee unanimously recommended 2017-18 expenditures of $152,920 and an assessment rate of $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent handled. The assessment rate of $0.02 is $0.07 lower than the 2016-17 rate. The quantity of assessable oranges and grapefruit for the 2017-18 fiscal period is estimated at 7.5 million 7/10-bushel cartons. Thus, the $0.02 rate should provide $150,000 in assessment income (7.5 million × $0.02). Income derived from handler assessments, along with interest income and funds from the Committee's authorized reserve (currently $282,572), would be adequate to cover budgeted expenses.
The major expenditures recommended by the Committee for the 2017-18 year include $79,220 for management, $50,000 for compliance, and $23,700 for operating expenses. Budgeted expenses for these items in 2016-17 were $77,200, $50,000, and $23,700, respectively.
The Committee recommended decreasing the assessment rate to reflect that it would not be funding the Mexican fruit fly control program, reducing its budget by more than $595,000.
Prior to arriving at this budget and assessment rate, the Committee considered information from various sources, such as the Committee's Budget and Personnel Committee, and the Research Committee. Alternative expenditure levels were discussed by these committees who reviewed the relative value of various activities to the Texas citrus industry. These committees determined that all program activities were adequately funded and essential to the functionality of the Order, thus no alternate expenditure levels were deemed appropriate. Additionally, alternate assessment rates of $0.01 and $0.015 per 7/10 bushel-carton were discussed. However, it was determined that these lower assessment rates would draw too heavily from reserves, roughly $78,000 and $43,000, respectively. The proposed rate of $0.02 per 7/10 bushel-carton would draw an anticipated $2,800 from reserves, thereby leaving reserves intact for future needs.
Based on these discussions and estimated shipments, the recommended assessment rate of $0.02 would provide $150,000 in assessment income. The
A review of historical information and preliminary information pertaining to the upcoming fiscal period indicates that the average grower price for the 2017-18 season should be approximately $15.50 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent of oranges and grapefruit. Therefore, the estimated assessment revenue for the 2017-18 crop year as a percentage of total grower revenue would be about 0.1 percent.
This proposed rule would decrease the assessment obligation imposed on handlers. Assessments are applied uniformly on all handlers, and some of the costs may be passed on to producers. However, decreasing the assessment rate reduces the burden on handlers and may also reduce the burden on producers.
The Committee's meeting was widely publicized throughout the Texas citrus industry. All interested persons were invited to attend the meeting and participate in Committee deliberations on all issues. Like all Committee meetings, the August 8, 2017, meeting was a public meeting and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this proposed rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the Order's information collection requirements have been previously approved by the OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0189, Fruit Crops. No changes in those requirements would be necessary as a result of this proposed rule. Should any changes become necessary, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
This proposed rule would not impose any additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements on either small or large Texas orange and grapefruit handlers. As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this rule.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
A 30-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. Thirty days is deemed appropriate since the fiscal period began August 1, 2017, and the Order requires that the rate of assessment apply to all assessable oranges and grapefruit handled during such fiscal period. All written comments timely received will be considered before a final determination is made on this rule.
Grapefruit, Marketing agreements, Oranges, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 906 is amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
On and after August 1, 2017, an assessment rate of $0.02 per 7/10-bushel carton or equivalent is established for oranges and grapefruit grown in the Lower Rio Grande Valley in Texas.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule invites comments on the establishment of reporting requirements under the Federal marketing order for pecans (Order). These reporting requirements would enable collection of information from handlers on: Pecans received; pecans purchased outside the United States; shipments and inventory of pecans; pecans exported by country of destination; and pecans exported for shelling and returned to the United States. This information would be used to provide important statistical reports to the industry, meet requirements under the Order, and to help guide future marketing efforts. This proposal also announces the Agricultural Marketing Service's intention to request approval from the Office of Management and Budget of a new information collection.
Comments must be received by February 2, 2018. Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act, comments on the information collection burden must be received by February 2, 2018.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposal. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Jennie M. Varela, Marketing Specialist, or Christian D. Nissen, Regional Director, Southeast Marketing Field Office, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (863) 324-3375, Fax: (863) 291-8614, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202)720-8938, or Email:
This action, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, proposes an amendment to regulations issued to carry out a marketing order as defined in 7 CFR 900.2(j).This proposal is issued under Marketing Agreement and Order No. 986, (7 CFR part 986), regulating the handling of pecans grown in the states of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas, hereinafter referred to as the “Order.” The Order is effective under the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” The American Pecan Council (Council) locally administers the Order and is comprised of growers and handlers of pecans operating within the production area and one public member.
The Department of Agriculture (USDA) is issuing this proposed rule in conformance with Executive Orders 13563 and 13175. This action falls within a category of regulatory actions that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted from Executive Order 12866 review. Additionally, because this proposed rule does not meet the definition of a significant regulatory action it does not trigger the requirements contained in Executive Order 13771. See OMB's Memorandum titled “Interim Guidance Implementing Section 2 of the Executive Order of January 30, 2017 titled `Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs' ” (February 2, 2017).
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This proposed rule is not intended to have retroactive effect.
The Act provides that administrative proceedings must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Under section 608c(15)(A) of the Act, any handler subject to an Order may file with USDA a petition stating that the Order, any provision of the Order, or any obligation imposed in connection with the Order is not in accordance with law and request a modification of the Order or to be exempted therefrom. A handler is afforded the opportunity for a hearing on the petition. After the hearing, USDA would rule on the petition. The Act provides that the district court of the United States in any district in which the handler is an inhabitant, or has his or her principal place of business, has jurisdiction to review USDA's ruling on the petition, provided an action is filed not later than 20 days after the date of the entry of the ruling.
This proposed rule would establish reporting requirements under the Order. This proposed action would require all pecan handlers to submit to the Council reports on pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States. This information would be used by the Council to provide statistical reports to the industry, meet requirements under the Order, and help guide future marketing efforts. This proposal was unanimously recommended by the Council at its April 17, 2017, meeting.
Section 2(4) of the Act specifies that one of its stated policies is to establish and maintain orderly marketing conditions for certain agricultural commodities that will provide, in the interests of producers and consumers, an orderly flow of the supply of such commodities to market to avoid unreasonable fluctuations in supply and prices. Section 8(d)(1) of the Act specifies that the Secretary may require all handlers subject to a marketing order to provide USDA with such information as is necessary for it to ascertain and determine the degree to which the agreement has been carried out or effectuated the declared policy of the Act.
Sections 986.75, 986.76, and 986.77 of the Order provide authority to the Council to require handlers to submit reports of inventory, merchantable pecans handled, and pecans received by handlers, respectively, on such dates as the Council may prescribe. Section 986.78 further provides, with the approval of the Secretary, authority for the Council to collect other reports and information from handlers needed to perform its duties. This proposed rule would use these authorities to establish new §§ 986.177 and 986.178 under the administrative provisions of the Order. These new sections would require handlers of pecans to report to the Council on a monthly basis: Pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States, using five specific Council forms.
At its November 16, 2016, meeting, the first meeting following the promulgation of the Order, the Council discussed its initial budget, assessment rates, and necessary reporting requirements to establish a program that is efficient and responsive to industry needs. During these discussions, the Council appointed a Statistics and Reporting Committee (Committee) to develop reporting requirements.
Members of the Committee discussed the reporting needs of the industry, reviewed examples of reporting forms from other marketing orders, and met and worked with the staff of another marketing order in developing the proposed reporting requirements. The Committee also worked with USDA to ensure the recommended information collection would provide the information necessary to facilitate the administration of the Order.
At its February 23, 2017, meeting, the Council reviewed drafts of seven reporting forms as developed and recommended by the Committee. The Council expressed its interest in having as much electronic reporting as possible, but recognized that many handlers may prefer a paper submission. The Council also considered the timing of when forms would be due and submission dates that would work for all parts of the industry. After a thorough review and some modifications, seven forms were approved by the Council.
At a meeting on April 17, 2017, the Council revisited the recommended reporting requirements and the accompanying forms. Acknowledging that the industry was more than halfway through the fiscal year at that time, the Council recommended dividing the reporting requirements into the five forms needed beginning with the 2017-
This proposed rule would add five new reporting requirements and five new forms to the administrative provisions under the Order by adding §§ 986.177 and 986.178. Detailed information on the reporting burden that would be created by these new forms is discussed later in this document.
During the formal rulemaking hearing to promulgate the Order, it was stated that the data collection component was one of the most important aspects of the Order. Concerns were also expressed regarding the accuracy and availability of industry data, and the impact those have on making good business decisions.
Currently, most available reports on domestic pecan production are issued annually and often long after the marketing year has been completed. Additionally, the reporting of this information is currently voluntary, so not all handlers are reporting, which impacts the accuracy of the available information. Some aggregate import and export data are available, but this information too is usually available on an annual basis, or reported several months after the shipments have been made. Additionally, some domestic production is shipped outside of the country for shelling and then returned to the United States for sale or further processing. There is concern this volume is not being properly accounted for, and is negatively impacting the accuracy of the industry information currently available.
The Council agreed these reporting requirements would be necessary to develop accurate reports for the industry regarding pecans being produced and handled in the United States, and recognized the value to the industry of such reports. Having accurate and timely information on the total supply of pecans moving into and out of the country would also assist the industry in managing available supply and in making marketing decisions. Further, collecting this information monthly would allow the Council to provide key data regarding total supply and inventory to the industry in a more timely fashion throughout the season.
The Council also recognized that § 986.65 of the Order requires the Council to provide a report and recommendation to the Secretary on the Council's proposed marketing policy for the next fiscal year. The report is required to include, in part, an estimate of production; improved, native, and substandard pecans; handler inventory; and trade supply, taking into consideration imported pecans. In addition to providing important information for industry reports, the reporting requirements covered in this proposed action would provide the information needed to develop the marketing policy.
Two specific monthly reporting requirements would be added to the administrative provisions under the Order in a new § 986.177, a summary report of domestic pecans received, and a report of pecans purchased outside the United States. The summary report of domestic pecans received would include information on the handler submitting the form, the month covered by the report, the total weight and type of inshell pecans received, and the weight by variety of improved pecans received. In addition, the form would also include information regarding total assessments owed and total pounds reported to date.
The information on this form would provide the Council with the volume of pecans received by handlers each month throughout the season. This information would be used to track the available supply of pecans each month, and the overall crop as it is delivered to handlers. The Council would then be able to use the information to develop its own reports that would provide the industry with an overview of market information for the predominant varieties, including volume by variety, which could assist in the development of marketing strategies.
The Council also intends to use this form to facilitate the collection of assessments on a monthly basis throughout the season. Using the form, handlers would be able to calculate their assessments due based on the pecans received as listed on the report. Handlers would be required to pay to the Council the assessments owed on the pecans received by the due date of the summary report.
In its discussion of the report of pecans purchased outside the United States, the Council agreed it would be important to have information regarding the volume of pecans being imported by production area handlers. The monthly report of pecans purchased outside the United States would include the name of the handler importing pecans, the month covered by the report, the date imported, country of origin, volume, and variety of pecans imported.
As production of pecans abroad has increased, there has been an increase in pecans imported into the United States. One Council member stated that the domestic industry is currently shelling and processing as much as 70 to 75 percent of Mexican-grown pecans, and that Mexican pecans now account for nearly 50 percent of sales in the United States. Consequently, having information regarding the volume of imported pecans is essential when calculating available supply. Collecting this information would greatly improve the accuracy of reports to the industry as it would include information regarding both domestic and imported pecans.
One of the Council's main goals in developing these reporting requirements is to deliver to the industry accurate reports regarding the marketplace and supply of pecans to assist the industry in making its marketing decisions throughout the year. The Council believes having accurate information regarding imported pecans is an essential part of reaching this goal. Further, collecting this information would provide the industry with valuable data regarding the timing and volume of pecans imported into the United States. Members also agreed having this information would assist the Council in developing its marketing policy as required under the Order.
Three additional reporting requirements would be added to the administrative provisions in a new § 986.178: Reports of shipments and inventory, exports by country of destination, and inshell pecans exported to Mexico for shelling. The report of shipments and inventory would include information on the handler submitting the form, the month covered by the report, shipments of shelled and inshell pecans, current inventory, and pecans in inventory already committed for shipment.
The Council believes this form would provide beneficial information regarding shipments completed and volume in inventory. While there is currently some limited information available regarding pecans in cold storage, this information does not delineate between available inventory and inventory that is already committed for shipment. By collecting this information from handlers, this report, in conjunction with the data regarding pecans received, would allow the Council to provide the industry with inventory reports that are more accurate, and that provide a clearer picture of available supply. This data on the available volume of pecans would provide the industry with the information needed to make better marketing decisions.
When discussing a reporting requirement for exported pecans, the
The Council estimated that prior to 2005, around 10 percent of domestic production was being exported. Since then, exports have grown considerably and now account for between 40 and 50 percent of production. The recommended form would be used to generate reports throughout the season providing industry members with information on where product is being sold and in what volume. Further, the Council could use this information to determine the effectiveness of any international promotional efforts and to consider opportunities for promotion and market expansion.
Some of the pecans shipped outside the United States are exported just for shelling and then returned to the United States for further use. The Council recommended an additional reporting form to capture this information. Specifically, the Council recommended collecting information on pecans exported to Mexico for shelling and then returned to the United States. The Council decided to limit the reporting to Mexico since the vast majority of pecans exported for this purpose are being sent to Mexico because of its proximity and cost efficiencies. The report of inshell pecans exported to Mexico for shelling would include information on the handler submitting the report, the month covered by the report, dates of shipments, the total weight of inshell pecans shipped for shelling, and the weight of shelled pecans returned to the United States.
In discussing this reporting requirement, the Council recognized that in addition to shelling some pecans from the production area, Mexico also exports pecans to the United States. This makes it difficult to determine how much of the import volume reported from Mexico is represented by domestic product after shelling. It was expressed that without this report, the accuracy of data regarding both reported exported and imported product could be compromised. Pecans exported for shelling could be counted as exports, and then counted again as imports when returned to the United States. This reporting requirement would help reduce the possibility of double counting of these pecans, and would help improve the accuracy of the overall information on supply.
The Council selected the tenth day of the month following the month of the activity as the due date for all five reports. Should the tenth day of the month fall on a weekend or holiday, reports would be due by the first business day following the tenth day of the month. The five monthly reports would be used during the 2017-2018 and subsequent seasons.
This proposed action would require pecan handlers to provide the Council with monthly reports on pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States. By establishing these reporting requirements, the Council would be able to gather and disseminate this information in accurate market reports. Further, this information would be used to create a marketing policy each year as required under the Order.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this proposed action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Marketing orders issued pursuant to the Act, and rules issued thereunder, are unique in that they are brought about through group action of essentially small entities acting on their own behalf.
There are approximately 2,500 growers of pecans in the production area and approximately 250 handlers subject to regulation under the pecan marketing Order. Small agricultural growers are defined by the Small Business Administration as those having annual receipts less than $750,000, and small agricultural service firms are defined as those whose annual receipts are less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
According to information from the National Agricultural Statistics Service (NASS), the average grower price for pecans during the 2015-2016 season was $2.20 per pound and 254 million pounds were utilized. The value for pecans that year totaled $558.8 million ($2.20 per pound multiplied by 254 million pounds). Taking the total value of production for pecans and dividing it by the total number of pecan growers provides an average return per grower of $223,520. Using the average price and utilization information, and assuming a normal bell-curve distribution of receipts among growers, the majority of growers receive less than $750,000 annually.
Evidence presented at the formal rulemaking hearing indicates an average handler margin of $0.58 per pound. Adding this margin to the average grower price of $2.20 per pound of inshell pecans results in an estimated handler price of $2.78 per pound. With a total 2015 production of 254 million pounds, ($2.78 per pound multiplied by 254 million pounds) the total value of production in 2015 was $706.12 million. Taking the total value of production for pecans and dividing it by the total number of pecan handlers provides an average return per handler of $2,824,480. Using this estimated price, the utilization volume, number of handlers, and assuming a normal bell-curve distribution of receipts among handlers, the majority of handlers have annual receipts of less than $7,500,000. Thus, the majority (a substantial number) of growers and handlers of pecans grown in the states of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas may be classified as small entities.
This proposed rule would establish reporting requirements under the Order. This proposed action would require pecan handlers to provide the Council with reports of pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States. The Council would use this information to provide important statistical reports to the industry, to meet requirements under the Order, and to help guide future marketing efforts. This rule would establish new §§ 986.177 and 986.178 under the administrative provisions of the Order. The authority for this proposed action is provided for in Section 8(d)(1) of the Act and §§ 986.75, 986.76, 986.77, and 986.78 of the Order.
Requiring monthly reports of pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States would impose an increase in the reporting burden on all pecan handlers. However, this data is already recorded and maintained by handlers as a part of their daily business. Handlers, regardless of size, should be able to readily access this information. Consequently, any additional costs associated with this change would be
This proposed action should also help the entire industry by providing comprehensive data on pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States. Collection of this data was one of the industry's goals in promulgating the Order as there is no other source for this type of data. This information would provide accurate information regarding available inventory, help with marketing and planning for the industry, provide important information for the collection of assessments, and assist with preparing the annual marketing policy required by the Order. The benefits of this proposed rule are expected to be equally available to all pecan growers and handlers, regardless of their size.
The Council discussed other alternatives to this proposed action. The Council considered listing additional varieties on the summary report of pecans received. However, after discussion the Council determined a simpler version with the major commercial varieties and room for handlers to enter additional varieties as needed would be less burdensome. The Council also considered different due dates for these monthly reports, including a due date of the first, the third and the fifth day after the month of the activity. However, after some discussion, it was determined some handlers may have difficulty meeting these time frames. The 15th day of the month was also suggested, but Council members thought this would delay the issuance of reports, and negatively impact their value. Consequently, the Council agreed to set the due date for all five forms at the tenth of the month. The Council also considered the value and importance of each of the forms, and if all should be approved. However, the Council agreed each of the forms recommended provide important information for the industry and for administering the Order. Therefore, the alternatives were rejected.
This proposal would establish five new reporting requirements and five new Council forms. Therefore, this proposed rule would impose an increase in the reporting burden for all handlers, which is discussed in the Paperwork Reduction Act section of this document.
As with all Federal marketing order programs, reports and forms are periodically reviewed to reduce information requirements and duplication by industry and public sector agencies. USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this proposed rule.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
Further, the Council's meetings were widely publicized throughout the pecan industry and all interested persons were invited to attend the meetings and participate in Council deliberations on all issues. Additionally, the Council's Committee meetings held February 23, 2017, and April 17, 2017, were also public meetings and all entities, both large and small, were able to express views on this issue. Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this proposed rule, including the regulatory and information collection impacts of this proposed action on small businesses.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
A 60-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. All written comments timely received will be considered before a final determination is made on this matter.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), this notice announces AMS's intent to request approval from OMB for a new information collection under OMB No. 0581-NEW. It will be merged with the forms currently approved under OMB No. 0581-0291 “Federal Marketing Order for Pecans.”
On April 17, 2017, the Council unanimously recommended that all pecan handlers subject to the Order provide the Council with a monthly record of pecans received. This form, titled “Summary Report U.S. Pecans Received for Your Own Account,” would be submitted directly to the Council by handlers by the tenth day of the month following the month the pecans were received. This information collection would gather data on the total pounds received each month by variety and on the related assessments due.
The Council also recommended that all handlers subject to the Order submit a monthly report of product shipped, transferred, or committed. This form, titled “Report of Shipments and Inventory on Hand,” would be submitted directly to the Council by handlers by the tenth day of the month following the activity. This information collection would provide the Council with a monthly record of how much of the current crop has been shipped, is committed to be shipped or is being held in inventory. It would provide the volume of available inventory, which would be needed to make marketing decisions.
The Council also recommended that handlers provide the Council with a record of exports by type and destination. This form, titled “Exports by Country of Destination,” would be submitted directly to the Council by handlers by the tenth day of the month following the shipment(s). This information collection would provide the Council with up-to-date information on where exported pecans are being sold. This information would improve data collection by accounting for pecans moving outside the United States and is necessary for developing the Council's marketing policy as required by the Order.
The Council also recommended that handlers submit a report of pecans exported to Mexico for the purpose of shelling and then returned to the United States. This form, titled “Inshell Pecans Exported to Mexico for Shelling and Returned to the United States as Shelled Meats,” would be submitted directly to the Council by handlers by the tenth day of the month following the shipment(s) out of and into the United States. This reporting requirement would help reduce the possibility of double counting of these pecans as both exported and imported product, and would help improve the accuracy of the overall information on supply.
The Council also recommended that all handlers subject to the Order submit a monthly report that would capture information on the volume of imported
The information collected would only be used by authorized representatives of the USDA, including the AMS Specialty Crops Program regional and headquarters staff, and authorized employees of the Council. Authorized Council employees would be the primary users of the information, and the AMS would be the secondary users. The Council's staff would compile the information and utilize it to account for pecans received, shipped, held in inventory, exported for sale or shelling, and purchased from outside the United States. All proprietary information would be kept confidential in accordance with the Act and the Order.
The proposed request for new information collection under the Order is as follows:
Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments should reference OMB No. 0581-NEW and the Marketing Order for Pecans Grown in the states of Alabama, Arkansas, Arizona, California, Florida, Georgia, Kansas, Louisiana, Missouri, Mississippi, North Carolina, New Mexico, Oklahoma, South Carolina, and Texas, and should be sent to the USDA in care of the Docket Clerk at the previously-mentioned address or at
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments received will become a matter of public record and will be available for public inspection during regular business hours at the address of the Docket Clerk or at
If this proposed rule is finalized, this information collection will be merged with the forms currently approved under OMB No. 0581-0291 “Federal Marketing Order for Pecans.”
Marketing agreements, Nuts, Pecans, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR part 986 is proposed to be amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
(a)
(1) The name and address of the handler;
(2) The month covered by the report;
(3) The total weight and type of inshell pecans received, and the weight by variety for improved pecans received during the reporting period;
(4) The total weight and type of inshell pecans received, and the weight by variety for improved pecans received year to date; and,
(5) Assessments due on pecans received during the reporting period to be paid by the due date of the report.
(b)
(1) The name and address of the handler;
(1) The month covered by the report;
(3) The date the pecans were imported;
(4) The country of origin; and,
(5) The total weight of shelled and inshell pecans received, and the weight by variety for improved pecans received.
(a)
(1) The name and address of the handler;
(2) The month covered by the report;
(3) The weight of all shipments of pecans, inshell and shelled, and inter-handler transfers shipped and received during the reporting period;
(4) The weight of all shipments of pecans, inshell and shelled, and inter-handler transfers shipped and received in the previous month and year to date;
(5) Total inventory held by handler;
(6) All the inventory committed (pecans not shipped, but sold or otherwise obligated) whether for domestic sale or export; and,
(7) The weight of all shelled or inshell pecans under contract for purchase from other handlers.
(b)
(1) The name and address of the handler;
(2) The month covered by the report;
(3) The total weight of pecans shipped for export, whether inshell, shelled, or substandard during the reporting period;
(4) The total weight of pecans shipped for export, whether inshell, shelled, or substandard during the previous period and year to date; and,
(5) The destination(s) of such exports.
(c)
(1) The name and address of the handler;
(2) The month covered by the report;
(3) The date of inshell shipment(s);
(4) The weight of pecans exported for shelling;
(5) The date shelled pecans returned to the United States after shelling;
(6) The weight of shelled pecans returned to the United States after shelling; and
(7) The total weight of inshell pecans exported to Mexico for shelling, and shelled pecans returned from Mexico, year to date.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes. This proposed AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as improperly tied castle nuts on the aileron, rudder, and elevator trim tab (or autotab) attachment bolts. We are issuing this proposed AD to require actions to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 18, 2018.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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•
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For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Embraer S.A., Phenom Maintenance Support, Avenida Brigadeiro Faria Lima, 2170, São José dos Campos—SP—12227-901, P.O. Box 36/2, Brasil; phone: +55 12 3927 1000; fax: +55 12 3927-2619; email:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Jim Rutherford, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, Small Airplane Standards Branch, 901 Locust, Room 301, Kansas City, Missouri 64106; telephone: (816) 329-4165; fax: (816) 329-4090; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC), which is the aviation authority for Brazil, has issued AD No.: 2017-11-01, dated November 10, 2017 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes. The MCAI states:
This [ANAC] AD results of a report of one airplane having improperly tied castle nut on the aileron, rudder and elevator trim tab (or autotab) attachment bolts. A disconnected surface may cause an increase in dynamic loads and probable flutter, which may cause structural failure and possible loss of control of the airplane.
Since this condition may occur in other airplanes of the same type and affects flight safety, a corrective action is required. Thus, sufficient reason exists to request compliance with this [ANAC] AD in the indicated time limit without prior notice.
Embraer S.A. has issued PHENOM by Embraer Alert Service Bulletin 500-27-A026, Revision 1, dated October 6, 2017; and PHENOM by Embraer Alert Service Bulletin 505-27-A028, Revision 2, dated October 6, 2017. For the applicable models, the service information describes procedures for inspection of the aileron trim tab, rudder trim tab, and elevator trim tab, and, if required, application of torque and installation of a cotter pin. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, they have notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.
We estimate that this proposed AD will affect 114 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $9,690, or $85 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 3 work-hours and require parts costing $50, for a cost of $305 per product. We have no way of determining the number of products that may need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This proposed AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to small airplanes, gliders, and domestic business jet transport airplanes to the Director of the Policy and Innovation Division.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 18, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Embraer S.A. Models EMB-500 and EMB-505 airplanes, serial numbers 50000246, 50000267, 50000286, 50000289, 50000291, 50000299, 50000304, 50000305, 50000306, 50000310, 50000348, 50000359, 50000368, 50000370, 50000372, 50000376, 50000377, 50000378, 50000379, 50000380, 50500118, 50500122, 50500148, 50500151, 50500167, 50500176, 50500179, 50500185, 50500188, 50500191, 50500197, 50500203, 50500207, 50500209, 50500212, 50500214, 50500215, 50500219, 50500225, 50500226, 50500231, 50500242, 50500244, 50500246, 50500248, 50500250, 50500256, 50500260, 50500266, 50500273, 50500275, 50500277, 50500280, 50500282, 50500285, 50500287, 50500288, 50500289, 50500292, 50500293, 50500294, 50500296, 50500297, 50500298, 50500300, 50500302, 50500304, 50500306, 50500309, 50500311, 50500317, 50500318, 50500323, 50500328, 50500331, 50500333, 50500335, 50500338, 50500340, 50500344, 50500345, 50500348, 50500351, 50500357, 50500361, 50500362, 50500363, 50500364, 50500365, 50500367, 50500368, 50500371, 50500372, 50500379, 50500381, 50500382, 50500385, 50500386, 50500390, 50500391, 50500394, 50500395, 50500397, 50500398, 50500399, 50500400, 50500402, 50500403, 50500404, 50500407, 50500410, 50500415, 50500418, and 50500424, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 27: Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as improperly tied castle nuts on the aileron, rudder and elevator trim tab (or autotab) attachment bolts. We are issuing this proposed AD to inspect the aileron trim tab, rudder trim tab and elevator trim tab (or autotab), and correct any discrepancy, which if not corrected, may cause an increase in dynamic loads and possible flutter, leading to structural failure and loss of control.
Unless already done, do the following actions in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this AD following the Accomplishment Instructions in PHENOM by Embraer Alert Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-27-A026, Revision 1, dated October 6, 2017; or PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No.: 505-27-A028, Revision 2, dated October 6, 2017, as applicable:
(1) Within the next 25 hours time in service (TIS) after the effective date of this AD or within the next 12 months after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, inspect the aileron trim tab, rudder trim tab, and elevator trim tab attachment points to make sure the cotter pin is installed on the castle nut of the attaching bolts.
(2) If any discrepancy is found during the inspection required in paragraph (f)(1) of this AD, before further flight, correct the discrepancy.
This AD allows credit for the actions required in paragraph (f) of this AD if done before the effective date of this AD following PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No. 500-27-A026, original issue, dated September 29, 2017; PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No. 505-27-A028, original issue, dated September 28, 2017; or PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB 505-27-A028, Revision 01, dated September 29, 2017; as applicable.
Although PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No.: 500-27-A026, Revision 1, dated October 6, 2017; and PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No.: 505-27-A028, Revision 2, dated October 6, 2017; specify to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not require that action.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to MCAI Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC), which is the aviation authority for Brazil, AD No.: 2017-11-01, dated November 10, 2017; PHENOM by Embraer Alert Service Bulletin (SB) No.: 500-27-A026, Revision 1, dated October 6, 2017; and PHENOM by Embraer Alert SB No.: 505-27-A028, Revision 2, dated October 6, 2017, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Proposed order.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is proposing to reclassify single-use female condoms, renaming the device to “single-use internal condom,” a postamendments class III device (product code MBU), into class II (special controls) subject to premarket notification (510(k)). FDA is also identifying the proposed special controls that the Agency believes are
Submit either electronic or written comments on the proposed order by February 2, 2018. Please see section IX of this document for the proposed effective date of any final order that may publish based on this proposed order.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before February 2, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
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• For written/paper comments submitted to Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Monica Garcia, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. G215, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 240-402-2791,
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended, establishes a comprehensive system for the regulation of medical devices intended for human use. Section 513 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360c) established three categories (classes) of devices, reflecting the regulatory controls needed to provide reasonable assurance of their safety and effectiveness. The three categories of devices are class I (general controls), class II (special controls), and class III (premarket approval).
Under section 513(d) of the FD&C Act, devices that were in commercial distribution before the enactment of the 1976 amendments, May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as “preamendments devices”), are classified after FDA has: (1) Received a recommendation from a device classification panel (an FDA advisory committee) (the Panel); (2) published the Panel's recommendation for comment, along with a proposed regulation classifying the device; and (3) published a final regulation classifying the device. FDA has classified most preamendments devices under these procedures.
Devices that were not in commercial distribution prior to May 28, 1976 (generally referred to as “postamendments devices”) are automatically classified by section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act into class III without any FDA rulemaking process. Those devices remain in class III and require premarket approval unless, and until, the device is reclassified into class I or II, or FDA issues an order finding
A postamendments device that has been initially classified in class III under section 513(f)(1) of the FD&C Act may be reclassified into class I or class II under section 513(f)(3) of the FD&C Act. On July 9, 2012, Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144) was enacted. Section 608(a) of FDASIA amended section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, changing the process for reclassifying a device from rulemaking to an administrative order. Section 513(e) provides that FDA may, by administrative order, reclassify a device based upon “new information.” The term “new information,” as used in section 513(e) of the FD&C Act, includes information developed as a result of a reevaluation of the data before the Agency when the device was originally classified, as well as information not presented, not available, or not developed at the time. To change the classification of the device, the proposed new class must have sufficient regulatory controls to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device for its intended use.
Reevaluation of the data previously before the Agency is an appropriate basis for subsequent action where the reevaluation is made in light of newly available regulatory authority (see
FDA relies upon “valid scientific evidence” in the classification process to determine the level of regulation for devices. To be considered in the reclassification process, the “valid scientific evidence” upon which the Agency relies must be publicly available. Publicly available information excludes trade secret and/or confidential commercial information,
Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that a class II device may be exempted from the premarket notification requirements, if the Agency determines that premarket notification is not necessary to reasonably assure the safety and effectiveness of the device.
A single-use female condom is a sheath-like device that is inserted into the vagina prior to the initiation of coitus and discarded at its conclusion. It includes a mechanism (
Before receiving WPC's 510(k), FDA was unaware of the existence, commercial distribution, and use of the Gee Bee Ring as a female condom. FDA verified the preamendments status and uses of the Gee Bee Ring, and presented this information to the Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel (referred to as the Classification Panel) on March 7, 1989. The Classification Panel reviewed all available information concerning the classification of a sheath-like device that is inserted into the vagina prior to coitus for purposes of contraception and STI prophylaxis. The Classification Panel recommended that FDA classify this generic type of device as distinct from the male condom identified in § 884.5300. The Classification Panel also recommended that this device be classified into class III, because no published laboratory or clinical study data could be found that would allow FDA to establish special controls for the device, and the device is purported or represented to be for a use which is of substantial importance in preventing impairment of human health. FDA agreed with the Classification Panel's recommended classification, and in the
In April 1989, FDA completed its review of WPC's 510(k) and determined that the Reality Female Condom was not
As part of the Center for Devices and Radiological Health's 2014-2015 strategic priority “Strike the Right Balance Between Premarket and Postmarket Data Collection,” a retrospective review of class III devices subject to PMA was completed to determine whether or not, based on our current understanding of the technology, reclassification may be appropriate. On April 29, 2015, FDA published a notice in the
FDA is proposing to reclassify single-use female condoms from class III into class II because sufficient information exists to establish special controls. FDA believes that these special controls, together with general controls, will provide a reasonable assurance of the device's safety and effectiveness for single-use female condoms.
In accordance with section 513(f)(3) of the FD&C Act and 21 CFR part 860, subpart C, FDA is proposing to reclassify this postamendments class III device into class II (special controls). FDA believes that there is sufficient information from nonclinical and clinical data submitted in PMA applications P910064 (Ref. 1), P940033 (Ref. 2), and P080002 (Ref. 3), available to FDA under section 520(h)(4) of the FD&C Act; postmarket experience; and peer-reviewed literature (Refs. 4-7) to establish special controls that can effectively mitigate the risks to health of single-use female condoms that are identified in section IV. Absent the special controls identified in this proposed order, general controls applicable to the device are insufficient to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device.
FDA is also proposing to amend the existing device identification for female condom (§ 884.5330), a preamendments class III device, by renaming the device “multiple-use female condom” to better distinguish it from the “single-use female condom” that is the subject of this reclassification. One difference between the preamendments female condom (product code OBY) and the postamendments female condom (product code MBU) is that the preamendments female condom is indicated to be cleaned at the conclusion of coitus and reused. Additionally, a minor revision to the identification language is being proposed to change the term “diseases” to “infections” to use more appropriate clinical terminology. This proposed revision does not substantively change the meaning. It will remain a class III device, as FDA has neither received nor identified valid scientific evidence from nonclinical or clinical studies that demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of that type of female condom. Additionally, FDA is unaware of valid scientific evidence regarding the reuse of condoms (female or male) that could be used to establish special control(s) for a multiple-use female condom to provide a reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness.
FDA is proposing to identify the single-use female condom that is the subject of this proposed order under the new name “single-use internal condom” to indicate that the new classification regulation includes the use of these devices inserted internally for vaginal and/or anal intercourse. This technology is distinct from that of male condoms, which completely cover the penis with a closely fitting membrane. This proposed classification does not include male condoms that are class II devices regulated under §§ 884.5300 and 884.5310. FDA believes use of this device for vaginal and anal intercourse engender the same risks to health (with the exception of the risk of pregnancy when used for anal intercourse) and that the proposed special controls can effectively mitigate those risks when the device is used for these purposes.
Section 510(m) of the FD&C Act provides that FDA may exempt a class II device from the premarket notification requirements under section 510(k) of the FD&C Act if FDA determines that premarket notification is not necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. For this type of device, FDA has determined that premarket notification is necessary to provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of the device. Therefore, FDA does not intend to exempt the proposed class II devices from 510(k) requirements. Persons who intend to market this type of device must submit to FDA a 510(k) and receive clearance prior to marketing the device.
After considering the information available to FDA from the recommendations of the Classification Panel for the classification of these devices (Refs. 8 and 9); data in PMA applications P910064, P940033, and P080002 available to FDA under section 520(h)(4) of the FD&C Act; postmarket experience; and peer-reviewed literature (Refs. 4-7), FDA determined that the probable risks to health associated with the use of single-use internal condoms are as follows:
• Pregnancy—Slippage, breakage, misdirection, or invagination of the device during vaginal intercourse could result in the occurrence of an undesired pregnancy.
• Transmission of infection—If the device fails due to slippage, breakage, misdirection, or invagination, contact with infected semen or vaginal secretions or vaginal/anal mucosa could result in the transmission of sexually-transmitted infections.
• Adverse tissue reaction—If the patient-contacting materials of the device are not biocompatible, local tissue irritation and sensitization, cytotoxicity, or system toxicity could occur when the device contacts the vagina, cervix, anus, and external male and female genitalia.
• Ulceration and other physical trauma—Use of the internal condom may cause abrasions, lacerations, bleeding, or other adverse effects to the vaginal, anal, or penile tissue if the device is not designed appropriately.
FDA has considered and analyzed the following information: The Manufacturer and User Facility Device Experience (MAUDE) database; data contained in PMAs approved 6 or more years before the date of this proposed order (reviewed under section 520(h)(4) of the FD&C Act, also known as the 6-year rule) (Ref. 10); the published literature; and the recommendations of the Classification Panel and FC1 and FC2 Panels.
Since 1993, the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) has received one medical device report (MDR) regarding an adverse event associated with the use of an internal condom. This MDR reported injury following off-label use of the FC1 Female Condom during anal intercourse; the FC1 Female Condom is indicated for vaginal intercourse. Considering the number of internal condoms distributed in the United States since 1993 (approximately 3 to 4 million per year), the number of adverse events reported is low. FDA acknowledges that because internal condoms are over-the-counter devices, adverse events may be under reported.
Starting in 1989, several Panel meetings were held to discuss the safety and effectiveness of the internal condom. During the March 7, 1989, meeting, the Classification Panel recommended that the internal condom be classified into class III due to the absence of testing and clinical medical data regarding the safety and effectiveness of the device. On January 31 and December 10, 1992, the Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel (referred to as the “FC1 Panel”) was convened to discuss the safety and effectiveness of the FC1 Female Condom and provide recommendations to FDA regarding a specific PMA application (P910064). During these meetings, the FC1 Panel discussed the available nonclinical and clinical data on the FC1 Female Condom, which included an acute failure modes study and contraceptive effectiveness study. On December 10, 1992, the FC1 Panel expressed concern regarding the high failure rates (21.7 percent rate of pregnancy in the Latin American population, 21.4 percent rate of pregnancy in U.S. women less than 25 years of age, 5.4 percent total clinical failure rate) of the FC1 Female Condom but recommended approval with conditions, which included labeling changes aimed at limiting the safety and effectiveness claims and the development of physician labeling. The FC1 Panel based this decision on the fact that no other barrier method existed for women to protect themselves against transmission of STIs if their partner would not use a male condom.
On January 8, 2008, FDA received a PMA (P080002) from the Female Health Company for the FC2 Female Condom (an updated version of the Reality Female Condom, now also referred to as the FC1 Female Condom), comprised of a nitrile sheath, nitrile outer ring, and polyurethane inner ring. Data provided in this PMA demonstrated that the FC2 Female Condom is an effective barrier to viral particles, is biocompatible, has acceptable mechanical properties, and has comparable rates of total clinical failure (2.18 percent) when compared to the FC1 Female Condom (2.92 percent). On December 11, 2008, CDRH convened the Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel (referred to as the “FC2 Panel”) in 2008 to discuss the safety and effectiveness of the FC2 Female Condom. The FC2 Panel recommended approval of the device with conditions, which included labeling changes aimed at improving consumer understanding of possible failure modes of the FC2 Female Condom and the outcomes of the acute failure modes study. The FC2 Panel found that the acute failure modes study comparing the FC2 Female Condom to the FC1 Female Condom provided a reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness for the FC2 Female Condom. Additionally, the FC2 Panel did not believe a contraceptive effectiveness study was needed to demonstrate reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness because of the similarities in design between the FC2 and FC1 Female Condoms and the results of the acute failure modes study, which demonstrated comparable rates of clinical failure between the two female condoms. However, the FC2 Panel noted that the recommendation to not require a contraceptive effectiveness study applied only to the FC2 Female Condom and not other female condoms. As outlined in the proposed special controls in section VI, FDA has determined that a contraceptive effectiveness study is necessary to mitigate the risks to health related to pregnancy for this device type when used for vaginal intercourse.
A review of published literature evaluating the clinical use of the FC2 Female Condom indicates that clinical failure occurred in less than 5 percent of device uses (Refs. 4-7). Clinical failure is defined as the sum total of acute failure events for the internal condom. For the FC2 Female Condom, the acute failure events are slippage, breakage, misdirection, and invagination. This clinical failure rate may decrease with increased user experience with internal condoms (Ref. 5). The adverse events experienced by users of internal condom were infrequent and mild. The results of these published studies indicate that the FC2 Female Condom is effective and has a favorable safety profile. FDA identified no new risks or safety and effectiveness concerns from the published literature that it did not previously identify through its review of the PMAs or either of the prior Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel (“The Panel”) discussions of the female condom.
FDA acknowledges that the available valid scientific evidence, including the review of the MAUDE database, previous PMA approvals and The Panel discussions, and the published literature, primarily discuss use of internal condoms for vaginal intercourse. FDA believes that with the exception of pregnancy, the risks associated with internal condoms for vaginal intercourse are the same as those for anal intercourse (Refs. 11-13). Accordingly, FDA has tentatively determined that special controls can be established, in combination with general controls, which will provide reasonable assurance of the safety and effectiveness of internal condoms used for anal intercourse.
Based on its review of the FC1 and FC2 Female Condom PMAs; the discussions of the Classification Panel, FC1 Panel, and FC2 Panel on the safety and effectiveness of the internal condom; and peer-reviewed published literature, FDA has tentatively determined that available nonclinical and clinical performance data support that the risks associated with the internal condom are well understood and can be mitigated through special controls, including performance testing and labeling. FDA has also tentatively determined that the identified mitigation measures can be used to establish special controls, in addition to general controls, which are necessary to
FDA believes that the following special controls, together with general controls, address the risks to health and provide reasonable assurance of safety and effectiveness to mitigate the risks to health described in section V for the aforementioned single-use internal condoms.
The risks of pregnancy and STI are the most clinically significant risks of the single-use internal condom when used for vaginal and/or anal intercourse. Clinical testing is necessary to mitigate these risks to health. Clinical testing evaluates the rate of total clinical failure of the device and the rate of individual failure modes (slippage, breakage, misdirection, invagination, and other failure modes as appropriate) when the device is used as intended (
To mitigate the risk of STI due to contact with infected semen or vaginal secretions or vaginal/anal mucosa, FDA believes that a viral penetration study is needed to demonstrate that the device is an effective barrier to STIs.
In addition to clinical testing and viral penetration testing to mitigate the risks of pregnancy and STI, FDA believes that the device must demonstrate that it performs as intended under the anticipated conditions of use (
FDA also believes that comprehensive labeling describing risks and mitigation measures associated with the single-use internal condom must be listed. When the device is indicated for vaginal intercourse, the labeling must include a contraceptive effectiveness table comparing typical use (actual use of the method, including inconsistent and incorrect use) and perfect use (when used correctly 100 percent of the time) pregnancy rates of the device to other available methods of birth control. The labeling must also list the adverse events associated with the device, including potential transmission of infection, adverse tissue reaction, and ulceration or other physical trauma. Because the physical properties of the device may be adversely affected by the use of personal lubricants, the labeling must specify whether the device is compatible with additional types of personal lubricants (
Table 1 shows how FDA believes that the risks to health identified in section IV can be mitigated by the proposed special controls. This reclassification order and the identified special controls, if finalized, would provide sufficient detail regarding FDA's requirements to reasonably assure safety and effectiveness of single-use internal condoms.
The Agency has determined under 21 CFR 25.34(b) that this action is of a type that does not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an environmental impact statement is required.
This proposed order refers to currently approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in part 807, subpart E, have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0120; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 814,
FDA proposes that any final order based on this proposed order become effective 30 days after the date of its publication in the
The following references are on display in Dockets Management Staff (see
1. P910064 Summary of Safety and Effectiveness Data (SSED).
2. P940033 Premarket Approval Notice (60 FR 30310, June 8, 1995).
3. P080002 SSED is available on FDA's Web site at
4. Joanis, C., M. Beksinska, C. Hart, et al., “Three New Female Condoms: Which Do South-African Women Prefer?”
5. Beksinska, M., J. Smit, C. Joanis, et al., “Practice Makes Perfect: Reduction in Female Condom Failures and User Problems With Short-Term Experience in a Randomized Trial.”
6. Beksinska, M.E., G. Piaggio, J.A. Smit, et al., “Performance and Safety of the Second-Generation Female Condom (FC2) Versus the Woman's, the VA Worn-of-Women, and the Cupid Female Condoms: A Randomised Controlled Non-Inferiority Crossover Trial.”
7. Beksinska, M., R. Greener, I. Kleinschmidt, et al., “A Randomized Noninferiority Crossover Controlled Trial of the Functional Performance and Safety of New Female Condoms: An Evaluation of the Velvet, Cupid2, and FC2.”
8. The panel transcript and other meeting materials for the December 11, 2008, Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel are available on FDA's Web site at
9. The panel transcript and other meeting materials for the March 7, 1989, January 31, 1992, and December 10, 1992, Obstetrics and Gynecology Devices Panel.
10. “Guidance for Industry and for FDA Reviewers: Guidance on Section 216 of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997,” issued on August 9, 2000. Available at
11. Kelvin, E.A., J.E. Mantell, N. Candelario, et al., “Off-Label Use of the Female Condom for Anal Intercourse Among Men in New York City.”
12. Gross, M., S.P. Buchbinder, S. Holte, et al., “Use of Reality `Female Condoms' for Anal Sex by US Men Who Have Sex With Men. HIVNET Vaccine Preparedness Study Protocol Team.”
13. Renzi, C., S.R. Tabet, J.A. Stucky, et al., “Safety and Acceptability of the Reality Condom for Anal Sex Among Men Who Have Sex With Men.”
Medical devices.
Therefore, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and under authority delegated to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs, it is proposed that 21 CFR part 884 be amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 351, 360, 360c, 360e, 360j, 360
(a)
(a)
(b)
(1) Clinical performance testing must evaluate the following:
(i) Rate of clinical failure of the device and rate of individual failure modes of the device based on an acute failure modes study evaluating the intended use (vaginal and/or anal intercourse); and
(ii) Cumulative pregnancy rate when using the device based on a contraceptive effectiveness study (when the device is indicated for vaginal intercourse).
(2) Viral penetration testing must demonstrate the device is an effective barrier to sexually transmitted infections.
(3) Nonclinical performance testing must demonstrate that the device performs as intended under anticipated conditions of use. The following performance characteristics must be evaluated:
(i) Mechanical testing must demonstrate the device can withstand forces under anticipated use conditions, include evaluation of tensile, tear, and burst properties of the device.
(ii) Compatibility testing with personal lubricants must determine whether the physical properties of the device are adversely affected by use of additional lubricants.
(4) The device must be demonstrated to be biocompatible.
(5) Shelf-life testing must demonstrate that the device maintains its performance characteristics and the packaging of the device must maintain integrity for the duration of the shelf-life.
(6) Labeling of the device must include:
(i) Contraceptive effectiveness table comparing typical use and perfect use pregnancy rates with the device to other available methods of birth control;
(ii) Statement regarding the adverse events associated with the device, including potential transmission of infection, adverse tissue reaction, and ulceration or other physical trauma;
(iii) Expiration date; and
(iv) Statement regarding compatibility with additional types of personal lubricants.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, United States Department of Justice.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
In the Notice section of today's
Comments must be received by January 3, 2018.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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If you want to submit confidential business information as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online or made available in the public docket, you must include the phrase CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also prominently identify confidential business information to be redacted within the comment. If a comment has so much confidential business information that it cannot be effectively redacted, all or part of that comment may not be posted online or made available in the public docket.
Personally identifying information and confidential business information identified and located as set forth above will be redacted and the comment, in redacted form, may be posted online and placed in the Department's public docket file. Please note that the Freedom of Information Act applies to all comments received. If you wish to inspect the agency's public docket file in person by appointment, please see the
Katherine M. Bond, Assistant General Counsel, Privacy and Civil Liberties Unit, Office of the General Counsel, FBI, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001, telephone 202-324-3000.
In the Notice section of today's
This proposed rule relates to individuals rather than small business entities. Pursuant to the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, therefore, the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996, 5 U.S.C. 801
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), requires that the FBI consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. There are no current or new information collection requirements associated with this proposed rule. The records that are contributed to this system are created by the FBI or other law enforcement and governmental entities. Sharing of this information electronically will not increase the paperwork burden on the public.
This proposed rule is not a “significant regulatory action” within the meaning of Executive Order 12866 and therefore further regulatory evaluation is not necessary. This proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because it applies only to information about individuals.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 103-3, 109 Stat. 48, requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of certain regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments, and the private sector. UMRA requires a written statement of economic and regulatory alternatives for proposed and final rules that contain Federal mandates. A “Federal mandate” is a new or additional enforceable duty, imposed on any State, local, or tribal government, or the private sector. If any Federal mandate causes those entities to spend, in aggregate, $100 million or more in any one year, the UMRA analysis is required. This proposed rule would not impose Federal mandates on any State, local, or tribal government or the private sector.
Administrative practice and procedure, Courts, Freedom of information, Privacy.
Pursuant to the authority vested in the Attorney General by 5 U.S.C. 552a and delegated to me by Attorney General Order 2940-2008, 28 CFR part 16 is proposed to be amended as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 552, 552a, 553; 28 U.S.C. 509, 510, 534; 31 U.S.C. 3717.
(x) The Federal Bureau of Investigation Online Collaboration Systems (JUSTICE/FBI-004) system of records is exempted from subsections 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1), (2), (3), (4)(G), (H), and (I), (5), and (8); (f); and (g) of the Privacy Act:
(1) FBI Online Collaboration Systems, (JUSTICE/FBI-004).
(2) These exemptions apply only to the extent that information in this system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Where the FBI determines compliance with an exempted provision would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect interests of the United States or other system stakeholders, the FBI in its sole discretion may waive an exemption in whole or in part; exercise of this discretionary waiver prerogative in a particular matter shall not create any entitlement to or expectation of waiver in that matter or any other matter. As a condition of discretionary waiver, the FBI in its sole discretion may impose any restrictions deemed advisable by the FBI (including, but not limited to, restrictions on the location, manner, or scope of notice, access or amendment).
(y) Exemptions from the particular subsections are justified for the following reasons:
(1) From subsection (c)(3), the requirement that an accounting be made available to the named subject of a record, because this system is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d). Also, because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosures from records concerning him/her would specifically reveal any law enforcement or national security investigative interest in the individual by the FBI or agencies that are recipients of the disclosures. Revealing this information could compromise ongoing, authorized law enforcement and intelligence efforts, particularly efforts to identify and defuse any potential acts of terrorism or other potential violations of criminal law. Revealing this information could also permit the record subject to obtain valuable insight concerning the information obtained during any investigation and to take measures to circumvent the investigation (
(2) From subsection (c)(4) notification requirements because this system is exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) as well as the accounting disclosures provision of subsection (c)(3). The FBI takes seriously its obligation to maintain accurate records despite its assertion of this exemption, and to the extent it, in its sole discretion, agrees to permit amendment or correction of FBI records, it will share that information in appropriate cases.
(3) From subsection (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4), (e)(4)(G) and (H), (e)(8), (f) and (g) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of law enforcement and intelligence records and compliance could alert the subject of an authorized law enforcement or intelligence activity about that particular activity and the investigative interest of the FBI and/or other law enforcement or intelligence agencies. Providing access could compromise sensitive law enforcement information, disclose information that could constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigative or intelligence technique; provide information that would allow a subject to avoid detection or apprehension; or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential sources, and witnesses. The FBI takes seriously its obligation to maintain accurate records despite its assertion of this exemption, and to the extent it, in its sole discretion, agrees to permit amendment or correction of FBI records, it will share that information in appropriate cases with subjects of the information.
(4) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to know in advance what information is relevant and necessary for law enforcement and intelligence purposes. Relevance and necessity are questions of judgment and timing. For example, what appears relevant and necessary when collected ultimately may be deemed unnecessary. It is only after information is assessed that its relevancy and necessity in a specific investigative activity can be established.
(5) From subsections (e)(2) and (3) because application of these provisions requiring collection directly from the
(6) From subsection (e)(4)(I), to the extent that this subsection is interpreted to require more detail regarding the record sources in this system than has already been published in the
(7) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for authorized law enforcement and intelligence purposes it is impossible to determine in advance what information is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete. With time, additional facts, or analysis, information may acquire new significance. The restrictions imposed by subsection (e)(5) would limit the ability of trained investigators and intelligence analysts to exercise their judgment in reporting on investigations and impede the development of criminal intelligence necessary for effective law enforcement. Although the FBI has claimed this exemption, it continuously works with its federal, state, local, tribal, and international partners to maintain the accuracy of records to the greatest extent practicable. The FBI does so with established policies and practices. The criminal justice and national security communities have a strong operational interest in using up-to-date and accurate records and will foster relationships with partners to further this interest.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve the emissions inventory, modeled attainment demonstration, determination for Major Stationary Source Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT), determination for On-Road Mobile Sources Reasonably Available Control Measures (RACM), determination for Cache County Inspection and Maintenance (I/M) Program as additional reasonable measures, determination for Off-Road Mobile Sources RACM, and the 2015 Motor Vehicle Emission Budgets (MVEB) portions of the attainment plan submitted by Utah on December 16, 2014, to address Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act) requirements for the 2006 24-hour fine particulate matter (PM
Written comments must be received on or before January 3, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R08-OAR-2016-0585 at
Crystal Ostigaard, Air Program, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), Region 8, Mailcode 8P-AR, 1595 Wynkoop Street, Denver, Colorado 80202-1129, (303) 312-6602,
a.
b.
1. Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
2. Follow directions—The agency may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
3. Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
4. Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
5. If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
6. Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
7. Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
8. Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
On October 17, 2006 (71 FR 61144), the EPA revised the level of the 24-hour PM
The Logan, UT-ID PM
The EPA originally issued a rule in 2007
Following the November 13, 2009 designation of nonattainment for PM
On January 4, 2013, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia held that the EPA should have implemented the 2006 PM
On June 2, 2014 (79 FR 31566), the EPA finalized the Identification of Nonattainment Classification and Deadlines for Submission of State Implementation Plan (SIP) Provisions for the 1997 Fine Particulate (PM
After the court's 2013 decision, Utah amended its attainment plan to address the requirements of subpart 4. On December 2, 2013, and October 30, 2014, the EPA provided comments on Utah's revised draft PM
On August 24, 2016, the EPA finalized the Fine Particulate Matter National Ambient Air Quality Standards: State Implementation Plan Requirements (“PM
On September 8, 2017 (82 FR 42447), the EPA granted two, one-year extensions of the Moderate attainment date for the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
Upon designation as a Moderate nonattainment area under subpart 1 and subpart 4, the CAA requires the State to submit the following Moderate area SIP elements:
1. A comprehensive, accurate, current inventory of actual emissions from all sources of PM
2. Provisions to assure that RACM, including RACT, for the control of direct PM
3. A demonstration (including air quality modeling) that the plan provides for attainment as expeditiously as
4. Plan provisions that require RFP (CAA section 172(c)(2));
5. Quantitative milestones which are to be achieved every three years until the area is redesignated attainment and which demonstrate RFP toward attainment by the applicable date (CAA section 189(c));
6. Provisions to assure that control requirements applicable to major stationary sources of PM
7. Contingency measures to be implemented if the area fails to meet RFP or fails to attain by the applicable attainment date (CAA section 172(c)(9)); and
8. A revision to the NNSR program to set the applicable “major stationary source” thresholds to 100 tons per year (tpy) (CAA section 302(j)).
Moderate area PM
The EPA interprets the CAA's requirements for particulate matter plans under part D, title I of the Act in the following documents: (1) “State Implementation Plans; General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990,” 57 FR 13498 (April 16, 1992) (“General Preamble”); (2) “State Implementation Plans; General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990; Supplemental,” 57 FR 18070 (April 28, 1992) (“Supplement”); (3) “State Implementation Plans for Serious PM
Section 172(c)(1) of the Act (from subpart 1) requires that attainment plans, in general, provide for the implementation of all RACM (including RACT) as expeditiously as practicable and shall provide for attainment of the national primary ambient air quality standards. CAA section 189(a)(1)(C) (from subpart 4) requires Moderate area attainment plans to contain provisions to assure that RACM is implemented no later than four years after designation.
The EPA stated its interpretation of the RACT and RACM requirements of subparts 1 and 4 in the 1992 General Preamble for the Implementation of Title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990, 57 FR 13498 (Apr. 6, 1992). For RACT, the EPA followed its “historic definition of RACT as the lowest emission limitation that a particular source is capable of meeting by the application of control technology that is reasonably available considering technological and economic feasibility.” 57 FR 13541. Like RACT, the EPA has historically considered RACM to consist of control measures that are reasonably available, considering technological and economic feasibility.
The EPA is proposing to act on the following portions of the Logan Moderate PM
CAA section 172(c)(3) requires that each SIP include a “comprehensive, accurate, current inventory of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutant or pollutants in [the] area. . . .” By requiring an accounting of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutants in the area, this section provides for the base year inventory to include all emissions that contribute to the formation of a particular NAAQS pollutant. For the 2006 PM
In addition to the base year inventory submitted to meet the requirements of CAA section 172(c)(3), the State must also submit future inventories for the projected attainment year and any other year of significance for meeting applicable CAA requirements. By attainment projected inventories, we mean the projected emissions inventories for future years that account for, among other things, the ongoing effects of economic growth and adopted emissions control requirements. The SIP should include documentation to explain how the emissions projections were calculated.
The base year inventory should represent typical conditions at a recent point in time, and becomes the basis for comparisons with all projections into the future. The foundation that UDAQ used for each of these specific inventories is the 2008 triennial inventory, which was the most recent comprehensive inventory submitted to the EPA under subpart A of 40 CFR part 51. Utah used the 2008 inventory to back-cast and adjust for certain episodic conditions, and forecast a representation of more typical conditions to develop the projected inventories.
The Logan, UT-ID nonattainment area emissions inventory includes emissions estimates from point sources, area sources, on-road mobile sources, and off-road mobile sources. The methodologies used to derive the 2010 base year inventory for PM
• The point source emissions inventory is based on the 2008 triennial National Emissions Inventory (NEI) data of actual emissions reported by all permitted facilities. UDAQ used data from the Regional Economic Models, Inc. (REMI) to project the 2008 actual point source emissions to 2010.
• Activity data was used to calculate emissions for area source categories. This data includes population, employment, vehicle miles traveled
• The inventory for the on-road mobile source category includes emissions for mobile sources such as trucks, cars, buses, and motorcycles. It was prepared by UDAQ using the EPA's Motor Vehicle Emissions Simulator (MOVES2010a), the most current version of the model available at the time the inventory was prepared, in conjunction with information generated by travel demand models such as vehicle speeds and miles traveled.
• The non-road mobile source category includes miscellaneous non-road engines, aircraft, and locomotives. Miscellaneous non-road emissions were computed by using the EPA NONROAD Model, version 2008.1.0. Locomotive emissions were estimated by applying the EPA emission factors to the total amount of fuel used by locomotives. Aircraft emissions were estimated by applying aircraft specific activity data and the Emissions Dispersion Modeling System (EDMS), version 5.1.2.
• Paved road emissions (coarse particulate matter (PM
Table 1 below provides a summary of winter daily average inventories of source categories for direct PM
The composition of the Area Source Category in the table above includes: Agriculture—livestock waste; bulk gasoline terminals; commercial cooking; dust—construction dust; fuel combination—commercial/institutional—coal, natural gas, oil, and other; fuel combination—residential—oil, other, and wood; gas stations, industrial processes—not elsewhere classified (NEC); miscellaneous non-industrial NEC; mobile—non-road equipment—diesel; solvent—consumer and commercial solvent use, degreasing, dry cleaning, graphic arts, industrial surface coating and solvent use, non-industrial surface coating; and waste disposal.
The PM
Specifically, the base year inventory satisfies each requirement found in 40 CFR 51.1008(a)(1). First, the base year of 2010 was not one of the three years (2006-2008) used for designation of the area as nonattainment. See 40 CFR 51.1008(a)(1)(i). However, the state has justified 2010 as a technically appropriate inventory year, and the use of a later year is consistent with the statutory requirement in section 172(c)(3) to use a “current” inventory. Second, the inventory represents actual, average season-day emissions. 40 CFR 51.1008(a)(1)(ii) and (a)(1)(iii). Third, the inventory provides emissions of all precursors of PM
The projected year inventory satisfies each requirement in 40 CFR 51.1008(a)(2). First, the 2015 projected year inventory was the most expeditious year that showed modeled PM
The base year inventory in the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
Air quality modeling is used to establish emissions attainment targets, the combination of emissions of PM
At the time the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
The EPA recommends that states prepare a modeling protocol as part of their modeled attainment demonstration, and the Modeling Guidance describes the topics to be addressed in the modeling protocol. A modeling protocol should detail and formalize the procedures for conducting all phases of the modeling analysis, such as describing the background and objectives, creating a schedule and organizational structure, developing the input data, conducting model performance evaluations, interpreting modeling results, describing procedures for using the model to demonstrate whether proposed strategies are sufficient to attain the applicable standard, and producing documentation to be submitted for the EPA Regional Office review and approval prior to actual modeling.
In addition to a modeled attainment demonstration, which focuses on locations with an air quality monitor, EPA's Guidance describes an Unmonitored Area Analysis (UAA). This analysis is intended to ensure that a control strategy leads to reductions in PM
Under the PM
UDAQ conducted a technical analysis to support the development of the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
The modeling protocol for the Moderate PM
The air quality modeling and results are summarized in Chapter 5—Attainment Demonstration of the Logan, UT-ID PM
As mentioned above, the attainment demonstration must show that the Moderate nonattainment area will attain the standard as expeditiously as practicable but no later than the end of the sixth calendar year after the area's designation. The Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
The EPA proposes to approve the attainment demonstration as meeting general modeling requirements in Appendix W. The joint Utah and Idaho modeling included in Chapter 4 of the TSD and Chapter 5 of the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
We note that the PM
Additionally, UDAQ included a UAA in the WOEA found in Chapter 4 of the TSD. The UAA showed that five grid-cells north of the Franklin, ID monitor had calculated future design values (FDVs) over 35.5 µg/m
The EPA worked with UDAQ to develop the methodology for the UAA in the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
The EPA is therefore proposing to approve the attainment demonstration portion of the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
As mentioned above, section 172(c)(1) of the Act (from subpart 1) requires that attainment plans, in general, provide for the implementation of all RACM (including RACT) as expeditiously as practicable. Section 189(a)(1)(C) (from subpart 4) requires Moderate area plans to include provisions to assure that RACM is implemented no later than four years after designation. The Logan, UT-ID area was designated nonattainment for the 2006 24-hour PM
The PM
Under the PM
Section 172(c)(6) of the Act requires states to implement “other measures” necessary to provide for timely attainment in an area. The PM
In developing the emissions inventories underlying the SIP, UDAQ used the criteria of 40 CFR part 51, subpart A for air emissions reporting requirements to establish a 100 tons per year (tpy) threshold for identifying a sub-group of major stationary sources that would be evaluated individually for the establishment of emissions limits. Under 40 CFR 51.1000, the definition for major stationary source means “Any stationary source of air pollutant(s) that emits, or has the potential to emit, 100 tpy or more of direct PM
UDAQ determined that data from the REMI would be used to project the 2008 actual major stationary source emissions to 2010. On March 23, 2012, Pepperidge Farm Inc., applied to be designated as a synthetic minor source and on May 21, 2012, UDAQ concurred and issued a construction permit that restricted emissions below the major stationary source threshold. Specifically, VOC emissions were limited to 93.81 tpy per rolling 12-month period. Since Pepperidge Farm Inc. was designated as a synthetic minor source in 2012, the source was not included in the 2015 projection inventory as a major stationary source, but in the area source inventory. Table 3 below shows emissions in tons per day for the 2010 baseline and projected 2015 inventories.
For the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
Through the course of the development of the Logan, UT-ID PM
The EPA noted in the September 9, 2015, final rule that under subparts 1 and 4 of the CAA, Cache County's I/M program is not a CAA mandatory or required I/M program; and is therefore, not held to the same level of applicability requirements as found in 40 CFR part 51, subpart S, I/M program requirements. Within Utah's SIP, Part F of Section X, in conjunction with Part A of Section X, were designed by the County and the State to meet the minimum applicable I/M provisions and requirements set forth in 40 CFR 51, subpart S. It is also noted in Part F of Utah's SIP that although only a portion of Cache County was designated as nonattainment for the 2006 PM
The EPA is not revisiting the September 9, 2015 (80 FR 54237) approval of Cache County's I/M program with this action but is only acting on UDAQ's RACM analysis pertaining to this program. Within Chapter 5 of the TSD, UDAQ provides their review of several control measures and their final RACM conclusions for mobile sources in the Logan, UT-ID nonattainment area.
The potential control measures identified and evaluated by UDAQ include: (1) A mandatory I/M program in Logan where such a program did not previously exist; (2) reducing the Reid vapor pressure (RVP) of gasoline to control VOC emissions; and (3) implementing a bundle of voluntary control measures (
The preliminary cost analysis for extending the I/M program to the Logan, UT-ID nonattainment area shows a cost effectiveness of approximately $6,000 to $8,000 per ton of emissions reduced per year. UDAQ concluded that this was within the range of costs associated with other control measures which were under consideration for inclusion in the Logan, UT-ID PM
The EPA's motor vehicle emissions model, MOVES2010a, was used to identify the effectiveness of the I/M program in the Logan, UT-ID nonattainment area. For 2015, MOVES predicted emission reductions of 0.21 tpd for NO
Additionally, UDAQ provided information for On-Road Mobile programs that were promulgated at the federal level. The Tier 2 program was promulgated by the EPA on April 10, 2000 (65 FR 6698; February 10, 2000) and was phased in between 2004 and 2008. Tier 2 set a single set of standards for all light duty vehicles and required refiners to reduce gasoline sulfur levels nationwide. UDAQ provided estimates provided by the EPA that the Tier 2 program would reduce oxides of nitrogen emission by at least 2,220,000 tpy nationwide in 2020.
UDAQ did not consider any additional SIP controls for off-road mobile sources beyond those already promulgated at the federal level. Emission reductions from these federal controls were taken indirectly because their effectiveness has been incorporated into the NONROAD model. Table 5 below summarizes the 2010 base year and 2015 projection year annual emissions from non-road mobile sources in Cache County which contains the Logan, UT-ID Moderate PM
Chapter 5 of UDAQ's TSD provides a detailed description of what control measures were included in the modeling.
The EPA is proposing to approve UDAQ's determination that a RACT analysis for the Pepperidge Farms facility was not necessary, as the SIP demonstrates attainment based on the other control measures included in the SIP. The EPA agrees with UDAQ's underlying justification for including the I/M program in the Logan, UT-ID attainment plan. UDAQ analyzed the measure as technologically and economically feasible and therefore RACM; however, the measure was implemented in the fifth and sixth year after designation. UDAQ did not have the benefit of the EPA's distinction in the PM
Transportation conformity is required by section 176(c) of the CAA. The EPA's conformity rule at 40 CFR 93, Subpart A requires that transportation plans, programs, and projects conform to SIPs and establishes the criteria and procedures for determining whether or not they conform. Conformity to a SIP means that transportation activities will not produce new air quality violations, worsen existing violations, or delay timely attainment of the NAAQS or any interim milestone. To effectuate its purpose, the EPA's conformity rule requires a demonstration that emissions from a Metropolitan Planning Organization's (MPO) Regional Transportation Plan (RTP) and Transportation Improvement Program (TIP), involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval, are consistent with the MVEB(s) contained in a control strategy SIP revision or maintenance plan (40 CFR 93.101, 93.118, and 93.124). A MVEB is defined as the level of mobile source emissions of a pollutant relied upon in the attainment, RFP or maintenance demonstration to attain or maintain compliance with the NAAQS in the nonattainment or maintenance area. Further information concerning the EPA's interpretations regarding MVEBs can be found in the preamble to the EPA's November 24, 1993, transportation conformity rule (see 58 FR 62193-62196).
The EPA notes that PM
Utah's Logan, UT-ID PM
We note that prior to December 31, 2015, the EPA had found the Logan, UT-ID PM
On March 23, 2015, we announced receipt of the Logan, UT-ID PM
The EPA's transportation conformity rule allows for trading between direct PM
As discussed in section 7.6 “Transportation Conformity PM
The SIP notes that this trading mechanism will only be used by the Cache MPO for transportation conformity determination analyses for years after 2015. The SIP further notes that to ensure that the trading mechanism does not impact the ability to meet the NO
The EPA has evaluated the Logan, UT-ID PM
For the reasons discussed in section IV above, under CAA section 110(k)(3), the EPA is proposing to approve the emissions inventory, modeled attainment demonstration, determination for Major Stationary Source RACT, determination for On-Road Mobile Sources RACM, determination of Cache County I/M program as additional reasonable measures, determination for Off-Road Mobile Sources RACM, and 2015 MVEB for the Logan, UT-ID PM
1. The EPA is proposing the following actions on the Logan, UT-ID PM
a. Approve the 2010 base year and 2015 projection year emissions inventories;
b. Approve the modeled attainment demonstration;
c. Approve the RACM/RACT and additional reasonable measure demonstrations for on-road mobile, Cache County I/M Program, off-road mobile and point sources; and
d. Approve the 2015 direct PM
Under section 110(l) of the CAA, the EPA cannot approve a SIP revision if the revision would interfere with any applicable requirements concerning attainment and RFP toward attainment of the NAAQS, or any other applicable requirement of the Act. The EPA proposes to determine that the portions of the Logan UT-ID PM
In this rule, the EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference the approval of portions of the Logan, UT-ID PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action approves state law as meeting federal requirements. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Ammonia, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of filing of petition and request for comment.
This document announces EPA's receipt of an initial filing of a pesticide petition requesting the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various commodities.
Comments must be received on or before January 3, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket Identification (ID) Number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0314, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Robert McNally, Biopesticides and Pollution Prevention Division (7511P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed under
1.
2.
3.
EPA is announcing receipt of a pesticide petition filed under section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), 21 U.S.C. 346a, requesting the establishment or modification of regulations in 40 CFR part 180 for residues of pesticide chemicals in or on various food commodities. EPA is taking public comment on the request before responding to the petitioner. EPA is not proposing any particular action at this time. EPA has determined that the pesticide petition described in this document contains data or information prescribed in FFDCA section 408(d)(2), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(2); however, EPA has not fully evaluated the sufficiency of the submitted data at this time or whether the data supports granting of the
Pursuant to 40 CFR 180.7(f), a summary of the petition that is the subject of this document, prepared by the petitioner, is included in a docket EPA has created for this rulemaking. The docket for this petition is available at
As specified in FFDCA section 408(d)(3), 21 U.S.C. 346a(d)(3), EPA is publishing notice of the petition so that the public has an opportunity to comment on this request for the establishment or modification of regulations for residues of pesticides in or on food commodities. Further information on the petition may be obtained through the petition summary referenced in this unit.
21 U.S.C. 346a.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request a revision to and extension of approval of an information collection associated with the importation of used farm equipment into the United States from regions affected with foot-and-mouth disease.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before February 2, 2018.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For information on foot-and-mouth disease and the prohibition on importation of farm equipment, contact Dr. Tracye Butler, Senior Staff Veterinarian, National Import Export Services, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 40, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3300. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
In part 94, § 94.1(c) prohibits the importation of used farm equipment into the United States from regions where APHIS considers foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) or rinderpest to exist unless the equipment has been steam-cleaned prior to export to the United States so that it is free of exposed dirt and other particulate matter. Such equipment must be accompanied by an original certificate, signed by an authorized official of the national animal health service of the exporting region, stating that the farm equipment after its last use and prior to export, was steam-cleaned free of all exposed dirt and other particulate matter.
We are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve our use of this information collection activity, as described, for an additional 3 years.
The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through use, as appropriate, of automated, electronic, mechanical, and other collection technologies;
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request a revision to and extension of approval of an information collection associated with its efforts to certify certain laboratories that conduct aquatic animal testing for export activities.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before February 2, 2018.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For information on conducting aquatic animal tests for export health certificates, contact Dr. Katharine Starzel, Aquaculture Liaison Coordinator, 1408 24th Street, Ruskin, FL 33570; (813) 671-5230. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
Disease prevention is the most effective method for maintaining a healthy animal population and enhancing the ability of U.S. producers to compete in the global market of animal and animal product trade. To facilitate the export of U.S. animals and animal products, the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture maintains information regarding the import health requirements of other countries for animals and animal products, including aquaculture animals, exported from the United States.
While APHIS does not currently require the approval or certification of laboratories that conduct disease tests for the export of aquaculture animals, some countries that import these animals from the United States require them to be tested for certain diseases and the test results recorded on the export certificates. In addition, the test results must originate from a laboratory approved by the competent authority of the exporting country, which is APHIS in this case. State, university, and private laboratories can voluntarily seek APHIS approval of individual diagnostic methods. Though APHIS does not have regulations for the approval or certification of laboratories that conduct tests for the export of aquaculture animals, APHIS provides this approval as a service to U.S. exporters who export aquaculture animals to countries that require this certification.
APHIS evaluates diagnostic methods for detecting aquatic animal pathogens listed by the World Organization for Animal Health (OIE) in the OIE diagnostic manual and other supporting scientific literature. APHIS lists the laboratories approved to conduct diagnostic testing in support of export health certification of aquatic species at
The approval of laboratories to conduct tests for the export of aquaculture animals requires the use of certain information collection activities including notification of intent to request approval, application for APHIS approval, protocol statement, submission and recordkeeping of sample copies of diagnostic reports, quality assurance/control plans and their recordkeeping, notification of proposed changes to assay protocols, recordkeeping of supporting assay documentation, and request for removal of approved status.
We are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve our use of these information collection activities, as described, for an additional 3 years.
The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through use, as appropriate, of automated, electronic, mechanical, and other collection technologies;
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request a revision to and extension of approval of an information collection associated with its efforts to safeguard the health of the U.S. livestock and poultry populations by the use of National Veterinary Services Laboratories request forms.
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before February 2, 2018.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For information on National Veterinary Services Laboratories request forms, contact Ms. Lori Anderson, Chief of Staff, STAS, VS, APHIS, 1920 Dayton Ave., Ames, IA 50010; (515) 337-7405. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
As an element of the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) disease prevention mission, the National Veterinary Services Laboratories (NVSL) safeguard U.S. animal health by ensuring that timely and accurate laboratory support is provided through a nationwide animal health diagnostic system. NVSL's work necessitates the use of several information collection activities including requests for reagents or supplies, NVSL contact information updates, and NVSL applications for laboratory training.
We are asking the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to approve our use of these information collection activities, as described, for an additional 3 years.
The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through use, as appropriate, of automated, electronic, mechanical, and other collection technologies;
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Revision to and extension of approval of an information collection; comment request.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice announces the Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service's intention to request a revision to and extension of
We will consider all comments that we receive on or before February 2, 2018.
You may submit comments by either of the following methods:
•
•
Supporting documents and any comments we receive on this docket may be viewed at
For information on the importation of poultry meat and other poultry products from Sinaloa and Sonora, Mexico, and poultry and pork transiting the United States, contact Dr. Magde Elshafie, VS, APHIS, 4700 River Road, Unit 39, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3300. For copies of more detailed information on the information collection, contact Ms. Kimberly Hardy, APHIS' Information Collection Coordinator, at (301) 851-2483.
Disease prevention is the most effective method for maintaining a healthy animal population and for enhancing the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS), Veterinary Services' ability to allow U.S. animal producers to compete in the world market of animal and animal product trade. APHIS is the agency charged with carrying out disease prevention by regulating the importation of animals and animal products into the United States. The regulations under which APHIS conducts these disease prevention activities are contained in title 9, chapter 1, subchapter D, parts 91 through 99, of the Code of Federal Regulations. These regulations govern the importation of animals and animal products.
APHIS currently places certain restrictions on the importation and in-transit movement of fresh (chilled or frozen) pork and pork products from Mexico because of the presence of classical swine fever (CSF) in some areas of Mexico.
In addition, the regulations in § 94.6 provide the requirements for, among other things, the importation of poultry carcasses, parts, products, and eggs (other than hatching eggs) from regions where Newcastle disease (ND) is considered to exist. However, § 94.33 allows poultry carcasses, parts, products, and eggs (other than hatching eggs) that do not qualify for entry into the United States to transit the United States via land ports, for immediate export, from Mexican States that Mexico considers to be free of ND. APHIS believes that allowing such in-transit movements presents a negligible risk of introducing ND or CSF into the United States while simultaneously avoiding unnecessary restrictions on trade.
APHIS also currently has regulations in place that restrict the importation of poultry meat and other poultry products from Mexico due to the presence of ND in that country. However, under the regulations in § 94.30, APHIS allows the importation of poultry meat and poultry products from the Mexican States of Sinaloa and Sonora, if imported according to APHIS' requirements, because APHIS has determined that poultry meat and products from these two Mexican States pose a negligible risk of introducing ND into the United States.
To ensure these items are safe for importation, APHIS requires that information collection activities take place such as foreign meat inspection certificates, serially numbered seals, applications for import permits, emergency action notification, and pre-arrival notifications.
The information collection requirements above are currently approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB control numbers 0579-0144 (Importation of Poultry Meat and other Poultry Products from Sinaloa and Sonora, Mexico) and 0579-0145 (Poultry and Pork Products Transiting the United States). After OMB approves this combined information collection package (0579-0144), APHIS will retire OMB control number 0579-0145.
In addition, as a result of merging these information collection activities, APHIS has revised the title of this information collection from “Importation of Poultry Meat and other Poultry Products from Sinaloa and Sonora, Mexico”, to “Importation of Poultry Meat and Other Poultry Products From Sinaloa and Sonora, Mexico; Poultry and Pork Transiting the United States.”
We are asking OMB to approve our use of these information collection activities, as described, for an additional 3 years.
The purpose of this notice is to solicit comments from the public (as well as affected agencies) concerning our information collection. These comments will help us:
(1) Evaluate whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of our estimate of the burden of the collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through use, as appropriate, of automated, electronic, mechanical, and other collection technologies;
All responses to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will also become a matter of public record.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice; request for comment
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Forest Service is seeking comments from all interested individuals and organizations on the renewal of the currently approved information collection
Comments must be received in writing on or before February 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
Comments concerning this notice should be addressed to Carl Maass, Natural Resources Research Center, 2150 Centre Ave., Building A, Suite 316, Fort Collins, CO 80526. Comments also may be submitted via facsimile to (202) 205-1045 or by Email to:
All comments, including names and addresses when provided, are placed in the record and are available for public inspection and copying. The public may inspect comments received at the Office of the Director, Forest Management, Third Floor, Southwest Wing, Yates Building, 201 14th Street SW., Washington, DC. Visitors are encouraged to call ahead at (202) 205-1496 to facilitate entry into the building.
Carl Maass, Forest Management Staff, at (970) 295-5961. Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Relay Service (FRS) at 1-800-877-8339, 24 hours a day, every day of the year, including holidays.
The type and amount of information collected varies depending on the size, complexity, and length of each contract, and external factors such as weather and market conditions. The information collected includes plans, requests, agreements, and notices necessary for operations under the terms of the contracts. Forest Service officers collect the information from contractors who may be individuals, private sector businesses, or other government entities. The information is submitted in a variety of formats including Forest Service forms, Government Standard and/or Common Forms, forms developed by individual contractors, charts, maps, email messages, facsimiles, and letters. Also, to assist small contractors and lessen their burden, individual Contracting Officers may provide optional forms for some of the information collected.
Depending on the purpose of the specific information collection, the information may be submitted by electronic mail, facsimile, conventional mail, or hand delivery. The information is needed by the Agency for a variety of uses associated with the operations and administration of contracts for the sale of timber and other forest products, in order to: (1) Plan and schedule contract administration workloads, (2) plan and schedule the delivery of government furnished materials needed by contractors, (3) assure the safety of the public in the vicinity of contract work, (4) identify contractor resources that may be used in emergency fire-fighting situations, (5) determine contractor eligibility for additional contract time, (6) determine contractor eligibility for re-determining contract rates, (7) monitor compliance with domestic processing requirements, (8) monitor compliance with Small Business Administration requirements, (9) process agreements and modifications, (10) inspect and accept work and (11) properly process payment bonds.
FS-2400-0076
The following forms are available for optional use by timber sale purchasers. These forms were developed to assist small purchasers in submitting all of the information that the contract requires be included in these plans and schedules:
FS-2400-0077
FS-2400-0078
FS-2400-0079
The following forms are for mandatory use when purchaser requests changes to the terms of the contract:
FS-2400-0010
FS-2400-0011
FS-2400-0012
FS-2400-0016
The following forms are for mandatory use when purchaser requests
FS-6500-12
FS-6500-12a
To see forms displaying versions currently in use can be viewed on the World Wide Web/Internet site at:
All comments received in response to this notice, including name and address when provided, will be summarized and included in the request for Office of Management and Budget approval. All comments also will become a matter of public record.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Forest Service is seeking comments from all interested individuals and organizations on the extension with no revision of a currently approved information collection, Qualified Products Lists for Fire Chemicals for Wildland Fire Management.
Comments must be received in writing on or before February 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
Comments concerning this notice should be addressed to Dave Haston, Branch Chief, Equipment and Chemicals, USDA Forest Service, National Interagency Fire Center, 3833 S. Development Avenue, Boise, ID 83705.
Comments also may be submitted via facsimile to 208-387-5642 or by email to:
The public may inspect comments received at the National Interagency Fire Center (NIFC), Jack Wilson Building, in Boise, Idaho, Monday through Friday 10:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. Visitors are encouraged to call ahead to 208-387-5348 to facilitate entry to the building.
Shirley Zylstra, Missoula Technology and Development Center (MTDC), 406-329-4859, Cecilia Johnson, (MTDC), 406-329-4819, or Dave Haston, NIFC, 208-387-5642. Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 twenty-four hours a day, every day of the year, including holidays.
To initiate an evaluation, product manufacturers (or authorized suppliers) enter into an agreement with the Forest Service and pay all costs associated with the submission and evaluation of the product. Once the agreement is in place and funds are deposited to cover the associated costs, the manufacturer submits the following information to WFCS:
1. List of the specific ingredients and quantity used to prepare the product;
2. Identification of a specific company as the source of supply for each ingredient;
3. Copies of the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) for the product and for each ingredient used to prepare the product (from the company that supplies that chemical); and
4. Specific mixing requirements and performance information.
Review of the submitted information assures that the product does not contain ingredients meeting the criteria for Chemicals of Concern. Chemicals of Concern are defined as chemicals appearing on one or more of the following lists:
• Agency list of unacceptable ingredients;
• National Toxicology Program (NTP) Annual Report on Carcinogens;
• International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) Monographs for Potential Carcinogen;
• Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) List of Extremely Hazardous Substances and Their Threshold Planning Quantities;
• Resources Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Acutely Hazardous and Toxic Wastes; and
• Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know (EPCRA), Toxic Release Inventory.
A risk assessment, performed at the manufacturer expense, is required. The risk assessment, performed by a third party selected by the Agency, assesses
Each product submitted is tested to determine the mammalian and aquatic toxicity of the product and must meet specific levels of performance to minimize potential risk during firefighting operations. Additional tests are performed to determine the effectiveness of the product to reduce spread rate and intensity of the fire by application directly on or near the fire. A number of product characteristics are measured over the operational performance range of the product to ensure that the product meets the needs of the firefighters in the field.
The collection of this information for each product submission is necessary due to the length of time needed to test the product (18 to 24 months) and the need to ensure that products do not pose a hazard for laboratory personnel during the evaluation prior to purchase and use. This information collection and the product evaluation must be conducted on an ongoing basis to ensure the Agency can solicit and award contracts in a timely manner to provide firefighters with safe and effective wildland fire chemical products.
All comments received in response to this notice, including names and addresses when provided, will be a matter of public record.
Comments will be summarized and included in the submission request toward Office of Management and Budget approval.
United States Commission on Civil Rights.
Notice of Commission Public Briefing.
Friday, December 8, 2017, 9:00 a.m. EST.
National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Suite 1150, Washington, DC 20245 (Entrance on F Street NW.).
Brian Walch, (202) 376-8371; TTY: (202) 376-8116;
The Commission will hold a public briefing:
The Commission's focused investigation will examine school districts' compliance with federal laws designed to ensure the safety of students of color with disabilities against discrimination, and whether laws adequately protect these students from discriminatory disciplinary actions and policies.
The Commission will hear presentations from diverse stakeholders, including advocacy groups and academics. Following these presentations, the Commission will hold an open comment period from 1:00-2:00 p.m. EST. Individuals who wish to participate in the open comment period should sign-up at the Commission between 9:30 a.m. and 12:30 p.m. EST. Each individual will have up to three (3) minutes to speak, with spots allotted on a first-come, first-serve basis. In addition, the Commission welcomes submission of additional material for consideration as we prepare a report following the briefing; please submit such information to
The event will live-stream at
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and
The data collected in the ARTS provide a current statistical picture of the retail portion of consumer activity. These data are collected to provide a sound statistical basis for the formation of policy by various government agencies, as well as to serve as a benchmark for the estimates compiled from the Monthly Retail Trade Survey. Results will be made available, at the United States summary level, for selected retail trade industries approximately fifteen months after the end of the reference year.
Every 5 years, ARTS requests data on detailed operating expenses. During the 2017 collection survey year that will occur in 2018, ARTS will collect detailed operating expenses. The last time ARTS collected detailed operating expenses was in 2013 for the 2012 survey year. Estimates are published based on the NAICS, which has been widely adopted throughout both the public and private sectors.
This request is for the clearance of eight electronic report worksheets, the SA-44, SA-44A, SA-44C, SA-44D, SA-44E, SA-44N, SA-44S, and SA-44T. These eight electronic worksheets enable us to collect information on a NAICS basis and to request similar data items. Variations in the electronic worksheets are needed to address the size of the firm, kind-of-business, or data items requested.
The Bureau of Economic Analysis (BEA) uses the data to estimate the change in private inventories component of gross domestic product (GDP) and output in both the benchmark and annual input-output (I-O) accounts and GDP by industry. Data on sales taxes are also used to prepare estimates of GDP by industry and to derive industry output for the I-O accounts. Data on detailed operating expenses, are collected on this survey quinquennially and are used to produce national estimates of value added, gross output, and intermediate inputs and serve as a benchmark for the annual industry accounts, which provide the control totals for the GDP-by-state accounts.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics uses the data as input to its Producer Price Indexes and in developing productivity measurements. The Federal Reserve Board uses the accounts receivables balances to measure consumer credit. Private businesses use the estimates in computing business activity indexes.
Other government agencies and businesses use the data to satisfy a variety of public and business needs such as economic market analysis, company performance, and forecasting future demands.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to OIRA
Pursuant to Section 766.24 of the Export Administration Regulations, 15 CFR parts 730-774 (2017) (“EAR” or the “Regulations”),
OEE has requested that the following parties be removed from the TDO:
On March 17, 2008, Darryl W. Jackson, the then-Assistant Secretary of Commerce for Export Enforcement (“Assistant Secretary”), signed a TDO denying Mahan Airways' export privileges for a period of 180 days on the grounds that its issuance was necessary in the public interest to prevent an imminent violation of the Regulations. The TDO was issued
On June 27, 2017, I signed a renewal order denying for an additional 180 days the export privileges of Ali Eslamian, Equipco (UK) Ltd., and Skyco (UK) Ltd., as well as Mahan Airways, Pejman Mahmood Kosarayanifard, Mahmoud Amini, Kerman Aviation, Sirjanco Trading LLC, Mahan Air General Trading LLC, Mehdi Bahrami, Al Naser Airlines, Ali Abdullah Alhay, Bahar Safwa General Trading, Sky Blue Bird Group, and Issam Shammout. See 82 FR 30,823 (July 3, 2017). On September 28, 2017, I issued an order (“the Settlement Order”) approving a settlement agreement between BIS and Ali Eslamian, Equipco (UK) Ltd., and Skyco (UK) Ltd. (“the Settlement Agreement”), which, inter alia, resolves pursuant to that Order and the Settlement Agreement an administrative charge against Ali Eslamian for acting contrary to the terms of the TDO, in violation of Section 764.2(k) of the Regulations (“the Charging Letter”). In doing so, I found that the requirements of Section 766.23 of the Regulations had been met to include Equipco (UK) Ltd. and Skyco (UK) Ltd., two companies owned and operated by Ali Eslamian, in the Settlement Order as related persons.
Having considered OEE's request and the record herein, I find that Ali Eslamian, Equipco (UK) Ltd., and Skyco (UK) Ltd. should be removed from the TDO. The TDO shall remain in full force and effect as to Mahan Airways, Pejman Mahmood Kosarayanifard, Mahmoud Amini, Kerman Aviation, Sirjanco Trading LLC, Mahan Air General Trading LLC, Mehdi Bahrami, Al Naser Airlines, Ali Abdullah Alhay, Bahar Safwa General Trading, Sky Blue Bird Group, and Issam Shammout.
A. Applying for, obtaining, or using any license, license exception, or export control document;
B. Carrying on negotiations concerning, or ordering, buying, receiving, using, selling, delivering, storing, disposing of, forwarding, transporting, financing, or otherwise servicing in any way, any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the EAR, or engaging in any other activity subject to the EAR; or
C. Benefitting in any way from any transaction involving any item exported or to be exported from the United States that is subject to the EAR, or from any other activity subject to the EAR.
A. Export or reexport to or on behalf of a Denied Person any item subject to the EAR;
B. Take any action that facilitates the acquisition or attempted acquisition by a Denied Person of the ownership, possession, or control of any item subject to the EAR that has been or will be exported from the United States, including financing or other support activities related to a transaction whereby a Denied Person acquires or attempts to acquire such ownership, possession or control;
C. Take any action to acquire from or to facilitate the acquisition or attempted acquisition from a Denied Person of any item subject to the EAR that has been exported from the United States;
D. Obtain from a Denied Person in the United States any item subject to the EAR with knowledge or reason to know that the item will be, or is intended to be, exported from the United States; or
E. Engage in any transaction to service any item subject to the EAR that has been or will be exported from the United States and which is owned,
In accordance with the provisions of Sections 766.24(e) of the EAR, Mahan Airways, Al Naser Airlines, Ali Abdullah Alhay, and/or Bahar Safwa General Trading may, at any time, appeal this Order by filing a full written statement in support of the appeal with the Office of the Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Coast Guard ALJ Docketing Center, 40 South Gay Street, Baltimore, Maryland 21202-4022. In accordance with the provisions of Sections 766.23(c)(2) and 766.24(e)(3) of the EAR, Pejman Mahmood Kosarayanifard, Mahmoud Amini, Kerman Aviation, Sirjanco Trading LLC, Mahan Air General Trading LLC, Mehdi Bahrami, Sky Blue Bird Group, and/or Issam Shammout may, at any time, appeal their inclusion as a related person by filing a full written statement in support of the appeal with the Office of the Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Coast Guard ALJ Docketing Center, 40 South Gay Street, Baltimore, Maryland 21202-4022.
In accordance with the provisions of Section 766.24(d) of the EAR, BIS may seek renewal of this Order by filing a written request not later than 20 days before the expiration date. A renewal request may be opposed by Mahan Airways, Al Naser Airlines, Ali Abdullah Alhay, and/or Bahar Safwa General Trading as provided in Section 766.24(d), by filing a written submission with the Assistant Secretary of Commerce for Export Enforcement, which must be received not later than seven days before the expiration date of the Order.
A copy of this Order shall be provided to Mahan Airways, Al Naser Airlines, Ali Abdullah Alhay, and Bahar Safwa General Trading and each related person, and shall be published in the
This Order is effective immediately and shall remain in effect until December 26, 2017, unless renewed in accordance with Section 766.24(d) of the Regulations.
The Department of Commerce will submit to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
This information collection request may be viewed at
Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on carbazole violet pigment 23 (CVP 23) from India. The period of review (POR) is December 1, 2015, through November 30, 2016. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Pidilite Industries Limited (Pidilite). The Department preliminarily finds that subject merchandise has been sold in the United States at prices below normal value (NV) during the POR.
Applicable December 4, 2017.
Irene Gorelik or George Ayache, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration,
The merchandise subject to the Order
The merchandise subject to the Order is classifiable under subheading 3204.17.9040 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Although the HTSUS subheading is provided for convenience and customs purposes, our written description of the scope of the order is dispositive.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) and (a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
Because mandatory respondent Pidilite has failed to provide requested information, and has failed to cooperate by not acting to the best of its ability to comply with a request for information from the Department in this review, we preliminarily determine to apply facts otherwise available with an adverse inference (AFA) to this respondent, in accordance with sections 776(a) and (b) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.308. For further discussion,
For Pidilite, in the original investigation, we subtracted the portion of the countervailing duty rate attributable to export subsidies (17.02 percent) from the final dumping margin of 66.59 percent in order to calculate the cash-deposit rate of 49.57 percent.
We preliminarily determine that, for the period of December 1, 2015, through November 30, 2016, the following weighted-average dumping margin exists:
Normally, the Department discloses to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with the preliminary results within five days of the date of publication of the notice of preliminary results in the
Interested parties may submit case briefs to the Department no later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address, and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; (3) whether any participant is a foreign national; and (4) a list of issues parties intend to discuss. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case and rebuttal briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined.
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, unless the deadline is extended.
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review.
The following deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of the final results of this administrative review, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for Pidilite will be the rate established in the final results of this review; (2) for previously reviewed or investigated companies not participating in this review, the cash deposit rate will continue to be the company-specific rate published for the most recently-completed segment of this proceeding in which the company was reviewed; (3) if the exporter is not a firm covered in this review, a prior review, or the less-than-fair value (LTFV) investigation, but the manufacturer is, the cash deposit rate will be the rate established for the most recently-completed segment of this proceeding for the manufacturer of subject merchandise; and (4) the cash deposit rate for all other manufacturers or exporters will continue to be 27.48 percent, the all-others rate established in the LTFV investigation.
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
The preliminary results of review are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of Commerce has renewed the Charter for the Advisory Committee on Supply Chain Competitiveness on November 16, 2017.
The Charter for the Advisory Committee on Supply Chain Competitiveness was renewed on November 16, 2017.
Richard Boll, Supply Chain Team, Room 11014, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; phone 202-482-1135; email:
The U.S. Department of Commerce has renewed the Charter for the Advisory Committee on Supply Chain Competitiveness on November 16, 2017. This Notice is published in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (as amended, Title 5, United States Code (U.S.C.), Appendix, § 9). It has been determined that the Committee is necessary and in the public interest. The Committee was established pursuant to Commerce's authority under 15 U.S.C. 1512, established under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), as amended, 5 U.S.C., app. The Committee provides advice to the Secretary on the necessary elements of a comprehensive policy approach to supply chain competitiveness designed to support U.S. export growth and national economic competitiveness, encourage innovation, facilitate the movement of goods, and improve the competitiveness of U.S. supply chains for goods and services in the domestic and global economy; and to provide advice to the Secretary on regulatory policies and programs and investment priorities that affect the competitiveness of U.S. supply chains. The total number of members that may serve on the Committee is a maximum of 45.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on stainless steel bar (SSB) from Spain. The period of review (POR) is March 1, 2016, through February 28, 2017. The review covers one producer/exporter of the subject merchandise, Sidenor Aceros Especiales, S.L. (Sidenor). The Department preliminarily finds that subject merchandise has been sold in the United States at prices below normal value (NV) during the POR. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable December 4, 2017.
Kabir Archuletta, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-2593.
The product covered by this investigation is SSB from Spain. For a full description of the scope see the Preliminary Decision Memorandum dated concurrently with and hereby adopted by this notice.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
We preliminarily
We intend to disclose the calculations performed to parties within five days after public announcement of the preliminary results. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.309(c), interested parties may submit case briefs not later than 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in the case briefs, may be filed not later than five days after the date for filing case briefs. Parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding are encouraged to submit with each argument: (1) A statement of the issue, (2) a brief summary of the argument, and (3) a table of authorities. Case and rebuttal briefs should be filed using ACCESS.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues to be discussed. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case briefs. The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h)(1).
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review. If Sidenor's weight-average dumping margin is not zero or
In accordance with the Department's “automatic assessment” practice, for entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by Sidenor for which it did not know that the merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate those entries at the all-others rate if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction. We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication date of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the notice of final results
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and increase the subsequent assessment of the antidumping duties by the amount of the antidumping duties reimburses.
The preliminary results of review are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) preliminarily determines that countervailable subsidies are being provided to producers and exporters of chlorinated isocyanurates (chloro isos) from the People's Republic of China (the PRC). The period of review (POR) is January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2015. The administrative review covers three producers/exporters: (1) Hebei Jiheng Chemical Co., Ltd. (Hebei Jiheng); (2) Heze Huayi Chemical Co., Ltd. (Huayi); and (3) Juancheng Kangtai Chemical Co., Ltd. (Kangtai). We preliminarily determine that these companies received countervailable subsidies during the POR related to certain programs. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable December 4, 2017.
Julia Hancock or Omar Qureshi, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone (202) 482-1394 or (202) 482-5307, respectively.
The products covered by the order are chloro isos, which are derivatives are cyanuric acid, described as chlorinated s-triazine triones.
On November 13, 2014, the Department published in the
The Preliminary Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically
In accordance with section 703(d)(1)(A)(i) of the Act, we calculated an estimated individual countervailable subsidy rate for each producer/exporter of the subject merchandise individually investigated during the period of January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. We preliminarily determine these rates to be:
The Department intends to disclose its calculations and analysis performed to interested parties in this preliminary determination within five days of its public announcement, or if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of the preliminary determination. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Unless the deadline is extended pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act, we intend to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of our analysis of the issues raised by the parties in their comments, within 120 days after issuance of these preliminary results.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4)(i), we preliminarily assigned subsidy rates in the amounts shown above for the producer/exporters shown above. Upon issuance of the final results, the Department shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, CVDs on all appropriate entries covered by this review. We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of the final results of review.
Pursuant to section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, the Department also intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated CVDs, in the amounts shown above for each of the respective companies shown above, on shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to continue to collect cash deposits at the most-recent company-specific or all-others rate applicable to the company, as appropriate. These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
These preliminary results are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) obtained information, with respect to certain entities, sufficient to warrant the self-initiation of a changed circumstances review of the antidumping duty order on large power transformers (LPTs) from the Republic of Korea (Korea). Interested parties are invited to submit comments, as indicated below.
Applicable December 4, 2017.
Moses Song, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5041.
On August 31, 2012, the Department published in the
The scope of this
Incomplete LPTs are subassemblies consisting of the active part and any other parts attached to, imported with or invoiced with the active parts of LPTs. The “active part” of the transformer consists of one or more of the following when attached to or otherwise assembled with one another: The steel core or shell, the windings, electrical insulation between the windings, the mechanical frame for an LPT.
The product definition encompasses all such LPTs regardless of name designation, including but not limited to step-up transformers, step-down transformers, autotransformers, interconnection transformers, voltage regulator transformers, rectifier transformers, and power rectifier transformers.
The LPTs subject to this
Pursuant to section 751(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act) and 19 CFR 351.216(d), the Department will conduct a changed circumstances review upon receipt of information concerning, or a request from an interested party for a review of, an antidumping duty order which shows changed circumstances sufficient to warrant such a review of the order. In this case, the Department is self-initiating a changed circumstances review based on information obtained (1) during the course of the 2014/2015 and 2015/2016 administrative reviews, (2)
On March 13, 2017, the Department published the final results of the 2014/2015 antidumping administrative review (covering the period August 1, 2014, through July 31, 2015), assigning a dumping rate of 60.81 percent to HHI.
On May 24, 2017, in connection with the 2015/2016 administrative review (covering the period August 1, 2015, through July 31, 2016), HHI submitted English translations of HHI's 2016 Korean language financial statements, requested by the Department as part of HHI's response to the Department's supplemental questionnaire.
Additionally, on or around August 14, 2017, a representative of Georgetown Economic Services, LLC (an economic consulting firm retained by Kelly Drye & Warren, LLP, counsel to the petitioner in the LPTs from Korea proceeding) contacted the Department.
In light of the information in HHI's 2016 financial statements and the phone conversation discussed above, the Department had concerns as to whether (1) Hyundai Electric and energy Co., Ltd. may be entering subject merchandise produced by HHI into the United States and (2) merchandise entered by Hyundai Electric and energy Co., Ltd. is entering at the appropriate rate. Because Hyundai Electric and energy Co., Ltd. is a new entity, which has not been covered by a prior administrative review or the original investigation, it does not have its own company-specific cash deposit rate.
To gather additional information regarding the above-referenced company (
Based on (1) information contained in the CBP import data, (2) concerns that Hyundai Electric and energy Co., Ltd., may be entering merchandise produced by HHI, (3) public information indicating that Hyundai Electric & Energy System Co., Ltd., which has a name similar to that of the company identified in the above-referenced phone call, appears to be involved in the production/sales of power transformers, and (4) the fact that neither of these entities have their own company-specific cash deposit rate, there is a serious concern that entries made by either of these entities since the
In accordance with the above-referenced statute and regulation, and based on the information obtained above, the Department finds that there is information which shows changed circumstances sufficient to warrant initiation of such a review to determine whether action is necessary to maintain the integrity of the
Interested parties may submit comments on the above-referenced information and the notice of initiation of this changed circumstances review by no later than 15 calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
The Department intends to publish in the
This notice is published in accordance with section 751(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(1).
Dated: November 28, 2017.
Pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301), we invite comments on the question of whether instruments of equivalent scientific value, for the purposes for which the instruments shown below are intended to be used, are being manufactured in the United States.
Comments must comply with 15 CFR 301.5(a)(3) and (4) of the regulations and be postmarked on or before December 26, 2017. Address written comments to Statutory Import Programs Staff, Room 3720, U.S. Department of Commerce, Washington, DC 20230. Applications may be examined between 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. at the U.S. Department of Commerce in Room 3720.
This is a decision pursuant to Section 6(c) of the Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Materials Importation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-651, as amended by Pub. L. 106-36; 80 Stat. 897; 15 CFR part 301). Related records can be viewed between 8:30 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. in Room 3720, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th and Constitution Ave. NW., Washington, DC.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Applicable November 28, 2017.
Erin Kearney, at (202) 482-0167, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, or Vicki Flynn, at (202) 482-1756, Office of Policy, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On the basis of information available to the Department of Commerce (the Department), we are initiating an antidumping duty (AD) investigation, under section 732(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), to determine whether common alloy aluminum sheet (common alloy sheet) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) is being, or is likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value within the meaning of section 731 of the Act. We are also initiating a countervailing duty (CVD) investigation, under section 702(a) of the Act, to determine whether the Government of the PRC is providing countervailable subsidies (within the meaning of sections 701 and 771(5) of the Act) with respect to imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC.
We have evidence indicating that the United States price of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be less than the normal value of such or similar merchandise and that imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be benefitting from countervailable subsidies. We also have evidence that imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, the domestic industry producing common alloy sheet in the United States.
U.S. law provides two mechanisms for the initiation of AD and CVD investigations. Normally, AD and/or CVD investigations are initiated under sections 702(b) and 732(b) of the Act, which specify that AD and/or CVD proceedings “shall be initiated whenever an interested party described in subparagraph (C), (D), (E), (F), or (G) of section 771(9) files a petition with the administering authority, on behalf of an industry, which alleges the elements necessary for the imposition of the duty imposed by {section 701(a) (for CVD) or 731 (for AD)}, and which is accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting those allegations.” Investigations may also be initiated under sections 702(a) and 732(a) of the Act, which specify that AD and/or CVD investigations “shall be initiated whenever the administering authority determines, from information available to it, that a formal investigation is warranted into the question of whether the elements necessary for the imposition of a duty under {section 701 (CVD) or 731 (AD)} exist.” Although the Department has rarely invoked this statutory authority, the Department intends to make use of all the tools available under U.S. unfair trade laws, where such action is warranted under the law, to ensure potential unfair trade practices are addressed. To that end, self-initiation of certain AD and CVD cases can address situations where industries are faced with potentially dumped and/or subsidized imports and where the Department received comprehensive detailed information. Although the Department expects that future investigations will normally proceed based on petitions filed by or on behalf of the industry, the Department will take action under Sections 702(a) and 732(a), where warranted, to facilitate the application of the appropriate trade remedy for U.S. industries.
In this instance, we have information warranting an investigation into whether (1) the United States price of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be less than the normal value of such or similar merchandise, (2) imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be benefitting from countervailable subsidies, and (3) imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC may be materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, the domestic industry producing common alloy sheet in the United States. Imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC into the United States have been significant since 2005 and have increased rapidly in the last three years.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b), the proposed period of investigation (POI) for the CVD investigation is January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2016 while the proposed POI for the AD investigation is April 1, 2017 through September 30, 2017.
The product covered by these investigations is common alloy sheet from the PRC. For a full description of the scope of these investigations,
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigations be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigations may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. All such comments must also be filed on the records of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS.
The Department requests comments from interested parties regarding the appropriate physical characteristics of common alloy sheet to be reported in response to the Department's AD questionnaires. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the subject merchandise in order to report the relevant factors and costs of production accurately as well as to develop appropriate product-comparison criteria.
Interested parties may provide any information or comments that they believe are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. Specifically, they may provide comments as to which characteristics are appropriate to use as: (1) General product characteristics and (2) product-comparison criteria. We note that it is not always appropriate to use all product characteristics as product-comparison criteria. We base product-comparison criteria on meaningful commercial differences among products. In other words, although there may be some physical product characteristics utilized by manufacturers to describe common alloy sheet, it may be that only a select few product characteristics take into account commercially meaningful physical characteristics. In addition, interested parties may comment on the order in which the physical characteristics should be used in matching products. Generally, the Department attempts to list the most important physical characteristics first and the least important characteristics last.
In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaire, all comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on December 18, 2017. Any rebuttal comments, which may include factual information, must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on December 28, 2017. All comments and submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the record of the less-than-fair-value investigation.
Because the PRC is a “Subsidies Agreement Country” within the meaning of section 701(b) of the Act, section 701(a)(2) of the Act applies to the CVD investigation. Accordingly, the ITC must determine whether imports of the subject merchandise from the PRC materially injure, or threaten material injury to, a U.S. industry.
The Department has evidence indicating that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product
Information considered by the Department indicates that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share; underselling and price suppression or depression; decreasing U.S. shipment and production trends, as well as low capacity utilization rates; increasing volumes of imports from the PRC; plant and facility closures; and deterioration in financial performance. In addition, the information indicates a threat of material injury by reason of the imports from the PRC based on the vulnerability of the domestic industry to material injury; the rapid increase in the volume and market penetration of subject imports; continued underselling and price suppression or depression; countervailable subsidies received by common alloy sheet producers in the PRC; and significant unused capacity available to PRC producers of common alloy sheet to increase production for exportation.
The following is a description of the evidence of sales at less-than-fair value upon which the Department based its decision to initiate an AD investigation of imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and NV are discussed in
The Department calculated two export prices (EP) based on (1) the average unit value (AUV) of combined imports of common alloy sheet under the relevant Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings for this product (7060.11.3060, 7060.11.6000, 7606.12.3090, 7606.12.6000, 7606.91.3090, 7606.91.6080, 7606.92.3090, 7606.92.6080) from the PRC during the POI; and (2) the AUV of imports of common alloy sheet under HTSUS subheading 7606.12.3090 from the PRC during the POI, which accounted for over 90 percent of total imports of subject merchandise. The Department deducted foreign inland freight, foreign brokerage and handling, and unrebated Value-Added Tax (VAT) to obtain ex-factory prices, in accordance with our normal practice for calculating EPs.
The Department considers the PRC to be a non-market economy (NME) country.
South Africa is an appropriate surrogate country because it is a market economy country that is at a level of economic development comparable to that of the PRC, it is a significant producer of comparable merchandise, and public information pertaining to South Africa is available to value the FOPs.
We based the FOPs for materials, labor, and energy on the consumption rates of certain producers of common alloy sheet in the United States.
We valued the FOPs for raw materials using public import data for South Africa obtained from the Global Trade Atlas (GTA) for the POI.
We valued natural gas using the AUV of imports of liquid natural gas into South Africa.
We valued labor using labor data published by Statistics South Africa (SSA), the national statistics service of South Africa.
We determined the FOPs for packing materials based on the experience of U.S. producers of common alloy sheet in packing their own products.
We calculated ratios for factory overhead, selling, general and administrative expenses based on the 2016 consolidated financial statements of Hulamin Ltd. (Hulamin), a South African producer of common alloy sheet.
Based on the data obtained by the Department, there is reason to believe that imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value. Based on comparisons of EP to NV, in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act, the estimated dumping margins for common alloy sheet from the PRC are 56.54 percent and 59.72 percent.
Section 732(a) of the Act states that the Department shall initiate an antidumping duty investigation whenever it determines, from information available to it, that a formal
In accordance with our standard practice for respondent selection in AD cases involving NME countries, we intend to issue quantity and value (Q&V) questionnaires to known producers/exporters of merchandise subject to the investigation and, if necessary, base respondent selection on the responses received. In addition, the Department will post the Q&V questionnaire along with filing instructions on the Enforcement and Compliance Web site at
Producers/exporters of common alloy sheet from the PRC that do not receive Q&V questionnaires by mail may still submit a response to the Q&V questionnaire and can obtain a copy from the Enforcement & Compliance Web site. The Q&V response must be submitted by the relevant PRC exporters/producers no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on December 13, 2017. All Q&V responses must be filed electronically via ACCESS.
In order to obtain separate-rate status in an NME AD investigation, exporters and producers must submit a separate-rate application.
In an NME AD investigation, the Department will calculate combination rates for certain respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in that investigation. The Separate Rates and Combination Rates Bulletin states:
{W}hile continuing the practice of assigning separate rates only to exporters, all separate rates that the Department will now assign in its NME Investigation will be specific to those producers that supplied the exporter during the period of investigation. Note, however, that one rate is calculated for the exporter and all of the producers which supplied subject merchandise to it during the period of investigation. This practice applies both to mandatory respondents receiving an individually calculated separate rate as well as the pool of non-investigated firms receiving the weighted-average of the individually calculated rates. This practice is referred to as the application of “combination rates” because such rates apply to specific combinations of exporters and one or more producers. The cash-deposit rate assigned to an exporter will apply only to merchandise both exported by the firm in question
Section 702(a) of the Act states that the Department shall initiate a CVD investigation whenever it determines that a formal investigation is warranted into the question of whether the elements necessary for an imposition of a duty under section 701(a) of the Act exist based on information available to the Department.
On the basis of information available to the Department, producers/exporters of common alloy sheet in the PRC may benefit from countervailable subsidies bestowed by the Government of the PRC. Pursuant to section 702(a) of the Act, on the basis of information available to the Department, we are initiating a CVD investigation to determine whether manufacturers, producers, or exporters of common alloy sheet from the PRC receive countervailable subsidies from the Government of the PRC. Based on information available to the Department, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on 26 programs. For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate on each program,
In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary CVD determination no later than 65 days after the date of this initiation.
Following standard practice in CVD investigations, in the event the Department determines that the number of producers/exporters of common alloy sheet in the PRC is large and it cannot individually examine each company based upon the Department's resources, where appropriate, the Department intends to select respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) data for U.S. imports of common alloy sheet during the POI under the appropriate HTSUS subheadings listed in the “Scope of the Investigations,” in the Appendix. We intend to release the CBP data under APO to all parties with access to information protected by APO within five business days of this initiation. Interested parties may submit comments regarding the CBP data and respondent selection by 5:00 p.m. ET seven calendar days after the placement of the CBP data on the record of this investigation. The Department will not accept rebuttal comments regarding the CBP data or respondent selection.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(b). Instructions for filing such applications may be found at
Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully, in its entirety, by ACCESS no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on the date noted above. If respondent selection is appropriate, we intend to
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by sections 702(d) and 732(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the ITC receives notice from the Department that an investigation has been initiated, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of common alloy sheet from the PRC are materially injuring or threatening material injury to a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). Any party, when submitting factual information, must specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351 expires. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. ET on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective order (APO) in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
Parties wishing to participate in these investigations should ensure that they meet the requirements of these procedures (
Under the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, numerous amendments to the AD and CVD laws were made.
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 702(a), 732(a), and 777(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.201(b).
The merchandise covered by these investigations is aluminum common alloy sheet (common alloy sheet), which is a flat-rolled aluminum product having a thickness of 6.3 mm or less, but greater than 0.2 mm, in coils or cut-to-length, regardless of width. Common alloy sheet within the scope of these investigations includes both not clad aluminum sheet, as well as multi-alloy, clad aluminum sheet. With respect to not clad aluminum sheet, common alloy sheet is manufactured from a 1XXX-, 3XXX-, or 5XXX-series alloy as designated by the Aluminum Association. With respect to multi-alloy, clad aluminum sheet, common alloy sheet is produced from a 3XXX-series core, to which cladding layers are applied to either one or both sides of the core.
Common alloy sheet may be made to ASTM specification B209-14, but can also be made to other specifications. Regardless of specification, however, all common alloy sheet meeting the scope description is included in the scope. Subject merchandise includes common alloy sheet that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to annealing,
Excluded from the scope of these investigations is aluminum can stock, which is suitable for use in the manufacture of aluminum beverage cans, lids of such cans, or tabs used to open such cans. Aluminum can stock is produced to gauges that range from 0.200 mm to 0.292 mm, and has an H-19, H-41, H-48, or H-391 temper. In addition, aluminum can stock has a lubricant applied to the flat surfaces of the can stock to facilitate its movement through machines used in the manufacture of beverage cans. Aluminum can stock is properly classified under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings 7606.12.3045 and 7606.12.3055.
Where the nominal and actual measurements vary, a product is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set for the above.
Common alloy sheet is currently classifiable under HTSUS subheadings 7606.11.3060, 7606.11.6000, 7606.12.3090, 7606.12.6000, 7606.91.3090, 7606.91.6080, 7606.92.3090, and 7606.92.6080. Further, merchandise that falls within the scope of these investigations may also be entered into the United States under HTSUS subheadings 7606.11.3030, 7606.12.3030, 7606.91.3060, 7606.91.6040, 7606.92.3060, 7606.92.6040, 7607.11.9090. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of these investigations is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Brenda E. Brown, Office of AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.
Each year during the anniversary month of the publication of an antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation, an interested party, as defined in section 771(9) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), may request, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213, that the Department of Commerce (the Department) conduct an administrative review of that antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation.
All deadlines for the submission of comments or actions by the Department discussed below refer to the number of calendar days from the applicable starting date.
In the event the Department limits the number of respondents for individual examination for administrative reviews initiated pursuant to requests made for the orders identified below, the Department intends to select respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) data for U.S. imports during the period of review. We intend to release the CBP data under Administrative Protective Order (APO) to all parties having an APO within five days of publication of the initiation notice and to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 21 days of publication of the initiation
In the event the Department decides it is necessary to limit individual examination of respondents and conduct respondent selection under section 777A(c)(2) of the Act:
In general, the Department finds that determinations concerning whether particular companies should be “collapsed” (
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), a party that requests a review may withdraw that request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The regulation provides that the Department may extend this time if it is reasonable to do so. In order to provide parties additional certainty with respect to when the Department will exercise its discretion to extend this 90-day deadline, interested parties are advised that, with regard to reviews requested on the basis of anniversary months on or after December 2017, the Department does not intend to extend the 90-day deadline unless the requestor demonstrates that an extraordinary circumstance prevented it from submitting a timely withdrawal request. Determinations by the Department to extend the 90-day deadline will be made on a case-by-case basis.
The Department is providing this notice on its Web site, as well as in its “Opportunity to Request Administrative Review” notices, so that interested parties will be aware of the manner in which the Department intends to exercise its discretion in the future.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(b), an interested party as defined by section 771(9) of the Act may request in writing that the Secretary conduct an administrative review. For both antidumping and countervailing duty reviews, the interested party must specify the individual producers or exporters covered by an antidumping finding or an antidumping or countervailing duty order or suspension agreement for which it is requesting a review. In addition, a domestic interested party or an interested party described in section 771(9)(B) of the Act must state why it desires the Secretary to review those particular producers or exporters. If the interested party intends for the Secretary to review sales of merchandise by an exporter (or a producer if that producer also exports merchandise from other suppliers) which was produced in more than one country of origin and each country of origin is subject to a separate order, then the interested party must state specifically, on an order-by-order basis, which exporter(s) the request is intended to cover.
Note that, for any party the Department was unable to locate in prior segments, the Department will not accept a request for an administrative review of that party absent new information as to the party's location. Moreover, if the interested party who files a request for review is unable to locate the producer or exporter for which it requested the review, the interested party must provide an explanation of the attempts it made to locate the producer or exporter at the same time it files its request for review, in order for the Secretary to determine if the interested party's attempts were reasonable, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.303(f)(3)(ii).
As explained in
The Department no longer considers the non-market economy (NME) entity as an exporter conditionally subject to an antidumping duty administrative reviews.
Following initiation of an antidumping administrative review when there is no review requested of the NME entity, the Department will instruct CBP to liquidate entries for all exporters not named in the initiation notice, including those that were suspended at the NME entity rate.
All requests must be filed electronically in Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) on Enforcement and Compliance's ACCESS Web site at
The Department will publish in the
For the first administrative review of any order, there will be no assessment of antidumping or countervailing duties on entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the relevant provisional-measures “gap” period of the order, if such a gap period is applicable to the period of review.
This notice is not required by statute but is published as a service to the international trading community.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on monosodium glutamate (MSG) from Indonesia. The period of review (POR) is November 1, 2015 through October 31, 2016. The review covers a single mandatory respondent, PT Cheil Jedang Indonesia (CJI). The Department preliminarily determines that the respondent has not made sales of subject merchandise below normal value (NV). We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable December 4, 2017.
Caitlin Monks or Joseph Traw, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade
On January 13, 2017, the Department initiated this administrative review on MSG from Indonesia covering one company, CJI. The events that have occurred between initiation and these preliminary results are discussed in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
The merchandise covered by this order is monosodium glutamate (MSG), whether or not blended or in solution with other products. The product is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) at subheading 2922.42.10.00. Merchandise covered by this order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 2922.42.50.00, 2103.90.72.00, 2103.90.74.00, 2103.90.78.00, 2103.90.80.00, and 2103.90.90.91. These tariff classifications are provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written product description, available in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, remains dispositive.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Export price is calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. NV is calculated in accordance with section 773 of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As a result of this review, we calculated a zero percent dumping margin for CJI for the period November 1, 2015, through December 31, 2016.
The Department intends to disclose to the parties the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days of the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, or to participate if one is requested, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Unless extended, the Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(h).
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(b)(1). If CJI's weighted-average dumping margin is not zero or
For entries of subject merchandise during the POR produced by the respondent for which it did not know that its merchandise was destined for the United States, we will instruct CBP to liquidate unreviewed entries at the all-others rate if there is no rate for the intermediate company(ies) involved in the transaction. We intend to issue instructions to CBP 15 days after the date of publication of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective for all shipments of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this administrative review, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) The cash deposit rate for the company under review will be the rate established in the final results of this review, except, if the rate is zero or
This notice serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Ocean and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before February 2, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Keeley Kent, (206) 526-4655 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
The success of fisheries management programs depends significantly on regulatory compliance. The requirements that fishing gear be marked are essential to facilitate enforcement. The ability to link fishing gear to the vessel owner or operator is crucial to enforcement of regulations issued under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. The marking of fishing gear is also valuable in actions concerning damage, loss, and civil proceedings. The regulations specify that fishing gear must be marked with the vessel's official number, Federal permit or tag number, or some other specified form of identification. The regulations further specify how the gear is to be marked (
The physical marking of fishing buoys is done by fishermen in the Pacific Coast Groundfish Fishery) according to regulation.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost and whether the information shall have practical utility) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Ocean and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before February 2, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Keeley Kent, (206) 526-4655 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
The success of fisheries management programs depends significantly on regulatory compliance. The vessel identification requirement is essential to facilitate enforcement. The ability to link fishing (or other activity) to the vessel owner or operator is crucial to enforcement of regulations issued under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. A vessel's official number is required to be displayed on the port and starboard sides of the deckhouse or hull, and on a weather deck. It identifies each vessel and should be visible at distances at sea and in the air. Law enforcement personnel rely on vessel marking information to assure compliance with fisheries management regulations. Vessels that qualify for particular fisheries are also readily identified, and this allows for more cost-effective enforcement. Cooperating fishermen also use the vessel numbers to report suspicious or non-compliant activities that they observe in unauthorized areas. The identifying number on fishing vessels is used by the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), the United States Coast Guard (USCG), and other marine agencies in issuing regulations, prosecutions, and other enforcement actions necessary to support sustainable fisheries behaviors as intended in regulations. Regulation-compliant fishermen ultimately benefit from these requirements, as unauthorized and illegal fishing is deterred and more burdensome regulations are avoided.
Fishing vessel owners physically mark vessels with identification numbers in three locations per vessel.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before February 2, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Gordon Colvin (240) 357-4524 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved collection.
The National Saltwater Angler Registry Program (Registry Program) was established to implement recommendations included in the review of national saltwater angling data collection programs conducted by the National Research Council (NRC) in 2005/2006, and the provisions of the Magnuson-Stevens Reauthorization Act, codified at Section 401(g) of the
The Registry Program collects identification and contact information from those anglers and for-hire vessels who are involved in recreational fishing in the United States Exclusive Economic Zone or for anadromous fish in any waters, unless the anglers or vessels are exempted from the registration requirement. Data collected includes: For anglers: Name, address, date of birth, telephone contact information and region(s) of the country in which they fish; for for-hire vessels: Owner and operator name, address, date of birth, telephone contact information, vessel name and registration/documentation number and home port or primary operating area. This information is compiled into a national and/or series of regional registries that is being used to support surveys of recreational anglers and for-hire vessels to develop estimates of recreational angling effort.
Persons may register on line at a NOAA-maintained Web site. Registration cards, valid for one year from the date of issuance, are mailed to registrants.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice; correction.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission published a document in the
Lauren Bennett, Special Counsel, 202-418-5290, email:
In the
Please identify the comments by OMB Control No. 3038-0062.
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice.
The original notice of the list of participants for the Performance Review Board Membership published in the
The term began on November 1, 2017.
Barbara Smith, Civilian Senior Leader Management Office, 111 Army Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310-0111, (703) 693-1126.
None.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-22 with attached Policy Justification.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Design and construction services, new parking/loading ramps, hot cargo pads, taxiways, hangars, back shops, alert facilities, weapons storage areas, hardened shelters, squadron operations facilities, maintenance facilities, training facilities, information technology support and cyber facilities, force protection support facilities,
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Qatar has requested support of its F-15QA multi-role fighter aircraft program to include design and construction services, new parking/loading ramps, hot cargo pads, taxiways, hangars, back shops, alert facilities, weapons storage areas, hardened shelters, squadron operations facilities, maintenance facilities, training facilities, information technology support and cyber facilities, force protection support facilities, squadron operations facilities, other F-15QA related support structures, construction/facilities/design services, cybersecurity services, mission critical computer resources, support services, force protection services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $1.1 billion.
This proposed sale supports the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States. Qatar is an important force for political stability and economic progress in the Persian Gulf region. Our mutual defense interests anchor our relationship and the Qatar Emiri Air Force (QEAF) plays a predominant role in Qatar's defense.
The proposed sale improves Qatar's capability to operate and sustain its F-15QA aircraft. A robust construction, cybersecurity, and force protection infrastructure is vital to ensuring the QEAF partners can utilize the F-15QA aircraft to its full potential. Qatar will have no difficulty absorbing this support into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this construction, cybersecurity, and force protection infrastructure will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractor for construction, cybersecurity, and force protection infrastructure will be determined through competition. The purchaser typically requests offsets. Any offset agreement will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and the contractor.
Implementation of the construction, cybersecurity, and force protection aspects of this notification include the establishment of a construction office in Doha with as many as ten (10) U.S. Government civilians which will adjust in size as case workload varies. Anticipated contractor footprint for this effort is approximately fifteen (15) to fifty (50) personnel, which may vary based on phases of construction and establishment of required services.
There will be no adverse impact to U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-47 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Brite Star II FLIR system, Aircraft Survivability Equipment (ASE) (includes the AN/AAR-47 Missile Warning and Laser Detection System, AN/ALE-47 Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) and the AN/APR-39 Radar Warning Receiver (RWR)), Joint Mission Planning Systems, Helmet Mounted Displays, communication equipment, small caliber gun systems including GAU-17A and GAU-21, electronic warfare systems, Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) Mode 4/5 transponder, support equipment, spare engine containers, spare and repair parts, tools and test equipment, technical data and publications, personnel training and training equipment, U.S. government and contractor engineering, technical, and logistics support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of the Czech Republic has requested the possible sale of twelve (12) UH-1Y utility helicopters, twenty-five (25) T-700 GE 401C engines (twenty-four (24) installed, one (1) spare), thirteen (13) Honeywell Embedded GPS/INS (EGI) (twelve (12) installed, one (1) spare), and twelve (12) 7.62mm M240 Machine Guns. This request also includes Brite Star II FLIR system, Aircraft Survivability Equipment (ASE) (includes the AN/AAR-47 Missile Warning and Laser Detection System, AN/ALE-47 Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) and the AN/APR-39 Radar Warning Receiver (RWR)), Joint Mission Planning Systems, Helmet Mounted Displays, communication equipment, small caliber gun systems including GAU-17A and GAU-21, electronic warfare systems, Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) Mode 4/5 transponder, support equipment, spare engine containers, spare and repair parts, tools and test equipment, technical data and publications, personnel training and training equipment, U.S. government and contractor engineering, technical, and logistics support services, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated cost is $575 million.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO partner that is an important force for ensuring peace and stability in Europe. The proposed sale will support the Czech Republic's needs for its own self-defense and support NATO defense goals.
The Czech Republic intends to use these helicopters to modernize its armed forces and strengthen its homeland defense and deter regional threats. This will contribute to the Czech Republic's military goal of updating its capabilities while further enhancing interoperability with the United States and other NATO allies. The Czech Republic will have no difficulty absorbing these helicopters into its armed forces.
This proposed sale of equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The principal contractors will be Bell Helicopter, Textron, Fort Worth, Texas; and General Electric Company, Lynn, Massachusetts. There are no known offset agreements proposed in conjunction with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require multiple trips by U.S. Government and contractor representatives to participate in program and technical reviews plus training and maintenance support in country, on a temporary basis, for a period of twenty-four (24) months. It will also require three (3) Contractor Engineering Technical Service (CETS) representatives to reside in country for a period of two (2) years to support this program.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The following components and technical documentation for the program are classified as listed below:
a. The UH-1Y-model has an Integrated Avionics System (IAS) which includes two (2) mission computers and an automatic flight control system. Each crew station has two (2) 8×6-inch multifunction liquid crystal displays (LCD) and one (1) 4.2×4.2-inch dual function LCD display. The communications suite will have COMSEC ARC-210 Ultra High Frequency Very High Frequency (UHF/VHF) radios with associated communications equipment. The navigation suite includes Honeywell Embedded Global Positioning System (GPS) Inertial Navigation System (INS) (EGI) w/Precise Positioning Service (PPS), a digital map system, a low-airspeed air data subsystem, and an AN/APX-123/A(V) IFF Transponder.
b. The crew is equipped with the Optimized Top Owl (OTO) helmet-mounted sight and display system. The OTO has a Day Display Module (DDM) and a Night Display Module (NDM). The UH-1Y has survivability equipment including the AN/AAR-47 Missile Warning and Laser Detection System, AN/ALE-47 Counter Measure Dispensing System (CMDS) and the AN/APR-39 Radar Warning Receiver (RWR) to cover countermeasure dispensers, radar warning, incoming/on-way missile warning and on fuselage laser-spot warning systems.
c. The following performance data and technical characteristics are classified as follows for the UH-1Y Airframe: countermeasure capability—up to SECRET, counter-countermeasures capability—SECRET, vulnerability to countermeasures—SECRET, vulnerability to electromagnetic pulse from nuclear environmental effects—SECRET.
2. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures which might reduce weapon system effectiveness.
3. The consequences of the loss of this technology to a technologically advanced or competent adversary could result in the compromise of equivalent systems, which in turn could reduce those weapons systems' effectiveness, or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that the Czech Republic can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This sale of the UH-1Y helicopter and associated weapons will further U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives.
5. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of the Czech Republic.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-57 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Included in the sale are containers; storage and preservation; transportation; aircrew and maintenance training; training aids and equipment, spares and repair parts; warranties; weapon system support and test equipment;
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Canada has requested a Letter of Offer and Acceptance for the procurement of up to thirty-two (32) AIM-120D Advanced Medium-Range Air-to Air Missiles (AMRAAMs), up to eighteen (18) AMRAAM Captive Air Training Missiles (CATMs); up to four (4) AMRAAM Non-Development Item—Airborne Instrumentation Unit (NDI-AIU); up to two (2) AMRAAM Instrumented Test Vehicles (ITV); up to seven (7) spare AMRAAM guidance units; up to four (4) spare AMRAAM control sections for use on their F/A-18 aircraft. Included in the sale are containers; storage and preservation; transportation; aircrew and maintenance training; training aids and equipment, spares and repair parts; warranties; weapon system support and test equipment; publications and technical documentation; software development, integration, and support; system integration and testing; U.S. Government and contractor engineering, technical, and logistics support; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The estimated total cost is $140 million.
This proposed sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally which has been, and continues to be, a key democratic partner of the United States in ensuring peace and stability. The missiles will be used on Royal Canadian Air Force (RCAF) fighter aircraft.
This proposed sale of defense articles and services is required to enable RCAF fighters to optimally fulfill both North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) and NATO missions and also meets the U.S. Northern Command's goals of combined air operations interoperability and standardization between Canadian and U.S. forces. The RCAF will have no difficulty absorbing these missiles into its inventory.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractor will be Raytheon Missile Systems, Tucson, AZ. The Government of Canada has advised that it will negotiate offset agreements in conjunction with this sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will not require the assignment of any additional U.S. Government or contractor representatives to Canada.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The AIM-120D Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM) hardware, including the missile guidance section, is classified CONFIDENTIAL. State-of-the-art technology is used in the missile to provide it with unique beyond-visual-range capability. The increase in capability from the AIM-120C-7 to AIM-120D consists of a two-way data link, a more accurate navigation unit, improved High-Angle Off-Boresight (HOBS) capability, and enhanced aircraft-to-missile position handoff.
2. AIM-120D features a target detection device with embedded electronic countermeasures, and electronics unit within the guidance section that performs all radar signal processing, mid-course and terminal guidance, flight control, target detection, and warhead burst point determination.
3. If a technologically advanced adversary were to obtain knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
4. A determination has been made that Canada can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary to further the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
5. All defense articles and services listed on this transmittal are authorized for release and export to Canada.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-59 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
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Also included are ten (10) Basic Skills Trainers (BST); up to seventy (70) simulated rounds; United States Government (USG) and contractor technical assistance, transportation, and other related elements of logistics and program support.
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* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Georgia has requested to purchase four hundred and ten (410) Javelin Missiles, and seventy-two (72) Javelin Command Launch Units (CLUs) (includes two (2) Javelin Block 1 CLUs to be used as spares). Also included are ten (10) Basic Skills Trainers (BST); up to seventy (70) simulated rounds; U.S. Government and contractor technical assistance; transportation; and other related elements of logistics and program support. The total estimated cost is $75 million.
This proposed sale will contribute to the foreign policy and national security of the United States by improving the security of Georgia. The Javelin system will provide Georgia with increased capacity to meet its national defense requirements. Georgia will have no difficulty absorbing this system into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of this equipment and support will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractors will be Raytheon/Lockheed Martin Javelin Joint Venture of Orlando, Florida, and Tucson, Arizona. However, these missiles are being provided from U.S. Army stock and the CLUs will be obtained from on-hand Special Defense Acquisition Fund (SDAF)-purchased stock. There are no known offset agreements proposed in conjunction with this potential sale.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require the assignment of approximately one (1) U.S. Government and two (2) contractor representatives to Georgia.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Javelin Weapon System is a medium-range, man portable, shoulder-launched, fire and forget, anti-tank system for infantry, scouts, and combat engineers. It may also be mounted on a variety of platforms including vehicles, aircraft and watercraft. The system weighs 49.5 pounds and has a maximum range in excess of 2,500 meters. They system is highly lethal against tanks and other systems with conventional and reactive armors. The system possesses a secondary capability against bunkers.
2. Javelin's key technical feature is the use of fire-and-forget technology which allows the gunner to fire and immediately relocate or take cover. Additional special features are the top attack and/or direct fire modes, an advanced tandem warhead and imaging infrared seeker, target lock-on before launch, and soft launch from enclosures or covered fighting positions. The Javelin missile also has a minimum smoke motor thus decreasing its detection on the battlefield.
3. The Javelin Weapon System is comprised of two major tactical components, which are a reusable Command Launch Unit (CLU) and a round contained in a disposable launch tube assembly. The CLU incorporates an integrated day-night sight that provides a target engagement capability in adverse weather and countermeasure environments. The CLU may also be used in a stand-alone mode for battlefield surveillance and target detection. The CLU's thermal sight is a second generation Forward Looking Infrared (FLIR) sensor. To facilitate initial loading and subsequent updating of software, all on-board missile software is uploaded via the CLU after mating and prior to launch.
4. The missile is autonomously guided to the target using an imaging infrared seeker and adaptive correlation tracking algorithms. This allows the gunner to take cover or reload and engage another target after firing a missile. The missile has an advanced tandem warhead and can be used in either the top attack or direct fire modes (for target undercover). An onboard flight computer guides the missile to the selected target.
5. The Javelin Missile System hardware and the documentation are UNCLASSIFIED. The missile software which resides in the CLU is considered SENSITIVE. The sensitivity is primarily in the software programs which instruct the system how to operate in the presence of countermeasures. The overall hardware is also considered sensitive in that the infrared wavelengths could be useful in attempted countermeasure development.
6. If a technologically advanced adversary obtains knowledge of the specific hardware and software elements, the information could be used to develop countermeasures or equivalent systems that might reduce weapon system effectiveness or be used in the development of a system with similar or advanced capabilities.
7. A determination has been made that Georgia can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary to further the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
8. All defense articles and services listed on this transmittal are authorized for release and export to the Government of Georgia.
Defense Security Cooperation Agency, Department of Defense.
Arms sales notice.
The Department of Defense is publishing the unclassified text of an arms sales notification.
Pamela Young, (703) 697-9107,
This 36(b)(1) arms sales notification is published to fulfill the requirements of section 155 of Public Law 104-164 dated July 21, 1996. The following is a copy of a letter to the Speaker of the House of Representatives, Transmittal 17-67 with attached Policy Justification and Sensitivity of Technology.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Also included with this request are communications equipment, tools and test equipment, range and test programs, support equipment, prime movers, generators, publications and technical documentation, training equipment, spare and repair parts, personnel training, Technical Assistance Field Team (TAFT), U.S. Government and contractor technical, engineering, and logistics support services, Systems Integration and Checkout (SICO), field office support, and other related elements of logistics and program support.
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
* As defined in Section 47(6) of the Arms Export Control Act.
The Government of Poland has requested to purchase phase one of a two-phase program for an Integrated Air and Missile Defense (IAMD) Battle Command System (IBCS) enabled Patriot Configuration-3+ with Modernized Sensors and Components consisting of four (4) AN/MPQ-65 radar sets, four (4) engagement control stations, four (4) Radar Interface Units (RIU) modification kits, sixteen (16) M903 Launching stations adapted, eighteen (18) Launcher Integrated Network Kits (LINKs) (includes two (2) spares), two hundred and eight (208) Patriot Advanced Capability-3 (PAC-3) Missile Segment Enhancement (MSE) missiles, eleven (11) PAC-3 MSE test missiles, IBCS software, two (2) future operations—IBCS Engagement Operations Centers (EOCs), six (6) current operations-IBCS EOCs, six (6) engagement operations-IBCS EOCs, fifteen (15) Integrated Fire Control Network (IFCN relays, four (4) Electrical Power Plants (EPP) III, and five (5) Multifunctional Information Distribution Systems/Low Volume Terminals (MIDS/LVTs). Also included with this request are communications equipment, tools and test equipment, range and test programs, support equipment, prime movers, generators, publications and technical documentation, training equipment, spare and repair parts, personnel training, Technical Assistance Field Team (TAFT), U.S. Government and contractor technical, engineering, and logistics support services, Systems Integration and Checkout (SICO), field office support, and other related elements of logistics and program support. The total estimated program cost is $10.5. billion.
This proposed sale will support the foreign policy and national security objectives of the United States by helping to improve the security of a NATO ally which has been, and continues to be an important force for political stability and economic progress in Europe. This sale is consistent with U.S. initiatives to provide key allies in the region with modern systems that will enhance interoperability with U.S. forces and increase security.
Poland will use the IBCS-enabled Patriot missile system to improve its missile defense capability, defend its territorial integrity, and deter regional threats. The proposed sale will increase the defensive capabilities of the Polish Military to guard against hostile aggression and shield the NATO allies who often train and operate within Poland's borders. Poland will have no difficulty absorbing this system into its armed forces.
The proposed sale of these missiles and equipment will not alter the basic military balance in the region.
The prime contractors will be Raytheon Corporation in Andover, Massachusetts, Lockheed-Martin in Dallas, Texas, and Northrop Grumman in Falls Church, Virginia. The purchaser requested offsets. At this time, offset agreements are undetermined and will be defined in negotiations between the purchaser and contractors.
Implementation of this proposed sale will require approximately 42 U.S. Government and 55 contractor representatives to travel to Poland for an extended period for equipment de-processing/fielding, system checkout, training, and technical and logistics support.
There will be no adverse impact on U.S. defense readiness as a result of this proposed sale.
(vii)
1. The Patriot Air Defense System contains classified CONFIDENTIAL hardware components, SECRET tactical software and CRITICAL/SENSITIVE technology. Patriot ground support equipment and Patriot missile hardware contain CONFIDENTIAL components and the associated launcher hardware is UNCLASSIFIED. Information on system performance capabilities, effectiveness, survivability, missile seeker capabilities, select software/software documentation and test data are classified up to and including SECRET. The items requested represent significant technological advances for Poland. The Patriot Air Defense System continues to hold a significant technology lead over other surface-to-air missile systems in the world.
2. The Patriot Air Defense System's sensitive/critical technology is primarily in the area of design and production know-how and primarily inherent in the design, development and/or manufacturing data related to certain components. The list of components is classified CONFIDENTIAL. For more information contact the PEO Missiles and Space Lower Tier Project Office.
3. The Integrated Air and Missile Defense (IAMD) Battle Command System (IBCS) contains classified SECRET tactical software, UNCLASSIFIED hardware components, a few classified SECRET hardware components and CRITICAL/SENSITIVE technology. Information on Integrated Fire Control (IFC) Network performance, Integrated System Requirements and Effectiveness, Common Command and Control Requirements and Performance, Precision of sensor, shelter, launcher, and Plug & Fight module time references, Detailed security device configurations, Cyber Security details, Distributed Track Management Processing, Distributed Control Management Processing, External Interface Data, IBCS Specifications, Critical Elements, Vulnerabilities and Weaknesses, and Test Data, Results, and Equipment are classified up to and including SECRET. The items requested represent significant technological advances for Poland Air and Missile Defense. The IBCS represents a
4. The IBCS sensitive/critical technology is primarily in software. And also resides in the design, developments, and manufacturing of certain components. The list of components containing sensitive/critical technology is classified SECRET.
5. The loss of this hardware, software, documentation and/or data could permit development of information which may lead to a significant threat to future U.S. military operations. If an adversary were to obtain this sensitive technology, the missile system effectiveness could be compromised through reverse engineering techniques.
6. A determination has been made that Poland can provide substantially the same degree of protection for the sensitive technology being released as the U.S. Government. This proposed sale is necessary in furtherance of the U.S. foreign policy and national security objectives outlined in the Policy Justification.
7. All defense articles and services listed in this transmittal have been authorized for release and export to the Government of Poland.
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of intent.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) South Atlantic Division and the Port of Stockton are preparing an Environmental Impact Statement and Environmental Impact Report (EIS/EIR) to evaluate the efficiency of the movement of goods along the existing deep-draft navigation route extending from the Golden Gate, through San Pablo Bay and Carquinez Strait, to deep draft facilities at Avon, California. This Notice of Intent (NOI) represents a supplemental notice to the March 4, 2016, NOI released for the San Francisco Bay to Stockton Navigation Improvement Study. This supplemental NOI is being released to notify the public that the study scope has been reduced to only consider improvements within the portion of the navigation project extending from San Francisco Bay to Avon. Work is now being conducted on an EIS/EIR with a reduced scope and project footprint, which is anticipated to be issued for public review in 2018. This NOI also re-opens the public scoping period.
The 2016 NOI proposed to deepen the John F. Baldwin channel from the West Richmond Channel through the Pinole Shoal Channel, Bulls Head Reach and Suisun Bay Channel to New York Slough Channel to a maximum depth of 45 feet mean lower low water (MLLW) and the Stockton Deep Water Ship Channel to a maximum depth of 40 feet MLLW. As of September, 2017, the portion of the authorized navigation project to the east of Avon is no longer under consideration for formulation of navigation improvements.
The revised study area extends from Central San Francisco Bay to Avon only and includes the West Richmond Channel, Pinole Shoal Channel, and Bulls Head Reach portion of the Suisun Bay Channel (west of Avon). The current authorized depth of this study area is 45 feet mean lower low water (MLLW), but is currently maintained at 35 feet MLLW.
The forthcoming EIS/EIR is a single purpose navigation improvement project to evaluate incremental deepening to a maximum depth of 38 feet MLLW within the channel reaches of the revised study area only.
Submit comments concerning this notice on or before thirty days after this posting. There will be no additional public meeting in conjunction with this scoping period.
Mail written comments concerning this notice to: U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Jacksonville District, Planning and Policy Division, Environmental Branch, P.O. Box 4970, Jacksonville, FL 32232-0019. Comment letters should include the commenter's physical mailing address and the project title.
Stacie Auvenshine, 904-314-6714 or email at
This EIS/EIR is intended to be sufficient in scope to address the federal, state, and local requirements and environmental issues concerning the proposed activities and permit approvals.
The revised study area includes the West Richmond Channel, Pinole Shoal Channel, Carquinez Strait, and the Bulls Head Reach portion of the Suisun Bay Channel, ending at Avon. These channels are currently maintained at 35 feet MLLW, although the channels have an authorized depth of 45 feet MLLW.
The Draft EIS/EIR will analyze the project alternatives described below:
Under both deepening alternatives, the dredged material will be placed at one or more permitted and economically feasible beneficial reuse sites.
The public will have an additional opportunity to comment once the Draft EIS/EIR is released, which is anticipated to be in the summer of 2018. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency will provide notice of the availability of the Draft EIS/EIR in the
Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a reinstatement of a previously approved information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 2, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Tawanda Avery, 202-453-6471.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Similar data have been collected under the Survey on the Use of Funds Under Title II, Part A prior to reauthorization of ESEA. This OMB clearance request is to continue these types of analyses, but using new data collection instruments updated to reflect changes due to the reauthorization of ESEA by the ESSA. The request is to begin data collection and analyses for the 2017-18 school year and subsequent years.
Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services (OSERS), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 2, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Melinda Giancola, 202-245-7312.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Management (OM), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 3, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Ellen Campbell, 202-260-3887.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of Application.
Clean Power Northeast Development Inc. (CPNE) has applied for a Presidential permit to construct, operate, maintain, and connect an electric transmission line across the United States border with Canada.
Comments or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before January 3, 2018.
Comments or motions to intervene should be addressed as follows: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability (OE-20), U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
Christopher Lawrence (Program Office) at 202-586-5260 or via electronic mail at
The construction, operation, maintenance, and connection of facilities at the international border of the United States for the transmission of electric energy between the United States and a foreign country is prohibited in the absence of a Presidential permit issued pursuant to Executive Order (EO) 10485, as amended by EO 12038.
On September 28, 2017, CPNE filed an application with the Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability of the Department of Energy (DOE) for a Presidential permit for the Atlantic Link Project (Atlantic Link). CPNE is an indirectly wholly owned subsidiary of Emera Inc. CPNE is a development company headquartered and operating in Boston, Massachusetts. Emera Inc., headquartered in Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada, is an energy company operating in the United States, Canada, and four Caribbean countries.
CNPE proposes to construct, operate, maintain and connect a subsea, 1000 megawatt, high voltage direct current (HVDC) transmission cable system to deliver electricity from Atlantic Canada to Massachusetts. The final transmission cable system route is anticipated to be located within rights-of-way (ROW) selected from two current route alternatives, and would connect Coleson Cove, New Brunswick, Canada to Plymouth, Massachusetts for a total length of approximately 375 miles, depending on which route alternative is selected. Over 99 percent of the route would be subsea. A majority of the total transmission cable system route would be located in United States federal waters; however, short sections of the route would traverse Massachusetts state waters for a total of approximately 20 to 34 miles, depending on which route alternative is selected. The total length of the submarine transmission cable system route in U.S. federal waters (
Since the restructuring of the electric industry began, resulting in the introduction of different types of competitive entities into the marketplace, DOE has consistently expressed its policy that cross-border trade in electric energy should be subject to the same principles of comparable open access and non-discrimination that apply to transmission in interstate commerce. DOE has stated that policy in export authorizations granted to entities requesting authority to export over international transmission facilities. Specifically, DOE expects transmitting utilities owning border facilities to provide access across the border in accordance with the principles of comparable open access and non-discrimination contained in the Federal Power Act and articulated in Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) Order No. 888, (Promoting Wholesale Competition Through Open Access Non-Discriminatory Transmission Services by Public Utilities), 61 FR 21,540 (May 10, 1996), as amended.
Additional copies of such motions to intervene also should be filed directly with: Dan Muldoon, P. Eng, President, Clean Power Northeast Development Inc., 101 Federal Street Suite 1101, Boston, MA 02110,
Before a Presidential permit may be issued or amended, DOE must determine that the proposed action is in the public interest. In making that determination, DOE may consider the environmental impacts of the proposed project pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, the project's impact on electric reliability by ascertaining whether the proposed project would adversely affect the operation of the U.S. electric power supply system under normal and contingency conditions, and any other factors that DOE may also deem relevant to the public interest. Also, DOE must obtain the concurrences of the Secretary of State and the Secretary of Defense before taking final action on a Presidential permit application.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program Web site at
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy.
Submission for Office of Management and Budget review; comment request.
Pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), this notice announces that the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) is forwarding an information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget
Written comments and information are requested and will be accepted on or before January 3, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, please advise the DOE Desk Officer at OMB of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at 202-395-4718 or contacted by email at
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of Personnel Management or sent via electronic mail to
And to:
Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-6590. Email:
Ashley Armstrong, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 586-6590. Email:
The PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, require Federal agencies to issue two notices seeking public comment on information collection activities before OMB may approve paperwork packages. 44 U.S.C. 3506, 3507; 5 CFR 1320.5, 1320.8(d)(1), and 1320.12. On August 22, 2017, DOE published a 60-day notice in the
DOE requested comments as to whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility. ASAP, ASE, ACEEE, NCLC, NEEP, NEEA, and NPCC
The California Investor Owned Utilities
Lennox commented that consistent information collection and enforcement of DOE energy efficiency regulations are needed to maintain a level playing field in the market. Information reporting should strike a balance between providing sufficient information and excessive reporting burden. Lennox further stated that DOE should not eviscerate reporting and compliance provisions, as doing so would chill manufacturer investment in developing new and improved products. (Lennox, No. 9 at pp. 1-2)
Plumbing Manufacturers International (PMI) commented that the current reporting requirements are no longer needed for commercial pre-rinse spray valves, faucets, showerheads, urinals and water closets because water consumption requirements in line with Federal regulations are already addressed in industry standards and/or codes. (PMI, No. 2 at pg. 1) DOE notes that while industry standards may help ensure that plumbing products comply with Federal standards, industry standards are voluntary. DOE also notes that state building codes do not uniformly adopt the most recent industry standards. In addition to ensuring compliance with the Federal standards, DOE's certification database provides consumers with comprehensive, up-to-date efficiency information. Therefore, DOE does not agree that industry standards and state building codes negate the impact of certification.
NAFEM commented that the proposed requirements to submit certificates of admissibility to the U.S. Customs for each imported shipment is an incredible burden and redundant with other reporting obligations. (NAFEM, No. 6 at p. 2) DOE appreciates NAFEM's comments, and notes that the proposal to which NAFEM was referring is part of an open rulemaking, has not been finalized, and is not part of this information collection. Any additional information collection burden that would be imposed under such a regulation, were one to be finalized, would be evaluated and addressed in the course of that rulemaking. For more information about DOE's rulemaking on import data collection see docket number: EERE-2015-BT-CE-0019.
DOE received several comments about the accuracy of DOE's estimates of the burden of the information collection activities. ALA, AHAM, HPBA, ITI, and NEMA (hereafter referred to as ALA
In the August 2017 60-day notice, DOE estimated that annually
DOE appreciates NAFEM's feedback on the cost for small businesses to test and certify their products. However, DOE wants to make clear that its certification requirements do not require manufacturers to test their basic models annually in order to submit a certification report. DOE only requires manufacturers to determine the basic model's representative efficiency or energy consumption before distribution in U.S. commerce according to the product-specific provisions found in subpart B of 10 CFR part 429. For most products, these provisions require manufacturers to test at least two units per basic model according to the DOE test procedure, and DOE accounts for the burden associated with testing when adopting or amending a test procedure or energy conservation standard. NAFEM's estimated burden includes both the cost of testing and certification and did not break out the cost associated only with certification. For this reason DOE cannot compare NAFEM's estimate to its own.
ALA
DOE also received comments suggesting ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information being collected and suggestions to minimize the burden of information collection activities.
A number of comments focused on DOE's Compliance Certification Management System (CCMS). ASAP
However, Acuity opined that DOE uses the CCMS system to check that manufacturers have completed the requisite administrative tasks and that the system provides no value in validating a product's performance. Acuity asserted that DOE's enforcement efforts are focused entirely on entry mistakes, while ignoring manufacturers who do not report at all. Acuity further asserted that its prior complaints regarding manufacturers that do not comply with the certification reporting obligations have gone unaddressed. Acuity suggested DOE could establish a Web site or reporting mechanism, similar to the FTC's public claims filing system, which would allow manufacturers to report suspected nonreporting manufacturers to help facilitate enforcement against nonreporting entities. (Acuity, No. 3 at pp. 4-5)
The Office of the Assistant General Counsel for Enforcement reviews manufacturers' compliance with certification requirements to ensure that manufacturers provide information demonstrating compliance with DOE standards and regulations. In addition, this program investigates all complaints about potential noncompliance. DOE notes that it currently has a mechanism for the submission of complaints. Anyone wishing to make a complaint may send an email to
DOE also received suggestions to improve CCMS. Lennox commented that DOE should publish certification record numbers on its public certification database to further streamline verification of product certification. (Lennox, No. 9 at pp. 2-3) Acuity commented that CCMS has an outdated data entry system, which requires manual input of numerous fields of information for hundreds of product models into a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet that cannot be edited or updated after filing. Acuity suggested the data entry system should be replaced with a dynamic Web-based platform that would allow companies to enter and update—and DOE to analyze—real-time compliance data. In addition, Acuity commented that a Web-based portal or similar construct could be secured by password/credential protection from both the manufacturer and DOE sides. (Acuity, No. 3, pp. 2-3 and p. 5) Traulsen commented that DOE should better align annual product certification deadlines with new template usage so that manufacturers are not required to certify multiple times. In addition, Traulsen suggested that DOE release a revision log noting changes made in certification templates to aid the entities completing the templates. (Traulsen, No. 4 at p. 1)
DOE appreciates the feedback from Lennox, Acuity, and Traulsen and will consider these comments going forward. In response to Acuity's comment, DOE emphasizes that it elected to use Microsoft Excel spreadsheet for certification templates because of its flexibility and because it is a widely adopted standard product across industries. The certification templates allow data to be entered manually, with copy-and-paste, or imported from another system. In addition, these Microsoft Excel templates allow manufacturers to work on it over time, save it locally, and have several people work on it without having to have an open user session in CCMS. Further, DOE's CCMS system is currently secured by password protection. All users are required to register with CCMS and establish usernames and passwords to access CCMS.
Interested parties also commented on aligning DOE's reporting requirements with other entities. The CA IOUs commented in support of aligning the data collected for DOE and the California Energy Commission (CEC) because the reduction of duplicative reporting requirements helps avoid inconsistencies in data and benefits manufacturers serving the California marketplace by minimizing their compliance overhead. The CA IOUs urged DOE to work very closely with CEC to make sure their data and systems align. (CA IOUs, No. 8 at p. 2-3) Traulsen also supports DOE's consideration of revisions to the CCMS to facilitate a reduction in duplicative reporting under California's Appliance Efficiency Regulations. (Traulsen, No. 4 at p. 2) Lennox stated that DOE's CCMS system should be utilized as the central information repository to satisfy other regulatory or program requirements and DOE should work to utilize the existing data to satisfy CEC's reporting requirements. (Lennox, No. 9 at pp. 2-3) ALA
PMI commented that Federal and state requirements should be reported separately, even though it could possibly eliminate duplicative reporting, as DOE should maintain its national focus and let states manage themselves. PMI also questioned how DOE would address differences in reporting requirements and covered products. (PMI, No. 2 at p. 2)
Based on the comments received, DOE has incorporated the cost of reporting any additional fields to its certification templates, which would aid in facilitating a reduction in duplicative reporting under the California's Appliance Efficiency Regulations and the ENERGY STAR program. At this time, DOE will work with CEC and EPA on ways it could reduce duplicative reporting on a case-by-case basis. In response to PMI's concern about addressing differences in reporting requirements, DOE would simply add additional fields to its certification templates to account for any additional information needed for reporting to CEC or ENERGY STAR. Submission of the additional information would not be mandatory for the purpose of complying with DOE's Federal requirements.
ALA
ASAP
DOE is not considering amending its regulations as part of this notice; however, it will consider these comments in any future rulemakings that address certification requirements.
ALA
Lennox commented that DOE should employ negotiated or working group consensus approaches as an integral part of the DOE rulemakings unless there is not a reasonable likelihood that the requisite consensus can be reached. Certification and information reporting requirements should be included in this process. (Lennox, No. 9 at p. 2) DOE appreciates Lennox's comment and will take it under consideration for future rulemakings.
DOE also received comments on its test procedure waiver process. ASAP
Acuity also commented that there is a lack of guidance and compliance resources from DOE regarding compliance expectations and interpretations, particularly when
The summaries below describe the information collection request and its expected burden. DOE is submitting this renewal request for clearance by OMB, as the PRA requires.
Comments are invited on the following information collection request regarding: (1) Whether the information collection activities are necessary for DOE to properly execute its functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of DOE's estimates of the burden of the information collection activities, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used to determine the estimates; (3) ways for DOE to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information being collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of information collection activities on the public, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This information collection request contains:
(1) OMB No. 1910-1400;
(2)
(3)
(4)
Pursuant to the Energy Policy and Conservation Act of 1975 (“EPCA” or “the Act”),
Covered products and covered equipment are described in 10 CFR parts 429, 430, and 431. These covered products and covered equipment, including all product or equipment classes, include: (1) Consumer refrigerators, refrigerator-freezers and freezers; (2) Room air conditioners; (3) Central air conditioners and central air conditioning heat pumps; (4) Consumer water heaters; (5) Consumer furnaces and boilers; (6) Dishwashers; (7) Residential clothes washers; (8) Clothes dryers; (9) Direct heating equipment; (10) Cooking products; (11) Pool heaters; (12) Television sets; (13) Fluorescent lamp ballasts; (14) General service fluorescent lamps, general service incandescent lamps, and incandescent reflector lamps; (15) Faucets; (16) Showerheads; (17) Water closets; (18) Urinals; (19) Ceiling fans; (20) Ceiling fan light kits; (21) Torchieres; (22) Compact fluorescent lamps; (23) Dehumidifiers; (24) External power supplies; (25) Battery chargers; (26) Candelabra base incandescent lamps and intermediate base incandescent lamps; (27) Commercial warm air furnaces; (28) Commercial refrigerators, freezers, and refrigerator-freezers; (29) Commercial heating and air conditioning equipment; (30) Commercial water heating equipment; (31) Automatic commercial ice makers; (32) Commercial clothes washers; (33) Distribution transformers; (34) Illuminated exit signs; (35) Traffic signal modules and pedestrian modules; (36) Commercial unit heaters; (37) Commercial pre-rinse spray valves; (38) Refrigerated bottled or canned beverage vending machines; (39) Walk-in coolers and walk-in freezers and certain components; (40) Metal halide lamp ballasts and fixtures (41) Integrated light-emitting diode lamps; (42) General service lamps; (43) Furnace fans; (44) Pumps; (45) Commercial packaged boilers; (46) Consumer miscellaneous refrigeration equipment; (47) Portable air conditioners; (48) Compressors; (49) Electric motors, and (50) Small electric motors.
Under EPCA, DOE's energy conservation program consists essentially of four parts: (1) Testing, (2) labeling, (3) Federal energy conservation standards, and (4) certification and enforcement procedures. For consumer products, relevant provisions of the Act specifically include definitions (42 U.S.C. 6291), energy conservation standards (42 U.S.C. 6295), test procedures (42 U.S.C. 6293), labeling provisions (42 U.S.C. 6294), and the authority to require information and reports from manufacturers (42 U.S.C. 6296). For covered equipment, relevant provisions of the Act include definitions (42 U.S.C. 6311), energy conservation standards (42 U.S.C. 6313), test procedures (42 U.S.C. 6314), labeling provisions (42 U.S.C. 6315), and the authority to require information and reports from manufacturers (42 U.S.C. 6316). DOE is seeking to renew its information collection related to the following aspects of the appliance standards program: (1) Gathering data and submittal of certification and compliance reports for each basic model distributed in commerce in the U.S. including supplemental testing instructions for certain commercial equipment; (2) maintaining records underlying the certified ratings for each basic model including test data and the associated calculations; (3) applications for a test procedure waiver, which manufacturers may elect to submit if they manufacture a basic model that cannot be tested pursuant to the DOE test procedure; (4) applications requesting an extension of the date by which representations must be made in accordance with any new or amended DOE test procedure; and (5) labeling.
DOE's certification and compliance activities ensure accurate and comprehensive information about the energy and water use characteristics of covered products and covered equipment sold in the United States. Manufacturers of all covered products and covered equipment must submit a certification report before a basic model is distributed in commerce, annually thereafter, and if the basic model is redesigned in such a manner to increase the consumption or decrease the efficiency of the basic model such that the certified rating is no longer supported by the test data. Additionally, manufacturers must report when
As the result of a negotiated rulemaking, DOE adopted additional certification requirements for commercial HVAC, water heater, and refrigeration equipment. Specifically, DOE requires manufacturers of commercial refrigeration equipment and some types of commercial HVAC equipment to submit a PDF with specific testing instructions to be used by the Department during verification and enforcement testing. Manufacturers of commercial water heating equipment and some types of commercial HVAC equipment have the option of submitting a PDF with additional testing instructions at the manufacturer's discretion. For additional information on the negotiated rulemaking or supplemental testing instructions see docket number EERE-2013-BT-NOC-0023.
On December 18, 2014, Congress enacted the EPS Service Parts Act of 2014 (Pub. L. 113-263, “Service Parts Act”). That law exempted manufacturers of certain external power supplies (“EPSs”) that were made available as service and spare parts for end-use products manufactured before February 10, 2016, from the energy conservation standards that DOE promulgated in its February 2014 rule. See 79 FR 7846 (Feb. 10, 2014). Additionally, the Service Parts Act permits DOE to require manufacturers of an EPS that is exempt from the 2016 standards to report to DOE the total number of such EPS units that are shipped annually as service and spare parts and that do not meet those standards. (42 U.S.C. 6295(u)(5)(A)(ii)) DOE may also limit the applicability of the exemption if the Secretary determines that the exemption is resulting in a significant reduction of the energy savings that would result in the absence of the exemption. (42 U.S.C. 6295(u)(5)(A)(iii)) In a final rule published on May 16, 2016, DOE adopted reporting requirements for EPS manufacturers to provide the total number of exempt EPS units sold as service and spare parts for which the manufacturer is claiming exemption from the current standards. 81 FR 30157.
DOE currently requires manufacturers or their party representatives to prepare and submit certification reports and compliance statements using DOE's electronic Web-based tool, the Compliance and Certification Management System (CCMS), which is the primary mechanism for submitting certification reports to DOE. CCMS currently has product and equipment specific templates which manufacturers are required to use when submitting certification data to DOE. DOE believes the availability of electronic filing through the CCMS system reduces reporting burdens, streamlines the process, and provides the Department with needed information in a standardized, more accessible form. This electronic filing system also ensures that records are recorded in a permanent, systematic way.
Manufacturers also may rely on CCMS reporting to satisfy certain reporting requirements established by the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”). EPCA directs the FTC generally to prescribe labeling rules for the consumer products subject to energy conservation standards under EPCA. (42 U.S.C. 6296) The required labels generally must disclose the estimated annual operating cost of such product (determined in accordance with Federal test procedures); and information respecting the range of estimated annual operating costs for covered products to which the rule applies. (42 U.S.C 6296(c)(1)) Pursuant to EPCA, the FTC prescribed the Energy Labeling Rule, which in part, requires manufacturers to attach yellow EnergyGuide labels to many of the covered consumer products. See 16 CFR part 305. EnergyGuide labels for most products subject to the FTC labeling requirement contain three key disclosures: estimated annual energy cost (16 CFR 305.5); a product's energy consumption or energy efficiency rating as determined from DOE test procedures (
The Energy Labeling Rule also contains reporting requirements for most products, under which manufacturers must submit data to the FTC both when they begin manufacturing new models and on an annual basis thereafter. 16 CFR 305.8. These reports must contain, among other things, estimated annual energy consumption or energy efficiency ratings, similar to what is required under DOE's reporting requirement.
However, in 2013 the FTC streamlined and harmonized its reporting requirements by giving manufacturers the option to report FTC-required data through DOE's CCMS, in lieu of the traditional practice of submitting directly to FTC. 78 FR 2200 (Jan. 10, 2013); 16 CFR 305.8(a)(1). As such, the CCMS reduces duplicative reporting for manufacturers of covered consumer products that are also required to report under the FTC Energy Label Rule.
DOE allows manufacturers of both consumer products and/or commercial equipment to apply for a test procedure waiver. A manufacturer may submit an application for a test procedure waiver at its discretion if the basic model for which the petition for waiver was submitted contains one or more design characteristics that prevents testing of the basic model according to the prescribed test procedures, or if the prescribed test procedures may evaluate the basic model in a manner so unrepresentative of its true energy consumption characteristics as to provide materially inaccurate comparative data. The Department currently uses and will continue to use the information submitted in the application for a waiver as the basis for granting or denying the petition. See 10 CFR 430.27 for additional information on petitions for waivers and for consumer products. See 10 CFR 431.401 for additional information on petitions for waivers for commercial equipment.
DOE also allows manufacturers of both consumer products and/or commercial equipment to submit applications requesting an extension of the date by which representations must be made in accordance with any new or amended DOE test procedure. DOE may grant extensions of up to 180 days if it determines that making such representations would impose an undue hardship on the petitioner. The Department currently uses and will continue to use the information submitted in these applications as the basis for granting or denying the petition.
In addition to the FTC labeling requirements for consumer products discussed, EPCA directs DOE to establish labeling requirements for covered industrial and commercial equipment when specified criteria is
(5) Proposed changes to the information collection, including description of additional information that would be collected.
No changes are being made to the information collection instrument at this time; any such changes would be made through a rulemaking to amend the applicable regulations. DOE accounted for the reporting that would be needed in order to facilitate a reduction in duplicative reporting under the California's Appliance Efficiency Regulations and the ENERGY STAR program, similar to what was achieved with the FTC. Under its Appliance Efficiency Regulations, California requires manufacturers to certify and report to the CEC energy efficiency data of certain consumer products. See California Code of Regulations (CCR), Title 20, section 1606. For consumer products that are reported to the California Energy Commission and are subject to Federal test procedures, the California regulations generally require submission of data from those Federal test procedures (
(6)
(7)
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Section 326(d) of the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Public Law 94-163, as amended (42 U.S.C. 6296); 10 CFR parts 429, 430, and 431.
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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i. Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene and protests, is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests, comments, and recommendations, using the Commission's eFiling system at
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k. This notice is available for review and reproduction at the Commission in the Public Reference Room, Room 2A, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426. The filing may also be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
l. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that on November 22, 2017, pursuant to sections 1(5), 6, 8, 9, 13, 15 and 16 of the Interstate Commerce Act, 49 U.S.C. App. 1(5), 6, 8, 9, 13, 15 and 16; section 1803 of the Energy Policy Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-486, 106 Stat. 2772 (1992); Rule 206 of the Rules of Practice and Procedure of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission), 18 CFR 385.206 (2017); and Rules 343.1(a) and 343.2(c) of the Commission's Procedural Rules Applicable to Oil Pipeline Proceedings, 18 CFR 343.1(a) and 343.2(c) (2017), Epsilon Trading, LLC, Chevron Products Company, and Valero Marketing and Supply Company (collectively, Joint Complainants) filed a formal complaint against Colonial Pipeline Company, (Respondent) challenging the just and reasonableness of (1) Respondent's cost-based transportation rates in Tariff FERC No. 99.36.0 and predecessor tariffs; (2) Respondent's market-based rate authority and rates charged pursuant to that authority; and (3) Respondent's charges relating to product loss allocation and transmix, as more fully explained in the complaint.
The Joint Complainants certify that copies of the complaint were served on the contacts for Respondent as listed on the Commission's list of Corporate Officials.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on November 15, 2017, Transcontinental Gas Pipe Line Company, LLC (Transco), P.O. Box 1396, Houston, Texas 77251, filed a prior notice application pursuant to sections 157.205, and 157.208 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) regulations under the Natural Gas Act (NGA), and Transco's blanket certificate issued in Docket No. CP82-426-000. Transco requests authorization to construct and operate three new heaters and related appurtenant facilities at the existing Meadow Heater facility located in the Borough of Ridgefield, Bergen County, New Jersey, all as more fully set forth in the application, which is open to the public for inspection. The filing may also be viewed on the web at
Any questions regarding this application should be directed to Marg Camardello, P.O. Box 1396, Houston, Texas 77251 or by phone (713) 215-3380.
Any person or the Commission's staff may, within 60 days after issuance of the instant notice by the Commission, file pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Procedural Rules (18 CFR 385.214) a motion to intervene or notice of intervention and pursuant to Section 157.205 of the regulations under the NGA (18 CFR 157.205), a protest to the request. If no protest is filed within the time allowed therefore, the proposed activity shall be deemed to be authorized effective the day after the time allowed for filing a protest. If a protest is filed and not withdrawn within 30 days after the allowed time for filing a protest, the instant request shall be treated as an application for authorization pursuant to section 7 of the NGA.
Pursuant to section 157.9 of the Commission's rules, 18 CFR 157.9, within 90 days of this Notice the Commission staff will either: complete its environmental assessment (EA) and place it into the Commission's public record (eLibrary) for this proceeding, or issue a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review. If a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review is issued, it will indicate, among other milestones, the anticipated date for the Commission staff's issuance of the final environmental impact statement (FEIS) or EA for this proposal. The filing of the EA in the Commission's public record for this proceeding or the issuance of a Notice of Schedule for Environmental Review will serve to notify federal and state agencies of the timing for the completion of all necessary reviews, and the subsequent need to complete all federal authorizations within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's FEIS or EA.
Persons who wish to comment only on the environmental review of this project should submit an original and two copies of their comments to the Secretary of the Commission. Environmental commenters will be placed on the Commission's environmental mailing list, will receive copies of the environmental documents, and will be notified of meetings associated with the Commission's environmental review process. Environmental commenters will not be required to serve copies of filed documents on all other parties. However, the non-party commenter will not receive copies of all documents filed by other parties or issued by the Commission (except for the mailing of environmental documents issued by the Commission) and will not have the right to seek court review of the Commission's final order.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filings of comments, protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the eFiling link at
On May 31, 2017, Midship Pipeline Company, LLC (Midship Pipeline) filed an application with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) in Docket No. CP17-458-000 requesting a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity pursuant to section 7(c) of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and part 157 of the Commission's regulations to construct, own, operate, and maintain a new 233.6-mile-long natural gas pipeline system and associated facilities in Oklahoma. The proposed project, known as the Midcontinent Supply Header Interstate Pipeline Project (MIDSHIP Project), would provide 1,440 million standard cubic feet per day of natural gas transportation capacity from the Anadarko Basin in Oklahoma to existing natural gas pipelines near Bennington, Oklahoma, for transport to growing Gulf Coast and Southeast markets.
FERC issued its Notice of Application for the MIDSHIP Project on June 14, 2017. Among other things, the notice alerted other agencies issuing federal authorizations of the requirement to complete all necessary reviews and to reach a final decision on the request for a federal authorization within 90 days of the date of issuance of the Commission staff's final environmental impact statement (EIS) for the MIDSHIP Project. This notice identifies the FERC staff's planned schedule for completion of the final EIS for the MIDSHIP Project, which is based on an issuance of the draft EIS in February 2018.
Issuance of Notice of Availability of the final EIS: June 21, 2018.
90-day Federal Authorization Decision Deadline: September 19, 2018.
If a schedule change becomes necessary, an additional notice will be provided so that the relevant agencies are kept informed of the MIDSHIP Project's progress.
On November 9, 2016, the Commission staff granted Midship Pipeline's request to use FERC's pre-filing environmental review process and assigned the MIDSHIP Project Docket No. PF17-3-000. On January 27, 2017,
In order to receive notification of the issuance of the EIS and to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription. This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents via email. Go to
Additional information about the MIDSHIP Project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs at (866) 208-FERC or on the FERC Web site (
On September 29, 2017, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) issued in Docket Nos. CP17-40-000 and CP17-40-001 a
A CD containing an electronic copy of the EA was previously mailed to you. Alternatively, the EA is available for public viewing on the FERC's Web site (
The enclosure contains the original notice of availability describing the project and the methods you can use to file your comments to the Commission. To ensure that the Commission has the opportunity to consider your comments prior to making its decision on this project, it is important that we receive your comments in Washington, DC on or before December 22, 2017.
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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j. Deadline for filing motions to intervene and protests, comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, and fishway prescriptions is 60 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission; reply comments are due 105 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing.
Please file any motion to intervene, protest, comments, and/or recommendations using the Commission's eFiling system at
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) has prepared an environmental assessment (EA) for the 2018 Expansion Project (Project) proposed by Paiute Pipeline Company (Paiute) in the above-referenced docket. Paiute requests authorization to construct approximately 8.46 miles of pipeline to upsize or loop four segments of Paiute's Carson and South Tahoe Laterals in Douglas and Lyon Counties and Carson City, Nevada. The Project would provide up to 4,604 dekatherms per day of new natural gas delivery capacity from Paiute's Tuscarora Gas Transmission Company's Interconnect (Tuscarora) at Wadsworth, Nevada to delivery points along Paiute's Carson and South Tahoe Laterals. The requested pipeline facilities would also allow 1,031 dekatherms per day of existing delivery capacity to be shifted from Paiute's Minden/Gardnerville Delivery Point on its Carson Lateral to the South Lake Tahoe City Gate, a point farther downstream on the South Tahoe Lateral.
The EA assesses the potential environmental effects of the construction and operation of the 2018 Expansion Project in accordance with the requirements of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). The FERC staff concludes that approval of the proposed Project, with appropriate mitigating measures, would not constitute a major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
The Bureau of Land Management (BLM) and the Consolidated Municipality of Carson City, Nevada (Carson City) participated as cooperating agencies in the preparation of the EA. Cooperating agencies have jurisdiction by law or special expertise with respect to resources potentially affected by the proposal and participate in the NEPA analysis. The BLM intends to adopt and use the EA to consider the issuance of a right-of-way grant for the portion of the project on federal lands.
Specifically, the 2018 Expansion Project would include:
• Construction of 0.42 miles of new 12-inch-diameter pipeline paralleling Paiute's existing South Tahoe Lateral pipeline (Segment 1);
• replacement of 1.58 miles of existing 8-inch-diameter Carson Lateral Loop pipeline with 12-inch-diameter pipeline (Segment 2);
• replacement of 2.27 miles of existing 10-inch-diameter pipeline along Paiute's existing Carson Lateral pipeline with 20-inch-diameter pipeline (Segment 3); and
• construction of 4.19 miles of new 20-inch-diameter pipeline loop paralleling Paiute's existing Carson Lateral pipeline (Segment 4).
The FERC staff mailed copies of the EA to federal, state, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest groups; Native American tribes; potentially affected landowners and other interested individuals and groups; and newspapers and libraries in the project area. In addition, the EA is available for public viewing on the FERC's Web site (
Any person wishing to comment on the EA may do so. Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. The more specific your comments, the more useful they will be. To ensure that the Commission has the opportunity to consider your comments prior to making its decision on this project, it is important that we receive your comments in Washington, DC, on or before December 27, 2017.
For your convenience, there are three methods you can use to file your comments with the Commission. In all instances please reference the project docket number (CP17-471-000) with your submission. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has expert staff available to assist you at 202-502-8258 or
(1) You can file your comments electronically using the
(2) You can also file your comments electronically using the
(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the following address: Kimberly D. Bose, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426.
Any person seeking to become a party to the proceeding must file a motion to intervene pursuant to Rule 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedures (18 CFR 385.214).
Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC Web site (
In addition, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which allows you to keep track of all formal issuances and submittals in specific dockets.
This can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings by automatically providing you with notification of these filings, document summaries, and direct links to the documents. Go to
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission's staff may attend the following meetings related to the transmission planning activities of the New York Independent System Operator, Inc. (NYISO):
The above-referenced meeting will be via Web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via Web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via Web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The above-referenced meeting will be via Web conference and teleconference.
The above-referenced meeting is open to stakeholders.
Further information may be found at:
The discussions at the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact James Eason, Office of Energy Market Regulation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8622 or
On November 2, 2017, Roseburg Resources Company (Roseburg) and Mega Renewables (Mega) (co-licensees/transferors) and Shasta Cascade Timberlands LLC (Shasta/transferee) filed an application to partially transfer the license for the Hatchet Creek Project No. 5931. The project is located on Hatchet Creek in Shasta County, California. The project does not occupy Federal lands.
The applicants seek Commission approval to partially transfer the license for the Hatchet Creek Project from Roseburg Resources Company and Mega Renewables as co-licensees, to remove Roseburg Resources Company as a co-licensee and add Shasta Cascade Timberlands LLC as a co-licensee.
Deadline for filing comments, motions to intervene, and protests: 30 days from the date that the Commission issues this notice. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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d.
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f.
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j. Deadline for filing comments, interventions, and protests is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene, protests and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
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m. This filing may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
n. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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q. Agency Comments—Federal, state, and local agencies are invited to file comments on the described proceeding. If any agency does not file comments within the time specified for filing comments, it will be presumed to have no comments.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is required under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) to publish in the
Comments identified by the specific case number provided in this document, must be received on or before January 3, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2017-0409, and the specific PMN number or TME number for the chemical related to your comment, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general. As such, the Agency has not attempted to describe the specific entities that this action may apply to. Although others may be affected, this action applies directly to the submitters of the actions addressed in this document.
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This document provides receipt and status reports, which cover the period from September 1, 2017 to September 29, 2017, and consists of the PMNs and TMEs both pending and/or expired, and the NOCs to manufacture a new chemical that the Agency has received under TSCA section 5 during this time period.
Under TSCA, 15 U.S.C. 2601
Anyone who plans to manufacture or import a new chemical substance for a non-exempt commercial purpose is required by TSCA section 5 to provide EPA with a PMN, before initiating the activity. Section 5(h)(1) of TSCA authorizes EPA to allow persons, upon application, to manufacture (includes import) or process a new chemical substance, or a chemical substance subject to a significant new use rule (SNUR) issued under TSCA section 5(a), for “test marketing” purposes, which is referred to as a test marketing exemption, or TME. For more information about the requirements applicable to a new chemical go to:
Under TSCA sections 5(d)(2) and 5(d)(3), EPA is required to publish in the
As used in each of the tables in this unit, (S) indicates that the information in the table is the specific information provided by the submitter, and (G) indicates that the information in the table is generic information because the specific information provided by the submitter was claimed as CBI.
For the 165 PMNs received by EPA during this period, Table 1 provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not claimed as CBI): The EPA case number assigned to the PMN; The date the PMN was received by EPA; the projected end date for EPA's review of the PMN; the submitting manufacturer/importer; the potential uses identified by the manufacturer/importer in the PMN; and the chemical identity.
For the 21 NOCs received by EPA during this period, Table 2 provides the following information (to the extent that such information is not claimed as CBI): The EPA case number assigned to the NOC; the date the NOC was received by EPA; the projected date of commencement provided by the submitter in the NOC; and the chemical identity.
15 U.S.C. 2601
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before February 2, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via Email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, the FCC invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before January 3, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
47 CFR 74.781 information collection requirements include the following: (a) The licensee of a low power TV, TV translator, or TV booster station shall maintain adequate station records, including the current instrument of authorization, official correspondence with the FCC, contracts, permission for rebroadcasts, and other pertinent documents.
(b) Entries required by § 17.49 of this Chapter concerning any observed or otherwise known extinguishment or improper functioning of a tower light: (1) The nature of such extinguishment or improper functioning. (2) The date and time the extinguishment or improper operation was observed or otherwise noted. (3) The date, time and nature of adjustments, repairs or replacements made.
(c) The station records shall be maintained for inspection at a residence, office, or public building, place of business, or other suitable place, in one of the communities of license of the translator or booster, except that the station records of a booster or translator licensed to the licensee of the primary station may be kept at the same place where the primary station records are kept. The name of the person keeping station records, together with the address of the place where the records are kept, shall be posted in accordance with § 74.765(c) of the rules. The station records shall be made available upon request to any authorized representative of the Commission.
(d) Station logs and records shall be retained for a period of two years.
47 CFR 74.1281 information collection requirements include the following: (a) The licensee of a station authorized under this Subpart shall maintain adequate station records, including the current instrument of authorization, official correspondence with the FCC, maintenance records, contracts, permission for rebroadcasts, and other pertinent documents.
(b) Entries required by § 17.49 of this chapter concerning any observed or otherwise known extinguishment or improper functioning of a tower light:
(1) The nature of such extinguishment or improper functioning.
(2) The date and time the extinguishment of improper operation was observed or otherwise noted.
(3) The date, time and nature of adjustments, repairs or replacements made.
(c) The station records shall be maintained for inspection at a residence, office, or public building, place of business, or other suitable place, in one of the communities of license of the translator or booster, except that the station records of a booster or translator licensed to the licensee of the primary station may be kept at the same place where the primary station records are kept. The name of the person keeping station records, together with the address of the place where the records are kept, shall be posted in accordance with § 74.1265(b) of the rules. The station records shall be made available upon request to any authorized representative of the Commission.
(d) Station logs and records shall be retained for a period of two years.
47 CFR 78.69 requires each licensee of a CARS station shall maintain records showing the following:
(a) For all attended or remotely controlled stations, the date and time of the beginning and end of each period of transmission of each channel;
(b) For all stations, the date and time of any unscheduled interruptions to the transmissions of the station, the duration of such interruptions, and the causes thereof;
(c) For all stations, the results and dates of the frequency measurements made pursuant to § 78.113 and the name of the person or persons making the measurements;
(d) For all stations, when service or maintenance duties are performed, which may affect a station's proper operation, the responsible operator shall sign and date an entry in the station's records, giving:
(1) Pertinent details of all transmitter adjustments performed by the operator or under the operator's supervision.
(e) When a station in this service has an antenna structure which is required to be illuminated, appropriate entries shall be made as follows:
(1) The time the tower lights are turned on and off each day, if manually controlled.
(2) The time the daily check of proper operation of the tower lights was made, if an automatic alarm system is not employed.
(3) In the event of any observed or otherwise known failure of a tower light:
(i) Nature of such failure.
(ii) Date and time the failure was observed or otherwise noted.
(iii) Date, time, and nature of the adjustments, repairs, or replacements made.
(iv) Identification of Flight Service Station (Federal Aviation Administration) notified of the failure of any code or rotating beacon light not corrected within 30 minutes, and the date and time such notice was given.
(v) Date and time notice was given to the Flight Service Station (Federal Aviation Administration) that the required illumination was resumed.
(4) Upon completion of the 3-month periodic inspection required by § 78.63(c):
(i) The date of the inspection and the condition of all tower lights and associated tower lighting control devices, indicators, and alarm systems.
(ii) Any adjustments, replacements, or repairs made to insure compliance with the lighting requirements and the date such adjustments, replacements, or repairs were made.
(f) For all stations, station record entries shall be made in an orderly and legible manner by the person or persons competent to do so, having actual knowledge of the facts required, who shall sign the station record when starting duty and again when going off duty.
(g) For all stations, no station record or portion thereof shall be erased, obliterated, or willfully destroyed within the period of retention required by rule. Any necessary correction may be made only by the person who made the original entry who shall strike out the erroneous portion, initial the correction made, and show the date the correction was made.
(h) For all stations, station records shall be retained for a period of not less than 2 years. The Commission reserves the right to order retention of station records for a longer period of time. In cases where the licensee or permittee has notice of any claim or complaint, the station record shall be retained until such claim or complaint has been fully satisfied or until the same has been barred by statute limiting the time for filing of suits upon such claims.
47 CFR 76.970(h) requires cable operators to provide the following information within 15 calendar days of a request regarding leased access (for systems subject to small system relief, cable operators are required to provide the following information within 30 days of a request regarding leased access):
(a) A complete schedule of the operator's full-time and part-time leased access rates;
(b) How much of the cable operator's leased access set-aside capacity is available;
(c) Rates associated with technical and studio costs;
(d) If specifically requested, a sample leased access contract; and
(e) Operators must maintain supporting documentation to justify scheduled rates in their files.
47 CFR 76.971 requires cable operators to provide billing and collection services to leased access programmers unless they can demonstrate the existence of third party billing and collection services which, in terms of cost and accessibility, offer leased access programmers an alternative substantially equivalent to that offered to comparable non-leased access programmers.
47 CFR 76.975(b) requires that persons alleging that a cable operator's leased access rate is unreasonable must receive a determination of the cable operator's maximum permitted rate from an independent accountant prior to filing a petition for relief with the Commission.
47 CFR 76.975(c) requires that petitioners attach a copy of the final accountant's report to their petition where the petition is based on allegations that a cable operator's leased access rates are unreasonable.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before February 2, 2018. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via Email:
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3520, the FCC invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The Federal Election Commission will be moving to a new location in early 2018. Specific information, including move dates and delivery instructions during the transition period, will be forthcoming.
Contact Person for More Information: Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Thursday, December 7, 2017 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC (ninth floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Individuals who plan to attend and require special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should contact Dayna C. Brown, Secretary and Clerk, at (202) 694-1040, at least 72 hours prior to the meeting date.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than December 20, 2017.
1.
Federal Trade Commission.
Proposed consent agreement.
The consent agreement in this matter settles alleged violations of federal law prohibiting unfair methods of competition. The attached Analysis to Aid Public Comment describes both the allegations in the complaint and the terms of the consent orders—embodied in the consent agreement—that would settle these allegations.
Comments must be received on or before December 22, 2017.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Kara Todd, (202-326-2015), Bureau of Competition, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20580.
Pursuant to Section 6(f) of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 2.34, 16 CFR 2.34, notice is hereby given that the above-captioned
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before December 22, 2017. Write “In the Matter of ACT/Jet Pep, Inc., File No. 171 0207” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comments online. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you prefer to file your comment on paper, write “In the Matter of ACT/Jet Pep, Inc., File No. 171 0207” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite CC-5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex D), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Because your comment will be placed on the publicly accessible FTC Web site at
Comments containing material for which confidential treatment is requested must be filed in paper form, must be clearly labeled “Confidential,” and must comply with FTC Rule 4.9(c). In particular, the written request for confidential treatment that accompanies the comment must include the factual and legal basis for the request, and must identify the specific portions of the comment to be withheld from the public record.
Visit the FTC Web site at
The Federal Trade Commission (“Commission”) has accepted for public comment, subject to final approval, an Agreement Containing Consent Orders (“Consent Agreement”) from Alimentation Couche-Tard Inc. (“ACT”) and CrossAmerica Partners LP (“CAPL”) (collectively, the “Respondents”). The Consent Agreement is designed to remedy the anticompetitive effects that likely would result from the proposed acquisition of Jet-Pep, Inc. (“Jet-Pep”) assets.
Under the terms of the proposed Consent Agreement, ACT and CAPL must divest to a Commission-approved buyer (or buyers) certain Jet-Pep retail fuel outlets and related assets in three local markets in Alabama. ACT must complete the divestiture no later than 120 days after the closing of ACT's acquisition of Jet-Pep. The Commission and Respondents have agreed to an Order to Maintain Assets that requires Respondents to operate and maintain each divestiture outlet in the normal course of business until a Commission-approved buyer acquires the outlet.
The Commission has placed the proposed Consent Agreement on the public record for 30 days to solicit comments from interested persons. Comments received during this period will become part of the public record. After 30 days, the Commission will again review the proposed Consent Agreement and the comments received, and will decide whether it should withdraw from the Consent Agreement, modify it, or make it final.
Respondent ACT, a publicly traded company headquartered in Laval, Quebec, Canada, operates convenience stores and retail fuel outlets throughout the United States and the world. ACT is the parent of wholly owned subsidiary, Circle K Stores Inc. (“Circle K”). ACT's current U.S. network consists of approximately 7,200 stores located in 42 states, making ACT the second-largest retail fuel chain in the country. ACT convenience store locations operate primarily under the Circle K and Kangaroo Express banners, while its retail fuel outlets provide a variety of company unbranded and third-party branded fuels. ACT owns 158 retail fuel outlets in Alabama.
Respondent CAPL, a publicly traded master limited partnership headquartered in Allentown, Pennsylvania, markets fuel at wholesale, and owns and operates convenience stores and retail fuel outlets. ACT, via Circle K, acquired CST Brands, Inc. (“CST”) in June 2017, which gave Circle K operational control and management of CAPL. CAPL supplies fuel to nearly 1,200 sites across 29 states, but it does not operate in Alabama.
Through three separate agreements (collectively “the Acquisition”), ACT will acquire ownership or operation of 120 Jet-Pep retail fuel outlets with attached convenience stores. Circle K intends to acquire 18 retail fuel outlets and Jet-Pep's terminal and related assets. CAPL will acquire the remaining 102 Jet-Pep retail fuel outlets. The Acquisition is not reportable under the Hart-Scott-Rodino Antitrust Improvements Act of 1976, 15 U.S.C. 18a (“HSR Act”). The Acquisition would extend ACT's position as one of the largest operators of retail fuel outlets in the United States.
The proposed Complaint alleges that the Acquisition, if consummated, would violate Section 7 of the Clayton Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 18, and Section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 45, by substantially lessening competition for the retail sale of gasoline and diesel in three local markets in Alabama. The proposed Complaint further alleges that Acquisition agreements constitute a violation of Section 5 of the FTC Act, as amended, 15 U.S.C. 45.
As alleged in the proposed Complaint, the relevant product markets in which to analyze the Acquisition are the retail sale of gasoline and the retail sale of diesel. The retail sale of gasoline and the retail sale of diesel constitute separate relevant markets because the two are not interchangeable. Consumers require gasoline for their gasoline-powered vehicles and can purchase gasoline only at retail fuel outlets. Likewise, consumers require diesel for their diesel-powered vehicles and can purchase diesel only at retail fuel outlets.
The proposed Complaint alleges the relevant geographic markets in which to assess the competitive effects of the Acquisition are three local areas in Brewton, Monroeville, and Valley, Alabama. Each particular geographic market is unique, with factors such as commuting patterns, traffic flows, and outlet characteristics playing important roles in determining the scope of the geographic market. Retail fuel markets are highly localized and can range in size up to a few miles.
According to the proposed Complaint, the Acquisition would reduce the number of independent market participants in each market to three or fewer. The Acquisition would thereby substantially lessen competition in these local markets by increasing the likelihood that ACT will unilaterally exercise market power and by increasing the likelihood of successful coordination among the remaining firms. Absent relief, the Acquisition would likely result in higher prices in each of the three local markets.
The proposed Complaint alleges that entry into each relevant market would not be timely, likely, or sufficient to deter or counteract the anticompetitive effects arising from the Acquisition. Barriers to entry include the availability of attractive real estate, the time and cost associated with constructing a new retail fuel outlet, and the time associated with obtaining necessary permits and approvals.
The proposed Consent Agreement would remedy the Acquisition's likely anticompetitive effects by requiring ACT to divest certain Jet-Pep retail fuel outlets and related assets in three local markets.
The proposed Consent Agreement requires that the divestiture occur no later than 120 days after ACT consummates the Acquisition. This Agreement protects the Commission's ability to obtain complete and effective relief in light of the non-reportable nature of the Acquisition and the small number of outlets to be divested. Further, based on Commission staff's investigation, the Commission believes that ACT can identify an acceptable buyer (or buyers) within 120 days.
The proposed Consent Agreement further requires ACT to maintain the economic viability, marketability, and competitiveness of each divestiture asset until the Commission approves a buyer (or buyers) and the divestiture is complete. For up to twelve months following the divestiture, ACT must make available transitional services, as needed, to assist the buyer of each divestiture asset.
In addition to requiring outlet divestitures, the proposed Consent Agreement also requires ACT to provide the Commission notice before acquiring designated outlets in the three local areas for ten years. The prior notice provision is necessary because acquisitions of the designated outlets likely raise competitive concerns and may fall below the HSR Act premerger notification thresholds.
The proposed Consent Agreement contains additional provisions designed to ensure the effectiveness of the proposed relief. For example, Respondents have agreed to an Order to Maintain Assets that will issue at the time the proposed Consent Agreement is accepted for public comment. The Order to Maintain Assets requires Respondents to operate and maintain each divestiture outlet in the normal course of business, through the date the Respondents' complete divestiture of the outlet. During this period, and until such time as the buyer (or buyers) no longer requires transitional assistance, the Order to Maintain Assets authorizes the Commission to appoint an independent third party as a Monitor to oversee the Respondents' compliance with the requirements of the proposed Consent Agreement.
The purpose of this analysis is to facilitate public comment on the proposed Consent agreement, and the Commission does not intend this analysis to constitute an official interpretation of the proposed Consent Agreement or to modify its terms in any way.
By direction of the Commission.
Office of Technology Strategy/Office of Government-wide Policy, General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB) will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of the currently approved information collection requirement concerning the reporting and use of information concerning integrity and performance of recipients of grants and cooperative agreements.
Submit comments on or before February 2, 2018.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 3090-0293, Reporting and Use of Information Concerning Integrity and Performance of Recipients of Grants and Cooperative Agreements by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Vicky Niblett, Deputy Assistant Commissioner, Integrated Award Environment, GSA, 202-394-7572 or
This information collection requirement, OMB Control No. 3090-0293, currently titled “Reporting and Use of Information Concerning Integrity and Performance of Recipients of Grants and Cooperative Agreements” is necessary in order to comply with section 872 of the Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act of 2009, Public Law 110-417, as amended by Public Law 111-212, hereafter referred to as “the Act.” The Duncan Hunter National Defense Authorization Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 110-417) was enacted on October 14, 2008. Section 872 of this Act required the development and maintenance of an information system that contains specific information on the integrity and performance of covered Federal agency contractors and grantees.
The Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) was developed to address these requirements. FAPIIS provides users access to integrity and performance information from the FAPIIS reporting module in the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS), proceedings information from the Entity Management section of the System for Award Management (SAM) database, and suspension/debarment information from the Performance Information section of SAM.
As stated in 2 CFR 200, Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards, the Federal awarding agency is required to review information available through any OMB-designated repositories of government-wide eligibility qualification or financial integrity information, as appropriate.
The Federal awarding agency is required to review the non-public segment of the OMB-designated integrity and performance system accessible through SAM (currently the FAPIIS), prior to making a Federal award where the Federal share is expected to exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (currently $150,000), defined in 41 U.S.C. 134, over the period of performance.
For non-federal entities (NFEs), if the total value of the NFEs currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from all Federal awarding agencies exceeds $10,000,000 for any period of time during the period of performance of the Federal award, then the NFE must disclose semiannually, and maintain the currency of information reported to the SAM that is made available in the designated integrity and performance system (currently the FAPIIS) about civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings, as described in the award terms and conditions, for the most recent five year period.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB) will be submitting to the Office of
Submit comments on or before January 3, 2018.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Mr. Charles Gray, Procurement Analyst, Office of Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, at telephone 703-795-6328, or email
Federal Acquisition Regulation clause 52.223-2, Affirmative Procurement of Biobased Products Under Service and Construction Contracts, requires prime contractors to report annually the product types and dollar values of U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)-designated biobased products purchased to the System for Award Management (SAM) Web site. The information reported by prime contractors enables Federal agencies to report annually to the Office of Federal Procurement Policy (OFPP) concerning actions taken to implement and measure progress in carrying out the preference for biobased products required under section 9002 of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002, codified at 7 U.S.C. 8102.
To determine the number of contractors performing construction and service contracts that may involve the purchase of USDA-designated biobased products, fiscal year 2016 data in the Federal Procurement Data System (FPDS) was reviewed to calculate the number of entities with unique DUNS numbers that were awarded contracts for the following selected Product Services Codes: A—Research and Development; F—Natural Resources Management; J—Maintenance, Repair, and Rebuilding of Equipment; M—Operation of Government-Owned Facility; S—Utilities and Housekeeping Services; T—Photographic, Mapping, Printing, and Publication Services; Y—Construction of Structures and Facilities; and Z—Maintenance, Repair or Alteration of Real Property. The clause at FAR 52.223-2 will apply to the majority of the contract actions in the selected PSCs.
The estimated total burden is as follows:
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0180, Affirmative Procurement of Biobased Procurements Under Services and Construction Contracts, in all correspondence.
Public Building Service, (PBS), General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of intent; announcement of meeting.
GSA is making available for public comment a Draft Environmental Assessment (EA) prepared for the construction of the proposed U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (APHIS) Plant Inspection Station (PIS), adjacent to the existing Otay Mesa Land Port of Entry (LPOE) in Otay Mesa, San Diego County, California. The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires Federal agencies to evaluate the potential impacts that the proposed action may have on the human and natural environment. GSA serves as the lead agency for NEPA.
The meeting will be held at the Quality Suites Otay Mesa Conference Room, located at 2351 Otay Center Drive, San Diego, California 92154. Copies of the Draft EA will be available for public review at the Otay Mesa-Nestor Branch Library, located at 3003 Coronado Avenue, San Diego, CA 92154, or at
You may submit comments at the public meeting by either of the following methods:
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Osmahn Kadri, NEPA Project Manager, Pacific Rim Region, GSA, 50 United Nations Plaza, Room 3345, Mailbox 9, San Francisco, CA 94102, by phone at 415-522-3617, or via email to
The EA is being prepared to comply with the NEPA of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321), as implemented by Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations (40 Code of Federal Regulations [CFR] 1500-1508), and policies of GSA as the lead federal agency. The EA process provides steps and procedures to evaluate the potential social, economic, and environmental impacts for the construction of the proposed USDA APHIS PIS at Otay Mesa LPOE. It allows an opportunity for local, state, or federal agencies to provide input and/or comment through scoping, public information meetings, and/or a public hearing. The social, economic, and environmental considerations are evaluated and measured, as defined in the CEQ regulations, by their magnitude of impacts.
Plant Inspection Stations allow the USDA to inspect imported plants, other regulated plant material, and live organisms to determine admissibility into the country. The current APHIS PIS at Otay Mesa has limited capabilities due to space restraints within the LPOE, and has exceeded its operational capacity. Also, the U.S. Customs and Border Protection needs the existing APHIS PIS space for planned improvements to the border crossing.
Therefore, the USDA and GSA propose to construct a new APHIS PIS on the vacant land adjacent to the existing LPOE.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning past performance information.
Submit comments on or before February 2, 2018.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0142, Past Performance Information, by any of the following methods:
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Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching the OMB control number 9000-0142. Select the link “Comment Now” that corresponds with “Information Collection 9000-0142, Past Performance Information.” Follow the instructions provided on the screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0142, Past Performance Information,” on your attached document.
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Mr. Curtis E. Glover, Sr., Procurement Analyst, Acquisition Policy Division, at GSA 202-501-1448 or email
Past performance information regarding a contractor's actions under previously awarded contracts is relevant information for future source selection purposes. The information collection requirements at FAR 15.304 and 42.15 remains the same; however, the public burden has been adjusted downward, based on the total annual responses. The estimated responses used to calculate the burden is based on the availability of data on Fiscal Year (FY) 2017 awards from existing systems (the Federal Procurement Data System and the Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System).
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0142, Past Performance Information, in all correspondence.
Office of the Integrated Award Environment, General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of request for comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB information collection.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve a renewal of the currently approved information collection requirement regarding the pre-award registration requirements for federal Prime Grant Recipients. The title of the approved information collection is Central Contractor Registration Requirements for Prime Grant Recipients. The updated information collection title, based on the migration of the Central Contractor Registration system to the System for Award Management in late July 2012, is System for Award Management Registration Requirements for Prime Grant Recipients.
A notice published in the
Submit comments on or before January 3, 2018.
Submit comments identified by “Information Collection 3090-0290, System for Award Management Registration Requirements for Prime Grant Recipients” by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Nancy Goode, Program Manager, IAE Business Operations Division, at telephone number 703-605-2175; or via email at
This information collection requires information necessary for prime applicants and recipients, excepting individuals, of Federal grants to register in the System for Award Management (SAM) and maintain an active SAM registration with current information at all times during which they have an active Federal award or an application or plan under consideration by an agency pursuant to 2CFR Subtitle A, Chapter I, and Part 25 (75 FR 5672). This facilitates prime awardee reporting of sub-award and executive compensation data pursuant to the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act (Pub. L. 109-282, as amended by section 6202(a) of Pub. L. 110-252). This information collection requires that all prime grant awardees, subject to reporting under the Transparency Act register and maintain their registration in SAM.
Office of the Chief Acquisition Officer, General Services Administration (GSA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB information collection.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the
Submit comments on or before: January 3, 2018.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Dana Munson, Procurement Analyst, General Services Acquisition Policy, at telephone 202-357-9652 or via email to
This information requirement consists of reports that do not impose collection burdens upon the public. These collections require information which is already available to the public at large, or that is routinely exchanged by firms during the normal course of business. A general control number for these collections decreases the amount of paperwork generated by the approval process.
GSA has a published rule in the
None.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate and based on valid assumptions and methodology; and ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice of availability and request for comment.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), announces the opening of a public docket to obtain comment on the draft Vessel Sanitation Program (VSP) Operations Manual and the VSP Construction Guidelines. Information about locating these documents can be found in the supporting materials section and on the VSP Web site. VSP established the public health standards found in the VSP Operations Manual and Construction Guidelines to target the control and prevention of gastrointestinal illnesses on cruise ships. The VSP Operations Manual and Construction Guidelines were last updated in 2011. New technology, advanced food science, and emerging pathogens require updates to these documents.
Comments must be submitted by February 2, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number CDC-2017-0115, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Commander Aimee Treffiletti, Chief, Vessel Sanitation Program, National Center for Environmental Health, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 4770 Buford Highway NE., MS F-59, Chamblee, Georgia 30341-3717; phone: 800-323-2132 or 954-356-6650; email:
HHS/CDC established the Vessel Sanitation
VSP established the public health standards found in the current version of the VSP Operations Manual and VSP Construction Guidelines. These standards target the control and prevention of GI illnesses on cruise ships.
VSP is updating the VSP Operations Manual to reflect new technologies, current food science, disease patterns and trends, and emerging pathogens. VSP also is updating the VSP Construction Guidelines as a framework of consistent construction and design guidelines related to public health, including vessel facilities related to food storage, preparation, and service and water bunkering, storage, disinfection, and distribution.
The draft VSP Operations Manual and the draft VSP Construction Guidelines are available online at
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Notice.
This notice announces a $569.00 calendar year (CY) 2018 application fee for institutional providers that are initially enrolling in the Medicare or Medicaid program or the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP); revalidating their Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP enrollment; or adding a new Medicare practice location. This fee is required with any enrollment application submitted on or after January 1, 2018 and on or before December 31, 2018.
This notice takes effect on January 1, 2018.
Melissa Singer, (410) 786-0365.
In the February 2, 2011
As indicated in § 424.514 and § 455.460, the application fee is not required for either of the following:
• A Medicare physician or non-physician practitioner submitting a CMS-855I.
• A prospective or revalidating Medicaid or CHIP provider—
++ Who is an individual physician or non-physician practitioner; or
++ That is enrolled in Title XVIII of the Act or another state's Title XIX or XXI plan and has paid the application fee to a Medicare contractor or another state.
In the November 7, 2016
• Section 1866(j)(2)(C)(i)(I) of the Act established a $500 application fee for institutional providers in CY 2010.
• Consistent with section 1866(j)(2)(C)(i)(II) of the Act, § 424.514(d)(2) states that for CY 2011 and subsequent years, the preceding year's fee will be adjusted by the percentage change in the consumer price index (CPI) for all urban consumers (all items; United States city average, CPI-U) for the 12-month period ending on June 30 of the previous year.
• The CPI-U increase for CY 2011 was 1.0 percent, based on data obtained from the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS). This resulted in an application fee amount for CY 2011 of $505 (or $500 × 1.01).
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2010 through June 30, 2011 was 3.54 percent, based on BLS data. This resulted in an application fee amount for CY 2012 of $522.87 (or $505 × 1.0354). In the February 2, 2011 final rule, we stated that if the adjustment sets the fee at an uneven dollar amount, we would round the fee to the nearest whole dollar amount. Accordingly, the application fee amount for CY 2012 was rounded to the nearest whole dollar amount, or $523.00.
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2011 through June 30, 2012 was 1.664 percent, based on BLS data. This resulted in an application fee amount for CY 2013 of $531.70 ($523 × 1.01664). Rounding this figure to the nearest whole dollar amount resulted in a CY 2013 application fee amount of $532.00.
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2012 through June 30, 2013 was 1.8 percent, based on BLS data.
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2014 was 2.1 percent, based on BLS data. This resulted in an application fee amount for CY 2015 of $553.382 ($542 × 1.021). Rounding this figure to the nearest whole dollar amount resulted in a CY 2015 application fee amount of $553.00.
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2014 through June 30, 2015 was 0.2 percent, based on BLS data. This resulted in an application fee amount for CY 2016 of $554.106 ($553 × 1.002). Rounding this figure to the nearest whole dollar amount resulted in a CY 2016 application fee amount of $554.00.
• The CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2015 through June 30, 2016 was 1.0 percent. This resulted in a CY 2017 application fee amount of $559.56 ($554 × 1.01). Rounding this figure to the nearest whole dollar amount resulted in a CY 2017 application fee amount of $560.00.
Using BLS data, the CPI-U increase for the period of July 1, 2015 through June 30, 2016 was 1.6 percent. This results in a CY 2018 application fee amount of $568.96 ($560 × 1.016). As we must round this to the nearest whole dollar amount, the resultant application fee amount for CY 2018 is $569.00.
This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping, or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. However, it does reference previously approved information collections. The Forms CMS-855A, CMS-855B, and CMS-855I are approved under OMB control number 0938-0685; the Form CMS-855S is approved under OMB control number 0938-1056.
We have examined the impact of this notice as required by Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review (September 30, 1993), Executive Order 13563 on Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review (January 18, 2011), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (September 19, 1980, Pub. L. 96-354), section 1102(b) of the Social Security Act, section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (March 22, 1995; Pub. L. 104-4), Executive Order 13132 on Federalism (August 4, 1999), the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)), and Executive Order 13771 on Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs (January 30, 2017).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits, including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity. A regulatory impact analysis (RIA) must be prepared for major rules with economically significant effects ($100 million or more in any 1 year). As explained in this section of the notice, we estimate that the total cost of the increase in the application fee will not exceed $100 million. Therefore, this notice does not reach the $100 million economic threshold and is not considered a major notice.
The costs associated with this notice involve the increase in the application fee amount that certain providers and suppliers must pay in CY 2018.
In the November 7, 2016 application fee notice, we estimated that based on CMS statistics—
• 10,000 newly enrolling Medicare institutional providers would be subject to and pay an application fee in CY 2017.
• 45,000 revalidating Medicare institutional providers would be subject to and pay an application fee in CY 2017.
• 9,000 newly enrolling Medicaid and CHIP providers would be subject to and pay an application fee in CY 2017.
• 21,000 revalidating Medicaid and CHIP providers would be subject to and pay an application fee in CY 2017.
Based on CMS data, we estimate that in CY 2018 approximately—
• 3,800 newly enrolling institutional providers will be subject to and pay an application fee; and
• 7.500 revalidating institutional providers will be subject to and pay an application fee.
Using a figure of 11,300 (3,800 newly enrolling + 7,500 revalidating) institutional providers, we estimate an increase in the cost of the Medicare application fee requirement in CY 2018 of $101,700 (or 11,300 × $9 (or $569 minus $560)) from our CY 2017 projections and as previously described.
Based on CMS and state statistics, we estimate that approximately 30,000 (9,000 newly enrolling + 21,000 revalidating) Medicaid and CHIP institutional providers will be subject to an application fee in CY 2018. Using this figure, we project an increase in the cost of the Medicaid and CHIP application fee requirement in CY 2018 of $270,000 (or 30,000 × $9 (or $569 minus $560)) from our CY 2017 projections and as previously described.
Based on the foregoing, we estimate the total increase in the cost of the application fee requirement for Medicare, Medicaid, and CHIP providers and suppliers in CY 2018 to be $371,700 ($270,000 + $101,700) from our CY 2017 projections.
The RFA requires agencies to analyze options for regulatory relief of small businesses. For purposes of the RFA, small entities include small businesses, nonprofit organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. Most hospitals and most other providers and suppliers are small entities, either by nonprofit status or by having revenues of less than $7.5 million to $38.5 million in any 1 year. Individuals and states are not included in the definition of a small entity. As we stated in the RIA for the February 2, 2011 final rule with comment period (76 FR 5952), we do not believe that the application fee will have a significant impact on small entities.
In addition, section 1102(b) of the Act requires us to prepare a regulatory impact analysis if a rule may have a significant impact on the operations of a substantial number of small rural hospitals. This analysis must conform to the provisions of section 604 of the RFA. For purposes of section 1102(b) of the Act, we define a small rural hospital as a hospital that is located outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area for Medicare payment regulations and has fewer than 100 beds. We are not preparing an analysis for section 1102(b) of the Act because we have determined, and the Secretary certifies, that this notice would not have a significant
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) also requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2017, that threshold is approximately $148 million. The Agency has determined that there will be minimal impact from the costs of this notice, as the threshold is not met under the UMRA.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on state and local governments, preempts state law, or otherwise has federalism implications. Since this notice does not impose substantial direct costs on state or local governments, the requirements of Executive Order 13132 are not applicable.
Executive Order 13771, titled “Reducing Regulation and Controlling Regulatory Costs,” was issued on January 30, 2017 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). It has been determined that this notice is a transfer notice that does not impose more than de minimis costs and thus is not a regulatory action for the purposes of E.O. 13771.
In accordance with the provisions of Executive Order 12866, this notice was reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Notice of meeting.
This notice announces a Town Hall meeting in accordance with section 1886(d)(5)(K)(viii) of the Social Security Act (the Act) to discuss fiscal year (FY) 2019 applications for add-on payments for new medical services and technologies under the hospital inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS). Interested parties are invited to this meeting to present their comments, recommendations, and data regarding whether the FY 2019 new medical services and technologies applications meet the substantial clinical improvement criterion.
In addition, we are providing two alternatives to attending the meeting in person—(1) there will be an open toll-free phone line to call into the Town Hall Meeting; or (2) participants may view and participate in the Town Hall Meeting via live stream technology or webinar. These options are discussed in section II.B. of this notice.
Michelle Joshua, (410) 786-6050,
Alternatively, you may forward your requests via email to
Sections 1886(d)(5)(K) and (L) of the Social Security Act (the Act) require the Secretary to establish a process of identifying and ensuring adequate payments to acute care hospitals for new medical services and technologies under Medicare. Effective for discharges beginning on or after October 1, 2001, section 1886(d)(5)(K)(i) of the Act requires the Secretary to establish (after notice and opportunity for public comment) a mechanism to recognize the costs of new services and technologies under the hospital inpatient prospective payment system (IPPS). In addition, section 1886(d)(5)(K)(vi) of the Act specifies that a medical service or technology will be considered “new” if it meets criteria established by the Secretary (after notice and opportunity for public comment). (See the fiscal year (FY) 2002 IPPS proposed rule (66 FR 22693, May 4, 2001) and final rule (66 FR 46912, September 7, 2001) for a more detailed discussion.)
In the September 7, 2001 final rule (66 FR 46914), we noted that we evaluated a request for special payment for a new medical service or technology against
• The device offers a treatment option for a patient population unresponsive to, or ineligible for, currently available treatments.
• The device offers the ability to diagnose a medical condition in a patient population where that medical condition is currently undetectable or offers the ability to diagnose a medical condition earlier in a patient population than allowed by currently available methods. There must also be evidence that use of the device to make a diagnosis affects the management of the patient.
• Use of the device significantly improves clinical outcomes for a patient population as compared to currently available treatments. Some examples of outcomes that are frequently evaluated in studies of medical devices are the following:
++ Reduced mortality rate with use of the device.
++ Reduced rate of device-related complications.
++ Decreased rate of subsequent diagnostic or therapeutic interventions (for example, due to reduced rate of recurrence of the disease process).
++ Decreased number of future hospitalizations or physician visits.
++ More rapid beneficial resolution of the disease process treatment because of the use of the device.
++ Decreased pain, bleeding or other quantifiable symptoms.
++ Reduced recovery time.
In addition, we indicated that the requester is required to submit evidence that the technology meets one or more of these criteria.
Section 1886(d)(5)(K)(viii) of the Act, as added by section 503 of the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA), requires that as part of the process for evaluating new medical services and technology applications, the Secretary shall do the following:
• Provide for public input regarding whether a new service or technology represents an advance in medical technology that substantially improves the diagnosis or treatment of Medicare beneficiaries before publication of a proposed rule.
• Make public and periodically update a list of all the services and technologies for which an application is pending.
• Accept comments, recommendations, and data from the public regarding whether the service or technology represents a substantial improvement.
• Provide for a meeting at which organizations representing hospitals, physicians, manufacturers and any other interested party may present comments, recommendations, and data to the clinical staff of CMS as to whether the service or technology represents a substantial improvement before publication of a proposed rule.
The opinions and presentations provided during this meeting will assist us as we evaluate the new medical services and technology applications for FY 2019. In addition, they will help us to evaluate our policy on the IPPS new technology add-on payment process before the publication of the FY 2019 IPPS proposed rule.
As noted in section I. of this notice, we are required to provide for a meeting at which organizations representing hospitals, physicians, manufacturers and any other interested party may present comments, recommendations, and data to the clinical staff of CMS concerning whether the service or technology represents a substantial clinical improvement. This meeting will allow for a discussion of the substantial clinical improvement criteria for each of the FY 2019 new medical services and technology add-on payment applications. Information regarding the applications can be found on our Web site at
The majority of the meeting will be reserved for presentations of comments, recommendations, and data from registered presenters. The time for each presenter's comments will be approximately 10 to 15 minutes and will be based on the number of registered presenters. Individuals who would like to present must register and submit their agenda item(s) via email to
In addition, written comments will also be accepted and presented at the meeting if they are received via email to
For participants who cannot attend the Town Hall Meeting in person, an open toll-free phone line, (877) 267-1577, has been made available. The Meeting Place meeting ID is 995 504 800.
Also, there will be an option to view and participate in the Town Hall Meeting via live streaming technology or webinar. Information on the option to participate via live streaming technology or webinar will be provided through an upcoming listserv notice and posted on the New Technology Web site at
We cannot guarantee reliability for live streaming technology or a webinar.
The Division of Acute Care in CMS is coordinating the meeting registration for the Town Hall Meeting on substantial clinical improvement. While there is no registration fee, individuals planning to attend the Town Hall Meeting in person must register to attend.
Registration may be completed on-line at the following web address:
If you are unable to register on-line, you may register by sending an email to
Because this meeting will be located on Federal property, for security reasons, any persons wishing to attend the meeting must register by the date specified in the
Security measures include the following:
• Presentation of government-issued photographic identification to the Federal Protective Service or Guard Service personnel.
The REAL ID Act established minimum security standards for license issuance and production and prohibits Federal agencies from accepting for certain purposes driver's licenses and identification cards from states not meeting the Act's minimum standards. The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) is currently reviewing extension requests from states with extensions that expired on October 10, 2017. DHS will update their Web page as these reviews are completed and new extensions are granted. We encourage the public to visit the DHS Web site at
• CMS policy requires that every foreign national (defined by the Department of Homeland Security as “an individual who is a citizen of any country other than the United States”) is assigned a host (in accordance with the Department Foreign Visitor Management Policy, Appendix C, Guidelines for Hosts and Escorts). The host/hosting official is required to inform the Division of Physical Security and Strategic Information at least 12 business days in advance of any visit by a foreign national. Foreign nationals will be required to produce a valid passport at the time of entry.
Attendees that are foreign nationals need to identify themselves as such, and make a request for a special accommodation. Foreign national visitors are defined as non-U.S. citizens, and non-lawful permanent residents, non-residents aliens or non-green-card holders. Foreign nationals must provide the following information for security clearance to staff listed in the
++ Visitor's full name (as it appears on passport).
++ Gender.
++ Country of origin and citizenship.
++ Biographical data and related information.
++ Date of birth.
++ Place of birth.
++ Passport number.
++ Passport issue date.
++ Passport expiration date.
++ Visa Type.
• Inspection of vehicle's interior and exterior (this includes engine and trunk inspection) at the entrance to the grounds. Parking permits and instructions will be issued after the vehicle inspection.
• Inspection, via metal detector or other applicable means of all persons entering the building. We note that all items brought to CMS, whether personal or for the purpose of presentation or to support a presentation, are subject to inspection. We cannot assume responsibility for coordinating the receipt, transfer, transport, storage, set-up, safety, or timely arrival of any personal belongings or items used for presentation or to support a presentation.
Individuals who are not registered in advance will not be permitted to enter the building and will be unable to attend the meeting in person. The public may not enter the building earlier than 45 minutes prior to the convening of the meeting.
All visitors must be escorted in all areas other than the lower level lobby and cafeteria area and first floor auditorium and conference areas in the Central Building. Seating capacity is limited to the first 250 registrants.
Section 503 of Pub. L. 108-173.
This announcement is a request for continued approval of the information collection system, the Reviewer Recruitment Module (RRM). CB uses a Web-based data collection form and database to gather critical reviewer information in drop down menu format for data such as: Degree, occupation, affiliations with organizations and institutions that serve special populations, and demographic information that may be voluntarily provided by a potential reviewer.
These data elements help CB find and select expert grant reviewers for objective review committees. The Web-based system permits reviewers to access and update their information at will and as needed. The RRM is accessible by the general public via
Copies of the proposed collection may be obtained by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201. Attention Reports Clearance Officer. All requests should be identified by the title of the information collection. Email address:
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
Administration for Community Living, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
The Administration for Community Living (ACL) is announcing that the proposed collection of information listed above has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance as required under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA). This 30-day notice requests comments on the information collection requirements related to a proposed Revision of a Currently Approved Information Collection (ICR-Rev). The revision will allow ACL to continue to collect information necessary to determine grantee compliance with Section 4 of the Assistive Technology Act of 1998, as Amended (AT Act).
Submit written or electronic comments on the collection of information by January 3, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information: by fax at (202) 395-5806 or by email to
Robert Groenendaal at (202) 795-7356 or
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The State Plan for AT is submitted every three years and updated annually by all State Grants for AT programs receiving formula funds under Section 4 of the Assistive Technology Act of 1998, as Amended (AT Act). The State Plan for AT is used by ACL to assess grantees' compliance with Section 4 of the AT Act and enables ACL to analyze qualitative and quantitative information to track performance outcomes and efficiency measures of the State Grants for AT programs; support budget requests; comply with the GPRA Modernization Act of 2010 (GPRAMA) reporting requirements; provide national benchmark information; and inform program development and management activities. The burden table below identifies the data collection activities for the instrument as well as the estimates for record keeping and entry of aggregate data. In addition to submitting a State Plan every three years, states and outlying areas are required to submit annual progress reports on their activities. The data required for these progress reports is specified in Section 4(f) of the AT Act. The State Grants for AT program conduct the following state-level and state leadership activities: device demonstration, device loans, device reutilization, state financing, training and technical assistance, public awareness, and information and referral.
A 60-day notice was published in the
The proposed State Plan for Assistive Technology Information Collection Program may be found on the ACL Web site at:
The total estimated hour burden per respondent for the proposed State Plan for AT will decrease from the 74 hours per respondent estimated in FY 2015 to 73 hours estimated for FY 2018, an estimated reduction of one hour per respondent or 56 hours in total. The proposed State Plan for AT changes focus on a streamline of drop down choice lists in the current instrument. Actual expenditure data elements for state-level and state leadership tracking replaces the budget projections to provide more accurate fiscal data to ACL and to ensure compliance with AT Act requirements for expenditures. The proposed instrument simplifies the coordination and collaboration items to focus on activities conducted through a formal written agreement to ensure consistency and usefulness of data reported. The revised instrument aligns demographic data elements with the AT Annual Performance Report (APR), so
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing notice that an applicant for a proposed biosimilar product notified FDA that a patent infringement action was filed in connection with the applicant's biologics license application (BLA). Under the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), an applicant for a proposed biosimilar product or interchangeable product must notify FDA within 30 days after the applicant was served with a complaint in a patent infringement action described under the PHS Act. FDA is required to publish notice of the complaint in the
Daniel Orr, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6246, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-0979,
The Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009 (BPCI Act) was enacted as part of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148) on March 23, 2010. The BPCI Act amended the PHS Act and created an abbreviated licensure pathway for biological products shown to be biosimilar to, or interchangeable with, an FDA-licensed biological reference product. Section 351(k) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)), added by the BPCI Act, describes the requirements for a BLA for a proposed biosimilar product or a proposed interchangeable product (351(k) BLA). Section 351(l) of the PHS Act, also added by the BPCI Act, describes certain procedures for exchanging patent information and resolving patent disputes between a 351(k) BLA applicant and the holder of the BLA reference product. If a 351(k) applicant is served with a complaint for a patent infringement described in section 351(l)(6) of the PHS Act, the applicant is required to provide FDA with notice and a copy of the complaint within 30 days of service. FDA is required to publish notice of a complaint received under section 351(l)(6)(C) of the PHS Act in the
FDA received notice of the following complaint under section 351(l)(6)(C) of the PHS Act:
This complaint involves the product Humira.
FDA has only a ministerial role in publishing notice of a complaint received under section 351(l)(6)(C) of the PHS Act, and does not perform a substantive review of the complaint.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the names of the members who will serve on its Performance Review Board (PRB). The purpose of the PRB is to provide fair and impartial review of senior executive service (SES), senior professional and Title 42(f) SES Equivalents performance appraisals, bonus recommendations, and pay adjustments.
Effective October 30, 2017.
Abu Sesay, Office of Human Resources Executive and Resources Management Staff, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 05C68, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 240-402-0440 (not a toll free number).
This action is being taken pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 4314(c)(4), which requires that members of performance review boards be appointed in a manner to ensure consistency, stability, and objectivity in performance appraisals and requires that notice of the appointment of an individual to serve as a member be published in the
The following persons will serve on the FDA Performance Review Board, which oversees the evaluation of performance appraisals of FDA's senior executives:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) in the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the 2018 CDER Office of Pharmaceutical Quality (OPQ) Staff Experiential Learning Site Visit Program. The purpose of this document is to invite pharmaceutical companies interested in participating in this program to submit a site visit proposal to CDER's OPQ.
Submit either an electronic or written proposal to participate in this program by February 2, 2018. See section IV of this document for information on what to include in such proposals.
Janet Wilson, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. 4642, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-3969, email:
A critical part of the commitment by CDER to make safe and effective high-quality drugs available to the American public is gaining an understanding of all aspects of drug development and the drug's commercial life cycle, including the variety of drug manufacturing operations. To support this commitment, CDER has initiated various training and development programs including the 2018 Experiential Learning Site Visit Program. This site visit program is designed to offer experiential and firsthand learning opportunities that will provide OPQ staff with a better understanding of the pharmaceutical industry and its operations, as well as the challenges that impact a drug's developmental program and commercial life cycle. The goal of these visits is to provide OPQ staff exposure to the drug development and manufacturing processes in industry; therefore, a tour of pharmaceutical company facilities in operational status is an integral part of the experience.
In this site visit program, groups on average of 15 to 20 OPQ staff—who have experience in a variety of backgrounds, including science, medical, statistics, manufacturing, engineering, and testing—will observe operations of commercial manufacturing, pilot plants, and testing operations over a 1- to 2-day period. To facilitate the learning process for OPQ staff, overview presentations by industry related to drug development and manufacturing may be provided, which may allow the participating sites to benefit by having an opportunity to showcase their technologies and manufacturing processes.
OPQ encourages companies engaging in the development and manufacturing of both active pharmaceutical ingredients (small and large molecules) and drug products to respond. However, please note that this site visit program is not intended to supplement or replace a regulatory inspection,
Although observation of all aspects of drug development and production would be beneficial to OPQ staff, OPQ has identified a number of areas of particular interest to its staff. The following list identifies some examples of these areas but is not intended to be exhaustive, mutually exclusive, or to limit industry response:
• Drug products:
○ Solutions, suspensions, emulsions, and semisolids;
○ modified- and immediate-release formulations; and
○ drug-device combination products (
• Active pharmaceutical ingredients manufactured by:
○ Chemical synthesis;
○ fermentation; and
○ biotechnology
• Design, development, manufacturing, and controls:
○ Engineering controls for aseptic processes;
○ novel delivery technologies;
○ hot melt extrusion;
○ soft-gel encapsulation;
○ lyophilization;
○ blow-fill-seal and isolators;
○ spray-drying; and
○ process analytical technology, measurement systems, and real time release testing.
• Emerging technologies:
○ Continuous manufacturing;
○ 3-dimensional printing; and
○ nanotechnology.
Selection of potential facilities will be based on the priorities developed for OPQ staff training, the facility's current compliance status with FDA, and consultation with the appropriate FDA district office. All travel expenses associated with this program will be the responsibility of OPQ; therefore, selection will be based on the availability of funds and resources for the fiscal year. OPQ will not provide financial compensation to the pharmaceutical site as part of this program.
Companies interested in offering a site visit or learning more about this site visit program should respond by submitting a proposal directly to Janet Wilson (see
• A contact person;
• site visit location(s);
• Facility Establishment Identifier and Data Universal Numbering System numbers, as applicable;
• maximum number of FDA staff that can be accommodated during a site visit (maximum of 20);
• a sample agenda outlining the proposed learning objectives and associated activities for the site visit;
• number of visits (no more than two) your site would be willing to host by the close of the government fiscal year, September 30, 2018; and
• months the site is operational that would be ideal for a site visit.
Proposals submitted without this minimum information will not be considered. Based on response rate and type of responses, OPQ may or may not consider alternative pathways to meeting our training goals.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing a publication containing modifications the Agency is making to the list of standards FDA recognizes for use in premarket reviews (FDA Recognized Consensus Standards). This publication, entitled “Modifications to the List of Recognized Standards, Recognition List Number: 048” (Recognition List Number: 048), will assist manufacturers who elect to declare conformity with consensus standards to meet certain requirements for medical devices.
These modifications to the list of recognized standards are applicable December 4, 2017.
You may submit electronic or written comments concerning this document at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
An electronic copy of Recognition List Number: 048 is available on the internet at
Scott Colburn, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 66, Rm. 5514, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-6287,
Section 204 of the Food and Drug Administration Modernization Act of 1997 (FDAMA) (Pub. L. 105-115) amended section 514 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360d). Amended section 514 allows FDA to recognize consensus standards developed by international and national organizations for use in satisfying portions of device premarket review submissions or other requirements.
In the
Modifications to the initial list of recognized standards, as published in the
These notices describe the addition, withdrawal, and revision of certain standards recognized by FDA. The Agency maintains hypertext markup language (HTML) and portable document format (PDF) versions of the list of FDA Recognized Consensus Standards. Additional information on the Agency's standards program is available at
In table 1, FDA provides the listing of new entries and consensus standards added as modifications to the list of recognized standards under Recognition List Number: 048. FDA lists modifications the Agency is making that involve the initial addition of standards not previously recognized by FDA.
FDA maintains the current list of FDA Recognized Consensus Standards in a searchable database that may be accessed at
Any person may recommend consensus standards as candidates for recognition under section 514 of the FD&C Act by submitting such recommendations, with reasons for the recommendation, to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by January 3, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
The United States exports a large volume and variety of foods in international trade. For certain food products, foreign governments may require assurances from the responsible authority of the country of origin of an imported food product that the manufacturer/processor of the food product is in compliance with applicable country of origin regulatory requirements. Some foreign governments establish additional requirements with which exporters are required to comply.
In August 2011, China's State General Administration of the People's Republic of China for Quality Supervision and Inspection and Quarantine (AQSIQ) published the Administrative Measures for Registration of Overseas Manufacturers, known as AQSIQ Decree 145 (
Under the China MOU, FDA intends to establish and maintain lists that identify U.S. manufacturers/processors that have expressed interest to FDA in exporting milk and milk products, seafood, infant formula, and/or formula for young children to China; are subject to our jurisdiction; and have been found by FDA to be in good regulatory standing with FDA, including a finding by FDA that, during the most recent facility inspection, the manufacturers/processors have been found to be in substantial compliance with all applicable FDA regulations, including, but not limited to, current good manufacturing practice requirements for the identified products for export to China. Further, the China MOU provides for FDA to receive evidence that the manufacturer/processor has been certified by a third-party certification body—as acknowledged by CNCA—to meet the relevant standards, laws, and regulations of China for the identified food products for export to China. On June 28, 2017, FDA issued a guidance document entitled “Establishing and Maintaining a List of U.S. Milk and Milk Product, Seafood, Infant Formula, and Formula for Young Children Manufacturers/Processors with Interest in Exporting to China” which can be found at
In accordance with 5 CFR 1320.13, FDA requested emergency review and approval of the collections of information found in the guidance document. The routine course of approval would have delayed our ability to collect the information from firms and, thus, would have been disruptive in our efforts to facilitate exports of food in compliance with requirements established by China in AQSIQ Decree 145. OMB granted the approval under emergency clearance procedures on June 27, 2017.
FDA uses the information submitted by manufacturers/processors to consider them for inclusion on FDA's lists of eligible manufacturers/processors who may ship food products to China, which we maintain. Updates to the FDA lists are sent to CNCA, which publishes its version of the information in the FDA lists on China's Web site (
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
This is a newly established information collection. Based on our experience maintaining other export lists, we estimate that, annually, an average of 370 new manufacturers/processors will submit written requests to be placed on the China lists. The estimate of the number of hours that it will take a manufacturer/processor to gather the information needed to be placed on a list or update its information is based on FDA's experience with manufacturers/processors submitting similar requests. FDA believes that the information to be submitted will be readily available to manufacturers/processors. We estimate that a firm will require 1 hour to read the guidance, to gather the information needed, and to prepare a communication to FDA that contains the information needed to request that the manufacturer/processor be placed on a list.
To be placed on a list, manufacturers/processors should provide FDA with evidence that they have obtained third-party certification from a CNCA-acknowledged certifier that the manufacturer/processor complies with the standards, laws and regulations of China according to relevant requirements specified in AQSIQ Decree 145. Based on our experience with other certification programs, FDA estimates that it will take each new manufacturer/processor about 21 hours to complete the third-party certification process for a total of 7,770 burden hours (370 manufacturers/processors × 21 hours).
Under the guidance, every 2 years each manufacturer/processor on the lists must provide updated information to remain on the lists. FDA estimates that each year approximately half of the manufacturers/processors on the lists, or 555 manufacturers/processors (1110 manufacturers/processors × 0.5 = 555), will resubmit the information to remain on the lists. We estimate that a manufacturer/processor already on the lists will require 1 hour to biennially update and resubmit the information to FDA, including time reviewing the information and corresponding with FDA, for a total of 555 hours.
During the biennial update, manufacturers/processors also need to be recertified by a third-party certifier to remain on the lists. FDA estimates that each year approximately half of the manufacturers/processors on the lists, 555 manufacturers/processors (1110 manufacturers/processors × 0.5 = 555), will get recertified. We estimate that it will take each manufacturer/processor about 21 hours to complete the certification process for a total of 11,655 burden hours (555 manufacturers/processors × 21 hours).
FDA expects that, each year, approximately 100 manufacturers/processors will need to submit an occasional update and each manufacturer/processor will require 0.5 hours to prepare a communication to FDA reporting the change, for a total of 50 hours.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Council for Nursing Research.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page: https://www.National Advisory Council for Nursing Research|National Institute of Nursing Research, where an agenda and any additional information for the meeting will be posted when available.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) notifies federal agencies of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITF) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines).
A notice listing all currently HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs is published in the
If any laboratory or IITF has withdrawn from the HHS National Laboratory Certification Program (NLCP) during the past month, it will be listed at the end and will be omitted from the monthly listing thereafter.
This notice is also available on the Internet at
Giselle Hersh, Division of Workplace Programs, SAMHSA/CSAP, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 16N03A, Rockville, Maryland 20857; 240-276-2600 (voice).
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) notifies federal agencies of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITF) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines). The Mandatory Guidelines were first published in the
The Mandatory Guidelines were initially developed in accordance with Executive Order 12564 and section 503 of Public Law 100-71. The “Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs,” as amended in the revisions listed above, requires strict standards that laboratories and IITFs must meet in order to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens for federal agencies.
To become certified, an applicant laboratory or IITF must undergo three rounds of performance testing plus an on-site inspection. To maintain that certification, a laboratory or IITF must participate in a quarterly performance testing program plus undergo periodic, on-site inspections.
Laboratories and IITFs in the applicant stage of certification are not to be considered as meeting the minimum requirements described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines. A HHS-certified laboratory or IITF must have its letter of certification from HHS/SAMHSA (formerly: HHS/NIDA), which attests that it has met minimum standards.
In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines dated January 23, 2017 (82 FR 7920), the following HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:
* The Standards Council of Canada (SCC) voted to end its Laboratory Accreditation Program for Substance Abuse (LAPSA) effective May 12, 1998. Laboratories certified through that program were accredited to conduct forensic urine drug testing as required by U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations. As of that date, the certification of those accredited Canadian laboratories will continue under DOT authority. The responsibility for conducting quarterly performance testing plus periodic on-site inspections of those LAPSA-accredited laboratories was transferred to the U.S. HHS, with
Upon finding a Canadian laboratory to be qualified, HHS will recommend that DOT certify the laboratory (
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street, SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna P. Guido at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Guido.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including using appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of our
You may obtain a copy of the recovery plan from our Web site at
Sherry Barrett (see
A primary goal of our endangered species program and the Endangered Species Act (ESA) (16 U.S.C. 1531
The Service has revised its approach to recovery planning; the revised process is called Recovery Planning and Implementation (RPI). The RPI process is intended to reduce the time needed to develop and implement recovery plans, increase recovery plan relevancy over a longer timeframe, and add flexibility to recovery plans so they can be adjusted to new information or circumstances. Under RPI, a recovery plan will include statutorily required elements (measurable criteria, site-specific management actions, and estimates of time and costs), along with a concise introduction and our strategy for how we plan to achieve species recovery. The RPI recovery plan is supported by a separate Species Status Assessment, or in some cases, a species biological report that provides the background information and threat assessment, which are key to recovery plan development. The essential component to flexible implementation under RPI is producing a separate working document called the Recovery Implementation Strategy (implementation strategy). The implementation strategy steps down from the more general description of actions described in the recovery plan to detail the specific, near-term activities needed to implement the recovery plan. The implementation strategy will be adaptable by being able to incorporate new information without having to concurrently revise the recovery plan, unless changes to statutory elements are required.
The Mexican Wolf Recovery Plan, First Revision, represents one of the first products the Service has developed using RPI. On June 30, 2017, the Service made the draft Recovery Plan available for a 60-day public comment period during which we received more than 100,000 comments (82 FR 29918). The public comments and additional materials related to the Recovery Plan are available for public review online at
In addition to the recovery plan and implementation strategy, we completed a Biological Report describing the Mexican wolf's current status. The Biological Report supports the recovery plan by providing the background, life-history, and threat assessment information. The Biological Report and Recovery Plan were independently peer-reviewed by scientists outside of the Service. As with the implementation strategy, we will update the Biological Report as new species status information becomes available.
The overall strategy for recovering the Mexican wolf focuses on improving the two populations' resilience (
Another key component of the strategy includes working with Federal, State, Tribal, local partners, and the public, to improve Mexican wolf tolerance on the landscape.
Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (BSEE) proposes to renew an information collection with revisions.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before January 3, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, contact Nicole Mason by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comments addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of BSEE; (2) Will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) Is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) How might BSEE enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) How might BSEE minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
BSEE must approve any lessee's proposal to enter an agreement to unitize operations under two or more leases and for modifications when warranted. We use the information to ensure that operations under the proposed unit agreement will result in preventing waste, conserving natural resources, and protecting correlative rights including the government's interests.
It should be noted there have been no such hearings in the recent past, and none are expected in the near future. We have not identified any other non-hour cost burdens associated with this collection of information. We estimate a total reporting non-hour cost burden of $195,757.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on October 31, 2017, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, on behalf of Netlist, Inc. of Irvine, California. A supplement to the complaint was filed on November 21, 2017. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain memory modules and components thereof by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 9,606,907 (“the '907 patent”) and U.S. Patent No. 9,535,623 (“the '623 patent”). The complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists or is in the process of being established as required by the applicable Federal Statute.
The complainant requests that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and a cease and desist order.
The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at
Pathenia M. Proctor, The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted
(2) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(l), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(l), the presiding administrative law judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties or other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(l), (f)(1), (g)(1);
(3) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainants is: Netlist, Inc., Technology Drive, Suite 150, Irvine, CA 92618.
(b) The respondent is the following entity alleged to be in violation of section 337, and is the party upon which the complaint is to be served:
(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and
(4) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
Judicial Conference of the United States, Committee on Rules of Practice and Procedure.
Notice of open meeting.
The Committee on Rules of Practice and Procedure will hold a meeting on January 4, 2018. The meeting will be open to public observation but not participation. An agenda and supporting materials will be posted at least 7 days in advance of the meeting at:
January 4, 2018.
Arizona Ballroom Salon F, JW Marriott Camelback Inn, 5402 E. Lincoln Drive, Scottsdale, AZ 85253.
Rebecca A. Womeldorf, Rules Committee Secretary, Rules Committee Staff, Administrative Office of the United States Courts, Washington, DC 20544, telephone (202) 502-1820.
United States Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Notice of a new System of Records.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-108, notice is hereby given that the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), a component within the United States Department of Justice (Department or DOJ), proposes to establish a new system of records titled, “FBI Online Collaboration Systems,” JUSTICE/FBI-004. This system of records will cover all FBI online collaboration systems that facilitate online collaboration between the FBI and its criminal justice, intelligence, national security, emergency management, public safety, and private sector partners, as well as to support internal collaboration for and external collaboration among such partners in the United States and approved countries worldwide. Expanding available collaboration tools of the FBI and its partners enables the FBI to carry out its national security and criminal justice missions. Elsewhere in this
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), this notice is effective upon publication, subject to a 30-day period in which to comment on the routine uses, described below. Please submit any comments by January 3, 2018.
The public, OMB, and Congress are invited to submit any comments: By mail to the Department of Justice, Office of Privacy and Civil Liberties, Attn: Privacy Analyst, National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20530-0001; by facsimile at 202-307-0693; or by email at
Katherine M. Bond, Assistant General Counsel, Privacy and Civil Liberties Unit, Office of the General Counsel, FBI, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001; telephone (202) 324-3000.
In an effort to carry out its national security and criminal law enforcement responsibilities, and to more robustly collaborate with its partners in the criminal justice system, intelligence communities, emergency management personnel and first responders, military personnel, governmental agencies associated with critical infrastructure protection of the United States, and private sector entities that provide critical information regarding criminal justice and national security matters to the FBI and law enforcement, the FBI has created online collaboration systems to provide user-driven, real-time, collaboration and communication tools designed to facilitate the exchange of information within, between, and among partners more expeditiously. The FBI's online collaboration systems will promote communication and information sharing for federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, and international criminal justice agencies; emergency management personnel and first responders; as well as military and other government personnel involved in criminal justice and national security matters, by allowing the FBI and its partners to communicate with experts, create and join communities of common interest, create blogs to present ideas and receive feedback, share files with colleagues, exchange ideas through online forums, enhance situational awareness, and facilitate incident management. The online collaboration systems will also allow individuals and private sector entities to easily and quickly submit information to and collaborate with the FBI and other law enforcement and intelligence agencies regarding criminal justice and national security matters. By providing online communication platforms such as JusticeConnect and collaboration tools such as Special Interest Groups and Virtual Command Centers, and providing and maintaining a secure communications network, the FBI will increase collaboration and cooperation between and among its partners.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), the Department has provided a report to OMB and the Congress on this new system of records.
FBI Online Collaboration Systems, JUSTICE/FBI-004.
This system contains Unclassified information.
Records may be maintained at all locations at which the FBI operates or at which FBI operations are supported, including: J. Edgar Hoover Building, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001; FBI Academy and FBI Laboratory, Quantico, VA 22135; FBI Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, WV 26306; FBI Records Management Division, 170 Marcel Drive, Winchester, VA 22602-4843; and FBI field offices, legal attaches, information technology centers, and other components listed on the FBI's Internet Web site,
Director, Federal Bureau of Investigation, J. Edgar Hoover FBI Building, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001.
28 U.S.C. Chapter 33; 42 U.S.C. 3771; 28 U.S.C. 534; 44 U.S.C. 3101, 3301; 5 U.S.C. 301; Federal Information Security Modernization Act of 2014, 44 U.S.C. 3551-3558
The purpose of the FBI's Online Collaboration Systems is to facilitate and support internal and external collaboration for and among the FBI, federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, and international criminal justice agencies, emergency management personnel and first responders, private sector entities, and United States military and other government personnel involved in criminal justice and national security matters in the United States and approved countries worldwide. Expanding the available collaboration tools of the FBI and its partners enables the FBI to carry out its national security and criminal justice missions by providing a real-time online environment for criminal justice agencies, the FBI, and its partners to exchange information internally and externally.
The following categories of individuals are covered by this system:
A. Individuals who are employees, contractors, detailees, assignees, or interns of the FBI, criminal justice agencies, intelligence agencies, the military, other governmental agencies associated with infrastructure protection of the United States, emergency management agencies or first responders organizations, foreign or international law enforcement agencies, and private sector entities, who are authorized to communicate with or on behalf of the FBI via an FBI online collaboration system;
B. Individuals identified in data maintained in FBI or criminal justice or intelligence agencies' files; or whose information is obtained by the FBI or its partners by authority of law or agreement from other federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, or foreign government, or international agencies to further authorized information sharing purposes carrying out criminal justice, national security, emergency management, or public safety purposes, including the FBI's mission to protect and defend the United States against terrorist and foreign intelligence threats. These individuals may consist of the following: Convicted offenders, subjects, suspects, wanted persons, victims, witnesses, missing persons, complainants, informants, sources, bystanders, law enforcement personnel, intelligence personnel, other responders, private sector liaison contacts, administrative personnel, consultants, relatives, and associates who may be relevant to investigation or intelligence operations;
C. Individuals who are identified in publicly available information, commercial databases, or private entity records and who are associated, related, or have a nexus to the criminal justice system or the FBI's missions; and
D. System users or other individuals accessing this system whose information is collected and maintained for this system's user auditing and security purposes.
Records may include biographical information about individuals who are employees, contractors, detailees, assignees, or interns of the FBI, criminal
Records are unclassified and may contain information collected by the FBI, criminal justice or intelligence agencies, or other FBI partners for the performance of their legally authorized, required functions; investigative and/or intelligence information provided by the FBI or criminal justice agencies; or publicly available information or information from commercial databases about individuals who are associated, related, or have a nexus to the criminal justice system or the FBI's missions. These records may include biographical information (such as name, alias, race, sex, date of birth, place of birth, social security number, passport number, driver's license number, other unique personal identifier, addresses, telephone numbers, physical descriptions, and photographs); biometric information (such as fingerprints); financial information (such as bank account numbers); locations, actions, and activities; associates and affiliations; employment and business information; citizenship; visa and immigration information; travel information; and criminal and investigative history, and other data that may assist the FBI, criminal justice agencies, and other FBI partners in fulfilling their criminal justice, national security, emergency management, or public safety objectives.
Records may also contain information collected and compiled to maintain an audit trail of the activity of authorized users of the system, such as user name and user login identification.
Information is provided by Federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, and foreign government agencies; international agencies; agencies of the U.S. foreign intelligence community and military community; publicly available information, such as broadcast and print media; commercial databases; and individuals, corporations, and organizations.
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), the records or information in this system may be disclosed as a routine use, under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3), in accordance with the blanket routine uses established for FBI record systems. See Blanket Routine Uses (BRU) Applicable to More Than One FBI Privacy Act System of Records, Justice/FBI-BRU, published at 66 FR 33558 (June 22, 2001) and amended at 70 FR 7513 (February 14, 2005) and 82 FR 24147 (May 25, 2017) or as may be updated in the future. In addition, as routine uses specific to this system, the FBI may disclose relevant records to the following persons or entities and under the circumstances or for the purposes described below, to the extent such disclosures are compatible with the purpose for which the information was collected:
A. To authorized users of an FBI online collaboration system, as necessary, to facilitate and support internal and external collaboration for and among the FBI and its partners for the performance of their legally authorized, required functions.
B. To any person, organization, or governmental entity in order to notify them of a potential terrorist threat for the purpose of guarding against or responding to such threat.
C. To a governmental entity lawfully engaged in collecting law enforcement, emergency management, public safety, or national security information, or intelligence for such purposes when determined to be relevant by the FBI/DOJ.
D. To any agency of a foreign government or international agency or entity where the FBI determines that the information is relevant to the recipient's responsibilities, dissemination serves the best interests of the U.S. Government, and where the purpose in making the disclosure is compatible with the purpose for which the information was collected.
E. To any non-governmental entity, including commercial entities, or nonprofit organizations, that are joint participants with or provide support to the FBI and disclosure is consistent with the FBI's law enforcement, national security, or intelligence missions.
F. To any criminal, civil, or regulatory law enforcement authority (whether federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, foreign, or international) where the FBI determines that the information is relevant to the recipient entity's law enforcement responsibilities.
G. Where a record, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law—civil, criminal, or regulatory in nature—the relevant records may be referred to the appropriate federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement authority or other appropriate entity, that is charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing such law.
H. To any entity or individual where there is reason to believe the recipient is or could become the target of a particular criminal activity, conspiracy, or other threat, to the extent the information is relevant to the protection of life, health, or property. Information may similarly be disclosed to other recipients who have interests to which the threat may also be relevant, or who may be able to assist in protecting against or responding to the threat.
I. To persons or entities where there is a need for assistance in locating missing persons, and where there are reasonable grounds to conclude from available information that disclosure would further the best interests of the individual being sought.
J. To a former employee of the Department for purposes of: Responding to an official inquiry by a federal, state, local, tribal, or territorial government entity or professional licensing authority, in accordance with applicable Department regulations; or facilitating communications with a former employee that may be necessary for personnel-related or other official purposes where the Department requires information and/or consultation assistance from the former employee regarding a matter within that person's former area of responsibility.
K. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the Department suspects or has confirmed that there has been a breach of the system of records; (2) the Department has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed breach there is a risk of harm to individuals, the Department (including its information systems, programs, and operations), the Federal Government, or national security; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the Department's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed breach or to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
L. To another Federal agency or Federal entity, when the Department determines that information from this system of records is reasonably necessary to assist the recipient agency or entity in (1) responding to a suspected or confirmed breach or (2) preventing, minimizing, or remedying the risk of harm to individuals, the
M. To such recipients and under such circumstances and procedures as are mandated by federal statute or treaty.
Computerized records are stored electronically on hard disk, removable storage devices, or other digital media in areas safe from access by unauthorized persons or exposure to environmental hazards. Some information may also be maintained in hard copy or other form.
Records may be retrieved by personal identifiers or key word searches.
Records in this system are maintained and disposed of in accordance with appropriate authority of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Different types of information may be subject to different FBI and NARA-approved records' schedules, which are available at
System records are maintained in limited access space in FBI controlled facilities and offices. Computerized data is password protected and requires two-factor authentication for access. Remote access through the Internet is provided via the encrypted communications protocol Hypertext Transfer Protocol with Transport Layer Security (HTTPS). All FBI personnel are required to pass an extensive background investigation. The information is accessed only by authorized DOJ personnel or by non-DOJ personnel properly authorized to access the system. The system employs role-based access and authentication controls and enforcement mechanisms so that each user can access only the information and system locations appropriate for their role. Authorized system users will be subject to adequate physical security controls and built-in system controls to protect against unauthorized personnel gaining access to the equipment and/or the information stored in it. All authorized users are required to agree to Rules of Behavior and Terms of Use limiting use of the information in the system to official purposes. System audit logs are created and monitored to detect any misuse of the system.
The Attorney General has exempted this system of records from the notification, access, amendment, and contest procedures of the Privacy Act. These exemptions apply only to the extent that the information in this system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Where compliance would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect the purposes of the system, or the overall law enforcement/intelligence process, the applicable exemption (in whole or in part) may be waived by the FBI in its sole discretion.
All requests for access should follow the guidance provided on the FBI's Web site at
The Attorney General has exempted this system of records from the notification, access, amendment, and contest procedures of the Privacy Act. These exemptions apply only to the extent that the information in this system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Where compliance would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect the purposes of the system, or the overall law enforcement/intelligence process, the applicable exemption (in whole or in part) may be waived by the DOJ in its sole discretion.
Individuals desiring to contest or amend information maintained in the system should direct their requests according to the Record Access Procedures paragraph above, stating clearly and concisely what information is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the information sought. The envelope and letter should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Amendment Request” and comply with 28 CFR 16.46 (Request for Amendment or Correction of Records). Some information may be exempt from contesting record procedures as described in the Exemptions Promulgated for the System paragraph, below. An individual who is the subject of a record in this system may amend those records that are not exempt. A determination whether a record may be amended will be made at the time a request is received.
Same as Record Access Procedures paragraph, above.
The Attorney General has exempted this system from subsections (c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3), and (4); (e)(1), (2), (3), (4)(G), (H), and (I), (5) and (8); (f); and (g) of the Privacy Act. The exemptions will be applied only to the extent that information in a record is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Rules are being promulgated in accordance with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553(b), (c), and (e) and are published in this
None.
Bureau of Justice Statistics, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Office of Justice Programs, Bureau of Justice Statistics, will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until February 2, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Jennifer Truman, Statistician, Bureau of Justice Statistics, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (email:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Office of Justice Programs, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, National Institute of Justice, is submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The Department of Justice encourages public comment and will accept input until February 2, 2018.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Jack: Harne, Physical Scientist, National Institute of Justice, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (phone 202-598-9412). Written comments and/or suggestions can also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In correctional facilities, contraband items such as drugs, alcohol, cell phones, tobacco products, and makeshift weapons can be used by inmates to spread violence, engage in criminal activity, create underground economies, and perpetuate existing addictions. Contraband in correctional facilities is therefore a cause of serious concern for the safety and security of inmates and correctional staff. However, little is known about what types of contraband interdiction modalities are exercised across jurisdictions and have proven successful, let alone how much and what type of contraband is found in correctional facilities in the U.S. and how it is brought in.
5.
6.
If additional information is required contact: Melody Braswell, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405A, Washington, DC 20530.
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Disaster Unemployment Assistance Activities Report,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before January 3, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Disaster Unemployment Assistance Activities Report information collection. Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act sections 410 and 423 provide for assistance to eligible individuals who are unemployed due to a major disaster. State Workforce Agencies, through individual agreements with the Secretary of Labor, act as agents of the Federal government in providing Disaster Unemployment Assistance (DUA) to eligible applicants who are unemployed as a direct result of a major disaster. Form ETA-902 is a monthly report submitted by a State on DUA program activities once the President declares a disaster. Social Security Act section 303(a)(6) authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on November 30, 2017. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
The OMB is particularly interested in comments that:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Wage and Hour Division (WHD) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Nondisplacement of Qualified Workers Under Service Contracts, Executive Order 13495,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before January 3, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-WHD, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the information collection requirements codified in regulations 29 CFR 9.12 and 9.21 related to the nondisplacement of qualified workers under service contracts, pursuant to E.O. 13495, Nondisplacement of Qualified Workers Under Service Contracts. More specifically, the information collections relate to the employment offer, certified list of employees, and complaint filing provisions of the rule. E.O. 13495 sections 5 and 6 authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on January 31, 2018. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Notice of availability; request for comments.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS) sponsored information collection request (ICR) revision titled, “Federal Contractor Veterans' Employment Report,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). Public comments on the ICR are invited.
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before January 3, 2018.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-VETS, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
This ICR seeks PRA approval for revisions to the Federal Contractor Veterans' Employment Report information collection. VEVRAA generally requires a covered Federal contractor or subcontractor to report annually on the total number of its employees who belong to the categories of VEVRAA protected veterans and the total number of those employees who hired during the period covered by the report. This ICR has been characterized as a revision, because the agency has now fully phased out the VETS-100A Report. All reporting will now be done using the VETS-4212 Report, which has fewer reporting elements that its predecessor. The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974 authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
The DOL obtains OMB approval for this information collection under Control Number 1293-0005. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
Institute of Museum and Library Services, National Foundation for the Arts and the Humanities.
Notice, request for comments, collection of information.
The Institute of Museum and Library Services (IMLS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. This pre-clearance consultation program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. By this notice, IMLS is soliciting comments concerning the three year approval of the forms necessary to submit an application for all IMLS grant programs.
A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the individual listed below in the
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addressee section below on or before January 30, 2018.
IMLS is particularly interested in comments that help the agency to:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques, or other forms of information technology,
Send comments to: Dr. Sandra Webb, Senior Advisor, Office of the Director, Institute of Museum and Library Services, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North SW., Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20024-2135. Dr. Webb can be reached by Telephone: 202-653-4718 Fax: 202-653-4608, or by email at
Dr. Sandra Webb, Senior Advisor, Office of the Director, Institute of Museum and Library Services, 955 L'Enfant Plaza North SW., Suite 4000, Washington, DC 20024-2135. Dr. Webb can be reached by Telephone: 202-653-4718 Fax: 202-653-4608, or by email at
The Institute of Museum and Library Services is the primary source of federal support for the nation's approximately 120,000 libraries and 35,000 museums and related organizations. Our mission is to inspire libraries and museums to advance innovation, lifelong learning, and cultural and civic engagement. Our grant making, policy development, and research help libraries and museums deliver valuable services that make it possible for communities and individuals to thrive. To learn more, visit
To administer the IMLS processes of grants and cooperative agreements, IMLS uses standardized application forms, guidelines and reporting forms for eligible libraries, museums, and other organizations to apply for its funding. These forms submitted for public review in this Notice are the Program Information Sheet, the Budget Form spreadsheet, and the Digital Product Form. This collection of information from these forms are a part of the IMLS grant application process.
National Center for Science and Engineering Statistics, National Science Foundation.
Submission for OMB review; comment request.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) has submitted the following information collection requirement to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This is the second notice for public comment; the first was published in the
Comments should be addressed to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for National Science Foundation, 725 7th Street NW., Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503.
Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Room W18000, Alexandria, Virginia 22314, or send email to
NSF may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments are invited on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the NSF, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the NSF's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
As required by 5 CFR 1320.8(d), comments on the information collection activities as part of this study were solicited through publication of a 60-Day Notice in the
The primary objective of the new survey is to fill data gaps in the NCSES publication
NCSES recently concluded a pilot test of the Nonprofit Research Activities Survey (NPRA) with 3,640 nonprofit organizations. Using the lessons learned from the pilot, NCSES now plans to conduct a full survey. The full NPRA survey will collect R&D and other related data from U.S. nonprofit organizations. This survey will collect the following:
• Total amount spent on R&D activities within nonprofit organizations;
• Number of employees and R&D employees;
• Sources of funds for R&D expenditures;
• Expenditures by field of R&D (biological and health sciences, engineering, physical sciences, social sciences, etc.);
• Expenditures by type of R&D (basic research, applied research, or experimental development);
• Total amount of R&D funding provided to entities outside the nonprofit organization;
• Types of recipients receiving R&D funding; and
• Funding by field of R&D (biological and health sciences, engineering, physical sciences, social sciences, etc.).
Phase 2 of the survey will be the questionnaire, which will be sent to (a) all of the known research performers and funders, (b) those screened in from Phase 1, and (c) those who did not respond to the Phase 1 contacts. NCSES expects a response rate of 60% to Phase 2. Based on the responses to the pilot survey, if the organization both funds and performs research, it will take an estimated 4 hours to complete the survey. If the organization neither funds nor performs research, the response time should be less than 20 minutes. There will also be 40 debriefings held as the surveys are submitted, 20 for respondents and 20 for nonrespondents. The debriefings are estimated to take 1 hour for respondents and 30 minutes for nonrespondents, resulting in a total burden of 30 hours. The estimate of burden for Phase 2 of the survey is 4,888 hours for the 1,222 estimated performers and funders that complete the survey and debriefings and 317 hours for the remaining 951 organizations estimated to complete the survey that do not perform or fund research. The total combined burden for Phases 1 and 2 is 5,713 hours.
National Science Foundation.
Notice of permit applications received.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is required to publish a notice of permit applications received to conduct activities regulated under the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978. NSF has published regulations under the Antarctic Conservation Act in the Code of Federal Regulations. This is the required notice of permit applications received.
Interested parties are invited to submit written data, comments, or views with respect to this permit application by January 3, 2018. This application may be inspected by interested parties at the Permit Office, address below.
Comments should be addressed to Permit Office, Office of Polar Programs, National Science Foundation, 2415 Eisenhower Avenue, Alexandria, Virginia 22314.
Nature McGinn, ACA Permit Officer, at the above address, 703-292-8030, or
The National Science Foundation, as directed by the Antarctic Conservation Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-541, 45 CFR 670), as amended by the Antarctic Science, Tourism and Conservation Act of 1996, has developed regulations for the establishment of a permit system for various activities in Antarctica and designation of certain animals and certain geographic areas a requiring special protection. The regulations establish such a permit system to designate Antarctic Specially Protected Areas.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) reviewed an application by Sacramento Municipal Utility District (SMUD or the licensee) for amendment of Materials License No. SNM-2510, which authorizes the storage of spent nuclear fuel and greater than Class C waste at the Rancho Seco Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation, located in Herald, California. The licensee requested authorization to allow the continued storage of byproduct nuclear material to check the functionality of radiation detection instruments.
December 4, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2017-0110 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available
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William Allen, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6877, email:
By letter dated January 17, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML15259A590), as supplemented August 27, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17236A170), SMUD submitted a license amendment request (LAR) to the NRC in accordance with section 72.56 of title 10 of the
The NRC staff has completed its review of the January 17, 2017 LAR, and has determined that it complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), as well as the NRC's rules and regulations. As required by the Act and the NRC's rules and regulations in 10 CFR chapter 1, the NRC staff made the appropriate findings which are contained in a safety evaluation report (ADAMS Accession No. ML17290A010). The NRC has thus granted the LAR and has accordingly issued Amendment No. 4 to Materials License No. SNM-2510.
The NRC prepared a safety evaluation report (SER) (ADAMS Accession No. ML17290A010) to document its review and evaluation of the amendment request. As further explained in the SER, the NRC has also determined that the license amendment is administrative in nature, and therefore satisfies the 10 CFR 51.22(c)(11) criteria for a categorical exclusion from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment. Under 10 CFR 51.22(c)(11), this action is eligible for categorical exclusion, because it is an amendment to a materials licenses which is administrative, organizational, or procedural in nature, or which results in a change in process operations or equipment, provided that (i) there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, (ii) there is no significant increase in individual or cumulative occupational radiation exposure, (iii) there is no significant construction impact, and (iv) there is no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents. Consequently, an environmental assessment and finding of no significant impact are not required. This amendment was effective upon issuance.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment Nos. 97 and 96 to Combined Licenses (COL), NPF-91 and NPF-92, respectively. The COLs were issued to Southern Nuclear Operating Company, Inc., and Georgia Power Company, Oglethorpe Power Corporation, MEAG Power SPVM, LLC, MEAG Power SPVJ, LLC, MEAG Power SPVP, LLC, Authority of Georgia, and the City of Dalton, Georgia (the licensee); for construction and operation of the Vogtle Electric Generating Plant (VEGP) Units 3 and 4, located in Burke County, Georgia.
The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.
The exemption and amendment were issued on November 8, 2017.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0252 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Chandu Patel, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3025; email:
The NRC is granting an exemption from paragraph B of section III, “Scope and Contents,” of appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of title 10 of the
Part of the justification for granting the exemption was provided by the review of the amendment. Because the exemption is necessary in order to issue the requested license amendment, the NRC granted the exemption and issued the amendment concurrently, rather than in sequence. This included issuing a combined safety evaluation containing the NRC staff's review of both the exemption request and the license amendment. The exemption met all applicable regulatory criteria set forth in §§ 50.12, 52.7, and section VIII.A.4 of appendix D to 10 CFR part 52. The license amendment was found to be acceptable as well. The combined safety evaluation is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML17272A131.
Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to the licensee for VEGP Units 3 and 4 (COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92). The exemption documents for VEGP Units 3 and 4 can be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML17272A125 and ML17272A126, respectively. The exemption is reproduced (with the exception of abbreviated titles and additional citations) in Section II of this document. The amendment documents for COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML17272A127 and ML17272A129, respectively. A summary of the amendment documents is provided in Section III of this document.
Reproduced below is the exemption document issued to VEGP Units 3 and Unit 4. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:
1. In a letter dated March 15, 2017, the licensee requested from the Commission an exemption to allow departures from Tier 1 information in the certified DCD incorporated by reference in 10 CFR part 52, Appendix D, as part of license amendment request 17-008, “Clarification of Raceway and Raceway System Designations.”
For the reasons set forth in Section 3.1 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation, which can be found in ADAMS under Accession No. ML17272A131, the Commission finds that:
A. the exemption is authorized by law;
B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;
C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;
D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;
E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and
F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1 information, with corresponding changes to Appendix C of the Facility Combined License as described in the request dated March 15, 2017. This exemption is related to, and necessary for the granting of License Amendment No. 97 (Unit 3) and 96 (Unit 4), which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.
3. As explained in Section 5.0 of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation (ADAMS Accession No. ML17272A131), this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.
4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.
By letter dated March 15, 2017 (ADAMS Accession No. ML17074A597), the licensee requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VEGP, Units 3 and 4, COLs NPF-91 and NPF-92. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this
The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or COL, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.
Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the staff granted the exemption and issued the amendment that the licensee requested on March 15, 2017.
The exemption and amendment were issued on November 8, 2017, as part of
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing recent Postal Service filings for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
1.
2.
This notice will be published in the
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on November 28, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Postal Service
Notice.
The Postal Service gives notice of filing a request with the Postal Regulatory Commission to add a domestic shipping services contract to the list of Negotiated Service Agreements in the Mail Classification Schedule's Competitive Products List.
Elizabeth A. Reed, 202-268-3179.
The United States Postal Service® hereby gives notice that, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 3642 and 3632(b)(3), on November 28, 2017, it filed with the Postal Regulatory Commission a
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange filed a proposal to amend Rule 19.6, Series of Options Contracts Open for Trading.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend Rule 19.6 to modify the strike setting regime for IVV, SPY, and DIA options. Specifically, for IVV, SPY, and DIA options the Exchange proposes to explicitly allow $1 strike price intervals. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change would make IVV, SPY, and DIA options easier for investors and traders to use and more tailored to their investment needs, as well as to better align BZX's strike regime with other options exchange. The Exchange notes that this proposal is based on the rules of BOX Options Exchange LLC (“Box”) and the Cboe Exchange, Inc. (f/k/a Chicago Board Options Exchange, Inc.) (“Cboe”).
Rule 19.6(d)(4) provides that:
The interval between strike prices of series of options on Fund Shares approved for options trading pursuant to Rule 19.3(i) shall be fixed at a price per share which is reasonably close to the price per share at which the underlying security is traded in the primary market at or about the same time such series of options is first open for trading on BZX Options, or at such intervals as may have been established on another options exchange prior to the initiation of trading on BZX Options.
Rule 19.6.02(a) provides:
BZX Options may list $1 Strike Prices on any other option classes if those classes are specifically designated by other national securities exchanges that employ a similar $1 Strike Price Program under their respective rules.
The SPY and IVV exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”) are designed to roughly track the performance of the S&P 500 Index. The DIA ETF is designed to roughly track the performance of the Dow Jones Industrial Average (“DJIA”) with the price of SPY and IVV designed to roughly approximate 1/10th of the price of the S&P 500 Index and the price of DIA designed to roughly approximate 1/100th of the price of the DJIA. Accordingly, SPY and IVV strike prices reflect a value roughly equal to 1/10th of the value of the S&P 500 Index and DIA strike prices reflect a value roughly equal to 1/100th of the value of the DJIA with each having a multiplier of $100. For example, if the S&P 500 Index is at 1972.56, SPY options might have a value of approximately 197.26 with a notional value of $19,726. If the DJIA is at 16,569.98, DIA options may have a value of 165.70 with a notional value of $16,570. In general, SPY, IVV, and DIA options provide retail investors and traders with the benefit of trading the broad market in a manageably sized contract. As options with an ETP underlying, SPY, IVV, and DIA options are listed in the same manner as equity options under the Rules.
Unlike other options exchanges, BZX rules do not specifically identify the strike price interval for IVV, SPY, and DIA options. This proposed rule change seeks to match the strike setting regime for IVV, SPY, and DIA options available on other options exchanges.
Due to the Exchange's current ability to list $1 strikes in IVV, SPY, and DIA options when another options exchange lists such strikes, this proposed rule change is unlikely to augment the potential total number of options series available on the Exchange. However, the Exchange believes it and the Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”) have the necessary systems capacity to handle any potential additional traffic associated with this proposed rule change. The Exchange also believes that Trading Permit Holders will not have a capacity issue due to the proposed rule change. In addition, the Exchange represents that it does not believe that this expansion will cause fragmentation of liquidity.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act. Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section 6(b)(5) requirements that the rules of an exchange be designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in
In particular, the proposed rule change will allow investors to more easily use SPY, IVV, DIA options, which protects investors and the public interest. The Exchange also believes the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(1) of the Act, which provides that the Exchange be organized and have the capacity to be able to carry out the purposes of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder, and the rules of the Exchange. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule would create additional capacity issues or affect market functionality. The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change, like other strike price programs currently offered by the Exchange, will benefit investors by giving them increased flexibility to more closely tailor their investment and hedging decisions. Moreover, the proposed rule change is consistent with the rules of other exchanges.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will result in additional investment options and opportunities to achieve the investment and trading objectives of market participants seeking efficient trading and hedging vehicles, to the benefit of investors, market participants, and the marketplace in general. Additionally, this proposed rule change seeks to match the strike setting regime for IVV, SPY, and DIA options available on other options exchanges; thus, the proposed rule change may alleviate any potential burden on competition.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (A) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (B) impose any significant burden on competition; and (C) by its terms, become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed or such shorter time as the Commission may designate it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (1) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (2) for the protection of investors; or (3) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
This proposed rule change by OCC would modify OCC's margin methodology to move away from the existing monthly data source provided by its current vendor and towards obtaining and incorporating daily price and returns (adjusted for any corporate actions) data of securities to estimate accurate margins.
The proposed changes to OCC's Margins Methodology document are contained in confidential Exhibit 5 of the filing. The proposed changes are described in detail in Item II below. The proposed rule change does not require any changes to the text of OCC's By-Laws or Rules. All terms with initial capitalization that are not otherwise defined herein have the same meaning as set forth in the OCC By-Laws and Rules.
In its filing with the Commission, OCC included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. OCC has prepared summaries, set forth in sections (A), (B), and (C) below, of the most significant aspects of these statements.
OCC's margin methodology, the System for Theoretical Analysis and Numerical Simulations (“STANS”), is OCC's proprietary risk management system that calculates Clearing Member margin requirements.
A “risk factor” within OCC's margin system may be defined as a product or attribute whose historical data is used to estimate and simulate the risk for an associated product. The majority of risk factors utilized in the STANS methodology are total returns on individual equity securities. Other risk factors considered include: Returns on equity indexes; returns on implied volatility
Under OCC's current margin methodology, OCC obtains monthly price data for most of its equity-based products
In risk management, it is a common practice to establish a floor for volatility at a certain level in order to protect against procyclicality
OCC's current methodology for estimating covariance and correlations between risk factors relies on the same monthly data described above, resulting in a similar lag time between updates. In addition, correlation estimates are based off historical returns series, with estimates between a pair of risk factors being highly sensitive to the volatility of either risk factor in the chosen pair. The current approach therefore results in potentially less stable correlation estimates that may not be representative of current market conditions.
Finally, under OCC's existing margin methodology, theoretical price scenarios for “defaulting securities”
OCC proposes to modify its margin methodology by: (1) Obtaining daily price data for equity products (including daily corporate action-adjusted returns of equities where price and thus returns of securities are adjusted for any dividends issued, stock splits, etc.) for use in the daily estimation of econometric model parameters; (2) enhancing its econometric model for updating statistical parameters (
The purpose of the proposed changes is to enhance OCC's margin methodology to mitigate the issues described above that arise from the current monthly update and scale factor approach. Specifically, by introducing daily (as opposed to monthly) updates for price data (and thereby allowing for daily updates of statistical parameters in the model) and making other proposed model enhancements described herein, the proposed changes are designed to result in more accurate and responsive margin requirements and a model that is more stable and proactive during times of market volatility, with margins that are based off of the most recent market data. In addition, the proposed changes are intended to improve OCC's approach to estimating covariance and correlations between risk factors in an effort to achieve more stable and sensitive correlation estimations and improve OCC's methodology related to the treatment of defaulting securities by reducing the impact that illiquid securities with discontinuous data have on default variance estimates.
The proposed changes are described in further detail below.
OCC proposes to introduce daily updates for price data for equity products, including daily corporate action-adjusted returns of equities, Exchange Traded Funds (“ETFs”), Exchange Traded Notes (“ETNs”) and certain indexes. The daily price data would be obtained from a widely used external vendor, as is the case with the current monthly updates. The purpose of the proposed change is to ensure that OCC's margin methodology is reliant on data that is more representative of current market conditions, thereby resulting in more accurate and responsive margin requirements.
As described above, OCC currently obtains price data for all securities on a monthly basis from a third party vendor. After obtaining the monthly price data, additional time is required for OCC to process the data prior to installing into OCC's margin system. As a result, correlations and statistical parameters for risk factors at any point in time represent back-dated data and therefore may not be representative of the most recent market data. To mitigate pro-cyclicality within its margin methodology in the absence of daily updates, OCC employs the use of scale-factors to incorporate day-to-day market volatility across all associated asset classes. While the scale factors help to reduce procyclicality in the model, the scale factors do not necessarily capture the idiosyncratic risks of a given security, which may be different from the broad market risk represented by the scale factor.
OCC proposes to address these issues associated with its current margin methodology by eliminating its dependency on monthly price data, which arrives in arrears and requires additional time for OCC to process the data prior to installing into OCC's margin system through the introduction of daily updates for price data for equity products. The introduction of daily price updates would enable OCC's margin methodology to better capture both market as well idiosyncratic risk by allowing for daily updates to the parameters associated with the econometric model (discussed below) that capture the risk associated with a particular product, and therefore ensure that OCC's margin requirements are based on more current market conditions. As a result, OCC would also reduce its reliance on the use of scale factors to incorporate day-to-day market volatility, which, as noted above, give little room to capture the idiosyncratic risk of a given security and which may be different from the broad market risk represented by the scale factor. In addition, the processing time between receipt of the data and installation into the margin system would be reduced as the data review and processing for daily prices would be incorporated into OCC's daily price editing process.
In addition to introducing daily updates for price and corporate action-adjusted returns data, OCC is proposing enhancements to its econometric model
These proposed model enhancements are described in detail below.
Under the proposal, the statistical parameters for the model would be updated on a daily basis using the new daily price data obtained by OCC (as described in section 1 above).
In addition to the daily update of statistical parameters, OCC proposes to include new features in its econometric model that are designed to take into account asymmetry in the conditional variance process. The econometric model currently used in STANS for all risk factors is a GARCH(1,1) with Student's
OCC further proposes to change the statistical distribution used to model the returns of equity prices. OCC's current methodology uses a fat tailed distribution
OCC also proposes to introduce a second-day forecast for volatility into the model to estimate the two-day scenario distributions for risk factors.
Additionally, OCC proposes to modify its floor for volatility estimates. OCC currently imposes a floor on volatility estimates for its equity-based products using a 500-day look back period. OCC proposes to extend this look back period to 10-years (2520 days) in the enhanced model and to apply this floor to volatility estimates for other products (excluding implied volatility risk factor scenarios). The proposed model described herein is calibrated from historical data, and as a result, the level of the volatilities generated by the model will vary from time to time. OCC is therefore proposing to establish a volatility floor for the model using a 10-year look back period to reduce the risk of procyclicality in its margin model. OCC believes that using a longer 10-year look back period will ensure that OCC captures sufficient historical events/market shocks in the calculation of its anti-procyclical floor. The 10-year look back period also is in line with requirements of the European Market Infrastructure Regulation (including regulations thereunder)
As described above, OCC's current methodology for estimating covariance and correlations between risk factors relies on the same monthly price data feeding the econometric model, resulting in a similar lag time between updates. In addition, correlation estimates are based off historical returns series, with estimates between a pair of risk factors being highly sensitive to the volatility of either risk factors in the chosen pair. The current approach therefore results in correlation estimates being sensitive to volatile historical data.
In order to address these limitations, OCC proposes to enhance its methodology for calculating correlation estimates by moving to a daily process for updating correlations (with a minimum of one week's lag) to ensure Clearing Member account margins are more current and thus more accurate. Moreover, OCC proposes to enhance its approach to modeling correlation estimates by de-volatizing
Finally, OCC proposes to enhance its methodology for estimating the defaulting variance in its model. OCC's margin system is dependent on market data to determine Clearing Member margin requirements. Securities that do not have enough historical data are classified as to be a “defaulting security” within OCC systems (
OCC proposes that only optionable equity securities, which are typically more liquid, be considered while estimating the default variance. This limitation would eliminate from the estimation almost all illiquid securities with discontinuous data that could contribute to high conditional variance estimates and thus a high default variance. In addition, OCC proposes to estimate the default variance as the lowest estimate of the top 10% of the floored conditional variance across the risk factors. This change in methodology is designed to ensure that while the estimate is aggressive it is also robust to the presence of outliers caused by a few extremely volatile securities that influence the location parameter of a distribution. Moreover, as a consequence of the daily updates described above, the default variances would change daily and there would be no scale factor to amplify the effect of the variance on risk factor coverage.
In addition, OCC proposes to use a shorter time series to enable calibration of the model for all securities. Currently, OCC does not calibrate parameters for defaulting securities that have historical data of less than two years. OCC is proposing to shorten this time period to around 6 months (180 days) to enable calibration of the model for all securities within OCC systems. OCC believes that this shorter time series is sufficient to produce stable calibrated parameters.
Finally, OCC proposes that returns scenarios for defaulting securities, securities with insufficient historical data, be simulated using a default correlation with the driver RUT.
OCC has discussed the proposed changes with its Financial Risk Advisory Council
OCC believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (the “Act”),
As noted above, OCC's current margin methodology relies on monthly price data being obtained from a third party vendor. This data arrives monthly in arrears and requires additional time for OCC to process the data prior to installing into OCC's margin system. As a result, correlations and statistical parameters for risk factors at any point in time represent back-dated data and therefore may not be representative of the most recent market data. To mitigate procyclicality within its margin methodology in the absence of daily updates, OCC employs a scale factor approach to incorporate day-to-day market volatility across all associated asset classes throughout.
OCC proposes to enhance its margin methodology to introduce daily updates for equity price data, thereby allowing for daily updates of statistical parameters in its margin model for most risk factors. In addition, the proposed changes would introduce features to the model to better account for the asymmetric volatility phenomenon observed in financial markets and allow for conditional volatility forecast to be more sensitive to market downturns. The proposed changes would also introduce a new statistical distribution for modeling equity price returns that OCC believes would have a better goodness of fit and would more appropriately account for fait tails. Moreover, the proposed changes would introduce a second-day volatility forecast into the model to provide for more accurate and timely estimations of its two-day scenario distributions. OCC also proposes to enhance its econometric model by establishing a volatility floor using a 10-year look back period to reduce procyclicality in the margin model. OCC believes the proposed changes would result in more accurate and responsive margin requirements and a model that is more stable and proactive during times of market volatility, with risk charges that are based off of most recent market data.
In addition, the proposed rule change is intended to improve OCC's approach to estimating covariance and correlations between risk factors in an effort to achieve more stable and sensitive correlation estimations and improve OCC's methodology related to the treatment of defaulting securities by reducing the impact that illiquid securities with discontinuous data have on default variance estimates.
The proposed methodology changes would be used by OCC to calculate margin requirements designed to limit its credit exposures to participants, and OCC uses the margin it collects from a defaulting Clearing Member to protect other Clearing Members from losses that may result from such a default. As a result, OCC believes the proposed rule changed is designed to assure the safeguarding of securities and funds in its custody or control in accordance with Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Rules 17Ad-22(b)(1) and (2)
As noted above, the proposed changes would introduce the use of daily price updates into OCC's margin methodology, which allows for daily updates to the statistical parameters in the model (
OCC would use the risk-based model enhancements described herein to measure its credit exposures to its participants on a daily basis and determine margin requirements based on such calculations. The proposed enhancements concerning daily price updates, daily updates of statistical parameters, and to more appropriately account for asymmetry in conditional variance would result in more accurate and responsive margin requirements and a model that is more stable and proactive during times of market volatility, with margin charges that are based off of the most recent market data. In addition, the proposed modifications to extend the look back period for determining volatility estimates for equity-based products from 500 days to 10 years will help to ensure that OCC captures sufficient historical events/market shocks in the calculation of its anti-procyclical floor. Additionally, the proposed changes would enhance OCC's margin methodology for calculating correlation estimates by moving to a daily process for updating correlations (with a minimum of one week's lag) so that Clearing Member account margins are more current and thus more accurate and using de-volatized returns to normalize returns across a variety of asset classes and make the correlation estimator less sensitive to sudden market jumps and therefore more stable. Finally, the proposed changes to OCC's methodology for the treatment of defaulting securities is designed to result in stable and realistic risk estimates for such securities The proposed changes are therefore designed to ensure that OCC sets margin
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)
As described in detail above, the proposed changes are designed to ensure that, among other things, OCC's margin methodology: (i) More appropriately accounts for asymmetry in conditional variance; (ii) more appropriately models the statistical distribution of price returns, (iii) more accurately models second-day volatility forecasts; (iv) improves OCC's approach to estimating covariance and correlations between risk factors to provide for stable and sensitive correlation estimations; and (v) improves OCC's methodology related to the treatment of defaulting securities by reducing the impact that illiquid securities with discontinuous data have on default variance estimates. These methodology enhancements would be used to calculate daily margin requirements for OCC's Clearing Members. In this way, the proposed changes are designed to consider, and produce margin levels commensurate with, the risks and particular attributes of each relevant product, portfolio, and market and to calculate margin sufficient to cover its potential future exposure to participants in the interval between the last margin collection and the close out of positions following a participant default.
Moreover, the proposed changes would introduce daily updates for price data for equity products, including daily corporate action-adjusted returns of equities, ETFs, ETNs, and certain indexes. This daily price data would be obtained from a widely used and reliable industry vendor. In this way, the proposed changes would ensure that OCC uses reliable sources of timely price data in its margin methodology, which better reflect current market conditions than the current monthly updates, thereby resulting in more accurate and responsive margin requirements.
For these reasons, OCC believes that the proposed changes are consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6).
The proposed rule changes are not inconsistent with the existing rules of OCC, including any other rules proposed to be amended.
Section 17A(b)(3)(I) requires that the rules of a clearing agency do not impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of Act.
Written comments on the proposed rule change were not and are not intended to be solicited with respect to the proposed rule change and none have been received. OCC will notify the Commission of any written comments received by OCC.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All comments received will be posted without change. Persons submitting comments are cautioned that we do not redact or edit personal identifying information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File Number SR-OCC-2017-022 and should be submitted on or before December 26, 2017.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule relating to the Options Regulator Fee (“ORF”).
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify how the ORF is assessed and collected.
The ORF was established in October 2008 as a replacement of Registered Representative fees.
The ORF is designed to recover a material portion of the costs to the Exchange of the supervision and regulation of Trading Permit Holder (“TPH”) customer options business, including performing routine surveillances, investigations, examinations, financial monitoring, as well as policy, rulemaking, interpretive and enforcement activities.
The Exchange monitors the amount of revenue collected from the ORF to ensure that it, in combination with its other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed the Exchange's total regulatory costs. The Exchange monitors its regulatory costs and revenues at a minimum on a semi-annual basis. If the Exchange determines regulatory revenues exceed or are insufficient to cover a material portion of its regulatory costs, the Exchange will adjust the ORF by submitting a fee change filing to the Commission. The Exchange notifies TPHs of adjustments to the ORF via regulatory circular. The Exchange endeavors to provide TPHs with such notice at least 30 calendar days prior to the effective date of the change.
Under the Exchange's current process, the ORF is assessed to TPHs and collected indirectly from TPHs through their clearing firms by OCC on behalf of the Exchange. The following scenarios reflect how the ORF is currently assessed and collected (these apply regardless if the transaction is executed on the Exchange or on an away exchange):
1. If a TPH is the executing clearing firm on a transaction (“Executing Clearing Firm”), the ORF is assessed to and collected from that TPH by OCC on behalf of the Exchange.
2. If a TPH is the Executing Clearing Firm and the transaction is “given up” to a different TPH that clears the transaction (“Clearing Give-up”), the ORF is assessed to the Executing Clearing Firm (the ORF is the obligation of the Executing Clearing Firm). The ORF is collected from the Clearing Give-up.
3. If the Executing Clearing Firm is a non-TPH and the Clearing Give-up is a TPH, the ORF is assessed to and collected from the Clearing Give-up.
4. If a TPH is the Executing Clearing Firm and a non-TPH is the Clearing Give-up, the ORF is assessed to the Executing Clearing Firm. The ORF is the obligation of the Executing Clearing Firm but is collected from the non-TPH Clearing Give-up (for the reasons described below).
5. No ORF is assessed if a TPH is neither the Executing Clearing Firm nor the Clearing Give-up.
The Exchange uses an OCC cleared trades file to determine the Executing Clearing Firm and the Clearing Give-up.
In each of scenarios 1 through 4 above, if the transaction is transferred pursuant to a Clearing Member Trade Assignment (“CMTA”) arrangement to another clearing firm who ultimately clears the transaction, the ORF is collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the transaction (which firm may be a non-TPH) by OCC on behalf of the Exchange. Using CMTA transfer information provided by the OCC, the Exchange subtracts the ORF charge from the monthly ORF bill of the clearing firm that transfers the position and adds the charge to the monthly ORF bill of the clearing firm that receives the CMTA transfer (
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule in the following four respects to clarify how the ORF is assessed and collected.
First, the Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that the ORF is collected by OCC on behalf of the Exchange from the Clearing Trading Permit Holder (“CTPH”) or non-CTPH that ultimately clears the transaction. While the ORF is an obligation of TPHs, due to industry request the ORF is collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the eligible trade, even if such firm is a not a TPH. The Exchange, OCC and the industry agreed to this collection method in response to comments that by collecting the ORF in this manner TPHs and non-TPHs could more easily pass-through the ORF to their customers.
Accordingly, in scenario 4 above the ORF is collected from the non-CTPH that clears the transaction in order to facilitate the pass-through of the ORF to the end-customer. Likewise, collection of the ORF from the ultimate (CMTA) clearing firm facilitates the passing of the fee to the end-customer. In those cases where the ORF is collected from a non-CTPH, the Exchange (through OCC) collects the ORF as a convenience for the TPH whose obligation it is to pay the fee to the Exchange.
As described above, under the Exchange's current process the Exchange subtracts the ORF from a CMTA transferor's ORF bill and adds it to the CMTA transferee's ORF bill for every transfer in the monthly OCC CMTA transfer file. Going forward, in order to avoid potentially collecting the ORF on any transactions that are not subject to the ORF, the Exchange will perform a check to determine whether the CMTA transferor or transferee is a TPH. If either the CMTA transferor or transferee is a TPH, the Exchange will collect the ORF from the transferee through the process described above. If neither the transferor nor transferee is a TPH, the Exchange will not include that transfer as part of such process (
Second, the Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that the ORF is assessed by the Exchange to each TPH for options transactions cleared by the TPH (as opposed to “executed or cleared” by the TPH) that are cleared by OCC in the customer range regardless of the exchange on which the transaction occurs. As described above, whether a transaction is subject to the ORF is determined by whether a TPH is the Executing Clearing Firm or the Clearing Give-up as reflected in the OCC cleared trades file. Only the Executing Clearing Firm and the Clearing Give-up on the transaction are identified on the OCC file. Accordingly, because the ORF is always assessed to a CTPH, the Exchange proposes to remove the words “executed or” from the Fee Schedule description of the ORF to clarify that the ORF is assessed for options transactions cleared by a TPH.
Third, the Exchange proposes to clarify its process for assessing the ORF on linkage transactions. An options order entered on the Exchange may be routed to and executed on another exchange pursuant to the Options Order Protection and Locked/Crossed Market Plan. The Exchange may engage a routing broker to provide routing services to the Exchange as described in Cboe Options Rule 6.14B (“Routing Services”) to facilitate linkage transactions. A customer order routed by a routing broker for execution at another exchange results in a transaction on that exchange and an obligation of the routing broker to pay the options regulatory fee, if any, of that exchange. After receiving a fill on the away exchange, the routing broker trades against the original order entered on the Exchange and incurs the Cboe Options ORF. Pursuant to its agreement with the routing broker, the Exchange reimburses the routing broker for any options regulatory fee assessed by the Exchange and by the away market on which the customer order was executed. As a result, only the original customer order executed on the Exchange is assessed the ORF. The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that, with respect to linkage transactions, the Exchange reimburses its routing broker providing Routing Services pursuant to Cboe Options Rule 6.14B for options regulatory fees it incurs in connection with the Routing Services it provides.
Fourth, the Exchange proposes to change the method it uses to assess the ORF to better align with the Exchange's Fees Schedule. Currently, the Exchange assesses the ORF to a TPH based on the OCC clearing number(s) that the TPH registers with the Exchange. A TPH may have additional OCC clearing numbers
In order to conform its ORF billing practice to its Fees Schedule, the Exchange proposes to amend the Fees Schedule to require TPHs, pursuant to Cboe Options Rule 15.1,
The Exchange also proposes a couple of minor clean up changes to the Fees Schedule. The ORF is listed as being $0.0064 per contract through January 31, 2016 and $0.0081 per contract effective February 1, 2016. As these dates have passed and the ORF is now simply $0.0081 per contract, the Exchange proposes to delete the reference to the ORF being $0.0064 per contract through January 31, 2016 and the February 1, 2016 effective date of the $0.0081 per contract ORF.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposal to collect the ORF from non-TPHs that ultimately clear the transaction is an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its Trading Permit Holders and other persons using its facilities. The Exchange notes that there is a material distinction between “assessing” the ORF and “collecting” the ORF. The Exchange does not assess the ORF to non-TPHs. The ORF is an obligation of TPHs. Once, however, the ORF is assessed to a TPH for a particular transaction, the ORF may be collected from a TPH or a non-TPH, depending on how the transaction is cleared at OCC. If there was no change to the clearing number of the original transaction, the ORF would be collected from the TPH. If there was a change to the clearing number of the original transaction and a non-TPH becomes the ultimate clearing firm for that transaction, then the ORF will be collected from that non-TPH. The Exchange believes that this collection practice is reasonable and appropriate, and was originally instituted at the request of the industry for the ORF be collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the transaction in order to facilitate the passing of the fee to the end-customer.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and nondiscriminatory not to pass the ORF to a CMTA transferee when neither the CMTA transferor nor the transferee is a TPH because this would help ensure the ORF is not collected on any transactions that may not be subject to the ORF.
The Exchange believes the proposal to clarify that the ORF is assessed to TPHs for options transactions cleared by the TPH (as opposed to executed or cleared) is reasonable because it adds clarity to the Fees Schedule by better and more accurately describing the application of the ORF. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to charge the ORF only to transactions that clear as customer at the OCC. The Exchange believes that its broad regulatory responsibilities with respect to its TPH's activities supports applying the ORF to transactions cleared by a TPH. The Exchange's regulatory responsibilities are the same regardless of whether a TPH executes a transaction or clears a transaction executed on its behalf. The Exchange regularly reviews all such activity, including performing surveillance for position limit violations, manipulation, insider trading, front-running and contrary exercise advice violations. The Exchange believes the proposal is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply in the same manner to TPHs subject to the ORF. The ORF is only assessed to a TPH with respect to a particular transaction in which it is either the Executing Clearing Firm or the Clearing Give-up.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and nondiscriminatory to reimburse its routing broker for any options regulatory fees the broker incurs in connection with Routing Services because this helps ensure the Exchange does not charge the ORF more than once to a single customer order.
The Exchange believes the proposal to require TPHs to provide the Exchange with a complete list of its OCC clearing numbers is reasonable because it would enable the Exchange to conform its ORF billing practice to its Fees Schedule by capturing transactions executed or cleared by TPHs. The Exchange believes the proposal is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply in the same manner to TPHs subject to the ORF.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address any competitive issues but rather to provide more clarity and transparency regarding how the Exchange assesses and collects the ORF. The Exchange believes any burden on competition imposed by the proposed rule change is outweighed by the need to help the Exchange adequately fund its regulatory activities to ensure compliance with the Exchange Act.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
information from comment submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. All submissions should refer to File No. SR-CBOE-2017-074, and should be submitted on or before December 26, 2017.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
On February 12, 1935, the Commission adopted Rule 12d2-2,
The Form 25 is useful because it informs the Commission that a security previously traded on an exchange is no longer traded. In addition, the Form 25 enables the Commission to verify that the delisting and/or deregistration has occurred in accordance with the rules of the exchange. Further, the Form 25 helps to focus the attention of delisting issuers to make sure that they abide by the proper procedural and notice requirements associated with a delisting and/or a deregistration. Without Rule 12d2-2 and the Form 25, as applicable, the Commission would be unable to fulfill its statutory responsibilities.
There are 21 national securities exchanges that could possibly be respondents complying with the requirements of the Rule and Form 25.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comments to: Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule relating to the Options Regulatory Fee (“ORF”).
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify how the ORF is assessed and collected.
The ORF was established in August 2012.
The ORF is designed to recover a material portion of the costs to the Exchange of the supervision and regulation of Permit Holder customer options business, including performing routine surveillances, investigations, examinations, financial monitoring, as well as policy, rulemaking, interpretive and enforcement activities.
The Exchange monitors the amount of revenue collected from the ORF to ensure that it, in combination with its other regulatory fees and fines, does not exceed the Exchange's total regulatory
Under the Exchange's current process, the ORF is assessed to Permit Holders and collected indirectly from Permit Holders through their clearing firms by OCC on behalf of the Exchange. The following scenarios reflect how the ORF is currently assessed and collected (these apply regardless if the transaction is executed on the Exchange or on an away exchange):
1. If a Permit Holder is the executing clearing firm on a transaction (“Executing Clearing Firm”), the ORF is assessed to and collected from that Permit Holder by OCC on behalf of the Exchange.
2. If a Permit Holder is the Executing Clearing Firm and the transaction is “given up” to a different Permit Holder that clears the transaction (“Clearing Give-up”), the ORF is assessed to the Executing Clearing Firm (the ORF is the obligation of the Executing Clearing Firm). The ORF is collected from the Clearing Give-up.
3. If the Executing Clearing Firm is a non-Permit Holder and the Clearing Give-up is a Permit Holder, the ORF is assessed to and collected from the Clearing Give-up.
4. If a Permit Holder is the Executing Clearing Firm and a non-Permit Holder is the Clearing Give-up, the ORF is assessed to the Executing Clearing Firm. The ORF is the obligation of the Executing Clearing Firm but is collected from the non-Permit Holder Clearing Give-up (for the reasons described below).
5. No ORF is assessed if a Permit Holder is neither the Executing Clearing Firm nor the Clearing Give-up.
The Exchange uses an OCC cleared trades file to determine the Executing Clearing Firm and the Clearing Give-up.
In each of scenarios 1 through 4 above, if the transaction is transferred pursuant to a Clearing Member Trade Assignment (“CMTA”) arrangement to another clearing firm who ultimately clears the transaction, the ORF is collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the transaction (which firm may be a non-Permit Holder) by OCC on behalf of the Exchange. Using CMTA transfer information provided by the OCC, the Exchange subtracts the ORF charge from the monthly ORF bill of the clearing firm that transfers the position and adds the charge to the monthly ORF bill of the clearing firm that receives the CMTA transfer (
The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule in the following four respects to clarify how the ORF is assessed and collected.
First, the Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that the ORF is collected by OCC on behalf of the Exchange from the Clearing Participant or non-Clearing Participant that ultimately clears the transaction. While the ORF is an obligation of Permit Holders, due to industry request the ORF is collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the eligible trade, even if such firm is a not a Permit Holder. The Exchange, OCC and the industry agreed to this collection method in response to comments that by collecting the ORF in this manner Permit Holders and non-Permit Holders could more easily pass-through the ORF to their customers. In the Original ORF Filing, the Exchange stated that it expects Permit Holders will pass-through the ORF to their customers in the same manner that firms pass-through to their customers the fees charged by self-regulatory organizations (“SROs”) to help the SROs meet their obligations under Section 31 of the Exchange Act.
Accordingly, in scenario 4 above the ORF is collected from the non-Clearing Participant that clears the transaction in order to facilitate the pass-through of the ORF to the end-customer. Likewise, collection of the ORF from the ultimate (CMTA) clearing firm facilitates the passing of the fee to the end-customer. In those cases where the ORF is collected from a non-Clearing Participant, the Exchange (through OCC) collects the ORF as a convenience for the Permit Holder whose obligation it is to pay the fee to the Exchange.
As described above, under the Exchange's current process the Exchange subtracts the ORF from a CMTA transferor's ORF bill and adds it to the CMTA transferee's ORF bill for every transfer in the monthly OCC CMTA transfer file. Going forward, in order to avoid potentially collecting the ORF on any transactions that are not subject to the ORF, the Exchange will perform a check to determine whether the CMTA transferor or transferee is a Permit Holder. If either the CMTA transferor or transferee is a Permit Holder, the Exchange will collect the ORF from the transferee through the process described above. If neither the transferor nor transferee is a Permit Holder, the Exchange will not include that transfer as part of such process (
Second, the Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that the ORF is assessed by the Exchange to each Permit Holder for options transactions cleared by the Permit Holder (as opposed to “executed or cleared” by the Permit Holder) that are cleared by OCC in the customer range regardless of the exchange on which the transaction occurs. As described above, whether a transaction is subject to the ORF is determined by whether a Permit Holder is the Executing Clearing Firm or the Clearing Give-up as reflected in the OCC cleared trades file. Only the Executing Clearing Firm and the Clearing Give-up on the transaction are identified on the OCC file. Accordingly, because the ORF is always assessed to a Clearing Participant, the Exchange proposes to remove the words “executed or” from the Fee Schedule description of the ORF to clarify that the
Third, the Exchange proposes to clarify its process for assessing the ORF on linkage transactions. An options order entered on the Exchange may be routed to and executed on another exchange pursuant to the Options Order Protection and Locked/Crossed Market Plan. The Exchange may engage a routing broker to provide routing services to the Exchange as described in C2 Options Rule 6.36 (“Routing Services”) to facilitate linkage transactions. A customer order routed by a routing broker for execution at another exchange results in a transaction on that exchange and an obligation of the routing broker to pay the options regulatory fee, if any, of that exchange. After receiving a fill on the away exchange, the routing broker trades against the original order entered on the Exchange and incurs the C2 Options ORF. Pursuant to its agreement with the routing broker, the Exchange reimburses the routing broker for any options regulatory fee assessed by the Exchange and by the away market on which the customer order was executed. As a result, only the original customer order executed on the Exchange is assessed the ORF. The Exchange proposes to amend its Fees Schedule to clarify that, with respect to linkage transactions, the Exchange reimburses its routing broker providing Routing Services pursuant to C2 Options Rule 6.36 for options regulatory fees it incurs in connection with the Routing Services it provides.
Fourth, the Exchange proposes to change the method it uses to assess the ORF to better align with the Exchange's Fees Schedule. Currently, the Exchange assesses the ORF to a Permit Holder based on the OCC clearing number(s) that the Permit Holder registers with the Exchange. A Permit Holder may have additional OCC clearing numbers that are not registered with the Exchange because they are used by the Permit Holder to clear activity on other exchanges. If a Permit Holder uses a non-C2 Options registered OCC clearing number on a transaction and that clearing number is denoted as the Executing Clearing Firm or the Clearing Give-up, the ORF is not assessed to that transaction because the clearing number is not known to the Exchange. Such transactions are subject to the ORF under the Exchange's Fees Schedule because the Executing Clearing Firm or the Clearing Give-up was a Permit Holder. The ORF is assessed at the Permit Holder entity level, not at the OCC clearing number level.
In order to conform its ORF billing practice to its Fees Schedule, the Exchange proposes to amend the Fees Schedule to require Permit Holders, pursuant to Cboe Exchange, Inc. (“Cboe Options”) Rule 15.1,
The Exchange also proposes a couple of minor clean up changes to the Fees Schedule. The ORF is listed as being $0.0051 per contract through January 31, 2016 and $0.0015 per contract effective February 1, 2016. As these dates have passed and the ORF is now simply $0.0015 per contract, the Exchange proposes to delete the reference to the ORF being $0.0051 per contract through January 31, 2016 and the February 1, 2016 effective date of the $0.0015 per contract ORF.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”) and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes the proposal to collect the ORF from non-Permit Holders that ultimately clear the transaction is an equitable allocation of reasonable dues, fees, and other charges among its Permit Holders and other persons using its facilities. The Exchange notes that there is a material distinction between “assessing” the ORF and “collecting” the ORF. The Exchange does not assess the ORF to non-Permit Holders. The ORF is an obligation of Permit Holders. Once, however, the ORF is assessed to a Permit Holder for a particular transaction, the ORF may be collected from a Permit Holder or a non-Permit Holder, depending on how the transaction is cleared at OCC. If there was no change to the clearing number of the original transaction, the ORF would be collected from the Permit Holder. If there was a change to the clearing number of the original transaction and a non-Permit Holder becomes the ultimate clearing firm for that transaction, then the ORF will be collected from that non-Permit Holder. The Exchange believes that this collection practice is reasonable and appropriate, and was originally instituted at the request of the industry for the ORF be collected from the clearing firm that ultimately clears the transaction in order to facilitate the passing of the fee to the end-customer.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and nondiscriminatory not to pass the ORF to a CMTA transferee when neither the CMTA transferor nor the transferee is a Permit Holder because this would help ensure the ORF is not collected on any transactions that may not be subject to the ORF.
The Exchange believes the proposal to clarify that the ORF is assessed to Permit Holders for options transactions cleared by the Permit Holder (as opposed to executed or cleared) is reasonable because it adds clarity to the Fees Schedule by better and more accurately describing the application of the ORF. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to charge the ORF only to transactions that clear as customer at the OCC. The Exchange believes that its broad regulatory responsibilities with respect to its Permit Holder's activities supports applying the ORF to transactions cleared by a Permit Holder.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and nondiscriminatory to reimburse its routing broker for any options regulatory fees the broker incurs in connection with Routing Services because this helps ensure the Exchange does not charge the ORF more than once to a single customer order.
The Exchange believes the proposal to require Permit Holders to provide the Exchange with a complete list of its OCC clearing numbers is reasonable because it would enable the Exchange to conform its ORF billing practice to its Fees Schedule by capturing transactions executed or cleared by Permit Holders. The Exchange believes the proposal is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it would apply in the same manner to Permit Holders subject to the ORF.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not intended to address any competitive issues but rather to provide more clarity and transparency regarding how the Exchange assesses and collects the ORF. The Exchange believes any burden on competition imposed by the proposed rule change is outweighed by the need to help the Exchange adequately fund its regulatory activities to ensure compliance with the Exchange Act.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 15c1-6 states that any broker-dealer trying to sell to or buy from a customer a security in a primary or secondary distribution in which the broker-dealer is participating or is otherwise financially interested must give the customer written notification of the broker-dealer's participation or interest at or before completion of the transaction. The Commission estimates that 394 respondents collect information annually under Rule 15c1-6 and that
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to extend the implementation delay of Qualified Contingent Cross Order
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to extend the implementation delay of Qualified Contingent Cross Order
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that further delaying the implementation of the Qualified Contingent Cross Order functionality on GEMX is consistent with the Act and protects investors and public interest because the Exchange is allowing additional time to test this technology before implementing it on INET. The Exchange believes that additional testing will ensure a successful roll-out. Members are already aware that this functionality is delayed. The Exchange will provide Members notice of the date when the functionality will be available. This functionality will be available on or before March 31, 2018. This proposed delay was announced to Members recently in an Options Traders Alert.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on intra-market competition because all Members uniformly will not be able to submit Qualified Contingent Cross Orders during the extended implementation delay.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 971.1NY (Electronic Cross Transactions) to amend the duration of a Customer Best Execution (“CUBE”) Auction. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 971.1NY to modify the parameters for the duration of a CUBE Auction. The CUBE Auction is an electronic crossing mechanism for single-leg orders with a price improvement auction on the Exchange.
An ATP Holder (“Initiating Participant”) may initiate a CUBE Auction by electronically submitting for execution a limit order it represents as agent on behalf of a public customer, broker dealer, or any other entity (“CUBE Order”) against principal interest or against any other order it represents as agent, provided the Initiating Participant complies with Rule 971.1NY. When the Exchange receives a valid CUBE Order for auction processing, a Request for Responses (“RFR”) detailing the series, the side of
The Exchange believes that moving to the proposed range structure provides the Exchange with greater flexibility in establishing the optimal duration for the CUBE Auction. The Exchange believes that permitting a minimum duration as low as 100 milliseconds would reduce market risk for all ATP Holders executing trades on the Exchange via the CUBE Auction. Initiating Participants are required to guarantee an execution at the National Best Bid or Offer (“NBBO”) or at a better price, and are subject to market risk during the time the CUBE Order is exposed to other ATP Holders.
The Exchange notes the Commission previously approved other exchanges' rules that provide for a specified auction response time as low as 100 milliseconds and that the Exchange is not proposing to go lower than the lowest previously approved timer range.
Accordingly, the Exchange proposes to amend Rule 971.1NY(c)(2)(B) to remove the reference to the duration of the current timer setting and replace it with language providing that “[t] he Response Time Interval will last for a random period of time within parameters determined by the Exchange and announced by Trader Update. The minimum/maximum parameters for the Response Time Interval will be no less than 100 milliseconds and no more than one (1) second.”
The Exchange does not believe that requiring the CUBE Auction to run for a random time of at least 500 milliseconds (absent an early end) is necessary in today's market where, generally, ATP Holders' systems have the capability to respond within 100 milliseconds or less. As such, reducing the minimum potential Response Time Interval in the CUBE is appropriate as ATP Holders no longer need 500 milliseconds to respond to an Auction. Further, reducing the potential minimum Response Time Interval would allow ATP Holders the opportunity to seek out liquidity in an expedient manner that is consistent with today's system capabilities.
The Exchange believes that ATP Holders operate electronic systems that enable them to react and respond to orders in a meaningful way in fractions of a second. The Exchange anticipates that its ATP Holders would continue to compete within the proposed Response Time Interval designated by the Exchange. In particular, the Exchange believes that the proposed Response Time Interval—which would be a random period of time no less than 100 milliseconds and no more than 1 second—would continue to provide ATP Holders with sufficient time to respond to, compete for, and provide price improvement for CUBE Orders. As such, the Exchange believes this proposed change would continue to provide the investing public with more timely executions, and reduce their market risk.
To substantiate that ATP Holders are able to receive, process and communicate a response to an auction broadcast within 100 milliseconds, the Exchange surveyed all responders to a CUBE Auction over the last three months. Each of these ATP Holders confirmed that they can receive, process and communicate a response back to the Exchange within 100 milliseconds.
With regard to the impact of this proposal on system capacity, the Exchange has analyzed its capacity and represents that it has the necessary systems capacity to handle the potential additional traffic associated with the additional transactions that may occur with the implementation of the proposed modification to the Response Time Interval to no less than 100 milliseconds. Additionally, the Exchange represents that its System will be able to sufficiently maintain an audit trail for order and trade information with the reduction in the Response Time Interval.
Pursuant to the modified rule, the Exchange will announce by Trader Update any changes to the current random time period applicable to CUBE Auctions in advance.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b)
In particular, the proposed rule change would provide investors with more timely execution of their option orders, while ensuring that there is an adequate exposure of orders in the mechanisms. Additionally, the proposed change could provide more CUBE Orders an opportunity for price improvement because it would reduce market risk for ATP Holders that participate in CUBE Auctions. Finally, as mentioned above, other exchanges such as ISE, BX, PHLX, MIAX, and CBOE, have already amended their rules to permit response times consistent with the instant proposal—
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is not unfairly discriminatory because the Response Time Interval for each CUBE Auction would be the same for all participating ATP Holders. As is the case today, all ATP Holders would continue to have an equal opportunity to receive the broadcast and respond with their best prices during the auction. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed modification to the Response Time Interval to be as low as 100 milliseconds would reduce the market risk for all ATP Holders, inclusive of Initiating Participants and those ATP Holders responding to a CUBE Action.
Finally, the proposal would promote just and equitable principles of trade because it would allow the Exchange to continue to use a random timer for each CUBE Auction (within the outside parameters announced by the Exchange), which timer provides the CUBE with a functional difference to distinguish it from similar price improvement mechanisms offered by other exchanges.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change would impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposal to provide the Exchange flexibility in determining potentially shorter durations for CUBE Auctions does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition as the Exchange believes that allowing for a Response Time Interval of no less than 100 milliseconds and no more than 1 second (absent an early end) would benefit all ATP Holders utilizing the CUBE Auctions. Specifically, it is in Initiating Participants' best interest to minimize the Response Time Interval while continuing to allow other ATP Holders adequate time to electronically respond.
The proposed rule would allow ATP Holders to respond quickly at the most favorable price while reducing the risk that the market will move against that response. The Exchange believes that its ATP Holders would be able to compete within a Response Time Interval of no less than 100 milliseconds and no more than 1 second, and that any random duration within this range is a sufficient amount of time to respond to, compete for, and provide price improvement for CUBE Orders, which would, in turn, provide investors and other market participants more timely executions, and reduce their market risk.
The Exchange does not believe its proposed rule change would impose an undue burden on inter-market competition as the Exchange notes other exchanges offer similar functionality with similar auction duration lengths.
For all the reasons stated, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change would impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, and believes the proposed change would enhance competition.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) by order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Guidance to specify persons that are part of, or operate for or on behalf of, the defense and intelligence sectors of the Government of the Russian Federation; notice.
The Department of State is issuing this guidance to specify the persons that are part of, or operate for or on behalf of, the defense and intelligence sectors of the Government of the Russian Federation. This guidance, including the list specifying persons, was developed through a robust interagency process and may be updated or amended as circumstances warrant.
Philip A. Foley, Director, Office of Counterproliferation Initiatives, Bureau of International Security and Nonproliferation, Department of State, Washington, DC 20520, tel.: 202-647-5193,
Pursuant to the authority in Section 231(d) of the Countering Russian Influence in Europe and Eurasia Act of 2017 (Pub. L. 115-44), (“the Act”), the Secretary of State is issuing this guidance to specify the following as persons that are part of, or operate for or on behalf of, the defense and intelligence sectors of the Government of the Russian Federation:
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Palmyra: Loss and Remembrance,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to a loan agreement with the foreign owner or custodian. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at The J. Paul Getty Museum at the Getty Villa, Malibu, California, from on or about April 18, 2018, until on or about May 27, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest.
Elliot Chiu in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See
OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel.: 202-622-4855; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel: Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410.
The list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's Web site (
On September 23, 2016, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
1. IMPERIAL CASTRO, Eliseo (a.k.a. “CHEYO ANTRAX”), Mexico; DOB 17 Jan 1984; POB Culiacan, Sinaloa, Mexico; citizen Mexico; Gender Male; R.F.C. IECE840117RCA (Mexico); C.U.R.P. IECE840117HSLMSL04 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(2) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(2), for materially assisting in, or providing financial or technological support for or to, or providing goods or services in support of, the international narcotics trafficking activities of the SINALOA CARTEL and/or Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA; and/or designated pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3), for being directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, the SINALOA CARTEL and/or Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA.
2. LIRA SOTELO, Alfonso (a.k.a. BAHENA MARTINEZ, Rogelio; a.k.a. “EL ATLANTE”), Mexico; DOB 24 May 1970; alt. DOB 02 Dec 1970; POB Mexico City, D.F., Mexico; alt. POB Ixtlahuatenco Pedro Ascencio Alquisiras, Guerrero, Mexico; citizen Mexico; Gender Male; Passport G02447186 (Mexico) issued 01 Apr 2010 expires 01 Apr 2016; R.F.C. LISA7005242Y8 (Mexico); National ID No. 25887069638 (Mexico); C.U.R.P. LISA700524HDFRTL03 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(2) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(2), for materially assisting in, or providing financial or technological support for or to, or providing goods or services in support of, the international narcotics trafficking activities of the SINALOA CARTEL, and/or Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA, and/or Eliseo IMPERIAL CASTRO; and/or designated pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3), for being directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, the SINALOA CARTEL, and/or Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA, and/or Eliseo IMPERIAL CASTRO.
3. LIRA SOTELO, Javier (a.k.a. “EL CARNICERO”; a.k.a. “EL HANNIBAL”), Mexico; DOB 16 Jul 1965; POB Mexico City, D.F., Mexico; citizen Mexico; Gender Male; C.U.R.P. LISJ650716HDFRTV04 (Mexico); R.F.C. LISJ650716SD0 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(2) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(2), for materially assisting in, or providing financial or technological support for or to, or providing goods or services in support of, the international narcotics trafficking activities of Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA, and/or Eliseo IMPERIAL CASTRO, and/or Alfonso LIRA SOTELO; and/or designated pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3), for being directed by, or acting for or on behalf of, Ismael ZAMBADA GARCIA, and/or Eliseo IMPERIAL CASTRO, and/or Alfonso LIRA SOTELO.
4. LIRA SOTELO, Alma Delia, Mexico; DOB 14 Apr 1972; POB Mexico City, D.F., Mexico; citizen Mexico; Gender Female; C.U.R.P. LISA720414MDFRTL08 (Mexico) (individual) [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(2) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(2), for materially assisting in, or providing financial or technological support for or to, or providing goods or services in support of, the international narcotics trafficking activities of Alfonso LIRA SOTELO; and/or designated pursuant to section 805(b)(3) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(3), for being directed by, or acting for or on behalf of Alfonso LIRA SOTELO and/or the SINALOA CARTEL.
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Department of the Treasury.
Notice.
The U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of persons that have been placed on OFAC's Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons List based on OFAC's determination that one or more applicable legal criteria were satisfied. All property and interests in property subject to U.S. jurisdiction of these persons are blocked, and U.S. persons are generally prohibited from engaging in transactions with them.
See
OFAC: Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420; Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480; Assistant Director for Regulatory Affairs, tel.: 202-622-4855; Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490; or the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel: Office of the Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410.
The list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List) and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available on OFAC's Web site (
On November 29, 2017, OFAC determined that the property and interests in property of the following persons are blocked under the relevant sanctions authority listed below.
1. AGUINO ARBOLEDA, Junior Onofre (Latin: AGUIÑO ARBOLEDA, Junior Onofre) (a.k.a. “DIOS Y CIEGO”), Colombia; DOB 16 Sep 1989; POB Tumaco, Narino, Colombia; Gender
2. RUANO YANDUN, Tito Aldemar (a.k.a. “DON T”; a.k.a. “DON TI”; a.k.a. “DON TITO”), Colombia; DOB 18 Oct 1975; POB Ipiales, Narino, Colombia; nationality Colombia; citizen Colombia; Gender Male; Cedula No. 98337819 (Colombia) (individual) [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(4) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(4), for playing a significant role in international narcotics trafficking.
1. RUANO YANDUN DRUG TRAFFICKING ORGANIZATION (a.k.a. “RUANO YANDUN DTO”), Narino, Colombia; Ecuador [SDNTK]. Designated pursuant to section 805(b)(4) of the Kingpin Act, 21 U.S.C. 1904(b)(4), for playing a significant role in international narcotics trafficking.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 5498-QA, ABLE Account Contribution Information, and Form 1099-QA, Distributions from ABLE Accounts.
Written comments should be received on or before February 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202) 317-5753 or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning limitations on corporate net operating loss carryforwards.
Written comments should be received on or before February 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6529, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form should be directed to
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of Charter renewal.
The Charter for the Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC) has been renewed for one year beginning November 24, 2017.
Ms. Anna Millikan, National Public Liaison, at
Notice is hereby given under section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988), and with the approval of the Secretary of the Treasury to announce the renewal of the Internal Revenue Service Advisory Council (IRSAC) for a period of one year. The primary purpose of the advisory council is to provide an organized public forum for Internal Revenue Service officials and representatives of the public to discuss relevant tax administration issues. As an advisory body designed to focus on broad policy matters, the IRSAC reviews existing tax policy and/or makes recommendations with respect to emerging federal tax administration issues. The IRSAC suggests operational improvements, offers constructive observations regarding current or proposed IRS policies, programs, and procedures, and suggest improvements with respect to issues having substantive effect on federal tax administration. Conveying the public's perception of IRS activities to Internal Revenue Service officials, the IRSAC is comprised of individuals who bring substantial, disparate experience and diverse backgrounds. Membership is balanced to include representation from the taxpaying public, the tax professional community, small and large business, international, wage and investment taxpayers, digital services, academia, and the applicant's knowledge of Treasury Circular 230.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning New Markets Tax Credit.
Written comments should be received on or before February 2, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to L. Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202) 317-5753 or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |