Page Range | 45811-46065 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
83 FR 45977 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
83 FR 45909 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 46005 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
83 FR 45931 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Part 71 Federal Operating Permit Program (Renewal) | |
83 FR 45926 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Part 70 State Operating Permit Program (Renewal) | |
83 FR 45928 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Risk Management Program Requirements and Petitions To Modify the List of Regulated Substances Under Section 112(r) of the Clean Air Act (CAA); EPA ICR Number 1656.16, OMB Control Number 2050-0114 | |
83 FR 45932 - J.J. Seifert Machine Shop Superfund Site, Sun City, Hillsborough County, Florida; Notice of Settlement | |
83 FR 45887 - Initiation of Five-Year (Sunset) Reviews | |
83 FR 45888 - Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Order, Finding, or Suspended Investigation; Opportunity To Request Administrative Review | |
83 FR 45927 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Establishing No-Discharge Zones (NDZs) Under Clean Water Act Section 312 (Renewal) | |
83 FR 45925 - Proposed Information Collection Request; Comment Request; Diesel Emissions Reduction Act (DERA) Rebate Program; EPA ICR No. 2461.03, OMB Control No. 2060-0686 Renewal | |
83 FR 45929 - Proposed Information Collection Requests; Comment Request: Microbial Rules Renewal Information Collection Request; Public Water System Supervision Program Renewal Information Collection Request; Disinfectants/Disinfection Byproducts, Chemical and Radionuclides Rules Renewal Information Collection Request | |
83 FR 45844 - Spiromesifen; Pesticide Tolerances | |
83 FR 45838 - 2-Propenoic Acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer With butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate; Tolerance Exemption | |
83 FR 45841 - Cloquintocet-mexyl; Pesticide Tolerances | |
83 FR 45910 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
83 FR 45910 - Privacy Act of 1974; Matching Program | |
83 FR 45979 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
83 FR 45966 - Ponca Tribe of Nebraska Liquor Control Ordinance | |
83 FR 45958 - Indian Gaming; Approval of Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compact Amendments in the State of Oklahoma | |
83 FR 45960 - Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska's Alcohol Control Ordinance | |
83 FR 45958 - Notice To Acquire Land Into Trust for the Tohono O'odham Nation of Arizona | |
83 FR 45877 - Notice of Public Meeting of the California Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 45879 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Missouri Advisory Committee To Discuss Civil Rights Topics in the State | |
83 FR 45878 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 45878 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Alabama Advisory Committee To Discuss Access to Voting in the State | |
83 FR 45877 - Notice of Public Meeting of the Nevada State Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 46009 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition-Determinations: “Frans Hals Portraits: A Family Reunion” Exhibition | |
83 FR 46010 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition-Determinations: “Tudors to Windsors: British Royal Portraits From Holbein to Warhol” Exhibition | |
83 FR 46008 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition-Determinations: “Tomma Abts” Exhibition | |
83 FR 46009 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition-Determinations: “Günther Förg: A Fragile Beauty” Exhibition | |
83 FR 46009 - Notice of Determinations; Culturally Significant Object Imported for Exhibition-Determinations: “Enrico David: Gradations of Slow Release” Exhibition | |
83 FR 46011 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Aero-Flite, Inc. | |
83 FR 46010 - Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Compass Airlines LLC | |
83 FR 45849 - International Fisheries; Western and Central Pacific Fisheries for Highly Migratory Species; Closure of Purse Seine Fishery on the High Seas in 2018 | |
83 FR 45934 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
83 FR 45955 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: 2019 American Housing Survey | |
83 FR 45954 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Public Housing Reform Act: Changes to Admission and Occupancy Requirements | |
83 FR 45957 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Assessment of Additional Resource Needs for Smoke-Free Policy | |
83 FR 45932 - Notice of Proposals To Engage in or To Acquire Companies Engaged in Permissible Nonbanking Activities | |
83 FR 45879 - Proposed Foreign-Trade Zone-Lufkin, Texas, Under Alternative Site Framework | |
83 FR 45890 - Hydrofluorocarbon Blends From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 45893 - Certain Passenger Vehicle and Light Truck Tires From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review, Preliminary Determination of No Shipments, and Rescission, in Part; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 45883 - Certain Steel Nails From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Results of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review and Preliminary Determination of No Shipments; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 45924 - Ohio River Pipe Line LLC; Notice of Request for Temporary Waiver | |
83 FR 45924 - Errata Notice | |
83 FR 45922 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
83 FR 45922 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
83 FR 45923 - KMC Thermo, LLC v. Dominion Energy Cove Point LNG, LP; Notice of Complaint | |
83 FR 45923 - RTO Insider LLC v. New England Power Pool Participants Committee; Notice of Complaint | |
83 FR 45921 - Montana Department of Fish, Wildlife & Parks, Fish Hatchery Bureau; Notice of Preliminary Determination of a Qualifying Conduit Hydropower Facility and Soliciting Comments and Motions To Intervene | |
83 FR 45978 - Addendum to the Memorandum of Understanding With the Department of Energy (August 28, 1992); Oak Ridge, Tennessee Properties | |
83 FR 45912 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
83 FR 45916 - Proposed Distribution of Residual Citronelle Settlement Agreement Funds | |
83 FR 45919 - Secretarial Determination of a National Security Purpose for the Sale or Transfer of Enriched Uranium | |
83 FR 45995 - Proposed Revisions to Standard Review Plan Section 13.4, Operational Programs | |
83 FR 45992 - Proposed Revisions to Standard Review Plan Section 13.6, Physical Security | |
83 FR 45875 - Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit; CA; Meeks Bay Restoration Project | |
83 FR 45977 - Proposed Renewal of the Approval of Information Collection Requirements; Comment Request | |
83 FR 45826 - Substantiation and Reporting Requirements for Cash and Noncash Charitable Contribution Deductions; Correction | |
83 FR 46016 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee | |
83 FR 45980 - Dispositioning of Technical Specifications That Are Insufficient To Ensure Plant Safety | |
83 FR 45942 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Guidance for Industry: Formal Meetings Between the Food and Drug Administration and Biosimilar Biological Product Sponsors or Applicants | |
83 FR 45909 - Renewal of the Agricultural Advisory Committee | |
83 FR 45916 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; E-Complaint Form(FERPA) and PPRA E-Complaint Form | |
83 FR 45933 - Information Collection; Government Property | |
83 FR 45936 - Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 45934 - Joint Meeting of the Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 45946 - Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 45941 - Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
83 FR 45944 - Postapproval Changes to Drug Substances; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
83 FR 46010 - Notice of Rail Energy Transportation Advisory Committee Meeting | |
83 FR 45937 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Tobacco Products, User Fees, Requirements for the Submission of Data Needed To Calculate User Fees for Domestic Manufacturers and Importers of Tobacco Products | |
83 FR 45940 - Determination That CEFZIL (Cefprozil) Tablets, 250 Milligrams and 500 Milligrams, and for Oral Suspension, 125 Milligrams/5 Milliliters and 250 Milligrams/5 Milliliters, Were Not Withdrawn From Sale for Reasons of Safety or Effectiveness | |
83 FR 46026 - Submissions of Exclusion Requests and Objections to Submitted Requests for Steel and Aluminum | |
83 FR 45864 - Safety Zone; Spaceport Camden, Woodbine, GA | |
83 FR 45976 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Contractor Eligibility and the Abandoned Mine Land Contractor Information Form | |
83 FR 45882 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Procedures for Submitting Requests for Expedited Relief From Quantitative Limits-Existing Contract: Section 232 National Security Investigations of Steel Imports | |
83 FR 46023 - Agency Information Collection Activity: Department of Veteran Affairs Acquisition Regulation (VAAR) Clause 852.246-76 (Formerly 852.270-3) | |
83 FR 45996 - Submission of Information Collections for OMB Review; Comment Request; Multiemployer Plan Regulations | |
83 FR 46011 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal: Comment Request; Renewal Without Change of Customer Identification Programs for Brokers or Dealers in Securities and Mutual Funds | |
83 FR 46014 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal; Comment Request; Renewal Without Change of Anti-Money Laundering Programs for Precious Metals, Precious Stones, or Jewels | |
83 FR 46013 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal; Comment Request; Renewal Without Change of the Report of International Transportation of Currency or Monetary Instruments | |
83 FR 46015 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal: Comment Request; Renewal Without Change of Customer Identification Programs for Banks, Savings Associations, Credit Unions, Certain Non-Federally Regulated Banks, Futures Commission Merchants, and Introducing Brokers in Commodities | |
83 FR 45860 - Extension of Comment Period for Proposed Revisions to Prohibitions and Restrictions on Proprietary Trading and Certain Interests in, and Relationships With, Hedge Funds and Private Equity Funds | |
83 FR 45997 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees To Permit Certain Affiliated Market Participants To Aggregate Volume and Qualify for Various Pricing Incentives | |
83 FR 46001 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Move the P.M.-Settled Nasdaq-100 Index Options Expiring on the Third Friday of the Month to the NDX Index Options Class | |
83 FR 46005 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Europe Limited; Order Approving Proposed Rule Change Relating to Amendments to the ICE Clear Europe CDS End-of-Day Price Discovery Policy (“Price Discovery Policy”) | |
83 FR 46003 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Order Instituting Proceedings To Determine Whether To Approve or Disapprove a Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rules Governing the Trading of Complex Qualified Contingent Cross Orders and Complex Customer Cross Orders | |
83 FR 45932 - Marine Transport Logistics, Inc. v. CMA-CGM (America), LLC; Notice of Filing of Complaint and Assignment | |
83 FR 46000 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; ICE Clear Credit LLC; Notice of Designation of Longer Period for Commission Action on Proposed Rule Change Relating to ICC's Risk Management Model Description Document and ICC's Risk Management Framework | |
83 FR 46020 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee | |
83 FR 46022 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee | |
83 FR 46021 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee | |
83 FR 46022 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee | |
83 FR 46019 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee | |
83 FR 46019 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8994 | |
83 FR 46019 - Open Meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee | |
83 FR 46022 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
83 FR 46020 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 5498-ESA | |
83 FR 46021 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
83 FR 46018 - Proposed Allowance of Information Collection Request Submitted for Public Comment; Transitional Guidance Under Sections 162(f) and 6050X With Respect to Certain Fines, Penalties, and Other Amounts | |
83 FR 46016 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 5495 | |
83 FR 46017 - Proposed Allowance of Information Collection Request Submitted for Public Comment; Information Reporting for Certain Life Insurance Contract Transactions | |
83 FR 45880 - National Defense Stockpile Market Impact Committee Request for Public Comments on the Potential Market Impact of the Proposed Fiscal Year 2020 Annual Materials Plan | |
83 FR 45950 - Changes in Flood Hazard Determinations | |
83 FR 45949 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 45948 - National Institute on Drug Abuse Amended; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 45948 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 45948 - National Eye Institute; Notice of Meeting | |
83 FR 45949 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
83 FR 45947 - Prospective Grant of an Exclusive Patent License: Photoactivatable Liposomal Nanoparticle for the Delivery of an Immunotherapeutic or Immunotherapeutic-Enabling Agent | |
83 FR 45827 - Air Plan Approval; North Carolina: New Source Review for Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5 | |
83 FR 45994 - Sacramento Municipal Utility District; Rancho Seco Nuclear Generating Station | |
83 FR 45993 - Meeting of the Advisory Committee on Reactor Safeguards Subcommittee on Plant License Renewal | |
83 FR 45830 - Air Plan Approval; ID, Pinehurst PM10 | |
83 FR 45827 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sacramento River, Sacramento, CA | |
83 FR 45836 - Air Plan Approval and Air Quality Designation; Florida: Redesignation of the Hillsborough County Lead Nonattainment Area to Attainment | |
83 FR 45866 - Atlantic Highly Migratory Species; 2019 Atlantic Shark Commercial Fishing Year | |
83 FR 45877 - Notice of Public Meeting of the New Hampshire Advisory Committee; Correction | |
83 FR 45897 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental To Specified Activities; Taking Marine Mammals Incidental to Bremerton and Edmonds Ferry Terminals Dolphin Relocation Project in Washington State | |
83 FR 45893 - Certain Circular Welded Non-Alloy Steel Pipe From Taiwan: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2017 | |
83 FR 45851 - Energy Conservation Program: Energy Conservation Standards for Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pump Motors, Notice of Request for Direct Final Rule | |
83 FR 45883 - 1,1,1,2-Tetrafluoroethane (R-134A) From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Rescission of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2016-2018 | |
83 FR 45811 - Airworthiness Directives; Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG Tay 620-15 Engines | |
83 FR 45819 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Lynchburg, VA | |
83 FR 45863 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace; Hardinsburg, KY | |
83 FR 45820 - Amendment of Class D and Class E Airspace; Louisville, KY | |
83 FR 45814 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Bloomsburg, PA | |
83 FR 45861 - Proposed Amendment of Class D Airspace and Establishment of Class E Airspace; Tyndall AFB, FL | |
83 FR 45818 - Amendment of Class E Airspace; Williamsport, PA | |
83 FR 45816 - Amendment of Class D Airspace; Olive Branch, MS | |
83 FR 45815 - Amendment of Class D Airspace; Appleton, WI | |
83 FR 45813 - Establishment of Class E Airspace; Chebeague Island, ME | |
83 FR 45981 - Applications and Amendments to Facility Operating Licenses and Combined Licenses Involving No Significant Hazards Considerations | |
83 FR 45824 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments | |
83 FR 45822 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures, and Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures; Miscellaneous Amendments |
Forest Service
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
National Nuclear Security Administration
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Indian Affairs Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Federal Contract Compliance Programs Office
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Comptroller of the Currency
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG (RRD) Tay 620-15 turbofan engines. This AD was prompted by reports of low-pressure compressor (LPC) fan blade retention lug failures. This AD requires reviewing the engine maintenance records and replacing the LPC fan blade with a part eligible for installation if the dry-film lubricant (DFL) treatment limit is exceeded. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective October 16, 2018.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of October 16, 2018.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG, Eschenweg 11, Dahlewitz, 15827 Blankenfelde-Mahlow, Germany; phone: +49 (0) 33-7086-1883; fax: +49 (0) 33-7086-3276. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Standards Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7759. It is also available on the internet at
You may examine the AD docket on the internet at
Barbara Caufield, Aerospace Engineer, ECO Branch, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7146; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain RRD Tay 620-15 turbofan engines. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued EASA AD 2018-0013, dated January 17, 2018 (referred to after this as “the MCAI”), to address the unsafe condition on these products. The MCAI states:
Fractures of low pressure compressor (LPC) fan blade retention lugs were reported on engines subjected to a high number of Dry Film Lubrication (DFL) treatments. Subsequent investigation determined that, as a consequence, the retention lugs of the affected LPC (fan) blades had been exposed to excessive high stress cycles.
This condition, if not detected or corrected, could lead to failure of LPC fan blade retention lug(s), high vibration, reduced thrust, or in-flight shut down, possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Rolls Royce Deutschland (RRD) issued Alert Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) TAY-72-A1834 (hereafter referred to as `the NMSB') to provide identification and replacement instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires determination of number of DFL treatments applied to the LPC fan blades and, based on that determination, replacement. This [EASA] AD also introduces a maximum allowable number of DFL treatments applicable to the LPC fan blades.
You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket on the internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this final rule. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this final rule as proposed except for minor editorial changes.
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for addressing the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed RRD ALERT NMSB TAY-72-A1834, dated November 17, 2017. The Alert NMSB describes procedures for reviewing the maintenance records and replacing the LPC fan blade with a serviceable part. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We reviewed RRD NMSB TAY-70-1050, Revision 9, dated July 14, 2010.
We estimate that this AD affects 25 engines installed on airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD is issued in accordance with authority delegated by the Executive Director, Aircraft Certification Service, as authorized by FAA Order 8000.51C. In accordance with that order, issuance of ADs is normally a function of the Compliance and Airworthiness Division, but during this transition period, the Executive Director has delegated the authority to issue ADs applicable to engines, propellers, and associated appliances to the Manager, Engine and Propeller Standards Branch, Policy and Innovation Division.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 16, 2018.
None.
This AD applies to Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG (RRD) Tay 620-15 turbofan engines with low-pressure compressor (LPC) fan blades, having part numbers (P/Ns) JR30649, JR31702, JR31983, JR33863, or JR33864, installed.
Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 7230, Turbine Engine Compressor Section.
This AD was prompted by reports of LPC fan blade retention lug failures. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the LPC fan blade retention lug. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in loss of engine thrust control and reduced control of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, determine the number of dry-film lubricant (DFL) treatments that were applied to the LPC fan blade by reviewing the maintenance records or using an alternative method in steps C or N, as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instruction, paragraph 3, of RRD ALERT Non-Modification Service Bulletin (NMSB) TAY-72-A1834, dated November 17, 2017.
(2) Depending on the results of the records review, do the following, as applicable:
(i) If the number of DFL treatments is fewer than 13, mark the LPC fan blade dovetail root with a suffix code during the next scheduled LPC fan blade removal using steps H or R, as applicable, of the Accomplishment Instruction, paragraph 3, of RRD ALERT NMSB TAY-72-A1834, dated November 17, 2017.
(ii) If the number of DFL treatments is 13 or more, replace the affected LPC fan blade with a part eligible for installation within 500 flight hours after effective date of this AD.
After the effective date of this AD, do not install an affected LPC fan blade on any engine unless it has been determined that the LPC fan blade has had fewer than 13 DFL treatments and has been marked in accordance with the instructions of RRD ALERT NMSB TAY-72-A1834, dated November 17, 2017.
(1) The Manager, ECO Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD,
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Barbara Caufield, Aerospace Engineer, ECO Branch, FAA, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7146; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2018-0013, dated January 17, 2018, for more information. You may examine the EASA AD in the AD docket on the internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG ALERT Non-Modification Service Bulletin TAY-72-A1834, dated November 17, 2017.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Rolls-Royce Deutschland Ltd & Co KG, Eschenweg 11, Dahlewitz, 15827 Blankenfelde-Mahlow, Germany; phone: +49 (0) 33-7086-1883; fax: +49 (0) 33-7086-3276.
(4) You may view this service information at FAA, Engine & Propeller Standards Branch, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7759.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Chebeague Island Heliport, Chebeague Island, ME, to accommodate new area navigation (RNAV) global positioning system (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures serving the heliport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this heliport.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it establishes Class E airspace at Chebeague Island Heliport, Chebeague Island, ME, to support IFR operations in standard instrument approach procedures at this heliport.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of Chebeague Island Heliport, Chebeague Island, ME, providing the controlled airspace
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6-mile radius of Chebeague Island Heliport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface at Bloomsburg Municipal Airport, Bloomsburg, PA, due to the decommissioning of the Milton VHF omni-directional range tactical air navigation aid (VORTAC). Airspace reconfiguration is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport. This action also updates the geographic coordinates of this airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class E airspace at Bloomsburg Municipal Airport, Bloomsburg, PA, to support IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005, of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This action amends Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by amending Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface within an 11.8-mile radius (increased from a 6.3-mile radius) of Bloomsburg Municipal Airport, Bloomsburg, PA, due to the decommissioning of the Milton VORTAC, and cancellation of the VOR approach. These changes enhance the safety and management of IFR operations at the airport.
The geographic coordinates of the airport also are adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within an 11.8-mile radius of Bloomsburg Municipal Airport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action modifies Class D airspace at Appleton International Airport (formerly Outagamie County Airport), Appleton, WI. This action is required due to the decommissioning of the GAMIE locator outer marker (LOM) and collocated outer marker (OM) which provided navigation guidance to the airport. This action enhances the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the airport. Also, the airport name and geographic coordinates are adjusted to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database. Additionally, this action replaces the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement” in the legal description, and removes the city associated with the airport name in the airspace designation.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Walter Tweedy, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5900.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
Class D airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 modifies Class D airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,400 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius (decreased from a 4.4-mile radius) of Appleton International Airport (formerly Outagamie County Airport), Appleton, WI. Airspace reconfiguration is necessary due to the decommissioning of the GAMIE LOM/OM.
This action also updates the airport name and geographic coordinates of the airport to coincide with the FAA's aeronautical database.
Additionally, this action makes an editorial change to the Class D airspace legal description replacing “Airport/Facility Directory” with the term “Chart Supplement”.
Finally, an editorial change would be made removing the name of the city associated with the airport name in the airspace designation to comply with a recent change to FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Actions, dated October 12, 2017.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,400 feet MSL within a 4.2-mile radius of Appleton International Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, technical amendment.
This action amends Class D airspace for Olive Branch Airport, Olive Branch, MS, by adding the Memphis Class B exclusionary language back into the legal description. The exclusionary language was inadvertently omitted from the final rule published July 30, 2018, amending Class D and Class E airspace at this airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, September 11, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class D airspace at Olive Branch Airport, Olive Branch, MS, to support IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA published a final rule in the
Subsequent to publication, the FAA discovered the Memphis Class B airspace exclusionary language was omitted from the Class D legal description of the airport. This rule adds the Class B exclusionary language back into the legal description.
Class D airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This action amends Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by adding to the Class D legal description for Olive Branch Airport, Olive Branch, MS, the following text that reads “excluding that airspace within the Memphis Class B airspace area.”
Accordingly, action is take herein to add this exclusion of Memphis Class B airspace to the legal description in the interest of flight safety. Therefore, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest.
To avoid confusion on the part of pilots flying in the vicinity of Olive Branch Airport, Olive Branch, MS, the FAA finds good cause, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d), for making this rule effective in less than 30 days in order to promote the safe and efficient handling of air traffic in the area.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,900 feet within a 4.1-mile radius of Olive Branch Airport, excluding that airspace within the Memphis Class B airspace area. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific days and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective days and times will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action amends Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface at Williamsport Regional Airport, Williamsport, PA. Airspace reconfiguration is necessary due to the decommissioning of Picture Rocks non-directional radio beacon (NDB), and cancellation of the NDB approaches. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport. This action also recognizes the name change to Williamsport Hospital Medical Center Heliport (formerly Williamsport Hospital). The title of this rule is changed to only show that we are amending Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface with this rule. The Class D and remaining Class E airspace areas have been amended in a separate rulemaking.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class E airspace at Williamsport Regional Airport, Williamsport, PA, and Williamsport Hospital Medical Center Heliport, to support standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations in the area.
The FAA published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) in the
Subsequent to publication, the FAA found that the name of Williamsport Hospital has changed to Williamsport Hospital Medical Center Heliport, and is corrected in this rule.
Also, we are not retaining the proposal as stated, and only going forward with amending Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Williamsport Regional Airport. The previous amendments proposed in the NPRM have been executed in a final rule published August 3, 2018 (83 FR 38016).
Interested parties were invited to participate in this rulemaking effort by submitting written comments on the proposal to the FAA. No comments were received.
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) amends part 71 by amending Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface at Williamsport Regional Airport to within a 12.6-mile radius of the airport due to the decommissioning of the Picture Rocks NDB, and cancellation of the NDB approach. The Williamsport Regional Airport ILS localizer is removed as it is no longer needed to define the boundary. Also, the name of Williamsport Hospital is changed to Williamsport Hospital Medical Center Heliport.
We have removed the amendments that were made for Williamsport Regional Airport noted in Class D airspace, Class E surface airspace, and Class E airspace designated as an extension to a Class D surface area, as they were addressed in a separate rulemaking (FR 83 38016).
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 12.6-mile radius of Williamsport Regional Airport, and that airspace within a 6-mile radius of the point in space (lat. 41°14′51″ N, long. 77°00′55″ W) serving Williamsport Hospital Medical Center Heliport.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; technical amendment.
This action amends the legal description of the Class E airspace at Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field Airport, Lynchburg, VA. The NOTAM part-time status is removed from the Class E airspace area designated as an extension to a Class D surface area. This action does not affect the boundaries or operating requirements of the airspace.
Effective 0901 UTC, November 8, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11.B Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the U.S. Code. Subtitle 1, Section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it makes a clerical correction removing the NOTAM part-time status from the Class E airspace area designated as an extension at Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field, Lynchburg, VA.
The FAA Aeronautical Information Services branch found the Class E airspace area designated as an extension to a Class D surface area at Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field Airport, Lynchburg, VA, was incorrectly identified as part time. This action also changes the airport name to Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6004 of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This action amends Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by removing the NOTAM part-time status from the Class E airspace area designated as an extension to a Class D airspace at Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field Airport, Lynchburg, VA. The airport name also is changed from Lynchburg Regional-Preston Glenn Field to Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field.
This is an administrative change and does not affect the boundaries, or
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within 2.7 miles each side of the Lynchburg VORTAC 020° and 200° radials extending from the 4.5-mile radius of Lynchburg Regional Airport-Preston Glenn Field to 1 mile south of the VORTAC and within 1.8 miles each side of the Lynchburg VORTAC 022° radial extending from the 4.5-mile radius of the airport to 11.3 miles northeast of the VORTAC.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule, technical amendment.
This action amends Class D airspace and Class E surface airspace for Bowman Field Airport, Louisville, KY, by adding the Louisville International Airport Class C exclusionary language into the legal description. The exclusionary language was inadvertently omitted from the final rule published November 1, 2017. This action also makes a minor editorial change to the Louisville, KY, airspace designation and airport name.
Effective 0901 UTC, September 11, 2018. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it amends Class D and Class E airspace at Bowman Field Airport, Louisville, KY, to support IFR operations at the airport.
The FAA published a final rule in the
Subsequent to publication, the FAA discovered the Louisville Standiford Field Class C airspace exclusionary language was omitted from the Class D legal description of the airport. This rule adds the Class C exclusionary language into the legal descriptions, noting the airport name change to Louisville International Airport.
An editorial change is made that removes the airport name from the
Class D airspace and Class E surface airspace designations are published in paragraph 5000, and 6002 of FAA Order 7400.11B dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR part 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
This action amends Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by adding to the Class D and Class E surface area legal descriptions for Bowman Field Airport, Louisville, KY, the following text that reads “excluding that portion within the Louisville International Airport Class C airspace area, and excluding that portion south of the 081° bearing from Louisville International Airport, and also excluding that portion north of the Louisville International Airport Class C airspace area and west of a line drawn from lat. 38°11′28″ N long. 85°42′01″ W direct thru the point where the 030° bearing from Louisville International Airport intersects the 5-mile radius from Louisville International Airport to the point of intersection with the 3.9-mile radius from Bowman Field Airport.” This action makes an editorial change to the Louisville, KY, airspace designation by removing the airport name of Bowman Field. This action also removes the city name (Louisville) from the airport name of Bowman Field Airport, to comply with FAA Order 7400.2L, Procedures for Handling Airspace Matters.
Accordingly, action is take herein to add this exclusion of Louisville International Airport Class C airspace to the legal description for Bowman Field Airport, Louisville, KY, in the interest of flight safety. Therefore, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest.
To avoid confusion on the part of pilots flying in the area of Bowman Field Airport, Louisville, KY, the FAA finds good cause, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d), for making this rule effective in less than 30 days in order to promote the safe and efficient handling of air traffic in the area.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. Therefore, this regulation: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and no extraordinary circumstances exist that warrant preparation of an environmental assessment.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to but not including 2,200 feet MSL within a 3.9-mile radius of Bowman Field Airport, excluding that portion within the Louisville International Airport Class C airspace area, and excluding that portion south of the 081° bearing from Louisville International Airport, and also excluding that portion north of the Louisville International Airport Class C airspace area and west of a line drawn from lat. 38°11′28″ N, long. 85°42′01″ W. direct thru the point where the 030° bearing from Louisville International Airport intersects the 5-mile radius from Louisville International Airport to the point of intersection with the 3.9-mile radius from Bowman Field Airport. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Within a 3.9-mile radius of Bowman Field Airport, excluding that portion within the Louisville International Airport Field Class C airspace area, and excluding that portion south of the 081° bearing from Louisville International Airport, and also excluding that portion north of the Louisville International Airport Class C airspace area and west of a line drawn from lat. 38°11′28″ N, long. 85°42′01″ W direct thru the point where the 030° bearing from Louisville International Airport intersects the 5-mile radius from Louisville International Airport to the point of intersection with the 3.9-mile radius from Bowman Field Airport. This Class E airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective September 11, 2018. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169, or
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK, 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;(2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3)does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air traffic control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This rule establishes, amends, suspends, or removes Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) and associated Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) for operations at certain airports. These regulatory actions are needed because of the adoption of new or revised criteria, or because of changes occurring in the National Airspace System, such as the commissioning of new navigational facilities, adding new obstacles, or changing air traffic requirements. These changes are designed to provide safe and efficient use of the navigable airspace and to promote safe flight operations under instrument flight rules at the affected airports.
This rule is effective September 11, 2018. The compliance date for each SIAP, associated Takeoff Minimums, and ODP is specified in the amendatory provisions.
The incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the regulations is approved by the Director of the
Availability of matters incorporated by reference in the amendment is as follows:
1. U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Ops-M30, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg., Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
2. The FAA Air Traffic Organization Service Area in which the affected airport is located;
3. The office of Aeronautical Navigation Products, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169, or
4. The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
All SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs are available online free of charge. Visit the National Flight Data Center at
Thomas J. Nichols, Flight Procedure Standards Branch (AFS-420), Flight Technologies and Programs Divisions, Flight Standards Service, Federal Aviation Administration, Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center, 6500 South MacArthur Blvd., Oklahoma City, OK 73169 (Mail Address: P.O. Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125) Telephone: (405) 954-4164.
This rule amends Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97), by establishing, amending, suspending, or removes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS. The complete regulatory description of each SIAP and its associated Takeoff Minimums or ODP for an identified airport is listed on FAA form documents which are incorporated by reference in this amendment under 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 1 CFR part 51, and 14 CFR part 97.20. The applicable FAA forms are FAA Forms 8260-3, 8260-4, 8260-5, 8260-15A, and 8260-15B when required by an entry on 8260-15A.
The large number of SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, their complex nature, and the need for a special format make publication in the
The material incorporated by reference is publicly available as listed in the
The material incorporated by reference describes SIAPS, Takeoff Minimums and/or ODPS as identified in the amendatory language for part 97 of this final rule.
This amendment to 14 CFR part 97 is effective upon publication of each separate SIAP, Takeoff Minimums and ODP as Amended in the transmittal. Some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and textual ODP amendments may have been issued previously by the FAA in a Flight Data Center (FDC) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) as an emergency action of immediate flight safety relating directly to published aeronautical charts.
The circumstances that created the need for some SIAP and Takeoff Minimums and ODP amendments may require making them effective in less than 30 days. For the remaining SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, an effective date at least 30 days after publication is provided.
Further, the SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs contained in this amendment are based on the criteria contained in the U.S. Standard for Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS). In developing these SIAPs and Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, the TERPS criteria were applied to the conditions existing or anticipated at the affected airports. Because of the close and immediate relationship between these SIAPs, Takeoff Minimums and ODPs, and safety in air commerce, I find that notice and public procedure under 5 U.S.C. 553(b) are impracticable and contrary to the public interest and, where applicable, under 5 U.S.C. 553(d), good cause exists for making some SIAPs effective in less than 30 days.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore—(1) is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26,1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. For the same reason, the FAA certifies that this amendment will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air Traffic Control, Airports, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (Air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations, Part 97 (14 CFR part 97) is amended by establishing, amending, suspending, or removing Standard Instrument Approach Procedures and/or Takeoff Minimums and Obstacle Departure Procedures effective at 0901 UTC on the dates specified, as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40106, 40113, 40114, 40120, 44502, 44514, 44701, 44719, 44721-44722.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correcting amendment.
This document contains corrections to final regulations (TD 9836) that were published in the
This correction is effective September 11, 2018 and applicable July 30, 2018.
Charles Gorham at (202) 317-5091 (not a toll-free number).
The final regulations (TD 9836) that are the subject of this correction are under section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published July 30, 2018 (83 FR 36417), the final regulations (TD 9836) contain an error that needs to be corrected.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(a) * * * For rules relating to record keeping and return requirements in support of deductions for charitable contributions (whether by an itemizing or nonitemizing taxpayer), see §§ 1.170A-13 (generally applicable to contributions on or before July 30, 2018), 1.170A-14, 1.170A-15, 1.170A-16, 1.170A-17, and 1.170A-18. * * *
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Tower Drawbridge across the Sacramento River, mile 59.0, at Sacramento, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow the community to participate in the Sacramento Century Challenge bicycle race. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective from 7 a.m. through 10 a.m. on October 6, 2018.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2018-0850, is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Carl T. Hausner, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516, email
The California Department of Transportation has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Tower Drawbridge, mile 59.0, over Sacramento River, at Sacramento, CA. The drawbridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 30 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.189(a). Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 7 a.m. to 10 a.m. on October 6, 2018, to allow the community to participate in the Sacramento Century Challenge bicycle race. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised. Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving changes to the North Carolina State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (NC DEQ) through the Division of Air Quality, to EPA through a letter dated October 17, 2017. This SIP submittal modifies North Carolina's Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) regulations and includes the adoption of specific federal provisions needed to meet the New Source Review (NSR) permitting program requirements for the fine particulate matter (PM
This rule is effective October 11, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2015-0501. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Joel Huey of the Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Huey can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9104 or via electronic mail at
In an action published on June 21, 2018 (83 FR 28789), EPA proposed to approve changes to the North Carolina SIP, submitted by the NC DEQ to EPA through a letter dated October 17, 2017.
EPA is approving two actions with regard to North Carolina's SIP submittal updating the State's PSD regulations found at 15A North Carolina Administrative Code (NCAC) 02D .0530. First, EPA is approving North Carolina's October 17, 2017, SIP submittal with regard to changes to the State's regulation at 15A NCAC 02D .0530 because EPA has determined that the State's changes fully meet the requirements of EPA's rulemaking, “Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) for Particulate Matter Less Than 2.5 Micrometers (PM
North Carolina's October 17, 2017, SIP submittal adopts changes in the State's PSD permitting program at 15A NCAC 02D .0530 by incorporating by reference EPA's PSD regulations as of July 1, 2014. This incorporation by reference includes the federally-required provisions of EPA's 2010 PSD PM
Because North Carolina's October 17, 2017, SIP submittal addresses certain NSR/PSD requirements, it thereby meets the related infrastructure SIP requirements of section 110(a)(2)(C), 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) and 110(a)(2)(J). As finalized, North Carolina's SIP includes a complete PSD program that addresses all structural PSD requirements due under the CAA and EPA regulations. Therefore, because EPA is approving North Carolina's SIP revisions for the PSD program, it is also approving the October 17, 2017, submittal for the PSD infrastructure SIP requirements of sections 110(a)(2)(C), 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), and 110(a)(2)(J) for the 2008 lead NAAQS, 2008 ozone NAAQS, 2010 SO
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of North Carolina's regulations 15A NCAC 02D .0530, entitled “Prevention of Significant Deterioration,” which modify the NSR permitting regulations, effective September 1, 2017. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
EPA is approving changes to the North Carolina SIP, provided by the NC DEQ, to EPA through a letter dated October 17, 2017. Specifically, EPA is approving changes to North Carolina's NSR permitting regulations codified at 15A 02D .0530
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations.
• Are not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Are not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Are not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Are not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Are not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Do not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 13, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The EPA is approving the redesignation request and limited maintenance plan for the PM
This action is effective on
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2017-0582. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Justin Spenillo at (206) 553-6125, or
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On May 11, 2018, the EPA proposed to approve the redesignation request and limited maintenance plan (LMP) submitted by the Idaho Department of Environmental Quality (IDEQ) on September 29, 2017, for the City of Pinehurst PM
Related to this action, the EPA is taking final agency action on the EPA's concurrence with the IDEQ's request for
Separately, the EPA also proposed approval of the base year emissions inventory for the West Silver Valley (WSV) PM
An explanation of the CAA requirements, a detailed analysis of the submittal, and the EPA's reasons for proposing approval were provided in the notice of proposed rulemaking (83 FR 21976), and will not be restated here. The public comment period for this proposed rule ended on June 11, 2018. The EPA received adverse comments on the proposal.
The Idaho Conservation League (ICL) submitted adverse comments on our proposed approval of the Pinehurst PM
Reviewing the specific plan measures, the IDEQ has implemented woodstove replacements and home weatherization since the early 1990s in the Pinehurst PM
Additionally, the EPA recently awarded IDEQ a 2015 Targeted Airshed
While not specifically taken credit for in the original attainment plan nor the LMP, road dust control has played an important part in the area. It is the second largest source of pollution according to the emissions inventory, and the area has taken measures to reduce emissions through paving roads, maintenance of roads, and adjusting street sweeping to reduce particulate matter. With respect to permanence of road controls, once paved their associated emissions will be reduced and road maintenance will ensure lasting emissions reductions. We received clarification from the IDEQ that since 2016, the majority of roads (over 10 miles in a city roughly 1 square mile) in the Pinehurst area have been rebuilt or sealed.
We have reviewed monitoring data for the area with respect to the permanence of the emissions reductions. In Table 2 of the IDEQ submittal, monitoring data is provided from 1986 through 2015. From 1986 through 1993, the Pinehurst PM
Since the proposal, the IDEQ has submitted and the EPA has reviewed and concurred on the IDEQ's demonstration that elevated PM
Based on the IDEQ PM
To qualify for the LMP option, the area must meet the design value test with respect to the standard for which the area was designated nonattainment.
When reviewing the submitted Pinehurst PM
As described in section 3.4 Control Measures and section 3.2.2 Emissions Inventory Results and Adequacy Determination, the Pinehurst PM
As mentioned in the proposal, the Pinehurst area has met the PM
While we do not believe that any changes to motor vehicle emissions are relevant to the area's ability to attain, we did a basic evaluation to determine if the area would continue to meet the LMP motor vehicle regional analysis. The only portion of the calculation that would change would be the on-road mobile source. Currently, that value is calculated using the formula in the LMP Option Memo: DV mobile * VMT paved, where the DV mobile provides a 3.6509 μg/m
The ICL's request that the EPA identify and revise all of its models, analyses, and emissions factors that may be impacted by current or proposed changes to vehicle emissions standards is outside of the scope of this action.
With regard to the ICL's request for explanation of the emissions factors used, we reviewed the emissions factors (EFs) for residential wood combustion that IDEQ used and found them consistent with the EPA EFs and methodology used in the 2014 National Emissions Inventory. The IDEQ used EFs derived from EPA's Residential Wood Combustion Emissions Estimation Tool version 3.1 (October 2016) that are more up to date than the EFs in AP-42, which were last updated in 1996 for this source category. We have included in the docket the documentation for v3.1 and 3.2 of the Residential Wood Combustion Emissions Estimation Tool, which has the emissions factors used and the references for those EFs. Both versions of the tool use the same EFs.
In response to the comment, we have confirmed with the IDEQ that the changeouts were with phase II or better EPA certified stoves. We have also confirmed that the IDEQ emissions inventory assumptions and calculations are correct and that the appropriate EFs were used.
CAA section 175A(d) and EPA's interpretation of that provision as set out in the Calcagni Memo and the LMP Option Memo provide the standards by which the EPA must evaluate contingency plans. Section 175A(d) states that “[e]ach plan revision submitted under this section shall contain such contingency provisions as the Administrator deems necessary to assure that the State will promptly correct any violation of the standard which occurs after the redesignation of the area as an attainment area. Such provisions shall include a requirement that the State will implement all measures with respect to the control of the air pollutant concerned which were contained in the State implementation plan for the area before redesignation of the area as an attainment area.” The Calcagni Memo and the LMP Option memo further elaborate that “Section 175A of the Act states that a maintenance plan must include contingency provisions, as necessary, to promptly correct any violation of the NAAQS which may occur after redesignation of the area to attainment. These contingency measures do not have to be fully adopted at the time of redesignation. However, the contingency plan is considered to be an enforceable part of the SIP and the State should ensure that the contingency measures are adopted as soon as possible once they are triggered by a specific event. The contingency plan should identify the measures to be adopted, and provide a schedule and procedure for adoption and implementation of the measures if they are required. Normally, the implementation of contingency measures is triggered by a violation of the NAAQS but the State may wish to establish other triggers to prevent a violation of the NAAQS, such as an exceedance of the NAAQS.”
The EPA has determined that the IDEQ's contingency plan meets the requirements of Section 175A(d) and the EPA's guidance memos. Section 3.5 of the IDEQ's submittal confirms that all measures relied upon for attainment, including woodstove changeouts, voluntary curtailment program, home weatherization, and public awareness campaign continue to be in place and will be strengthened if the PM
The EPA is approving the Pinehurst PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• is not an Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory action because SIP approvals are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 13, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, National parks, Wilderness areas.
42 U.S.C. 7401
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 40 CFR parts 52 and 81 are amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
On March 26, 2018, the State of Florida, through the Florida Department of Environmental Protection, submitted a request for the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to redesignate the Hillsborough County lead Nonattainment Area (“Hillsborough Area” or “Area”) to attainment for the 2008 lead National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and to approve an accompanying State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision containing a maintenance plan for the Area. The Hillsborough Area is comprised of a 1.5 kilometer (km) radius in Tampa, Florida, surrounding the Envirofocus Technologies, LLC facility (Envirofocus). EPA is taking final action to determine that the Hillsborough Area is attaining the 2008 lead NAAQS; to approve the SIP revision containing the State's maintenance plan for maintaining attainment of the 2008 lead standard and to incorporate the maintenance plan into the SIP; and to redesignate the Hillsborough Area to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS.
This rule is effective October 11, 2018.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2018-0182. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Andres Febres, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Febres can be reached by phone at (404) 562-8966 or via electronic mail at
On November 12, 2008 (73 FR 66964), EPA promulgated a revised primary and secondary lead NAAQS of 0.15 micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m
EPA designated the Hillsborough Area as a nonattainment area for the 2008 lead NAAQS on November 22, 2010 (75 FR 71033), effective December 31, 2010, using 2007-2009 ambient air quality data. On March 26, 2018, Florida submitted a request for EPA to redesignate the Hillsborough Area to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS and submitted an associated SIP revision containing a maintenance plan for the Area. In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), published June 19, 2018 (83 FR 28402), EPA proposed to determine that the Hillsborough Area is attaining the 2008 lead NAAQS, based on complete, quality-assured, and certified ambient monitoring data for the 2014-2016 time period and continues to attain based on complete, quality-assured, and certified ambient monitoring data for the 2015-2017 time period; proposed to approve the SIP revision containing the State's maintenance plan for maintaining attainment of the 2008 lead standard; and proposed to redesignate the Hillsborough Area to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS.
Approval of Florida's redesignation request changes the legal designation of the portion of Hillsborough County, Florida, that is designated as nonattainment, found at 40 CFR 81.310, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS. Approval of Florida's associated SIP revision also incorporates a plan into the SIP for maintaining the 2008 lead NAAQS in the Hillsborough Area through 2029.
EPA is taking three separate but related final actions regarding Florida's March 26, 2018, redesignation request and associated SIP revision for the Hillsborough Area.
First, EPA is determining that the Area attained the 2008 lead NAAQS based on complete, quality-assured, and certified ambient monitoring data for the 2014-2016 period and that the Area continues to attain the standard based on complete, quality-assured, and certified ambient monitoring data for the 2015-2017 period.
Second, EPA is approving the maintenance plan for the Area and incorporating it into the Florida SIP. As described in the NPRM, the maintenance plan demonstrates that the Area will continue to maintain the 2008 lead NAAQS through 2029.
Third, EPA is approving Florida's request for redesignation of the Area from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS. This final rule approves the redesignation request for the Hillsborough Area and changes the official designation of the portion of Hillsborough County, Florida, bounded by a 1.5 km radius centered at UTM coordinates 364104 meters East, 3093830 meters North, Zone 17, which surrounds Envirofocus, as found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 lead NAAQS.
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Are not Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 2, 2017) regulatory actions because SIP approvals and redesignations are exempted under Executive Order 12866;
• Do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Are not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Will not have disproportionate human health or environmental effects under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 13, 2018. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
40 CFR parts 52 and 81 are amended as follows:
42. U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance for residues of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate; when used as an inert ingredient in a pesticide chemical formulation. Spring Trading Company on behalf of BASF Corporation submitted a petition to EPA under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), requesting an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance. This regulation eliminates the need to establish a maximum permissible level for residues of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate on food or feed commodities.
This regulation is effective September 11, 2018. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before November 13, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2018-0263, is available at
Michael Goodis, Director, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2018-0263 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before November 13, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Section 408(c)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish an exemption from the requirement for a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the exemption is “safe.” Section 408(c)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and use in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue . . .” and specifies factors EPA is to consider in establishing an exemption.
EPA establishes exemptions from the requirement of a tolerance only in those cases where it can be shown that the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide chemical residues under reasonably foreseeable circumstances will pose no appreciable risks to human health. In order to determine the risks from aggregate exposure to pesticide inert ingredients, the Agency considers the toxicity of the inert in conjunction with possible exposure to residues of the inert ingredient through food, drinking water, and through other exposures that occur as a result of pesticide use in residential settings. If EPA is able to determine that a finite tolerance is not necessary to ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the inert ingredient, an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance may be established.
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action and considered its validity, completeness and reliability and the relationship of this information to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. In the case of certain chemical substances that are defined as polymers, the Agency has established a set of criteria to identify categories of polymers expected to present minimal or no risk. The definition of a polymer is given in 40 CFR 723.250(b) and the exclusion criteria for identifying these low-risk polymers are described in 40 CFR 723.250(d). 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate conforms to the definition of a polymer given in 40 CFR 723.250(b) and meets the following criteria that are used to identify low-risk polymers.
1. The polymer is not a cationic polymer nor is it reasonably anticipated to become a cationic polymer in a natural aquatic environment.
2. The polymer does contain as an integral part of its composition at least two of the atomic elements carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, silicon, and sulfur.
3. The polymer does not contain as an integral part of its composition, except as impurities, any element other than those listed in 40 CFR 723.250(d)(2)(ii).
4. The polymer is neither designed nor can it be reasonably anticipated to substantially degrade, decompose, or depolymerize.
5. The polymer is manufactured or imported from monomers and/or reactants that are already included on the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory or manufactured under an applicable TSCA section 5 exemption.
6. The polymer is not a water absorbing polymer with a number average molecular weight (MW) greater than or equal to 10,000 daltons.
7. The polymer does not contain certain perfluoroalkyl moieties consisting of a CF
Additionally, the polymer also meets as required the following exemption criteria specified in 40 CFR 723.250(e).
8. The polymer's number average MW of 3,600 is greater than 1,000 and less than 10,000 daltons. The polymer contains less than 10% oligomeric material below MW 500 and less than 25% oligomeric material below MW 1,000, and the polymer does not contain any reactive functional groups.
Thus, 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate meets the criteria for a polymer to be considered low risk under 40 CFR 723.250. Based on its conformance to the criteria in this unit, no mammalian toxicity is anticipated from dietary, inhalation, or dermal exposure to 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate.
For the purposes of assessing potential exposure under this exemption, EPA considered that 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate could be present in all raw and processed agricultural commodities and drinking water, and that non-occupational non-dietary exposure was possible. The number average MW of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester,
Section 408(b)(2)(D)(v) of FFDCA requires that, when considering whether to establish, modify, or revoke a tolerance, the Agency consider “available information” concerning the cumulative effects of a particular pesticide's residues and “other substances that have a common mechanism of toxicity.”
EPA has not found 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's website at
Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA provides that EPA shall apply an additional tenfold margin of safety for infants and children in the case of threshold effects to account for prenatal and postnatal toxicity and the completeness of the data base unless EPA concludes that a different margin of safety will be safe for infants and children. Due to the expected low toxicity of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate, EPA has not used a safety factor analysis to assess the risk. For the same reasons the additional tenfold safety factor is unnecessary.
Based on the conformance to the criteria used to identify a low-risk polymer, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty of no harm to the U.S. population, including infants and children, from aggregate exposure to residues of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate.
An analytical method is not required for enforcement purposes since the Agency is establishing an exemption from the requirement of a tolerance without any numerical limitation.
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate.
Accordingly, EPA finds that exempting residues of 2-propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-oxiranylmethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene and 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate from the requirement of a tolerance will be safe.
This action establishes a tolerance under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of the inert ingredient cloquintocet-mexyl (CAS Reg. No. 99607-70-2) in or on teff commodities when used in formulations with the active ingredients florasulam and fluroxypyr 1-methylhelptyl ester. The Interregional Research Project Number 4 requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective September 11, 2018. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before November 13, 2018 and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0591, is available at
Michael L. Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0591 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before November 13, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0591, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon the fact that tolerances for cloquintocet-mexyl when used with the active ingredient pyroxsulam have previously been established under 40 CFR 180.560, the Agency's evaluation of the subject tolerance petition is limited to the use of cloquintocet-mexyl with the active ingredients florasulam and fluroxypyr 1-methylhelptyl ester on teff only.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for cloquintocet-mexyl (acetic acid, [(5-chloro-8-quinolinyl)oxy]-, 1-methylhexyl ester) and its acid metabolite (5-chloro-8-quinolinoxyacetic acid) in or on teff forage, grain, hay and straw, consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2).
In the
The Agency evaluated the request to establish tolerances in or on teff forage, grain, hay, and straw. Teff is prepared like other whole grains, such as rice and barley, and may also be used to make flour in a manner similar to wheat and other cereal grains. In considering likely residue levels on teff, EPA concludes that because of the similarity in application rates for pesticides containing cloquintocet-mexyl between teff and wheat, the likely decline in residue levels as teff moves through commerce, and the similarities to other small grains in terms of morphology, taxonomy and cultural practices, residue levels of cloquintocet-mexyl on teff will be similar to residue levels on wheat. The lack of teff consumption data being reported in the available food consumption data indicates a very low overall consumption of teff in the United States. When teff is consumed in the U.S., it is typically consumed in place of wheat. Using these assumptions regarding likely residue levels and consumption, EPA concludes that aggregate exposure and risk estimates resulting from cloquintocet-mexyl residues in/on teff would not be substantially different than those presented in the most recent human health risk assessment and published in the August 2, 2016 final rule. As those risk estimates were not of concern to the Agency, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children from aggregate exposure to cloquintocet-mexyl residues. For a detailed discussion of the aggregate risk assessments and determination of safety for these tolerances, please refer to the August 2, 2016,
For specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by cloquintocet-mexyl as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies, the reader is referred to the final rule published in the
Adequate enforcement methodology, chromatography with ultraviolet detection (HPLC-UV for cloquintocet-mexyl and its acid metabolite, are available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for cloquintocet-mexyl (acetic acid, [(5-chloro-8-quiniolinyl)oxy]-, 1-methylhexyl ester) and its acid metabolite (5-chloro-8-quinlinoxyacetic acid) on teff.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of cloquintocet-mexyl (acetic acid, [(5-chloro-8-quiniolinyl)oxy]-, 1-methylhexyl ester) and its acid metabolite (5-chloro-8-quinlinoxyacetic acid), for use as an inert ingredient (safener) when used in formulations with the active ingredients florasulam and fluroxypyr 1-methylhelptyl ester in or on teff, forage at 0.2 ppm; teff, grain at 0.1 ppm; teff, hay at 0.5 ppm; and teff, straw at 0.1 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), nor is it a regulatory action under Executive Order 13771, entitled “Reducing Regulations and Controlling Regulatory Costs” ((82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes a tolerance for residues of spiromesifen in or on coffee. Bayer CropScience requested this tolerance under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective September 11, 2018. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before November 13, 2018, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0505, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them.
Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0505 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before November 13, 2018. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0505, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA has modified the commodities for which tolerances are being established. The reason for these changes is explained in Unit IV.D.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for spiromesifen including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with spiromesifen follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
Following oral administration of spiromesifen, the target organs included the thyroid gland for rats and dogs (increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), increased thyroxine binding capacity, decreased triiodothyronine (T
There were no adverse effects in rats following dermal exposure up to the limit dose (1,000 milligrams/kilograms/day (mg/kg/day)). Decreased spleen weights were also observed for rats in a 5-day inhalation toxicity study, along with gross pathological findings in the lung (dark red areas or foci) and clinical signs (
While the clinical signs observed in rats following oral and inhalation exposures could indicate neurotoxicity, there was no evidence of neurotoxicity in the rest of the toxicological database, including the acute neurotoxicity study up to the limit dose (2,000 milligrams/kilograms (mg/kg)) and the subchronic neurotoxicity study; however, the doses tested in the subchronic neurotoxicity study were lower than the doses causing clinical signs in the 90-day dietary study in rats. There was no evidence of immunotoxicity in an antibody plaque-cell forming assay.
There was no evidence of increased pre- or post-natal susceptibility. In the developmental toxicity studies in rats and rabbits, maternal effects were observed in the absence of fetal effects. In the rat two-generation reproductive toxicity study, the reported parental effects, consisting of decreased spleen weights (relative and absolute) and a decreasing number of ovarian follicles, occurred at a dose level that also caused pup body weight decrements during lactation.
Spiromesifen is classified as “Not likely to be Carcinogenic to Humans” based on the absence of treatment-related tumors in two adequate rodent carcinogenicity studies. There was no concern for mutagenicity or genotoxicity.
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by spiromesifen as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the LOAEL are identified. Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for spiromesifen used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1 of this unit.
1.
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Provisional Cranberry model and Pesticide Water Calculator—Groundwater (PWC-GW) model, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of spiromesifen for chronic exposures are estimated to be 188 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 116 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For the chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 188 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
3.
Spiromesifen is currently registered for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: Ornamentals. EPA assessed residential exposure using the following assumptions: Short-term inhalation exposure to residential handlers is expected. A dermal assessment (handler and post-
4.
EPA has not found spiromesifen to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and spiromesifen does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that spiromesifen does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's website at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicity database for spiromesifen is complete.
ii. There is no indication that spiromesifen is a neurotoxic chemical and there is no need for a developmental neurotoxicity study or additional uncertainty factors (UFs) to account for neurotoxicity.
iii. There is no evidence that spiromesifen results in increased susceptibility in
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to spiromesifen in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess post-application exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by spiromesifen.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
Because the level of concern (LOC) for inhalation (LOC for MOEs <30) and oral (LOC for MOEs <100) exposure differ, the aggregate assessment was calculated using the aggregate risk index (ARI) approach. The ARI was devised as a way to aggregate MOEs that have dissimilar uncertainty factors. The ARI is an extension of the MOE concept and as with the MOE, risk increases as the ARI decreases. An ARI that is greater than or equal to 1 is not of concern.
Using the exposure assumptions described in this unit for short-term exposures, EPA has concluded the combined short-term food, water, and residential exposures result in an aggregate ARI of 1.87. Because EPA's level of concern for spiromesifen is an ARI of 1 or below, this ARI is not of concern.
4.
An intermediate-term adverse effect was identified; however, spiromesifen is not registered for any use patterns that would result in intermediate-term residential exposure. Intermediate-term risk is assessed based on intermediate-term residential exposure plus chronic dietary exposure. Because there is no
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6.
Adequate enforcement methodology (liquid chromatography/mass spectrometry/mass spectrometry (LC/MS/MS)) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
Codex has a MRL for residues of only spiromesifen in/on coffee beans of 0.05 ppm. Since the residue expression for the U.S. and Codex tolerances differ and since the maximum combined residues of spiromesifen and BSN 2060-enol in/on coffee green bean from the field trials was greater than 0.1 ppm, harmonization with the Codex expression/value is not possible. Note that BSN 2060-enol is included in the tolerance expression due to the demonstrated degradation of parent to BSN 2060-enol during storage.
Three comments were submitted to the docket for this action. Two comments, one about “China's ongoing economic war against the United States” and another about air and water pollution in China relative to that of the United States, are not relevant to this action. The third comment stated in part that “the people drinking coffee should not have this toxic chemical as part of its drink.”
The Agency recognizes that some individuals believe that pesticides should be banned on agricultural crops; however, the existing legal framework provided by section 408 of the FFDCA states that tolerances may be set when persons seeking such tolerances or exemptions have demonstrated that the pesticide meets the safety standard imposed by that statute. This citizen's comment appears to be directed at the underlying statute and not EPA's implementation of it; the citizen has made no contention that EPA has acted in violation of the statutory framework nor have they provided any specific information or allegation that would support a finding that these tolerances are unsafe.
The green coffee bean tolerance being established is identical to that proposed by the petitioner. EPA has determined that separate tolerances for the processed commodities of roasted coffee bean and instant coffee are unnecessary because the processing data indicates that combined residues of spiromesifen and BSN 2060-enol do not concentrate in roasted or instant coffee.
Therefore, a tolerance is established for residues of spiromesifen, including its metabolites and degradates, in or on coffee, green bean at 0.20 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), nor is it considered a regulatory action under Executive Order 13771, entitled “Reducing Regulations and Controlling Regulatory Costs” (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; fishery closure.
NMFS announces that the U.S. purse seine fishery on the high seas in the area of application of the Convention on the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean (Convention) between the latitudes of 20° N and 20° S will close as a result of reaching the 2018 limit on purse seine fishing effort in that area. This action is necessary for the United States to implement provisions of a conservation and management measure adopted by the Commission for the Conservation and Management of Highly Migratory Fish Stocks in the Western and Central Pacific Ocean (WCPFC or Commission) and to satisfy the obligations of the United States under the Convention, to which it is a Contracting Party.
Effective 00:00 on September 18, 2018 coordinated universal time (UTC), until 24:00 on December 31, 2018 UTC.
Rini Ghosh, NMFS Pacific Islands Regional Office, 808-725-5033.
U.S. purse seine fishing in the area of application of the Convention, or Convention Area, is managed, in part, under the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Convention Implementation Act (16 U.S.C. 6901
Pursuant to WCPFC Conservation and Management Measure 2017-01, NMFS issued regulations that established a limit of 1,370 fishing days that may be used by U.S. purse seine fishing vessels on the high seas between the latitudes of 20° N and 20° S in the Convention Area in calendar year 2018 (see final rule at 83 FR 33851, published July 18, 2018, codified at 50 CFR 300.223). A fishing day means any day in which a fishing vessel of the United States equipped with purse seine gear searches for fish, deploys a fish aggregating device (FAD), services a FAD, or sets a purse seine, with the exception of setting a purse seine solely for the purpose of testing or cleaning the gear and resulting in no catch (see definition at 50 CFR 300.211).
Based on data submitted in logbooks and other available information, NMFS expects that the 2018 limit of 1,370 fishing days will be reached, and in accordance with the procedures established at 50 CFR 300.223(a), announces that the purse seine fishery on the high seas between the latitudes of 20° N and 20° S in the Convention Area will be closed starting at 00:00 on September 18, 2018 UTC, and will remain closed until 24:00 on December 31, 2018 UTC. Accordingly, it shall be prohibited for any fishing vessel of the United States equipped with purse seine gear to be used for fishing on the high seas between the latitudes of 20° N and 20° S in the Convention Area from 00:00 on September 18, 2018 UTC until 24:00 December 31, 2018 UTC, except that such vessels will not be prohibited from bunkering in that area during that period (50 CFR 300.223(a)). Fishing means using any vessel, vehicle, aircraft or hovercraft for any of the following activities, or attempting to do so: (1) Searching for, catching, taking, or harvesting fish; (2) engaging in any other activity which can reasonably be expected to result in the locating, catching, taking, or harvesting of fish for any purpose; (3) placing, searching for, or recovering fish aggregating devices or associated electronic equipment such as radio beacons; (4) engaging in any operations at sea directly in support of, or in preparation for, any of the activities previously described in elements (1) through (3) of this definition, including, but not limited to, bunkering; or (5) engaging in transshipment at sea, either unloading or loading fish (see definition at 50 CFR 300.211). As noted above, bunkering will not be prohibited in the closure area during the closure period. This rule does not prohibit lawful fishing with purse seine gear within the U.S. Exclusive Economic Zone within the Convention Area.
There is good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) to waive prior notice and
This action is required by 50 CFR 300.223(a) and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 6901
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy (DOE).
Notice of joint stakeholder proposal for direct final rule, and request for comments.
On August 14, 2018, the Department of Energy (DOE) received a petition submitted by a variety of entities (collectively, the Joint Stakeholders or the Petitioners) asking DOE to issue a direct final rule for energy conservation standards for dedicated-purpose pool pump (DPPP) motors. Through this notification, DOE seeks comment on whether to proceed with the proposal, as well as any data or information that could be used in DOE's determination whether to issue a direct final rule.
Written comments and information are requested on or before October 26, 2018.
Interested persons are encouraged to submit comments, identified by “Dedicated-Purpose Pool Pump Proposal” and Docket number “EERE-2017-BT-STD-0048”, by any of the following methods:
Jeremy Dommu, U.S. Department of Energy, Building Technologies Office, EE-5B, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC, 20585, (202) 586-9870. Email:
Mary Greene, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, Email:
As amended by the Energy Efficiency Improvement Act of 2015, Public Law 114-11 (April 30, 2015), the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA or, in context, the Act), Public Law 94-163 (42 U.S.C. 6291-6309, as codified), authorizes DOE to issue a direct final rule establishing an energy conservation standard for a product on receipt of a statement submitted jointly by interested persons that are fairly representative of relevant points of view (including representatives of manufacturers of covered products, States, and efficiency advocates) as determined by the Secretary of Energy (Secretary). That statement must contain recommendations with respect to an energy or water conservation standard that are in accordance with the provisions of 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) or 42 U.S.C. 6316, as applicable. In publishing the petition in its entirety for public comment, DOE is seeking views on whether to proceed with the petition as suggested by the Joint Stakeholders.
If DOE determines to issue the direct final rule for DPPPs, the agency must simultaneously publish a notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR) that proposes an identical energy conservation standard and provides for a public comment period of at least 110 days. 42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(4). Not later than 120 days after issuance of the direct final rule, if DOE receives one or more adverse comments or an alternative joint recommendation relating to the direct final rule, the Secretary must determine whether the comments or alternative recommendation may provide a reasonable basis for withdrawal under 42 U.S.C. 6295(o) or other applicable law. If the Secretary makes such a determination, DOE must withdraw the direct final rule and proceed with the simultaneously published NOPR. DOE must publish in the
By seeking comment on whether to issue a direct final rule in accordance with the Joint Stakeholders' petition, DOE takes no position at this time regarding whether the submitted petition satisfies EPCA's requirement that such a statement must be submitted by interested persons that are fairly representative of relevant points of view and that the proposal must be in compliance with the provisions of 42
DOE notes that the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 551 et seq., provides among other things, that `[e]ach agency shall give an interested person the right to petition for the issuance, amendment or repeal of a rule.” (5 U.S.C. 553(e)). DOE requests comment on whether it should consider the petition from the Joint Stakeholders under this authority should it determine it cannot proceed with consideration of the proposal under the direct final rule authority. Again, while seeking comment on this issue, DOE takes no position at this time regarding the merits of the petition itself.
DOE invites all interested parties to submit in writing by
Submitting comments via
However, your contact information will be publicly viewable if you include it in the comment or in any documents attached to your comment. Any information that you do not want to be publicly viewable should not be included in your comment, nor in any document attached to your comment. Persons viewing comments will see only first and last names, organization names, correspondence containing comments, and any documents submitted with the comments.
Do not submit to
DOE processes submissions made through
Submitting comments via hand delivery, or mail. Comments and documents via hand delivery or mail will also be posted to
Include contact information in your cover letter each time you submit comments, data, documents, and other information to DOE. If you submit via mail or hand delivery, please provide all items on a CD, if feasible. It is not necessary to submit printed copies. No facsimiles (faxes) will be accepted.
Comments, data, and other information submitted electronically should be provided in PDF (preferred), Microsoft Word or Excel, WordPerfect, or text (ASCII) file format. Provide documents that are not secured, written in English and free of any defects or viruses. Documents should not include any special characters or any form of encryption and, if possible, they should carry the electronic signature of the author.
Campaign form letters. Please submit campaign form letters by the originating organization in batches of between 50 to 500 form letters per PDF or as one form letter with a list of supporters' names compiled into one or more PDFs. This reduces comment processing and posting time.
Confidential Business Information. According to 10 CFR 1004.11, any person submitting information that he or she believes to be confidential and exempt by law from public disclosure should submit via email, postal mail, or hand delivery two well-marked copies: One copy of the document marked confidential including all the information believed to be confidential, and one copy of the document marked non-confidential with the information believed to be confidential deleted. Submit these documents via email or on a CD, if feasible. DOE will make its own determination about the confidential status of the information and treat it according to its determination.
Factors of interest to DOE when evaluating requests to treat submitted information as confidential include (1) a description of the items, (2) whether and why such items are customarily treated as confidential within the industry, (3) whether the information is generally known by or available from other sources, (4) whether the information has previously been made available to others without obligation concerning its confidentiality, (5) an explanation of the competitive injury to the submitting person which would result from public disclosure, (6) when such information might lost its confidential character due to the passage of time, and (7) why disclosure of the information would be contrary to the public interest.
It is DOE's policy that all comments may be included in the public docket, without change and as received, including any personal information provided in the comments (except information deemed to be exempt from public disclosure).
DOE considers public participation to be a very important part of its process for considering rulemaking petitions. DOE actively encourages the participation and interaction of the public during the comment period. Interactions with and between members of the public provide a balanced discussion of the issues and assist DOE in determining how to proceed with a petition. Anyone who wishes to be added to DOE mailing list to receive future notifications and information about this petition should contact Appliance and Equipment Standards Program staff at (202) 287-1445 or via email at
The Secretary of Energy has approved publication of this notification of petition for rulemaking.
In January 2017, the U.S. Department of Energy (“DOE”) established the first national energy-efficiency standards for dedicated-purpose pool pumps (“DPPPs”) through the adoption of a direct final rule (“DFR”). DOE confirmed the adoption of the standards and the effective date and compliance date in a notice published in May 2017. The compliance date of the new standards is July 19, 2021. The DPPP standards were negotiated by an Appliance Standards and Rulemaking Federal Advisory Committee (ASRAC) working group consisting of representatives of pool pump and motor manufacturers, state government, utilities, and efficiency advocates. For most in-ground pools, the standard levels reflect variable-speed technology. Pumps for small in-ground pools, pumps for above-ground pools, and pressure cleaner booster pumps can continue to be single-speed.
For a small number of hours a day, pool pumps need to operate at a high speed to provide a high flow rate for mixing/cleaning, but most of the time they just need to circulate the pool water through the filtration system at a low flow rate. Variable-speed pumps can reduce energy use by about 70% relative to single-speed pumps by being able to operate at a lower speed for the hours during which the pump is circulating water for filtration. In addition to saving energy, operating the pump at a lower speed reduces noise levels, improves filtration effectiveness, and can extend the life of other pool equipment.
The DPPP standards will provide very large savings for consumers. There are more than 8 million pools in the U.S.
The motor on a pool pump will often fail before the pump itself needs to be replaced, and motor-only replacements are common. Without a complementary standard for DPPP motors, when replacing a pool pump motor, consumers will continue to be sold inefficient, wasteful products. Today, even though variable-speed motors provide substantial savings to consumers as well as other benefits, significant market barriers prevent most consumers from realizing these benefits. When a motor on a pool pump fails, the consumer's priority must be to get the motor (or pump and motor) replaced as soon as possible in order to maintain sanitary and safe pool conditions. This means that when faced with a purchase decision, consumers have very little time to research their options. In many cases, service installers may install a replacement motor without providing any options to the consumer. Despite significant educational efforts on the part of pool pump manufacturers, service installers are often uninformed about variable-speed technology. In addition, the priority of service installers is generally to make a sale, not to provide the best option for the consumer. This is the case today even though service installers could make additional profit by selling variable-speed pumps and motors.
The consequences of a lack of understanding of variable-speed technology will become particularly significant once the DPPP standards take effect in 2021. Most consumers do not understand that the substantial savings from a variable-speed pump come from the motor. Consumers will likely assume that replacing the motor on a variable-speed pump will have no effect on the performance of their pump. But in fact, if an existing variable-speed motor is replaced with a single-speed motor, the consumer will lose all the energy savings and other benefits (including the quieter operation) of their variable-speed pump. When looking to replace a pool pump motor, a consumer with a variable-speed pool pump that meets the DPPP standards may therefore unknowingly end up with a single-speed replacement motor that would immediately increase their electricity bills by hundreds of dollars each year and not provide the additional benefits of variable-speed technology.
For manufacturers, a disruption in the market would lead to lower sales of regulated DPPPs and increased sales of unregulated, inefficient replacement motors. While most pool pumps are manufactured domestically, most of the motors for pool pumps are manufactured in China. Two of the major pool pump manufacturers have more than 1,400 pool equipment manufacturing jobs in North Carolina alone. Increased sales of inefficient, imported replacement motors would seriously undercut domestic manufacturers' investments in meeting the DPPP standards, putting American manufacturing jobs at risk.
Furthermore, if DOE does not address the replacement motor loophole, individual states may step in with their own standards. Currently, there are multiple state standards for pool pumps and motors. State standards are significantly more burdensome for manufacturers than a single national standard because they may and do result in different requirements in different states and require manufacturers to set up specific distribution channels to ensure that they do not sell noncompliant products in those states. As of July 19, 2021, the current state standards for pool pumps will be replaced with a single national standard. But if DOE does not establish complementary standards for DPPP motors, manufacturers will continue to be faced with a patchwork of state standards. A single national standard for DPPP motors is strongly preferred to reduce burdens on manufacturers, ensure a level playing field across state lines, and ensure that all consumers are protected from inefficient, wasteful products, regardless of where they live.
In comments on the 2017 DFR, multiple stakeholders urged DOE to consider complementary standards for pool pump motors. In the confirmation of effective date and compliance date for the DFR, DOE stated: “DOE plans to hold a public meeting in the near future with the interested parties to gather data and information that could lead to the consideration of energy conservation standards for replacement pool pump motors.”
After the August 2017 public meeting, representatives from pool pump and motor manufacturers, state government, utilities, and efficiency advocates (the “Joint Stakeholders”) formed a technical working group to negotiate recommended standards for DPPP motors. Appendix A to this Joint Statement includes the Joint Stakeholders' recommendations.
The Joint Stakeholders request that DOE adopt our recommendations with a DFR rule using the Department's authority over “electric motors” and to align the compliance date for DPPP motors with the DPPP compliance date of July 19, 2021. In order to protect consumers, ensure that the significant investments that domestic manufacturers are making to comply with the DPPP standards are not undercut, and avoid a continuation of state standards, there must be no delay in the July 19, 2021 DPPP compliance date.
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The Joint Stakeholders' recommendations were developed during a series of meetings between December 2017 and June 2018 of a technical working group consisting of pool pump and motor manufacturers, state government, utilities, and efficiency advocates. The goal of the working group was to develop a set of consensus recommendations for standards for DPPP motors to align with the standards for DPPPs and to take effect concurrently with the DPPP standards on July 19, 2021.
The Joint Stakeholders' proposal (included as Appendix A) includes recommendations for definitions, scope of coverage, prescriptive requirements, labeling, reporting, compliance date, and verification. Importantly, our proposal would not result in any change to the current DPPP standards and instead is complementary. There are also no new costs associated with our proposal because the analysis for the DPPP rulemaking already accounted for the costs of motor replacements.
Our proposed definitions include a definition for “dedicated-purpose pool pump motor,” which covers any motor that is certified to UL 1004-10
DPPP motors are electric motors. Our proposed scope of coverage includes DPPP motors with total horsepower (THP) less than or equal to 5 THP. The 5 THP upper bound aligns with the upper bound for hydraulic horsepower (HHP) in the standards for DPPPs for self-priming and non-self-priming pool filter pumps. (5 THP is roughly equivalent to 2.5 HHP.) Our proposed scope of coverage would exempt six types of pool pump motors from our proposed standards: polyphase motors capable of operating without a drive (and distributed in commerce without a drive), waterfall pump motors, rigid electric spa pump motors, storable electric spa pump motors, integral cartridge-filter pool pump motors, and integral sand-filter pool pump motors. These exemptions align with the DPPP standards.
Our proposed standards (described below) would apply to DPPP motors that are sold as replacements as well as motors that are part of DPPPs. All pool pump motors would thus be treated equally and subject to the same requirements. Importantly, our proposed scope of coverage includes DPPP motors in DPPPs regardless of whether the DPPP is manufactured domestically or imported. If motors in imported DPPPs were not covered, manufacturers that manufacture DPPPs domestically would be put at a disadvantage. Our proposed scope of coverage will thus provide a level playing field and protect U.S. manufacturing.
Our proposal for standards for DPPP motors is a prescriptive approach. We believe that a prescriptive approach is the quickest and simplest way to address the replacement motor loophole. We originally considered a performance-based approach. However, a performance approach for DPPP motors would require an entirely new metric and test procedure, which would significantly delay implementation of our proposal, thereby increasing manufacturer burden. Our proposed prescriptive requirements align with the DPPP standards while avoiding the need for a test procedure rulemaking. Importantly, our prescriptive approach still gives manufacturers significant flexibility to provide a wide range of efficient motor options to consumers including different speed options and user interfaces.
Our proposed standards include three prescriptive requirements that align with the DPPP standards. First, DPPP motors would be prohibited from operating with a capacitor start induction run (CSIR) or split phase (SP) configuration at maximum operating speed. This requirement aligns the motor types for DPPP motors with the DPPP standards. This requirement is also consistent with existing state standards in Arizona, California, Connecticut, and Washington. Prohibiting these inefficient motor configurations will help prevent low-quality foreign imports from undercutting U.S. manufacturers and ensure that consumers are not stuck with very inefficient motors that would increase their electricity bills.
Second, DPPP motors with THP greater than or equal to 1.15 THP would be required to meet the definition of “variable-speed control dedicated-purpose pool pump motor,” which we have defined. The 1.15 THP threshold aligns with the 0.711 HHP threshold in the DPPP standards for self-priming pool filter pumps. (1.15 THP is roughly equivalent to 0.711 HHP.) Almost all motors used in non-self-priming pool filter pumps and pressure cleaner booster pumps have THPs less than 1.15 THP. Therefore, DPPP motors that must meet the definition of “variable-speed control dedicated-purpose pool pump motor” will almost exclusively be motors for self-priming pool filter pumps, aligning with the DPPP standards.
Our proposed definition for “variable-speed control dedicated-purpose pool pump motor” would include motors that provide at least four speed options. Providing the choice of a variety of speeds would align with the DPPP standards, which, for most in-ground pumps, are based on the performance of pumps with variable-speed motors. At the same time, our proposed definition would provide manufacturers flexibility in developing new products. In particular, our proposed definition would allow manufacturers to introduce lower-cost motors that are not “true” variable-speed products, but that still provide very substantial energy savings and performance consistent with the DPPP standards. Our proposed definition for “variable-speed control dedicated-purpose pool pump motor” also includes specifications for how these motors must be distributed in commerce to ensure that they have the ability to operate at a variety of speeds in the field (e.g., be distributed with a variable speed drive), which align with the DPPP standards. Since variable-speed replacement motors may be sold without a
Finally, DPPP motors with freeze protection controls would be subject to the same requirements as DPPPs with freeze protection controls. These requirements are designed to ensure that motors with freeze protection controls do not end up running for more hours than are required to provide adequate freeze protection, resulting in significant wasted energy and unnecessary additional electricity costs for consumers.
Our preference is for labeling requirements to be included as part of the rule for DPPP motors. Our proposed labeling requirements include the dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower and whether the motor is single-speed, two-speed, multi-speed, or variable-speed control. These labeling requirements would provide additional information to both consumers and installers and help standardize the use of total horsepower throughout the industry.
We are proposing that reporting requirements for DPPP motors include, but not be limited to, information about the settings of the controls for motors with freeze protection controls. These reporting requirements align with the reporting requirements for DPPPs.
The compliance date for DPPP motors must be July 19, 2021 to align with the compliance date for DPPPs. Aligning the compliance dates is essential in order to prevent a loophole for replacement motors and to avoid the need for manufacturers to convert their product lines twice, which would significantly increase their costs and, in turn, costs for consumers.
Further, the compliance date for DPPPs must remain July 19, 2021. U.S. manufacturers of both pool pumps and motors are already making significant investments to comply with the DPPP standards. If enforcement of the DPPP standards were to be delayed beyond the current compliance date, the beneficiaries of such a delay would be foreign manufacturers who have not yet made investments in upgrading their technology and who would see an opportunity to sell inefficient pumps to the U.S. market. This outcome would inflict serious harm on domestic manufacturers by undercutting their investments, which would threaten American manufacturing jobs. Manufacturers would also face market confusion in the event that the standards continued to be enforced through state building codes, despite a federal delay on enforcement. Finally, a delay would seriously harm consumers who would continue to be sold inefficient, wasteful products, costing them hundreds of dollars in electricity bill savings each year.
We are proposing that for purposes of verifying THP, DOE should use the test procedure for DPPPs, which includes methods for determining dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower.
Our proposal for DPPP motors will provide significant benefits to consumers, manufacturers, and the electric grid. By closing the replacement motor loophole, consumers will be assured that when replacing the motor on a variable-speed pump, the new motor will continue to provide the $550 in average annual operating cost savings and the additional benefits of variable-speed technology. Pool pump manufacturers will be protected against a market shift to unregulated, foreign-made replacement motors, which would threaten American manufacturing jobs. Finally, because pool pumps often operate the most in the summer and during times of peak demand, protecting the significant electricity savings from the DPPP standards will also protect the corresponding reductions in peak demand, which bolster electric grid resilience. Reductions in peak demand also help lower electricity rates, which benefits all consumers. However, in order for these significant benefits to consumers, manufacturers, and the electric grid to be realized, the compliance date for DPPP motor standards must be July 19, 2021, and there must be no delay in the DPPP compliance date.
DOE should adopt our proposal for standards for DPPP motors using the Department's authority over “electric motors.” “Electric motor” is defined as “a machine that converts electrical power into rotational mechanical power” (10 CFR 431.12). DPPP motors are electric motors, and electric motors are already covered equipment.
DOE should adopt our proposal for standards for DPPP motors using a DFR. Importantly, a DFR will ensure that the compliance date for DPPP motors can be aligned with that for DPPPs. As described above, alignment of the compliance dates is essential in order to close the replacement motor loophole and to avoid manufacturers having to convert their product lines twice. Further, it is essential that the compliance dates for both DPPPs and DPPP motors be July 19, 2021 as any delay in the compliance date for DPPPs would have serious negative consequences for both consumers and domestic manufacturers.
DOE has the authority to issue a DFR “on receipt of a statement that is submitted jointly by interested persons that are fairly representative of relevant points of view (including representatives of manufacturers of covered products, States, and efficiency advocates)” (42 U.S.C. 6295(p)(4)). The signatories to this Joint Statement include all relevant stakeholders including manufacturers of both pool pumps and motors; a trade association that represents pool pump and pool pump motor manufacturers and installers; a trade association that represents motor manufacturers; states; consumer advocate organizations; efficiency and environmental organizations; and electric utilities.
While we believe that all relevant stakeholders are represented by the signatories to this Joint Statement, to the extent that there is any concern regarding the ability for any other party to provide input on our recommended standards before they are issued as part of a DFR, DOE could publish our Joint Statement and provide a limited (e.g., 30-day) comment period.
Importantly, there are no new costs associated with our proposal. The analysis for the DPPP rulemaking already accounted for the costs of motor replacements for the portion of consumers that will replace the motor during the life of their pump. Specifically, the DPPP rulemaking assumed like-for-like motor replacements (e.g., that a variable-speed motor would be replaced with a new variable-speed motor). The assumption of like-for-like motor replacements does not reflect the real-world situation and the high likelihood of many variable-speed motors on compliant pumps being replaced not with variable-speed motors, but with inefficient single-speed motors. Nevertheless, because the costs of variable-speed replacement motors were already accounted for in the DPPP rulemaking, DOE would be double counting the costs if the Department were to include costs associated with motor replacements in a DPPP motors rulemaking.
Since there are no costs associated with our proposal relative to the costs assumed in the DPPP rule, we believe that our proposal would not be subject to Executive Orders 12866 and 13771.
The Joint Stakeholders strongly urge DOE to adopt our proposal for standards for DPPP motors contained in Appendix A in order to protect consumers and the investments being made by domestic manufacturers. We encourage DOE to act expeditiously in order to ensure alignment of the compliance date for DPPP motors with the compliance date for DPPPs (July 19, 2021).
(1) labeled,
(2) designed, and
(3) marketed for use only in rigid electric spas as defined at 10 CFR 431.462.
DPPP motors meet the definition of electric motor at 10 CFR 431.12. The standards will apply to dedicated-purpose pool pump (DPPP) motors, including DPPP motors incorporated in DPPPs produced domestically and imported, with dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower (THP) as defined at 10 CFR 431.462 less than or equal to 5 THP, with the following exemptions:
• Polyphase motors capable of operating without a drive and distributed in commerce without a drive that converts single-phase power to polyphase power
• Waterfall pump motors
• Rigid electric spa pump motors
• Storable electric spa pump motors
• Integral cartridge-filter pool pump motors
• Integral sand-filter pool pump motors
There will be prescriptive requirements for all DPPP motors, for DPPP motors with a THP greater than or equal to 1.15 THP, and for DPPP motors with freeze protection controls. DPPP motors include motors manufactured domestically, motors imported alone, and motors imported as a component of a DPPP assembly.
DPPP motors must not operate with a capacitor start induction run (CSIR) or split phase (SP) configuration at maximum operating speed.
DPPP motors with THP greater than or equal to 1.15 THP will have a prescriptive speed control requirement.
Each dedicated-purpose pool pump motor with a dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower greater than or equal to 1.15 THP shall meet the definition of a variable-speed control dedicated- purpose pool pump motor.
A
A dedicated-purpose pool pump motor that is capable of operating at four or more discrete, user- or pre-determined operating speeds, where one of the operating speeds is the maximum operating speed and at least:
• One of the operating speeds is 75% to 85% of the maximum operating speed;
• One of the operating speeds is 45% to 55% of the maximum operating speed;
• One of the operating speeds is less than or equal to 40% of the maximum operating speed and greater than zero.
And that must be distributed in commerce either:
(1) With a variable speed drive and with a user interface that changes the speed in response to pre- programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times;
(2) With a variable speed drive and without a user interface that changes the speed in response to pre-programmed user preferences and allows the user to select the duration of each speed and/or the on/off times, but is unable to operate without the presence of a user interface; or
(3) Without a variable speed drive and with or without a user interface, but is unable to operate without the presence of a variable speed drive.
And:
(1) Any high speed override capability shall be for a temporary period not to exceed one 24-hour cycle without resetting to default settings or resuming normal operation according to pre- programmed user preferences; and
(2) Any factory default setting for daily run time schedule may not include more hours at an operating speed above 55% of maximum operating speed than the hours at or below 55% of maximum operating speed; or if a motor is distributed in commerce without a default setting for daily run time schedule, the default operating speed after any priming cycle (if applicable) must be no greater than 55% of the maximum operating speed.
For all dedicated-purpose pool pump motors distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls, the motor must be shipped with freeze protection disabled or with the following default, user- adjustable settings:
(1) The default dry-bulb air temperature setting is no greater than 40 °F;
(2) The default run time setting shall be no greater than 1 hour (before the temperature is rechecked); and
(3) The default motor speed shall not be more than
If DOE is able to implement labeling requirements, the permanent nameplate must be marked clearly with the following information:
(A) The dedicated-purpose pool pump motor total horsepower; and
(B) Either: single-speed, two-speed, multi-speed, or variable-speed control.
Certification reporting requirements should include, but not be limited to,:
(A) For dedicated-purpose pool pump motors distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls, a statement regarding whether freeze protection is shipped enabled or disabled, and for dedicated-purpose pool pump motors distributed in commerce with freeze protection controls enabled, the default dry-bulb air temperature setting (in °F), default run time setting (in minutes), and default motor speed (in rpm).
The compliance date should be July 19, 2021 to align with the compliance date of the DPPP standards.
For purposes of verifying THP, DOE should use the DPPP test procedure at 10 CFR 431 Appendix C to Subpart Y.
Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury (OCC); Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board); Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC); Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC); and Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) (collectively, the “Agencies”).
Notice of proposed rulemaking; extension of comment period.
On July 17, 2018, the Agencies published in the
In response to requests from commenters regarding issues addressed in the proposal, the public comment period has been extended for 30 days until October 17, 2018. This action will allow interested persons additional time to analyze the proposal and prepare their comments.
The comment period for the notice of proposed rulemaking published on July 17, 2018 (83 FR 33432), regarding proposed revisions to prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and certain interests in, and relationships with, hedge funds and private equity funds, is extended from September 17, 2018, to October 17, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the methods identified in the proposal.
On July 17, 2018, the Agencies published in the
The Agencies have received requests from the public asking the Agencies to extend the comment period for the proposal.
By the Securities and Exchange Commission.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E surface airspace at Tyndall Air Force Base, (AFB), FL, for the safety of aircraft landing and departing the airport when the air traffic control tower is closed. Also, this action proposes to amend Class D airspace by updating the geographic coordinates of this airport, as well as replacing the outdated term “Airport/Facility Directory” with “Chart Supplement”. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport.
Comments must be received on or before October 26, 2018.
Send comments on this rule to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg. Ground Floor, Rm. W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; Telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2018-0741; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-13, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit and review received comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Avenue, College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E surface airspace and amend Class D airspace at Tyndall AFB, FL, to support IFR operations at this airport.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2018-0741 and Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-13) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0741; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-13.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this document may be changed in light of the comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the comment closing date. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket. All communications received on or before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish Class E surface airspace within a 5.4-mile radius of Tyndall AFB, FL, for the safety of aircraft landing and departing the airport when the air traffic control tower is closed.
In addition, the geographic coordinates of the airport in Class D airspace would be updated to coincide with the FAA's database.
Finally, the outdated term `Airport/Facility Directory' would be replaced with `Chart Supplement' under the Class D description.
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraphs 5000 and 6002, respectively, of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal would be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 2,500 feet MSL within a 5.4-mile radius of Tyndall AFB. This Class D airspace area is effective during the specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
That airspace extending upward from the surface within a 5.4-mile radius of Tyndall AFB. This Class E airspace is effective during specific dates and times established in advance by a Notice to Airmen. The effective date and time will thereafter be continuously published in the Chart Supplement.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Breckinridge County Airport, Hardinsburg, KY, to accommodate new area navigation (RNAV) global positioning system (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures serving the airport. Controlled airspace is necessary for the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at this airport.
Comments must be received on or before October 26, 2018.
Send comments on this rule to: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Bldg. Ground Floor, Rm. W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; Telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202)-366-9826. You must identify the Docket No. FAA-2018-0486; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-11, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit and review received comments through the internet at
FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed on line at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
John Fornito, Operations Support Group, Eastern Service Center, Federal Aviation Administration, 1701 Columbia Ave., College Park, GA 30337; telephone (404) 305-6364.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This proposed rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority, as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Breckinridge County Airport, Hardinsburg, KY to support standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at this airport.
Interested persons are invited to comment on this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal.
Communications should identify both docket numbers (Docket No. FAA-2018-0486 and Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-11) and be submitted in triplicate to DOT Docket Operations (see
Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this action must submit with those comments a self-addressed stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to FAA Docket No. FAA-2018-0486; Airspace Docket No. 18-ASO-11.” The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this document may be changed in light of the comments received. All comments submitted will be available for examination in the public docket both before and after the comment closing date. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket. All communications received on
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11B, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017. FAA Order 7400.11B is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is considering an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Breckinridge County Airport, Hardinsburg, KY, providing the controlled airspace required to support the new RNAV (GPS) standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at this airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in Paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11B, dated August 3, 2017, and effective September 15, 2017, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class D and E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this proposed regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this proposed rule, when promulgated, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal would be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 7-mile radius of Breckinridge County Airport.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Request for comments.
The Coast Guard is seeking comments from interested persons regarding a proposal to establish safety zones on the navigable waterways in the vicinity of the proposed Spaceport Camden, near Woodbine, Georgia during rocket tests, launches, and landing operations. The proposed safety zones would be necessary to protect personnel, vessels, and the marine environment from potential hazards created by rocket launches and landings, and by various rocket tests.
Your comments and related material must reach the Coast Guard on or before October 11, 2018.
You may submit comments identified by docket number USCG-2018-0845 using the Federal portal at
If you have questions about this notice of inquiry, call or email LT Joseph Palmquist, Marine Safety Unit Savannah, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 912-652-4353 x221, email
The Board of County Commissioners of Camden County, Georgia proposes to develop and operate a commercial space launch site, called Spaceport Camden, in an unincorporated area of Camden County, Georgia, approximately 11.5 miles due east of the town of Woodbine, Georgia. The site, near Floyd Creek, is on the coast, surrounded by salt marshes to the east and south, and the Satilla River to the north. In support of Spaceport Camden, the Board of County Commissioners of Camden County, Georgia requested that the Coast Guard establish safety zones which would be enforced during launch, landing, and rocket test activities at the site.
The Coast Guard establishes safety zones over areas of water and/or shore for safety or environmental purposes pursuant to the authority contained in 33 CFR part 165. A safety zone is a “. . . water area, shore area, or water and shore area to which, for safety or environmental purposes, access is limited to authorized persons, vehicles, or vessels.”
The applicants for Spaceport Camden propose up to 12 annual launches and landings during daylight hours, with one possible nighttime launch per year, of liquid-fueled, small to medium-large lift-class, orbital and suborbital vertical launch vehicles. In support of the proposed launches, the applicants for Spaceport Camden propose up to 12 static fire engine tests per year. Launch trajectories would vary from 83 to 115 degrees for vehicles up to and including medium-large lift class. Because the trajectory of these launches would take the rockets over various navigable waterways, creeks and tributaries, sections of land, and areas offshore, applicants are required to limit or restrict access to certain areas surrounding a rocket test/launch site based on specific hazard analysis. The applicant's request to establish safety zones during rocket launches, landings, and various tests is one element in meeting these safety requirements.
The range of potential safety zones for launch and landing activities encompasses an area which accounts for safety concerns associated with all potential launch trajectories. Individual launch safety zones could be smaller and depend on several factors unique to each event, such as actual trajectory, lift class, and payload. The range of potential safety zones for rocket tests encompasses a smaller area directly around the commercial space launch site. In all instances, the proposed safety zones would be necessary to safeguard persons, property, and the marine environment during rocket launches, landings, and rocket test activities.
The geographic area which encompasses all potential launch trajectories and accounts for the largest possible launch vehicle is defined by nine total corner points, identified below. Individual launch safety zones could be smaller dependent upon aspects unique to each launch activity, such as specific launch trajectories and the size of each launch vehicle:
The proposed safety zone for test activities encompasses an area within a one nautical mile (1.15 miles) radius in each direction from the location of the launch site pad. The location of the launch site: Latitude: 30°56′50.67″ N, Longitude: 81°30′23.34″ W.
In support of the applicant's request and to provide for the public safety in connection with potential operations at Spaceport Camden, the COTP Savannah is seeking comments from interested persons on the establishment of two proposed safety zones on the navigable waters surrounding Spaceport Camden, in the vicinity of Woodbine, Georgia. These safety zones would be enforced during rocket launches, landings, and various rocket tests. Launch/landing safety zones would support launch/landing activities while test site safety zones would support rocket test activities. Vessels, both commercial and recreational, would be prohibited from entering, transiting through, anchoring in, or remaining within the safety zone unless specifically authorized by the COTP Savannah or a designated representative.
For launch activities, the safety zone is anticipated to be in effect for approximately four to six hours for medium-large launchers, but not longer than 12 hours. For small launches, the safety zone is anticipated to be in effect for two to three hours. A safety zone for rocket test activity is anticipated to be in effect for approximately 60 minutes or less. The COTP Savannah or a designated representative would inform the public through broadcast notice to mariners of the enforcement periods of the safety zone.
We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal portal at
We accept anonymous comments. All comments received will be posted without change to
Documents mentioned in this notice of inquiry as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at
We plan to hold a public meeting to receive oral comments on this notice of inquiry and will announce the date, time, and location in a separate document published in the
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
This proposed rule would establish quotas, opening dates, and retention limits for the 2019 fishing year for the Atlantic commercial shark fisheries. Quotas would be adjusted as required or allowable based on any over- and/or underharvests experienced during the 2018 fishing year. In addition, NMFS proposes opening dates and commercial retention limits based on adaptive management measures to provide, to the extent practicable, fishing opportunities for commercial shark fishermen in all regions and areas. The proposed measures could affect fishing opportunities for commercial shark fishermen in the northwestern Atlantic Ocean, including the Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean Sea.
Written comments must be received by October 11, 2018.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2018-0097, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Copies of this proposed rule and supporting documents are available from the HMS Management Division website at
Karyl Brewster-Geisz, Lauren Latchford, or Chanté Davis at (301) 427-8503.
The Atlantic commercial shark fisheries are managed under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act). The 2006 Consolidated Atlantic Highly Migratory Species (HMS) Fishery Management Plan (FMP) and its amendments are implemented by regulations at 50 CFR part 635. For the Atlantic commercial shark fisheries, the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP and its amendments established commercial shark retention limits, commercial quotas for species and management groups, and accounting measures for under- and overharvests for the shark fisheries. The FMP also includes adaptive management measures, such as flexible opening dates for the fishing year and inseason adjustments to shark trip limits, which provide management flexibility in furtherance of equitable fishing opportunities, to the extent practicable, for commercial shark fishermen in all regions and areas.
This proposed rule would adjust the quota levels for the different shark stocks and management groups for the 2019 Atlantic commercial shark fishing year based on over- and underharvests that occurred during the 2018 fishing year, consistent with existing regulations at 50 CFR 635.27(b). Over- and underharvests are accounted for in the same region, sub-region, and/or fishery in which they occurred the following year, except that large overharvests may be spread over a number of subsequent fishing years up to a maximum of five years. Shark stocks that are overfished, have overfishing occurring, or have an unknown status, as well as management groups that contain one or more stocks that are overfished, have overfishing occurring, or have an unknown stock status, will not have underharvest carried over in the following year. Stocks or management groups that are not overfished and have no overfishing occurring may have any underharvest carried over in the following year, up to 50 percent of the base quota.
Based on harvests to date, and after considering catch rates and landings from previous years, NMFS proposes to adjust the 2019 quotas for some management groups as shown in Table 1. In the final rule, NMFS will adjust the quotas as needed based on dealer reports received by mid-October 2018. Thus, all of the 2019 proposed quotas for the respective stocks and management groups will be subject to further adjustment after NMFS considers the dealer reports through mid-October. All dealer reports that are received after the October date will be used to adjust 2020 quotas, as appropriate.
While the sub-quota for the western Gulf of Mexico aggregated large coastal shark (LCS) was exceeded this year, based on current landings in the eastern Gulf of Mexico for that management group and based on catch rates from previous years from the eastern Gulf of Mexico, NMFS does not believe the overall regional Gulf of Mexico aggregated LCS quota will be exceeded. Thus, NMFS proposes the base line quotas for the eastern and western Gulf of Mexico sub-regions. If catch rates in the eastern Gulf of Mexico increase, it is possible that in the final rule NMFS would need to reduce the western Gulf of Mexico sub-regional aggregated LCS quota to account for that sub-region's overharvest.
Because the Gulf of Mexico blacktip shark management group and smoothhound shark management groups
For the sandbar shark, aggregated large coastal shark (LCS), hammerhead shark, non-blacknose small coastal shark (SCS), blacknose shark, blue shark, porbeagle shark, and pelagic shark (other than porbeagle or blue sharks) management groups, the 2018 underharvests cannot be carried over to the 2019 fishing year because those stocks or management groups have been determined to be overfished, overfished with overfishing occurring, or have an unknown status. Furthermore, with the exception of the sub-regional western Gulf of Mexico overharvest of the aggregated LCS quota described above, there were no overharvests to account for in these management groups. Thus, NMFS proposes that quotas for these management groups be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment.
The proposed 2019 quotas by species and management group are summarized in Table 1; the description of the calculations for each stock and management group can be found below.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for blacktip sharks in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region is 265.6 mt dw (586,662 lb dw) and the eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region is 28.9 mt dw (63,740 lb dw; Table 1). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings for blacktip sharks in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 95 percent (330.2 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (347.2 mt dw), while the blacktip sharks in the eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 43 percent (16.3 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (37.7 mt dw). Reported landings have not exceeded the 2018 quota to date, and the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region fishery was closed on March 13, 2018 (83 FR 10802). Gulf of Mexico blacktip sharks have not been declared to be overfished, to have overfishing occurring, or to have an unknown status. Pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii), underharvests for blacktip sharks within the Gulf of Mexico region therefore could be applied to the 2019 quotas up to 50 percent of the base quota. Additionally,
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for aggregated LCS in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region is 72.0 mt dw (158,724 lb dw), and the eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region is 85.5 mt dw (188,593 lb dw; Table 1). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings for aggregated LCS in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 128 percent (92.2 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (72.0 mt dw), while the aggregated LCS in the eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 44 percent (37.5 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (85.5 mt dw). Reported landings have not exceeded the overall Gulf of Mexico regional 2018 quota to date, and the western aggregated LCS sub-region fishery was closed on March 13, 2018 (83 FR 10802). Given the unknown status of some of the shark species within the Gulf of Mexico aggregated LCS management group, underharvests cannot be carried over pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii). Therefore, based on both preliminary estimates and catch rates from previous years, and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quotas for aggregated LCS in the western Gulf of Mexico and eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-regions be equal to their annual base quotas without adjustment, because the overall regional quota has not been overharvested and because underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
The 2019 proposed commercial quotas for hammerhead sharks in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region and eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region are 11.9 mt dw (26,301 lb dw) and 13.4 mt dw (29,421 lb dw), respectively (Table 1). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings for hammerhead sharks in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 92 percent (11.0 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (11.9 mt dw), while landings of hammerhead sharks in the eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-region were at 47 percent (6.2 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels (13.4 mt dw). Reported landings from both Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic regions have not exceeded the 2018 overall hammerhead quota to date, and the western hammerhead shark Gulf of Mexico sub-region fishery was closed on March 13, 2018 (83 FR 10802). Given the overfished status of the scalloped hammerhead shark, the hammerhead shark quota cannot be adjusted for any underharvests. Therefore, based on both preliminary estimates and catch rates from previous years, the fact that the 2018 overall hammerhead shark quota has not been overharvested to date, and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2)(ii), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quotas for hammerhead sharks in the western Gulf of Mexico and eastern Gulf of Mexico sub-regions be equal to their annual base quotas without adjustment.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for non-blacknose SCS in the Gulf of Mexico region is 112.6 mt dw (248,215 lb dw). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of non-blacknose SCS were at 24 percent (27.5 mt dw) of their 2018 quota level (112.6 mt dw) in the Gulf of Mexico region. Reported landings have not exceeded the 2018 quota to date. Given the unknown status of bonnethead sharks within the Gulf of Mexico non-blacknose SCS management group, underharvests cannot be carried forward pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii). Therefore, based on both preliminary estimates and catch rates from previous years, and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quota for non-blacknose SCS in the Gulf of Mexico region be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment, because there have not been any overharvests and because underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for smoothhound sharks in the Gulf of Mexico region is 504.6 mt dw (1,112,441 lb dw). As of July 13, 2018, there are no preliminary reported landings of smoothhound sharks in the Gulf of Mexico region. Gulf of Mexico smoothhound sharks have not been declared to be overfished, to have overfishing occurring, or to have an unknown status. Pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii), underharvests for smoothhound sharks within the Gulf of Mexico region therefore could be applied to the 2019 quotas up to 50 percent of the base quota. Accordingly, NMFS proposes to increase the 2019 Gulf of Mexico smoothhound shark quota to adjust for anticipated underharvests in 2018 as allowed. The proposed 2019 adjusted base annual quota for Gulf of Mexico smoothhound sharks is 504.6 mt dw (336.4 mt dw annual base quota + 168.2 mt dw 2018 underharvest = 504.6 mt dw 2019 adjusted annual quota).
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for aggregated LCS in the Atlantic region is 168.9 mt dw (372,552 lb dw). As of July 13, 2018, the aggregated LCS fishery in the Atlantic region is still open and preliminary landings indicate that only 27 percent of the quota, or 45.9 mt dw, has been harvested. Given the unknown status of some of the shark species within the Atlantic aggregated LCS management group, underharvests cannot be carried over pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii). Therefore, based on both preliminary estimates and catch rates from previous years, and consistent with current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2018 quota for aggregated LCS in the Atlantic region be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment, because there have not been any overharvests and underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for hammerhead sharks in the Atlantic region is 27.1 mt dw (59,736 lb dw). Currently, the hammerhead shark fishery in the Atlantic region is still open and preliminary landings as of July 13, 2018, indicate that only 18 percent of the Atlantic regional quota, or 4.9 mt dw, has been harvested. Reported landings from both Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic regions have not exceeded the 2018 overall hammerhead quota to date. Given the overfished status of hammerhead sharks, underharvests cannot be carried forward pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii). Therefore, based on both preliminary estimates and catch rates from previous years, and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quota for hammerhead sharks in the Atlantic region be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment, because the overall hammerhead shark quota has not been overharvested, and because underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for non-blacknose SCS in the Atlantic region is 264.1 mt dw (582,333 lb dw). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of non-blacknose SCS were at 21 percent (55.1 mt dw) of their
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for blacknose sharks in the Atlantic region is 17.2 mt dw (37,921 lb dw). This quota is available in the Atlantic region only for those vessels operating south of 34° N. latitude. North of 34° N. latitude, retention, landing, or sale of blacknose sharks is prohibited. As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of blacknose sharks were at 20 percent (3.4 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels in the Atlantic region. Reported landings have not exceeded the 2018 quota to date. Pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2), because blacknose sharks have been declared to be overfished with overfishing occurring in the Atlantic region, NMFS could not carry forward the remaining underharvest. Therefore, NMFS proposes that the 2019 Atlantic blacknose shark quota be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment.
The 2019 proposed commercial quota for smoothhound sharks in the Atlantic region is 1,802.6 mt dw (3,973,902 lb dw). As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of smoothhound sharks were at 14 percent (261.4 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels in the Atlantic region. Atlantic smoothhound sharks have not been declared to be overfished, to have overfishing occurring, or to have an unknown status. Pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii), underharvests for smoothhound sharks within the Atlantic region therefore could be applied to the 2019 quotas up to 50 percent of the base quota. Accordingly, NMFS proposes to increase the 2019 Atlantic smoothhound shark quota to adjust for anticipated underharvests in 2018 as allowed. The proposed 2019 adjusted base annual quota for Atlantic smoothhound sharks is 1,802.6 mt dw (1,201.7 mt dw annual base quota + 600.9 mt dw 2018 underharvest = 1,802.6 mt dw 2019 adjusted annual quota).
The 2019 proposed commercial quotas within the shark research fishery are 50 mt dw (110,230 lb dw) for research LCS and 90 mt dw (199,943 lb dw) for sandbar sharks. Within the shark research fishery, as of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of research LCS were at 22 percent (11.2 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels, and sandbar shark reported landings were at 34 percent (31.0 mt dw) of their 2018 quota levels. Reported landings have not exceeded the 2018 quotas to date. Under § 635.27(b)(2)(ii), because sandbar sharks and scalloped hammerhead sharks within the research LCS management group have been determined to be either overfished or overfished with overfishing occurring, underharvests for these management groups cannot be carried forward to the 2019 quotas. Therefore, based on preliminary estimates, and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quota in the shark research fishery be equal to the annual base quota without adjustment because there have not been any overharvests, and because underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
The 2019 proposed commercial quotas for blue sharks, porbeagle sharks, and pelagic sharks (other than porbeagle or blue sharks) are 273.0 mt dw (601,856 lb dw), 1.7 mt dw (3,748 lb dw), and 488.0 mt dw (1,075,856 lb dw), respectively. As of July 13, 2018, preliminary reported landings of blue sharks were at less than 5 percent (less than 13.6 mt dw) of their 2018 quota level (273.0 mt dw), there are no preliminary reported landings of porbeagle sharks, and landings of pelagic sharks (other than porbeagle and blue sharks) were at 8 percent (38.1 mt dw) of their 2018 quota level (488.0 mt dw). Given that these pelagic species are overfished, have overfishing occurring, or have an unknown status, underharvests cannot be carried forward pursuant to § 635.27(b)(2)(ii). Therefore, based on preliminary estimates and consistent with the current regulations at § 635.27(b)(2), NMFS proposes that the 2019 quotas for blue sharks, porbeagle sharks, and pelagic sharks (other than porbeagle and blue sharks) be equal to their annual base quotas without adjustment, because there have not been any overharvests and because underharvests cannot be carried over due to stock status.
For each fishery, NMFS considered the seven “Opening Commercial Fishing Season Criteria” listed at § 635.27(b)(3). The Criteria includes factors such as the available annual quotas for the current fishing season, estimated season length and average weekly catch rates from previous years, length of the season and fishery participation in past years, impacts to accomplishing objectives of the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments, temporal variation in behavior or biology of target species (
NMFS applied the Opening Commercial Fishing Season Criteria by examining the over- and underharvests of the different management groups in the 2018 fishing year to determine the likely effects of the proposed commercial quotas for 2019 on shark stocks and fishermen across regional and sub-regional fishing areas. NMFS also examined the potential season length and previous catch rates to ensure, to the extent practicable, that equitable fishing opportunities be provided to fishermen in all areas. Lastly, NMFS examined the seasonal variation of the different species/management groups and the effects on fishing opportunities.
NMFS also considered the six “Inseason trip limit adjustment criteria” listed at § 635.24(a)(8) for directed shark limited access permit holders intending to land LCS other than sandbar sharks. Those criteria are: the amount of remaining shark quota in the relevant area or region, to date, based on dealer reports; the catch rates of the relevant shark species/complexes, to date, based on dealer reports; estimated date of fishery closure based on when the landings are projected to reach 80-percent of the available overall, regional, and/or sub-regional quota, if the fishery's landings are not projected to reach 100 percent of the applicable quota before the end of the season, or when the season of a quota-linked management group is closed; effects of the adjustment on accomplishing the objectives of the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments; variations in seasonal distribution, abundance, or migratory patterns of the relevant shark species based on scientific and fishery-based knowledge; and/or effects of catch rates in one part of a region precluding vessels in another part of that region from having a
After considering all these criteria, NMFS is proposing to open the 2019 Atlantic commercial shark fishing season for all shark management groups in the northwestern Atlantic Ocean, including the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea, on or about January 1, 2019, after the publication of the final rule for this action (Table 2). NMFS is also proposing to start the 2019 commercial shark fishing season with the commercial retention limit of 36 LCS other than sandbar sharks per vessel per trip in both the eastern and western Gulf of Mexico sub-regions, and a commercial retention limit of 25 LCS other than sandbar sharks per vessel per trip in the Atlantic region (Table 2). NMFS will consider public comments received during the current year and catch rates from this year. Any retention limits that are proposed could change as a result of public comments as well as catch rates and landings information based on updated data available when drafting the final rule.
In the Gulf of Mexico region, NMFS proposes opening the fishing season on or about January 1, 2019, for the aggregated LCS, blacktip sharks, and hammerhead shark management groups with the commercial retention limits of 36 LCS other than sandbar sharks per vessel per trip for directed shark permit holders in the eastern and western sub-region. This opening date and retention limit combination would provide, to the extent practicable, equitable opportunities across the fisheries management sub-regions. This opening date takes into account all the season opening criteria listed in § 635.27(b)(3), and particularly the criteria that NMFS consider the length of the season for the different species and/or management group in the previous years (§ 635.27(b)(3)(ii) and (iii)) and whether fishermen were able to participate in the fishery in those years (§ 635.27(b)(3)(v)). The proposed commercial retention limits take into account the criteria listed in § 635.24(a)(8), and particularly the criterion that NMFS consider the catch rates of the relevant shark species/complexes based on dealer reports to date (§ 635.24(a)(8)(ii)). NMFS may also adjust the retention limit in the Gulf of Mexico region throughout the season to ensure fishermen in all parts of the region have an opportunity to harvest aggregated LCS, blacktip sharks, and hammerhead sharks (see the criteria listed at § 635.27(b)(3)(v) and § 635.24(a)(8)(ii), (v), and (vi)). In 2018, the aggregated LCS, hammerhead, and blacktip shark management groups in the western Gulf of Mexico sub-region were closed on March 13, 2018 (82 FR 20447). As such, in 2019, NMFS is proposing a reduction in the commercial trip limit for these management groups in order to ensure the management group is open until at least April 2019, which is when the State of Louisiana closes state waters to shark fishing and when that State has previously asked that NMFS close Federal shark fisheries to match state regulations (see the criteria listed at § 635.27(b)(3)(vii) and
In the Atlantic region, NMFS proposes opening the aggregated LCS and hammerhead shark management groups on or about January 1, 2019. This opening date is the same date that these management groups opened in 2018. As described below, this opening date also takes into account all the criteria listed in § 635.27(b)(3), and particularly the criterion that NMFS consider the effects of catch rates in one part of a region precluding vessels in another part of that region from having a reasonable opportunity to harvest a portion of the different species and/or management quotas (§ 635.27(b)(3)(v)). The 2018 data indicates that an opening date of January 1, coupled with inseason adjustments to the retention limit, provided a reasonable opportunity for fishermen in every part of each region to harvest a portion of the available quotas (§ 635.27(b)(3)(i)) while accounting for variations in seasonal distribution of the different species in the management groups (§ 635.27(b)(3)(iv)). In 2018, when the aggregated LCS quota was harvested too quickly, NMFS reduced the retention limit to three sharks per trip (May 10, 2018; 83 FR 17765) to allow fishermen in the North Atlantic an opportunity to fish later in the year when sharks are available in the North Atlantic area (see the criteria at § 635.24(a)(3)(i), (ii), (v), and (vi)). NMFS then increased the retention limit to 36 sharks per trip on July 18, 2018 (83 FR 33870), to increase fishing opportunities for all fishermen across the Atlantic region. Because the quotas we propose for 2019 are the same as the quotas in 2018, NMFS expects that the season lengths and therefore the participation of various fishermen throughout the region, would be similar in 2019 (§ 635.27(b)(3)(ii) and (iii)). Based on the recent performance of the fishery, the January 1 opening date appears to meet the objectives of the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments (§ 635.27(b)(3)(vi)). Therefore, changing the opening date in the fishery seems unnecessary.
In addition, for the aggregated LCS and hammerhead shark management groups in the Atlantic region, NMFS proposes opening the fishing year with the commercial retention limit for directed shark limited access permit holders of 25 LCS other than sandbar sharks per vessel per trip. This retention limit should allow fishermen to harvest some of the 2019 quota at the beginning of the year when sharks are more prevalent in the South Atlantic area (see the criteria at § 635.24(a)(3)(i), (ii), (v), and (vi)). As was done in 2018, if it appears that the quota is being harvested too quickly (
Also, as was done in 2018, NMFS will consider increasing the commercial retention limits per trip at a later date if necessary to provide fishermen in the northern portion of the Atlantic region an opportunity to retain aggregated LCS and hammerhead sharks after considering the appropriate inseason adjustment criteria. Similarly, at some point later in the year (
All of the shark management groups would remain open until December 31, 2019, or until NMFS determines that the landings for any shark management group have reached, or are projected to reach, 80-percent of the available overall, regional, and/or sub-regional quota, if the fishery's landings are not projected to reach 100 percent of the applicable quota before the end of the season, or when the quota-linked management group is closed. If NMFS determines that a non-linked shark species or management group must be closed, then, consistent with § 635.28(b)(2) for non-linked quotas (
If NMFS determines that a linked shark species or management group must be closed, then, consistent with
Comments on this proposed rule may be submitted via
The NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that the proposed rule is consistent with the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
These proposed specifications are exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
NMFS determined that the final rules to implement Amendment 2 to the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP (June 24, 2008, 73 FR 35778; corrected on July 15, 2008, 73 FR 40658), Amendment 5a to the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP (78 FR 40318; July 3, 2013), Amendment 6 to the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP (80 FR 50073; August 18, 2015), and Amendment 9 to the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP (80 FR 73128; November 24, 2015) are consistent to the maximum extent practicable with the enforceable policies of the approved coastal management program of coastal states on the Atlantic including the Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea as required under the Coastal Zone Management Act. Pursuant to 15 CFR 930.41(a), NMFS provided the Coastal Zone Management Program of each coastal state a 60-day period to review the consistency determination and to advise the Agency of their concurrence. NMFS received concurrence with the consistency determinations from several states and inferred consistency from those states that did not respond within the 60-day time period. This proposed action to establish opening dates and adjust quotas for the 2019 fishing year for the Atlantic commercial shark fisheries does not change the framework previously consulted upon; therefore, no additional consultation is required.
An initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) was prepared, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). The IRFA describes the economic impact this proposed rule, if adopted, would have on small entities. The IRFA analysis follows.
Section 603(b)(1) of the RFA requires agencies to explain the purpose of the rule. This rule, consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments, is being proposed to establish the 2019 commercial shark fishing quotas, retention limits, and fishing seasons. Without this rule, the commercial shark fisheries would close on December 31, 2018, and would not open until another action was taken. This proposed rule would be implemented according to the regulations implementing the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments. Thus, NMFS expects few, if any, economic impacts to fishermen other than those already analyzed in the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments, based on the quota adjustments.
Section 603(b)(2) of the RFA requires agencies to explain the rule's objectives. The objectives of this rule are to: Adjust the baseline quotas for all shark management groups based on any over- and/or underharvests from the previous fishing year(s); establish the opening dates of the various management groups; and establish the retention limits for the blacktip shark, aggregated large coastal shark, and hammerhead shark management groups in order to provide, to the extent practicable, equitable opportunities across the fishing management regions and/or sub-regions while also considering the ecological needs of the different shark species.
Section 603(b)(3) of the RFA requires agencies to provide an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule would apply. The Small Business Administration (SBA) has established size criteria for all major industry sectors in the United States, including fish harvesters. Provision is made under SBA's regulations for an agency to develop its own industry-specific size standards after consultation with Advocacy and an opportunity for public comment (see 13 CFR 121.903(c)). Under this provision, NMFS may establish size standards that differ from those established by the SBA Office of Size Standards, but only for use by NMFS and only for the purpose of conducting an analysis of economic effects in fulfillment of the agency's obligations under the RFA. To utilize this provision, NMFS must publish such size standards in the
As of October 2017, the proposed rule would apply to the approximately 221 directed commercial shark permit holders, 269 incidental commercial shark permit holders, 154 smoothhound shark permit holders, and 113 commercial shark dealers. Not all permit holders are active in the fishery in any given year. Active directed commercial shark permit holders are defined as those with valid permits that landed one shark based on HMS electronic dealer reports. Of the 490 directed and incidental commercial shark permit holders, only 28 permit holders landed sharks in the Gulf of Mexico region and only 78 landed sharks in the Atlantic region. Of the 154 smoothhound shark permit holders, only 26 permit holders landed smoothhound sharks in the Atlantic region and none landed smoothhound sharks in the Gulf of Mexico region. NMFS has determined that the proposed rule would not likely affect any small governmental jurisdictions.
This proposed rule does not contain any new reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance requirements (5 U.S.C. 603(b)(4)). Similarly, this proposed rule would not conflict, duplicate, or overlap with other relevant Federal rules (5 U.S.C. 603(b)(5)). Fishermen, dealers, and managers in these fisheries must comply with a number of international agreements as domestically implemented, domestic laws, and FMPs. These include, but are not limited to, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the Atlantic Tunas Convention Act, the High Seas Fishing Compliance Act, the Marine Mammal Protection Act, the Endangered
Section 603(c) of the RFA requires each IRFA to contain a description of any significant alternatives to the proposed rule which would accomplish the stated objectives of applicable statutes and minimize any significant economic impact of the proposed rule on small entities. Additionally, the RFA (5 U.S.C. 603(c)(1)-(4)) lists four general categories of significant alternatives that would assist an agency in the development of significant alternatives. These categories of alternatives are: (1) Establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) use of performance rather than design standards; and, (4) exemptions from coverage of the rule for small entities. In order to meet the objectives of this proposed rule, consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act, NMFS cannot exempt small entities or change the reporting requirements only for small entities because all the entities affected are considered small entities; therefore, there are no alternatives discussed that fall under the first, second, and fourth categories described above. NMFS does not know of any performance or design standards that would satisfy the aforementioned objectives of this rulemaking while, concurrently, complying with the Magnuson-Stevens Act; therefore, there are no alternatives considered under the third category.
This rulemaking does not establish management measures to be implemented, but rather implements previously adopted and analyzed measures with adjustments, as specified in the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments and the Environmental Assessment (EA) that accompanied the 2011 shark quota specifications rule (75 FR 76302; December 8, 2010). Thus, NMFS proposes to adjust quotas established and analyzed in the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments by subtracting the underharvest or adding the overharvest as allowable. Thus, NMFS has limited flexibility to modify the quotas in this rule, the impacts of which were analyzed in previous regulatory flexibility analyses.
Based on the 2017 ex-vessel price (Table 3), fully harvesting the unadjusted 2019 Atlantic shark commercial baseline quotas could result in total fleet revenues of $7,184,943. For the Gulf of Mexico blacktip shark management group, NMFS is proposing to increase the baseline sub-regional quotas due to the underharvests in 2018. The increase for the western Gulf of Mexico blacktip shark management group could result in a $79,243 gain in total revenues for fishermen in that sub-region, while the increase for the eastern Gulf of Mexico blacktip shark management group could result in a $9,781 gain in total revenues for fishermen in that sub-region. For the Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic smoothhound shark management groups, NMFS is proposing to increase the baseline quotas due to the underharvest in 2018. This would cause a potential gain in revenue of $581,718 for the fleet in the Gulf of Mexico region and a potential gain in revenue of $1,323,867 for the fleet in the Atlantic region.
All of these changes in gross revenues are similar to the changes in gross revenues analyzed in the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments. The final regulatory flexibility analyses for those amendments concluded that the economic impacts on these small entities are expected to be minimal. In the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic HMS FMP and its amendments and the EA for the 2011 shark quota specifications rule, NMFS stated it would be conducting annual rulemakings and considering the potential economic impacts of adjusting the quotas for under- and overharvests at that time.
For this rule, NMFS also reviewed the criteria at § 635.27(b)(3) to determine when opening each fishery would provide equitable opportunities for fishermen, to the extent practicable, while also considering the ecological needs of the different species. The opening dates of the fishing season(s) could vary depending upon the available annual quota, catch rates, and number of fishing participants during the year. For the 2019 fishing year, NMFS is proposing to open all of the shark management groups on the effective date of the final rule for this action (expected to be on or about January 1). The direct and indirect economic impacts would be neutral on
16 U.S.C. 971
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement.
The USDA Forest Service, Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit (LTBMU) will prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Meeks Bay Restoration Project. The LTBMU proposes to conduct restoration and recreation enhancement work at Meeks Bay Resort, Meeks Bay Campground, and in Meeks Creek and Meeks Marina.
Comments concerning the scope of the analysis must be received by October 26, 2018. The draft EIS is expected August 2019 and the final EIS is expected February 2020.
Send written comments to Lake Tahoe Basin Management Unit, 35 College Drive, South Lake Tahoe, CA 96150. Comments may also be sent via email to
Gina Thompson, 530-543-2675,
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through Friday.
The deteriorating condition of the existing marina infrastructure, concerns over aquatic invasive species, and concerns over degraded habitat for native species have prompted the need for action in Meeks Bay. The purpose of this project is to move the Meeks Creek stream channel and wetland/lagoon below State Route 89 (SR89) to a more natural condition where geomorphic and hydrologic processes support a functioning ecosystem while continuing to support sustainable recreation opportunities.
There is a need to improve water quality in Meeks Creek; restore degraded aquatic, riparian, and wetland habitats and barrier beaches; provide high quality habitat that is resilient to a changing climate; improve fish passage through the SR 89 stream crossing; control or eradicate current populations of terrestrial and aquatic invasive plant species; maintain and enhance access to Lake Tahoe and National Forest System lands; provide sustainable recreation opportunities consistent with a functioning ecosystem; enhance educational and interpretive opportunities; enhance species of value to the Washoe Tribe of Nevada and California; and promote the Federally protected species Tahoe yellowcress (
All project activities are proposed at the Meeks Bay Resort (7941 Emerald Bay Road, Meesk Bay, CA), the Meeks Bay Campground (just south of Meeks Bay Resort on Emerald Bay Road), in the Meeks Marina located between the two recreation facilities, or in Meeks Creek.
1. Aquatic Invasive Species Eradication: Control or eradicate aquatic invasive species (
2. Remove the existing marina infrastructure: Existing marina infrastructure to be removed includes the concrete boat ramp, steel and concrete sewalls, boulder riprap, the marina office, and other various underground support structures for the marina infrastructure.
3. Restore Meeks Lagoon in the location of the existing marina: Recontour the stream and marina banks to recreate lagoon topography similar to the lagoon that was present before Meeks Marina was constructed. Place natural materials resistant to erosion on the bank slopes. Remove trees up to 30 inches diameter at breast height (dbh) as needed for topography changes. Revegetate with native plant species appropriate to the site. Remove, store, and transplant after construction any Tahoe yellowcress (
4. Restore Meeks Creek from the SR 89 crossing to the confluence of Lake Tahoe: Recontour stream banks and reduce stream forces that cause erosion (
5. Install Utility Infrastructure: Construct infrastructure to secure the Tahoe City Public Utility District sewer line that crosses Meeks Creek. Relocate powerline infrastructure from within the restoration footprint. Relocate the USFS waterline from Meeks Creek bridge to under the scour limits of the restored Meeks Creek channel. Install or relocate necessary utility infrastructure either above or below ground for project activities, including water, sewer, electric, and communication lines.
6. Implement Resource Protection Barriers: Install new barriers (natural or fenced) in areas of relocated Tahoe yellow cress (
7. Wildlife Enhancement Actions: Install nest/perch structures for waterfowl, install bat boxes, and plant willow in select locations for willow flycatcher.
8. Construct a Pier: Construct a pier at furthest south end of USFS property in Meeks Bay Campground. The pier would be 12-18 feet wide and accessible via small boats from Lake Tahoe and via a universally accessible walkway on land that would accommodate both day use and boat-in camping opportunities. The pier would allow temporary mooring of 10-20 boats and be up to 300 feet long. Utilities on the pier would accommodate electrical and water. The pier would be designed for access by a maintenance vehicle.
9. Construct a Boat Launch: Construct a double-lane boat launch, marina office, and supporting infrastructure adjacent to the pier. The launch access would be designed to launch boats at water elevation level 6,223 feet and above. Support infrastructure would include an aquatic invasive species inspection station.
10. Reconstruct Trailer Parking and Vehicular Circulation Routes: Construct a boat trailer parking area and vehicular circulation routes as needed within Meeks Bay Campground for the pier and boat launch. Reconstruct and realign day use parking areas and access roads as needed. The capacity of parking spaces dedicated for day use will remain within 20% of existing levels. The capacity of the boat trailer and vehicle parking will be sized to meet the capacity of the pier and boat ramp.
11. Reconstruct Meeks Bay Campground: Reconstruct Meeks Bay Campground (south of Meeks Creek) to include utilities (water, electrical), host sites, restrooms, and a centralized waste dump station. The capacity of the camping units will remain within 20% of existing. Types of campging units constructed may include tent camping sites, full hookup sites, and/or yurt type sites or a combination of these. The campground facilities would be designed to function during the shoulder seasons (
12. Install Pedestrian Connectivity Routes: Construct a pedestrian/bike bridge over Meeks Creek to connect Meeks Bay Resort to Meeks Bay Campground. The bridge would be sized to accommodate two-way pedestrian and bicycle traffic, as well as standard vehicle loading for maintenance vehicles. Install an accessible multi-use pathway connecting Meeks Bay Resort commercial core area to the Meeks Bay Campground and the new pier/boat launch. Construct accessible beach access routes using stable, non-eroding materials, from parking areas and access points to the beach that meet Forest Service universal accessibility standards.
13. Install Interpretation Opportunties: Install interpretive opportunities along the lagoon area that highlight restoration activities, history of the Washoe Tribe in Meeks Bay, and species of concern to the Washoe Tribe.
14. Construct Day Use Parking Areas: Construct a day use parking area in the location of the former trailer parking in Meeks Resort to accommodate approximately 20 vehicles and be designed to accommodate Washoe Tribal Elders and other persons with disabilities. Construct the day use parking areas and access routes in Meeks Bay Resort as described in the Meeks Bay Master Plan.
15. Implement Shoreline Stabilization Measures: Remove and replace gabion walls and concrete wall along the north end of Meeks Bay with natural retaining structures that can accommodate beach wave run-up action.
16. Install Best Management Practices: Install permanent Best Management Practices (BMPs) in the parking lot areas, restrooms, and along roadways to capture and infiltrate storm water. Permanent BMPs would be consistent with USFS, Tahoe Regional Planning Agency (TRPA), and Water Board requirements. BMPs would include, but not be limited to, installation of infiltration basins, re-contouring and repaving of the parking areas to ensure proper drainage of storm water off paved surfaces, drip-line trenches, or other means of directing and infiltrating storm water to prevent run-off into Lake Tahoe.
Possible alternatives based on existing public comment and agency input include an alternative that fully reconstructs the existing marina (including supporting infrastructure such as parking areas and utilities). Additional alternatives will be developed based on public comment received during the scoping period.
Forest Supervisor Jeff Marsolais.
The responsible official will decide: (1) Whether or not to implement the project activities as described in the proposed action, (2) whether or not to implement the project activities as described in one of the alternatives analyzed in detail, (3) whether to implement a combination of alternatives analyzed in detail, or (4) whether to take no action.
Preliminary issues that have been identified are maintaining access to the existing recreation opportunities on the site, and the potential impacts to the character of Meeks Bay from restoration activities and the relocation of recreation infrastructure.
Permits for work in Meeks Creek would be required from the Army Corps of Engineers since the actions are executed in Waters of the US. Permits for project work from the local Water Board would be required. Project permits from the Tahoe Regional Planning Agency would be required. County building permits for the aquatic invasive species inspection station may apply.
This notice of intent initiates the scoping process, which guides the development of the EIS. A public open house for the project will be held at the Meeks Marina on October 10 at 2:00 p.m. PST. Entry to the Marina for the meeting will be through the Meeks Bay Resort, 7941 Emerald Bay Road, Meesk Bay, CA. Project documents, information on the public meeting, and additional supporting information will be posted to the project website
It is important that reviewers provide their comments at such times and in such manner that they are useful to the agency's preparation of the EIS. Therefore, comments should be provided prior to the close of the comment period and should clearly articulate the reviewer's concerns and contentions.
Comments received in response to this solicitation, including names and addresses of those who comment, will be part of the public record for this proposed action. Comments submitted anonymously will be accepted and considered, however.
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Correction: Announcement of meeting.
The Commission on Civil Rights published a document September 4, 2018, announcing an upcoming New Hampshire Advisory Committee. The document contained incorrect date and address to the meeting.
Barbara de La Viez, DFO, at
CORRECTION: In the
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Nevada Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 2:00 p.m. (Pacific Time) Thursday, September 13, 2018, the purpose of meeting is for the Committee to debrief the hearing on policing practices.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, September 13, 2018, at 2:00 p.m. PT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-260-1479, conference ID number: 9065619. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the California State Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 10:00 a.m. (Pacific Time) Thursday, September 13, 2018. The purpose of the meeting is for the Committee to continue reviewing project proposal examining Proposition 47.
The meeting will be held on September 13, 2018, at 10:00 a.m. PT.
Ana Victoria Fortes at
This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-260-1479, conference ID number: 9387568. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) that a meeting of the Oregon Advisory Committee (Committee) to the Commission will be held at 1:00 p.m. (Pacific Time) Tuesday, September 11, 2018. The purpose of the meeting is to review draft findings and recommendations and introduction sections for the OR SAC report on human trafficking.
The meeting will be held on Tuesday, September 11, 2018, at 1:00 p.m. PT.
Ana Victoria Fortes (DFO) at
This meeting is available to the public through the above toll-free call-in number. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-877-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are entitled to make comments during the open period at the end of the meeting. Members of the public may also submit written comments; the comments must be received in the Regional Programs Unit within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Western Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 300 North Los Angeles Street, Suite 2010, Los Angeles, CA 90012. They may be faxed to the Commission at (213) 894-0508, or emailed Ana Victoria Fortes at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing prior to and after the meeting at
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Alabama Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Monday, September 17, 2018, at 1 p.m. (Central) for the purpose discussing the access to voting report and strategies to move forward with the report.
The meeting will be held on Monday, September 17, 2018, at 1:00 p.m. (Central). Public Call Information: Dial: 877-710-4181, Conference ID: 1713129.
David Barreras, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-260-1479, conference ID: 1713129. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 230 S Dearborn Street, Suite 2120, Chicago, IL 60604. They may also be
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meeting.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act that the Missouri Advisory Committee (Committee) will hold a meeting on Thursday, September 20, 2018, at 3:00 p.m. (Central) for the purpose discussing civil rights topics in the state.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, September 20, 2018, at 3:00 p.m. (Central).
David Barreras, DFO, at
Members of the public can listen to the discussion. This meeting is available to the public through the following toll-free call-in number: 877-260-1479, conference ID: 5952926. Any interested member of the public may call this number and listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. The conference call operator will ask callers to identify themselves, the organization they are affiliated with (if any), and an email address prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the proceedings by first calling the Federal Relay Service at 1-800-977-8339 and providing the Service with the conference call number and conference ID number.
Members of the public are also entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be mailed to the Midwestern Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 230 S Dearborn Street, Suite 2120, Chicago, IL 60604. They may also be faxed to the Commission at (312) 353-8324 or emailed to David Barreras at
Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Midwestern Regional Office, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the City of Lufkin to establish a foreign-trade zone in Lufkin, Texas, within the Port Arthur-Beaumont CBP port of entry, under the alternative site framework (ASF) adopted by the FTZ Board (15 CFR Sec. 400.2(c)). The ASF is an option for grantees for the establishment or reorganization of zones and can permit significantly greater flexibility in the designation of new “subzones” or “usage-driven” FTZ sites for operators/users located within a grantee's “service area” in the context of the FTZ Board's standard 2,000-acre activation limit for a zone project. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on September 5, 2018. The applicant is authorized to make the proposal under Texas Statutes, Business and Commerce Code, Title 15, Chapter 681.
The proposed zone would be the fourth zone for the Port Arthur-Beaumont CBP port of entry. The existing zones—FTZ 115, Beaumont; FTZ 116, Port Arthur; and, FTZ 117, Orange—were approved on March 20, 1985 (Board Oder 296). The Foreign-Trade Zone of Southeast Texas, Inc., is the grantee of FTZs 115, 116 and 117.
The applicant's proposed service area under the ASF would be the City of Lufkin and a portion of its Extra Territorial Jurisdiction, as described in the application. If approved, the applicant would be able to serve sites throughout the service area based on companies' needs for FTZ designation. The applicant has indicated that the proposed service area is within the Port Arthur-Beaumont Customs and Border Protection port of entry.
The application indicates a need for zone services in the City of Lufkin area. Several firms have indicated an interest in using zone procedures. Specific
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to evaluate and analyze the facts and information presented in the application and case record and to report findings and recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is November 13, 2018. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to November 26, 2018.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's website, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Camille Evans at
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Notice of inquiry; request for comments.
The purpose of this notice is to advise the public that the National Defense Stockpile Market Impact Committee, co-chaired by the Departments of Commerce and State, is seeking public comments on the potential market impact of the proposed Fiscal Year 2020 National Defense Stockpile Annual Materials Plan. The role of the Market Impact Committee is to advise the National Defense Stockpile Manager on the projected domestic and foreign economic effects of all acquisitions, conversions, and disposals involving the stockpile and related material research and development projects. Public comments are an important element of the Committee's market impact review process.
To be considered, written comments must be received by October 11, 2018.
Address all comments concerning this notice to Eric Longnecker, U.S. Department of Commerce, Bureau of Industry and Security, Office of Strategic Industries and Economic Security, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Room 3876, Washington, DC 20230, fax: (202) 482-5650 (Attn: Eric Longnecker), email:
Parya Fenton, Office of Strategic Industries and Economic Security, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, telephone: (202) 482-8228, fax: (202) 482-5650 (Attn: Parya Fenton), email:
Under the authority of the Strategic and Critical Materials Stock Piling Revision Act of 1979, as amended (the Stock Piling Act) (50 U.S.C. 98
Section 3314 of the Fiscal Year (FY) 1993 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) (50 U.S.C. 98h-1) formally established a Market Impact Committee (the Committee) to “advise the National Defense Stockpile Manager on the projected domestic and foreign economic effects of all acquisitions and disposals of materials from the stockpile. . . .” The Committee must also balance market impact concerns with the statutory requirement to protect the U.S. Government against avoidable loss.
The Committee is comprised of representatives from the Departments of Commerce, State, Agriculture, Defense, Energy, Interior, the Treasury, and Homeland Security, and is co-chaired by the Departments of Commerce and State. The FY 1993 NDAA directs the Committee to consult with industry representatives that produce, process, or consume the materials stored in or of interest to the National Defense Stockpile Manager.
As the National Defense Stockpile Manager, the DLA must produce an Annual Materials Plan proposing the maximum quantity of each listed material that may be acquired, disposed of, upgraded, converted, recovered, or sold by the DLA in a particular fiscal year. In Attachment 1, the DLA lists the quantities and types of activity (potential disposals, potential acquisitions, potential conversions (upgrade, rotation, reprocessing, etc.) or potential recovery from government sources) associated with each material in its proposed FY 2020 Annual Materials Plan (“AMP”). The quantities listed in Attachment 1 are not acquisition, disposal, upgrade, conversion, recovery, reprocessing, or sales target quantities, but rather a statement of the proposed maximum quantity of each listed material that may be acquired, disposed of, upgraded, converted, recovered, or sold in a particular fiscal year by the DLA, as noted. The quantity of each material that will actually be acquired or offered for sale will depend on the market for the material at the time of the acquisition or offering, as well as on the quantity of each material approved for acquisition, disposal, conversion (upgrade, rotation, reprocessing, etc.), or recovery by Congress.
The Committee is seeking public comments on the potential market impact associated with the proposed FY 2020 AMP as enumerated in Attachment 1. Public comments are an important element of the Committee's market impact review process.
The Committee requests that interested parties provide written comments, supporting data and documentation, and any other relevant information on the potential market impact of the quantities associated with the proposed FY 2020 AMP. All comments must be submitted to the addresses indicated in this notice. All comments submitted through email must include the phrase “Market Impact
The Committee encourages interested persons who wish to comment to do so at the earliest possible time. The period for submission of comments will close on October 11, 2018. The Committee will consider all comments received before the close of the comment period. Comments received after the end of the comment period will be considered, if possible, but their consideration cannot be assured.
All comments submitted in response to this notice will be made a matter of public record and will be available for public inspection and copying. Anyone submitting business confidential information should clearly identify the business confidential portion of the submission and also provide a non-confidential submission that can be placed in the public record. The Committee will seek to protect such information to the extent permitted by law.
The Office of Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, displays public comments on the BIS Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) website at
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
To ensure consideration, written comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Room 6616, Washington, DC 20230 (or via the internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Mark Crace, BIS ICB Liaison, (202) 482-8093 or at
In the Proclamation of August 29, President Trump directed that as soon as practicable, the Secretary of Commerce shall issue procedures for requests for exclusions described in clause 2 to allow for exclusion requests for countries subject to quantitative limitations. The U.S. Department of Commerce will create an exclusion process for clause 2 by posting the newly created form on the Commerce website. Requesters will complete this form and send the form, the required certification, and any needed attachments to the U.S. Department of Commerce at the email address
“The Secretary shall, on an expedited basis, grant relief from the quantitative limitation set forth in Proclamation 9740 and Proclamation 9759 and their accompanying annexes for any steel article where (i) the party requesting relief entered into a written contract for production and shipment of such steel article before March 8, 2018; (ii) such contract specifies the quantity of such steel article that is to be produced and shipped to the United States consistent with a schedule contained in such contract; (iii) such steel article is to be used to construct a facility in the United States and such steel article cannot be procured from a supplier in the United States to meet the delivery schedule and specifications contained in such contract.”
Exclusion requests described in the procedures posted on the Commerce website for clause 2 exclusion from the Proclamation of August 29 will be submitted to the U.S. Department of Commerce by email. All exclusion requests under clause 2 must be in electronic form, but may be submitted at any time. However, exclusion requests requested under clause 2 if granted will only be valid till March 31, 2019. All submissions for exclusion requests are entirely voluntary.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping order on 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane (R-134A) from the People's Republic of China (China) covering the October 7, 2016, through March 31, 2018, period of review (POR).
Applicable September 11, 2018.
Paul Stolz, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4474.
On April 2, 2018, Commerce published a notice of opportunity to request an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on R-134A from China.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if a party who requested a review withdraws the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. TTI and Sanmei both timely withdrew their requests for an administrative review within the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of this order. Therefore, we are rescinding the administrative review of antidumping duty order on R-134A from China covering the period October 7, 2016 through March 31, 2018, in its entirety.
Because Commerce is rescinding this administrative review in its entirety, Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of R-134A from China. The entries to which this administrative review pertains shall be assessed antidumping duties at rates equal to the cash deposits of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as a reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of doubled antidumping duties.
This notice serves as a final reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under an APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305, which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
This notice is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that certain steel nails (nails) from the People's Republic of China (China) were
Applicable September 11, 2018.
Susan Pulongbarit or Benito Ballesteros, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4031 or (202) 482-7425, respectively.
On October 16, 2017, Commerce published in the
The products covered by this review are nails from China. For a full description of the scope,
Based on the no-shipments letters filed by nine companies,
Commerce preliminarily determined that information placed on the record by the three mandatory respondents, as well as by the 19 other separate rate applicants, demonstrates that these companies are entitled to separate rate status.
Commerce's policy regarding conditional review of the China-wide entity applies to this administrative review.
In the
Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and 751(a)(2)(A) of the Act. Constructed export prices and export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Because China is an NME country within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act, NV has been calculated in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
Commerce preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period August 1, 2016, through July 31, 2017:
Commerce intends to disclose to interested parties the calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results within five days of its public announcement or, if there is no public announcement, within five days of the date of publication of this notice in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b).
Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results, unless the Secretary alters the time limit. Rebuttal briefs, limited to issues raised in case briefs, may be submitted no later than five days after the deadline date for case briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, limited to issues raised in the case and rebuttal briefs, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain the party's name, address, and telephone number, the number of participants, whether any participant is a foreign national, and a list of the issues to be discussed. If a request for a hearing is made, Commerce intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, at a time and date to be determined. Parties should confirm by telephone the date, time, and location of the hearing two days before the scheduled date.
Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of all issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
Upon issuance of the final results, Commerce will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
For any individually examined respondent whose weighted average dumping margin is not zero or
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this review for shipments of the subject merchandise from China entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by sections 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the companies listed above that have a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This preliminary determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
In accordance with the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), the Department of Commerce (Commerce) is automatically initiating the five-year reviews (Sunset Reviews) of the antidumping and countervailing duty (AD/CVD) order(s) listed below. The International Trade Commission (the Commission) is publishing concurrently with this notice its notice of
Applicable September 1, 2018.
Commerce official identified in the
Commerce's procedures for the conduct of Sunset Reviews are set forth in its
In accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c), we are initiating the Sunset Reviews of the following antidumping and countervailing duty order(s):
As a courtesy, we are making information related to sunset proceedings, including copies of the pertinent statute and Commerce's regulations, Commerce's schedule for Sunset Reviews, a listing of past revocations and continuations, and current service lists, available to the public on Commerce's website at the following address:
Any party submitting factual information in an AD/CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
On April 10, 2013, Commerce modified two regulations related to AD/CVD proceedings: The definition of factual information (19 CFR 351.102(b)(21)), and the time limits for the submission of factual information (19 CFR 351.301).
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.103(d), Commerce will maintain and make available a public service list for these proceedings. Parties wishing to participate in any of these five-year reviews must file letters of appearance as discussed at 19 CFR 351.103(d)). To facilitate the timely preparation of the public service list, it is requested that those seeking recognition as interested parties to a proceeding submit an entry of appearance within 10 days of the publication of the Notice of Initiation. Because deadlines in Sunset Reviews can be very short, we urge interested parties who want access to proprietary
Domestic interested parties, as defined in section 771(9)(C), (D), (E), (F), and (G) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.102(b), wishing to participate in a Sunset Review must respond not later than 15 days after the date of publication in the
If we receive an order-specific notice of intent to participate from a domestic interested party, Commerce's regulations provide that
This notice of initiation is being published in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Brenda E. Brown, Office of AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.
Each year during the anniversary month of the publication of an antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation, an interested party, as defined in section 771(9) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), may request, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213, that the Department of Commerce (Commerce) conduct an administrative review of that antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation.
All deadlines for the submission of comments or actions by Commerce discussed below refer to the number of calendar days from the applicable starting date.
In the event Commerce limits the number of respondents for individual examination for administrative reviews initiated pursuant to requests made for the orders identified below, Commerce intends to select respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) data for U.S. imports during the period of review. We intend to release the CBP data under Administrative Protective Order (APO) to all parties having an APO within five days of publication of the initiation notice and to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 21 days of publication of the initiation
In the event Commerce decides it is necessary to limit individual examination of respondents and conduct respondent selection under section 777A(c)(2) of the Act:
In general, Commerce finds that determinations concerning whether particular companies should be “collapsed” (
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), a party that requests a review may withdraw that request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The regulation provides that Commerce may extend this time if it is reasonable to do so. Determinations by Commerce to extend the 90-day deadline will be made on a case-by-case basis.
None.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(b), an interested party as defined by section 771(9) of the Act may request in writing that the Secretary conduct an administrative review. For both antidumping and countervailing duty reviews, the interested party must specify the individual producers or exporters covered by an antidumping finding or an antidumping or countervailing duty order or suspension agreement for which it is requesting a
Note that, for any party Commerce was unable to locate in prior segments, Commerce will not accept a request for an administrative review of that party absent new information as to the party's location. Moreover, if the interested party who files a request for review is unable to locate the producer or exporter for which it requested the review, the interested party must provide an explanation of the attempts it made to locate the producer or exporter at the same time it files its request for review, in order for the Secretary to determine if the interested party's attempts were reasonable, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.303(f)(3)(ii).
As explained in
Commerce no longer considers the non-market economy (NME) entity as an exporter conditionally subject to an antidumping duty administrative reviews.
All requests must be filed electronically in Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS) on Enforcement and Compliance's ACCESS website at
Commerce will publish in the
For the first administrative review of any order, there will be no assessment of antidumping or countervailing duties on entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the relevant provisional-measures “gap” period of the order, if such a gap period is applicable to the period of review.
This notice is not required by statute but is published as a service to the international trading community.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that sales of hydrofluorocarbon blends (HFCs), from the People's Republic of China (China) have been made below normal value (NV). We invite interested parties to comment on these preliminary results.
Applicable September 11, 2018.
Manuel Rey, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5518.
Commerce is conducting an administrative review of the antidumping duty order on HFCs from China.
In April 2018, we extended the preliminary results of this review to no later than September 4, 2018.
The products subject to this order are HFC blends. HFC blends covered by the scope are R-404A, a zeotropic mixture consisting of 52 percent 1,1,1 Trifluoroethane, 44 percent Pentafluoroethane, and 4 percent 1,1,1,2-Tetrafluoroethane; R-407A, a zeotropic mixture of 20 percent Difluoromethane, 40 percent Pentafluoroethane, and 40 percent 1,1,1,2-Tetrafluoroethane; R-407C, a zeotropic mixture of 23 percent Difluoromethane, 25 percent Pentafluoroethane, and 52 percent 1,1,1,2-Tetrafluoroethane; R-410A, a zeotropic mixture of 50 percent Difluoromethane and 50 percent Pentafluoroethane; and R-507A, an azeotropic mixture of 50 percent Pentafluoroethane and 50 percent 1,1,1-Trifluoroethane also known as R-507. The foregoing percentages are nominal percentages by weight. Actual percentages of single component refrigerants by weight may vary by plus or minus two percent points from the nominal percentage identified above.
Based on our analysis of CBP information and information provided by the companies, we preliminarily determine that Daikin Fluorochemicals (China) Co., Ltd. and Zhejiang Yonghe Refrigerant Co., Ltd. had no shipments of subject merchandise during the POR. In addition, Commerce finds that, consistent with its assessment practice in non-market economy (NME) cases, it is appropriate not to rescind the review in part in these circumstances, but to complete the review with respect to these two companies and issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results.
Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). We calculated export prices for the sole participating mandatory respondent, TTI, in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Because China is an NME country within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act, we calculated NV for TTI in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
As indicated in the “Preliminary Results of Review” section below, we preliminarily determine that a weighted-average dumping margin of 283.63 percent applies to the three firms not selected for individual review which are eligible for a separate rate. For further information,
Six companies involved in the administrative review, including the mandatory respondent Weitron, did not demonstrate that they are entitled to a separate rate.
We preliminarily determine that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period February 1, 2016, through July 31, 2017:
Commerce intends to disclose calculations performed in connection with these preliminary results to interested parties within five days of the date of publication of this notice.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the publication date of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act, unless otherwise extended.
Upon completion of the administrative review, Commerce shall determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries.
For TTI, we will calculate importer- (or customer-) specific
Pursuant to Commerce's assessment practice, for entries that were not reported in the U.S. sales data submitted by TTI, we will instruct CBP to liquidate such entries at the China-wide rate. Additionally, if we determine that an exporter had no shipments of the subject merchandise, any suspended entries that entered under that exporter's case number (
For the respondents which were not selected for individual examination in this administrative review and which qualified for a separate rate, the assessment rate will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin determined for the non-examined respondent in the final results of this administrative review. We will also instruct CBP to take into account the “provisional measures deposit cap” in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(d).
For the final results, if we continue to treat the six exporters preliminarily found not to qualify for separate rates as part of the China-wide entity, we will instruct CBP to apply an
We intend to issue assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after the publication of the final results of this review.
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for all shipments of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided for by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the exporters listed above which have a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
We are issuing and publishing these preliminary results of review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1), and 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) is rescinding its administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain circular welded non-alloy steel pipe from Taiwan for the period of review (POR) November 1, 2016, through October 31, 2017.
Applicable September 11, 2018.
Mark Flessner, AD/CVD Operations, Office VI, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-6312.
On November 1, 2017, Commerce published in the
On January 11, 2018, Commerce published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the parties that requested a review withdraw the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The petitioner withdrew its request for review by the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of this order. Therefore, we are rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on certain circular welded non-alloy steel pipe from Taiwan covering the period November 1, 2016, through October 31, 2017, in its entirety.
Commerce will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions to CBP 15 days after publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of their responsibility, under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2), to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement may result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with section 777(i)(1) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Commerce) preliminarily determines that certain producers and exporters of passenger vehicle and light truck tires (passenger tires) from the People's Republic of China (China) made sales of subject merchandise at prices below normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR) August 1, 2016, through July 31, 2017.
Applicable September 11, 2018.
Toni Page, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration,
On August 10, 2015, Commerce issued an antidumping duty (AD) order on passenger tires from China.
The products covered by the order are certain passenger vehicle and light truck tires from China. A full description of the scope of the order is contained in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum.
Commerce is conducting this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(B) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). Commerce preliminarily determines that Junhong's reported U.S. sales were export price (EP). We calculated EP sales in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Given that China is a non-market economy (NME) country, within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act, Commerce calculated NV in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying the preliminary results of this review,
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the party or parties that requested a review withdraws the request within 90 days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of the requested review. Actyon Tyre Resources Co., Limited; Cooper (Kunshan) Tire Co., Ltd.; Hangzhou Yokohama Tire Co., Ltd.; Hongtyre Goup Co.; ITG Voma Corporation; Koryo International Industrial Limited; Kumho Tire Co., Inc.; Crown International Corporation (Crown); Shandong Wanda Boto Tyre Co., Ltd. (Boto Tyre); Qingdao Nama Industrial Co., Ltd.; Shandong Changfeng Tyres Co., Ltd.; Shandong Guofeng Rubber Plastics; Shandong Guofeng Rubber Plastics Co., Ltd.; Shandong Zhongyi Rubber Co., Ltd.; Shengtai Group Co., Ltd.; The Yokohama Rubber Company, Ltd.; Tyrechamp Group Co., Limited; and the Sailun Group Co., Ltd. (
When Commerce initiated the instant administrative review, we inadvertently did not include ITG Voma Corporation in the list of companies for which an administrative review was requested or initiated.
No other parties requested an administrative review of the order with respect to the aforementioned companies, except for Crown and Boto Tyre. Therefore, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), Commerce is rescinding this review of the AD order on passenger tires from China with respect to the listed companies, except for Crown and Boto Tyre.
As noted above, Crown and Boto Tyre timely filed withdrawal requests for their respective administrative reviews. However, the petitioner filed administrative review requests for these companies, but did not file any subsequent withdrawal requests. Therefore, both Crown and Boto Tyre are still subject to the instant administrative review. Boto Tyre timely filed a separate rate certification prior to its withdrawal request. We reviewed Boto Tyre's separate rate certification request and preliminarily find that it qualifies for separate rate status in this administrative review. Crown did not file a separate application or certificate and, thus, is preliminarily considered to be part of the China-wide entity.
Based on an analysis of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) information, and comments provided by interested parties, Commerce preliminarily determines that two companies under review, Federal Tire (Jiangxi), Ltd. and Highpoint Trading, Ltd. each had no shipments during the POR. For additional information regarding this determination,
Consistent with an announced refinement to its assessment practice in NME cases, Commerce is not rescinding this review, in part, but intends to complete the review with respect to the companies for which it has preliminarily found no shipments and issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results of the review.
In addition, six companies: Fleming Limited; Haohua Orient International
Also, Best Choice International Trade Co., Limited (Best Choice) filed a no shipment certification; however, we previously collapsed Best Choice and BC Tyre into a single entity in the prior review.
Commerce preliminarily determines that the information placed on the record by Junhong, as well as by the other companies listed in the rate table in the “Preliminary Results of Review” section below, demonstrates that these companies are entitled to separate rate status. Neither the Act nor Commerce's regulations address the establishment of the rate applied to individual companies not selected for examination where Commerce limited its examination in an administrative review pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the Act. Commerce's practice in cases involving limited selection based on exporters accounting for the largest volume of imports has been to look to section 735(c)(5) of the Act for guidance, which provides instructions for calculating the all-others rate in an investigation. Section 735(c)(5)(A) of the Act instructs Commerce to use rates established for individually investigated producers and exporters, excluding any rates that are zero,
In addition, Commerce preliminarily determines that certain companies have not demonstrated their entitlement to separate rate status because: (1) They withdrew their participation from the administrative review; or (2) they did not rebut the presumption of
Commerce is treating the companies for which it did not grant separate rate status as part of the China-wide entity. Because no party requested a review of the China-wide entity, the entity is not under review, and the entity's rate (
Commerce has preliminarily adjusted Junhong's U.S. price for export subsidies, pursuant to 772(c)(1)(C) of the Act, and domestic subsidies passed-through, pursuant to section 777A(f) of the Act.
As a result of this review, we preliminarily determine the weighted-average dumping margins rates to be:
Commerce intends to disclose to parties the calculations performed for these preliminary results of review within five days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice.
All submissions, with limited exceptions, must be filed electronically using ACCESS.
Unless otherwise extended, Commerce intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of its analysis of issues raised in any briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results of review, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act.
Upon issuance of the final results of this review, Commerce will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
Pursuant to Commerce practice, for entries that were not reported in the U.S. sales database submitted by an exporter individually examined during this review, Commerce will instruct CBP to liquidate such entries at the rate for the China-wide entity.
For the companies for which this review is rescinded, antidumping duties will be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(l)(i). Commerce intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions with respect to the companies for which this review is rescinded to CBP 15 days after the publication of this notice.
In accordance with section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act, the final results of this review shall be the basis for the assessment of antidumping duties on POR entries, and for future deposits of estimated antidumping duties, where applicable.
Commerce will instruct CBP to require a cash deposit for antidumping duties equal to the weighted-average amount by which NV exceeds U.S. price. The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this administrative review for shipments of the subject merchandise from China entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date of this notice, as provided by section 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the exporters listed above, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the weighted-average dumping margin established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in Commerce's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties and/or countervailing duties has occurred, and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties and/or an increase in the amount of antidumping duties by the amount of the countervailing duties.
These preliminary results are issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213 and 351.221(b)(4).
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of an incidental harassment authorization.
In accordance with the regulations implementing the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) as amended, notification is hereby given that we have issued an incidental harassment authorization (IHA) to Washington State Department of Transportation (WSDOT) to take small numbers of marine mammals, by harassment, incidental to Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals dolphin relocation project in Washington State.
This authorization is effective from October 1, 2018, through September 30, 2019.
Shane Guan, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401. Electronic copies of the application and supporting documents, as well as the issued IHA, may be obtained online at:
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth.
NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.
The MMPA states that the term “take” means to harass, hunt, capture, kill or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill any marine mammal.
Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
On October 4, 2017, WSDOT submitted a request to NMFS requesting an IHA for the possible harassment of small numbers of marine mammal species incidental to the dolphin relocation project at the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals in Washington State, between October 1, 2018, to September 30, 2019. NMFS determined that the IHA application is adequate and complete on December 4, 2017, with a few minor comments and questions. WSDOT subsequently addressed all NMFS comments and submitted a revised IHA application on March 1, 2018. NMFS is proposing to authorize the take by Level B harassment of the following marine mammal species: Harbor seal (
The WSDOT is proposing to relocate one dolphin to improve safety at each of the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals. The Olympic Class ferries have an atypical shape, which at some terminals causes the vessel to make contact with the inner dolphin prior to the stern reaching the intermediate or outer dolphin. This tends to cause rotation of the vessel away from the wingwalls and presents a safety issue. The project will reduce the risk of landing issues for Olympic Class ferries at the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals.
Due to NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) in-water work timing restrictions to protect ESA-listed salmonids, planned WSDOT in-water construction is limited each year to July 16 through February 15.
In-water construction at the Bremerton Ferry Terminal will commence after October 1, and is planned during the August 1, 2018, to February 15, 2019 in-water work window. In-water construction at the Edmonds Ferry Terminal will commence October 1, and is planned during the July 15, 2018, to February 15, 2019 in-water work window.
The Bremerton Ferry Terminal is located in the city of Bremerton, east of the Navy shipyard. Bremerton is on the shoreline of Sinclair Inlet, south of Bainbridge Island. Located in Kitsap County, Washington, the terminal is located in Section 24, Township 24 North, Range 1 East. The Edmonds Ferry Terminal is located in the city of Edmonds, along the downtown waterfront. Edmonds is in Snohomish County, approximately 15 miles north of Seattle. The terminal is located in Section 23, Township 27 North, Range 3 East (Figure 1-2 in the IHA application). Land use near both ferry terminals is a mix of residential, commercial, industrial, and open space and/or undeveloped lands.
The proposed project includes vibratory hammer driving and removal creating elevated in-water and in-air noise that may impact marine mammals.
The following construction activities (in sequence) are anticipated for the Bremerton Ferry Terminal.
• Install one temporary 36-inch diameter steel indicator pile with a vibratory hammer. The temporary indicator pile will be used as a visual landing aid reference for vessel captains during construction. It will be relocated to become a fender pile for the new dolphin.
• Remove the existing left outer dolphin that consists of six 36-inch diameter steel pipe piles with a vibratory hammer and/or by direct pull and clamshell removal.
• Using a vibratory hammer, install three 30-inch steel pile reaction piles. This is a back group of piles that provide stability to the dolphin.
• Install a concrete diaphragm (the diaphragm joins the piles at their tops), then use a vibratory hammer to install the remaining four 30-inch reaction piles.
• Using a vibratory hammer, install three 36-inch diameter steel pipe fender piles; install fenders and attach rub panels to the fender piles. Fender piles absorb much of the energy as the ferry vessel makes contact with the dolphin.
• Using a vibratory hammer, remove the 36-inch temporary indicator pile and install it as the last remaining fender pile along with the fender and fender panel.
The following construction activities (in sequence) are anticipated for the Edmonds Ferry Terminal.
• Install one temporary 36-inch diameter steel indicator pile with a vibratory hammer. The temporary indicator pile will be used as a visual landing aid reference for vessel captains during construction.
• Using a vibratory hammer, install one 30-inch reaction pile.
• Using a vibratory hammer, install the two remaining reaction piles through the diaphragm.
• Using a vibratory hammer, remove three 36-inch steel pipe fender piles and reinstall them in their new locations.
• Using a vibratory hammer, remove the 36-inch temporary indicator pile (this portion of the project will not reuse the indicator pile).
A summary of the piles to be installed and removed, along with pile driving information, is provided in Table 1.
Proposed mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures are described in detail later in this document (please see “Mitigation” and “Monitoring and Reporting” sections).
A notice of NMFS' proposal to issue an IHA was published in the
We have reviewed the applicant's species information, which summarizes available information regarding status and trends, distribution and habitat preferences, behavior and life history, and auditory capabilities of the potentially affected species—for accuracy and completeness and refer the reader to Sections 3 and 4 of the applications, as well as to NMFS' Stock Assessment Reports (SAR;
Table 2 lists all species with expected potential for occurrence in Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminal project area and summarizes information related to the population or stock, including potential biological removal (PBR), where known. For taxonomy, we follow Committee on Taxonomy (2017). PBR, defined by the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population, is considered in concert with known sources of ongoing anthropogenic mortality to assess the population-level effects of the anticipated mortality from a specific project (as described in
Marine mammal abundance estimates presented in this document represent the total number of individuals that make up a given stock or the total number estimated within a particular study or survey area. NMFS' stock abundance estimates for most species represent the total estimate of individuals within the geographic area, if known, that comprises that stock. For some species, this geographic area may extend beyond U.S. waters. All managed stocks in this region are assessed in NMFS' 2017 U.S. Pacific Marine Mammal SARs (Carretta
All species that could potentially occur in the proposed construction areas are included in Table 2. Although the SRKW could occur in the vicinity of the project area, WSDOT proposes to implement strict monitoring and mitigation measures with assistance from local marine mammal researchers and observers. Thus, the take of this marine mammal stock can be avoided (see details in Mitigation section).
In addition, sea otters may be found in Puget Sound area. However, this species is managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and are not considered further in this document.
Hearing is the most important sensory modality for marine mammals underwater, and exposure to anthropogenic sound can have deleterious effects. To appropriately assess the potential effects of exposure to sound, it is necessary to understand the frequency ranges marine mammals are able to hear. Current data indicate that not all marine mammal species have equal hearing capabilities (
• Low-frequency cetaceans (mysticetes): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 7 hertz (Hz) and 35 kilohertz (kHz);
• Mid-frequency cetaceans (larger toothed whales, beaked whales, and most delphinids): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 150 Hz and 160 kHz;
• High-frequency cetaceans (porpoises, river dolphins, and members of the genera Kogia and Cephalorhynchus; including two members of the genus Lagenorhynchus, on the basis of recent echolocation data and genetic data): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 275 Hz and 160 kHz.
• Pinnipeds in water; Phocidae (true seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between approximately 50 Hz to 86 kHz;
• Pinnipeds in water; Otariidae (eared seals): Generalized hearing is estimated to occur between 60 Hz and 39 kHz.
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
The pinniped functional hearing group was modified from Southall
For more detail concerning these groups and associated frequency ranges, please see NMFS (2016) for a review of available information. Eleven marine mammal species (7 cetacean and 4 pinniped (2 otariid and 2 phocid) species) have the reasonable potential to co-occur with the proposed construction activities. Please refer to Table 2. Of the cetacean species that may be present, one species is classified as low-frequency cetaceans (
This section includes a summary and discussion of the ways that components of the specified activity may impact marine mammals and their habitat. The “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section later in this document will include a quantitative analysis of the number of individuals that are expected to be taken by this activity. The “Negligible Impact Analysis and Determination” section will consider the content of this section, the “Estimated Take by Incidental Harassment” section, and the “Mitigation” section, to draw conclusions regarding the likely impacts of these activities on the reproductive success or survivorship of individuals and how those impacts on individuals are likely to impact marine mammal species or stocks.
Potential impacts to marine mammals from the Bremerton-Edmonds ferry terminal construction project are from noise generated during in-water pile driving and pile removal activities.
Here, we first provide background information on marine mammal hearing before discussing the potential effects of the use of active acoustic sources on marine mammals.
The WSDOT's Bremerton-Edmond ferry terminal construction project using in-water pile driving and pile removal could adversely affect marine mammal species and stocks by exposing them to elevated noise levels in the vicinity of the activity area.
Exposure to high intensity sound for a sufficient duration may result in auditory effects such as a noise-induced threshold shift (TS)—an increase in the auditory threshold after exposure to noise (Finneran
For marine mammals, published data are limited to the captive bottlenose dolphin, beluga, harbor porpoise, and Yangtze finless porpoise (Finneran, 2015). For pinnipeds in water, data are limited to measurements of TTS in harbor seals, an elephant seal, and California sea lions (Kastak
Lucke
Marine mammal hearing plays a critical role in communication with conspecifics, and interpretation of environmental cues for purposes such as predator avoidance and prey capture. Depending on the degree (elevation of threshold in dB), duration (
In addition, chronic exposure to excessive, though not high-intensity, noise could cause masking at particular frequencies for marine mammals, which utilize sound for vital biological functions (Clark
Masking occurs at the frequency band that the animals utilize. Therefore, since noise generated from vibratory pile driving is mostly concentrated at low frequency ranges, it may have less effect on high frequency echolocation sounds by odontocetes (toothed whales). However, lower frequency man-made noises are more likely to affect detection of communication calls and other potentially important natural sounds such as surf and prey noise. It may also affect communication signals when they occur near the noise band and thus reduce the communication space of animals (
Unlike TS, masking, which can occur over large temporal and spatial scales, can potentially affect the species at population, community, or even ecosystem levels, as well as individual levels. Masking affects both senders and receivers of the signals and could have long-term chronic effects on marine mammal species and populations. Recent science suggests that low frequency ambient sound levels have increased by as much as 20 dB (more than three times in terms of SPL) in the world's ocean from pre-industrial periods, and most of these increases are from distant shipping (Hildebrand, 2009). For WSDOT's Bremerton-Edmonds ferry terminal project, noises from vibratory pile driving and pile removal contribute to the elevated ambient noise levels in the project area, thus increasing potential for or severity of masking. Baseline ambient noise levels in the vicinity of project area are high due to ongoing shipping, construction and other activities in the Puget Sound.
Finally, marine mammals' exposure to certain sounds could lead to behavioral disturbance (Richardson
The onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise depends on both external factors (characteristics of noise sources and their paths) and the receiving animals (hearing, motivation, experience, demography) and is also difficult to predict (Southall
The biological significance of many of these behavioral disturbances is difficult to predict, especially if the detected disturbances appear minor. However, the consequences of behavioral modification could be biologically significant if the change affects growth, survival, and/or reproduction, which depends on the severity, duration, and context of the effects.
The primary potential impacts to marine mammal habitat are associated with elevated sound levels produced by vibratory pile removal and pile driving in the area. However, other potential impacts to the surrounding habitat from physical disturbance are also possible.
With regard to fish as a prey source for cetaceans and pinnipeds, fish are known to hear and react to sounds and to use sound to communicate (Tavolga
The level of sound at which a fish will react or alter its behavior is usually well above the detection level. Fish have been found to react to sounds when the sound level increased to about 20 dB above the detection level of 120 dB (Ona, 1988); however, the response threshold can depend on the time of year and the fish's physiological condition (Engas
During the coastal construction, only a small fraction of the available habitat would be ensonified at any given time. Disturbance to fish species would be short-term and fish would return to their pre-disturbance behavior once the pile driving activity ceases. Thus, the proposed construction would have little, if any, impact on marine mammals' prey availability in the area where construction work is planned.
Finally, the time of the proposed construction activity would avoid the spawning season of the ESA-listed salmonid species.
This section provides an estimate of the number of incidental takes authorized through this IHA, which will inform both NMFS' consideration of whether the number of takes is “small” and the negligible impact determination.
Harassment is the only type of take expected to result from these activities. Except with respect to certain activities not pertinent here, section 3(18) of the MMPA defines “harassment” as any act of pursuit, torment, or annoyance which (i) has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild (Level A harassment); or (ii) has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, breathing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering (Level B harassment).
Authorized takes would be by Level B harassment only, in the form of disruption of behavioral patterns for individual marine mammals resulting from exposure to noise generated from vibratory pile driving and removal. Based on the nature of the activity and the anticipated effectiveness of the mitigation measures (
As described previously, no mortality is anticipated or authorized for this activity. Below we describe how the take is estimated.
Described in the most basic way, we estimate take by considering: (1) Acoustic thresholds above which NMFS believes the best available science indicates marine mammals will be behaviorally harassed or incur some degree of permanent hearing impairment; (2) the area or volume of water that will be ensonified above these levels in a day; (3) the density or occurrence of marine mammals within these ensonified areas; and, (4) and the number of days of activities. Below, we describe these components in more detail and present the take estimate.
Using the best available science, NMFS has developed acoustic thresholds that identify the received level of underwater sound above which exposed marine mammals would be reasonably expected to be behaviorally harassed (equated to Level B harassment) or to incur PTS of some degree (equated to Level A harassment).
Level B harassment for non-explosive sources—Though significantly driven by received level, the onset of behavioral disturbance from anthropogenic noise exposure is also informed to varying degrees by other factors related to the source (
Applicant's proposed activity includes the generation of non-impulse (vibratory pile driving and removal) source; and, only the 120-dB re 1 μPa (rms) is used.
Level A harassment for non-explosive sources—NMFS' Technical Guidance for Assessing the Effects of Anthropogenic Sound on Marine Mammal Hearing (Technical Guidance, 2016) identifies dual criteria to assess auditory injury (Level A harassment) to five different marine mammal groups (based on hearing sensitivity) as a result of exposure to noise from two different types of sources (impulsive or non-impulsive). Applicant's proposed activity would generate and non-impulsive (vibratory pile driving and pile removal) noises.
These thresholds were developed by compiling and synthesizing the best available science and soliciting input multiple times from both the public and peer reviewers to inform the final product and are provided in the table below. The references, analysis, and methodology used in the development of the thresholds are described in NMFS 2016 Technical Guidance, which may be accessed at:
Here, we describe operational and environmental parameters of the activity that will feed into identifying the area ensonified above the acoustic thresholds.
The project includes vibratory removal and/or driving of 30-inch and 36-inch diameter hollow steel piles. Based on in-water measurements at
A summary of source levels from different pile driving and pile removal activities is provided in Table 4.
These source levels are used to compute the Level A harassment zones and to estimate the Level B harassment zones. For Level A harassment zones, since the peak source levels for both pile driving are below the injury thresholds, cumulative SEL were used to do the calculations using the NMFS acoustic guidance (NMFS 2016).
For Level B harassment, ensonified areas are based on WSDOT's source measurements (see above) computed using 15 * log(R) for transmission loss to derive the distances up to 120-dB isopleths.
For Level A harassment, calculation is based on duration of installation/removal per pile and number of piles installed or removed per day, using spectral modeling based on vibratory pile driving recordings made at Edmonds Ferry Terminal for the same piles. One-second sound exposure level (SEL) power spectral densities (PSDs) were calculated and used as representative pile driving sources to assess Level A harassment for marine mammals in different hearing groups. Initial results showed that Level A harassment zones from the 3-in piles were smaller than those from 30-in piles for high-frequency cetaceans, despite the broadband noise level from the 36-in pile being 3 dB higher than that of 30-in pile. Close examination of the pile driving spectra revealed some unusual high decay rate in the 36-in pile driving sound above 2 kHz. This unusual decay was probably due to the specific sediment in the pile driving location. Therefore, the spectrum for the 30-in pile was used to model the 36-in pile and scaled up to the 177 dB broadband level.
Transmission loss due to absorption was also incorporated based using the equation
Distances of ensonified area for different pile driving/removal activities for different marine mammal hearing groups is present in Table 5.
In this section we provide the information about the presence, density, or group dynamics of marine mammals that will inform the take calculations.
In most cases, marine mammal density data are from the U.S. Navy Marine Species Density Database (U.S. Navy 2015) except California sea lion and harbor porpoise. California sea lion density at Bremerton area is based on survey data of California sea lions at the Navy Shipyard at Bremerton from 2012-2016 (Navy 2017). Survey results indicate as many as 144 animals hauled out each day during this time period, with the majority of animals observed August through May and the greatest numbers observed in November. The average of the monthly maximum counts during the in-water work window provides an estimate of 69 sea lions per day. For harbor porpoise, because Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife has better local distribution data based on recent survey in the area, local animal abundance are used to calculate the take numbers (Evenson, 2016).
A summary of marine mammal density and local occurrence used for take estimates is provided in Table 6.
Here we describe how the information provided above is brought together to produce a quantitative take estimate. For all marine mammals except California sea lion at Bremerton Ferry Terminal area, takes were calculated as: Take = ensonified area × average animal abundance in the area × pile driving days and rounded up to the nearest integer. For California sea lion at Bremerton, take estimate is based on the average daily sighting of 69 animals within the area multiplied by the nine project days, which yield a total of 621 estimated takes.
For calculated take number less than 10, such as northern elephant seals, transient killer whales, humpback whales, minke whales, and long-beaked common dolphins, takes numbers were adjusted to account for group encounter and the likelihood of encountering. Specifically, for northern elephant seal, take of 15 animals is estimated based on the likelihood of encountering this species during the project period. For transient killer whale, takes of 30 animals is estimated based on the group size and the likelihood of encountering in the area. For humpback and minke whales, takes of eight animals each are estimated based on the likelihood of encountering. For long-beaked common dolphin, take of 50 animals is estimated based on the group size and the likelihood of encountering in the area.
No Level A harassment take is calculated using the aforementioned estimation method because of the small injury zones and relatively low average animal density in the area. Since the largest Level A harassment distance is only 35 m from the source for high-frequency cetaceans (harbor porpoise and Dall's porpoise), NMFS considers that WSDOT can effectively monitor such small zones to implement shutdown measures and avoid Level A harassment takes. Therefore, no Level A harassment take of marine mammal is anticipated for the dolphin replacement project at the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals.
A summary of estimated takes based on the above analysis is listed in Table 7.
In order to issue an IHA under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA, NMFS must set forth the permissible methods of taking pursuant to such activity, and other means of effecting the least practicable impact on such species or stock and its habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance, and on the availability of such species or stock for taking for certain subsistence uses (latter not applicable for this action). NMFS regulations require applicants for incidental take authorizations to include information about the availability and feasibility (economic and technological) of equipment, methods, and manner of conducting such activity or other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact upon the affected species or stocks and their habitat (50 CFR 216.104(a)(11)).
In evaluating how mitigation may or may not be appropriate to ensure the least practicable adverse impact on species or stocks and their habitat, as well as subsistence uses where applicable, we carefully consider two primary factors:
(1) The manner in which, and the degree to which, the successful implementation of the measure(s) is expected to reduce impacts to marine mammals, marine mammal species or stocks, and their habitat. This considers the nature of the potential adverse impact being mitigated (likelihood, scope, range). It further considers the likelihood that the measure will be effective if implemented (probability of accomplishing the mitigating result if implemented as planned) the likelihood of effective implementation (probability implemented as planned); and
(2) The practicability of the measures for applicant implementation, which may consider such things as cost, impact on operations, and, in the case of a military readiness activity, personnel safety, practicality of implementation, and impact on the effectiveness of the military readiness activity.
In-water work must occur only during daylight hours, when visual monitoring of marine mammals can be conducted.
Before the commencement of in-water construction activities, which include vibratory pile driving and pile removal, WSDOT must establish Level A harassment zones where received underwater SEL
WSDOT must also establish Level B harassment zones where received underwater SPLs are higher than 120 dB
WSDOT must establish shutdown zones within which marine mammals could be taken by Level A harassment. For Level A harassment zones that is less than 10 m from the source, a minimum of 10 m distance should be established as a shutdown zone.
A summary of shutdown zones is provided in Table 8.
NMFS-approved protected species observers (PSO) shall conduct an initial 30-minute survey of the shutdown zones to ensure that no marine mammals are seen within the zones before pile driving and pile removal of a pile segment begins. If marine mammals are found within the shutdown zone, pile driving of the
If pile driving of a segment ceases for 30 minutes or more and a marine mammal is sighted within the designated shutdown zone prior to commencement of pile driving, the observer(s) must notify the pile driving operator (or other authorized individual) immediately and continue to monitor the shutdown zone. Operations may not resume until the marine mammal has exited the shutdown zone or 30 minutes have elapsed since the last sighting.
To verify the required monitoring distance, the shutdown zones and ZOIs will be determined by using a range finder or hand-held global positioning system device.
WSDOT must implement shutdown measures if a marine mammal is detected within or to be approaching the shutdown zones provided in Table 8 of this notice.
WSDOT must implement shutdown measures if Southern Resident killer whales (SRKWs) are sighted within the vicinity of the project area and are approaching the Level B harassment zone (zone of influence, or ZOI) during in-water construction activities.
If a killer whale approaches the ZOI during pile driving or removal, and it is unknown whether it is a SRKW or a transient killer whale, it must be assumed to be a SRKW and WSDOT shall implement the shutdown measure described above.
If a SRKW enters the ZOI undetected, in-water pile driving or pile removal must be suspended until the SRKW exits the ZOI to avoid further level B harassment.
WSDOT must implement shutdown measures if the number of any allotted marine mammal takes reaches the limit under the IHA or if a marine mammal observed is not authorized for take under this IHA, if such marine mammals are sighted within the vicinity of the project area and are approaching the Level B harassment zone during pile removal activities.
Based on our evaluation of the required measures, NMFS has determined that the prescribed mitigation measures provide the means effecting the least practicable impact on the affected species or stocks and their habitat, paying particular attention to rookeries, mating grounds, and areas of similar significance.
In order to issue an IHA for an activity, section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA states that NMFS must set forth, requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of such taking. The MMPA implementing regulations at 50 CFR 216.104 (a)(13) indicate that requests for authorizations must include the suggested means of accomplishing the necessary monitoring and reporting that will result in increased knowledge of the species and of the level of taking or impacts on populations of marine mammals that are expected to be present in the proposed action area. Effective reporting is critical both to compliance as well as ensuring that the most value is obtained from the required monitoring.
Monitoring and reporting requirements prescribed by NMFS should contribute to improved understanding of one or more of the following:
• Occurrence of marine mammal species or stocks in the area in which take is anticipated (
• Nature, scope, or context of likely marine mammal exposure to potential stressors/impacts (individual or cumulative, acute or chronic), through better understanding of: (1) Action or environment (
• Individual marine mammal responses (behavioral or physiological) to acoustic stressors (acute, chronic, or cumulative), other stressors, or cumulative impacts from multiple stressors.
• How anticipated responses to stressors impact either: (1) Long-term fitness and survival of individual marine mammals; or (2) populations, species, or stocks.
• Effects on marine mammal habitat (
• Mitigation and monitoring effectiveness.
WSDOT must employ NMFS-approved PSOs to conduct marine mammal monitoring for its dolphin relocation project at Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals. The purposes of marine mammal monitoring are to implement mitigation measures and learn more about impacts to marine mammals from WSDOT's construction activities. The PSOs must observe and collect data on marine mammals in and around the project area for 30 minutes before, during, and for 30 minutes after all pile removal and pile installation work. NMFS-approved PSOs must meet the following requirements:
1. Independent observers (
2. At least one observer must have prior experience working as an observer;
3. Other observers may substitute education (undergraduate degree in biological science or related field) or training for experience;
4. Where a team of three or more observers are required, one observer must be designated as lead observer or monitoring coordinator. The lead observer must have prior experience working as an observer; and
5. NMFS will require submission and approval of observer CVs.
Monitoring of marine mammals around the construction site shall be conducted using high-quality binoculars (
• For all vibratory driving/removal at the Bremerton Ferry Terminal, two land-based PSOs and one monitoring boat with one PSO and boat operator must monitor the Level A and Level B harassment zones.
• For all vibratory driving/removal at the Edmonds Ferry Terminal, five land-based PSOs and two ferry-based PSOs must monitor the Level A and Level B harassment zones.
• If the in-situ measurement showed that the Level B harassment zone at the Edmonds Ferry Terminal is under 15 km from the source, three land-based PSOs and one ferry-based PSO must be monitoring the Level A and Level B harassment zones.
Locations of the land-based PSOs and routes of monitoring vessels are shown in WSDOT's Marine Mammal Monitoring Plan, which is available online at
6. PSOs must collect the following information during marine mammal monitoring:
• Date and time that monitored activity begins and ends for each day conducted (monitoring period);
• Construction activities occurring during each daily observation period, including how many and what type of piles driven;
• Deviation from initial proposal in pile numbers, pile types, average driving times;
• Weather parameters in each monitoring period (
• Water conditions in each monitoring period (
• For each marine mammal sighting, the following information shall be collected:
○ Species, numbers, and, if possible, sex and age class of marine mammals;
○ Description of any observable marine mammal behavior patterns, including bearing and direction of travel and distance from pile driving activity;
○ Location and distance from pile driving activities to marine mammals and distance from the marine mammals to the observation point; and
○ Estimated amount of time that the animals remained in the Level B harassment zone;
○ Description of implementation of mitigation measures within each monitoring period (
○ Other human activity in the area within each monitoring period.
WSDOT may conduct noise field measurement at the Edmonds Ferry Terminal to determine the actual Level B harassment distance from the source during vibratory pile driving of 36” piles.
WSDOT is required to submit a draft monitoring report within 90 days after completion of the construction work or the expiration of the IHA, whichever comes earlier. In the case if WSDOT intends to renew the IHA in a subsequent year, a monitoring report should be submitted 60 days before the expiration of the current IHA (if issued). This report would detail the monitoring protocol, summarize the data recorded during monitoring, and estimate the number of marine mammals that may have been harassed. NMFS would have an opportunity to provide comments on the report, and if NMFS has comments, WSDOT would address the comments and submit a final report to NMFS within 30 days.
In addition, NMFS would require WSDOT to notify NMFS' Office of Protected Resources and NMFS' West Coast Stranding Coordinator within 48 hours of sighting an injured or dead marine mammal in the construction site. WSDOT shall provide NMFS and the Stranding Network with the species or description of the animal(s), the condition of the animal(s) (including carcass condition, if the animal is dead), location, time of first discovery, observed behaviors (if alive), and photo or video (if available).
In the event that WSDOT finds an injured or dead marine mammal that is not in the construction area, WSDOT must report the same information as listed above to NMFS as soon as operationally feasible.
NMFS has defined negligible impact as an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (50 CFR 216.103). A negligible impact finding is based on the lack of likely adverse effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival (
To avoid repetition, this introductory discussion of our analyses applies to all the species listed in Table 7, given that the anticipated effects of WSDOT's Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals dolphin relocation project involving pile driving and pile removal on marine mammals are expected to be relatively similar in nature. There is no information about the nature or severity of the impacts, or the size, status, or structure of any species or stock that would lead to a different analysis by species for this activity, or else species-specific factors would be identified and analyzed.
For all marine mammal species, takes that are anticipated and authorized are expected to be limited to short-term Level B harassment, because of the small scale (only a total of 30 piles to be installed and removed) and short durations (maximum nine days pile driving/removal at Bremerton Ferry Terminal and five days pile driving/removal at Edmonds Ferry Terminal).
Marine mammals present in the vicinity of the action area and taken by Level B harassment would most likely show overt brief disturbance (startle reaction) and avoidance of the area from elevated noise levels during pile driving and pile removal. For these reasons, these behavioral impacts are not expected to affect marine mammals' growth, survival, and reproduction, especially considering the limited geographic area that would be affected in comparison to the much larger habitat for marine mammals in the Pacific Northwest.
Take calculation based on marine mammal densities within the ensonified areas did not predict a Level A harassment take. In addition, the estimated Level A harassment zones are small (less than 35 m from the source) and can be effectively monitored to implement a shutdown measure if a marine mammal is detected to be moving towards that zone. The impacts are not expected to affect survival, and reproduction of the marine mammal population in the project vicinity.
The project also is not expected to have significant adverse effects on affected marine mammals' habitat, as analyzed in detail in the “Anticipated Effects on Marine Mammal Habitat” section. There is no ESA designated critical area in the vicinity of the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminal areas. The project activities would not permanently modify existing marine mammal habitat. The activities may kill some fish and cause other fish to leave the area temporarily, thus impacting marine mammals' foraging opportunities in a limited portion of the foraging range; but, because of the short duration of the activities and the relatively small area of the habitat that may be affected, the impacts to marine mammal habitat are not expected to cause significant or long-term negative consequences. Therefore, given the consideration of potential impacts to marine mammal prey species and their physical environment, WSDOT's proposed construction activity at Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals
In summary and as described above, the following factors primarily support our determination that the impacts resulting from this activity are not expected to adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival:
• No injury, serious injury, or mortality is anticipated or authorized;
• All harassment is Level B harassment in the form of short-term behavioral modification; and
• No areas of specific importance to affected species are impacted.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the likely effects of the specified activity on marine mammals and their habitat, and taking into consideration the implementation of the prescribed monitoring and mitigation measures, NMFS finds that the total take from the proposed activity will have a negligible impact on all affected marine mammal species or stocks.
As noted above, only small numbers of incidental take may be authorized under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for specified activities other than military readiness activities. The MMPA does not define small numbers and so, in practice, NMFS compares the number of individuals taken to the most appropriate estimation of abundance of the relevant species or stock in our determination of whether an authorization is limited to small numbers of marine mammals.
The estimated takes are below 21 percent of the population for all marine mammals.
Based on the analysis contained herein of the proposed activity (including the prescribed mitigation and monitoring measures) and the anticipated take of marine mammals, NMFS finds that small numbers of marine mammals will be taken relative to the population size of the affected species or stocks.
There are no relevant subsistence uses of the affected marine mammal stocks or species implicated by this action. Therefore, NMFS has determined that the total taking of affected species or stocks would not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of such species or stocks for taking for subsistence purposes.
To comply with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321
NMFS has determined the issuance of the IHA is consistent with categories of activities identified in Categorical Exclusion B4 (issuance of incidental harassment authorizations under section 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA for which no serious injury or mortality is anticipated) of NOAA's Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A, and we have not identified any extraordinary circumstances listed in Chapter 4 of the Companion Manual for NAO 216-6A that would preclude this categorical exclusion under NEPA.
Section 7(a)(2) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA: 16 U.S.C. 1531
The humpback whale and the killer whale (southern resident distinct population segment (DPS)) are the only marine mammal species listed under the ESA that could occur in the vicinity of WSDOT's proposed construction project. Two DPSs of the humpback whale stock, the Mexico DPS and the Central America DPS, are listed as threatened and endangered under the ESA, respectively. NMFS Office of Protected Resources has initiated consultation with NMFS West Coast Regional Office under section 7 of the ESA on the issuance of an IHA to WSDOT under section 101(a)(5)(D) of the MMPA for this activity. NMFS is authorizing take of California/Oregon/Washington stock of humpback whale, which are listed under the ESA.
In March 2018, NMFS finished conducting its section 7 consultation and issued a Biological Opinion concluding that the issuance of the IHA associated with WSDOT's Bremerton-Edmonds ferry terminals construction project is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the endangered humpback and the Southern Resident killer whales.
As a result of these determinations, NMFS has issued an IHA to the Washington State Department of Transportation for the Bremerton and Edmonds ferry terminals dolphin relocation project in Washington State, provided the previously described mitigation, monitoring, and reporting requirements are incorporated.
10:00 a.m., Friday, September 14, 2018.
Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW, Washington, DC, 9th Floor Commission Conference Room.
Closed.
Enforcement matters. In the event that the time, date, or location of this meeting changes, an announcement of the change, along with the new time, date, and/or place of the meeting will be posted on the Commission's website at
Christopher Kirkpatrick, 202-418-5964.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice of Agricultural Advisory Committee renewal.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (Commission) is publishing this notice to announce the renewal of the Agricultural Advisory Committee (AAC). The Commission has determined that the renewal of the AAC is necessary and in the public's interest, and the Commission has consulted with the General Services Administration's Committee Management Secretariat regarding the AAC's renewal.
Charlie Thornton, AAC Designated Federal Officer, at 202-418-5145 or
The AAC's objectives and scope of activities are to assist the Commission in assessing issues affecting agricultural producers, processors, lenders and others interested in or affected by the agricultural commodity derivatives markets through public meetings, and Committee reports and recommendations. The AAC will operate for two years from the date of renewal unless the Commission directs that the AAC terminate on an earlier date. A copy of the AAC renewal charter has been filed with the Commission; the Senate Committee on Agriculture, Nutrition and Forestry; the House Committee on Agriculture; the Library of Congress; and the General Services Administration's Committee Management Secretariat. A copy of the renewal charter will be posted on the Commission's website at
Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, DoD.
Information collection notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by November 13, 2018.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to Non-Medical Counseling Program Office, 4800 Mark Center Drive, Room 14E08, Alexandria, VA 22350-2300, ATTN: Lee Kelley, or call (571) 372-4530.
Department of Education.
Notice of a new matching program.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended by the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988 and the Computer Matching and Privacy Protections Amendments of 1990 (Privacy Act), and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidance on the conduct of matching programs, notice is hereby given of the re-establishment of the matching program between the Department of Education (ED or Department) (recipient agency) and the Social Security Administration (SSA) (source agency).
The period of this matching program is estimated to cover the 18-month period from October 10, 2018 through April 9, 2020. However, the computer matching agreement (CMA) will become applicable at the later of the following two dates: October 10, 2018 or 30 days after the publication of this notice, on September 11, 2018, unless comments have been received from interested members of the public requiring modification and republication of the notice. The matching program will continue for 18 months after the applicable date and may be extended for an additional 12 months, if the respective agency Data Integrity Boards (DIBs) determine that the conditions specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(o)(2)(D) have been met.
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
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Marya Dennis, Management and Program Analyst, U.S. Department of Education, Federal Student Aid, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3385.
In accordance with the Privacy Act; OMB Final Guidance Interpreting the Provisions of Public Law 100-503, the Computer Matching and Privacy Protection Act of 1988, published in the
ED and SSA.
ED is authorized to participate in the matching program under sections 428B(f) (20 U.S.C. 1078-2(f)), 483(a)(12) (20 U.S.C. 1090(a)(12)), 484(g) (20 U.S.C. 1091(g)), and 484(p) (20 U.S.C. 1091(p)) of the HEA.
SSA is authorized to participate in the matching program under section 1106 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1306)) and the regulations promulgated pursuant to that section (20 CFR part 401).
The purpose of this matching program between ED and SSA is to assist the Secretary of Education with verification of immigration status and SSNs under 20 U.S.C. 1091(g) and (p). SSA will verify the issuance of an SSN and a date of death (if applicable) to students and the parent(s) of dependent students, and will confirm the citizenship status of those students applying for financial assistance programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. Verification of this information by SSA will help ED satisfy its obligation to ensure that individuals applying for financial assistance meet eligibility requirements of the HEA.
Verification by this matching program effectuates the purpose of the HEA because it provides an efficient and comprehensive method of verifying the accuracy of each individual's SSN, date of death if applicable and claim to a citizenship status that permits that individual to qualify for title IV, HEA assistance.
ED's systems of records involved in the matching program maintain information on individuals who apply for Federal student financial assistance through the Free Application for Federal Student Aid (FAFSA) and on individuals who apply to receive Person Authentication Service (PAS) Credentials, a user ID and password to electronically access their FAFSA record.
SSA's system of records involved in the matching program maintains records about each individual who has applied for, and obtained an, SSN.
ED's systems of records involved in the matching program contain (1) the information to determine an applicant's eligibility for Federal student financial assistance, and (2) the applicant's information to receive PAS Credentials, a user ID and password. The specific data elements that ED will transmit to SSA are: Students' and parent(s) of dependent students' SSN, first name, last name, and date of birth (DOB).
SSA's system of records involved in the matching program maintains information required to apply for, and obtain, an SSN. The specific data elements that SSA will send back to ED include: SSN, first name, last name, DOB, and an SSA verification code on each record to indicate the match results. The verification codes are: 1 = No match on SSN, 3 = SSN match, name match, no match on DOB, 5 = SSN match, no match on name, DOB not checked, 6 = SSN not verified, Blank = SSN match, name match, DOB match. SSA will also send a date of death if one is present on SSA's database for the record. Records returned from SSA also will include a citizenship status code as follows: A = U.S. citizen, B = legal alien, eligible to work, C = legal alien, not eligible to work, D = other, E = alien, student restricted, F = conditionally legalized alien, * = foreign born, Blank = domestic born (U.S. citizen), N = unable to verify citizenship due to no match on name, DOB, or SSN.
There are two ED systems of records involved in this matching program. The first is entitled “Federal Student Aid Application File” (18-11-01) last published on August 3, 2011 (76 FR 46774), and the second is entitled “Person Authentication Service (PAS)” (18-11-12) published on March 20, 2015 (80 FR 14981).
SSA's system of records involved in this matching program is entitled, “Master Files of Social Security Number (SSN) Holders and SSN Applications” (Enumeration System) 60-0058, last published in full on December 29, 2010 (75 FR 82121), modified on July 5, 2013 (78 FR 40542), February 13, 2014 (79 FR 8780), and July 3, 2018 (83 FR 31250) and (83 FR 31251).
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice of a New System of Records and Rescindment of a System of Records.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), the Department of Education (Department) publishes this new notice of a system of records entitled “Postsecondary Education Participants System (PEPS)” (18-11-09) and a rescinded system of records entitled “Integrated Partner Management (IPM) system” (18-11-21). The Department is rescinding the IPM system because the Department did not implement it and will continue using the PEPS system of records.
Submit your comments on the proposed new PEPS system of records notice and rescinded IPM system of records notice on or before October 11, 2018.
The re-issuance of the PEPS and the rescission of the IPM systems of records notices will become applicable upon publication in the
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID and at the top of your comments.
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Director, Postsecondary Education Participants System, Office of Student Financial Assistance Programs, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE, Room 112G1, Washington, DC 20202.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), you may call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The PEPS enables the Department of Education effectively to administer the approval, periodic review, and oversight of postsecondary educational institutions that participate in the student aid programs under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA). A postsecondary educational institution must be accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Department for that purpose, and the institution must also be authorized by the State in which it is located to be eligible for programs under title IV of the HEA. An eligible postsecondary institution must be approved by the Department for participation in programs under title IV of the HEA.
Postsecondary educational institutions submit an application through the internet for participation in programs authorized under title IV of the HEA. PEPS is the back-end repository where the data provided by those institutions resides and can be accessed by Department staff to confirm compliance with title IV of the HEA. Any authorized user can perform an ad hoc data extract from PEPS, and the PEPS staff provides tailored extracts to users on request. A limited number of scheduled extracts and uploads are run on a routine basis. These are fixed files, and no changes are made on either side without written approval/notice on both sides.
The PEPS system of records notice was last published in full in the
The Department is modifying the section of the PEPS notice entitled “SECURITY CLASSIFICATION” to add that the system is unclassified and the section of the PEPS notice entitled “SYSTEM LOCATION” to reflect the current addresses where the system is located. The Department is modifying the section entitled “SYSTEM MANAGER(S)” to reflect the current location of the Office of Student Financial Assistance Programs in Federal Student Aid.
The Department is modifying the section of the notice entitled “RECORD SOURCE CATEGORIES” to include that the system may obtain records from other persons or entities from which data is obtained under the section entitled “ROUTINE USES OF RECORDS MAINTAINED IN THE SYSTEM, INCLUDING CATEGORIES OF USERS AND PURPOSES OF SUCH USES.”
The Department is modifying routine use (3) entitled “Litigation and Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Disclosure” to indicate that the Department may make disclosures under this routine use when the Department requests representation from the Department of Justice for an employee of the Department who is being sued in his or her individual capacity as well as to change “an individual” to “a person” who has been designated by the Department or otherwise empowered to resolve or mediate disputes in order to avoid confusion because the word “individual” is a defined term under the Privacy Act.
The Department is also modifying routine uses (5) entitled “Employee Grievance, Complaint, or Conduct Disclosure” and (6) “Labor Organization Disclosure” to clarify and promote the standardization of the language used in this routine use with that used in the Department's other systems of records notices. The Department is also modifying routine use (7) entitled “Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) or Privacy Act Advice Disclosure” to permit the Department to obtain counsel necessary to ensure that individual privacy rights are protected under the Privacy Act.
The Department is also modifying routine use (9) entitled “Contract Disclosure” and routine use (10) entitled “Research Disclosure” to remove language that respectively referenced safeguard requirements under subsection (m) of the Privacy Act and Privacy Act safeguards. The Department is revising the language in these routine uses to clarify that contractors and researchers to whom disclosures are made under these routine uses will be required to agree to safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of the records in the system. The Department is also revising routine use (9) to clarify that these safeguards will be entered into “as part of such a contract,” rather than “before entering into such a contract.”
The Department is further modifying routine use (12) “Disclosure to the Office of Management and Budget or the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) for Credit Reform Act (CRA) Support” to add that the Department may disclose records to the CBO as necessary to fulfill CRA requirements and to clarify that any disclosure must be in accordance with 2 U.S.C. 661b.
Pursuant to the requirements in Office of Management and Budget (OMB) M-17-12, the Department is adding the routine use (13) entitled “Disclosure in the Course of Responding to a Breach of Data” and routine use (14) entitled “Disclosure in Assisting another Agency in Responding to a Breach of Data.”
The Department is updating the section entitled “POLICIES AND PRACTICES FOR RETENTION AND DISPOSAL OF RECORDS” to reflect the current Department records retention and disposition schedule covering records in this system. The Department is also updating the section entitled “ADMINISTRATIVE, TECHNICAL, AND PHYSICAL SAFEGUARDS” to include two-factor authentication, firewalls, encryption, and password protection as additional safeguards.
The Department is modifying the sections entitled “RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES,” “CONTESTING RECORDS PROCEDURES,” and “NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES” to specify the required information that an individual must provide when making a request for access to or notification of a record or to contest the content of a record in the system.
Finally, pursuant to the requirements of OMB Circular No. A-108, the Department is adding a new section entitled “HISTORY.”
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Acting Chief Operating Officer, Federal Student Aid of the U.S. Department of Education (Department) publishes a notice of a new and a rescinded system of records to read as follows:
Integrated Partner Management (IPM) system (18-11-21).
The Integrated Partner Management system of records notice was published in the
Postsecondary Education Participants System (PEPS) (18-11-09).
Unclassified.
Plano Technology Center, 2300 West Plano Parkway, Plano, Texas, 75075-8427;
Federal Student Aid, U.S. Department of Education, 830 First Street NE, Room 41I1, Washington, DC 20202.
See the Appendix at the end of this system of records notice for additional system locations.
Director, Postsecondary Education Participants System, Office of Student Financial Assistance Programs, U.S. Department of Education (Department), 830 First Street NE, Room 112G1, Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202) 377-3202.
Sections 481, 487, 498 of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), (20 U.S.C. 1088, 1094, 1099c); Section 31001(i)(1) of the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134 (31 U.S.C. 7701).
The information maintained in the PEPS is used for the purposes of determining the initial and continuing eligibility of and the administrative capability and financial responsibility of postsecondary educational institutions that participate in the student financial assistance programs authorized under title IV of the HEA, tracking school changes and maintaining a history of information regarding postsecondary educational institutions that have previously applied to participate or participated in these programs, and documenting any need for any protective or corrective action against a postsecondary educational institution or individual associated with that institution.
The PEPS maintains records about individuals who are owners of postsecondary educational institutions (either individually, as partners, or owners of the corporate entities that own those institutions); officials or authorized agents for those institutions; members of boards of directors or trustees of such institutions; employees of foreign entities that evaluate the quality of education; and individuals from third-party servicers that work with postsecondary educational institutions, including contact persons.
The PEPS maintains information regarding the eligibility, administrative capability, and financial responsibility of postsecondary educational institutions that participate in the student financial aid programs authorized under title IV of the HEA, including the names, Taxpayer Identification Numbers (generally Social Security numbers (SSNs)), business addresses, phone numbers of the individuals with substantial ownership interests in, or control over, those institutions, and personal identification numbers assigned by the Department.
Information is obtained from applications submitted by postsecondary educational institutions and their owners who seek approval for such an institution to participate or continue participating under new ownership in the student financial assistance programs authorized under title IV of the HEA, from components of the Department, from other Federal, State and non-governmental agencies and organizations that acquire information relevant to the purposes of the PEPS. Information may also be obtained from other persons or entities from which data is obtained under routine uses set forth below.
The Department may disclose information contained in a record in this system of records under the routine uses listed in this system of records without the consent of the individual if the disclosure is compatible with the purposes for which the record was collected. These disclosures may be made on a case-by-case basis or, if the Department has complied with the computer matching requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act), under a computer matching agreement.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(a)
(i) The Department of Education, or any component of the Department;
(ii) Any Department employee in his or her official capacity;
(iii) Any employee of the Department in his or her individual capacity where the Department of Justice (DOJ) has been requested to or has agreed to provide or arrange for representation for the employee;
(iv) Any employee of the Department in his or her individual capacity where the agency has agreed to represent the employee; or
(v) The United States, where the Department determines that the litigation is likely to affect the Department or any of its components.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(4)
(a)
(b)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
(12)
(13)
(14)
The records are maintained on electronic data files on a server.
The records are indexed by the name of the institution or organization, and may be retrieved by the OPEID of postsecondary educational institution, EIN (Entity Identification Number) of the postsecondary educational institution or entity; or the name or the Taxpayer Identification Number (generally the Social Security number) of the individual.
Records are maintained and disposed of in accordance with the Department Records Schedule 074: FSA Guaranty Agency, Financial and Education Institution Eligibility, Compliance, Monitoring and Oversight Records (N1-441-09-15). Records are destroyed/deleted 30 years after cut off. Cut off occurs at the end of the fiscal year when final action is completed.
All physical access to the Department of Education sites, and the site of Department contractor where this system of records is maintained, is controlled and monitored by security personnel who check each individual entering the building for his or her employee or visitor badge. The computer system employed by the Department offers a high degree of resistance to tampering and circumvention with firewalls, encryption, and password protection. This security system limits data access to staff of the Department, guarantors, accrediting agencies, State agencies, and Department contractors on a “need-to-know” basis, and controls individual users' ability to access and alter records within the system. All users of this system of records are given a unique user ID with personal identifiers. All interactions by individual users with the system are recorded. Access to the system requires two-factor authentication.
If you wish to gain access to any record in the system of records, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. You must provide the necessary particulars of your name, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department, while processing the request, to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Such requests must meet the requirements of 34 CFR 5b.5.
If you wish to contest the content of a record in the system pertaining to you, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. The request to amend must be made in writing and addressed to the system manager at the address provided above with the necessary particulars of your name, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department, while processing the request, to distinguish between individuals with the same name. The request must identify the particular record within the PEPS that you wish to have changed, state whether you wish to have the record amended, corrected, or deleted, and explain the reasons why you wish to have the record changed. Requests to amend a record must meet
If you wish to determine whether a record exists regarding you in the system, you must contact the system manager at the address listed above. You must provide the necessary particulars of your name, SSN, and any other identifying information requested by the Department, while processing the request, to distinguish between individuals with the same name. Your request must meet the requirements of the regulations at 34 CFR 5b.5, including proof of identity.
None.
The system of records was published in the
Boston Office, 5 Post Office Square, Boston, MA 02109. New York Office, 32 Old Slip, New York, NY 10005. Philadelphia Office, The Wanamaker Building, 100 Penn Square East, Philadelphia, PA 19107.
Chicago Office, Citigroup Center, 500 W Madison Street Chicago, IL 60661.
Atlanta Office, 61 Forsyth Street SW, Atlanta, GA 30303.
Dallas Office, 1999 Bryan Street, Dallas, TX 75201.
Kansas City Office, 1010 Walnut Street, Kansas City, MO 64106.
Denver Office, Cesar E. Chavez Memorial Building, 1244 Speer Boulevard, Denver, CO 80204.
San Francisco Office, 50 Beale Street, San Francisco, CA 94105.
Seattle Office, 915 Second Avenue, Seattle, WA 98174.
U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20202.
Office of Management (OM), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before November 13, 2018.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Angela Arrington, (202)260-8915.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Hearings and Appeals, Department of Energy.
Notice of implementation of special refund procedures.
The Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA) of the Department of Energy (DOE) announces the procedures for the disbursement of residual funds (totaling approximately $59,000) remaining in various Citronelle Settlement Agreement escrow accounts to the parties to the Agreement.
Comments are due by October 11, 2018.
Interested persons are encouraged to submit written comments electronically to: Kristin L. Martin, Attorney-Advisor, Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585-0107, (202) 287-1550, Email:
Kristin L. Martin, Attorney-Advisor, Office of Hearings and Appeals, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Ave. SW, Washington, DC 20585-0107, (202) 287-1550, Email:
The Cost of Living Council, a predecessor agency of the Department of Energy, acting pursuant to the Economic Stabilization Act of 1970, Public Law 91 39, 84 Stat. 796, 799, on August 22, 1973, issued a system of price controls on the first sale of all domestic production of crude oil. Eventually, regulations were promulgated controlling the allocation and prices of many refined petroleum products in addition to crude oil and providing for enforcement of these regulations.
The Citronelle Settlement Agreement funds resulted from funds collected by the Department of Energy (DOE) in connection with the approval of exception relief from the price control regulations in effect for the 341 Tract Unit of Citronelle Field (Unit) by the DOE Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA).
The Citronelle exception relief spawned years of administrative and judicial litigation, including litigation over the final terms and conditions of the relief, OHA's authority to grant the relief and the evidentiary basis for its decision, and the possible revision or termination of the relief. Ultimately, in December 1991, OHA issued a decision terminating the exception relief and requiring the transfer of the remaining Citronelle exception relief funds to an escrow account in the United States Treasury under the supervision of the DOE Controller.
Those actions led to further litigation. The Unit appealed OHA's termination of exception relief decision to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), which affirmed OHA's decision. The Unit then sought judicial review in
In order to avoid further extended judicial proceedings over the disposition of the Citronelle escrow account, DOE reached a settlement (Settlement Agreement) resolving, first, the claims to the DOE/Citronelle escrow fund reserved for various Refiner-Litigants and, second, the Unit's claims. The settlement agreement resolving the claims of the Refiner-Litigants was approved by the United States District Court for the Southern District of Texas on December 6, 1995.
The Settlement Agreement had five Parties and eight Eligible Entities or Groups. The Parties were: The United States, the Department of Energy, and specified Refiner-Litigants, Participant States, and Participant End-Users. The groups eligible to share in the remaining Citronelle funds were: the States, a group of End-Users, various Refiners (as defined in the Agreement), a group of Non-Litigant Refiners, the Consumers Power Company and various groups of Refiner Cooperatives, Cooperatives, and Airlines (as defined in the Agreement). The original amount governed by the Agreement was more than $63,000,000.00. As of June 2018, approximately $36,200.00 remained in the Airlines escrow account and approximately $23,000.00 remained in the Non-Litigant Refiners escrow account.
The Agreement stipulates that funds remaining in the Non-Litigant Refiners escrow account after proper distribution to that group must be transferred to the Refiner-Litigants. It also stipulates that funds remaining in the Airlines escrow account after proper distribution to that group are to be distributed in the following proportions:
• 2/7 to the United States Treasury;
• 2/7 to the States in proportions listed in Exhibit L of the Settlement Agreement and detailed below;
• 2/7 to the Refiner-Litigants; and
• 1/7 to the End-Users
The Agreement requires that the funds remaining in the End-Users account be transferred to the Subpart V Crude Oil Proceeding. However, the Subpart V Crude Oil Proceeding closed in 2016, with all remaining funds being distributed equally between the United States Treasury and the States (in pro-rata proportions defined by that refund proceeding).
The Citronelle Settlement Agreement funds will be distributed according to the following plan. Any funds remaining after the final distributions made in accordance with this plan will be considered unclaimed and will be transferred to the U.S. Treasury. Final distribution amounts will be calculated using the distribution percentages listed in an appendix to this Notice on the day the final Notice is published in the
The Agreement requires that the balance of the Non-Litigant Refiners account be distributed to the Refiner-Litigants through an escrow account established for that purpose for the initial distribution of Citronelle funds and managed by the law firm Miller & Chevalier. Miller & Chevalier no longer represents the Refiner-Litigants. Further, DOE has not been able to obtain documentation regarding how previous Citronelle distributions were made among the various firms comprising the Refiner-Litigants. In light of these facts and because the Citronelle distribution proportions agreed to by the Refiner-Litigants were not a part of the Agreement and thus not binding on DOE, we propose that the Refiner-Litigant portion of the funds be divided in equal proportions for the firms, or successor firms, listed in Exhibit A of the Agreement. A list of these firms is included as an appendix to this Notice. If a listed firm, or successor firm, does not submit the Required Information described below by the specified deadline, the funds will be considered unclaimed and will be transferred to the U.S. Treasury.
The Airlines account remaining funds will be split according to the percentages prescribed in the Settlement
One seventh of the Airlines account funds will be allocated to the End-Users account, which will be distributed in the same proportions as the residual Subpart V funds were distributed pursuant to our notice in 72 FR 46461, 46462 (August 14, 2007). The funds will be split equally, with half distributed to the United States Treasury and half distributed to the States. The funds distributed to the States will be divided in the proportions used for the final distribution of the Subpart V funds, which are identical to those listed in Exhibit L of the Agreement. All funds distributed to the States are subject to the same restricted uses as those received by that State as a result of the settlement of the case known as
In order to receive its allotted funds, each Recipient, including State Recipients, must submit the following no later than the 90th calendar day following publication of the Final Plan in the
• Statement of Intent: The Statement should be brief and include the Recipient's name and the representative's authority to claim the Recipient's funds.
• Information Required by the Agreement: The Agreement requires that certain Releases of Claims be executed and submitted to DOE before Recipients may receive distributions.
○ If a Recipient has not ever submitted the relevant Release of Claims, it should contact DOE at the below address to obtain a copy of the release, and should submit the executed release with the other required information described in this section.
○ If a Recipient has previously submitted the relevant Release of Claims, it should submit to DOE a notarized statement certifying that it has submitted the release. The notarized statement should be submitted with the other required information described in this section.
• Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) Information: Each Recipient must submit all information necessary for DOE to make an electronic distribution of funds, including the name and contact information (phone number, email address, and mailing address) of a person designated to be the Point of Contact, banking information, and Tax ID number. DOE will not contact Recipients regarding problems, discrepancies, or other issues with EFT information. DOE will notify the designated Point of Contact when the EFT is initiated. If an EFT is unsuccessful and the Recipient does not contact DOE to correct the error by the 14th day following the EFT initiation, the amount not distributed will be considered unclaimed and will be transferred to the United States Treasury.
Submissions should in PDF format and must be submitted by email to
• Each Refiner-Litigant Entity is entitled to 0.865800865800867% of the total Airline Account Funds.
• Each Refiner-Litigant Entity is entitled to 3.03% of the Non-Litigant Refiners Account Funds.
National Nuclear Security Administration, Department of Energy.
Notice.
On August 21, 2018, the Secretary of Energy issued a determination (“Secretarial Determination”) covering the transfer of low enriched uranium in support of the tritium production mission. The Secretarial Determination establishes the national security purpose of these transfers, therefore the transfers will be conducted under the
The Secretary of Energy signed the determination on August 21, 2018.
Ms. Audrey Beldio, NNSA Domestic Uranium Enrichment Program Manager, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20585, telephone (202) 586-1963, or email
Currently, the United States does not possess a fully domestic uranium enrichment capability. The U.S. uranium enrichment market consists of foreign enrichment technologies that cannot be used to meet national security requirements for enriched uranium.
Acknowledging that it will take time to develop enrichment technologies and allow for thorough analysis to inform an acquisition decision for producing unobligated LEU, NNSA's Domestic Uranium Enrichment strategy includes NNSA Defense Programs down-blending approximately 20 metric tons of HEU to LEU for use as fuel in tritium production reactors. The uranium will be transferred to the NNSA federal partner, the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) only for use as fuel in a reactor producing tritium and not for resale or retransfer. TVA will pay for the value of uranium to be received. Use of this material is compliant with long-standing U.S. policy and international commitments that require LEU used for defense purposes to be free of peaceful use restrictions (“unobligated”). TVA is responsible for preserving the unobligated LEU to be used as fuel in tritium production reactors.
The Department's transfers of uranium are conducted in accordance with its authority under the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, and consistent with other applicable law. These uranium transfers will be conducted under Section 3112(e)(2) of the
Set forth below is the full text of the Secretarial Determination:
On August 30, 2018, the Montana Department of Fish, Wildlife & Parks, Fish Hatchery Bureau, filed a notice of intent to construct a qualifying conduit hydropower facility, pursuant to section 30 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), as amended by section 4 of the Hydropower Regulatory Efficiency Act of 2013 (HREA). The proposed Bluewater Fish Hatchery Artesian Well Hydroelectric Project would have an installed capacity of 35 kilowatts (kW), and would be located on a 10-inch diameter pipeline that would take water from an artesian well to the Bluewater Spring, to be used for the fish hatchery. The project would be located near the Town of Bridger in Carbon County, Montana.
A qualifying conduit hydropower facility is one that is determined or deemed to meet all of the criteria shown in the table below.
Deadline for filing motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.
Anyone may submit comments or a motion to intervene in accordance with the requirements of Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.210 and 385.214. Any motions to intervene must be received on or before the specified deadline date for the particular proceeding.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file motions to intervene and comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that on August 31, 2018, pursuant to section 5 of the Natural Gas Act, 15 U.S.C. 717d and Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206 (2018), KMC Thermo, LLC (Complainant) filed a formal complaint against Dominion Energy Cove Point LNG, LP, (Respondent) alleging that Respondent unlawfully imposed a General System Commodity Electric Surcharge on certain customers, including the Complainant, under its FERC Gas Tariff, Second Revised Volume No. 1, all as more fully explained in the complaint.
The Complainant certifies that copies of the complaint were served on Respondent's corporate representatives designated on the Commission's Corporate Officials List.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. The Respondent's answer and all interventions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. The Respondent's answer, motions to intervene, and protests must be served on the Complainants.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
Take notice that on August 31, 2018, pursuant to sections 206 and 306 of the Federal Power Act, 16 U.S.C. 824e and 825e and Rule 206 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.206, RTO Insider LLC (Complainant) filed a complaint against New England Power Pool Participants Committee (NEPOOL or Respondent) requesting that the Commission find NEPOOL's unique press ban (and public) to be unlawful, unjust and unreasonable, unduly discriminatory and contrary to the public interest, and direct NEPOOL to cease and desist from imposing such a ban, all as more fully explained in the complaint.
Complainant certifies that a copy of the complaint has been served on NEPOOL.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at
On August 14, 2018, the Commission issued a 30-day public notice regarding the extension of the FERC-537 information collection. That same 30-day notice also responded to comments received on FERC-537 (Gas Pipeline Certificates: Construction, Acquisition and Abandonment, OMB Control No. 1902-0060) in response to a previous 60-day notice (issued on May, 14, 2018). This Errata Notice corrects the 30-day notice and the presentation and responses to the two public comments.
In reference to the 30-day notice issued on August 14, 2018, the section labeled “Response to public comments” should be corrected to read as follows:
On 5/30/2018, Ms. Joanne Collins submitted the following comment:
I am in favor of the collection of all information necessary for the proper performance of the function of the Commission. I am not in favor of deciding to collect less information because it is a burden. Using automated collection techniques or other form of technology is fine as long as it is not required for collection.
To the comment received from Ms. Joanne Collins, FERC responds:
Commenter concurs in the collection of information necessary for the Commission to make an informed decision and take appropriate action is appropriate, but does not want less information that is needed to not be collected solely because it is a burden on those seeking authorizations. We confirm that all the information required by FERC-537 continues to be necessary and that no data collections have been revised in this current review on FERC-537. Commenter notes that automated ways to collect information, such as eFiling are good, as long as they are not ultimately required of all fliers.
On 6/4/2018, Ms. Laurie Lubsen submitted the following comment:
I oppose the above proposal because it minimizes the input from the citizenry that will be directly affected by energy projects. We the PEOPLE are the most important voices to be heard from a functioning democracy, especially those directly affected by the FERC activities.
To the comment received from Ms. Laurie Lubsen, FERC responds:
Commenter points out that the collection of data and information from applicants requesting authorization to construct and operate natural gas pipelines can create a secondary burden on the general citizenry to learn about the Commission's rules and process; and further to perhaps take costly and time consuming efforts to participate in the Commission's proceedings. The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 was not intended to measure this type of secondary burden; only the primary burden on those applicant entities to collect and compile the information necessary for the Government to make an informed decision and take appropriate action. The Commission has multiple ways, times, and methods for the general citizenry to appropriately input their views on the Commission's rules and process, or its individual proceedings.
Take notice that on August 31, 2018, pursuant to Rule 204 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure, 18 CFR 385.204, Ohio River Pipe Line LLC filed a petition for temporary waiver of the tariff filing and reporting requirements of sections 6 and 20 of the Interstate Commerce Act and parts 341 and 357 of the Commission's regulations for the portion of its refined petroleum products system that currently operates between West Virginia and Ohio (The Kenova-Columbus Pipeline), as more fully explained in the petition.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (8 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protest must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protest and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible on-line at the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Diesel Emissions Reduction Act (DERA) Rebate Program” (EPA ICR No. 2461.03, OMB Control No. 2060-0686 Renewal) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2019. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2012-0103, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Jason Wilcox, Office of Transportation and Air Quality, (Mail Code: 6406A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-343-9571; fax number: 202-343-2803; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EPA uses approved procedures and forms to collect necessary information to operate its grant and rebate programs. EPA has been providing rebates under DERA since Fiscal Year 2012. EPA is requesting an extension of the current ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2019, for forms needed to collect necessary information to operate a rebate program as authorized by Congress under the DERA program.
EPA collects information from applicants to the DERA rebate program. Information collected is used to ensure eligibility of applicants and engines to receive funds under DERA, and to calculate estimated and actual emissions benefits that result from activities funded with rebates as required in DERA's authorizing legislation.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Part 70 State Operating Permit Program (Renewal)” (EPA ICR No. 1587.14, OMB Control No. 2060.0243) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, the EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2019. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2004-0015, at
Dylan C. Mataway-Novak, Air Quality Policy Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, C504-05, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, NC; telephone number: (919) 541-5795; fax number: (919) 541-5509; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In order to receive an operating permit for a major or other source subject to the permitting program, the applicant must conduct the necessary research, perform the appropriate analyses and prepare the permit application with documentation to demonstrate that its facility meets all applicable statutory and regulatory requirements. Specific activities and requirements are listed and described in the Supporting Statement for the 40 CFR part 70 ICR.
Under 40 CFR part 70, state, local and tribal permitting authorities review permit applications, provide for public review of proposed permits, issue permits based on consideration of all technical factors and public input and review information submittals required of sources during the term of the permit. Also, under 40 CFR part 70, the EPA reviews certain actions of the permitting authorities and provides oversight of the programs to ensure that they are being adequately implemented and enforced. Consequently, information prepared and submitted by sources is essential for sources to receive permits, and for federal, state, local and tribal permitting authorities to adequately review the permit applications and thereby properly administer and manage the program.
Information that is collected is handled according to the EPA's policies set forth in title 40, chapter 1, part 2, subpart B—Confidentiality of Business Information (
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency plans to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Establishing No-Discharge Zones (NDZs) Under Clean Water Act section 312 (Renewal)” (EPA ICR No. 1791.08, OMB Control No. 2040-0187) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, the EPA solicits public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through March 31, 2019. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2008-0150, online using
All comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information, or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Virginia Fox-Norse, Oceans, Wetlands and Communities Division, Office of Wetlands, Oceans and Watersheds, (4504T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-1266; fax number: 202-566-1337; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the EPA solicits comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and, (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
(B)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Risk Management Program Requirements and Petitions to Modify the List of Regulated Substances under section 112(r) of the Clean Air Act (CAA)”, EPA ICR No. 1656.16, OMB Control No. 2050-0144 to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. Before doing so, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through January 31, 2019. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2003-0052, online using
EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Wendy Hoffman, Office of Emergency Management, Mail Code 5104A, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 564-8794; fax number: (202) 564-2625; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Part 68 requires that sources with more than a threshold quantity of a regulated substance in a process develop and implement a risk management program and submit a risk management plan (RMP) to EPA. EPA uses RMPs to conduct oversight of regulated sources, and to communicate information concerning them to federal, state, and local agencies and the public, as appropriate.
The compliance schedule for the part 68 requirements was established by rule on June 20, 1996. The burden to sources that are currently covered by part 68, for initial rule compliance, including rule familiarization and program implementation was accounted for in previous ICRs. Sources submitted their first RMPs by June 21, 1999. For most sources, the next compliance deadlines occurred (and will occur) thereafter at five-year intervals—in 2004, 2009, 2014 and 2019. Therefore, resubmissions tend to occur in “waves” peaking each fifth
In this ICR, EPA has accounted for burden for new sources that may become subject to the regulations, currently covered sources with compliance deadlines in this ICR period (2019 to 2021), sources that are out of compliance since the last regulatory deadline but are expected to comply during this ICR period, and sources that have deadlines beyond this ICR period but are required to comply with certain prevention program documentation requirements during this ICR period.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) will be submitting renewals of information collection requests (ICRs) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, referencing the Docket ID numbers provided for each item in the text, online using
The EPA's policy is that all comments received will be included in the public docket without change including any personal information provided, unless the comment includes profanity, threats, information claimed to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute.
Kevin Roland, Drinking Water Protection Division, Office of Ground Water and Drinking Water, (4606M), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-564-4588: fax number: 202-564-3755; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public dockets for these ICRs. The dockets can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR), “Part 71 Federal Operating Permit Program (Renewal)” (EPA ICR No. 1713.12, OMB Control No. 2060.0336) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). Before doing so, the EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. This is a proposed extension of the ICR, which is currently approved through May 31, 2019. An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2004-0016, at
Joanna W. Gmyr, Air Quality Policy Division, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, C504-05, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, NC; telephone number: (919) 541-9782; fax number: (919) 541-5509; email address:
Supporting documents which explain in detail the information that the EPA will be collecting are available in the public docket for this ICR. The docket can be viewed online at
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, the EPA is soliciting comments and information to enable it to: (i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (ii) evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (iii) enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (iv) minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In order to receive an operating permit for a major or other source subject to the permitting program, the applicant must conduct the necessary research, perform the appropriate analyses, and prepare the permit application with documentation to demonstrate that its facility meets all applicable statutory and regulatory requirements. Specific activities and requirements are listed and described in the Supporting Statement for the part 71 ICR.
Under part 71, the permitting authority (the EPA or a delegate agency) reviews permit applications, provides for public review of proposed permits, issues permits based on consideration of all technical factors and public input, and reviews information submittals required of sources during the term of the permit. Under part 71, the EPA reviews certain actions and performs oversight of any delegate agency, consistent with the terms of a delegation agreement. Consequently, information prepared and submitted by sources is essential for sources to receive permits, and for federal and tribal permitting agencies to adequately review the permit applications and issue the permits, oversee implementation of the permits, and properly administer and manage the program.
Information that is collected is handled according to the EPA's policies set forth in title 40, chapter 1, part 2, subpart B—Confidentiality of Business Information (
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of settlement.
Under 122(h) of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA), the United States Environmental Protection Agency has entered into a settlement concerning the J.J. Seifert Machine Shop Superfund Site located in Sun City, Hillsborough County, Florida with the following parties: U B Corp, the Robert J. Upcavage Family Trust and Lawrence J. Bauer, Jr. The settlement addresses recovery of CERCLA costs for a cleanup action performed by the EPA at the Site.
The Agency will consider public comments on the settlement until October 11, 2018. The Agency will consider all comments received and may modify or withdraw its consent to the proposed settlement if comments received disclose facts or considerations which indicate that the proposed settlement is inappropriate, improper, or inadequate.
Copies of the settlement are available from the Agency by contacting Ms. Paula V. Painter, Program Analyst, using the contact information provided in this notice. Comments may also be submitted by referencing the Site's name through one of the following methods:
•
•
Paula V. Painter at 404/562-8887.
Notice is given that a complaint has been filed with the Federal Maritime Commission (Commission) by Marine Transport Logistics, Inc., hereinafter “Complainant”, against CMA-CGM (America), LLC, hereinafter “Respondent”. Complainant states that it is a Non-Vessel Operating Common Carrier (NVOCC) located in Bayonne, New Jersey and is licensed with the Commission. Complainant asserts that Respondent is a Vessel Operating Common Carrier (VOCC) located in East Rutherford, New Jersey.
Complainant states that Respondent was contracted to ship nine containers of cars to Yemen in December 2017 and those containers were not delivered.
Specifically, Complainant alleges that the Respondent violated:
a. “. . . Section 41102(c) of the Shipping Act in that such respondent failed to establish, observe, and enforce just reasonable regulations and practices relating to or connected with receiving, handling, or delivering of property . . .”;
b. “. . . Section 41104(9) of the Shipping Act in that, such Respondent imposed undue and unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage . . .”; and
c. “. . . Section 41104 (10) of the Shipping Act in that, such Respondent unreasonably refused to deal or negotiate . . .”
Complainant seeks reparations and other relief. The full text of the complaint can be found in the Commission's Electronic Reading Room at
The initial decision of the presiding officer in this proceeding shall be issued by September 6, 2019, and the final decision of the Commission shall be issued by March 20, 2020.
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y, (12 CFR part 225) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies with the standards of section 4 of the BHC Act.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 25, 2018.
1.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning government property.
Submit comments on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
•
Submit comments via the Federal eRulemaking portal by searching for Information Collection 9000-0075—Government Property. Select the link “Comment Now” that corresponds with “Information Collection 9000-0075: Government Property”. Follow the instructions provided on the screen. Please include your name, company name (if any), and “Information Collection 9000-0075; Government Property” on your attached document.
•
Ms. Camara Francis, Procurement Analyst, Office of Acquisition Policy, GSA 202-550-0935 or email
Government property, as used in FAR Part 45, means all property owned or leased by the Government. Government property includes both Government-furnished property and contractor-acquired property. Government property includes material, equipment, special tooling, special test equipment, and real property. Government property does not include intellectual property and software.
This part prescribes policies and procedures for providing Government property to contractors; contractors' management and use of Government property; and reporting, redistributing, and disposing of contractor inventory. This clearance covers the following requirements:
(a) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(ii) requires contractors to document the receipt of Government property.
(b) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(ii)(A) requires contractors to submit report if overages, shortages, or damages and/or other discrepancies are discovered upon receipt of Government-furnished property.
(c) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(iii) requires contractors to create and maintain records of all Government property accountable to the contract.
(d) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(iv) requires contractors to periodically perform, record, and report physical inventories during contract performance, including upon completion or termination of the contract.
(e) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(vii)(B) requires contractors to investigate and report all incidents of Government property loss as soon as the facts become known.
(f) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(viii) requires contractors to promptly disclose and report Government property in its possession that is excess to contract performance.
(g) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(ix) requires contractors to disclose and report to the Property Administrator the need for replacement and/or capital rehabilitation.
(h) FAR 52.245-1(f)(1)(x) requires contractors to perform and report to the Property Administrator contract property closeout.
(i) FAR 52.245-1(f)(2) requires contractors to establish and maintain source data, particularly in the areas of recognition of acquisitions and dispositions of material and equipment.
(j) FAR 52.245-1(j)(2) requires contractors to submit inventory disposal schedules to the Plant Clearance Officer via the Standard Form 1428, Inventory Disposal Schedule.
(k) FAR 52.245-9(d) requires a contractor to identify the property for which rental is requested.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the Federal Acquisition Regulations (FAR), and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The forms are to be used as worksheets for clinicians, medical staff, and health departments to compile information that would otherwise have been collected during the initial medical or dental exam. Once completed, the forms will be given to shelter staff for data entry into ORR's secure, electronic data repository known as `The UAC Portal'. Data will be used to record UC health on admission and for case management of any identified illnesses/conditions.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory
The meeting will be held on October 17, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Bethesda Marriott, 5151 Pooks Hill Rd., the Grand Ballroom, Bethesda, MD 20814. The conference center's telephone number is 301-897-9400. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-3223. The docket will close on October 16, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by October 16, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before October 16, 2018. The
Comments received on or before October 9, 2018, will be provided to the committees. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Jay R. Fajiculay, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Jay Fajiculay (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Gastrointestinal Drugs Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on October 18, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Bethesda Marriott, 5151 Pooks Hill Rd., the Grand Ballroom, Bethesda, MD 20814. The conference center's telephone number is 301-897-9400. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-0055. The docket will close on October 16, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by October 16, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before October 16, 2018. The
Comments received on or before October 9, 2018, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Jay R. Fajiculay, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Jay Fajiculay (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by November 13, 2018.
You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before November 13, 2018. The
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Amber Sanford, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-8867,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
On June 22, 2009, the President signed the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act (the Tobacco Control Act) (Pub. L. 111-31) into law. The Tobacco Control Act amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) and granted FDA authority to regulate the manufacture, marketing, and distribution of tobacco products to protect public health generally and to reduce tobacco use by minors.
FDA issued a final rule that requires domestic manufacturers and importers of cigars and pipe tobacco to submit information needed to calculate the amount of user fees assessed under the
As noted, FDA issued a final rule that requires domestic tobacco product manufacturers and importers to submit information needed to calculate the amount of user fees assessed under the FD&C Act. The U. S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) had been collecting this information and provided FDA with the data the Agency needed to calculate the amount of user fees assessed to tobacco product manufacturers and importers. USDA ceased collecting this information in fiscal year 2015 (October 2014). USDA's information collection did not require OMB approval, per an exemption by Public Law 108-357, section 642(b)(3). Consistent with the requirements of the FD&C Act, FDA requires the submission of this information to FDA now instead of USDA. FDA took this action to ensure that the Agency continues to have the information needed to calculate, assess, and collect user fees from domestic manufacturers and importers of tobacco products.
Section 919(a) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 387s(a)) requires FDA to “assess user fees on, and collect such fees from, each manufacturer and importer of tobacco products” subject to the tobacco product provisions of the FD&C Act (chapter IX of the FD&C Act). The total amount of user fees to be collected for each fiscal year is specified in section 919(b)(1) of the FD&C Act, and under section 919(a) FDA is to assess and collect a proportionate amount each quarter of the fiscal year. The FD&C Act provides for the total assessment to be allocated among the classes of tobacco products. The class allocation is based on each tobacco product class' volume of tobacco product removed into commerce. Within each class of tobacco products, an individual domestic manufacturer or importer is assessed a user fee based on its share of the market for that tobacco product class.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
FDA estimates that 658 entities will submit tobacco product user fees. The entity count was derived from aggregate data provided by the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (TTB), and reflects that in 2017 there were 192 total permitted manufacturers and 466 permitted importers over all tobacco product types for which TTB collects excise taxes (including cigarettes, cigars, snuff, chewing tobacco, pipe tobacco, and roll-your-own tobacco, excluding electronic nicotine delivery systems).
The estimate of 658 respondents to provide the information requested from § 1150.5(a), (b)(1) and (2) (21 CFR 1150.5(a), (b)(1) and (2)), and Form FDA 3852 reflects both reports of no removal of tobacco products into domestic commerce and reports of removal of tobacco product into domestic commerce. FDA estimates it will take 3 hours for each of these submission types for a total of 23,688 hours. Under § 1150.5(b)(3), these respondents are also expected to provide monthly certified copies of the returns and forms that relate to the removal of tobacco products into domestic commerce and the payment of Federal excise taxes imposed under chapter 52 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to FDA. We estimate that each monthly report will take 1 hour for a total of 7,896 hours. The estimate of 329 respondents to submit payment of user fee information under § 1150.13 reflects an average of half the number of domestic manufacturers and importers who may be subject to fees each fiscal quarter. FDA estimates the quarterly submission will take approximately 1 hour for a total of 1,316 hours.
FDA estimates that five of those respondents assessed user fees will dispute the amounts under § 1150.15(a), for a total amount of 50 hours. FDA also estimates that three respondents who dispute their user fees will ask for further review by FDA under § 1150.15(d), for a total amount of 30 hours. FDA has only received one dispute submission since fiscal year 2015. Based on this data, the Agency does not believe we will receive more than five disputes and three requests for further reviews in the next 3 years.
FDA estimates the total annual burden for this collection of information is 32,980 hours. The estimated burden for the information collection reflects an overall increase of 16,058 hours. We
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) has determined that CEFZIL (cefprozil) tablets, 250 milligrams (mg) and 500 mg and CEFZIL (cefprozil) for oral suspension, 125 mg/5 milliliters (mL) and 250 mg/5 mL were not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination will allow FDA to continue to approve abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) that refer to these drugs as long as they meet relevant legal and regulatory requirements.
Diana J. Pomeranz, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6288, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-4654.
In 1984, Congress enacted the Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) (the 1984 amendments), which authorized the approval of duplicate versions of drug products under an ANDA procedure. ANDA applicants must, with certain exceptions, show that the drug for which they are seeking approval contains the same active ingredient in the same strength and dosage form as the “listed drug,” which is a version of the drug that was previously approved. ANDA applicants do not have to repeat the extensive clinical testing otherwise necessary to gain approval of a new drug application (NDA).
The 1984 amendments include what is now section 505(j)(7) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 355(j)(7)), which requires FDA to publish a list of all approved drugs. FDA publishes this list as part of the “Approved Drug Products With Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” which is known generally as the “Orange Book.” Under FDA regulations, drugs are removed from the list if the Agency withdraws or suspends approval of the drug's NDA or ANDA for reasons of safety or effectiveness or if FDA determines that the listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness (21 CFR 314.162).
A person may petition the Agency to determine, or the Agency may determine on its own initiative, whether a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness. This determination may be made at any time after the drug has been withdrawn from sale, but must be made prior to approving an ANDA that refers to the listed drug (§ 314.161 (21 CFR 314.161)). FDA may not approve an ANDA that does not refer to a listed drug.
Under § 314.161(a)(2), the Agency must also determine whether a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness if ANDAs that referred to the listed drug have already been approved prior to its market withdrawal. If the Agency determines that a listed drug was withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness, and there are approved ANDAs that reference that listed drug, FDA will initiate a proceeding to determine whether the suspension of the ANDAs is also required (21 CFR 314.153(b)).
CEFZIL (cefprozil) tablets, 250 mg and 500 mg, are the subject of NDA 050664 held by Corden Pharma Latina S.p.A., and initially approved on December 23, 1991. CEFZIL (cefprozil) for oral suspension, 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL, is the subject of NDA 050665 held by Corden Pharma Latina S.p.A., and initially approved on December 23, 1991. CEFZIL is indicated for the treatment of patients with mild to moderate infections caused by susceptible strains of the designated microorganisms in the conditions listed below:
• Upper respiratory tract: Pharyngitis/tonsillitis caused by
• Lower respiratory tract: Acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis caused by
• Skin and skin structure: Uncomplicated skin and skin-structure infections caused by
In a letter dated September 7, 2010, Bristol-Myers Squibb
After reviewing Agency records and based on the information we have at this time, FDA has determined under § 314.161 that CEFZIL (cefprozil) tablets, 250 mg and 500 mg, and CEFZIL (cefprozil) for oral suspension, 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL, were not withdrawn from sale for reasons of safety or effectiveness.
We note that CEFZIL (cefprozil) tablets, 250 mg and 500 mg, and CEFZIL (cefprozil) for oral suspension, 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL, previously were approved with an indication for secondary bacterial infection of acute bronchitis (SBIAB). On October 3, 2016, FDA sent Corden Pharma Latina S.p.A. a Prior Approval Supplement Request letter seeking removal of the SBIAB indication from the labeling of these drug products. In response, on October 28, 2016, Corden Pharma Latina S.p.A. submitted supplements proposing to remove the indication. On November 22, 2016, FDA approved these supplements and the indication was
Further, based on a review of relevant information, FDA concluded that the SBIAB indication is not appropriate because most cases of SBIAB are considered to be viral or non-infectious. As an antibacterial drug, CEFZIL (cefprozil) is not considered to be effective to treat SBIAB. Such use of CEFZIL (cefprozil) would likely result in inappropriate antibacterial drug use. Accordingly, the risk benefit balance for the treatment of SBIAB with CEFZIL (cefprozil) is unfavorable and does not support approval of these products (or ANDAs referencing them) for this indication.
The Agency will continue to list CEFZIL (cefprozil) tablets, 250 mg and 500 mg, and CEFZIL (cefprozil) for oral suspension, 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL, in the “Discontinued Drug Product List” section of the Orange Book. FDA will continue to accept and, where appropriate, approve ANDAs that refer to these drug products, but does not intend to do so if they propose to include the SBIAB indication (see,
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on October 11, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-3276. The docket will close on October 10, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by October 10, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before October 10, 2018. The
Comments received on or before October 3, 2018, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Moon Hee V. Choi, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Moon Hee V. Choi (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by October 11, 2018.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, Fax: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
OMB Control No. 0910-0802—Extension.
This information collection supports the above captioned Agency guidance. The Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009, the Biosimilar User Fee Act of 2012, and the recent passage of the Biosimilar User Fee Amendments of 2017 (BsUFA II) under Title IV of the FDA Reauthorization Act of 2017, authorize user fees for biosimilar biological products. FDA has committed to meeting certain performance goals in connection with the reauthorized biosimilar user fee program. To provide recommendations to industry on formal meetings between FDA and sponsors or applicants relating to the development and review of biosimilar biological products regulated by the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER) or the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) and assist sponsors and applicants in generating and submitting meeting requests and the associated meeting packages to FDA for biosimilar biological products, we developed guidance for industry entitled “Formal Meetings Between FDA and Biosimilar Biological Products Sponsors or Applicants.” The guidance describes our current thinking on how we intend to interpret and apply certain provisions of BsUFA II and provides information on specific performance goals for the management of meetings associated with the development and review of biosimilar biological products. The guidance document includes two types of information collection: (1) The submission of a meeting request containing certain information and (2) the submission of the information package(s) that accompany the meeting request.
Under the guidance, a sponsor or applicant interested in meeting with CDER or CBER should submit a meeting request to the sponsor's or applicant's application (
1. Product name,
2. application number (if applicable), proposed proper name or proper name (post licensure),
4. structure,
5. reference product name,
6. proposed indication(s) or context of product development,
7. meeting type being requested (the rationale for requesting the meeting type should be included),
8. a brief statement of the purpose of the meeting, including a brief background of the issues underlying the agenda. It can also include a brief summary of completed or planned studies and clinical trials or data the sponsor or applicant intends to discuss at the meeting, the general nature of the critical questions to be asked, and where the meeting fits in the overall development plans.
9. a list of specific objectives/outcomes expected from the meeting,
10. a proposed agenda, including times required for each agenda item,
11. a list of questions grouped by discipline and a brief explanation of the context and purpose of each question,
12. a list of all individuals with their titles and affiliations who will attend the requested meeting from the requestor's organization and consultants,
13. a list of FDA staff, if known, or disciplines asked to participate in the requested meeting,
14. suggested dates and times for the meeting, and
15. the proposed format of the meeting (
This information will be used by FDA to determine the utility of the meeting, to identify FDA staff necessary to discuss proposed agenda items, and to schedule the meeting.
FDA requests that a sponsor or applicant submit a meeting package to the appropriate review division with the meeting request. FDA recommends that the information packages generally include:
1. Product name and application number (if applicable),
2. proposed proper name or proper name (post licensure),
3. structure,
4. reference product name,
5. proposed indication(s) or context of product development,
6. dosage form, route of administration, dosing regimen (frequency and duration), and presentation(s),
7. a list of all sponsor's or applicant's attendees and consultants with their titles and affiliations who will attend the requested meeting,
8. background that includes a brief history of the development program and the status of product development (
9. a brief statement summarizing the purpose of the meeting,
10. the proposed agenda,
11. a list of questions for discussion grouped by discipline and with a brief summary for each question to explain the need or context for the question, and
12. data to support discussion organized by discipline and question.
The purpose of the meeting package is to provide FDA staff the opportunity to adequately prepare for the meeting, including the review of relevant data concerning the product.
In the
We estimate the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Since last OMB approval, there has been an increase in meeting requests with CDER and a corresponding increase in the number of information packages. Accordingly, we have adjusted our estimate upward by six respondents to CDER meeting requests. We attribute this change to an increase in biosimilar product development.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Postapproval Changes to Drug Substances.” This draft guidance provides recommendations to holders of approved new drug applications, abbreviated new drug applications, new animal drug applications, abbreviated new animal drug applications, and holders of drug master files and veterinary master files who may want to make a change to the drug substance manufacturing process during the drug product application postapproval period. The draft guidance applies to synthetic drug substances and the synthetic steps involved in the preparation of semisynthetic drug substances. The draft guidance covers facility, scale, and equipment changes associated with all steps of drug substance manufacturing; specification changes to starting materials, raw materials, intermediates, and the unfinished and final drug substance; synthetic manufacturing process changes; changes in the source of drug substance; and change to container closure system of the drug substance.
Submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by November 13, 2018 to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance.
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
You may submit comments on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)).
Submit written requests for single copies of the draft guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, or the Office of Communication, Outreach, and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave, Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Carolyn Cohran, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm 4151, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-8612; Stephen Ripley, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg.71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911; or Dennis Bensley, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7500 Standish Place, Rm. E334, Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-0696.
FDA is announcing the availability of a draft guidance for industry entitled “Postapproval Changes to Drug Substances.” As part of the reauthorization of the Generic Drug User Fee Amendments (GDUFA II), FDA committed to issuing a guidance on postapproval changes to Type II Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients Drug Master Files (DMFs) and submission mechanisms for abbreviated new drug application holders who reference such DMFs (see GDUFA Reauthorization Performance Goals and Program Enhancements Fiscal Years 2018-2022, known as the GDUFA II Commitment Letter, at
A letter of authorization must be provided for an applicant to reference a DMF for the proposed drug substance § 314.420(b) (21 CFR 314.420(b)). Any addition, change, or deletion of information in the master file must be submitted to the master file in the form of an amendment (see § 314.420(c)). Further, the master file holder must notify each person authorized to reference the DMF of the nature of the changes, and should provide as much detail as is consistent with the confidentiality agreement between the master file holder and the authorized person, so that the authorized person can determine how to report the changes in the approved application (see § 314.420(c)). In turn, application holders must notify FDA of each change in each condition established in an approved application, excluding the variations already provided for in the application (§§ 314.70, 314.97, 514.8).
When drug substance information is contained in an application, rather than in a referenced DMF, such changes must be submitted to FDA in the form of a supplement to the approved application or in an annual report (§§ 314.70, 314.97, 514.8).
This draft guidance addresses how the risk of one or more change(s) to the drug substance should be assessed and provides recommendations regarding the documentation needed to support such changes for the drug substance, and where applicable, for the drug product made with modified drug substance. The draft guidance covers the following changes: (1) facility, scale, and equipment changes associated with all steps of drug substance manufacturing; (2) specification changes to starting materials, raw materials, intermediates, and the unfinished and final drug substance; (3) synthetic manufacturing process changes; (4) changes in the source of drug substance; and (5) change to container closure system of the drug substance.
This draft guidance does not address postapproval changes to peptides, oligonucleotides, radiopharmaceuticals; or drug substances isolated from natural sources or produced by procedures involving biotechnology; or nonsynthetic steps (such as fermentation) for semisynthetic drug substances. This draft guidance also does not address complex active ingredients as defined in the GDUFA II Commitment Letter.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on Postapproval Changes to Drug Substances. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations. This guidance is not subject to Executive Order 12866.
This draft guidance refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations. These collections of information are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in § 314.70 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0001; the collections of information in 21 CFR part 211 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0139; and the collections of information in 21 CFR 514.8 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0032. In accordance with the PRA, prior to publication of any final guidance document, FDA intends to solicit public comment and obtain OMB approval for any information collections recommended in this draft guidance that are new or that would represent material modifications to those previously approved collections of information found in FDA regulations or guidances.
Persons with access to the internet may obtain the draft guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Anesthetic and Analgesic Drug Products Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to FDA on regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public. FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this document.
The meeting will be held on October 12, 2018, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
FDA is establishing a docket for public comment on this meeting. The docket number is FDA-2018-N-3276. The docket will close on October 11, 2018. Submit either electronic or written comments on this public meeting by October 11, 2018. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. Electronic comments must be submitted on or before October 11, 2018. The
Comments received on or before October 4, 2018, will be provided to the committee. Comments received after that date will be taken into consideration by FDA.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” FDA will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Moon Hee V. Choi, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its website prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's website after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that FDA is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
For press inquiries, please contact the Office of Media Affairs at
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Moon Hee V. Choi (see
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our website at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The National Cancer Institute, an institute of the National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services, is contemplating the grant of an Exclusive Patent License to practice the inventions embodied in the Patents and Patent Applications listed in the Supplementary Information section of this notice to Nano Red LLC (“Nano Red”) located in Milwaukee, Wisconsin.
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the National Cancer Institute's Technology Transfer Center on or before September 26, 2018 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated an Exclusive Patent License should be directed to: Jasmine Yang, Sr. Licensing and Patenting Manager, NCI Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, RM 1E530 MSC 9702, Bethesda, MD 20892-9702 (for business mail), Rockville, MD 20850-9702 Telephone: (240) 276-5530; Facsimile: (240) 276-5504 Email:
The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned and/or exclusively licensed to the government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive license territory may be where patent applications are filed and the field of use may be limited to “Photoactivatable liposomal nanoparticle for the delivery of an immunotherapeutic or immunotherapeutic-enabling agent”. Additional licensable fields of use are available (
This technology discloses a photoactivatable, lipid-based nanoparticles containing at least one hydrophilic agent, wherein the agent could be an anti-cancer agent, an imaging agent, or an anti-inflammatory agent and the lipid bilayer wall of the nanoparticle is comprised of (i) a lipid bilayer comprising (a) 1,2-bis(tricosa-10,12-diynoyl)-sn-glycero-3-phosphocholine (DC8,9PC), (b) 1,2-distearoyl-sn-glycero-3-phosphoethanolamine-N-methoxy(polyethylene glycol) (DSPE-PEG) and (c) dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC), and (ii) a tetrapyrollic photosensitizer, 2-[1-hexyloxyethyl]-2-devinyl pyropheophorbide-a (HPPH), and wherein the encapsulated agent is released by exposure to near-infrared light.
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective exclusive license will be royalty bearing, and the prospective exclusive license may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the National Cancer Institute receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.
In response to this Notice, the public may file comments or objections. Comments and objections, other than those in the form of a license application, will not be treated confidentially, and may be made publicly available.
License applications submitted in response to this Notice will be presumed to contain business confidential information and any release of information in these license applications will be made only as required and upon a request under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Advisory Eye Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute on Drug Abuse Special Emphasis Panel, September 25, 2018, 10:00 a.m. to September 25, 2018, 12:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, Neuroscience Center, 6001 Executive Boulevard, Rockville, MD 20852 which was published in the
The meeting date was changed to October 9, 2018. The meeting time did not change. The meeting is closed to the public.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice lists communities where the addition or modification of Base Flood Elevations (BFEs), base flood depths, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundaries or zone designations, or the regulatory floodway (hereinafter referred to as flood hazard determinations), as shown on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports, prepared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) for each community, is appropriate because of new scientific or technical data. The FIRM, and where applicable, portions of the FIS report, have been revised to reflect these flood hazard determinations through issuance of a Letter of Map Revision (LOMR), in accordance with Federal Regulations. The LOMR will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings. For rating purposes, the currently effective community number is shown in the table below and must be used for all new policies and renewals.
These flood hazard determinations will be finalized on the dates listed in the table below and revise the FIRM panels and FIS report in effect prior to this determination for the listed communities.
From the date of the second publication of notification of these changes in a newspaper of local circulation, any person has 90 days in which to request through the community that the Deputy Associate Administrator for Insurance and Mitigation reconsider the changes. The flood hazard determination information may be changed during the 90-day period.
The affected communities are listed in the table below. Revised flood hazard information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Submit comments and/or appeals to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW, Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
The specific flood hazard determinations are not described for each community in this notice. However, the online location and local community map repository address where the flood hazard determination information is available for inspection is provided.
Any request for reconsideration of flood hazard determinations must be submitted to the Chief Executive Officer of the community as listed in the table below.
The modifications are made pursuant to section 201 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4105, and are in accordance with the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 4001
The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP).
These flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. The flood hazard determinations are in accordance with 44 CFR 65.4.
The affected communities are listed in the following table. Flood hazard determination information for each community is available for inspection at both the online location and the respective community map repository
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, PIH, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to
Arlette Mussington, Office of Policy, Programs and Legislative Initiatives, PIH, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW (L'Enfant Plaza, Room 2206), Washington, DC 20410; telephone 202-402-4109 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Mussington.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This collection of information implements changes to the admission and occupancy requirements for the public housing program made by the Quality Housing and Work Responsibility (QHWRA) Act of 1998 (Title V of the FY 1999 HUD appropriations Act, Pub. L. 105-276, 112 Stat. 2518, approved October 21, 1998), and the Housing Opportunity Through Modernization Act of 2016 (HOTMA), section 103, which amends the United States Housing Act of 1937. Both QHWRA and HOTMA made comprehensive changes to HUD's public housing program. These changes include defining an `over-income family' as one having an annual income 120 percent above the median income for the area for two consecutive years and includes new mandatory annual reporting requirements on the number of over-income families residing in public housing and the total number of families on the public housing waiting lists at the end of each reporting year.
The purpose of the admission and occupancy policy requirement is to ensure that public housing agencies have written documentation of their respective admission and occupancy policies for both the public and the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD). Public housing authorities must have on hand and available for inspection, policies related to admission and occupancy, to respond to inquiries from tenants, legal-aid services, HUD, and other interested parties informally or through the Freedom of Information Act of policies relating to eligibility for admission and continued occupancy, local preferences, income limitations, and rent determination. HOTMA now requires PHAs to make a one-time update to their Admission and Occupancy policy to apply local over-income limits, and annually report on the number of over-income families living in their public housing units as well as the number of families on the public housing waiting list.
Revisions are made to this collection to reflect adjustments in calculations based on the total number of current, active public housing agencies (PHAs) to date. The number of active public housing agencies has changed from 3,946 to 2,897 since the last approved information collection which inadvertently also included voucher only PHAs. In general, the number of PHAs can fluctuate due to many factors, including but not limited to the merging of two or more PHAs or the termination of the public housing programs due to the Rental Assistance Demonstration.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of Policy Development and Research, HUD.
Notice.
The Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone (202) 402-5534 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410-5000; email Anna P. Guido at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the proposed collection of information described in Section A.
Like the previous surveys, the 2019 AHS will collect “core” data on subjects, such as the amount and types of changes in the housing inventory, the physical condition of the housing inventory, the characteristics of the occupants, housing costs for owners and renters, the persons eligible for and beneficiaries of assisted housing, remodeling and repair frequency, reasons for moving, the number and characteristics of vacancies, and characteristics of resident's neighborhood. In addition to the “core” data, HUD plans to collect supplemental data on post-secondary education, modifications made to assist occupants living with disabilities, and information on people's concerns regarding the availability and affordability of food.
The AHS national longitudinal sample consists of approximately 85,200 housing units, and includes oversample from the largest 15 metropolitan areas, and approximately 5,200 HUD-assisted housing units. In addition to the national longitudinal sample, HUD plans to conduct 10 additional metropolitan area longitudinal samples, each with approximately 3,000 housing units (for a total 30,000 metropolitan area housing units). The 10 additional metropolitan area longitudinal samples were last surveyed in 2015.
To help reduce respondent burden on households in the longitudinal sample, the 2019 AHS will make use of dependent interviewing techniques, which will decrease the number of questions asked. Policy analysts, program managers, budget analysts, and Congressional staff use AHS data to advise executive and legislative branches about housing conditions and the suitability of public policy initiatives. Academic researchers and private organizations also use AHS data in efforts of specific interest and concern to their respective communities.
HUD needs the AHS data for two important uses.
1. With the data, policy analysts can monitor the interaction among housing needs, demand and supply, as well as changes in housing conditions and costs, to aid in the development of housing policies and the design of housing programs appropriate for different target groups, such as first-time home buyers and the elderly.
2. With the data, HUD can evaluate, monitor, and design HUD programs to improve efficiency and effectiveness.
In addition to the core 2019 AHS, HUD plans to collect supplemental data on housing insecurity in a follow-on survey to the AHS. Housing insecurity is defined as a significant lapse for a given household of one or more elements of secure housing. These elements include affordability, stable occupancy, and whether the housing is decent and safe. “Affordability” implies that shelter costs are manageable over the long term without severely burdening or compromising other consumption that normally is essential for health and well-being. The second element, “stable occupancy”, implies that the household does not face substantial risk of involuntary displacement for economic or non-economic reasons. The final element, “decent and safe”, implies that a unit has physical attributes that satisfy functional needs for well-being related to health, security, and support for activities of daily living. Such attributes include appropriate facilities for excluding external threats, providing climate control, storing and preparing food, maintaining physical and mental hygiene, and developing human potential. Not included are aspects of the neighborhood or environment that one encounters beyond the confines of the structure or property.
HUD plans to conduct the Housing Insecurity Follow-On survey concurrently with the 2019 AHS. Respondents who meet certain criteria based on their responses to the 2019 AHS will be recruited at the end of the production questionnaire and offered an incentive of $40 to participate. Of the respondents who agree to participate in the follow-on survey, a total of 4,000 responses will be collected via telephone. Once the follow-on interview has been completed, respondents will receive the incentive for their participation. Data collected from this follow-on survey will be used for research and scale development purposes.
HUD needs the AHS Housing Insecurity Follow-On data for two important uses. With the data:
1. HUD can evaluate the feasibility of collecting data on housing insecurity and better define housing insecurity.
2. HUD can measure the quality of the questions asked regarding housing insecurity and develop a composite housing insecurity scale.
This notice solicits comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
1. Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
2. The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
3. Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
4. Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including the use of
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806, Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW, Washington, DC 20410; email
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Correction; notice.
The Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) published a notice in the
The compact amendments took effect on August 17, 2018.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Deputy Assistant Secretary—Policy and Economic Development, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
In the
The State of Oklahoma entered into compact amendments with the Absentee Shawnee Tribe, Cherokee Nation, Chickasaw Nation, Citizen Potawatomi Nation, Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma, Iowa Tribe of Oklahoma, Kaw Nation, Muscogee (Creek) Nation, Seneca-Cayuga Nation, Wichita and Affiliated Tribes, and Wyandotte Nation of Oklahoma governing certain forms of class III gaming; this notice announces the approval of the State of Oklahoma Gaming Compact Non-House-Banked Table Games Supplement between the State of Oklahoma and the Absentee Shawnee Tribe, Cherokee Nation, Chickasaw Nation, Citizen Potawatomi Nation, Eastern Shawnee Tribe of Oklahoma, Iowa Tribe of Oklahoma, Kaw Nation, Muscogee (Creek) Nation, Seneca-Cayuga Nation, Wichita and Affiliated Tribes, and Wyandotte Nation.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice of final agency determination.
The Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs made a final determination to acquire 81.31 acres, more or less into trust for the Tohono O'odham Nation of Arizona on August 22, 2018.
Ms. Sharlene M. Round Face, Bureau of Indian Affairs, Division of Real Estate Services, 1849 C Street NW, MS-4642-MIB, Washington, DC 20240, telephone (202) 208-3615.
This notice is published in the exercise of authority delegated by the Secretary of the Interior to the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs by part 209 of the Departmental Manual, and is published to comply with the requirement of 25 CFR 151.12(c)(2)(ii) that notice of the decision to acquire land in trust be promptly published in the
On August 22, 2018, the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs issued a decision to accept approximately 81.31 acres, more or less, of land in trust for Tohono O'odham Nation of Arizona under the authority of the Gila Bend Indian Reservation Lands Replacement Act, Public Law 99-503, 100 Stat. 1798 (1986). Subject lands will become part of the Gila Bend Indian Reservation.
The Western Regional Director, on behalf of the Secretary of the Interior, will immediately acquire title in the name of the United States of America in trust for the Tohono O'odham Nation of Arizona upon fulfillment of Departmental requirements.
THAT PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, TOWNSHIP 2 NORTH, RANGE 1 EAST OF THE GILA AND SALT RIVER BASE AND MERIDIAN, MARICOPA COUNTY, ARIZONA, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE WEST, ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SECTION 4, 1052.24 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 12 SECONDS WEST, 40.02 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE ALONG THE WESTERLY AND SOUTHERLY LINES OF THAT PARCEL DESCRIBED IN INSTRUMENT RECORDED MARCH 07, 1984 IN RECORDING NO. 84-094506 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS, SOUTH 01 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 12 SECONDS WEST, 1319.58 FEET;
THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 50 MINUTES 32 SECONDS EAST, 386.11 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF THE WEST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE LEAVING THE SOUTHERLY LINE OF THE AFOREMENTIONED PARCEL, SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE EAST LINE OF THE WEST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF THE SOUTH HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 1206.09 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 05 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE SOUTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 994.48 FEET TO THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF THE EAST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF THE WEST HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 44 SECONDS EAST, ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE EAST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF THE WEST HALF OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, AND ALONG THE WEST LINE OF THE EAST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF LOT 2 OF SAID SECTION 4, 2528.82 FEET TO A POINT ON A LINE THAT IS 40.00 FEET SOUTH OF, AND PARALLEL TO, THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4;
THENCE EAST, ALONG A LINE THAT IS 40.00 FEET SOUTH OF, AND PARALLEL TO, THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, 611.42 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
EXCEPT A PARCEL OF LAND LYING WITHIN SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, AND BEING A PORTION OF THAT CERTAIN PARCEL DESCRIBED IN RECORDING NO. 87-251242 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
COMMENCING AT THE NORTH QUARTER CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 998.19 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 14 SECONDS WEST, 40.01 FEET TO THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID PARCEL ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 40.00 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER AND THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 611.23 FEET TO THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID PARCEL;
THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 24 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE EAST LINE OF SAID PARCEL, 11.65 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 51.64 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 545.56 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 66 DEGREES 15 MINUTES 59 SECONDS WEST, 43.03 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, 26.26 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WEST LINE OF SAID PARCEL;
THENCE NORTH 00 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 14 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID WEST LINE, 28.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN DEED RECORDED IN RECORDING NO. 99-649780 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS; AND
EXCEPT THAT PARCEL OF LAND LYING WITHIN SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4 AND BEING A PORTION OF THAT CERTAIN PARCEL DESCRIBED IN RECORDING NO. 95-490799 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS;
COMMENCING AT THE NORTH QUARTER CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SOUTHEAST QUARTER, 998.19 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 14 SECONDS WEST, 40.01 FEET TO THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID PARCEL ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 40.00 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER AND THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 09 MINUTES 14 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE EAST LINE OF PARCEL, 28.05 FEET;
THENCE NORTH 68 DEGREES 29 MINUTES 09 SECONDS WEST, 42.26 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 51.64 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 455.83 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF THAT PARCEL CONVEYED TO ARIZONA DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION IN RECORDING NO. 86-652262 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS;
THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 19 MINUTES 35 SECONDS WEST, ALONG SAID EAST LINE, 11.64 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 40.00 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 495.50 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN DEED RECORDED IN RECORDING NO. 99-332877 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS; AND
EXCEPT THAT PORTION LYING WITHIN THE NORTH 33 FEET OF THE EAST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 4, AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY, RECORDED IN BOOK 96 OF DEEDS, PAGE 375.
THE EAST HALF OF THE EAST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, TOWNSHIP 2 NORTH, RANGE 1 EAST OF THE GILA AND SALT RIVER BASE AND MERIDIAN, MARICOPA COUNTY, ARIZONA;
EXCEPT A TRACT OF LAND FOR A WELL SITE DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
BEGINNING AT THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID TRACT, 33.00 FEET WEST OF THE EAST QUARTER CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE NORTH 36.00 FEET TO THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID TRACT;
THENCE WEST 30.00 FEET TO THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID TRACT;
THENCE SOUTH 36.00 FEET TO THE SOUTHWEST CORNER OF SAID TRACT;
THENCE EAST 30.00 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING; AND
EXCEPT THAT PARCEL OF LAND LYING WITHIN SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, AND BEING A PORTION OF THAT CERTAIN PARCEL DESCRIBED IN RECORDING NO. 88-089216 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS, DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4:
THENCE SOUTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER, 665.46 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 00 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, 55.01 FEET TO THE NORTHWEST CORNER OF SAID PARCEL ON THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 55.00 FEET OF SAID NORTHEAST QUARTER AND THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE NORTH 88 DEGREES 40 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG SAID SOUTH LINE, 32.81 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 67 DEGREES 10 MINUTES 25 SECONDS WEST, 35.59 FEET TO A POINT ON THE WEST LINE OF SAID PARCEL;
THENCE NORTH 00 DEGREES 01 MINUTES 25 SECONDS EAST, ALONG THE WEST LINE OF SAID PARCEL, 13.05 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING, AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN FINAL JUDGMENT IN CONDEMNATION IN CV 99-10315 RECORDED IN RECORDING NO. 2000122430, RECORDING NO. 20000209504, AND IN RECORDING NO. 20000218264; AND
EXCEPT THE NORTH 33.00 FEET AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN BOOK 96 OF DEEDS, PAGE 375; AND
EXCEPT THE EAST 33.00 FEET AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN DEED RECORDED AS BOOK 105 OF DEEDS, PAGE 382; AND
EXCEPT THE WEST 22.00 FEET OF THE EAST 55.00 FEET, AND THE SOUTH 22.00 FEET OF THE NORTH 55.00 FEET, AND BEGINNING AT THE POINT OF INTERSECTION OF THE SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 55.00 FEET AND THE WEST LINE OF THE EAST 55.00 FEET OF SAID EAST ONE-HALF OF THE EAST ONE-HALF OF THE NORTHEAST ONE-QUARTER OF SECTION 4;
THENCE SOUTH 15.00 FEET ALONG SAID WEST LINE OF THE EAST 55.00 FEET TO A POINT;
THENCE IN A NORTHWESTERLY DIRECTION TO A POINT ON SAID SOUTH LINE OF THE NORTH 55.00 FEET THAT IS 15.00 FEET WEST FROM SAID POINT OF INTERSECTION;
THENCE EAST TO THE POINT OF INTERSECTION AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY AS RECORDED IN RECORDING NO. 88-089217 OF OFFICIAL RECORDS.
THE EAST HALF OF THE WEST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, TOWNSHIP 2 NORTH, RANGE 1 EAST OF THE GILA AND SALT RIVER BASE AND MERIDIAN, MARICOPA COUNTY, ARIZONA;
EXCEPT THE NORTH 33.00 FEET AS CONVEYED TO MARICOPA COUNTY IN BOOK 96 OF DEEDS, PAGE 375; AND
EXCEPT THE SOUTH 7.00 FEET OF THE NORTH 40.00 FEET THEREOF, AS
EXCEPT A PART OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, TOWNSHIP 2 NORTH, RANGE 1 EAST OF THE GILA AND SALT RIVER BASE AND MERIDIAN, MARICOPA COUNTY, ARIZONA, MORE FULLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE WEST ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SECTION A DISTANCE OF 715.49 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED) SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST (RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 40.02 FEET TO A POINT ON THE SOUTH RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF NORTHERN AVENUE AND THE TRUE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE CONTINUING SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED) SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST (RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 362.00 FEET;
THENCE EAST A DISTANCE OF 50.00 FEET TO A POINT ON THE EAST LINE OF THE WEST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED) SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST (RECORD) ALONG SAID EAST LINE A DISTANCE OF 864.48 FEET TO THE SOUTHEAST CORNER OF SAID WEST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER;
THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 51 MINUTES 13 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED) SOUTH 89 DEGREES 50 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST (RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREE 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST A DISTANCE OF 92.05 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 51 MINUTES 13 SECONDS WEST, A DISTANCE OF 376.13 FEET (MEASURED) SOUTH 89 DEGREES 50 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST A DISTANCE OF 376.11 FEET (RECORD);
THENCE NORTH 01 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 53 SECONDS EAST (MEASURED) NORTH 01 DEGREES 44 MINUTES 12 SECONDS EAST (RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 1319.58 FEET TO A POINT 40.02 FEET SOUTH OF THE NORTH SECTION LINE AND ON THE SOUTH RIGHT OF WAY LINE OF SAID NORTHERN AVENUE;
THENCE EAST ALONG SAID RIGHT OF WAY LINE A DISTANCE OF 336.74 FEET TO THE TRUE POINT OF BEGINNING.
BEING A PARCEL OF LAND SITUATED IN THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SECTION 4, TOWNSHIP 2 NORTH, RANGE 1 EAST, OF THE GILA AND SALT RIVER BASE AND MERIDIAN, MARICOPA COUNTY, ARIZONA, BEING MORE PARTICULARLY DESCRIBED AS FOLLOWS:
COMMENCING AT THE NORTHEAST CORNER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE WEST, ALONG THE NORTH LINE OF SAID SECTION 4, A DISTANCE OF 715.49 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED), (SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 402.02 FEET;
THENCE EAST, A DISTANCE OF 50.02 FEET (MEASURED) (50.00 FEET RECORD) TO A POINT IN THE EAST LINE OF THE WEST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE ALONG SAID EAST LINE, SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST, (MEASURED) (SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 864.48 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING;
THENCE SOUTH 89 DEGREES 51 MINUTES 13 SECONDS WEST, (MEASURED) (SOUTH 89 DEGREES 50 MINUTES 32 SECONDS WEST RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET;
THENCE SOUTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS WEST (MEASURED), (SOUTH 01 DEGREES 45 MINUTES 56 SECONDS WEST RECORD) A DISTANCE OF 92.13 FEET (MEASURED) (92.05 FEET RECORD);
THENCE NORTH 89 DEGREES 51 MINUTES 13 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 10.00 FEET TO A POINT IN SAID EAST LINE OF THE WEST HALF OF THE NORTHEAST QUARTER OF SAID SECTION 4;
THENCE ALONG SAID EAST LINE, NORTH 01 DEGREES 46 MINUTES 37 SECONDS EAST, A DISTANCE OF 92.13 FEET TO THE POINT OF BEGINNING.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
This notice publishes the liquor control ordinance of the Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska. The liquor control ordinance regulates and controls the possession, sale, manufacture, and distribution of alcohol in conformity with the laws of the State of Alaska.
This Ordinance takes effect September 11, 2018.
Ms. Jolene John, Tribal Operations Officer, Alaska Regional Office, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 3601 C Street, Suite 1200, Anchorage, Alaska 99503, telephone: (907) 271-4043, fax: (907) 271-4083.
Pursuant to the Act of August 15, 1953, Public Law 82-277, 67 Stat. 5856, 18 U.S.C. 1161, as interpreted by the Supreme Court in
This notice is published in accordance with the authority delegated by the Secretary of the Interior to the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs. I certify that the Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska duly adopted by resolution the Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska's Alcohol Control Ordinance enacted November 14, 2017, by Res. No. CTA 2017-43 and amended March 21, 2018, April 18, 2018, and June 14, 2018 by vote of the council to clarify language and to correct organizational errors.
This Ordinance shall be known as the “Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska's Alcohol Control Ordinance.”
This Ordinance is enacted in accordance with the inherent governmental powers of the Craig Tribal Association, a federally recognized tribe of Indians through its Constitution and Bylaws of the Craig Tribal Association of Craig, Alaska, and in conformance with the laws of the State of Alaska, as required by the Act of August 15, 1953, Public Law 83-177, 67 Stat. 586, 18 U.S.C. 1161.
The purpose of this Ordinance is to regulate and control the possession and sale of Alcohol on Tribal lands of the Craig Tribal Association. The enactment of this Ordinance will enhance the ability of the Craig Tribal Association to control all such alcohol ·related activities within the jurisdiction of the Tribe and will provide an important source of revenue for the continued operation and strengthening of the Craig Tribal Association and the delivery of important governmental services.
Federal Law prohibits the introduction, possession, and sale of liquor in Indian Country (18 U.S.C. 1154 and other statutes), except when in conformity both with the laws of the State and the Tribe (18 U.S.C. 1161).
The Tribal Council, through its powers vested under the Constitution of the Craig Tribal Association and this Ordinance, delegates to the Tribal Council the authority to exercise all of the powers and accomplish all of the purposes as set forth in this Ordinance, which may include, but are not limited to, the following actions:
A. Adopt and enforce rules and regulations for the purpose of effectuating this Ordinance, which includes the setting of fees, fines and other penalties;
B. Execute all necessary documents; and
C. Perform all matters of actions incidental to and necessary to conduct its business and carry out its duties and functions under this Ordinance.
A. The Tribe is immune from suit in any jurisdiction except to the extent that the Tribal Council of the Craig Tribal Association or the United States Congress expressly and unequivocally waives such immunity by approval of written tribal resolution or Federal statute.
B. Nothing in this Ordinance shall be construed as waiving the sovereign immunity of the Craig Tribal Association or the Tribal Council as an agency of the Craig Tribal Association.
This Ordinance shall apply to all persons or entities operating or conducting activities involving the possession, sale or distribution of Alcohol on Tribal land of the Craig Tribal Association.
Unless otherwise provided in this Ordinance, in computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this Ordinance, the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins to run shall not be included. The last day of the period so computed shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, a Sunday, or a legal holiday. For the purposes of this Ordinance, the term “legal holiday” shall mean all legal holidays under Tribal or Federal law. All documents mailed shall be deemed served at the time of mailing.
The provisions of this Ordinance shall be liberally construed to achieve the purposes set forth, whether clearly stated or apparent from the context of the language used herein.
The Tribal Council shall have the authority to collect all applicable and lawful fees, taxes, and or fines from any person or Licensee as imposed by this Ordinance. The failure of any Licensee to deliver applicable taxes collected on the sale of Alcoholic Beverages shall subject the Licensee to penalties, including, but not limited to the revocation of said License.
The possession, sale and consumption of Alcoholic Beverages within the jurisdiction of the Craig Tribal Association are matters of significant concern and special interest to the Tribe. The Tribal Council hereby declares that the policy of the Craig Tribal Association is to eliminate the problems associated with unlicensed, unregulated, and unlawful importation, distribution, possession, and sale of Alcoholic Beverages for commercial purposes and to promote temperance in the use and consumption of Alcoholic Beverages by increasing the Tribe's control over such activities on Tribal lands.
The introduction of Alcohol within the jurisdiction of the Tribe is currently prohibited by federal law (18 U.S.C. 1154), except as provided for therein, and the Tribe is expressly delegated the right to determine, in conformance with applicable state law, when and under what conditions Alcohol, including Alcoholic Beverages, shall be permitted therein (18 U.S.C. 1161).
The Tribe finds that the Federal Liquor Laws prohibiting the introduction, distribution, possession, sale, and consumption of Alcoholic Beverages within the Tribal lands should be addressed by laws of the Tribe, with all such business activities related thereto subject to the taxing and regulatory authority of the Tribal Council.
The Tribe finds that the introduction, distribution, possession, sale, and consumption of Alcohol, including Alcoholic Beverages, shall be regulated under this Ordinance only where such activity will be conducted within or upon Tribal lands.
As used in this Ordinance, the following words shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly requires otherwise:
A. “Alcohol” means the product of distillation of fermented liquid, whether or not rectified or diluted with water, including, but not limited to Alcoholic Beverages as defined herein, but does not mean ethyl or industrial alcohol, diluted or not, that has been denatured or otherwise rendered unfit for purposes or consumption by humans.
B. “Alcoholic Beverage(s)” when used in this Ordinance means, and shall include any liquor, beer, spirits, or wine, by whatever name they may be called, and from whatever source and by whatever process they may have been produced, and which contain a sufficient percent of alcohol by volume
C. “Applicant” means any person or entity submitting an application to the Tribal Council for an Alcoholic Beverage License and who has not yet received such a License.
D. “Constitution” means the Constitution of the Craig Tribal Association.
E. “Tribal Council” means the duly elected legislative body of the Craig Tribal Association authorized to act in and on all matters and subjects upon which the Tribe is empowered to act, now or in the future.
F. “Federal Liquor Laws” means all laws of the United States of America, including, but not limited to 18 U.S.C. 1154 & 1161, that apply to or regulate in any way the introduction, distribution, possession, or sale of any form of Alcohol on Indian lands.
G. “Legal Age” means twenty-one (21) years of age.
H. “License” or “Alcoholic Beverage License” means a license issued by the Tribal Council authoring the introduction, or sale of Alcoholic Beverages for commercial purposes under the provisions of the Ordinance.
I. “Licensee” means a person or entity that holds an Alcohol Beverage License issued by the Tribal Council and includes any employee or agent of the License.
J. “Liquor Store” means any business, store, or commercial establishment at which Alcohol is sold and shall include any and all business engaged in the sale of Alcoholic Beverages, whether sold as packaged or by the drink.
K. “Alaska Liquor License” means any license or permit issued by the State of Alaska, including any agency, subdivision, or borough thereof, regulating any form of Alcohol, including, but not limited to any form of Alcoholic Beverage.
L. “Ordinance” means this Craig Tribal Association Alcohol Control Ordinance, as hereafter amended.
M. The words “package” or “packaged” means the sale of any Alcoholic Beverage by delivery of same by a seller to a purchaser in any container, bag, or receptacle for consumption beyond the premises or location designated on the seller's License.
N. The words “sale(s)”, “sell”, or “sold” means the exchange, barter, traffic, furnishing, or giving away of any Alcoholic Beverage by any and all means, by whatever name commonly used to describe the same, by any entity or person to another person.
O. “Tribal Council” shall mean the Craig Tribal Association Council and will include its duly authorized delegees.
P. “Tribal lands” shall mean and reference the geographic area that includes all land included within the definition of “Indian Country” as established and described by federal law and that is under the jurisdiction of the Craig Tribal Association, including, but not limited to all lands held in trust by the federal government, located within the same, as are now in existence or may hereafter be added to.
Q. “Tribal law” means the Constitution of the Craig Tribal Association, and all laws, ordinances, codes, resolutions, and regulations now and hereafter duly enacted by the Tribe.
R. “Tribe” shall mean the Craig Tribal Association.
This Ordinance prohibits the introduction, distribution, or sale of Alcoholic Beverages, other than where conducted by a Licensee in possession of a lawfully issued License in accordance with this Ordinance. The Federal Liquor Laws are intended to remain applicable to any act or transaction that is not authorized by this Ordinance, and violators shall be subject to all penalties and provisions of any and all applicable Federal, Tribal and State laws.
A. Any and all sales of Alcoholic Beverages conducted upon Tribal lands must be Licensed and the Licensee must: (i) Hold a current Alcoholic Beverage License, duly issued by the Tribal Council; and (ii) prominently and conspicuously display the License on the premises or location designated on the license.
B. A Licensee has the right to engage only in those activities involving Alcoholic Beverages expressly authorized by such License in accordance with this Ordinance.
All sales of Alcoholic Beverages conducted by any person or entity upon Tribal lands shall be conducted on a cash-only basis, and no “account for credit with Licensee” for said purchase and consumption of same shall be extended to any person, organization, or entity, except that this provision does not prohibit the payment of same by use of credit cards acceptable to the seller (including but not limited to VISA, MasterCard or American Express).
All sales of Alcoholic Beverages shall be for the personal use and consumption of the purchaser and his/her guest(s) of Legal Age. The re-sale by any entity not licensed as required by this Ordinance is prohibited.
No employee or operator of an entity owned by the Tribe shall sell or permit any person to open or consume any Alcoholic Beverage on any premises or location, or any premises adjacent thereto, under his or her control, unless such activity is properly licensed as provided in this Ordinance.
Only Applicants operating upon Tribal lands shall be eligible to receive a License for the sale of any Alcoholic Beverage under this Ordinance.
A. The Tribal Council may cause a License to be issued to any Applicant as it may deem appropriate, but not contrary to the best interests of the Tribe and its Tribal members. Any applicant that desires to receive any Alcohol Beverage License, and that meets the eligibility requirements pursuant to this Ordinance, must apply to the Tribal Council for the desired class of License. Applicants shall (i) Fully and accurately complete the application provided by the Tribal Council; (ii) pay the Tribal Council such application fee as may be required; and (iii) submit such application to the Tribal Council for consideration.
B. All application fees paid to the Tribal Council are nonrefundable upon submission of any such application. Each application shall require the payment of a separate application fee. The Tribal Council may waive fees at its discretion.
A. With the exception of a Temporary License, the term of all Licenses issued under this Ordinance shall be for a period not to exceed two (2) years from the original date of issuance and may be renewed thereafter on a year-to-year basis, in compliance with this Ordinance and any rules and regulations hereafter adopted by the Tribal Council.
B. Each License may be considered for renewal by the Tribal Council annually
The Tribal Council shall have the authority to issue the following classes of Alcoholic Beverage License:
A. “Retail On-Site Beer and Wine License” authorizing the Licensee to sell only beer and wine at retail at the location designated in the License.
B. “Temporary or Provisional License” authorizing the sale of Alcoholic Beverages on a temporary basis for premises or at a location temporarily occupied by the Licensee for a picnic, social gathering, or similar occasion, as allowed by Federal and State law. A Temporary or Provisional License may not be renewed upon expiration. A new application must be submitted for each such License.
An application for any License shall be made to the Tribal Council and shall contain at least the following information:
A. The name and address of the Applicant, including the names and addresses of the principal officers, directors, managers and other employees with primary management responsibility related to the sale of Alcoholic Beverages;
B. The specific area, location and or premise(s) for which the License is applied;
C. The hours that the Applicant will sell the Alcoholic Beverages;
D. For Temporary Licenses, the dates for which the License is sought to be in affect;
E. The class of Alcoholic Beverage License applied for, as set forth in Section 4.4 herein;
F. Whether the Applicant has an Alaska Liquor License; a copy of such License, and any other applicable license, shall be submitted to and retained by the Tribal Council;
G. A sworn statement by the Applicant to the effect that none of the Applicant's officers, directors, managers, and or employees with primary management responsibility related to the sale of Alcoholic Beverages, have ever been convicted of a felony under the law of any jurisdiction, and have not violated and will not violate or cause or permit to be violated any of the provisions of this Ordinance; and
H. The application shall be signed and verified by the Applicant under oath and notarized by a duly authorized representative.
The Tribal Council shall have the authority to deny or approve the application, consistent with this Ordinance and the laws of the Tribe. Upon approval of an application, the Tribal Council shall issue a License to the Applicant in a form to be approved from time to time by the Tribal Council. The Tribal Council shall have the authority to issue a temporary or provisional license pending the foregoing approval process.
An application for a new License or License Renewal may be denied for one or more of the following reasons:
A. The Applicant materially misrepresented facts outlined contained in the application;
B. The Applicant is currently not in compliance with this Ordinance or any other Tribal or Federal laws;
C. Granting of the License, or renewal thereof, would create a threat to the peace, safety, morals, health or welfare of the Tribe;
D. The Applicant has failed to complete the application properly or has failed to tender the appropriate fee.
E. A verdict or judgment has been entered against or a plea of nolo contendere has been entered by an Applicant's officer, director, manager, or any other employee with primary management responsibility related to the sale of Alcoholic Beverages, to any offense under Tribal, Federal, or State laws prohibiting or regulating the sale, use, possession, or giving away of Alcoholic Beverages. No person who has been convicted of a felony shall be eligible to hold license.
If the application is denied solely on the basis of Section 4.7(D), the Tribal Council shall, within fourteen (14) days of such action, deliver in person or by mail a written notice of temporary denial to the Applicant. Such notice of temporary denial shall: (i) Set forth the reason(s) for denial; and (ii) state that the temporary denial will become a permanent denial if the reason(s) for the denial or not corrected within fifteen (15) days following the mailing or personal delivery of such notice.
If an applicant is denied a License for any reason stated in Section 4. 7 “Denial of License or Renewal”, the Applicant may cure the deficiency and resubmit the application for consideration. Each re-submission will be treated as a new application for License or renewal of License, and the appropriate fee shall be due upon re-submission.
Upon receipt of an application for the issuance, or renewal of a License, the Tribal Council shall make a thorough investigation to determine whether the Applicant and the premises or location for which a License is applied for qualifies for a License, and whether the provisions of this Ordinance have been complied with. The Tribal Council shall investigate all matters connected herewith which may affect the public health, welfare and morals of the Tribe, community, etc.
Any Applicant for a License or Licensee who believes the denial of their License or request for renewal of their License is wrongfully determined in accordance with the Rules, Regulations and Enforcement of this Ordinance which are outlined in Article VI, Sections 6.1 through 6.11, may appeal the decision of the Tribal Council.
The Tribal Council may initiate action to revoke a License whenever it is brought to the attention of the Tribal Council that a Licensee:
A. Has materially misrepresented facts contained in any License application;
B. Is not in compliance with this Ordinance or any other Tribal, State or Federal laws material to the issue of Alcohol licensing;
C. Failed to comply with any condition of a License, including failure to pay taxes on the sale of Alcoholic Beverages or failure to pay any fee required under this Ordinance;
D. Has a verdict, or judgement entered against, or has a plea of nolo contendere entered by any of its officers, directors, managers or any employees with primary responsibility over the sale of Alcoholic Beverages, as to any offense under Tribal, Federal or State laws prohibiting or regulating the sale, use, or
E. Failed to take reasonable steps to correct objectionable conditions constituting a nuisance on the premises or location designated in the License, or any adjacent area under their control, within a reasonable time after receipt of a notice to make such corrections has been mailed or personally delivered by the Tribal Council; or
F. Has had an Alaska Liquor License suspended or revoked.
Revocation proceedings may be initiated by either: (i) The Tribal Council, on its own motion and through the adoption of an appropriate resolution meeting the requirements of this section; or (ii) by any person who files a complaint with the Tribal Council. The complaint shall be in writing and signed by the maker. Both the complaint and resolution shall state facts showing that there are specific grounds under this Ordinance which would authorize the Tribal Council to revoke the License(s).
If a Complaint is made stating facts which specify grounds to revoke a License under this Ordinance, a hearing held on this complaint shall be held under such rules and regulations as the Tribal Council may prescribe. Both the Licensee and the person filing the complaint shall have the right to present witnesses to testify and to present written documents in support of their positions to the Tribal Council. The Tribal Council shall render its decision within sixty (60) days after the date of the hearing. The decision of the Tribal Council shall be final.
Upon revocation of a License, the Licensee shall forthwith deliver their License to the Tribal Council.
Alcoholic Beverage Licenses shall be issued to a specific Licensee for use at a single premises or specific location and shall not be transferable for use by any other premises or location.
Every Licensee shall post and keep posted its License(s) in a prominent and conspicuous place(s) on the premises or location designated in the License. Any License posted on a premises or location not designated in such License shall not be considered valid and shall constitute a separate violation of this Ordinance.
In furtherance of this Ordinance, the Tribal Council shall have exclusive authority to administer and implement this Ordinance and shall have the following powers and duties hereunder:
A. To adopt and enforce rules and regulations governing the sale, distribution, and possession of Alcoholic Beverages within the Tribal lands of the Craig Tribal Association;
B. To employ such persons as may be reasonably necessary to perform all administrative and regulatory responsibilities of the Tribal Council hereunder. All such employees shall be employees of the Tribe;
C. To issue Licenses permitting the sale, distribution, and possession of Alcoholic Beverages within the Tribal lands;
D. To give reasonable notice and to hold hearings on violations of this Ordinance;
E. To deny applications and renewals for Licenses and revoke issued Licenses as provided in this Ordinance;
F. To bring such other actions as may be required by applicable Tribal or Federal law or regulation; and
G. To collect taxes, fees, and penalties as may be required, imposed, or allowed by applicable Tribal or Federal law or regulation, and to keep accurate books, records, and accounts of the same.
Any premises or location of any person or entity licensed to, distribute, or sell Alcoholic Beverages pursuant to this Ordinance shall be open for inspection by the Tribal Council for the purpose of ensuring the compliance or noncompliance of the License with all provisions of this Ordinance and any applicable Tribal laws or regulations.
In the exercise of its powers and duties under this Ordinance, agents, employees, or any other affiliated persons of the Tribal Council shall not, whether individually or as a whole accept any gratuity, compensation, or other thing of value from any Alcoholic Beverage wholesaler, retailer, or distributor, or from any Applicant or Licensee.
Any person or entity who sells or offers for sale or distribution any Alcoholic Beverage in violation of this Ordinance, or who operates any business on Tribal lands that has Alcoholic Beverages for sale or in their possession without a proper License properly posted as required in Section 4.17, shall be in violation of this Ordinance.
Any person who purchases any Alcoholic Beverage on Tribal lands from a person or entity that does not have a License to sell Alcoholic Beverages properly posted shall be in violation of this Ordinance.
Any persons who keeps or possesses, or causes another to keep or possess, upon his person or on premises within his control, any Alcoholic Beverage, with the intent to sell or to distribute the same contrary to the provisions of this Ordinance shall be in violation of this Ordinance.
Any person who knowingly sells an Alcoholic Beverage to a person who is visibly intoxicated shall be in violation of this Ordinance and shall be subject to the penalties of a court with jurisdictional authority.
No person under the age of twenty-one (21) years may possess, purchase or consume any Alcoholic Beverage on Tribal lands, and any such possession or consumption shall be in violation of this Ordinance and shall be subject to the penalties of a court with jurisdictional authority.
No person shall sell, or serve any Alcoholic Beverage to a person under the age of twenty-one (21) years, or permit any such person to possess or consume any Alcoholic Beverage on the premises or on any premises under their control. Any Licensee violating this section shall be guilty of a separate violation of this Ordinance for each and every Alcoholic Beverage sold or served and or consumed by such an underage person.
Any person who purchases or who attempts to purchase any Alcoholic Beverage through the use of false, or altered identification that falsely purports to show such person to be over the age of twenty-one (21) years shall be in violation of this Ordinance.
Any seller or server of any Alcoholic Beverage shall be required to request
A. A Driver's License or personal identification card issued by any state department of motor vehicles;
B. United States active duty military credentials;
C. Passport.
Any seller, server, or person attempting to purchase Alcoholic Beverages who does not comply with the requirements of this section shall be in violation of this Ordinance and subject to penalties, as determined by the court with jurisdictional authority.
A. Any person or entity determined by the Tribal Council to be in violation of this Ordinance, including any unlawful regulation promulgated pursuant thereto, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than Five Hundred Dollars ($500.00) for each such violation, except as provided herein. The Tribal Council may adopt by resolution a separate written schedule for fines for each type of violation, taking into account the seriousness and threat the violation may pose to the general public health and welfare. Such schedule may also provide, in the case of repeated violations, for imposition of monetary penalties greater than Five Hundred Dollars ($500.00) per violation limitation set forth above. The civil penalties provided herein shall be in addition to any criminal penalties that may be imposed under any other Tribal, Federal, or State laws.
B. Any person or entity determined by the Tribal Council to be in violation of this Ordinance, including any lawful regulation promulgated pursuant thereto, may be subject to ejection or exclusion from Tribal land or any Tribal facility.
Any violation of this Ordinance shall constitute a public nuisance. The Tribal Council may initiate and maintain in a court with jurisdictional authority, an action to abate and permanently enjoin any nuisance declared under this Ordinance. Any action taken under the section shall be in addition to any other civil penalties provided for in this Ordinance.
All Alcoholic Beverages held, owned, or possessed within Tribal lands by any person, entity, or Licensee operating in violation of this Ordinance are hereby declared to be contraband and subject to seizure and forfeiture to the Tribe.
A. Seizure of contraband as defined in this Ordinance shall be done by the Tribal Council, with the assistance of law enforcement upon request; and all such contraband seized shall be inventoried and maintained by the Tribal Council, the governing body of the tribe that will serve as an Administrative Court for these proceedings, pending a final order of the Tribal Council. The owner of the contraband seized may alternatively request that the contraband seized be sold and the proceeds received there from be maintained by law enforcement pending a final order of the Tribal Council. The proceeds from such a sale are subject to forfeiture in lieu of the seized contraband.
B. Within ten (10) days following the seizure of such contraband, a hearing shall be held by the Tribal Council, at which time the operator or owner of the contraband shall be given an opportunity to present evidence in defense of his or her activities.
C. Notice of the hearing of at least ten (10) days shall be given to the person from whom the property was seized and the owner, if known. If the owner is unknown, notice of the hearing shall be posted at the place where the contraband was seized and at the other public places on Tribal lands. The notice shall describe the property seized, and the time, place, and cause of the seizure, and list the name and place of residence, if known, of the person from whom the property was seized. If upon the hearing, the evidence warrants, or, if no person appears as a claimant, the Tribal Council shall thereupon enter a judgment of forfeiture, and all such contraband shall become the property of the Craig Tribal Association. If upon the hearing the evidence does not warrant forfeiture, the seized property shall be immediately returned to the owner. The judgment of the Tribal Council shall be final and non·appealable.
Under a determination by the Tribal Council that any such place or activity is a nuisance under any provision of this Ordinance, the Tribal Council may impose injunctive relief which may include a closure of any business or other use of the property for up to one (1) year from the date of the such injunctive relief.
All fees, taxes, payments, fines, costs, assessment, and any other revenues collected by the Craig Tribal Association under this Ordinance, from whatever sources, shall be expended first for the administrative costs incurred in the administration and enforcement of this Ordinance. Any excess funds shall be subject to and available for appropriation by the Tribal Council to the Tribe for essential governmental services.
The Craig Tribal Association and its handling of all funds collected under this Ordinance is subject to review and Audit as part of the annual financial audit of the Tribe.
Reports shall be submitted to the Tribal Council consisting of: quarterly reports and an accounting of all fees, taxes, payments, fines, costs, assessments, and all other revenues collected and expended pursuant to this Ordinance.
If any provision or application of this Ordinance is found invalid and or unenforceable by a court of competent jurisdiction, such determination shall not be held to render ineffectual any of the remaining provisions or applications of this Ordinance not specifically identified thereby, or to render such provisions to be inapplicable to other persons or circumstances.
Nothing in this Ordinance shall be construed to diminish or impair in any way the rights or sovereign powers of the Craig Tribal Association.
This Ordinance shall be effective after the Secretary of the Interior certifies the Ordinance and on the date it is published in the
Any and all prior enactments of the Craig Tribal Association that are inconsistent with the provisions of this Ordinance are hereby rescinded.
Amendments must be approved and published in the
The Sovereign Immunity of the Craig Tribal Association shall not be waived by this Ordinance.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
This notice publishes the Ponca Tribe of Nebraska's Liquor Control Ordinance. This Liquor Control Ordinance is to regulate and control the possession, sale, manufacture, and distribution of alcohol in conformity with the laws of the State of Nebraska for the purpose of generating new Tribal revenues. Enactment of this Ordinance will help provide a source of revenue to strengthen Tribal government, provide for the economic viability of Tribal enterprises, and improve delivery of Tribal government services.
This Ordinance takes effect on September 11, 2018.
Mr. Todd Gravelle, Supervisory Tribal Operations Specialist, Great Plains Regional Office, Bureau of Indian Affairs, 115 Fourth Avenue South East, Suite 400, Aberdeen, South Dakota 57401 Telephone: (605) 226-7376, Fax: (605) 226-7379.
Pursuant to the Act of August 15, 1953, Public Law 83-277, 67 Stat. 586, 18 U.S.C. 1161, as interpreted by the Supreme Court in
This notice is published in accordance with the authority delegated by the Secretary of the Interior to the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs. I certify that the Ponca Tribe of Nebraska Tribal Council duly adopted by Resolution this Liquor Control Ordinance by Resolution No. 18-43, on July 21, 2018.
The Ponca Tribe of Nebraska's Liquor Control Ordinance shall read as follows:
1. Pursuant to and in accordance with Article V, Section 1(j), (l), (o) and (p) of the Constitution;
2. Pursuant to and in accordance with federal statutes and other laws, including the Act of August 15, 1953, 67 Stat. 586, codified at 18 U.S.C. 1161, which provide a federal legal basis for the Tribe to regulate liquor on Tribal lands; and
3. In conformity with applicable state laws.
1. To control liquor distribution, sale and possession on Tribal lands;
2. To establish procedures for the licensing of the manufacture, distribution and sale of liquor on Tribal lands; and
3. To otherwise regulate the manufacture, distribution, sale and consumption of liquor.
1. “Alcohol” means the product of distillation of any fermented liquid, whether rectified or diluted, whatever the origin, and includes synthetic ethyl alcohol and alcohol processed or sold in a gaseous form, but excludes denatured alcohol or wood alcohol.
2. “Beer” means any beverage obtained by the alcoholic fermentation of an infusion or decoction of pure hops, or pure extract of hops and pure barley malt or other wholesome grain or cereal in pure water and includes, but is not limited to, beer, ale, malt liquor, stout, lager beer, porter, near beer, flavored malt beverage, and hard cider.
3. “Board” means the Ponca Tribe of Nebraska Liquor Control Board.
4. “Board member” means a member of the Board.
5. “Brewer” means any person engaged in the business of manufacturing beer.
6. “Distiller” means any person engaged in the business of distilling spirits.
7. “Distribute” means to deliver or sell liquor products prior to retail sale.
8. “Liquor” means alcohol, beer, spirits, wine, all other fermented, spirituous, vinous, or malt liquors, or combinations thereof, and mixed liquor, a part of which is fermented, spirituous, vinous or malt liquor or otherwise intoxicating, and includes every liquid, solid, semi-solid or other substance, patented or not, containing alcohol, beer, spirits, or wine and all preparations or mixtures of liquor capable of human consumption.
9. “Manufacturer” means a person engaged in the preparation of liquor for sale in any form whatsoever, including brewers, distillers, and wineries.
10. “On-sale” means the sale of liquor for consumption upon the premises where sold.
11. “Off-sale” means the sale of liquor for consumption off the premises where sold.
12. “Retailer” means any person who acquires liquor from a wholesaler or otherwise sells, distributes, or gives away any liquor from any location or facility for any purpose other than resale or further processing.
13. “Sale” means the transfer of ownership of, title to, or possession of goods for money, other goods, services, or other valuable consideration, including bartering, trading, exchanging, renting, leasing, conditional sales, and any sales where possession of goods is given to the buyer but title is retained by the seller as security for the payment of the purchase price.
14. “Spirits” means any beverage which contains alcohol obtained by distillation, whether mixed with water or other substance in solution, and includes brandy, rum, whiskey, gin, or other spirituous liquors and such liquors when rectified, blended, or otherwise mixed with alcohol or other substances.
15. “Tribal Court” means the Ponca Tribe of Nebraska Tribal Court.
16. “Tribal lands” means:
a. All lands held in trust by the United States for the benefit of the Tribe or its members;
b. All fee lands owned by the Tribe and located within one or more of the Tribe's service areas as defined by Public Law 101-484 and any amendments thereto; and
c. All lands of the Tribe or its members defined as Indian country by 18 U.S.C. 1151, including dependent Indian communities.
17. “Wholesaler” means any person who acquires or otherwise possesses liquor for resale or otherwise sells, distributes, resells or gives away liquor to a retailer.
18. “Wine” means any alcoholic beverage obtained by fermentation of fruits, vegetables or other agricultural products containing sugar, including such beverages when fortified by the addition of alcohol or spirits.
1. To be bound by the terms of this Title; and
2. To the exercise of jurisdiction by the Tribal Court over him or her in an action arising under this Title.
1. There is hereby established a liquor control board to be known as the Ponca Tribe of Nebraska Liquor Control Board as an agency of the Tribe, under the authority of the Tribe, and delegated the powers, duties, and responsibilities set forth in this Title and as otherwise provided by the laws of the Tribe.
2. The Board may employ such other personnel and employees as may be required for the proper discharge of its duties under this Title, provided that, to the maximum extent feasible, the Board shall first use personnel and employees of the Tribal administration as authorized in this Chapter.
1. One (1) Tribal Council member designated by the Tribal Council, who shall serve as the Chairperson of the Board; and
2. Four (4) individuals who shall be appointed by the Tribal Council.
1. Be at least the age of majority;
2. Have no conflicts of interest, as defined in this Chapter;
3. Not have been convicted of any felony or any crime involving or related to alcohol or drugs in any court of any jurisdiction in the five (5) years prior to appointment unless pardoned and fully restored of his or her civil rights by the proper authorities prior to appointment;
4. Be willing and able to comply with the ethical duties of Board members, as defined in this Chapter;
5. Be willing and able to perform the Board's duties in compliance with the laws of the Tribe;
6. Have or acquire knowledge of this Title;
7. Have the time available to actively fulfill the duties of a Board member; and
8. Be willing to receive orientation and training regarding the duties of the Board.
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1. The Tribal Council member designated by the Tribal Council to serve on the Board shall hold office until he or she no longer holds office on the Tribal Council regardless of whether there is a successor in the office, but a former Tribal Council member designated by the Tribal Council to serve on the Board may be appointed to another position on the Board in accordance with this Chapter.
2. Upon the selection of the initial Board members, the Tribal Council shall choose from the members other than the Tribal Council member designated by the Tribal Council to serve on the Board, by lot, one (1) Board member who will serve an initial term of one (1) year, one Board member who will serve an initial term of two (2) years, and two (2) Board members who will serve an initial term of three (3) years. Thereafter, the term of office for Board members shall be three (3) years.
3. Except as otherwise provided herein, each Board member shall serve until he or she resigns, is removed, or the Tribal Council appoints his or her successor.
1. Any Board member may resign from his or her position by delivering a written resignation to the Tribal Council.
2. Any Board member who is a Tribal Council member designated by the Tribal Council to serve on the Board shall automatically be removed from the Board upon the Tribal Council member's resignation or removal from the Tribal Council.
3. The Tribal Council may, by majority vote, remove a Board member for any the following:
a. Violating or permitting violation of this Title;
b. Neglect of duty;
c. Malfeasance or misfeasance in the handling of liquor control matters;
d. Acceptance or solicitation of bribes;
e. Violation of the ethical duties or conflict of interest provisions of this Chapter;
f. Unexcused absence from three (3) or more consecutive Board meetings;
g. Any crime committed against the Tribe which results in a conviction or admission of guilt; or
h. Upon the happening of any event which would have made the Board member ineligible for appointment if the event had occurred prior to appointment.
4. The Tribal Council's decision to remove a Board member shall be final and not subject to challenge, review or appeal.
1. The Chairperson of the Board shall call and preside over Board meetings. The Chairperson shall report to the Tribal Council as required.
2. The Board shall elect from its members a Secretary at its first meeting in each calendar year or at the next meeting of the Board if a vacancy occurs in the office of Secretary.
3. The Secretary shall be responsible for assuring the timely and proper production, distribution and storage of all written records of the Board, including administrative and financial documents. The Secretary shall keep minutes of all meetings of the Board and shall keep informed about the Board's expenditures and budget.
1. No person may be appointed to the Board who:
a. Is employed by, an officer of, or has a private ownership interest, whether direct or indirect, in any entity or organization that is a retailer, wholesaler, manufacturer, brewer or distiller;
b. Is engaged in litigation against the Tribe in a matter related to the subject matter of the Board; or
c. Has a similar interest that would necessarily conflict with the impartial performance of a Board member's duties.
2. The Tribal Council's determination whether an applicant for the Board is barred from appointment by a conflict of interest shall be final and not subject to challenge, review or appeal.
3. Board members shall:
a. Not accept or request any gift, gratuity, compensation, employment or other thing of value from any manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, holder or applicant for a liquor license, or other person subject to this Title;
b. Avoid the appearance of impropriety;
c. Not act in an official capacity when a matter before the Board directly and specifically affects a Board member's own interests or the interests of his or her immediate family;
d. Not attempt to exceed the authority granted to Board members by this Title;
e. Recognize that the authority delegated by this Title is to the Board as a whole, not to individual Board members and, accordingly, the powers of the Board may only be exercised by the Board acting through the procedures established by this Title;
f. Not take action on behalf of the Board unless authorized to do so by the Board;
g. Not involve the Board in any controversy outside the Board's duties; and
h. Hold all confidential information revealed during the course of Board business in strict confidence and discuss or disclose such information only to persons who are entitled to the information and only for the purpose of conducting official Board business.
1. No Board member shall participate in any action or decision by the Board directly involving:
a. Himself or herself;
b. A member of his or her immediate family;
c. Any person, business or other entity of which he or she or a member of his or her immediate family is an employee;
d. Any business or other entity in which he or she or a member of his or her immediate family has a substantial ownership interest; or
e. Any business or other entity with which he or she or a member of his or her immediate family has a substantial contractual relationship.
2. Nothing in this Section shall preclude a Board member from participating in any action or decision by the Board which:
a. Generally affects a class of persons, regardless of whether the Board member or a member of his or her immediate family is a member of the affected class; and
b. Affects the Tribe, an economic enterprise of the Tribe, or a person or entity in a contractual relationship with the Tribe or an economic enterprise of the Tribe, regardless of whether the Board member is also a member of the Tribe.
3. A Board member may voluntarily recuse himself or herself and decline to participate in any action or decision by the Board when the Board member, in his or her own discretion, believes:
a. That he or she cannot act fairly or without bias; or
b. That there would be an appearance that he or she could not act fairly or without bias.
1. The Board may hold meetings as it deems necessary.
2. The Chairperson of the Board shall have the authority to call a meeting of the Board as he or she sees fit upon forty-eight (48) hours written notice. Written notice to a Board member may be dispensed with as to any Board member who is actually present at the meeting at the time it convenes.
3. The Board may conduct a meeting exclusively by telephone, video conference or other electronic means provided that the notice of the Board meeting provides the manner in which the meeting will be conducted and includes information on how a person may attend the meeting, such as a telephone number for participation in the meeting.
4. All decisions of the Board shall be made by a majority vote of the Board members attending the meeting, provided a quorum is present, unless otherwise provided in this Title.
5. Matters dealing with personnel or other confidential matters shall be conducted in executive session and shall not be open to the public.
1. To administer, implement and enforce this Title;
2. To make recommendations to the Tribal Council concerning amendments to this Title;
3. To receive applications for and issue to and suspend, cancel and revoke licenses of manufacturers, wholesalers, and retailers in accordance with this Title and the rules and regulations of the Board;
4. To obtain information and conduct background investigations to determine the suitability of an applicant for a license;
5. To bring legal action in the name of the Tribe to enforce this Title;
6. To inspect any premises where liquor is manufactured, distributed, or sold as provided in this Title;
7. To conduct an audit to inspect any licensee's records and books as provided in this Title;
8. To conduct hearings and hear appeals authorized by this Title, provided the Board shall have no authority to declare any portion of this Title or other law of the Tribe invalid for any reason;
9. In the conduct of any hearing or audit, to issue subpoenas, compel the attendance of witnesses, administer oaths, and require testimony under oath at any hearing conducted by the Board;
10. To examine, under oath, either orally or in writing, any person with respect to any matter subject of this Title;
11. To collaborate and cooperate with such other agencies of the Tribe, other tribes, the United States and the states as necessary to implement and enforce this Title;
12. To develop standard forms and to require by regulation the filing of any such forms or reports necessary for implementation of this Title;
13. To utilize or adopt forms from other appropriate jurisdictions to use as its own so long as such forms meet the requirements of the laws of the Tribe for which such forms are utilized;
14. To promulgate rules and regulations, subject to approval of the Tribal Council and consistent with the laws of the Tribe, which are necessary for carrying out this Title;
15. To delegate any of its power, authority and duties to an individual Board member or other personnel or employee of the Board, provided that the Board shall not delegate its power to
16. To perform all other duties delegated or assigned to the Board by this Title or other laws of the Tribe or the Tribal Council and otherwise implement this Title.
1. The Board may request such information relevant and material to the enforcement of this Title from any and all persons who:
a. Are engaged in the introduction, sale, distribution, or possession of liquor on Tribal lands or with the Tribe; or
b. Are otherwise subject to the jurisdiction of the Tribe.
2. Upon a written request, such persons shall provide the information requested by the Board. The Board may issue a subpoena as provided in this Chapter or request the Court to issue a subpoena or other order, including ex parte without a hearing, to obtain the information required to be provided under this Section.
1. For the purpose of enforcing the provisions of this Title, the Board shall have the authority to inspect property during regular business hours, to examine and require the production of any pertinent records, books, information, or evidence, and to require the presence of any person and require testimony under oath concerning the subject matter of any inquiry of the Board, and to make a permanent record of the proceeding.
2. For the purpose of accomplishing the authority granted in this Section, the Board shall have the power to issue subpoenas and summons requiring attendance and testimony of witnesses and production of papers or other things at any hearing held pursuant to this Title.
3. If a person fails to comply with a subpoena issued by the Board, the Board may apply to the Tribal Court for issuance of an order to show cause which directs that the person against whom the subpoena was issued shall comply with the subpoena within ten (10) business days or show cause why he or she should not be held in contempt of court in accordance with the laws of the Tribe. The Tribal Court shall issue the order to show cause without notice or hearing, unless the Court finds that the subpoena was not lawfully issued or was not properly served in accordance with this Section.
4. Any subpoena, summons or notice issued by the Board shall be served in the manner provided for service of the same in the rules of procedure governing civil actions in Tribal Court.
1. Internal operational procedures;
2. The forms to be used for purposes of this Title;
3. Procedures for conducting investigations and inspections;
4. Procedures for all hearings conducted by the Board;
5. Conditions of sanitation of premises of licensees of the Board; and
6. Protection of the due process rights of all persons subject to the enforcement of this Title by the Board.
1. The Board shall acquire an official seal which shall be used on all original and/or certified copies of all documents of the Board to evidence their authenticity.
2. The seal of the Board shall:
a. Be circular in shape;
b. Contain the words “Ponca Tribe of Nebraska” around the top edge;
c. Contain the words “Liquor Control Board” around the bottom edge; and
d. Contain the words “Official seal” in the center.
3. The seal shall be secured at all times to prevent unauthorized use.
1. The Board shall provide for the form, size, color and identifying characteristics of all licenses, permits, stamps, tags, receipts or other instruments evidencing receipt of any license or payment of any fee administered by the Board or otherwise showing compliance with this Title.
2. Any instrument developed by the Board under this Section shall contain at least the following information:
a. The words “Ponca Tribe” or, if space allows, “Ponca Tribe of Nebraska;”
b. If space allows, the words “Liquor Control Board;”
c. If the instrument is a license or permit, an indication of the type of license or permit, its effective dates, and the name and address of the person to whom it is issued; and
d. If the instrument is a receipt, an indication of what the receipt is for, any amount the receipt is for, and the name and address of the person to whom it is issued.
3. The Board shall provide for the manufacture, delivery, storage and safeguarding of any instrument developed under this Section and shall safeguard such instruments against theft, counterfeiting and improper use.
1. The Board shall create and maintain accurate and complete records which contain information and documents necessary for the proper and efficient operation of the Board, including, but not limited to:
a. All licenses, permits, and the like issued and any fees received for the same;
b. All fees and penalties imposed, due and collected; and
c. Each and every official transaction, communication or action of the Board.
2. The records of the Board shall be maintained at the office of the Board and shall not be removed from said office without the written authorization of the Board.
3. Except where provided otherwise in the laws of the Tribe, the records and other information of the Board shall be considered public records of the Board and shall be provided or made available for inspection during regular business hours upon proper written request to the Board and payment of any copying costs set by the Board, provided that confidential personal information appearing in such records is rendered unreadable prior to provision or inspection.
4. The records of the Board shall be subject to audit at any time at the direction of the Tribal Council, but not less than once each year.
1. The Board may use the services, information or records of other departments and agencies of the Tribe or otherwise available to the Tribe, both from within and without the Tribe, and such departments, agencies and others shall furnish such services, information or records upon request of the Board; and
2. The Board may use personnel and employees of the Tribal administration as it would personnel and employees of the Board, provided the Board coordinates with and obtains approval from the Tribal administration.
1. Any pharmaceutical preparation containing liquor which is prepared by a druggist according to a formula of the pharmacopeia or dispensatory of the United States;
2. Wine or beer manufactured in a residence for consumption therein and not for sale;
3. Alcohol used or intended for use:
a. For scientific research or manufacturing products other than liquor;
b. By a physician, medical or dental clinic, or hospital;
c. In tinctures or toilet, medicinal, and antiseptic preparations and solutions not intended for internal human use nor to be sold as beverages, and which are unfit for beverage purposes, such as cleaning compounds;
d. In food products known as flavoring extracts when manufactured and sold for cooking, culinary, or flavoring purposes, and which are unfit for use for beverage purposes; or
e. By persons exempt from regulation in accordance with the laws of the United States;
4. Ethanol or ethyl alcohol for use as fuel; and
5. Liquor used in a bona fide religious ceremony.
1. Licenses issued by the Board shall be of the following types:
a. Manufacturer license;
b. Wholesale license;
c. Retail license; and
d. Special event license.
2. Except for special event licenses, a license issued by the Board shall be in force and effect for one (1) year following the date it is issued, unless sooner revoked.
3. Any person required to obtain a license under this Chapter who fails to obtain such license or who continues to manufacture, distribute or sell liquor after such license has been revoked shall forfeit his or her right to manufacture, distribute or sell liquor on Tribal lands until he or she complies with all of the provisions of this Title.
1. Any person who is a manufacturer, brewer or distiller located on Tribal lands shall be required to first obtain a manufacturer license from the Board. If a person manufactures liquor at two or more separate places of business on Tribal lands, a separate manufacturer license shall be required for each place of business.
2. A manufacturer license shall allow:
a. The manufacture, distilling, brewing, and storage of liquor on Tribal lands;
b. The sale of liquor to wholesale and retail licensees on Tribal lands without the requirement of any other license under this Chapter; and
c. The retail on-sale of liquor to individuals on the premises of the manufacturer without the requirement of any other license under this Chapter.
3. The annual fee for a manufacturer license shall be one thousand dollars ($1,000.00).
1. Any person who engages in the sale of liquor to manufacturers, retailers or wholesalers on Tribal lands shall be required to first obtain a wholesale license from the Board. If a person sells or delivers from or stores liquor at two or more separate places of business on Tribal lands, a separate wholesale license shall be required for each place of business.
2. A wholesale license shall allow:
a. The wholesale purchase, importation, and storage of liquor and sale of liquor to licensees on Tribal lands; and
b. The sampling of liquor on the premises of the licensee or a licensed retailer by a licensee and his or her employees.
3. The annual fee for a wholesale license shall be seven hundred fifty dollars ($750.00).
1. Any person who engages in the retail sale of liquor on Tribal lands shall be required to first obtain a retail license from the Board. If a person makes sales at two or more separate places of business on Tribal lands, a separate retail license shall be required for each place of business.
2. A retail license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale liquor on the premises of the licensee specified in the retail license at retail for use or consumption but not for resale in any form.
3. A retail license shall designate whether the licensee is permitted to make on-sales or off-sales, but shall not permit both.
4. The annual fee for a retail license shall be two hundred fifty dollars ($250.00).
1. Any person who engages in the retail sale of liquor on Tribal lands for a period of less than seven (7) consecutive days for an event shall be required to first obtain a special event license from the Board. If a person makes sales at two or more separate locations or events on Tribal lands, a separate special event license shall be required for each location.
2. A special event license shall allow the licensee to sell and offer for sale liquor at retail for use or consumption on the premises of the event specified in the license, but not for resale in any form.
3. A special event license shall designate the precise day or period of days for which the license was issued and shall be valid only for such designated day or days.
4. The fee for a retail license shall be fifty dollars ($50.00) per day.
5. The Board may provide by regulation for issuing special event licenses with reduced or no fees and utilizing expedited applications and procedures exempt from the notice and hearing requirements of this Chapter to licensed retailers conducting on-sales, including caterers and the like, for the purpose of allowing such retailers to sell and offer for sale liquor at events on premises other than the premises designated in the retail license.
1. No person may take or solicit orders for liquor on Tribal lands without first registering with the Board and providing the following:
a. His or her name and address;
b. The name and address of his or her employer or principal; and
c. Such other information the Board may require.
2. There shall be no fee for registration under this Section, but registration shall require renewal each calendar year.
1. Any person or entity desiring a license pursuant to this Chapter shall complete and file an application for the appropriate license with the Board and pay such application fee as may be set by the Board to defray the costs of processing the application.
2. In addition to any other items required by the Board, all applications for a license pursuant to this Chapter shall include the following:
a. The name, address and telephone number of the applicant;
b. Any other names used by the applicant, including trade names;
c. Whether the applicant is a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, sole proprietorship or other entity and the jurisdiction where the applicant is organized or registered to conduct business;
d. The names, addresses, telephone numbers and social security numbers of the applicant's principals, which shall
e. The identity of all persons, other than principals, who have an economic interest in the applicant's business;
f. The federal tax identification number or social security number of the applicant;
g. The location where the applicant intends to sell, distribute or manufacture liquor, as the case may be;
h. The type of application desired;
i. Whether the applicant will sell, distribute or manufacture liquor on Tribal lands;
j. Whether the applicant is licensed by the appropriate state within whose boundaries the applicant is located to sell, distribute, or manufacture liquor, as applicable;
k. Information on each liquor license which the applicant has held in any jurisdiction;
l. Whether the applicant or any of its principals have been convicted of or plead guilty to a felony or any criminal offense regarding liquor;
m. Whether the applicant or any of its principals have had a liquor license revoked or suspended in any jurisdiction; and
n. Agreement by the applicant to comply with the laws of the Tribe and all conditions of the license issued by the Board.
1. Upon receipt of an application for a license, the Board shall issue a notice of the application which shall include:
a. The name of the applicant;
b. The location where the applicant intends to sell, distribute or manufacture liquor;
c. The date the Board intends to consider the application, which shall be no sooner than thirty (30) days after the notice is posted in accordance with this Section;
d. Information on submitting comments on the application to the Board by mail or electronic means; and
e. A statement that comments on the application must be received no later than the day prior to the Board considering the application.
2. The notice of the application shall be posted at all Tribal governmental offices and on the Tribe's website for at least thirty (30) days and, if an edition of the Tribal newsletter will be released prior to consideration of the application, published in the Tribal newsletter.
3. Persons may submit comments on the application in the manner prescribed by the Board any time prior to the Board considering the application.
1. Upon receipt of an application for a license, the Board shall conduct or cause to be conducted a background investigation of the applicant and each of its principals. The background investigation shall include, at a minimum:
a. Verification of the applicant's business organization and registration status;
b. Verification of the applicant's state liquor license, its status and any enforcement history; and
c. Conducting a criminal history check of the applicant and the applicant's principals.
2. The Board shall issue a license to an applicant only if it finds, after considering the application and any comments submitted by the public:
a. The applicant did not knowingly provide any false information to the Board regarding its application;
b. The applicant is or is expected to be licensed by the appropriate state within whose boundaries the applicant is located to sell, distribute, or manufacture liquor, as applicable;
c. If the applicant is a corporation or other entity, that it is organized under the laws of the Tribe or registered to conduct business on Tribal lands in accordance with the laws of the Tribe governing the same;
d. Neither the applicant nor any of its principles has been convicted of or plead guilty to a felony or any criminal offense related to liquor in any jurisdiction;
e. Neither the applicant nor any of its principals has had a liquor license revoked in any jurisdiction in the previous two (2) years;
f. The requirements of this Title and the Board's regulations have been met;
g. The applicant's capability, qualifications, and reliability are satisfactory; and
h. The best interests of the Tribe, its members, and the community as a whole will be served by the issuance of the license.
3. In reviewing an applicant's capability, qualifications and reliability, the Board shall consider:
a. The character and reputation of the applicant;
b. The suitability of the physical premises of the applicant;
c. The plan of operation of the applicant; and
d. Any other relevant consideration.
4. In reviewing the interests of the Tribe, its members and the community as a whole, the Board shall consider:
a. The need of the area to be served by the applicant;
b. The number of existing licensed businesses covering the area;
c. The desires of the community within the area to be served;
d. Any law enforcement problems which may arise because of the sale, distribution or manufacture of liquor by the applicant; and
e. Any other relevant consideration.
5. The Board, in its discretion and upon notice to the applicant and the public, may conduct a hearing regarding any application. Such hearing shall be open to the public and any interested persons shall be permitted to present information, including witnesses and evidence, to the Board regarding the application.
6. If an applicant has not obtained a liquor license from the appropriate state within whose boundaries the applicant is located, the Board may approve the applicant's license conditioned upon the receipt of such state liquor license. If the Board conditionally approves a license pursuant to this subsection, the Board shall not issue a license to the applicant unless and until the applicant provides satisfactory proof that it has received a state liquor license.
7. The Board shall issue a decision on the application in writing. The Board's decision shall be served on the applicant and posted at all Tribal governmental offices and on the Tribe's website for at least fifteen (15) days and published in the next edition of the Tribal newsletter.
1. Each license issued pursuant to this Chapter shall specify:
a. The name and address of the licensee;
b. The type of license issued;
c. The premises to which the license applies;
d. If the license is a manufacturer license, the type of liquor the licensee is permitted to manufacture, distill, brew, store, and sell; and
e. If the license is a retail license, whether it permits on-sales or off-sales with respect to the premises to which the license applies.
2. The licensee must keep the license posted at all times in a conspicuous place on the premises for which it has been issued.
3. Licensees must pay all taxes assessed against it under the laws of the Tribe.
4. Licensees shall comply, as a condition of retaining such license, with all applicable laws of the Tribe and with all requests of the Board for inspection, examination and audit permitted under this Title.
5. Notwithstanding anything else in the laws of the Tribe, a license issued pursuant to this Chapter constitutes only a permit to the licensee to conduct the activities permitted by the license for the duration of the license and shall not be construed or deemed to constitute a property or other vested right of any kind or give rise to a legal entitlement to a license for any future period of time.
1. A licensee may renew its license by filing an application for renewal with the Board and paying such renewal application fee as may be set by the Board to defray the costs of processing the application.
2. The renewal application shall identify any changes in information required on the licensee's application for a license since the issuance of the license or previous renewal, whichever is later, or the applicant shall certify that no such information has changed.
3. A license issued pursuant to this Chapter shall be automatically renewed upon submission of a renewal application and payment of the applicable annual license fee, unless:
a. Information required on the application for a license has changed in such a manner that it makes the licensee ineligible for a license under this Chapter; or
b. The Board determines in writing that renewal would not be in the best interests of the Tribe, its members or the community as a whole.
1. No license issued pursuant to this Chapter may be assigned or transferred to any other person or entity.
2. Any change in ownership of the licensee that constitutes more than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership interest in a licensee shall require the issuance of a new license in accordance with this Chapter.
3. A licensee may request a change in the name and/or address of the licensee or a change in location of the premises to which the license applies by applying with the Board for a modification of the license in accordance with this Section and paying such fee as may be set by the Board to defray the costs of processing the modification.
4. The Board shall approve a change in the address of the licensee upon request, provided the change in address is not a change in location. The Board shall approve a change in the name of the licensee provided that the name is not the name of an individual and the change is not the result of any change in more than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership interest in the licensee.
5. If a licensee requests a change in location, the Board shall issue and post a notice of the modification of location and permit public comment the same as an application for a new license. The Board shall approve a change in location only if it finds, after considering the application and any comments submitted by the public:
a. The applicant has obtained or is in the process of obtaining a license or modification for the new location from the appropriate state within whose boundaries the applicant is located, provided that the Board may approve the change in location conditioned upon the receipt of such state license or modification so long as the Board does not issue the modified license unless and until the applicant provides satisfactory proof that it has received a state license or modification;
b. The physical premises of the new location is suitable for the license; and
c. The best interests of the Tribe, its members and the community as a whole will be served by the modification of the location.
6. If the Board approves a modification of a license pursuant to this Section, the Board shall issue a modified license to the licensee reflecting the modified information. The modified license shall expire on the same date as the original license.
7. Any modification of a license not provided for in this Section shall require the issuance of a new license in accordance with this Chapter.
1. Upon revocation, non-renewal or other termination of a license issued pursuant to this Chapter, a former licensee may dispose of any liquor in its stock within thirty (30) days of expiration of its former license by:
a. Selling such stock in whole or in part to a wholesaler or retailer licensed pursuant to this Chapter;
b. Selling such stock in whole or in part to a wholesaler or retailer located outside Tribal lands and authorized to purchase such liquor;
c. Moving such stock in whole or in part outside Tribal lands to a location where such liquor is authorized to be stored or held; or
d. Destroying such liquor under the supervision of the Board.
2. The Board may grant a former licensee an additional twenty (20) days to sell or otherwise dispose of its stock upon the former licensee showing good cause for such extension and no failure in due diligence to make such disposal.
3. Any liquor remaining in the possession of a former licensee and not disposed of in accordance with this Section shall be treated as contraband in accordance with this Title.
4. A former licensee shall submit to the Board a complete report of the disposition of all stock pursuant to this Section.
1. No licensee may reseal, reuse, or refill any package that contains or contained liquor.
2. No retail licensee may lock, or permit the locking of the entrances to the licensed premises until all persons other than the licensee and its employees have left.
3. No licensee may change the name of its licensed premises without first obtaining a modification of its license as provided in this Chapter.
4. A licensee shall conduct its business in a decent, orderly and respectable manner and shall not permit loitering by intoxicated persons, rowdiness, undue noise, or any other disturbance offensive to the residents of Tribal lands.
5. A retail licensee shall demand satisfactory evidence of a person's age upon such person's attempt to purchase any liquor from the retail licensee if such person appears to the retail licensee to be under the age of twenty-one (21) and shall refuse to sell liquor to any such person who fails or refuses to produce such satisfactory evidence. Satisfactory evidence of age shall include:
a. A driver's license or identification card validly issued by any state department of motor vehicles;
b. A United States active duty military identification;
c. A passport validly issued by any jurisdiction; and
d. Identification card issued by a federally recognized tribe which includes a photograph and date of birth.
1. Licensees and their employees are liable for injuries or damage to property resulting from their negligent or reckless acts and omissions, whether in the
2. All manufacturers and retailers conducting on-sales shall maintain insurance coverage insuring against liability under this Section in the amount of at least $1,000,000.00 for bodily injury to any one (1) person, $500,000.00 for any one (1) accident or personal injury, and $100,000.00 for property damage.
1. Allegations of a violation of this Title shall be presented to the Board by submitting a complaint with such allegation in writing to the Chairperson of the Board or his or her designee.
2. A complaint may be submitted by any Board member or member of the public who believes that a person has committed a violation of this Title.
3. A complaint shall specify the person against whom the allegation is being made and the conduct that is alleged to be in violation of this Title.
4. Upon receipt of a complaint pursuant to this Section, the Board shall review the complaint to determine if the allegations made fall within the scope of this Title and whether, assuming the facts alleged are true, said facts would constitute a violation of this Title.
5. If the Board determines that the allegations do not fall within the scope of this Title or do not allege facts which, if true, would constitute a violation of this Title, the Board shall provide written notice to the complainant which shall state that:
a. The Board received the complaint;
b. The Board has reviewed the complaint in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter;
c. The Board has determined that the allegations do not fall within the scope of this Title and/or do not allege facts which would constitute a violation of this Title; and
d. The matter is closed.
6. If the Board determines that the allegations fall within the scope of this Title and allege facts which, if true, would constitute a violation of this Title, the Board shall make or cause to be made a preliminary investigation of the allegations in the complaint and, if there is reason to believe the allegations in the complaint, the Board shall issue a notice of violation as provided in this Chapter.
1. The Board may examine and audit any licensee for the purpose of enforcing this Title.
2. In conducting an examination and audit pursuant to this Section, the Board may:
a. Examine any books, records, papers, maps, documents, or other data which may be relevant and material to the inquiry upon reasonable notice:
i. During normal business hours;
ii. At any other time agreed to by the person having possession, custody or care for such data; or
iii. At any time pursuant to an order of the Tribal Court;
b. Summon the licensee, any officer or employee or agent of the licensee, or any person having possession, custody or care of the books of account containing entries relating to the business of the licensee or required to perform the act, or any other person the Board may deem proper, to appear before the Board at the time and place named in the summons and to produce such books, records, papers, maps, documents or other data, and to give such testimony, under oath, as may be relevant or material to the inquiry; and
c. Take testimony of any person, under oath, as may be relevant or material to the inquiry.
1. If the Board has reason to believe that a violation of this Title has occurred, the Board shall issue a notice of violation to all persons accused of the violation.
2. A notice of violation shall state:
a. The specific provisions of this Title alleged to have been violated;
b. The Board will consider any written response to the notice of violation from the accused before determining whether to proceed with the notice of violation; and
c. The accused may respond in writing to the notice of violation within fourteen (14) calendar days of service of the notice.
3. If a notice of violation is not delivered to a person accused of the violation personally at the time of issuance, it shall be served on such person in the manner provided for service of a summons in the rules of procedure governing civil actions in Tribal Court.
4. The accused shall have the right to respond to a notice of violation within the time stated in the notice of violation. The accused may include copies of any documents which the accused believes support his or her position.
5. After the time has expired for the accused to respond to a notice of violation, the Board shall consider any written response to the notice of violation and determine how to proceed with the notice of violation. Based on its review, the Board may:
a. Close the notice of violation if satisfied by the accused's response; or
b. Conduct or cause to be conducted a thorough investigation of the notice of violation.
6. If an investigation is conducted and such investigation reveals that there is evidence to support that a violation of this Title occurred, the Board shall determine an appropriate sanction for such violation as provided in this Chapter, including civil fine, license suspension or revocation, or both, and impose such sanction in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter.
7. Written notice shall be provided of the Board's decision under this Section.
1. Within thirty (30) days of service of a decision of the Board, a person subject of the decision may request a conference with the Board to seek a review and redetermination of the decision.
2. A request for a conference shall:
a. Be made in writing to the Board or its designee;
b. Identify the decision of the Board;
c. Declare the redetermination sought; and
d. Include a complete statement of the facts relied on.
3. The Board, after an initial inquiry, may deny the request for a conference and direct the person to proceed to an appeal in accordance with this Chapter.
4. Upon request or its own initiative, the Board may stay any action on its decision until a time not more than thirty (30) days after issuance of a decision from the conference.
5. The Board may confer with the person by phone or in person, or may require the submission of additional written material and will issue a written decision. If the result sought is denied in whole or in part, the decision will state the basis for the denial.
6. After the Board issues its decision, the person may appeal the matters in dispute as provided in this Chapter. The person may request a stay of the decision within ten (10) days after issuance of the decision, provided the request is based upon an intention to request a hearing.
7. If no appeal is made within the time allowed, the decision from a formal conference is final and is not subject to any appeal before the Board or in any court.
1. Within thirty (30) days of service of a decision of the Board or issuance of a decision from a formal conference, a party aggrieved by the decision may file an appeal with the Board.
2. A request for appeal shall:
a. Be made in writing to the Board;
b. Identify the decision of the Board;
c. Identify any conference decision;
d. Declare the redetermination sought; and
e. Include a complete statement of the facts relied on.
3. Upon request or its own initiative, the Board may stay any action on its decision until a time not more than thirty (30) days after issuance of a decision from the appeal.
4. The Board shall conduct a hearing on the applicant's appeal and take testimony and examine documentary evidence as necessary to determine the appeal.
5. After hearing an appeal, the Board shall issue a decision. The decision of the Board on an appeal under this Section shall be the final decision of the Board, provided that the Board shall have been deemed to have issued a final decision denying an appeal if the Board:
a. Fails to schedule and hold a hearing on the merits of an otherwise valid appeal within sixty (60) days after receipt of a notice of appeal; or
b. Fails to issue a written decision within thirty (30) days of the hearing on the merits of the appeal.
6. The Board may permit or require, pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Board, one or more levels of review by its employees or delegates in addition and prior to appeal to the Board, provided that the failure to proceed to a next required level of review shall constitute a waiver of any further appeal or judicial review.
7. The failure to file an appeal pursuant to this Section shall not prevent the aggrieved party from defending any action brought by the Board against the party in Tribal Court.
1. If a party is aggrieved by a final decision of the Board on appeal, the party may challenge the decision by filing a petition requesting judicial review of the Board's decision in the Tribal Court.
2. Judicial review of the Board's decision shall proceed in accordance with the following:
a. The petition for judicial review shall be filed within thirty (30) days of the issuance of the Board's decision;
b. No new or additional evidence may be introduced, but the matter shall be heard on the record established before the Board;
c. No new or additional issues may be raised and only issues raised before the Board may be heard regardless of the Board's authority to hear the issue;
d. The Tribal Court shall uphold all factual findings of the Board unless the Tribal Court concludes that such findings are not supported by the substantive evidence in the record established before the Board;
e. In reviewing legal conclusions reached by the Board, the Tribal Court shall give proper weight to the Board's interpretation of this Title and any rules and regulations of the Board;
f. The Tribal Court shall affirm any determination by the Board that the issuance, renewal or modification of a license is not in the best interests of the Tribe, its members or the community as a whole unless such determination is clearly arbitrary and capricious;
g. The Tribal Court may affirm, reverse, modify or vacate and remand the Board's final decision, but shall affirm the final decision unless the Tribal Court concludes that the final decision of the Board is:
i. Not supported by the evidence;
ii. Arbitrary or capricious;
iii. An abuse of discretion;
iv. Beyond the Board's authority; or
v. Otherwise contrary to the laws of the Tribe.
3. The Tribal Court shall dismiss any action brought against the Board if the person filing the action has not exhausted all administrative remedies before the Board, including an appeal to the Board.
4. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Title, the Tribal Court shall not have jurisdiction or authority to award or order the payment of damages or other monies or provide any remedy to a party except for affirming, reversing, modifying or vacating and remanding the decision of the Board.
5. The Tribal Court's jurisdiction to review a final decision of the Board shall be exclusive and a final decision of the Board shall not be subject to appeal, review, challenge, or other action in any court or tribunal except as provided in this Section.
1. It shall be a violation of this Title:
a. To introduce, store, possess, sell, offer for sale, distribute, transport or manufacture liquor without first obtaining all necessary licenses or in any manner not authorized by this Title;
b. To store, sell, offer for sale, distribute, transport or manufacture liquor in violation of any provision of this Title or the terms of a license issued pursuant to this Title;
c. To deliver liquor to a manufacturer, wholesaler or retailer at any place other than the premises described in the license of such manufacturer, wholesaler or retailer;
d. For any manufacturer, wholesaler or retailer to keep or store any liquor at any place other than on the premises where such manufacturer, wholesaler or retailer is authorized to operate and except as otherwise provided in this Title;
e. For any retailer to take or solicit orders for the delivery of liquor from any person unless such person is registered as a salesman in accordance with this Title;
f. For any retailer to have any interest in the property or business of a manufacturer or wholesaler;
g. For any licensee to neglect or refuse to produce or submit for inspection, examination or audit any records lawfully requested by the Board in accordance with this Title;
h. For a retailer to obtain liquor in unbroken packages except from a manufacturer or wholesale licensee;
i. For a retailer or employee of a retailer to accept or give gifts of liquor in connection with its business, except for the sampling of liquor as provided by a wholesaler in the ordinary course of the trade;
j. For a manufacturer or retailer conducting on-sales to employ any person for the purpose of soliciting the purchase of liquor within the licensed premises on a percentage or commission basis;
k. For a manufacturer or retailer conducting on-sales to sell liquor without insurance coverage as required by this Title;
l. To knowingly employ a person under the age of majority in the sale, distribution or manufacture of liquor;
m. For a manufacturer conducting on-sales, a retailer, or an employee of either to consume liquor or be intoxicated while selling liquor on the licensed premises;
n. For a manufacturer conducting on-sales or a retailer to sell liquor for anything other than cash, check, or credit or debit card transaction or extend credit to any person, organization, or entity for the purchase of liquor;
o. For a retailer conducting off-sales or an employee of such a retailer to sell or give liquor in broken or refilled packages;
p. For a retailer conducting off-sales or an employee of such a retailer to permit the consumption of liquor on the retailer's premises;
q. For a retailer conducting on-sales or an employee of such a retailer to sell or give liquor for consumption off the retailer's premises;
r. To knowingly sell liquor to a person under the age of twenty-one (21) years;
s. For a manufacturer, retailer or employee of either to sell or give any liquor to any person or permit the consumption of liquor on the licensed premises between the hours of two 2:00 a.m. and 6:00 a.m., provided that a manufacturer may sell or give liquor in
t. For a manufacturer or retailer conducting on-sales or an employee of either to sell or give liquor to an intoxicated person within the licensed premises.
2. If an act is a violation of this Title when committed by a licensee, retailer, wholesaler or manufacturer, the licensee, retailer, wholesaler or manufacturer is also liable if the act is committed by one of its employees or agents.
3. In addition to any other consequences for a violation of this Title, including suspension or revocation of a license, a person who commits a violation under this Section shall be subject to a civil fine of up to five hundred dollars ($500) per occurrence, which may be imposed by the Board pursuant to a notice of violation and thereafter enforced and collected through a civil cause of action brought by the Board on behalf of the Tribe in the Tribal Court.
1. It shall be a violation of this Title for any person:
a. Who is under the age of twenty-one (21) years, to:
i. Purchase or attempt to purchase liquor except at the direction and under the supervision of the Board, its designee, or other law enforcement official for the purpose of enforcing this Title or other applicable law governing liquor on Tribal lands;
ii. Consume or possess liquor except for possession as a part of employment to the extent permitted under this Title and any applicable state law, consumption or possession as part of a bona fide religious ceremony, or consumption or possession in his or her permanent place of residence; or
iii. Attempt to purchase liquor through the use of false or altered identification which purports to show the person to be over the age of twenty-one (21) years;
b. To consume liquor from a broken package in a public place, other than licensed premises specified in a manufacturer license, a retailer license which allows on-sales, or a special event license; or
c. To transfer in any manner an identification of age to a person under the age of twenty-one (21) years for the purpose of permitting such person to obtain liquor, provided that corroborative testimony of a witness other than the underage person shall be a requirement of finding a violation of this subsection.
2. In addition to any other consequences for a violation of this Title, a person who commits a violation of this Section shall be subject to a civil fine of up to one hundred dollars ($100) per occurrence, which may be imposed by the Board pursuant to a notice of violation and thereafter enforced and collected through a civil cause of action brought by the Board on behalf of the Tribe in the Tribal Court.
1. The Board may summarily suspend for up to fifteen (15) days the license of any person upon a finding of imminent danger to the public welfare caused by the licensee or any act or omission of the licensee.
2. The Board, after at least ten (10) days notice and a full hearing, may revoke the license of any person for any of the following:
a. Repeatedly violating or permitting the violation of any provision of this Title or the rules and regulations of the Board;
b. Failure or refusal to pay all taxes imposed on the sale, distribution or manufacture of liquor under the laws of the Tribe;
c. Misrepresentation of a material fact in the licensee's application for a license or any renewal thereof;
d. The occurrence of any event which would have made the licensee ineligible for a license if the event had occurred prior to the issuance of the license;
e. Failure to maintain insurance coverage as required by this Title for a continuous period of more than thirty (30) days;
f. Imminent danger to the public welfare caused by the licensee or any act or omission of the licensee which has not been corrected within a reasonable time after notice from the Board; or
g. Failure of the licensee to correct an unhealthy or unsafe condition on the licensed premises within a reasonable time after notice from the Board.
3. The Board may suspend the license of any licensee for a period not exceeding one-hundred eighty (180) days as an alternative to revoking the license if the Board is satisfied that the grounds giving rise to the revocation or the circumstances thereof are such that a suspension of the license would be adequate.
4. Any suspension of a license pursuant to this Section shall be effective twenty-four (24) hours after service of notice thereof upon the licensee. During any period of suspension of a license, the licensee shall have and exercise no rights or privileges whatsoever under the license.
5. After revocation of a license, the licensee's rights and privileges under such license shall terminate twenty-four (24) hours after service of notice thereof upon the licensee. Any licensee whose license is revoked shall not be granted any license under the provisions of this Title for a period of two (2) years from the date of revocation.
1. In addition to any other remedies available to it, the Board, pursuant to an order issued by the Board, may seize any liquor possessed contrary to the terms of this Title, including liquor possessed for manufacture or sale, as contraband.
2. Upon seizure of any liquor pursuant to this Section, the Board shall inventory all items seized and leave a written copy of such inventory with the person from whom it was seized or, if such person cannot be found, posted at the place from which the liquor was seized.
3. Any person who claims an ownership interest, right of possession to, or other interest in liquor seized pursuant to this Section may request a formal conference regarding or file an appeal of the Board's seizure of such liquor in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter governing appeals before the Board.
4. Upon the expiration or conclusion of any appeal permitted under this Chapter of seizure of liquor pursuant to this Section, including permitted judicial review, such liquor shall be forfeited and all title and ownership interest in such liquor shall vest in the Tribe unless an appeal or judicial review returns such liquor to the person from whom it was seized or other person entitled thereto.
5. If necessary, the Board may file a complaint for forfeiture against any liquor seized pursuant to this Section in the Tribal Court. Upon the Board showing by clear and convincing evidence that seized liquor is contraband under this Title, the Tribal Court shall enter an order that such liquor is forfeited and that all title and ownership interest in such liquor is vested in the Tribe.
6. Any liquor seized pursuant to this Section to which title has vested in the Tribe that is no longer required for evidence may be sold for the benefit of the Tribe or destroyed under the supervision of the Board.
1. Except for valid judicial review of a decision of the Board as provided in this Title, nothing in this Title shall be construed as limiting, waiving or abrogating the sovereignty or the sovereign immunity of the Board or any of its agents, officers, officials, personnel or employees.
2. An action brought or taken by the Board, including without limitation the bringing of suit for the collection of fines or enjoining a business, activity or function, shall not constitute a waiver of sovereign immunity as to any counterclaim, regardless of whether the asserted counterclaim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence or in any other respect.
3. No economic enterprise of the Tribe may claim sovereign immunity as a defense to any action brought or taken by the Board, including a suit for the collection of fines or the enjoining of a business, activity or function of such economic enterprise and, to the extent necessary, the Tribe waives the sovereign immunity of its economic enterprises in any action brought or taken by the Board against such economic enterprise.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Notice of information collection; request for comment.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE), are announcing our intention to request renewed approval for the collection of information that provides a tool for OSMRE and the States/Indian tribes to help them prevent persons with outstanding violations from conducting further mining or AML reclamation activities in the State. This information collection activity was previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and assigned control number 1029-0119.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 11, 2018.
Send written comments on this information collection request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget's Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior by email at
To request additional information about this ICR, contact John Trelease by email at
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provides the requested data in the desired format.
A
We are again soliciting comments on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is the collection necessary to the proper functions of OSMRE; (2) is the estimate of burden accurate; (3) how might OSMRE enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) how might OSMRE minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology.
Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
1. Agendas for future meetings: None.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote on Inv. Nos. 701-TA-609 and 731-TA-1421 (Preliminary)(Steel Trailer Wheels from China). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations on September 24, 2018; views of the Commission are currently scheduled to be completed and filed on October 1, 2018.
5.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
Issued: September 7, 2018.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, conducts a pre-clearance consultation program to provide the general public and federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing collections of information in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The program helps to ensure that requested data can be provided in the desired format, reporting burden (time and financial resources) is minimized, collection instruments are clearly understood, and the impact of collection requirements on respondents can be properly assessed. Currently, the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) is soliciting comments concerning its proposal to obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to renew the information collection that implements standard procedures for supply and service contractors seeking approval to develop affirmative action programs based on functional or business units. A copy of the proposed information collection request can be obtained by contacting the office listed below in the
Written comments must be submitted to the office listed in the addresses section below on or before November 13, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
Debra A. Carr, Director, Division of Policy and Program Development, Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs, Room C-3325, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210. Telephone: (202) 693-0103 (voice) or (202) 693-1337 (TTY) (these are not toll-free numbers). Copies of this notice may be obtained in alternative formats (large print, braille, audio recording) upon request by calling the numbers listed above.
I. Background: OFCCP administers and enforces the three nondiscrimination and equal employment opportunity laws listed below.
These authorities prohibit employment discrimination and require affirmative action to ensure that equal employment opportunities are available regardless of race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, disability, or status as a protected veteran by federal contractors. Additionally, federal contractors and subcontractors are prohibited from, discriminating against applicants and employees for asking about, discussing, or sharing information about their pay or the pay of their co-workers. E.O. 11246 applies to federal contractors and subcontractors and to federally assisted construction contractors holding a Government contract in excess of $10,000, or Government contracts which have, or can reasonably be expected to have, an aggregate total value exceeding $10,000 in a 12-month period. E.O. 11246 also applies to government bills of lading, depositories of federal funds in any amount, and to financial institutions that are issuing and paying agents for U.S. Savings Bonds. Section 503 prohibits employment discrimination against applicants and
II. Review Focus: OFCCP is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the compliance and enforcement functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
III. Current Actions: OFCCP seeks approval of this information collection in order to carry out and enhance its responsibilities to enforce the anti-discrimination and affirmative action provisions of the three legal authorities it administers.
Type of Review: Renewal.
Agency: Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs.
Title: Agreement Approval Process for Use of Functional Affirmative Action Programs.
OMB Number: 1250-0006.
Agency Form Number: None.
Affected Public: Business or other for-profit entities.
Total Respondents: 85.
Total Annual responses: 85.
Estimated Total Burden Hours: 862.
Frequency: Annual.
Total Burden Cost: $29,455.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Notice.
This is a notice of an addendum to the interagency Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) between the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL), Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE). The MOU establishes specific interagency procedures for the transfer of occupational safety and health coverage for privatized facilities, properties, and operations from DOE to OSHA and state agencies acting under state plans approved by OSHA.
The expansion of the scope of recognition becomes effective on September 11, 2018.
Information regarding this notice is available from the following sources:
DOE and OSHA entered into a MOU on August 10, 1992, delineating regulatory authority over the occupational safety and health of contractor employees at DOE government-owned or leased, contractor-operated (GOCO) facilities. In general, the MOU recognizes that DOE exercises statutory authority under section 161(f) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, (42 U.S.C. 2201(f)), relating to the occupational safety and health of private-sector employees at these facilities.
Section 4(b)(1) of the Occupational Safety Health Act of 1970 (OSH Act) (29 U.S.C. 653(b)(1), exempts from OSHA authority working conditions with respect to which other federal agencies have exercised statutory authority to prescribe or enforce standards or regulations affecting occupational safety and health. The 1992 MOU acknowledges DOE's extensive program for the regulation of contractor health and safety, which requires contractor compliance with all OSHA standards as well as additional requirements prescribed by DOE, and concludes with an agreement by the agencies that the provisions of the OSH Act will not apply to GOCO sites for which DOE has exercised authority to regulate occupational safety and health under the Atomic Energy Act. The 1992 MOU has expired.
In light of DOE's policy emphasis on privatization activities, OSHA and DOE entered into a second MOU on July 25, 2000, that establishes interagency procedures to address regulatory authority for occupational safety and health at specified privatized facilities and operations on sites formerly controlled by DOE. The July 25, 2000, MOU covers facilities and operations on lands no longer controlled by DOE, which are not conducting activities for or on behalf of DOE and where there is no likelihood that any employee exposure to radiation from DOE sources would be 25 millirems per year (mrem/yr) or more.
In an email dated February 2, 2018, DOE requested that OSHA or, as appropriate, the Tennessee Occupational Safety and Health Administration (TOSHA) accept occupational safety and health regulatory authority over employees at the East Tennessee Technology Park in Oak Ridge, Tennessee, six parcels of land pursuant to the MOU on Safety and Health Enforcement at Privatized Facilities and Operations dated July 25, 2000. Other facilities and properties at the East Tennessee Technology Park were transferred to TOSHA jurisdiction under this MOU by
The six parcels of land, which are located at the East Tennessee Technology Park in Oak Ridge, Tennessee, and were transferred by deed to the Community Reuse Organization of East Tennessee (CROET) are described as follows:
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•
•
•
•
•
OSHA's Regional Office in Atlanta, Georgia, working with the OSHA Nashville Area Office and TOSHA, determined that TOSHA is willing to accept authority over the occupational safety and health of public-sector and private-sector employees at the six parcels of land at the East Tennessee Technology Park in Oak Ridge, Tennessee, that were transferred by deed to CROET. In a letter from OSHA to DOE dated May 21, 2018, OSHA stated that TOSHA is satisfied with DOE assurances that (1) there is no likelihood that any employee at facilities in the vicinity of these land parcels will be exposed to radiation levels that will be 25 millirems per year (mrem/yr) or more, and; (2) transfer of authority to TOSHA is free from regulatory gaps and does not diminish the safety and health protection of the employees.
Accordingly, TOSHA accepts and maintains health and safety regulatory authority over employees in the vicinity of Land Parcels ED-11, ED-12, ED-3, ED-3 West, K-31 and K-33.
Loren Sweatt, Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health, authorized the preparation of this notice. This
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by October 11, 2018. Once NARA finishes appraising the records, we will send you a copy of the schedule you requested. We usually prepare appraisal memoranda that contain additional information concerning the records covered by a proposed schedule. You may also request these. If you do, we will also provide them once we have completed the appraisal. You have 30 days after we send to you these requested documents in which to submit comments.
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA) using one of the following means: Mail: NARA (ACRA); 8601 Adelphi Road; College Park, MD 20740-6001, Email:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA); National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road; College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
NARA publishes notice in the
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing records retention periods and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize the agency to dispose of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it creates or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after December 17, 2007, are media neutral unless the item is expressly limited to a specific medium. (See 36 CFR 1225.12(e).)
Agencies may not destroy Federal records without Archivist of the United States' approval. The Archivist approves destruction only after thoroughly considering the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions
1. Department of Agriculture, Foreign Agricultural Service (DAA-0166-2018-0049, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Records in support of the Market Access and the Foreign Market Development programs to include program agreements, program amendments, approval letters, compliance correspondence, reimbursement claims, evaluations, performance reports, and financial reports.
2. Department of Agriculture, Foreign Agricultural Service (DAA-0166-2018-0050, 3 items, 3 temporary items). Records in support of the Office of Trade programs to include program agreements, program amendments, approval letters, compliance correspondence, reimbursement claims, evaluations, performance reports, and financial reports.
3. Department of Agriculture, Foreign Agricultural Service (DAA-0166-2018-0051, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records in support of the Section 108 Foreign Currency programs to include program agreements, program amendments, approval letters, compliance correspondence, reimbursement claims, evaluations, performance reports, and financial reports.
4. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (DAA-0095-2018-0044, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Forms related to financial batch control and transmittal application, as well as tracking activities.
5. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (DAA-0095-2018-0045, 1 item, 1 temporary item). General correspondence, proposals, policy, and procedures related to commercial timber sales.
6. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (DAA-0095-2018-0047, 1 item, 1 temporary item). General correspondence, policy, procedures, and accountability reports related to timber designation, cruising, and scaling.
7. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (DAA-0095-2018-0048, 1 item, 1 temporary item). General correspondence, budget reports, plans, reviews, and approvals related to standards used in systems management.
8. Department of Agriculture, Forest Service (DAA-0095-2018-0049, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Policies, procedures, correspondence, and the development of forms used in timber sale contracts and permits.
9. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (DAA-0138-2018-0007, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records relating to the oversight of natural gas pipeline providers regarding the prevention of unfair business practices including orders, motions, comments, general correspondence, and associated documents.
10. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (DAA-0138-2018-0008, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records relating to oversight of trade and shipping of natural gas including orders, motions, comments, general correspondence, fee collection, and associated documents.
11. Department of Health and Human Services, Health Resources and Services Administration (DAA-0512-2017-0002, 7 items, 6 temporary items). System records of the National Practitioner Data Bank that include query transactions, case files, and registration forms. Proposed for permanent retention are malpractice records and Drug Enforcement Administration reports that include information on adverse actions.
12. Department of Health and Human Services, National Institutes of Health (DAA-0443-2018-0002, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Administrative support records for clinical care environments that include food service and transportation documents, employee absence and tardiness files, and volunteer service records.
13. Department of Homeland Security, Bureau of Customs and Border Protection (DAA-0568-2018-0002, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Non-evidentiary border area audio and video footage, and associated metadata.
14. Department of the Interior, Department-wide (DAA-0048-2015-0003, 23 items, 18 temporary items). Natural resource planning and development case files containing operational mission records related to fish and wildlife species management; critical habitat designations; assessment reports; surveys; Federal onshore and offshore production audits and inspections; energy lease applications and issued leases; energy resource analysis and evaluations; land use planning and activities; permits; land title, operations, and realty records; wild horse and burro adoptions; reciprocal use and license agreements; land status; water analysis and water use permitting; non-historic water and power projects and facility records; and water project, engineering, and water quality records. Proposed for permanent retention are final studies and reports related to mission programs and activities such as the Endangered Species Act and Fish and Wildlife Act management and planning files; energy and mineral final financial reports and summaries; mineral lease case history files; land use management plans and reports requiring agency authorization; historic water and power projects; and water resources and delivery records.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Draft regulatory guide; reopening of comment period.
On July 5, 2018, the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) solicited comments on draft regulatory guide (DG), DG-1351, “Dispositioning of Technical Specifications that are Insufficient to Ensure Plant Safety.” The public comment period was originally scheduled to close on September 4, 2018. The NRC has decided to extend the public comment period by 30 days to allow more time for members of the public to develop and submit their comments.
The due date of comments requested in the document published on July 5, 2018 (83 FR 31429), is being reopened. The NRC is reopening the public comment period that had closed on September 4, 2018, to allow more time for members of the public to develop and submit their comments. Comments should be filed no later than
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specified subject):
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For additional direction on accessing information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Blake Purnell, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, telephone: 301-415-1380, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0137 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this action. You may obtain publically-available information related to this action, by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2018-0137 in your comment submission. The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment submissions into ADAMS.
On July 5, 2018, the NRC solicited comments on draft regulatory guide (DG) DG-1351, “Dispositioning of Technical Specifications that are Insufficient to Ensure Plant Safety.” The public comment period was originally scheduled to close on September 4, 2018. The NRC received a request from stakeholders to extend the public comment period by 30 days. The NRC has agreed to the request and decided to reopen the public comment period until October 11, 2018, to allow more time for members of the public to develop and submit their comments.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Biweekly notice.
Pursuant to Section 189a.(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is publishing this regular biweekly notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves no significant hazards consideration, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.
This biweekly notice includes all notices of amendments issued, or proposed to be issued, from August 14 to August 27, 2018. The last biweekly notice was published on August 28, 2018.
Comments must be filed by October 11, 2018. A request for a hearing must be filed by November 13, 2018.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods (unless this document describes a different method for submitting comments on a specific subject):
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For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Beverly Clayton, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3475, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0188 facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
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Please include Docket ID NRC-2018-0188 facility name, unit number(s), plant docket number, application date, and subject in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration. Under the Commission's regulations in section 50.92 of title 10 of the
The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.
Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendment until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue the license amendment before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendment involves no significant hazards consideration. In addition, the Commission may issue the amendment prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to the action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. The NRC's regulations are accessible electronically from the NRC Library on the NRC's website at
As required by 10 CFR 2.309(d) the petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements for standing: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.309(f), the petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated in the proceeding. Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner must provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to the specific sources and documents on which the petitioner intends to rely to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant or licensee on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions must be limited to matters within the scope of the proceeding. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene. Parties have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that party's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii). The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document.
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to establish when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of the amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1). The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. Alternatively, a State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may participate as a non-party under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who is not a party to the proceeding and is not affiliated with or represented by a party may, at the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of his or her position on the issues but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition), any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities that request to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562; August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Detailed guidance on making electronic submissions may be found in the Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC and on the NRC website at
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public website at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public website at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For further details with respect to these license amendment applications, see the application for amendment which is available for public inspection in ADAMS and at the NRC's PDR. For additional direction on accessing information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The impacts of these administrative changes do not affect how plant equipment is operated or maintained. The proposed changes do not impact the intent or substance of the Operating License (OL) or Technical Specifications (TS). There are no changes to the physical plant or analytical methods.
The proposed amendment involves administrative and editorial changes only. The proposed amendment does not impact any accident initiators, analyzed events, or assumed mitigation of accident or transient events. The proposed changes do not involve the addition or removal of any equipment or any design changes to the facility. The proposed changes do not affect any plant operations, design functions, or analyses that verify the capability of structures, systems, and components (SSCs) to perform a design function. The proposed changes do not change any of the accidents previously evaluated in the updated Final Safety Analysis Report (FSAR). The proposed changes do not affect SSCs, operating procedures, and administrative controls that have the function of preventing or mitigating any of these accidents.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not represent a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed amendment only involves administrative and editorial changes. No actual plant equipment or accident analyses will be affected by the proposed changes. The proposed changes will not change the design function or operation of any SSCs. The proposed changes will not result in any new failure mechanisms, malfunctions, or accident initiators not considered in the design and licensing bases. The proposed amendment does not impact any accident initiators, analyzed events, or assumed mitigation of accident or transient events.
Therefore, this proposed changes do not create the possibility of an accident of a new or different kind than previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed amendment only involves administrative and editorial changes. The proposed changes do not involve any physical changes to the plant or alter the manner in which plant systems are operated, maintained, modified, tested, or inspected. The proposed changes do not alter the manner in which safety limits, limiting safety system settings or limiting conditions for operation are determined. The safety analysis acceptance criteria are not affected by these changes. The proposed changes will not result in plant operation in a configuration outside the design basis. The proposed changes do not adversely affect systems that respond to safely shutdown the plant and to maintain the plant in a safe shutdown condition.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed amendments involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The requested changes delete License Conditions 6.(a) and 7 of the IP1 OL [Operating License] and License Conditions 3.(a) and 4 of the IP2 OL, which pertain to the decommissioning trust agreements.
This request involves changes that are administrative in nature. No actual plant equipment or accident analyses will be affected by the proposed changes. Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed amendments create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
This request involves administrative changes to the IP1 and IP2 OLs relating to the terms and conditions of the decommissioning trust agreements. The proposed changes will be consistent with the NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 50.75(h).
No actual plant equipment or accident analyses will be affected by the proposed changes and no failure modes not bounded by previously evaluated accidents will be created.
Therefore, the proposed amendments do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed amendments involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
This request involves administrative changes to the IP1 and IP2 OLs that will be consistent with the NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 50.75(h).
Margin of safety is associated with confidence in the ability of the fission product barriers to limit the level of radiation doses to the public. No actual plant equipment or accident analyses will be affected by the proposed change. Additionally, the proposed changes will not relax any criteria used to establish safety limits, will not relax any safety systems settings, or will not relax the bases for any limiting conditions of operation.
Therefore, the proposed amendments do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
This change is associated with the administrative requirements for implementing the TS, which are not initiators of any accidents previously evaluated, so the probability of accidents previously evaluated is unaffected by the proposed change. The proposed change does not alter the design, function, or operation of any plant structure, system, or component (SSC). The capability of any operable TS-required SSC to perform its specified safety function is not impacted by the proposed change. As a result, the outcomes of accidents previously evaluated are unaffected. Therefore, the proposed change does not result in a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, it is concluded that this change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change does not challenge the integrity or performance of any safety-related systems. No plant equipment is installed or removed, and the changes do not alter the design, physical configuration, or method of operation of any plant SSC. No physical changes are made to the plant, so no new causal mechanisms are introduced. Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
Therefore, it is concluded that this change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The ability of any operable SSC to perform its designated safety function is unaffected by the proposed changes. The proposed change does not alter any safety analyses assumptions, safety limits, limiting safety system settings, or method of operating the plant. The change does not adversely affect plant operating margins or the reliability of equipment credited in the safety analyses.
The proposed change allows not entering the Actions for supported systems that are inoperable solely due to a support system LCO not being met. However, the change also requires implementing a Safety Function Determination Program (SFDP) to determine if a loss of safety function exists. If the SFDP determines that a loss of safety function exists, the appropriate actions of the LCO in which the loss of safety function exists are required to be entered.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change will permit the use of a risk-informed categorization process to modify the scope of Structures, Systems and Components (SSCs) subject to NRC special treatment requirements and to implement alternative treatments per the regulation. The process used to evaluate SSCs for changes to NRC special treatment requirements and the use of alternative requirements ensure the ability of the SSCs to perform their design function. The potential change to special treatment requirements does not change the design and operation of the SSCs. As a result, the proposed change does not significantly affect any initiators to accidents previously evaluated or the ability to mitigate any accidents previously evaluated. The consequences of the accidents previously evaluated are not affected because the mitigation functions performed by the SSCs assumed in the safety analysis are not being modified. The SSCs required to safely shut down the reactor and maintain it in a safe shutdown condition following an accident will continue to perform their design functions.
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated?
The proposed change will permit the use of a risk-informed categorization process to modify the scope of SSCs subject to NRC special treatment requirements and to implement alternative treatments per the regulation. The proposed change does not change the functional requirements, configuration, or method of operation of any SSC. Under the proposed change, no additional plant equipment will be installed.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed change will permit the use of a risk-informed categorization process to modify the scope of SSCs subject to NRC special treatment requirements and to implement alternative treatments per the regulation. The proposed change does not affect any Safety Limits or operating parameters used to establish the safety margin. The safety margins included in analyses of accidents are not affected by the proposed change. The regulation requires that there be no significant effect on plant risk due to any change to the special treatment requirements for SSCs and that the SSCs continue to be capable of performing their design basis functions, as well as to perform any beyond design basis functions consistent with the categorization process and results.
Therefore, the proposed changes do not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment requests involve no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed changes do not affect the safety limits as described in the plant-specific Technical Specifications. In addition, the limiting safety system settings and limiting control settings continue to be met with the proposed changes to the plant-specific Technical Specifications limiting conditions for operation, applicability, actions, and surveillance requirements. The proposed changes do not adversely affect the operation of any systems or equipment that initiate an analyzed accident or alter any structures, systems, and components (SSCs) accident initiator or initiating sequence of events. The proposed changes do not result in any increase in probability of an analyzed accident occurring, and maintain the initial conditions and operating limits required by the accident analysis, and the analyses of normal operation and anticipated operational occurrences, so that the consequences of postulated accidents are not changed. The proposed changes do not adversely affect the ability of the Refueling Cavity and SFS Isolation function, and the SFS containment isolation valves, to perform the required safety functions, and do not adversely affect the probability of inadvertent operation or failure of the required safety functions.
Therefore, the requested amendment does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed changes do not affect the safety limits as described in the plant-specific Technical Specifications. In addition, the limiting safety system settings and limiting control settings continue to be met with the proposed changes to the plant-specific Technical Specifications limiting conditions for operation, applicability, actions, and surveillance requirements. The proposed changes do not affect the operation of any systems or equipment that may initiate a new or different kind of accident, or alter any SSC such that a new accident initiator or initiating sequence of events is created.
These proposed changes do not adversely affect any other SSC design functions or methods of operation in a manner that results in a new failure mode, malfunction, or sequence of events that affect safety-related or nonsafety-related equipment. Therefore, this activity does not allow for a new fission product release path, result in a new fission product barrier failure mode, or create a new sequence of events that results in significant fuel cladding failures.
Therefore, the requested amendment does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed changes do not affect the safety limits as described in the plant-specific Technical Specifications. In addition, the limiting safety system settings and limiting control settings continue to be met with the proposed changes to the plant-specific Technical Specifications limiting conditions for operation, applicability, actions, and surveillance requirements. The proposed changes do not affect the initial conditions and operating limits required by the accident analysis, and the analyses of normal operation and anticipated operational occurrences, so that the acceptance limits specified in the UFSAR [Updated Final Safety Analysis Report] are not exceeded. The proposed changes satisfy the same safety functions in accordance with the same requirements as stated in the UFSAR. These changes do not adversely affect any design code, function, design analysis, safety analysis input or result, or design/safety margin.
No safety analysis or design basis acceptance limit/criterion is challenged or exceeded by the proposed changes, and no margin of safety is reduced.
Therefore, the requested amendment does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change incorporates concomitant changes to the LOP instrumentation requirements to reflect an electrical power system modification by deleting the unnecessary loss of voltage annunciation requirements and increasing the AVs for the degraded voltage protection instrumentation.
The proposed license change does not involve a physical change to the LOP instrumentation, nor does it change the safety function of the LOP instrumentation or the equipment supported by the LOP instrumentation. Automatic starting of the [diesel generators] DGs is assumed in the mitigation of a design basis event upon a loss of offsite power. This includes transferring the normal offsite power source to an alternate or emergency power source in the event of a sustained degraded voltage condition. The LOP instrumentation continues to provide this capability and is not altered by the proposed license change. The proposed change does not adversely affect accident initiators or precursors including a loss of offsite power or station blackout. The revised LOP degraded instrumentation setpoints ensure that the Class 1E electrical distribution system is separated from the offsite power system prior to damaging the safety related loads during sustained degraded voltage conditions while avoiding an inadvertent separation of safety-related buses from the offsite power system. Additionally, the degraded voltage instrumentation time delay will isolate the Class 1E electrical distribution system from offsite power before the diesel generators are ready to assume the emergency loads, which is the limiting time basis for mitigating system responses to design basis accidents. As a result, the proposed change does not significantly alter assumptions relative to the mitigation of an accident or transient event and the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed amendment create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
With respect to a new or different kind of accident, the proposed license change does not alter the design or performance of the LOP instrumentation or electrical power system; nor are there any changes in the method by which safety related plant structures, systems, and components (SSCs) perform their specified safety functions as a result of the proposed license amendment. The proposed change deletes the loss of voltage annunciation requirements and increases the AVs for the degraded voltage protection instrumentation as a result of an electrical power system modification, which SNC has evaluated independently of this proposed license amendment. The proposed license amendment will not affect the normal method of plant operation or revise any operating parameters. Additionally, there is no detrimental impact on the manner in which plant equipment operates or responds to an actuation signal as a result of the proposed license change. No new accident scenarios, transient precursor, failure mechanisms, or limiting single failures will be introduced as a result of this proposed change and the failure modes and effects analyses of SSCs important to safety are not altered as a result of this proposed change.
The process of operating and testing the LOP instrumentation uses current procedures, methods, and processes already established and currently in use and is not being altered by the proposed license amendment. Therefore, the proposed change does not constitute a new type of test.
Accordingly, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any previously evaluated.
3. Does the proposed amendment involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
Margin of safety is provided by the performance capability of plant equipment in preventing or mitigating challenges to fission product barriers under postulated operational transient and accident conditions. The proposed license change deletes the loss of voltage annunciation requirements and increases the AVs for the degraded voltage protection instrumentation as a result of an electrical power system modification, which SNC has evaluated independently of this proposed license amendment. The proposed deletion of the loss of voltage annunciation requirements is offset by the more restrictive degraded voltage instrumentation AVs thereby providing an automatic emergency bus transfer to the alternate or emergency power supply in the event of a sustained degraded voltage condition.
Therefore, the margin[s] associated with a design basis or safety limit parameter are not adversely impacted by the proposed amendment and, thus the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Do the proposed amendments involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed amendments affect the NAPS and SPS emergency plans, including relocation of [Consolidated Emergency Response Plan] CERP content, but do not alter any of the requirements of the Operating Licenses or the Technical Specifications. The proposed amendments do not modify any plant equipment and [do] not impact any failure modes that could lead to an accident. Additionally, the proposed amendments have no effect on the consequences of any analyzed accident since the amendments do not affect any equipment related to accident mitigation. Therefore, the proposed amendments do not involve a significant increase [in] the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Do the proposed amendments create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed amendments affect the NAPS and SPS emergency plans, including relocation of CERP content, but do not alter any of the requirements of the Operating Licenses or the Technical Specifications. [They do] not modify any plant equipment and there are no impacts on the capability of existing equipment to perform its intended functions. No system setpoints are being modified and no new failure modes are introduced. The proposed amendments do not introduce new accident initiator[s] or malfunctions that would cause a new or different kind of accident. Therefore, the proposed amendments do not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Do the proposed amendments involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed amendments affect the NAPS and SPS emergency plans, including relocation of CERP content, but do not alter any of the requirements of the Operating Licenses or the Technical Specifications. The proposed amendments do not affect any of the assumptions used in the accident analyses, or any operability requirements for equipment important to plant safety. Therefore, the proposed amendments do not involve a significant reduction in the margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the proposed change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change replaces existing [Surveillance Requirements] SRs to operate the [Main Control Room/Emergency Switchgear Room Emergency Ventilation System] MCR/ESGR EVS and [Emergency Core Cooling System Pump Room Exhaust Air Cleanup System] ECCS PREACS Systems equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes every 31 days with heaters operating, if needed. In addition, the electrical heater output test in the [Ventilation Filter Testing Program] VFTP (TS 5.5.10.e) is proposed to be removed and a corresponding change in the charcoal filter testing (TS 5.5.10.c) be made to require testing be conducted at a humidity of at least 95% [relative humidity] RH, which is more stringent than the current testing requirement of 70% RH.
These systems are not accident initiators and therefore, these changes do not involve a significant increase in the probability of an accident. The proposed system and filter testing changes are consistent with current regulatory guidance for these systems and will continue to assure that these systems perform their design function which may include mitigating accidents. Thus, the change does not involve a significant increase in the consequences of an accident.
The change to the [Environmental Protection Plan] EPP is administrative in nature to reflect approved NRC references (codes).
Therefore, it is concluded that this change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the proposed change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change replaces existing SRs to operate the MCR/ESGR EVS and ECCS PREACS Systems equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes every 31 days with heaters operating, if needed. In addition, the electrical heater output test in the VFTP (TS 5.5.10.e) is proposed to be removed and a corresponding change in the charcoal filter testing (TS 5.5.10.c) be made to require testing be conducted at a humidity of at least 95% RH, which is more stringent than the current testing requirement of 70% RH.
The change proposed for these ventilation systems does not change any system operations or maintenance activities. Testing requirements will be revised and will continue to demonstrate that the Limiting Conditions for Operation are met and the system components are capable of performing their intended safety functions. The change does not create new failure modes or mechanisms and no new accident precursors are generated.
The change to the EPP is administrative in nature to reflect approved NRC references (codes).
Therefore, it is concluded that this change does not create the possibility of a new or
3. Does the proposed change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed change replaces existing SRs to operate the MCR/ESGR EVS and ECCS PREACS Systems equipped with electric heaters for a continuous 10 hour period every 31 days with a requirement to operate the systems for 15 continuous minutes every 31 days with heaters operating, if needed. In addition, the electrical heater output test in the VFTP (TS 5.5.10.e) is proposed to be removed and a corresponding change in the charcoal filter testing (TS 5.5.10.c) be made to require testing be conducted at a humidity of at least 95% RH, which is more stringent than the current testing requirement of 70% RH.
The proposed increase to 95% RH in the required testing of the MCR/ESGR EVS charcoal filters compensates for the function of the heaters, which was to reduce the humidity of the incoming air to below the currently-specified value of 70% RH for the charcoal. The proposed change is consistent with regulatory guidance and continues to ensure that the performance of the charcoal filters is acceptable.
The change to the EPP is administrative in nature to reflect approved NRC references (codes).
Therefore, it is concluded that this change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
1. Does the change involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change adds operability requirements, required actions, and surveillance requirements for the voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function associated with the 4kV emergency buses. This system provides an additional level of undervoltage protection for Class 1E electrical equipment. The proposed change will promote reliability of the voltage unbalance (open phase) protection circuitry in the performance of its design function of detecting and mitigating a voltage unbalance condition on a required off-site primary power source and initiating transfer to the onsite emergency power source.
The new voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function will further ensure the normally operating Class 1E motors/equipment, which are powered from the Class 1E buses, are appropriately isolated from a primary off-site power source experiencing a consequential voltage unbalance and will not be damaged. The addition of the voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function will continue to allow the existing undervoltage protection circuitry to function as originally designed (
Specific models and analyses were performed and demonstrated that the proposed voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function, with the specified operability requirements, required actions, and surveillance requirements, will ensure the Class 1E system will be isolated from the off-site power source should a consequential voltage unbalance condition occur. The Class 1E motors will be subsequently sequenced back onto the Class 1E buses powered by the [emergency diesel generators] EDGs and will therefore not be damaged in the event of a consequential voltage unbalance under both accident and non-accident conditions. Therefore, the Class 1E loads will be available to perform their design basis functions should a loss of coolant accident (LOCA) occur concurrent with a loss of offsite power (LOOP) following a voltage unbalance condition. The loading sequence (
The addition of the new voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function will have no impact on accident initiators or precursors and does not alter the accident analysis assumptions.
Based on the above, the proposed change does not involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.
2. Does the change create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated?
The proposed change does not alter the requirements for the availability of the 4kV emergency buses during accident conditions. The proposed change does not alter assumptions made in the safety analysis and is consistent with those assumptions. The addition of the voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function TS enhances the ability of plant operators to identify and respond to a voltage unbalance condition in an off-site, primary power source, thereby ensuring the station electric distribution system will perform its intended safety function as designed. The proposed TS change will promote voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function performance reliability in a manner similar to the existing loss of voltage and degraded voltage protective circuitry.
The proposed change does not result in the creation of any new accident precursors; does not result in changes to any existing accident scenarios; and does not introduce any operational changes or mechanisms that would create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident. A failure mode and effects review was completed for postulated failure mechanisms of the new voltage unbalance protection function and concluded that the addition of this protection function would not: (1) Affect the existing loss of voltage and degraded voltage protection schemes, (2) affect the number of occurrences of degraded voltage conditions that would cause the actuation of the existing Loss of Voltage, Degraded Voltage or negative sequence voltage protection relays, (3) would not affect the failure rate of the existing protection relays, and (4) would not impact the assumptions in any existing accident scenario.
Therefore, the proposed change does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.
3. Does this change involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety?
The proposed change enhances the ability of the plant to identify and isolate a voltage unbalance in an off-site, primary power source and transfer the power source for the 4kV emergency buses to the onsite emergency power system. The proposed change does not affect the dose analysis acceptance criteria, does not result in plant operation in a configuration outside the analyses or design basis, and does not adversely affect systems that respond to safely shutdown the plant and to maintain the plant in a safe shutdown condition.
With the addition of the new voltage unbalance (open phase) protection function, the capability of Class 1E equipment to perform its safety function will be further assured and the equipment will remain capable of mitigating the consequences of previously analyzed accidents while
Therefore, the proposed change does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.
The NRC staff has reviewed the licensee's analysis and, based on this review, it appears that the three standards of 10 CFR 50.92(c) are satisfied. Therefore, the NRC staff proposes to determine that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration.
During the period since publication of the last biweekly notice, the Commission has issued the following amendments. The Commission has determined for each of these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
Unless otherwise indicated, the Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments. If the Commission has prepared an environmental assessment under the special circumstances provision in 10 CFR 51.22(b) and has made a determination based on that assessment, it is so indicated.
For further details with respect to the action see (1) the applications for amendment, (2) the amendment, and (3) the Commission's related letter, Safety Evaluation and/or Environmental Assessment as indicated. All of these items can be accessed as described in the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 15, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 16, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 15, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 24, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 23, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 16, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in the Safety Evaluation dated August 7, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment is contained in the Safety Evaluation dated July 12, 2018.
The Commission's related evaluation of the amendment and final determination of no significant hazards consideration is contained in a Safety Evaluation dated August 16, 2018.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Standard review plan-draft section revision; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is soliciting public comment on draft NUREG-0800, “Standard Review Plan for the Review of Safety Analysis Reports for Nuclear Power Plants: LWR Edition,” Section 13.6, “Physical Security.” This section has been updated to reflect the latest NRC guidance concerning physical security.
Comments must be filed no later than November 13, 2018. Comments received after this date will be considered, if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Mark D. Notich, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3053, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0197 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2018-0197 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
The NRC seeks public comment on the proposed Standard Review Plan (SRP)-draft section revision of Section 13.6, “Physical Security.” The changes made in this revision to this section reflect the latest NRC guidance concerning physical security.
Following NRC staff evaluation of public comments, the NRC intends to finalize SRP Section 13.6, “Physical Security,” Revision 4 in ADAMS and post it on the NRC's public website at
Issuance of this draft SRP, if finalized, would not constitute backfitting as defined in section 50.109 of title 10 of the
1.
The SRP provides internal guidance to the NRC staff on how to review an application for NRC regulatory approval in the form of licensing. Changes in guidance intended for use by only the staff are not matters that constitute backfitting as that term is defined in 10 CFR 50.109(a)(1) or involve the issue finality provisions of 10 CFR part 52.
2.
Applicants and potential applicants are not, with certain exceptions, the subject of either the Backfit Rule or any issue finality provisions under 10 CFR part 52. This is because neither the Backfit Rule nor the issue finality provisions under 10 CFR part 52 were intended to apply to every NRC action that substantially changes the expectations of current and future applicants.
The exceptions to the general principle are applicable whenever a 10 CFR part 50 operating license applicant references a construction permit or a 10 CFR part 52 combined license applicant references a license (
The NRC staff does not, at this time, intend to impose the positions represented in this draft SRP section in a manner that constitutes backfitting or is inconsistent with any issue finality provision of 10 CFR part 52. If, in the future, the staff seeks to impose a position in this draft SRP section in a manner that would constitute backfitting or be inconsistent with these issue finality provisions, the NRC staff must make the showing as set forth in the Backfit rule or address the regulatory criteria set forth in the applicable issue finality provision, as applicable, that would allow the staff to impose the position.
3.
The NRC staff does not intend to impose or apply the positions described in the draft SRP to existing (already issued) licenses (
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
The ACRS Subcommittee on Plant License Renewal will hold a meeting on September 20, 2018 at U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11545 Rockville Pike, Room T-2B1, Rockville, Maryland 20852.
The entire meeting will be open to public attendance. The agenda for the subject meeting shall be as follows:
The Subcommittee will conduct a briefing on the River Bend Nuclear Generating Station Unit 1 License Renewal Application. The Subcommittee will hear presentations
Members of the public desiring to provide oral statements and/or written comments should notify the Designated Federal Official (DFO), Kent Howard (Telephone 301-415-2989 or Email:
Detailed meeting agendas and meeting transcripts are available on the NRC website at
If attending this meeting, please enter through the One White Flint North building, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. After registering with Security, please contact Mr. Theron Brown (Telephone 301-415-6702) to be escorted to the conference room.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License termination; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is providing public notice of the termination of the Operating License (Possession Only) No. DPR-54. The NRC has terminated the license of the decommissioned Rancho Seco Nuclear Generating Station (Rancho Seco) in Herald, California and has approved the site for unrestricted release.
Notice of termination of Operating License No. DPR-54 issued on August 31, 2018.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0180 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Ted Carter, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-5543, email:
The NRC has terminated License No. DPR-54, held by Sacramento Municipal Utility District (SMUD), for Rancho Seco in Herald, California, and has approved the site for unrestricted release. Accordingly, the existing indemnity agreement between SMUD and the NRC has been terminated.
Rancho Seco initially went critical on September 16, 1974, and began commercial operation on April 18, 1975. On June 7, 1989, SMUD permanently terminated nuclear power operations at Rancho Seco. On December 8, 1989, SMUD completed defueling the reactor. On March 17, 1992, the NRC amended the Rancho Seco operating license to “Possession Only” status (ADAMS Accession No. ML17283A071). On March 20, 1995, the NRC issued the Rancho Seco Decommissioning Order. The Order authorized SMUD to decommission the facility and accepted the Rancho Seco decommissioning funding plan. SMUD began actively decommissioning Rancho Seco in February 1997. In March 1997, SMUD revised the Rancho Seco Decommissioning Plan to conform to the content requirements of the Post Shutdown Decommissioning Activities Report.
On June 30, 2000, the NRC issued Materials License SNM-2510 for the Rancho Seco Independent Spent Fuel Storage Installation (ISFSI). This site-specific license authorizes SMUD to store Rancho Seco spent fuel at the Rancho Seco ISFSI. The licensee completed transferring all of the spent fuel to the ISFSI on August 21, 2002. All of the spent fuel is now stored at the ISFSI. The ISFSI is a separately licensed facility located outside the operating licensed site. On October 10, 2002, NRC approved a license amendment that eliminated the security plan requirements from the operating licensed facility (ADAMS Accession No. ML022840145).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Standard review plan-draft section revision; request for comment.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is soliciting public comment on draft NUREG-0800, “Standard Review Plan for the Review of Safety Analysis Reports for Nuclear Power Plants: LWR Edition,” Section 13.4, “Operational Programs.” The NRC seeks comments on the proposed draft section revision of the Standard Review Plan (SRP) concerning guidance for the review and implementation of operational programs required by the NRC's regulations for combined operating license applications.
Comments must be filed no later than November 13, 2018. Comments received after this date will be considered, if it is practical to do so, but the Commission is able to ensure consideration only for comments received on or before this date.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the
Mark D. Notich, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3053, email:
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2018-0196 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this action by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Please include Docket ID NRC-2018-0196 in your comment submission.
The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at
If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
The NRC seeks public comment on the proposed SRP-draft section revision of Section 13.4, “Operational Programs.” The changes made in this revision to this section reflect the latest NRC guidance concerning operational programs.
Following NRC staff evaluation of public comments, the NRC intends to finalize SRP Section 13.4, “Operational Program,” Revision 4 in ADAMS and post it on the NRC's public website at
Issuance of this draft SRP, if finalized, would not constitute backfitting as defined in section 50.109 of title 10 of the
1.
The SRP provides internal guidance to the NRC staff on how to review an application for NRC regulatory approval in the form of licensing. Changes in guidance intended for use by only the staff are not matters that constitute backfitting as that term is defined in 10 CFR 50.109(a)(1) or involve the issue finality provisions of 10 CFR part 52.
2.
Applicants and potential applicants are not, with certain exceptions, the subject of either the Backfit Rule or any issue finality provisions under 10 CFR part 52. This is because neither the Backfit Rule nor the issue finality provisions under 10 CFR part 52 were intended to apply to every NRC action that substantially changes the expectations of current and future applicants.
The exceptions to the general principle are applicable whenever a 10 CFR part 50 operating license applicant
The NRC staff does not, at this time, intend to impose the positions represented in this draft SRP section in a manner that constitutes backfitting or is inconsistent with any issue finality provision of 10 CFR part 52. If, in the future, the staff seeks to impose a position in this draft SRP section in a manner that would constitute backfitting or be inconsistent with these issue finality provisions, the NRC staff must make the showing as set forth in the Backfit rule or address the regulatory criteria set forth in the applicable issue finality provision, as applicable, that would allow the staff to impose the position.
3.
The NRC staff does not intend to impose or apply the positions described in the draft SRP to existing (already issued) licenses (
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of request for OMB approval.
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) is requesting that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act, of collections of information in PBGC's regulations on multiemployer plans. This notice informs the public of PBGC's request and solicits public comment on the collections of information.
Comments must be submitted by October 11, 2018.
Comments should be sent to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, via electronic mail at
A copy of the request will be posted on PBGC's website at
Hilary Duke (
OMB has approved and issued control numbers for three collections of information in PBGC's regulations relating to multiemployer plans under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). These collections of information are described below. OMB approvals for these collections of information expire November 30, 2018. On July 6, 2018, PBGC published (at 83 FR 31574) a notice of its intent to request that OMB extend approval of these collections of information. No comments were received. PBGC is requesting that OMB extend its approval of these collections of information for three years. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Section 4041A(f)(2) of ERISA authorizes PBGC to prescribe reporting requirements and other rules and standards for administering terminated multiemployer plans. Section 4041A(c) and (f)(1) of ERISA prohibit the payment by a mass-withdrawal-terminated plan of lump sums greater than $1,750 or of nonvested plan benefits unless authorized by PBGC.
The regulation requires the plan sponsor of a terminated plan to submit a notice of termination to PBGC. It also requires the plan sponsor of a mass-withdrawal-terminated plan that is closing out to give notices to participants regarding the election of alternative forms of benefit distribution and, if the plan is not closing out, to obtain PBGC approval to pay lump sums greater than $1,750 or to pay nonvested plan benefits.
PBGC uses the information in a notice of termination to assess the likelihood that PBGC financial assistance will be needed. Plan participants and beneficiaries use the information on alternative forms of benefit to make personal financial decisions. PBGC uses the information in an application for approval to pay lump sums greater than $1,750 or to pay nonvested plan benefits to determine whether such payments should be permitted.
PBGC estimates that each year plan sponsors submit notices of termination for ten plans, distribute election notices to participants in three of those plans, and submit requests to pay benefits or benefit forms not otherwise permitted for one of those plans. The estimated annual burden of the collection of information is 69 hours and $50,000.
Section 4245(e) of ERISA requires two types of notice: A “notice of
The regulation establishes the procedure for complying with these notice requirements. PBGC uses the information submitted to estimate cash needs for financial assistance to troubled plans. The collective bargaining parties use the information to decide whether additional plan contributions will be made to avoid the insolvency and consequent benefit suspensions. Plan participants and beneficiaries use the information in personal financial decisions.
PBGC estimates that at most one plan sponsor of an ongoing plan gives notices each year under this regulation. The estimated annual burden of the collection of information is 20 hours and $12,000.
Section 4281 of ERISA provides rules for plans that have terminated by mass withdrawal. Under section 4281, if nonforfeitable benefits exceed plan assets, the plan sponsor must amend the plan to reduce benefits. If the plan nevertheless becomes insolvent, the plan sponsor must suspend certain benefits that cannot be paid. If available resources are inadequate to pay guaranteed benefits, the plan sponsor must request financial assistance from PBGC.
The regulation requires a plan sponsor to give notices of benefit reduction, notices of insolvency, and notices of insolvency benefit level to PBGC and to participants and beneficiaries and, if necessary, to apply to PBGC for financial assistance.
PBGC uses the information it receives to make determinations required by ERISA, to identify and estimate the cash needed for financial assistance to terminated plans, and to verify the appropriateness of financial assistance payments. Plan participants and beneficiaries use the information to make personal financial decisions.
PBGC estimates that plan sponsors of terminated plans each year will give benefit reduction notices for 1 plan, notices of insolvency for 10 plans, and notices of insolvency benefit level for 55 plans. PBGC also estimates that plan sponsors each year will file initial requests for financial assistance for 10 plans and will submit 300 non-initial applications for financial assistance. The estimated annual burden of the collection of information is 1,300 hours and $615,400.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Schedule of Fees to permit certain affiliated market participants to aggregate volume and qualify for various pricing incentives.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to permit certain affiliated market participants to aggregate volume and qualify for various pricing incentives. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to permit Affiliated Entities to aggregate their Complex Order volume for purposes of calculating Priority Customer Rebates in Section II of the Schedule of Fees.
The Exchange is proposing to add the following new defined terms to the Preface of the Schedule of Fees, “Affiliated Entity,” “Appointed Market Maker,” “Appointed OFP,” and “Order Flow Provider.” The Exchange also proposes to alphabetize the current definitions.
The term “Appointed Market Maker” is proposed to be defined as a Market Maker who has been appointed by an Order Flow Provider (“OFP”) for purposes of qualifying as an Affiliated Entity. An OFP is separately proposed to be defined as any Member, other than a Market Maker, that submits orders, as agent or principal, to the Exchange.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section II, entitled “Complex Order Fees and Rebates” to permit Affiliated Entities to aggregate their Complex Order volume for purposes of calculating Priority Customer Rebates. Currently Section II pays rebates
The Exchange proposes to incentivize certain Members, who are not Affiliated Members, to enter into an Affiliated Entity relationship for the purpose of aggregating Complex Order volume to qualify for Section II, Priority Customer Rebates. The Exchange proposes to add a sentence to note 16 within Section II of the Schedule of Fees to provide, “Affiliated Entities may aggregate their Complex Order volume for purposes of calculating Priority Customer Rebates. The Appointed OFP would receive the rebate associated with the qualifying volume tier based on aggregated volume.”
By aggregating volume, the Affiliated OFP, who submits Priority Customer order volume, is offered an opportunity to qualify for higher rebates, thereby lowering costs and encouraging Members to send more order flow. Priority Customer liquidity benefits all market participants by providing more order flow to the marketplace and more trading opportunities. Affiliated Members are not eligible to enter an Affiliated Entity relationship.
The Exchange believes that its proposal to amend its Schedule of Fees is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange's proposal to amend the Preface of the Schedule of Fees to add the definitions of “Appointed Market Maker,” “Appointed OFP,” “Order Flow Provider” and “Affiliated Entity” is reasonable because the Exchange is proposing to identify the applicable market participants that may qualify to aggregate volume as an Affiliated Entity. Further the Exchange seeks to make clear the manner in which Members may participate on the Exchange as Affiliated Entities by setting timeframes for communicating agreements among market participants and terms of early termination. The Exchange also clearly states that no Affiliated Member may become a counterparty to an Affiliated Entity. The Exchange believes that these terms are reasonable because Members could elect to become a counterparty to an Affiliated Entity, provided they are not Affiliated Members.
The Exchange's proposal to amend the Preface of the Schedule of Fees to
The Exchange also believes that it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to alphabetize the definitions for ease of reference.
The Exchange's proposal to permit Affiliated Entities to aggregate Complex Order volume for purposes of qualifying Appointed OFPs for Section II Priority Customer Rebates is reasonable because it will attract additional Priority Customer order flow to the Exchange. Priority Customer liquidity benefits all market participants by providing more trading opportunities, which attracts Market Makers. An increase in the activity of these market participants in turn facilitates tighter spreads, which may cause an additional corresponding increase in order flow from other market participants. Appointed OFPs directing Priority Customer order flow to the Exchange may be eligible to qualify for a Priority Customer Rebate or a higher Priority Customer Rebate tier, with this proposal, as a result of aggregating volume with an Appointed Market Maker and thereby qualifying for higher Priority Customer Rebates. Permitting Members to aggregate volume for purposes of qualifying the Appointed OFP for Section II Priority Customer Rebates may also encourage the counterparties that comprise the Affiliated Entities to incentivize each other to attract and seek to execute more Priority Customer volume on ISE. In turn, market participants would benefit from the increased liquidity with which to interact and potentially tighter spreads on orders. Overall, incentivizing market participants with increased opportunities to earn higher Priority Customer rebates may increase the quality of the liquidity available on ISE.
Paying the Priority Customer Rebate to the Affiliated OFP is consistent with the Act because as between the Appointed Market Maker and the Appointed OFP, the Appointed OFP would be submitting Priority Customer Orders as part of its business model. Appointed Market Makers do not typically submit such order flow. The Appointed Market Maker does have the opportunity to obtain a low Market Maker Taker Fee for Select Symbols of $0.47 per contract as compared to $0.50 per contract if the Market Maker qualified for Priority Customer Complex Tier 8 and $0.44 per contract for Market Makers that achieve Priority Customer Complex Tier 9.
The Exchange's proposal to permit Affiliated Entities to aggregate Complex Order volume for purposes of qualifying Appointed OFPs for Section II Priority Customer Rebates is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because all ISE Members, other than Affiliated Members, may elect to become an Affiliated Entity as either an Appointed Market Maker or an Appointed OFP.
The Exchange's proposal to exclude Affiliated Members from qualifying as an Affiliated Entity is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because Affiliated Members may aggregate volume today for purposes of Section II Priority Customer Rebates.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange's proposal to amend the Preface of the Pricing Schedule to add the definitions of “Appointed Market Maker,” “Appointed OFP,” “Order Flow Provider” and “Affiliated Entity” does not impose an undue burden on competition because these definitions apply to all members and member organizations uniformly. Alphabetizing the remaining definitions will provide ease of reference. The Exchange believes that its proposal does not impose any burden on inter-market competition because similar programs exist on other markets.
In terms of intra-market competition, the Exchange does not believe that its proposal to permit counterparties of an Affiliated Entity to aggregate Priority Customer volume for purposes of qualifying for Section II Priority Customer Rebates imposes an undue burden on intra-market competition because all ISE Members, other than Affiliated Members, may become an Affiliated Entity as either an Appointed Market Maker or an Appointed OFP. Also, each ISE Member may participate in only one Affiliated Entity relationship at a given time, which imposes a measure of exclusivity among market participants, allowing each party to rely on the other's executed Priority Customer volume on ISE to receive a corresponding benefit in terms of a higher rebate. The Exchange will apply all qualifications in a uniform manner to all market participants that elect to become counterparties of an Affiliated Entity. Any market participant that is by definition an Affiliated Member may not become a counterparty of an Affiliated Entity.
Market Makers are valuable market participants that provide liquidity in the marketplace and incur costs that other market participants do not incur. Market Makers are subject to quoting obligations
The Exchange's proposal to exclude Affiliated Members from becoming an Affiliated Entity does not impose and undue burden on intra-market competition because Affiliated Members may aggregate volume today for
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 5, 2018, ICE Clear Credit LLC (“ICC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to transition ICC from a stress-based methodology to a Monte Carlo-based methodology for the spread-response and recovery-rate-sensitivity-response components of the initial margin model (SR-ICC-2018-008) (“Proposed Rule Change”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
The Commission is extending the 45-day time period for Commission action on the Proposed Rule Change. The Commission finds that it is appropriate to designate a longer period within which to take action on the Proposed Rule Change so that it has sufficient time to consider and take action on the Proposed Rule Change.
Accordingly, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to move the P.M.-settled Nasdaq-100 Index Options expiring on the third Friday of the month (“NDXPM”) to the NDX index options class. In connection with the move, the Exchange proposes changing the trading symbol for these options from “NDXPM” to “NDXP”.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange seeks to amend Exchange rules related to certain P.M.-settled options on the NASDAQ-100 Index which have been approved by the Commission but which have not yet been listed by the Exchange.
The Exchange has also recently received Commission approval to list nonstandard expirations of P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options trading under the symbol “NDXP”, also on a pilot basis.
The Exchange believes moving NDXPM into the NDX options class to trade under the NDXP symbol will have no adverse impact on the marketplace. In fact, the Exchange believes moving NDXPM into the NDX options class to trade under the NDXP symbol will have a positive impact on the marketplace and retail customers in particular.
As previously noted, in addition to end-of-the-month expirations, NDXP options are P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options that may expire on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays (other than third-Friday-of-the-month) (
Without the proposed amendments, a user of NDXP options could not roll an existing NDXP position that expires on a first or second Friday of a month into a NDXP position that expires on a third-Friday. Thus, for NDXP users, there would be a gap in Friday expirations. Changing the NDXPM symbol to NDXP would remove the gap in Friday NDXP expirations and allow market participants, especially retail customers that are less likely to utilize both NDXPM and NDXP options to maintain exposure to Friday expirations, to have seamless access to P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options expiring every Friday of the month.
In addition, offering seamless access to P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options that expire every Friday of the month would allow market participants to submit complex orders with options series that expire on third-Fridays and other Friday expirations. Without the proposed amendments, market participants would not be able to submit into the trading system complex orders that consist of NDXPM options series and NDXP options series because they are currently in separate classes.
As previously noted, the Exchange does not believe moving NDXPM into the NDX options class and changing the NDXPM symbol to NDXP will have any adverse impact on market participants. Because the Exchange has not yet listed NDXPM, and because Exchange Rules and systems will treat NDXPM and NDXP the same (other than having separate pilot programs and listing schedules), the Exchange expects a smooth transition of NDXPM series to the NDXP symbol.
In addition, since third-Friday P.M.-settled options trading under the NDXP symbol will be a new type of series under the NDX options class and not a new options class, all third-Friday P.M.-settled NDXP options will be aggregated together with all other standard expirations for applicable reporting and other requirements.
Third-Friday P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options are currently approved to be listed on a pilot basis.
The Exchange intends to change the NDXPM symbol to NDXP prior to its listing. The Exchange does not intend to list NDXPM as a separate class. Consistent with the original NDXPM approval order, the pilot for listing third-Friday P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options trading under symbol NDXP would terminate on December 29, 2018.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
In particular, the Exchange believes trading P.M.-settled third-Friday expirations under the NDXP symbol rather than the separate NDXPM symbol will ensure market participants, particularly retail customers, have seamless access to P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options expiring every Friday of the month, which helps to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change will help to protect investors and the public interest by allowing market participants to enter options positions with the same underlying in one symbol that spans every Friday expiration in a month, thus providing a more efficient way to gain exposure and hedge risk.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange does not believe the rule change will impose a burden on intramarket competition because all market participants will continue to have access to P.M.-settled NASDAQ-100 Index options expiring every Friday of the month and will be able to trade them under the NDXP symbol. The proposal will not impose a burden on intermarket competition because the options affected by this proposal are exclusive to the Exchange.
Additionally, the Exchange does not believe the proposal will impose any burden on intermarket competition as market participants on other exchanges are welcome to become members and trade at Phlx if they determine that this proposed rule change has made Phlx more attractive or favorable.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 22, 2018, BOX Options Exchange LLC (“BOX” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
BOX has proposed to adopt rules governing the trading of Complex Customer Cross Orders
Proposed BOX Rule 7110(c)(7) provides that a Complex Customer Cross order will be executed automatically upon entry provided that the execution (i) is at least $0.01 better than (inside) the cBBO
BOX also proposes to adopt rules governing Complex QCC Orders. Proposed BOX Rule 7110(c)(8) provides that a Complex QCC Orders will be automatically executed upon entry provided that the execution (i) is not at the same price as a Public Customer Complex Order; (ii) is at least $0.01 better than (inside) the cBBO; (iii) is at or better than any non-Public Customer Complex on the Complex Order Book; and (iv) each option leg executes at or between the NBBO. The system will reject a Complex QCC Order if, at the time of receipt of the Complex QCC Order, the strategy is subject to an ongoing auction (including COPIP, Facilitation, and Solicitation auctions) or there is an exposed order on the strategy pursuant to BOX Rule 7240(b)(3)(B).
BOX acknowledges that, unlike the rules of the Miami International Securities Exchange, LLC (“MIAX”), BOX's proposed rules will not require that each component leg of a Complex QCC Order execute at a price that is better than Public Customer Orders on the BOX Book.
The Commission is instituting proceedings pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act,
The Commission is instituting proceedings to allow for additional analysis of, and input from commenters with respect to, the consistency of the proposal with Sections 6(b)(5)
The Commission requests that interested persons provide written submissions of their data, views, and arguments with respect to the issues identified above, as well as any other concerns they may have with the proposal. In particular, the Commission invites the written views of interested persons concerning whether the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(5), 6(b)(8), or any other provisions of the Act, or rules and regulations thereunder. Although there does not appear to be any issues relevant to approval or disapproval which would be facilitated by an oral presentation of data, views, and arguments, the Commission will consider, pursuant to Rule 19b-4 under the Act,
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments regarding whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved by October 2, 2018. Any person who wishes to file a rebuttal to any other person's submission must file that rebuttal by October 16, 2018. The Commission asks that commenters address the sufficiency and merit of the Exchange's statements in support of the proposal, in addition to any other comments they may wish to submit about the proposed rule change.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
2:00 p.m. on Thursday, September 13, 2018.
Closed Commission Hearing, Room 10800.
This meeting will be closed to the public.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or his designee, has certified that, in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matters at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Peirce, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matters of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
Resolution of litigation claims; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed; please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
On July 11, 2018, ICE Clear Europe Limited (“ICE Clear Europe”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
Currently, ICE Clear Europe uses end-of-day (“EOD”) price levels for risk management purposes.
ICE Clear Europe derives BOWs for single-name CDS instruments based on observed intraday spread-quotes for the most actively traded instrument (“MATI”) across the term structure and cleared coupons (otherwise known as “consensus BOW”).
The proposed rule change would enhance the methodology ICE Clear Europe uses to determine BOWs for single-name instruments by amending the Price Discovery Policy to (1) compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name instrument; (2) determine the final EOD BOW as the greater of an instrument's final systematic BOW and a dynamic BOW; (3) eliminate the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of BOWs for single-name instruments; and (4) update associated governance provisions.
First, the proposed rule change would compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name CDS instrument. Specifically, Ice Clear Europe would compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark instrument, as compared to how Ice Clear Europe currently only computes a consensus BOW for the most actively traded instrument.
ICE Clear Europe would then apply scaling factors to the consensus BOWs.
ICE Clear Europe would also apply a variability factor, which would be an additional scaling factor to widen the BOW to account for volatile or fast-moving market conditions.
Second, ICE Clear Europe would determine the final EOD BOW as the greater of a single-name CDS instrument's final systematic EOD BOW, and a BOW established for the instrument based on the dispersion of price-based EOD submissions by CDS Clearing Members for the given instrument (such BOW the “dynamic BOW”).
Third, the proposed rule change would eliminate the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of BOWs for single-name CDS instruments. As ICE Clear Europe would now accept price submissions for single-name CDS instruments only in price terms, ICE Clear Europe would no longer need the ISDA CDS Standard Model to compute single-name BOWs.
Finally, the proposed rule change would revise the governance provisions
Section 19(b)(2)(C) of the Act directs the Commission to approve a proposed rule change of a self-regulatory organization if it finds that such proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to such organization.
Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act requires, among other things, that the rules of ICE Clear Europe be designed to promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions and, to the extent applicable, derivative agreements, contracts, and transactions, as well as to assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of ICE Clear Europe or for which it is responsible, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest.
As discussed above, the proposed rule change would enhance ICE Clear Europe's EOD price discovery process for single-name CDS instruments by amending the Price Discovery Policy to (1) compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name instrument; (2) determine the final EOD BOW as the greater of an instrument's final systematic BOW and a dynamic BOW; (3) eliminate the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of BOWs for single-name instruments; and (4) update associated governance provisions.
Taken as a whole, the Commission believes the proposed rule change would enhance ICE Clear Europe's ability to determine the EOD BOW for single-name CDS instruments. The Commission believes the proposed rule change would permit ICE Clear Europe to determine BOWs more consistently across single-name instruments on all reference entities, including those for which only sparse intraday data is available, by computing a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name instrument. In addition, by extending the application of price-based BOW floors to the entire set of benchmark tenors instead of solely the 0/3 month, 6 month, and 1-year benchmark tenors, the Commission believes that ICE Clear Europe would be able to more consistently compute the EOD BOW for a wider range of single-name CDS instruments. Moreover, the Commission believes that the adoption of a new dynamic BOW would help the BOW to better reflect current market conditions given that the dynamic BOW would widen BOWs in response to the observed dispersion of price-space levels submitted in the EOD price discovery process. Finally, the Commission believes that updating the associated governance provisions would help ensure that the EOD price discovery process remains effective by making clear the responsibilities for establishing the parameters, price-based floors, and scaling factors used in the EOD price discovery process.
Consequently, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would help improve ICE Clear Europe's EOD pricing process as a whole by considering additional relevant information and a wider range of instruments. Based on these improvements, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would also help improve the operation and effectiveness of ICE Clear Europe's margin system because ICE Clear Europe uses EOD prices to calculate and collect such margin. Given that an effective margin system is necessary to manage ICE Clear Europe's credit exposures to its Clearing Members and the risks associated with clearing security based swap-related portfolios, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would help improve ICE Clear Europe's ability to avoid losses that could result from the mismanagement of such credit exposures and risks. Because such losses could disrupt ICE Clear Europe's ability to promptly and accurately clear security based swap transactions, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change, by improving the EOD price input to ICE Clear Europe's margin system and thereby improving the operation and effectiveness of such margin system, would help promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions.
Similarly, given that mismanagement of ICE Clear Europe's credit exposures to its Clearing Members and the risks associated with clearing security based swap-related portfolios could cause ICE Clear Europe to realize losses on such portfolios and threaten ICE Clear Europe's ability to operate, thereby threatening access to securities and funds in ICE Clear Europe's control, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would help assure the safeguarding of securities and funds which are in the custody or control of ICE Clear Europe or for which it is responsible. Finally, for both of these reasons, the Commission believes the proposed rule change is consistent with protecting investors and the public interest.
Therefore, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change would promote the prompt and accurate clearance and settlement of securities transactions, assure the safeguarding of securities and funds in ICE Clear Europe's custody and control, and, in general, protect investors and the public interest, consistent with the Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act.
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i) requires that ICE Clear Europe establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to provide for governance arrangements that are clear and transparent.
As discussed above, the proposed rule change would revise ICE Clear Europe's Price Discovery Policy to update the responsibilities of ICE Clear Europe's clearing risk department. Under the revised Price Discovery Policy, the clearing risk department, in consultation with the trading advisory committee, would establish the parameters used in the EOD price discovery process, including determining the price-based floors and scaling factors used to establish BOWs. The Commission believes that the proposed rule change would thus help ICE Clear Europe assign responsibility within ICE Clear Europe's existing governance structure for important aspects of EOD price discovery, such as setting parameters and scaling factors. The Commission further believes that
Therefore, for the above reasons the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(2)(i).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(ii) requires that ICE Clear Europe establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to cover its credit exposures to its participants by establishing a risk-based margin system that marks participant positions to market and collects margin, including variation margin or equivalent charges if relevant, at least daily and includes the authority and operational capacity to make intraday margin calls in defined circumstances.
As discussed above, the proposed rule change would enhance ICE Clear Europe's EOD price discovery by amending the Price Discovery Policy to (1) compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name instrument; (2) determine the final EOD BOW as the greater of an instrument's final systematic BOW and a dynamic BOW; and (3) eliminate the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of BOWs for single-name instruments.
The Commission believes that these changes, taken together, would help enhance ICE Clear Europe's ability to determine the EOD BOW for single-name CDS instruments. By eliminating the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of single-name BOWs, accepting submissions only in price terms, and computing a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name CDS instrument, the Commission believes the proposed rule change would help ICE Clear Europe to determine BOWs more consistently across single-name instruments on all reference entities, including those for which little intraday data is available. In addition, as noted above, the dynamic BOW would widen BOWs in response to the observed dispersion of price-space levels submitted in the EOD price discovery process. Thus, by determining the final EOD BOW as the greater of an instrument's final systematic BOW and a dynamic BOW, the Commission believes the proposed rule change would help the BOW to better reflect current market conditions.
Consequently, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would help improve ICE Clear Europe's EOD pricing process by taking into account additional relevant information and considering a wider range of instruments in the pricing process. Because ICE Clear Europe uses EOD prices to mark participant positions to market and establish and collect margin, including variation margin, the Commission believes that improvements to the EOD pricing process would also enhance ICE Clear Europe's covering of credit exposures to its participants and collection of margin. Moreover, the Commission believes the governance enhancements described above would help ensure that ICE Clear Europe's clearing risk department maintains an effective EOD price discovery process and takes into account current market conditions by consulting with the trading advisory committee. The Commission therefore believes that the proposed rule change would help establish and maintain written policies and procedures reasonably designed to cover ICE Clear Europe's credit exposures to its participants by establishing a risk-based margin system that marks participant positions to market and collects margin, including variation margin.
Therefore, for the above reasons the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(ii).
Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(iv) requires that ICE Clear Europe establish, implement, maintain and enforce written policies and procedures reasonably designed to cover its credit exposures to its participants by establishing a risk-based margin system that uses reliable sources of timely price data and uses procedures and sound valuation models for addressing circumstances in which pricing data are not readily available or reliable.
As discussed above, the proposed rule change would help improve the pricing data that ICE Clear Europe uses in its margin system. Specifically, the proposed rule change would, as discussed above, enhance the computation of BOWs for single-name CDS instruments by amending the Price Discovery Policy to (1) compute a consensus BOW for each benchmark single-name instrument; (2) determine the final EOD BOW as the greater of an instrument's final systematic BOW and a dynamic BOW; and (3) eliminate the use of the ISDA CDS Standard Model from the computation of BOWs for single-name instruments. Because ICE Clear Europe uses BOWs to determine EOD price levels, the Commission believes that improvements in the collection and calculation of BOWs would improve the accuracy and reliability of ICE Clear Europe's EOD price levels. Finally, because ICE Clear Europe uses its EOD price levels to mark participant positions to market and establish and collect margin, including variation margin, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change would help ensure that the ICE Clear Europe's margin system uses reliable sources of timely price data.
Therefore, for the above reasons the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Rule 17Ad-22(e)(6)(iv).
On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act, and in particular with the requirements of Section 17A(b)(3)(F) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby
Julie Simpson, Attorney-Adviser, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that a certain object to be included in the exhibition “Enrico David: Gradations of Slow Release,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, is of cultural significance. The object is imported pursuant to a loan agreement with the foreign owner or custodian. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit object at the Museum of Contemporary Art, Chicago, Illinois, from on or about September 29, 2018, until on or about March 10, 2019, and at the Hirshhorn Museum and Sculpture Garden, Washington, District of Columbia, from on or about April 18, 2019, until on or about September 2, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the
Julie Simpson, Attorney-Adviser, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Frans Hals Portraits: A Family Reunion,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Toledo Museum of Art, Toledo, Ohio, from on or about October 13, 2018, until on or about January 6, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the
Julie Simpson, Attorney-Adviser, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Günther Förg: A Fragile Beauty,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Dallas Museum of Art, Dallas, Texas, from on or about October 21, 2018, until on or about January 27, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the
Elliot Chiu, Attorney-Adviser, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: I hereby determine that certain objects to be included in the exhibition “Tudors to Windsors: British Royal Portraits from Holbein to Warhol,” imported from abroad for temporary exhibition within the United States, are of cultural significance. The objects are imported pursuant to loan agreements with the foreign owners or custodians. I also determine that the exhibition or display of the exhibit objects at the Museum of Fine Arts, Houston, in Houston, Texas, from on or about October 7, 2018, until on or about February 3, 2019, and at possible additional exhibitions or venues yet to be determined, is in the national interest. I have ordered that Public Notice of these determinations be published in the
Elliot Chiu, Attorney-Adviser, Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
The foregoing determinations were made pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
Surface Transportation Board.
Notice of Rail Energy Transportation Advisory Committee meeting.
Notice is hereby given of a meeting of the Rail Energy Transportation Advisory Committee (RETAC), pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA).
The meeting will be held on Thursday, October 4, 2018, at 9 a.m.
The meeting will be held on the second floor of the Board's headquarters at 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423.
Kristen Nunnally (202) 245-0312;
RETAC was formed in 2007 to provide advice and guidance to the Board, and to serve as a forum for discussion of emerging issues related to the transportation of energy resources by rail, including coal, ethanol, and other biofuels.
The meeting, which is open to the public, will be conducted in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. app. 2; Federal Advisory Committee Management regulations, 41 CFR pt. 102-3; RETAC's charter; and Board procedures. Further communications about this meeting may be announced through the Board's website at
49 U.S.C. 1321, 49 U.S.C. 11101; 49 U.S.C. 11121.
By the Board, Scott M. Zimmerman, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before October 1, 2018.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2018-0603 using any of the following methods:
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Clarence Garden (202) 267-7489, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice.
This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion or omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.
Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before October 1, 2018.
Send comments identified by docket number {FAA-2018-0742} using any of the following methods:
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Clarence Garden (202) 267-7489, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.
This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (“FinCEN”), U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
FinCEN invites comment on a proposed renewal, without change, to information collections found in regulations requiring brokers or dealers in securities and mutual funds to develop and implement customer identification programs designed to
Written comments are welcome and must be received on or before November 13, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Please submit comments by one method only. Comments will also be incorporated to FinCEN's retrospective regulatory review process, as mandated by E.O. 12866 and 13563. All comments submitted in response to this notice will become a matter of public record. Therefore, you should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
The FinCEN Resource Center at 800-767-2825 or electronically at
The Bank Secrecy Act (“BSA”), Titles I and II of Public Law 91-508, as amended, codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829(b), 12 U.S.C. 1951-1959, and 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5332, authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury, among other things, to require financial institutions to keep records and file reports that are determined to have a high degree of usefulness in criminal, tax, and regulatory matters or in the conduct of intelligence or counter-intelligence activities to protect against international terrorism, and to implement counter-money laundering programs and compliance procedures.
Regulations implementing Title II of the BSA appear at 31 CFR chapter X. The authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to administer Title II of the BSA has been delegated to the Director of FinCEN. The information collected and retained under the regulation addressed in this notice assist Federal, state, and local law enforcement as well as regulatory authorities in the identification, investigation and prosecution of money laundering and other matters.
Section 5318(l) of the BSA requires FinCEN to issue regulations prescribing customer identification programs for financial institutions. Those regulations, at a minimum, must require financial institutions implement reasonable procedures for (1) verifying the identity of any person seeking to open an account, to the extent reasonable and practicable; (2) maintaining records of the information used to verify the person's identity, including name, address, and other identifying information; and (3) determining whether the person appears on any lists of known or suspected terrorists or terrorist organizations provided to the financial institution by any government agency. The regulations are to take into consideration the various types of accounts maintained by various types of financial institutions, the various methods of opening accounts, and the various types of identifying information available. Regulations implementing section 5318(l) with respect to brokers or dealers in securities and mutual funds are found at 31 CFR 1023.220 and 1024.220, respectively.
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA and its implementing regulations, the following information is presented concerning the information collection below.
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An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (“FinCEN”), U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
FinCEN invites comment on the renewal of an information collection requirement concerning the Report of International Transportation of Currency or Monetary Instruments (“CMIR”). This request for comment is being made pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments are welcome and must be received on or before November 13, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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•
Please submit comments by one method only. Comments will also be incorporated to FinCEN's retrospective regulatory review process, as mandated by E.O. 12866 and 13563. All comments submitted in response to this notice will become a matter of public record. Therefore, you should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
The FinCEN Resource Center at 800-767-2825 or electronically at
The Bank Secrecy Act (“BSA”), Titles I and II of Public Law 91-508, as amended, codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829(b), 12 U.S.C. 1951-1959, and 31 U.S.C.
Regulations implementing Title II of the BSA appear at 31 CFR chapter X. The authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to administer Title II of the BSA has been delegated to the Director of FinCEN. The information collected and retained under the regulation addressed in this notice assist Federal, state, and local law enforcement as well as regulatory authorities in the identification, investigation and prosecution of money laundering and other matters.
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA and its implementing regulations, the following information is presented concerning the information collection below.
(1) Each person who physically transports, mails, or ships, or causes to be physically transported, mailed, or shipped currency or other monetary instruments in an aggregate amount exceeding $10,000 at one time from the United States to any place outside the United States or into the United States from any place outside the United States, and
(2) Each person who receives in the United States currency or other monetary instruments in an aggregate amount exceeding $10,000 at one time which have been transported, mailed, or shipped to the person from any place outside the United States.
A transfer of funds through normal banking procedures, which does not involve the physical transportation of currency or monetary instruments, is not required to be reported on the CMIR.
Information collected on the CMIR is made available, in accordance with strict safeguards, to appropriate criminal law enforcement and regulatory personnel in the official performance of their duties. The information collected is of use in investigations involving international and domestic money laundering, tax evasion, fraud, and other financial crimes.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Records required to be retained under the BSA must be retained for five years. Generally, information collected pursuant to the BSA is confidential, but may be shared as provided by law with regulatory and law enforcement authorities.
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (“FinCEN”), U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
FinCEN invites comment on a renewal, without change, to information collections found in existing regulations requiring dealers in precious metals, stones, or jewels, to develop and implement written anti-money laundering programs reasonably designed to prevent those financial institutions from being used to facilitate money laundering and the financing of terrorist activities. This request for comments is being made pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) of 1995.
Written comments are welcome and must be received on or before November 13, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Please submit comments by one method only. Comments will also be incorporated to FinCEN's retrospective regulatory review process, as mandated by E.O. 12866 and 13563. All comments submitted in response to this notice will become a matter of public record. Therefore, you should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
The FinCEN Resource Center at 800-767-2825 or electronically at
The Bank Secrecy Act (“BSA”), Titles I and II of Public Law 91-508, as amended, codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829(b), 12 U.S.C. 1951-1959, and 31 U.S.C.
Regulations implementing Title II of the BSA appear at 31 CFR Chapter X. The authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to administer Title II of the BSA has been delegated to the Director of FinCEN. The information collected and retained under the regulation addressed in this notice assist federal, state, and local law enforcement as well as regulatory authorities in the identification, investigation and prosecution of money laundering and other matters.
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA and its implementing regulations, the following information is presented concerning the information collection below.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget. Records required to be retained under the BSA must be retained for five years. Generally, information collected pursuant to the BSA is confidential but may be shared as provided by law with regulatory and law enforcement authorities.
Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (“FinCEN”), U.S. Department of the Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
FinCEN invites comment on a proposed renewal, without change, to information collections found in regulations requiring banks, savings associations, credit unions, certain non-federally regulated banks, futures commission merchants, and introducing brokers in commodities to develop and implement customer identification programs designed to allow the covered financial institution to form a reasonable belief that it knows the true identity of each customer. This request for comment is being made pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (“PRA”) of 1995.
Written comments are welcome and must be received on or before November 13, 2018.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
•
•
Please submit comments by one method only. Comments will also be incorporated to FinCEN's retrospective regulatory review process, as mandated by E.O. 12866 and 13563. All comments submitted in response to this notice will become a matter of public record. Therefore, you should submit only information that you wish to make publicly available.
The FinCEN Resource Center at 800-767-2825 or electronically at
The Bank Secrecy Act (“BSA”), Titles I and II of Public Law 91-508, as amended, codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829(b), 12 U.S.C. 1951-1959, and 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5332, authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury, among other things, to require financial institutions to keep records and file reports that are determined to have a high degree of usefulness in criminal, tax, and regulatory matters or in the conduct of intelligence or counter-intelligence activities to protect against international terrorism, and to implement counter-money laundering programs and compliance procedures.
Regulations implementing Title II of the BSA appear at 31 CFR Chapter X. The authority of the Secretary of the Treasury to administer Title II of the BSA has been delegated to the Director of FinCEN. The information collected and retained under the regulation addressed in this notice assist Federal, state, and local law enforcement as well as regulatory authorities in the identification, investigation and prosecution of money laundering and other matters.
Section 5318(l) of the BSA requires FinCEN to issue regulations prescribing customer identification programs for financial institutions. Those regulations, at a minimum, must require financial institutions implement reasonable procedures for (1) verifying the identity of any person seeking to open an account, to the extent reasonable and practicable; (2) maintaining records of the information used to verify the person's identity, including name, address, and other identifying information; and (3) determining whether the person appears on any lists of known or suspected terrorists or terrorist organizations provided to the financial institution by any government agency. The regulations are to take into consideration the various types of accounts maintained by various types of financial institutions, the various methods of opening accounts, and the various types of identifying information available. Regulations implementing section 5318(l) with respect to banks, savings associations, credit unions, and certain non-federally regulated banks are found at 31 CFR 1020.220. Regulations implementing section 5318(l) with respect to futures commission merchants and introducing brokers in commodities are found at 31 CFR 1026.220.
In accordance with the requirements of the PRA and its implementing regulations, the following information is
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An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Records required to be retained under the BSA must be retained for five years. Generally, information collected pursuant to the BSA is confidential but may be shared as provided by law with regulatory and law enforcement authorities.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Tuesday, October 9, 2018.
Rosalind Matherne at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-4115.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Toll-Free Phone Line Project Committee will be held Tuesday, October 9, 2018, at 3:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Rosalind Matherne. For more information please contact Rosalind Matherne at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-4115, or write TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Ave. NW, Room 1509, Washington, DC 20224 or contact us at the website:
The committee will be discussing Toll-free issues and public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning Request for Discharge From Personal Liability Under Internal Revenue Code Section 2204 or 6905.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202)317-5753, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning the guidance for taxpayers regarding information reporting for certain life insurance contract transactions.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Carolyn Brown, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6236, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The new reporting requirements apply to reportable death benefits paid and reportable policy sales made after Dec. 31, 2017. On April 26, 2018, the Internal Revenue Service provided transitional guidance delaying any reporting under IRC 6050Y until final regulations are issued. The transitional guidance provides taxpayers additional time to satisfy any reporting obligations arising prior to publication of final regulations.
This submission is being made to seek new approval as required in the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The following paragraph applies to all the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained if their contents may become
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the ICR for OMB approval of the extension of the information collection; they will also become a matter of public record.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning transitional guidance under sections 162(f) and 6050X with respect to certain fines, penalties, and other amounts.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Carolyn Brown, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6236, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to R. Joseph Durbala, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet, at
Section 13306 of “An Act to provide for reconciliation pursuant to titles II and V of the concurrent resolution on the budget for fiscal year 2018,” Public Law 115-97 (the “Act”), which was signed into law on December 22, 2017, amended section 162(f) of the Internal Revenue Code (“Code”) and added new section 6050X to the Code. The Department of the Treasury (“Treasury Department”) and the Internal Revenue Service (“IRS”) intend to publish proposed regulations under sections 162(f) and 6050X.
This submission is being made to seek new approval as required in the Paperwork Reduction Act.
The following paragraph applies to all the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained if their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including using appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the ICR for OMB approval of the extension of the information collection; they will also become a matter of public record.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Thursday, October 11, 2018.
Gregory Giles at 1-888-912-1227 or 240-613-6478.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Notices and Correspondence Project Committee will be held Thursday, October 11, 2018, at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Otis Simpson. For more information please contact Otis Simpson at 1-888-912-1227 or 202-317-3332, or write TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Ave. NW, Room 1509, Washington, DC 20224 or contact us at the website:
The agenda will include a discussion on various letters, and other issues related to written communications from the IRS.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8994, Employer Credit for Paid Family and Medical Leave.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form(s) and instructions should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke, at (202) 317-6009, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, October 17, 2018.
Matthew O'Sullivan at 1-888-912-1227 or (510) 907-5274.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Special Projects Committee will be held Wednesday, October 17, 2018, at 2:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Matthew O'Sullivan. For more information please contact Matthew O'Sullivan at 1-888-912-1227 or (510) 907-5274, or write TAP Office, 1301 Clay Street, Oakland, CA 94612-5217 or contact us at the website:
The agenda will include a discussion on various special topics with IRS processes.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 5498-ESA, Coverdell ESA Contribution Information.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6529, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224. Please send separate comments for each specific information collection listed below. You must reference the information collection's title, form number, reporting or record-keeping requirement number, and OMB number (if any) in you comment.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Charles Daniel at (202) 317-5754, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6529, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Wednesday, October 10, 2018.
Robert Rosalia at 1-888-912-1227 or (718) 834-2203.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Tax Forms and Publications Project Committee will be held Wednesday, October 10, 2018, at 2:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Robert Rosalia. For more information please contact Robert Rosalia at 1-888-912-1227 or (718) 834-2203, or write TAP Office, 2 Metrotech Center, 100 Myrtle Avenue, Brooklyn, NY 11201 or contact us at the website:
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Thursday, October 25, 2018.
Fred Smith at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-3087.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Joint Committee will be held Thursday, October 25, 2018, at 1:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. For more information please contact Fred Smith at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-3087, or write TAP Office 1114 Commerce Street, Dallas, TX 75242-1021, or post comments to the website:
The agenda will include various committee issues for submission to the IRS and other TAP related topics. Public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning Travel Expenses of State Legislators.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202)317-5753, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning Limitations on Percentage Depletion in the Case of Oil and Gas Wells.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202)317-5753, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee will conduct an open meeting and will solicit public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Tuesday, October 16, 2018.
Gilbert Martinez at 1-888-912-1227 or (737) 800-4060.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that a meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Assistance Center Improvements Project Committee will be held Tuesday, October 16, 2018, at 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Gilbert Martinez. For more information please contact Gilbert Martinez at 1-888-912-1227 or 214-413-6523, or write TAP Office 3651 S. IH-35, STOP 1005 AUSC, Austin, TX 78741, or post comments to the website:
The committee will be discussing various issues related to the Taxpayer Assistance Centers and public input is welcomed.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of meeting.
An open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee will be conducted. The Taxpayer Advocacy Panel is soliciting public comments, ideas, and suggestions on improving customer service at the Internal Revenue Service.
The meeting will be held Tuesday, October 16, 2018.
Antoinette Ross at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-4110.
Notice is hereby given pursuant to Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. (1988) that an open meeting of the Taxpayer Advocacy Panel Taxpayer Communications Project Committee will be held Tuesday, October 16, 2018, at 2:00 p.m. Eastern Time via teleconference. The public is invited to make oral comments or submit written statements for consideration. Due to limited conference lines, notification of intent to participate must be made with Antoinette Ross. For more information please contact: Antoinette Ross at 1-888-912-1227 or (202) 317-4110, or write TAP Office, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Room 1509, National Office, Washington, DC 20224, or contact us at the website:
The committee will be discussing various issues related to Taxpayer Communications and public input is welcome.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS), as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The IRS is soliciting comments concerning Permitted Elimination of Pre-retirement Optional Forms of Benefit.
Written comments should be received on or before November 13, 2018 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Laurie Brimmer, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, at (202) 317-5753, or at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
The Office of Management (OM), Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Office of Management (OM), Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before November 13, 2018.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Cynthia Harvey-Pryor at (202) 461-5870.
Under the PRA of 1995, Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, OM invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of OM functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of OM estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
By direction of the Secretary.
Office of Technology Evaluation, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Interim final rule.
On March 8, 2018, President Trump issued Proclamations 9704 and 9705 (referred to henceforth as the “Proclamations”), imposing duties on imports of aluminum and steel. The Proclamations also authorized the Secretary of Commerce (referred to henceforth as the “Secretary”) to grant exclusions from the duties if the Secretary determines the steel or aluminum article for which the exclusion is requested is not “produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality” or should be excluded “based upon specific national security considerations.”
On March 19, 2018, the Department issued an interim final rule (referred to henceforth as the “March 19 rule”), setting forth the requirements a directly affected party located in the United States must satisfy when submitting exclusion requests. The March 19 rule also set forth the requirements that U.S. parties must meet when submitting objections to exclusion requests. The March 19 rule amended the National Security Industrial Base Regulations to add two new supplements.
The rule published today by BIS, on behalf of the Secretary, revises the two supplements added by the March 19 rule. The revisions are informed by the comments received in response to the March 19 rule and the U.S. Department of Commerce's (referred to henceforth as “the Department”) experience with managing the exclusion and objection process. The Department understands the importance of having a transparent, fair and efficient exclusion and objection process. The publication of today's rule should make significant improvements in all three respects, but due to the scope of this new process, BIS is publishing today's rule as an interim final rule with request for comments.
See
All comments on this interim final rule must be submitted by one of the following methods:
• By the Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• By email directly to
• By mail or delivery to Regulatory Policy Division, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 2099B, 14th Street and Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230. Refer to RIN 0694-AH55.
Brad Botwin, Director, Industrial Studies, Office of Technology Evaluation, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce (202) 482-5642,
On March 8, 2018, President Trump issued Proclamations 9704 and 9705, imposing duties on imports of aluminum and steel. The Proclamations also authorized the Secretary to grant exclusions from the duties if the Secretary determines the steel or aluminum article for which the exclusion is requested is not “produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality” or should be excluded “based upon specific national security considerations.”
On March 19, 2018, the Department issued an interim final rule, setting forth the requirements U.S. businesses must satisfy when submitting exclusion requests. On behalf of the Secretary, BIS published the March 19 rule,
The rule published today by BIS, on behalf of the Secretary, makes changes to the two supplements added in the March 19 rule: Supplement No. 1 to Part 705—Requirements for Submissions Requesting Exclusions from the Remedies Instituted in Presidential Proclamation 9705 of March 8, 2018 Adjusting Imports of Steel Articles into the United States; and to Supplement No. 2 to Part 705—Requirements for Submissions Requesting Exclusions from the Remedies Instituted in Presidential Proclamation 9704 of March 8, 2018 to Adjusting Imports of Aluminum into the United States.
The rule published today also makes needed changes to the two supplements to address the directives included in the Presidential Proclamations 9777 and 9776 of August 29, 2018, whereby President Trump directed that as soon as practicable, the Secretary of Commerce shall issue procedures for requests for exclusions described in clause 1 and clause 2 of these two proclamations to allow for exclusion requests for countries subject to quantitative limitations. Today's rule makes changes to add clause 1. The Department has already created a separate exclusion process for clause 2 on the Commerce website at
The changes to the exclusion processes in this rule are informed by both the comments received in response to the March 19 rule and the
Since March 19, the Department has worked to develop its exclusion process to ensure that the duties and quantitative limitations protect our national security while also minimizing undue impacts on downstream U.S. industries. Two specific Commerce components have worked closely in this effort: BIS and the International Trade Administration (ITA). BIS is the lead agency deciding whether to grant steel and aluminum tariff exclusion requests, and ITA is analyzing requests and objections to evaluate whether there is domestic production available to meet the requestor's product needs, as provided in the exclusion requests.
Since March 19, the Department has diligently worked to develop its exclusion process to ensure that the duties and quantitative limitations protect critical U.S. national security while minimizing undue impacts on downstream U.S. industries. The Department has already taken several steps to improve the exclusion process, including expediting the grant of properly filed exclusion requests that receive no objections and present no national security concerns, as well as increasing and organizing the Department's staff to efficiently process exclusion requests. The publication of today's rule provides an exclusion process for steel and aluminum articles subject to quantitative limitations and is an important step in further improving the exclusion request and objection process, including through the addition of a rebuttal and surrebuttal process.
As of August 20, the Department had received more than 38,000 exclusion requests and more than 17,000 objections. To streamline the exclusion review process, the Department has already taken steps to expedite the granting of properly filed exclusion requests which receive no objections and present no national security concerns. The Department has also worked to increase and organize its staff to efficiently process exclusion requests. The publication of today's rule is an important step in improving the exclusion and objection process.
The Department is not seeking comments on the duties and quantitative limitations or the exclusion and objection process overall, but rather on whether the specific changes included in this second interim final rule have addressed earlier concerns with the exclusion and objection process. Comments specific to the changes included in today's rule will be the most helpful for the Department to receive, including comments on how the changes (
The public comment period on the March 19 rule closed on May 18, 2018. BIS received 67 public comments on the interim final rule. Most of the comments were well thought out and supported their positions with a great deal of specificity. Many commenters made comments on the imposition of duties and quantitative limitations and whether or not that was a good idea. Those comments are outside the scope of the March 19 rule that was focused on creating an exclusion and objection process, thus the Department is not summarizing or providing responses to those general comments on the duties and quantitative limitations. The Department is responding to comments regarding concerns on the downstream impacts of U.S. manufacturers that use steel and aluminum, which is directly relevant to whether the exclusion process created in the March 19 rule is efficient enough to mitigate those downstream end users' concerns.
Commenters were generally supportive and welcomed the idea of creating an exclusion process, but most of the commenters believed the exclusion process was not working well and needed to be significantly improved in order for it to achieve the intended purpose. The commenters covered a broad range of industries and included some of the largest companies in the world, along with small to mid-size (SME) enterprises expressing significant concern over the duties and quantitative limitations and the difficulties in managing the exclusion process. Several of the SMEs indicated that without an efficient exclusion process, it is likely they may not survive or will face significant cut backs in employment and business activities. Larger companies indicated that without an efficient exclusion process, it is likely that major projects that they may have otherwise undertaken will likely not be undertaken. Commenters from the oil and gas industries and petrochemical industries hit on these points.
Many downstream manufacturers that use steel and aluminum were particularly concerned with suffering from higher input costs, while at the same time having to compete directly with foreign competitors in other countries;
Commenters supporting and opposing the duties and quantitative limitations submitted comments on what they thought needed to be changed in the exclusion and the objection process to make it more fair, efficient and effective. Commenters included references to arbitrary and capricious government action and laid out from their perspective how the exclusion and objection process could be legally challenged if not improved.
The Department received a significant number of detailed comments that raised concerns in this area. The comments came from a broad spectrum of U.S. industries, including many major sectoral employers. The creation of an effective product based exclusion/objection process (and with the publication of today's rule, a rebuttal/surrebuttal process) is intended to address as many of these types of concerns as possible. As detailed below, many commenters do not believe that the exclusion/objection process is effective and that because of how products are sourced and used in the manufacturing process, it is unlikely to succeed.
Some commenters provided detailed comments on what they perceived to be profiteering that may be occurring in the U.S. As described above, some of this may be short term adjustments that are not warranted by market fundamentals that should level out.
The comments described here are also referenced and addressed in other parts of this preamble and the regulatory changes made below. The intent of the discussion here is to highlight the general concerns raised in this area, along with the general BIS response. The specific types of issues,
Commenters in almost all cases noted that their comments applied equally to the steel and aluminum supplements. The rule published today makes the same improvements to each supplement to continue with parallel supplements (same parallel structure included in the March 19 rule), with only slight differences for information that is specific to steel or aluminum,
Several commenters asked for clarification and guidance on how to apply for broader product exclusions that would apply to all importers in the United States. As described below in more detail, the Department has the discretion to make exclusions available to all importers if we find the circumstances so warrant, and we will exercise this discretion as appropriate. Individuals and organizations do not apply for such broad product exclusions, but rather the Department as it gains experience with the types of exclusion requests that are being repeatedly approved because the criteria are being met on a consistent basis over time, can exercise this type of discretion that will likely result in making the process more efficient. Several commenters wanted to quickly move toward these types of broad product exclusions, but the Department believes it better to begin with a deliberative assessment of individual requests in order to not undermine the purpose of the duties and quantitative limitations in place for steel and aluminum.
Today's rule is adding a rebuttal/surrebuttal process that will specify that after the 30-day objection period, an exclusion requester may submit a rebuttal to any objection(s) within 7 days, and an objector(s) may respond to that rebuttal within an additional 7 days after the rebuttal period has ended and the 7-day surrebuttal comment period is opened. The Department will not open the 7-day rebuttal period until the 30-day objection period has concluded, all complete objections have been posted in
Commenters raised concerns over fairness for the current process of dealing with CBI. The lack of a process for dealing with proprietary information means that when the Department posts an exclusion request or an objection with CBI in the supplementary material, there is no way for other parties to respond. For example, a commenter notes that objections from U.S. Steel have been posted, but certain information has not been provided, such as capacity and capacity utilization. Although the Department may reach out relating to such information, the requester will never know what the objector said about its capacity to supply the requested demand and, therefore, will never be able to rebut the issue. The commenter argues that the current system penalizes requesters whose requests may not be posted (or at a minimum may be delayed in being posted, thereby forestalling retroactive relief) if the exclusion request form is not fully filled out, yet an objector is able to unilaterally withhold data and delay consideration of the exclusion request. The commenter requests that such an objection be rejected as incomplete.
Commenters that had concerns with the exclusion process made suggestions for broadening the exclusion criteria to make it easier to get approval as discussed in the next series of comments.
Therefore, these commenters recommended that the final rule should provide: A limitation on rebuttals to potentially aggrieved domestic manufacturers of specific articles sought to be excluded, plus a response by the applicant; in the alternative, if rebuttals are not limited to domestic manufacturers, a response by an interested party. These commenters said that it is important to allow the requester an opportunity to reply to the objections raised to make certain that the Department has all the information necessary to determine whether domestic steel producers can actually fulfill their needs. For U.S. companies using steel in their production process, determining which suppliers to use is a decision that is carefully considered based on their economic and manufacturing needs. One commenter remarked, “Without carefully assessing and soliciting reasons why certain steel suppliers are used in this process, the
A number of commenters representing a wide range of industries submitted their initial suggestions for what should be included in broad based product exclusions. These requests for broad based product exclusions included primary aluminum and fabricated can sheet, aluminum foil, Grain Oriented Electric Steel (“GOES”), tinplate and tin free steel, specialty chrome products used in deepwater oil and gas wells, products used across the entire crude oil and natural gas production industry, and certain steel and aluminum products that are critical to motor vehicle parts manufacturers. At this time, the Department does not believe it is warranted to add a broad based product exclusion for any of the examples provided in the comments received on the March 19 rule. This does not preclude the Department from reevaluating this determination once additional exclusion requests are submitted and additional information provided to the Department in the objection, rebuttal, and surrebuttal processes is evaluated further and patterns begin to develop that may warrant granting broad product based exclusions for some or all of these referenced items. The intent of the March 19 rule was for the Department to identify these candidates for broad product exclusions over time based on experience with reviewing and approving exclusion requests submitted by individuals or companies. This is the reason why the March 19 rule did not have any provisions that described how individuals or organization could request broad based product exclusion requests. The Department believes this is the correct approach and is continuing this same regulatory framework in today's rule.
Amendments to Entry Forms: The commenter argued that the Department should recommend changes to CBP entry forms to allow easier enforcement. Such changes might include creation of a separate line item on the 7501 form to declare such duties, similar to the way CBP enforces the collection of antidumping and countervailing duties.
Entry Documentation: The commenter suggested that the Department specify the documents required to be produced at entry by each party in the supply chain to create predictability and to help simplify the process for importing excluded merchandise without delay or duties,
A commenter requested that the Department clarify how it will instruct and assist CBP in enforcing and administering exclusion requests, including whether it will adopt any type of import licensing system.
A commenter requested that the Department address how it will enforce and administer product exclusions simultaneously with country exemptions, particularly given the current temporary nature of some of the country exemptions. A country exemption establishes a quantitative limit for steel or aluminum that may be imported from a specific country, but once the quantitative limitation is reached no additional quantity of that steel or aluminum may be imported from that country. Commenters assert they are concerned about the quantitative limitations because if the supply of steel or aluminum is needed from such a country once the quantitative limitation is reached, there will be no alternative supply. For countries not subject to quantitative limitations an unlimited amount of steel or aluminum may be imported, but if not subject to a product exclusion, would be required to pay the applicable tariff of 25 percent for steel and 10% for aluminum. The commenter requested that if country exemptions are tied to quotas (referred to henceforth as quantitative limitations) (or any other type of import restriction), the Department work with the USTR and CBP to develop a workable solution to simultaneously monitor and enforce product exclusions, country exemptions, and any quantitative limitations used to enforce country exemptions.
In order to improve the fairness, transparency and efficiency of the exclusion and objection process, as well as add a rebuttal and surrebuttal process, BIS, on behalf of the Secretary, is publishing today's interim final rule to make a number of changes to improve the process. These changes are responsive to the comments received on the March 19 rule and should improve the process significantly. Because the two supplements are nearly identical, with the same paragraph structure and regulatory provisions, this interim final rule makes the same changes to both Supplement No. 1 and No. 2 to Part 705. The only places where the regulatory changes made in this rule differ slightly is in the application examples that are specific to steel or aluminum and the samples of naming conventions for submissions in
Today's rule makes conforming edits throughout the two supplements to add references to the new rebuttal and surrebuttal process that today's rule is adding. The new rebuttal process is described below under paragraph (f). The new surrebuttal process is described below under paragraph (g). Except for the changes to new paragraphs (f) and (g), the additional references to rebuttal and surrebuttal are being added when the process is being referenced as a whole in the two supplements—meaning whenever the terms “exclusion request” and “objection” are used to describe the process. References to these two terms will, after the publication of today's rule, encompass exclusion requests, objections, rebuttals and surrebuttals.
It is important to understand that the Department is committed to having as fair, transparent and efficient a process as possible for managing product exclusion requests. As asserted above by the commenters and confirmed by the experience of the Department, the number of submissions for exclusion requests and objections have far exceeded original expectations, and the Department is taking steps in this rule to improve the efficiency of adjudicating those requests. In addition, the Department is making changes to improve the fairness of the process by allowing the individual or organization that submitted an exclusion request or an objection to have an opportunity to respond to information provided by the other party, leading to better and more informed decisions on exclusion requests.
In paragraph (b)(5)(
New paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(
In paragraph (c)(2)(
Today's rule also adds a new Note to paragraph (c)(2) to describe the process for how an individual or organization may submit an exclusion request for importing steel or aluminum from a country that has a country exemption. The exclusion form has been revised to include one additional field for these types of exclusion requests. In requesting one of these types of exclusions, the requester will select the field on the exclusion request form to indicate that the exclusion request is for importing from a country eligible for a country exemption. This is important to assist the Department in identifying these types of exclusion requests, assisting the Department in coordinating its review with other parts of the U.S. Government as warranted, and when coordinating with CBP on the implementation of these product based exclusions from countries subject to quantitative limitations. Today's rule also adds examples of the types of information that a requester is required to include in support of these types of exclusion requests.
In paragraph (c)(
In paragraph (d)(
Secondly, in paragraph (d)(4)(
In paragraph (e)(
Today's rule redesignates paragraphs (f) and (g) as paragraphs (h) and (i), respectively, to account for adding a new paragraph (f) for the rebuttal process and a new paragraph (g) for the surrebuttal process.
Paragraph (f)(
Paragraph (f)(1)
Paragraph (f)(2)(
Paragraph (f)(3) (
Paragraph (f)(4)(
Today's rule is also adding a Note to paragraph (f)(4) to add grandfathering provisions to allow for exclusion requests already posted, but not yet fully adjudicated, to be reopened to allow for rebuttals, as well as surrebuttals, as described in Note to paragraph (g)(4) below. The grandfathering provisions will be available for any pending exclusion request that meets all three of the following criteria included in the Note to paragraph (f)(4), as of September 11, 2018. In order to be eligible for grandfathering, the exclusion request must meet the following: The exclusion request received an objection(s), the 30 day objection review period has closed, and the Department has not posted a final determination on the exclusion request. The Note to paragraph (f)(4) specifies that the date of reopening will start the review periods identified in paragraph (f)(4) for those grandfathered exclusions. The Department will reopen the requests on a rolling basis starting on the date of publication of today's rule, and will seek to complete the reopening process on the date that is seven days after the date of publication of today's rule, on September 18, 2018, to serve as the start date for the review periods identified in paragraph (f)(4) for those requests.
Paragraph (g)(
Many commenters requested the Department make this type of a change to ensure that the process was fair and the Department had all of the relevant information when an objection to an exclusion request received a rebuttal. The commenters on the March 19 rule described conceptually what they thought was needed to create a fair process for all parties and these types of additional opportunities to provide input with a rebuttal, followed by surrebuttal process, were recommended. The Department agrees this would improve the process and is making these changes with the addition of paragraph (g) described here and (f) above. The formal objection process in paragraph (d) that was included in the March 19 rule already established a process for objectors to respond to exclusion requests in their objections. However, because today's rule is adding a rebuttal process, for fairness it is also adding a surrebuttal process for objectors. The detailed exclusion request and objection forms help to establish an important baseline for allowing the Department to evaluate exclusion requests and objections, but the Department agrees that allowing the rebuttals and surrebuttals described here will provide the Department with better information and lead to better decisions even though it does add more time to the overall process.
Paragraph (g)(1)
Paragraph (g)(2)(
Paragraph (g)(3)(
Paragraph (g)(4)(
In newly redesignated paragraph (h)(
In newly redesignated paragraph (h)(2)
In new paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(
In new paragraph (h)(2)(iii)(
In new paragraph (h)(2)(iv)(
For example, if a company that requested an exclusion for one year determines during the objection, rebuttal, and surrebuttal process that a U.S. manufacturer may be able to make the product within nine months, it may assist the company that requested the exclusion to have a shorter nine month exclusion validity and make business plans to start purchasing steel from the U.S. manufacturer. This would allow for advanced business planning (a concern that was asserted by a number of commenters as being important) for both the party with the granted exclusion request and the objector, eliminate the need to apply for a subsequent exclusion request that likely would be denied if the U.S. manufacturer's production did come online at nine
Under newly redesignated paragraph (h)(3)
New paragraph (h)(3)(ii)(
In newly redesignated paragraph (i)(
Today's final rule adds a new Annex 1 to Supplements No. 1 and 2 to Part 705. This Annex provides instructions on the steps to follow to file (submit) rebuttal comments in
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. The March 19 rule was determined to be a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Today's rule has also been determined to be to be a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. However, as stated under Section 4 of Presidential Proclamation 9704 and Section 4 of Proclamation 9705 of March 8, 2018, this rule is exempt from Executive Order 13771 (82 FR 9339, February 3, 2017).
2. The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Department requested and OMB authorized emergency processing of two information collections involved in this rule, consistent with 5 CFR 1320.13. OMB approved these two information collections as emergency collections on March 18, 2018. The Presidential Proclamations authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of State, the United States Trade Representative, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, and other senior Executive Branch officials as appropriate, to grant exclusions for the import of goods not currently available in the United States in a sufficient quantity or satisfactory quality, or for other specific national security reasons. He further directed the Secretary to establish the process for submitting and granting these requests for exclusions within 10 days, and the publication of the March 19 interim final rule fulfilled that directive. Based on the comments received in response to the comment period for the interim final rule, however, the agency has determined that changes need to be made to the March 19 rule to achieve the stated obectives of the March 19 rule and the President's directive to establish an
a. The collection of information was needed prior to the expiration of time periods normally associated with a routine submission for review under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act in view of the President's Proclamations issued on March 8, 2018, for the Presidential Proclamation on Adjusting Imports of Steel into the United States,
b. The collection of information was essential to the mission of the Department, in particular to the adjudication of exclusion requests and objections to exclusions requests and, with the publication of today's interim final rule that makes revisions to the two supplements added in the March 19 rule to the adjudication of rebuttals and surrebuttals.
c. The use of normal clearance procedures would have prevented the collection of information of exclusion requests and objections to exclusion requests, for national security purposes, as well as for rebuttals and surrebuttals being added in today's rule, as discussed under section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962 as amended and the Presidential Proclamations issued on March 8, 2018.
The Commerce Department provided a separate 60-day notice in the
In addition to the two collections referenced above for the March 19 rule, the Commerce Department requested, and OMB authorized, emergency processing of an additional information collection involved in today's rule, consistent with 5 CFR 1320.13. As was noted in the report submitted by the Secretary to the President, steel and aluminum are being imported into the United States in such quantities or under such circumstances as to threaten to impair the national security of the United States and therefore any delay in implementing these remedial actions (as described Proclamations 9704 and 9705 of March 8, 2018) would further undermine U.S. national security interests. In order to ensure that the remedial actions from the Presidential Proclamations do not undermine users of these articles in the United States that may need the foreign supply of these articles for manufacturing other articles in the United States that are critical to protecting the national security of the United States, or are otherwise important to protecting the U.S. economy because there is not currently a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality of these articles in the United States, the Presidential Proclamations authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of State, the United States Trade Representative, and other agency heads as appropriate to grant exclusions. This emergency collection is needed in order for today's rule to establish the process for submitting rebuttals and surrebuttals to help better inform the process of granting these requests for exclusions. This action is needed immediately to protect national security interests of the United States.
If this emergency collection were delayed to allow for public comment before becoming effective, individuals and organizations in the United States would not have the opportunity to submit rebuttals and surrebuttals during the comment period and during the finalization of the collection, with the possible result of economic hardship for the U.S. companies and an overall less effective exclusion process. BIS intends to publish a notice in the
The Department has determined the following conditions have been met:
a. The collection of information is needed prior to the expiration of time period normally associated with a routine submission for review under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act in view of the President's proclamations issued on March 8, 2018, for the
b. The collection of information is essential to the mission of the Department, in particular to the adjudication exclusion requests, objections to exclusions requests, rebuttals and surrebuttals.
c. The use of normal clearance procedures would prevent the collection of information for rebuttals and surrebuttals and would make the review of exclusion requests and objections to exclusion requests less effective. Exclusion requests and objections to exclusions requests are important for national security purposes, as discussed under section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962 as amended and the Presidential Proclamations issued on March 8, 2018.
The Commerce Department intends to provide separate 60-day notice in the
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined in Executive Order 13132.
4. The provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) requiring notice of proposed rulemaking, the opportunity for public comment, and a delay in effective date are inapplicable because this regulation involves a military or foreign affairs function of the United States. (
In addition, the Department finds that there is good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) to waive the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act requiring prior notice and the opportunity for public comment and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive the delay in effective date because such delays would be either impracticable or contrary to the public interest. In order to ensure that the actions taken to adjust imports do not undermine users of steel or aluminum that are subject to the remedial actions instituted by the Proclamations and are critical to protecting the national security of the United States, the Presidential Proclamations authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of State, the United States Trade Representative, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, and other senior Executive Branch officials as appropriate, to grant exclusions for the import of goods not currently available in the United States in a sufficient quantity or satisfactory quality, or for other specific national security reasons. He further directed the Secretary to, within 10 days, issue procedures for submitting and granting these requests for exclusions and this interim final rule fulfills that direction. As described above, the Secretary complied with the directive from the President with the publication of the March 19 rule and is taking the next step in improving the exclusion and objection process by making needed changes with the publication of today's rule, as well as adding the needed rebuttal and surrebuttal process. The immediate implementation of an effective exclusion request process, consistent with the intent of the Presidential Proclamations, also required creating a process to allow any individual or organization in the United States to submit objections to submitted exclusion requests. The objection process was created with the publication of the March 19 rule. This publication of today's rule makes needed changes in the objection process and adds a rebuttal and surrebuttal process to create the type of fair, transparent, and efficient process that was intended in the March 19 rule, but was found lacking by the commenters in several key respects. Today's rule makes critical changes to ensure a fair, transparent, and efficient exclusion process.
If this interim final rule were delayed to allow for public comment or for thirty days before companies in the U.S. were allowed to benefit from the improvements made in the exclusion, objection, and newly added rebuttal and surrebuttal process from the remedies instituted by the President, those entities could face significant economic hardship that could potentially create a detrimental effect on the general U.S. economy. The comments received on
Finally, the 30 day delay in effectiveness for final rules is inapplicable under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1) because this rule relieves a restriction.
Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for prior public comment are not required for this rule by 5 U.S.C. 553, or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
Pursuant to Proclamations 9704 and 9705 of March 8, 2018, the establishment of procedures for an exclusion process under each Proclamation shall be published in the
Administrative practice and procedure, Business and industry, Classified information, Confidential business information, Imports, Investigations, National security.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, part 705 of subchapter A of 15 CFR chapter VII is amended as follows:
Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1862) and Reorg. Plan No. 3 of 1979 (44 FR 69273, December 3, 1979).
On March 8, 2018, the President issued Proclamation 9705 concurring with the findings of the January 11, 2018 report of the Secretary of Commerce on the effects of imports of steel mill articles (steel articles) identified in Proclamation 9705 (“steel”) on the national security and determining that adjusting steel imports through the imposition of duties is necessary so that imports of steel will no longer threaten to impair the national security. Clause 3 of Proclamation 9705 also authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of State, the United States Trade Representative, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, and other senior Executive Branch officials as appropriate, to grant exclusions from the duties at the request of directly affected parties located in the United States if the steel articles are determined not to be produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality or based upon specific national security considerations. On August 29, 2018, the President issued Proclamation 9776. Clause 1 of Proclamation 9776 authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of Defense, the United States Trade Representative (USTR), the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, and such other senior Executive Branch officials as the Secretary deems appropriate, to provide relief from the applicable quantitative limitations set forth in Proclamation 9740 and Proclamation 9759 and their accompanying annexes, as amended, at the request of a directly affected party located in the United States for any steel article determined by the Secretary to not be produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality. The Secretary is also authorized to provide such relief based upon specific national security considerations.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(i) Information submitted in 232 submissions will be subject to public review and made available for public inspection and copying, except for the information described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this supplement. Individuals and organizations must fully complete the relevant forms.
(ii)
(iii)
(A) On the same day that you submit your 232 submission in
(B) The email subject line must only include the original exclusion request ID # (BIS-2018-000X-XXXXX) and the body of the email must include the 11-digit alphanumeric tracking number (XXX-XXXX-XXXX) you received from
(C) Submit the CBI as an attachment to that email. The CBI is limited to a maximum of 5 pages per rebuttal, or surrebuttal. The email is to be limited to sending your CBI. All other information for the public submission, and public versions of the CBI, where appropriate, for a 232 submission must be submitted using
Supporting attachments must be emailed as PDF documents.
(c)
(1)
(2)
For directly affected individuals or organizations located in the United States seeking exclusions from quantitative limitations imposed on certain countries, the requester must select the field on the exclusion form to indicate that the exclusion request is for importing from a country subject to a quantitative limitation. In addition to selecting this field on the exclusion request form, a requester must provide information that it believes supports allowing the requester to import steel that may otherwise exceed the quantitative limitation for this country. For example, the requester may indicate it believes the steel identified in the exclusion request is not available from any U.S. suppliers, and indicate that the quantitative limitation has been exceeded or will likely soon be exceeded leading to this individual or organization not being able to import or otherwise obtain (from any other country) the needed steel. Providing information as part of the exclusion requests that supports these types of statements is required for the U.S. Department of Commerce to consider these types of exclusion requests.
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(d)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(e)
(f)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
For exclusion requests that received an objection(s) but for which the U.S. Department of Commerce has not posted a final determination on the exclusion request as of September 11, 2018, the Department will reopen the requests to allow for the submission of rebuttals. The Department will reopen the requests on a rolling basis starting on September 11, 2018, and will seek to complete the reopening process on the date that is seven days after the date of publication of this notice in the
(g)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(h)
(1)
(i) Exclusion requests that do
(ii) Objection filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (d) will not be considered.
(iii) Rebuttal filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (f) will not be considered.
(iv) Surrebuttal filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (g) will not be considered.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(iv)
(A)
(B)
(C) None of the illustrative fact patterns identified in paragraphs (h)(2)(iv)(A) or (B) of this supplement will be determinative in and of themselves for establishing the appropriate validity period, but this type of information is helpful for the U.S. Department of Commerce to receive, when warranted, to help determine the appropriate validity period if a period other than one year is requested.
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
On March 8, 2018, the President issued Proclamation 9704 concurring with the findings of the January 17, 2018 report of the Secretary of Commerce on the investigation into the effects of imports of aluminum identified in Proclamation 9704 (“aluminum”) on the national security and determining that adjusting aluminum imports through the imposition of duties is necessary so that imports of aluminum will no longer threaten to impair the national security. Clause 3 of Proclamation 9704 also authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of State, the United States Trade Representative, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, and other senior Executive Branch officials as appropriate, to grant exclusions from the duties at the request of directly affected parties located in the United States if the aluminum articles are determined not to be produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality or based upon specific national security considerations. On August 29, 2018, the President issued Proclamation 9776. Clause 1 of Proclamation 9776 authorized the Secretary of Commerce, in consultation with the Secretary of State, the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of Defense, the United States Trade Representative (USTR), the Assistant to the President for National Security Affairs, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, and such other senior Executive Branch officials as the Secretary deems appropriate, to provide relief from the applicable quantitative limitations set forth in Proclamation 9704 and Proclamation 9758 and their accompanying annexes, as amended, at the request of a directly affected party located in the United States for any aluminum article determined by the Secretary to not be produced in the United States in a sufficient and reasonably available amount or of a satisfactory quality. The Secretary is also authorized to provide such relief based upon specific national security considerations.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(i) Information submitted in 232 submissions will be subject to public review and made available for public inspection and copying, except for the information described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii) of this supplement. Individuals and organizations must otherwise fully complete the relevant forms.
(ii)
(iii)
(A) On the same day that you submit your 232 submission in
(B) The email subject line must only include the original exclusion request ID # (BIS-2018-000X-XXXXX) and the body of the email must include the 11-digit alphanumeric tracking number (XXX-XXXX-XXXX) you received from
(C) Submit the CBI as an attachment to that email. The CBI is limited to a maximum of 5 pages per rebuttal, or surrebuttal. The email is to be limited to sending your CBI. All other information for the public submission, and public versions of the CBI, where appropriate, for a 232 submission must be submitted using
Supporting attachments must be emailed as PDF documents.
(c)
(1)
(2)
For directly affected individuals or organizations located in the United States seeking exclusions from quantitative limitations imposed on certain countries, the requester must select the field on the exclusion form to indicate that the exclusion request is for importing from a country subject to a quantitative limitation. In addition to selecting this field on the exclusion request form, a requester must provide information that it believes supports allowing the requester to import aluminum that may otherwise exceed the quantitative limitation for this country. For example, the requester may indicate it believes the aluminum identified in the exclusion request is not available from any U.S. suppliers, and indicate that the quantitative limitation has been exceeded or will likely soon be exceeded leading to this individual or organization not being able to import or
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(d)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(e)
(f)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
For exclusion requests that received an objection(s) but for which the U.S. Department of Commerce has not posted a final determination on the exclusion request as of September 11, 2018, the Department will reopen the requests to allow for the submission of rebuttals. The Department will reopen the requests on a rolling basis starting on September 11, 2018, and will seek to complete the reopening process on the date that is seven days after the date of publication of this notice in the
(g)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(h)
(1)
(i) Exclusion requests that do
(ii) Objection filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (d) will not be considered.
(iii) Rebuttal filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (f) will not be considered.
(iv) Surrebuttal filings that do not satisfy the requirements specified in paragraphs (b) and (g) will not be considered.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(A)
(B)
(iv)
(A)
(B) Examples of what criteria may warrant a shorter exclusion validity period. Objectors are encouraged to provide their suggestions for how long they believe an appropriate validity period should be for an exclusion request. In certain cases, this may be an objector indicating it has committed to adding new capacity that will be coming online within six months, so a shorter six-month period is warranted. Conversely, if an objector knows it will take two years to obtain appropriate regulatory approvals, financing and/or completing construction to add new capacity, the objector may, in responding to an exclusion that requests a longer validity period,
(C) None of the illustrative fact patterns identified in paragraphs (h)(2)(iv)(A) or (B) of this supplement will be determinative in and of themselves for establishing the appropriate validity period, but this type of information is helpful for the U.S. Department of Commerce to receive, when warranted, to help determine the appropriate validity period if a period other than one year is requested.
(3)
(i)
(ii)
(i)
For any questions, call (202) 482-5642 (steel) or (202) 482-4757 (aluminum).
For any questions, call (202) 482-5642 (steel) or (202) 482-4757 (aluminum).
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |