Page Range | 65853-66178 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 66095 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 66111 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 66092 - Regular Board of Directors Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 66118 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Time and Cosmos in Greco-Roman Antiquity” Exhibition | |
81 FR 66118 - Culturally Significant Objects Imported for Exhibition Determinations: “Martin Luther: Art and the Reformation” Exhibition | |
81 FR 66093 - Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
81 FR 66094 - Temporary Emergency Committee of the Board of Governors; Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 66059 - Six-Month Extension of Temporary Protected Status Benefits for Orderly Transition Before Termination of Liberia's Designation for Temporary Protected Status | |
81 FR 66054 - Six-Month Extension of Temporary Protected Status Benefits for Orderly Transition Before Termination of Sierra Leone's Designation for Temporary Protected Status | |
81 FR 66064 - Six-Month Extension of Temporary Protected Status Benefits for Orderly Transition Before Termination of Guinea's Designation for Temporary Protected Status | |
81 FR 65995 - Forest Resource Coordinating Committee | |
81 FR 66077 - Indian Gaming; Extension of Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compact (Rosebud Sioux Tribe and the State of South Dakota) | |
81 FR 65888 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Sacramento River, Sacramento, CA | |
81 FR 66005 - Application to Export Electric Energy; BioUrja Power, LLC | |
81 FR 66131 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8734 | |
81 FR 66051 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; FEMA Preparedness Grants: Homeland Security Grant Program (HSGP) | |
81 FR 66133 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66128 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 65917 - Fluopicolide; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 66132 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8873 | |
81 FR 66118 - Review of the Designation as a Foreign Terrorist Organization of al-Aqsa Martyrs' Brigade (and Other Aliases) | |
81 FR 66124 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Revenue Procedure 2012-25 | |
81 FR 66118 - Executive Order 13224 Designation of Jund al-Aqsa, aka JAA, aka Jund Al-Aqsa, aka The Soldiers of Aqsa, aka Soldiers of al-Aqsa, aka Sarayat al-Quds as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 66069 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Notice of Proposed Information Collection for Public Comment; Electronic Line of Credit Control System (eLOCCS) System Access | |
81 FR 66121 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 1120-ND | |
81 FR 66071 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Veterans Home Rehabilitation Program | |
81 FR 66016 - Receipt of Information Under the Toxic Substances Control Act | |
81 FR 66013 - Notice of Approval of Clean Air Act Permit for Navajo Generating Station | |
81 FR 66123 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 6497 | |
81 FR 66128 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
81 FR 66130 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
81 FR 66015 - Clean Air Act Advisory Committee (CAAAC): Request for Nominations | |
81 FR 66126 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
81 FR 66050 - The U.S. Customs and Border Protection User Fee Advisory Committee (UFAC) | |
81 FR 66008 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 66009 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications; Public Notice | |
81 FR 66010 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 66007 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 66009 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 66031 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66127 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Certain Retirement Plans Under Sections 401(k) and 401(m) and Guidance on Cash or Deferred Arrangements | |
81 FR 66135 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8908 | |
81 FR 66125 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8612 | |
81 FR 66014 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal of an Existing Collection (EPA ICR No. 1632.05 and OMB Control No. 2070-0133); Comment Request | |
81 FR 66012 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal of an Existing Collection (EPA ICR No. 2330.03 and OMB Control No. 2070-0179; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66125 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Notice 2006-109. | |
81 FR 66016 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Renewal of an Existing Collection (EPA ICR No. 1249.11 and OMB Control No. 2070-0074); Comment Request | |
81 FR 66133 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for [REG-106542-98] T.D. 9032 | |
81 FR 65987 - Class I Railroad Accounting and Financial Reporting-Transportation of Hazardous Materials | |
81 FR 66048 - National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke | |
81 FR 66041 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66045 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66041 - National Institute of Allergy And Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66042 - National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66131 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 6197 | |
81 FR 66045 - National Human Genome Research Institute; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66046 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 66047 - Prospective Grant of Exclusive Patent License: Development of Adeno-Associated Virus-Based Vectors for the Treatment of Menkes Disease and Related Copper Transport Disorders | |
81 FR 66132 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Revenue Procedure | |
81 FR 66123 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
81 FR 66135 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Regulation Project | |
81 FR 66124 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Revenue Procedure 98-19 | |
81 FR 66127 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 8868 | |
81 FR 66134 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Form 720-CS | |
81 FR 66000 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 66122 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Notice 2006-107 | |
81 FR 66129 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request for Revenue Procedure 2011-34, Rules for Certain Rental Real Estate Activities | |
81 FR 66023 - Submission for OMB Review; Termination Settlement Proposal Forms-FAR (SF 1435 Through 1440) | |
81 FR 65889 - Safety Zone; Arkansas River, Little Rock, AR | |
81 FR 65874 - Repair Stations; Response to Public Comments | |
81 FR 66119 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of Renewed Approval of Information Collection: ATC Authorizations in Controlled Airspace Under Part 107 | |
81 FR 66119 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Requests for Comments; Clearance of Renewed Approval of Information Collection: Mitsubishi MU-2B Series Airplane Special Training, Experience, and Operating Procedures | |
81 FR 66114 - Department of State Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs: Request for Proposals for the Design, Development, Installation, Operation, and Final Disposition of a U.S. Pavilion at the Astana Expo 2017 | |
81 FR 66035 - Generic Drug User Fees; Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 66049 - National Boating Safety Advisory Council | |
81 FR 66136 - Proposed Information Collection (Customer Satisfaction Surveys); Activity: Comment Request | |
81 FR 66039 - A List of Biomarkers Used as Outcomes in Development of FDA-Approved New Molecular Entities and New Biological Therapeutics (October 2007 to December 2015); Establishment of a Public Docket; Correction | |
81 FR 66093 - New Postal Product | |
81 FR 65853 - Revision to Nonprocurement Suspension and Debarment Regulations | |
81 FR 66005 - Proposed Agency Information Collection | |
81 FR 65998 - Marine Mammals; File No. 18529 | |
81 FR 66004 - Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Paducah | |
81 FR 66040 - Supplement for Zika Response, a Single-Award Deviation From Competition Requirements for the National Center for Medical Home Implementation Cooperative Agreement | |
81 FR 66001 - Meeting of the Board of Advisors (BOA) to The Presidents of the Naval Postgraduate School (NPS) and the Naval War College (NWC) | |
81 FR 66024 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 65888 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Rancocas Creek, Burlington, NJ | |
81 FR 66003 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Ronald E. McNair Postbaccalaureate Achievement Program Annual Performance Report | |
81 FR 65875 - Army National Military Cemeteries | |
81 FR 66001 - Notice of Availability of Government-Owned Inventions; Available for Licensing | |
81 FR 66000 - Notice of Intent To Grant Exclusive Patent License to GoXtudio, Inc.; Tempe, AZ | |
81 FR 65996 - Deschutes Provincial Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 66077 - Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Advisory Council Notice of Public Meeting | |
81 FR 66077 - Notice of Public Meeting Tri-State Fuel Break Joint Subcommittee of the Boise and Southeast Oregon Resource Advisory Councils to the Boise and Vale Districts | |
81 FR 66022 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 65997 - New England Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 66026 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 66028 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 66030 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 66120 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to Executive Order 13224 | |
81 FR 66121 - Sanctions Actions Pursuant to Executive Order 13224 | |
81 FR 65998 - Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 66022 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66053 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Immigrant Petition by Alien Entrepreneur, Form I-526; Revision of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 66091 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Domestic Agricultural In-Season Wage Report | |
81 FR 66091 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Demonstration and Evaluation of Community College Interventions for Youth and Young Adults With Disabilities | |
81 FR 66021 - Notice of Termination; 10370 First Commercial Bank of Tampa Bay, Tampa, Florida | |
81 FR 65995 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66034 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 66029 - Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection and Control Advisory Committee (BCCEDCAC): Notice of Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 66029 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
81 FR 66030 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review | |
81 FR 66029 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel: Notice of Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 66029 - Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices | |
81 FR 66026 - Request for Nominations of Candidates To Serve on the Advisory Council for the Elimination of Tuberculosis (ACET) | |
81 FR 66004 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; IES Research Training Program Surveys | |
81 FR 66020 - Federal Advisory Committee Act; Disability Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 66048 - Prospective Grant of Start-Up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License: Development of Autologous Tumor-reactive T Cells Isolated From Peripheral Blood for the Treatment of Metastatic Follicular Thyroid Cancer and Metastatic Soft Tissue Sarcomas | |
81 FR 66111 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; NYSE MKT LLC; Order Approving Proposed Rule Changes To Provide for the Rejection of Certain Electronic Complex Orders | |
81 FR 66095 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 to Proposed Rule Change Amending the Co-Location Services Offered by the Exchange To Add Certain Access and Connectivity Fees | |
81 FR 66113 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC; Order Granting Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, To Add Nasdaq Rule 7046 (Nasdaq Trading Insights) | |
81 FR 66105 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change Relating to SPX Combo Orders | |
81 FR 66109 - Order Granting Limited Exemptions From Exchange Act Rule 10b-17 and Rules 101 and 102 of Regulation M to Amplify YieldShares Prime 5 Dividend ETF Pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 10b-17(b)(2) and Rules 101(d) and 102(e) of Regulation M | |
81 FR 66043 - National Institute of Mental Health; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 66045 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66042 - National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases; Notice of Meetings | |
81 FR 66045 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 66041 - National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute, Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 66042 - National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 66043 - Center for Scientific Review; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 66017 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 66084 - Investigations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66088 - Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66085 - Notice of Determinations Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66089 - Convergys Corporation; Including Workers Whose Wages Were Reported Through Stream International, Inc.; Jacksonville, Texas; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66090 - Carter Fuel Systems, a Subsidiary of Crowne Group LLC, Including On-Site Leased Workers From Aerotek, Crossfire Group, and Entegee Engineering, Logansport, Indiana; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66083 - Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66090 - Essar Steel Minnesota LLC, a Wholly Owned Subsidiary of Essar Global Fund Limited Including On-Site Leased Workers From Express Employment Professionals, Always There Staffing, Vesterheim Geoscience PLC, and Rod Johnson & Associates, Hibbing, Minnesota; Notice of Affirmative Determination Regarding Application for Reconsideration | |
81 FR 66085 - General Electric Company, GE Transportation Division, Including Workers Whose Wages Were Reported Through TAD PGS Inc. Including On-Site Leased Workers From Adecco USA, TCS (TATA), Chemetall US Inc., AVI, Carehere, Climatech Inc., G4S Secure Solutions, OMH HealthEdge Holdings Inc., Phoenix Llc, Simmers Crane, AND Unitek Technical Services, 1503 West Main Street and 660 Barkeyville Road, Grove City, Pennsylvania; Amended Certification Regarding Eligibility To Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance | |
81 FR 66083 - Halliburton Energy Services, 2600 S. 2nd Street, Duncan, Oklahoma; Notice of Affirmative Determination Regarding Application for Reconsideration | |
81 FR 66006 - 4C Aquisition, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 66006 - Summit Farms Solar, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 66011 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 66008 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 66079 - Bulk Manufacturer of Controlled Substances Application: Cerilliant Corporation | |
81 FR 66076 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Family Options Study: Long-Term Tracking | |
81 FR 66081 - Importer of Controlled Substances Application: Catalent CTS, LLC | |
81 FR 66052 - Critical Infrastructure Partnership Advisory Council | |
81 FR 66075 - Notice of Web Availability: Memorandum of Understanding Regarding U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Compliance With the National Environmental Policy Act and Related Laws and Authorities | |
81 FR 66000 - Meeting of the Board of Visitors of Marine Corps University | |
81 FR 66094 - Agency Forms Submitted for OMB Review, Request for Comments | |
81 FR 66082 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection, Comments Requested; Extension of a Currently Approved Collection; Cargo Theft Incident Report | |
81 FR 66078 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Application for an Amended Federal Firearms License (ATF F 5300.38) | |
81 FR 66073 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Recordkeeping for HUD's Continuum of Care Program | |
81 FR 66072 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: FHA-Insured Mortgage Loan Servicing of Payments, Prepayments, Terminations, Assumptions and Transfers | |
81 FR 66070 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Family Report, Moving to Work Family Report | |
81 FR 66073 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Financial Statement of Corporate Application for Cooperative Housing Mortgage | |
81 FR 65999 - Takes of Marine Mammals Incidental to Specified Activities; U.S. Navy Training and Testing Activities in the Mariana Islands Training and Testing Study Area and the Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing Study Area | |
81 FR 66013 - Environmental Impact Statements; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 65897 - Approval of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Missouri State Implementation Plan for the 2008 Lead Standard | |
81 FR 65984 - Service Rules Governing Narrowband Operations in the 769-775/799-805 MHz Bands | |
81 FR 65924 - Chemical Data Reporting; 2016 Submission Period Extension | |
81 FR 65983 - Reporting for Qualified Tuition and Related Expenses; Education Tax Credits; Correction | |
81 FR 65891 - Sale and Disposal of National Forest System Timber; Forest Products for Traditional and Cultural Purposes | |
81 FR 66138 - Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Mental Disorders | |
81 FR 65988 - Atlantic Highly Migratory Species; Individual Bluefin Quota Program; Inseason Transfers | |
81 FR 65899 - Air Plan Approval; Georgia; Prong 4-2008 Ozone, 2010 NO2 | |
81 FR 65901 - Treatment of Indian Tribes in a Similar Manner as States for Purposes of Section 303(d) of the Clean Water Act | |
81 FR 65948 - Implementation of the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010, Section 105, Relay Services for Deaf-Blind Individuals | |
81 FR 65997 - Warm Spring Habitat Enhancement EIS-Helena-Lewis and Clark National Forest, Jefferson County, Montana | |
81 FR 65860 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 65926 - Assessment and Collection of Regulatory Fees for Fiscal Year 2016 | |
81 FR 65872 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 65857 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 65980 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 65864 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes |
Food and Nutrition Service
Forest Service
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Army Department
Navy Department
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
National Institutes of Health
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Indian Affairs Bureau
Land Management Bureau
Reclamation Bureau
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Drug Enforcement Administration
Employment and Training Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Foreign Assets Control Office
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Office of the Secretary, Interior.
Final rule.
This rule revises the U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI) nonprocurement suspension and debarment regulations in order to enhance transparency of the existing process and to clarify the Department's procedures for resolving nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions.
This final rule is effective September 26, 2016.
David M. Sims, Debarment Program Director, Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Office of the Secretary, telephone (202) 513-0689; fax (202) 513-7645; or email
On August 31, 2005, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued Guidance for Government-wide suspension and debarment (nonprocurement), codified in part 180 of title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations (70 FR 51862, August 31, 2005). The OMB Guidance required each agency to issue a brief rule that: (1) Adopted the guidance, giving it regulatory effect for that agency's activities; and (2) stated any agency-specific additions, clarifications, and exceptions to the Government-wide policies and procedures contained in the guidance. On June 18, 2007, DOI issued its regulation implementing the OMB Guidelines at 2 CFR part 1400 (72 FR 33383). Today's rule updates the DOI nonprocurement suspension and debarment regulation at Part 1400.
The original DOI implementing rule does not specify which DOI organizational component or official will conduct fact-finding proceedings for nonprocurement actions. This amended rule explains that the DOI Debarment Program Director is the official who ordinarily conducts fact-finding proceedings, while permitting the Suspending and Debarring Official to refer the case to another component or office for a fact-finding proceeding. This rule does not change the circumstances under which fact-finding proceedings are available to respondents, nor the criteria and standards that apply in fact-finding proceedings. In addition, this rule clarifies that the nonprocurement suspension and debarment case procedures used by DOI are identical to those DOI uses for the procurement suspension and debarment actions pursuant to the Federal Acquisition Regulation at 48 CFR subpart 9.4. Specifically, this rule sets forth the nonprocurement suspension and debarment action practices and procedures used to find facts in actions where the Suspending and Debarring Official determines that there is a genuine dispute over facts material to the proposed debarment. This rule addresses how persons suspended or proposed for debarment may seek to resolve an action. This rule promotes transparency of DOI internal procedures for resolving suspension and debarment actions.
The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) requires agencies to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking in the
This amended rule clarifies suspension and debarment findings; it does not alter the rights or interests of respondents in such proceedings. This rule also identifies existing suspension and debarment program roles and processes. Finally, this rule adds language that recognizes prior changes to, or adoption of, online Federal databases used to support award eligibility decisions. Accordingly, this rule is a rule of agency procedure, exempt from the notice and comment requirements of the APA.
The APA also generally requires a 30-day delay in the effective date of final rules after the date of their publication in the
There is good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this rule, because the delay is unnecessary and contrary to the public interest. As noted above, this rule is procedural and informational, and does not affect the rights or interests of respondents in nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions for which fact-finding proceedings are available. Moreover, this rule clarifies that the procedures to resolve nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions are the same as the procedures DOI uses to resolve procurement suspension and debarment actions. In so doing, this rule will eliminate potential confusion. Thus, delaying its effective date for 30 days is unnecessary and contrary to the public interest.
Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will review all significant rules. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this rule is not significant.
E.O. 13563 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866, calling for improvements in the nation's regulatory system to promote predictability, to reduce uncertainty, and to use the best, most innovative, and least burdensome tools for achieving regulatory ends. E.O. 13563 directs agencies to consider regulatory approaches that reduce burdens and maintain flexibility and freedom of choice for the public, where these approaches are relevant, feasible, and consistent with regulatory objectives.
Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act [SBREFA] of 1996) (5 U.S.C. 601
This rule will not have a significant economic effect on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601,
This rule is not a major rule under the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (5 U.S.C. 804(2)). This rule:
1. Does not have an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more. This rule identifies program roles and clarifies that the DOI fact-finding process for nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions is the same as DOI's fact-finding process for procurement suspension and debarment actions. This rule is a technical clarification that does not alter existing procedures for resolving nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions.
2. Will not cause a major increase in costs or prices for consumers, individual industries, Federal, State, or local government agencies, or geographic regions. As explained above, this rule is a technical rule issued to clarify that DOI's procedures for resolving nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions are identical to DOI's current procedures. This rule impacts only those persons suspended or proposed for debarment.
3. Does not have significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of U.S.-based enterprises to compete with foreign-based enterprises. This rule clarifies DOI's internal practices and procedures which furthers transparency.
This rule does not impose an unfunded mandate on State, local, or tribal governments or the private sector of more than $100 million per year. This rule does not have a significant or unique effect on State, local, or tribal governments, or the private sector. This rule does not impose requirements on State, local, or tribal governments. This rule clarifies that the DOI fact-finding process for nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions is the same as DOI's fact-finding process for procurement suspension and debarment actions. This rule impacts only those persons suspended or proposed for debarment. A statement containing the information required by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1531,
Under the criteria in section 2 of E.O. 12630, this rule does not have significant takings implications. This rule is a technical rule revision that clarifies that the DOI fact-finding process for nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions is the same as DOI's fact-finding process for procurement suspension and debarment actions. This rule impacts only those persons suspended or proposed for debarment. This rule promotes process transparency of DOI internal suspension and debarment action resolution procedures. A takings implication assessment is not required.
Under the criteria in section 1 of E.O. 13132, this rule does not have sufficient Federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a Federalism summary impact statement. This rule is a technical rule revision that clarifies that the DOI fact-finding process for nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions is the same as DOI's fact-finding process for procurement suspension and debarment actions. This rule impacts only those persons suspended or proposed for debarment. A Federalism summary impact statement is not required.
This rule complies with the requirements of E.O. 12988. Specifically, this rule:
1. Meets the criteria of section 3(a) requiring that all regulations be reviewed to eliminate errors and ambiguity and be written to minimize litigation; and
2. Meets the criteria of section 3(b)(2) requiring that all regulations be written in clear language and contain clear legal standards.
Under the criteria in E.O. 13175, we have evaluated this rule and determined that it has no substantial direct effect on federally recognized Indian tribes. This rule is a technical rule revision that clarifies that the DOI fact-finding process for nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions is the same as DOI's fact-finding process for procurement suspension and debarment actions. This rule impacts only those persons suspended or proposed for debarment.
This rule does not contain information collection requirements, and a submission under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501,
This rule does not constitute a major Federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4321
This rule is not a significant energy action under the definition in E.O. 13211. A Statement of Energy Effects is not required.
We are required by section 1(b)(12) of E.O. 12866 and section 3(b)(1)(B) of E.O. 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:
1. Be logically organized;
2. Use the active voice to address readers directly;
3. Use common, everyday words and clear language rather than jargon;
4. Be divided into short sections and sentences; and
5. Use lists and tables wherever possible.
If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in the
Administrative practice and procedure, Debarment, Grant programs, Government contracts, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Suspension.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we are amending part 1400, chapter XIV of subtitle B, title 2 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
Section 2455, Pub. L. 103-355, 108 Stat. 3327 (31 U.S.C. 6101 note); 5 U.S.C. 301; E.O. 12549 (3 CFR, 1986 Comp., p. 189); and E.O. 12689 (3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 235).
This part provides procedures for the Department of the Interior nonprocurement suspension and debarment actions.
The Office of Acquisition and Property Management (PAM) Debarment Program personnel enter information about persons suspended or debarred by DOI into the GSA Web-based System for Award Management (SAM) within 3 working days of the effective date of the action.
(a) Federal officials, DOI award officials, employees, or other sources will forward information indicating the potential existence of a cause for suspension or debarment, as listed in 2 CFR 180.700 and 180.800, to:
(1) The DOI Office of Inspector General Administrative Remedies Division (OIG ARD); or
(2) The Suspending and Debarring Official.
(b) If forwarded to the OIG ARD, that office will conduct a review to determine if a recommendation for administrative action is warranted. If warranted, the OIG ARD will prepare and submit to the Suspending and Debarring Official an Action Referral Memorandum (ARM) with supporting documentation for the administrative record.
(c) OIG ARD will also identify potential matters for case development and conduct a review to determine if a recommendation for administrative action is warranted. If warranted, the OIG ARD will prepare and submit to the Suspending and Debarring Official an ARM with supporting documentation for the administrative record.
(d) The Suspending and Debarring Official will review the ARM to determine the adequacy of evidence to support and initiate:
(1) A suspension by taking the actions listed in 2 CFR 180.615 and 180.715; or
(2) A debarment by taking the actions listed in 2 CFR 180.615 and 2 CFR 180.805; and
(3) Notification of the respondent on how the respondent may contest the action.
Under 2 CFR 180.635, the Suspending and Debarring Official may resolve a suspension or debarment action through an administrative agreement if it is in the best interest of the Government at any stage of proceedings, where the respondent agrees to appropriate terms. The specific effect of administrative agreements that incorporate terms regarding award eligibility will vary with the terms of the agreements. Where the Suspending and Debarring Official enters into an administrative agreement, PAM will notify the award officials by:
(a) Entering any appropriate information regarding an exclusion or the termination of an exclusion into the SAM; and
(b) Entering the agreement into the Federal Awardee Performance Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) or its successor system.
(a) In the event a respondent does not contest the suspension in writing within the time period provided at 2 CFR 180.715 through 180.725, the suspension will remain in place without further proceedings.
(b) Where a suspension is contested, the Suspending and Debarring Official follows the provisions at 2 CFR 180.730
(c) The contested suspension proceeding will include an oral Presentation of Matters in Opposition (PMIO), where one is requested by a respondent. The PMIO is conducted in an informal business meeting format and electronically recorded for inclusion in the administrative record.
(d) Where fact-finding occurs as part of the suspension proceeding, after receiving the findings of fact and the hearing record from the fact-finding official, the Suspending and Debarring Official completes suspension proceedings, including a PMIO if one has been requested and did not occur before the fact-finding proceeding. Following completion of suspension proceedings, the Suspending and Debarring Official issues a written decision under the provisions of 2 CFR 180.750 and 180.755.
(a) Fact-finding to resolve genuine disputes over facts material to the suspension occurs where the conditions listed in 2 CFR 180.735(b) are satisfied.
(b) The fact-finding official for DOI suspension proceedings is the DOI Debarment Program Director, unless the Suspending and Debarring Official designates another DOI official to serve as the fact-finding official.
(a) The fact-finding proceeding is conducted in accordance with PAM's suspension and debarment program fact-finding procedures, a copy of which is provided to the respondent.
(b) The fact-finding proceeding is undertaken in accordance with 2 CFR 180.745.
(1) The reporters' fees and other direct costs associated with the fact-finding proceeding are borne by the bureau(s) or office(s) initiating the suspension action, except in the case of actions initiated by the OIG ARD.
(2) For actions initiated by the OIG ARD, the costs are borne by bureau(s) and/or office(s) out of which the matter arose.
(3) A transcribed record transcript of the fact-finding proceedings is available to the respondent as provided at 2 CFR 180.745(b).
(c) The fact-finding official provides findings of fact and the hearing record to the Suspending and Debarring Official. The fact-finding official files the original copy of the transcribed record of the fact-finding proceedings transcript with the administrative record.
A respondent may seek administrative reconsideration of the Suspending and Debarring Official's decision by following the procedures in this section.
(a) Within 30 days of receiving the decision, the respondent may ask the Suspending and Debarring Official to reconsider the decision for clear and material errors of fact or law that would change the outcome of the matter. The respondent bears the burden of demonstrating the existence of the asserted clear and material errors of fact or law.
(b) A respondent's request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the Suspending and Debarring Official and include:
(1) The specific findings of fact and conclusions of law believed to be in error; and
(2) The reasons or legal basis for the respondent's position.
(c) The Suspending and Debarring Official may, in the exercise of discretion, stay the suspension pending reconsideration. The Suspending and Debarring Official will:
(1) Notify the respondent in writing of the decision on whether to reconsider the decision; and
(2) If reconsideration occurs, notify the respondent in writing of the results of the reconsideration.
(a) In the event a respondent does not contest the proposed debarment in writing within the time period provided at 2 CFR 180.815 through 180.825, the debarment as proposed in the notice will be imposed without further proceedings.
(b) Where a proposed debarment is contested, the Suspending and Debarring Official will follow the provisions at 2 CFR 180.830 through 180.870 in reaching a decision on whether to impose a period of debarment.
(c) The administrative record will include an oral PMIO, in those actions where the respondent requests one. The PMIO is conducted in an informal business meeting format and electronically recorded for the record.
(d) Where fact-finding occurs as part of the proposed debarment proceeding, after receiving the findings of fact and the hearing record from the fact-finding official, the Suspending and Debarring Official completes debarment proceedings, including a PMIO if one has been requested and did not occur before the fact-finding proceeding. Following completion of proposed debarment proceedings, the Suspending and Debarring Official issues a written decision under the provisions of 2 CFR 180.870.
Fact-finding to resolve genuine disputes over facts material to the proposed debarment occurs where the conditions at 2 CFR 180.830(b) are satisfied.
(a) The fact-finding proceeding is conducted in accordance with PAM's suspension and debarment program fact-finding procedures, a copy of which is provided to the respondent.
(b) The fact-finding official for DOI debarment proceedings is the DOI Debarment Program Director, unless the Suspending and Debarring Official designates another DOI official to serve as the fact-finding official.
(c) The fact-finding proceeding is undertaken in accordance with 2 CFR 180.840.
(1) The reporters' fees and other direct costs associated with the fact-finding proceeding are borne by the bureau(s) or office(s) initiating the debarment action, except in the case of actions initiated by the OIG.
(2) For actions initiated by the OIG, the costs are borne by the bureau(s) and/or office(s) out of which the matter arose.
(3) A transcribed record of the fact-finding proceedings is available to the respondent as provided at 2 CFR 180.840(b).
(d) The fact-finding official provides written findings of fact and the hearing record to the Suspending and Debarring Official. The fact-finding official files the original copy of the transcribed record of the fact-finding proceedings with the administrative record.
A respondent may request the Suspending and Debarring Official to review a decision under this part as follows:
(a) Within 30 days of receiving the decision, the respondent may ask the Suspending and Debarring Official to
(b) The respondent's request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the Suspending and Debarring Official and include:
(1) The specific finding(s) of fact and conclusion(s) of law the respondent believes are in error; and
(2) The reasons or legal bases for the respondent's position.
(c) The Suspending and Debarring Official may in the exercise of discretion stay the debarment pending reconsideration. The Suspending and Debarring Official will review the request for reconsideration and:
(1) Notify the respondent in writing whether the Suspending and Debarring Official will reconsider the decision; and
(2) If reconsideration occurs, notify the respondent in writing of the results of the reconsideration.
In addition to a petition for reconsideration based on a clear error of material fact or law, a respondent may, at any time following imposition of debarment, request the Suspending and Debarring Official to reduce or terminate the period of debarment based upon the factors under the provisions of 2 CFR 180.880.
The Debarment Program Director is the individual in PAM who advises the Suspending and Debarring Official on DOI suspension and debarment practices and procedures, manages the suspension and debarment process, and acts as the DOI suspension and debarment program fact-finding official.
The OIG ARD prepares and forwards suspension and/or debarment action referral memoranda to the Suspending and Debarring Official and may provide additional assistance, in the course of action proceedings.
The administrative record for DOI suspension and debarment actions consists of the initiating action referral memorandum and its attached documents; the action notice; contested action scheduling correspondence; written information, arguments and supporting documents submitted by a respondent in opposition to the action notice; written information, arguments and supporting documents submitted by the OIG ARD in response to information provided by a respondent; the electronic recording of the PMIO, where a PMIO is held as part of the proceeding; where fact-finding is conducted, the transcribed record of the fact-finding proceedings, and findings of fact; and the final written determination by the Suspending and Debarring Official on the action; or, alternatively, the administrative agreement endorsed by the respondent and the Suspending and Debarring Official that resolves an action.
Respondent means a person who is the subject of a DOI suspension or proposed debarment action.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report of uncommanded movement by a captain's seat during a landing rollout due to a failure in the seat horizontal actuator. This AD requires repetitive tests of the captain and first officer seat assemblies for proper operation, and corrective action if necessary. This AD also requires installation of new captain and first officer seat assemblies, which terminates the repetitive tests. We are issuing this AD to prevent a seat actuator clutch failure, which could result in a loss of seat locking and uncommanded motion of the captain's or first officer's seat; uncommanded seat movement could result in reduced controllability of the airplane.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of October 31, 2016.
For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Brandon Lucero, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6572; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
Boeing requested that we revise the NPRM to not specify the Service Bulletin issue number and date, or alternatively to include “or subsequent” when referencing Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014.
Boeing commented that the seat supplier is currently working on a related nuisance issue of intermittent electrical operation of the seat-powered adjustment system. Boeing stated that the resolution to this issue may result in changes to the part numbers of the actuators and seat assemblies, and revision to the service bulletin issue number and date.
We do not agree with the commenter's request to remove the issue number and date of the service information. We cannot allow use of “later-approved revisions” in an AD when referring to the service document. Doing so violates Office of the Federal Register (OFR) regulations for approval of materials “incorporated by reference,” as specified in 1 CFR 51.1(f). If for any reason the issue and date of the service bulletin should change, the FAA may consider issuing an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) to allow use of a later revision. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
Boeing requested that we remove the replacement seat part numbers to be installed as terminating action from this AD, and instead specify that seats be replaced with part numbers “as specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00.”
Boeing commented that the seat supplier is currently working on a related nuisance issue of intermittent electrical operation of the seat-powered adjustment system. The resolution to this issue may result in change to the part numbers of the actuators and seat assemblies.
We partially agree with the commenter's request. We have changed paragraph (h) of this AD to remove the part numbers of the actuators and seat assemblies from this AD and to include the part numbers specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00. However, we have included the revision level and date of the service information for the reasons noted in the previous comment response. The FAA may consider issuing an AMOC to allow use of a later revision of the service information.
United Airlines requested that the AD allow credit for prior accomplishment of Boeing and Ipeco service information.
We already provide credit in paragraph (f) of this AD for prior accomplishment of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014, if accomplished before the effective date of this AD. In addition, credit is not necessary for using the Ipeco service information referenced in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014, because this AD does not specifically require using Ipeco service information. No change to this AD is necessary.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014. This service information provides procedures for installation of new captain and first officer seat assemblies, a test of the captain and first officer seat assemblies, and corrective action if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 18 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary corrective actions that would be required based on the results of the operational tests. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 787-8 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 25, Equipment/furnishings.
This AD was prompted by a report of uncommanded movement by a captain's seat during a landing rollout due to a failure in the seat horizontal actuator. We are issuing this AD to prevent a seat actuator clutch failure, which could result in a loss of seat locking and uncommanded motion of the captain's or first officer's seat; uncommanded seat motion could result in reduced controllability of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 1,000 flight hours after the effective date of this AD, test the operation of the captain and first officer seat assemblies and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the operational test thereafter at intervals not to exceed 1,000 flight hours until the installation required by paragraph (h) of this AD is done.
Within 72 months after the effective date of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD. Installing the seat specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, as applicable, is terminating action for the repetitive operational tests required by paragraph (g) of this AD for that seat only.
(1) Install a new captain seat assembly, in accordance with paragraph 2.F., “Part 3: Terminating Action: Captain Seat Assembly Replacement,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014.
(2) Install a new first officer seat assembly, in accordance with paragraph 2.I., “Part 6: Terminating Action: First Officer Seat Assembly Replacement,” of the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
For more information about this AD, contact Brandon Lucero, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6572; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin B787-81205-SB250054-00, Issue 001, dated December 19, 2014.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For The Boeing Company service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2000-10-18 for certain Airbus Model A300 series airplanes; Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes); and Model A310 series airplanes. AD 2000-10-18 required repetitive inspections to detect cracks in the lower spar of the engine pylons between ribs 6 and 7, and repair if necessary. This new AD reduces the compliance times for the initial inspection and the repetitive intervals. This AD was prompted by the determination that the compliance times for the initial inspection and the repetitive intervals must be reduced to allow timely detection of cracks in the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the engine pylon's lower spar, and possible separation of the engine from the airplane.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of October 31, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Dan Rodina, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2125; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2000-10-18, Amendment 39-11742 (65 FR 34055, May 26, 2000) (“AD 2000-10-18”). AD 2000-10-18 applied to certain Airbus Model A300 series airplanes; Model A300 B4-600, B4-600R, F4-600R series airplanes, and Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes (collectively called Model A300-600 series airplanes); and Model A310 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent
Cracks were found between ribs 6 and 7 in the lower spar of engine pylons on A310, A300 and A300-600 aeroplanes. To prevent crack initiation, a first inspection programme of this area was rendered mandatory by DGAC [Direction Générale de l'Aviation Civile] France AD 93-228-154 (later revised, currently at Revision 3) [which corresponds to certain actions in FAA AD 2000-10-18] for A300 and A300-600 aeroplanes.
At a later date and due to new findings, a specific inspection programme for A310 aeroplanes was rendered mandatory by DGAC France AD 1999-239-287(B) [which corresponds to certain other actions in FAA AD 2000-10-18]. That [French] AD was later superseded by EASA AD 2008-0001, which introduced new thresholds and intervals in the frame of the A310 extended service goal (ESG) exercise.
Since DGAC France AD 1993-228-154(B)R3 and EASA AD 2008-0001 were issued, a fleet survey and updated Fatigue and Damage Tolerance analyses have been performed in order to substantiate the second ESG for A300-600, called ESG2 exercise. The results of these analyses have shown that the inspection threshold and interval must be reduced to allow timely detection of cracks in the engine pylon lower spar between ribs 6 and 7.
For the reasons described above, this new [EASA] AD retains the requirements of DGAC France AD 1993-228-154(B)R3 and EASA AD 2008-0001, which are superseded, and requires accomplishment of the [eddy current or liquid penetrant] inspections [for cracking] and, depending on findings, [related investigative and] corrective actions [repairs], within the new thresholds and intervals specified in Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) A300-54-0073 Revision 03 [dated October 11, 2012] or SB A310-54-2017 Revision 06 [dated October 3, 2012] or SB A300-54-6014 Revision 07 [dated September 5, 2012].
Related investigative actions include eddy current or liquid penetrant inspections for cracking of areas with removed protection. The unsafe condition is cracking in the lower spar of the engine pylons between ribs 6 and 7, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the engine pylon's lower spar, and possible separation of the engine from the airplane. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
United Parcel Service (UPS) requested that we remove Model A300 F4-622R airplanes from the proposed applicability. UPS stated that the NPRM would apply to all Model A300 airplanes except those that have Airbus Modification 10599 incorporated in production. UPS explained that Airbus Modification 10559 was embodied on airplane manufacturer serial number (MSN) 723 and all subsequent airplane serial numbers; and that the first Model A300 F4-622R airplane with this modification embodied was MSN 805.
We infer that UPS made a typographical error in citing the Airbus Modification number and intended to reference Airbus Modification 10149. We agree with the commenter's request to remove Model A300 F4-622R airplanes from the applicability. Airbus has verified that all Model A300 F4-622R airplanes are post-Airbus Modification 10149 and that operators do not need to accomplish the inspections specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012, on those airplanes. As specified in paragraph (c) of this AD, this AD does not affect airplanes on which Airbus Modification 10149 has been incorporated in production. We have removed Model A300 F4-622R airplanes from paragraph (c)(4) of this AD. This change has been coordinated with EASA.
UPS requested that we revise paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of the proposed AD, which identify inspections, corrective actions, and exceptions for both pre-repair and post-repair modification configurations. UPS stated that these paragraphs contain information in long, complex sentences with cross references to other paragraphs in the proposed AD. UPS explained that there is potential for confusion of the ruling requirements and opportunities for compliance errors. UPS provided suggestions for revising certain paragraphs of the proposed AD.
We do not agree with the commenter's request. We recognize that the actions specified in the service information and this AD are complex. However, this AD uses standard terminology that is legally enforceable. UPS's suggested revisions included doing all repairs using a method approved by the FAA, EASA, or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval. This suggestion would require operators to obtain a method of compliance, even though the service information does provide instructions for doing certain repairs. Also, UPS suggested we add regulatory material in a note, which is not legally enforceable. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
UPS requested that we include a paragraph to define how AFT is calculated. UPS explained that paragraph (g) of the proposed AD has repetitive inspection requirements that use an interval defined in the service information that is dependent on airplane AFT methodology, but that the NPRM does not define parameters for how and when the AFT is determined. UPS submitted proposed language for calculating AFTs.
In regards to the AFT definition, we have determined that, for the reasons stated by the commenter, this AD should define AFT calculations. We have added paragraph (j) to this AD accordingly and redesignated subsequent paragraphs.
UPS requested that we revise paragraph (k) of the proposed AD to specify that AMOCs approved previously for AD 2000-10-18 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
We agree with the commenter's request. We have revised paragraph (l) of this AD (referred to as paragraph (k) in the proposed AD) to specify that AMOCs approved previously for AD 2000-10-18 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
We reviewed the available data, including the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
Airbus has issued the following service bulletins.
• Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 03, dated October 11, 2012 (for Model A300 series airplanes).
• Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes).
• Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 06, dated October 3, 2012 (for Model A310 series airplanes).
This service information describes procedures for inspecting for cracking of the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7, and related investigative actions if cracking is found. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 156 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it would take about 6 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work hour. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $79,560, or $510 per product.
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this AD. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2000-10-18, Amendment 39-11742 (65 FR 34055, May 26, 2000) (“AD 2000-10-18”).
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(6) of this AD, certificated in any category, except airplanes on which Airbus Modification 10149 has been incorporated in production.
(1) Airbus Model A300 B2-1A, B2-1C, B2K-3C, B2-203, B4-2C, B4-103, and B4-203 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A300 B4-601, B4-603, B4-620, and B4-622 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A300 B4-605R and B4-622R airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A300 F4-605R airplanes.
(5) Airbus Model A300 C4-605R Variant F airplanes.
(6) Airbus Model A310-203, -204, -221, -222, -304, -322, -324, and -325 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 54, Nacelles/pylons.
This AD was prompted by the determination that the compliance times for the initial inspection and the repetitive intervals must be reduced to allow timely detection of cracks in the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking, which could result in reduced structural integrity of the engine pylon's lower spar, and possible separation of the engine from the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD: Do an eddy current or liquid penetrant inspection for cracking of the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7; and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (i)(3) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspection of the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7 thereafter at the applicable time and intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD until a repair or modification specified in the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable Airbus service bulletin identified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD is done.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 03, dated October 11, 2012 (for Model A300 series airplanes).
Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0080, Revision 02, dated July 9, 2002, is an additional source of guidance for accomplishing the modification specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 03, dated October 11, 2012.
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes).
Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6020, Revision 02, dated July 9, 2002, is an additional source of guidance for accomplishing the modification specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 06, dated October 3, 2012 (for Model A310 series airplanes).
Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2023,
For airplanes on which any repair or modification specified in the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable Airbus service bulletin identified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD is done: Except as provided by paragraphs (i)(1) and (i)(2) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD: Do an eddy current or liquid penetrant inspection for cracking of the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7; and do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (i)(3) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the inspection of the engine pylon's lower spar between ribs 6 and 7 thereafter at the applicable time and intervals specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD.
(1) Where a “Threshold” is specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, the “FC” and “FH” compliance times are total flight cycle and total flight hour compliance times, except that if a repair or service bulletin identified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the service bulletins specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD has been done, the “FC” and “FH” compliance times are flight cycle and flight hour compliance times since the identified repair or service bulletin was done.
(2) Except as provided by paragraphs (i)(2)(i) and (i)(2)(ii) of this AD: For the “Grace period” specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the service information specified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD, operators must comply with the actions specified in paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, as applicable, at the later of the applicable times in the “Threshold” and “Grace Period” times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of the applicable service information, except the language “for aircraft that have already exceeded or are close to exceed[ing] the threshold or scheduled interval” does not apply.
(i) Where Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 03, dated October 11, 2012; and Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 06, dated October 3, 2012; specify a compliance time “. . . after receipt of this Inspection Service Bulletin without exceeding the requirements of previous issue of this ISB,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(ii) Where Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012, specifies a compliance time “. . . after receipt of this Inspection Service Bulletin without exceeding the requirements of previous issue of this SB,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(3) If any crack is found during any inspection required by this AD and the applicable Airbus service bulletin specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD specifies to contact Airbus: Before further flight, repair the crack using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
For the purpose of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, the AFT must be established as specified in paragraphs (j)(1), (j)(2), and (j)(3) of this AD.
(1) For the initial inspection, the average flight time is the total accumulated flight hours, counted from take-off to touch-down, divided by the total accumulated flight cycles at the effective date of this AD.
(2) For the first repeated inspection interval, the average flight time is the total accumulated flight hours divided by the total accumulated flight cycles at the time of the inspection threshold.
(3) For all inspection intervals onwards, the average flight time is the flight hours divided by the flight cycles accumulated between the last two inspections.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using an applicable service bulletin specified in paragraphs (k)(1) through (k)(10) of this AD.
(1) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 1, dated March 28, 1994 (for Model A300 series airplanes), which was incorporated by reference in AD 96-11-05, Amendment 39-9630 (61 FR 26091, May 24, 1996) (“AD 96-11-05”).
(2) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 02, dated July 9, 2002 (for Model A300 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(3) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 1, dated March 28, 1994 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes), which was incorporated by reference in AD 96-11-05.
(4) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 03, dated June 4, 1998 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(5) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 04, dated March 9, 2002 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(6) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 05, dated September 1, 2011 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(7) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 06, dated May 24, 2012 (for Model A300-600 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(8) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 03, dated June 11, 1999 (for Model A310 series airplanes), which was incorporated by reference in AD 2000-10-18.
(9) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 04, dated July 9, 2002 (for Model A310 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(10) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 05, dated November 16, 2007 (for Model A310 series airplanes), which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(i) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office. The AMOC approval letter must specifically reference this AD.
(ii) AMOCs approved previously for AD 2000-10-18 are approved as AMOCs for the corresponding provisions of this AD.
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2013-0167, dated July 26, 2013, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (n)(3) and (n)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-0073, Revision 03, dated October 11, 2012.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A300-54-6014, Revision 07, dated September 5, 2012.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A310-54-2017, Revision 06, dated October 3, 2012.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus SAS, Airworthiness Office—EAW, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This AD was prompted by fuel system reviews conducted by the manufacturer. This AD requires installing an automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps, as applicable; installing a placard in the airplane flight deck if necessary; replacing the P5-2 fuel system module assembly; installing the “uncommanded ON” (UCO) protection system for the fuel boost pumps; revising the airplane flight manual (AFM) to advise the flight crew of certain operating restrictions for airplanes equipped with an automatic shutoff system; and revising the maintenance program by incorporating new airworthiness limitations for fuel tank systems to satisfy Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 88 requirements. We are issuing this AD to prevent operation of the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps with continuous low pressure, which could lead to friction sparks or overheating in the fuel pump inlet that could create a potential ignition source inside the center and auxiliary fuel tanks. These conditions, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of October 31, 2016.
For Boeing service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Serj Harutunian, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5254; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. The SNPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments
Phillippe Akot Azougo, ASLF, reported on a discussion with Boeing regarding the applicable airplane group for an airplane from which the airstair has been removed. Boeing indicated that if all of the support structure is not removed, the airplane is considered in the group with airstairs. Based on this comment, there is no need to change this final rule regarding this issue.
Aviation Partners Boeing stated that the installation of winglets per Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) ST01219SE does not affect the accomplishment of the manufacturer's service instructions.
We agree with the commenter that STC ST01219SE does not affect the accomplishment of the manufacturer's service instructions. Therefore, the installation of STC ST01219SE does not affect the ability to accomplish the actions required by this AD. We have not changed this AD in this regard.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the SNPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the SNPRM.
We reviewed the following service information:
The following describe procedures for replacing the P5-2 fuel system module assembly for Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 airplanes.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, dated August 2, 2010.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 1, dated May 13, 2011.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 2, dated October 25, 2012.
The following describe procedures for installing an automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary fuel tank boost pumps for Model 737-300, -400, and -500 airplanes.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, dated July 29, 2010.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 1, dated March 26, 2012.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 2, dated November 12, 2012.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 3, dated July 16, 2014.
The following describe procedures for installing a UCO protection system for the center and auxiliary fuel boost pumps for Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 airplanes.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, dated August 2, 2010.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 1, dated July 18, 2011.
• Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014.
The following describe procedures for installing an automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary fuel tank boost pumps for Model 737-100, -200, and -200C airplanes.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, dated August 2, 2010.
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012.
• Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014, contains, among other requirements, AWLs 28-AWL-21, 28-AWL-22, 28-AWL-24, and 28-AWL-25 for Model 737-100, -200, and -200C airplanes; and AWLs 28-AWL-20, 28-AWL-21, 28-AWL-23, and 28-AWL-24; for Model 737-300, -400, and -500 airplanes. These AWLs provide airworthiness limitation instructions for an operational check of the installed automatic shutoff system.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 499 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
Certain requirements of this AD terminate certain requirements of AD 2001-08-24, Amendment 39-12201 (66 FR 20733, April 25, 2001) (“AD 2001-08-24”).
This AD affects all The Boeing Company Model 737-100, -200, -200C, -300, -400, and -500 series airplanes; certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by fuel system reviews conducted by the manufacturer. We are issuing this AD to prevent operation of the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps with continuous low pressure, which could lead to friction sparks or overheating in the fuel pump inlet that could create a potential ignition source inside the center and auxiliary fuel tanks. These conditions, in combination with flammable fuel vapors, could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 36 months after the effective date of this AD, do the applicable actions specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD. If a placard has been previously installed on an airplane, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (i) of this AD, the placard may be removed from the flight deck of only that airplane after the automatic shutoff system has been installed, as specified in paragraph (g)(1), (g)(2), or (g)(3) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes in Groups 2 through 19, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012: Install the automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary fuel tank boost pumps, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012. For airplanes that do not have airstairs, accomplishment of the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, dated August 2, 2010, is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, provided markers are installed on the J2802 Box for “POS 1” and “POS 2” within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012.
(2) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes in Group 1, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012: Install the automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary fuel tank boost pumps, as applicable, using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (r) of this AD.
(3) For Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes in Groups 1 through 31, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 3, dated July 16, 2014: Install the automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary fuel tank boost pumps, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 3, dated July 16, 2014. For airplanes that do not have airstairs: Accomplishment of the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, dated July 29, 2010, is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, provided markers are installed on the J2802 Box for “POS 1” and “POS 2” within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, in accordance with Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 1, dated March 26, 2012; or Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 2, dated November 12, 2012.
Before or concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, as applicable. Accomplishment of the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, dated August 2, 2010; or Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 1, dated May 13, 2011; is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, provided that for any original P5-2 fuel system module P/N 69-37335-129 installed that has been reworked as specified in BAE Systems Service Bulletin 69-37335-28-04, Revision 2, dated February 10, 2010, the (P/N) marking is etched/scribed or labeled as P/N 69-37335-2129, within 90 days after the effective date of this AD.
(1) For airplanes in Group 2, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 2, dated October 25, 2012: Replace the P5-2 fuel system module assembly with a modified or new P5-2 fuel system module assembly having a new part number, in accordance with Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 2, dated October 25, 2012.
Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 2, dated October 25, 2012, refers to BAE Systems Service Bulletin 69-37335-28-04 as an additional source of guidance for modifying and updating the existing P5-2 fuel system module assembly part numbers.
(2) For airplanes in Group 1, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210,
Concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, install a placard adjacent to the pilot's primary flight display on all airplanes in the operator's fleet not equipped with an automatic shutoff system for the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps, as applicable. The placard must include the statement in figure 1 to paragraph (i) of this AD. Optionally, the placard may include alternative text or be installed in a different location, or an additional placard may be installed, if approved by an appropriate FAA principal operations inspector. Installing an automatic shutoff system on an airplane, in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (g) of this AD, terminates the placard installation required by this paragraph for only that airplane.
For airplanes without Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (j)(1) and (j)(2) of this AD.
(1) Revise Section 1 of the Limitations section of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM to include the statement in figure 2 to paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. This may be done by inserting a copy of this AD into the AFM. When a statement identical to that in figure 2 to paragraph (j)(1) of this AD has been included in the general revisions of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM, the general revisions may be inserted into the AFM, and the copy of this AD may be removed from the AFM.
(2) Revise Section 3 of the Normal Procedures section of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM to include the text specified in figure 3 to paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. This may be done by inserting a copy of this AD into the AFM. Alternative statements that meet the intent of the following requirements may be used if approved by an appropriate FAA principal operations inspector.
For airplanes with Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, do the actions specified in paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this AD.
(1) Revise Section 1 of the Limitations section of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM to include the text specified in figure 4 to paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. This may be done by inserting a copy of this AD into the AFM. When a statement identical to that in figure 4 to paragraph (k)(1) of this AD has been included in the general revisions of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM, the general revisions may be inserted into the AFM, and the copy of this AD may be removed from the AFM.
(2) Revise Section 3 of the Normal Procedures section of the applicable Boeing 737 AFM to include the text specified in figure 5 to paragraph (k)(2) of this AD. This may be done by inserting a copy of this AD into the AFM. Alternative statements that meet the intent of the following requirements may be used if approved by an appropriate FAA principal operations inspector.
Concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Revise the maintenance program by incorporating the AWLs specified in paragraphs (l)(1), (l)(2), (l)(3), and (l)(4) of this AD, as applicable. The initial compliance time for the actions specified in the applicable AWLs is within 1 year after accomplishment of the installation required by paragraph (g) of this AD, or within 1 year after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(1) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes without Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks installed: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-21 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations—Systems, of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(2) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes with Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks installed: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-21 and AWL No. 28-AWL-22 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations—Systems,” of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(3) For Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes without Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks installed: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-20 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations—Systems, of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(4) For Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes with Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks installed: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-20 and AWL No. 28-AWL-21 of
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, do the actions required by paragraph (m)(1) or (m)(2) of this AD, as applicable.
(1) For airplanes in Groups 2 through 13, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014: Install the UCO protection system for the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014. For airplanes with enlarged J2802 box assembly relay cutouts to fit the body of relays R3334, R3336, R3338, or R3340, with BACS12HN08-10 screws for the installation of the relays as specified in Boeing Service Bulletin Information Notice 737-28A1227 IN 05: Accomplishment of the actions specified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, dated August 2, 2010; or Revision 1, dated July 18, 2011; is acceptable for compliance with the requirements of this paragraph, provided markers are installed that identify the function of the switches installed on the J2802 box within 90 days after the effective date of this AD, in accordance with figure 1 or figure 5, as applicable, of Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014.
(2) For airplanes in Group 1, as identified in Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014: Install the UCO protection system for the center and auxiliary tank fuel boost pumps, as applicable, using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (r) of this AD.
Concurrently with accomplishment of the actions required by paragraph (m) of this AD, or within 30 days after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later: Revise the maintenance program by incorporating the AWLs specified in paragraphs (n)(1), (n)(2), (n)(3), and (n)(4) of this AD, as applicable. The initial compliance time for the actions specified in applicable AWLs is within 1 year after accomplishment of the installation required by paragraph (m) of this AD, or within 1 year after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs later.
(1) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes without Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-24 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations—Systems, of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(2) For Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes with Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-24 and AWL No. 28-AWL-25 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations, of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(3) For Model 737-300, -00, and -500 series airplanes without Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-23 of Section C., Airworthiness Limitations—Systems, of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(4) For Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes with Boeing auxiliary fuel tanks: Incorporate AWL No. 28-AWL-23 and AWL No. 28-AWL-24 of Section C, “Fuel Systems Airworthiness Limitations,” of Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
After accomplishment of the applicable actions specified in paragraphs (l) and (n) of this AD, no alternative inspections or inspection intervals may be used unless the inspections or inspection intervals are approved as an alternative method of compliance (AMOC) in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (r) of this AD.
Incorporating AWL No. 28-AWL-21 and AWL No. 28-AWL-22 for Model 737-100, -200, and -200C series airplanes; and AWL No. 28-AWL-20 and AWL No. 28-AWL-21 for Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes; in accordance with paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of AD 2008-10-09 R1, Amendment 39-16148 (74 FR 69264, December 31, 2009); is acceptable for compliance with the corresponding AWL incorporation required by paragraph (l) of this AD.
Accomplishment of the actions required by paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (l) of this AD, and paragraph (j) or (k) of this AD as applicable, is an acceptable method of compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of AD 2001-08-24.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (s)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Serj Harutunian, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5254; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For BAE Systems service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference, contact BAE Systems, Attention: Commercial Product Support, 600 Main Street, Room S18C, Johnson City, NY 13790-1806; phone: 607-770-3084; fax: 607-770-3015; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on October 31, 2016.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, dated August 2, 2010.
(ii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, dated July 29, 2010.
(iii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 1, dated March 26, 2012.
(iv) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, dated August 2, 2010.
(v) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 1, dated July 18, 2011.
(vi) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, dated August 2, 2010.
(vii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-28A1228, Revision 1, dated June 28, 2012.
(viii) Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 1, dated May 13, 2011.
(ix) Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1210, Revision 2, dated October 25, 2012.
(x) Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 2, dated November 12, 2012.
(xi) Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1216, Revision 3, dated July 16, 2014.
(xii) Boeing Service Bulletin 737-28A1227, Revision 2, dated September 23, 2014.
(xiii) Boeing 737-100/200/200C/300/400/500 Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-38278-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(4) For Boeing service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P. O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet
(5) You may view this referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes. This AD was prompted by several reports of chafing of the wire bundles inside the electrical conduit of the forward and aft boost pumps of the numbers 1 and 4 main fuel tanks due to high vibration. These wire bundles can chafe through the wire sleeving into the insulation, exposing the wire conductors. This AD requires replacing the wire bundles inside the electrical conduit of the forward and aft boost pumps of the numbers 1 and 4 main fuel tanks with new, improved wire bundles inserted into conduit liners. This AD also requires adding a revision to the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to include critical design configuration control limitations (CDCCLs) for the fuel boost pump wiring. We are issuing this AD to prevent chafing of the wire bundles and subsequent arcing between the wiring and the electrical conduit creating an ignition source in the fuel tanks, which could result in a fire and consequent fuel tank explosion.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of October 31, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tung Tran, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6505; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We issued a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes. The SNPRM published in the
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We have considered the comments received. The Air Line Pilots Association International, Boeing, and United Airlines supported the SNPRM.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the SNPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the SNPRM.
We reviewed the following service information:
• Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-28A2306, dated October 2, 2014. The service information describes procedures for replacing the wire bundles of the electrical conduit inside the electrical conduit of the forward and aft boost pumps of the numbers 1 and 4 main fuel tanks.
• Boeing 747-100/200/300/SP Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), Document D6-13747-CMR, Revision June 2014. Among other things, Document D6-13747-CMR describes CDCCL AWL No. 28-AWL-24 for the fuel boost pump wiring.
• Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), of Boeing 747-400 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document D621U400-9, Revision June 2014. Among other things, Section 9 describes CDCCL AWL No. 28-AWL-35 for the fuel boost pump wiring.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 176 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 31, 2016.
This AD affects AD 2011-15-03, Amendment 39-16750 (76 FR 41659, July 15, 2011). (“AD 2011-15-03”)
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-28A2306, dated October 2, 2014.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by several reports of chafing of the wire bundles inside the electrical conduit of the forward and aft boost pumps of the numbers 1 and 4 main fuel tanks due to high vibration. These wire bundles can chafe through the wire sleeving into the insulation, exposing the wire conductors. We are issuing this AD to prevent chafing of the wire bundles and subsequent arcing between the wiring and the electrical conduit creating an ignition source in the fuel tanks, which could result in a fire and consequent fuel tank explosion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD: Replace the wire bundles inside the electrical conduit of the forward and aft boost pumps of the numbers 1 and 4 main fuel tanks with new, improved wire bundles inserted into conduit liners, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-28A2306, dated October 2, 2014. Accomplishing the replacement required by this paragraph terminates the inspections required by paragraphs (g), (h), and (n) of AD 2011-15-03.
Within 180 days after the effective date of this AD, revise the maintenance or inspection program, as applicable, to incorporate critical design configuration control limitation (CDCCL) Airworthiness Limitation (AWL) No. 28-AWL-24, “Fuel Boost Pump Wires In Conduit Installation—In Fuel Tank,” of Sub-section C.1, “Fuel Tank Ignition Prevention,” of Section C., “Airworthiness Limitations—Systems,” of the Boeing 747-100/200/300/SP Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs) Document D6-13747-CMR, Revision June 2014; or CDCCL AWL No. 28-AWL-35, “Fuel Boost Pump Wires In Conduit Installation—In Fuel Tank,” of Sub-section B.1, “Fuel System Ignition Prevention,” of Section B, “Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs)—Systems,” of Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), of Boeing 747-400 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document D621U400-9, Revision June 2014; as applicable.
After accomplishing the revision required by paragraph (h) of this AD, no alternative actions (
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
For more information about this AD, contact Tung Tran, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion Branch, ANM-140S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6505; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-28A2306, dated October 2, 2014.
(ii) Boeing 747-100/200/300/SP Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs) Document D6-13747-CMR, Revision June 2014.
(iii) Section 9, Airworthiness Limitations (AWLs) and Certification Maintenance Requirements (CMRs), of Boeing 747-400 Maintenance Planning Data (MPD) Document D621U400-9, Revision June 2014.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; phone: 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax: 206-766-5680; Internet:
(4) You may view this referenced service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule; confirmation of effective date and response to public comments.
This action confirms the effective date and adopts as final the interim final rule published on July 27, 2016, and responds to the comments received on that interim final rule. The rule removed the requirement that a repair station with an airframe rating provide suitable permanent housing to enclose the largest type and model aircraft listed on its operations specifications. The FAA also revised its general housing and facilities regulation to provide that a repair station's housing for its facilities, equipment, materials, and personnel must be consistent not only with its ratings, but also with its limitations to those ratings. Finally, the FAA added an additional general purpose limited rating to cover maintenance work not covered by the existing 12 limited rating categories.
Effective September 26, 2016.
For information on where to obtain copies of rulemaking documents and other information related to this action, see “How To Obtain Additional Information” in the
For technical questions concerning this action, contact Susan Traugott Ludwig, Aircraft Maintenance Division, Repair Station Branch, AFS-340, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone (214) 587-8887; email
The FAA issued an interim final rule on July 15, 2016 (81 FR 49158) to revise its repair station rules to remove the one-size-fits-all requirement of § 145.103(b) and provide an additional limited rating category to cover work not addressed by the existing 12 categories. These actions will assist the repair station industry by eliminating the costly housing requirement that is not necessary in many cases.
The FAA received two comments from the Aeronautical Repair Station Association (ARSA) and Airbus. ARSA stated that it fully supported the agency's actions as the regulations were unclear and needed to be updated. ARSA noted that although the changed rule still does not distinguish between repair stations working on completed aircraft and those working on airframe components, the removal of specified housing for airframe ratings will certainly allow for performance-based compliance. ARSA also requested the FAA consider removing § 145.61(b) in its entirety. ARSA asserted that it seems
The FAA agrees with ARSA's comment that the removal of specified airframe rated housing requirements will allow for performance-based compliance. The FAA notes ARSA's suggestion to remove § 145.61(b) in its entirety and may consider it in a future rulemaking effort. Airbus requested clarification on the correct title for § 145.205, Maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations performed for certificate holders under parts 121, 125, and 135, and for foreign persons operating a U.S.-registered aircraft in common carriage under part 129. Airbus noted the word “performed” is spelled “per-formed” in the interim final rule and spelled “performed” in the electronic Code of Regulations (eCFR). Airbus asked which format was correct.
The FAA notes the title in the eCFR is correct.
After consideration of the comments submitted in response to the interim final rule, the FAA has determined that no further rulemaking action is necessary. Therefore, amendment No. 145-31 remains in effect.
An electronic copy of a rulemaking document my be obtained by using the Internet—
1. Search the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
2. Visit the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at
3. Access the Government Printing Office's Web page at
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request (identified by notice, amendment, or docket number of this rulemaking) to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of Rulemaking, ARM-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-9680.
Comments received may be viewed by going to
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996 requires FAA to comply with small entity requests for information or advice about compliance with statutes and regulations within its jurisdiction. A small entity with questions regarding this document, may contact its local FAA official, or the person listed under the
Accordingly, the interim rule published July 15, 2016 (81 FR 49158), is adopted as final without change.
Department of the Army, DoD.
Final rule.
The Department of the Army is publishing its regulation for the development, operation, maintenance, and administration of the Army National Cemeteries to reflect their statutory name change to the Army National Military Cemeteries and changes in the management structure, to adopt modifications suggested by the Department of the Army Inspector General and approved by the Secretary of the Army, and to implement changes in interment eligibility reflecting changes in law.
This rule is effective on October 26, 2016.
Mr. Robert Quackenbush, Army National Military Cemeteries, 703-614-7150.
a. This final rule modifies the Army's regulation governing Army National Military Cemeteries, which consist of Arlington National Cemetery and the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery, to reflect changes in the management structure of the Army National Military Cemeteries created by Army General Orders 2014-74 and 2014-75 and the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012, Public Law 112-81, section 591 (2011) (adding chapter 446 to title 10); to incorporate modifications to eligibility as enacted by Section 1 to Public Law 114-158, dated 20 May 2016 which amends 38 U.S.C. 2410; to adopt modifications suggested by the Department of the Army Inspector General as approved by the Secretary of the Army; to implement interment, inurnment, and memorialization eligibility restrictions, including those mandated by 10 U.S.C. 985 and 38 U.S.C. 2411; and to prohibit the reservation of gravesites as mandated by 38 U.S.C. 2410a.
b. The legal authority for this regulatory action is section 591 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2012, Public Law 112-81 (2011), which added chapter 446 to title 10. Chapter 446 requires the Secretary of the Army to prescribe regulations and policies as may be necessary to administer the Army National Military Cemeteries, and it codifies the role of the Executive Director as the individual responsible for exercising authority, direction, and control over all aspects of the Army National Military Cemeteries. Throughout part 553, the Army replaces references to the Superintendent of the Cemetery, the Adjutant General, and Commanding General, Military District of Washington, with “Executive Director” to reflect the current organizational structure, which was implemented through Army General Orders 2014-74 and 2014-75 and codified in the National Defense Authorization Act of 2012.
The proposed rule was published in the
Thirteen comments addressed the updated restrictions for operating bicycles within the cemetery. Arguments were made for opening the cemetery to bicycles for riders' convenience as a thruway between Joint Base Myer-Henderson Hall/Memorial Drive, as an environmentally friendly method for seeing the cemetery, as a more neighborly approach to surrounding Arlington residents, as a better method for visiting distant gravesites, and for the health benefits to be gained from riding bicycles in the cemetery. Several commenters argued that bicycles do not impact the decorum of the cemetery.
The Army disagrees with and rejects these comments for several reasons related to the nature of cemetery operations, decorum, security, and safety.
The cemetery is not intended to serve as a shortcut route for bicyclists commuting to and from other locations. Rather, as an operational cemetery conducting up to 30 funerals a day and hosting official visits from visiting dignitaries on its narrow roads, the primary purpose of these roads are to facilitate funeral processions, military units, official vehicles to include their escorts, and cemetery equipment and vehicles operating in the daily care of the cemetery.
Additionally, while the Army assumes that most riders bear no malice of intent to demonstrate disrespect or violate decorum or decency, bicyclists traversing the cemetery grounds, even at the posted speed limit, can and do impact the decorum of funeral processions and services, which can number up to 30 per day, as cyclists pass along or across these procession routes. These funeral processions include not just the families and mourners, but include caissons drawn by horses, military bands, and military escort elements all travelling at a walking pace. For these services, bus tour operators and vehicles are forced to stop because there is simply not enough room to pass. This ensures proper decorum. Likewise, visitors on foot typically stop and yield to the processions also as a sign of respect. Previous trial periods with bicyclists in the cemetery showed bicyclists did not typically stop for these processions. The cemetery does not have the requisite staff to monitor and enforce this behavior for bicyclists.
There are legitimate safety concerns with bicyclists mixing with pedestrians. Although they are moving under their own power, bicyclists move at a rate typically 10 times faster than most walking paces. Bicyclists passing the 4 million visitors walking along these roads or in open air tour buses pose risks to themselves, pedestrians, and bus passengers. Additionally, bicyclists riding in and around the cemetery are travelling at higher speeds than the funeral processions. Since there are no bike paths on the cemetery grounds, mixing bicyclists with these processions also constitutes a safety hazard.
The comment arguing for public convenience is not supported on its merits. The current route used in the cemetery is 1.2 miles from South Post Chapel to Hwy 110 at Memorial Drive. There is an equally convenient 1.3 mile route around the cemetery from the South Post Chapel along McNair Road, Marshall Road and out the Wright Gate to the bike path along Highway 110 which can bring a rider to the same point on Memorial Drive—a greater distance of only one-tenth of one mile. For those desiring to visit their loved one's grave by bicycle, the new rule still accommodates this ability with no substantive change from current policy. Guests desiring to visit a loved one's grave can still obtain a temporary pass at the Welcome Center just as they do now, and with that pass, ride their bicycles to and from the gravesite.
The Army also notes that tour buses and cars are not allowed free reign to enter the cemetery. For security purposes, they are restricted in where they can go within the cemetery. Moreover, for the same security reasons, they cannot enter without first obtaining a pass from the Welcome Center. With the changes in the new rule, the Army is simply imposing the same security restriction on bicyclists as they do on motorists and tour buses who desire to drive into the cemetery.
Commenters also expressed support for expanding bicycle use and for installing bike racks to accommodate cyclists. The Army notes that there are already bike racks at the Welcome Center for those coming to Arlington via bicycle. On most days there is ample space available on these bike racks.
Another commenter stated that the Army is incorrect in its claim that the National Environmental Protection Act (NEPA) does not apply because the proposed rule would completely ban the ongoing activity of bicycle transportation though the cemetery. The Army believes the commenter's facts are wrong. The rule does not completely ban bicyclists. In fact, it retains the current practice for those wishing to visit a gravesite on bicycle to obtain a pass at the Welcome Center in order to do so. The only substantive change is to not allow transit via the Meigs/Sherman/Schley Drives through the cemetery. However, the Army believes the alternate McNair/Marshall/Hwy 110 bike path route described above still allows the same bicyclists the means to reach Memorial Drive at a negligibly increased distance by bicycle. Therefore, the rule does not significantly alter ongoing activities. The Army determined that implementing the new rule does not individually or cumulatively have any significant environmental consequences. Consequently, the Army's proposed actions are categorically excluded recreational and law enforcement activities and do not require an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement under Army Regulation 200-2.
Another commenter raised the point that the Army should allow physical training runs through the cemetery which would allow time for reflection on those veterans interred in the cemetery while exercising. The commenter considered it an honor to conduct physical training in a VA National Cemetery where the commenter had been previously stationed. The Army does grant exceptions to military units from the Army staff and from Joint Base Myer-Henderson Hall conduct unit level physical training to support this type of reflection on a case-by-case basis. However, the training is always completed early in the morning before the Cemetery is open to visitors. Physical training during operating hours pose a decorum and safety issue. While the Army recognizes that being permitted to exercise at other cemeteries might be permissible and could provide an opportunity for reflection on the sacrifices made by those interred, exercise within the grounds during hours of operation while interments are being conducted does not reflect the decorum desired by the Army. Additionally, unlike most VA cemeteries, Arlington National Cemetery receives over 4 million tourists each year who visit the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier, the Kennedy family gravesites, the Arlington House administered by the National Park Service, and other notable sites. The
The final comment concerned the prohibition of firearms. The commenter argued that Arlington National Cemetery is more analogous to a park than an Army installation and lacks the substantive access control and large security forces typically found on Army installations. The commenter further argued that there is no need to protect sensitive facilities and personnel at the Cemetery. The Army disagrees with this comment. Arlington Cemetery does have a substantial security force, exercises access control and shares the same type of security concerns found with other military facilities. Additionally, the cemetery hosts U.S. distinguished visitors, foreign Heads of State, and other dignitaries for over 3000 wreath laying ceremonies each year at the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier. These funeral processions and official ceremonies require significantly greater security concerns than those found at typical parks cited by the commenter.
In addition to the comments provided by the public above, the final rule also includes three modifications from the draft rule released in the May-July public comment period. Two of the modifications were required to comply with Public Law 114-158, enacted on 20 May 2016 after the draft rule was released for public comment. This new law recently modified eligibility for inurnment at Arlington National Cemetery to include active duty designees as found in the GI Bill Improvement Act of 1977. The third modification was made by the cemetery staff to add clarity to eligibility for interment in the soon to be opened Tomb of Remembrance.
The two modifications required by Public Law were in § 553.1 Definitions, and § 553.13 Eligibility for inurnment in Arlington National Cemetery. The third modification to add clarity to eligibility for interment in the Tomb of Remembrance is captured in § 553.24, Subsequently recovered remains.
The Army has determined that the Regulatory Flexibility Act does not apply because the rule does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601-612.
The Army has determined that the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act does not apply because the rule does not include a mandate that may result in estimated costs to State, local, or tribal governments in the aggregate, or the private sector, of $100 million or more.
Neither an environmental analysis nor an environmental impact statement under the National Environmental Policy Act is required. The changes made to the prior regulation by this amendment reflect existing policies and does not significantly alter ongoing activities, nor does this amendment constitute a new use of the property.
The Army has determined that this rule does not impose reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
The Army has determined that E.O. 12630 does not apply because the rule does not impair private property rights.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
The Army has determined that according to the criteria defined in E.O. 13045, the requirements of that Order do not apply to this rule.
The Army has determined that, according to the criteria defined in E.O. 13132, the requirements of that Order do not apply to this rule because the rule will not have a substantial effect on the States, on the relationship between the Federal government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Armed forces, Armed forces reserves, Military personnel, Monuments and memorials, Veterans.
10 U.S.C. 985, 1128, 1481, 1482, 3013, 4721-4726; 24 U.S.C. 295a, 412; 38 U.S.C. 2402 note, 2409- 2411, 2413; 40 U.S.C. 9102.
As used in this part, the following terms have these meanings:
(1) This includes:
(i) Active Reserve component duty performed pursuant to title 10, United States Code.
(ii) Service as a cadet or midshipman currently on the rolls at the U.S. Military, U.S. Naval, U.S. Air Force, or U.S. Coast Guard Academies.
(iii) Active duty for operational support.
(iv) Persons whose service has been determined to be active duty service pursuant to section 401 of the GI Bill Improvement Act of 1977 (Pub. L. 95-202; 38 U.S.C. 106 note) as of 20 May 2016 and the remains of that person were not already formally interred or inurned as of 20 May 2016 or that person died on or after 20 May 2016.
(2) This does not include:
(i) Full-time duty performed under title 32, United States Code.
(ii) Active duty for training, initial entry training, annual training duty, or inactive-duty training for members of the Reserve components.
A tour of active duty for Reserve personnel authorized from military or Reserve personnel appropriations for work on Active component or Reserve component programs. The purpose of active duty for operational support is to provide the necessary skilled manpower assets to support existing or emerging requirements and may include training.
(1)
(i) Natural child of a primarily eligible person, born in wedlock;
(ii) Natural child of a female primarily eligible person, born out of wedlock;
(iii) Natural child of a male primarily eligible person, who was born out of wedlock and:
(A) Has been acknowledged in a writing signed by the male primarily eligible person;
(B) Has been judicially determined to be the male primarily eligible person's child;
(C) Whom the male primarily eligible person has been judicially ordered to support; or
(D) Has been otherwise proved, by evidence satisfactory to the Executive Director, to be the child of the male primarily eligible person
(iv) Adopted child of a primarily eligible person; or
(v) Stepchild who was part of the primarily eligible person's household at the time of death of the individual who is to be interred or inurned.
(2)
(i) Is unmarried;
(ii) Has no dependents; and
(iii) Is under the age of twenty-one years, or is under the age of twenty-three years and is taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
(3)
(i) Is unmarried;
(ii) Has no dependents; and
(iii) Is permanently and fully dependent on one or both of the child's parents because of a physical or mental disability incurred before attaining the age of twenty-one years or before the age of twenty-three years while taking a full-time course of instruction at an educational institution which the U.S. Department of Education acknowledges as an accredited educational institution.
(4)
(i) Is unmarried;
(ii) Has no dependents; and
(iii) Has attained the age of twenty-one years.
(1) The remains cannot be individually identified; or
(2) The person authorized to direct disposition of subsequently identified remains has authorized their interment with the other service members.
Group remains may contain incidental remains of civilians and foreign nationals.
(1) Duty prescribed for members of the Reserve components by the Secretary concerned under 37 U.S.C. 206 or any other provision of law.
(2) Special additional duties authorized for members of the Reserve components by an authority designated by the Secretary concerned and performed by them on a voluntary basis in connection with the prescribed training or maintenance activities of the units to which they are assigned.
(3) In the case of a member of the Army National Guard or Air National Guard of any State, duty (other than full-time duty) under 32 U.S.C. 316, 502, 503, 504 or 505 or the prior corresponding provisions of law.
(4) This term does not include:
(i) Work or study performed in connection with correspondence courses,
(ii) Attendance at an educational institution in an inactive status, or
(iii) Duty performed as a temporary member of the Coast Guard Reserve.
(i) Spouse, even if a minor;
(ii) Children;
(iii) Parents;
(iv) Siblings, to include half-blood and those acquired through adoption;
(v) Grandparents;
(vi) Other next of kin, in order of relationship to the decedent as determined by the laws of the decedent's state of domicile.
(2) Absent a court order or written document from the deceased, the precedence of next of kin with equal relationships to the decedent is governed by seniority (age), older having higher priority than younger. Equal relationship situations include those involving divorced parents of the decedent, children of the decedent, and siblings of the decedent.
(1)
(2)
(3)
This part specifies the authorities and assigns the responsibilities for the development, operation, maintenance, and administration of the Army National Military Cemeteries.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
The Executive Director may order the removal from, and bar the re-entry onto, Army National Military Cemeteries of any person who acts in violation of any law or regulation, including but not limited to demonstrations and disturbances as outlined in 38 U.S.C. 2413, and in this part. This authority may not be re-delegated.
(a) The Executive Director is responsible for establishing and maintaining cemetery layout plans, including plans setting forth sections with gravesites, memorial areas with markers, and columbaria with niches, and landscape planting plans.
(b) New sections or areas may be opened and prepared for interments or for installing memorial markers only with the approval of the Executive Director.
(a) In accordance with 24 U.S.C. 295a:
(1) No memorial may be erected and no remains may be entombed in the Arlington Memorial Amphitheater unless specifically authorized by Congress; and
(2) The character, design, or location of any memorial authorized by Congress for placement in the Amphitheater is subject to the approval of the Secretary of Defense or his or her designee.
(b) The Secretary of Defense or his or her designee will seek the advice of the Commission of Fine Arts in such matters, in accordance with 40 U.S.C. 9102.
(c) Tributes offered for those interred in the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier for placement in the Arlington Memorial Amphitheater display room are not memorials for purposes of this section.
(a) The installation of utilities in Army National Military Cemeteries, including but not limited to, telephone and fiber optic lines, electric lines, natural gas lines, water pipes, storm drains, and sanitary sewers, must be authorized by the Executive Director.
(b) Requests for licenses, permits, or easements to install water, gas, or sewer lines, or other utilities or equipment on or across an Army National Military Cemetery or an approach road in which the Government has a right-of-way, fee simple title, or other interest, must be sent to the Executive Director, who will process the request in accordance with Army policy. Requests must include a complete description of the type of license, permit, or easement desired and a map showing the location of the project.
(a) All eligible persons will be assigned gravesites or niches without discrimination as to race, color, sex, religion, age, or national origin and without preference to military grade or rank.
(b) The Army National Military Cemeteries will enforce a one-gravesite-per-family policy. Once the initial interment or inurnment is made in a gravesite or niche, each additional interment or inurnment of eligible persons must be made in the same gravesite or niche, except as noted in paragraph (f) of this section. This includes multiple primarily eligible persons if they are married to each other.
(c) In accordance with 38 U.S.C. 2410A(a)(2) the Secretary of the Army may waive the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section as the Secretary of the Army deems appropriate.
(d) A gravesite reservation will be honored if it meets the following requirements, unless it is cancelled by the Executive Director:
(1) The gravesite was properly reserved by law before January 1, 1962, and
(2) An eligible person was interred in the reserved gravesite prior to January 1, 2017.
(e) The Executive Director may cancel a gravesite reservation:
(1) Upon determination that a derivatively eligible spouse has remarried;
(2) Upon determination that the reservee's remains have been buried elsewhere or otherwise disposed of;
(3) Upon determination that the reservee desires to or will be interred in the same gravesite with the predeceased, and doing so is feasible; or
(4) Upon determination that the reservee would be 120 years of age and there is no record of correspondence with the reservee within the last two decades.
(f) In cases of reservations meeting the requirements of 38 U.S.C. 2410A note, where more than one gravesite was reserved (on the basis of the veteran's eligibility at the time the reservation was made) and no interment has yet been made in any of the sites, the one-gravesite-per-family policy will be enforced, unless waived by the Executive Director. Gravesite reservations will be honored only if the decedents meet the eligibility criteria for interment in Arlington National Cemetery that is in effect at the time of need, and the reserved gravesite is available.
(g) Where a primarily eligible person has been or will be interred as part of a group burial or has been or will be memorialized in a memorial area at Arlington National Cemetery, the Executive Director will assign a gravesite or niche for interment or inurnment of a derivatively eligible person.
(h) Gravesites or niches shall not be reserved or assigned prior to the time of need.
(i) The selection of gravesites and niches is the responsibility of the Executive Director. The selection of specific gravesites or niches by the family or other representatives of the deceased at any time is prohibited.
(a) The personal representative or primary next of kin is responsible for providing appropriate documentation to verify the decedent's eligibility for interment or inurnment.
(b) The personal representative or primary next of kin must certify in writing that the decedent is not prohibited from interment, inurnment, or memorialization under § 553.20 because he or she has committed or been convicted of a Federal or State capital crime or is a convicted Tier III sex offender as defined in 38 U.S.C. 2411.
(c) For service members who die on active duty, a statement of honorable service from a general court martial
(d) When applicable, the following documents are required:
(1) Death certificate;
(2) Proof of eligibility as required by paragraphs (e) through (g) of this section;
(3) Any additional documentation to establish the decedent's eligibility (
(4) Burial agreement;
(5) Notarized statement that the remains are unavailable for the reasons set forth in § 553.16; and
(6) A certificate of cremation or notarized statement attesting to the authenticity of the cremated human remains and that 100% of the cremated remains received from the crematorium are present. The Executive Director may, however, allow a portion of the cremated remains to be removed by the crematorium for the sole purpose of producing commemorative items.
(7) Any other document as required by the Executive Director.
(e) The following documents may be used to establish the eligibility of a primarily eligible person:
(1) DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty;
(2) WD AGO 53 or 53-55, Enlisted Record and Report of Separation Honorable Discharge;
(3) WD AGO 53-98, Military Record and Report of Separation Certificate of Service;
(4) NAVPERS-553, Notice of Separation from U.S. Naval Service;
(5) NAVMC 70-PD, Honorable Discharge, U.S. Marine Corps; or;
(6) DD Form 1300, Report of Casualty (required in the case of death of an active duty service member).
(f) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a subsequently remarried spouse must be accompanied by:
(1) A notarized statement from the new spouse of the subsequently remarried spouse agreeing to the interment or inurnment and relinquishing any claim for interment or inurnment in the same gravesite or niche.
(2) Notarized statement(s) from all of the children from the prior marriage agreeing to the interment or inurnment of their parents in the same gravesite or niche.
(g) In addition to the documents otherwise required by this section, a request for interment or inurnment of a permanently dependent child must be accompanied by:
(1) A notarized statement as to the marital status and degree of dependency of the decedent from an individual with direct knowledge; and
(2) A physician's statement regarding the nature and duration of the physical or mental disability; and
(3) A statement from someone with direct knowledge demonstrating the following factors:
(i) The deceased lived most of his or her adult life with one or both parents, one or both of whom are otherwise eligible for interment;
(ii) The decedent's children, siblings, or other family members, other than the eligible parent, waive any derivative claim to be interred at Arlington National Cemetery, in accordance with the Arlington National Cemetery Burial Agreement.
(h) Veterans or primary next of kin of deceased veterans may obtain copies of their military records by writing to the National Personnel Records Center, Attention: Military Personnel Records, 9700 Page Avenue St. Louis, Missouri 63132 or using their Web site. All others may request a record by completing and submitting Standard Form 180.
(i) The burden of proving eligibility lies with the party who requests the burial. The Executive Director will determine whether the submitted evidence is sufficient to support a finding of eligibility.
(a) Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.12 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.22 may be interred in Arlington National Cemetery. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.13 or are granted an exception to policy pursuant to § 553.22 may be inurned in Arlington National Cemetery. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.14 may be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Unmarked Area. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.15 may be interred in an Arlington National Cemetery group burial. Only those persons who meet the criteria of § 553.16 may be memorialized in Arlington National Cemetery.
(b) Derivative eligibility for interment or inurnment may be established only through a decedent's connection to a primarily eligible person and not to another derivatively eligible person.
(c) No veteran is eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in Arlington National Cemetery unless the veteran's last period of active duty ended with an honorable discharge. A general discharge under honorable conditions is not sufficient for interment, inurnment or memorialization in Arlington National Cemetery.
(d) For purposes of determining whether a service member has received an honorable discharge, final determinations regarding discharges made in accordance with procedures established by chapter 79 of title 10, United States Code, will be considered authoritative.
(e) The Secretary of the Army has the authority to act on requests for exceptions to the provisions of the interment, inurnment, and memorialization eligibility policies contained in this part. The Secretary of the Army may delegate this authority to the Executive Director on such terms deemed appropriate.
(f) Individuals who do not qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person, but who are granted an exception to policy to be interred or inurned pursuant to § 553.22 in a new gravesite or niche, will be treated as a primarily eligible person for purposes of this part.
(g) Notwithstanding any other section in this part, memorialization with an individual memorial marker, interment, or inurnment in the Army National Military Cemeteries is prohibited if there is a gravesite, niche, or individual memorial marker for the decedent in any other Government-operated cemetery or the Government has provided an individual grave marker, individual memorial marker or niche cover for placement in a private cemetery.
Only those who qualify as a primarily eligible person or a derivatively eligible person are eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery, unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.19-553.20, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge.
(a)
(1) Any service member who dies on active duty in the U.S. Armed Forces (except those service members serving on active duty for training only), if the General Courts Martial Convening Authority grants a certificate of honorable service.
(2) Any veteran retired from a Reserve component who served a period of active duty (other than for training), is carried on the official retired list, and is entitled to receive military retired pay.
(3) Any veteran retired from active military service and entitled to receive military retired pay.
(4) Any veteran who received an honorable discharge from the Armed Forces prior to October 1, 1949, who was discharged for a permanent physical disability, who served on active duty (other than for training), and who would have been eligible for retirement under the provisions of 10 U.S.C. 1201 had the statute been in effect on the date of separation.
(5) Any veteran awarded one of the following decorations:
(i) Medal of Honor;
(ii) Distinguished Service Cross, Air Force Cross, or Navy Cross;
(iii) Distinguished Service Medal;
(iv) Silver Star; or
(v) Purple Heart.
(6) Any veteran who served on active duty (other than active duty for training) and who held any of the following positions:
(i) President or Vice President of the United States;
(ii) Elected member of the U.S. Congress;
(iii) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States or Associate Justice of the Supreme Court of the United States;
(iv) A position listed, at the time the person held the position, in 5 U.S.C. 5312 or 5313 (Levels I and II of the Executive Schedule); or
(v) Chief of Mission of a Category 4, 5, or 5+ post if the Department of State classified that post as a Category 4, 5, or 5+ post during the person's tenure as Chief of Mission.
(7) Any former prisoner of war who, while a prisoner of war, served honorably in the active military service, and who died on or after November 30, 1993.
(b)
(1) The spouse of a primarily eligible person who is or will be interred in Arlington National Cemetery. A former spouse of a primarily eligible person is not eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery under this paragraph.
(2) The spouse of an active duty service member or an eligible veteran, who was:
(i) Lost or buried at sea, temporarily interred overseas due to action by the Government, or officially determined to be missing in action;
(ii) Buried in a U.S. military cemetery maintained by the American Battle Monuments Commission; or
(iii) Interred in Arlington National Cemetery as part of a group burial (the derivatively eligible spouse may not be buried in the group burial gravesite).
(3) The parents of a minor child or a permanently dependent adult child, whose remains were interred in Arlington National Cemetery based on the eligibility of a parent at the time of the child's death, unless eligibility of the non-service connected parent is lost through divorce from the primarily eligible parent.
(4) An honorably discharged veteran who does not qualify as a primarily eligible person, if the veteran will be buried in the same gravesite as an already interred primarily eligible person who is a close relative, where the interment meets the following conditions:
(i) The veteran is without minor or unmarried adult dependent children;
(ii) The veteran will not occupy space reserved for the spouse, a minor child, or a permanently dependent adult child;
(iii) All other close relatives of the primarily eligible person concur with the interment of the veteran with the primarily eligible person by signing a notarized statement;
(iv) The veteran's spouse waives any entitlement to interment in Arlington National Cemetery, where such entitlement might be based on the veteran's interment in Arlington National Cemetery. The Executive Director may set aside the spouse's waiver, provided space is available in the same gravesite, and all close relatives of the primarily eligible person concur;
(v) Any cost of moving, recasketing, or revaulting the remains will be paid from private funds; and
The following persons are eligible for inurnment in the Arlington National Cemetery Columbarium, unless otherwise prohibited as provided for in §§ 553.19-553.20, provided that the last period of active duty of the service member or veteran ended with an honorable discharge.
(a)
(1) Any person eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery, as provided for in § 553.12(a).
(2) Any veteran who served on active duty other than active duty for training.
(3) Any member of a Reserve component of the Armed Forces who dies while:
(i) On active duty for training or performing full-time duty under title 32, United States Code;
(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from such active duty for training or full-time duty;
(iii) On authorized inactive-duty training, including training performed as a member of the Army National Guard of the United States or the Air National Guard of the United States; or
(iv) Hospitalized or receiving treatment at the expense of the Government for an injury or disease incurred or contracted while on such active duty for training or full-time duty, traveling to or from such active duty for training or full-time duty, or on inactive-duty training.
(4) Any member of the Reserve Officers' Training Corps of the United States, Army, Navy, or Air Force, whose death occurs while:
(i) Attending an authorized training camp or cruise;
(ii) Performing authorized travel to or from that camp or cruise; or
(iii) Hospitalized or receiving treatment at the expense of the Government for injury or disease incurred or contracted while attending such camp or cruise or while traveling to or from such camp or cruise.
(5) Any citizen of the United States who, during any war in which the United States has been or may hereafter be engaged, served in the armed forces of any government allied with the United States during that war, whose last service ended honorably by death or otherwise, and who was a citizen of the United States at the time of entry into that service and at the time of death.
(6) Commissioned officers, United States Coast and Geodetic Survey (now National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration) who die during or subsequent to the service specified in the following categories and whose last service terminated honorably:
(i) Assignment to areas of immediate military hazard.
(ii) Served in the Philippine Islands on December 7, 1941.
(iii) Transferred to the Department of the Army or the Department of the Navy under certain statutes.
(7) Any commissioned officer of the United States Public Health Service who served on full-time duty on or after July 29, 1945, if the service falls within the meaning of active duty for training as defined in 38 U.S.C. 101(22) or inactive duty training as defined in 38 U.S.C. 101(23) and whose death resulted from a disease or injury incurred or
(8) Any Active Duty Designee as defined in this part.
(b)
(a) The cremated remains of any person eligible for interment in Arlington National Cemetery as described in § 553.12 may be interred in the designated Arlington National Cemetery Unmarked Area.
(b) Cremated remains must be interred in a biodegradable container or placed directly into the ground without a container. Cremated remains are not authorized to be scattered at this site or at any location within Arlington National Cemetery.
(c) There will be no headstone or marker for any person choosing this method of interment. A permanent register will be maintained by the Executive Director.
(d) Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, once a person is interred in the Unmarked Area, any derivatively eligible persons and spouses must be interred in this manner. This includes spouses who are also primarily eligible persons. No additional gravesite, niche, or memorial marker in a memorial area will be authorized.
(a) The Executive Director may authorize a group burial in Arlington National Cemetery whenever several people, at least one of whom is an active duty service member, die during a military-related activity and not all remains can be individually identified.
(b) Before authorizing a group burial that includes both United States and foreign decedents, the Executive Director will notify the Department of State and request that the Department of State notify the appropriate foreign embassy.
(a) With the authority granted by 38 U.S.C. 2409, a memorial marker may be placed in an Arlington National Cemetery memorial area to honor the memory of service members or veterans, who are eligible for interment under § 553.12(a) and:
(1) Who are missing in action;
(2) Whose remains have not been recovered or identified;
(3) Whose remains were buried at sea, whether by the member's or veteran's own choice or otherwise;
(4) Whose remains were donated to science; or
(5) Whose remains were cremated and the cremated remains were scattered without interment or inurnment of any portion of those remains.
(b) When the remains of a primarily eligible person are unavailable for one of the reasons listed in paragraph (a) of this section, and a derivatively eligible person who predeceased the primarily eligible person is already interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery, the primarily eligible person may be memorialized only on the existing headstone or on a replacement headstone, ordered with a new inscription. Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, a separate marker in a memorial area is not authorized.
(c) When a memorial marker for a primarily eligible person is already in place in a memorial area, and a derivatively eligible person is subsequently interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery, an inscription memorializing the primarily eligible person will be placed on the new headstone or niche cover. Consistent with the one-gravesite-per-family policy, the memorial marker will then be removed from the memorial area.
(a) A derivatively eligible person who predeceases the primarily eligible person may be interred or inurned in Arlington National Cemetery only if the primarily eligible person agrees in writing to be interred in the same gravesite or inurned in the same niche at his or her time of need and that his or her estate shall pay for all expenses related to disinterment or disinurnment of the predeceased person from Arlington National Cemetery if the primarily eligible person is not interred or inurned as agreed.
(b) If the primarily eligible person becomes ineligible for interment or inurnment in Arlington National Cemetery or the personal representative or primary next of kin decides that the primarily eligible person will be interred or inurned elsewhere, the remains of any predeceased person may be removed from Arlington National Cemetery at no cost to the Government.
Only the residents of the Armed Forces Retirement Home are eligible for interment in the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery. Resident eligibility criteria for the Armed Forces Retirement Home is provided for at 24 U.S.C. 412.
The following persons are not eligible for interment, inurnment, or memorialization in an Army National Military Cemetery:
(a) A father, mother, brother, sister, or in-law solely on the basis of his or her relationship to a primarily eligible person, even though the individual is:
(1) Dependent on the primarily eligible person for support; or
(2) A member of the primarily eligible person's household.
(b) A person whose last period of service was not characterized as an honorable discharge (
(1) Received any other veterans' benefits; or
(2) Was treated at a Department of Veterans Affairs hospital or died in such a hospital.
(c) A person who has volunteered for service with the U.S. Armed Forces, but has not yet entered on active duty.
(d) A former spouse whose marriage to the primarily eligible person ended in divorce.
(e) A spouse who predeceases the primarily eligible person and is interred or inurned in a location other than Arlington National Cemetery, and the primarily eligible person remarries.
(f) A divorced spouse of a primarily eligible person.
(g) Otherwise derivatively eligible persons, such as a spouse or minor child, if the primarily eligible person was not or will not be interred or inurned at Arlington National Cemetery.
(h) A service member who dies while on active duty, if the first General
(i) Animal remains. If animal remains are unintentionally commingled with human remains due to a natural disaster, unforeseen accident, act of war or terrorism, violent explosion, or similar incident, and such remains cannot be separated from the remains of an eligible person, then the remains may be interred or inurned with the eligible person, but the identity of the animal remains shall not be inscribed or identified on a niche, marker, headstone, or otherwise.
(a)
(1) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a Federal capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President).
(2) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a State capital crime and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the Governor of the State).
(3) Any person found under procedures specified in § 553.21 to have committed a Federal or State capital crime but who has not been convicted of such crime by reason of such person not being available for trial due to death or flight to avoid prosecution. Notice from officials is not required for this prohibition to apply.
(4) Any person identified in writing to the Executive Director by the Attorney General of the United States or by an appropriate State official, prior to his or her interment, inurnment, or memorialization, as a person who has been convicted of a Federal or State crime causing the person to be a Tier III sex offender for purposes of the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act, who for such crime is sentenced to a minimum of life imprisonment and whose conviction is final (other than a person whose sentence was commuted by the President or the Governor of a State, as the case may be).
(b)
(c)
(i) The Attorney General of the United States, with respect to a suspected Federal capital crime; or
(ii) An appropriate State official, with respect to a suspected State capital crime.
(2) The Executive Director will defer the decision on whether to inter, inurn, or memorialize a decedent until a written response is received.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Request a hearing;
(2) Withdraw the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization; or
(3) Do nothing, in which case the request for interment, inurnment, or memorialization will be considered to have been withdrawn.
(d)
(e)
(1) If a hearing is requested, the Army General Counsel or his or her designee shall conduct the hearing.
(2) The hearing shall be conducted in an informal manner.
(3) The rules of evidence shall not apply.
(4) The personal representative and witnesses may appear, at no expense to the Government, and shall, in the discretion of the Army General Counsel or his or her designee, testify under oath. Oaths must be administered by a person who possesses the legal authority to administer oaths.
(5) The Army General Counsel or designee shall consider any and all relevant information obtained.
(6) The hearing shall be appropriately recorded. Upon request, a copy of the record shall be provided to the personal representative.
(f)
(1) The determination shall be based on evidence that supports or undermines a conclusion that the decedent's actions satisfied the elements of the crime as established by the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
(2) If an affirmative defense is offered by the decedent's personal representative, a determination as to whether the defense was met shall be made according to the law of the jurisdiction in which the decedent would have been prosecuted.
(3) Mitigating evidence shall not be considered.
(4) The opinion of the local, State, or Federal prosecutor as to whether he or she would have brought charges against the decedent had the decedent been available is relevant but not binding and shall be given no more weight than other facts presented.
(g)
(a) As a national military cemetery, eligibility standards for interment, inurnment, or memorialization are based on honorable military service. Exceptions to the eligibility standards for new graves are rarely granted. When granted, exceptions are for those persons who have made significant contributions that directly and substantially benefited the U.S. military.
(b) Requests for an exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies shall be considered only after the individual's death.
(c) Requests for an exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies shall be submitted to the Executive Director and shall include any documents required by the Executive Director.
(d) The primary next of kin is responsible for providing and certifying the authenticity of all documents and swearing to the accuracy of the accounting provided to support the request for exception to the interment or inurnment eligibility policies.
(e) Disapproved requests will be reconsidered only when the personal representative or next of kin submits new and substantive information not previously considered by the Secretary of the Army. Requests for reconsideration shall be submitted directly to the Executive Director. Requests for reconsideration not supported by new and substantive information will be denied by the Executive Director after review and advice from the Army General Counsel or his or her designee. The Executive Director shall notify the personal representative or next of kin of the decision of the reconsideration. The decision by the Secretary of the Army or the Executive Director, as the case may be, is final and not appealable.
(f) Under no circumstances, will exceptions to policies be considered or granted for those individuals prohibited from interment by virtue of § 553.20 or § 553.21.
All cremated remains shall be interred or inurned. The scattering of cremated remains and the burial of symbolic containers are prohibited in Army National Military Cemeteries.
Subsequently recovered identified remains of a decedent shall be reunited in one gravesite or urn, or as part of a group burial either in an Army National Military Cemetery or other cemetery. Subsequently recovered identified remains may also be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Tomb of Remembrance. Unidentified remains (which may or may not be comingled) may also be interred in the Arlington National Cemetery Tomb of Remembrance.
(a) Interments and inurnments in Army National Military Cemeteries are considered permanent.
(b) Requests for disinterment or disinurnment of individually buried or inurned remains are considered requests for exceptions to this policy, and must be addressed to the Executive Director for decision. The request must include:
(1) A full statement of the reasons for the disinterment or disinurnment of the remains from the personal representative or primary next of kin who directed the original interment or inurnment if still living, or if not, the current personal representative or primary next of kin;
(2) A notarized statement from each living close relative of the decedent that he or she does not object to the proposed disinterment or disinurnment; and
(3) A notarized statement by a person who has personal knowledge of the decedent's relatives stating that the persons giving statements comprise all of the decedent's living close relatives.
(4) An appropriate funding source for the disinterment or disinurnment, as disinterments and disinurnments of individually buried or inurned remains must be accomplished without expense to the Government.
(c) The Executive Director shall carry out disinterments and disinurnments directed by a court of competent jurisdiction upon presentation of a lawful, original court order and after consulting with the Army General Counsel or his or her designee.
(d) Remains interred in a group burial may be disinterred only if, after the completion of identification processing of any subsequently recovered remains, each decedent's remains have not been individually identified and it is determined that available technology is likely to assist in the identification process of the previously interred group remains. Requests for disinterment of group remains must be addressed to the Executive Director by the appropriate Military Department's Secretary or his or her designee for decision. The request must include:
(1) A statement from the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command certifying that subsequent to the interment or inurnment of the decedents, remains have been recovered from the site of the casualty incident, and that the remains of each individual U.S. citizen, legal resident, or former service member have not been previously identified from either the remains originally recovered or from the subsequently recovered portions.
(2) Sufficient circumstantial and anatomical evidence from the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command, which when combined with contemporary forensic or other scientific techniques, would lead to a high probability of individual identification of the interred group remains.
(3) Copies of the Military Department's notification to all the living close relatives of the decedents advising them of the proposed disinterment.
(4) A time period identified by the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command during which it proposes to perform forensic or scientific techniques for individual identification processing.
(5) An anticipated time period as to when the Joint Prisoner of War/Missing in Action Accounting Command will return any unidentified remains to Arlington National Cemetery or will
(e) Disinterment or disinurnment is not permitted for the sole purpose of splitting remains or permanently keeping any portion of the remains in a location other than Arlington National Cemetery.
(f) Disinterment of previously designated group remains for the sole purpose of individually segregating the group remains is not permitted unless the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section are met.
(a) Headstones and memorial markers shall be white marble in an upright slab design. Flat-type granite markers may be used, at the Executive Director's discretion, when the terrain or other obstruction precludes use of an upright marble headstone or memorial marker.
(b) Niche covers shall be white marble.
(c) The Executive Director shall approve the design of headstones and memorial markers erected for group burials, consistent with the policies of the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(a) Inscriptions on Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers will be made according to the policies and specifications of the Secretary of the Army, consistent with the policies of the Secretary of Veterans Affairs.
(b) No grades, titles, or ranks other than military grades granted pursuant to title 10, United States Code, will be engraved on Government-furnished headstones, niche covers, and memorial markers. Honorary grades, titles, or ranks granted by States, governors, and others shall not be inscribed on headstones, niche covers, or memorial markers.
(c) Memorial markers must include the words “In Memory of” preceding the inscription.
(d) The words “In Memory of” shall not precede the inscription of a decedent whose remains are interred or inurned.
(a) Construction and installation of private headstones and markers in lieu of Government-furnished headstones and markers is permitted only in sections of Army National Military Cemeteries in which private memorials and markers were authorized as of January 1, 1947. These headstones or markers must be of simple design, dignified, and appropriate for a military cemetery as determined by the Executive Director.
(b) The design and inscription of a private headstone or marker must be approved by the Executive Director prior to its construction and placement. All private headstones and markers will be designed to conform to the dimensions and profiles specified by the Executive Director and will be inscribed with the location of the gravesite.
(c) Placement of a private headstone or marker is conditional upon the primary next of kin agreeing in writing to maintain it in a manner acceptable to the Government. Should the headstone or marker become unserviceable at any time and the primary next of kin fail to repair or replace it, or if the marker is not updated to reflect all persons buried in that gravesite within 6 months of the most recent burial, the Executive Director reserves the right to remove and dispose of the headstone or marker and replace it with a standard, Government-furnished headstone or marker.
(d) The construction of a headstone or marker to span two gravesites will be permitted only in those sections in which headstones and markers are presently spanning two gravesites and only with the express understanding that in the event both gravesites are not utilized for burials, the headstone or marker will be relocated to the center of the occupied gravesite, if possible. Such relocation must be accomplished at no expense to the Government. The Executive Director reserves the right to remove and dispose of the headstone or marker and to mark the gravesite with a Government-furnished headstone or marker if the personal representative or primary next of kin fails to relocate the headstone or marker as requested by the Executive Director.
(e) Separate headstones or markers may be constructed on a lot (two gravesites) for a service member and spouse, provided that each headstone or marker is set at the head of the gravesite after interment has been made.
(f) At the time a headstone or marker is purchased, arrangements must be made with an appropriate commercial firm to ensure that additional inscriptions will be promptly inscribed following each succeeding interment in the gravesite. Foot markers must be authorized by the Executive Director and may only be authorized when there is no available space for an inscription on the front or rear of a private headstone.
(g) Except as may be authorized for marking group burials, ledger monuments of freestanding cross design, narrow shafts, and mausoleums are prohibited.
(a) Headstone firms must receive permission from the Executive Director to construct a private headstone or marker for use in Army National Military Cemeteries or to add an inscription to an existing headstone or marker in an Army National Military Cemetery.
(b) Requests for permission must be submitted to the Executive Director and must include:
(1) Written consent from the personal representative or primary next of kin;
(2) Contact information for both the personal representative or primary next of kin and the headstone firm; and
(3) A scale drawing (no less than 1:12) showing all dimensions, or a reproduction showing detailed specifications of design and proposed construction material, finishing, carving, lettering, exact inscription to appear on the headstone or marker, and a trademark or copyright designation.
(c) The Army does not endorse headstone firms but grants permission for the construction of headstones or markers in individual cases.
(d) When using sandblast equipment to add an inscription to an existing headstone or marker, headstone firms shall restore the surrounding grounds in a timely manner as determined by the Executive Director to the condition of the grounds before work began and at no expense to the Government.
An appropriate inscription for the decedent will be placed on the headstone or marker in accordance with the dimensions of the stone and arranged in such a manner as to enhance the appearance of the stone. Additional inscriptions may be inscribed following each succeeding interment in the gravesite. All inscriptions will be in accordance with policies established by the Executive Director.
The placement of memorials or commemorative monuments in Arlington National Cemetery will be carried out in accordance with 38 U.S.C. 2409(b).
(a) The Executive Director shall ensure the sanctity of public and private memorial and ceremonial events.
(b) All memorial services and ceremonies within Army National Military Cemeteries, other than official ceremonies, shall be purely memorial in purpose and may be dedicated only to:
(1) The memory of all those interred, inurned, or memorialized in Army National Military Cemeteries;
(2) The memory of all those who died in the military service of the United States while serving during a particular conflict or while serving in a particular military unit or units; or
(3) The memory of the individual or individuals to be interred, inurned, or memorialized at the particular site at which the service or ceremony is held.
(c) Memorial services and ceremonies at Army National Military Cemeteries will not include partisan political activities.
(d) Private memorial services may be closed to the media and public as determined by the decedent's primary next of kin.
(e) Public memorial services and public wreath-laying ceremonies shall be open to all members of the public to observe.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Conduct any memorial service or ceremony within an Army National Military Cemetery without the prior approval of the Executive Director.
(2) Engage in demonstrations prohibited by 38 U.S.C. 2413.
(3) Engage in any orations, speeches, or similar conduct to assembled groups of people, unless such actions are part of a memorial service or ceremony authorized by the Executive Director.
(4) Display any placards, banners, flags, or similar devices within an Army National Military Cemetery, unless first approved by the Executive Director for use in an authorized memorial service or ceremony. This rule does not apply to clothing worn by visitors.
(5) Distribute any handbill, pamphlet, leaflet, or other written or printed matter within an Army National Military Cemetery, except a program approved by the Executive Director to be provided to attendees of an authorized memorial service or ceremony.
(6) Bring a dog, cat, or other animal (other than a service animal or military working dog) within an Army National Military Cemetery. This prohibition does not apply to persons living in quarters located on the grounds of the Army National Military Cemeteries.
(7) Use the cemetery grounds for recreational activities (
(8) Ride a bicycle or similar conveyance in an Army National Military Cemetery, except with a proper pass issued by the Executive Director to visit a gravesite or niche. An individual visiting a relative's gravesite or niche may be issued a temporary pass by the Executive Director to proceed directly to and from the gravesite or niche on a bicycle or similar vehicle or conveyance.
(9) Operate a musical instrument, a loudspeaker, or an audio device without a headset within an Army National Military Cemetery.
(10) Drive any motor vehicle within an Army National Military Cemetery in excess of the posted speed limit.
(11) Park any motor vehicle in any area of an Army National Military Cemetery designated as a no-parking area.
(12) Leave any vehicle in the Arlington National Cemetery Visitors' Center parking area or Soldiers' and Airmen's Home National Cemetery visitors' parking area more than thirty minutes outside of established visiting hours or anywhere else in an Army National Military Cemetery outside of established visiting hours.
(13) Consume or serve alcoholic beverages without prior written permission from the Executive Director.
(14) Possess firearms without prior written permission from the Executive Director. This prohibition does not apply to law enforcement and military personnel in the performance of their official duties. In accordance with locally established policy, military and law enforcement personnel may be required to obtain advance permission from the Executive Director of the Army National Military Cemeteries prior to possessing firearms on the property of an Army National Military Cemetery.
(15) Deposit or throw litter or trash on the grounds of the Army National Military Cemeteries.
(16) Engage in any disrespectful or disorderly conduct within an Army National Military Cemetery.
(d)
(1) Visitors arriving by car and not entitled to a vehicle pass pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section are required to park their vehicles in the Visitors' Center parking area or at a location outside of the cemetery.
(2) Only the following categories of vehicles may be permitted access to Arlington National Cemetery roadways and issued a permanent or temporary pass from the Executive Director:
(i) Official Government vehicles being used on official Government business.
(ii) Vehicles carrying persons on official Cemetery business.
(iii) Vehicles forming part of an authorized funeral procession and authorized to be part of that procession.
(iv) Vehicles carrying persons visiting the Arlington National Cemetery gravesites, niches, or memorial areas of relatives or loved ones interred, inurned, or memorialized within Arlington National Cemetery.
(v) Arlington National Cemetery and National Park Service maintenance vehicles.
(vi) Vehicles of contractors who are authorized to perform work within Arlington National Cemetery.
(vii) Concessionaire tour buses authorized by the Executive Director to operate in Arlington National Cemetery.
(viii) Vehicles of employees of ANMC as authorized by the Executive Director.
The display or distribution of commercial advertising to or solicitation of business from the public is strictly prohibited within an Army National Military Cemetery, except as authorized by the Executive Director.
All officials and staff of the media are subject to the Visitors Rules enumerated
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Tower Drawbridge across the Sacramento River, mile 59.0, at Sacramento, CA. The deviation is necessary to allow the community to participate in the Juvenile Diabetes Research Foundation (JDRF) One Walk event.
This deviation is effective from 10 a.m. to 11 a.m. on October 2, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0894], is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email David H. Sulouff, Chief, Bridge Section, Eleventh Coast Guard District; telephone 510-437-3516, email
California Department of Transportation has requested a temporary change to the operation of the Tower Drawbridge, mile 59.0, over Sacramento River, at Sacramento, CA. The vertical lift bridge navigation span provides a vertical clearance of 30 feet above Mean High Water in the closed-to-navigation position. The draw operates as required by 33 CFR 117.189(a). Navigation on the waterway is commercial and recreational.
The drawspan will be secured in the closed-to-navigation position from 10 a.m. to 11 a.m. on October 2, 2016, to allow the community to participate in the JDRF One Walk event. This temporary deviation has been coordinated with the waterway users. No objections to the proposed temporary deviation were raised.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at anytime. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulations.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Riverside-Delanco/S.R. 543 Bridge across the Rancocas Creek, mile 1.3, at Burlington, NJ. The deviation is necessary to facilitate repairs to the bridge fender system. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
The deviation is effective from 7 a.m. on Monday, October 3, 2016, to 3:30 p.m. on Monday, October 31, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-0892] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Mickey Sanders, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6587, email
The Burlington County Bridge Commission, who owns and operates the Riverside-Delanco/S.R. 543 Bridge, across the Rancocas Creek, mile 1.3, at Burlington, NJ, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations set out in 33 CFR 117.745, to repair the bridge fender system.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will remain in the closed-to-navigation position and will open on signal, if at least one hour notice is given, Monday through Friday, from 7 a.m. to 3:30 p.m., from October 3, 2016, through October 31, 2016. At all other times the bridge will operate per 33 CFR 117.745(b). The bridge is a swing bridge and has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 4 feet above mean high water.
Rancocas Creek is mostly used by recreational vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed position may do so at any time. The bridge will be able to open for emergencies and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels unable to pass through the bridge in the closed position. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local Notice and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary safety zone for all waters of the Arkansas River beginning at mile marker 118.6 and ending at mile marker 119.6. The safety zone is necessary to protect persons, property, and infrastructure from potential damage and safety hazards associated with the demolition of the Broadway Bridge. This rulemaking would impose a speed restriction and prohibit persons and vessels from entering the safety zone area during certain operations unless authorized by the Captain of the Port Memphis or a designated representative.
This rule is effective from 7 a.m. on October 1, 2016 through 10 p.m. on November 1, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this rule, call or email Petty Officer Todd Manow, Sector Lower Mississippi River Prevention Department, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 901-521-4813, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) with respect to this rule. Although the Coast Guard received initial notification of this planned bridge demolition in February of the previous year, the dates of each phase of demolition were not finalized and submitted until August 29, 2016. Immediate action is needed to respond to potential safety hazards related to a bridge demolition on or over this navigable waterway. It is impracticable and contrary to the public interest to publish an NPRM because we must establish this safety zone by October 1, 2016.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making it effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231. The COTP has determined that potential hazards associated with a bridge demolition starting October 1, 2016 will be a safety concern for anyone desiring to transit this section of the Arkansas River. This rule is needed to protect personnel, vessels, and infrastructure in the navigable waters within the safety zone while bridge demolition is occurring.
This rule establishes a safety zone from 7 a.m. on October 1, 2016 through 10 p.m. on November 1, 2016. The safety zone will cover all navigable waters within one half mile on either side of the Broadway Bridge. Vessels will be prohibited from entering the safety zone from 30 minutes prior to, until 30 minutes after, any blasting or large-scale removal operation that takes place on the Broadway Bridge; designated representatives will be on-scene to stop or reroute traffic during these evolutions. No vessel or person will be permitted to enter the safety zone without obtaining permission from the COTP or a designated representative. During the entire effective period of this safety zone, regardless of operations, all vessel traffic will be required to maintain slowest speeds for safe navigation; marker buoys will be placed informing waterway users of a no-wake zone. This safety zone is intended to protect personnel, vessels, and infrastructure in these navigable waters while the bridge is being demolished.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and Executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on a number of these statutes and Executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, it has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size and location of the safety zone, a one-mile section of the Arkansas River in the vicinity of Little Rock, AR. Although in effect from October 1, 2016 until November 1, 2016, traffic will only be excluded from this safety zone from 30 minutes before until 30 minutes after any blasting or large-scale removal operation that takes place on the Broadway Bridge. During periods of non-exclusion, vessel traffic will be allowed to transit at slowest speeds for safe navigation through this safety zone. Moreover, the Coast Guard will issue Broadcast Notice to Mariners via VHF-FM marine channel 16 about the zone and the rule allows vessels to seek permission to enter the zone.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule will not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule will not call for a new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule will not result in such expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves a month-long safety zone limiting vessel speed and intermittently prohibiting entry into a one-mile area of the Arkansas River adjacent to the Broadway Bridge during demolition operations. It is categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of the Commandant Instruction. An environmental analysis checklist supporting this determination and a Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2) Buoys marked “No-Wake” will be placed along the navigation channel while this safety zone is in effect.
(3) Persons or vessels requiring entry into or passage through this safety zone during prohibited entry periods must request permission from the COTP or a designated representative. They may be contacted on VHF Channel 16 or at 1-800-777-2784.
(4) A “designated representative” of the COTP is any Coast Guard commissioned, warrant, or petty officer, or a Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer designated by the COTP to act on his behalf.
(d)
Forest Service, USDA.
Final rule.
The USDA Forest Service is implementing regulations under the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (hereinafter the “2008 Farm Bill”). This rule provides for the provision of trees, portions of trees, or forest products from National Forest System lands, free of charge, to federally recognized Indian tribes (Indian tribes) for traditional and cultural purposes. This rule implements section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill.
This rule is effective October 26, 2016.
Information on this final rule may be obtained via written request addressed to Director, Forest Management Staff, USDA Forest Service, Mail Stop 1103, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250 or by email to
Joe Reddan, Assistant Director, Forest Products, 202-557-6591 or Sharon Nygaard-Scott, Forest Service, Forest Management Staff, 202-205-1766, during normal business hours. Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The Forest Service is issuing this final rule to implement section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill (section 8105). Section 8105 has also been codified in Title 25 of the U.S. Code, chapter 32A—Cultural and Heritage Cooperation Authority (25 U.S.C. 3055—Forest Products for Traditional and Cultural Purposes). Subject to certain statutory limitations, section 8105 allows the Secretary of Agriculture to provide Indian tribes with trees, portions of trees, or forest products for traditional and cultural purposes. In this preamble to the final rule, the term “forest products” is used as a shorthand for “trees, portions of trees, or forest products”. Specifically, section 8105(a) provides that the Secretary may provide free of charge to Indian tribes any trees, portions of trees, or forest products from National Forest System land for traditional and cultural purposes.
However, pursuant to section 8105(b), Indian tribes are prohibited from using any trees, portions of trees, or forest products provided under section 8105(a) for commercial purposes. While the 2008 Farm Bill does not define commercial purposes, it does define Indian tribe and traditional and cultural purpose. Section 8102(5) defines Indian tribe as any Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, or other community the name of which is included on a list published by the Secretary of the Interior pursuant to section 104 of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 479a-1). In addition, per section 8102(9), traditional and cultural purpose, with respect to a definable use, area, or practice, means that the use, area, or practice is identified by an Indian tribe as traditional or cultural because of the long-established significance or ceremonial nature of the use, area, or practice to the Indian tribe.
On December 2, 2009, the Forest Service published an Interim Directive (ID) to the Forest Service Handbook (FSH) 2409.18 to implement section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill. The ID was reissued, without change, four times (effective March 8, 2011 (ID 2409.18-2011-1), June 7, 2012 (ID 2409.18-2012-2), December 6, 2013 (ID 2409.18-2013-3), and May 14, 2015 (ID 2409.18-2015-1), and remains in effect until November 14, 2016. This final rule will replace the Interim Directive, which will be entered in FSH 2409.18, chapter 80, section 82.5.
The proposed rule was published in the
This rule establishes Forest Service policy for providing Indian tribes with trees, portions of trees, or forest products for traditional and cultural purposes. Based on the comments received on the ID during formal government-to-government consultation, and those received during the proposed rulemaking, as well as the Agency's experience using the ID to implement section 8105 over the last 7 years, the Agency is now publishing this final rule.
This final rule adds § 223.15 to 36 CFR part 223, subpart A. Section 223.15(a) authorizes Regional Foresters or designated Forest Officers to provide trees, portions of trees, or forest products to Indian tribes free of charge for traditional and cultural purposes. Section 223.15(b) restates the 2008 Farm Bill's statutory definitions of “Indian tribe” and “traditional and cultural purpose,” and includes the Forest Services' regulatory definition of “tribal officials.”
Sections 223.15(c) and (d) describe who can request trees, portions of trees, or forest products for traditional and cultural purposes, and where those requests should be directed. Tribal officials should submit requests for trees, portions of trees, or forest products to their local Forest Service District Ranger's office for routing to the appropriate designated authority. In addition, tribal officials are encouraged to explain their requests to the Regional Forester or designated Forest Officer, and if necessary, how the request fits a traditional and cultural purpose.
A designated Forest Officer is an individual whom the Regional Forester has granted written authority to provide products under § 223.15. Currently, there is no limitation on the number of requests or authorizations per unit of a forest product or the number of requests or authorizations per Indian tribe. There is currently no limitation on the amount of trees, portions of trees, or forest products that can be requested at any one time. However, Forest Officers cannot grant materials in excess of the value limitations at § 223.15(e) in any given fiscal year.
Section 223.15(f) explains that the Forest Service may condition or deny requests for trees, portions of trees, or forest products under § 223.15. Finally, § 223.15(g) provides that all decisions made under § 223.15 must comply with the National Forest Management Act, relevant land management plans, the
After issuance of the December 2, 2009, Interim Directive (ID 2409.18-2009-2), the Forest Service formally entered into consultation with Indian tribes, with the Regional Foresters extending invitations to Indian tribes by May 1, 2010. This consultation was conducted under Executive Order (EO) 13175,
Regional Foresters were directed to invite all federally recognized Indian tribes in their Region to consult. In addition, they were directed to invite any federally recognized Indian tribes who have expressed a historical connection to National Forest System lands in their Region, even if they no longer reside there. To make the consultation more effective, the Forest Service provided Indian tribes with a question and answer document describing the Interim Directive and Forest Services' intent to implement section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill through proposed changes to 36 CFR part 223. Recommendations from the Indian tribes have been incorporated, as appropriate, into this final rule.
The Forest Service received 12 comments in response to the proposed rule, several of which were similar in scope and nature. A summary of the comments and the Agency's responses and actions taken to the comments follow.
Nothing in the chapter—
(1) diminishes or expands the trust responsibility of the United States to Indian tribes, or any legal obligation or remedy resulting from that responsibility;
(2) alters, abridges, repeals, or affects any valid agreement between the Forest Service and an Indian tribe;
(3) alters, abridges, diminishes, repeals, or affects any reserved or other right of an Indian tribe; or
(4) alters, abridges, diminishes, repeals, or affects any other valid existing right relating to National Forest System land or other public land.
Additionally, the authority citation under part 223 now includes references to both 25 U.S.C. 3055 and 3057.
Indian tribes are encouraged to participate in these processes and to work with and regularly communicate to local Forest Service Officials the location of forest products used for traditional and cultural purposes. Local Forest Service Officers will then be aware of potential gathering areas and times when planning projects to mitigate potential conflicting activities and requests. Information regarding the locations of resources shared with Forest Service officials are protected from sharing by the Prohibition on Disclosure (25 U.S.C. 3056). Assessment and determination for priority of use and access to areas will be made at the Regional, National Forest, or local Ranger District levels as appropriate based on local considerations, land management plans, needs, and consultation with local Indian tribes.
This rule does not designate gathering areas. Section 223.15(f) of the rule authorizes, however, denials of or the placing of conditions on requests for access to gather. The reasons for the denials or conditions include, but are not limited to:
(1) Protecting public health and safety;
(2) Preventing interference with Forest Service and/or commercial operations;
(3) Complying with Federal and State laws and regulations;
(4) Ensuring sustainability; or
(5) Otherwise protecting National Forest System land and resources.
The value limitations do not limit the amount of trees, portions of trees, or forest products that Indian tribes may request through this rule. If an Indian tribe makes a request that has a higher value than the maximum which can be authorized by a local official, then the request will be forwarded to a Forest Service Officer who has the authority to grant the request. Pursuant to this rule, if the value of the forest products requested is greater than the value that may be locally granted, the request will be forwarded as follows—District Ranger (value limitation $25,000), Forest Supervisor, (value limitation $50,000), and Regional Forester (value limitation $100,000). Requests that exceed $100,000 in value will be reviewed and approved by the Chief of the Forest Service.
The term “commercial” is used in other subparts of 36 CFR part 223 without definition. The need to define this term, and a definition appropriate for application and administration, may vary by location and the accepted traditional and cultural practices of the Indian tribe(s) involved. In particular, Regional Forest Service representatives expressed concern that defining the
Based on the lack of a definition for “commercial purposes” in the 2008 Farm Bill, regular and undefined use of the term in other Forest Service documents, and Forest Service Regional Staff's request that the term be left undefined, this final rule does not include a definition within the regulatory text.
This rule derives from the authority and prohibitions within section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill. The Forest Service is authorized to provide trees, portions of trees, or forest products free-of-charge from National Forest System land to Indian tribes for traditional and cultural purposes, except when those purposes involve commercial use. According to the definition in section 8102 of the 2008 Farm Bill, the term “traditional and cultural purpose,” with respect to a definable use, area, or practice, means that the use, area, or practice is identified by an Indian tribe as traditional or cultural because of the long-established significance or ceremonial nature of the use, area, or practice to the Indian tribe. Barter and trade of materials obtained through requests made under this rule, which meet the definition for a traditional and cultural purpose and are not considered to be commercial, may be acceptable. Tribal officials are encouraged to explain their requests to Regional Foresters or designated Forest Service Officers and, if necessary, describe how the request fits a traditional and cultural purpose. Requests that do not include enough information for a Forest Service Officer to make a reasonable assessment that the request fits a traditional and cultural purpose and will not be used for commercial purposes may be denied.
Similar to the term “commercial”, the need to address barter and trade may vary by location and the accepted traditional and cultural practices of the Indian tribe(s) involved. Regions implementing this rule under the existing interim directive and supplemental Regional guidance, specific for the region, have not experienced issues to this point regarding barter and trade for purposes of this rule. Authorization of barter and trade will be left to Regional discretion in order to best suit the partnerships and agreements developed in consultation with Indian tribes and used within the region. Any forms of barter and trade which are authorized in previous agreements, tribal treaty, or other reserved rights will not be affected by this rule.
Use of the term “noncommercial”—No comments were received in response to the proposed rule's use of the term “noncommercial”. However, the term has been removed from both the title of section 223.15 as well as from section 223.15(d). Noncommercial was being used, in the proposed rule, as a reference to the Farm Bill's prohibition on commercial purposes, but, because it was not used in the Farm Bill, the term has been removed from this final rule, to avoid any confusion and for clarification purposes.
Section 223.15(d)—Although no comments were received, a minor change was made to the wording in the last sentence, in section 223.15(d), describing how notification should take place when two or more National Forests are involved in a single request. This was done to ensure clarity regarding the notification requirement.
This final rule has been reviewed under U.S. Department of Agriculture procedures and Executive Order 12866 on Regulatory Planning and Review as amended by 13422. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this is not a significant rule. This final rule will not have an annual effect of $100 million or more on the economy nor adversely affect productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, nor State or local governments. This final rule will not interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency nor raise new legal or policy issues. Finally, this action will not alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients of such programs. Accordingly, this final rule is not subject to OMB review under Executive Order 12866.
This final rule has been considered in light of Executive Order 13272 regarding consideration of small entities and the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Act of 1996 (SBREFA), which amended the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
This final rule has no direct or indirect effect on the environment. The rules at 36 CFR 220.6(d)(2) exclude from documentation in an environmental assessment or impact statement rules, regulations, or policies to establish Service-wide administrative procedures, program processes, or instructions that do not significantly affect the quality of the human environment. The Department's assessment is that this final rule falls within this category of actions, and that no extraordinary circumstances exist that would require preparation of an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
The Department has considered this final rule under the requirements of Executive Order 13132, Federalism, and concluded that this action will not have substantial direct effects on the States,
Pursuant to Executive Order 13175,
This final rule has been analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 12360, and it has been determined that this action will not pose the risk of a taking of private property.
With this submission, and upon OMB approval, the addition of the collection requirements of Rule Identification Number 0596-AD00, OMB no. 0596-0233 for federally recognized Indian tribes wishing to request free use under the authority of section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill are being added to OMB control number 0596-0085
As stated earlier in this final rule, section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill provides the Secretary of Agriculture with discretionary authority to provide trees, portions of trees, or forest products to Indian tribes free of charge for traditional and cultural purposes provided that the trees, portions of trees, or forest products are provided to tribal officials on behalf of an Indian tribe for traditional and cultural purposes; and the trees, portions of trees, or forest products will not be used for commercial purposes.
Indian tribes seeking products under the 2008 Farm Bill authority must make a request for free use. “Requests . . . must be submitted to the local Forest Service District Ranger's Office(s) in writing. Requests may be made: (1) Directly by a tribal official(s) who has been authorized by the Indian tribe to make such requests; or (2) By providing a copy of a formal resolution approved by the tribal council or other governing body of the Indian tribe.” Additionally, “[t]ribal officials are encouraged to explain their requests to the Regional Forester or designated Forest Officer and, if necessary, describe how the request fits a traditional and cultural purpose. When an Indian tribe requests forest products located on two or more National Forests, authorized tribal officials should notify each of the affected Forest Service District Ranger's Offices of the requests made on other forests.” Under section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill, there is no stated maximum free use limitation for products requested by Indian tribes. Additionally, there is no limitation to the number of requests that each federally recognized Indian tribe may make under this final rule.
Should Indian tribes wish to obtain proof of possession, as may be required in some States, they could be issued a FS-2400-8 free use permit by the Forest Service. The FS-2400-8 form allows use of timber or forest products at no charge (36 CFR 223.5-223.13). No changes are being made to the free-use form as a result of the 2008 Farm Bill provision. Upon receiving the permit, the permittee must comply with its terms (36 CFR 261.6), which designate forest products that can be harvested and under what conditions, such as limiting harvest to a designated area or permitting harvest of only specifically designated material. Only the minimum information necessary to comply with Federal laws and regulations is collected. Agency personnel enter the information provided by Indian tribes into a computerized database to use for any subsequent requests made by the Indian tribe. The information is printed on paper, which the applicant signs and dates. Agency personnel discuss the terms and conditions of the permit or contract with the applicant. The data gathered is not available from other sources. The collected information will help the Forest Service oversee the approval and use of forest products under section 8105 of the 2008 Farm Bill. For example, the collected information will be used to ensure applicants meet the criteria for free use of timber or forest products authorized under section 8105 and to identify permittees in the field by Forest Service personnel.
The following summarizes the information collection associated with the final directive:
Comment is invited on (1) whether this information collection is necessary for the stated purposes and proper performance of the functions of the
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 13211 of May 18, 2001, and it has been determined that it has no effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. This rule is administrative in nature and, therefore, the preparation of a statement of energy effects is not required.
This final rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. When the final rule is adopted: (1) All State and local laws and regulations that conflict with the final rule or that would impede full implementation of this rule will be preempted; (2) no retroactive effect will be given to the final rule; and (3) the Department will not require the use of administrative proceedings before parties could file suit in court challenging its provisions.
Pursuant to Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538), which the President signed into law on March 22, 1995, the Department has assessed the effects of this final rule on State, local, and tribal governments and the private sector. This action will not compel the expenditure of $100 million or more by any State, local, or tribal government or anyone in the private sector. Therefore, a statement under section 202 of the Act is not required.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Forests and forest products, Government contracts, National forests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Forest Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, amends 36 CFR part 223 as follows:
90 Stat. 2958, 16 U.S.C. 472a; 98 Stat. 2213, 16 U.S.C. 618, 104 Stat. 714-726, 16 U.S.C. 620-620j, 25 U.S.C. 3055 and 3057, 113 Stat. 1501a, 16 U.S.C. 528 note; unless otherwise noted.
(a) Pursuant to section 8105 of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-246, 122 Stat. 1651) [hereinafter the “2008 Farm Bill”], Regional Foresters or designated Forest Officers may, at their discretion, provide trees, portions of trees, or forest products to Indian tribes free of charge for traditional and cultural purposes provided that:
(1) The trees, portions of trees, or forest products are provided to tribal officials on behalf of an Indian tribe for traditional and cultural purposes; and
(2) The trees, portions of trees, or forest products will not be used for commercial purposes.
(b) The following definitions apply to this section:
(c) Requests for trees, portions of trees, or forest products made under this section must be submitted to the local Forest Service District Ranger's Office(s) in writing. Requests may be made:
(1) Directly by a tribal official(s) who has been authorized by the Indian tribe to make such requests; or
(2) By providing a copy of a formal resolution approved by the tribal council or other governing body of the Indian tribe.
(d) Requests for trees, portions of trees, and forest products made under this section must be directed to the appropriate Forest Service District Ranger(s)' Office from which the items are being requested. Tribal officials are encouraged to explain their requests to the Regional Forester or designated Forest Officer and, if necessary, describe how the request fits a traditional and cultural purpose. When an Indian tribe requests forest products located on two or more National Forests, authorized tribal officials should notify each of the affected Forest Service District Ranger's Offices of the requests made on other forests.
(e) Agency Line Officers and managers (who have been authorized by name through official Forest Service correspondence) are authorized to provide trees, portions of trees, and forest products under this section subject to the following limitations:
(1) District Rangers and Forest Officers may provide material not exceeding $25,000 in value in any one fiscal year to an Indian tribe;
(2) Forest Supervisors may provide material not exceeding $50,000 in value in any one fiscal year to an Indian tribe;
(3) Regional Foresters may provide material not exceeding $100,000 in value in any one fiscal year to an Indian tribe; and
(4) The Chief of the Forest Service may provide material exceeding $100,000 in value to an Indian tribe.
(f) A request for trees, portions of trees, or forest products under this section may be conditioned or denied for reasons including, but not limited to the following:
(1) Protecting public health and safety;
(2) Preventing interference with Forest Service and/or commercial operations;
(3) Complying with Federal and State laws and regulations;
(4) Ensuring sustainability; or
(5) Otherwise protecting National Forest System land and resources.
(g) All decisions made under this section must comply with the National Forest Management Act, relevant land management plans, the National Environmental Policy Act, the Endangered Species Act, all other applicable laws and regulations, and are subject to tribal treaty and other reserved rights and the savings
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve a revision to the State Implementation Plan (SIP) for the State of Missouri. This final action will approve Missouri's SIP for the lead National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) received by EPA on October 20, 2014. EPA proposed approval of this plan on February 29, 2016. The applicable standard addressed in this action is the lead NAAQS promulgated by EPA in 2008. EPA believes that the SIP submitted by the state satisfies the applicable requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA) identified in EPA's Final Rule published in the
This final rule is effective on October 26, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R07-OAR-2015-0835. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Stephanie Doolan, Environmental Protection Agency, Air Planning and Development Branch, 11201 Renner Boulevard, Lenexa, Kansas 66219 at (913) 551-7719, or by email at
Throughout this document “we,” “us,” or “our” refer to EPA.
In this document, EPA is granting final approval of Missouri's SIP to address violations of the lead NAAQS near the Exide Technologies—Canon Hollow facility in Holt County, Missouri. The applicable standard addressed in this action is the lead NAAQS promulgated by EPA in 2008. The applicable requirements of the CAA identified in EPA's Final Rule (73 FR 66964, October 15, 2008), and will bring the area into compliance with the 0.15 microgram per cubic meter (ug/m
The state submission has met the public notice requirements for SIP submissions in accordance with 40 CFR 51.102. The submission also satisfied the completeness criteria of 40 CFR part 51, appendix V. In addition, the revision meets the substantive SIP requirements of the CAA, including section 110 and implementing regulations.
The public comment period on EPA's proposed rule opened February 29, 2016, the date of its publication in the
One comment pertains to mold in indoor air and not the subject of the proposed approval of the SIP revision to address lead in ambient air. Because the comment is anonymous, EPA is unable to contact the commenter directly to offer assistance. However, EPA offers that the commenter may contact Ms. Gina Grier of EPA Region 7 directly at (913) 551-7078 for more information and assistance on the commenter's concerns about mold.
The second comment states that he/she is in agreement with EPA's proposed action to approve the revision to the SIP and the commenter offers two suggestions. The first suggestion is to estimate the cost of water washing to clean haul routes on the facility property and the second is a concern that limiting truck traffic on the facility property may reduce the resources purchased in the state of Missouri.
EPA's response to the first suggestion regarding water washing to clean the on-site haul routes is that the use of water to remove lead from on-site roads was studied and determined to be a cost-effective and necessary strategy to control lead during the development of the National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Secondary Lead Smelters, promulgated January 5, 2012 (77 FR 580). Because the Exide Canon Hollow facility is a secondary lead smelter, it must comply with the requirements of this rule, including, among other things, the requirement to conduct twice daily water washing of on-site haul routes. This cleaning is necessary to control lead-containing dust in order to meet the 2008 lead NAAQS. The NESHAP is related to the NAAQS in that the NESHAP requires attainment of the same 0.15 ug/m
Regarding the concern that limiting truck traffic may reduce the resources purchased in the state of Missouri, the state and facility arrived at the limitations on truck traffic using EPA's AERMOD computer-based modeling. Truck traffic along haul routes is known to increase the amount of lead-containing dust that becomes re-entrained in ambient air. Modeling was used to estimate the amount of truck traffic along facility haul routes that could be allowed without causing a NAAQS violation at the fenceline. Thus, the limitations are necessary to safeguard the NAAQS level which EPA has determined to be protective of human health and the environment. It also should be noted that the restrictions on truck traffic that are required by the SIP only pertain to traffic on the facility property; there are no limitations on the amount of truck traffic on public roads. No change has been made to address this concern.
EPA is taking final action to amend the Missouri SIP to approve the SIP
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the EPA-Approved Kansas Source-Specific Requirements. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the State implementation plan, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
A major rule cannot take effect until 60 days after it is published in the
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 25, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this proposed rule does not affect the finality of this rulemaking for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such future rule or action. This proposed action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2))
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, EPA amends 40 CFR part 52 as set forth below:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(d) * * *
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency.
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is conditionally approving the portions of revisions to the Georgia State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the Georgia Department of Natural Resources (DNR), Environmental Protection Division (GAEPD), addressing the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) visibility transport (prong 4) infrastructure SIP requirements for the 2008 8-hour Ozone, 2010 1-hour Nitrogen Dioxide (NO
This rule will be effective [insert date 30 days after date of publication in the
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0315. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sean Lakeman of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9043 or via electronic mail at
By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as the requirements for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the
Section 110(a)(2)(D) has two components: 110(a)(2)(D)(i) and 110(a)(2)(D)(ii). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) includes four distinct components, commonly referred to as “prongs,” that must be addressed in infrastructure SIP submissions. The first two prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), are provisions that prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment of the NAAQS in another state (prong 1) and from interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS in another state (prong 2). The third and fourth prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), are provisions that prohibit emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration of air quality in another state (prong 3) or from interfering with measures to protect visibility in another state (prong 4). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires SIPs to include provisions ensuring compliance with sections 115 and 126 of the Act, relating to interstate and international pollution abatement.
Georgia's infrastructure SIP revisions cite to the regional haze program as satisfying the requirements of prong 4 for the 2008 8-hour Ozone, 2010 1-hour NO
In its commitment letter, Georgia commits to satisfy the prong 4 requirements for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS, 2010 1-hour NO
If Georgia meets its commitment within one year of final conditional approval, the prong 4 portions of the conditionally approved infrastructure SIP submissions will remain a part of the SIP until EPA takes final action approving or disapproving the new SIP revision(s). However, if the State fails to submit these revisions within the one-year timeframe, the conditional approval will automatically become a disapproval one year from EPA's final conditional approval and EPA will issue a finding of disapproval. EPA is not required to propose the finding of disapproval. If the conditional approval is converted to a disapproval, the final disapproval triggers the FIP requirement under CAA section 110(c).
In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) published on July 11, 2016 (81 FR 44831), EPA proposed to conditionally approve the prong 4 portions of the aforementioned infrastructure SIP submissions. The NPRM provides additional detail regarding the rationale for EPA's action, including further discussion of the prong 4 requirements and the basis for Georgia's commitment letter. Comments on the proposed rulemaking were due on or before August 10, 2016. EPA received no adverse comments on the proposed action.
EPA is conditionally approving the prong 4 portions of Georgia's March 6, 2012, 8-hour Ozone infrastructure SIP submission; March 25, 2013, 2010 1-hour NO
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L.aw 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 25, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate Matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
Georgia submitted a letter to EPA on May 26, 2016, with a commitment to address the State Implementation Plan deficiencies regarding requirements of Clean Air Act section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) related to interference with measures to protect visibility in another state (prong 4) for the 2008 8-hour Ozone, 2010 1-hour NO
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
In section 518(e) of the Clean Water Act (CWA), Congress authorized the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to treat eligible federally recognized Indian tribes in a similar manner as a state for purposes of administering section 303 and certain other provisions of the CWA, and directed the agency to promulgate regulations effectuating this authorization. EPA has issued regulations establishing a process for federally recognized tribes to obtain treatment in a similar manner as states (TAS) for several provisions of the CWA; for example, 53 tribes have obtained TAS authority to issue water quality standards under CWA section 303(c). EPA has not yet promulgated regulations expressly establishing a process for tribes to obtain TAS authority to administer the water quality restoration provisions of CWA section 303(d), including issuing lists of impaired waters and developing total maximum daily loads (TMDLs), as states routinely do. EPA is now remedying this gap. By establishing regulatory procedures for eligible tribes to obtain TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program, this final rule enables eligible tribes to obtain authority to identify impaired waters on their reservations and to establish TMDLs, which serve as plans for attaining and maintaining applicable water quality standards (WQS). The rule is comparable to similar regulations that EPA issued in the 1990s for the CWA Section 303(c) WQS and CWA Section 402 and Section 404 Permitting Programs, and includes features designed to minimize paperwork and unnecessary reviews.
This final rule is effective October 26, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this rule under Docket identification (ID) No. EPA-HQ-OW-2014-0622. All documents in the docket are listed and accessible for viewing at
Ruth Chemerys, Assessment and Watershed Protection Division, Office of Wetlands, Oceans and Watersheds (4503T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: (202) 566-1216; fax number: (202) 566-1331; email address:
This supplementary information is organized as follows:
This rule applies to federally recognized tribal governments with reservations interested in seeking TAS eligibility to administer the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. Although this rule applies directly only to Indian tribes applying for TAS, state and local governments, as well as other entities including other Indian tribes, may be interested to the extent they are adjacent to the Indian reservation
If you have questions regarding the effect of this rule on a particular entity, please consult the person listed in the preceding
Under section 518(e) of the CWA, 33 U.S.C. 1377(e), Indian tribes may seek TAS authorization to administer certain CWA programs pertaining to water resources of their reservations. Tribes are not eligible to administer CWA programs pertaining to any non-reservation Indian country
Although this rule facilitates eligible tribes' administration of an additional regulatory program, nothing in this rule changes, expands, or contracts the geographic scope of potential tribal TAS eligibility under the CWA.
In developing this rule, EPA conducted consultation and coordination with tribes and states before proposing this rule in the
EPA received over 830 public comments on the proposed rule. EPA received over 800 mass email comments in support of the rule, as well as individual comments from nine tribes and tribal associations, expressing support for the rule. EPA also received individual comments from eight states, one local government, one local non-governmental organization, two regulated entities, several private citizens, and one federal agency. Most states generally were neutral regarding the proposed rule overall. Some states cited special circumstances regarding applicability of the rule in their states. Two states and the two local entities opposed the proposed rule, citing concern regarding impacts on state and local programs, as well as objections to EPA's proposed (now final) interpretive rule regarding tribal jurisdiction under the Clean Water Act.
This final rule establishing regulatory procedures for eligible tribes to obtain TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program reflects EPA's careful consideration of all the comments. The comments and EPA's responses to the comments are available in the public docket at
The CWA, 33.U.S.C. 1251,
Congress added section 518 to the CWA as part of amendments made in 1987. Section 518(e) authorizes EPA to treat eligible Indian tribes in the same manner as it treats states for a variety of purposes, including administering each of the principal CWA regulatory programs and receiving grants under several CWA funding authorities. Section 518(e) is commonly known as the “TAS” provision. Section 303 is expressly identified in section 518(e) as one of the provisions available for TAS.
Section 518(e) also requires EPA to promulgate regulations specifying the TAS process for applicant tribes. Section 518(h) defines “Indian tribe” to mean any Indian tribe, band, group, or community recognized by the Secretary of the Interior and exercising governmental authority over a federal Indian reservation.
Pursuant to section 518(e), EPA promulgated several final regulations establishing TAS criteria and procedures for Indian tribes interested in administering programs under the Act. The relevant regulations addressing TAS requirements for the principal CWA regulatory programs are:
• 40 CFR 131.8 for section 303(c) water quality standards, published December 12, 1991 (56 FR 64876);
• 40 CFR 131.4(c) for CWA section 401 water quality certification, published December 12, 1991 (56 FR 64876);
• 40 CFR 123.31-34 for CWA section 402 National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permits and other provisions, and 40 CFR 501.22-25 for the sewage sludge management program, published December 22, 1993 (58 FR 67966); and
• 40 CFR 233.60-62 for CWA section 404 dredge or fill permits, published February 11, 1993 (58 FR 8172).
In 1994, EPA amended the above regulations to simplify the TAS process and eliminate unnecessary and duplicative requirements. 59 FR 64339 (December 14, 1994) (“Simplification Rule”). For example, the Simplification Rule eliminated the need for a tribe to prequalify for TAS before applying to administer the section 402 and section 404 permit Programs. Instead, the rule provided that a tribe would seek to establish its TAS eligibility at the Program approval stage (subject to notice and comment procedures in the
On May 16, 2016, EPA published an interpretive rule revising the Agency's approach to tribal jurisdiction under the CWA.
The interpretive rule did not result in any revisions to the application procedures of EPA's TAS regulations as codified in the Code of Federal Regulations. EPA will continue to review CWA TAS applications in accordance with existing TAS regulations, which provide the procedural infrastructure for the TAS application and review processes. This rule, which is closely based on the existing CWA TAS regulations, provides similar regulatory infrastructure for tribes interested in applying to administer the section 303(d) Program. Any application of the interpretive rule would occur solely in the context of an EPA final decision approving a tribe's TAS application based on the revised interpretation of tribal jurisdiction.
TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program provides a tribe with the opportunity to participate directly in restoring and protecting its reservation waters through implementing the Program, as Congress authorized under CWA section 518(e). In the rest of this notice, EPA refers to the functions identified in CWA section 303(d) regarding listing of impaired waters and establishment of TMDLs as the “Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program” or “303(d) Program.” Section 303(d) provides for states and authorized tribes to (1) develop lists of impaired waters (and establish priority rankings for waters on the lists) and (2) establish TMDLs for these waters. By listing impaired waters, a state or authorized tribe identifies those waters in its territory that are not currently meeting EPA-approved or EPA-promulgated WQS (collectively referred to as “applicable WQS”). A TMDL is a planning document intended to address impairment of waters, including the calculation and allocation to point and nonpoint sources of the maximum amount of a pollutant that a water body can receive and still meet applicable WQS, with a margin of safety.
By obtaining TAS for section 303(d), tribes can take the lead role under the CWA in identifying and establishing a priority ranking for impaired water bodies on their reservations and in establishing TMDLs and submitting them to EPA for approval. These are important informational and planning steps that tribes can take to restore and maintain the quality of reservation waters.
TMDLs must allocate the total pollutant load among contributing point sources (“waste load allocations” or “WLAs”) and nonpoint sources (“load allocations” or “LAs”). 40 CFR 130.2. Point source WLAs are addressed through the inclusion of water quality-based effluent limits in national pollutant discharge elimination system (NPDES) permits issued to such sources. Under EPA's regulations, NPDES permitting authorities shall ensure that “[e]ffluent limits developed to protect a narrative water quality criterion, a numeric water quality criterion, or both, are consistent with the assumptions and requirements of any available waste load allocation for the discharge prepared by the State and approved by EPA pursuant to 40 CFR 130.7.” 40 CFR 122.44(d)(1)(vii)(B). WLAs under 40 CFR 122.44(d)(1)(vii)(B) would include WLAs developed by a tribe with TAS authorization and approved by EPA pursuant to 40 CFR 130.7. For water bodies impaired by pollutants from nonpoint sources, authorized tribes would not acquire new or additional implementation authorities when listing such impaired water bodies and establishing TMDLs. Instead, the mechanisms for implementing the nonpoint source pollutant reductions, or LAs, identified in any tribal TMDLs would include existing tribal authorities, other federal agencies' policies and procedures, as well as voluntary and incentive-based programs.
This rule does not require anything of tribes that are not interested in TAS for the 303(d) Program. Based on pre- and post-proposal input, EPA understands that not all tribes will be interested in obtaining TAS for 303(d), and some may consider other approaches that might benefit their reservation waters. Clean Water Act section 319 watershed-based plans, for example, may help tribes protect and restore water resources threatened or impaired by nonpoint source pollution.
The goal of the CWA is “to restore and maintain the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the Nation's waters.” CWA section 101(a). Identification of impaired waters and TMDLs are important tools for achieving that goal. After a tribe receives EPA approval of its eligibility to implement a CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program, it is treated in a manner similar to a state and, for purposes of list and TMDL development, it would become an “authorized tribe.” Generally, the federal statutory and regulatory requirements for state 303(d) Programs would be applicable to authorized tribes.
Under section 303(d) of the CWA, every two years, authorized tribes will be required to develop lists of waters not meeting, or not expected to meet, applicable water quality standards. 40 CFR 130.7(d). These lists are commonly called “impaired waters lists” or “303(d) lists.” Impaired waters are waters for which technology-based limitations and other required controls are not stringent enough to meet applicable CWA water quality standards. Threatened waters are waters that currently attain applicable WQS, but for which existing and readily available data and information indicate that applicable WQS will likely not be met by the time the next list of impaired or threatened waters is due to EPA.
Like states, authorized tribes are required to submit their “303(d) lists” to EPA for approval every two years on April 1 (lists are due April 1 of even-numbered years). As indicated in
Most tribes that would be eligible for TAS authorization under this rule are likely to be recipients of CWA section 106 grants and would thus be required to submit section 106 grant work plans annually. If a tribe's CWA section 106 grant work plan includes ambient water quality monitoring activities, the tribe is also required to develop a tribal assessment report (TAR) pursuant to the CWA section 106 grant reporting requirements.
Under the CWA, each state and authorized tribe must, “from time to time,” establish and submit TMDLs for pollutants causing impairments in all the waters on its 303(d) list. CWA sections 303(d)(1)(C) and 303(d)(2). States and authorized tribes set priorities for developing TMDLs for their listed waters.
TMDLs must be established “at a level necessary to implement the applicable water quality standards with seasonal variations and a margin of safety which takes into account any lack of knowledge concerning the relationship between effluent limitations and water quality.” CWA section 303(d)(1)(C). Where a TMDL makes allocation tradeoffs between point and nonpoint sources, the TMDL record must also demonstrate “reasonable assurance” that the nonpoint source allocations will be achieved. 40 CFR 130.2(i). Calculations to establish TMDLs must be subject to public review. 40 CFR 130.7(c)(1)(ii). Once established, the state or authorized tribe submits the TMDL to EPA for review.
Once EPA receives a list or TMDL, it must either approve or disapprove that list or TMDL within 30 days. CWA section 303(d)(2). If EPA disapproves the list or TMDL, EPA must establish a replacement list or TMDL within 30 days of disapproval. 40 CFR 130.7(d)(2).
Consistent with the statutory requirement in section 518 of the CWA, this rule establishes the procedures by which an Indian tribe may apply and qualify for TAS for purposes of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. Such procedures are codified in a new section 130.16 of the water quality planning and management regulation. Section 130.16 identifies (1) the criteria an applicant tribe is required to meet to be treated in a similar manner as a state, (2) the information the tribe is required to provide in its application to EPA, and (3) the procedure EPA will use to review the tribal application. Section 130.16 is intended to ensure that tribes treated in a similar manner as states for the purposes of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program are qualified, consistent with CWA requirements, to conduct a Listing and TMDL Program. The procedures are meant to provide more opportunities for tribes to engage fully in the Program and are not intended to act as a barrier to tribal assumption of the 303(d) Program.
The TAS procedures in this rule are closely based on the existing TAS regulation at 40 CFR 131.8, which established the TAS process for the CWA Section 303(c) WQS Program. EPA established the TAS process for WQS in 1991, and the great majority of TAS activity for regulatory programs under the CWA has occurred in the WQS Program. The WQS TAS rule has proven very effective in ensuring that applicant tribes satisfy statutory TAS criteria and are prepared to administer WQS Programs under the Act. It thus served as a useful model for this TAS rule.
The TAS criteria tribes are required to meet for purposes of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program originate in CWA section 518. As reflected in the regulatory language, the tribe must (1) be federally recognized and meet the definitions in sections 131.3(k) and (l), (2) carry out substantial governmental duties and powers, (3) have appropriate authority to regulate the quality of reservation waters, and (4) be reasonably expected to be capable of administering the Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. These criteria are discussed below.
The first criterion for TAS requires the tribe to be federally recognized by the U.S. Department of the Interior (DOI) and meet the definitions in sections 131.3(k) and (l). The tribe may address the recognition requirement either by stating that it is included on the list of federally recognized tribes published periodically by DOI, or by submitting other appropriate documentation (
The second criterion requires the tribe to have a governing body “carrying out substantial governmental duties and
To address the second criterion, the tribe is required to submit a descriptive statement demonstrating that the tribal governing body is currently carrying out substantial governmental duties and powers over a defined area. The descriptive statement should (1) describe the form of tribal government, (2) describe the types of essential governmental functions currently performed, such as those listed above, and (3) identify the sources of authorities to perform these functions (
The third criterion, concerning tribal authority, means that a tribe seeking TAS for purposes of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program must adequately demonstrate authority to manage and protect water resources within the borders of the tribe's reservation. To verify authority and satisfy the third criterion of the rule, a tribe must include a descriptive statement of its authority to regulate water quality, which should include a statement signed by the tribe's legal counsel, or an equivalent official, explaining the legal basis for the tribe's regulatory authority, and appropriate additional documentation (
As described in EPA's May 16, 2016, interpretive rule, EPA previously took an initial cautious approach that required tribes applying for eligibility to administer regulatory programs under the CWA to demonstrate their inherent tribal authority over the relevant regulated activities on their reservations.
In addressing the second exception of
EPA has also separately revised its interpretation of the CWA tribal provision by conclusively determining that Congress intended to delegate authority to eligible tribes to regulate their entire reservations under the CWA irrespective of land ownership. In prior CWA TAS promulgations, EPA recognized that there was significant support for the view that Congress had intended to delegate authority to eligible Indian tribes to administer CWA regulatory programs over their entire reservations, irrespective of land ownership, and EPA expressly stated that the issue of tribal authority under the CWA remained open for further consideration in light of additional congressional or judicial guidance.
In the preamble to the proposed 303(d) TAS rule, EPA noted that the proposed rule intended to provide appropriate TAS application and review procedures irrespective of which interpretation of tribal authority under the Act applies. As explained in EPA's reinterpretation of section 518, EPA's existing TAS regulations—including 40 CFR 131.8, upon which this rule is modeled—accommodate either interpretation of tribal authority under the CWA and provide appropriate application procedures to ensure that relevant jurisdictional information is provided to EPA and made available for comment. 80 FR 47430. The same is true of this rule, which establishes procedures needed to fill the gap in TAS regulatory infrastructure for the CWA Section 303(d) Program. Now that the May 16, 2016, interpretative rule is finalized, the revised interpretation would be applied in the context of EPA's review of a TAS application submitted under these CWA section 303(d) regulations. Finalization of these procedural regulations, however, is a separate and distinct regulatory action from the reinterpretation and is not based upon, nor does it depend upon that earlier action.
The fourth criterion requires that the tribe, in the Regional Administrator's judgment, be reasonably expected to be capable of administering an effective CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. To meet this requirement, tribes should either (1) show that they have the necessary management and technical skills or (2) submit a plan detailing steps for acquiring the necessary management and technical skills. When considering tribal capability, EPA will also consider
The specific information required for tribal applications to EPA is described in section 130.16 (a) and (b). The application must, in general, nclude a statement regarding federal recognition by DOI, documentation that the tribal governing body is exercising substantial duties and powers, documentation of authority to regulate water quality on the reservation, a narrative statement of tribal capability to administer the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program, and any other information requested by the Regional Administrator.
Consistent with EPA's other TAS regulations, the rule also provides that where a tribe has previously qualified for TAS for purposes of a different EPA program, the tribe need only provide the required information that has not been submitted as part of a prior TAS application. To facilitate review of tribal applications, EPA requests that a tribe, in its application, inform EPA whether the tribe has been approved for TAS or deemed eligible to receive authorization for any other EPA program.
The TAS application procedures and criteria for the CWA Sections 303(c) WQS and 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Programs are similar in many respects, and a tribe interested in both programs may wish to streamline the application process by combining a request for TAS eligibility for 303(c) and 303(d) into a single application. Although a tribe is not required to do so, EPA's approach allows a tribe to submit a combined application, which addresses the criteria and application requirements of sections 131.8 and 130.16, to EPA if the tribe is interested in applying for TAS for both the CWA Section 303(c) and 303(d) Programs.
There could be rare instances where special circumstances limit or preclude a particular tribe's ability to be authorized to administer the 303(d) Program over its reservation. For example, there could be a separate federal statute establishing unique jurisdictional arrangements for a specific state or a specific reservation that could affect a tribe's ability to exercise authority under the CWA. It is also possible that provisions in particular treaties or tribal constitutions could limit a tribe's ability to exercise relevant authority.
Under section 130.16(b), which requires tribal applicants to submit a statement describing their authority to regulate water quality, EPA encourages tribes to include a statement of their legal counsel (or equivalent official) describing the basis for their assertion of authority. The statement can include copies of documents such as tribal constitutions, by-laws, charters, executive orders, codes, ordinances, and resolutions. The provision for a legal counsel's statement is designed to ensure that applicant tribes appropriately describe the bases of their authority and address any special circumstances regarding their assertion of authority to administer the 303(d) Program. The rule provides an appropriate opportunity for “appropriate governmental entities” (
EPA is also aware that section 10211(b) of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act of 2005 (“SAFETEA”), Public Law 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144 (August 10, 2005) established a unique TAS requirement with respect to Indian tribes located in the State of Oklahoma. Under section 10211(b) of SAFETEA, tribes in Oklahoma seeking TAS under a statute administered by EPA for the purpose of administering an environmental regulatory program must, in addition to meeting applicable TAS requirements under the relevant EPA-administered environmental statute, enter into a cooperative agreement with the state that is subject to EPA approval and that provides for the tribe and state to jointly plan and administer program requirements. This requirement of SAFETEA applies apart from, and in addition to, existing TAS eligibility criteria, including the TAS criteria set forth in section 518 of the CWA. This rule relates solely to the CWA TAS requirement; it thus has no effect on the separate requirement of section 10211(b) of SAFETEA.
EPA received several comments asserting that special circumstances limit particular tribes' ability to obtain TAS for the CWA 303(d) Program. For instance, one state asserted that, under federal law specific to that state, the state has primary regulatory authority and jurisdiction for environmental programs throughout the state, including over Indian territories and waters. The state requested that EPA confirm that in this state, a tribe would not be eligible to attain TAS for the 303(d) Program or any other CWA regulatory program. One state asserted that a tribe located in the state is precluded by federal statute specific to that tribe from regulating reservation land that is owned in fee by non-tribal citizens. An industry commenter asserted that the tribe where its facility is located entered into a binding agreement waiving regulatory authority over the commenter's facility, and accordingly, making the tribe ineligible to assert jurisdiction over the facility for CWA purposes.
EPA appreciates the information about special circumstances provided in the comments. Importantly, the precise outcome of any such circumstance could only be determined in the context of a particular tribe's TAS application and upon a full record of information addressing the issue. The substance of these specific situations is thus outside the scope of—and is not affected by—this rule. This rule only establishes criteria and a process for tribes to apply for TAS for the 303(d) Program; it does not adjudicate the outcome of that process for any particular tribe. However, EPA notes that the comments are both illustrative and instructive regarding the types of special circumstances and jurisdictional issues that may affect a tribe's ability to obtain TAS for the 303(d) Program. Federal statutes other than the CWA may, for instance, limit a particular tribe's or group of tribes' ability to participate, in whole or in part, in CWA regulation through the TAS process. Before approving a tribe's TAS eligibility, EPA would carefully consider whether any binding contractual arrangements or other legal documents such as tribal charters or constitutions might affect the
EPA also received comments on the proposed rule from the State of Oklahoma regarding section 10211(b) of SAFETEA. In its comments, the State of Oklahoma requested additional information regarding the process or sequence of events that will be used to ensure that this provision of SAFETEA is satisfied in the context of particular tribal TAS applications that may be submitted following finalization of this rule. EPA notes that section 10211(b) expressly contains certain procedural requirements—
The EPA review procedure, included in section 130.16(c), specifies that the Regional Administrator, following receipt of tribal applications, will process such applications in a timely manner. EPA will promptly notify the tribe that the complete application has been received. Within 30 days after receipt of a tribe's complete TAS application for 303(d), EPA will provide notice to appropriate governmental entities (
In this rule, EPA includes provisions intended to help avoid unnecessary and wasteful duplication of the notice and comment procedures described in section VII.A. Specifically, the rule (section 130.16(c)(4)) provides that, where a tribe has previously qualified for TAS for a CWA regulatory program
Where different jurisdictional issues or information are not present, additional notice and comment regarding the tribe's assertion of jurisdiction would be duplicative of the process already undertaken during EPA's review of the prior TAS application. Under these circumstances, the rule avoids such duplication of efforts by providing that the relevant EPA Regional Administrator will process a TAS application for the 303(d) Program without a second notice and comment process.
Where different jurisdictional issues or new or changed information are present, the notice and comment process described in section 130.16(c)(2) applies. For example, if the geographic reservation area over which an applicant tribe asserts authority is different from the area covered by a prior TAS application or EPA approval, the process in section 130.16(c)(2) applies and provides an appropriate opportunity for comment on the tribe's assertion of authority over the new area. In such circumstances, a tribe may find it appropriate and useful to update its prior TAS application at the same time it applies for TAS for 303(d). This would help ensure that the tribe's TAS eligibility for the various CWA programs covers the same geographic area. Such a combined TAS application would be subject to the section 130.16(c)(2) notice and comment process.
This approach applies
EPA notes that the notice and comment procedures (and the exemption thereto) described in this rule relate solely to tribal assertions of authority as part of TAS applications. They do not address any issues relating to notice and comment on section 303(d) lists and TMDLs associated with 303(d) Program implementation by a TAS-eligible tribe.
In the proposed rule, EPA proposed to apply this exemption generally—that is, to all tribal applications that meet the exemption criteria even if the earlier CWA TAS approval occurred prior to the finalization of the 303(d) TAS rule. EPA requested comment on its proposed exemption and alternative approaches. In addition, we requested comment on whether the section 130.16(c)(4) notice and comment exemption should instead be available only prospectively—
EPA received several comments on the proposed notice and comment approach, including from several tribes, several states, one local government, and one non-governmental organization. The tribal commenters generally expressed support for the proposed approach, noting that tribes that have TAS approval for another CWA program should not have to go through additional delay for a duplicative notice and comment process. Two tribal commenters also noted that the approach should not be limited to prospective applications, with one commenter asserting that anyone with objections to previous applications already had an opportunity to express those concerns. States, local entities, and industry generally opposed the proposed streamlined notice and comment approach. One state asserted that states should have an opportunity to comment on all applications, regardless of previous TAS applications. One state commenter, while generally opposed to the approach, indicated that the approach at a minimum should be applied prospectively only. One state asserted that the proposed approach would not provide an opportunity to have input to the development of a new tribal program. Another state noted that the public should have an opportunity to comment on a program such as 303(d) that may have more direct and broader public implications than other TAS programs. One state commenter supported the proposed approach, but said that it should be applied prospectively only. A local government and a nongovernmental organization asserted that the approach limits due process and expands tribal control over non-tribal persons and lands.
EPA agrees with the commenters who supported the proposed approach as an effective and efficient means to ensure appropriate notice procedures on tribal assertions of authority in 303(d) TAS applications, while avoiding unnecessary and wasteful duplication. EPA also appreciates, but disagrees with, the comments that additional notice and comment should be required, regardless of previous CWA TAS applications. As discussed previously, where different jurisdictional issues or information are not present, additional notice and comment procedures would be duplicative of the process already undertaken during EPA's review of a prior TAS application. Eliminating unnecessary burdens is consistent with longstanding EPA and Executive policy to support tribal self-determination and promote and streamline tribal involvement in managing and regulating their lands and environments.
EPA also notes that the notice and comment procedures described in this rule are not required by the CWA or other federal law. Instead, they are provided by EPA as a matter of the Agency's discretion to ensure that EPA's decision making on tribal assertions of authority in TAS applications is well-informed, including by any relevant information that may be made available by appropriate governmental entities.
EPA has, however, decided to make the notice and comment exemption available only prospectively. Limiting the notice and comment exemption to prospective applications is appropriate because the notice and comment exemption will not provide any streamlining benefit to tribes with prior CWA TAS approvals in light of EPA's recent publication of an interpretive rule revising the Agency's approach to tribal jurisdiction under the CWA.
Where a tribe's assertion of authority is subject to a competing or conflicting claim, the procedures in this rule provide that the Regional Administrator, after due consideration and in consideration of any other comments received, will determine whether the tribe has adequately demonstrated authority to regulate water quality on the reservation for purposes of the 303(d) Program. Where the Regional Administrator concludes that a tribe has not adequately demonstrated its authority with respect to an area in dispute, then tribal assumption of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program may be restricted accordingly. If a dispute is focused on a limited area, this would not necessarily delay EPA's decision to treat the tribe in a similar manner as a state for non-disputed areas.
This procedure does not imply that states, tribes, other federal agencies, or any other entity have veto power over tribal TAS applications. Rather, it is intended to assist EPA in gathering information that may be relevant to the Agency's determination whether the applicant tribe has the necessary authority to administer the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. EPA will consider comments but will make an independent evaluation of the tribal showing.
The rule requires EPA to process a tribe's TAS application in a timely manner, but does not specify a precise time frame for review of tribal TAS applications. Each TAS application will present its own set of legal and factual issues, and EPA anticipates that in some cases it may be necessary to request additional information when examining tribal TAS applications. Similarly, the Agency's experience with states applying for various EPA programs and with tribes applying for TAS for the WQS Program indicates that additional engagement between EPA and the applicant may be necessary before final decisions are made. EPA expects that similar exchanges with tribes will often be helpful and enhance EPA's processing of tribal TAS applications for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program.
Where the Regional Administrator determines that a tribal TAS application satisfies the requirements of section 130.16(a) and (b), the Regional Administrator will promptly notify the tribe that the tribe has qualified for TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. A decision by the Regional Administrator that a tribe does not meet the requirements for TAS for purposes of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program would not preclude the tribe from resubmitting an application at a future date. If the Regional Administrator determines that a tribal application is deficient or incomplete, EPA will identify such deficiencies and gaps so the tribe can make changes as appropriate or necessary.
This final rule does not require tribes to have applicable WQS in place for their reservation waters prior to applying for TAS eligibility for the 303(d) Program. The rule also does not require tribes seeking TAS eligibility for the 303(d) Program to have previously obtained EPA approval for TAS for the WQS Program. Under section 303(d), however, states and authorized tribes must develop lists of impaired waters and TMDLs based on applicable WQS. CWA sections 303(d)(1) and (2). Accordingly, EPA expects that the tribes most likely to be interested in applying for TAS for the 303(d) Program will be those that also have TAS for CWA section 303(c) and have applicable WQS for their reservation waters. EPA has taken final action approving TAS for WQS for 53 tribes. Forty-two of those tribes have EPA-approved WQS, and one tribe without TAS for WQS has EPA-promulgated WQS.
Since applicable WQS are a foundation of the CWA's water quality-based approach to protecting our nation's waters, EPA recommends that establishing EPA-approved/EPA-promulgated WQS for reservation water bodies is an important first step for tribes interested in protecting and restoring their reservation waters. As tribes gain experience developing and administering applicable WQS on their reservations, they may become interested in greater involvement in additional CWA programs—such as the 303(d) Program—designed to ensure that applicable WQS are achieved. Obtaining TAS to implement a CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program for its reservation waters is one potential next step for interested tribes.
Table 1 is an example of a step-wise approach that tribes may follow in developing their water quality programs under the CWA and ultimately seeking TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. This is only one possible approach. Many of the identified steps could be completed in parallel rather than sequentially. In particular, this approach does not preclude a tribe from seeking TAS for the 303(d) Program, either separately or concurrently with TAS for the WQS Program.
In the proposed rule, EPA did not propose to require tribes to have CWA-applicable WQS—
EPA received comments on this topic from several tribes and tribal organizations, as well as several states. Two tribal organizations and one tribe asserted that applicable WQS should not be required prior to a tribe applying for TAS for the 303(d) Program. One of these tribal commenters reasoned that developing WQS requires time and should not be a barrier to tribes seeking 303(d) TAS. Another tribe asserted that WQS should not be required, in order to allow for an expedited process for a tribe seeking 303(d) TAS. One tribe commented that WQS should be required because lists of impaired waters must be based on applicable WQS. Five states asserted that WQS should be required because lists must be based on applicable WQS. One of these states also commented that both WQS and TAS for 303(c) should be required. Another state commented that resources would be wasted by tribes developing applications, and by the government in reviewing applications, for a program that tribes cannot implement without WQS.
EPA also received comments on whether a tribe should have TAS for 303(c) before applying for 303(d) TAS, or at least apply concurrently for 303(c) and 303(d) TAS. Two tribes asserted that TAS for 303(c) should not be a requirement in order for a tribe to seek 303(d) TAS. Two states supported the opposite position: That TAS for 303(c) should be in place before a tribe applies for 303(d) TAS. Another state also asserted that tribes should apply for 303(c) TAS prior to, or at least concurrent with, their application for 303(d) TAS.
EPA agrees with the commenters that WQS are the basis for the development of impaired waters lists and TMDLs. See sections 303(d)(1) and (2). As discussed in Section IV, under section 303(d) of the CWA, every two years authorized tribes would be required to develop lists of waters not meeting, or not expected to meet, applicable water quality standards. 40 CFR 130.7(d). Impaired waters are waters for which technology-based limitations and other required controls are not stringent enough to meet applicable CWA water quality standards. Under section 303(d), a tribe would use applicable WQS as the basis for identifying impaired waters and calculating TMDLs, which quantify the maximum amount of a pollutant that a water body can receive and still meet the WQS.
Although 303(d) lists and TMDLs are developed based on applicable WQS, EPA disagrees that the Agency should impose a regulatory requirement that such WQS must be in place before a tribe can apply under section 518 for 303(d) TAS eligibility. Similarly, EPA disagrees that the Agency should impose a regulatory requirement that a tribe must have TAS for 303(c) prior to applying for 303(d) TAS. This rule establishes the process for a tribe to seek TAS for the 303(d) Program. The process of applying for 303(d) TAS eligibility under section 518 is a separate step distinct from the process of implementing section 303(d) through the development of 303(d) lists or
EPA notes that, under this approach, tribes seeking and obtaining 303(d) TAS eligibility will have ample opportunity to develop and seek EPA approval or establishment of WQS that would be the basis for section 303(d) implementation. This rule takes into consideration the time needed for development of WQS. As indicated in section 130.16(c)(5) of this rule, an authorized tribe's first impaired waters list must be submitted to EPA on the next listing cycle due date that is at least 24 months from the later of: (1) The date the tribe's TAS application for 303(d) is approved or (2) the date EPA-approved/promulgated WQS for the tribe's waters are effective.
Similarly, making TAS for section 303(c) a requirement for tribes seeking TAS for 303(d) would be unduly restrictive of tribal options regarding the development of WQS and implementation of the 303(d) Program. As discussed, eligible tribes may develop lists or TMDLs under 303(d) based on any WQS that are “applicable” under the Act. “Applicable” WQS include EPA-approved tribal WQS as well as those promulgated by EPA.
Finally, although EPA expects that the tribes most likely to be interested in applying for TAS for section 303(d) will be those that also have TAS for section 303(c) and have applicable WQS, the rule should not preclude other tribes from obtaining TAS status for section 303(d), and thus ensuring that TAS eligibility requirements are satisfactorily addressed prior to expending resources on developing WQS. While one commenter asserted that resources would be wasted on 303(d) applications in the absence of tribal WQS, EPA disagrees and concludes that the approach finalized in this rule will allow tribes, at their discretion, to streamline and minimize expenditures on TAS procedures. For example, a tribe could combine TAS requests for sections 303(c) and 303(d) into a single application—an option that EPA encourages, but does not require. Requiring that WQS be in place prior to applying for 303(d) TAS would eliminate the ability for tribes to streamline their TAS applications by applying concurrently for 303(c) and 303(d) TAS. In any event, questions regarding how best to expend tribal resources and to organize and address tribal environmental priorities in pursuing eligibility for CWA programs should be left to the sovereign decision making of tribal governments.
Pre-proposal input from tribes indicated that resources and funding available for TMDL development would be important considerations for tribes in deciding whether to apply for TAS for CWA section 303(d) purposes. During the public comment period, EPA also received comments from tribes reiterating the importance of funding and technical assistance for tribes interested in TAS for the 303(d) Program. As noted in section XI.F of the preamble to this rule, EPA considered tribal comments in developing this final rule, and intends to remain sensitive to tribal resource issues in its budgeting and planning process. EPA understands the tribes' resource concerns, but observes that the Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program is not a grant program, and no federal grant funds are available directly from the Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. A tribe may be able to use its General Assistance Program (GAP) Grant under the Indian Environmental General Assistance Program Act to support development of a section 303(d) Program and capacity to implement such a program, but GAP funds are not available for ongoing 303(d) Program implementation. Tribes interested in using GAP funds should contact their Regional GAP Program coordinator. In addition, other potential sources of tribal funding, such as CWA section 319 grants and section 106 grants, are already tightly constrained and may not be available to support additional work under section 303(d). Some tribes that receive CWA funding may be able to identify program activities that could also support 303(d) activities (
As resources allow, EPA may be able to work cooperatively with tribes, as appropriate, on impaired water listing and TMDL issues in Indian country. For example, EPA intends to develop training and/or provide other technical support to tribes interested in obtaining TAS for 303(d) and implementing a CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program if EPA staff and other resources are available to do so. As a general matter, however, EPA cannot assure that funding will be available for a tribe to develop or implement the 303(d) Program; a tribe considering whether to apply to administer the Program should carefully assess its priorities and the availability of EPA assistance or other resources.
In this section, EPA responds to several additional topics that were raised in public comments.
EPA received several comments regarding the impact of the rule on local and state authority over water quality programs. One state commented that the rule should clarify the meaning of “within the borders of the Indian reservation” to reflect that a state may have legal holdings within the exterior border of a reservation that do not qualify as Indian land. One local government commented that the
EPA appreciates these comments and wishes to clarify that this rule has no effect on the scope of existing state implementation of section 303(d). Generally speaking, civil regulatory authority in Indian country lies with the federal government and the relevant Indian tribe, not with the states.
This rule relates solely to the process for tribes to seek TAS for the purpose of administering CWA section 303(d) over their reservation waters; it has no effect on the scope of existing CWA regulatory programs administered by states. It neither diminishes nor enlarges the scope of such approved state programs.
There are uncommon situations where a federal statute other than the CWA grants a state jurisdiction to regulate in areas of Indian country. For example, in a few cases EPA has approved states to operate CWA regulatory programs in areas of Indian country where the states demonstrated jurisdiction based on such a separate federal statute. This rule does not address or affect such jurisdiction that other federal statutes may provide to states.
Several of the comments EPA received on the proposed rule raised issues relating to EPA's separate interpretive rule revising the Agency's approach to tribal jurisdiction under the CWA. The interpretive rule was pending at the time EPA received these comments, but the rule has since been finalized. 81 FR 30183. One commenter supported the interpretive rule and asked EPA to cross-reference it in the 303(d) TAS rule. One state asked how the interpretive rule would be applied where there is state-specific law addressing unique issues arising in that state. Two states, one local government, and two industry commenters expressed opposition to the interpretive rule. Reasons for opposing the re-interpretation included objections to tribal jurisdiction over non-member activities and concern regarding impacts on state CWA programs.
EPA appreciates the issues raised by the commenters but notes that any questions or comments regarding the interpretive rule are outside the scope of this final rule. This rule relates solely to the procedures that will apply to tribal applications for TAS for the section 303(d) Program and to EPA's review of such applications. This rule thus fills a gap in TAS infrastructure, and fulfills the requirement of CWA section 518(e) that EPA promulgate final regulations specifying how tribes shall be treated as states for purposes of section 303(d). This rule provides appropriate TAS procedures irrespective of which interpretation of tribal jurisdiction applies. The rulemaking itself neither adopts, nor implements, any particular approach to tribal jurisdiction. It simply provides a process for tribes to apply for TAS, and for EPA to review such applications (with relevant input from appropriate governmental entities and others). Any application of EPA's revised approach to tribal jurisdiction under section 518 as described in the final interpretive rule would occur in the context of EPA's final decision on a particular tribe's TAS application for a CWA regulatory program, in this case the 303(d) Program. EPA also notes that the issues raised by commenters regarding the then-proposed interpretive rule were addressed by EPA in the context of finalizing that rule. 81 FR 30183.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) determined that this action is not a significant regulatory action and therefore it was not submitted to the OMB for review.
EPA has submitted the information collection requirements in this legislative rule to OMB for approval under the PRA. The Information Collection Request (ICR) document that EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 2553.02. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here. This ICR supplements the current information collection requirements in EPA ICR number 1560.11 (National Water Quality Inventory Reports (Renewal)) and addresses the tribes' CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL TAS application and 303(d) Program implementation burden, as well as EPA's burden for reviewing the tribes' applications and 303(d) Program submittals. ICR 1560.11 is a renewal of ICR 1560.10. OMB approved ICR number 1560.11 in March 2016.
This legislative rule establishes a process for tribes to obtain TAS for the 303(d) Program. As described in the ICR, EPA estimates the total burden on tribes to apply for TAS for the 303(d) Program would be 3,240 staff hours annually for an estimated 12 tribes that would apply for and receive TAS approval per year.
Tribes that receive TAS approval and have applicable WQS will then need to implement the requirements of section 303(d) to list impaired waters, set TMDL priorities, and develop TMDLs. EPA estimates that such 303(d) Program implementation burden would entail 86,664 staff hours annually for the estimated 12 tribes. ICR 1560.11 already includes the estimated burden for states to implement section 303(d), but does not include estimates for tribes. Therefore, the ICR for this rule includes the tribal section 303(d) implementation burden as well as the TAS application burden described in the previous paragraph.
As discussed in section V of this notice, EPA's regulations require that a tribe seeking to administer a CWA regulatory program must submit information to EPA demonstrating that the tribe meets the statutory criteria described in section V. EPA requires this information in order to determine that the tribe is eligible to administer
This estimate may overstate actual burden because EPA used a conservatively high estimate of the annual rate of tribal applications. This conservatively high estimate was used to ensure that the ICR does not underestimate tribal burden, given that EPA used a simplifying steady-state assumption in estimating annualized tribal application costs. Also, EPA used conservatively high estimates of 303(d) Program implementation burden (
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This action will not impose any requirements on small entities. This action affects only Indian tribes that seek TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action only applies to tribal governments that seek eligibility to administer the 303(d) Program. Although it could be of interest to some state governments, it does not apply directly to any state government or to any other entity.
In the spirit of Executive Order 13132, and consistent with EPA policy to promote communications between EPA and state and local governments, EPA consulted with state associations and representatives of state governments to obtain meaningful and timely input for consideration in this rule. By letter dated September 19, 2014, EPA invited 10 national and regional state associations to an October 1, 2014, informational meeting at EPA in Washington, DC.
Some participants expressed interest in: (1) The nature of comments received from tribes during the pre-proposal tribal consultation and coordination (April 8-June 6, 2014); (2) where they could find the list of tribes having TAS for the WQS Program; (3) whether the TAS process for CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program would be consistent with other TAS processes; and (4) whether there is a process in place to consult with states where a tribe applies for TAS for 303(d). Some states also had questions about issues unique to their situations. EPA considered this input in developing the rule, particularly in developing sections V to IX. EPA also consulted with state associations and state representatives during the public comment period, including a webinar for state representatives and informational communications with individual state representatives. In comments on the proposed rule, most states generally were neutral regarding the proposed rule overall. Some states cited special circumstances regarding applicability of the rule in their states, or provided comments objecting to EPA's proposed (now final) interpretive rule regarding tribal jurisdiction under the CWA. See
This action has tribal implications because it will directly affect tribes interested in administering the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. However, it will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. Thus, this action is not subject to consultation under Executive Order 13175. Tribes are not required to administer a 303(d) Program. Where a tribe chooses to do so, the rule provides a regulatory process for the tribe to apply and for EPA to act on the tribe's application.
EPA consulted and coordinated with tribal officials under the EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes early in the process of developing this regulation to permit them to have meaningful and timely input into its development. A summary of that consultation and coordination follows.
EPA initiated a tribal consultation and coordination process for this action by sending a “Notification of Consultation and Coordination” letter on March 28, 2014, to all 566 federally-recognized tribes as of that date.
During the 60-day public comment period on the proposed rule in 2016, EPA provided informational webinars for tribes and conducted further consultation and coordination with tribes. EPA initiated a tribal consultation and coordination process on the proposed rule by sending a “Notification and Coordination” letter on January 19, 2016, to the 566 federally-recognized tribes as of that date. Following the public comment period, EPA also participated in informational meetings with tribes. As noted in Section I, EPA received comments from nine tribes and tribal associations on the proposed rule. Tribal comments generally supported the proposed rule. Several comments re-iterated the need for additional funding and technical support as tribes begin to implement the 303(d) Program. EPA considered the tribal comments in developing this final rule, and intends to remain sensitive to tribal resource issues in its budgeting and planning process. However, EPA cannot assure or assume that additional funding will be available for a tribe developing or implementing the 303(d) Program. A tribe choosing to administer such programs will need to carefully weigh its priorities and any available EPA assistance as described in section IX above.
EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that EPA has reason to think could disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The rule does not have potential to cause disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income, or indigenous populations. This rule would have no direct impacts on human health or the environment. The rule affects processes and information collection only. The rule puts in place the procedures interested tribes would follow to seek TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. The action is likely to result in the collection of information or data that could be used to assess potential impacts on the health or environmental conditions in Indian country (see sections III and IV). As described in sections III and IV above, under CWA section 303(d), authorized tribes with applicable WQS would be required to develop lists of impaired waters, submit these lists to EPA, and develop TMDLs for pollutants causing impairments in the waters on the 303(d) lists. TAS for 303(d) would provide authorized tribes the opportunity to participate directly in protecting their reservation waters through the Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program, as Congress intended through CWA section 518(e). EPA also expects this rule will advance the goals of the CWA as interested tribes apply for TAS to administer the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program for reservation water bodies.
The action is likely to increase the availability of water quality information to indigenous populations as interested tribes obtain TAS for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program and begin implementing the Program. In short, tribes with TAS assume
EPA provided meaningful participation opportunities for tribes in the development of this rule, as described in “
This action is subject to the CRA, and the EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Grant programs-environmental protection, Indian lands, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Water pollution control, Water supply.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency amends 40 CFR part 130 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1251
(a) The Regional Administrator may accept and approve a tribal application for purposes of administering the Clean
(1) The Indian tribe is recognized by the Secretary of the Interior and meets the definitions in § 131.3(k) and (l) of this chapter;
(2) The Indian tribe has a governing body carrying out substantial governmental duties and powers;
(3) The CWA section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program to be administered by the Indian tribe pertains to the management and protection of water resources that are within the borders of the Indian reservation and held by the Indian tribe, within the borders of the Indian reservation and held by the United States in trust for Indians, within the borders of the Indian reservation and held by a member of the Indian tribe if such property interest is subject to a trust restriction on alienation, or otherwise within the borders of the Indian reservation; and
(4) The Indian tribe is reasonably expected to be capable, in the Regional Administrator's judgment, of carrying out the functions of an effective CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program in a manner consistent with the terms and purposes of the Act and applicable regulations.
(b) Requests by Indian tribes for administration of the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program should be submitted to the appropriate EPA Regional Administrator. The application shall include the following information, provided that where the tribe has previously qualified for eligibility or “treatment as a state” (TAS) under another EPA-administered program, the tribe need only provide the required information that has not been submitted in a previous application:
(1) A statement that the tribe is recognized by the Secretary of the Interior.
(2) A descriptive statement demonstrating that the tribal governing body is currently carrying out substantial governmental duties and powers over a defined area. The statement should:
(i) Describe the form of the tribal government;
(ii) Describe the types of governmental functions currently performed by the tribal governing body such as, but not limited to, the exercise of police powers affecting (or relating to) the health, safety, and welfare of the affected population, taxation, and the exercise of the power of eminent domain; and
(iii) Identify the source of the tribal government's authority to carry out the governmental functions currently being performed.
(3) A descriptive statement of the tribe's authority to regulate water quality. The statement should include:
(i) A map or legal description of the area over which the tribe asserts authority to regulate surface water quality;
(ii) A statement by the tribe's legal counsel (or equivalent official) that describes the basis for the tribe's assertion of authority and may include a copy of documents such as tribal constitutions, by-laws, charters, executive orders, codes, ordinances, and/or resolutions that support the tribe's assertion of authority; and
(iii) An identification of the surface waters that the tribe proposes to assess for potential impaired water listing and TMDL development.
(4) A narrative statement describing the capability of the Indian tribe to administer an effective CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. The narrative statement should include:
(i) A description of the Indian tribe's previous management experience that may include the administration of programs and services authorized by the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450,
(ii) A list of existing environmental or public health programs administered by the tribal governing body and copies of related tribal laws, policies, and regulations;
(iii) A description of the entity (or entities) that exercise the executive, legislative, and judicial functions of the tribal government;
(iv) A description of the existing, or proposed, agency of the Indian tribe that will assume primary responsibility for establishing, reviewing, implementing and revising impaired water lists and TMDLs; and
(v) A description of the technical and administrative capabilities of the staff to administer and manage an effective CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program or a plan that proposes how the tribe will acquire the needed administrative and technical expertise. The plan must address how the tribe will obtain the funds to acquire the administrative and technical expertise.
(5) Additional documentation required by the Regional Administrator that, in the judgment of the Regional Administrator, is necessary to support a tribal application.
(c) Procedure for processing a tribe's application:
(1) The Regional Administrator shall process an application of a tribe submitted pursuant to § 130.16(b) in a timely manner. The Regional Administrator shall promptly notify the tribe of receipt of the application.
(2) Except as provided below in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, within 30 days after receipt of the tribe's application, the Regional Administrator shall provide appropriate notice. Notice shall:
(i) Include information on the substance and basis of the tribe's assertion of authority to regulate the quality of reservation waters;
(ii) Be provided to all appropriate governmental entities; and
(iii) Provide 30 days for comments to be submitted on the tribal application. Comments shall be limited to the tribe's assertion of authority.
(3) If a tribe's asserted authority is subject to a competing or conflicting claim, the Regional Administrator, after due consideration, and in consideration of other comments received, shall determine whether the tribe has adequately demonstrated that it meets the requirements of § 130.16(a)(3).
(4) Where, after the effective date of this rule, EPA has determined that a tribe qualifies for TAS for the CWA Section 303(c) Water Quality Standards Program, CWA Section 402 National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System Program, or CWA Section 404 Dredge and Fill Permit Program, and provided notice and an opportunity to comment on the tribe's assertion of authority to appropriate governmental entities as part of its review of the tribe's prior application, no further notice to governmental entities, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, shall be provided with regard to the same tribe's application for the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program, unless the application presents to the EPA Regional Administrator different jurisdictional issues or significant new factual or legal information relevant to jurisdiction.
(5) Where the Regional Administrator determines that a tribe meets the requirements of this section, he or she shall promptly provide written notification to the tribe that the tribe is authorized to administer the CWA Section 303(d) Impaired Water Listing and TMDL Program. Such tribe shall be considered a “State” for purposes of CWA section 303(d) and its implementing regulations. With respect
(i) The date EPA approves the tribe's TAS application pursuant to this section; or
(ii) The date EPA-approved or EPA-promulgated water quality standards become effective for the tribe's reservation waters.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation amends tolerances for residues of fluopicolide in or on potato, processed potato waste and vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C and establishes a tolerance for residues of fluopicolide in or on potato, granules/flakes. Valent U.S.A. Corporation requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA). This regulation also assigns an expiration date to existing tolerances for potato, processed potato waste at 1.0 ppm and vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C at 0.3 ppm. Lastly, this regulation establishes a time-limited tolerance on hop, dried cones. The time-limited tolerance is in response to EPA's granting of an emergency exemption under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA). The time-limited tolerance will expire and revoked on December 31, 2019.
This regulation is effective September 26, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before November 25, 2016, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0791, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0791 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before November 25, 2016. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0791, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
In the
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA is establishing tolerance levels for potato, processed potato waste and vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C that differ from the petition requests and is not establishing a tolerance for residues on potato, chips. The reasons for these changes are explained in Unit IV.D.
In response to a crisis exemption request filed under section 18 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) on behalf of the Michigan Department of Agriculture and Rural Development for the emergency use of fluopicolide to control downy mildew on hops grown in Michigan, EPA is establishing, pursuant to FFDCA section 408(l)(6), a time-limited tolerance for the use of fluopicolide on hop, dried cones at 30 ppm with an expiration date of December 31, 2019.
As part of its evaluation of the emergency exemption application, EPA assessed the potential risks presented by residues of fluopicolide on hops. In doing so, EPA considered the safety standard in section 408(b)(2) of FFDCA, and the Agency decided that the necessary tolerance under section 408(l)(6) of FFDCA would be consistent with the safety standard and with FIFRA section 18. Consistent with the need to move quickly on the emergency exemption in order to address an urgent non-routine situation and to ensure that the resulting food is safe and lawful, EPA is issuing this tolerance without notice and opportunity for public comment as provided in section 408(l)(6) of FFDCA. Although this time-limited tolerance expires and is revoked on December 31, 2019, under section 408(l)(5) of FFDCA, residues of the pesticide not in excess of the amounts specified in the tolerance remaining in or on hops after that date will not be unlawful, provided the pesticide was applied in a manner that was lawful under FIFRA, and the residues do not exceed a level that was authorized by the time-limited tolerance at the time of that application. EPA will take action to revoke this time-limited tolerance earlier if any experience with, scientific data on, or other relevant information on this pesticide indicate that the residues are not safe.
Because this time-limited tolerance is being approved under emergency conditions, EPA has not made any decisions whether fluopicolide meets FIFRA's registration requirements for use in or on hops or whether a permanent tolerance for this use would be appropriate. Under these circumstances, EPA does not believe that this time-limited tolerance serves as a basis for registration of fluopicolide by a State for Special Local Needs under FIFRA section 24(c). Nor does this tolerance serve as the basis for persons in any State other than Michigan to use this pesticide on hops under FIFRA sction 18 absent the issuance of an emergency exemption applicable within that State. For additional information regarding the emergency exemption for fluopicolide, contact the Agency's Registration Division at the address provided under
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue . . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for fluopicolide including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action.
Fluopicolide shares a metabolite, 2,6-dichlorobenzamide (BAM), with another active ingredient, dichlobenil. Residues of BAM are considered to be of regulatory concern, and separate toxicity data and endpoints for risk assessment have been identified for BAM. Therefore, EPA has considered the aggregate, or combined risks, from food, water, and non-occupational exposure resulting from fluopicolide alone and BAM from all sources for this action. The BAM risk assessment considers residues resulting from both fluopicolide and dichlobenil uses. However, BAM residues generated from fluopicolide uses are expected to be significantly lower than BAM residues from dichlobenil uses.
In the
The toxicity profile and the points of departure for evaluating human health for fluopicolide have not changed since the August 6, 2014 rule. EPA conducted a dietary risk assessment to support the Section 18 registration for use of
For a detailed discussion of the aggregate risk assessments and determination of safety for these tolerances, please refer to the August 6, 2014,
However, since the August 6, 2014 action relied on a 2008 action for BAM, the EPA has updated the BAM assessment to revisit the percent crop treated (PCT) and account for updated food consumption data. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with BAM follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. The toxicity profile for BAM has not changed since the 2008 assessment EPA conducted for BAM. Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by BAM as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found in “2,6-Dichlorobenzamide (BAM). 2,6-Dichlorobenzamide (BAM) as a Metabolite/Degradate of Fluopicolide and Dichlobenil. Human Health Risk Assessment for Proposed Uses of Rhubarb, Dichlobenil on Caneberries (Subgroup 13-07A), and Bushberries (Subgroup 13-07B).” dated June 19, 2008, in docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2007-0604.
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for BAM used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III.B. of the final rule published in the
a.
Such effects were identified for BAM. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used food consumption information from the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America, (NHANES/WWEIA). This dietary survey was conducted from 2003 to 2008. EPA conducted a partially refined acute dietary exposure assessment for the metabolite BAM. As to residue levels in food, EPA assumed maximum BAM residue from either the fluopicolide or dichlobenil field trial data. Further, 100 PCT for all commodities was assumed except apples, blueberries, cherries, peaches, pears, and raspberries where EPA relied on PCT estimates based on use of dichlobenil on these commodities; fluopicolide is not registered for use on these commodities. DEEM default processing-factors were used for commodities where empirical processing data were not available.
The carcinogenic potential of BAM has been evaluated in only one species, the rat. That study showed an increased incidence of hepatocellular adenomas in high-dose females that was marginally statistically significant. To be conservative, EPA has assumed that BAM's potential for carcinogenicity is similar to the parent having the greatest carcinogenic potential. Fluopicolide has been classified as not likely to be carcinogenic to humans; EPA classified dichlobenil as a Group C, possible human carcinogen, but determined that the chronic dietary risk assessment based on the cPAD would be protective of any potential cancer effects. EPA has assumed that BAM's carcinogenic potential is similar to that of dichlobenil, the parent compound having the greatest carcinogenicity potential. As with dichlobenil, the chronic dietary risk assessment based on the cPAD is expected to protect for any potential cancer effects. Cancer risk was assessed using the same exposure estimates as discussed in Unit III.B.3.a.ii.
For additional information, refer to the summary of the toxicological endpoints for BAM used for human risk assessment is discussed in Unit III.B. of the final rule published in the
Section 408(b)(2)(F) of FFDCA states that the Agency may use data on the actual percent of food treated for assessing chronic dietary risk only if:
• Condition a: The data used are reliable and provide a valid basis to show what percentage of the food derived from such crop is likely to contain the pesticide residue.
• Condition b: The exposure estimate does not underestimate exposure for any significant subpopulation group.
• Condition c: Data are available on pesticide use and food consumption in a particular area, the exposure estimate does not understate exposure for the population in such area.
In addition, the Agency must provide for periodic evaluation of any estimates used. To provide for the periodic evaluation of the estimate of PCT as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(F), EPA may require registrants to submit data on PCT.
In the acute dietary assessment for BAM, the Agency estimated the PCT from the existing dichlobenil uses as follows: Apple, 2.5%; blueberry, 2.5%; raspberry, 20%; cherry, 2.5%; peach, 2.5%; pear, 5%. In the chronic dietary assessment for BAM, the Agency estimated the PCT from the existing dichlobenil uses as follows: Apple, 1%.
In most cases, EPA uses available data from United States Department of Agriculture/National Agricultural Statistics Service (USDA/NASS), proprietary market surveys, and the National Pesticide Use Database for the chemical/crop combination for the most recent 6 to 7 years. EPA uses an average PCT for chronic dietary risk analysis. The average PCT figure for each existing use is derived by combining available public and private market survey data for that use, averaging across all observations, and rounding to the nearest 5%, except for those situations in which the average PCT is less than one. In those cases, 1% is used as the average PCT and 2.5% is used as the maximum PCT. EPA uses a maximum PCT for acute dietary risk analysis. The maximum PCT figure is the highest observed maximum value reported within the recent 6 years of available public and private market survey data for the existing use and rounded up to the nearest multiple of 5%.
The Agency believes that the three conditions discussed in Unit III.B.3.a.iv. have been met. With respect to Condition a, PCT estimates are derived from Federal and private market survey data, which are reliable and have a valid basis. The Agency is reasonably certain that the percentage of the food treated is not likely to be an underestimation. As to Conditions b and c, regional consumption information and consumption information for significant subpopulations is taken into account through EPA's computer-based model for evaluating the exposure of significant subpopulations including several regional groups. Use of this consumption information in EPA's risk assessment process ensures that EPA's exposure estimate does not understate exposure for any significant subpopulation group and allows the Agency to be reasonably certain that no regional population is exposed to residue levels higher than those estimated by the Agency. Other than the data available through national food consumption surveys, EPA does not have available reliable information on the regional consumption of food to which fluopicolide or dichlobenil may be applied in a particular area.
b.
Based on the Pesticide Root Zone Model/Exposure Analysis Modeling System (PRZM/EXAMS) and Screening Concentration in Ground Water (SCI-GROW) models, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of BAM resulting from application of dichlobenil for acute exposures are estimated to be 25.5 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 67.4 ppb for ground water. The EDWCs of BAM resulting from application of dichlobenil for chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments are estimated to be 10.5 ppb for surface water and 67.4 ppb for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For acute and chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 67.4 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water.
c.
Fluopicolide is currently registered for the following uses that could result in residential exposures: Residential turf grass, recreational sites, and ornamental plants and trees. EPA assessed residential exposure to BAM from fluopicolide uses using the following assumptions: Residential handlers may receive short-term dermal and inhalation exposure to BAM when mixing, loading, and applying the fluopicolide formulations. Residential post-application exposure via the dermal route is likely for adults and children entering treated lawns or treated gardens and during mowing and golfing activities. Children may experience exposure via incidental non-dietary ingestion (
Residential handler exposure to BAM resulting from the application of dichlobenil is not expected. While dichlobenil is currently registered for residential uses on ornamental plants, they are approved for professional applicator use only. Post-application exposure of adults and children to dichlobenil and BAM exposure from the use of dichlobenil products on ornamental plants is expected to be negligible and, therefore, was not assessed.
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at
d.
Unlike other pesticides for which EPA has followed a cumulative risk approach based on a common mechanism of toxicity, EPA has not made a common mechanism of toxicity finding as to fluopicolide and any other substances. Fluopicolide shares a common metabolite, BAM, with dichlobenil. Quantification of risks for residues of BAM resulting from fluopicolide and dichlobenil was completed as part of this assessment; aggregate risks from BAM are not of concern. For the purposes of this tolerance action, EPA has not assumed that fluopicolide has a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
a.
b.
c.
i. To compensate for deficiencies in the toxicology database for BAM, EPA performed a comparative analysis of the toxicity of BAM and the parent compounds, dichlobenil and fluopicolide, using the available animal data and DEREK analysis (Deductive Estimation of Risk from Existing Knowledge). DEREK is a toxicology application that uses structure-activity relationships to predict a broad range of toxicological properties based on a comprehensive analysis of a compound's molecular structure. Based on the available animal data and DEREK analyses, BAM does not appear to cause
ii. For BAM, there is no evidence of quantitative susceptibility following in utero and/or postnatal exposure in the rabbit developmental toxicity study or in the 3-generation rat reproduction study. Qualitative susceptibility was not observed in the 3-generation reproduction study however, qualitative susceptibility was observed in the rabbit developmental toxicity study. Yet the concern for this qualitative susceptibility is low because the fetal effects and late-term abortions have been well characterized and occurred at dose levels where significant maternal toxicity (severe body-weight gain decrements and decreased food consumption) was observed. Protection of the maternal effects also protects for any effects that may occur during development.
iii. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were refined using reliable PCT information and anticipated residue values calculated from residue field trial results. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to BAM in drinking water. EPA used similarly conservative assumptions to assess postapplication exposure of children as well as incidental oral exposure of toddlers. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by BAM.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
Adequate enforcement methodology (liquid chromatography/tandem mass spectrometry (LC/MS/MS)) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that
EPA received one comment to the Notice of Filing that stated, in part, that the citizenry of this country do not want to eat any food items that have been polluted by these toxic chemicals and to deny this exemption. The Agency understands the commenter's concerns and recognizes that some individuals believe that pesticides should be banned on agricultural crops. However, the existing legal framework provided by section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) states that tolerances may be set when persons seeking such tolerances or exemptions have demonstrated that the pesticide meets the safety standard imposed by that statute. This citizen's comment appears to be directed at the underlying statute and not EPA's implementation of it; the citizen has made no contention that EPA has acted in violation of the statutory framework.
EPA revised the tolerance levels based on analysis of the residue field trial data using the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) tolerance calculation procedures. Based on evaluation of the residue data and use of the OECD calculation procedures, the Agency modified the tolerance for the vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C from the requested level of 0.10 ppm to 0.09 ppm. The Agency also modified the tolerance for potato, processed potato waste from the requested tolerance level of 0.25 ppm to 0.2 ppm (0.075 ppm maximum residue × 2.4 processing factor for wet peel). The EPA did not establish the requested tolerance for potato, chips because the tolerance for vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C (0.09 ppm) will cover residues in or on potato chips (0.068 ppm estimated residue).
In this rulemaking, EPA is reducing the tolerances for vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C from 0.3 ppm to 0.09 ppm and potato, processed potato waste from 1.0 ppm to 0.2 ppm. The petitioner requested these reductions in order to harmonize tolerances with field trial data after the tolerances were increased in 2014 to support an early season soil application to potato, which has since then been restricted. The reduction is appropriate based on available data and residue levels resulting from registered use patterns.
In accordance with the World Trade Organization's (WTO) Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures Agreement, EPA notified the WTO of the request to revise these tolerances on July 19, 2016 as WTO notification G/SPS/N/USA/2861. In this action, EPA is allowing the existing higher tolerances to remain in effect for 6 months following the publication of this rule in order to allow a reasonable interval for producers in the exporting countries to adapt to the requirements of these modified tolerances. On March 27, 2017, those existing higher tolerances will expire, and the new reduced tolerances for vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C and potato, processed potato waste will remain to cover residues of fluopicolide on those commodities. Before that date, residues of fluopicolide on those commodities would be permitted up to the higher tolerance levels; after that date, residues of fluopicolide on vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C and potato, processed potato waste will need to comply with the new lower tolerance levels. This reduction in tolerance is not discriminatory; the same food safety standard contained in the FFDCA applies equally to domestically produced and imported foods.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of fluopicolide, 2,6-dichloro-N-[3-chloro-5-(trifluoromethyl)-2-pyridylmethyl]-benzamide, in or on vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C at 0.09 ppm, potato, processed waste at 0.2 ppm, and potato, granules/flakes at 0.15 ppm. The Agency is adding an expiration date of March 27, 2017 to the existing tolerances for vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C at 0.3 ppm and potato, processed potato waste at 1.0 ppm. Residues of fluopicolide will be covered by these higher tolerances until the expiration date, after which time, they will need to comply with the lower tolerances being established today. Lastly, this regulation establishes a time-limited tolerance for residues of fluopicolide in or on hop, dried cone at 30 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning, and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(b)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
EPA is amending the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) regulations by extending the submission deadline for 2016 reports from September 30, 2016 to October 31, 2016. This is a one-time extension for the 2016 submission period only. The CDR regulations require manufacturers (including importers) of certain chemical substances included on the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory (TSCA Inventory) to report current data on the manufacturing, processing, and use of the chemical substances.
This final rule is effective September 26, 2016.
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2009-0187, is available at
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture (including import and manufacture as a byproduct) chemical substances listed on the TSCA Inventory. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include but are not limited to:
• Chemical manufacturers (including importers) (NAICS codes 325 and 324110,
• Chemical users and processors who may manufacture a byproduct chemical substance (NAICS codes 22, 322, 331, and 3344,
The 2016 CDR submission period is from June 1 to September 30, 2016 (40 CFR 711.20). EPA is issuing this amendment to extend the deadline for 2016 CDR submission reports until October 31, 2016. This is a one-time extension: Subsequent submission periods (recurring every four years, next in 2020) are not being amended.
The Agency is taking this action in response to concerns raised by the regulated community about their ability to submit the required information within the prescribed period. The written request to extend the CDR submission period is included in the docket (see
The CDR rule was issued pursuant to the authority of TSCA section 8(a), 15 U.S.C. 2607(a). Under section 553(b)(3)(B) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), the Agency may issue a final rule without a prior proposal if it finds that notice and public participatory procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. In this case, for the extension sought, the Agency does find that normal notice and public process rulemaking is impracticable. Given that the current reporting deadline is September 30, 2016, it is impracticable to follow notice and comment procedures on an extension of that deadline, because that process would not allow the rule to be finalized before the current reporting deadline. The Agency only recently learned that the regulated community was having difficulty related to the required electronic reporting mechanism. Individual entities provided information about technical issues and reporting difficulties, but the collective significance of these issues was not apparent until the Agency completed review of a letter from the American Chemistry Council dated August 30, 2016 (Ref. 1).
This action does not alter the substantive CDR reporting requirements in any way. The Agency also believes the one-time extension will not result in a significant delay in the processing and availability of CDR information to potential users. Further, this action is consistent with the public interest because it is designed to facilitate compliance with the CDR rule and to ensure that the 2016 collection includes accurate data on chemical manufacturing, processing, and use in the United States. Finally, any impact on the regulated community is expected to be beneficial given that the one-time extension provides additional time to submit accurate CDR reports to EPA.
Similarly, under APA section 553(d), 5 U.S.C. 553(d), the Agency may make a rule immediately effective “for good cause found and published with the rule.” For the reasons discussed in this unit, EPA believes that there is “good cause” to make this amendment effective upon publication in the
The following is a listing of the documents that are specifically referenced in this document. The docket includes these documents and other information considered by EPA, including documents that are referenced within the documents that are included in the docket, even if the referenced document is not physically located in the docket. For assistance in locating these other documents, please consult the technical person listed under
1. American Chemistry Council. “Request for an Extension to the TSCA Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) 2016 Submission Period [Letter].” August 30, 2016.
Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at
This action is classified as a final rule because it makes an amendment to the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). The amendment to the CFR is necessary to allow for a one-time extension to the 2016 CDR reporting period. This action does not impose any new requirements or amend substantive requirements. This action is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and Executive Order 13563 entitled “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review” (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011).
This final rule does not contain any new or revised information collections subject to OMB approval under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501
This final rule is not subject to the RFA, 5 U.S.C. 601
This action will not have substantial direct effects on State or tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and States or Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and States or Indian tribes. As a result, no action is required under Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), or under Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). Nor does it impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538.
This action is not a “significant regulatory action” as defined by Executive Order 12866. As a result, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) and Executive Order 13211 entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001). In addition, this action also does not require any special considerations under Executive Order 12898 entitled “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the NTTAA, 15 U.S.C. 272 note.
This action is subject to the CRA, 5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Confidential Business Information (CBI), Hazardous materials, Importer, Manufacturer, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2607(a).
* * * The 2016 CDR submission period is from June 1, 2016 to October 31, 2016. Subsequent recurring submission periods are from June 1 to September 30 at 4-year intervals, beginning in 2020.* * *
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document the Commission revises its Schedule of Regulatory Fees to recover an amount of $384,012,497 that Congress has required the Commission to collect for fiscal year 2016. Section 9 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, provides for the annual assessment and collection of regulatory fees for annual “Mandatory Adjustments” and “Permitted Amendments” to the Schedule of Regulatory Fees.
Effective September 26, 2016. To avoid penalties and interest, regulatory fees should be paid by the due date of September 27, 2016.
Roland Helvajian, Office of Managing Director at (202) 418-0444.
This is a summary of the Commission's Report and Order (R&O), FCC 16-121, MD Docket No. 16-166, adopted on September 1, 2016 and released on September 2, 2016.
1. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA),
2. This document does not contain new or modified information collection requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any new or modified information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198,
3. The Commission will send a copy of this Report and Order to Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
4. This
5. Congress adopted a regulatory fee schedule in 1993
6. The Commission calculates the fees by first determining the number of FTEs performing the regulatory activities specified in section 9(a), “adjusted to take into account factors that are reasonably related to the benefits provided to the payor of the fee by the Commission's activities. . . .”
7. As part of its annual review, the Commission regularly seeks to improve its regulatory fee analysis.
8. In our
9. In this
10. The regulatory fee rates for FY 2016 include $339,844,000 for operational expenses and an additional one time amount of $44,168,497 to offset facilities reduction costs,
11. In the
12. Facilities-based common carriers must pay regulatory fees for terrestrial and satellite International Bearer Circuits (IBCs) active (used or leased) as of December 31 of the prior year in any terrestrial or satellite transmission facility for the provision of service to an end user or resale carrier.
13. We also sought comment on whether to eliminate the distinction between common carrier terrestrial circuits and non-common carrier terrestrial circuits for regulatory fee purposes.
14. Only Level 3 commented, proposing that we revise our regulatory fee methodology for terrestrial international bearer circuits and adopt a flat-fee methodology similar to the method we use to assess fees for submarine cable systems.
15. In the
16. EchoStar now observes that since it submitted its proposal, we have adopted reforms that streamlined the
17. No parties commented in favor of the proposal. At this time, we see no basis to assess different levels of regulatory fees on different types of earth station licensees. Accordingly, we adopt the earth station fee proposed in the
18. We did not specifically seek comment on issues pertaining to the submarine cable industry. The proposed rates in the
19. ITTA has proposed in past regulatory fee proceedings that wireless providers should be combined into the ITSP fee category so that all voice providers pay regulatory fees on the same basis.
20. Certain commenters agree with ITTA's proposals.
21. ITTA and CenturyLink argue that if wireless and wireline voice services are not combined in the ITSP category or Wireline Competition Bureau FTEs are not allocated to the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau for regulatory fee purposes, we should reassign some Wireline Competition Bureau FTEs as indirect FTEs.
22. CTIA disagrees with the ITTA proposal and contends that there is no basis to reassign Wireline Competition Bureau FTEs to the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau because Wireless Telecommunications Bureau FTEs already participate in wireline proceedings to the extent they raise wireless issues.
23. CTIA stresses that the number of FTEs working on any given issue could change significantly year-to-year depending on the individual proceedings the Commission undertakes in any given year,
24. The Commission has emphasized that reallocation of some of the International Bureau's FTEs as indirect was a “singular case” because the work of those International Bureau FTEs “primarily benefits licensees regulated by other bureaus.”
25. After reviewing the record, we decline to adopt the ITTA proposal. In particular, we conclude that ITTA's proposal does not address this issue in a manner that is reasonable and in compliance with section 9 of the Act. ITTA does not contend that industries other than those in the ITSP regulatory fee category,
26. Further, the number of FTEs working on any given issue changes significantly depending on the individual proceedings the Commission undertakes in any given year. We now update FTE allocations on an annual basis to more accurately reflect the number of FTEs working on regulation and oversight of the regulatees in the various fee categories.
27. ITTA's proposals also do not take into account that many indirect FTEs throughout the Commission outside of the Wireline Competition Bureau work on universal service and other wireline issues. For example, indirect FTEs in the Enforcement Bureau, Office of Managing Director, as well as other bureaus and offices work on various universal service issues. Therefore, it is incorrect to contend that primarily FTEs in the Wireline Competition Bureau are devoted to all of the universal service issues. Further, ITTA's proposal to reassign some or all of the Wireline Competition Bureau FTEs working on universal service as indirect FTEs ignores licensees not involved in high-cost and Lifeline universal service issues, such as radio and television broadcasters, that would be responsible for contributing to the cost of those Wireline Competition Bureau FTEs. Although we recognize Wireline Competition Bureau proceedings can affect other industries, such as CMRS, we are not convinced that this demonstrates the “clearest case” for reassignment of FTEs. For these reasons, we decline to adopt the ITTA proposal at this time.
28. In 2015, we adopted the initial regulatory fee for DBS as a subcategory in the cable television and IPTV category of 12 cents per year per subscriber, or one cent per month.
29. In the
30. Commenters representing the cable television industry agree that the Media Bureau FTEs increasingly devote time to issues involving the entire MVPD industry, and that DBS, cable television, and IPTV all receive oversight and regulation as a result of the work of the Media Bureau FTEs on MVPD issues.
31. ACA agrees that the previously adopted phase-in period was the correct approach; however, DBS providers have already had the benefit of an adequate phase-in and should now be brought quickly up to parity with cable television and IPTV.
32. The two DBS providers, AT&T and DISH, however, disagree with our proposal and argue that there is no justification for increasing the fee to 27 cents per subscriber per year for FY 2016.
33. The proposed fee of 27 cents per subscriber per year continues to follow our decision to assess fees for DBS in the cable television/IPTV category. In particular, the increase we adopt today is not based on an incremental increase in Media Bureau FTEs working on MVPD issues,
34. In the
35. Several commenters contend that our proposal is too burdensome for small independent radio and television stations.
36. We do not require broadcasters to report their revenues. Thus, the revenue-based proposal is not practicable at this time. We agree, however, that the proposed rates should be revised downward for the smaller AM and FM radio broadcast stations. Extending some relief to these small radio broadcasters may facilitate their continued ability to stay in business and serve their small and rural communities. Therefore, after reviewing the record, including the comments filed by the industry describing the economic hardship faced by many small rural independent radio stations, we are adopting a revised version of the proposed table in the
37. The PRBA and Arso comment on the issues set forth in the PRBA December 10, 2014 letter (PRBA Letter),
38. PRBA and Arso contend that the economic situation has worsened since the PRBA Letter was filed, and that it is crucial that the Commission provide relief from regulatory fee obligations for Puerto Rican broadcasters.
39. We decline to adopt the PRBA proposal at this time. Fee relief is ordinarily processed through a waiver request or payment deferral.
40. The Commission's Broadcast Television Incentive Auction (Incentive Auction) is underway, and all broadcast television licensees are reminded that they continue to be responsible for payment of FY 2016 regulatory fees if they held a license or construction permit as of October 1, 2015, as well as for payment of FY 2017 regulatory fees if they continue to hold their license or construction permit as of October 1, 2016. Licensees must pay the required regulatory fees to avoid any delay of payments resulting from the Incentive Auction.
41. Pursuant to an Office of Management and Budget (OMB) directive,
42. Since June 1, 2015, in accordance with U.S. Treasury Announcement No. A-2014-04 (July 2014), the amount that can be charged on a credit card for transactions with federal agencies has been limited to $24,999.99.
43. During the fee season for collecting FY 2016 regulatory fees, regulatees can pay their fees by credit card through
44. Regulatees whose total FY 2016 annual regulatory fee liability, including all categories of fees for which payment is due, is $500 or less are exempt from payment of FY 2015 regulatory fees. The
45. The Commission will accept fee payments made in advance of the window for the payment of regulatory fees. The responsibility for payment of fees by service category is as follows:
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
46. The Commission will compile data from the Numbering Resource Utilization Forecast (NRUF) report that is based on “assigned” telephone number (subscriber) counts that have been adjusted for porting to net Type 0 ports (“in” and “out”).
47. A carrier wishing to revise its telephone number (subscriber) count can do so by accessing Fee Filer and follow the prompts to revise their telephone number counts. Any revisions to the telephone number counts should be accompanied by an explanation or supporting documentation.
48. Because some carriers do not file the NRUF report, they may not see their telephone number counts in Fee Filer. In these instances, the carriers should compute their fee payment using the standard methodology that is currently in place for CMRS Wireless services (
49. To be considered timely, regulatory fee payments must be made electronically by the payment due date for regulatory fees. Section 9(c) of the Act requires us to impose a late payment penalty of 25 percent of the unpaid amount to be assessed on the first day following the deadline for filing these fees.
50. Pursuant to the “red light rule,” we will withhold action on any applications or other requests for benefits filed by anyone who is delinquent in any non-tax debts owed to the Commission (including regulatory fees) and will ultimately dismiss those applications or other requests if payment of the delinquent debt or other satisfactory arrangement for payment is not made.
51. Under section 9 of the Act, Commission rules, and federal debt collection laws, a licensee's regulatory fee is due on the first day of the fiscal year and payable at a date established in the Commission's annual regulatory fee Report and Order. In October 2015, the Commission, under revised procedures, began transferring unpaid regulatory fee receivables directly to the CRS at the U.S. Treasury rather than trying to collect the debt itself and then transferring the remaining unpaid debts to Treasury. Under revised procedures, the Commission can transfer delinquent debt to Treasury for further collection action within 120 days after the date of delinquency.
52. Providing a 30 day period after
In order to calculate individual service fees for FY 2016, we adjusted FY 2015 payment units for each service to more accurately reflect expected FY 2016 payment liabilities. We obtained our updated estimates through a variety of means. For example, we used Commission licensee data bases, actual prior year payment records and industry and trade association projections when available. The databases we consulted include our Universal Licensing System (ULS), International Bureau Filing System (IBFS), Consolidated Database System (CDBS) and Cable Operations and Licensing System (COALS), as well as reports generated within the Commission such as the Wireless Telecommunications Bureau's
We sought verification for these estimates from multiple sources and, in all cases, we compared FY 2016 estimates with actual FY 2015 payment units to ensure that our revised estimates were reasonable. Where appropriate, we adjusted and/or rounded our final estimates to take into consideration the fact that certain variables that impact on the number of payment units cannot yet be estimated with sufficient accuracy. These include an unknown number of waivers and/or exemptions that may occur in FY 2016 and the fact that, in many services, the number of actual licensees or station operators fluctuates from time to time due to economic, technical, or other reasons. When we note, for example, that our estimated FY 2016 payment units are based on FY 2015 actual payment units, it does not necessarily mean that our FY 2016 projection is exactly the same number as in FY 2015. We have either rounded the FY 2016 number or adjusted it slightly to account for these variables.
For stations with nondirectional daytime antennas, the theoretical radiation was used at all azimuths. For stations with directional daytime antennas, specific information on each day tower, including field ratio, phase, spacing, and orientation was retrieved, as well as the theoretical pattern root-mean-square of the radiation in all directions in the horizontal plane (RMS) figure (milliVolt per meter (mV/m) @ 1 km) for the antenna system. The standard, or augmented standard if pertinent, horizontal plane radiation pattern was calculated using techniques and methods specified in sections 73.150 and 73.152 of the Commission's rules. Radiation values were calculated for each of 360 radials around the transmitter site. Next, estimated soil conductivity data was retrieved from a database representing the information in FCC Figure R3. Using the calculated horizontal radiation values, and the retrieved soil conductivity data, the distance to the principal community (5 mV/m) contour was predicted for each of the 360 radials. The resulting distance to principal community contours were used to form a geographical polygon. Population counting was accomplished by determining which 2010 block centroids were contained in the polygon. (A block centroid is the center point of a small area containing population as computed by the U.S. Census Bureau.) The sum of the population figures for all enclosed blocks represents the total population for the predicted principal community coverage area.
The greater of the horizontal or vertical effective radiated power (ERP) (kW) and respective height above average terrain (HAAT) (m) combination was used. Where the antenna height above mean sea level (HAMSL) was available, it was used in lieu of the average HAAT figure to calculate specific HAAT figures for each of 360 radials under study. Any available directional pattern information was applied as well, to produce a radial-specific ERP figure. The HAAT and ERP figures were used in conjunction with the Field Strength (50-50) propagation curves specified in 47 CFR 73.313 of the Commission's rules to predict the distance to the principal community (70 dBu (decibel above 1 microVolt per meter) or 3.17 mV/m) contour for each of the 360 radials. The resulting distance to principal community contours were used to form a
1. As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (RFA),
2. In this Report and Order, we conclude the Assessment and Collection of Regulatory Fees for Fiscal Year (FY) 2016 proceeding to collect $384,012,497.00 in regulatory fees for FY 2016, pursuant to section 9 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (Communications Act or Act).
3. This
4. None.
5. The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of, and where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules and policies, if adopted.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15. W
16.
17. In assessing whether a business concern qualifies as small under the above definition, business (control) affiliations
18. In addition, the Commission has estimated the number of licensed noncommercial educational (NCE) television stations to be 396.
19.
20. In assessing whether a business concern qualifies as small under the above size standard, business affiliations must be included.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28. The U.S. Census Bureau defines Wired Telecommunications Carriers as establishments primarily engaged in operating and/or providing access to transmission facilities and infrastructure that they own and/or lease for the transmission of voice, data, text, sound, and video using wired communications networks. Transmission facilities may be based on a single technology or a combination of technologies. Establishments in this industry use the wired telecommunications network facilities that they operate to provide a variety of services, such as wired telephony services, including VoIP services, wired (cable) audio and video programming distribution, and wired broadband internet services. By exception, establishments providing satellite television distribution services using facilities and infrastructure that they operate are included in this industry.
29. The U.S. Census Bureau defines Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except satellite) as establishments engaged in operating and maintaining switching and transmission facilities to provide communications via the airwaves, such as cellular services, paging services, wireless internet access, and wireless video services.
30.
31. The U.S. Census defines Other Services Related to Advertising as comprising establishments primarily engaged in providing advertising services (except advertising agency services, public relations agency services, media buying agency services, media representative services, display advertising services, direct mail advertising services, advertising material distribution services, and marketing consulting services?
32. The U.S. Census defines Other Management Consulting Services as establishments primarily engaged in providing management consulting services (except administrative and general management consulting; human resources consulting; marketing consulting; or process, physical distribution, and logistics consulting). Establishments providing telecommunications or utilities management consulting services are included in this industry.
33. In addition to the data contained in the four (see above) U.S. Census NAICS Code categories that provide definitions of what services and functions the Carrier and Non-Carrier RespOrgs provide, Somos, the trade association that monitors RespOrg activities, compiled data showing that as of July 1, 2016 there were 23 RespOrgs operational in Canada and 436 RespOrgs operational in the United States, for a total of 459 RespOrgs currently registered with Somos.
34. This
35. The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant alternatives that it has considered in reaching its approach, which may include the following four alternatives, among others: (1) The establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) the clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance or reporting requirements under the rule for small entities; (3) the use of performance, rather than design, standards; and (4) an exemption from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
36. This
37. In keeping with the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, we have considered certain alternative means of mitigating the effects of fee increases to a particular industry segment. For example, beginning last year, in FY 2015, the Commission increased the
38. None.
39. Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED that, pursuant to Sections 4(i) and (j), 9, and 303(r) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 154(j), 159, and 303(r), this
40. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that this
41. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Commission's Consumer & Governmental Affairs Bureau, Reference Information Center, SHALL SEND a copy of this
Administrative practice and procedure, Radio, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Federal Communications Commission.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends 47 CFR, part 1 as follows:
47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 155, 157, 225, 303(r), 309, 1403, 1404, 1451, and 1452.
(a) The following schedule applies for the listed services:
(b)
(2) The fee amount, per active 64 KB circuit or equivalent will be determined for each fiscal year.
(c)
Federal Communications Commission.
Final rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) adopts rules to convert the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program (NDBEDP) from a pilot program to a permanent program. The NDBEDP supports the distribution of communications devices to low-income individuals who are deaf-blind.
The addition of 47 CFR 64.6201, 64.6203, and 64.6205 of the Commission's rules are effective July 1, 2017. The addition of 47 CFR part 64, subpart GG, consisting of §§ 64.6207, 64.6209, 64.6211, 64.6213, 64.6215, 64.6217, and 64.6219, contains information collection requirements that are not effective until approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The Commission will publish a document in the
Rosaline Crawford, Disability Rights Office, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, at (202) 418-2075 or email
This is a summary of the Commission's
Document FCC 16-101 contains new information collection requirements. The Commission, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, will invite the general public to comment on the information collection requirements contained in document FCC 16-101 as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, the Commission notes that, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the Commission previously sought comment on how the Commission might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”
1. The Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act (CVAA) added section 719 to the Communications Act of 1934, as amended (the Act). Public Law 111-260, 105, 124 Stat. 2751, 2762 (2010);
2. The Commission released the
3. The rules adopted in document FCC 16-101 are designed to ensure that, going forward, the NDBEDP can efficiently and effectively achieve its goals of enhancing communications access for low-income individuals who are deaf-blind through the distribution of equipment and the provision of support services that are needed for the successful use of the equipment they receive. Through these rules, the Commission recognizes that the needs of each person who is deaf-blind are unique with respect to the severity and type of his or her hearing and vision loss, and that each program can best achieve Congress's goals of brining communications access into the lives of low-income individuals who are deaf-blind. At the same time, the rules contain various measures and safeguards to attain the greatest efficiencies and to prevent this program from becoming subject to fraud, waste or abuse.
4.
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6.
7. The Commission believes that expanding the pool of applicants for NDBEDP certification will enhance the quality of entities selected and will help address concerns raised by those commenters who wish to give more in-state entities an opportunity to apply for
8. The Commission further concludes that its adoption of new rules for the permanent program necessitates receiving new applications from each currently certified entity interested in continuing to operate under the NDBEDP. Accordingly, the Commission will require each currently certified entity seeking to continue providing equipment and services to submit a new application with sufficient detail to demonstrate its continued ability to meet all of the Commission's certification criteria, and to affirm its commitment to comply with all Commission rules governing the permanent program. An entity seeking certification for the first time also must submit an application with sufficient detail to demonstrate its ability to meet all of the Commission's certification criteria and a commitment to comply with all Commission requirements governing the NDBEDP. An applicant may demonstrate its ability to meet all criteria for certification either directly or in coordination with other programs or entities. In reviewing each application, the Commission will consider, among other things, the extent to which a currently certified entity has effectively implemented the program and achieved compliance with the Commission's rules. The Commission believes that considerations of equity and fairness require it to adopt this approach, as it will allow the Commission to compare and contrast the qualifications of multiple applicants based on the Commission's current selection criteria and NDBEDP requirements.
9. To ensure sufficient time is provided for the application process, the Commission requires both new and incumbent entities seeking certification under the permanent NDBEDP to apply for certification within 60 days after the effective date of the certification rules adopted in this proceeding. A 60-day application period also is consistent with the period used for the NDBEDP pilot program. In addition, the Commission requires any entity certified under the pilot program that does not wish to participate in the permanent NDBEDP to notify the Commission of such intent within 60 days after the effective date of the certification rules adopted by document FCC 16-101.
10. The Commission directs the Bureau to announce the timing of this 60-day period by public notice. The Commission also directs the Bureau to announce, by public notice, the identity of all applicants who request certification for each state. This announcement will put existing certified programs on notice of competing applications, as well as identify those jurisdictions, if any, where no entity has applied for certification under the permanent program. The Bureau may extend the application period for those jurisdictions where no entity has applied for initial certification under the permanent NDBEDP during the 60-day period. The Commission further directs the Bureau to take appropriate steps to minimize any possible disruption of service by providing as much advance notice as possible about its selection of the entities certified under the permanent NDBEDP.
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18. In the event that an entity selected at the start of a five-year term relinquishes its certification or its certification is suspended or revoked before completing its term, the Commission will permit the successor entity to complete, but not exceed, the five-year term initiated by its predecessor. The Commission notes that during the NDBEDP pilot program, certifications granted by the Bureau initially and to successor entities have varied in their duration, but they all have had a common end date—the end of the pilot program. The Commission believes that retaining a common end date in the permanent NDBEDP will facilitate the Commission's administration and oversight of the program, and help to provide certainty to the states and territories participating in this program. The Bureau may announce selections for the new certification period on a rolling basis as these are processed, but the full five-year certification period will end at the appointed time every five years.
19.
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23. Upon receiving notice of an entity's plans to relinquish certification during the NDBEDP pilot program, the Bureau has provided a 15-day period during which it has invited applications from new entities interested in replacing the outgoing entity. Although the 15-day deadline was established to expedite replacement and ensure that all interested parties have an adequate opportunity to apply for certification, the Commission directs the Bureau to provide a minimum of 30 days for the receipt of such applications. The Commission believes that a 30-day period is reasonable, especially given its adoption of a 90-day notice requirement for any entity intending to relinquish its certification.
24.
25. The Commission amends the rule, however, to provide additional clarification regarding the procedure for making a determination of suspension or revocation. First, in order to initiate the suspension or revocation of an entity's certification, the Commission must provide notice to the certified entity, which shall contain the reasons for the proposed suspension or revocation of certification and the applicable suspension or revocation procedures. The Commission will provide the certified entity 30 days to present written arguments and any relevant documentation to the Commission as to why suspension or revocation of certification is not warranted. The Commission will then review such arguments and documentation and make a determination on the merits as to whether to suspend or revoke the entity's certification, which shall include the dates by which such certification shall be suspended or terminated, as well as any conditions that may accompany a suspension. Failure of the notified entity to respond within the 30 days provided will result in automatic suspension or revocation, whichever is applicable, unless such entity seeks a waiver or extension of this period in a timely fashion,
26. Action to suspend or revoke an entity's certification may be taken either by the Commission, or the Bureau, on delegated authority. In either case, the action will be subject to the rules normally applicable to reconsideration or review of actions taken by a bureau on delegated authority or by the full Commission.
27. These procedures are similar in some respects to those for suspension and debarment of an individual or entity receiving Universal Service Fund (USF) support.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32. Section 64.610(k) of the Commission's rules provides for expiration of the NDBEDP pilot program rules at the termination of the pilot program. 47 CFR 64.610(k). The Commission clarifies that the pilot program will not terminate until after all reports have been submitted, all payments and adjustments have been made, all wind-down activities have been completed, and no issues with the regard to the NDBEDP pilot program remain pending. Thus, the rules the Commission adopts in document FCC 16-101 will apply to the permanent NDBEDP only and not to the pilot program.
33. Section 719 of the Act requires the Commission to limit participation in the NDBEDP to individuals who are deaf-blind—as this term is defined by the Helen Keller National Center Act (HKNC Act)—
34.
(A)(i) who has a central visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with corrective lenses, or a field defect such that the peripheral diameter of visual field subtends an angular distance no greater than 20 degrees, or a progressive visual loss having a prognosis leading to one or both these conditions; (ii) who has a chronic hearing impairment so severe that most speech cannot be understood with optimum amplification, or a progressive hearing loss having a prognosis leading to this condition; and (iii) for whom the combination of impairments described in clauses (i) and (ii) cause extreme difficulty in attaining independence in daily life activities, achieving psychosocial adjustment, or obtaining a vocation;
(B) who despite the inability to be measured accurately for hearing and vision loss due to cognitive or behavioral constraints, or both, can be determined through functional and performance assessment to have severe hearing and visual disabilities that cause extreme difficulty in attaining independence in daily life activities, achieving psychosocial adjustment, or obtaining vocational objectives; or
(C) meets such other requirements as the Secretary [of Education] may prescribe by regulation.
35. The HKNC Act sets forth three independent definitions that can be used to determine whether a person is “deaf-blind.” The first definition contains three prongs that must be satisfied. 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(A). The first of these requires an assessment of the individual's vision, and provides clear, measurable standards for loss of visual acuity, to which the Commission is bound to apply. 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(A)(i). The first prong also includes a provision for a progressive visual loss having a prognosis leading to one or both of the vision standards described. 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(A)(i). The second prong asks whether the individual has a hearing loss so severe “that most speech cannot be understood with optimum amplification.” 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(A)(ii). Under the NDBEDP pilot program, the Commission has looked to this prong to allow consideration of the extent to which the individual can perceive speech over the telephone. The third prong asks whether the individual's combined vision and hearing losses “cause extreme difficulty in attaining independence in daily life activities, achieving psychosocial adjustment, or obtaining a vocation.” 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(A)(iii). During the pilot, the Commission has construed this prong as well to permit consideration of communications-related activities, which are necessary for having independence in daily activities.
36. The second definition contained in the HKNC Act applies to individuals for whom measurements of hearing and vision loss may be impeded due to cognitive or behavioral constraints. For these individuals, a determination of deaf-blindness may be achieved through “functional and performance assessment” that shows the individual “to have severe hearing and visual disabilities that cause extreme difficulty in attaining independence in daily life activities, achieving psychosocial adjustment, or obtaining vocational objectives.” 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(B). The third definition is open-ended, as it permits an individual to be classified as someone who is deaf-blind if such individual meets other requirements prescribed by the Secretary of Education by regulation. 29 U.S.C. 1905(2)(C).
37. The Commission retains for the permanent NDBEDP the definition of “deaf-blind” that has been applied in the NDBEDP pilot program. The Commission notes that this definition incorporates the first two definitional standards into the Commission's rules, but not the third, which permits the Secretary of Education to prescribe other requirements by regulation, because the Commission cannot predict whether such regulations would be appropriate for application to the NDBEDP. The Commission concludes that it has the authority to permit eligibility determinations under the NDBEDP to consider an applicant's functional abilities to use telecommunications, Internet access, and advanced communications services in various environments because it continues to believe that consideration of these abilities is in keeping with Congress's overall goal of ensuring access to such technologies by the full range of deaf-blind individuals for whom the program is intended.
38.
39. The Commission will continue to require NDBEDP applicants to provide verification of their disability either by obtaining an attestation from a professional with direct knowledge of their deaf-blindness or by submitting supporting documentation already in the applicant's possession. The Commission further adopts its proposal for each professional to provide the basis for his or her attestation that an individual is deaf-blind, noting that the provision of this information will assist programs in substantiating the deaf-blind individual's equipment needs. So that the program may contact the professional if necessary, the Commission also adopts its proposal to require the attestation to include the professional's
40. The Commission will not require each certified program to re-verify the disability eligibility of an individual who previously has been served by a program each time the recipient applies for new equipment, unless the program has reason to believe that the equipment recipient no longer has a disability sufficient to allow continued eligibility for the NDBEDP. The Commission noted that it received no comments from medical experts or other parties suggesting that subsequent disability verifications are necessary to prove a person's ongoing disability after an initial determination of such eligibility. Rather, commenters generally agree that if an individual's disability changes over time, it is far more likely to worsen rather than improve. At the same time, commenters confirm the Commission's conclusion in the
41. The Commission's rejection of a blanket re-verification rule for all returning applicants, however, does not preclude a program from assessing, on an individual basis, the extent to which a returning applicant continues to qualify for equipment and related services, where the program has reason to believe that the visual acuity and hearing of such individual has improved sufficiently to disqualify such individual. In such instances, a certified program shall require such individual to provide an updated verification of the individual's disability status to determine the applicant's continued eligibility before providing the applicant with additional equipment or services. In addition, given record evidence that vision and hearing are likely to worsen over time, the Commission will permit any certified program to require updated information about an individual's disabilities when it deems this to be necessary to assess whether to provide the individual with different equipment or related services. This will permit certified programs to effectively respond to changes in the type and severity of an individual's disability.
42.
43. The Commission concludes that the record supports the continued application of 400% of the FPG as the income ceiling for the permanent NDBEDP, and accordingly it retains this threshold. As it did during the pilot program, the Commission will continue to use the contiguous-states-and-DC guidelines for the U.S. Territories that participate in the NDBEDP.
44. The Commission received little comment in response to its inquiries about the relevance of the income threshold for determining eligibility under the Commission's Lifeline program and the median U.S. household income to the NDBEDP income eligibility determination. The Commission's own analysis, however, leads it to conclude that the considerations at issue for the NDBEDP are very different from those attendant to the income measures for programs such as Lifeline. Unlike individuals in the general population who can purchase off-the-shelf telephone devices at a range of prices, people who are deaf-blind often must purchase equipment that is very expensive, sometimes costing thousands of dollars. For example, during the pilot program, the average cost of NDBEDP equipment distributed to consumers was $2,632 in 2013-2014 and $2,285 in 2014-2015, and some consumers received equipment costing over $12,000 in 2013-2014 and over $10,000 in 2014-2015. In addition, as explained in the
45. Although the Commission recognizes the interest that some commenters have in raising the income threshold even further, absent authority from Congress, the Commission cannot remove the low-income limitation from the eligibility requirements to allow deaf-blind individuals who do not meet the income requirement to receive the program's benefits. Nevertheless, based on its experience with the pilot program, the record in this proceeding, and the general interest by many state programs to reach as many people with disabilities as possible, the Commission concludes that 400% of the FPG strikes the appropriate balance. Accordingly, given the goal of the CVAA “to ensure that individuals with disabilities are able to utilize fully . . . essential advanced technologies,” S. Rep. No. 111-386 at 3 (2010), and given the unusually high medical and disability-related expenses generally incurred by the covered population, it concludes that the 400% threshold originally adopted by the Commission for the pilot program is appropriate for the permanent NDBEDP.
46.
47. The Commission, therefore, affirms the guidance initially issued by the Bureau during the pilot program, which mirrors that used by its Lifeline program, and will continue its practice of basing calculations of income for determining program eligibility on all income received by all members of a household:
This includes salary before deductions for taxes, public assistance benefits, social security payments, pensions, unemployment compensation, veteran's benefits, inheritances, alimony, child support payments, worker's compensation benefits, gifts, lottery winnings, and the like. The only exceptions are student financial aid, military housing and cost-of-living allowances, irregular income from occasional small jobs such as baby-sitting or lawn mowing and the like.
48. During the NDBEDP pilot program, in guidance provided to the certified programs, the Bureau explained that an applicant's “income” includes all income received by all members of an applicant's “household.”
49. In the
50.
51. To promote consistency across the NDBEDP and Lifeline programs and increase efficiency, the Commission will also modify the list of examples of federal assistance programs that applicants may use to automatically establish eligibility to participate in the NDBEDP to mirror a recently revised list of federal assistance programs used to establish eligibility for the Lifeline program. Under these revised requirements, applicants who receive benefits from certain federal assistance programs—Federal Public Housing Assistance, Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, Medicaid, Supplemental Security Income, or Veterans and Survivors Pension Benefit—are deemed income eligible for enrollment in the Lifeline program. The NDBEDP Administrator also may identify state or other federal programs with income eligibility thresholds that do not exceed 400% of the FPG for determining income eligibility for participation in the NDBEDP.
52. For applicants who are not enrolled in a qualifying program, the Commission will continue to require certified programs to verify low-income eligibility by using appropriate and reasonable means. Consistent with the Commission's Lifeline program rules, the following documentation may be used to prove income eligibility:
53. In the
54. Finally, in the
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60. The Commission finds sufficient authority to adopt this approach. First, the Commission notes that, under the plain language of the statute, the Commission is permitted to give funding to “programs” that distribute SCPE. Accordingly, as in the
61. The Commission also notes that recent developments have brought many types of mainstream equipment within the Commission's current definitions of SCPE. Because SCPE is not defined in section 719 (or elsewhere in the Act), the Commission finds that it is reasonable to define this term consistently with the existing definitions of SCPE in the Commission's rules. Specifically, in parts 6, 7, and 14 of the Commission's rules, SCPE is defined, in relevant part, as “equipment employed on the premises of a person,” “which is commonly used by individuals with disabilities to achieve access” to telecommunications service, Internet access service, or advanced communications services. 47 CFR 6.3(i), 7.3(i), 14.10(f), (u). Over the past few years, obligations contained in sections 255, 716, and 718 of the Act—which have, with certain limitations, directed the inclusion of accessibility features in off-the-shelf products and services used with telecommunications and advanced communications services, respectively—have resulted in a greater number of mainstream communications devices being designed to be accessible to people with disabilities—including people who are deaf-blind. 47 U.S.C. 255, 617, 619. As a consequence, such off-the-shelf devices are now more “commonly used” by people who are deaf-blind to access services under section 719 of the Act—
62. The Commission agrees with commenters who support maintaining the flexibility given to certified programs to determine the types of qualifying equipment most appropriate for their eligible residents. In the permanent NDBEDP, the Commission will continue to allow programs to seek reimbursement for the reasonable costs of equipment best tailored to the needs of their residents, up to each certified program's annual funding allocation. While some individuals use American Sign Language or tactile methods of communication, others use spoken English or Braille, and still others use a combination of various communications methods. Consequently, one individual may need a large screen together with magnification software to read large print, another might need a videophone or iPad to make video calls, another might need a refreshable Braille display, and others might need a mix of off-the-shelf and assistive devices. Flexibility is key to ensuring that individuals are accommodated effectively under this program.
63. Commenters support, and the Commission agrees, that certified programs should continue to have the discretion to distribute one or multiple pieces of equipment, as may be necessary to achieve access to more than one type of covered communications service or to achieve such access in more than one setting. Allowing programs to determine which technology best fits each applicant, and when, is necessary to achieve Congress's purpose to bring the benefits of communications technologies to the intended population.
64. For these same reasons, the Commission will continue to prohibit certified programs from imposing restrictions on specific brands, models or types of communications technology that recipients may receive to access covered services, and from disabling features or functions needed to access covered services. Further, as the Commission noted in the
65.
66.
67.
68.
69. The pilot program rules also have required certified programs to prohibit recipients from transferring equipment received under the NDBEDP to another person through sale or otherwise. Given that the NDBEDP is a federal program with limited resources, and there is support for this prohibition in the record, the Commission will retain it for the permanent NDBEDP.
70.
I certify that all information provided on this application, including information about my disability and income, is true, complete, and accurate to the best of my knowledge. I authorize program representatives to verify the information provided.
I permit information about me to be shared with my state's current and successor program managers and representatives for the administration of the program and for the delivery of equipment and services to me. I also permit information about me to be reported to the Federal Communications Commission for the administration, operation, and oversight of the program.
If I am accepted into the program, I agree to use program services solely for the purposes intended. I understand that I may not sell, give, or lend to another person any equipment provided to me by the program.
If I provide any false records or fail to comply with these or other requirements or conditions of the program, program officials may end services to me immediately. Also, if I violate these or other requirements or conditions of the program on purpose, program officials may take legal action against me.
I certify that I have read, understand, and accept these conditions to participate in iCanConnect (the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program).
71. The Commission agrees with commenters that, given the frequency with which equipment is upgraded or replaced due to changes in technology, it would be burdensome and impractical for certified programs to otherwise verify on a regular basis that the equipment continues to reside in the recipient's possession. The Commission, therefore, will not impose this requirement.
72.
73.
74. The Commission adopts its proposal that the iCanConnect Web site contain a clear and conspicuous notice that the selection of and reimbursement for any piece of equipment distributed under the NDBEDP must be based on an individual case-by-case assessment and be consistent with the NDBEDP rules. The following notice, which currently appears on the iCanConnect Web site, will satisfy this requirement:
This page provides an overview of the types of distance communication tools the program can provide to help people with significant combined hearing and vision loss stay connected to friends and family. The appearance of a specific piece of equipment on the iCanConnect Web site does not mean that it is appropriate for every program participant. iCanConnect professionals in each state and local community will work with individual consumers to identify the equipment that addresses that person's specific need, and to be sure that the equipment selected is consistent with the FCC's rules.
75.
76. Given the Commission's experience under the pilot program and support in the record, it affirms these tentative conclusions. The Commission concludes, as it concluded in the NDBEDP Pilot Program Order, that given the wide range of hearing and vision disabilities across the deaf-blind population, individualized assessments are “necessary to ensure that the equipment provided to deaf-blind individuals effectively meets their needs,” will “reduce[ ] the incidence of equipment being abandoned (because it is a poor match to the user's needs),” and thereby will achieve efficiencies in the NDBEDP. The Commission agrees with commenters that section719 of the Act is reasonably construed to encompass the costs of assessing what equipment is needed in order to make covered services accessible to a particular individual. Such application of the statute, the Commission concludes, is necessary to ensure that the equipment provided enables deaf-blind individuals to “utilize fully . . . essential advanced technologies.” S. Rep. at 3. The Commission further concludes that allowing reimbursement for travel by assessors and support services to consumers' homes will permit assessors to consider the home environment and communications technology the consumer may already have, when assessing need.
77. The Commission directs the NDBEDP Administrator to continue conducting qualitative reviews of all assessment and associated travel and support service costs to assess their reasonableness in light of the mandate of section 719 of the Act. The Commission instructs the NDBEDP Administrator to take the varying characteristics that are unique to each consumer, as well as the assessors' rates, travel requirements, and support services needed, and other relevant factors into consideration in making individual determinations as to the reasonableness of assessment-related costs.
78.
79. The Commission, therefore, directs the NDBEDP Administrator to continue to conduct qualitative reviews of each individual claim for reimbursement of installation, training, and associated travel and support service costs to assess their reasonableness. The Commission also instructs the NDBEDP Administrator to take relevant factors into consideration in making determinations as to the reasonableness of training-related costs, including, but not limited to, the individual's capabilities and experience with communications technologies, the forms of communication being used, the need for interpreters or other support services, and whether the consumer is being trained to use multiple devices.
80.
81. The Commission will only permit reimbursement of the costs of having a consumer travel to an NDBEDP center, however, when these costs are first pre-approved by the certified program upon a determination that the reasonable costs of this travel would be more efficient and effective than having the assessor travel to the consumer. Factors that should go into this determination should include, among other things, the availability of local training and assessment resources, the need to try out equipment that would be too difficult to transport to the consumer's home, and the cost savings for the program. In order to permit such travel costs, state programs must have guidelines in place that are consistent with state or federal travel guidance setting reasonable limits on travel costs. Each certified program will have the further option to request pre-approval by the NDBEDP Administrator before agreeing to reimburse such costs.
82. While the Commission expects that most travel by consumers will be in-state travel, in some cases it may be more cost effective for a consumer to cross state lines to reach the closest center. As such, in certain circumstances, it may be more cost efficient to allow reimbursement to certified programs for the reasonable costs of consumer travel to another state, particularly to an adjoining state, for assessment and training. Each certified program will be required to obtain pre-approval from the NDBEDP Administrator for any out-of-state consumer travel costs. The NDBEDP Administrator should determine the extent to which such out-of-state travel would be more cost efficient and effective than in-state travel. All claims for reimbursement of costs related to consumer travel to a location outside of the consumer's state, as well as costs related to services provided to the consumer (
83. In addition, consumers should not be forced to travel to an NDBEDP center, even if it is more cost efficient to have them travel than it is for an assessor or trainer to come to their home. Instead, consumers should have the choice of traveling or not, as long as the costs of such travel are reasonable, recognizing that there may be benefits, limitations, or logistical consequences for either option, such as a longer wait time to arrange for an assessment or training.
84. The NDBEDP Administrator will review each claim for travel reimbursement, in addition to conducting overall monitoring of travel expenses generally. The Commission believes that having the NDBEDP Administrator monitor these costs will ensure that the costs remain reasonable. The Commission further directs CGB and the NDBEDP Administrator to determine, during the fifth year of the permanent program, whether and to what extent certified programs should continue being reimbursed for the costs associated with consumer travel to an NDBEDP center beyond the fifth year of the permanent program. This assessment should consider all relevant factors, including a comparison of the costs for program personnel travel to the consumer's home versus the costs of consumer travel to an NDBEDP center, cost efficiencies, benefits, or advantages that inure to the program or to the consumer as a result of such compensation, and the availability of program funds. During the NDBEDP pilot program, programs did not use all $10 million available for this program, eliminating the need for programs to choose between reimbursing the costs of equipment and other services and features of the program, such as the costs of travel. If, in the future, a greater number of individuals participate in this program, funding may be tighter, as more consumers seek to obtain equipment. The five year review will take into consideration such competing demands on the available funding. If competing demands for program funds raise concerns about the feasibility of reimbursing these travel costs prior to the five year review, the Bureau may take steps to prioritize the use of such funding to reduce or eliminate such reimbursement, as necessary. In the absence of action by the Commission or the Bureau prior to or during the fifth year of the permanent NDBEDP to modify or terminate reimbursement for travel expenses, the Commission will continue to reimburse certified programs for the reasonable costs associated with program personnel travel and consumer travel to an NDBEDP center.
85.
86. Many individuals who are deaf-blind have had little or no prior experience with distance communications devices or the services that they access, and without training, they are not likely to be able to use the equipment they receive to effectively access communications services. At the same time, organizations representing people who are deaf-blind have often expressed concerns about the shortage of qualified trainers, especially for recipients who use Braille or American Sign Language. While acknowledging such shortage, in the
87. Commenters report that a continuing shortage of qualified trainers has limited the timeliness, amount, and quality of training that equipment recipients have received during the NDBEDP pilot program. Further, the Commission's original expectation that the shortage of qualified trainers could be resolved through collaboration and partnerships among certified programs and other entities has not happened. Rather, the continuing shortage shows that other funding sources have not adequately addressed the problem during the pilot program. Thus, the Commission agrees with the majority of commenters that it is both appropriate and necessary at this time to allocate NDBEDP funding for train-the-trainer activities.
88.
89.
90.
91. The Commission agrees with commenters who oppose treating these expenditures as an administrative cost, contending that training trainers is an activity that benefits state residents who are deaf-blind. Further, the Commission is concerned that increasing the cap on administrative costs from 15% to 17.5% might create an incentive for certified programs to forgo train-the-trainer activities in order to apply some of the unused train-the-trainer funds toward other administrative expenses. Such action might, in turn, exacerbate the persistent shortage of qualified trainers that the funding allocation for train-the-trainer activities is intended to abate. Separate accounting of train-the-trainer activities also will facilitate program oversight and evaluation of the use of this funding. To the extent that a state does not use up its full 2.5% allocation for train-the-trainer activities, it may re-allocate the unused funding to support the distribution of equipment and provision of related services to eligible consumers. For these reasons, the Commission requires certified programs to submit requests for reimbursement for the reasonable costs of train-the-trainer activities, which may be reimbursed up to 2.5% of a program's annual allocation.
92.
93. In response to comments filed in this proceeding, the Commission also encourages certified programs and other entities to train individuals who are deaf-blind to become qualified trainers, so that NDBEDP equipment recipients in turn can be trained by those with experience and knowledge of the equipment.
94.
95.
96. In 2012, the Bureau selected the Perkins School for the Blind (Perkins), which has partnered with HKNC, FableVision, Inc., and others, to be the national outreach coordinator for the NDBEDP pilot program. Their efforts resulted in, among other things, an NDBEDP Web site (
97. The Commission concludes that it continues to have sufficient authority to support outreach activities because informing individuals who are deaf-blind about the availability of equipment is an essential step needed to support program efforts to distribute such equipment. Based on the comments submitted, the Commission finds that some national outreach, overseen by the NDBEDP Administrator, continues to be needed to raise awareness about the program, educate potential applicants on the ways that broadband and other communication services can enhance their lives, and instruct them on how to apply.
98. Given support in the record and the significant progress made in raising awareness of the NDBEDP during the pilot program, the Commission concludes that an annual allocation of $250,000 is likely to be sufficient at this time to ensure continuation of the critical components of the national outreach efforts. During the fifth year of the permanent program, the Commission directs the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator to determine the extent to which the allocation for national outreach efforts should be continued or adjusted, to ensure that funding allocated for the NDBEDP is used efficiently. To avoid a lapse in the provision of critical national outreach components—Web site, call center, digital marketing materials, social media, and support to state programs—funding for national outreach will continue to be available at this level beyond the fifth year of the permanent NDBEDP in the absence of action by the Commission or the Bureau to modify or terminate such support.
99. To avoid any disruption and loss of expertise developed by the current national outreach arm of the NDBEDP, the Commission authorizes Perkins to continue conducting national outreach activities for the first five years of the permanent program. The Commission directs the Bureau, as part of its evaluation of the NDBEDP national outreach efforts during the fifth year of the permanent program, to determine whether to extend Perkins's national outreach services for another five-year period or to invite new entities, via a public notice, to submit applications to conduct these efforts.
100.
101.
102. During the pilot program, Perkins submitted national outreach cost data every three months for reimbursement purposes, as well as periodic reports on its national outreach efforts. Because the Commission found this information to be both timely and informative, the Commission requires that, going forward, Perkins, and any subsequent entity that may be selected by the Commission to conduct national outreach, submit cost data for
103.
104. The Commission continues to require local outreach materials to be fully accessible to people with disabilities, noting that certified programs, whether they are entities operated by state or local governments or privately operated, already are required to ensure accessibility under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
105.
106. To maximize the availability of funds for operations of direct benefit to equipment recipients, the Commission encourages certified programs to gradually reduce the amount used for outreach as demand for the NDBEDP accelerates. The Commission further directs the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator to assess the level of expenditures for local outreach during the fifth year of the permanent program and periodically thereafter as part of its ongoing and regular oversight and evaluation of the NDBEDP, to determine whether this guidance should be modified to increase the efficacy and efficiencies of the NDBEDP. In conducting this assessment, the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator may consider, among other things, the performance goals and measures established for the NDBEDP overall, the status of national outreach efforts, actual expenditures by certified programs for local outreach, the extent to which requests to exceed funding guidelines for local outreach by certified programs have been justified, and input provided by certified programs.
107.
108.
109. The Commission's experience with the program has shown that this mechanism has allocated sufficient funds to most states annually to meet their residents' needs and, when such allocations have not been sufficient, states have had an opportunity to obtain additional funding through the reallocation process, discussed in more detail next. Further, the Commission believes that this funding allocation mechanism has provided each certified program with the incentive and opportunity to distribute communications equipment to as many eligible residents as possible. During the first year of the pilot program, certified programs, together with national outreach activities, collectively used approximately 68% of the $10 million allocated for the NDBEDP, approximately 94% was used during the second year, and approximately 88% was used during the third year. This funding enabled equipment and related services to bring communications access to approximately 3,000 low-income deaf-blind individuals.
110.
111. Given the success of this approach in maximizing available funds under the NDBEDP, the Commission will continue to authorize the Bureau, as necessary, to make (1) voluntary reallocations between certified programs at any time during the Fund year and (2) involuntary reallocations when individual program performance indicates that NDBEDP funds could be more fully utilized by other certified programs. The Commission believes that this approach will continue to fulfill Congress's goal of bringing communications access to as many low-income individuals who are deaf-blind as possible.
112. The Commission will also continue the current practice of notifying and coordinating with the potentially impacted certified programs prior to making involuntary reallocations of funding, to allow programs to raise concerns or objections, and to permit time for any needed adjustments to the affected programs. As part of this process, certified programs will continue to have an opportunity to request that the NDBEDP Administrator consider increasing or decreasing the proposed change in allocation. The Commission believes that the formula used by the NDBEDP Administrator for involuntary reallocations during the pilot program—which reduced by 50% the remaining allocations of certified programs that spent less than 25% of their annual allocations during the first half of the year, and reduced by 25% the remaining allocations of programs that spent more than 25% but less than 50% of their annual allocations during the first half of the year—has worked well to meet the needs of the certified programs, and for this reason, retains this formula for the permanent program. At the same time, as the Commission previously noted, it expects that, over time, a greater number of certified programs will exhaust their initial annual funding allocation, which will consequently reduce funds available for voluntary and involuntary reallocations. The Commission will allow the NDBEDP Administrator to adjust the formula, if necessary, to account for a reduction in funds that may be available for reallocations.
113. Under the permanent program, allowable spending for administrative costs is capped at 15% of each state's initial funding allocation, and the Commission has determined that reasonable levels of spending for train-the-trainer activities and local outreach efforts are 2.5% and 10%, respectively. To provide certainty, if a certified program's funding allocation is adjusted downwards during a Fund year, and the program already incurred these expenses prior to such reallocations, the Commission will not seek to recover reimbursed expenses that exceed allowable percentages with respect to the revised funding allocation.
114.
115.
116. The Commission will continue to use a funding mechanism that reimburses certified programs for their allowable costs associated with equipment distribution and related services up to each certified program's initial or adjusted funding allocation under the permanent NDBEDP. The Commission believes that this will ensure that certified programs operate in a cost-efficient manner and will maintain the financial integrity of the program. The Commission understands the difficulties that some certified programs, particularly smaller ones, initially incurred when starting up their pilot programs without funding support. However, the Commission continues to believe that holding back funding until costs are incurred will incent programs to serve as many eligible participants as possible, and will ensure accountability and protection against fraud, waste, and abuse. The Commission also believes that the reimbursement approach will facilitate the reallocation of unspent funds between state programs and that reallocation could be difficult if another funding mechanism were used. To ensure that entities seeking certification have the capacity to operate successfully in a system that reimburses them for their program costs, the Commission has added administrative and financial management experience as one of the criteria for certification under the permanent program.
117.
118. The Commission also adopts its proposal to continue requiring reimbursement claims to be submitted within 30 days after each elected period. This timeframe is supported by the record and will prevent delays when reallocations are deemed necessary. When a certified program submits its reimbursement claim more than 30 days after the claim period ends, payment of that claim may be delayed. In addition, if a program has a pattern of failing to submit claims in a timely manner, the Commission may take other action (
119. Finally, as explained in the
120.
121. In addition to documentation routinely required, the Commission will continue to permit the NDBEDP Administrator or the TRS Fund Administrator to require programs to provide supplemental information needed to verify particular claims. The Commission concludes that the process now in place, where the TRS Fund Administrator and the NDBEDP Administrator alert certified programs about the need for additional documentation or any inconsistencies or errors, successfully has reduced the amount of reimbursement claims denied to an almost negligible amount per year. This process has resulted in the temporary suspension or withholding of a payments pending resolution of disputed matters, and denied reimbursement claims when necessary. Under current rules, any certified program is permitted to appeal the denial of a reimbursement claim to the Commission. 47 CFR 1.101 through 1.117.
122. The Commission will allow modification to the reimbursement requirements somewhat to provide greater flexibility for the NDBEDP Administrator and the TRS Fund Administrator and to allow some easing of the documentation burden on state programs, where appropriate. The Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator, in consultation with OMD, and the TRS Fund Administrator, may modify the claim filing instructions issued by the TRS Fund Administrator, as necessary to achieve these goals. To further address commenters' concerns about the level of detail and documentation required for reimbursement and to streamline reimbursement claim and reporting requirements, this determination will take place in
123.
124. The Commission continues to believe that a 15% cap on administrative costs is reasonable for the permanent program. For clarity, the Commission defines these costs to be indirect and direct costs that do not fit into specifically designated categories, such as outreach or equipment and related services, but that are necessary for the operation of a program. For example, this could include costs for management and administrative support personnel, facilities, utilities, supplies, as well as the administration of oversight requirements, including reports, accounting and audits. Given support in the record, the Commission adopts its proposal to assess the 15% administrative cost cap against each certified program's annual funding allocation, rather than the total of its reimbursable costs for equipment and related services. In addition, the Commission notes that certified programs may petition for a waiver of the administrative cost cap rule, which the Bureau may consider consistent with the Commission's general waiver standard of a showing of good cause and a finding that particular facts make compliance with the rule inconsistent with the public interest. Grant of such a waiver would not, however, permit the program's total reimbursement to exceed its overall funding allocation. Finally, the Commission notes its expectation that the establishment of a centralized database will facilitate compliance with reporting and reimbursement claim requirements, addressing concerns about the sufficiency of the 15% cap to cover necessary administrative costs. As a number of commenters suggest, a centralized database is likely to produce administrative cost savings for programs that currently have to maintain their own, or pay for alternative databases to perform these functions. The Commission believes that all of these measures, taken together, will help to alleviate burdens that the 15% administrative cap may have imposed during the pilot program.
125.
126. As discussed below, the Commission affirms the current responsibilities of the NDBEDP Administrator. In addition, the Commission sets overarching performance goals and initial performance measures for the permanent NDBEDP to provide for the efficient assessment of the program's progress in meeting the performance goals. The Commission further directs the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator to, as necessary, develop more detailed elaboration of these performance measures, which shall be informed by information contained in the reports submitted by the certified programs. In addition, the Commission streamlines the NDBEDP's reporting requirements so they are consistent with the new performance measures, as well as to improve program oversight and eliminate unnecessary reporting burdens.
127. The Commission directs the establishment of a centralized NDBEDP reporting database, to be used for reporting purposes and for the generation of reimbursement claims by programs that choose to use it for that purpose. The Commission directs the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator to accomplish this task in coordination with OMD and its Chief Information Officer (CIO) and, as appropriate, with certified NDBEDP programs that will use or access the database. From the $10 million available annually from the TRS Fund for the NDBEDP, the Bureau may allocate an amount necessary for the development and maintenance of the centralized database. The Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator shall also coordinate with the appropriate Commission offices to ensure compliance with applicable privacy and security requirements. For example, the Commission currently complies with the requirements of the Privacy Act with respect to the protection of PII that the Commission receives in connection with the NDBEDP pilot program. The Commission will modify the System of Records Notice for the NDBEDP and take other measures, as necessary and appropriate, with respect to the adoption of final rules for the permanent NDBEDP and the development of the centralized database.
128.
129. The Commission directs that the responsibilities listed above should continue to reside with the Bureau. In addition, the Commission requires the NDBEDP Administrator to coordinate with OMD regarding funding decisions. The Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator should continue to determine annual funding allocations, including reallocations that may need to be made during a Fund year, for each of the NDBEDP-certified programs. In addition, the Commission directs that the NDBEDP Administrator should continue the practice of conducting qualitative reviews to ensure that claims for reimbursement for equipment and services are consistent with NDBEDP rules, and the TRS Fund Administrator should continue to conduct quantitative reviews to determine that the requested dollar amounts are accurate, prior to making payments to certified entities. The Commission believes that this process will continue to fulfill its objectives to meet the needs of deaf-blind consumers in accordance with its policies, comply with Government-wide financial requirements, and achieve efficiencies in the NDBEDP.
130. In addition to delegating policy oversight of the permanent NDBEDP to the Bureau, the Commission delegates financial oversight of this program to the Managing Director and directs the Managing Director to work in coordination with the Bureau to ensure that all financial aspects of the program have adequate internal controls. These duties reasonably fall within OMD's current delegated authority to ensure
131.
132. In establishing performance measures to assess progress relative to these goals, the Commission is mindful of the U.S. Government Accountability Office's (GAO) advice that performance measures for each goal “should be limited to the vital few.” GAO,
133. The Commission concludes that program performance in providing effective, cost-effective, and efficient service to the target population should be measured based on a few vital metrics that may be reflected in the following data: (1) Number of clients served, broken down by new versus existing program participants, and client characteristics that are relevant to the national program's performance and costs; (2) information about the equipment distributed, including costs; (3) costs and hours consumed for assessments, training, and follow-up visits (
134. The Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator are directed to implement metric parameters based on the above guidance. In this way, measures can be “tweaked” as necessary to reflect insights gained from additional oversight experience, including insights gained in implementing the centralized reporting database. Given the size of the program, and the diversity of its recipients, program data may skew based on circumstances of particular regions or particular clients, and may require further inquiry, which prescribes against adopting formulaic metrics. The Commission therefore authorizes CGB to determine the most effective method for gathering the necessary information and weighing these metrics to evaluate program performance. The Commission expects that, at a minimum, the performance measures will serve as tools to develop recommendations for programs on how to increase cost-effectiveness, and will inform the Commission's program policy decisions. The data collected for these performance measures should also enhance the Commission's ability to develop baseline information and benchmarks for future assessments.
135.
136. The Commission is mindful of the need to ensure that information collection requirements do not unnecessarily burden NDBEDP programs whose resources for program administration are quite limited. The Commission further believes that its original objectives for requiring programs to report certain information under the pilot program—such as detailed information about each item of equipment distributed—have now been met. For example, detailed reporting on the particular items of equipment distributed was needed to inform the Commission about the communication equipment needs of the deaf-blind community for the permanent program. While this is important information to collect and maintain in program records—and may also be necessary for the submission of reimbursement claims—the same level of detail about every piece of equipment distributed under the pilot program may not be necessary for the permanent program, and in fact such detailed reporting could unnecessarily burden program
137. Where data must already be reported for claim reimbursement, unnecessary duplication of effort should not be required. For this purpose, below, the Commission directs the establishment of a centralized database for the submission of program data to the Commission. For example, effective upon activation of the centralized NDBEDP database, the Commission expects that a program choosing to use the database for claims reimbursement as well as semiannual reporting will not be required to enter client-specific information twice.
138. To provide the flexibility needed to effectively assess the permanent program's performance, the Commission adopts rules for the permanent program that set forth the categories of required information. The Commission directs the Bureau to delineate the specific data points required in the instructions on data reporting and database use issued by the NDBEDP Administrator. For example, to eliminate unnecessary information collection burdens, it may not be necessary to report detailed information about each professional attesting to an individual's eligibility. While the Commission believes that such details should be retained in program records, it may be sufficient to obtain this information upon request, as needed, through the NDBEDP Administrator or TRS Fund Administrator. This approach will allow the precise information fields required in each category to be adjusted and streamlined over time, based on experience with program oversight and creation of the centralized NDBEDP database. This flexible approach will also enable adjustment of reporting requirements to harmonize with future refinement of performance metrics. For this purpose, the Commission requires reporting of information in each of the following categories, and allows the Bureau to supplement these categories as necessary to achieve the performance objectives of the program, and to prevent fraud, waste and abuse: (1) Each client's identity and other relevant characteristics; (2) information about the equipment provided, including costs; (3) the cost and time for client assessments, installation and training, and maintenance and repair; (4) information about local outreach undertaken, including costs; and (5) promptness of service. Certified programs will be required to report the specific information set forth in instructions and guidelines issued by the Bureau in each category listed above or other categories deemed necessary by the Bureau, until superseded by new reporting instructions and guidance.
139. The Commission retains the requirement to report the identity of each individual who receives equipment because it believes this is necessary to enable correct analysis of program costs and efficacy. In addition, reporting of identity information may assist in analyzing and tracking changes that occur when one certified program is replaced by another or when a client moves to another state. In this regard, reporting of identity information may help prevent fraud, abuse, and waste (
140.
141.
I swear under penalty of perjury that I am (name and title), an officer of the above-named reporting entity, and that the entity has policies and procedures in place to ensure that recipients satisfy the NDBEDP eligibility requirements, that the entity is in compliance with the Commission's NDBEDP rules, that I have examined the foregoing reports and that all requested information has been provided, and all statements of fact are true and an accurate statement of the business activities conducted pursuant to the NDBEDP by the above-named certified program.
142.
143. For all of these reasons, the Commission directs the Bureau, in coordination with the NDBEDP Administrator, OMD and its CIO, to establish a centralized database for the
144. Upon its completion, all certified programs will be required to use the centralized database to file their semiannual program reports. As further discussed below, programs will be allowed, but not required, to also use the centralized database for generating reimbursement requests, which is expected to eliminate the duplication of effort involved in filing identical data for both reimbursement and reporting purposes. The Commission also recognize that some certified programs have invested in the development of their own databases for tracking and reporting NDBEDP-related activities. To be clear, nothing in document FCC 16-101 prevents individual programs from continuing to use state-specific data bases for their own tracking purposes. The Commission only requires that the required report data be entered in a national database so that it can be effectively aggregated nationally for the essential purposes described above. Therefore, to reduce any costs that may be associated with entering data in both a state-specific and a national database, the Commission directs that the Bureau, OMD and its CIO, and the NDBEDP Administrator consider the use of tools that will allow certified programs to submit data in an aggregate manner.
145.
146. The Commission concludes that the establishment of the centralized database does not by itself relieve certified programs of the requirements to retain records and document compliance with Commission rules. The Commission does not envision that the database will be a repository for all records that a certified program must retain or chooses to retain to demonstrate compliance with the Commission's requirements governing the NDBEDP. Certified programs will be held responsible for complying with documentation and record retention requirements but will be otherwise be free to maintain records outside the database in whatever format they deem appropriate, as long as such records are reproducible upon request from the Bureau, the NDBEDP Administrator, OMD, TRS Fund Administrator, Commission, or law enforcement.
147.
148. While the Commission will not exclude PII from the centralized database, privacy and security are key considerations that it must consider in the collection and maintenance of this information. Accordingly, the Commission directs the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator to limit the amount of PII collected to that needed for effective program oversight. The database administrator should be tasked with establishing procedures, protocols, and other safeguards to ensure database access is in fact restricted according to the Commission's guidelines to protect any PII in the centralized database. Additionally, the Commission requires that access to the centralized NDBEDP database be limited to authorized entities for purposes that further the effective and efficient operation and administration of the NDBEDP and compliance with the Commission's rules. The database administrator shall allow certified programs to access and use the database only for the reasons specified in this part of document FCC 16-101, and to determine whether information previously entered in the database is correct and complete. Moreover, the Commission specifically prohibits a certified program from accessing PII about clients of another certified program, except as expressly authorized by the NDBEDP Administrator, pursuant to appropriate safeguards, where necessary to ensure
149. The Commission concludes that all access to the centralized database should be restricted to secure means of communication and be subject to a strict password policy to help protect the security of the database. To the extent possible and appropriate, certified programs should be informed specifically about how data will be secured. As in the pilot program, the Bureau and the NDBEDP Administrator will coordinate with OMD and the CIO to ensure compliance with Government-wide statutory and regulatory guidance as to the Privacy Act of 1974, FISMA, and any other applicable privacy and security requirements.
150.
151.
152.
153. The Commission will retain the requirement for certified programs to conduct annual audits in the permanent NDBEDP because the Commission concludes that annual audits are needed to ensure the fiscal integrity of the program. As the Commission proposed in the
154. The record also supports the Commission's proposals to continue to require certified programs to submit to an audit arranged by the Commission or its delegated authorities, and for any certified program that fails to fully cooperate in a Commission-arranged audit to be subject to an automatic suspension of NDBEDP payments until it agrees to the requested audit. While the Commission has not undertaken any audits of certified programs during the pilot program, to date, it concludes that it is fiscally prudent to continue to require certified programs to submit to such audits. In addition, the Commission finds that this automatic suspension policy will promote transparency, accountability, and assure the integrity of the TRS Fund.
155. Further, the Commission will retain the provisions in the pilot program rules requiring certified programs to document compliance with all Commission requirements governing the NDBEDP, retain all records associated with the distribution of equipment and provision of related services under the NDBEDP, including records that support reimbursement claims and reports, and, upon Commission request, to submit documentation demonstrating ongoing compliance with the Commission's rules. As proposed, the Commission clarifies that evidence that a state program may not be in compliance with those rules is not a prerequisite to such a documentation request. As the Commission noted in the
156. Finally, the Commission adopts the proposal to require record retention for five years, a period that is supported by a number of commenters and is consistent with the Commission's TRS and Lifeline rules. Extending the requirement to five years will help to ensure compliance with program requirements and enable the Commission to exercise appropriate oversight and administration of the permanent NDBEDP on an ongoing basis.
157.
158.
159. The Commission hereby adopts the proposed complaint procedures, which are generally supported by the commenters. Under these procedures, informal complaints related to the NDBEDP will be processed by the Bureau's Disability Rights Office (DRO) complaints division and the NDBEDP Administrator. Informal complaints may be transmitted to the Commission via any reasonable means, such as by letter, fax, telephone, TTY, or email. When the Commission's Consumer Help Center is updated, informal complaints may also be transmitted online. This informal complaint process is intended to facilitate resolution of complaints between the parties whenever possible. As noted, if the consumer is not satisfied with the certified program's response and the DRO's disposition of an informal complaint, the consumer may file a formal complaint.
160. The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) requires that an agency prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis for notice and comment rulemaking proceedings, unless the agency certifies that “the rule will not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.”
161. In 2011, pursuant to section 105 of the Twenty-First Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010 (CVAA), which adds section 719 of the Act, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 620, the Commission established the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program (NDBEDP) as a pilot program. Under the NDBEDP, the Commission provides up to $10 million annually from the Interstate Telecommunications Relay Service Fund (TRS Fund) to support programs approved by the Commission for the distribution of equipment designed to make telecommunications service, Internet access service, and advanced communications services (covered services) accessible to low-income individuals who are deaf-blind. 47 U.S.C. 620(a), (c). A person who is “deaf-blind” has combined vision and hearing loss, as defined in the Helen Keller National Center Act. 47 U.S.C. 620(b); 29 U.S.C. 1905(2). The Commission authorized up to 53 entities to be certified to participate in the pilot program—one entity for each state, plus the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico,
162. In the
163. Document FCC 16-101 extends the NDBEDP to include the U.S. territories of American Samoa, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands. As a result, up to 56 entities may be certified to participate in the permanent NDBEDP.
164. Document FCC 16-101 provides that current state programs and other entities that want to participate in the permanent NDBEDP must seek certification for a five-year period and every five years thereafter. If a current program wants to renew its certification or another entity wants to apply for certification, it must, one year prior to the expiration of the five-year certification period, submit an application explaining why it is eligible to participate in the NDBEDP.
165. To help address a persistent shortage of qualified trainers to provide individualized training to consumers on how to use NDBEDP-distributed equipment, document FCC 16-101 permits certified programs to use up to 2.5% of their annual funding allocations, or approximately $250,000 annually for all certified programs, for the costs of train-the-trainer activities and programs during the first five years
166. The NDBEDP pilot program rules require all certified programs to submit reports about their NDBEDP activities to the Commission every six months. Document FCC 16-101 finds that continuing to receive this data will be useful to the permanent program as well, because regular reporting is necessary to ensure that certified programs maintain and keep current NDBEDP-related data and to provide accurate snapshots of that data consistently across all certified programs for oversight and evaluation purposes. At the same time, document FCC 16-101 sets forth generally the categories of required information and directs the Bureau to determine the specific items of information to be reported, which the Bureau may adjust and streamline over time and in conjunction with the planning and implementation of the centralized database, which is discussed next. Streamlining reporting requirements will reduce the administrative burden of the certified programs participating in the permanent NDBEDP.
167. In document FCC 16-101, the Commission directs the Bureau, in coordination with the appropriate Commission offices and other stakeholders, to establish a centralized database that would assist state programs to comply with the reporting and reimbursement claim requirements under the permanent NDBEDP. First, upon completion of the database, all state programs would be required to submit information about their NDBEDP-related activities into the database and use the database to generate reports for submission to the Commission every six months. Second, all state programs would be able to submit data regarding their NDBEDP-related expenses into the database and generate reimbursement claims for submission to the TRS Fund Administrator. State programs currently maintain their own databases or pay for alternative databases to perform these functions. Submission of data into a centralized database that is established and maintained by the Commission to perform these functions would likely reduce the administrative costs for these state programs. Collecting data in a uniform manner from the certified programs would also improve oversight and administration of the NDBEDP by enabling the Commission to aggregate and analyze that data.
168. Under the Commission's rules for the NDBEDP pilot program, certified programs are compensated for 100% of their expenses, up to each program's annual allocation set by the NDBEDP Administrator, a Commission official designated by the Bureau. Within this annual allocation amount, the Commission did not establish any caps for costs associated with state and local outreach, assessments, equipment, installation, or training, but did establish a cap for administrative costs. The Commission defined administrative costs to include reporting requirements, accounting, regular audits, oversight, and general administration. Programs may be compensated for administrative costs up to 15% of their total reimbursable costs (
169. During each year of the pilot program, the Commission has set aside $500,000 of the $10 million available annually to perform national outreach to promote the NDBEDP. Given the significant progress in publicizing the NDBEDP during the pilot program, document FCC 16-101 continues to fund national outreach efforts, but at a reduced level of $250,000 for each of the first five years of the permanent program, and directs the Bureau to determine the extent to which national outreach efforts and funding should be continued thereafter and whether to extend Perkins's national outreach services for another five-year period or to invite entities, via a public notice, to submit applications to conduct these efforts.
170. During the pilot program, certified programs have been required to engage an independent auditor to perform annual audits designed to detect and prevent fraud, waste, and abuse, as well as to submit to audits arranged by the Commission or its delegated authorities. Document FCC 16-101 continues those audit requirements and also requires each certified program to submit a copy of its annual audit to the NDBEDP Administrator.
171. The Commission finds that the rules adopted in document FCC 16-101 will not have a significant economic impact on the entities that are part of the NDBEDP because the Commission will reimburse these entities for all of their NDBEDP expenses from the TRS Fund, up to their annual funding allocations. The rules adopted in document FCC 16-101 are administrative in nature, intended to reduce the administrative burden on certified programs, increase program transparency, benefit equipment recipients, improve the Commission's administration and oversight of the NDBEDP, and will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. To the extent that there is an economic impact on small entities as a result of the rules adopted in document FCC 16-101, the Commission believes the impact to be a positive one.
172. The Commission therefore certifies, pursuant to the RFA, that the rules adopted in document FCC 16-101 will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
173. The Commission sent a copy of document FCC 16-101 in a report to Congress and the Governmental Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(1)(A).
Pursuant to sections 1, 4(i), 4(j), and 719 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 151, 154(i), 154(j), and 620, document FCC 16-101 is ADOPTED and the Commission's rules are hereby AMENDED.
Section 64.610 of the Commission's rules will remain in effect until after all reports have been submitted, all payments and adjustments have been made, all wind-down activities have been completed, and no issues with the
The Commission will send a copy of document FCC 16-101, including a copy of this final certification, to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration.
Individuals with disabilities, Telecommunications.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission amends Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
47 U.S.C. 154, 254(k); 403(b)(2)(B), (c), Pub. L. 104-104, 110 Stat. 56. Interpret or apply 47 U.S.C. 201, 218, 222, 225, 226, 227, 228, 254(k), 616, 620, and the Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012, Pub. L. 112-96, unless otherwise noted.
For each state, including the District of Columbia and U.S. territories, the Commission will certify a single program as the sole entity authorized to receive reimbursement for NDBEDP activities from the TRS Fund. Such entity will have full responsibility for distributing equipment and providing related services, such as outreach, assessments, installation, and training, in that state, either directly or through collaboration, partnership, or contract with other individuals or entities in-state or out-of-state, including other NDBEDP certified programs.
(a)
(b)
(1) Within 60 days after the effective date of this section;
(2) At least one year prior to the expiration of a program's certification;
(3) Within 30 days after public notice of a program's relinquishment of certification; and
(4) If an application deadline is extended or a vacancy exists for other reasons than relinquishment or expiration of a certification, within the time period specified by public notice.
(c)
(1) Expertise in the field of deaf-blindness, including familiarity with the culture and etiquette of individuals who are deaf-blind;
(2) The ability to communicate effectively with individuals who are deaf-blind (for training and other purposes), by among other things, using sign language, providing materials in Braille, ensuring that information made available online is accessible, and using other assistive technologies and methods to achieve effective communication;
(3) Administrative and financial management experience;
(4) Staffing and facilities sufficient to administer the program, including the ability to distribute equipment and provide related services to low-income individuals who are deaf-blind throughout the state, including those in remote areas;
(5) Experience with the distribution of specialized customer premises equipment, especially to individuals who are deaf-blind;
(6) Experience in training consumers on how to use Equipment and how to set up Equipment for its effective use;
(7) Familiarity with Covered Services; and,
(8) If the applicant is seeking renewal of certification, ability to provide Equipment and related services in compliance with this subpart.
(d)
(2) A certified entity shall disclose to the Commission any relationship, arrangement, or agreement with a manufacturer or provider of Equipment or related services that comes into being or is discovered after certification is granted and that poses an actual or potential conflict of interest, as well as the steps the entity will take to eliminate such actual or potential conflict or to minimize the associated risks, within 30 days after the entity learns or should have learned of such actual or potential conflict of interest. The Commission may suspend or revoke an NDBEDP certification or may require a certified entity, as a condition of continued certification, to take additional steps to eliminate, or to minimize the risks associated with, an actual or potential conflict of interest, if relationships, arrangements, or agreements affecting the entity are likely to impede its objectivity in the distribution of Equipment or its ability to comply with NDBEDP requirements.
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i) [Reserved]
(j)
(1) Within 30 days after the new entity is certified, and as a condition precedent to receiving payment for any reimbursement claims pending as of or after the date of certification of the successor entity,
(i) Transfer to the new entity all NDBEDP data, records, and information for the previous five years, and any Equipment remaining in inventory;
(ii) Provide notification in accessible formats about the newly-certified state program to state residents who are in the process of obtaining Equipment or related services, or who received Equipment during the previous three-year period; and
(iii) Inform the NDBEDP Administrator that such transfer and notification have been completed;
(2) Submit all reimbursement claims, reports, audits, and other required information relating to the previously certified entity's provision of Equipment and related services; and
(3) Take all other steps reasonably necessary to ensure an orderly transfer of responsibilities and uninterrupted functioning of the state program.
Before providing Equipment or related services to an individual, a certified program shall verify the individual's eligibility in accordance with this section.
(a)
(1) The individual may provide an attestation from a professional with direct knowledge of the individual's disability, either to the best of the professional's knowledge or under penalty of perjury, that the applicant is deaf-blind (as defined in § 64.6203(c) of this part). Such attestation shall include the attesting professional's full name, title, and contact information, including business name, address, phone number, and email address. Such attestation shall also include the basis of the attesting professional's knowledge that the individual is deaf-blind and may also include information about the individual's functional abilities to use Covered Services in various settings.
(2) The individual may provide existing documentation that the individual is deaf-blind, such as an individualized education program (IEP) or a Social Security determination letter.
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(a) A certified program shall:
(1) Distribute Equipment and provide related services;
(2) Permit the transfer of a recipient's account, records, and any title to and control of the distributed Equipment to another state's certified program when a recipient relocates to another state;
(3) Permit the transfer of a recipient's account, records, and any title to and control of the distributed Equipment from another state's NDBEDP certified program when a recipient relocates to the program's state;
(4) Prohibit recipients from transferring Equipment received under the NDBEDP to another person through sale or otherwise, and if it learns that an individual has unlawfully obtained, sold, or transferred Equipment, take appropriate steps to reclaim the Equipment or its worth;
(5) Include the following or a substantially similar attestation on all consumer application forms:
I certify that all information provided on this application, including information about my disability and income, is true, complete, and accurate to the best of my knowledge. I authorize program representatives to verify the information provided.
I permit information about me to be shared with my state's current and successor program managers and representatives for the administration of the program and for the delivery of equipment and services to me. I also permit information about me to be reported to the Federal Communications Commission for the administration, operation, and oversight of the program.
If I am accepted into the program, I agree to use program services solely for the purposes intended. I understand that I may not sell, give, or lend to another person any equipment provided to me by the program.
If I provide any false records or fail to comply with these or other requirements or conditions of the program, program officials may end services to me immediately. Also, if I violate these or other requirements or conditions of the program on purpose, program officials may take legal action against me.
I certify that I have read, understand, and accept these conditions to participate in iCanConnect (the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program);
(6) Conduct outreach, in accessible formats, to inform state residents about the NDBEDP, which may include the development and maintenance of a program Web site;
(7) Engage an independent auditor to conduct an annual audit, submit a copy of the annual audit to the NDBEDP Administrator, and submit to audits as deemed appropriate by the Commission or its delegated authorities;
(8) Document compliance with all Commission requirements governing the NDBEDP and provide such documentation to the Commission upon request;
(9) Retain all records associated with the distribution of Equipment and provision of related services under the NDBEDP, including records that support reimbursement claims and reports required by §§ 64.6213 and 64.6215 of this part, for a minimum of five years; and
(10) Comply with other applicable provisions of this section.
(b) A certified program shall not:
(1) Impose restrictions on specific brands, models or types of communications technology that recipients may receive to access Covered Services; or
(2) Disable or hinder the use of, or direct manufacturers or vendors of Equipment to disable or hinder the use of, any capabilities, functions, or features on distributed Equipment that are needed to access Covered Services;
(3) Accept any type of financial arrangement from Equipment vendors that creates improper incentives to purchase particular Equipment.
(a) Programs certified under the NDBEDP shall be reimbursed for the cost of Equipment that has been distributed to low-income individuals who are deaf blind and authorized related services, up to the state's funding allocation under this program as determined by the Commission or any entity authorized to act for the Commission on delegated authority.
(b) Upon certification and at the beginning of each TRS Fund year, state programs may elect to submit reimbursement claims on a monthly, quarterly, or semiannual basis;
(c) Within 30 days after the end of each reimbursement period during the TRS Fund year, each certified program must submit documentation that supports its claim for reimbursement of the reasonable costs of the following:
(1) Equipment and related expenses, including maintenance, repairs, warranties, returns, refurbishing, upgrading, and replacing Equipment distributed to consumers;
(2) Individual needs assessments;
(3) Installation of Equipment and individualized consumer training;
(4) Maintenance of an inventory of Equipment that can be loaned to consumers during periods of Equipment repair or used for other NDBEDP purposes, such as conducting individual needs assessments;
(5) Outreach efforts to inform state residents about the NDBEDP;
(6) Train-the-trainer activities and programs;
(7) Travel expenses; and
(8) Administrative costs, defined as indirect and direct costs that are not included in other cost categories of this paragraph (c) and that are necessary for the operation of a program, but not to exceed 15 percent of the certified program's funding allocation.
(d) Documentation will be provided in accordance with claim filing instructions issued by the TRS Fund Administrator. The NDBEDP Administrator and the TRS Fund Administrator may require a certified program to submit supplemental information and documentation when necessary to verify particular claims.
(e) With each request for payment, the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, or other senior executive of the certified program, such as a manager or director, with first-hand knowledge of the accuracy and completeness of the claim in the request, must certify as follows:
I swear under penalty of perjury that I am (name and title), an officer of the above-named reporting entity, and that I have examined all cost data associated with equipment and related services for the claims submitted herein, and that all such data are true and an accurate statement of the business activities conducted pursuant to the NDBEDP by the above-named certified program.
(a) Every six months, for the periods January through June and July through December, a certified program shall submit data to the Commission in the following categories:
(1) Each Equipment recipient's identity and other relevant characteristics;
(2) Information about the Equipment provided, including costs;
(3) Information about assessments, installation, and training, including costs;
(4) Information about local outreach undertaken, including costs; and
(5) Promptness of service.
(b) The categories of information to be reported may be supplemented by the Chief, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, as necessary to further the purposes of the program and prevent fraud, waste, and abuse. Reports are due 60 days after the end of a reporting period. The specific items of information to be reported in each category and the manner in which they are to be reported shall be set forth in instructions issued by the NDBEDP Administrator.
(c) With each report, the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, or other senior executive of the certified program, such as a director or manager, with first-hand knowledge of the accuracy and completeness of the information provided in the report, must certify as follows:
I swear under penalty of perjury that I am (name and title), an officer of the above-named reporting entity, and that the entity
Complaints against NDBEDP certified programs for alleged violations of this subpart may be either informal or formal.
(a)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(2) A complainant unsatisfied with the NDBEDP certified program's response to the informal complaint and the Commission's disposition of the informal complaint may file a formal complaint with the Commission pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
(c)
(d)
(a) NDBEDP certified programs shall permit, without reprisal in the form of an adverse personnel action, purchase or contract cancellation or discontinuance, eligibility disqualification, or otherwise, any current or former employee, agent, contractor, manufacturer, vendor, applicant, or recipient, to disclose to a designated official of the certified program, the NDBEDP Administrator, the TRS Fund Administrator, the Commission, or to any federal or state law enforcement entity, any known or suspected violations of the Communications Act or Commission rules, or any other activity that the reporting person reasonably believes to be unlawful, wasteful, fraudulent, or abusive, or that otherwise could result in the improper distribution of Equipment, provision of services, or billing to the TRS Fund.
(b) NDBEDP certified programs shall include these whistleblower protections with the information they provide about the program in any employee handbooks or manuals, on their Web sites, and in other appropriate publications.
The National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program (NDBEDP) is established to support programs that distribute Equipment to low-income individuals who are deaf-blind.
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(i) Who has a central visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with corrective lenses, or a field defect such that the peripheral diameter of visual field subtends an angular distance no greater than 20 degrees, or a progressive visual loss having a prognosis leading to one or both these conditions;
(ii) Who has a chronic hearing impairment so severe that most speech cannot be understood with optimum amplification, or a progressive hearing loss having a prognosis leading to this condition; and
(iii) For whom the combination of impairments described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section cause extreme difficulty in attaining independence in daily life activities, achieving psychosocial adjustment, or obtaining a vocation.
(2) An individual's functional abilities with respect to using Covered Services in various environments shall be considered when determining whether the individual is deaf-blind under paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
(3) The definition in this paragraph (c) also includes any individual who, despite the inability to be measured accurately for hearing and vision loss due to cognitive or behavioral constraints, or both, can be determined
(d)
(e)
The Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau shall designate a Commission official as the NDBEDP Administrator to ensure the effective, efficient, and consistent administration of the program, determine annual funding allocations and reallocations, and review reimbursement claims to ensure that the claimed costs are consistent with the NDBEDP rules.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Airbus Model A318-111 and -112 airplanes, Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, and -115 airplanes, Model A320-211, -212, and -214 airplanes, and Model A321-111, -112, -211, -212, and -213 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of engine fan cowl door (FCD) losses on airplanes equipped with CFM56 engines due to operator failure to close the FCD during ground operations. This proposed AD would require modification and re-identification of certain FCDs or replacement of certain FCDs. This proposed AD would also require installation of a placard. We are proposing this AD to prevent in-flight loss of an engine FCD and possible consequent damage to the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 10, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office-EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive, 2016-0069, dated April 11, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Model A318-111 and -112 airplanes, Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, and -115 airplanes, Model A320-211, -212, and -214 airplanes, and Model A321-111, -112, -211, -212, and -213 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Fan Cowl Door (FCD) losses were reported on aeroplanes equipped with CFM56 engines.
Investigations confirmed that in all cases the fan cowls were opened prior to the flight and were not correctly re-secured. During the pre-flight inspection, it was then not detected that the FCD were not properly latched.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to in-flight loss of a FCD, possibly resulting in damage to the aeroplane and/or injury to persons on the ground.
Prompted by these events, new FCD front latch and keeper assembly were developed, having a specific key necessary to un-latch the FCD. This key cannot be removed unless the FCD front latch is safely closed. The key, after removal, must be stowed in the flight deck at a specific location, as instructed in the applicable Aircraft Maintenance Manual. Applicable Flight Crew Operating Manual has been amended accordingly. After modification, the FCD is identified with a different Part Number (P/N).
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires modification and re-identification of FCD [or replacement of the FCD].
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We reviewed Airbus Service Bulletin A320-71-1068, Revision 01, dated April 28, 2016. This service information describes procedures for modifying the left-hand and right-hand FCDs on engines 1 and 2; installing a placard;
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
The parts installation prohibition specified in paragraph (5) of the MCAI depends on the configuration of the airplane. However, paragraph (k) of this proposed AD prohibits installing certain parts for all airplanes as of the effective date of this proposed AD.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 400 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(h), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 10, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Airbus airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this AD, all manufacturer serial numbers.
(1) Airbus Model A318-111 and -112 airplanes.
(2) Airbus Model A319-111, -112, -113, -114, and -115 airplanes.
(3) Airbus Model A320-211, -212, and -214 airplanes.
(4) Airbus Model A321-111, -112, -211, -212, and -213 airplanes.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 71, Powerplant.
This AD was prompted by reports of engine fan cowl door (FCD) losses on airplanes equipped with CFM56 engines due to operator failure to close the FCD during ground operations. We are issuing this AD to prevent in-flight loss of an engine FCD and possible consequent damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 35 months after the effective date of this AD, accomplish concurrently the actions in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this AD, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-71-1068, Revision 01, dated April 28, 2016.
(1) Modify the left-hand and right-hand FCDs on engines 1 and 2.
(2) Install a placard on the box located at the bottom of the 120 volt unit (120 VU) panel, or at the bottom of the coat stowage, as applicable to airplane configuration.
(3) Re-identify both the left-hand and right-hand FCDs with the new part number, as applicable, as specified in table 1 to paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (k) of this AD.
Replacing the FCDs, having a part number listed as “Old P/N” in table 1 to paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (k) of this AD, with the FCDs having the corresponding part number listed as “New P/N” in table 1 to paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (k) of this AD, is equal to compliance with paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(3) of this AD. The replacement must be done in accordance with instructions approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), or approved under Airbus's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
An airplane on which Airbus modification 157517 has been embodied in production, is compliant with the requirements of paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(3) of this AD, provided it is determined that no FCD, having a part number identified as “Old P/N” in table 1 to paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (k) of this AD, are installed on that airplane at the effective date of the AD.
An airplane on which Airbus modification 157519 or modification 157521 has been embodied in production is compliant with the requirements of paragraph (g)(2) of this AD.
As of the effective date of this AD, do not install on any airplane an FCD part number identified as “Old P/N” in table 1 to paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (k) of this AD.
Installation on an airplane of right-hand and left-hand FCD, having a part number approved after the effective date of this AD, is equal to compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(3) of this AD for that airplane only, provided the conditions specified in paragraphs (l)(1) and (l)(2) of this AD are met.
(1) The part number must be approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-
(2) The FCD installation must be accomplished in accordance with airplane modification instructions approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or approved under Airbus's EASA DOA.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A320-71-1068, dated December 18, 2015, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2016-0069, dated April 11, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correction to a notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing.
This document contains corrections to a notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing (REG-131418-14) that was published in the
Written or electronic comments and request for a public hearing for the notice of proposed rulemaking at 81 FR 50657, August 2, 2016, are still being accepted and must be received by October 31, 2016.
Concerning the proposed regulations, Gerald Semasek of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) for the proposed regulations under sections 6050S and 6724, (202) 317-6845, and Sheldon Iskow of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Income Tax and Accounting) for the proposed regulations under section 25A, (202) 317-4718; concerning the submission of comments and requests for a public hearing, Regina Johnson, (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free calls).
The notice of proposed rulemaking that is subject of this document is under section 6050S of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published, the notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing (REG-131418-14) contains errors that may prove to be misleading and are in need of clarification.
Accordingly, the notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing (REG-131418-14) that are subject to FR Doc. 2016-18032 are corrected as follows:
Federal Communications Commission.
Proposed rule.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (Commission) seeks comment on proposals to amend the Commission's rules to promote spectrum efficiency, interoperability, and flexibility in 700 MHz public safety narrowband operations (769-775/799-805 MHz). By this action, the Commission affords interested parties an opportunity to submit comments on these proposed rule changes.
Comments are due on or before October 26, 2016 and reply comments are due on or before November 10, 2016.
John Evanoff, Policy and Licensing Division, Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau, (202) 418-0848 or
This is a summary of the Commission's Further Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (FNPRM) in PS Docket No. 13-87, FCC 16-111, released on August 22, 2016. The document is available for download at
In this FNPRM, the Commission seeks comment on a proposal to facilitate the use of Vehicular Repeater Systems (VRS) on 700 MHz narrowband General Use and State License channels. In particular, it seeks comment on whether to amend the 700 MHz narrowband trunking rule and asks for comment on additional rule changes that may be necessary to accommodate vehicular repeater systems' operation on 700 MHz narrowband channels.
This FNPRM also seeks comment on the Department of Homeland Security's (DHS) Project 25 Compliance Assessment Advisory Council (P25 CAP AP) list of 15 recommended feature sets and capabilities to facilitate interoperable communications between radios when operating in the conventional mode of P25 using the Common Air Interface (CAI) on the designated 700 MHz interoperability channels. The Commission seeks comment on whether to adopt all, some, or none, of the additional feature sets and capabilities recommended.
This FNPRM also seeks comment on a recommendation by Motorola Solutions, Inc. (Motorola) to clarify Sections 90.547 and 90.548 of the Commission's rules that require that 700 MHz radios must be capable of being programmed to operate on the designated interoperability channels.
Pursuant to sections 1.415 and 1.419 of the Commission's rules, 47 CFR 1.415, 1.419, interested parties may file comments and reply comments on or before the dates indicated on the first page of this document. Comments may be filed using the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS). See Electronic Filing of Documents in Rulemaking Proceedings, 63 FR 24121 (1998).
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Filings can be sent by hand or messenger delivery, by commercial overnight courier, or by first-class or overnight U.S. Postal Service mail. All filings must be addressed to the Commission's Secretary, Office of the Secretary, Federal Communications Commission.
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Interested parties may view documents filed in this proceeding on the Commission's Electronic Comment Filing System (ECFS) using the following steps: (1) Access ECFS at
This proceeding shall be treated as a “permit-but-disclose” proceeding in accordance with the Commission's ex parte rules. Persons making ex parte presentations must file a copy of any written presentation or a memorandum summarizing any oral presentation within two business days after the presentation (unless a different deadline applicable to the Sunshine period applies). Persons making oral ex parte presentations are reminded that memoranda summarizing the presentation must (1) list all persons attending or otherwise participating in the meeting at which the ex parte presentation was made, and (2) summarize all data presented and arguments made during the presentation. If the presentation consisted in whole or in part of the presentation of data or arguments already reflected in the presenter's written comments, memoranda or other filings in the proceeding, the presenter may provide citations to such data or arguments in his or her prior comments, memoranda, or other filings (specifying the relevant page and/or paragraph numbers where such data or arguments can be found) in lieu of summarizing them in the memorandum. Documents shown or given to Commission staff during ex parte meetings are deemed to be written ex parte presentations and must be filed consistent with 47 CFR
As required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, as amended (“RFA”), the Commission has prepared this Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (“IRFA”) of the possible significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities that might result from adoption of the rules proposed in the FNPRM. Written public comments are requested on this IRFA. Comments must be identified as responses to the IRFA and must be filed by the applicable deadlines for initial comments, or reply comments, as specified in the FNPRM.
In the FNPRM, we seek comment on whether to amend the Commission's rules governing 700 MHz public safety narrowband spectrum at 769-775 MHz and 799-805 MHz. The rule changes we seek comment on are intended to promote flexible and efficient use of public safety narrowband spectrum in the 700 MHz band while reducing the regulatory burdens on licensees wherever possible. In order to achieve these objectives, we seek comment in the FNPRM on exempting low power vehicular repeater systems from the narrowband trunking requirements. Exempting low power vehicular repeaters systems from the trunking requirements would facilitate rapid deployment of low power vehicular repeater systems as well as reduce burdens on public safety entities. We seek comment on whether to clarify the rules concerning the requirement that 700 MHz radios be capable of being programmed to operate on the designated interoperability channels. Clarification would provide greater certainty to equipment manufacturers on the required performance of their equipment. We also seek comment on whether to adopt a list of recommended feature sets and capabilities in order to ensure that radios operating in the conventional mode on the designated 700 MHz narrowband interoperability channels are in fact interoperable across vendors. Adopting such a list would promote certainty for public safety and manufacturers as well as promote competition in the public safety equipment market. We also seek comment on whether the Commission should instead informally encourage the agencies, funders and manufacturers to adopt voluntary best practices directed to improving interoperability, both technically and operationally.
The legal basis for any action that may be taken pursuant to this FNPRM is contained in Sections 1, 4(i), 303, 316, 332, and 337 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 1, 154(i), 303, 316, 332, and 337.
The RFA directs agencies to provide a description of and, where feasible, an estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the proposed rules. The RFA generally defines the term “small entity” as having the same meaning as the terms “small business,” “small organization,” and “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the term “small business” has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” under the Small Business Act. A small business concern is one which: (1) Is independently owned and operated; (2) is not dominant in its field of operation; and (3) satisfies any additional criteria established by the Small Business Administration (SBA).
Public Safety Radio Licensees. As a general matter, Public Safety Radio licensees include police, fire, local government, forestry conservation, highway maintenance, and emergency medical services. For the purpose of determining whether a Public Safety Radio licensee is a small business as defined by the SBA, we use the broad census category, Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except Satellite).
The Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except satellite) industry comprises establishments engaged in operating and maintaining switching and transmission facilities to provide communications via the airwaves. Establishments in this industry have spectrum licenses and provide services using that spectrum, such as cellular phone services, paging services, wireless Internet access, and wireless video services. The appropriate size standard under SBA rules for the category Wireless Telecommunications Carriers (except satellite) is that a business is small if it has 1,500 or fewer employees. Census data for 2007 show that there were 1,383 firms that operated for the entire year. Of this total, 1,368 firms had employment of fewer than 1000 employees. Thus under this category and the associated small business size standard, the Commission estimates that the majority of wireless telecommunications carriers (except satellite) are small.
The Commission does not require Public Safety Radio licensees to disclose information about number of employees, so the Commission does not have information that could be used to determine how many Public Safety Radio licensees constitute small entities under this definition.
Radio and Television Broadcasting and Wireless Communications Equipment Manufacturing. The U.S. Census defines this industry as comprising “establishments primarily engaged in manufacturing radio and television broadcast and wireless communications equipment. Examples of products made by the establishments are: Transmitting and receiving antennas, cable television equipment, GPS equipment, pagers, cellular phones, mobile communications equipment, and radio and television studio and broadcasting equipment. The SBA has established a size standard for this industry which classifies any businesses in this industry as small if it has 750 or fewer employees. Census data for 2007 indicate that 939 such businesses operated in that year. Of that number, 912 businesses operated with fewer than 500 employees. Based on this data, we conclude that a majority of businesses in this industry are small by the SBA standard.
No rule proposed in the FNPRM will entail additional reporting, recordkeeping, and/or third-party consultation or other compliance requirement.
The RFA requires an agency to describe any significant, specifically small business alternatives that it has considered in reaching its proposed approach, which may include the following four alternatives (among others): “(1) the establishment of differing compliance or reporting
The FNPRM seeks comment on a proposed change to the rules covering operation of public safety systems on narrowband spectrum in the 700 MHz band. Specifically, the FNPRM seeks comment on whether the proposed rule changes to section 90.537 of the Commission's rules will promote efficient use of public safety narrowband spectrum in the band while reducing economic burdens on licensees. For the 700 MHz General Use and State License channels, section 90.537 provides that “[a]ll systems using six or more narrowband channels in the 769-775 MHz and 799-805 MHz frequency bands must be trunked systems, except for those described in paragraph (b) of this section.” In order to strike the proper balance between these two objectives, the FNPRM seeks comment, inter alia, on exempting low power vehicular repeaters from the 700 MHz narrowband trunking requirements. The FNPRM also seeks comment on maximizing interoperability by adopting a list of feature sets and capabilities in radios designed to operate in the conventional mode on the designated 700 MHz narrowband interoperability channels. Currently, the Commission's rules do not specify feature sets or capabilities that will promote interoperability across vendors and between users. Thus, we seek comment on whether it would be beneficial to incorporate into our rule specific feature sets and capabilities for radios designed to operate on the 700 MHz narrowband interoperability channels.
None.
This document does not contain proposed information collection(s) subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Public Law 104-13. In addition, therefore, it does not contain any new or modified information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees, pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4).
Accordingly,
Radio.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Communications Commission proposes to amend 47 CFR part 90 as follows:
Sections 4(i), 11, 303(g), 303(r), and 332(c)(7) of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, 47 U.S.C. 154(i), 161, 303(g), 303(r), and 332(c)(7), and Title VI of the Middle Class Tax Relief and Job Creation Act of 2012, Pub. L. 112-96, 126 Stat. 156.
(a) General use and State License channels. All systems using six or more narrowband channels in the 769-775 MHz and 799-805 MHz frequency bands must be trunked systems, except for low power vehicular repeaters (MO3) authorized on General Use and State License channels and those described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) Mobile and portable transceivers must at a minimum include the following feature sets and capabilities while operating in the conventional mode in order to be validated for compliance with the Project 25 standards.
(1) A subscriber unit must be capable of issuing an emergency alarm in a conventional system conforming to the following standard: TIA 102.BAAD-A Conventional Procedures, Section 4.2.2., released February 2010.
(2) A subscriber unit must be capable of setting the emergency bit on all voice transmissions to notify units operating on the same channel that the user has declared an emergency situation conforming to the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Section 2.1.2.25.1., released December 11, 2013.
(3) A subscriber unit must conform to the unit and accessory mil-spec requirements in accordance with the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Sections 1.3.3 through 1.3.3.5., released December 11, 2013.
(4) A subscriber unit must be capable of issuing group calls in a conventional system in conformance with the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Section 2.1.2.1., released December 11, 2013.
(5) A subscriber unit must be capable of issuing private calls in a conventional system in conformance with the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Section 2.1.2.3., released December 11, 2013.
(6) The three Project 25 standard squelch modes must be supported in conformance with the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Section 2.1.2.30, as effective on December 11, 2013.
(7) A subscriber unit must properly implement the special “Reserved” conventional network access code (NAC) and talkgroup in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released October 2010.
(8) A subscriber unit must include “No Call” Talk Group ($0000) and “All Call” Talk Group ($FFFF) in conformance with the following standard: Project 25 Statement of Requirements, Section 2.1.2.34., released December 11, 2013.
(9) A subscriber unit must be able to transmit and receive the appropriate status symbols to indicate that a channel is busy in both direct and repeater mode in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released October 2010.
(10) A subscriber units must be compatible with C4FM and CQPSK Modulation in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
(11) A fixed conventional repeater must be able to repeat the correct/matching network access code (NAC) for all subscriber call types (clear and encrypted) using the same output NAC in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
(12) A fixed conventional repeater must be able to repeat the correct/matching network access code (NAC) for all subscriber call types (clear and encrypted) using a different output NAC in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
(13) A fixed conventional repeater must be able to reject (no repeat) all input transmissions with incorrect network access code (NAC) in conformance with the following standard; TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
(14) A fixed conventional repeater must be able to support the correct status symbol indicating when an input channel is busy in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
(15) A fixed conventional repeater must be able to support the correct implementation of special reserved network access code (NAC) values $293, $F7E, and $F7F in conformance with the following standard: TIA TSB-102.CABA, released December 11, 2013.
Surface Transportation Board.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking, withdrawal.
The Surface Transportation Board is withdrawing the advance notice of proposed rulemaking and discontinuing the EP 681 rulemaking proceeding which sought comment on whether and how it should update its accounting and financial reporting for Class I rail carriers to better capture the operating costs of transporting hazardous materials.
The advance notice of proposed rulemaking published on January 5, 2009 (74 FR 248) is withdrawn and the rulemaking proceeding is discontinued on September 22, 2016.
Allison Davis at (202) 245-0378. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339.
On January 5, 2009, in the above titled docket, the Board issued an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPR) seeking public comment on whether and how it should update its accounting and financial reporting for Class I rail carriers and refine its Uniform Railroad Costing System (URCS) to better capture the operating costs of transporting hazardous materials. For the reasons stated below, we will discontinue this proceeding.
The Board uses URCS to determine a carrier's variable costs in a variety of regulatory proceedings. The URCS model determines, for each Class I railroad, what portion of each category of costs shown in that carrier's Annual Report to the Board (STB Form R-1) represents its system-average variable cost for that year, expressed as a unit cost. In the ANPR, the Board noted that there may be unique operating costs associated with the transportation of hazardous materials that URCS does not attribute to those movements. As an example, the Board suggested that the transportation of hazardous materials may require carriers to pay high insurance premiums, which would be spread across all traffic of the railroad rather than being attributed specifically to the transportation of the hazardous materials. Additionally, the Board noted that the Uniform System of Accounts (USOA)—the accounting standards which Class I carriers must use to prepare the financial statements that they submit to the Board—does not include a separate classification for hazardous material operations that would allow for an accounting of the assets used and costs incurred in providing such service.
The Board therefore sought comment on “whether and how it should improve its informational tools to better identify and attribute the costs of hazardous-material transportation movements,” including any revisions to the USOA and improvements to the analytic capabilities of URCS.
DOT agrees that “additional data should be reported to [USOA] in order to identify and quantify these [hazardous material] costs, and that URCS should attribute these costs to hazmat traffic alone rather than to the entirety of a carrier's business.” (DOT Comment 2.)
AAR, BNSF, CP, and UP generally agree with the Board's stated goals in this proceeding. (AAR Comment 2; BNSF Comment 2, CP Comment 7, 9; UP Comment 7.) However, they also argue that changes to URCS would not sufficiently address the railroad industry's concerns with transporting hazardous material. BNSF and NSR underscore the risk of liability from a catastrophic accident (BNSF Comment 2; NSR Comment 2-3), while UP stresses the importance of fairly apportioning risk across all participants in the supply chain (UP Comment 2). The railroads argue that, even if the Board were to change URCS, they should also be allowed to present the unique costs of transporting hazardous materials in rate proceedings involving hazardous materials. (
ACC, AECC, and Diversified CPC argue that the Board should not limit a review of URCS by any single issue or commodity, but should instead conduct a broader review of URCS. (ACC Comment 2; AECC Comment 2; Diversified CPC Comment 8.) ACC also argues that the proposed rulemaking would be arbitrary and ill-advised because, while some railroads have faced one-time costs from settlements of claims, the railroads have reported few
While the Board appreciates the input it received from the commenters in this proceeding, it has decided to close this docket. Although the Board is not foreclosing the possibility of addressing this issue in the future, even if it were to do so, it would be initiated as a new proceeding. Thus, we will not move forward with this proceeding at this time and will discontinue this docket in the interest of administrative efficiency.
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments; notice of public hearing.
NMFS proposes to modify the Atlantic highly migratory species (HMS) regulations to provide additional flexibility regarding the distribution of inseason Atlantic bluefin tuna (BFT) quota transfers to the Longline category. The proposed rule would provide NMFS the flexibility to distribute quota inseason either to all qualified Individual Bluefin Quota (IBQ) share recipients (
Written comments must be received on or before October 26, 2016. NMFS will host an operator-assisted public hearing conference call and webinar on October 4, 2016, from 2 to 4 p.m. EDT, providing an opportunity for individuals from all geographic areas to participate. See
You may submit comments on this document, identified by “NOAA-NMFS-2016-0067,” by either of the following methods:
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The public hearing conference call information is phone number (888) 455-5378; participant passcode 5816248. Participants are strongly encouraged to log/dial in 15 minutes prior to the meeting. NMFS will show a brief presentation via webinar followed by public comment. To join the webinar, go to:
Supporting documents, including the Regulatory Impact Review and Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis, may be downloaded from the HMS Web site at
Thomas Warren or Sarah McLaughlin, 978-281-9260; Carrie Soltanoff, 301-427-8503.
Regulations implemented under the authority of the Atlantic Tunas Convention Act (ATCA; 16 U.S.C. 971
BFT fishing is managed domestically through a quota system (on a calendar-year basis), in conjunction with other management measures including gear restrictions, minimum fish sizes, closed areas, trip limits, and catch shares. NMFS implements the ICCAT U.S. quota recommendation, and divides the quota among U.S. fishing categories (
Vessels fishing with pelagic longline gear, which catch BFT incidentally while fishing for target species (primarily swordfish and yellowfin tuna), hold limited access Atlantic Tunas Longline permits and utilize Longline category quota. Through Amendment 7, NMFS established the IBQ Program, a catch share program that identified 136 permit holders as IBQ share recipients based on specified criteria, including historical target species landings and the bluefin catch-
The specific objectives of the IBQ Program were to:
1. Limit the amount of BFT landings and dead discards in the pelagic longline fishery;
2. Provide strong incentives for the vessel owner and operator to avoid BFT interactions, and thus reduce bluefin dead discards;
3. Provide flexibility in the quota system to enable pelagic longline vessels to obtain BFT quota from other vessels with available individual quota in order to enable full accounting for BFT landings and dead discards, and minimize constraints on fishing for target species;
4. Balance the objective of limiting bluefin landings and dead discards with the objective of optimizing fishing opportunities and maintaining profitability; and
5. Balance the above objectives with potential impacts on the directed permit categories that target BFT, and the broader objectives of the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP and the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act).
IBQ share recipients receive an annual allocation of the Longline category quota based on the percentage share they received through Amendment 7 but only if their permit is associated with a vessel in the subject year (
Delayed effective dates for some of the regulations implemented through Amendment 7 assisted in the transition to measures adopted in Amendment 7, which substantially increased individual vessel accountability for BFT bycatch (landings and dead discards) in the Longline fishery. During 2015, the first year of implementation of the IBQ Program, a pelagic longline vessel that had insufficient IBQ to account for its landings and dead discards (
In July 2015 and January 2016, NMFS transferred quota inseason from the Reserve category to the Longline category (80 FR 45098, July 29, 2015; 81 FR 19, January 4, 2016). In transferring quota inseason, NMFS considered the relevant regulatory determination criteria for inseason or annual adjustments under 50 CFR 635.27(a)(8) as required, and decided that allocation to the Longline category was warranted to increase the amount of quota available to the qualified IBQ share recipients and therefore help those permit holders account for BFT landings and dead discards, foster conditions in which permit holders became more willing to lease IBQ, allow continued fishing for available target species quota, and reduce uncertainty in the fishery as a whole. In these inseason actions, NMFS distributed the transferred quota in equal amounts to the 136 qualified IBQ share recipients, which included those with vessels actively fishing and those not actively fishing. NMFS distributed the quota transferred inseason equally in order to provide each qualified IBQ share recipient the minimum amount of IBQ allocation needed to fish. Given the small amount of quota being transferred to the category, distribution according to share holder percentages would have resulted in transfers below the minimum allocation needed to fish and would have made the transfer ineffective in easing the transition to the Amendment 7 measures as intended. During 2015, based on logbook data, 104 vessels fished with pelagic longline gear, 100 of which were vessels associated with IBQ shares and 4 of which were not. A total of 59 vessels landed BFT, and 2 vessels accounted for dead discards but did not land BFT.
Also during 2015, NMFS implemented a quota increase for the Longline category that resulted from an increase in the quota at ICCAT and the subsequent modification of the baseline annual U.S. BFT quota and subquotas (80 FR 52198, August 28, 2015). In adjusting the baseline annual quota upwards, NMFS also adjusted the annual quota distributions to the 136 qualified IBQ share recipients, based upon their shareholder percentages.
During 2015, 36 of the 136 qualified IBQ share recipients had no pelagic longline fishing activity (
Since January 1, 2015, NMFS has received requests (among other suggestions about the IBQ Program and management of the pelagic longline fishery) to distribute quota inseason only to those vessels that are currently fishing (whether associated with IBQ shares or not) to optimize fishing opportunity and account for dead discards, rather than distributing it equally to all IBQ share recipients, some of whom end up neither using it nor making it available to other vessel owners. In advance of and at the March 2016 HMS Advisory Panel meeting, pelagic longline fishery participants expressed concerns about the availability of IBQ allocation as implemented under Amendment 7. Longline fishery participants have stated that, while they were able to obtain sufficient IBQ allocation by leasing it under the conditions that applied in 2015, those conditions were temporary. They are concerned that, as additional requirements now apply beginning in 2016, the IBQ Program could negatively impact vessel operations and finances given the pricing of IBQ, the distribution of quota among permit holders as implemented by Amendment 7, and the behavior of some permit holders who, for example, they say hold on to IBQ for the entire season without participating in the fishery or engaging in leasing. They also say that the expense of leasing IBQ allocation when needed can impact other operational costs such as crew pay. If availability is limited, or costs are prohibitive, the operational impacts increase. IBQ Program data analyzed in this action include the leases that were completed in 2015, and generally reflect that, for leasing transactions that occurred, sales revenue received per pound approximated the cost per pound of leasing IBQ. However, IBQ Program participants (which include any permit holder or vessel that leases quota to facilitate pelagic longline operations) and potential lessees have communicated that there were instances where the cost at which lessors were
After looking at the issues raised by the fishery participants and at trends in IBQ leasing and utilization for 2015, it is apparent that additional flexibility is needed regarding the distribution of inseason transfers of BFT quota within the Longline category to assist NMFS in providing reasonable opportunities to fish for target species under the limits imposed by the IBQ Program and to optimize distribution of BFT quota transferred inseason to the Longline category, while at the same time encouraging the appropriate functioning of the IBQ Program, including its leasing provisions. As discussed above, 36 of 136 (
This proposed rule would modify the regulations to specify that distribution of quota transferred to the Longline category inseason (
In deciding whether to transfer additional quota to the Longline category inseason from the Reserve category, NMFS would continue to consider the 14 regulatory determination criteria for inseason or annual adjustments at 50 CFR 635.27(a)(8), including the need to “optimize fishing opportunity.”
Next, NMFS would decide whether to distribute that quota transferred inseason to all qualified IBQ share recipients or only to permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent fishing activity whether or not they are associated with IBQ shares. This decision would be based on factors for the subject year and previous year, including the number of BFT landings and dead discards, the number of IBQ lease transactions, the average amount of IBQ leased, the average amount of quota debt, the annual amount of IBQ allocation, any previous inseason allocations of IBQ, the amount of BFT quota in the Reserve category, the percentage of BFT quota harvested by the other quota categories, the remaining number of days in the year, the number of active vessels fishing not associated with IBQ share, and the number of vessels that have incurred quota debt or that have low levels of IBQ allocation. In deciding which approach will be used, NMFS will consider which approach will best meet the specific objectives of the IBQ Program as stated in Amendment 7, including the objective of providing “flexibility in the quota system to enable pelagic longline vessels to obtain BFT quota from other vessels with available individual quota in order to enable full accounting for BFT landings and dead discards, and minimize constraints on fishing for target species.” For example, in years where leasing by IBQ share recipients is not occurring as anticipated by Amendment 7 distribution to only active vessels, might be the appropriate approach to encourage leasing at levels that ensure appropriate functioning of the IBQ system in future years. In years where the leasing program is functioning well and leasing is occurring as needed, distribution may be to all of the qualified IBQ share recipients.
If NMFS decides to distribute the inseason quota to all qualified IBQ share recipients, those qualified IBQ share recipients would receive equal amounts of the quota transferred.
If NMFS decides to distribute inseason quota only to those vessels with recent fishing activity, vessels with “recent fishing activity” would be vessels determined by NMFS to have recent fishing activity in the pelagic longline fishery during the subject and previous year based upon available information such as logbook, VMS, or electronic monitoring data. The specific data and date range analyzed in a given inseason action would be those available at the time of year the inseason transfer occurs, and will depend on which complete data are available at that time. For example, logbook data for a particular year are typically not available for use until several months into the following year due to the process of data entry and quality control, as well as late reporting. Therefore, early in a year, NMFS may determine vessel activity for the previous and subject year using VMS data, whereas later in the year, it might use both logbook and VMS data.
Whether NMFS decides to distribute quota to all qualified IBQ recipients or to only those permitted vessels with recent fishing activity, quota transferred inseason would be distributed equally to the vessel account associated with the relevant vessel via the electronic IBQ system. In either case, when a qualified IBQ share recipient receives inseason quota, the quota will be designated as either Gulf of Mexico (GOM) IBQ, Atlantic (ATL) IBQ, or both GOM and ATL IBQ, according to the share recipient's regional designations. For vessels with recent fishing activity that are not qualified IBQ share recipients, NMFS would assign the distributed quota a regional designation based on where the majority of their “recent fishing activity” occurred for the relevant period analyzed.
The economic impacts of the proposed measures would differ only slightly from the impacts analyzed by Amendment 7. For example, if NMFS had opted in early 2016 to exercise the flexibility to distribute quota inseason to only those vessels with recent fishing activity, the number of vessels that would have received inseason quota would have been reduced from 136 to approximately 104, based on logbook data indicating the number of vessels with recent fishing activity in 2015, and each vessel would have received more quota. This increased allocation would help these active vessels to remain fishing longer under fewer quota
The inactive vessels (
In addition, providing quota inseason to permitted vessels with recent fishing activity would include some vessels with permits that did not qualify for IBQ share in Amendment 7. Such vessels may include new entrants to the fishery that have participated in the IBQ Program by leasing IBQ in order to fish initially. Notwithstanding the defined scope of qualified IBQ share recipients (136), the pelagic longline fishery participants change over time and include vessels with Atlantic Tunas Longline permits that did not qualify for IBQ shares and entry-level participants. Therefore the proposed regulation would assist new entry to the fishery when there is an inseason transfer of quota to the Longline category, or would help facilitate leasing by inactive vessels earlier in the season to facilitate such entry.
NMFS solicits comments on this proposed rule through October 26, 2016. See instructions in
NMFS will hold a public hearing conference call and webinar on October 4, 2016, from 2 p.m. to 4 p.m. EDT, to allow for an additional opportunity for interested members of the public from all geographic areas to submit verbal comments on the proposed quota rule.
The public is reminded that NMFS expects participants at public hearings and on conference calls to conduct themselves appropriately. At the beginning of the conference call, a representative of NMFS will explain the ground rules (all comments are to be directed to the agency on the proposed action; attendees will be called to give their comments in the order in which they registered to speak; each attendee will have an equal amount of time to speak; and attendees should not interrupt one another). The NMFS representative will attempt to structure the meeting so that all attending members of the public will be able to comment, if they so choose, regardless of the controversial nature of the subject matter. If attendees do not respect the ground rules, they will be asked to leave the conference call.
The NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that the proposed rule is consistent with the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP and its amendments, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, ATCA, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.
This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
This action has been preliminarily determined to be categorically excluded from the requirement to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act and NOAA administrative order NAO 216-6 (as preserved by NAO 216-6A), subject to further consideration after public comment. The proposed action may by categorically excluded since it is a change to a previously analyzed and approved fishery management plan, and the proposed change will have no substantive effect, individually or cumulatively on the human environment beyond that already analyzed in the Environmental Impact Statement for Amendment 7 to the 2006 Consolidated Atlantic Highly Migratory Species Fishery Management Plan (79 FR 71510, December 2, 2014) and in the EA for the final rule that increased the U.S. BFT quota (for 2015 and until changed) based on the recommendation of the International Commission for the Conservation of Atlantic Tunas (80 FR 52198, August 28, 2015). Inseason quota allocations to the pelagic longline category do not modify the annual U.S. BFT quota nor the fishing mortality associated with that quota. Minor modifications of allocations to vessels contribute to determining when and where fishing mortality occurs, but do not alter the overall allowable mortality under the U.S. BFT quota. This action would not directly affect fishing effort, quotas, fishing gear, authorized species, interactions with threatened or endangered species, or other relevant parameters. Thus, there is no environmental or ecological effect different than what was analyzed previously. A final determination will be made prior to publication of the final rule for this action.
NMFS has prepared a Regulatory Impact Review (RIR), and an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA), which present and analyze anticipated social, and economic impacts of the alternatives contained in this proposed rule. The list of alternatives and their analyses are provided in the draft RIR and are not repeated here in their entirety. A copy of the draft RIR prepared for this proposed rule is available from NMFS (see
An IRFA was prepared, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA, 5 U.S.C. 603
The goal of the RFA is to minimize the economic burden of federal regulations on small entities. To that end, the RFA directs federal agencies to assess whether the proposed regulation is likely to result in significant economic impacts to a substantial number of small entities, and identify and analyze any significant alternatives to the proposed rule that accomplish the
Section 603(b)(1) of the RFA requires an IRFA to contain a description of the reasons why the action is being considered. The purpose of this proposed rule is, consistent with the 2006 Consolidated HMS FMP objectives, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, to provide NMFS the flexibility to distribute quota inseason to all qualified IBQ share recipients (those who have associated their share with a vessel) or to permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent fishing activity whether or not they are associated with IBQ shares.
Since January 1, 2015, NMFS has received requests (among other suggestions about the IBQ Program and management of the pelagic longline fishery) to distribute quota inseason to those vessels that are currently fishing (whether associated with IBQ shares or not) to optimize fishing opportunity and account for dead discards, rather than distributing it equally to all IBQ share recipients, some of whom end up neither using it, nor making it available to other vessel owners. In advance of and at the March 2016 HMS Advisory Panel meeting, pelagic longline fishery participants expressed concerns about the availability of IBQ allocation as implemented under Amendment 7. Longline fishery participants have stated that, while they were able to obtain sufficient IBQ allocation by leasing it under the conditions that applied in 2015, those conditions were temporary. They are concerned that, as additional requirements now apply beginning in 2016, the IBQ Program could negatively impact vessel operations and finances given the pricing of IBQ, the distribution of quota among permit holders as implemented by Amendment 7, and the behavior of some permit holders who, for example, they say hold on to IBQ for the entire season without participating in the fishery or engaging in leasing. Longline fishery participants requested that NMFS take further steps to provide more access to quota for those vessels with recent fishing activity to reduce the dependence on qualified IBQ share recipients, some of whom are not participating in the fishery or engaging in leasing.
After looking at the issues raised by the fishery participants and at trends in IBQ leasing and utilization for 2015, it is apparent that additional flexibility is needed regarding the distribution of inseason transfers of BFT quota within the Longline category to assist NMFS in providing reasonable opportunities to fish for target species under the limits imposed by the IBQ Program and to optimize distribution of BFT quota transferred inseason to the Longline category. To account for the highly variable nature of the BFT fishery and maintain flexibility in the regulations, NMFS is considering this action, which provides flexibility in the quota system.
Section 603(b)(2) of the RFA requires the IRFA to contain a statement of the objectives and legal basis for the proposed rule. The objective of this proposed rule is to provide additional flexibility regarding the distribution of inseason BFT quota transfers to the Longline category in order to facilitate the management of Atlantic HMS resources in a manner that maximizes resource sustainability and fishing opportunity, while minimizing, to the greatest extent possible, the socioeconomic impacts on affected fisheries.
The legal basis for this proposed rule stems from the dual authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Act and ATCA. Under the Magnuson-Stevens Act, NMFS must, consistent with ten National Standards, manage fisheries to maintain optimum yield (OY) by rebuilding overfished fisheries and preventing overfishing. Under ATCA, NMFS is authorized to promulgate regulations as may be necessary and appropriate to carry out binding recommendations of ICCAT. Additionally, any management measures must be consistent with other domestic laws including the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), the Endangered Species Act (ESA), the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), and the Coastal Zone Management Act (CZMA).
Section 603(b)(3) of the RFA requires agencies to provide an estimate of the number of small entities to which the rule would apply. The Small Business Administration (SBA) has established size criteria for all major industry sectors in the United States, including fish harvesters. SBA's regulations provide that an agency may develop its own industry-specific size standards after consultation with Advocacy and an opportunity for public comment (see 13 CFR 121.903(c)). Under this provision, NMFS may establish size standards that differ from those established by the SBA Office of Size Standards, but only for use by NMFS and only for the purpose of conducting an analysis of economic effects in fulfillment of the agency's obligations under the RFA. To utilize this provision, NMFS must publish such size standards in the
NMFS has determined that this proposed rule would apply to the small businesses associated with the 136 Atlantic Tunas Longline permits with IBQ shares and the additional permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels that fish with quota leased through the IBQ Program. The impacts on these small businesses are described below in the discussion of alternatives considered. NMFS has determined that this action would not likely directly affect any small organizations or small government jurisdictions defined under the RFA.
Section 603(b)(4) of the RFA requires agencies to describe any new reporting, record-keeping and other compliance requirements. This proposed rule does not contain any new collection of information, reporting, or record-keeping requirements.
Under section 603(b)(5) of the RFA, agencies must identify, to the extent practicable, relevant Federal rules
One of the requirements of an IRFA is to describe any alternatives to the proposed rule which accomplish the stated objectives and which minimize any significant economic impacts. These impacts are discussed below. Additionally, the RFA (5 U.S.C. 603(c)(1)-(4)) lists four general categories that would assist an agency in the development of significant alternatives. These categories of alternatives are: (1) Establishment of differing compliance or reporting requirements or timetables that take into account the resources available to small entities; (2) clarification, consolidation, or simplification of compliance and reporting requirements under the rule for such small entities; (3) use of performance rather than design standards; and (4) exemptions from coverage of the rule, or any part thereof, for small entities.
In order to meet the objectives of this proposed rule, consistent with the Magnuson-Stevens Act and ATCA, NMFS cannot establish differing compliance requirements for small entities or exempt small entities from compliance requirements. Thus, there are no alternatives discussed that fall under the first and fourth categories described above. As the IBQ Program was designed to adhere to performance standards, modifications to the regulations implementing the IBQ Program simply make adjustments to the administration of those underlying performance standards. NMFS analyzed several different alternatives to this action. Following are the rationales that NMFS used to determine the preferred alternative for achieving the desired objectives.
The first alternative is the “no action” (status quo) alternative. The second alternative, the preferred alternative, would provide NMFS the flexibility to allocate quota inseason to qualified IBQ share recipients (those who have associated their share with a vessel) or to permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent fishing activity, whether or not they are associated with IBQ shares. The third alternative would provide NMFS the flexibility to allocate quota inseason to qualified IBQ share recipients with recent fishing activity or IBQ leasing activity. The economic impacts of these three alternatives are detailed below.
Under all three alternatives, NMFS would continue to consider the regulatory determination criteria for inseason or annual adjustments under 50 CFR 635.27(a)(8), and if NMFS decided that inseason allocation to the Longline category was warranted to increase the amount of quota available to pelagic longline vessels, NMFS would allocate additional quota. The difference among the alternatives is in the specific Atlantic Tunas Longline permit holders that would receive distribution of inseason BFT quota.
Under the “no action” alternative, NMFS would distribute the transferred quota in equal amounts to all 136 qualified IBQ share recipients, which include vessels actively fishing and vessels not actively fishing. This is the manner in which NMFS conducted two past inseason transfers from the Reserve to the Longline category in July 2015 and January 2016 (80 FR 45098, July 29, 2015; 81 FR 19, January 4, 2016). For each of these 34 mt quota transfers, 0.25 mt (551 lb) of IBQ were distributed equally to each of the 136 qualified IBQ share recipients under Amendment 7. IBQ allocation was distributed via the electronic IBQ system to the vessel accounts with permits with IBQ shares associated with a vessel. For those permits with IBQ shares that were not associated with a vessel at the time of the quota transfer, the IBQ is not usable by the permit holder (
Under the preferred alternative, NMFS would have the flexibility to allocate quota inseason either to each of the 136 qualified IBQ share recipients or to all permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent fishing activity. In 2015, there were 104 active pelagic longline vessels (based on logbook data). If NMFS assumes, for example, a future inseason transfer of 34 mt distributed equally among vessels with recent fishing activity, each of those 104 active vessels would receive 0.327 mt (721 lb) under the preferred alternative. Based on the average 2015 IBQ lease price of $3.34 per pound, the economic value of such an inseason transfer of 721 lb per vessel would be approximately $2,408 per vessel owner under the preferred alternative. Active vessel owners would receive $568 more in value (31 percent more quota) than under the “no action” (status quo) alternative.
This increased allocation would help these active vessels to remain fishing longer under fewer quota constraints and reduce the transaction costs associated with finding the same amount of additional quota. The qualified IBQ share recipients with no fishing activity (36 in 2015) would not receive the 551 lb of IBQ worth approximately $1,840 per vessel that they could have received under the status quo alternative
Under the third alternative, NMFS would have the flexibility to distribute quota inseason to qualified IBQ share recipients with recent fishing activity or qualified IBQ share recipients that leased out quota to other Atlantic Tunas Longline permit holders. This differs from the preferred alternative in two key ways. First, under the third alternative, only Atlantic Tunas Longline permit holders with recent activity would receive an inseason transfer, while under the preferred alternative all permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent activity would receive an inseason transfer. Secondly, under the third alternative, relevant activity would include IBQ leasing activity in addition to the recent fishing activity required under the preferred alternative. In 2015, of the 104 pelagic longline vessels with recent fishing activity, 100 vessels were associated with IBQ shares that had recent fishing
Fisheries, Fishing, Fishing vessels, Foreign relations, Imports, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Treaties.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, 50 CFR part 635 is proposed to be amended as follows:
16 U.S.C. 971
(b)
(9)
(i) Regional designations described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section will be applied to inseason quota distributed to IBQ share recipients.
(ii) For permitted Atlantic Tunas Longline vessels with recent fishing activity that are not qualified IBQ share recipients, regional designations of Atlantic (ATL) or Gulf of Mexico (GOM) will be applied to the distributed quota based on best available information regarding geographic location of sets as reported to NMFS during the period of fishing activity analyzed above in this paragraph, with the designation based on where the majority of that activity occurred.
The Department of Agriculture has submitted the following information collection requirement(s) to OMB for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13. Comments are requested regarding (1) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of burden including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments regarding this information collection received by October 26, 2016 will be considered. Written comments should be addressed to: Desk Officer for Agriculture, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB),
An agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a currently valid OMB control number and the agency informs potential persons who are to respond to the collection of information that such persons are not required to respond to the collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Forest Service, USDA.
Call for nominations.
The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) is seeking nominations for the Forest Resource Coordinating Committee (Committee) pursuant to Section 8005 of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Act) (Pub. L. 110-246), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), (5 U.S.C. App. 2). Additional information on the Committee can be found by visiting the Committee's Web site at:
Written nominations must be received by November 14, 2016. Nominations must contain a completed application packet that includes the
Scott Stewart, USDA Forest Service, Office of Cooperative Forestry, Sidney R. Yates Federal Building, 201 14th Street SW., Mailstop 1123, Washington, DC 20024 by express mail delivery or overnight courier service. Nominations sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be sent to the following address: USDA Forest Service, Office of Cooperative Forestry, State & Private Forestry, Mailstop 1123, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250-1123.
Lori McKean, Forest Resource Coordinating Committee Program Coordinator, by telephone at 570-296-9672 or Scott Stewart, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), by telephone at 202-205-1190. Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8 a.m. and 5 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
In accordance with the provisions of FACA, the Secretary of Agriculture is seeking nominations to fill five vacancies that will occur when current appointments expire in December 2016 and January 2017. One vacancy is currently available. The purpose of the Committee is to continue providing direction and coordination of actions within USDA, and coordination with State agencies and the private sector, to effectively address the national priorities for private forest conservation, with specific focus on owners of non-industrial private forest land as described in Section 8005 of the Food, Conservation, and Energy Act of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-246). These priorities include:
1. Conserving and managing working forest landscapes for multiple values and uses.
2. Protecting forests from threats, including catastrophic wildfires, hurricanes, tornadoes, windstorms, snow or ice storms, flooding, drought, invasive species, insect or disease outbreak, or development, and restoring appropriate forest types in response to such threats, and
3. Enhancing public benefits from private forests, including air and water quality, soil conservation, biological diversity, carbon storage, forest products, forestry-related jobs, production of renewable energy, wildlife, wildlife corridors and wildlife habitat, and recreation.
Members appointed to the Committee will be fairly balanced in terms of the points of view represented, functions to be performed, and will represent a broad array of expertise, leadership, and relevancy to a membership category. Geographic balance and a balanced distribution among the categories are also important. Representatives from the following categories will be appointed by the Secretary with staggered terms up to 3 years: (1) Non-industrial Private Forest Landowner (2 vacancies); (2) Private Forestry Consultant (1 vacancy); (3) Conservation District (1 vacancy); and (4) Conservation Organization (1 vacancy). These positions must be associated with such organizations and be willing to represent that sector as it relates to non-industrial private forestry. Vacancies will be filled in the manner in which the original appointment was made.
The appointment of members to the Committee is made by the Secretary of Agriculture.
The public is invited to submit nominations for membership on the Forest Resource Coordinating Committee, either as a self-nomination or a nomination of any qualified and interested person.
Any individual or organization may nominate one or more qualified persons to represent the above vacancies on the Forest Resource Coordinating Committee. To be considered for membership, nominees must provide the following—
1. A resume showing past experience in working successfully as part of a group working on issues and priorities related to the vacancies;
2. A cover letter with a rationale for serving on the Committee and what you can contribute;
3. A completed Form AD-755, Advisory Committee or Research and Promotion Background Information. The Form AD-755 may be obtained from the Forest Service contacts or from the following Web sites:
4. Letters of recommendation are welcome.
All nominations will be vetted by USDA. A list of qualified applicants will be prepared from which the Secretary of Agriculture shall appoint members to the Forest Resource Coordinating Committee. Applicants are strongly encouraged to submit nominations via overnight mail or delivery to ensure timely receipt by the USDA. Members of the Committee will serve without compensation, but may be reimbursed for travel expenses while performing duties on behalf of the Committee, subject to approval by the DFO.
Equal opportunity practices, in line with USDA policies, will be followed in all appointments to the Committee. To ensure that the recommendations of the Committee have taken into account the needs of the diverse groups served by the Departments, membership will, to the extent practicable, include individuals with demonstrated ability to represent all racial and ethnic groups, women and men, and persons with disabilities.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Deschutes Provincial Advisory Committee (PAC) will meet in Prineville, Oregon. The committee is authorized pursuant to the implementation of E-19 of the Record of Decision and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to provide advice and make recommendations to promote a better integration of forest management activities between Federal and non-Federal entities to ensure that such activities are complementary. PAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held on October 21, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m.
All PAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Oregon State Extension Office, 498
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Beth Peer, Deschutes PAC Coordinator, by phone at 541-383-4769 or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Hear a presentation on climate change and water,
2. Discuss focus areas, and
3. Visit recreation sites on the Ochoco National Forest.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by October 7, 2016, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time to make oral comments must be sent to Beth Peer, Deschutes PAC Coordinator, 63095 Deschutes Market Road, Bend, Oregon 97701; or by email to
Forest Service, USDA.
Withdrawal of Notice of Intent to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement.
The USDA Forest Service is withdrawing the Notice of Intent to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for the Warm Spring Habitat Enhancement project on the Helena-Lewis and Clark National Forest. A Notice of Intent to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement was published in the
Jennifer Woods, Helena-Lewis and Clark National Forest, 1220 38th Street North, Great Falls, Montana 59405, (406) 791-7765.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Joint
This meeting will be held on Thursday, October 13, 2016, at 9:30 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Hilton Garden Inn, Boston Logan, 100 Boardman Street, Boston, MA 02128; Phone: (617) 567-6789; Fax: (617) 461-0798.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during these meetings. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically listed in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take final action to address the emergency.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at 978-465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; issuance of permit.
Notice is hereby given that a permit has been issued to Janice Straley, University of Alaska Southeast, 1332 Seward Ave., Sitka, AK 99835, to conduct research on cetaceans.
The permit and related documents are available for review upon written request or by appointment in the Permits and Conservation Division, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, 1315 East-West Highway, Room 13705, Silver Spring, MD 20910; phone (301) 427-8401; fax (301) 713-0376.
Carrie Hubard or Amy Sloan, (301) 427-8401.
On June 27, 2016, notice was published in the
Permit No. 18529 authorizes research on large whales in Alaska, focusing on humpback whales (
In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321
As required by the ESA, issuance of this permit was based on a finding that such permit: (1) Was applied for in good faith; (2) will not operate to the disadvantage of such endangered species; and (3) is consistent with the purposes and policies set forth in section 2 of the ESA.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of a public meeting.
The Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council will hold a meeting of its Law Enforcement Technical Committee (LETC), in conjunction with the Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commission's Law Enforcement Committee (LEC).
The meeting will convene on Thursday, October 13, 2016; starting 8:30 a.m. and will adjourn at 5 p.m.
The meeting will be held at the JW Marriott New Orleans, located at 614 Canal Street, New Orleans, LA 70130; telephone: (504) 525-6500.
Mr. Steven Atran, Senior Fishery Biologist, Gulf of Mexico Fishery Management Council;
The items of discussion on the agenda are as follows:
The Agenda is subject to change. The latest version of the agenda along with other meeting materials will be posted on the Council's file server, which can be accessed by going to the Council Web site at
The Law Enforcement Technical Committee consists of principal law enforcement officers in each of the Gulf States, as well as the NOAA Law Enforcement, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, the U.S. Coast Guard, and the NOAA General Counsel for Law Enforcement.
Although other non-emergency issues not on the agenda may come before this group for discussion, in accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Actions will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in the agenda and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the Council's intent to take action to address the emergency.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of issuance of modified Letters of Authorization.
In accordance with the Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA), as amended, and implementing regulations, notification is hereby given that modified Letters of Authorization (LOAs) have been issued to the U.S. Navy (Navy) for the take of marine mammals incidental to training and testing activities conducted in the Mariana Islands Training and Testing (MITT) Study Area and the Atlantic Fleet Training and Testing (AFTT) Study Area. These modifications reflect changes to Navy watchstander (lookout) reporting requirements, which do not affect current mitigation measures, for observed behavior of marine mammals during Major Training Exercises (MTEs) in the MITT and AFTT study areas.
MITT: Effective through April 3, 2020; AFTT: Effective through November 13, 2018.
The LOAs and supporting documentation are available online at:
John Fiorentino, Office of Protected Resources, NMFS, (301) 427-8401.
Sections 101(a)(5)(A) and (D) of the MMPA (16 U.S.C. 1361
An authorization for incidental takings shall be granted if NMFS finds that the taking will have a negligible impact on the species or stock(s), will not have an unmitigable adverse impact on the availability of the species or stock(s) for subsistence uses (where relevant), and if the permissible methods of taking and requirements pertaining to the mitigation, monitoring and reporting of such takings are set forth. NMFS has defined “negligible impact” in 50 CFR 216.103 as “an impact resulting from the specified activity that cannot be reasonably expected to, and is not reasonably likely to, adversely affect the species or stock through effects on annual rates of recruitment or survival.”
The National Defense Authorization Act of 2004 (Pub. L. 108-136) removed the “small numbers” and “specified geographical region” limitations indicated above and amended the definition of “harassment” as applies to a “military readiness activity” to read as follows (section 3(18)(B) of the MMPA, 16 U.S.C. 1362(18)(B)): “(i) any act that injures or has the significant potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild” (Level A Harassment); or “(ii) any act that disturbs or is likely to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild by causing disruption of natural behavioral patterns, including, but not limited to, migration, surfacing, nursing, breeding, feeding, or sheltering, to a point where such behavioral patterns are abandoned or significantly altered” (Level B Harassment).
On December 4, 2013 and August 3, 2015, NMFS issued regulations under the MMPA governing the unintentional taking of marine mammals incidental to training and testing activities conducted in the AFTT and MITT study areas, respectively (78 FR 73010; 80 FR 46112). These regulations allowed us to issue LOAs for the incidental take of marine mammals during the Navy's specified activities and timeframes, set forth the permissible methods of taking, set forth other means of effecting the least practicable adverse impact on marine mammal species or stocks and their habitat, and set forth requirements pertaining to the monitoring and reporting of the incidental take. On June 3, 2015, proposed changes to the watchstander reporting requirements for AFTT and MITT (and other active Navy Phase II training and testing rulemakings—
We have issued modified LOAs to the Navy authorizing the take of marine mammals incidental to training and testing activities, as described above; no changes to the LOAs other than the watchstander reporting modifications have been made. With these watchstander modifications, the Navy would no longer be required to report individual marine mammal sighting information when mitigation is not being implemented during the MTEs. After five years of collecting marine mammal sighting data for all animals sighted during MTEs, NMFS and the Navy have determined that this data set does not provide for any meaningful analysis beyond that which may be possible using mitigation-related observations alone because the Navy is unable to identify species information. NMFS and the Navy have thoroughly investigated several potential uses for the data prior to reaching this conclusion. Additionally, as discussed during the adaptive management process, this reporting requirement places an administrative burden on
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice; public meeting.
The New England Fishery Management Council (Council) is scheduling a public meeting of its Whiting Committee to consider actions affecting New England fisheries in the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). Recommendations from this group will be brought to the full Council for formal consideration and action, if appropriate.
This meeting will be held on Thursday, October 13, 2016 at 10 a.m.
Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, New England Fishery Management Council; telephone: (978) 465-0492.
The Committee will receive a report on Amendment 22 limited access qualification alternatives developed during the October 6, 2016 Joint Advisory Panel (AP)—Plan Development Team (PDT) meeting. They will also receive a summary of the 2015 Annual Monitoring Report from the PDT as well as discuss scheduling of actions and priorities for 2017. The Committee will have a closed session to review of AP applications for 2018-20 and make recommendations for approval to the Council's Executive committee. Other business, as necessary.
This meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Thomas A. Nies, Executive Director, at (978) 465-0492, at least 5 days prior to the meeting date.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Department of the Army, DoD.
Notice of intent.
In compliance with 35 U.S.C. 209(e) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i), the Department of the Army hereby gives notice of its intent to grant to GoXtudio, Inc.; a corporation having its principle place of business at 2121 S. Mill Ave. Suite 214, Tempe, AZ 85282, exclusive license in the fields of ankle and knee braces incorporating rate-actuated tether (RAT) straps. The proposed license would be relative to the following:
• U.S. Patent Number 9,303,717 entitled “Rate Responsive, Stretchable Devices”, Inventors Wetzel and Nenno, Issue Date March 16, 2016.
• U.S. Patent Application Number 15/057,944 entitled “Rate Responsive, Stretchable Devices, Further Improvements”, Inventors Wetzel and Nenno, Filed March 1, 2016.
The prospective partially exclusive license may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the U.S. Army Research Laboratory receives written objections including evidence and argument that establish that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. Competing applications completed and received by the U.S. Army Research Laboratory within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice will also be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated exclusive license.
Objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available to the public for inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
Send written objections to U.S. Army Research Laboratory Technology Transfer and Outreach Office, RDRL-DPT/Thomas Mulkern, Building 321 Room 110, Aberdeen Proving Ground, MD 21005-5425.
Thomas Mulkern, (410) 278-0889,Email:
None.
Department of the Navy, DOD.
Notice of open meeting.
The Board of Visitors of the Marine Corps University (BOV MCU) will meet to review, develop and provide recommendations on all aspects of the academic and administrative policies of the University; examine all aspects of professional military education operations; and provide such oversight and advice, as is necessary, to facilitate high educational standards and cost effective operations. The Board will be focusing primarily on the internal procedures of Marine Corps University. All sessions of the meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on Thursday, 13 October 2016, from 0800-
The meeting will be held at Marine Corps University in Quantico, Virginia. The address is: 2076 South St., Quantico, VA.
Dr. Kim Florich, Director of Faculty Development and Outreach, Marine Corps University Board of Visitors, 2076 South Street, Quantico, Virginia 22134, telephone number 703-432-4682.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
Pursuant to the provisions of The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Public Law 92-463, as amended), notice is hereby given that the following meeting of the Board of Advisors to the Presidents of the Naval Postgraduate School and the Naval War College Committee (NPS/NWC BOA) and its two subcommittees will be held. This meeting will be open to the public. For more information about the Committee, please visit
The meeting will be held on Wednesday, October 19, 2016, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. and on Thursday, October 20, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. Eastern Time Zone.
The meeting will be held at 3003 Washington Boulevard, Arlington, VA.
Ms. Jaye Panza, Designated Federal Official, Naval Postgraduate School, 1 University Circle, Monterey, CA 93943-5001, telephone number 831-656-2514.
The Committee examines the effectiveness with which the NPS and the NWC are accomplishing its missions. The agenda is as follows:
1. October 19, 2016, 9:00 a.m.-12:00 p.m.: The NPS BOA Subcommittee will meet to inquire into programs and curricula; instruction; administration; state of morale of the student body, faculty, and staff; fiscal affairs of NPS. The committee will review any other matters relating to the operations of the NPS as the board considers pertinent.
2. October 19, 2016, 1:00 p.m.-5:00 p.m.: General deliberations and inquiry by the NWC BOA Subcommittee into NWC programs and mission priorities; re-accreditation review; administration; military construction; leader development continuum; defense planning guidance efforts; and any other matters relating to the operations of the NWC as the board considers pertinent.
3. October 20, 2016, 9:00 a.m.-12:00 p.m.: The NPS and NWC Subcommittees will provide out briefs from their meetings to the NPS/NWC BOA Committee after which the Committee will discuss topics raised during the subcommittee sessions. Individuals without a DoD Government Common Access Card require an escort at the meeting location. For access, information, or to send written statements for consideration at the committee meeting contact Ms. Jaye Panza, Naval Postgraduate School, 1 University Circle, Monterey, CA 93943-5001 or by fax 831-656-2789 by October 12, 2016.
Department of the Navy, DoD.
Notice.
The inventions listed below are assigned to the United States Government as represented by the Secretary of the Navy. U.S. Patent Number 6,664,915 entitled “Identification Friend or Foe System Including Short Range UV Shield” issued on December 16, 2003; U.S. Patent Number 7,661,271 entitled “Integrated Electric Gas Turbine” issued on February 16, 2010; U.S. Patent Number 6,600,694 entitled “Digital Signal Processor Based Torpedo Counter-measure” issued on July 29, 2003; U.S. Patent Number 6,820,025 entitled ” Method and Apparatus for Motion Tracking of an Articulated Rigid Body” issued on November 16, 2004; U.S. Patent Number 6,717,525 entitled “Tactical Vectoring Equipment (TVE)” issued on April 6, 2004; U.S. Patent Number 6,624,780 entitled “False Target Radar Image Generator for Countering wideband and Imaging Radars” issued on September 11, 2003; U.S. Patent Number 7,725,595 entitled “Embedded Communications System and Method” issued on May 25, 2010; U.S. Patent Number 8,443,101 entitled “Method for Identifying and Blocking Embedded Communications” issued on May 14, 2013; U.S. Patent Number 7,675,198 entitled “Inductive Pulse Forming Network for High-current, High-power Applications” issued on March 9, 2010; U.S. Patent Number 8,018,096 entitled “Inductive Pulse Forming Network for High-current, High-power Applications” issued September 13, 2011; U.S. Patent Number 7,074,697 entitled “Doping-assisted Defect Control in Compound Semiconductors” issued on July 11, 2006; U.S. Patent Number 7,089,148 entitled “Method and Apparatus for Motion Tracking of an Articulated Rigid Body” issued August 8, 2006; U.S. Patent Number 7,627,003 entitled “Automatic Clock Synchronization and Distribution Circuit for Counter Clock Flow Pipelined Systems” issued on December 1, 2009; U.S. Patent Number 8,085,817 entitled “Automatic Clock Synchronization and Distribution Circuit for Counter Clock Flow Pipelined Systems” issued December 27, 2011; U.S. Patent Number 8,019,090 entitled “Active Feedforward Noise Vibration Control System” issued September 13, 2011; U.S. Patent Number 8,064,541 entitled “Hyperphase Shift Keying” issued November 22, 2011; U.S. Patent Number 8,050,849 entitled “Method to Reduce Fuel Consumption by Naval Vessels that Operate in Mixed Propulsion Modes” issued November 1,2011; U.S. Patent Number 8,006,937 entitled “Spacecraft Docking Interface Mechanism” issued October 12, 2010; U.S. Patent Number 7,811,918 entitled “Electric Current Induced Liquid Metal Flow and Metallic Conformal Coating of Conductive Templates” issued on October 12, 2010; U.S. Patent Number 8,467,548 entitled “Miniature Directional Sound Sensor Using Micro-Electro- Mechanical-System (MEMS)” issued on June 8, 2013; U.S. Patent Number 8,579,535 entitled “Micro-coupling Active Release Mechanism” issued on November 12, 2013; U.S. Patent Number 9,003,627 entitled “Micro-coupling Active Release Mechanism” issued on April 14, 2015; U.S. Patent Number 8,654,672 entitled “Method for Optimal Transmitter
U.S. Patent Application Number 14/625,869 filed on February 19, 2015, entitled “Navigation System and Method Using an Adaptive-Gain Complementary Filter Device”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/671,143 filed on March 27, 2015, entitled “Landing Signal Officer (LSO) Information Management and Trend Analysis (IMTA) Tool”; U.S. Patent Application Number 13/662,786 filed on October 29, 2012, entitled “Electromagnetic Device and Method to Accelerate Solid Metal Slugs to High Speeds”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/978,769 filed on December 22, 2015, entitled “Bi-Material Terahertz Sensor and Terahertz Emitter Using Metamaterial Structures”; U.S. Patent Application Number 13/901,308 filed on May 23, 2013, entitled “Apparatus and Method for Improvised Explosive Device (IED) Network Analysis”; U.S. Patent Application Number 15/188,505 filed on June 21, 2016, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Guidance and Control of Uncertain Dynamical Systems”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/853,330 filed on September 14, 2015, entitled “Method and System for Determining Shortest Oceanic Routes”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/247,657 filed on April 8, 2014, entitled “A Method for Conducting Architecture Model-based Interoperability Assessment”; U.S. Patent Application Number 15/073,831 filed on March 18, 2016, entitled “Multirotor Mobile Buoy for Persistent Surface and Underwater Exploration”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/338,222 filed on July 22, 2014, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Passive Geolocation of a 4G WIMAX Mobile Station Using a Single Base Station”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/316,639 filed on June 26, 2014, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Singularity Avoidance for Control Moment Gyroscope (CMG) Systems Without Using Null Motion”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/459,662 filed on August 14, 2014, entitled “Apparatus and Method for Full Planform Deployment at High Altitude”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/480,220 filed on September 8, 2014, entitled “Solid-state Spark Chamber for Detection of Radiation”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/555,798 filed on November 28, 2014, entitled “Method for Computer Vision Analysis of Cannon-launched Artillery Video”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/945,781 filed on November 19, 2015, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Computer Vision Analysis of Cannon-launched Artillery Video”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/699,051 filed on April 29, 2015, entitled “Unscented Control for Uncertain Dynamical Systems”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/833,728 filed on August 24, 2015, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Rapid Acoustic Analysis”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/810,026 filed on July 27, 2015, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Detection and Hazardous Environmental Conditions and Initiation of Alarm Devices”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/883,384 filed on October 14, 2015, entitled “Wireless Signal Localization and Collection from an Airborne Symmetric Line Array Network”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/852,734 filed on September 14, 2015, entitled “Network Monitoring Method Using Phantom Nodes”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/851,404 filed on September 11, 2015, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Hybrid Time Synchronization Based on Broadcast Sequencing for Wireless Ad Hoc Networks”; U.S. Patent Application Number 14/919,346 filed on October 21, 2015, entitled “Method and Apparatus for Robust Symmetrical Number System
Requests for copies of the inventions should be directed to Deborah Buettner, Director, Research and Sponsored Programs Office, NPS Code 41, 699 Dyer Road, Bldg. HA, Room 226, Monterey, CA 93943, telephone 831-656-7893 or email
Deborah Buettner, Director, Research and Sponsored Programs Office, NPS Code 41, 699 Dyer Road, Bldg. HA, Room 226, Monterey, CA 93943, telephone 831-656-7893. Due to U.S. Postal delays, please fax 831-656-2038, email:
35 U.S.C. 207, 37 CFR part 404.
Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 26, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Carmen Gordon, 202-453-7311.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Institute of Education Sciences (IES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 26, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Phill Gagne, 202-245-7139.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Department of Energy (DOE).
Notice of open meetings.
This notice announces meetings of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Paducah. The Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 86 Stat. 770) requires that public notice of these meetings be announced in the
Saturday, October 15, 2016, 11:00 a.m.; and Thursday, October 20, 2016, 6:00 p.m.
Jennifer Woodard, Deputy Designated Federal Officer, Department of Energy Paducah Site Office, Post Office Box 1410, MS-103, Paducah, Kentucky 42001, (270) 441-6825.
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of application.
BioUrja Power, LLC (Applicant or BioUrja) has applied for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico pursuant to section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before October 26, 2016.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b), 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).
On September 8, 2016, DOE received an application from BioUrja for authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Mexico as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities.
In its application, BioUrja states that it does not own or control any electric generation or transmission facilities, and it does not have a franchised service area. The electric energy that BioUrja proposes to export to Mexico would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by the Applicant have previously been authorized by Presidential Permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning BioUrja's application to export electric energy to Mexico should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-428. An additional copy is to be provided to both Raghu Reddy and Robert Cody Moore, BioUrja Trading, LLC, 1080 Eldridge Parkway, Suite 1175, Houston, TX 77077.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program Web site at
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy.
Notice and Request for OMB Review and Comment.
The Department of Energy (DOE) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for clearance, a proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the
Comments regarding this collection must be received on or before October 26, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, please advise the DOE Desk Officer at OMB of your intention to make a submission as soon as possible. The Desk Officer may be telephoned at 202-395-4718.
Written comments should be sent to the DOE Desk Officer, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10102, 735 17
Linh Truong, National Renewable Energy Laboratory, Attn: Recipient's Name Mail Stop: RSF034, 15013 Denver West Parkway, Golden, CO 80401, or by fax at 303-630-2108, or by email at
Craig Turchi, National Renewable Energy Laboratories, 303.384.7565,
This information collection request contains: (1) OMB No. “New”; (2) Information Collection Request Title: Concentrating Solar Power Solar Advisor Model (SAM) Industry Survey; (3) Type of Request: New collection; (4) Purpose: In an effort to improve the efficiency of Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) plants, this survey is necessary to collect data for the Department of Energy and the national labs from industry members in order to assess how the industry is using the SAM tool and its accuracy; (5) Annual Estimated Number of Respondents: 100; (6) Annual Estimated Number of Total Responses: 100; (7) Annual Estimated Number of Burden Hours: 25 Hours; (8) Annual Estimated Reporting and Recordkeeping Cost Burden: $45,000.
Energy Policy Act of 2005, 42 U.S.C. 16161.
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Summit Farms Solar, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is October 11, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of 4C Aquisition, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is October 11, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This constitutes notice, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2201(b), of the receipt of prohibited and exempt off-the-record communications.
Order No. 607 (64 FR 51222, September 22, 1999) requires Commission decisional employees, who make or receive a prohibited or exempt off-the-record communication relevant to the merits of a contested proceeding, to deliver to the Secretary of the Commission, a copy of the communication, if written, or a summary of the substance of any oral communication.
Prohibited communications are included in a public, non-decisional file associated with, but not a part of, the decisional record of the proceeding. Unless the Commission determines that the prohibited communication and any responses thereto should become a part of the decisional record, the prohibited off-the-record communication will not be considered by the Commission in reaching its decision. Parties to a proceeding may seek the opportunity to respond to any facts or contentions made in a prohibited off-the-record communication, and may request that the Commission place the prohibited communication and responses thereto in the decisional record. The Commission will grant such a request only when it determines that fairness so requires. Any person identified below as having made a prohibited off-the-record communication shall serve the document on all parties listed on the official service list for the applicable proceeding in accordance with Rule 2010, 18 CFR 385.2010.
Exempt off-the-record communications are included in the decisional record of the proceeding, unless the communication was with a cooperating agency as described by 40 CFR 1501.6, made under 18 CFR 385.2201(e)(1)(v).
The following is a list of off-the-record communications recently received by the Secretary of the Commission. The communications listed are grouped by docket numbers in ascending order. These filings are available for electronic review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric
Take notice that the Commission received the following exempt wholesale generator filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and § 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified date(s). Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces that EPA is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The ICR, entitled: “Pesticide Registration Fees Program” and identified by EPA ICR No. 2330.03 and OMB Control No. 2070-0179, represents the renewal of an existing ICR that is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2017. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.
Comments must be received on or before November 25, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0463, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Cameo Smoot, Field and Affairs Division, (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-5454; email address:
Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:
For the Pesticide Registration Maintenance Fee program there is decrease of 312 hours (from 1993 to 1681) hours in the total annual estimated respondent burden compared with that identified in the ICR currently approved by OMB. The reason for the decrease was a reduction in the number responses from 1,744 to 1,471. The total estimated annual respondent burden for the pesticide registration service fee waivers information collection has increased from 5,914 hours in the existing ICR to 6,840 hours for this renewal, due to the increase of respondent's usage of the newer waiver provisions allowed under PRIA. These changes are adjustments.
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another
44 U.S.C. 3501
United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of final agency action.
This notice announces that the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) issued a final permit decision for a Clean Air Act Minor New Source Review (NSR) Permit in Indian Country to the Salt River Project Agricultural Improvement and Power District (SRP) for the construction of a refined coal treatment system (RCTS) at Navajo Generating Station (NGS). The permit authorizes SRP to construct and operate the RCTS, including ancillary equipment, to treat coal with cement kiln dust and calcium bromide so as to reduce emissions of oxides of nitrogen (NO
The EPA issued a final minor NSR permit decision for the NGS RCTS Project on August 31, 2016. The permit became effective on that date. Pursuant to section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. 7607(b)(1), judicial review of this final permit decision, to the extent it is available, may be sought by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit within 60 days of September 26, 2016.
Documents relevant to the above-referenced permit are available for public inspection during normal business hours at the following address: U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 9, 75 Hawthorne Street, San Francisco, CA 94105-3901. To arrange for viewing of these documents, call Larry Maurin at (415) 972-3943. Due to building security procedures, at least 48 hours advance notice is required.
Larry Maurin, EPA Region 9, (415) 972-3943,
The EPA issued a final permit to SRP authorizing the construction and operation of the RCTS at NGS—Tribal Minor NSR Permit T-0004-NN. The permit for the RCTS was initially issued by the EPA on April 20, 2016. The EPA regulations at 40 CFR 49.159(d) provided an opportunity for administrative review by the EPA's EAB of this initial permit decision.
The EPA's EAB received one petition for review of the permit, and on August 30, 2016, the EAB issued an Order denying the petition for review.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces that EPA is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The ICR, entitled: “Standards for Pesticides Containers and Containment” and identified by EPA ICR No. 1632.05 and OMB Control No. 2070-0133, represents the renewal of an existing ICR that is scheduled to expire on June 30, 2017. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.
Comments must be received on or before November 25, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0446, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Ramé Cromwell, Field and External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number (703) 308-9068; email address:
Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
EPA has not established a regular schedule for the collection of these records, and there is no reporting. With respect to the containment structure requirements, the information collection activities are associated with the requirement that businesses subject to the containment structure regulations maintain records of the: (1) Monthly inspection and maintenance of each containment structure and all stationary bulk containers; (2) Duration over which non-stationary bulk containers holding pesticide and not protected by a secondary containment unit remain at the same location; and (3) Construction date of the containment structure.
The businesses subject to the containment structure regulations include agrichemical retailers and refilling establishments, custom blenders and commercial applicators of agricultural pesticides. The records have to be maintained by the owners and operators of such businesses. There is no regular schedule for the collection of either of these records, nor does EPA anticipate a call-in of records at some future date. Instead, the records would be available to inspectors to ensure that businesses are in compliance with containment requirements. These inspections are generally conducted by the states, which enforce FIFRA regulations through cooperative agreements with EPA.
The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:
There is no changes to the overall estimated burden hours in the total estimated respondent burden compared with that identified in the ICR currently approved by OMB.
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another
44 U.S.C. 3501
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Request for nominations to the Clean Air Act Advisory Committee (CAAAC).
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) invites nominations from a diverse range of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment to its Clean Air Act Advisory Committee (CAAAC). Vacancies are anticipated to be filled by March 2017. Outside sources in addition to this
Clean Air Act Advisory Committee provides advice, information and recommendations on policy and technical issues associated with implementation of the Clean Air Act (CAA) as requested by EPA. These issues include the development, implementation, and enforcement of programs required by the Act. The CAAAC will provide advice and recommendations on approaches for new and expanded programs including those using innovative technologies and policy mechanisms to achieve environmental improvements; the potential health, environmental and economic effects of CAA programs on the public, the regulated community, State and local governments, and other Federal agencies; the policy and technical contents of proposed major EPA rulemaking and guidance required by the Act in order to help effectively incorporate appropriate outside advice and information; and the integration of existing policies, regulations, standards, guidelines, and procedures into programs for implementing requirements of the Act.
The programs falling under the purview of the committee include, but are not limited to, those for meeting National Ambient Air Quality Standards, reducing emissions from vehicles and vehicle fuels, reducing air toxic emissions, permitting, carrying out compliance authorities, and CAA-related voluntary activities. Members are appointed by the EPA Administrator for two-year terms with the possibility of reappointment to additional term(s). The CAAAC usually meets approximately 2-3 times annually and the average workload for the members is approximately 5 to 10 hours per month.
Although EPA is unable to offer compensation or an honorarium for CAAAC members, they may receive travel and per diem allowances, according to applicable federal travel regulations. EPA is seeking nominations from academia, industry, non-governmental/environmental organizations, community organizations, state and local government agencies, tribal governments, unions, trade associations, utilities, and lawyers/consultants. EPA values and welcomes diversity. In an effort to obtain nominations of diverse candidates, EPA encourages nominations of women and men of all racial and ethnic groups.
The following criteria will be used to evaluate nominees:
• The background and experiences that would help members contribute to the diversity of perspectives on the committee (
• Experience serving as an elected official;
• Experience serving as an appointed official for a state, county, city or tribe;
• Experience working on national level or on local government issues;
• Demonstrated experience with air quality policy issues;
• Executive management level experience with membership in broad-based networks;
• Excellent interpersonal, oral and written communication, and consensus-building skills.
• Ability to volunteer time for meeting attendance, participate in teleconference meetings, attend listening sessions with the Administrator or other senior-level officials;
• Ability to work with others with varying perspectives to develop policy recommendations to the Administrator, and prepare reports and advice letters.
Nominations must include a resume and a short biography describing the professional and educational qualifications of the nominee, as well as the nominee's current business/home address, email address, and daytime telephone number. Interested candidates may self-nominate. Please note that EPA's policy is that, unless otherwise prescribed by statute, members generally are appointed to two-year terms. To help the Agency in evaluating the effectiveness of our outreach efforts, please also tell us how you learned of this opportunity.
To receive further information about the upcoming
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
EPA is announcing its receipt of information submitted pursuant to an Enforceable Consent Agreement (ECA) issued by EPA under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). As required by TSCA, this document identifies each chemical substance and/or mixture for which information has been received; the uses or intended uses of such chemical substance and/or mixture; and the information required by the applicable protocols and methodologies for the development of information; and describes the nature of the information received. Each chemical substance and/or mixture related to this announcement is identified in Unit I. under
Information about the following chemical substance and/or mixture is provided in Unit IV.:
Section 4(d) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2603(d)) requires EPA to publish a notice in the
A docket, identified by the docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2013-0677, has been established for this
The docket for this
This unit contains the information required by TSCA section 4(d) for the information received by EPA.
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15 U.S.C. 2601
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), this document announces that EPA is planning to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR) to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). The ICR, entitled: “Requirements for Certified Applicators Using 1080 Collars for Livestock Protection” and identified by EPA ICR No. 1249.11 and OMB Control No. 2070-0074, represents the renewal of an existing ICR that is scheduled to expire on May 31, 2017. Before submitting the ICR to OMB for review and approval, EPA is soliciting comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection that is summarized in this document. The ICR and accompanying material are available in the docket for public review and comment.
Comments must be received on or before November 25, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0460, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
Amaris Johnson, Field External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-9542; email address:
Pursuant to PRA section 3506(c)(2)(A) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:
1. Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility.
2. Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used.
3. Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected.
4. Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
The ICR, which is available in the docket along with other related materials, provides a detailed explanation of the collection activities and the burden estimate that is only briefly summarized here:
There is a decrease of 513 hours in the total estimated respondent burden compared with that identified in the ICR currently approved by OMB. This decrease reflects voluntary cancellation of the 1080 Livestock Protection Collar registration formerly held by the South Dakota Department of Agriculture and the removal of estimated burden associated with submission of annual Livestock Protection Collar production reports erroneously included in the previous renewal of this ICR. This resulted in a corresponding decrease in the associated burden. This change is an adjustment.
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR as appropriate. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. EPA will issue another
44 U.S.C. 3501
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communication Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before October 26, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page
The FCC/MB-1 SORN, which was approved on December 21, 2009 (74 FR 59978), covers the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on Form 2100, Schedule 323, as required under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a). The Commission is drafting a privacy statement to inform applicants (respondents) of the Commission's need to obtain the information and the protections that the Commission has in place to protect the PII.
FRNs are assigned to applicants who complete FCC Form 160 (OMB Control No. 3060-0917). Form 160 currently requires applicants for FRNs to provide their Taxpayer Information Number (TIN) and/or Social Security Number (SSN). The FCC's electronic Commission Registration System (CORES) then provides each registrant with a CORES FRN, which identifies the registrant in his/her subsequent dealings with the FCC. This is done to protect the individual's privacy. The Commission maintains a SORN, FCC/OMD-9, Commission Registration System (CORES), to cover the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on Form 160. Form 160 includes a privacy statement to inform applicants (respondents) of the Commission's need to obtain the information and the protections that the FCC has in place to protect the PII.
The Commission is revising Form 160 to enable applicants to obtain a Restricted Use FRN, which may be used on Form 2100, Schedule 323 to identify an individual reported as an attributable interest holder. The revised Form 160 will require applicants for Restricted Use FRNs to provide an alternative set of identifying information that does not include the individual's full SSN: His/her full name, residential address, date of birth, and only the last four digits of his/her SSN. Restricted Use FRNs may be used in lieu of CORES FRNs only on broadcast ownership reports and only for individuals (not entities) reported as attributable interest holders. The Commission is revising FCC/OMD-9 SORN to cover the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on the revised Form 160.
Licensees of commercial AM, FM, and full power television broadcast stations, as well as licensees of Class A and Low Power Television stations, must file FCC Form 2100, Schedule 323 (formerly FCC Form 323) every two years. Biennial Ownership Reports shall provide information accurate as of October 1 of the year in which the Report is filed. Form 2100, Schedule 323 shall be filed by December 1 in all odd-numbered years.
In addition, Licensees and Permittees of commercial AM, FM, and full power television stations must file Form 2100, Schedule 323 following the consummation of a transfer of control or an assignment of a commercial AM, FM, or full power television station license or construction permit; a Permittee of a new commercial AM, FM, or full power television station must file Form 2100, Schedule 323 within 30 days after the grant of the construction permit; and a Permittee of a new commercial AM, FM, or full power television broadcast station must file Form 2100, Schedule 323 to update the initial report or to certify the continuing accuracy and completeness of the previously filed report on the date that the Permittee applies for a license to cover the construction permit.
In the case of organizational structures that include holding companies or other forms of indirect ownership, a separate Form 2100, Schedule 323 must be filed for each entity in the organizational structure that has an attributable interest in the Licensee or Permittee.
The Commission is revising the FCC/MB-1 SORN to cover the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on FCC Form 2100, Schedule 323-E, as required under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a). The Commission is also drafting a privacy statement to inform applicants (respondents) of the Commission's need to obtain the information and the protections that the FCC has in place to protect the PII.
FRNs are assigned to applicants who complete FCC Form 160 (OMB Control No. 3060-0917). Form 160 currently requires applicants for FRNs to provide their Taxpayer Information Number (TIN) and/or Social Security Number (SSN). The FCC's electronic Commission Registration System (CORES) then provides each registrant with a CORES FRN, which identifies the registrant in his/her subsequent dealings with the FCC. This is done to protect the individual's privacy. The Commission maintains a SORN, FCC/OMD-9, Commission Registration System (CORES), to cover the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on FCC Form 160. FCC Form 160 includes a privacy statement to inform applicants (respondents) of the Commission's need to obtain the information and the protections that the FCC has in place to protect the PII.
The Commission is revising Form 160 to enable applicants to obtain a Restricted Use FRN, which may be used on Form 2100, Schedule 323-E to identify an individual reported as an attributable interest holder. The revised Form 160 will require applicants for Restricted Use FRNs to provide an alternative set of identifying information that does not include the individual's full SSN: His/her full name, residential address, date of birth, and only the last four digits of his/her SSN. Restricted Use FRNs may be used in lieu of CORES FRNs only on broadcast ownership reports and only for individuals (not entities) reported as attributable interest holders. The Commission is revising the FCC/OMD-9 SORN to cover the collection, purpose(s), storage, safeguards, and disposal of the PII that individual respondents may submit on the revised Form 160.
Licensees of noncommercial educational AM, FM, and television broadcast stations must file FCC Form 2100, Schedule 323-E (formerly FCC Form 323-E) every two years. Pursuant to the new filing procedures adopted in the 323/CORES Order and Reconsideration Order, Form 2100, Schedule 323-E shall be filed by December 1 in all odd-numbered years. Biennial Ownership Reports shall provide information accurate as of October 1 of the year in which the Report is filed.
In addition, Licensees and Permittees of noncommercial educational AM, FM, and television stations must file Form 2100, Schedule 323-E following the consummation of a transfer of control or an assignment of a noncommercial educational AM, FM, or television station license or construction permit; a Permittee of a new noncommercial educational AM, FM, or television station must file Form 2100, Schedule 323-E within 30 days after the grant of the construction permit; and a Permittee of a new noncommercial educational AM, FM, or television station must file Form 2100, Schedule 323-E to update the initial report or to certify the continuing accuracy and completeness of the previously filed report on the date that the Permittee applies for a license to cover the construction permit.
In the case of organizational structures that include holding companies or other forms of indirect ownership, a separate Form 2100, Schedule 323-E must be filed for each entity in the organizational structure that has an attributable interest in the Licensee or Permittee.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice.
In this document, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) announces its intent to renew a Federal Advisory Committee, known as the “Disability Advisory Committee” (hereinafter “the Committee”), and to solicit nominations for membership to the next term of this Committee in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act.
Applications are due as soon as possible, but no later than October 14, 2016.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Elaine Gardner, Designated Federal Officer, Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau, (202) 418-0581 (voice or relay), or the ASL Consumer Support Line: 1-844-432-2275 via videophone; email:
Applications and nominations for membership, including a statement of qualifications as noted below, should be submitted by email to the Federal Communications Commission at
• The name of the organizational applicant applying for Committee membership (including whether the organizational applicant has previously served on the Committee);
• The name of the organizational applicant's primary representative, including title, postal mailing address, email address, and telephone number;
• The name of the organizational applicant's alternate representative, if any, including title, postal mailing address, email address, and telephone number;
• A statement noting the constituency represented by the organizational applicant (
• The areas of communications accessibility in which the applicant has an interest, as well as the applicant's knowledge of and expertise in these areas and on other issues to be addressed by the Committee;
• A statement indicating the willingness of the organizational applicant to serve a two-year term; attend at least three plenary Committee meetings per year in Washington DC; serve on at least one working group or subcommittee; and an acknowledgement that the organizational applicant will serve without reimbursement of travel expenses or payment of honoraria, or a statement indicating that partial reimbursement of travel expenses will be sought; and
• A narrative statement detailing the organizational applicant's previous involvement concerning issues relevant to the Committee's work and the applicant's ability and willingness to contribute substantively to the Committee's deliberations.
In the case of an individual applicant the application should include the following:
• The areas of communications accessibility in which the applicant has an interest, as well as the applicant's knowledge of and expertise in these areas and on other issues to be addressed by the Committee;
• A statement that the individual applicant is not a registered lobbyist (as noted above, financial and other additional disclosures may also apply to individual applicants);
• A statement by the individual applicant indicating a willingness to serve on the Committee for a two-year term; a commitment to attend three (3) plenary one-day meetings per year in Washington, DC; a commitment to work on at least one working group or subcommittee; and an acknowledgement that the individual applicant will serve without reimbursement of travel expenses or payment of honoraria, or a statement indicating that partial reimbursement of travel expenses will be sought; and
• A statement as to whether the individual applicant has served on the Committee previously.
All members will have an initial and continuing obligation to disclose any interests in, or connections to, persons or entities that are, or will be, regulated by or have interests before the Commission. Please note this Notice is not intended to be the exclusive method by which the Commission will solicit nominations of and expressions of interest from qualified candidates. All candidates for membership on the Committee will, however, be subject to the same evaluation criteria.
After the applications have been reviewed, the Commission will publish a notice in the
To request materials in accessible formats for people with disabilities (Braille, large print, electronic files, audio format), send an email to
1. On December 29, 2014, the Committee was established for a period of two years from the original charter date. The Commission anticipates that the Committee will hold the final meeting of its current term on December 6, 2016. Thereafter the Committee's charter and all member appointments will terminate on December 29, 2016. The Commission anticipates that the Committee's charter will be renewed for another two-year term. The Committee will operate in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App. 2 (1988). Each meeting of the Committee will be open to the public. A notice of each meeting will be published in the
2. The Committee, which was created under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, provides a vehicle for consumers and other stakeholders to provide feedback and recommendations to the Commission on a wide array of disability issues within the FCC's jurisdiction. In addition to keeping the Commission apprised of current and evolving communications accessibility issues for persons with disabilities, recommendations from the Committee have enabled the FCC to build on its record of ensuring access to communications and video programming for people with disabilities. Some of the issues the Committee has addressed, and will continue to address, include telecommunications relay services, closed captioning, video description, access to emergency information on television and telephone emergency services, device accessibility, IP and other technology transitions, and the National Deaf-Blind Equipment Distribution Program. When renewed, the Committee will also address new accessibility issues that arise.
3. The Commission seeks applications from interested consumer organizations, industry and trade associations, corporations, governmental entities, and individuals that wish to be considered for membership on the Committee. Selections will be made on the basis of factors such as expertise and diversity of viewpoints that are necessary to effectively address the questions before the Committee. The Commission will determine the appropriate Committee size necessary to effectively accomplish the Committee's work. The Commission expects that on an annual basis the Committee will meet in Washington, DC for a minimum of three one-day meetings, all of which will be fully accessible to individuals with disabilities. In addition, working groups or subcommittees will be established as needed to facilitate the Committee's work between meetings of the full Committee. Working group and subcommittee deliberations will be conducted primarily through email and teleconference/videoconference meetings.
4. Members must be willing to commit to a two-year term of service, should be willing and able to attend three one-day meetings per year in Washington, DC, and will also be expected to participate in deliberations of at least one working group or subcommittee. The time commitment to each working group or subcommittee may be substantial. The Commission does not provide payment or honoraria to members, and generally does not reimburse members for travel expenses, although it may have very limited funds to partially reimburse travel expenses of members who demonstrate need.
5. Some applicants possessing expertise or perspectives of interest to the Committee, and who will serve on the Committee in an individual capacity (and not as the representative of a corporation, nonprofit, or other entity), are deemed to be Special Government Employees (SGEs). Such individuals are ineligible to serve if they are federally registered lobbyists. In addition, although all individuals serving on the Committee or its working groups, whether representatives or SGEs, can have personal or financial interests in their individual capacities that could create a conflict with the work of the Disability Advisory Committee if not properly addressed in consultation with the Commission's Office of General Counsel, SGEs specifically are subject to a variety of restrictions under the conflict of interest statutes, 18 U.S.C. 203
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as Receiver for 10370 First Commercial Bank of Tampa Bay, Tampa, Florida (Receiver) has been authorized to take all actions necessary to terminate the receivership estate of First Commercial Bank of Tampa Bay (Receivership Estate); the Receiver has made all dividend distributions required by law.
The Receiver has further irrevocably authorized and appointed FDIC-Corporate as its attorney-in-fact to execute and file any and all documents that may be required to be executed by the Receiver which FDIC-Corporate, in its sole discretion, deems necessary; including but not limited to releases, discharges, satisfactions, endorsements, assignments and deeds.
Effective September 1, 2016, the Receivership Estate has been terminated, the Receiver discharged, and the Receivership Estate has ceased to exist as a legal entity.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than October 21, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414:
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B. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
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Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
Notice and request for comment.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the FTC is seeking public comments on its request to OMB for a three-year extension of the current PRA clearance for the information collection requirements contained in the Prescreen Opt-Out Notice Rule (“Prescreen Opt-Out Rule” or “Rule”), which applies to certain motor vehicle dealers, and its shared enforcement with the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (“CFPB”) of the provisions (subpart F) of the CFPB's Regulation V regarding other entities (“CFPB Rule”). This clearance expires on October 31, 2016.
Comments must be received by October 26, 2016.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper by following the instructions in the Request for Comments part of the
Requests for copies of the collection of information and supporting documentation should be addressed to Karen Jagielski, Attorney, Division of Privacy and Identity Protection, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., CC-8232, Washington, DC 20580, (202) 326-2509.
On May 25, 2016, the FTC sought public comment on the information collection requirements associated with the Prescreen Opt-Out Rule, 16 CFR part 642, the shared enforcement with the CFPB of the provisions (subpart F) of the CFPB's Regulation V, regarding other entities (“CFPB Rule”), and the FTC's associated PRA burden analysis.
Comments on the information collection requirements subject to review under the PRA should additionally be submitted to OMB. If sent by U.S. mail, they should be addressed to Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Comments sent to OMB by U.S. postal mail, however, are subject to delays due to heightened security precautions. Thus, comments instead should be sent by facsimile to (202) 395-5167.
The FTC is seeking clearance for its assumed share of the estimated PRA burden regarding the disclosure requirements under the FTC and CFPB Rules. The FTC's assumed share of estimated PRA burden, explained in the May 25, 2016 Notice, is 998 annual hours and $249,500 in annual labor costs, with the added assumption that capital and other non-labor costs should be minimal, at most, since the Rule has been in effect several years, with covered entities now equipped to provide the required notice.
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before October 26, 2016. Write “Prescreen Opt-Out Notice Rule: FTC File No. P075417” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, such as anyone's Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, like medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which is . . . privileged or confidential,” as discussed in Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you are required to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the FTC General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest.
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comment online, or to send it to the Commission by courier or overnight service. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Prescreen Opt-Out Notice Rule: FTC File No. P075417” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail or deliver it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Room H-113 (Annex J), 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20580. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Visit the Commission Web site at
Comments on the information collection requirements subject to review under the PRA should also be submitted to OMB. If sent by U.S. mail, address comments to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Comments sent to OMB by U.S. postal mail, however, are subject to delays due to heightened security precautions. Thus, comments instead should be sent by facsimile to (202) 395-5167.
Department of Defense (DoD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning Termination Settlement Proposal Forms—FAR (Standard Forms 1435 through 1440), as prescribed at FAR subpart 49.6, Contract Termination Forms and Formats. A notice was published in the
Submit comments on or before October 26, 2016.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Mr. Curtis E. Glover Sr., Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy
The termination settlement proposal forms (Standard Forms 1435 through 1440) provide a standardized format for listing essential cost and inventory information needed to support the terminated contractor's negotiation position per FAR subpart 49.6—Contract Termination Forms and Formats. Submission of the information assures that a contractor will be fairly reimbursed upon settlement of the terminated contract.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Requester may obtain a copy of the proposal from the General Services Administration, Regulatory Secretariat Division (MVCB), 1800 F Street NW., Washington, DC 20405, telephone 202-501-4755.
Please cite OMB Control No. 9000-0012, Termination Settlement Proposal Forms—FAR (SF's 1435 through 1440), in all correspondence.
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the “ATSDR Communication Activities Survey (ACAS)” which will be used to assess the effectiveness of ATSDR site team members as they engage and inform members of communities in providing effective, clear, and consistent communication and information about protecting communities from environmental hazards.
Written comments must be received on or before November 25, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. ATSDR-2016-0006 by any of the following methods:
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To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
ATSDR Communication Activities Survey (ACAS)—NEW—Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR).
The Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR) serves the public through responsive public health actions to promote healthy and safe environments and to prevent harmful exposures. The agency aims to work effectively with communities in proximity to hazardous waste sites by listening to and understanding their health concerns and seeking their guidance on where, when, and how to take public health actions.
Community members are key participants in the agency's public health assessment process and should be actively involved in decisions that impact their community. Thus, agency's goals for this new information collection request (ICR) titled the “ATSDR Communication Activities Survey (ACAS)” are to ascertain the effectiveness of, and to assess the differences and the consistency of, the delivery of ATSDR activities and respondent perceptions across sites and over time. ATSDR will use the ACAS to: (1) Determine how effectively it's site teams engage community members; (2) discover how well ATSDR provides effective, clear, and consistent communication and information on how to promote healthy and safe environments; (3) understand whether the agency's activities are helping the communities address environmental issues; and (4) improve ATSDR's activities to make a greater impact within the communities served.
Recruitment will occur at communities where ATSDR and state or local agencies have implemented site activities to address environmental issues. For each engaged community, the ACAS will be used to assess a set of effectiveness indicators for ATSDR site-specific activities about the respondents' involvement, knowledge, satisfaction, observations, and opinions about ATSDR's community engagement and educational outreach efforts to inform communities. The indicators will measure ATSDR effectiveness in the following respondent areas: (1) Their involvement with the site activities; (2) how they received, and prefer to receive, ATSDR information; (3) their knowledge and understanding of ATSDR site activities and how to reduce hazardous exposures; (4) their observations and opinions of ATSDR's role in community preparedness; (5) their self-evaluation on their risk of exposure to possible environmental hazards; (6) their demographic profile; (7) their environmental concerns; and (8) any additional feedback.
ATSDR is seeking a three-year clearance for this new ICR. ATSDR anticipates that approximately six to seven sites will be engaged for feedback per year (or about 20 sites over the next three years). Each year, ATSDR will recruit approximately 167 individuals per year, aged 18 and older, to participate in the ACAS where ATSDR is holding public community meetings. Therefore, respondents will include approximately 24 to 28 community members and agency stakeholders per meeting (6 to 7 meetings per year). The community members may include, but are not limited to, the general public, community leaders, faith-based leaders, and business leaders. The agency stakeholders may include, but are not limited to, state and local environmental health department employees, such as environmental health assessors, toxicologists, and departmental officials. The mix of respondents will be approximately 75 percent community members (n = 125 per year) and 25 percent agency stakeholders (n = 42 per year).
Trained ATSDR contractors will have a table set up at the entrance of the community meeting where community meeting attendees will pick up a fact sheet which explains what ATSDR does, and the purpose of ATSDR's site activities and the survey.
At the end of ATSDR public community meetings, there will be an announcement to ask interested attendees to take the survey. All interested attendees will sign in and provide their contact information, their preferred mode for taking the survey (in-person, online or over the phone), and whether they are a community member or an agency stakeholder.
The ACAS will preferably be self-administered right after the public community meetings. If this is not a convenient time for the respondent, the ACAS may be completed online or by phone. We estimate that approximately 80 percent of respondents will choose the self-administered ACAS, 15 percent will choose the online ACAS, and 5 percent will choose the telephone ACAS.
There are no costs to the respondents other than their time. The total annual time burden requested is 96 hours per year.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is soliciting nominations for membership on ACET. The ACET consists of 10 experts in fields associated with public Health, epidemiology, immunology, infectious diseases, pulmonary disease, pediatrics, tuberculosis, microbiology, or preventive health care delivery, who are selected by the Secretary of the United State Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). ACET provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary, HHS; the Assistant Secretary of Health; and the Director, CDC, regarding program policies, strategies, objectives, and priorities; address the development and application of new technologies; provide guidance and review on CDC's Tuberculosis prevention research portfolio and program priorities; and review the extent to which progress has been made toward eliminating tuberculosis.
Nominations are being sought for individuals who have expertise and qualifications necessary to contribute to the accomplishments of the committee's objectives. Nominees will be selected based on expertise in the field of epidemiology, immunology, infectious diseases, pulmonary disease, pediatrics, tuberculosis, microbiology, preventive health care delivery, and experts in public health. Federal employees will not be considered for membership. Members may be invited to serve for four-year terms.
The next cycle of selection of candidates will begin in the Fall of 2016 for selection of potential nominees to replace members whose terms will end on June 30, 2018. Selection of members is based on candidates' qualifications to contribute to the accomplishment of ACET objectives.
The U. S. Department of Health and Human Services policy stipulates that committee membership be balanced in terms of points of view represented, and the committee's function. Appointments shall be made without discrimination on the basis of age, race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, HIV status, disability, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status. Nominees must be U.S. citizens, and cannot be full-time employees of the U.S. Government. Current participation on federal workgroups or prior experience serving on a federal advisory committee does not disqualify a candidate; however, HHS policy is to avoid excessive individual service on advisory committees and multiple committee memberships. Committee members are Special Government Employees, requiring the filing of financial disclosure reports at the beginning and annually during their terms. CDC reviews potential candidates for ACET membership each year, and provides a slate of nominees for consideration to the Secretary of HHS for final selection. HHS notifies selected candidates of their appointment near the start of the term in July 1, 2018, or as soon as the HHS selection process is completed. Note that the need for different expertise varies from year to year and a candidate who is not selected in one year may be reconsidered in a subsequent year.
Candidates should submit the following items. The deadline for receipt of materials for the 2017 term is October 31, 2016:
• Current curriculum vitae, including complete contact information (telephone numbers, mailing address, email address).
• At least one letter of recommendation from person(s) not employed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (Candidates may submit letter(s) from current HHS employees if they wish, but at least one letter must be submitted by a person not employed by an HHS agency (
The deadline for receipts of all application materials for consideration for term beginning July 1, 2018 is due October 31, 2016 electronically or in writing, and must be postmarked by October 31, 2016.
Telephone and facsimile submissions cannot be accepted. Nominations may be submitted by the candidate or by the person/organization recommending the candidate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
The mission of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to promote safety and health at work for all people through research and prevention. Under Public Law 91- 596, sections 20 and 22 (Section 20-22, Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970), NIOSH has the responsibility to conduct research to advance the health and safety of workers. In this capacity, NIOSH proposes to administer a survey of ergonomics professionals as a 10-year follow-up to a survey conducted of U.S. Certified Professional Ergonomists (CPEs) by Dempsey et al. and published in 2005 (A survey of tools and methods used by certified professional ergonomists.
The project is planned to extend the original survey in two ways: (1) The sample will be broadened to include international ergonomics practitioners (in Canada, the United Kingdom, New Zealand, and Australia), and, (2) the queried tools and methods have been updated to reflect new and emerging technologies not included in the original survey.
The purpose of the survey will be unchanged—to gather information on the types of basic tools, direct and observational measurement techniques, and software used in the field by ergonomics practitioners to assess workplace risk factors for musculoskeletal disorders and to evaluate workplace interventions.
The motivation for the original 2005 survey was to better understand the types of tools and methods practitioners use, their opinions of these tools, and to potentially gain an understanding of the constraints or preferences that influence this selection. At the time of the 2005 survey there were many tools reported in the literature, but little information on the extent to which these different tools were used by practitioners.
Similarly, there was little published information on users' experiences with these different tools. There has been considerable interest in the findings and the Dempsey et al. (2005) publication has been widely cited. The program anticipates that a follow-up effort will result in even greater interest as changes in the practice of ergonomics and prevention of soft tissue MSDs can be inferred from comparisons between the two surveys time points.
Since publication of the initial survey findings there has been a proliferation of smart phone/smart device-embedded inertial and acceleration sensors and related “apps” for human motion and activity logging. Little is known about the extent to which ergonomics practitioners are using these newer technologies towards assessing workplace physical activity (and now, workplace inactivity and “sedentarism”) and other job demands. Thus, the survey will provide a contemporary perspective on the scope of use of assessment tools and methods by these professionals.
In summary, this study will update information collected and published in 2005 on the methods and tools used by practicing ergonomists. NIOSH expects to complete data collection in 2017. The professionals who will be surveyed are being asked to volunteer their time. Only certified ergonomics professionals from five countries with specific certification credentials will be eligible and invited to participate. The certification organizations are shown below with an approximation of eligible respondents:
The program has assumed an optimistic 80% response rate to estimate the number of respondents at 938 in the estimation of annualized burden hours.
This project will involve the collection of non-sensitive data via web-based survey questionnaire methods. Survey data relate only to respondents' professional practice within the OS&H discipline of ergonomics and prevention of musculoskeletal disorders. Nonetheless, safeguards will be taken to insure data confidentiality and the dissociation of personally identifying information (PII) from individual questionnaire responses submitted through the web-based survey service. Participants' web-submitted responses will not contain PII in association with their data. Basic demographic information collected over the web, including years' experience and certification in the ergonomics profession, current occupation, expertise specialization, highest academic degree attained, and field of study are non-sensitive information.
The estimated annual burden is 469 hours.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Emergency Epidemic Investigation Data Collections (OMB Control Number 0920-1011, Expiration 03-31-2017)—Extension — Division of Scientific Education and Professional Development, Center for Surveillance, Education, and Laboratory Services, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC previously conducted Emergency Epidemic Investigations (EEIs) under OMB Control Number 0920-0008. In 2013, CDC received OMB approval (OMB Control Number 0920-1011) for a new OMB generic clearance for a three-year period to collect vital information during EEIs in response to urgent outbreaks or events (
Supporting effective emergency epidemic investigations is one of the most important ways that CDC protects the health of the public. CDC is frequently called upon to conduct EEIs at the request of local, state, or international health authorities seeking support to respond to urgent outbreaks or urgent public health-related events. In response to external partner requests, CDC provides necessary epidemiologic support to identify the agents, sources, modes of transmission, or risk factors to effectively implement rapid prevention and control measures to protect the public's health. Data collection is a critical component of the epidemiologic support provided by CDC; data are analyzed to determine the agents, sources, modes of transmission, or risk factors so that effective prevention and control measures can be implemented. During an unanticipated outbreak or event, immediate action by CDC is necessary to minimize or prevent public harm. The legal justification for EEIs are found in the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 301[241](a).
Successful investigations are dependent on rapid and flexible data collection that evolves during the investigation and is customized to the unique circumstances of each outbreak or event. Data collection elements will be those necessary to identify the agents, sources, mode of transmission, or risk factors. Examples of potential data collection methods include telephone or face-to-face interview; email, web or other type of electronic questionnaire; paper-and-pencil questionnaire; focus groups; medical record review; laboratory record review; collection of clinical samples; and environmental assessment. Respondents will vary depending on the nature of the outbreak or event; examples of potential respondents include health care professionals, patients, laboratorians, and the general public. Participation in EEIs is voluntary and there are no anticipated costs to respondents other than their time. CDC will use the information gathered during EEIs to rapidly identify and effectively implement measures to minimize or prevent public harm.
CDC projects 60 EEIs in response to outbreaks or events characterized by undetermined agents, undetermined sources, undetermined transmission, or undetermined risk factors annually. The projected average number of respondents is 200 per EEI, for a total of 12,000 respondents. CDC estimates the average burden per response is 0.5 hours and each respondent will be asked to respond once. Therefore, the total estimated annual burden hours are 6,000. These estimates are based on the reported burden for EEIs that have been performed during the previous two years.
OMB approval is requested for three years. Participation is based on previous Emergency Epidemic Investigations. There are no costs to respondents.
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463) of October 6, 1972, that the charter for the Breast and Cervical Cancer Early Detection and Control Advisory Committee, Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed for a 2-year period through September 12, 2018.
For information, contact Ms. Jameka Blackmon, Designated Federal Officer, BCCEDCAC, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE., M/S K57, Atlanta, Georgia, 30329, telephone (770) 488-4740; fax (770) 488-3230.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
This gives notice under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463) of October 6, 1972, that the charter for the Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, has been renewed for a 2-year period through September 18, 2018.
For information, contact M. Chris Langub, Ph.D., Designated Federal Officer, Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Department of Health and Human Services, 1600 Clifton Road NE., Mailstop K48, Atlanta, Georgia 30329, telephone (770) 488-3585 or fax (770) 488-4887.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to PAR 13-129, Occupational Safety and Health Research, NIOSH Member Conflict Review.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
The meeting will be webcast live via the World Wide Web; for instructions and more information on ACIP please visit the ACIP Web site:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with Section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces a meeting for the initial review of applications in response to Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA) GH16-007, Operations Research (Implementation Science) for Strengthening Global Health Protection Implementation.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Aggregate Reports for Tuberculosis Program Evaluation (OMB Control Number 0920-0457)—Reinstatement Without Change of a Previously Approved Collection—National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
CDC, NCHHSTP, Division of Tuberculosis Elimination (DTBE) proposes a reinstatement without change of the Aggregate Reports for Tuberculosis Program Evaluation, previously approved under OMB Control Number 0920-0457. This request is for a three-year clearance. There are no revisions to the report forms, data definitions, or reporting instructions.
DTBE is the lead agency for tuberculosis elimination in the United States. To ensure the elimination of tuberculosis in the United States, CDC monitors indicators for key program activities, such as finding tuberculosis infections in recent contacts of cases and in other persons likely to be infected and providing therapy for latent tuberculosis infection.
In 2000, CDC implemented two program evaluation reports for annual submission: Aggregate report of follow-up for contacts of tuberculosis, and Aggregate report of screening and preventive therapy for tuberculosis infection (OMB No. 0920-0457). The respondents for these reports were the 68 state and local tuberculosis control programs receiving federal cooperative agreement funding through DTBE. This group will also respond to this collection of information.
These Aggregate reports emphasize treatment outcomes, high-priority target populations vulnerable to tuberculosis, and programmed electronic report entry, which transitioned to the National Tuberculosis Indicators Project (NTIP), a secure web-based system for program evaluation data, in 2010. No other federal agency collects this type of national tuberculosis data, and the Aggregate report of follow-up for contacts of tuberculosis, and Aggregate report of screening and preventive therapy for tuberculosis infection are the only data source about latent tuberculosis infection for monitoring national progress toward tuberculosis elimination with these activities.
CDC provides ongoing assistance in the preparation and utilization of these reports at the local and state levels of public health jurisdiction. CDC also provides respondents with technical support for NTIP access (Electronic—100%, Use of Electronic Signatures).
The annual burden to respondents is estimated to be 226 hours.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services.
Notice.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by October 26, 2016.
When commenting on the proposed information collections, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be received by the OMB desk officer via one of the following transmissions: OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention: CMS Desk Officer, Fax Number: (202) 395-5806
To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, you may make your request using one of following:
1. Access CMS' Web site address at
2. Email your request, including your address, phone number, OMB number, and CMS document identifier, to
3. Call the Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Reports Clearance Office at (410) 786-1326.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the
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This request does not propose any new or revised information collection requirements or burden estimates outside of what is currently approved by OMB. Rather, it seeks to extend the collection's current expiration date of September 30, 2016 (approved under the emergency PRA process on March 21, 2016; see 81 FR 17460 dated March 29, 2106, and 81 FR 26798 dated May 4, 2016). Since the collection has already been subject to the public comment process for collection activities taking place through September 30, 2016, this “Extension of a currently approved collection” will only consider comments for activities taking place from October 1, 2016, through the end of the revised expiration date. The revised expiration date will be made available upon OMB approval at
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The information collection request has been revised subsequent to the publication of the 60-day
The Cross-Center Evaluation is utilizing a longitudinal mixed methods approach to evaluate the Centers' services as they develop and mature over the course of the study period. Multiple data collection strategies will be used to efficiently capture quantitative and qualitative data to enable analyses that address each evaluation question. Proposed Cross-Center Evaluation data sources for this effort include: (1) A capacity survey to capture perceived changes in organizational capacity after receiving Center services; (2) a tailored services satisfaction survey administered in conjunction with the capacity survey to capture satisfaction with tailored services; (3) a foundational assessment to capture contextual data regarding the organizational health and functioning of child welfare agencies and courts; (4) a follow-up survey that will examine short-term and intermediate outcomes among CIPs that receive different levels of tailored services following continuous quality improvement (CQI) workshops; and (5) a key informant survey and interview to examine how capacity building services are incorporated into state and tribal activities to support implementation of Public Law 113-183. Center-specific data sources for this effort include (1) registration forms such as the webinar and learning management system (CapLEARN) registration forms and (2) service-specific feedback forms and interviews, such as the Center for States Tailored Services interviews and the Center for Courts Universal and Constituency Services survey.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing a public meeting to discuss proposed recommendations for the reauthorization of the Generic Drug User Fee Amendments of 2012 (GDUFA), which authorizes FDA to collect fees and use them for the review of certain generic human drug applications and associated Type II active pharmaceutical ingredient (API) drug master files (DMFs), and for conducting associated inspections for fiscal years (FYs) 2018 through 2022. The legislative authority for GDUFA expires at the end of September 2017. At that time, new legislation will be required for FDA to continue to collect generic drug user fees for future fiscal years. Following discussions with the regulated industry and periodic consultations with public stakeholders, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) directs FDA to present the recommendations to the relevant Congressional committees, publish the recommendations for the reauthorized program in the
The public meeting will be held on October 21, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. Submit electronic or written comments to the public docket by November 7, 2016.
The meeting will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993. Entrance for the public meeting participants (non-FDA employees) is through Building 1, where routine security check procedures will be performed. For parking and security information, refer to
You may submit comments as follows:
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• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
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• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA will post the agenda approximately 5 days before the meeting at
Derek Griffing, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 75, Rm. 1673, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 240-402-6980, email:
FDA is announcing a public meeting to discuss proposed recommendations
GDUFA is a law that authorizes FDA to collect fees from drug companies that submit marketing applications for certain generic human drug applications, certain DMFs, and certain facilities. It was originally enacted as part of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA) (Pub. L. 112-144) for a period of 5 years.
GDUFA's intent is to provide additional revenues so that FDA can hire more staff, improve systems, and establish a better-managed generic drug review process to improve access to quality, affordable generic medicines. As part of FDA's agreement with industry, the Agency agreed to certain performance goals. Major goals of GDUFA included: (1) Review and act on 90 percent of complete, electronic abbreviated new drug applications (ANDAs) submitted in FY 2017 within 10 months after the date of submission; (2) review and act on 90 percent of all ANDAs, ANDA amendments, and ANDA prior approval supplements (PASs) pending as of October 1, 2012 (
In preparing the proposed recommendations to Congress for GDUFA reauthorization (GDUFA II), we have conducted discussions with the regulated industry, and we have consulted with stakeholders as required by the law. We began the GDUFA reauthorization process with a public meeting held on June 15, 2015 (80 FR 22204, April 21, 2015). The meeting included presentations by FDA and a series of presentations from different stakeholder groups, including patient advocates, consumer groups, regulated industry, health professionals, and academic researchers. The stakeholders were asked to respond to the following questions:
• What is your assessment of the overall performance of the GDUFA program to date?
• What aspects of GDUFA should be retained, changed, or discontinued to further strengthen and improve the program?
Following the June 2015 public meeting, FDA conducted negotiations with regulated industry and continued monthly consultations with public stakeholders from October 2015 through August 2016. As directed by Congress, FDA posted minutes of these discussions on its Web site at
The enhancements are described below with reference to the section of the draft Commitment Letter where more detailed information can be found.
The GDUFA submission review performance goals were very complex. Different cohorts and tiers of submissions received very different review goals. The first cohort was the pre-GDUFA “backlog.” FDA agreed to take a first action on 90 percent of ANDAs pending as of the date of enactment (
For GDUFA II, FDA proposes two major changes to the submission review goals: First, all ANDAs and ANDA amendments would fall within a single, consolidated, review goals scheme to simplify and streamline program administration, promote review efficiency, and ensure that “no submission is left behind.” Second, GDUFA II would create faster review goals for priority submissions. For an ANDA, standard review would be 10 months from submission and priority review would be 8 months from submission. Priority review would be available for submissions that FDA considers to be public health priorities pursuant to CDER's Manual of Policies and Procedures (MAPP) 5240.3 Rev.2, “Prioritization of the Review of Original
The proposed submission review performance goals and procedures are set forth in section I of the proposed Commitment Letter.
GDUFA I contained several enhancements of a general nature related to review efficiency and communications transparency, such as the adoption of complete response letters (CRLs) and continuing communication of easily correctible deficiencies. These enhancements, as operationalized, did not meet industry's expectations and were reportedly commercially disruptive. The regulated industry expressed strong concerns. In response, during Years 2 and 3 of GDUFA I, FDA further developed and refined its ANDA review and communications procedures. These newly developed procedures, along with additional procedures developed in GDUFA II discussions with the regulated industry, are set forth in the proposed Commitment Letter. GDUFA II's ANDA review enhancements are substantially more specific and programmatic than corresponding elements of GDUFA I. They would refine and enhance the efficiency of the ANDA review process from start to finish.
The GDUFA II ANDA review program would start with submission of an ANDA. FDA would strive to determine whether to receive an ANDA within 60 days of the date of ANDA submission. The Agency would also issue a MAPP setting forth procedures for filing reviewers on communication of minor technical deficiencies and on deficiencies potentially resolved with information in the ANDA at original submission, in order to provide applicants with an opportunity for resolution within 7 calendar days. If such a deficiency is resolved within 7 calendar days, that deficiency would not be a basis for a refuse-to-receive decision. These ANDA receipt enhancements are set forth in section II(A) of the proposed Commitment Letter.
When FDA has received the ANDA and it is under review, FDA would use information requests (IRs) and/or discipline review letters (DRLs) to communicate review deficiencies beginning at about the mid-point of the review. Following the IR and/or DRL at about the mid-point of the review, IRs and/or DRLs would, as appropriate, continue for each review discipline on a rolling basis. Neither IRs nor DRLs would stop the review clock or add to a GDUFA goal. If an applicant is unable to completely respond within the timeframe requested by FDA, including any extensions that may be granted by FDA, then FDA would generally issue a CRL. FDA would continue to issue IRs and/or DRLs late in the review cycle, until it is no longer feasible, within the current review cycle, for the applicant to develop and FDA to review a complete response to the IR and/or DRL. FDA should continue to work through the goal date if in FDA's judgment continued work would likely result in an imminent tentative approval that could prevent forfeiture of 180-day exclusivity or an imminent approval. FDA would strive to act prior to a goal date when the review is done and there are no longer any outstanding issues. These program enhancements are set forth in sections II(B)(1)-(7). They would result in more opportunities for applicants to address deficiencies within the current review cycle, instead of waiting to receive them in a later-issued CRL. Such “rolling review” would promote a more efficient and effective review process and increase the overall rate of ANDA approval.
During the review, to provide transparency concerning review status and the potential timing of FDA action, regulatory project managers would timely provide review status updates upon request of an applicant's authorized representative, notify applicants of certain likely forthcoming major deficiencies, and notify applicants if FDA is likely to miss the goal date for a submission. These program enhancements are set forth in sections II(B)(8)-(10). They would support product launches and other types of business planning that can improve consumer access to generic drugs. “Review Status Update” is defined in section VII(W).
To facilitate timely approvals and tentative approvals, GDUFA II would provide that if applicants submit and maintain ANDAs consistent with the statutory requirements for approval under 505(j); respond to IRs and DRLs completely and within the timeframes requested by FDA, and timely submit all required information under 21 CFR parts 314 and 210, including information concerning notice (§ 314.95), litigation status (§ 314.107), and commercial marketing (§ 314.107); then FDA will strive to approve approvable ANDAs in the first review cycle; to approve potential first generics on the earliest lawful approval date, if known to FDA; and to tentatively approve first to file paragraph IV ANDAs so as to avoid forfeiture of 180-day exclusivity. This is set forth in section II(D) of the proposed Commitment Letter.
If the applicant receives a CRL rather than an approval, post-CRL teleconferences would be available. They would enable applicants to seek clarification concerning deficiencies identified in a CRL. FDA would grant appropriate requests for teleconferences concerning first cycle major and subsequent CRLs. There are metric goals for FDA to schedule and conduct post-CRL teleconferences. These program enhancements are set forth in sections II(B)(11)-(12).
With respect to dispute resolution, the proposed Commitment Letter would provide that applicants may review requests for reconsideration at the Division level or original signatory authority, as needed. Following requests for reconsideration, applicants may pursue formal dispute resolution above the Division level. There would be metric goals for FDA to respond to appeals above the Division level. This is set forth in section II(E).
The purpose of the proposed ANDA review transparency and communications enhancements is to improve predictability and transparency, promote the efficiency and effectiveness of the review process, minimize the number of review cycles necessary for approval, increase the overall rate of approval, and facilitate greater consumer access to generic drug products.
The proposed GDUFA II pre-ANDA program for complex products is new. “Complex Products” is defined in section VII(I) of the proposed Commitment Letter and would generally include products with complex active
The pre-ANDA program would build an enhanced pathway for complex products, with product development, pre-submission, and mid-review-cycle meetings as set forth in sections III(D)-(F) of the proposed Commitment Letter. FDA would issue a guidance concerning the pathway. A prospective ANDA applicant granted a product development meeting would have the option of a pre-submission meeting and also the option of a mid-review-cycle meeting, subject to policies and procedures to be set forth in the guidance. A product development meeting would involve scientific exchange to discuss specific issues (for example, a proposed study design, alternative approach, or additional study expectations) or questions. In a product development meeting, FDA would provide targeted advice concerning an ongoing ANDA development program. A pre-submission meeting would give an applicant an opportunity to discuss and explain the content and format of an ANDA to be submitted, but would not include substantive review of summary data or full study reports. Post-submission, after the last key discipline has issued its IR and/or DRL, the Agency would schedule a teleconference with the applicant to discuss current concerns with the application and next steps. There would be metric goals for FDA to grant or deny and to conduct product development and pre-submission meetings.
The GDUFA II pre-ANDA program for complex products would also include metric goals for the issuance of product-specific guidance. Specifically, FDA would issue product-specific guidance identifying the methodology for developing drugs and generating evidence needed to support ANDA approval, for 90 percent of new chemical entity new drug applications that are approved on or after October 1, 2017, at least 2 years prior to the earliest lawful approval date. This goal would not apply to complex products. (The pre-ANDA program would have meetings for complex products for which product-specific guidance has not been issued.) FDA would strive to issue product-specific guidance for complex products as soon as scientific recommendations are available. In addition, FDA would continue to develop and issue product-specific guidance based on requests from the regulated industry and public health priorities as set forth in the CDER Prioritization MAPP. These enhancements are set forth in section III.C of the proposed Commitment Letter.
The pre-ANDA program would also include enhancements concerning controlled correspondence, regulatory science, the Inactive Ingredient Database, and safety determination letters. Notably, there would be separate review goals for complex controlled correspondence, to provide answers concerning discrete complex product development questions.
The purpose of the proposed GDUFA II pre-ANDA program for complex products is to clarify regulatory expectations for prospective applicants early in product development, help applicants develop more complete submissions, promote a more efficient and effective review process, and reduce the number of review cycles to obtain ANDA approval of complex products.
GDUFA II also proposes targeted enhancements of current DMF review procedures. DMF review comments submitted to the DMF holder would be issued at least in parallel with the issuance of review comments relating to the DMF for the ANDA. The proposed Commitment Letter would also establish procedures and timelines for teleconferences to clarify DMF first-cycle review deficiencies. Once a DMF has undergone a full scientific review and has no open issues related to the review of the referencing ANDA, FDA would issue a First Adequate Letter. Once the DMF has undergone a complete review and the ANDA referencing it has been approved or tentatively approved, FDA would issue a No Further Comments Letter. By FY 2019, FDA would issue a guidance regarding post-approval changes to a Type II DMF and submission mechanisms for ANDA applicants who reference it. These enhancements are set forth in section IV of the proposed Commitment Letter.
FDASIA eliminated long-standing minimum inspection frequency requirements and directed FDA instead to inspect drug facilities globally on the basis of risk. Industry sources have asserted that the transition to a new paradigm has been commercially disruptive for the regulated industry, which over time had developed procedures and expectations based on the old model. While facility assessment cuts across multiple FDA drug programs, GDUFA II contains several facility-related enhancements targeted to generic industry-specific challenges.
To mitigate export related challenges identified by U.S.-based API manufacturers, FDA would issue a guidance explaining the risk-based site selection model, undertake outreach to foreign regulators on the risk-based site selection model, and support the export of safe and effective pharmaceutical products by the U.S.-based pharmaceutical industry, including through the issuance of communications conveying the current compliance status of U.S. manufacturing facilities to foreign regulators. These enhancements are set forth in sections V(A)-(D).
To mitigate ANDA sponsor concerns regarding the transparency and speed of facility assessment and its impact on ANDA approvability and product launch, FDA would communicate outstanding facility issues that could prevent approval of an ANDA or PAS through an IR, DRL, or CRL; and communicate to the facility owner final inspection classifications that do not negatively impact approvability of any pending application within 90 days of the end of the inspection. In addition, FDA would provide updates to and seek feedback from industry stakeholders regarding facility assessment. These enhancements would occur in FYs 2018 and 2019. They are described in section V(E).
To enhance transparency concerning the compliance status of GDUFA self-identified facilities and sites, FDA would update its existing, publicly available database beginning in FY 2019. This is described in section V(F).
FDA proposes to build internal capacity to enable improved productivity and performance through regular assessment of progress towards GDUFA II goals, consistent methodologies for and timely reporting of GDUFA II metrics, transparent and efficient administration, and allocation and reporting of user fee resources.
FDA would conduct activities to develop a resource management planning function and a modernized time reporting approach to GDUFA II. This is described in section VI(A) of the proposed Commitment Letter.
FDA would also conduct activities to evaluate the financial administration of the GDUFA II program to help identify areas to enhance operational and fiscal efficiency, and to enhance transparency
The Agency would also expand its performance reporting by publishing robust monthly, quarterly and annual program performance metrics, as described in section VI(C). Enhanced performance reporting would enable Congress, the regulated industry, patient and consumer groups, and other stakeholders to better gauge the generic drug program's performance.
The proposed GDUFA II fee structure was designed to provide FDA with predictable, adequate funding for its human generic drug review programs, divide fee responsibilities equitably across different segments of the industry, and provide for small business considerations in a number of ways.
GDUFA II will be funded at a level commensurate with the amount of work associated with incoming ANDAs, since ANDAs are the primary workload driver of GDUFA. In order to provide a more predictable revenue base, GDUFA II will include an annualized “program fee” for ANDA holders. This annual fee will help offset the fluctuations in application fees from 1 year to another. An ANDA sponsor will pay a fee based on the total number of approved ANDAs that it and its affiliates own. ANDA sponsors will be split into three tiers based on ANDA ownership. The proposed tier cutoffs were determined by industry and are meant to reflect a firm's size, position in the market, and reliance on the program. With the introduction of the program fee, FDA has eliminated the fee for PASs.
In addition to program fees based on total ANDA ownership, the proposed fee structure includes two other distinct considerations for small businesses. First, under GDUFA I, a facility would pay an annual fee if it was listed in an ANDA, regardless of whether it was listed in any approved ANDAs. As a result, a facility that is listed only in pending applications is charged an annual GDUFA fee even though it has no generic drug revenue stream. Under GDUFA II, no facility or ANDA sponsor would be charged an annual fee until an ANDA in which it is listed is approved. Second, the proposed structure adds a facility category for contract manufacturing organizations (CMOs). CMOs are generally small businesses that are hired by ANDA sponsors to manufacture their generic drugs. Alternatively, some ANDA sponsors manufacture their own drugs. Under the GDUFA II fee structure, CMOs will pay one-third the annual fee paid by firms that manufacture under ANDAs which they or their affiliates own.
The full descriptions of these proposed recommendations will be posted prior to the public meeting on FDA's Web site at
If you wish to attend this meeting, please email your registration information to Derek Griffing (see
The meeting will include a presentation by FDA and a series of invited panels representing different stakeholder groups identified in the statute (such as patient advocacy groups, consumer advocacy groups, health professionals, and regulated industry). We will also provide an opportunity for other organizations and individuals to make presentations at the meeting or to submit written comments to the docket before the meeting.
If you wish to present at the meeting, please include your presentation materials along with your registration information to Derek Griffing (see
Please be advised that as soon as a transcript is available, it will be accessible at
It may be viewed at the Division of Dockets Management, Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD. A transcript will also be available in either hardcopy or on CD-ROM, after submission of a Freedom of Information request. The Freedom of Information office address is available on the Agency's Web site at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; correction.
The Food and Drug Administration is correcting a notice entitled “A List of Biomarkers Used as Outcomes in Development of FDA-Approved New Molecular Entities and New Biological Therapeutics (October 2007 to December 2015); Establishment of a Public Docket” that appeared in the
Lisa Granger, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 32, Rm. 3330, Silver Spring MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9115,
In the
On page 64178, in the second column, in the last sentence of the first paragraph under Section I, Background, “Biomarkers Used as Outcomes in Development of FDA-Approved Therapeutics (October 2007 to December 2015)” is corrected to read “
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice.
HRSA announces the award of a supplement in the amount of $350,000 for the National Center for Medical Home Implementation (NCMHI) cooperative agreement. The purpose of the NCMHI cooperative agreement is to support a national resource and assistance effort to implement and spread the medical home model to all children and youth, particularly children with special health care needs (CSHCN), children who are vulnerable and/or medically underserved, and pediatric populations served by state public health programs, the Maternal and Child Health Bureau (MCHB), and HRSA. The supplement will permit the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), the cooperative agreement awardee, during the budget period of July 1, 2016-June 30, 2017, to enhance their capacity to provide technical assistance and health professional education to increase the clinical expertise of pediatric health care professionals, including safety net providers, to more effectively serve as the medical home and provide family-centered, comprehensive, coordinated, and culturally-effective care for Zika-affected children and their families.
Marie Y. Mann, MD, MPH, FAAP, Division of Services for Children with Special Health Needs, Maternal and Child Health Bureau, Health Resources and Services Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 18W61, Rockville, Maryland 20857;
Social Security Act, Title V, sections 501(a)(1)(D) and 501(a)(2), (42 U.S.C. 701(a)(1)(D) and 701(a)(2))
The purpose of the NCMHI cooperative agreement is to support a national resource and assistance effort to implement and spread the medical home model to all children and youth, particularly CSHCN, children who are vulnerable and/or medically underserved, and pediatric populations served by state public health programs, MCHB, and HRSA. In 2013, following objective review of its competitive application, HRSA awarded the NCMHI cooperative agreement to AAP, a nonprofit, tax-exempt organization under Internal Revenue Code 501(c)(3).
This supplement to the NCMHI cooperative agreement provides technical assistance and education, including tele-mentoring, to clinicians providing care for children who are or may be impacted by Zika at HRSA-supported health centers and elsewhere within the United States (including U.S. territories and jurisdictions). Using the tele-mentoring technology, clinicians will team with specialists elsewhere to provide clinicians with the tools and resources to improve care delivery within the medical home, thereby increasing the sustainability of the medical home model for children affected by Zika. Though available to all clinicians, technical assistance and education will be directed primarily toward pediatric primary care physicians in areas at high-risk for Zika and toward clinicians operating in health centers supported by HRSA's Bureau of Primary Health Care. These activities will provide critical knowledge to health care professionals, including safety net providers, to more effectively serve as the medical home for children affected by Zika and their families.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of a meeting of the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Advisory Council.
The meeting will be open to the public as indicated below, with attendance limited to space available. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance, such as sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodations, should notify the Contact Person listed below in advance of the meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose
Any interested person may file written comments with the committee by forwarding the statement to the Contact Person listed on this notice. The statement should include the name, address, telephone number and when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person.
In the interest of security, NIH has instituted stringent procedures for entrance onto the NIH campus. All visitor vehicles, including taxicabs, hotel, and airport shuttles will be inspected before being allowed on campus. Visitors will be asked to show one form of identification (for example, a government-issued photo ID, driver's license, or passport) and to state the purpose of their visit.
Information is also available on the Institute's/Center's home page:
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be open to the public as indicated below, with
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
This notice is being published less than 15 days prior to the meeting due to the timing limitations imposed by the review and funding cycle.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
The
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the National Cancer Institute's Technology Transfer Center on or before October 11, 2016 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent application, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated Exclusive Commercialization Patent License should be directed to: Surekha Vathyam, Ph.D., Senior Licensing and Patenting Manager, NCI Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, RM 1E530 MSC 9702, Bethesda, MD 20892-9702 (for business mail), Rockville, MD 20850-9702; Telephone: (240) 276-5530; Facsimile: (240) 276-5504; Email:
United States Provisional Patent Application No. 62/244,594, filed October 21, 2015 and entitled “Codon-optimized Reduced-size ATP7A cDNA and Uses for Treatment of Copper Transport Disorders” [HHS Reference No. E-062-2015/0-US-01].
The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned and/or exclusively licensed to the government of the United States of America.
The prospective exclusive license territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to the use of Licensed Patent Rights for the following: “Development and commercialization of adeno-associated virus-based vectors for the treatment of Menkes Disease and related copper transport disorders.”
This technology discloses a codon-optimized reduced-size Adenosine Triphosphate 7A (ATP7-alpha or ATP7A) cDNA, vectors, and recombinant adeno-associated viruses (AAVs) and uses thereof for treatment of copper transport disorders. Such uses, include the administration of copper in addition to ATP7A in order to maximize the advantage of the gene therapy.
Human P-type ATPase copper-transporting ATPase 1 (ATP7A) transports copper from enterocytes (where it is taken up from dietary copper) into the blood. ATP7A also mediates passage of copper across the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier and the blood-brain barrier. In Menkes disease and occipital horn syndrome (OHS), ATP7A activity is reduced or absent and copper export from the enterocytes is impaired. As a result, copper accumulates in intestinal cells and less copper is delivered to the blood, resulting in restricted copper supply to other tissues, particularly the brain. If successfully developed, this invention would be a first of its kind therapy for treating copper transport disorders, such as Menkes disease, OHS, or ATP7A-related distal motor neuropathy, by administering the disclosed nucleic acid, vector, or recombinant virus to a subject with a copper transport disorder.
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective Exclusive Commercialization Patent License will be royalty bearing and may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the National Cancer Institute receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the
Complete applications for a license in the prospective field of use that are filed in response to this notice will be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated Exclusive Commercialization Patent License Agreement. Comments and objections submitted to this notice will not be made available for public inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the
National Institutes of Health.
Notice.
The National Cancer Institute, National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services, is contemplating the grant of a Start-up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License to MedGene Therapeutics, Inc. (“MedGene”) located in Bethesda, MD to practice the inventions embodied in the patent applications listed Supplementary Information section of this notice.
Only written comments and/or applications for a license which are received by the NCI Technology Transfer Center on or before October 11, 2016 will be considered.
Requests for copies of the patent applications, inquiries, and comments relating to the contemplated Start-up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License should be directed to: Andrew Burke, Ph.D., Licensing and Patenting Manager, NCI Technology Transfer Center, 9609 Medical Center Drive, RM 1E530 MSC 9702, Bethesda, MD 20892-9702 (for business mail), Rockville, MD 20850-9702 Telephone: (240) 276-5530; Facsimile: (240) 276-5504; Email:
United States Provisional Patent Application No. 61/771,251 filed March 1, 2013, entitled “Methods of Producing Enriched Populations of Tumor Reactive T Cells from Peripheral Blood” [HHS Reference No. E-085-2013/0-US-01]; and PCT Application No. PCT/US2013/038813 filed April 30, 2013 entitled “Methods of Producing Enriched Populations of Tumor Reactive T Cells from Peripheral Blood” [HHS Reference No. E-085-2013/0-PCT-02] (and U.S. and foreign patent applications claiming priority to the aforementioned applications).
The patent rights in these inventions have been assigned to the government of the United States of America.
The prospective Start-up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License territory may be worldwide and the field of use may be limited to the development, manufacture and commercialization of autologous tumor-reactive peripheral blood T cell therapy products as set forth in the Licensed Patent Rights for the treatment of metastatic follicular thyroid cancer and metastatic soft tissue sarcomas in humans.
The present invention describes a method of selecting highly tumor-reactive T cells from autologous peripheral blood samples based on the expression of two specific T cell surface markers: Programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1; CD279) and/or T cell Ig- and mucin-domain-containing molecule-3 (TIM-3). Following selection, isolated cells may be expanded and reinfused into the donor patient as part of an adoptive cell transfer therapeutic regimen. The disclosed method may be advantageous over existing approaches which rely on the isolation of T cells from tumor samples since it eliminates the cost and complications associated with tumor resection, as well as provides a T cell product for patients without resectable lesions.
This notice is made in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404. The prospective Start-up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License will be royalty bearing and the may be granted unless within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, the National Cancer Institute receives written evidence and argument that establishes that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR part 404.
Complete applications for a license in the prospective field of use that are timely filed in response to this notice will be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated Start-up Exclusive Evaluation Patent License. Comments and objections submitted to this notice will not be made available for public inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the
Dated: September 20, 2016.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of an Interagency Pain Research Coordinating Committee (IPRCC) meeting.
The meeting will feature invited speakers and discussions of committee business items including a progress report on implementation of the National Pain Strategy, updates on the Federal Pain Research Strategy and new pain initiatives.
The meeting will be open to the public and accessible by live webcast and conference call.
Submission of written/electronic statement for oral comments: Monday, October 24, 2016, by 5:00 p.m. ET.
Submission of written comments: Monday, October 24, 2016, by 5:00 p.m. ET.
Any member of the public interested in presenting oral comments to the Committee must notify the Contact Person listed on this notice by 5:00 p.m. ET on Monday, October 17, 2016, with their request to present oral comments at the meeting. Interested individuals and representatives of organizations must submit a written/electronic copy of the oral statement/comments including a brief description of the organization represented by 5:00 p.m. ET on Thursday, October 24, 2016.
Statements submitted will become a part of the public record. Only one representative of an organization will be allowed to present oral comments on behalf of that organization, and presentations will be limited to three to five minutes per speaker, depending on number of speakers to be accommodated within the allotted time. Speakers will be assigned a time to speak in the order of the date and time when their request to speak is received, along with the required submission of the written/electronic statement by the specified deadline. If special accommodations are needed, please email the Contact Person listed above.
In addition, any interested person may submit written comments to the IPRCC prior to the meeting by sending the comments to the Contact Person listed on this notice by 5:00 p.m. ET, Monday, October 24, 2016. The comments should include the name and, when applicable, the business or professional affiliation of the interested person. All written comments received by the deadlines for both oral and written public comments will be provided to the IPRCC for their consideration and will become part of the public record.
The meeting will be open to the public and webcast live on the Internet. If you experience any technical problems with the webcast, please call the NIH IT Service Desk at (301) 496-4357, toll free (866) 319-4357, for webcast issues.
Individuals who participate in person or by using the wed service and who need special assistance, such as captioning, should submit a request to the Contact Person listed on this notice at least seven days prior to the meeting.
As a part of security procedures, attendees should be prepared to present a photo ID during the security process to get on the NIH campus. For a full description, please see:
Information about the IPRCC is available on the Web site:
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee meeting.
The National Boating Safety Advisory Council and its Subcommittees will meet on October 20, 21 and 22, 2016, in Arlington, VA, to discuss issues relating to recreational boating safety. These meetings will be open to the public.
The National Boating Safety Advisory Council will meet on Thursday, October 20, 2016, from 8:00 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. and on Saturday, October 22, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. The Boats and Associated Equipment Subcommittee will meet on October 20, 2016, from 2:45 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. The Prevention through People Subcommittee will meet on October 21, 2016, from 8:30 a.m. to 11:45 a.m. The Recreational Boating Safety Strategic Planning Subcommittee will meet on October 21, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. Please note that these meetings may conclude early if the National Boating Safety Advisory Council has completed all business.
All meetings will be held in the Ballroom of the Holiday Inn Arlington (
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact the individual listed in the
Mr. Jeff Ludwig, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the National Boating Safety Advisory Council, telephone (202) 372-1061, or at
Notice of this meeting is given under the
The agenda for the National Boating Safety Advisory Council meeting is as follows:
(1) Opening remarks and presentation of awards to outgoing members.
(2) Receipt and discussion of the following reports:
(a) Chief, Office of Auxiliary and Boating Safety, Update on the Coast Guard's implementation of National Boating Safety Advisory Council Resolutions and Recreational Boating Safety Program report.
(b) Alternate Designated Federal Officer's report concerning Council administrative and logistical matters.
(3) Presentations on the following:
(a) Distracted Driving.
(b) Human Performance in Investigations.
(c) Human Factors Analysis and Classification System.
(4) Subcommittee Session: Boats and Associated Equipment Subcommittee.
Issues to be discussed include alternatives to pyrotechnic visual distress signals; grant projects related to boats and associated equipment; and updates to 33 CFR 181 “Manufacturer Requirements” and 33 CFR 183 “Boats and Associated Equipment.”
(5) Public comment period.
(6) Meeting Recess.
The day will be dedicated to Subcommittee sessions:
(1)
Issues to be discussed include paddlesports participation, overview of State boating Safety programs, and licensing requirements for on-water boating safety instruction providers.
(2)
Issues to be discussed include progress on implementation of the 2012-2016 Strategic Plan, and development of the 2017-2021 Strategic Plan.
The full Council will resume meeting.
(1) Receipt and Discussion of the Boats and Associated Equipment, Prevention through People and The Recreational Boating Safety Strategic Planning Subcommittee reports.
(2) Discussion of any recommendations to be made to the Coast Guard.
(3) Public comment period.
(4) Voting on any recommendations to be made to the Coast Guard.
(5) Adjournment of meeting.
There will be a comment period for the National Boating Safety Advisory Council members and a comment period for the public after each report presentation, but before each is voted on by the Council. The Council members will review the information presented on each issue, deliberate on any recommendations presented in the Subcommittees' reports, and formulate recommendations for the Department's consideration.
The meeting agenda and all meeting documentation can be found at:
Public comments or questions will be taken throughout the meeting as the Council discusses the issues and prior to deliberations and voting. There will also be a public comment period at the end of the meeting. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 3 minutes. Please note that the public comment period may end before the period allotted, following the call for comments. Contact the individual listed in the
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
Committee Management; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Public Meeting.
The U.S. Customs and Border Protection User Fee Advisory Committee (UFAC) will meet on Wednesday, October 19, 2016, in Miami, FL. The meeting will be open to the public.
The UFAC will meet on Wednesday, October 19, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. to 3:00 p.m. EDT. Please note that the meeting is scheduled for two hours and that the meeting may close early if the committee completes its business.
Please feel free to share this information with other interested members of your organization or association.
Members of the public who are pre-registered and later require cancellation, please do so in advance of the meeting by accessing one (1) of the following links:
The meeting will be held at the Pullman Miami Hotel, 5800 Blue Lagoon Drive, Paris Ballroom, Miami, FL 33126. There will be signage posted directing visitors to the location of the conference room.
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities, or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact Ms. Wanda Tate, Office of Trade Relations, U.S. Customs and Border Protection at (202) 344-1661 as soon as possible.
To facilitate public participation, we are inviting public comment on the topics to be discussed by the committee, prior to the meeting as listed in the “Agenda” section below.
Comments must be submitted in writing no later than October 14, 2016, and must be identified by Docket No. USCBP-2016-0052, and may be submitted by
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There will be two (2) public comment periods held during the meeting on October 19, 2016. Speakers are requested to limit their comments to two (2) minutes or less to facilitate
Ms. Wanda Tate, Office of Trade Relations, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 1300 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Room 3.5A, Washington, DC 20229; telephone (202) 344-1440; facsimile (202) 325-4290.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix), the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) hereby announces the meeting of the U.S. Customs and Border Protection User Fee Advisory Committee (UFAC). The UFAC is tasked with providing advice to the Secretary of Homeland Security (DHS) through the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) on matters related to the performance of inspections coinciding with the assessment of an agriculture, customs, or immigration user fee.
1. The Financial Assessment and Options Subcommittee will review and discuss the work that has been completed, so that the UFAC can deliberate upon and, if appropriate, vote on recommendations.
2. Public Comment Period.
3. The Process Improvements Subcommittee will review and discuss the work that has been completed, so that the UFAC can deliberate upon and, if appropriate, vote on recommendations.
4. Public Comment Period.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
The Federal Emergency Management Agency, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on a revision of a currently approved information collection. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, this notice seeks comments concerning the Homeland Security Grant Program (HSGP).
Comments must be submitted on or before November 25, 2016.
To avoid duplicate submissions to the docket, please use only one of the following means to submit comments:
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(2)
All submissions received must include the agency name and Docket ID. Regardless of the method used for submitting comments or material, all submissions will be posted, without change, to the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Paul Belkin, Branch Chief, FEMA, Grant Programs Directorate, 202-786-9771. You may contact the Records Management Division for copies of the proposed collection of information at email address:
FEMA's Homeland Security Grant Program (HSGP) supports State and local efforts to prevent terrorism and other catastrophic events and to prepare the Nation for the threats and hazards that pose the greatest risk to the security of the United States. The HSGP provides funding to implement investments that build, sustain, and deliver the 31 core capabilities essential to achieving the National Preparedness Goal (the Goal) of a secure and resilient Nation. The building, sustainment, and delivery of these core capabilities are not exclusive to any single level of government, organization, or community, but rather, require the combined effort of the whole community. The HSGP supports core capabilities across the five mission areas of Prevention, Protection, Mitigation, Response, and Recovery based on allowable costs. HSGP is comprised of three grant programs: State Homeland Security Program (SHSP), Urban Area Security Initiative (UASI), and Operation Stonegarden (OPSG). Together, these grant programs fund a range of activities, including planning, organization, equipment purchase, training, exercises, and management and administration across all core capabilities and mission areas. The authorizing authority of the HSGP is Section 2002 of the Homeland Security Act of 2002, as amended (Pub. L. 107-296), (6 U.S.C. 603).
The HSGP is a primary funding mechanism for building and sustaining national preparedness capabilities. The HSGP is comprised of three separate grant programs: The SHSP, the UASI,
Comments may be submitted as indicated in the
Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of Critical Infrastructure Partnership Advisory Council meeting.
The Critical Infrastructure Partnership Advisory Council (CIPAC) will meet Tuesday, October 18, 2016, at the Crystal Gateway Marriott, Arlington Ballroom, Salon IV, 1700 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202. This meeting will be open to the public.
The CIPAC Plenary will meet on October 18, 2016. The meeting will be held from 10:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m. EDT. The meeting may adjourn early if the committee has completed its business. For additional information about CIPAC, please consult the CIPAC Web site,
1700 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, VA 22202.
While this meeting is open to the public, participation in the CIPAC deliberations is limited to committee members, Department of Homeland Security officials, and persons invited to attend the meeting for special presentations.
Immediately following the council member panel discussion period, there will be a limited time period for public comment on only the agenda items as listed in the
Written comments may be sent to Renee Murphy, CIPAC Designated Federal Officer, Department of Homeland Security, National Protection and Programs Directorate, 245 Murray Lane SW., Mail Stop 0607, Arlington, VA 20598-0607. Written comments must be received by Renee Murphy by no later than 5:00 p.m. EDT, October 17, 2016, identified by
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Cheryl Fenoli, Department of Homeland Security, National Protection and Programs Directorate, Office of Infrastructure Protection, Sector Outreach and Programs Division, Partnership Coordination Section, 245 Murray Lane SW., Mail Stop 0607, Arlington, VA 20598-0607, telephone 703-603-5087 or via email at
The CIPAC Plenary convenes the critical infrastructure owner and operator members of the Sector Coordinating Councils, including their representative trade associations and Federal, State, local, tribal and territorial governmental entities comprising the members of the Government Coordinating Council, including their representative organizations for all sixteen (16) sectors, members of the State, Local, Tribal and Territorial Government Coordinating Council, Regional Consortium Coordinating Council, Critical Infrastructure Cross-Sector Council and representatives of other Federal agencies to include the Federal Senior Leadership Council with responsibility for critical infrastructure activities.
The October 18, 2016 meeting will include council updates and panel discussions between participating members regarding issues relevant to critical infrastructure security and resilience.
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact the CIPAC Executive Secretariat at 703-603-5087 as soon as possible.
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until October 26, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
The designation of Sierra Leone for Temporary Protected Status (TPS) is set to expire on November 21, 2016. After reviewing relevant country conditions and consulting with the appropriate U.S. Government (Government) agencies, the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) has determined that conditions in Sierra Leone no longer support its designation for TPS and is therefore extending TPS benefits for 6 months for the purpose of orderly transition before the TPS designation of Sierra Leone terminates. This termination will be effective May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) who have been granted TPS under the Sierra Leone designation will automatically retain their TPS and have their current TPS-based Employment Authorization Documents (EAD) extended through May 20, 2017. However, an individual's TPS may still be withdrawn because of ineligibility for TPS. On May 21, 2017, nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) who have been granted TPS under the Sierra Leone designation will no longer have TPS.
The designation of Sierra Leone for TPS is terminated effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017.
• For further information on TPS, please visit the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) TPS Web page at
• You can also contact Jerry Rigdon, Chief of the Waivers and Temporary Services Branch, Service Center Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2060; or by phone at 202-272-1533 (this is not a toll-free number).
• Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
• Further information will also be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice.
• TPS is a temporary immigration status granted to eligible nationals of a country designated for TPS under the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), or to eligible persons without nationality who last habitually resided in the designated country.
• During the TPS designation period, TPS beneficiaries are eligible to remain in the United States, may not be removed, and are authorized to work and obtain EADs so long as they continue to meet the requirements of TPS.
• TPS beneficiaries may also be granted travel authorization as a matter of discretion.
• The granting of TPS does not result in or lead to permanent resident status.
• To qualify for TPS, beneficiaries must meet the eligibility criteria described in INA section 244(c), 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c) and 8 CFR part 244.
• When the Secretary terminates a country's TPS designation, beneficiaries return to the same immigration status they maintained before TPS, if any (unless that status has since expired or been terminated), or to any other immigration status they lawfully obtained while registered for TPS.
On November 21, 2014, the Secretary designated Sierra Leone for TPS for a period of 18 months due to the extraordinary and temporary conditions caused by an epidemic of Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in West Africa that prevented nationals of Sierra Leone from returning to Sierra Leone in safety. The conditions included high EVD transmission rates in wide-spread geographic areas, overwhelmed health care systems unable to handle the large number of EVD patients or to provide treatment for normally preventable or treatable conditions, and containment measures that were causing significant disruptions to Sierra Leone's economy and individuals' ability to access food and earn a livelihood.
Section 244(b)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1), authorizes the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, to designate a foreign state (or part thereof) for TPS if the Secretary determines that certain country conditions exist.
At least 60 days before the expiration of a country's TPS designation or extension, the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate
DHS and the Department of State (DOS) have reviewed conditions in Sierra Leone. Based on the reviews and after consulting with DOS, the Secretary has determined that the termination of the TPS designation of Sierra Leone, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, is required because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Sierra Leone's designation for TPS have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Sierra Leone from returning in safety.
Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone were designated for TPS in the midst of the largest EVD outbreak in history. From March 2014 through November 2015, these three countries suffered over 11,000 deaths among their more than 28,500 cases of EVD. At the height of the outbreak in late 2014, Ebola was spreading rapidly, with hundreds of new cases being reported each week, the health care systems overwhelmed, and containment measures causing significant disruptions to individuals' ability to access food and earn a livelihood. While the impacts of the epidemic pose a lasting challenge to Sierra Leone's economy and the capacity of its health system to provide treatment for preventable or treatable conditions, at this time, the EVD epidemic has subsided, and conditions have improved since the Secretary initially designated Sierra Leone for TPS.
A robust response by the international community and the governments of Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone has brought the EVD epidemic in West Africa under control and begun the long-term work of rebuilding regional economies and health systems. In Sierra Leone, the EVD epidemic started in May 2014 and peaked between October and December 2014. Sierra Leone's government and international partners mounted an effective response that dramatically decreased the number of new EVD cases from a high of 500 per week in late 2014 to between 8 to 12 cases in June 2015, to single digits in August 2015. After a small cluster (2 cases) of EVD in January 2016, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared Sierra Leone free of EVD transmission as of March 17, 2016. As of June 2016, Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone were all free of EVD transmission. While the risk of flare-ups of EVD remains, efforts are underway to promote, over time, robust prevention, surveillance, and response capacity across all three countries.
In Sierra Leone, donors and the Sierra Leone government are closing down most of their EVD-specific facilities and transitioning relevant equipment to other health care needs. The Sierra Leone government and international partners continue to monitor infection control and prevention measures at hospitals. Schools are open and business hours have been extended to help jump-start economic activity. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has no Ebola-related Travel Health Notice in place for Sierra Leone as of the date of this Notice.
While health systems and facilities remain fragile, medical centers are no longer overwhelmed by patients with EVD. High rates of child mortality both before and since the EVD epidemic are indicative of the overall fragility of the health system. Although this is comparable to other countries in the region, systems in Sierra Leone must also be able to address ongoing issues of trust between healthcare facilities and communities, as well as continue to care for Ebola survivors who have a series of ongoing and previously unforeseen health conditions, both of which will continue to exacerbate and underscore the fragility of these systems. Normal business activity and national life have largely resumed, although work is ongoing to rebuild Sierra Leone's economy and health care system. On March 29, 2016, the WHO Director-General declared the end of the Public Health Emergency of International Concern regarding the EVD outbreak in West Africa. In conjunction with ending the public health emergency, the WHO emphasized there should be no restrictions on travel and trade with Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone.
Based upon this review and after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, the Secretary has determined that Sierra Leone no longer continues to meet the statutorily required conditions for a TPS designation on the basis of extraordinary and temporary conditions, because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Sierra Leone's TPS designation have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Sierra Leone from returning to Sierra Leone in safety. Therefore, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, the Secretary is terminating the TPS designation of Sierra Leone effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017.
To provide for an orderly transition, individuals who have been granted TPS under Sierra Leone's designation will automatically retain TPS and have their current EADs extended until the termination date.
By the authority vested in me as Secretary under INA section 244, 8 U.S.C. 1254a, I have determined, after consultation with the appropriate Government agencies, that Sierra Leone no longer meets the conditions for designation of TPS under 244(b)(1) of the Act. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1).
Accordingly, I order as follows:
(1) Pursuant to INA section 244(b)(3)(B), the designation of Sierra Leone for TPS is terminated effective at
(2) DHS estimates that there are approximately 1,180 nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) who currently receive TPS benefits.
(3) To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) who have been granted TPS under the Sierra Leone designation will automatically retain TPS until the May 21, 2017 termination date. However, an individual's TPS may still be withdrawn before this date pursuant to INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR 244.14 because of ineligibility for TPS.
(4) TPS-related EADs that expire on November 21, 2016, are extended automatically through May 20, 2017, for qualified nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone).
(5) Information concerning the termination of TPS for nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) will be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice and through the USCIS National Customer Service Center at 1-800-375-5283. This information will be published on the USCIS Web site at
No. If you already have been granted TPS benefits through the Sierra Leone TPS program, you do not have to re-register to keep your TPS benefits. You will automatically retain TPS until the termination date. However, your TPS may still be withdrawn under INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR part 244 because of ineligibility for TPS. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c)(3), 8 CFR 244.14. When termination becomes effective on May 21, 2017, you will no longer have TPS.
The Secretary has decided to extend automatically the validity of EADs to provide for an orderly transition leading up to the effective date for the termination of the Sierra Leone TPS designation. Therefore, the validity of the applicable EADs is extended for a period of 6 months, through May 20, 2017. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(a)(2) and (d)(3).
No. Qualified individuals do not have to apply for this extension of their TPS-related EADs through May 20, 2017.
This Notice terminates the designation of Sierra Leone for TPS. Nationals of Sierra Leone (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone) in the United States who believe returning to Sierra Leone is not possible or preferable for them may be eligible to apply for another immigration status, such as lawful permanent residence, asylum, or a nonimmigrant status. Eligibility for these and other immigration benefits is determined individually on a case-by-case basis. For information about eligibility and how to apply, visit the USCIS Web site at
After the termination of the TPS designation of Sierra Leone becomes effective on May 21, 2017, former TPS beneficiaries will maintain the same immigration status they held before TPS (unless the status has since expired or been terminated) or any other status they may have acquired while registered for TPS. Accordingly, if a TPS beneficiary held no lawful immigration status before being granted TPS and did not obtain any other status during the TPS period, he or she may be subject to removal upon the termination of the TPS designation. TPS-related EADs will expire on May 20, 2017, and will not be renewed.
Termination of the TPS designation for Sierra Leone does not necessarily affect pending applications for other forms of immigration status, relief, or protection. However, former TPS beneficiaries will begin to accrue unlawful presence as of May 21, 2017, if they have not been granted any other immigration status, relief, protection, or authorization to remain in the United States.
To get case status information about your request for an EAD, you can check Case Status Online at
Provided that you currently have TPS under the designation of Sierra Leone, this Notice automatically extends your EAD by 6 months if you:
• Are a national of Sierra Leone (or an alien having no nationality who last habitually resided in Sierra Leone);
• Received an EAD under the last designation of TPS for Sierra Leone; and
• Have an EAD with a marked expiration date of November 21, 2016, bearing the notation “A-12” or “C-19” on the face of the card under “Category.”
You can find a list of acceptable document choices on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Form I-9. You can find additional detailed information on the USCIS I-9 Central Web page at
You may present any document from List A (reflecting both your identity and employment authorization) or one document from List B (reflecting identity) together with one document from List C (reflecting employment authorization). An EAD is an acceptable document under “List A.” Or you may
If your EAD has an expiration date of November 21, 2016, and states “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category,” it has been extended automatically for 6 months by virtue of this
Even though EADs with an expiration date of November 21, 2016, that state “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category” have been automatically extended for 6 months by this
By May 20, 2017, the expiration date of the automatic extension, your employer must reverify your employment authorization. If you are employment authorized beyond the expiration date of the automatic extension, you must present any unexpired document from List A or any unexpired document from List C on
No. When completing Form I-9, including reverifying employment authorization, employers must accept any documentation that appears on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Form I-9 that reasonably appears to be genuine and that relates to you or an acceptable List A, List B, or List C receipt. Employers may not request documentation that does not appear on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents.” Therefore, employers may not request proof of Sierra Leonean citizenship or proof of re-registration for TPS when completing
After May 20, 2017, employers may no longer accept the EADs that this
When using an automatically extended EAD to complete
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Check “An alien authorized to work;”
b. Write the automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017) in the first space; and
c. Write your alien number (USCIS number or A-number) in the second space (your EAD or other document from DHS will have your USCIS number or A-number printed on it; the USCIS number is the same as your A-number without the A prefix).
2. For Section 2, employers should record the:
a. Document title;
b. Issuing authority;
c. Document number; and
d. Automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017).
No later than May 20, 2017, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3 of Form I-9.
If you are an existing employee who presented a TPS-related EAD that was valid when you first started your job but that EAD has now been automatically extended, your employer may need to reinspect your automatically extended EAD if your employer does not have a
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date in the first space;
b. Write “May 20, 2017” above the previous date;
c. Write “TPS Ext.” in the margin of Section 1; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 1.
2. For Section 2, employers should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date written in Section 2;
b. Write “May 20, 2017” above the previous date;
c. Write “EAD Ext.” in the margin of Section 2; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 2.
No later than May 21, 2017, when the automatic extension of EADs expires, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3.
Employers are required to reverify an employee's employment authorization in Section 3 of Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) by the expiration date of an automatically extended EAD. Your employee must present unexpired documentation from either List A or List C (or an acceptable Form I-9 receipt) showing he or she is still authorized to work. Employers may not ask for specific documents; employees choose which List A or List C documents to present from the Lists of Acceptable Documents.
If you have an employee who is a TPS beneficiary who provided a TPS-related EAD when he or she first started working for you, you will receive a “Work Authorization Documents Expiring” case alert when the auto-extension period for this EAD is about to expire. E-Verify will not send an alert for the original November 21, 2016 expiration date. By May 20, 2017, employment authorization must be reverified in Section 3. Employers should not use E-Verify for reverification.
Employers are reminded that the laws requiring proper employment eligibility verification and prohibiting unfair immigration-related employment practices remain in full force. This
For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, you may call USCIS at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email
To comply with the law, employers must accept any document or combination of documents from the Lists of Acceptable Documents if the documentation reasonably appears to be genuine and to relate to the employee, or an acceptable receipt described in the
Employers may not terminate, suspend, delay training, withhold pay, lower pay, or take any adverse action against you based on your decision to contest a TNC or because the case is still pending with E-Verify. A Final Nonconfirmation (FNC) case result is received when E-Verify cannot verify your employment eligibility. An employer may terminate employment based on a case result of FNC. Work-authorized employees who receive an FNC may call USCIS for assistance at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028). If you believe you were discriminated against by an employer in the E-Verify process based on citizenship, immigration status, or national origin, you may contact OSC's Worker Information Hotline at 800-255-7688 (TTY 800-237-2515). Additional information about proper nondiscriminatory Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) and E-Verify procedures is available on the OSC Web site at
While Federal Government agencies must follow the guidelines laid out by the Federal Government, State and local government agencies establish their own rules and guidelines when granting certain benefits. Each State may have different laws, requirements, and determinations about what documents you need to provide to prove eligibility for certain benefits. Whether you are applying for a Federal, State, or local government benefit, you may need to provide the government agency with documents that show you are a TPS beneficiary and/or show you are authorized to work based on TPS. Examples are:
(1) Your unexpired EAD;
(2) A copy of this
(3) A copy of your Application for Temporary Protected Status Notice of Action (Form I-797);
(4) A copy of your past or current Application for Temporary Protected Status Approval Notice (Form I-797), if you received one from USCIS; and/or
(5) If there is an automatic extension of work authorization, a copy of the fact sheet from the USCIS TPS Web site that provides information on the automatic extension.
Check with the government agency regarding which document(s) the agency will accept. You may also provide the
Some benefit-granting agencies use the USCIS Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements Program (SAVE) to confirm the current immigration status of applicants for public benefits. In most cases, SAVE provides an automated electronic response to benefit granting agencies within seconds but occasionally verification can be delayed. You can check the status of your SAVE verification by using CaseCheck at the following link:
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
The designation of Liberia for Temporary Protected Status (TPS) is set to expire on November 21, 2016. After reviewing relevant country conditions and consulting with the appropriate U.S. Government (Government) agencies, the Secretary of Homeland Security (Secretary) has determined that conditions in Liberia no longer support its designation for TPS and is therefore extending TPS benefits for 6 months for the purpose of orderly transition before the TPS designation of Liberia terminates. This termination will be effective May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) who have been granted TPS under the Liberia designation will automatically retain their TPS and have their current TPS-based Employment Authorization Documents (EAD) extended through May 20, 2017. However, an individual's TPS may still be withdrawn because of ineligibility for TPS. On May 21, 2017, nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) who have been granted TPS under the Liberia designation will no longer have TPS.
The designation of Liberia for TPS is terminated effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017.
• For further information on TPS, please visit the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) TPS Web page at
• You can also contact Jerry Rigdon, Chief of the Waivers and Temporary Services Branch, Service Center Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2060; or by phone at 202-272-1533 (this is not a toll-free number). Note: The phone number provided here is solely for questions regarding this TPS Notice. It is not for individual case status inquires.
• Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
• Further information will also be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice.
• TPS is a temporary immigration status granted to eligible nationals of a country designated for TPS under the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), or to eligible persons without nationality who last habitually resided in the designated country.
• During the TPS designation period, TPS beneficiaries are eligible to remain in the United States, may not be removed, and are authorized to work and obtain EADs so long as they continue to meet the requirements of TPS.
• TPS beneficiaries may also be granted travel authorization as a matter of discretion.
• The granting of TPS does not result in or lead to permanent resident status.
• To qualify for TPS, beneficiaries must meet the eligibility criteria described in INA section 244(c), 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c) and 8 CFR part 244.
• When the Secretary terminates a country's TPS designation, beneficiaries return to the same immigration status they maintained before TPS, if any (unless that status has since expired or been terminated), or to any other immigration status they lawfully obtained while registered for TPS.
On November 21, 2014, the Secretary designated Liberia for TPS for a period of 18 months due to the extraordinary and temporary conditions caused by an epidemic of Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in West Africa that prevented nationals of Liberia from returning to Liberia in safety. The conditions included high EVD transmission rates in wide-spread geographic areas, overwhelmed health care systems unable to handle the large number of EVD patients or to provide treatment for normally preventable or treatable conditions, and containment
Section 244(b)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1), authorizes the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, to designate a foreign state (or part thereof) for TPS if the Secretary determines that certain country conditions exist.
At least 60 days before the expiration of a country's TPS designation or extension, the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, must review the conditions in a foreign state designated for TPS to determine whether the conditions for the TPS designation continue to be met.
DHS and the Department of State (DOS) have reviewed conditions in Liberia. Based on the reviews and after consulting with DOS, the Secretary has determined that the termination of the TPS designation of Liberia, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, is required because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Liberia's designation for TPS have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Liberia from returning in safety.
Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone were designated for TPS in the midst of the largest EVD outbreak in history. From March 2014 through November 2015, these three countries suffered over 11,000 deaths among their more than 28,500 cases of EVD. At the height of the outbreak in late 2014, Ebola was spreading rapidly, with hundreds of new cases being reported each week, the health care systems overwhelmed, and containment measures causing significant disruptions to individuals' ability to access food and earn a livelihood. While the impacts of the epidemic pose a lasting challenge to Liberia's economy and the capacity of its health system to provide treatment for preventable or treatable conditions, at this time, the EVD epidemic has subsided, and conditions have improved since the Secretary initially designated Liberia for TPS.
A robust response by the international community and the governments of Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone has brought the EVD epidemic in West Africa under control and begun the long-term work of rebuilding regional economies and health systems. As of June 2016, Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone are all free of EVD. A country is considered free of EVD transmission after 42 days have passed since the last known person in the country with Ebola receives a second consecutive negative blood test for the virus. While the risk of flare-ups of EVD remains, efforts are underway to promote, over time, robust prevention, surveillance, and response capacity across all three countries.
In Liberia, the government and citizens partnered in a successful effort to control the epidemic and rapidly respond to any new cases. Commerce and imports have begun to rebound, and basic services have returned to pre-EVD outbreak levels. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has no Ebola-related Travel Health Notice in place for Liberia as of the date of this Notice.
While health systems and facilities remain fragile, medical centers are no longer overwhelmed by patients with EVD. High rates of child mortality both before and since the EVD epidemic are indicative of the overall fragility of the health system. Although this is comparable to other countries in the region, systems in Liberia must also be able to address ongoing issues of trust between healthcare facilities and communities, as well as continue to care for Ebola survivors who have a series of ongoing and previously unforeseen health conditions, both of which will continue to exacerbate and underscore the fragility of these systems. Normal business activity and national life have largely resumed, although work is ongoing to rebuild Liberia's economy and health care system. On March 29, 2016, the WHO Director-General declared the end of the Public Health Emergency of International Concern regarding the EVD outbreak in West Africa. In conjunction with ending the public health emergency, the WHO emphasized that there should be no restrictions on travel and trade with Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone.
Based upon this review and after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, the Secretary has determined that Liberia no longer continues to meet the statutorily required conditions for a TPS designation on the basis of extraordinary and temporary conditions, because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Liberia's TPS designation have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Liberia from returning to Liberia in safety. Therefore, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, the Secretary is terminating the TPS designation of Liberia effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
To provide for an orderly transition, individuals who have been granted TPS under Liberia's designation will automatically retain TPS and have their current EADs extended until the
By the authority vested in me as Secretary under INA section 244, 8 U.S.C. 1254a, I have determined, after consultation with the appropriate Government agencies, that Liberia no longer meets the conditions for designation of TPS under INA section 244(b)(1). 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1).
Accordingly, I order as follows:
(1) Pursuant to INA section 244(b)(3)(B), the designation of Liberia for TPS is terminated effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
(2) DHS estimates that there are approximately 2,160 nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) who currently receive TPS benefits.
(3) To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) who have been granted TPS under the Liberia designation will automatically retain TPS until the May 21, 2017, termination date. However, an individual's TPS may be withdrawn before this date under INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR 244.14 because of ineligibility for TPS.
(4) TPS-based EADs that expire on November 21, 2016, are extended automatically through May 20, 2017, for qualified nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia).
(5) Information concerning the termination of TPS for nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) will be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this notice and through the USCIS National Customer Service Center at 1-800-375-5283. This information will be published on the USCIS Web site at
No. If you already have been granted TPS benefits through the Liberia TPS program, you do not have to re-register to keep your TPS benefits. You will automatically retain TPS until the termination date. However, your TPS may still be withdrawn under INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR part 244 because of ineligibility for TPS. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c)(3), 8 CFR 244.14. When termination becomes effective on May 21, 2017, you will no longer have TPS.
The Secretary has decided to extend automatically the validity of EADs to provide for an orderly transition leading up to the effective date for the termination of the Liberia TPS designation. Therefore, the validity of the applicable EADs is extended for a period of 6 months, through May 20, 2017. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(a)(2) and (d)(3).
No. Qualified individuals do not have to apply for this extension of their TPS-related EADs through May 20, 2017.
This Notice terminates the designation of Liberia for TPS. Nationals of Liberia (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia) in the United States who believe returning to Liberia is not possible or preferable for them may be eligible to apply for another immigration status, such as lawful permanent residence, asylum, or a nonimmigrant status. Eligibility for these and other immigration benefits is determined individually on a case-by-case basis. For information about eligibility and how to apply, visit the USCIS Web site at
After the termination of the TPS designation of Liberia becomes effective May 21, 2017, former TPS beneficiaries will maintain the same immigration status they held before TPS (unless the status has since expired or been terminated) or any other status they may have acquired while registered for TPS. Liberians who are included in the President's grant of Deferred Enforced Departure for Liberians, if extended past the current expiration date of September 30, 2016, will remain covered by Deferred Enforced Departure. Accordingly, if a TPS beneficiary held no lawful immigration status before being granted TPS and did not obtain any other status during the TPS period, he or she may be subject to removal upon the termination of the TPS designation. TPS-related EADs will expire on May 20, 2017, and will not be renewed.
Termination of the TPS designation for Liberia does not necessarily affect pending applications for other forms of immigration relief or protection. However, former TPS beneficiaries will begin to accrue unlawful presence as of May 21, 2017, if they have not been granted any other immigration status or protection or if they have no pending application to obtain benefits.
To get case status information about your request for an EAD, you can check Case Status Online at
Provided that you currently have TPS under the designation of Liberia, this Notice automatically extends your EAD by 6 months if you:
• Are a national of Liberia (or an alien having no nationality who last habitually resided in Liberia);
• Received an EAD under the last designation of TPS for Liberia; and
• Have an EAD with a marked expiration date of November 21, 2016, bearing the notation “A-12” or “C-19” on the face of the card under “Category.”
You can find a list of acceptable document choices on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Form I-9. You can find additional detailed information on the USCIS I-9 Central Web page at
You may present any document from List A (reflecting both your identity and employment authorization) or one document from List B (reflecting identity) together with one document from List C (reflecting employment authorization). An EAD is an acceptable document under “List A.” Or you may present an acceptable receipt for a List A, List B, or List C document as described in the Form I-9 Instructions. An acceptable receipt includes a document that shows an employee has applied to replace a required document that was lost, stolen, or damaged. If you present an acceptable receipt for the application of a replacement document, you must present your employer with the actual document within 90 days. Employers may not reject a document based on a future expiration date.
If your EAD has an expiration date of November 21, 2016, and states “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category,” it has been extended automatically for 6 months by virtue of this
Even though EADs with an expiration date of November 21, 2016, that state “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category” have been automatically extended for 6 months by this
By May 20, 2017, the expiration date of the automatic extension, your employer must reverify your employment authorization. If you are employment authorized beyond the expiration date of the automatic extension, you must present any unexpired document from List A or any unexpired document from List C on
No. When completing
After May 20, 2017, employers may no longer accept the EADs that this
When using an automatically extended EAD to complete Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) for a new job before May 20, 2017, you and your employer should do the following:
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Check “An alien authorized to work;”
b. Write the automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017) in the first space; and
c. Write your alien number (USCIS number or A-number) in the second space (your EAD or other document from DHS will have your USCIS number or A-number printed on it; the USCIS number is the same as your A-number without the A prefix).
2. For Section 2, employers should record the:
a. Document title;
b. Issuing authority;
c. Document number; and
d. Automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017).
No later than May 20, 2017, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3 of Form I-9.
If you are an existing employee who presented a TPS-related EAD that was valid when you first started your job, but that EAD has now been automatically extended, your employer may need to reinspect your automatically extended EAD if your employer does not have a photocopy of the EAD on file, and you and your employer should correct your previously completed Form I-9 as follows:
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date in the first space;
b. Write “May 20, 2017,” above the previous date;
c. Write “TPS Ext.” in the margin of Section 1; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 1.
2. For Section 2, employers should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date written in Section 2;
b. Write “May 20, 2017” above the previous date;
c. Write “EAD Ext.” in the margin of Section 2; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 2.
No later than May 20, 2017, when the automatic extension of EADs expires, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3.
Employers are required to reverify an employee's employment authorization in Section 3 of Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9) by the expiration date of an automatically extended EAD. Your employee must present unexpired documentation from either List A or List C (or an acceptable Form I-9 receipt) showing he or she is still authorized to work. Employers may not ask for specific documents; employees choose which List A or List C documents to present from the Lists of Acceptable Documents.
If you have an employee who is a TPS beneficiary who provided a TPS-related EAD when he or she first started working for you, you will receive a “Work Authorization Documents Expiring” case alert when the auto-extension period for this EAD is about to expire. E-Verify will not send an alert for the original November 21, 2016 expiration date. By May 20, 2017, employment authorization must be reverified in Section 3. Employers should not use E-Verify for reverification.
Employers are reminded that the laws requiring proper employment eligibility verification and prohibiting unfair immigration-related employment practices remain in full force. This
For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, you may call USCIS at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email
To comply with the law, employers must accept any document or combination of documents from the Lists of Acceptable Documents if the documentation reasonably appears to be genuine and to relate to the employee, or an acceptable receipt described in the
Employers may not terminate, suspend, delay training, withhold pay, lower pay, or take any adverse action against you based on your decision to contest a TNC or because the case is still pending with E-Verify. A Final Nonconfirmation (FNC) case result is received when E-Verify cannot verify your employment eligibility. An employer may terminate employment based on a case result of FNC. Work-authorized employees who receive an FNC may call USCIS for assistance at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028). If you believe you were discriminated against by an employer in the E-Verify process based on citizenship, immigration status, or national origin, you may contact OSC's Worker Information Hotline at 800-255-7688 (TTY 800-237-2515). Additional
While Federal Government agencies must follow the guidelines laid out by the Federal Government, State and local government agencies establish their own rules and guidelines when granting certain benefits. Each State may have different laws, requirements, and determinations about what documents you need to provide to prove eligibility for certain benefits. Whether you are applying for a Federal, State, or local government benefit, you may need to provide the government agency with documents that show you are a TPS beneficiary and/or show you are authorized to work based on TPS. Examples are:
(1) Your unexpired EAD;
(2) A copy of this
(3) A copy of your Application for Temporary Protected Status Notice of Action (Form I-797);
(4) A copy of your past or current Application for Temporary Protected Status Approval Notice (Form I-797), if you received one from USCIS; and/or
(5) If there is an automatic extension of work authorization, a copy of the fact sheet from the USCIS TPS Web site that provides information on the automatic extension.
Check with the government agency regarding which document(s) the agency will accept. You may also provide the agency with a copy of this
Some benefit-granting agencies use the USCIS Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements Program (SAVE) to confirm the current immigration status of applicants for public benefits. In most cases, SAVE provides an automated electronic response to benefit granting agencies within seconds but occasionally verification can be delayed. You can check the status of your SAVE verification by using CaseCheck at the following link:
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice.
The designation of Guinea for Temporary Protected Status (TPS) is set to expire on November 21, 2016. After reviewing country conditions and consulting with the appropriate U.S. Government (Government) agencies, the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security (Secretary) has determined that conditions in Guinea no longer support its designation for TPS and is therefore extending TPS benefits for 6 months for the purpose of orderly transition before the TPS designation of Guinea terminates. This termination will be effective May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) who have been granted TPS under the Guinea designation will automatically retain their TPS and have their current tps-based Employment Authorization Documents (EAD) extended through May 20, 2017. However, an individual's TPS may still be withdrawn because of ineligibility for TPS. On May 21, 2017, nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) who have been granted TPS under the Guinea designation will no longer have TPS.
The designation of Guinea for TPS is terminated effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017.
• For further information on TPS, please visit the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) TPS Web page at
• You can also contact Jerry Rigdon, Chief of the Waivers and Temporary Services Branch, Service Center Operations Directorate, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2060; or by phone at 202-272-1533 (this is not a toll-free number). Note: The phone number provided here is solely for questions regarding this TPS Notice. It is not for individual case status inquires.
• Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
• Further information will also be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice.
• TPS is a temporary immigration status granted to eligible nationals of a
• During the TPS designation period, TPS beneficiaries are eligible to remain in the United States, may not be removed, and are authorized to work and obtain EADs so long as they continue to meet the requirements of TPS.
• TPS beneficiaries may also be granted travel authorization as a matter of discretion.
• The granting of TPS does not result in or lead to permanent resident status.
• To qualify for TPS, beneficiaries must meet the eligibility criteria described in INA section 244(c), 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c) and 8 CFR part 244.
• When the Secretary terminates a country's TPS designation, beneficiaries return to the same immigration status they maintained before TPS, if any (unless that status has since expired or been terminated), or to any other immigration status they lawfully obtained while registered for TPS.
On November 21, 2014, the Secretary designated Guinea for TPS for a period of 18 months due to the extraordinary and temporary conditions caused by an epidemic of Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in West Africa that prevented nationals of Guinea from returning to Guinea in safety. The conditions included high EVD transmission rates in wide-spread geographic areas, overwhelmed health care systems unable to handle the large number of EVD patients or to provide treatment for normally preventable or treatable conditions, and containment measures that were causing significant disruptions to Guinea's economy and individuals' ability to access food and earn a livelihood.
Section 244(b)(1) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1), authorizes the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, to designate a foreign state (or part thereof) for TPS if the Secretary determines that certain country conditions exist.
At least 60 days before the expiration of a country's TPS designation or extension, the Secretary, after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, must review the conditions in a foreign state designated for TPS to determine whether the conditions for the TPS designation continue to be met.
DHS and the Department of State (DOS) have reviewed conditions in Guinea. Based on the reviews and after consulting with DOS, the Secretary has determined that the termination of the TPS designation of Guinea, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, is required because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Guinea's designation for TPS have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Guinea from returning in safety.
Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone were designated for TPS in the midst of the largest EVD outbreak in history. From March 2014 through November 2015, these three countries suffered over 11,000 deaths among their more than 28,500 cases of EVD. At the height of the outbreak in late 2014, Ebola was spreading rapidly, with hundreds of new cases being reported each week, the health care systems overwhelmed, and containment measures causing significant disruptions to individuals' ability to access food and earn a livelihood. While the impacts of the epidemic pose a lasting challenge to Guinea's economy and the capacity of its health system to provide treatment for preventable or treatable conditions, at this time, the EVD epidemic has subsided, and conditions have improved since the Secretary initially designated Guinea for TPS.
A robust response by the international community and the governments of Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone has brought the EVD epidemic in West Africa under control and begun the long-term work of rebuilding regional economies and health systems. Guinea was initially declared Ebola-free on December 29, 2015, by the World Health Organization (WHO). On March 29, 2016, the WHO Director-General declared the end of the Public Health Emergency of International Concern regarding the EVD outbreak in West Africa. In conjunction with ending the public health emergency, the WHO emphasized that there should be no restrictions on travel and trade with Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone. As of June 2016, the WHO declared Guinea free of Ebola transmission. A country is considered free of EVD transmission after 42 days have passed since the last known person in the country with EVD receives a second consecutive negative blood test for the virus. As of August 31, 2016, Guinea had completed a 90-day period of enhanced surveillance for EVD following the declaration that it was free of EVD transmission. While the risk of flare-ups of EVD remains, efforts are underway to promote, over time, robust prevention, surveillance, and response capacity across all three countries.
The Guinean government has established response and containment measures to detect the movement of symptomatic persons and conducts in-home monitoring of those who have been exposed to EVD. Guineans return daily from travel abroad, and airlines are operating almost at capacity. While health systems and facilities remain
Based upon this review and after consultation with appropriate Government agencies, the Secretary has determined that Guinea no longer continues to meet the statutorily required conditions for a TPS designation on the basis of extraordinary and temporary conditions, because the extraordinary and temporary conditions that prompted Guinea's TPS designation have substantially resolved and no longer prevent nationals of Guinea from returning to Guinea in safety. Therefore, after a 6-month extension of TPS benefits for orderly transition, the Secretary is terminating the TPS designation of Guinea effective at 12:01 a.m., local time, on May 21, 2017.
To provide for an orderly transition, individuals who have been granted TPS under Guinea's designation will automatically retain TPS and have their current EADs extended until the termination date.
By the authority vested in me as Secretary under INA section 244, 8 U.S.C. 1254a, I have determined, after consultation with the appropriate Government agencies, that Guinea no longer meets the conditions for designation of TPS under INA section 244(b)(1). 8 U.S.C. 1254a(b)(1).
Accordingly, I order as follows:
(1) Pursuant to INA section 244(b)(3)(B), the designation of Guinea for TPS is terminated effective at 12:01 a.m., local time on May 21, 2017, 6 months following the end of the current designation.
(2) DHS estimates that there are approximately 930 nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) who currently receive TPS benefits.
(3) To provide for an orderly transition, nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) who have been granted TPS under the Guinea designation will automatically retain TPS until the May 21, 2017, termination date. However, an individual's TPS may be withdrawn prior to this date under INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR 244.14 because of ineligibility for TPS.
(4) TPS-based EADs that expire on November 21, 2016, are extended automatically through May 20, 2017, for qualified nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea).
(5) Information concerning the termination of TPS for nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) will be available at local USCIS offices upon publication of this Notice and through the USCIS National Customer Service Center at 1-800-375-5283. This information will be published on the USCIS Web site at
No. If you already have been granted TPS benefits through the Guinea TPS program, you do not have to re-register to keep your TPS benefits. You will automatically retain TPS until the termination date. However, your TPS may still be withdrawn under INA section 244(c)(3) and 8 CFR part 244 because of ineligibility for TPS. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(c)(3), 8 CFR 244.14. When termination becomes effective on May 21, 2017, you will no longer have TPS.
The Secretary has decided to extend automatically the validity of EADs to provide for an orderly transition leading up to the effective date for the termination of the Guinea TPS designation. Therefore, the validity of the applicable EADs is extended for a period of 6 months, through May 20, 2017. 8 U.S.C. 1254a(a)(2) and (d)(3).
No. Qualified individuals do not have to apply for this extension of their TPS-related EADs through May 20, 2017.
This Notice terminates the designation of Guinea for TPS. Nationals of Guinea (and aliens having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea) in the United States who believe returning to Guinea is not possible or preferable for them may be eligible to apply for another immigration status, such as lawful permanent residence, asylum, or a nonimmigrant status. Eligibility for these and other immigration benefits is determined individually on a case-by-case basis. For information about eligibility and how to apply, visit the USCIS Web site at
After the termination of the TPS designation of Guinea becomes effective on May 21, 2017, former TPS beneficiaries will maintain the same immigration status they held before TPS (unless the status has since expired or been terminated) or any other status they may have acquired while registered for TPS. Accordingly, if a TPS beneficiary held no lawful immigration status before being granted TPS and did not obtain any other status during the TPS period, he or she may be subject to removal upon the termination of the TPS designation. TPS-related EADs will expire on May 20, 2017, and will not be renewed.
Termination of the TPS designation for Guinea does not necessarily affect
To get case status information about your request for an EAD, you can check Case Status Online at
Provided that you currently have TPS under the designation of Guinea, this Notice automatically extends your EAD by 6 months if you:
• Are a national of Guinea (or an alien having no nationality who last habitually resided in Guinea);
• Received an EAD under the designation of Guinea for TPS; and
• Have an EAD with a marked expiration date of November 21, 2016, bearing the notation “A-12” or “C-19” on the face of the card under “Category.”
You can find a list of acceptable document choices on the “Lists of Acceptable Documents” for Form I-9. You can find additional detailed information on the USCIS I-9 Central Web page at
You may present any document from List A (reflecting both your identity and employment authorization) or one document from List B (reflecting identity) together with one document from List C (reflecting employment authorization). An EAD is an acceptable document under “List A.” Or you may present an acceptable receipt for a List A, List B, or List C document as described in the Form I-9 Instructions. An acceptable receipt includes a document that shows an employee has applied to replace a required document that was lost, stolen, or damaged. If you present an acceptable receipt for the application of a replacement document, you must present your employer with the actual document within 90 days. Employers may not reject a document based on a future expiration date.
If your EAD has an expiration date of November 21, 2016, and states “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category,” it has been extended automatically for 6 months by virtue of this
Even though EADs with an expiration date of November 21, 2016, that state “A-12” or “C-19” under “Category” have been automatically extended for 6 months by this
By May 20, 2017, the expiration date of the automatic extension, your employer must reverify your employment authorization. If you are employment authorized beyond the expiration date of the automatic extension, you must present any unexpired document from List A or any unexpired document from List C on Form I-9 to reverify employment authorization, or an acceptable List A or List C receipt described in the
No. When completing
After May 20, 2017, employers may no longer accept the EADs that this
When using an automatically extended EAD to complete
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Check “An alien authorized to work;”
b. Write the automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017) in the first space; and
c. Write your alien number (USCIS number or A-number) in the second space (your EAD or other document from DHS will have your USCIS number or A-number printed on it; the USCIS number is the same as your A-number without the A prefix).
2. For Section 2, employers should record the:
a. Document title;
b. Issuing authority;
c. Document number; and
d. Automatically extended EAD expiration date (May 20, 2017).
No later than May 20, 2017, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3 of Employment Eligibility Verification (Form I-9).
If you are an existing employee who presented a TPS-related EAD that was valid when you first started your job, but that EAD has now been automatically extended, your employer may need to reinspect your automatically extended EAD if your employer does not have a photocopy of the EAD on file, and you and your employer should correct your previously completed Form I-9 as follows:
1. For Section 1, you should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date in the first space;
b. Write “May 20, 2017,” above the previous date;
c. Write “TPS Ext.” in the margin of Section 1; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 1.
2. For Section 2, employers should:
a. Draw a line through the expiration date written in Section 2;
b. Write “May 20, 2017,” above the previous date;
c. Write “EAD Ext.” in the margin of Section 2; and
d. Initial and date the correction in the margin of Section 2.
No later than May 20, 2017, when the automatic extension of EADs expires, employers must reverify your employment authorization in Section 3.
Employers are required to reverify an employee's employment authorization in Section 3 of
If you have an employee who is a TPS beneficiary who provided a TPS-related EAD when he or she first started working for you, you will receive a “Work Authorization Documents Expiring” case alert when the auto-extension period for this EAD is about to expire. E-Verify will not send an alert for the original November 21, 2016, expiration date. By May 20, 2017, employment authorization must be reverified in Section 3. Employers should not use E-Verify for reverification.
Employers are reminded that the laws requiring proper employment eligibility verification and prohibiting unfair immigration-related employment practices remain in full force. This
For general questions about the employment eligibility verification process, you may call USCIS at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028) or email
To comply with the law, employers must accept any document or combination of documents from the Lists of Acceptable Documents if the documentation reasonably appears to be genuine and to relate to the employee, or an acceptable receipt described in the
Employers may not terminate, suspend, delay training, withhold pay, lower pay, or take any adverse action against you based on your decision to contest a TNC or because the case is still pending with E-Verify. A Final Nonconfirmation (FNC) case result is received when E-Verify cannot verify your employment eligibility. An employer may terminate employment based on a case result of FNC. Work-authorized employees who receive an FNC may call USCIS for assistance at 888-897-7781 (TTY 877-875-6028). If you believe you were discriminated against by an employer in the E-Verify process based on citizenship, immigration status, or national origin, you may contact OSC's Worker Information Hotline at 800-255-7688 (TTY 800-237-2515). Additional information about proper nondiscriminatory
While Federal Government agencies must follow the guidelines laid out by the Federal Government, State and local government agencies establish their own rules and guidelines when granting certain benefits. Each State may have different laws, requirements, and determinations about what documents you need to provide to prove eligibility for certain benefits. Whether you are applying for a Federal, State, or local government benefit, you may need to provide the government agency with documents that show you are a TPS beneficiary and/or show you are authorized to work based on TPS. Examples are:
(1) Your unexpired EAD;
(2) A copy of this
(3) A copy of your Application for Temporary Protected Status Notice of Action (Form I-797);
(4) A copy of your past or current Application for Temporary Protected Status Approval Notice (Form I-797), if you received one from USCIS; and/or
(5) If there is an automatic extension of work authorization, a copy of the fact sheet from the USCIS TPS Web site that provides information on the automatic extension.
Check with the government agency regarding which document(s) the agency will accept. You may also provide the agency with a copy of this
Some benefit-granting agencies use the USCIS Systematic Alien Verification for Entitlements Program (SAVE) to confirm the current immigration status of applicants for public benefits. In most cases, SAVE provides an automated electronic response to benefit granting agencies within seconds but occasionally verification can be delayed. You can check the status of your SAVE verification by using CaseCheck at the following link:
Office of the Chief Financial Officer, HUD.
Notice of proposed information collection.
The proposed information collection requirement described below will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act. The Department is soliciting public comments on the subject proposal.
This information collection is required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. HUD is soliciting public comments on the subject proposal.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-5534 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Dan Lam, Management Information Specialist, FYA, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 3204, Washington, DC 20410; email Dan Lam at
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Correction, notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment. This is a correction to the notice that is already published. Please disregard the notice that was published on August 19, 2016 at 81 FR 55475.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Arlette Mussington, Office of Policy, Programs and Legislative Initiatives, PIH, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., (L'Enfant Plaza, Room 2206), Washington, DC 20410; telephone 202-402-4109, (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Information Relay Service at (800) 877-8339. Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Mussington.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
Tenant data is collected to understand demographic, family profile, income, and housing information for participants in the Public Housing, Section 8 Housing Choice Voucher, Section 8 Project Based Certificate, Section 8 Moderate Rehabilitation, and Moving to Work Demonstration programs. This data also allows HUD to monitor the performance of programs and the performance of public housing agencies that administer the programs.
• The current versions of Forms HUD 50058 Family Report and HUD 50058 MTW Family Report are set to expire later this year.
• HUD is seeking to renew Forms HUD 50058 Family Report and HUD 50058 MTW Family Report with no changes.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(2) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax:202-395-5806, Email:
Anna Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna P. Guido at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Guido.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing- Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Ivery W. Himes, Director, Office of Single Family Asset Management, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Ivery W. Himes at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Himes.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
HUD-922210, Request for Credit Approval of Substitute Mortgagor.
FHA insurance is an important source of mortgage credit for low and moderate-income borrowers. It is essential that the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) maintain a healthy mortgage insurance fund through premiums charged to the borrower by FHA. Providing policy and guidance to the single family housing mortgage industry regarding changes in FHA's program is essential to protect the fund. The information requests referred to in this PRA submission is to provide information to support HUD's policy and guidance.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing-Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Daniel J. Sullivan, Acting Director, Office of Multifamily Productions, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of Community Planning and Development, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone (202) 402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Norm Suchar, Director, Office of Special
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of Environment and Energy, HUD.
Notice.
Today's notice announces that HUD has posted on its Web site its Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding HUD compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and related laws and authorities.
Jim Potter, Office of Environment and Energy, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 7212, Washington, DC 20410; telephone number 202-708-4225 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons with hearing or speech impairments may access this number through TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339.
Today's notice announce that HUD has posted on its Web site its “Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) Regarding U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) and Related Laws and Authorities”.
A core mission of HUD is to provide housing in a safe, suitable and healthy environment, and this mission is accomplished in large measure through environmental compliance with NEPA. NEPA ensures that a project's impacts on the environment, as well as the environment's impacts on the residents, are considered in a transparent manner before decisions are made.
The purpose of the MOU is to outline the respective roles and responsibilities of HUD program offices to ensure HUD compliance with NEPA and related laws
The MOU establishes an internal governance structure to address environmental compliance issues with regional, national, and executive committees. Issues can be raised at each level and elevated as necessary to create a more efficient review process. Mechanisms to maintain and monitor environmental compliance are included in the MOU. HUD will develop a management program to evaluate program office compliance with environmental review requirements. These procedures will be used to identify and solve internal issues of compliance.
The MOU can be found on the Department of Housing and Urban Development's Web site at
Office of Policy Development & Research, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone (202) 402-5534 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Anna P. Guido, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Anna P. Guido at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Guido.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
This notice announces the extension of the Class III gaming compact between the Rosebud Sioux Tribe and the State of South Dakota.
September 26, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
Pursuant to 25 CFR 293.5, an extension to an existing Tribal-State Class III gaming compact does not require approval by the Secretary if the extension does not modify any other terms of the compact. The Rosebud Sioux Tribe and the State of South Dakota have reached an agreement to extend the expiration of their existing Tribal-State Class III gaming compact until February 1, 2017. This publishes notice of the new expiration date of the compact.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of public meetings.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Tri-State Fuel Break Project Joint Subcommittee of the Boise District and Southeast Oregon Resource Advisory Councils (RACs) will hold a meeting on October 5, 2016. The meeting will be held at the Boise District Office located at 3948 S. Development Avenue, Boise, ID 83705, will begin at 9:00 a.m. and adjourn by 3:00 p.m. Members of the public are invited to attend. A public comment period will be held.
Seth Flanigan, Boise District RAC Coordinator, 3948 S. Development Avenue, Boise, Idaho, 83705, (208) 384-3393.
The Tri-State Fuel Break Joint Subcommittee advises the Boise District and Southeast Oregon Resource Advisory Councils (RACs) on potential areas to locate fuel breaks for the proposed Tri-State Fuel Break Project and Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). The RACs advise the Secretary of the Interior, through the Bureau of Land Management, on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in Idaho and Oregon. The joint subcommittee will be discussing potential fuel break locations within the proposed project area during the meeting. Agenda items and location may change due to changing circumstances. The public may present written or oral comments to members of the joint subcommittee. Individuals who plan to attend and need special assistance should contact the BLM Coordinator as provided above. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours. Additional information about the RACs is available at
Bureau of Reclamation, Interior.
Notice of public meeting.
The Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Advisory Council (Council) was established by the Colorado River Basin Salinity Control Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-320) (Act) to receive reports and advise Federal agencies on implementing the Act. In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, the Bureau of Reclamation announces that the Council will meet as detailed below. The meeting of the Council is open to the public.
The Council will convene the meeting on Wednesday, October 26, 2016, at 1:00 p.m. and adjourn at approximately 5:00 p.m. The Council will reconvene the meeting on Thursday, October 27, 2016, at 8:30 a.m. and adjourn the meeting at approximately 11:00 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Moab Arts & Recreation Center, 111 East 100 North, Moab, Utah. Send written comments to Mr. Kib Jacobson, Bureau of Reclamation, Upper Colorado Regional Office, 125 South State Street, Room 8100, Salt Lake City, Utah 84138-1147; telephone (801) 524-3753; facsimile (801) 524-3847; email at:
Kib Jacobson, telephone (801) 524-3753; facsimile (801) 524-3847; email at:
Any member of the public may file written statements with the Council before,
The purpose of the meeting is to discuss the accomplishments of Federal agencies and make recommendations on future activities to control salinity. Council members will be briefed on the status of salinity control activities and receive input for drafting the Council's annual report. The Bureau of Reclamation, Bureau of Land Management, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, and United States Geological Survey of the Department of the Interior; the Natural Resources Conservation Service of the Department of Agriculture; and the Environmental Protection Agency will each present a progress report and a schedule of activities on salinity control in the Colorado River Basin. The Council will discuss salinity control activities, the contents of the reports, and the Basin States Program created by Public Law 110-246, which amended the Act.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, please be advised that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until October 26, 2016.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Tracey Robertson, Chief, Federal Firearms Licensing Center, 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405 at email or telephone:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a) on or before November 25, 2016.
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA Federal Register Representative/ODXL, 8701 Morrissette Drive, Springfield, Virginia 22152.
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.33(a), this is notice that on July 28 2015, Cerilliant Corporation, 811 Paloma Drive, Suite A, Round Rock, Texas 78665-2402, applied to be registered as a bulk manufacturer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to manufacture small quantities of the listed controlled substances to make reference standards which will be distributed to its customers.
Notice of application.
Registered bulk manufacturers of the affected basic classes, and applicants therefore, may file written comments on or objections to the issuance of the proposed registration in accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a) on or before October 26, 2016. Such persons may also file a written request for a hearing on the application
Written comments should be sent to: Drug Enforcement Administration, Attention: DEA
The Attorney General has delegated her authority under the Controlled Substances Act to the Administrator of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), 28 CFR 0.100(b). Authority to exercise all necessary functions with respect to the promulgation and implementation of 21 CFR part 1301, incident to the registration of manufacturers, distributors, dispensers, importers, and exporters of controlled substances (other than final orders in connection with suspension, denial, or revocation of registration) has been redelegated to the Deputy Assistant Administrator of the DEA Office of Diversion Control (“Deputy Assistant Administrator”) pursuant to section 7 of 28 CFR part 0, appendix to subpart R.
In accordance with 21 CFR 1301.34(a), this is notice that on May 6, 2016, Catalent CTS., LLC., 10245 Hickman Mills Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64137 applied to be registered as an importer of the following basic classes of controlled substances:
The company plans to import finished dosage unit products containing gamma-hydroxybutyric acid and cannabis extracts for clinical trial studies.
These cannabis extracts compounds are listed under drug code 7360. No other activity for this drug code is authorized for this registration. Approval of permit applications will occur only when the registrant's business activity is consistent with what is authorized under to 21 U.S.C. 952(a)(2). Authorization will not extend to the import of FDA approved or non-approved finished dosage forms for commercial sale.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, Department of Justice.
30-Day notice.
The Department of Justice, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division will be submitting the following Information Collection Request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the established review procedures of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for an additional 30 days until October 26, 2016.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the items contained in this notice, especially the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to Mr. Samuel Berhanu, Unit Chief, Federal Bureau of Investigation, CJIS Division, Module E-3, 1000 Custer Hollow Road, Clarksburg, West Virginia 26306; facsimile (304) 625-3566. Written comments and/or suggestions can also be sent to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attention Department of Justice Desk Officer, Washington, DC 20503 or sent to
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Comments should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques of other forms of information technology,
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If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, Policy and Planning Staff, Justice Management Division, United States Department of Justice, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., Room 3E-405B, Washington, DC 20530.
By application dated June 22, 2016, workers requested administrative reconsideration of the negative determination regarding workers' eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance applicable to workers and former workers of Halliburton Energy Services, 2600 S. 2nd Street, Duncan, Oklahoma. The determination was issued on May 22, 2016.
Pursuant to 29 CFR 90.18(c) reconsideration may be granted under the following circumstances:
(1) If it appears on the basis of facts not previously considered that the determination complained of was erroneous;
(2) If it appears that the determination complained of was based on a mistake in the determination of facts not previously considered; or
(3) If in the opinion of the Certifying Officer, a misinterpretation of facts or of the law justified reconsideration of the decision.
The initial investigation resulted in a negative determination based on the findings that increased imports of oil and natural gas did not contribute importantly to the separations at Halliburton Energy Services, the firm did not shift the production of oil or natural gas to a foreign country or acquire oil or natural gas from a foreign country. Furthermore, the firm was not a Supplier or Downstream Producer to a firm whose workers were certified eligible to apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance and the firm was not publicly named by the International Trade Commission as a part of a domestic industry in an affirmative finding of serious injury, market disruption, or material injury, or threat thereof.
The request for reconsideration asserts that workers in the same location are receiving the same benefits.
The Department of Labor has carefully reviewed the request for reconsideration and the existing record, and has determined that the Department will conduct further investigation to determine if the workers meet the eligibility requirements of the Trade Act of 1974.
After careful review of the application, I conclude that the claim is of sufficient weight to justify reconsideration of the U.S. Department of Labor's prior decision. The application is, therefore, granted.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on February 20, 2016, applicable to workers of International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, APC Workforce Solutions, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Denver, Colorado (TA-W-91258) (herein known as “IBM—GTS”). The Department's notice of determination was published in the
During the investigation, it was revealed that the worker group for TA-W-91,870 and TA-W-91,258 belong to the same subject firm. As a result, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers at the subject firm were engaged in activities related to the supply of information technology services (storage engineering, middleware database, and server administration) for a client's account.
The investigation confirmed that worker separations at International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Endicott, New York (TA-W-91258A) and International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Omaha, Nebraska (TA-W-91258B) were due to an acquisition of services from a foreign country.
The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected by the shift in services from a foreign country the supply of services that is like or directly competitive to the services supplied by the workers of the subject firm.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-91,258, TA-W-91,258A, and TA-W-91,350B is hereby issued as follows:
All workers from International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, APC Workforce Solutions, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Denver, Colorado (TA-W-91258); International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Endicott, New York (TA-W-91258A); and International Business Machines (IBM), Global Technology Services (GTS) division, including on-site leased workers from Collabera, Artech, CDI, and Infinite, Omaha, Nebraska (TA-W-91258B) who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after December 22, 2014 through February 20, 2018, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
Petitions have been filed with the Secretary of Labor under Section 221(a) of the Trade Act of 1974 (“the Act”) and are identified in the Appendix to this notice. Upon receipt of these petitions, the Director of the Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, has instituted investigations pursuant to Section 221(a) of the Act.
The purpose of each of the investigations is to determine whether the workers are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Title II, Chapter 2, of the Act. The investigations will further relate, as appropriate, to the determination of the date on which total or partial separations began or threatened to begin and the subdivision of the firm involved.
The petitioners or any other persons showing a substantial interest in the subject matter of the investigations may request a public hearing, provided such request is filed in writing with the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, no later than October 6, 2016.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments regarding the subject matter of the investigations to the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, at the address shown below, not later than October 6, 2016.
The petitions filed in this case are available for inspection at the Office of the Director, Office of Trade Adjustment Assistance, Employment and Training Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-5428, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on April 22, 2016, applicable to workers of General Electric Company, GE Transportation Division, including on-site leased workers from Adecco USA, TCS (TATA), Chemetall US Inc., AVI, Carehere, Climatech Inc., G4S Secure Solutions, OMH HealthEdge Holdings Inc., Phoenix LLC, Simmers Crane, and Unitek Technical Services, 1503 West Main Street and 660 Barkeyville Road, Grove City, Pennsylvania. The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of the state workforce official, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers are engaged in activities related to the production of diesel locomotive engines, diesel marine and stationary engines. New information shows that some workers at General Electric Company had their wages reported through TAD PGS Inc.
The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected as Supplier to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under to apply for Trade Adjustment Assistance.
Accordingly, the Department is amending this certification to properly reflect this matter.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-91,535 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of General Electric Company, GE Transportation Division, including workers whose wages were reported through TAD PGS Inc., including on-site leased workers from Adecco USA, TCS (TATA), Chemetall US Inc., AVI, Carehere, Climatech Inc., G4S Secure Solutions, OMH HealthEdge Holdings Inc., Phoenix LLC, Simmers Crane, and Unitek Technical Services, 1503 West Main Street and 660 Barkeyville Road, Grove City, Pennsylvania, who became totally or partially separated from who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after March 1, 2015 through April 22, 2018, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (19 U.S.C. 2273) the Department of Labor herein presents summaries of determinations regarding eligibility to apply for trade adjustment assistance for workers by (TA-W) number issued during the period of
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for workers of a primary firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(a) of the Act must be met.
I. Under Section 222(a)(2)(A), the following must be satisfied:
(1) A significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the sales or production, or both, of such firm have decreased absolutely; and
(3) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) Imports of articles or services like or directly competitive with articles produced or services supplied by such firm have increased;
(B) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles into which one or more component parts produced by such firm are directly incorporated, have increased;
(C) imports of articles directly incorporating one or more component parts produced outside the United States that are like or directly competitive with imports of articles incorporating one or more component parts produced by such firm have increased;
(D) imports of articles like or directly competitive with articles which are produced directly using services supplied by such firm, have increased; and
(4) the increase in imports contributed importantly to such workers' separation or threat of separation and to the decline in the sales or production of such firm; or
II. Section 222(a)(2)(B) all of the following must be satisfied:
(1) A significant number or proportion of the workers in such workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) One of the following must be satisfied:
(A) There has been a shift by the workers' firm to a foreign country in the production of articles or supply of services like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm;
(B) there has been an acquisition from a foreign country by the workers' firm of articles/services that are like or directly competitive with those produced/supplied by the workers' firm; and
(3) the shift/acquisition contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected secondary workers of a firm and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(b) of the Act must be met.
(1) a significant number or proportion of the workers in the workers' firm have become totally or partially separated, or are threatened to become totally or partially separated;
(2) the workers' firm is a Supplier or Downstream Producer to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act, and such supply or production is related to the article or service that was the basis for such certification; and
(3) either—
(A) the workers' firm is a supplier and the component parts it supplied to the firm described in paragraph (2) accounted for at least 20 percent of the production or sales of the workers' firm; or
(B) a loss of business by the workers' firm with the firm described in paragraph (2) contributed importantly to the workers' separation or threat of separation.
In order for an affirmative determination to be made for adversely affected workers in firms identified by the International Trade Commission and a certification issued regarding eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance, each of the group eligibility requirements of Section 222(e) of the Act must be met.
(1) the workers' firm is publicly identified by name by the International Trade Commission as a member of a domestic industry in an investigation resulting in—
(A) an affirmative determination of serious injury or threat thereof under section 202(b)(1);
(B) an affirmative determination of market disruption or threat thereof under section 421(b)(1); or
(C) an affirmative final determination of material injury or threat thereof under section 705(b)(1)(A) or 735(b)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1671d(b)(1)(A) and 1673d(b)(1)(A));
(2) the petition is filed during the1-year period beginning on the date on which—
(A) a summary of the report submitted to the President by the International Trade Commission under section 202(f)(1) with respect to the affirmative determination described in paragraph (1)(A) is published in the
(B) notice of an affirmative determination described in subparagraph (1) is published in the
(3) the workers have become totally or partially separated from the workers' firm within—
(A) the 1-year period described in paragraph (2); or
(B) not withstanding section 223(b)(1), the 1-year period preceding the 1-year period described in paragraph (2).
The following certifications have been issued. The date following the company name and location of each determination references the impact date for all workers of such determination.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(A) (increased imports) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(b) (supplier to a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA) of the Trade Act have been met.
The following certifications have been issued. The requirements of Section 222(b) (downstream producer for a firm whose workers are certified eligible to apply for TAA) of the Trade Act have been met.
In the following cases, the investigation revealed that the eligibility criteria for worker adjustment assistance have not been met for the reasons specified.
The investigation revealed that the criterion under paragraph (a)(1), or (b)(1) (employment decline or threat of separation) of section 222 has not been met.
The investigation revealed that the criteria under paragraphs (a)(2)(A) (increased imports) and (a)(2)(B) (shift in production or services to a foreign country) of section 222 have not been met.
After notice of the petitions was published in the
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioner has requested that the petition be withdrawn.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitioning groups of workers are covered by active certifications. Consequently, further investigation in these cases would serve no purpose since the petitioning group of workers cannot be covered by more than one certification at a time.
The following determinations terminating investigations were issued because the petitions are the subject of ongoing investigations under petitions filed earlier covering the same petitioners.
I hereby certify that the aforementioned determinations were issued during the period of
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on November 20, 2015, applicable to workers of Verso Corporation, Wickliffe Mill, including on-site leased workers from Select Staffing, U.S. Security Associates and Abbco Janitorial, Wickliffe, Kentucky. The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of a state workforce office and a company official, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers are engaged in activities related to the production of coated and uncoated freesheet paper for catalogs, magazines, retail inserts, direct mail and general commercial printing applications and market pulp.
New information shows that worker separations have occurred at Verso Corporation, Wickliffe Mill, including on-site leased workers from Select Staffing, U.S. Security Associates and Abbco Janitorial, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281), Verso Corporation, Beaver Dam Woodyard, Beaver Dam, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281A), Verso Corporation, Eddyville Woodyard, Eddyville, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281B), Verso Corporation, Waldschmidt Woodyard, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281C), Verso Corporation, Bethel Springs Woodyard, Bethel Springs, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281D), Verso Corporation, Big Sandy Woodyard, Camden, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281E), Verso Corporation, Dover Woodyard, Dover, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281F). The employees support and work in conjunction with Verso Corporation, Wickliffe Mill, including on-site leased workers from Select Staffing, U.S. Security Associates and Abbco Janitorial, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281) in woodyards which served to procure wood from the source, contracted with timber harvesters, and served as the collection site of the wood for short term storage until it was transported to the mill.
The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected by customer imports of coated and uncoated freesheet paper for catalogs, magazines, retail inserts, direct mail and general commercial printing applications and market pulp.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include employees of Verso Corporation, Wickliffe Mill, including on-site leased workers from Select Staffing, U.S. Security Associates and Abbco Janitorial, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281), Verso Corporation, Beaver Dam Woodyard, Beaver Dam, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281A), Verso Corporation, Eddyville Woodyard, Eddyville, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281B), Verso Corporation, Waldschmidt Woodyard, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281C), Verso Corporation, Bethel Springs Woodyard, Bethel Springs, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281D), Verso Corporation, Big Sandy Woodyard, Camden, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281E), Verso Corporation, Dover Woodyard, Dover, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281F).
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-90,281 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Verso Corporation, Wickliffe Mill, including on-site leased workers from Select Staffing, U.S. Security Associates and Abbco Janitorial, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281), Verso Corporation, Beaver Dam Woodyard, Beaver Dam, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281A), Verso Corporation, Eddyville Woodyard, Eddyville, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281B), Verso Corporation, Waldschmidt Woodyard, Wickliffe, Kentucky (TA-W-90,281C), Verso Corporation, Bethel Springs Woodyard, Bethel Springs, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281D), Verso Corporation, Big Sandy Woodyard, Camden, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281E), Verso Corporation, Dover Woodyard, Dover, Tennessee (TA-W-90,281F), who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after January 1, 2014 through November 20, 2017, and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on March 15, 2016, applicable to workers of Convergys Corporation, Jacksonville, Texas. The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of a State Workforce Office, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers are engaged in the supply of outsourced customer services and product support (call center).
New information shows that some workers separated from employment at Convergys Corporation, Jacksonville, Texas had their wages reported under the name Stream International, Inc.
The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected by shift in services of outsourced customer services and product support (call center).
Accordingly, the Department is amending this certification to properly reflect this matter. The amended notice applicable to TA-W-85,804 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Convergys Corporation, including workers whose wages were reported through Stream International, Inc., Jacksonville, Texas, who became totally or partially separated from who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after February 2, 2014 through March 15, 2018 and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
In accordance with Section 223 of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended (“Act”), 19 U.S.C. 2273, the Department of Labor issued a Certification of Eligibility to Apply for Worker Adjustment Assistance on April 24, 2016, applicable to workers of Carter Fuel Systems, a subsidiary of Crowne Group LLC, including on-site leased workers from Aerotek and CrossFire Group, Logansport, Indiana (TA-W-91,051). The Department's notice of determination was published in the
At the request of the company official of the workers' firm, the Department reviewed the certification for workers of the subject firm. The workers were engaged in activities related to the production of fuel pumps.
The company reports that workers leased from Entegee Engineering were employed on-site at the Logansport, Indiana location of Carter Fuel Systems, a subsidiary of Crowne Group LLC. The Department has determined that these workers were sufficiently under the control of the subject firm to be considered leased workers. The intent of the Department's certification is to include all workers of the subject firm who were adversely affected by acquisition of fuel pumps or articles like or directly competitive from a foreign country.
Based on these findings, the Department is amending this certification to include workers leased from Entegee Engineering working on-site at the Logansport, Indiana location of Carter Fuel Systems, a subsidiary of Crowne Group LLC.
The amended notice applicable to TA-W-91,051 is hereby issued as follows:
All workers of Carter Fuel Systems, a subsidiary of Crowne Group LLC, including on-site leased workers from Aerotek, CrossFire Group, and Entegee Engineering, Logansport, Indiana who became totally or partially separated from employment on or after October 1, 2014 through April 24, 2018 and all workers in the group threatened with total or partial separation from employment on date of certification through two years from the date of certification, are eligible to apply for adjustment assistance under Chapter 2 of Title II of the Trade Act of 1974, as amended.
By application dated May 2, 2016, the state workforce office requested administrative reconsideration of the negative determination regarding workers' eligibility to apply for worker adjustment assistance applicable to workers and former workers of Essar Steel Minnesota LLC, a wholly owned subsidiary Essar Global Fund Limited, including on-site leased workers from Express Employment Professionals, Always There Staffing, Vesterheim Geoscience PLC, Rod Johnson & Associates, Hibbing, Minnesota. The determination was issued on April 8, 2016.
Pursuant to 29 CFR 90.18(c) reconsideration may be granted under the following circumstances:
(1) If it appears on the basis of facts not previously considered that the determination complained of was erroneous;
(2) If it appears that the determination complained of was based on a mistake in the determination of facts not previously considered; or
(3) If in the opinion of the Certifying Officer, a misinterpretation of facts or of the law justified reconsideration of the decision.
The initial investigation resulted in a negative determination based on the findings that that imports did not increase, and that the workers' firm does not import machining and construction services. Further, the firm did not shift the supply of machining and construction services or like or directly competitive services to a foreign country or acquire machining and construction services or like or directly competitive services from a foreign country. Further, the firm is not a Supplier to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2272(a). The services supplied by the workers firm were not used in the production of an article, iron ore. Finally, the firm does not act as a Downstream Producer to a firm that employed a group of workers who received a certification of eligibility under Section 222(a) of the Act, 19 U.S.C. 2272(a).
The request for reconsideration asserts that this determination is erroneous and that the subject firm workers should be considered in production of mining. The request also included additional information relating to this statement.
The Department of Labor has carefully reviewed the request for reconsideration and the existing record, and has determined that the Department will conduct further investigation to determine if the workers meet the eligibility requirements of the Trade Act of 1974.
After careful review of the application, I conclude that the claim is of sufficient weight to justify reconsideration of the U.S. Department of Labor's prior decision. The application is, therefore, granted.
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) revision titled, “Domestic Agricultural In-Season Wage Report,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for use in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before October 26, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or sending an email to
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks approval under the PRA for revisions to the Domestic Agricultural In-Season Wage Report. The ETA needs prevailing wage rate information in order to determine the appropriate minimum wage an agricultural employer utilizing the H-2A program, allowing temporary employment of alien agricultural and logging workers in the United States, must pay to foreign and domestic farmworkers. State Workforce Agencies are charged with collecting the data from agricultural employers and submitting reports to the ETA. The wage rates cover crop and livestock as well as logging activities. Domestic migrant and local seasonal as well as foreign H-2A farmworkers are hired for these jobs. This information collection has been classified as a revision, because of format changes to Forms ETA-232 (Domestic Agricultural In-Season Wage Report) and ETA-232A (Wage Survey Interview Record). The questions on both forms questions remain the same, with no additions or deletions. Wagner-Peyser Act section 7(a) authorizes this information collection.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Office of Disability Employment Policy (ODEP) sponsored information collection request (ICR) proposal titled, “Demonstration and Evaluation of Community College Interventions for
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before October 26, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the RegInfo.gov Web site at
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ODEP, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129 (this is not a toll-free number) or by email at
This ICR seeks PRA authority for the Demonstration and Evaluation of Community College Interventions for Youth and Young Adults with Disabilities information collection. More specifically, this ICR is for information collections to conduct (1) in-depth interviews with grantee staff, other community college administrators and staff, students, and grantee partner organizations; (2) focus groups with faculty; and (3) surveys of community college students. These data collections are essential elements of the evaluation of the Pathways to Careers: Community Colleges for Youth and Young Adults with Disabilities Demonstration Project.
This proposed information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information if the collection of information does not display a valid Control Number.
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
10:00 a.m., Wednesday, September 28, 2016.
NeighborWorks America—Gramlich Boardroom, 999 North Capitol Street NE., Washington, DC 20002.
Open (with the exception of Executive Session).
Jeffrey Bryson, EVP & General Counsel/Secretary, (202) 760-4101;
The General Counsel of the Corporation has certified that in his opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(2) and (4) permit closure of the following portions of this meeting:
September 26, October 3, 10, 17, 24, 31, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of September 26, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of October 10, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39
1.
This notice will be published in the
Tuesday, September 27, 2016, at 12:15 p.m.
Washington, DC, at U.S. Postal Service Headquarters, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW., in the Benjamin Franklin Room, and via teleconference.
Tuesday, September 27, 2016, at 12:15 p.m.—Closed; Tuesday, September 27, 2016, at 2:00 p.m.—Open.
1. Strategic Issues.
2. Financial Matters.
3. Pricing.
4. Compensation and Personnel Matters.
5. Governors' Executive Session—Discussion of prior agenda items and Board governance.
1. Remarks of the Chairman of the Temporary Emergency Committee of the Board.
2. Remarks of the Postmaster General and CEO.
3. Approval of Minutes of Previous Meetings.
4. Committee Reports.
5. August YTD Financial Performance.
6. Quarterly Service Performance Report.
7. Approval of the Strategic Plan.
8. Tentative Agenda for the October, 11, 2016, teleconference.
Julie S. Moore, Secretary of the Board, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.
The RRB invites comments on the proposed collection of information to determine (1) the practical utility of the collection; (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden of the collection; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information that is the subject of collection; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of collections on respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Comments to the RRB or OIRA must contain the OMB control number of the ICR. For proper consideration of your comments, it is best if the RRB and OIRA receive them within 30 days of the publication date.
Under sections 2(a)(1)(iv) and 2(a)(1)(v) of the Railroad Retirement Act (RRA), annuities are payable to qualified railroad employees whose physical or mental condition makes them unable to (1) work in their regular occupation (occupational disability) or (2) work at all (total disability). The requirements for establishing disability and proof of continuing disability under the RRA are prescribed in 20 CFR 220.
Annuities are also payable to (1) qualified spouses and widow(ers) under sections 2(c)(1)(ii)(C) and 2(d)(1)(ii) of the RRA who have a qualifying child who became disabled before age 22; (2) surviving children on the basis of disability under section 2(d)(1)(iii)(C), if the child's disability began before age 22; and (3) widow(er)s on the basis of disability under section 2(d)(1)(i)(B). To meet the disability standard, the RRA provides that individuals must have a permanent physical or mental condition that makes them unable to engage in any regular employment.
Under section 2(d)(1)(v) of the RRA, annuities are also payable to remarried widow(er)s and surviving divorced spouses on the basis of, among other things, disability or having a qualifying disabled child in care. However, the disability standard in these cases is that found in the Social Security Act. That is, individuals must be unable to engage in any substantial gainful activity by reason of any medically determinable physical or mental impairment. The RRB also determines entitlement to a Period of Disability and entitlement to early Medicare based on disability for qualified claimants in accordance with Section 216 of the Social Security Act.
When making disability determinations, the RRB needs evidence from acceptable medical sources. The RRB currently utilizes Forms G-3EMP, Report of Medical Condition by Employer; G-197, Authorization to Disclose Information to the Railroad Retirement Board; G-250, Medical Assessment; G-250A, Medical Assessment of Residual Functional Capacity; G-260, Report of Seizure Disorder; RL-11B, Disclosure of Hospital Medical Records; RL-11D, Disclosure of Medical Records from a State Agency; and RL-250, Request for Medical Assessment, to obtain the necessary medical evidence.
Comments regarding the information collection should be addressed to Charles Mierzwa, Railroad Retirement Board, 844 North Rush Street, Chicago, Illinois, 60611-2092 or
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, September 29, 2016 at 2 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the closed meeting.
Chair White, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings;
Adjudicatory matters; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
On July 29, 2016, the New York Stock Exchange LLC (“NYSE” or the “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend the co-location services offered by the Exchange as follows: (1) To provide additional information regarding the access to trading and execution services and connectivity to data provided to Users with local area networks available in the data center; and (2) to establish fees relating to User's access to trading and execution services; connectivity to data feeds and to testing and certification feeds; access to clearing; and other services. In addition, this proposed rule change reflects changes to the Exchange's Price List related to these co-location services. This Amendment No. 1 supersedes the original filing in its entirety. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the co-location
More specifically, the Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to include:
a. A more detailed description of the access to the trading and execution systems of the Exchange and its Affiliate SROs (the “Exchange Systems”) and connectivity to certain market data products (the “Included Data Products”) that Users receive with connections to the Liquidity Center Network (“LCN”) and internet protocol (“IP”) network, local area networks available in the data center;
b. fees for connectivity to:
• Certain other market data products of the Exchange and its Affiliate SROs (the “Premium NYSE Data Products” and, together with the Included Data Products, the “NYSE Data Products”);
• access to the execution systems of third party markets and other content service providers (“Third Party Systems”);
• data feeds from third party markets and other content service providers (the “Third Party Data Feeds”);
• third party testing and certification feeds;
• Depository Trust & Clearing Corporation (“DTCC”) services; and
c. fees for virtual control circuits (“VCCs”) between two Users. VCCs are unicast connections between two participants over dedicated bandwidth.
The Exchange provides access to the Exchange Systems and Third Party Systems (together, “Access”) and connectivity to NYSE Data Products, Third Party Data Feeds, third party testing and certification feeds, and DTCC (collectively, “Connectivity”) as conveniences to Users. Use of Access or Connectivity is completely voluntary, and several other access and connectivity options are available to a User. As alternatives to using the Access and Connectivity provided by the Exchange, a User may access or connect to such services and products through another User or through a connection to an Exchange access center outside the data center, third party access center, or third party vendor. The User may make such connection through a third party telecommunication provider, third party wireless network, the Exchange's Secure Financial Transaction Infrastructure (“SFTI”) network, or a combination thereof.
Similarly, the Exchange provides VCCs as a convenience to Users. Use of a VCC is completely voluntary. As an alternative to an Exchange-provided VCC, a User may connect to another User through a fiber connection (“cross connect”).
As the Exchange has previously stated, a User's connection to the LCN or IP network provides it access to the Exchange Systems and Exchange market data products.
Access to certification and testing feeds comes with the purchase of access to the Exchange Systems and connectivity to many of the NYSE Data Products. Such feeds, which are solely used for certification and testing and do not carry live production data, are only available over the IP network.
The Exchange offers connectivity to NYSE Data Products in three forms: As a resilient feed, as “Feed A” or as “Feed B.” Resilient feeds include two copies of the same feed, for redundancy purposes. Feed A and Feed B are identical feeds.
As the Exchange has previously stated, Users' connections to the LCN or IP networks include access to Exchange Systems.
When a User purchases access to the LCN or IP network, it receives the ability to connect to the trading and execution systems of the NYSE, NYSE MKT and NYSE Arca (Exchange Systems), subject, in each case, to authorization by the NYSE, NYSE MKT or NYSE Arca, as applicable. Such connectivity includes access to the customer gateways that provide for order entry, order receipt (
Currently, there are three categories of data feeds for which the Exchange offers Users connectivity: Included Data Products; Premium NYSE Data Products; and Third Party Data.
The Included Data Products include the data feeds disseminated by the Consolidated Tape Association (“CTA”) (such data feeds, the “NMS feeds”). CTA is responsible for disseminating consolidated, real-time trade and quote information in NYSE listed securities (Network A) and NYSE MKT, NYSE Arca and other regional exchanges' listed securities (Network B) pursuant to a national market system plan.
In order to connect to an Included Data Product, a User enters into a contract with the provider of such data, pursuant to which the User is charged for the Included Data Product. After the User and data provider enter into the contract and the Exchange receives authorization from the provider of the data feed, the Exchange provides the User with connectivity to the Included Data Product over the User's LCN or IP network port. The Exchange does not charge the User separately for such connectivity to the Included Data Product, as it is included in the purchase of the access to the LCN or IP network.
The Included Data Products are available over both the LCN and IP network.
Users may connect to an Included Data Product as a resilient feed or as individual Feeds A and B.
The Included Data Products are as follows:
In addition to the above list of Included Data Products, the Exchange
When a User purchases access to the LCN or IP network it receives connectivity to any of the Included Data Products that it selects, subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from the provider of the data feed. Market data fees for the Included Data Products are charged by the provider of the data feed. A User can change the Included Data Products to which it receives connectivity at any time, subject to authorization from the provider of the data feed. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to the Included Data Products.
The Exchange offers Users connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products from the Exchange and its Affiliate SROs over Users' LCN and IP network connections. The Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to specify the connectivity fees for Premium NYSE Data Products.
The Premium NYSE Data Products are equity market data products that are variants of the equity Included Data Products. Each Premium NYSE Data Product integrates, or includes data elements from, several Included Data Products.
By contrast, while some of the Included Data Products include data elements from other Included Data Products, no single Included Data Product includes as much data as a Premium NYSE Data Product. With the exception of NYSE Arca Order Imbalances, the equity Included Data Products were introduced before the Premium Data Products.
There are no Premium NYSE Data Products for the NYSE Amex Options or NYSE Arca Options markets, as there are no options data products that integrate, or include data elements from, other option data products in the same manner that the NYSE, NYSE MKT and NYSE Arca Integrated Feeds integrate, or include data elements from, equity Included Data Products.
In order to connect to a Premium NYSE Data Product, a User enters into a contract with the provider of such data, pursuant to which it is charged for the Premium NYSE Data Product for the same market. After the data provider and User enter into the contract and the Exchange receives authorization from the data provider, the Exchange provides the User with connectivity to the Premium NYSE Data Product over the User's LCN or IP network port. The Exchange charges the User for the connectivity to the Premium NYSE Data Product. A User only receives, and is only charged for, connectivity to the Premium NYSE Data Product feeds that it selects.
The Premium NYSE Data Products are available over both the LCN and IP network.
A User can opt to connect to a Premium NYSE Data Product as a resilient feed or as Feed A or Feed B. Connectivity to the two identical Feeds A and B is only available on the IP network.
The Exchange charges a monthly recurring fee for connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products. The following table shows the Premium NYSE Data Products and corresponding monthly recurring connectivity fees.
In addition to the connectivity fees, the Exchange proposes to add the following language to its Price List:
Pricing for Premium NYSE Data Products is for connectivity only. Connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products is subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from the provider of the data feed. Market data fees for the Premium NYSE Data Products are charged by the provider of the data feed. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to Premium NYSE Data Products.
The Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to provide that Users may obtain connectivity to Third Party Systems of multiple third party markets and other content service providers for a fee. Users connect to Third Party Systems over the IP network.
In order to obtain access to a Third Party System, a User enters into an agreement with the relevant third party content service provider, pursuant to which the third party content service provider charges the User for access to the Third Party System. The Exchange then establishes a unicast connection between the User and the relevant third party content service provider over the IP network. The Exchange charges the User for the connectivity to the Third Party System. A User only receives, and is only charged for, access to Third Party Systems for which it enters into agreements with the third party content service provider.
With the exception of the ICE feed,
The Exchange charges a monthly recurring fee for connectivity to a Third Party System. Specifically, when a User requests access to a Third Party System, it identifies the applicable third party market or other content service provider and what bandwidth connection it requires.
The monthly recurring fee the Exchange charges Users for unicast connectivity to each Third Party System varies by the bandwidth of the connection, as follows:
The Exchange provides connectivity to the following Third Party Systems:
In addition to the connectivity fees, the Exchange proposes to add language to its Price List stating the following:
Pricing for access to the execution systems of third party markets and other service providers (Third Party Systems) is for connectivity only. Connectivity to Third Party Systems is subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from the provider of the data feed. Connectivity to Third Party Systems is over the IP network. Any applicable fees are charged independently by the relevant third party content service provider. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to Third Party Systems.
The Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to provide that Users may obtain connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds for a fee. The Exchange receives Third Party Data Feeds from multiple national securities exchanges and other content service providers at its data center. It then provides connectivity to that data to Users for a fee. With the exceptions of Global OTC and NYSE Global Index, Users connect to Third Party Data Feeds over the IP network.
The Exchange notes that charging Users a monthly fee for connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds is consistent with the monthly fee Nasdaq charges its co-location customers for connectivity to third party data. For instance, Nasdaq charges its co-location customers monthly fees of $1,500 and $4,000 for connectivity to BATS Y and BATS, respectively, and of $2,500 for connectivity to EDGA or EDGX.
In order to connect to a Third Party Data Feed, a User enters into a contract with the relevant third party market or other content service provider, pursuant to which the content service provider charges the User for the Third Party Data Feed. The Exchange receives the Third Party Data Feed over its fiber optic network and, after the data provider and User enter into the contract and the Exchange receives authorization from the data provider, the Exchange re-transmits the data to the User over the User's port. The Exchange charges the User for the connectivity to the Third Party Data Feed. A User only receives, and is only charged for, connectivity to the Third Party Data Feeds for which it enters into contracts.
With the exception of the Intercontinental Exchange (“ICE”), Global OTC and NYSE Global Index feeds,
The Exchange charges a monthly recurring fee for connectivity to each
The following table shows the feeds that connectivity to each Third Party Data Feed provides, together with the applicable monthly recurring fee.
In addition to the above connectivity fees, the Exchange proposes to add the following language to its Price List:
Pricing for data feeds from third party markets and other content service providers (Third Party Data Feeds) is for connectivity only. Connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds is subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from the provider of the data feed. Connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds is over the IP network, with the exception that Users can connect to Global OTC and NYSE Global Index over the IP network or LCN. Market data fees are charged independently by the relevant third party market or content service provider. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to Third Party Data Feeds.
Third Party Data Feed providers may charge redistribution fees, such as Nasdaq's Extranet Access Fees and OTC Markets Group's Access Fees.
The Exchange provides third party markets or content providers that are also Users connectivity to their own Third Party Data Feeds. The Exchange does not charge Users that are third party markets or content providers for connectivity to their own feeds, as in the Exchange's experience such parties generally receive their own feeds for purposes of diagnostics and testing. The Exchange proposes to add language to the Price List accordingly.
The Exchange offers Users connectivity to third party certification and testing feeds. Certification feeds are used to certify that a User conforms to any of the relevant content service provider's requirements for accessing Third Party Systems or receiving Third Party Data, while testing feeds provide Users an environment in which to conduct tests with non-live data.
The Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to include connectivity to third party certification and testing feeds. The Exchange charges a connectivity fee of $100 per month per feed.
The Exchange proposes to add the following connectivity fees and language to its Price List:
The Exchange provides connectivity to third party testing and certification feeds provided by third party markets and other content service providers. Pricing for third party testing and certification feeds is for connectivity only. Connectivity to third party testing and certification feeds is subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from the provider of the data feed. Connectivity to third party testing and certification feeds is over the IP network. Any applicable fees are charged independently by the relevant third party market or content service provider. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to third party testing and certification feeds.
The Exchange provides Users connectivity to DTCC for clearing, fund transfer, insurance, and settlement services.
In order to connect to DTCC, a User enters into a contract with DTCC, pursuant to which DTCC charges the User for the services provided. The Exchange receives the DTCC feed over its fiber optic network and, after DTCC and the User enter into the services contract and the Exchange receives authorization from DTCC, the Exchange provides connectivity to DTCC to the User over the User's IP network port. The Exchange charges the User for the connectivity to DTCC.
Connectivity to DTCC does not provide access or order entry to the Exchange's execution system, and a User's connection to DTCC is not through the Exchange's execution system.
The Exchange proposes to add the following connectivity fees and language to its Price List:
Pricing for connectivity to DTCC feeds is for connectivity only. Connectivity to DTCC feeds is subject to any technical provisioning requirements and authorization from DTCC. Connectivity to DTCC feeds is over the IP network. Any applicable fees are charged independently by DTCC. The Exchange is not the exclusive method to connect to DTCC feeds.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to offer VCCs between two Users. VCCs are
The Exchange bills the User requesting the VCC, but will not set up a VCC until the other User confirms that it wishes to have the VCC set up.
The Exchange proposes to revise the Price List to include VCCs between two Users. The fee for VCCs is based on the bandwidth utilized, as follows:
As is the case with all Exchange co-location arrangements, (i) neither a User nor any of the User's customers would be permitted to submit orders directly to the Exchange unless such User or customer is a member organization, a Sponsored Participant or an agent thereof (
The proposed change is not otherwise intended to address any other issues relating to co-location services and/or related fees, and the Exchange is not aware of any problems that Users would have in complying with the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed changes remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanisms of, a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest because, by offering Access and Connectivity, the Exchange gives each User additional options for addressing its access and connectivity needs, responding to User demand for access and connectivity options. Providing Access and Connectivity helps each User tailor its data center operations to the requirements of its business operations by allowing it to select the form and latency of access and connectivity that best suits its needs. The Exchange provides Access and Connectivity as conveniences to Users. Use of Access or Connectivity is completely voluntary, and each User has several other access and connectivity options available to it. As alternatives to using the Access and Connectivity provided by the Exchange, a User may access or connect to such services and products through another User or through a connection to an Exchange access center outside the data center, third party access center, or third party vendor. The User may make such connection through a third party telecommunication provider, third party wireless network, the SFTI network, or a combination thereof.
Co-location was created to permit Users “to rent space on premises controlled by the Exchange in order that they may locate their electronic servers in close physical proximity to the Exchange's trading and execution systems.”
The Exchange believes that providing access to Third Party Systems and connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products, Third Party Data Feeds, third party testing and certification feeds and DTCC, as well as revising the Price List to describe such services, would remove impediments to, and perfect the mechanisms of, a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protect investors and the public interest because the proposed changes would make the descriptions of market participants' access and connectivity options and the related fees more accessible and transparent, thereby providing market participants with clarity as to what options for connectivity are available to them and what the related costs are.
In addition, the Exchange believes that providing connectivity to third party testing and certification feeds removes impediments to, and perfects the mechanisms of, a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protects investors and the public interest because such feeds provide Users an environment in which to conduct tests with non-live data, including testing for upcoming releases and product enhancements or the User's own software development, and allow Users to certify conformance to any applicable technical requirements.
Similarly, the Exchange believes that providing connectivity to DTCC removes impediments to, and perfects the mechanisms of, a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protects investors and the public interest because it provides efficient connection to clearing, fund transfer, insurance, and settlement services.
The Exchange believes that providing Users with VCCs removes impediments
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposed fees changes are consistent with Section 6(b)(4) of the Act for multiple reasons. The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which exchanges offer co-location services as a means to facilitate the trading and other market activities of those market participants who believe that co-location enhances the efficiency of their operations. Accordingly, fees charged for co-location services are constrained by the active competition for the order flow of, and other business from, such market participants. If a particular exchange charges excessive fees for co-location services, affected market participants will opt to terminate their co-location arrangements with that exchange, and adopt a possible range of alternative strategies, including placing their servers in a physically proximate location outside the exchange's data center (which could be a competing exchange), or pursuing strategies less dependent upon the lower exchange-to-participant latency associated with co-location. Accordingly, the exchange charging excessive fees would stand to lose not only co-location revenues but also the liquidity of the formerly co-located trading firms, which could have additional follow-on effects on the market share and revenue of the affected exchange.
The Exchange believes that the services and fees proposed herein are equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because, in addition to the services being completely voluntary, they are available to all Users on an equal basis (
The Exchange believes that the services and fees proposed herein are reasonable, equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange provides Access and Connectivity as conveniences to Users. Use of Access or Connectivity is completely voluntary, and each User has several other access and connectivity options available to it. As alternatives to using the Access and Connectivity provided by the Exchange, a User may access or connect to such services and products through another User or through a connection to an Exchange access center outside the data center, third party access center, or third party vendor. The User may make such connection through a third party telecommunication provider, third party wireless network, the SFTI network, or a combination thereof. Users that opt to use Access or Connectivity would not receive access or connectivity that is not available to all Users, as all market participants that contract with the relevant market or content provider may receive access or connectivity. Similarly, the Exchange provides VCCs between Users as a convenience to Users. Use of a VCC is completely voluntary. As an alternative to an Exchange-provided VCC, a User may connect to another User through a cross connect.
Overall, the Exchange believes that the proposed charges are reasonable, equitably allocated and not unfairly discriminatory because the Exchange offers Access, Connectivity, and VCCs as conveniences to Users, and in doing so incurs certain costs. The expenses incurred and resources expended by the Exchange to provide these services generally include costs related to the data center facility hardware and technology infrastructure; maintenance and operational costs, such as the costs of responding to any production issues; and the costs related to the personnel required for initial installation and administration, monitoring, support and maintenance of such services. Since the inception of co-location, the Exchange has made numerous improvements to the network hardware and technology infrastructure and has established additional administrative controls. The Exchange has expanded the network infrastructure to keep pace with the increased number of services available to Users, including the increasing bandwidth required for Access and Connectivity, including resilient and redundant feeds. For example, the Exchange must ensure that the network infrastructure has the necessary bandwidth for connectivity to the Premium NYSE Data Products as well as the Included Data Products, as on a typical trading day no single Included Data Product will require as much bandwidth as a Premium NYSE Data Product for the same market. In addition, the Exchange incurs certain costs specific to providing connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds, Third Party Systems, third party testing and certification feeds and DTCC, including the costs of maintaining multiple connections to each Third Party Data Feed, Third Party System, and DTCC, allowing the Exchange to provide resilient and redundant connections; adapting to any changes made by the relevant third party; and covering any applicable fees (other than redistribution fees) charged by the relevant third party, such as port fees.
As noted above, co-location was created to permit Users “to rent space on premises controlled by the Exchange in order that they may locate their electronic servers in close physical proximity to the Exchange's trading and execution systems.”
In addition, the Exchange believes that including access to the Exchange Systems and connectivity to the Included Data Products with the purchase of access to the LCN or IP network is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because Users are not required to use any of their bandwidth to access Exchange Systems or connect to an Included Data Product unless they wish to do so. Rather, a User only receives access to the Exchange Systems
The Premium NYSE Data Products are equity market data products that are variants of the equity Included Data Products. Each Premium NYSE Data Product integrates, or includes data elements from, several Included Data Products. Charging separate fees for connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products, as opposed to Included Data Products, is a decision based on an assessment of the competitive landscape. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge Users for connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products because Users are not required to use any of their bandwidth to connect to a Premium NYSE Data product unless they wish to do, and each User has several other connectivity options available to it. The expenses incurred and resources expended by the Exchange to offer connectivity to the Premium NYSE Data Products include costs related to the data center facility hardware and technology infrastructure, such as the cost of ensuring that the network infrastructure has the necessary bandwidth for the Premium NYSE Data Products; maintenance and operational costs, such as the costs of responding to any production issues; and the costs related to the personnel required for initial installation and administration, monitoring, support and maintenance of the connectivity. By charging only those Users that receive connectivity to a Premium NYSE Data Product, only the Users that directly benefit from such connectivity support its cost.
The Exchange believes that its fees for connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering Users connectivity to Premium NYSE Data Products while providing Users the benefit of reduced latency when connecting to data feeds that integrate, or include data elements from, several Included Data Products. Charging separate connectivity fees for Premium NYSE Data Products is a decision based on an assessment of the competitive landscape. As noted above, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market. If a particular exchange charges excessive fees for co-location services—such as excessive fees for connectivity to the exchange's market data—affected market participants will opt to terminate their co-location arrangements with that exchange, and adopt a possible range of alternative strategies. Although Nasdaq does not include connectivity to any of the Premium NYSE Data Products in its co-location services, the Exchange believes that the proposed fees are generally consistent with the fees that a Nasdaq co-location customer would pay for connectivity to the individual feeds included in a Premium NYSE Data Product. For example, the NYSE Integrated Feed includes, among other things, information available from three of the Included Data Products: NYSE OpenBook, NYSE Trades, and NYSE Order Imbalances. Nasdaq offers connectivity to two of those feeds, OpenBook Ultra and NYSE Trades, for which it would charge a co-located customer a combined monthly fee of $2,600.
The Exchange believes that charging separate connectivity fees for Third Party Data Feeds and access to Third Party Systems, third party testing and certification feeds and connectivity to DTCC is reasonable and not unfairly discriminatory because, in the Exchange's experience, not all Users connect to Third Party Data Feeds, Third Party Systems, third party testing and certification feeds or DTCC. By charging only those Users that receive such connectivity, only the Users that directly benefit from it support its cost. In addition, Users are not required to use any of their bandwidth to connect to Third Party Data Feeds, third party testing and certification feeds or DTCC, or to access Third Party Systems, unless they wish to do so.
The Exchange believes the fees for connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering Users connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds while providing Users the convenience of receiving such Third Party Data Feeds within co-location, helping them tailor their data center operations to the requirements of their business operations by allowing them to select the form and latency of connectivity that best suits their needs. The Exchange believes that its proposed charges for connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds are similar to the connectivity fees Nasdaq imposes on its co-location customers. For instance, Nasdaq charges its co-location customers monthly fees of $1,500 and $4,000 for connectivity to BATS Y and BATS, respectively, and of $2,500 for connectivity to EDGA or EDGX.
The Exchange believes that its connectivity fees for access to Third Party Systems are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering such access while providing Users the convenience of being able to access such Third Party Systems, helping them tailor their data center operations to the requirements of their business operations by allowing them to select the form and latency of connectivity that best suits their needs. Similarly, the Exchange believes that its fees for connectivity to DTCC are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering such access while providing Users the benefit of an efficient connection to clearing, fund transfer, insurance, and settlement services.
The monthly recurring fees the Exchange charges Users for connectivity to Third Party Systems, the MSCI and SuperFeed Third Party Data Feeds, and DTCC, as well as for VCCs between Users, vary by the bandwidth of the connection. The Exchange also believes such fees are reasonable because the monthly recurring fee varies by the bandwidth of the connection, and so is generally proportional to the bandwidth required. The Exchange notes that some of the monthly recurring fees for connectivity to SuperFeed and DTCC differ from the fees for the other
The Exchange also believes that its connectivity fees for access to third party testing and certification feeds are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering such access while providing Users the benefit of having an environment in which to conduct tests with non-live data, including testing for upcoming releases and product enhancements or the User's own software development, and to certify conformance to any applicable technical requirements.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable that redistribution fees charged by providers of Third Party Data Feeds are passed through to the User, without change to the fee. If not passed through, the cost of the re-distribution fees would be factored into the proposed fees for connectivity to Third Party Data Feeds. The Exchange believes that passing through the fees makes them more transparent to the User, allowing the User to better assess the cost of the connectivity to a Third Party Data Feed by seeing the individual components of the cost,
The Exchange believes that it is reasonable that it does not charge third party markets or content providers for connectivity to their own Third Party Data Feeds, as in the Exchange's experience such parties generally receive their own feeds for purposes of diagnostics and testing. The Exchange believes that it removes impediments to, and perfects the mechanisms of, a free and open market and a national market system and, in general, protects investors and the public interest to facilitate such diagnostics and testing.
Finally, the Exchange also believes that its fees for VCCs between two Users are reasonable because they allow the Exchange to defray or cover the costs associated with offering such VCCs while providing Users the benefit of an additional option for connectivity to another User, helping them tailor their data center operations to the requirements of their business operations by allowing them to select the form of connectivity that best suits their needs. As an alternative to an Exchange-provided VCC, a User may connect to another User through a cross connect.
For the reasons above, the proposed changes do not unfairly discriminate between or among market participants that are otherwise capable of satisfying any applicable co-location fees, requirements, terms and conditions established from time to time by the Exchange.
For these reasons, the Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that providing Users with access to the Exchange Systems and Third Party Systems and connectivity to NYSE Data Products, Third Party Data Feeds, third party testing and certification feeds, and DTCC does not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because such Access and Connectivity satisfies User demand for access and connectivity options, and each User has several other access and connectivity options available to it. As alternatives to using the Access and Connectivity provided by the Exchange, a User may access or connect to such services and products through another User or through a connection to an Exchange access center outside the data center, third party access center, or third party vendor. The User may make such connection through a third party telecommunication provider, third party wireless network, the SFTI network, or a combination thereof. Users that opt to use Access or Connectivity would not receive access or connectivity that is not available to all Users, as all market participants that contract with the relevant market or content provider may receive access or connectivity. In this way, the proposed changes would enhance competition by helping Users tailor their Access and Connectivity to the needs of their business operations by allowing them to select the form and latency of access and connectivity that best suits their needs.
Similarly, the Exchange believes that providing VCCs between Users does not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act because providing VCCs satisfies User demand for an alternative to cross connects.
The Exchange believes that revising the Price List to provide a more detailed description of the Access and Connectivity available to Users would make such descriptions more accessible and transparent, thereby providing market participants with clarity as to what Access and Connectivity is available to them and what the related costs are, thereby enhancing competition by ensuring that all Users have access to the same information regarding Access and Connectivity.
Finally, the Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which exchanges offer co-location services as a means to facilitate the trading and other market activities of those market participants who believe that co-location enhances the efficiency of their operations. Accordingly, fees charged for co-location services are constrained by the active competition for the order flow of, and other business from, such market participants. If a particular exchange charges excessive fees for co-location services, affected market participants will opt to terminate their co-location arrangements with that exchange, and adopt a possible range of alternative strategies, including placing their servers in a physically proximate location outside the exchange's data center (which could be a competing exchange), or pursuing strategies less dependent upon the lower exchange-to-participant latency associated with co-location. Accordingly, the exchange charging excessive fees would stand to lose not only co-location revenues but also the liquidity of the formerly co-located trading firms, which could have additional follow-on effects on the market share and revenue of the affected exchange. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning Amendment No. 1, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange seeks to amend its rules related to SPX Combo Orders. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Rules 24.20,
An SPX Combo Order consists of an order to purchase or sell one or more SPX option series (hereinafter the “non-SPX combination”) and the offsetting number of “SPX combinations” defined by the delta.
SPX traders commonly hedge their options positions with SPX combinations, also called “synthetic futures,” which, as the above definition provides, are created by combining long(short) SPX calls with short(long) SPX puts of the same series, in lieu of hedging with the actual S&P 500 futures contract trading at CME. The individual legs of the SPX combination are priced such that a value for the SPX combination is established which is equivalent to the value of a future at a level at which the trader wishes to make the underlying futures market “static.” Then, based on the static value established by the SPX combination that has been quoted, the trader will request a market for the non-SPX combination that he wishes to trade, and will indicate the delta of the non-SPX combination. An SPX trader will execute the SPX combination in conjunction with the non-SPX combination, taking into account the delta of the particular options making up the non-SPX combination, such that the combined positions will create a
When the non-SPX combination is paired with an SPX combination the non-SPX combination can be described as being “tied” to the value of a future because the non-SPX combination is tied to an SPX combination that is equivalent to the value of a future. The concept of an option being “tied” to an underlying value extends to stock-option orders.
Currently, SPX Combo Orders are treated as complex orders for the purposes of the minimum increment provision of Rule 6.42(4).
Although the Exchange believes the intent was to include SPX Combo Orders as complex orders for purposes of the minimum increment, the Exchange also believes there is confusion amongst members of the trading crowd regarding the applicable minimum increment. The Exchange believes the confusion has arisen because Interpretation and Policy .01 to Rule 6.42 does not specifically identify SPX Combo Orders as complex orders; rather, Rule 6.42.01 states:
For purposes of this rule [6.42], “complex order” means a spread, straddle, combination or ratio order as defined in Rule 6.53,
As the definitions of spread, straddle, combination and ratio order do not specifically identify SPX Combo Orders, the Exchange believes confusion has arisen with respect to whether an SPX Combo Order is a complex order for purposes of the minimum increment.
In addition, the current interpretation that an SPX Combo Order is technically a complex order for purposes of the minimum increment (meaning all legs can be executed in $0.01 increments) does not fit how SPX Combo Orders are generally executed. In general, the only time legs of an SPX Combo Order are executed in $0.01 increments is in relation to a non-SPX combination with multiple legs. When the non-SPX combination is a single leg, the trading crowd generally executes the non-SPX combination in $0.05 or $0.10 increments, even though the current interpretation allows the legs to be executed in $0.01 increments. The Exchange notes that it is not a violation to execute a single leg non-SPX combination in $0.01, $0.05 or $.10
Thus, in order to provide clarity regarding the minimum increment applicable to SPX Combo Orders, as well as to modify the Exchange's above interpretation in order to match the general practice of executing SPX Combo Orders, the Exchange proposes to add Rule 24.20.02 to provide as follows:
The minimum increment applicable to SPX Combo Orders under Rule 6.42 is as follows:
(a) The legs of the SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order may be executed in $0.01 increments and the entire SPX combination must be executed in net price increments no smaller than $0.05.
(b) If the non-SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order consists of one leg, the leg must be executed in increments no smaller than $0.05 if the execution price is below $3.00 and increments no smaller than $0.10 if the execution price is at or above $3.00.
(c) If the non-SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order consists of multiple legs, the individual legs may be executed in $0.01 increments and the entire non-SPX combination portion of the SPX Combo Order must be executed in net price increments no smaller than $0.05.
When an SPX Combo Order is treated as a complex order for purposes of the minimum increment, as is currently the case, then the entire package may be executed at $0.05 increments and each individual leg may be executed at $0.01 increments.
Applying the proposed rule to the above example provides that the non-SPX combination (the SPX 2000 call) is one leg that executes above $3.00; thus, it must be executed in $0.10 increments, which means it would have to execute at $41.30 or $41.40, instead of $41.35. The Exchange notes that the customer may in fact receive a better execution price because of this rule change because, in the above example, market participants may be willing to sell to a customer at $41.30 instead of $41.35. If instead the SPX Combo Order contained a non-SPX combination with two legs—one leg to buy an SPX 2000 call and one leg to buy an SPX 2010 call—tied to an SPX combination, each leg of the non-SPX combination could be executed in $0.01 increments, and the net execution price of the non-SPX combination package could be in net price increments of $0.05.
The Exchange notes that the priority requirements of Rule 24.20(b)(2) will still apply to the entire SPX Combo Order. Thus, an SPX Combo Order will still be able to execute at the best net debit or credit so long as (A) no leg of the order would trade at a price outside the currently displayed bids or offers in the trading crowd or bids or offers in the SPX limit order book and (B) at least one leg of the order would trade at a price that is better than the corresponding bid or offer in the SPX limit order book.
Furthermore, as noted above, for an SPX Combo Order comprised of a non-SPX combination portion with one leg, the trading crowd's practice is generally to execute the non-SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order in $0.05 or $0.10 increments, because executing a single leg non-SPX combination portion in $0.01 increments makes it difficult to attain a net execution price in $0.05 increments for the entire package. As noted above, if the net execution price of the SPX combination is $5.00, the execution price of a single leg non-SPX combination portion cannot be $1.01, $1.02, $1.03, or $1.04 for example, because the net execution price for the entire package would be in a net price increment less than $0.05. Thus, the practice for the non-SPX combination portion, which is completely reasonable, is to provide markets in increments of $0.05 and $0.10 to ensure that the entire package is executed in a net execution price of $0.05 increments. Thus, the Exchange believes customers will not be adversely impacted by this rule change. The rules are simply being modified to meet the existing, general practice of the trading crowd. The Exchange notes that it is the trading crowd and their practices that have created a vibrant ecosystem for customers to execute SPX Combo Orders and modifying the rules to match the practice that has helped to create this ecosystem is logical and desirable.
The Exchange believes this proposal will provide clarity with regards to the minimum increment applicable to SPX Combo Orders and will prevent the inconsistent application of the minimum increment. Also, customers that want to hedge a single leg SPX option order with S&P 500 futures would be required to execute the SPX option in either $0.05 or $0.10 increments; therefore, customers reasonably should expect to be required to execute a single leg SPX option in either $0.05 or $0.10 increments when the single leg SPX option is tied to an SPX combination because the SPX
Upon approval of this rule change, the Exchange will announce the implementation date of the proposed rule change in a Regulatory Circular to be published no later than 90 days following the approval date. The implementation date will be no later than 180 days following the approval date.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”).
In particular, the Exchange believes it is not clear from the rules what minimum increment applies to SPX Combo Orders and that specifying the minimum increment applicable to SPX Combo Orders will help to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system. Furthermore, the Exchange believes that essentially treating the non-SPX combination portion and the SPX combination as separate orders for purposes of the applicable minimum increment is consistent with the nature of SPX Combo Orders, which consist of a non-SPX combination tied to an underlying S&P Index value via the SPX combination. The Exchange believes maintaining consistency throughout its rules in this manner helps eliminate confusion in the marketplace, which helps to protect investors and the public interest generally. The consistency and clarity provided by this amendment will help to protect investors and the public interest generally. Finally, the Commission has already determined that it's consistent with the Act to require orders in SPX with only one leg (
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change will apply to all SPX Combo Orders, and all TPHs that represent and compete for those orders, in the same manner. The Exchange believes that specifying the minimum increment applicable to SPX Combo Orders, and clarifying the manner in which these orders execute on the Exchange, promotes fair and orderly markets, as well as assists the Exchange in its ability to effectively attract order flow and liquidity to its market, and ultimately benefits all TPHs and all investors. Furthermore, any perceived burden on customers due to the fact that the single legged non-SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order must be executed in $0.05 or $0.10 increments pursuant to this rule (instead of $0.01 increments as is currently the Exchange's interpretation) is outweighed by the fact that the current practice of the trading crowd is to execute the single legged non-SPX combination in $0.05 or $0.10 increments and that the current practice enables the trading crowd to more quickly provide bids and offers that meet the minimum increment requirements. Furthermore, customers may in fact receive a better execution price on their SPX Combo Orders because TPHs competing for the order may improve their market by $0.05 or $0.10 instead of just $0.01. This rule change will only prevent the rare situation where a member is determined to execute a single legged non-SPX combination portion of an SPX Combo Order in $0.01 increments, which, again, is not a frequent occurrence. Furthermore, customers that want to hedge a single leg SPX option order with S&P 500 futures would be required to execute the SPX option in either $0.05 or $0.10 increments; therefore, customers reasonably should expect to be required to execute a single leg SPX option in either $0.05 or $0.10 increments when the single leg SPX option is tied to an SPX combination because the SPX combination is equivalent to an underlying futures level. Finally, the Commission has already determined that it's not unduly burdensome to competition to require orders in SPX with only one leg (
The Exchange neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
By letter dated September 20, 2016 (the “Letter”), as supplemented by conversations with the staff of the Division of Trading and Markets, counsel for Amplify ETF Trust (the “Trust”) on behalf of the Trust, Amplify YieldShares Prime 5 Dividend ETF (the “Fund”), any national securities exchange on or through which shares of the Fund (“Shares”) are listed and may subsequently trade, and persons or entities engaging in transactions in Shares (collectively, the “Requestors”), requested exemptions, or interpretive or no-action relief, from Rule 10b-17 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (“Exchange Act”), and Rules 101 and 102 of Regulation M, in connection with secondary market transactions in Shares and the creation or redemption of aggregations of Shares of 50,000 shares (“Creation Units”).
The Trust is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (“1940 Act”), as an open-end management investment company. The Fund seeks to track the performance of an underlying index, the Prime 5 US Dividend ETF Index (“Underlying Index”). The Underlying Index seeks to provide exposure to the five highest-ranked dividend ETFs based on the index provider's scoring and selection criteria.
The Fund will seek to track the performance of its Underlying Index by normally investing at least 80% of its total assets in the underlying exchange-traded funds that comprise the Underlying Index.
The Requestors represent, among other things, the following:
• Shares of the Fund will be issued by the Trust, an open-end management investment company that is registered with the Commission;
• Creation Units will be continuously redeemable at the net asset value (“NAV”) next determined after receipt of a request for redemption by the Fund, and the secondary market price of the Shares should not vary substantially from the NAV of such Shares;
• Shares of the Fund will be listed and traded on BATS Exchange Inc. or another exchange in accordance with exchange listing standards that are, or will become, effective pursuant to Section 19(b) of the Exchange Act (the “Listing Exchange”);
• The Fund seeks to track the performance of the Underlying Index, all the components of which have publicly available last sale trade information;
• The Listing Exchange will disseminate continuously every 15 seconds throughout the trading day, through the facilities of the Consolidated Tape Association, the market value of a Share;
• The Listing Exchange, market data vendors or other information providers will disseminate, every 15 seconds throughout the trading day, a calculation of the intraday indicative value of a Share;
• On each business day before the opening of business on the Listing Exchange, the Fund will cause to be published through the National Securities Clearing Corporation the list of the names and the quantities of securities of the Fund's portfolio that will be applicable that day to creation and redemption requests;
• The arbitrage mechanism will be facilitated by the transparency of the Fund's portfolio and the availability of the intraday indicative value, the liquidity of securities held by the Fund, the ability to acquire such securities, as well as arbitrageurs' ability to create workable hedges;
• The Fund will invest solely in liquid securities;
• The Fund will invest in securities that will facilitate an effective and efficient arbitrage mechanism and the ability to create workable hedges;
• All ETFs in which the Fund invests will either meet all conditions set forth in one or more class relief letters, will have received individual relief from the Commission, will be able to rely on individual relief even though they are not named parties, or will be able to rely
• The Trust believes that arbitrageurs are expected to take advantage of price variations between the Fund's market price and its NAV; and
• A close alignment between the market price of Shares and the Fund's NAV is expected.
While redeemable securities issued by an open-end management investment company are excepted from the provisions of Rules 101 and 102 of Regulation M, the Requestors may not rely upon those exceptions for the Shares.
Generally, Rule 101 of Regulation M is an anti-manipulation rule that, subject to certain exceptions, prohibits any “distribution participant” and its “affiliated purchasers” from bidding for, purchasing, or attempting to induce any person to bid for or purchase any security that is the subject of a distribution until after the applicable restricted period, except as specifically permitted in the Rule. Rule 100 of Regulation M defines “distribution” to mean any offering of securities that is distinguished from ordinary trading transactions by the magnitude of the offering and the presence of special selling efforts and selling methods. The provisions of Rule 101 of Regulation M apply to underwriters, prospective underwriters, brokers, dealers, or other persons who have agreed to participate or are participating in a distribution of securities. The Shares are in a continuous distribution and, as such, the restricted period in which distribution participants and their affiliated purchasers are prohibited from bidding for, purchasing, or attempting to induce others to bid for or purchase extends indefinitely.
Based on the representations and facts presented in the Letter, particularly that the Trust is a registered open-end management investment company, that Creation Unit size aggregations of the Shares of the Fund will be continuously redeemable at the NAV next determined after receipt of a request for redemption by the Fund, and that a close alignment between the market price of Shares and the Fund's NAV is expected, the Commission finds that it is appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors to grant the Trust an exemption under paragraph (d) of Rule 101 of Regulation M with respect to the Fund, thus permitting persons participating in a distribution of Shares of the Fund to bid for or purchase such Shares during their participation in such distribution.
Rule 102 of Regulation M prohibits issuers, selling security holders, and any affiliated purchaser of such person from bidding for, purchasing, or attempting to induce any person to bid for or purchase a covered security during the applicable restricted period in connection with a distribution of securities effected by or on behalf of an issuer or selling security holder.
Based on the representations and facts presented in the Letter, particularly that the Trust is a registered open-end management investment company, that Creation Unit size aggregations of the Shares of the Fund will be continuously redeemable at the NAV next determined after receipt of a request for redemption by the Fund, and that a close alignment between the market price of Shares and the Fund's NAV is expected, the Commission finds that it is appropriate in the public interest and consistent with the protection of investors to grant the Trust an exemption under paragraph (e) of Rule 102 of Regulation M with respect to the Fund, thus permitting the Fund to redeem Shares of the Fund during the continuous offering of such Shares.
Rule 10b-17, with certain exceptions, requires an issuer of a class of publicly traded securities to give notice of certain specified actions (for example, a dividend distribution) relating to such class of securities in accordance with Rule 10b-17(b). Based on the representations and facts in the Letter, and subject to the conditions below, the Commission finds that it is appropriate in the public interest, and consistent with the protection of investors to grant the Trust a conditional exemption from Rule 10b-17 because market participants will receive timely notification of the existence and timing of a pending distribution, and thus the concerns that the Commission raised in adopting Rule 10b-17 will not be implicated.
This exemptive relief is subject to the following conditions:
• The Trust will comply with Rule 10b-17 except for Rule 10b-17(b)(1)(v)(a) and (b); and
• The Trust will provide the information required by Rule 10b-17(b)(1)(v)(a) and (b) to the Listing Exchange as soon as practicable before trading begins on the ex-dividend date, but in no event later than the time when the Listing Exchange last accepts information relating to distributions on the day before the ex-dividend date.
This exemptive relief is subject to modification or revocation at any time the Commission determines that such action is necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Exchange Act. This exemption is based
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 99-409, the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold an Open Meeting on Wednesday, September 28, 2016, at 10:00 a.m., in the Auditorium, RoomL-002.
The subject matter of the Open Meeting will be:
• The Commission will consider whether to adopt rules to establish enhanced standards for the operation and governance of certain clearing agencies pursuant to Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
• The Commission will consider whether to propose amendments to certain definitions in Rule 17Ad-22 related to clearing agencies pursuant to Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
• The Commission will consider whether to propose amendments to Rule 15c6-1 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 to shorten the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer transactions from three business days after the trade date to two business days after the trade date.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted, or postponed, please contact Brent J. Fields in the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
On August 3, 2016, NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”) and NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”) (each an “Exchange” and, together, the “Exchanges”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
NYSE Arca and NYSE MKT each require market makers to use risk limitation mechanisms that automatically remove a market maker's quotes in all series of an options class when the market maker's risk settings are triggered.
An Electronic Complex Order may execute against quotes or individual orders comprising the Complex Order (the “leg markets”), or against Electronic Complex Orders resting in the Consolidated Book.
According to the Exchanges, Electronic Complex Order where two or more legs are buying (selling) calls (puts) raise particular concerns because these “directional” complex orders are aggressively buying or selling volatility.
(i) Composed of two legs that are (a) both buy orders or both sell orders, and (b) both legs are calls or both legs are puts;
(ii) composed of three or more legs and (a) all legs are buy orders; or (b) all legs are sell orders.
The Exchanges believe that the potential risk of the specified directional Electronic Complex Orders undermining the efficacy of market makers' risk settings outweighs any potential benefit to market participants submitting such orders packaged as Electronic Complex Orders.
Finally, the Exchanges propose to delete the words “Types of” from NYSE Arca Rule 6.91(b) and NYSE MKT Rule 980NY(d) because the subsequent paragraphs in the rules describe certain requirements for Electronic Complex Orders, rather than types of Electronic Complex Orders.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule changes are consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On July 26, 2016, The NASDAQ Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to offer Nasdaq Trading Insights, a new optional market data product that would be available to all of the Exchange's participants for subscription.
The Missed Opportunity—Liquidity component would identify when an order from a market participant could have been increased in size and thus executed more shares.
The Missed Opportunity—Latency component would identify by how much time a marketable order missed executing a resting order that was cancelled or executed.
The Peer Benchmarking component would rank the quality of a market participant's trading performance against its peers trading on Nasdaq.
The Liquidity Dynamics Analysis component would contain historical aggregated metrics and statistics regarding displayed and hidden liquidity on the Exchange for NMS securities listed on Nasdaq, the New York Stock Exchange, and other U.S. equity exchanges.
The Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
As noted above, Nasdaq Trading Insights would be an optional market data product available to all of the Exchange's participants for subscription, and would be designed to provide additional information and insight to subscribing market participants regarding their trading activity on the Exchange.
Based on the Exchange's representations with respect to the Nasdaq Trading Insights product and for the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment Nos. 1 and 2, is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Department of State.
Notice; Request for proposals.
The Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs (SCA) of the U.S. Department of State (Department) requests proposals from private U.S. individuals, firms, associations and organizations (for-profit or non-profit) for the design, development, installation, operation (including managing sponsorship donations and sponsorship fulfillment), and final disposition of a U.S. Pavilion at the International Exposition Astana Expo 2017, whose theme is “Future Energy.” The Department will issue a “letter of intent” to the selected proposer authorizing that entity to proceed with all fundraising necessary to complete the USA Pavilion project. Note that all prospective donors must be vetted with the Department for potential conflicts of interest. The Department is not authorized to provide federal funding for any aspect of the U.S. Pavilion at Astana Expo 2017. The successful proposer will be responsible for all costs associated with all aspects of the U.S. Pavilion as well as all support for the U.S. Commissioner General. The successful proposer will consult closely with and follow the direction of Department officials and the U.S. Commissioner General with respect to Pavilion content and programming. Proposals from non-U.S. citizens or non-U.S.-owned firms or organizations shall be deemed
Submit proposals on or before October 26, 2016.
Office of Central Asian Affairs, SCA/CEN, U.S. Department of State, 2201 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20520; or email
Overall authority for Department support for U.S. participation in international expositions is contained in Section 102(a)(3) of the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act of 1961, as amended (
The Government of the Republic of Kazakhstan has invited the United States to participate in the Astana Expo 2017 and the U.S. Government has advised the Kazakhstani Government of its intention to participate with an official U.S. Pavilion, subject to identification of a viable private sector partner and successful fundraising efforts. Astana Expo 2017 will be held on specially constructed exhibition grounds provided free of charge by the Kazakhstani Government. The Expo opens on June 10, 2017, and closes on September 10, 2017.
Astana Expo 2017 is a small-scale international exposition recognized by the International Expositions Bureau (BIE). The BIE is an international treaty organization established to sanction and monitor international exhibitions of long duration (over three weeks) and significant scale.
Invitations to international expositions are extended from the host government to other governments. The United States is not a member of the BIE, and the U.S. Commissioner General—selected by the Department—will therefore not be a formal member of the Steering Committee of the College of Commissioners General for Astana Expo 2017. With a projected two million visitors and five million visits, Astana Expo 2017 offers an excellent opportunity to educate and inform foreign audiences about the United States and its scientific and technological innovations relating to the theme of the Astana Expo—future energy—as well as to promote broad U.S. commercial interests around the world. U.S. participation in Astana Expo 2017 would confirm the strength and importance of U.S.-Kazakhstan bilateral ties and promote mutual understanding between the people of Kazakhstan and the United States.
The JSC Astana EXPO-2017, the organizing committee for the Astana Expo, explains the overall theme of the Expo, “Future Energy,” as follows: “combating climate change and reducing CO2 emissions, promoting energy alternatives—renewable energy in particular—and driving energy efficiency programs; ensuring energy security; managing energy production, storage and use; and guaranteeing universal access to sustainable energy.” The theme for the U.S. Pavilion should be directly linked to the overall theme of the Expo and should reflect elements of the White House's “all of the above” energy strategy (
The U.S. Pavilion at Astana Expo 2017 will be an official representation of the Government of the United States of America in Kazakhstan; the Department must therefore ensure that the U.S. Pavilion is nonpolitical and nonpartisan in nature, of the highest possible quality, and balanced and representative of the diversity of American political, social, and cultural life. The Pavilion must maintain the highest level of scholarly integrity and meet the highest standards of artistic achievement and academic excellence. It should also be entertaining and interactive.
The U.S. Pavilion will be used to promote U.S. commercial interests as well as to highlight outstanding U.S. scientific and technological achievements. The proposed design for the U.S. Pavilion should include functional space for three purposes: An exhibit area, an administrative area, and hospitality facilities. The Pavilion layout should also include provisions for sponsorship recognition. Firms or companies subcontracted for design and other content creation must be U.S.-owned.
Further information on Astana Expo 2017 can be found at the official Expo Web site:
Proposals must include a plan for managing student “ambassadors” (guides) at the U.S. Pavilion. All student ambassadors must be U.S. citizens, from a diverse set of backgrounds and U.S. States, and be fluent in Russian or Kazakh. Experience has shown that it is highly advantageous to have a student ambassador program run in conjunction with a U.S.-based college or university.
Section 204 of
The U.S. Pavilion will be situated in an approximate 1,100-square-meter module provided at no-cost by the JSC Astana EXPO-2017. A mezzanine floor may be installed within the 12.5-meter height of the module. It is estimated that a representative U.S. presence in that space will cost $6 (six) million.
Costs would include, but not be limited to:
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The successful proposer will be responsible for full operation of the U.S. Pavilion. This would include, but not be limited to, such areas as protocol, public affairs, sponsorship fulfillment, cultural programming, student guide services, communications, operations, security, cleaning, and maintenance. Office space must be adequate for the proposed number of staff. A proposed staffing plan should be provided in the response to this RFP.
Interested parties may view the Participation Guide at:
Applications may be submitted by individuals, firms, associations, and public and private organizations (non-profit or for-profit). Non-profit organizations must meet the provisions described in Internal Revenue Code section
Please contact the Office of Central Asian Affairs, SCA/CEN, U.S. Department of State, 2201 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20520; or email
Proposals should be provided in a narrative of
• Willingness to adhere to the General Regulations of Astana Expo 2017, as stipulated by the JSC Astana EXPO-2017, including restrictions and limitations related to construction;
• Track record of working with Pavilions and on the proposed theme;
• Experienced staff with language facility in Russian and/or Kazakh;
• Clear concept for the exhibit plan and storyline, including designs;
• Detailed budget showing breakdown of budget items required for each aspect of the project development and implementation;
• Experience in budget management including examples of reacting to unforeseen circumstances while still operating within budget constraints;
• Detailed organizational chart indicating all necessary positions and start dates, including but not limited to design, operations, financial management, communications, protocol, Sponsor recruitment and fulfillment, and student ambassadors;
• Timeline detailing each step in the design, outfitting, and breakdown of the U.S. Pavilion as well as the development of the U.S. Pavilion content; and
• Agreement to consult closely with and follow the direction of Department officials and the U.S. Commissioner General and a communication plan proposing how to do so.
Proposals should state clearly that all materials developed specifically for the project will be subject to prior review and approval by SCA. In addition, proposals should state that all contracts or sub-contracts contemplated to be awarded by the proposer to further the purposes of the U.S. Pavilion which are in excess of $50,000 will be reviewed and approved by SCA prior to their award.
Proposal submissions must be sent via a nationally recognized overnight delivery service (
The original and ten copies of the application should be sent to:
U.S. Department of State, Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs, Ref.: Astana Expo 2017 RFP, SCA/CEN, 2201 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20520.
Applicants must also submit the “Executive Summary” and “Proposal Narrative” sections of the proposal in text (.txt) or word (.doc) format via email to
The Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs (SCA) will review all proposals for technical eligibility. Proposals will be deemed
SCA will review all eligible proposals, as will relevant elements of the U.S. Mission in the Republic of Kazakhstan and a panel of senior U.S. Government employees. Proposals may also be reviewed by the Office of the Legal Adviser or by other Department elements and private sector experts. The final decision on which proposal is most advantageous to the U.S. Government will be at the sole discretion of the Department's Assistant Secretary for South and Central Asian Affairs.
Technically, eligible proposals will be reviewed according to the criteria stated below. These criteria are
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The Department will issue a “letter of intent” to the selected proposer authorizing that entity to proceed with fundraising to complete the USA Pavilion project. The letter will include guidelines on fundraising to be followed by the selected proposer and will establish a deadline for completion of all fundraising activities. The successful proposer must be able to demonstrate to the Department that it can raise the funds necessary to complete the project. The successful proposer is expected to sign a Memorandum of Understanding with the Department. Only after the successful proposer is able to demonstrate that all funding required for this project will be in hand will the Department of State sign a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with that proposer, sign a Participation Contract with the Expo organizing body, and appoint a Commissioner General.
Unsuccessful proposers will receive notification of the results of the application review from the Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs (SCA).
The successful proposer must provide SCA with a hard copy original plus two copies of the following reports:
1. Program and financial reports every 45 (forty-five) calendar days after the signature of the Memorandum of Understanding.
2. Final program and financial reports no more than 90 (ninety) calendar days after the scheduled September 10, 2017, closing of Astana Expo 2017.
For questions about this announcement, contact: U.S. Department of State, Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs, Ref.: Astana Expo 2017 RFP, SCA/CEN, 2201 C Street NW., Washington, DC 20520;
Correspondence with SCA concerning this Request for Proposals (RFP) should reference Astana Expo 2017.
Please read the complete announcement before sending inquiries or submitting proposals. Once the RFP deadline for submission of proposals has passed, SCA staff may not discuss this competition with applicants until the proposal review process has been completed.
The terms and conditions published in this Request for Proposals are binding and may only be modified in writing. Explanatory information provided by the Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs (SCA) that contradicts published language will not be binding. Issuance of this RFP does not constitute an intention to agree to work with any private sector entity at Astana Expo
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the entity known as Jund al-Aqsa, also known as JAA, also known as Jund Al-Aqsa, also known as The Soldiers of Aqsa, also known as Soldiers of al-Aqsa, also known as Sarayat al-Quds, committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Notice is hereby given of the following determinations: Pursuant to the authority vested in me by the Act of October 19, 1965 (79 Stat. 985; 22 U.S.C. 2459), E.O. 12047 of March 27, 1978, the Foreign Affairs Reform and Restructuring Act of 1998 (112 Stat. 2681,
For further information, including a list of the imported objects, contact the Office of Public Diplomacy and Public Affairs in the Office of the Legal Adviser, U.S. Department of State (telephone: 202-632-6471; email:
Based upon a review of the Administrative Record assembled
Therefore, I hereby determine that the designation of the aforementioned organization as a Foreign Terrorist Organization, pursuant to Section 219 of the INA (8 U.S.C. 1189), shall be maintained.
This determination shall be published in the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew a previously approved information collection. The FAA has established the ATC Authorization in Controlled Airspace under Part 107 portal to allow a remote pilot in command to request FAA authorization for a small unmanned aircraft to operate in Class B, C, D, and the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport.
Written comments should be submitted by November 25, 2016.
Send comments to the FAA at the following address: Ronda Thompson, Room 441, Federal Aviation Administration, ASP-110, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20024.
Ronda Thompson by email at:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, FAA invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval to renew a previously approved information collection. The collection of information is necessary to document participation, completion, and compliance with the pilot training program for the MU-2B under the newly published subpart N of part 91 which will replace SFAR No. 108.
Written comments should be submitted by November 25, 2016.
Send comments to the FAA at the following address: Ronda Thompson, Room 441, Federal Aviation Administration, ASP-110, 950 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20024.
You are asked to comment on any aspect of this information collection, including (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for FAA's performance; (b) the accuracy of the estimated burden; (c) ways for FAA to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and (d) ways that the burden could be minimized without reducing the quality of the collected information. The agency will summarize and/or include your comments in the request for OMB's clearance of this information collection.
Ronda Thompson by email at:
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (“OFAC”) is removing the name of 1 entity whose property and interests in property have been blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism,” from the list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (“SDN List”).
OFAC's actions described in this notice are effective on September 16, 2016.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
The following entity is removed from the SDN List, effective as of September 16, 2016.
1. AL-HARAMAIN: UNITED STATES BRANCH (a.k.a. AL HARAMAIN FOUNDATION, INC.; a.k.a. ALHARAMAIN; a.k.a. ALHARAMAIN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAIN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMAIN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAIN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMAIN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAIN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMAYN; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAYN; a.k.a. ALHARAMAYN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAYN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMAYN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAYN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMAYN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMAYN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMEIN; a.k.a. AL-HARAMEIN; a.k.a. ALHARAMEIN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMEIN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMEIN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMEIN HUMANITARIAN FOUNDATION; a.k.a. ALHARAMEIN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. AL-HARAMEIN ISLAMIC FOUNDATION; a.k.a. MU'ASSASAT AL-HARAMAIN AL-KHAYRIYYA; a.k.a. MU'ASSASAT AL-HARAMAYN AL-KHAYRIYYA; a.k.a. MU'ASSASAT AL-HARAMEIN AL-KHAYRIYYA; a.k.a. VAZIR; a.k.a. VEZIR), 3800 Highway 99 S., Ashland, OR 97520-8718, United States; 1257 Siskiyou BLVD, Ashland, OR 97520, United States; 2151 E. Division St., Springfield, MO 65803, United States [SDGT].
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is removing the names of 3 individuals, whose property and interests in property were blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13224, from the list of Specially Designated Nationals and Blocked Persons (SDN List).
OFAC's actions described in this notice were effective June 30, 2016.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202-622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202-622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202-622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202-622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On June 30, 2016, OFAC removed the following 3 individuals from the SDN List.
1. JIM'ALE, Ahmed Nur Ali (a.k.a. JIMALE, Ahmad Ali; a.k.a. JIM'ALE, Ahmad Nur Ali; a.k.a. JIMALE, Ahmed Ali; a.k.a. JIMALE, Shaykh Ahmed Nur; a.k.a. JIMALE, Sheikh Ahmed; a.k.a. JUMALE, Ahmed Ali; a.k.a. JUMALE, Ahmed Nur; a.k.a. JUMALI, Ahmed Ali), P.O. Box 3312, Dubai, United Arab Emirates; Mogadishu, Somalia; Djibouti, Djibouti; DOB 20 May 1954; POB Eilbur, Somalia; nationality Somalia; citizen Somalia; alt. citizen Djibouti; Passport A0181988 (Somalia) issued 01 Oct 2001 expires 23 Jan 2011; Additional Djiboutian passport issued in 2010. (individual) [SDGT].
2. Daki, Mohamed, Via Melato 11, Reggio Emilia, Italy; DOB 29 Mar 1965; POB Casablanca, Morocco; nationality Morocco; arrested 4 Apr 2003 (individual) [SDGT].
3. HIMMAT, Ali Ghaleb, Via Posero 2, Compione d'Italia CH-6911,
Office of Foreign Assets Control, Treasury.
Notice.
The Treasury Department's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is publishing the names of 6 individuals whose property and interests in property are blocked pursuant to Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism.”
OFAC's actions described in this notice were effective on May 19, 2016.
Associate Director for Global Targeting, tel.: 202/622-2420, Assistant Director for Sanctions Compliance & Evaluation, tel.: 202/622-2490, Assistant Director for Licensing, tel.: 202/622-2480, Office of Foreign Assets Control, or Chief Counsel (Foreign Assets Control), tel.: 202/622-2410, Office of the General Counsel, Department of the Treasury (not toll free numbers).
The SDN List and additional information concerning OFAC sanctions programs are available from OFAC's Web site (
On May 19, 2016, OFAC blocked the property and interests in property of the following 6 individuals pursuant to E.O. 13224, “Blocking Property and Prohibiting Transactions With Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism”:
1. AL-'ANIZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd al-Rahman Fayhan Sharban (a.k.a. AL-'ANIZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd-al-Rahman Fihan Sharyan; a.k.a. AL-'ANIZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd-al-Rahman Fihan Shiryan; a.k.a. AL-'ANIZI, 'Abdullah Hadi 'Abd al-Rahman Fayzan Sharifan; a.k.a. AL-'ANZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd al-Rahman Fayhan Sharban; a.k.a. AL-ANZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd al-Rahman Fayhan Sharyan; a.k.a. AL-ANZI, 'Abdallah Hadi 'Abd al-Rahman Fayzan Sharifan al-Anzi; a.k.a. “AL-KUWAITI, Zubayr”; a.k.a. “AL-ZUBAYR, Abu”), Hawali, Hawali Governorate, Kuwait; DOB 02 Aug 1984; POB Kuwait; citizen Kuwait; Passport 107609169 (Kuwait); Driver's License No. 3284670 expires 21 Aug 2017; Identification Number 284080201511 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: AL QA'IDA; Linked To: AL-NUSRAH FRONT).
2. AL-ZAIDI, Ghalib Abdullah (a.k.a. AL-ZAYDI, Ghalib 'Abdallah 'Ali), Yemen; DOB 1975; alt. DOB 1970; POB Raqqah Region, Marib Governorate, Yemen (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: AL-QA'IDA IN THE ARABIAN PENINSULA).
3. `AMMAR, Salmi Salama Salim Sulayman (a.k.a. “`ASRA, Abu”; a.k.a. “YUSRI”); DOB 01 Jan 1979 to 31 Dec 1979 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: ISIL SINAI PROVINCE).
4. AL-MUTAYRI, Abd al-Muhsin Zabin Mutib Naif (a.k.a. AL-MUTAIRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin; a.k.a. AL-MUTAIRI, Abdulmohsen Zeben Mutaab; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zaban; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zabin Mut'ab; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zabin Naif; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zibin Mut'ib Nayif; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zibn Muta'ab; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zubin; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Mushin Zabin Mutib Naif; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, 'Abd al-Mushin Zabn; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYRI, Dr. 'Abd al-Muhsin Zabn Mut'ib; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYYIRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zabin Mutab Nayif; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYYIRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zabn; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYYIRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zubyn; a.k.a. AL-MUTAYYRI, 'Abd al-Muhsin; a.k.a. “AL-ZIBIN, Muhsin”; a.k.a. “NAYIF, 'Abd al-Muhsin Zayn Mun'ib”), Kuwait; DOB 01 Jul 1973; POB Kuwait; nationality Kuwait (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: AL-NUSRAH FRONT).
5. AL-QAYSI, Nayif Salih Salim (a.k.a. AL QAISI, Naif Saleh Salem; a.k.a. AL QAYSI, Nayif Salih Salim; a.k.a. AL-GHAYSI, Nayif), Al-Bayda Governorate, Yemen; Sana, Sana Governorate, Yemen; DOB 01 Jan 1983; POB Albaidah, Yemen; citizen Yemen; Passport 04796738 (Yemen) (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: AL-QA'IDA IN THE ARABIAN PENINSULA).
6. MAHAMED, Mostafa (a.k.a. ABDEL HAMID, Mostafa Mohamed; a.k.a. FARAG, Mostafa; a.k.a. FARAG, Mostafa Mohamed; a.k.a. “AL AUSTRALI, Abu Sulayman”; a.k.a. “AL MUHAJIR, Abu Sulayman”; a.k.a. “AL USTRALI, Abu Sulayman”; a.k.a. “AL-MASRI, Abu Sulayman”); DOB 14 Feb 1984; POB Port Said, Egypt; nationality Australia; alt. nationality Egypt; Passport M1898709 (Australia) expires 11 Oct 2012; Driver's License No. 13652517 (Australia) expires 19 Apr 2014 (individual) [SDGT] (Linked To: AL-NUSRAH FRONT).
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the genera public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 1120-ND, Return for Nuclear Decommissioning Funds and Certain Related Persons.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any Internal Revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Notice 2006-107, Diversification Requirements for Qualified Defined Contribution Plans Holding Publicly Traded Employer Securities.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the revenue procedure should be directed to Allan Hopkins at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning definition of a controlled foreign corporation, foreign base company income and foreign personal holding company income of a controlled foreign corporation.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed Allan Hopkins, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 6497, Information Return of Nontaxable Energy Grants or Subsidized Energy Financing.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to LaNita VanDyke at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Revenue Procedure 2012-25, Average Area Purchase Price Safe Harbors and Nationwide Purchase Prices under section 143.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the revenue procedure should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6525, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Revenue Procedure 98-19, Exceptions to the notice and reporting requirements of section 6033(e)(1) and the tax imposed by section 6033(e)(2).
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the revenue procedure should be directed to Allan Hopkins at Internal Revenue Service, room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington,
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Notice 2006-109, Interim Guidance Regarding Supporting Organizations and Donor Advised Funds.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of notice should be directed to Sara Covington at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8612, Return of Excise Tax on Undistributed Income of Real Estate Investment Trusts.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Sara Covington, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning an existing final regulation, REG-107186-00 (TD 9114), Electronic Payee Statements (§§ 1.6041-2, 1.6050S-2, 1.6050S-4, and 31.6051-1).
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to Sara Covington at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning guidance on cash or deferred arrangements.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to Sara Covington at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8868, Application for Extension of Time To File an Exempt Organization Return.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Allan Hopkins, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning the Tip Reporting Alternative Commitment Agreement (TRAC) for Use in the Food and Beverage Industry; the Tip Rate Determination Agreement (TRDA) for industries other than the food and beverage industry and the gaming industry.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the collection tools should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
Currently, the IRS is seeking comments concerning the following information collection tools, reporting, and record-keeping requirements:
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning, Changes in Accounting Periods.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Revenue Procedure RP-125212-09, Rules for Certain Rental Real Estate Activities.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Allan Hopkins, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning proceeds of bonds used for reimbursement (§ 1.150-2(e)).
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Sara Covington, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.
Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning qualified zone academy bonds: Obligations of states and political subdivisions.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulation should be directed to Sara Covington, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington DC 20224, or through the internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 6197, Gas Guzzler Tax.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Sara Covington at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8734, Support Schedule for Advance Ruling Period.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Sara Covington, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8873, Extraterritorial Income Exclusion.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Change in Minimum Funding Method.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the revenue procedure should
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning REG-106542-98, T.D. 9032, Election to Treat Trust as Part of an Estate (§ 1.645-1).
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of this regulation should be directed to Sara Covington at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet, at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 706-QDT, U.S. Estate Tax Return for Qualified Domestic Trusts.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to LaNita Van Dyke, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 720-CS, Carrier Summary Report.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6516, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Allan Hopkins, at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13(44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning procedural rules for excise taxes currently reportable on Form 720.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the regulations should be directed to Allan Hopkins at Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the internet at
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of the Treasury, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13 (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)). Currently, the IRS is soliciting comments concerning Form 8908, Energy Efficient Home Credit.
Written comments should be received on or before November 25, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Direct all written comments to Tuawana Pinkston, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6526, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224.
Requests for additional information or copies of the form and instructions should be directed to Martha R. Brinson, Internal Revenue Service, Room 6129, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or through the Internet at
The following paragraph applies to all of the collections of information covered by this notice:
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number. Books or records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and
National Cemetery Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.
Notice.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) National Cemetery Administration (NCA), is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Written comments and recommendations on the proposed collection of information should be received on or before November 25, 2016.
Submit written comments on the collection of information through Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) at
Willie Lewis at (202) 461-4242 or FAX (202) 501-2240.
Under the PRA of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13; 44 U.S.C. 3501-21), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. This request for comment is being made pursuant to Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA.
With respect to the following collection of information, NCA invites comments on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of NCA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of NCA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or the use of other forms of information technology.
a.
b.
c.
By direction of the Secretary.
Social Security Administration.
Final rules.
We are revising the criteria in the Listing of Impairments (listings) that we use to evaluate claims involving mental disorders in adults and children under titles II and XVI of the Social Security Act (Act). The revisions reflect our program experience, advances in medical knowledge, recommendations from a commissioned report, and public comments we received in response to a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM).
These rules are effective January 17, 2017.
Cheryl A. Williams, Office of Medical Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21235-6401, (410) 965-1020. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213, or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
We are revising and making final the rules for evaluating mental disorders we proposed in an NPRM published in the
In the preamble to the NPRM, we discussed the revisions we proposed for the mental disorders body system. To the extent that we are adopting those revisions as we proposed them, we are not repeating that information here. Interested readers may refer to the preamble to the NPRM, available at
We are making several changes in these final rules from the NPRM based upon some of the public comments we received. We explain those changes in later sections of this preamble. We are also making minor editorial changes throughout these final rules. We are making final the non-substantive editorial changes, the conforming changes in other body systems, and the changes we proposed in 114.00.
We developed these final rules as part of our ongoing review of the listings. We are revising the listings to update the medical criteria, provide more information on how we evaluate mental disorders, reflect our program experience, and address adjudicator questions. The revisions also reflect comments we received from medical experts and the public at an outreach policy conference, in response to an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) published on March 17, 2003 (68 FR 12639), and in response to the NPRM.
As we noted in the dates section of this preamble, these final rules will be effective on January 17, 2017. We delayed the effective date of the rules to give us time to update our systems, provide training and guidance to all of our adjudicators, and revise our internal forms and notices before we implement the final rules. The prior rules will continue to apply until the effective date of these final rules. When the final rules become effective, we will apply them to new applications filed on or after the effective date of the rules, and to claims that are pending on or after the effective date.
In the NPRM, we provided the public with a 90-day comment period that ended on November 17, 2010. We received 2,245 public comments during this comment period. The commenters included national medical organizations, advocacy groups, legal services organizations, national groups representing claimants' representatives, a national group representing disability examiners in the State agencies that make disability determinations for us, individual State agencies, and other members of the public. A number of the letters provided identical comments and recommendations.
We published a notice that reopened the NPRM comment period for 15 days on November 24, 2010 (75 FR 71632). We reopened the comment period to clarify and seek additional public comment about an aspect of the proposed definitions of the terms “marked” and “extreme” in sections 12.00 and 112.00 of our listings. We received 156 additional comments during the reopened comment period, for a total of 2,401 total public comments.
We considered all of the significant comments relevant to this rulemaking. We condensed and summarized the comments below. We have tried to present the commenters' concerns and suggestions accurately and completely, and we have responded to all significant issues that were within the scope of these rules. We provide our reasons for adopting or not adopting the recommendations in our responses below.
We also received comments supporting our proposed changes. We appreciate those comments; however, we did not include them. Finally, some of the comments were outside the scope of the rulemaking. In a few cases, we summarized and responded to such comments because they raised public concerns that we thought were important to address in this preamble. For example, we received comments about the statutory policies regarding how we evaluate substance use disorders. We thought that it was important to explain how we follow the requirements of the statute for claims in which a substance use disorder is involved. However, in most cases, we did not summarize or respond to comments that were outside the scope of our rulemaking. As one example, several commenters asked us to give equal weight to evidence that we receive from all medical sources and to consider that evidence separately from the other information collected from non-medical sources. We will retain these types of comments and consider them if they are appropriate for other rulemaking actions.
• Revised the titles of most of the listings to reflect the terminology that the DSM-5 uses to describe categories of mental disorders;
• added a new listing for trauma- and stressor-related disorders that is separate from the listing for anxiety disorders;
• consulted the descriptions of mental disorders in the DSM-5 when we described the mental disorders that we evaluate under each listing; and
• consulted the diagnostic criteria in the DSM-5 when we revised the criteria for each listing.
We also added an explanation to final 112.00B1b that we evaluate neurological disorders under that body system (see 111.00). We evaluate cognitive impairments that result from neurological disorders under 112.02 if they do not satisfy the requirements in 111.00. We evaluate catastrophic genetic disorders under the listings in 110.00, 111.00, or 112.00, as appropriate. We evaluate genetic disorders that are not catastrophic under the affected body system(s).
In addition, to respond to this comment, we updated the title of listing 112.11 to “neurodevelopmental disorders,” which is the term used in the DSM-5 for these types of impairments, to better distinguish the applicability of listings 112.02 and 112.11. Another intended distinction between these two listings is that of knowing, compared with not knowing, the cause of a child's mental impairment. If we know that the mental impairment has an organic cause, we will evaluate the impairment under listing 112.02; if the cause is not known, we will evaluate the impairment under listing 112.11.
Although some people with ASD do not have cognitive limitations, some do. Any method of evaluation intended to apply to everyone with ASD must provide criteria for assessing the range of possible limitations that individuals with the disorder may experience. For this reason, we apply all four of the paragraph B criteria, including paragraphs B1, understand, remember, or apply information, and B3, concentrate, persist, or maintain pace, to ASD.
We did not include conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder in the list of examples of disorders that we evaluate under listing 112.08 because, in our programmatic experience, these impairments do not typically result in marked limitation in two of the “paragraph B” criteria, or extreme limitation in one of the criteria. However, the list of examples in final 12.00B7b is not exclusive. Either or both of these impairments may meet or medically equal the criteria in listing 112.08, depending on the facts of the individual case.
Regarding the commenters' suggestions about sources of evidence and our evaluation of mental disorders, we appreciate the views and recommendations, and the NPRM and the final rules reflect them. For example, in final 12.00C2, we explain how we consider evidence from medical sources. We state that we consider all relevant medical evidence, including the results of physical or mental status examinations, structured clinical interviews, psychiatric or psychological rating scales, measures of adaptive functioning, and observations and descriptions of how a claimant functions during examinations or therapy. As another example, in final 12.00C3, we state that we consider evidence from third parties who can provide information about a claimant's mental disorder, including a claimant's symptoms, daily functioning, and medical treatment. We added to the list examples of people who can provide us with this evidence. The list of examples includes family, caregivers, friends, neighbors, clergy, social workers, shelter staff, or other community support and outreach workers.
Regarding the suggestion for a case-by-case assessment of each claimant, our longstanding principle has been to evaluate each person who files a disability claim on an individualized basis. We understand that no mental disorder affects all individuals in the same way; rather, mental disorders affect each person uniquely in every aspect of his or her life. Our process of evaluating four criteria that reflect a person's functional abilities and rating the person's limitations for each criterion is just one example of our commitment to individualized, case-by-case assessments.
To the extent that the comments pertained to our policies for ordering standardized assessment instruments when we purchase psychological consultative examinations for children, the comment would be outside of the scope of the proposed rulemaking. Our policies regarding consultative examinations for children are in §§ 416.917-416.919t.
The final rules will use information about a person's ADL as a principal source of information, rather than as a criterion of disability. This change is congruent with the focus of the paragraph B criteria on the mental abilities a person uses to perform work activities. The principle is that any given activity, including ADL, may involve the simultaneous use of the paragraph B areas of mental functioning. For example, with respect to the same activity, one person may have trouble understanding and remembering what
In our prior rules on evaluating mental disorders, there is precedent for using the two separate paragraph B criteria to evaluate a person's functioning. Since 1990, in the rules for evaluating mental disorders in children, we have used separate criteria for assessing a child's cognitive functioning and the child's concentration, persistence, and pace (see 112.00). Since 1991, the rules for assessing a claimant's mental residual functional capacity (MRFC) have specifically addressed non-exertional limitations, including limitations in the person's ability to understand or remember instructions and to maintain attention or concentration (see §§ 404.1569a(c) and 416.969a(c)). Our programmatic experience has been that when a person's difficulties with the abilities described in paragraphs B1 and B3 rise to the level of marked limitation, the medical and non-medical evidence in the record is typically sufficient to distinguish the person's limitations in those abilities.
Additionally, we note that the content of the B4 criterion is not new or different from what adjudicators are already accustomed to evaluating and documenting. Our adjudicators already consider a person's ability to respond appropriately to work pressures when they assess the nature and extent of a person's mental limitations and determine the person's residual functional capacity for work activity (see §§ 404.1545(c) and 416.945(c)).
With respect to the comment that self-management and skills for independence encompass more than the workplace, we agree that the ability and skills we address in paragraph B4 are important in daily life as well as the workplace. The statutory definition of disability for adults limits our determination to whether a person is able to work (and, therefore, function in the workplace). However, we use all the information available to us about how a person functions, including how the person manages him- or herself from day-to-day at home and in the community, to make this determination.
In these final rules, we removed the provisions and explanations that were in proposed 12.00D. We provide guidance that is different from what we proposed in 12.00D in final 12.00F (
Second and related to the first point above, the DSM-5 does not use the terms “mild,” “moderate,” and “severe” consistently for all of the types of mental disorders. For example, the DSM-5 does not use the words “mild,” “moderate,” or “severe” to describe anxiety disorders. In addition to these three words, the DSM-5 also uses the word “profound” to describe some cases of intellectual disability. As a result, if we were to rely on the DSM-5 definitions of these terms, we would not have definitions for all types of impairments. The DSM-5 definitions are not comprehensive enough for our program purposes.
Third, we have used the words “mild,” “moderate,” “marked,” and “extreme” under our prior rules for many years. Although we did not provide definitions for most of these terms until now, the definitions in final 12.00F are consistent with how our adjudicators have understood and used those words in our program since we first introduced the rating scale in 1985. As a result, the definitions we provide in these rules do not represent a departure from prior policy. However, the DSM-5 definitions for these terms are not consistent with how we have used these words in our program in the past. For example, a claimant who has “mild” intellectual disability according to the DSM-5 may have “moderate” or “marked” limitation in understanding, remembering, or applying information, depending on the facts of the case. We believe that using familiar definitions and concepts to define familiar terms will be easier for the public and adjudicators, rather than describing familiar terms in changed and unfamiliar ways.
For these three reasons, we did not adopt the second recommendation.
Third, we revised the guidance to indicate that only qualified specialists, Federal and State agency medical and psychological consultants, and other contracted medical and psychological experts, may conclude that an obtained IQ score(s) is not an accurate reflection of a claimant's general intellectual functioning. This change serves several purposes. It responds to the commenters' concern that proposed 12.00D gave an inappropriate amount of discretion to the adjudicators who do not have the expertise of the test administrators by permitting only the individuals who
We did not adopt the suggestion to evaluate and rate deficits in adaptive functioning in terms of scores that are two or more standard deviations below the mean. We are aware that for the AAIDD, “. . . significant limitations in adaptive behavior are operationally defined as performance that is two standard deviations below the mean of either (a) one of the following three types of adaptive behavior: conceptual, social, or practical, or (b) an overall score on a standardized measure of conceptual, social, and practical skills.”
However, the use of standard deviations as a required measure of deficits in adaptive functioning under listing 12.05 is not feasible or necessary in our program. The suggestion is not feasible because inclusion of such criteria in the listing would mean that we would have to require the results of a standardized test of adaptive functioning in every case evaluated under that listing. Although we can agree with the recommendation in principle, the medical evidence of record for claims that we would evaluate under listing 12.05 do not always contain adaptive functioning test results. Financial constraints within the disability program preclude our purchasing such testing in every case lacking such results.
Additionally, the suggestion is unnecessary because the areas of mental functioning described in the 12.00 “paragraph B” criteria capture both the spirit and intent of the AAIDD's descriptions and understanding of the elements of adaptive functioning. For that reason, as for all other mental disorders, we use the paragraph B areas of mental functioning to evaluate the limitations in a person's adaptive functioning under listing 12.05. We explain in final 12.00H3 that if a person's case record includes the results of a standardized test of adaptive functioning, we will consider the test results along with all other relevant evidence. However, to evaluate and determine the severity of those deficits, we will use the guidelines in final 12.00E, F, and H.
In cases of alleged mental impairment in which a substance use disorder is involved, we will evaluate the person's mental impairment, as appropriate, under the mental disorder listing for the involved condition (for example, depressive, bipolar and related disorders; schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders), and according to the guidelines in SSR 13-2p.
However, we are unlike other Federal agencies that have adopted the new terminology “intellectual disability” because we must comply with a legal definition of the word “disability.” As a result, a person who has a cognitive
Although we carefully considered all of the comments we received in response to the 2010 NPRM, we ultimately agreed with those commenters who, while favoring the idea of changing the name of the listing, recommended the name “intellectual disorder” for listings 12.05 and 112.05. We agree with their perspective and their recommendation, and we have adopted their proposed name change.
Other commenters thought that proposed 12.00B4d would allow adjudicators to use “virtually . . . anything as evidence of a level of functioning that is inconsistent with” intellectual disability. An attorney who represents disability claimants indicated that adjudicators cite “high adaptive scores, or virtually anything in the record, as evidence of a level of functioning that is inconsistent” with intellectual disability.
Second, we removed proposed 12.00B4d, and we added final 12.00H to expand and organize the guidance for documenting and considering evidence under final listing 12.05. In final 12.00H2, we state that we will find standardized intelligence test results usable when a qualified specialist has individually administered the test. We indicate that only qualified specialists, Federal and State agency medical and psychological consultants, and other contracted medical and psychological experts may conclude that an obtained IQ score(s) is not an accurate reflection of a person's general intellectual functioning. The conclusion of the qualified specialist, or medical or psychological consultant or expert, about the accuracy of the obtained IQ score(s) determines whether the person's cognitive impairment satisfies the IQ score criterion.
Third, in response to concerns that an adjudicator might misinterpret information about a person's daily functioning, we included guidance in three sections of the final rules to ensure proper evaluation of that information. In final 12.00D3, which applies to all of the mental disorders listings, we explain how we consider the complete picture of the person's day-to-day functioning, including the kinds, extent, and frequency of help and support received. In final 12.00H3d, which applies to final listing 12.05B, we discuss how we consider evidence that a person engages in commonplace everyday activities when we evaluate his or her adaptive functioning. We state that a person may demonstrate both strengths and deficits in adaptive functioning, and we cite examples of the kinds of commonplace activities that a person might engage in. In final 12.00H3e, which also applies to final listing 12.05B, we discuss how we consider evidence that a person engaged in work when we evaluate his or her adaptive functioning. We describe special circumstances that may have made it possible for the person to work. In these two sections, we explain that we will not assume that doing some commonplace activities or work activity demonstrates that the person's impairment does not satisfy the criteria in 12.05B.
Regarding the request to ensure that adjudicators respect “a valid diagnosis of `intellectual disability,' ” we did not adopt this comment. It has been our experience that there can be considerable variability in the quality of reports of psychological examinations and intelligence testing. Moreover, our mental disorders listings are function-driven, not diagnosis-driven. To address this situation, and for the reasons explained in other sections of the preamble, we believe that the revision to listing 12.05 is a simpler, more effective approach to evaluating intellectual disability. The three elements that define “intellectual disability” are the three criteria in listing 12.05. We do not
Additionally, in 2000, we commissioned a report from the National Research Council (NRC) about intellectual disability and determining eligibility for social security benefits, published in 2002.
Despite this recommendation, the NRC noted that in some instances when a person obtains a full scale IQ score from 71 through 75, it can be appropriate to use certain part scores (verbal or performance IQ scores) that are 70 or below to establish that the person has significant limitations in general intellectual functioning. We largely adopted this recommendation for final listings 12.05B and 112.05B. We may find that a person's impairment satisfies the criteria in final 12.05B1 and 112.05B1 if the person has either: a full scale IQ score of 70 or below, or a full scale IQ score of 71-75 accompanied by either a verbal or performance IQ score of 70 or below.
In these final rules, we addressed these aspects of IQ testing by largely adopting the NRC recommendation. We added an alternative option for establishing that a person has significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning in final 12.05B1 and 112.05B1, as described in the response to the previous comment. This alternative enables some people with significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning and full scale IQ scores that fall within a range of 71-75 to satisfy the IQ score requirement in final listings 12.05 and 112.05. Additionally, we expect to provide formal and accessible guidance to adjudicators about intelligence testing and final listings 12.05 and 112.05.
These final rules remove prior listing 12.09 because we cannot use listing 12.09 alone to meet our definition of disability. In addition, listing 12.09 is a reference listing, which means that it only refers to medical criteria in other listings. As we revise the listings, we are also trying to eliminate reference listings. Finally, listing 12.09 is redundant because we use other listings to evaluate the physical or mental effects of substance use (for example, liver damage, peripheral neuropathy, or dementia). For these reasons, we are removing the listing.
However, § 416.926a(e) also uses language very similar to, “more than one-half, but not more than two-thirds of chronological age.” We have used these fractions, and other similar ones, to determine disability in children since we published updated childhood disability regulations in 1991 (56 FR 5559). We use the fractions as an approximation when we do not have standardized test results in the case record. Our adjudicators are now very familiar with using these fractions in our program, and they find that the fractions are an accurate alternative and helpful when the case record does not have standardized test results.
Second, with respect to the illustration involving a 4-year-old child, according to § 416.926a(e), we use a fraction to assess a child's functioning only up to age 3, and only in the absence of standardized test results. Therefore, we do not use fractions to assess the functioning of 4-year-old children.
We also appreciate that whether a premature infant's chronological age should be corrected to adjust for prematurity can be a significant factor in decisions regarding the provision of intervention services. However, in determining whether the same infant meets our statutory definition of disability, the sole basis for our determination is how the infant's development compares to established developmental milestones, based on chronological age ranges. It is necessary, then, that we correct chronological age to adjust for prematurity in order to make a determination that is fair to the infant.
With respect to infants with perinatal brain insults, such as hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy and perinatal strokes, we cannot know immediately following the insult what the outcome will be with respect to the infant's developmental course. The provision for deferring adjudication until the infant is at least 6 months of age allows for the necessary documentation of the child's developmental patterns and functioning over time. However, we do not defer determinations when we have sufficient evidence that a child's impairment causes marked and severe functional limitations and can be expected to cause death, or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period of not less than 12 months (see § 416.906).
As we described in our responses to the public comments, we are making changes to some of the proposals in the NPRM because of public comments we received. Although we explain all of those changes in detail later in this preamble, we summarized some of the more significant changes here. These changes include:
• Updating the titles of most of the listings;
• Keeping the structure of the “paragraph A” criteria from our prior rules in all of the listings (except for 12.05 and 112.05), and updating the paragraph A criteria;
• Renaming the titles of paragraph B1 (understand, remember, or apply information) and B3 (concentrate, persist, or maintain pace) to be linked by “or” rather than “and”;
• Removing all references to using standardized test scores for rating degrees of functional limitations for adults (except for listing 12.05);
• Indicating that the greatest degree of limitation in any part of a paragraph B1, B3, or B4 area of mental functioning will be the degree of limitation for that whole area of functioning;
• Retaining the 5-point rating scale that we used in our prior rules for rating degrees of functional limitations in adults;
• Reorganizing the listing criteria in listings 12.05 and 112.05, intellectual disorder, to reflect the three diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability; and
• Creating new listings, 12.15 and 112.15, trauma- and stressor-related disorders, to reflect the updates in medical understanding reflected in the DSM-5.
Final listing 12.05 includes important changes that we explain here. We use listing 12.05 to evaluate claims involving intellectual disability. In the NPRM, we proposed mostly minor revisions to listing 12.05. However, some of the public comments that we received about this listing recommended that we substantively reorganize and change the listing criteria. The commenters criticized the listing structure that we proposed as “inconsistent, redundant and unnecessary.” One commenter observed, “the severity of intellectual disability is written into the diagnosis itself.” The commenters recommended that we simplify the structure and the criteria for listing 12.05 so the listing would guide adjudicators through the process of identifying claimants who have intellectual disability.
In response to these comments, we revised the criteria for listing 12.05. We believe the revisions will continue to accurately and reliably identify claimants who have marked or extreme functional limitations due to intellectual disability. We also believe that the final listing will be clearer to adjudicators and the public. Furthermore, new listing 12.11 will identify claimants with cognitive impairments that result in marked or extreme functional limitations but do not satisfy the definition of intellectual disability. Our reasoning and explanation for those changes is below.
“Intellectual disability” is a diagnosis used by the medical community to identify and describe a certain type and degree of cognitive impairment. The American Psychiatric Association, the American Psychological Association, and the AAIDD are three leading experts within the medical community about what “intellectual disability” is. Those three organizations largely agree about what the three diagnostic criteria, or the three elements, are for intellectual disability. Those three elements, restated here, are: Significant limitations in general intellectual functioning, significant deficits in adaptive functioning, and evidence that the disorder began during the developmental period.
In the NPRM, we proposed to remove the capsule definitions in all of the prior mental disorders listings, including listing 12.05. Like prior listing 12.05, the version of listing 12.05 proposed in the NPRM had four paragraphs, paragraphs A-D. A person's impairment would meet the listing if it satisfied the criteria in any one of the four paragraphs. As in prior listing 12.05, we proposed to use paragraph A to evaluate claimants whose cognitive impairment prevented them from taking a standardized intelligence test. We proposed to use paragraph B to evaluate claimants who had an IQ score of 59 or lower. We proposed to use paragraph C to evaluate claimants with an IQ score of 60 through 70 with another severe physical or mental impairment. We proposed to use paragraph D to evaluate claimants with an IQ score of 60 through 70 and marked degree of limitation in two of the four proposed areas of mental functioning that were typically included in “paragraph B” of the other mental disorders listings.
Although proposed listing 12.05 did not have a capsule definition like prior listing 12.05, the proposed listing required that a claimant have significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, deficits in adaptive functioning, and evidence that the disorder initially manifested during the developmental period. The beginning of each lettered paragraph required that a claimant have intellectual disability “as defined in [proposed] 12.00B4” before stating the listing criteria specific to that paragraph. Proposed section 12.00B4a stated, “This disorder is defined by significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning with significant deficits in adaptive functioning initially manifested before age 22.” Therefore, the version of listing 12.05 proposed in the NPRM was similar to prior listing 12.05, but it did not include a capsule definition, and it moved the three elements of the medical definition of intellectual disability into the introductory text.
However, the public comments that we received in response to the NPRM, as described above, made clear to us that the reorganized criteria that we proposed in the NPRM was still
Final listing 12.05 does not include a capsule definition. The listing has only two paragraphs, and we will allow a claim under the listing when the criteria in either paragraph are satisfied. Each paragraph contains the three elements of the medical definition of intellectual disability. Therefore, the listing is now very similar to the DSM-5 and AAIDD definitions for intellectual disability.
We will use final listing 12.05A to evaluate the claims of people whose cognitive impairment prevent them from taking a standardized intelligence test that would measure their general intellectual functioning. Listing 12.05A has three subparagraphs; there is one subparagraph for each element of the medical definition of intellectual disability. The first subparagraph requires that a claimant lack the cognitive ability to participate in standardized testing of intellectual functioning. Stated differently, if a claimant is not able to take an IQ test, this is sufficient evidence that the claimant has “significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning” as required by the listing.
The second subparagraph requires that a claimant be dependent on others to care for basic personal needs. If a claimant relies on others for such basic tasks, this is sufficient evidence that a claimant has “significant deficits in adaptive functioning” as required by the listing.
The last subparagraph requires evidence that demonstrates or supports the conclusion that the disorder began prior to age 22. For our program purposes, we use age 22 as the benchmark to establish that the disorder began during the developmental period.
We will use final listing 12.05B to evaluate the claims of people who are able to take a standardized intelligence test. Like final listing 12.05A, final listing 12.05B has three subparagraphs; there is one subparagraph for each element of the medical definition of intellectual disability. The first subparagraph requires a claimant to have obtained either: A full scale IQ score of 70 or below, or a full scale IQ score of 71 through 75 accompanied by a verbal or performance IQ score of 70 or below. Stated differently, if a claimant's IQ scores meet either of these requirements, there is sufficient evidence that the claimant has “significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning” as required by the listing.
The second sub-paragraph requires that a claimant have extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the four “paragraph B” areas of mental functioning (see 12.00E1, 2, 3, and 4). We use the same paragraph B criteria and severity ratings to evaluate a person's current adaptive functioning under listing 12.05 that we use to evaluate the functioning of a person using all of the other mental disorders listings in this body system. We use the paragraph B areas of mental functioning to evaluate a person's abilities to acquire and use conceptual, social, and practical skills.
The last sub-paragraph requires evidence that demonstrates or supports the conclusion that the disorder began prior to age 22. If a claimant's impairment satisfies the requirements in all three sub-paragraphs, we will find that the claimant's impairment meets the criteria for listing 12.05B.
The revised criteria in final listings 12.05A and B respond to the public comments that suggested that we simplify the listing structure by guiding adjudicators through the process of identifying claimants who have intellectual disability. Importantly, and as noted above, the mental disorders listings are function-driven, not diagnosis-driven, and the final listing criteria reflect this approach.
Although prior listing 12.05 included a capsule definition that was very similar to the medical definition of intellectual disability, the capsule definition did not indicate how significant the claimant's subaverage general intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive functioning had to be. For example, other mental impairments, such as specific learning disability and borderline intellectual functioning, can involve subaverage general intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive functioning, as well as evidence that the disorder initially manifested during the developmental period. However, claimants with impairments such as specific learning disability and borderline intellectual functioning do not have the same nature or degree of subaverage intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive functioning as people with intellectual disability.
The reorganization of listing 12.05 will mean that cognitive impairments other than intellectual disability will not meet the listing criteria for 12.05. We will use final listing 12.11, neurodevelopmental disorders, to evaluate these impairments. Section 12.00B9, which is the section of the introductory text that describes this listing, explains that we evaluate impairments such as specific learning disorder and borderline intellectual functioning under listing 12.11. This listing furthers our goal to identify claimants with disabling impairments accurately, reliably, and as early in the sequential evaluation process as possible.
We made three other changes relating to listing 12.05 in response to public comments we received. First, as explained earlier in the preamble, we changed the title of the listing to “intellectual disorder.” Second, we changed our rules about standardized intelligence test results. Under the final rules, we use a full scale IQ score, or a combination of a full scale IQ score with either a verbal or performance IQ score, to determine if a claimant's disorder satisfies the criteria in listing 12.05. Commenters suggested that we make these two changes, and we agreed with them.
Third, the nature and extent of the comments we received about listing 12.05 indicated that we needed to provide more guidance to adjudicators
The following is a description of the content and changes in each section of Part A, the adult mental disorders listings.
Final 12.00A names the mental disorders listings, and it describes how we organized the listing criteria into either two or three lettered paragraphs for all listings (except 12.05). We explain that each lettered paragraph contains a specific type of listing criteria, and we state what criteria must be satisfied in order for us to find that a person's impairment meets the listing. This section also explains how we organized the criteria in final listing 12.05 differently from the other listings.
In these final rules, we changed the title of final 12.00A from, “What are the listings, and what do they require?” to, “How are the listings for mental disorders arranged, and what do they require?” for clarity.
Final 12.00A2a reflects a change we made to the paragraph A criteria in these final rules. In the NPRM, we proposed that the paragraph A criteria would require a claimant to show that he or she had a medically determinable mental disorder in the listing category (for all listings except 12.05). However, these final rules keep paragraph A criteria in each listing that are similar to the criteria in our prior rules and include a list of medical criteria that must be present in a person's medical record. We made this change in response to a public comment raising concern that the paragraph A criteria in our prior rules served an important function by providing a basis for comparing and assessing the severity of different mental disorders. The commenter urged us to reconsider “elimination” of the paragraph A criteria. We summarized the comment and explained our reasons for adopting it earlier in this preamble. As a result, final 12.00A2 explains that paragraph A of each listing (except 12.05) includes the medical criteria that must be present in a person's medical evidence.
Final 12.00A2 also includes a change we made to the paragraph C criteria in these final rules. In the NPRM, we proposed to include paragraph C criteria in all listings (except 12.05). However, these final rules keep paragraph C criteria only in the final listings that correspond closely to the prior listings that included paragraph C criteria (final listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15). We made this change because our medical and psychological experts, and our adjudicative experience, indicate to us that the unique medical situation that we identify with the paragraph C criteria typically does not apply to the other disorders we evaluate under the remaining listings. As a result, final 12.00A2c explains that paragraph C of listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15 provides the criteria we use to evaluate “serious and persistent mental disorders.”
Final 12.00A3 reflects the way that these final rules revise the listing criteria for 12.05. We explain the changes to listing 12.05 and our reasons for making them earlier in this preamble.
In these final rules, we changed the title of final 12.00B from, “How do we describe the mental disorders listing categories?” to, “Which mental disorders do we evaluate under each listing category?” for clarity. We removed the introductory paragraph in proposed 12.00B because the information was only descriptive or included elsewhere in the introductory text.
Final 12.00B contains numbered sections that correspond to each listing. The numbered sections provide information about the types of mental disorders we evaluate under each listing. For example, final 12.00B1 corresponds to listing 12.02 and provides information about neurocognitive disorders.
In final 12.00B, each numbered section contains either two or three lettered paragraphs. The first lettered paragraph provides a description of the mental disorders included in each listing category, followed by examples of symptoms and signs commonly associated with those disorders. The second paragraph provides examples of disorders we evaluate under each listing. We updated these paragraphs with revised medical terms from the DSM-5. In sections that have a third paragraph, this paragraph lists examples of mental disorders that we do not evaluate under each listing.
In final 12.00B4, which discusses listing 12.05, intellectual disorder, we removed proposed paragraphs 12.00B4c and B4d. These paragraphs discussed our requirements for documentation and standardized intelligence testing. We included this guidance in final 12.00H, a new section that provides additional information about how to apply listing 12.05. We also removed proposed 12.00B4e from these final rules. That paragraph explained proposed listing 12.05C, and these final rules do not include a listing 12.05C, as we explained earlier in this preamble.
We added final 12.00B11 to provide information about the types of mental disorders we evaluate under new listing 12.15, trauma- and stressor-related disorders.
Final 12.00C describes the types of evidence that we need to evaluate a person's mental disorder. In these final rules, we moved this discussion from proposed 12.00G to final 12.00C to present the information earlier in the introductory text. This reorganization allows us to explain the evidence we need (in final 12.00C) and how we consider the supports a person receives (in final 12.00D) before we explain how we evaluate a person's mental disorder using the paragraph B criteria (in final 12.00E and final 12.00F).
In final 12.00C2, we discuss and list examples of evidence from medical sources. We removed psychosocial supports or highly structured settings from the list (proposed 12.00C2k) because they are not examples of medical evidence, and because final 12.00D is devoted to those topics. We added psychiatric and psychological rating scales and measures of adaptive functioning to the list, and we removed the brief discussion about these topics from proposed 12.00G5.
In final 12.00C3, we discuss non-medical sources of evidence, such as the claimant and people who are familiar with the claimant. We clarified that we will ask third parties for information about a claimant's impairments, but we must have the claimant's permission to do so. In response to public comments, we added social workers, shelter staff, and other community support and outreach workers to the list of examples of sources of evidence.
In final 12.00C5, we explain how longitudinal evidence can help us learn how a person functions over time, and how we evaluate impairments when there is no longitudinal evidence. We moved the discussion about how we evaluate exacerbations and remissions of mental disorders from proposed 12.00G6a to final 12.00F4 because final 12.00F provides information about how we evaluate a person's mental disorder,
Final 12.00C5c is a new section that provides additional guidance about how we will evaluate a person's mental disorder when there is no longitudinal evidence. In partial response to public comments recommending that we recognize the unique circumstances of people who are experiencing homelessness, we included chronic homelessness as an example of a situation that may make it difficult to obtain longitudinal medical evidence.
In final 12.00C6, we added more information about how we use evidence of a person's functioning in unfamiliar or supportive situations, and we removed the paragraphs that discussed the effects of work-related stress.
Final 12.00D describes how we consider the effects of psychosocial supports, structured settings, living arrangements, and treatment on a person's functioning. In these final rules, we moved this discussion from proposed 12.00F to final 12.00D to present the information earlier in the introductory text.
In final 12.00D1, we explain how psychosocial supports and highly structured settings may help a person function. We added “living arrangements” and “assistance from your family or others” to this discussion for clarity. In response to public comments, we clarified that the list of examples of psychosocial supports and highly structured settings includes only “some” examples of supports that a person “may” receive. We added this language to indicate that the list of supports does not include all of the possible supports that we consider. We simplified the list of examples of supports and settings by combining the examples that illustrate similar situations. In response to public comments, we added comprehensive “24/7” mental health services, also known as “wrap-around” services, to the list of examples. Also in response to public comments, we added an example of receiving assistance from mental health workers who help the person meet physical needs and who may assist in dealings with government or social services.
We added a new section, final 12.00D2, to explain how we consider different levels of support and structure in psychosocial rehabilitation programs. Based on our adjudicative experience, we realized that we needed to provide further guidance about how to evaluate the extent of a person's participation and what that tells us about the effects of the person's mental disorder and current functioning.
We added another new section, final 12.00D3, in response to public comments expressing concern about how we consider a person's strengths and deficits in his or her daily functioning. Final 12.00D3 explains that we acknowledge that a person may demonstrate both strengths and deficits, and we will consider the complete picture of a person's daily functioning when we evaluate whether that person is able to use his or her areas of mental functioning in a work setting.
Final 12.00E defines and describes the four paragraph B criteria, which represent the areas of mental functioning a person uses in a work setting. Final 12.00E has four numbered paragraphs. There is one paragraph for each paragraph B criterion. For example, final 12.00E1 contains the definition and description for paragraph B criterion B1, understand, remember, or apply information.
In these final rules, we moved the discussion of the paragraph B criteria from proposed 12.00C to final 12.00E. We removed the introductory paragraph in proposed 12.00E because the information was only descriptive or included elsewhere in the introductory text.
We expanded the definitions of each paragraph B criterion, and we added more examples of how a person uses his or her areas of mental functioning in the workplace. We made these changes in response to public comments we received suggesting that we should be more specific about each of the areas of mental functioning in the context of a work setting. We discuss these public comments and our responses to them earlier in this preamble. In final 12.00E4 where we define and describe the paragraph B4 criterion, after we revised the definition and examples in response to the public comments, we changed the title of this criterion to include the word “adapt” to reflect the abilities and behaviors that we consider more accurately and completely. We also added a statement at the end of each paragraph clarifying that the examples illustrate the nature of the areas of mental functioning, and we do not require documentation of all of the examples.
We changed the title of paragraph B1 from “understand, remember, and apply information” to “understand, remember, or apply information.” We changed the title of paragraph B3 from “concentrate, persist, and maintain pace” to “concentrate, persist, or maintain pace.” We made this change to link the parts in the title with the word “or” rather than “and” in response to several public comments that we received. The commenters were concerned that people could misinterpret the titles as proposed in the NPRM as a change from our prior policy that would set a higher standard for a person's mental disorder to satisfy those criteria. We adopted the comment, and we explain our reasons earlier in this preamble.
Final 12.00F explains how we use the paragraph B criteria and a rating scale to evaluate a person's mental disorder. In these final rules, we moved this guidance from proposed 12.00D to final 12.00F. We also made several significant changes to this section because of public comments we received. We explain these changes below.
In final 12.00F1, we introduce the concept of using a rating scale. A public commenter requested that we explain how adjudicators assess limitations in cases where psychosocial supports and highly structured settings are present. In partial response to this comment, we added an explanation that we will consider the nature of the difficulty the person would have, whether the person could function without extra help, and whether the person would require special conditions with regard to activities or other people.
In final 12.00F2, we explain that we use a five-point rating scale consisting of none, mild, moderate, marked, and extreme to assess the degrees of limitation an adult has using his or her areas of mental functioning. Several public commenters objected to our proposal in the NPRM to use only the terms “marked” and “extreme” to assess an adult's limitations. The commenters advised us that continuing our use of the 5-point rating scale from our prior rules would help “anchor” the standards of “marked” and “extreme.” We adopted the suggestion to keep our five-point rating scale in these final rules. We discuss these public comments and our responses earlier in this preamble.
Also in final 12.00F2, we provide definitions for each of the five points of the scale. The definitions are consistent with how our adjudicators have understood and used the rating scale since we first introduced it in 1985. As we explain earlier in this preamble, we provide these definitions to respond, in part, to the significant public comments we received that objected to the descriptions of “marked” and “extreme” that we proposed in the NPRM. In the NPRM, we proposed to describe “marked” and “extreme” as equivalent to scores that are a certain number of standard deviations below the mean on individually administered standardized tests. However, in light of the objections raised in the majority of the public comments, we did not adopt those definitions in these final rules.
Also in response to those public comments, we did not make final most of the rules we proposed in 12.00D4 about how we would consider test results when we assessed a person's functional limitations. In these final rules, we moved and changed the guidance about professional interpretation of test results to final 12.00H2d because final 12.00H provides additional information about the criteria in listing 12.05, and listing 12.05B is the only listing that requires standardized test results.
In final 12.00F3, we discuss how we rate the severity of limitations resulting from a mental disorder. In final 12.00F3a, we explain that when rating a person's impairment-related limitations, we use all relevant evidence in the case record. We received public comments raising concern that adjudicators might misconstrue a clinician's use of the term “mild” or “moderate” in diagnosing the stage of a person's mental disorder as a description of the person's level of functioning with respect to the paragraph B criteria. In response to this concern, we added language to final 12.00F3a explaining that although the medical evidence may include descriptors regarding the diagnostic stage or level of a disorder, such as “mild” or “moderate,” these terms will not always be the same as the degree of limitation in a paragraph B area of mental functioning.
Final 12.00F3b and F3c are new sections that explain how we consider evidence about and assess a person's ability to use his or her areas of mental functioning in daily functioning and in work settings. Final 12.00F3d and F3e incorporate the proposed sections 12.00D1c and D1d, which provide additional guidance concerning overall effect of limitations and effects of support, supervision, and structure on functioning.
We added a new section, final 12.00F3f, in response to public comments asking that we clearly explain how we will rate the limitation of the individual parts of paragraphs B1, B3 and B4. As requested, we explain that the greatest degree of limitation in any part of a paragraph B1, B3 or B4 area of mental functioning will be the degree of limitation for that whole area of functioning.
Final 12.00F4 incorporates proposed section 12.00G6 and describes how we evaluate mental disorders involving exacerbations and remissions. In response to a public comment, we added an explanation that we will consider whether a person can use the affected area of mental functioning on a regular and continuing basis (8 hours a day, 5 days a week, or an equivalent work schedule).
Final 12.00G defines and describes the paragraph C criteria, which are an alternative to the paragraph B criteria under listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15. In these final rules, we moved the discussion of the paragraph C criteria from proposed 12.00E to final 12.00G. We retained the two-year documentation requirement from our prior rules in these final rules to ensure that the disorders evaluated using these criteria are “serious and persistent.”
In final 12.00G2b, we provide more information about the requirement that continuing treatment, psychosocial supports, or structured settings diminish the symptoms and signs of a person's mental disorder. We clarify that a claimant must rely, on an ongoing basis, upon medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial supports, or a highly structured setting, to diminish the symptoms and signs of his or her mental disorder. As we discuss earlier in this preamble, a public commenter raised concern that many people with mental disorders lack awareness about their mental disorders and therefore refuse treatment. To respond to this comment, we added language in final 12.00G2b to explain how we will consider a claimant's inconsistent treatment or lack of compliance when we determine whether the claimant relies upon “ongoing” medical treatment as this section requires.
Final 12.00H is a new section that brings together the rules pertaining to listing 12.05, intellectual disorder. This section devoted to listing 12.05 is necessary because of the differences between this listing and all other mental disorders listings, and the several clarifications provided in these final rules about adjudicating claims under listing 12.05. Final 12.00H includes information and guidance about establishing significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, establishing significant deficits in adaptive functioning, and establishing that the disorder began before age 22. We include subsections that discuss the evidence we consider, standardized tests of intelligence, adaptive functioning, and our consideration of common everyday activities and work activity.
Final 12.00H2a describes how we establish significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, which is one of the criteria for listing 12.05. This section explains that we identify significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning by an IQ score(s). Final 12.00H2b and H2c are new sections that describe our psychometric standards. We added these sections in response to a public comment noting that our prior rules had information on these important topics, but the proposed rules did not.
We moved and changed the guidance about how we will consider IQ test scores from proposed 12.00B4d and 12.00D4 to final 12.00H2d. We revised the policies in response to several public comments raising concern that the proposed rules about interpreting test results gave too much discretion to adjudicators who may not have the expertise of the test administrators. In response to these comments, final 12.00H2d indicates that only qualified specialists, Federal and State agency medical and psychological consultants, and other contracted medical and psychological experts may conclude that an obtained IQ score is not an accurate reflection of a claimant's general intellectual functioning. We explain our reasons for making this change in detail earlier in this preamble.
This section explains how we evaluate mental disorders that do not meet one of the mental disorders listings. In these final rules, we moved this information from proposed 12.00H
This section explains how we evaluate mental disorders that do not meet one of the mental disorders listings. This section also explains what rules we use when we decide whether a person receiving benefits continues to be disabled. In these final rules, we moved this information from proposed 12.00I to final 12.00J to accommodate adding final 12.00H earlier in the introductory text. We did not make any substantive changes to this section.
The final rules revise all of the mental disorders listings. We made many of the revisions in response to public comments on the NPRM. To avoid repeating the same information multiple times, the list below summarizes the changes that apply to many or all of the listings:
• The final rules update the titles of listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, 12.07, 12.08, 12.11, and 12.15 to reflect the terms the APA uses to describe the categories of mental disorders in the DSM-5.
• All final listings (except for 12.05 and 112.05) include “paragraph A criteria” that are similar to our prior rules. We kept the paragraph A criteria in the listings in response to a public comment on the NPRM that identified the benefits of having the criteria. The paragraph A criteria in the final listings reflect the diagnostic criteria of disorders in the DSM-5. Although a claimant must have a medically determinable mental impairment, the claimant does
• We changed the title of the paragraph B1 criteria to “understand, remember, or apply information,” and the title of the paragraph B3 criteria to “concentrate, persist, or maintain pace.” The titles are linked by “or” rather than “and” in response to public comments on the NPRM, and to clarify our rules about how we rate a person's degree of functional limitation.
• We changed the title of paragraph B4 to “adapt or manage oneself” in partial response to public comments on the NPRM.
• The final rules revise the paragraph C criteria in listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15. The paragraph C criteria state that a person must have a medically documented history of the existence of his or her disorder over a period of at least 2 years. This requirement is consistent with our prior rules.
• Final listings 12.07, 12.08, 12.10, 12.11 and 12.13 do not include paragraph C criteria. We made this change because our medical and psychological experts, and our program experience, indicate that the unique medical situation we identify with the paragraph C criteria typically does not apply to the disorders we evaluate under these listings.
In addition to these changes, we also made changes to individual listings. We describe those changes in the following sections.
Final listing 12.05 includes important revisions that we made in response to public comments. The name of the listing is now intellectual disorder, and we organized the criteria in the listing to reflect the three elements of the medical definition of intellectual disability. We explain these changes and our reasons for making them earlier in this preamble.
Final listing 12.15 is a new listing we will use to evaluate trauma- and stressor-related disorders such as posttraumatic stress disorder. Prior versions of the DSM, such as the DSM-IV-TR, included trauma- and stressor-related disorders as a type of anxiety disorder. Under our prior rules, we evaluated trauma- and stressor-related disorders under prior listing 12.06, anxiety-related disorders. However, the DSM-5 created a separate diagnostic category for trauma- and stressor-related disorders. As a result, we created new listing 12.15 to evaluate these types of impairments.
The paragraph A criteria in final listing 12.15 reflect diagnostic criteria of posttraumatic stress disorder, which is a type of trauma- and stressor-related disorder included in the DSM-5. Final listing 12.15 includes paragraph C criteria because prior listing 12.06 included the criteria, and because our medical and psychological experts advised us that the unique medical situation that we identify with the paragraph C criteria often applies to trauma- and stressor-related disorders.
The following is a detailed description of the changes in pertinent sections of Part B, the Childhood Mental Disorders Listings.
We made a number of changes throughout 112.00 to make the final childhood mental disorders listings consistent with the final adult listings. In some cases, the revisions are not substantive. In others, our reasons for the changes are the same as our reasons for changing the adult rules, and we explain them earlier in this preamble. We also made minor changes in 112.00, either to clarify or enhance our discussion of the rules for children. In the following sections, we explain the substantive changes to 112.00 that were not applicable to our explanation of the changes to the adult rules.
Final 112.00F explains how we use the paragraph B criteria to evaluate a child's mental disorder. In final 112.00F2, we explain that a child's mental disorder must result in extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, paragraph B criteria. We provide citations to §§ 416.925(b)(2)(ii) and 416.926a(e) for the definitions of the terms “marked” and “extreme” for child claimants. Although we suggested definitions for marked and extreme in proposed 112.00D2 and D3, we did not make those definitions final. The definitions we proposed for children were similar to the definitions that we proposed for adults. We did not make final the proposed definitions in the adult listings for the reasons we explained earlier in the preamble. Furthermore, our childhood policy regulations already include definitions for the terms marked and extreme. For these reasons, we removed definitions of marked and extreme from 112.00F2, and we include a citation to the definitions of those terms in our regulations.
Final 112.00I explains how we use listing 112.14 to evaluate developmental disorders of infants and toddlers from birth to age three. In these final rules, we made changes to this section and
In final 112.00I2, we discuss how we calculate a child's age and how we assess a child's level of development. We expanded our discussion from proposed 112.00I2c to include guidance about when we will use a child's corrected chronological age, and how we use developmental assessments. We moved the description of the listing category from proposed 112.00I2a and I2b to 112.00B, where we describe all other listing categories.
In final 112.00I3, we added additional information about the types of evidence that we typically receive for infants and toddlers from birth to age three. We removed proposed sections 112.00I4 and I5 that provided information about how we use the paragraph B criteria to evaluate a developmental disorder and how we consider supports when we evaluate a child's functioning. These sections duplicated the revised guidance we provide in final 112.00F and G, and we do not need to repeat them. We renumbered the guidelines about deferring determinations from proposed 112.00I6 to final 112.00I5.
The following is a detailed description of the changes in §§ 404.1520a and 416.920a.
Sections 404.1520a and 416.920a describe a special technique, known as the psychiatric review technique, which we use when we evaluate the severity of mental impairments for adults, and for persons under age 18 when we use Part A of the listings. Although we proposed in the NPRM to remove these two sections, the final rules keep these sections because of public comments we received, and for the reasons we explained earlier in the preamble. Therefore, we are not making final the changes proposed in the NPRM to sections 404.941, 404.1503, 404.1615, 416.903, 416.934, 416.1015, and 416.1441. We are making conforming changes to sections 404.1520a and 416.920a to be consistent with the final rules. In paragraphs (c) and (d) of each section, we removed the references to the four paragraph B criteria from our prior rules and replaced them with the four updated paragraph B criteria from these final rules. We also removed the references to the unique rating scale that only applied to paragraph B4 under our prior rules, “episodes of decompensation,” because it is no longer necessary under the final rules.
Under the Act, we have authority to make rules and regulations and to establish necessary and appropriate procedures to carry out such provisions.
These final rules will remain in effect for 5 years after the date they become effective, unless we extend them, or revise and issue them again. We will continue to monitor these rules to ensure that they continue to meet program purposes, and may revise them before the end of the 5-year period if warranted.
We consulted with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and determined that these final rules meet the criteria for a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866, as supplemented by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, OMB reviewed these final rules.
We certify that these final rules will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because they affect individuals only. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
These rules do not create any new or affect any existing collections and, therefore, do not require Office of Management and Budget approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
Administrative practice and procedure; Blind; Disability benefits; Old-age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance; Reporting and recordkeeping requirements; Social Security.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aged, Blind, Disability cash payments, Public assistance programs, Supplemental Security Income (SSI), Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we are amending subpart P of part 404 and subpart I of part 416 of chapter III of title 20 of the Code of Federal Regulations as set forth below:
Secs. 202, 205(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 216(i), 221(a), (i), and (j), 222(c), 223, 225, and 702(a)(5) of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 402, 405(a)-(b) and (d)-(h), 416(i), 421(a), (i), and (j), 422(c), 423, 425, and 902(a)(5)); sec. 211(b), Pub. L. 104-193, 110 Stat. 2105, 2189; sec. 202, Pub. L. 108-203, 118 Stat. 509 (42 U.S.C. 902 note).
(c) * * *
(3) We have identified four broad functional areas in which we will rate the degree of your functional limitation: Understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself. See 12.00E of the Listing of Impairments in appendix 1 to this subpart.
(4) When we rate your degree of limitation in these areas (understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself), we will use the following five-point scale: None, mild, moderate, marked, and extreme. The last point on the scale represents a degree of limitation that is incompatible with the ability to do any gainful activity.
(d) * * *
(1) If we rate the degrees of your limitation as “none” or “mild,” we will generally conclude that your impairment(s) is not severe, unless the evidence otherwise indicates that there is more than a minimal limitation in
The revisions read as follows:
13. Mental Disorders (12.00 and 112.00): January 17, 2022.
A.
1. The listings for mental disorders are arranged in 11 categories: Neurocognitive disorders (12.02); schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders (12.03); depressive, bipolar and related disorders (12.04); intellectual disorder (12.05); anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders (12.06); somatic symptom and related disorders (12.07); personality and impulse-control disorders (12.08); autism spectrum disorder (12.10); neurodevelopmental disorders (12.11); eating disorders (12.13); and trauma- and stressor-related disorders (12.15).
2. Listings 12.07, 12.08, 12.10, 12.11, and 12.13 have two paragraphs, designated A and B; your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of both paragraphs A and B. Listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15 have three paragraphs, designated A, B, and C; your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of both paragraphs A and B, or the requirements of both paragraphs A and C. Listing 12.05 has two paragraphs that are unique to that listing (see 12.00A3); your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of either paragraph A or paragraph B.
a. Paragraph A of each listing (except 12.05) includes the medical criteria that must be present in your medical evidence.
b. Paragraph B of each listing (except 12.05) provides the functional criteria we assess, in conjunction with a rating scale (see 12.00E and 12.00F), to evaluate how your mental disorder limits your functioning. These criteria represent the areas of mental functioning a person uses in a work setting. They are: Understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself. We will determine the degree to which your medically determinable mental impairment affects the four areas of mental functioning and your ability to function independently, appropriately, effectively, and on a sustained basis (see §§ 404.1520a(c)(2) and 416.920a(c)(2) of this chapter). To satisfy the paragraph B criteria, your mental disorder must result in “extreme” limitation of one, or “marked” limitation of two, of the four areas of mental functioning. (When we refer to “paragraph B criteria” or “area[s] of mental functioning” in the introductory text of this body system, we mean the criteria in paragraph B of every listing except 12.05.)
c. Paragraph C of listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15 provides the criteria we use to evaluate “serious and persistent mental disorders.” To satisfy the paragraph C criteria, your mental disorder must be “serious and persistent”; that is, there must be a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and evidence that satisfies the criteria in both C1 and C2 (see 12.00G). (When we refer to “paragraph C” or “the paragraph C criteria” in the introductory text of this body system, we mean the criteria in paragraph C of listings 12.02, 12.03, 12.04, 12.06, and 12.15.)
3. Listing 12.05 has two paragraphs, designated A and B, that apply to only intellectual disorder. Each paragraph requires that you have significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning; significant deficits in current adaptive functioning; and evidence that demonstrates or supports (is consistent with) the conclusion that your disorder began prior to age 22.
B.
1.
a. These disorders are characterized by a clinically significant decline in cognitive functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, disturbances in memory, executive functioning (that is, higher-level cognitive processes; for example, regulating attention, planning, inhibiting responses, decision-making), visual-spatial functioning, language and speech, perception, insight, judgment, and insensitivity to social standards.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include major neurocognitive disorder; dementia of the Alzheimer type; vascular dementia; dementia due to a medical condition such as a metabolic disease (for example, late-onset Tay-Sachs disease), human immunodeficiency virus infection, vascular malformation, progressive brain tumor, neurological disease (for example, multiple sclerosis, Parkinsonian syndrome, Huntington disease), or traumatic brain injury; or substance-induced cognitive disorder associated with drugs of abuse, medications, or toxins. (We evaluate neurological disorders under that body system (see 11.00). We evaluate cognitive impairments that result from neurological disorders under 12.02 if they do not satisfy the requirements in 11.00 (see 11.00G).)
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under intellectual disorder (12.05), autism spectrum disorder (12.10), and neurodevelopmental disorders (12.11).
2.
a. These disorders are characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, causing a clinically significant decline in functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed activities, social withdrawal, flat or inappropriate affect, poverty of thought and speech, loss of interest or pleasure, disturbances of mood, odd beliefs and mannerisms, and paranoia.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, and psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.
3.
a. These disorders are characterized by an irritable, depressed, elevated, or expansive mood, or by a loss of interest or pleasure in all or almost all activities, causing a clinically significant decline in functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, feelings of hopelessness or guilt, suicidal ideation, a clinically significant change in body weight or appetite, sleep disturbances, an increase or decrease in energy, psychomotor abnormalities, disturbed concentration, pressured speech, grandiosity, reduced impulse control, sadness, euphoria, and social withdrawal.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include bipolar disorders (I or II), cyclothymic disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), and bipolar or depressive disorder due to another medical condition.
4.
a. This disorder is characterized by significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, significant deficits in current adaptive functioning, and manifestation of the disorder before age 22. Signs may include, but are not limited to, poor conceptual, social, or practical skills evident in your adaptive functioning.
b. The disorder that we evaluate in this category may be described in the evidence as intellectual disability, intellectual developmental disorder, or historically used terms such as “mental retardation.”
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under
5.
a. These disorders are characterized by excessive anxiety, worry, apprehension, and fear, or by avoidance of feelings, thoughts, activities, objects, places, or people. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, restlessness, difficulty concentrating, hyper-vigilance, muscle tension, sleep disturbance, fatigue, panic attacks, obsessions and compulsions, constant thoughts and fears about safety, and frequent physical complaints.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under trauma- and stressor-related disorders (12.15).
6.
a. These disorders are characterized by physical symptoms or deficits that are not intentionally produced or feigned, and that, following clinical investigation, cannot be fully explained by a general medical condition, another mental disorder, the direct effects of a substance, or a culturally sanctioned behavior or experience. These disorders may also be characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious medical condition that has not been identified or diagnosed. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, pain and other abnormalities of sensation, gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, a high level of anxiety about personal health status, abnormal motor movement, pseudoseizures, and pseudoneurological symptoms, such as blindness or deafness.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include somatic symptom disorder, illness anxiety disorder, and conversion disorder.
7.
a. These disorders are characterized by enduring, inflexible, maladaptive, and pervasive patterns of behavior. Onset typically occurs in adolescence or young adulthood. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, patterns of distrust, suspiciousness, and odd beliefs; social detachment, discomfort, or avoidance; hypersensitivity to negative evaluation; an excessive need to be taken care of; difficulty making independent decisions; a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control; and inappropriate, intense, impulsive anger and behavioral expression grossly out of proportion to any external provocation or psychosocial stressors.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, and intermittent explosive disorder.
8.
a. These disorders are characterized by qualitative deficits in the development of reciprocal social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication skills, and symbolic or imaginative activity; restricted repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests, and activities; and stagnation of development or loss of acquired skills early in life. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, abnormalities and unevenness in the development of cognitive skills; unusual responses to sensory stimuli; and behavioral difficulties, including hyperactivity, short attention span, impulsivity, aggressiveness, or self-injurious actions.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include autism spectrum disorder with or without accompanying intellectual impairment, and autism spectrum disorder with or without accompanying language impairment.
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (12.02), intellectual disorder (12.05), and neurodevelopmental disorders (12.11).
9.
a. These disorders are characterized by onset during the developmental period, that is, during childhood or adolescence, although sometimes they are not diagnosed until adulthood. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, underlying abnormalities in cognitive processing (for example, deficits in learning and applying verbal or nonverbal information, visual perception, memory, or a combination of these); deficits in attention or impulse control; low frustration tolerance; excessive or poorly planned motor activity; difficulty with organizing (time, space, materials, or tasks); repeated accidental injury; and deficits in social skills. Symptoms and signs specific to tic disorders include sudden, rapid, recurrent, non-rhythmic, motor movement or vocalization.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include specific learning disorder, borderline intellectual functioning, and tic disorders (such as Tourette syndrome).
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (12.02), autism spectrum disorder (12.10), or personality and impulse-control disorders (12.08).
10.
a. These disorders are characterized by disturbances in eating behavior and preoccupation with, and excessive self-evaluation of, body weight and shape. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, restriction of energy consumption when compared with individual requirements; recurrent episodes of binge eating or behavior intended to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives; mood disturbances, social withdrawal, or irritability; amenorrhea; dental problems; abnormal laboratory findings; and cardiac abnormalities.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and avoidant/restrictive food disorder.
11.
a. These disorders are characterized by experiencing or witnessing a traumatic or stressful event, or learning of a traumatic event occurring to a close family member or close friend, and the psychological aftermath of clinically significant effects on functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, distressing memories, dreams, and flashbacks related to the trauma or stressor; avoidant behavior; diminished interest or participation in significant activities; persistent negative emotional states (for example, fear, anger) or persistent inability to experience positive emotions (for example, satisfaction, affection); anxiety; irritability; aggression; exaggerated startle response; difficulty concentrating; and sleep disturbance.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include posttraumatic stress disorder and other specified trauma- and stressor-related disorders (such as adjustment-like disorders with prolonged duration without prolonged duration of stressor).
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders (12.06), and cognitive impairments that result from neurological disorders, such as a traumatic brain injury, which we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (12.02).
C.
1.
2.
a. Your reported symptoms.
b. Your medical, psychiatric, and psychological history.
c. The results of physical or mental status examinations, structured clinical interviews, psychiatric or psychological rating scales, measures of adaptive functioning, or other clinical findings.
d. Psychological testing, imaging results, or other laboratory findings.
e. Your diagnosis.
f. The type, dosage, and beneficial effects of medications you take.
g. The type, frequency, duration, and beneficial effects of therapy you receive.
h. Side effects of medication or other treatment that limit your ability to function.
i. Your clinical course, including changes in your medication, therapy, or other treatment, and the time required for therapeutic effectiveness.
j. Observations and descriptions of how you function during examinations or therapy.
k. Information about sensory, motor, or speech abnormalities, or about your cultural background (for example, language or customs) that may affect an evaluation of your mental disorder.
l. The expected duration of your symptoms and signs and their effects on your functioning, both currently and in the future.
3.
4.
a.
b.
5.
a.
b.
c.
6.
a.
b.
c.
D.
1.
a. You receive help from family members or other people who monitor your daily activities and help you to function. For example, family members administer your medications, remind you to eat, shop for you and pay your bills, or change their work hours so you are never home alone.
b. You participate in a special education or vocational training program, or a psychosocial rehabilitation day treatment or community support program, where you receive training in daily living and entry-level work skills.
c. You participate in a sheltered, supported, or transitional work program, or in a competitive employment setting with the help of a job coach or supervisor.
d. You receive comprehensive “24/7 wrap-around” mental health services while living in a group home or transitional housing, while participating in a semi-independent living program, or while living in individual housing (for example, your own home or apartment).
e. You live in a hospital or other institution with 24-hour care.
f. You receive assistance from a crisis response team, social workers, or community mental health workers who help you meet your physical needs, and who may also represent you in dealings with government or community social services.
g. You live alone and do not receive any psychosocial support(s); however, you have created a highly structured environment by eliminating all but minimally necessary contact with the world outside your living space.
2.
a. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs are based on your specific needs. Therefore, we cannot make any assumptions about your mental disorder based solely on the fact that you are associated with such a program. We must know the details of the program(s) in which you are involved and the pattern(s) of your involvement over time.
b. The kinds and levels of supports and structures in psychosocial rehabilitation programs typically occur on a scale of “most restrictive” to “least restrictive.” Participation in a psychosocial rehabilitation program at the most restrictive level would
3.
a. We will consider the complete picture of your daily functioning, including the kinds, extent, and frequency of help and support you receive, when we evaluate your mental disorder and determine whether you are able to use the four areas of mental functioning in a work setting. The fact that you have done, or currently do, some routine activities without help or support does not necessarily mean that you do not have a mental disorder or that you are not disabled. For example, you may be able to take care of your personal needs, cook, shop, pay your bills, live by yourself, and drive a car. You may demonstrate both strengths and deficits in your daily functioning.
b. You may receive various kinds of help and support from others that enable you to do many things that, because of your mental disorder, you might not be able to do independently. Your daily functioning may depend on the special contexts in which you function. For example, you may spend your time among only familiar people or surroundings, in a simple and steady routine or an unchanging environment, or in a highly structured setting. However, this does not necessarily show how you would function in a work setting on a sustained basis, throughout a normal workday and workweek. (See 12.00H for further discussion of these issues regarding significant deficits in adaptive functioning for the purpose of 12.05.)
4.
E.
1.
2.
3.
4.
F.
1.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
(i) To do a work-related task, you must be able to understand
(ii) We will document the rating of limitation of the whole area of mental functioning, not each individual part. We will not add ratings of the parts together. For example, with respect to paragraph B3, if you have marked limitation in maintaining pace, and mild or moderate limitations in concentrating and persisting, we will find that you have marked limitation in the whole paragraph B3 area of mental functioning.
(iii) Marked limitation in more than one part of the same paragraph B area of mental functioning does not satisfy the requirement to have marked limitation in two paragraph B areas of mental functioning.
4.
a. When we evaluate the effects of your mental disorder, we will consider how often you have exacerbations and remissions, how long they last, what causes your mental disorder to worsen or improve, and any other relevant information. We will assess any limitation of the affected paragraph B area(s) of mental functioning using the rating scale for the paragraph B criteria. We will consider whether you can use the area of mental functioning on a regular and continuing basis (8 hours a day, 5 days a week, or an equivalent work schedule). We will not find that you are able to work solely because you have a period(s) of improvement (remission), or that you are disabled solely because you have a period of worsening (exacerbation), of your mental disorder.
b. If you have a mental disorder involving exacerbations and remissions, you may be able to use the four areas of mental functioning to work for a few weeks or months. Recurrence or worsening of symptoms and signs, however, can interfere enough to render you unable to sustain the work.
G.
1.
2.
a. We find a mental disorder to be “serious and persistent” when there is a medically documented history of the existence of the mental disorder in the listing category over a period of at least 2 years, and evidence shows that your disorder satisfies both C1 and C2.
b. The criterion in C1 is satisfied when the evidence shows that you rely, on an ongoing basis, upon medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s), to diminish the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00D). We consider that you receive ongoing medical treatment when the medical evidence establishes that you obtain medical treatment with a frequency consistent with accepted medical practice for the type of treatment or evaluation required for your medical condition. We will consider periods of inconsistent treatment or lack of compliance with treatment that may result from your mental disorder. If the evidence indicates that the inconsistent treatment or lack of compliance is a feature of your mental disorder, and it has led to an exacerbation of your symptoms and signs, we will not use it as evidence to support a finding that you have not received ongoing medical treatment as required by this paragraph.
c. The criterion in C2 is satisfied when the evidence shows that, despite your diminished symptoms and signs, you have achieved only marginal adjustment. “Marginal adjustment” means that your adaptation to the requirements of daily life is fragile; that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life. We will consider that you have achieved only marginal adjustment when the evidence shows that changes or increased demands have led to exacerbation of your symptoms and signs and to deterioration in your functioning; for example, you have become unable to function outside of your home or a more restrictive setting, without substantial psychosocial supports (see 12.00D). Such deterioration may have necessitated a significant change in medication or other treatment. Similarly, because of the nature of your mental disorder, evidence may document episodes of deterioration that have required you to be hospitalized or absent from work, making it difficult for you to sustain work activity over time.
H.
1.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(i) The data obtained in testing;
(ii) Your developmental history, including when your signs and symptoms began;
(iii) Information about how you function on a daily basis in a variety of settings; and
(iv) Clinical observations made during the testing period, such as your ability to sustain attention, concentration, and effort; to relate appropriately to the examiner; and to perform tasks independently without prompts or reminders.
3.
a.
b.
(i) Medical sources, including their clinical observations;
(ii) Standardized tests of adaptive functioning (see 12.00H3c);
(iii) Third party information, such as a report of your functioning from a family member or friend;
(iv) School records, if you were in school recently;
(v) Reports from employers or supervisors; and
(vi) Your own statements about how you handle all of your daily activities.
c.
d.
(i) The fact that you engage in common everyday activities, such as caring for your personal needs, preparing simple meals, or driving a car, will not always mean that you do not have deficits in adaptive functioning as required by 12.05B2. You may demonstrate both strengths and deficits in your adaptive functioning. However, a lack of deficits in one area does not negate the presence of deficits in another area. When we assess your adaptive functioning, we will consider all of your activities and your performance of them.
(ii) Our conclusions about your adaptive functioning rest on whether you do your daily activities independently, appropriately, effectively, and on a sustained basis. If you receive help in performing your activities, we need to know the kind, extent, and frequency of help you receive in order to perform them. We will not assume that your ability to do some common everyday activities, or to do some things without help or support, demonstrates that your mental disorder does not meet the requirements of 12.05B2. (See 12.00D regarding the factors we consider when we evaluate your functioning, including how we consider any help or support you receive.)
e.
4.
a. Tests of intelligence or adaptive functioning;
b. School records indicating a history of special education services based on your intellectual functioning;
c. An Individualized Education Program (IEP), including your transition plan;
d. Reports of your academic performance and functioning at school;
e. Medical treatment records;
f. Interviews or reports from employers;
g. Statements from a supervisor in a group home or a sheltered workshop; and
h. Statements from people who have known you and can tell us about your functioning in the past and currently.
I.
J.
1. These listings include only examples of mental disorders that we consider serious enough to prevent you from doing any gainful activity. If your severe mental disorder does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we will consider whether you have an impairment(s) that meets the criteria of a listing in another body system. You may have another impairment(s) that is secondary to your mental disorder. For example, if you have an eating disorder and develop a cardiovascular impairment because of it, we will evaluate your cardiovascular impairment under the listings for the cardiovascular body system.
2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing (see §§ 404.1526 and 416.926 of this chapter).
3. If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, we will assess your residual functional capacity for engaging in substantial gainful activity (see §§ 404.1545 and 416.945 of this chapter). When we assess your residual functional capacity, we consider all of your impairment-related mental and physical limitations. For example, the side effects of some medications may reduce your general alertness, concentration, or physical stamina, affecting your residual functional capacity for non-exertional or exertional work activities. Once we have determined your residual functional capacity, we proceed to the fourth, and if necessary, the fifth steps of the sequential evaluation process in §§ 404.1520 and 416.920 of this chapter. We use the rules in §§ 404.1594 and 416.994 of this chapter, as appropriate, when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.
12.02
A. Medical documentation of a significant cognitive decline from a prior level of functioning in
1. Complex attention;
2. Executive function;
3. Learning and memory;
4. Language;
5. Perceptual-motor; or
6. Social cognition.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 12.00G2c).
12.03
A. Medical documentation of
1. Delusions or hallucinations;
2. Disorganized thinking (speech); or
3. Grossly disorganized behavior or catatonia.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 12.00G2c).
12.04
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1 or 2:
1. Depressive disorder, characterized by
a. Depressed mood;
b. Diminished interest in almost all activities;
c. Appetite disturbance with change in weight;
d. Sleep disturbance;
e. Observable psychomotor agitation or retardation;
f. Decreased energy;
g. Feelings of guilt or worthlessness;
h. Difficulty concentrating or thinking; or
i. Thoughts of death or suicide.
2. Bipolar disorder, characterized by
a. Pressured speech;
b. Flight of ideas;
c. Inflated self-esteem;
d. Decreased need for sleep;
e. Distractibility;
f. Involvement in activities that have a high probability of painful consequences that are not recognized; or
g. Increase in goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 12.00G2c).
12.05
A. Satisfied by 1, 2, and 3 (see 12.00H):
1. Significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning evident in your cognitive inability to function at a level required to participate in standardized testing of intellectual functioning; and
2. Significant deficits in adaptive functioning currently manifested by your dependence upon others for personal needs (for example, toileting, eating, dressing, or bathing); and
3. The evidence about your current intellectual and adaptive functioning and about the history of your disorder demonstrates or supports the conclusion that the disorder began prior to your attainment of age 22.
B. Satisfied by 1, 2, and 3 (see 12.00H):
1. Significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning evidenced by a or b:
a. A full scale (or comparable) IQ score of 70 or below on an individually administered standardized test of general intelligence; or
b. A full scale (or comparable) IQ score of 71-75 accompanied by a verbal or performance IQ score (or comparable part score) of 70 or below on an individually administered standardized test of general intelligence; and
2. Significant deficits in adaptive functioning currently manifested by extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning:
a. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1); or
b. Interact with others (see 12.00E2); or
c. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3); or
d. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4); and
3. The evidence about your current intellectual and adaptive functioning and about the history of your disorder demonstrates or supports the conclusion that the disorder began prior to your attainment of age 22.
12.06
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1, 2, or 3:
1. Anxiety disorder, characterized by
a. Restlessness;
b. Easily fatigued;
c. Difficulty concentrating;
d. Irritability;
e. Muscle tension; or
f. Sleep disturbance.
2. Panic disorder or agoraphobia, characterized by
a. Panic attacks followed by a persistent concern or worry about additional panic attacks or their consequences; or
b. Disproportionate fear or anxiety about at least two different situations (for example, using public transportation, being in a crowd, being in a line, being outside of your home, being in open spaces).
3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder, characterized by
a. Involuntary, time-consuming preoccupation with intrusive, unwanted thoughts; or
b. Repetitive behaviors aimed at reducing anxiety.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 12.00G2c).
12.07
A. Medical documentation of
1. Symptoms of altered voluntary motor or sensory function that are not better explained by another medical or mental disorder;
2. One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing, with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms; or
3. Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant symptoms present.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
12.08
A. Medical documentation of a pervasive pattern of
1. Distrust and suspiciousness of others;
2. Detachment from social relationships;
3. Disregard for and violation of the rights of others;
4. Instability of interpersonal relationships;
5. Excessive emotionality and attention seeking;
6. Feelings of inadequacy;
7. Excessive need to be taken care of;
8. Preoccupation with perfectionism and orderliness; or
9. Recurrent, impulsive, aggressive behavioral outbursts.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
12.09 [Reserved]
12.10
A. Medical documentation of
1. Qualitative deficits in verbal communication, nonverbal communication, and social interaction; and
2. Significantly restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
12.11
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1, 2, or 3:
1.
a. Frequent distractibility, difficulty sustaining attention, and difficulty organizing tasks; or
b. Hyperactive and impulsive behavior (for example, difficulty remaining seated, talking excessively, difficulty waiting, appearing restless, or behaving as if being “driven by a motor”).
2. Significant difficulties learning and using academic skills; or
3. Recurrent motor movement or vocalization.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
12.12 [Reserved]
12.13
A. Medical documentation of a persistent alteration in eating or eating-related behavior that results in a change in consumption or absorption of food and that significantly impairs physical or psychological health.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
12.15
A. Medical documentation of
1. Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or violence;
2. Subsequent involuntary re-experiencing of the traumatic event (for example, intrusive memories, dreams, or flashbacks);
3. Avoidance of external reminders of the event;
4. Disturbance in mood and behavior; and
5. Increases in arousal and reactivity (for example, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbance).
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 12.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 12.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 12.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 12.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 12.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 12.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 12.00G2c).
A.
1. The listings for mental disorders for children are arranged in 12 categories: neurocognitive disorders (112.02); schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders (112.03); depressive, bipolar and related disorders (112.04); intellectual disorder (112.05); anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders (112.06); somatic symptom and related disorders (112.07); personality and impulse-control disorders (112.08); autism spectrum disorder (112.10); neurodevelopmental disorders (112.11); eating disorders (112.13); developmental disorders in infants and toddlers (112.14); and trauma- and stressor-related disorders (112.15). All of these listings, with the exception of 112.14, apply to children from age three to attainment of age 18. Listing 112.14 is for children from birth to attainment of age 3.
2. Listings 112.07, 112.08, 112.10, 112.11, 112.13, and 112.14 have two paragraphs, designated A and B; your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of both paragraphs A and B. Listings 112.02, 112.03, 112.04, 112.06, and 112.15 have three paragraphs, designated A, B, and C; your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of both paragraphs A and B, or the requirements of both paragraphs A and C. Listing 112.05 has two paragraphs that are unique to that listing (see 112.00A3); your mental disorder must satisfy the requirements of either paragraph A or paragraph B.
a. Paragraph A of each listing (except 112.05) includes the medical criteria that must be present in your medical evidence.
b. Paragraph B of each listing (except 112.05) provides the functional criteria we assess to evaluate how your mental disorder limits your functioning. For children ages 3 to 18, these criteria represent the areas of mental functioning a child uses to perform age-appropriate activities. They are: understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself. (See 112.00I for a discussion of the criteria for children from birth to attainment of age 3 under 112.14.) We will determine the degree to which your medically determinable mental impairment affects the four areas of mental functioning and your ability to function age-appropriately in a manner comparable to that of other children your age who do not have impairments. (Hereinafter, the words “age-appropriately” incorporate the qualifying statement, “in a manner comparable to that of other children your age who do not have impairments.”) To satisfy the paragraph B criteria, your mental disorder must result in “extreme” limitation
c. Paragraph C of listings 112.02, 112.03, 112.04, 112.06, and 112.15 provides the criteria we use to evaluate “serious and persistent mental disorders.” To satisfy the paragraph C criteria, your mental disorder must be “serious and persistent”; that is, there must be a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and evidence that satisfies the criteria in both C1 and C2 (see 112.00G). (When we refer to “paragraph C” or “the paragraph C criteria” in the introductory text of this body system, we mean the criteria in paragraph C of listings 112.02, 112.03, 112.04, 112.06, and 112.15.)
3. Listing 112.05 has two paragraphs, designated A and B, that apply to only intellectual disorder. Each paragraph requires that you have significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning and significant deficits in current adaptive functioning.
B.
1.
a. These disorders are characterized in children by a clinically significant deviation in normal cognitive development or by a decline in cognitive functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, disturbances in memory, executive functioning (that is, higher-level cognitive processes; for example, regulating attention, planning, inhibiting responses, decision-making), visual-spatial functioning, language and speech, perception, insight, and judgment.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include major neurocognitive disorder; mental impairments resulting from medical conditions such as a metabolic disease (for example, juvenile Tay-Sachs disease), human immunodeficiency virus infection, vascular malformation, progressive brain tumor, or traumatic brain injury; or substance-induced cognitive disorder associated with drugs of abuse, medications, or toxins. (We evaluate neurological disorders under that body system (see 111.00). We evaluate cognitive impairments that result from neurological disorders under 112.02 if they do not satisfy the requirements in 111.00. We evaluate catastrophic genetic disorders under listings in 110.00, 111.00, or 112.00, as appropriate. We evaluate genetic disorders that are not catastrophic under the affected body system(s).)
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under intellectual disorder (112.05), autism spectrum disorder (112.10), and neurodevelopmental disorders (112.11).
2.
a. These disorders are characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, causing a clinically significant decline in functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, inability to initiate and persist in goal-directed activities, social withdrawal, flat or inappropriate affect, poverty of thought and speech, loss of interest or pleasure, disturbances of mood, odd beliefs and mannerisms, and paranoia.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, and psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.
3.
a. These disorders are characterized by an irritable, depressed, elevated, or expansive mood, or by a loss of interest or pleasure in all or almost all activities, causing a clinically significant decline in functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, feelings of hopelessness or guilt, suicidal ideation, a clinically significant change in body weight or appetite, sleep disturbances, an increase or decrease in energy, psychomotor abnormalities, disturbed concentration, pressured speech, grandiosity, reduced impulse control, sadness, euphoria, and social withdrawal. Depending on a child's age and developmental stage, certain features, such as somatic complaints, irritability, anger, aggression, and social withdrawal may be more commonly present than other features.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include bipolar disorders (I or II), cyclothymic disorder, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), and bipolar or depressive disorder due to another medical condition.
4.
a. This disorder is characterized by significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning and significant deficits in current adaptive functioning. Signs may include, but are not limited to, poor conceptual, social, or practical skills evident in your adaptive functioning.
b. The disorder that we evaluate in this category may be described in the evidence as intellectual disability, intellectual developmental disorder, or historically used terms such as “mental retardation.”
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (112.02), autism spectrum disorder (112.10), or neurodevelopmental disorders (112.11).
5.
a. These disorders are characterized by excessive anxiety, worry, apprehension, and fear, or by avoidance of feelings, thoughts, activities, objects, places, or people. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, restlessness, difficulty concentrating, hyper-vigilance, muscle tension, sleep disturbance, fatigue, panic attacks, obsessions and compulsions, constant thoughts and fears about safety, and frequent physical complaints. Depending on a child's age and developmental stage, other features may also include refusal to go to school, academic failure, frequent stomachaches and other physical complaints, extreme worries about sleeping away from home, being overly clinging, and exhibiting tantrums at times of separation from caregivers.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include separation anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under trauma- and stressor-related disorders (112.15).
6.
a. These disorders are characterized by physical symptoms or deficits that are not intentionally produced or feigned, and that, following clinical investigation, cannot be fully explained by a general medical condition, another mental disorder, the direct effects of a substance, or a culturally sanctioned behavior or experience. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, pain and other abnormalities of sensation, gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, abnormal motor movement, pseudoseizures, and pseudoneurological symptoms, such as blindness or deafness.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include somatic symptom disorder and conversion disorder.
7.
a. These disorders are characterized by enduring, inflexible, maladaptive, and pervasive patterns of behavior. Onset may occur in childhood but more typically occurs in adolescence or young adulthood. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, patterns of distrust, suspiciousness, and odd beliefs; social detachment, discomfort, or avoidance; hypersensitivity to negative evaluation; an excessive need to be taken care of; difficulty making independent decisions; a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control; and inappropriate, intense, impulsive anger and behavioral expression grossly out of proportion to any external provocation or psychosocial stressors.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive personality disorders, and intermittent explosive disorder.
8.
a. These disorders are characterized by qualitative deficits in the development of reciprocal social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication skills, and symbolic or imaginative play; restricted repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior, interests, and activities; and stagnation of development or loss of acquired skills. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, abnormalities and unevenness in the development of cognitive skills; unusual responses to sensory stimuli; and behavioral difficulties, including hyperactivity, short attention span, impulsivity, aggressiveness, or self-injurious actions.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include autism spectrum
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (112.02), intellectual disorder (112.05), and neurodevelopmental disorders (112.11).
9.
a. These disorders are characterized by onset during the developmental period, that is, during childhood or adolescence, although sometimes they are not diagnosed until adulthood. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, underlying abnormalities in cognitive processing (for example, deficits in learning and applying verbal or nonverbal information, visual perception, memory, or a combination of these); deficits in attention or impulse control; low frustration tolerance; excessive or poorly planned motor activity; difficulty with organizing (time, space, materials, or tasks); repeated accidental injury; and deficits in social skills. Symptoms and signs specific to tic disorders include sudden, rapid, recurrent, non-rhythmic, motor movement or vocalization.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include specific learning disorder, borderline intellectual functioning, and tic disorders (such as Tourette syndrome).
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (112.02), autism spectrum disorder (112.10), or personality and impulse-control disorders (112.08).
10.
a. These disorders are characterized in young children by persistent eating of nonnutritive substances or repeated episodes of regurgitation and re-chewing of food, or by persistent failure to consume adequate nutrition by mouth. In adolescence, these disorders are characterized by disturbances in eating behavior and preoccupation with, and excessive self-evaluation of, body weight and shape. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, failure to make expected weight gains; restriction of energy consumption when compared with individual requirements; recurrent episodes of binge eating or behavior intended to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, excessive exercise, or misuse of laxatives; mood disturbances, social withdrawal, or irritability; amenorrhea; dental problems; abnormal laboratory findings; and cardiac abnormalities.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and avoidant/restrictive food disorder.
11.
a. Developmental disorders are characterized by a delay or deficit in the development of age-appropriate skills, or a loss of previously acquired skills, involving motor planning and control, learning, relating and communicating, and self-regulating.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include developmental coordination disorder, separation anxiety disorder, autism spectrum disorder, and regulation disorders of sensory processing (difficulties in regulating emotions, behaviors, and motor abilities in response to sensory stimulation). Some infants and toddlers may have only a general diagnosis of “developmental delay.”
c. This category does not include eating disorders related to low birth weight and failure to thrive, which we evaluate under that body system (100.00).
12.
a. These disorders are characterized by experiencing or witnessing a traumatic or stressful event, or learning of a traumatic event occurring to a close family member or close friend, and the psychological aftermath of clinically significant effects on functioning. Symptoms and signs may include, but are not limited to, distressing memories, dreams, and flashbacks related to the trauma or stressor; avoidant or withdrawn behavior; constriction of play and significant activities; increased frequency of negative emotional states (for example, fear, sadness) or reduced expression of positive emotions (for example, satisfaction, affection); anxiety; irritability; aggression; exaggerated startle response; difficulty concentrating; sleep disturbance; and a loss of previously acquired developmental skills.
b. Examples of disorders that we evaluate in this category include posttraumatic stress disorder, reactive attachment disorder, and other specified trauma- and stressor-related disorders (such as adjustment-like disorders with prolonged duration without prolonged duration of stressor).
c. This category does not include the mental disorders that we evaluate under anxiety and obsessive-compulsive disorders (112.06), and cognitive impairments that result from neurological disorders, such as a traumatic brain injury, which we evaluate under neurocognitive disorders (112.02).
C.
1.
2.
a. Your reported symptoms.
b. Your developmental, medical, psychiatric, and psychological history.
c. The results of physical or mental status examinations, structured clinical interviews, psychiatric or psychological rating scales, measures of adaptive functioning, or other clinical findings.
d. Developmental assessments, psychological testing, imaging results, or other laboratory findings.
e. Your diagnosis.
f. The type, dosage, and beneficial effects of medications you take.
g. The type, frequency, duration, and beneficial effects of therapy you receive.
h. Side effects of medication or other treatment that limit your ability to function.
i. Your clinical course, including changes in your medication, therapy, or other treatment, and the time required for therapeutic effectiveness.
j. Observations and descriptions of how you function during examinations or therapy.
k. Information about sensory, motor, or speech abnormalities, or about your cultural background (for example, language or customs) that may affect an evaluation of your mental disorder.
l. The expected duration of your symptoms and signs and their effects on your ability to function age-appropriately, both currently and in the future.
3.
4.
a.
b.
c.
5.
a.
b.
c.
6.
a.
b.
c.
D.
1.
a. You receive help from family members or other people in ways that children your age without impairments typically do not need in order to function age-appropriately. For example, an aide may accompany you on the school bus to help you control your actions or to monitor you to ensure you do not injure yourself or others.
b. You receive one-on-one assistance in your classes every day; or you have a full-time personal aide who helps you to function in your classroom; or you are a student in a self-contained classroom; or you attend a separate or alternative school where you receive special education services.
c. You participate in a special education or vocational training program, or a psychosocial rehabilitation day treatment or community support program, where you receive training in daily living and entry-level work skills.
d. You participate in a sheltered, supported, or transitional work program, or in a competitive employment setting with the help of a job coach or supervisor.
e. You receive comprehensive “24/7 wrap-around” mental health services while living in a group home or transitional housing, while participating in a semi-independent living program, or while living at home.
f. You live in a residential school, hospital, or other institution with 24-hour care.
g. You receive assistance from a crisis response team, social workers, or community mental health workers who help you meet your physical needs, and who may also represent you in dealings with government or community social services.
2.
a. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs are based on your specific needs. Therefore, we cannot make any assumptions about your mental disorder based solely on the fact that you are associated with such a program. We must know the details of the program(s) in which you are involved and the pattern(s) of your involvement over time.
b. The kinds and levels of supports and structures in psychosocial rehabilitation programs typically occur on a scale of “most restrictive” to “least restrictive.” Participation in a psychosocial rehabilitation program at the most restrictive level would suggest greater limitation of your areas of mental functioning than would participation at a less restrictive level. The length of time you spend at different levels in a program also provides information about your functioning. For example, you could begin participation at the most restrictive crisis intervention level but gradually improve to the point of readiness for a lesser level of support and structure and, if you are an older adolescent, possibly some form of employment.
3.
a. We will consider the complete picture of your daily functioning, including the kinds, extent, and frequency of help and support you receive, when we evaluate your mental disorder and determine whether you are able to use the four areas of mental functioning age-appropriately. The fact that you have done, or currently do, some routine activities without help or support does not necessarily mean that you do not have a mental disorder or that you are not disabled. For example, you may be able to take age-appropriate care of your personal needs, or you may be old enough and able to cook, shop, and take public transportation. You may demonstrate both strengths and deficits in your daily functioning.
b. You may receive various kinds of help and support from others that enable you to do many things that, because of your mental disorder, you might not be able to do independently. Your daily functioning may depend on the special contexts in which you function. For example, you may spend your time among only familiar people or surroundings, in a simple and steady routine or an unchanging environment, or in a highly structured classroom or alternative school.
4.
E.
1.
2.
3.
4.
F.
1.
2.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
(i) To do an age-appropriate activity, you must be able to understand
(ii) We will document the rating of limitation of the whole area of mental
(iii) Marked limitation in more than one part of the same paragraph B area of mental functioning does not satisfy the requirement to have marked limitation in two paragraph B areas of mental functioning.
4.
a. When we evaluate the effects of your mental disorder, we will consider how often you have exacerbations and remissions, how long they last, what causes your mental disorder to worsen or improve, and any other relevant information. We will assess whether your mental impairment(s) causes marked or extreme limitation of the affected paragraph B area(s) of mental functioning (see 112.00F2). We will consider whether you can use the area of mental functioning age-appropriately on a sustained basis. We will not find that you function age-appropriately solely because you have a period(s) of improvement (remission), or that you are disabled solely because you have a period of worsening (exacerbation), of your mental disorder.
b. If you have a mental disorder involving exacerbations and remissions, you may be able to use the four areas of mental functioning at home, at school, or in the community for a few weeks or months. Recurrence or worsening of symptoms and signs, however, can interfere enough to render you unable to function age-appropriately.
G.
1.
2.
a. We find a mental disorder to be “serious and persistent” when there is a medically documented history of the existence of the mental disorder in the listing category over a period of at least 2 years, and evidence shows that your disorder satisfies both C1 and C2.
b. The criterion in C1 is satisfied when the evidence shows that you rely, on an ongoing basis, upon medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s), to diminish the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00D). We consider that you receive ongoing medical treatment when the medical evidence establishes that you obtain medical treatment with a frequency consistent with accepted medical practice for the type of treatment or evaluation required for your medical condition. We will consider periods of inconsistent treatment or lack of compliance with treatment that may result from your mental disorder. If the evidence indicates that the inconsistent treatment or lack of compliance is a feature of your mental disorder, and it has led to an exacerbation of your symptoms and signs, we will not use it as evidence to support a finding that you have not received ongoing medical treatment as required by this paragraph.
c. The criterion in C2 is satisfied when the evidence shows that, despite your diminished symptoms and signs, you have achieved only marginal adjustment. “Marginal adjustment” means that your adaptation to the requirements of daily life is fragile; that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life. We will consider that you have achieved only marginal adjustment when the evidence shows that changes or increased demands have led to exacerbation of your symptoms and signs and to deterioration in your functioning; for example, you have become unable to function outside of your home or a more restrictive setting, without substantial psychosocial supports (see 112.00D). Such deterioration may have necessitated a significant change in medication or other treatment. Similarly, because of the nature of your mental disorder, evidence may document episodes of deterioration that have required you to be hospitalized or absent from school, making it difficult for you to sustain age-appropriate activity over time.
H.
1.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(i) The data obtained in testing;
(ii) Your developmental history, including when your signs and symptoms began;
(iii) Information about how you function on a daily basis in a variety of settings; and
(iv) Clinical observations made during the testing period, such as your ability to sustain attention, concentration, and effort; to relate appropriately to the examiner; and to perform tasks independently without prompts or reminders.
3.
a.
b.
(i) Medical sources, including their clinical observations;
(ii) Standardized tests of adaptive functioning (see 112.00H3c);
(iii) Third party information, such as a report of your functioning from a family member or your caregiver;
(iv) School records;
(v) A teacher questionnaire;
(vi) Reports from employers or supervisors; and
(vii) Your own statements about how you handle all of your daily activities.
c.
d.
e.
(i) The fact that you engage in common everyday activities, such as caring for your personal needs, preparing simple meals, or driving a car, will not always mean that you do not have deficits in adaptive functioning as required by 112.05B2. You may demonstrate both strengths and deficits in your adaptive functioning. However, a lack of deficits in one area does not negate the presence of deficits in another area. When we assess your adaptive functioning, we will consider all of your activities and your performance of them.
(ii) Our conclusions about your adaptive functioning rest on the quality of your daily activities and whether you do them age-appropriately. If you receive help in performing your activities, we need to know the kind, extent, and frequency of help you receive in order to perform them. We will not assume that your ability to do some common everyday activities, or to do some things without help or support, demonstrates that your mental disorder does not meet the requirements of 112.05B2. (See 112.00D regarding the factors we consider when we evaluate your functioning, including how we consider any help or support you receive.)
f.
I.
1.
2.
a.
b.
c.
3.
a.
b.
4.
a.
b.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
5.
a.
b.
c.
J.
K.
1. These listings include only examples of mental disorders that we consider serious enough to result in marked and severe functional limitations. If your severe mental disorder does not meet the criteria of any of these listings, we will consider whether you have an impairment(s) that meets the criteria of a listing in another body system. You may have another impairment(s) that is secondary to your mental disorder. For example, if you have an eating disorder and develop a cardiovascular impairment because of it, we will evaluate your cardiovascular impairment under the listings for the cardiovascular body system.
2. If you have a severe medically determinable impairment(s) that does not meet a listing, we will determine whether your impairment(s) medically equals a listing (see § 416.926 of this chapter).
3. If your impairment(s) does not meet or medically equal a listing, we will consider whether you have an impairment(s) that functionally equals the listings (see § 416.926a of this chapter).
4. Although we present these alternatives in a specific sequence above, each represents listing-level severity, and we can evaluate your claim in any order. For example, if the factors of your case indicate that the combination of your impairments may functionally equal the listings, we may start with that analysis. We use the rules in § 416.994a of this chapter, as appropriate, when we decide whether you continue to be disabled.
112.02
A. Medical documentation of a clinically significant deviation in normal cognitive development or by significant cognitive decline from a prior level of functioning in
1. Complex attention;
2. Executive function;
3. Learning and memory;
4. Language;
5. Perceptual-motor; or
6. Social cognition.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 112.00G2c).
112.03
A. Medical documentation of
1. Delusions or hallucinations;
2. Disorganized thinking (speech); or
3. Grossly disorganized behavior or catatonia.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 112.00G2c).
112.04
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1, 2, or 3:
1. Depressive disorder, characterized by
a. Depressed or irritable mood;
b. Diminished interest in almost all activities;
c. Appetite disturbance with change in weight (or a failure to achieve an expected weight gain);
d. Sleep disturbance;
e. Observable psychomotor agitation or retardation;
f. Decreased energy;
g. Feelings of guilt or worthlessness;
h. Difficulty concentrating or thinking; or
i. Thoughts of death or suicide.
2. Bipolar disorder, characterized by
a. Pressured speech;
b. Flight of ideas;
c. Inflated self-esteem;
d. Decreased need for sleep;
e. Distractibility;
f. Involvement in activities that have a high probability of painful consequences that are not recognized; or
g. Increase in goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation.
3. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, beginning prior to age 10, and
a. Persistent, significant irritability or anger;
b. Frequent, developmentally inconsistent temper outbursts; and
c. Frequent aggressive or destructive behavior.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 112.00G2c).
112.05
A. Satisfied by 1 and 2 (see 112.00H):
1. Significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning evident in your cognitive inability to function at a level required to participate in standardized testing of intellectual functioning; and
2. Significant deficits in adaptive functioning currently manifested by your dependence upon others for personal needs (for example, toileting, eating, dressing, or bathing) in excess of age-appropriate dependence.
B. Satisfied by 1 and 2 (see 112.00H):
1. Significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning evidenced by a or b:
a. A full scale (or comparable) IQ score of 70 or below on an individually administered standardized test of general intelligence; or
b. A full scale (or comparable) IQ score of 71-75 accompanied by a verbal or performance IQ score (or comparable part score) of 70 or below on an individually administered standardized test of general intelligence; and
2. Significant deficits in adaptive functioning currently manifested by extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning:
a. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1); or
b. Interact with others (see 112.00E2); or
c. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3); or
d. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.06
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1, 2, 3, or 4:
1. Anxiety disorder, characterized by
a. Restlessness;
b. Easily fatigued;
c. Difficulty concentrating;
d. Irritability;
e. Muscle tension; or
f. Sleep disturbance.
2. Panic disorder or agoraphobia, characterized by
a. Panic attacks followed by a persistent concern or worry about additional panic attacks or their consequences; or
b. Disproportionate fear or anxiety about at least two different situations (for example, using public transportation, being in a crowd, being in a line, being outside of your home, being in open spaces).
3. Obsessive-compulsive disorder, characterized by
a. Involuntary, time-consuming preoccupation with intrusive, unwanted thoughts; or;
b. Repetitive behaviors that appear aimed at reducing anxiety.
4. Excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from those to whom you are attached.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 112.00G2c).
112.07
A. Medical documentation of
1. Symptoms of altered voluntary motor or sensory function that are not better explained by another medical or mental disorder; or
2. One or more somatic symptoms that are distressing, with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.08
A. Medical documentation of a pervasive pattern of
1. Distrust and suspiciousness of others;
2. Detachment from social relationships;
3. Disregard for and violation of the rights of others;
4. Instability of interpersonal relationships;
5. Excessive emotionality and attention seeking;
6. Feelings of inadequacy;
7. Excessive need to be taken care of;
8. Preoccupation with perfectionism and orderliness; or
9. Recurrent, impulsive, aggressive behavioral outbursts.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.09 [Reserved]
112.10
A. Medical documentation of
1. Qualitative deficits in verbal communication, nonverbal communication, and social interaction; and
2. Significantly restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.11
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1, 2, or 3:
1.
a. Frequent distractibility, difficulty sustaining attention, and difficulty organizing tasks; or
b. Hyperactive and impulsive behavior (for example, difficulty remaining seated, talking excessively, difficulty waiting, appearing restless, or behaving as if being “driven by a motor”).
2. Significant difficulties learning and using academic skills; or
3. Recurrent motor movement or vocalization.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.12 [Reserved]
112.13
A. Medical documentation of a persistent alteration in eating or eating-related behavior that results in a change in consumption or absorption of food and that significantly impairs physical or psychological health.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
112.14
A. Medical documentation of
1. A delay or deficit in the development of age-appropriate skills; or
2. A loss of previously acquired skills.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following developmental abilities (see 112.00F):
1. Plan and control motor movement (see 112.00I4b(i)).
2. Learn and remember (see 112.00I4b(ii)).
3. Interact with others (see 112.00I4b(iii)).
4. Regulate physiological functions, attention, emotion, and behavior (see 112.00I4b(iv)).
112.15
A. Medical documentation of the requirements of paragraph 1 or 2:
1. Posttraumatic stress disorder, characterized by
a. Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or violence;
b. Subsequent involuntary re-experiencing of the traumatic event (for example, intrusive memories, dreams, or flashbacks);
c. Avoidance of external reminders of the event;
d. Disturbance in mood and behavior (for example, developmental regression, socially withdrawn behavior); and
e. Increases in arousal and reactivity (for example, exaggerated startle response, sleep disturbance).
2. Reactive attachment disorder, characterized by
a. Rarely seeks comfort when distressed;
b. Rarely responds to comfort when distressed; or
c. Episodes of unexplained emotional distress.
B. Extreme limitation of one, or marked limitation of two, of the following areas of mental functioning (see 112.00F):
1. Understand, remember, or apply information (see 112.00E1).
2. Interact with others (see 112.00E2).
3. Concentrate, persist, or maintain pace (see 112.00E3).
4. Adapt or manage oneself (see 112.00E4).
C. Your mental disorder in this listing category is “serious and persistent;” that is, you have a medically documented history of the existence of the disorder over a period of at least 2 years, and there is evidence of both:
1. Medical treatment, mental health therapy, psychosocial support(s), or a highly structured setting(s) that is ongoing and that diminishes the symptoms and signs of your mental disorder (see 112.00G2b);
2. Marginal adjustment, that is, you have minimal capacity to adapt to changes in your environment or to demands that are not already part of your daily life (see 112.00G2c).
6. * * *
e. * * *
(ii) Listing-level severity is shown in 114.09B and 114.09C2 by inflammatory arthritis that involves various combinations of complications of one or more major peripheral joints or involves other joints, such as inflammation or deformity, extra-articular features, repeated manifestations, and constitutional symptoms and signs. * * *
114.02
A. One of the organs/body systems involved to at least a moderate level of severity;
B. At least two of the constitutional symptoms and signs (severe fatigue, fever, malaise, or involuntary weight loss).
114.03
A. One of the organs/body systems involved to at least a moderate level of severity;
B. At least two of the constitutional symptoms and signs (severe fatigue, fever, malaise, or involuntary weight loss).
114.06
A. One of the organs/body systems involved to at least a moderate level of severity;
B. At least two of the constitutional symptoms and signs (severe fatigue, fever, malaise, or involuntary weight loss).
114.10
A. One of the organs/body systems involved to at least a moderate level of severity;
B. At least two of the constitutional symptoms and signs (severe fatigue, fever, malaise, or involuntary weight loss).
Secs. 221(m), 702(a)(5), 1611, 1614, 1619, 1631(a), (c), (d)(1), and (p), and 1633 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 421(m), 902(a)(5), 1382, 1382c, 1382h, 1383(a), (c), (d)(1), and (p), and 1383b); secs. 4(c) and 5, 6(c)-(e), 14(a), and 15, Pub. L. 98-460, 98 Stat. 1794, 1801, 1802, and 1808 (42 U.S.C. 421 note, 423 note, and 1382h note).
(c) * * *
(3) We have identified four broad functional areas in which we will rate the degree of your functional limitation: Understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself. See 12.00E of the Listing of Impairments in appendix 1 to subpart P of part 404 of this chapter.
(4) When we rate your degree of limitation in these areas (understand, remember, or apply information; interact with others; concentrate, persist, or maintain pace; and adapt or manage oneself), we will use the following five-point scale: None, mild, moderate, marked, and extreme. The last point on the scale represents a degree of limitation that is incompatible with the ability to do any gainful activity.
(d) * * *
(1) If we rate the degrees of your limitation as “none” or “mild,” we will generally conclude that your impairment(s) is not severe, unless the evidence otherwise indicates that there is more than a minimal limitation in your ability to do basic work activities (see § 416.921).
(h) Allegation of intellectual disability or another neurodevelopmental impairment (for example, autism spectrum disorder) with complete inability to independently perform basic self-care activities (such as toileting, eating, dressing, or bathing) made by another person who files on behalf of a claimant who is at least 4 years old.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |