Page Range | 87409-87800 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 87559 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 87588 - Sunshine Act Meeting; Change of Time to Government In the Sunshine Meeting | |
81 FR 87566 - Compliance Policy Guide Sec. 615.115 on Extralabel Use of Medicated Feeds for Minor Species; Availability | |
81 FR 87647 - United States Rail Service Issues; United States Rail Service Issues-Data Collection | |
81 FR 87472 - United States Rail Service Issues-Performance Data Reporting | |
81 FR 87599 - Excepted Service | |
81 FR 87595 - Excepted Service | |
81 FR 87599 - Submission for OMB Emergency Review: OPM Form SF 15, Application for 10-Point Veteran Preference, OMB No. 3206-0001 | |
81 FR 87563 - Clinical Pharmacology Section of Labeling for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products-Content and Format; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 87583 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Financial Statement of Corporate Applicant for Cooperative Housing Mortgage | |
81 FR 87581 - 60-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Affirmative Fair Housing Marketing Plan | |
81 FR 87582 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Uniform Physical Standards and Physical Inspection Requirements | |
81 FR 87580 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: FHA Adjustable Rate Mortgages (ARMS) | |
81 FR 87579 - 30-Day Notice of Proposed Information Collection: Family Report, Moving to Work (MTW) Family Report | |
81 FR 87593 - Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans; Notice of Charter Renewal | |
81 FR 87565 - Health Document Submission Requirements for Tobacco Products; Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 87628 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt a New Extended Life Priority Order Attribute Under Rule 4703, and To Make Related Changes to Rules 4702, 4752, 4753, 4754, and 4757 | |
81 FR 87594 - Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health: Subcommittee on Evidentiary Requirements for Part B Lung Disease | |
81 FR 87509 - Notification of Submission to the Secretary of Agriculture; Pesticides; Removal of Obsolete Information | |
81 FR 87563 - Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority | |
81 FR 87456 - Tau-Fluvalinate; Pesticide Tolerance | |
81 FR 87454 - Special Local Regulation; Southern California Annual Marine Events for the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone-San Diego Parade of Lights | |
81 FR 87463 - Oxathiapiprolin; Pesticide Tolerances | |
81 FR 87553 - Peer Review of EPA's Biologically Based Dose-Response (BBDR) Model for Perchlorate in Drinking Water-Final List of Peer Reviewers, Notice of the Public Peer Review Meeting and Final Peer Review Charge Questions | |
81 FR 87578 - Area Maritime Security Advisory Committee (AMSC), Eastern Great Lakes and Regional Sub-Committee Vacancies | |
81 FR 87575 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Providing Information About Pediatric Uses of Medical Devices | |
81 FR 87570 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Recommended Glossary and Educational Outreach To Support Use of Symbols on Labels and in Labeling of In Vitro Diagnostic Devices Intended for Professional Use | |
81 FR 87585 - Notice of Intent To Collect Fees on Public Land in Douglas County, Oregon, Roseburg District, Scaredman Recreation Site | |
81 FR 87551 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive Patent License | |
81 FR 87552 - Records Governing Off-the-Record Communications; Public Notice | |
81 FR 87553 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 87569 - Public Meeting on Pre-Market Evaluation of Abuse-Deterrent Properties of Opioid Drug Products; Extension of Comment Period | |
81 FR 87531 - Succession, Delegations of Authority, and Signature Authorities, No. IG-1313, Change 8 | |
81 FR 87550 - Native American Tribal Insignia Database | |
81 FR 87560 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies | |
81 FR 87646 - Delegation of Authority | |
81 FR 87560 - Change in Bank Control Notices; Acquisitions of Shares of a Bank or Bank Holding Company | |
81 FR 87560 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 87636 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87635 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87633 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87603 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87637 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87638 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87644 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87648 - Environmental Impact Statement for Cumberland Fossil Plant Coal Combustion Residual Management | |
81 FR 87493 - Energy Conservation Program: Energy Conservation Standards for Residential Furnaces | |
81 FR 87577 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection: Public Comment Request; Health Workforce Connector | |
81 FR 87585 - Indian Gaming; Tribal-State Class III Gaming Compacts Taking Effect in the State of California | |
81 FR 87539 - Suspension Agreement on Sugar From Mexico; Administrative Review of the Agreement Suspending the Countervailing Duty Investigation on Sugar From Mexico | |
81 FR 87541 - Antidumping Duty Suspension Agreement on Sugar From Mexico; Administrative Review | |
81 FR 87543 - Prestressed Concrete Steel Rail Tie Wire From Mexico: Rescission of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2015-2016 | |
81 FR 87544 - Certain Carbon and Alloy Steel Cut-to-Length Plate From Brazil, South Africa, and the Republic of Turkey: Affirmative Final Determinations of Sales at Less Than Fair Value and Affirmative Final Determinations of Critical Circumstances for Brazil and the Republic of Turkey | |
81 FR 87552 - President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology | |
81 FR 87548 - Endangered and Threatened Species; Take of Anadromous Fish | |
81 FR 87531 - Lyon-Mineral Resource Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 87578 - Meeting Announcement for the Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee Required by the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act (MACRA) of 2015 | |
81 FR 87586 - Filing of Plats of Survey: California | |
81 FR 87584 - Endangered Species Recovery Permit Applications | |
81 FR 87561 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87426 - Amendment to the Export Administration Regulations: Removal of Semiconductor Manufacturing International Corporation From the List of Validated End-Users in the People's Republic of China | |
81 FR 87424 - Amendment to the Export Administration Regulations: Removal of Special Iraq Reconstruction License | |
81 FR 87529 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; 90-Day Findings on Three Petitions; Correction | |
81 FR 87586 - Notice of Proposed Information Collection; Request for Comments for 1029-0049 | |
81 FR 87656 - Visual-Manual NHTSA Driver Distraction Guidelines for Portable and Aftermarket Devices | |
81 FR 87455 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; York River, Yorktown, VA | |
81 FR 87454 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (Albemarle and Chesapeake Canal), Chesapeake, VA | |
81 FR 87594 - Notice of Intent To Grant an Exclusive License | |
81 FR 87606 - In the Matter of Ajenifuja Investments, LLC, 5226 Klingle Street NW., Washington, DC 20016; Investment Advisers Act of 1940; Notice of Intention to Cancel Registration Pursuant to Section 203(H) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 | |
81 FR 87633 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Penny Pilot Program | |
81 FR 87603 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend FINRA Rule 6191 To Modify the Web Site Data Publication Requirements Relating to the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
81 FR 87641 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Notice of Filing of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1 Thereto, Relating to Disaster Recovery | |
81 FR 87645 - Joint Industry Plan; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Amendment to the National Market System Plan for the Selection and Reservation of Securities Symbols To Add Investors Exchange, LLC as a Party Thereto | |
81 FR 87607 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Adopt Rules for an Open-Outcry Trading Floor | |
81 FR 87639 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Chapter VI, Section 5 To Extend the Penny Pilot Program | |
81 FR 87555 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
81 FR 87556 - Information Collections Being Submitted for Review and Approval to the Office of Management and Budget | |
81 FR 87588 - Certain UV Curable Coatings for Optical Fibers, Coated Optical Fibers, and Products Containing Same; Institution of Investigation | |
81 FR 87538 - Extension of Deadline for Nominations of Members To Serve on the Commerce Data Advisory Council (CDAC) | |
81 FR 87470 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
81 FR 87590 - Ferrovanadium From Korea; Scheduling of the Final Phase of an Antidumping Duty Investigation | |
81 FR 87467 - Suspension of Community Eligibility | |
81 FR 87589 - Glycine From China; Scheduling of an Expedited Five-Year Review | |
81 FR 87591 - Certain Air Mattress Systems, Components Thereof, and Methods of Using the Same; Notice of Request for Statements on the Public Interest | |
81 FR 87587 - Polyester Staple Fiber From Korea and Taiwan; Scheduling of Expedited Five-Year Reviews | |
81 FR 87572 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for Office of Management and Budget Review; Comment Request; Medical Device: Current Good Manufacturing Practice Quality System Regulations | |
81 FR 87592 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Supplemental Information on Water Quality Considerations (ATF F 5000.30) | |
81 FR 87654 - Spartan Motors USA, Inc., Grant of Petition for Decision of Inconsequential Noncompliance | |
81 FR 87568 - Determination of Regulatory Review Period for Purposes of Patent Extension; BEXSERO | |
81 FR 87593 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed eCollection eComments Requested; Extension Without Change, of a Previously Approved Collection Law Enforcement Congressional Badge of Bravery | |
81 FR 87448 - National Security Education Program (NSEP) and NSEP Service Agreement | |
81 FR 87409 - Changes to Reporting and Notification Requirements and Other Clarifying Changes for Imported Fruits, Vegetables, and Specialty Crops | |
81 FR 87555 - Notice of Request for Comment on the Exposure Draft Technical Release: Conforming Amendments to Technical Releases for SFFAS 50, Establishing Opening Balances for General Property, Plant, and Equipment | |
81 FR 87653 - Fiscal Year 2016 Public Transportation on Indian Reservations Program Project Selections | |
81 FR 87455 - Cost of Living Adjustment to Royalty Rates for Webcaster Statutory License | |
81 FR 87530 - National Organic Program: Notice of Final Guidance on Classification of Materials and Materials for Organic Crop Production | |
81 FR 87486 - Regulations Issued Under Authority of the Export Apple Act and Export Grapes and Plums; Changes to Export Reporting Requirements | |
81 FR 87649 - Mitigation and Investigation of Passenger Rail Human Factor Related Accidents and Operations in Terminals and Stations With Stub End Tracks | |
81 FR 87595 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 87502 - Tax Return Preparer Due Diligence Penalty Under Section 6695(g) | |
81 FR 87444 - Tax Return Preparer Due Diligence Penalty Under Section 6695(g) | |
81 FR 87430 - Instituting Smoke-Free Public Housing | |
81 FR 87532 - Voting Rights Act Amendments of 2006, Determinations Under Section 203 | |
81 FR 87503 - Air Plan Disapproval; AL; Prong 4 Visibility for the 2008 8-Hour Ozone Standard | |
81 FR 87501 - Probate Regulation Updates | |
81 FR 87499 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 87496 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 87494 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 87419 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes | |
81 FR 87417 - Airworthiness Directives; Dassault Aviation Airplanes | |
81 FR 87427 - Amendment to the International Traffic in Arms Regulations: Corrections and Clarifications | |
81 FR 87510 - Hazardous Materials: Notification of the Pilot-in-Command and Response to Air Related Petitions for Rulemaking (RRR) | |
81 FR 87734 - Recordkeeping for Timely Deposit Insurance Determination | |
81 FR 87422 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 87412 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 87770 - Offer Caps in Markets Operated by Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators | |
81 FR 87556 - Federal Advisory Committee Meeting; Technological Advisory Council | |
81 FR 87686 - Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse |
Agricultural Marketing Service
Forest Service
Inspector General Office, Agriculture Department
Census Bureau
Economics and Statistics Administration
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Patent and Trademark Office
Air Force Department
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
Health Resources and Services Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
Fish and Wildlife Service
Indian Affairs Bureau
Land Management Bureau
Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement Office
Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives Bureau
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Workers Compensation Programs Office
Copyright Royalty Board
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Federal Transit Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Interim rule with request for comments.
This rule updates reporting and notification requirements associated with, and makes clarifying changes to, the fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop import regulations for certain commodities regulated under section 608(e) (hereinafter referred to as “8e”) of the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937. The updates include shifting the exempt reporting requirement for imported tomatoes destined for noncommercial outlets for experimental purposes from the tomato import regulations to the safeguard procedures section of the vegetable import regulations. In addition, the pistachio import regulations will be updated by removing reference to a paper-based notification of entry process. Other administrative changes will be made to several of the 8e regulations to replace outdated information. These changes to the import regulations support the International Trade Data System (ITDS), a key White House economic initiative that will streamline and automate the filing of import and export information by the trade.
Effective December 8, 2016; comments received by February 3, 2017 will be considered prior to issuance of a final rule.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this rule. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or internet:
Shannon Ramirez, Compliance and Enforcement Specialist, or Vincent Fusaro, Compliance and Enforcement Branch Chief, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Richard Lower, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This rule is issued under section 8e of the Agricultural Marketing Agreement Act of 1937, as amended (7 U.S.C. 601-674), hereinafter referred to as the “Act.” Section 8e provides that whenever certain commodities are regulated under Federal marketing orders, imports of those commodities into the United States are prohibited unless they meet the same or comparable grade, size, quality, and/or maturity requirements as those in effect for the domestically produced commodities. The Act also authorizes The Department of Agriculture (USDA) to perform inspections and other related functions (such as commodity sampling) on those imported commodities and to certify whether these requirements have been met.
Parts 944, 980, and 999 of title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) specify inspection, certification, and reporting requirements for imported commodities regulated under 8e. Additionally, these parts specify the imported commodities that may be exempt from grade, size, quality, and/or maturity requirements when imported for specific purposes (such as processing, donation to charitable organizations, or livestock feed) as well as the form importers must use to report to USDA and the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) imports of commodities exempt from 8e regulations.
USDA is issuing this rule in conformance with Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 13175.
This rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This rule is not intended to have retroactive effect. There are no administrative procedures that must be exhausted prior to any judicial challenge to the provisions of import regulations issued under section 8e of the Act.
This rule makes a clarifying change to part 980, the vegetable import regulations, by moving the procedure for filing an exempt commodity form for tomatoes destined for noncommercial outlets for experimental purposes from § 980.212, the tomato import regulations, to § 980.501, the imported vegetable safeguard procedures section. This change removes reference to a form that does not exist for imports and makes the safeguard regulations consistent for all imported vegetables that are exempt from 8e regulations.
This rule also changes § 999.600, the pistachio import regulations, by removing reference to a paper-based notification of entry process, known in the industry as the “stamp and fax” process. This paper-based process is being replaced by an electronic filing requirement that was developed to comply with the International Trade Data System (ITDS) and is intended to be specified within AMS's Specialty Crops Inspection Division's regulations (form SC-357,
This rule also makes other minor administrative changes to §§ 944.401, 999.1, and 999.600 in the fruit and specialty crop import regulations. These changes, which include updating agency and program names and removing or updating other information that is duplicative or out of date, help ensure the import regulations contain accurate information and align with the ITDS objective of streamlining import processes for the trade.
The import regulations in parts 944, 980, and 999 provide that individual lots of some imported commodities may be exempted from 8e requirements if those commodities are intended to be used in processing or in some other exempted outlet, such as a charitable organization or as livestock feed. To import exempt commodities into the United States, importers and receivers are required to certify to USDA and CBP as to the intended, authorized exempt use of those commodities. Certification is reported by both importers and receivers using a paper or electronic FV-6 form,
On March 26, 1996, a final rule was published in the
The regulations for imported pistachios provide for aflatoxin sampling procedures, based on lot size (§ 999.600(d)). These procedures currently require that an importer provide the inspection service office that will draw and prepare samples of the pistachio shipment with a copy of Customs entry documentation and other information related to the shipment; and in turn, the inspection service signs, stamps, and returns the entry documentation to the importer. This paper-based entry procedure is known in the industry as the “stamp and fax” process because the documentation is “stamped” by the inspection service and returned to the importer via “fax.”
In support of ITDS, § 999.600(d) is revised to remove the paper-based “stamp and fax” process. This process is being replaced by an electronic process that importers will use to notify AMS of an initial request for inspection (form SC-357,
To further ensure that the fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop import regulations provide accurate information to the import trade, the USDA agency and program names are being updated where needed.
Also, a statement about the requirement that importers provide USDA inspectors with identifying information, including a Customs entry number, for each lot being inspected is simplified in the fruit and specialty crops import regulations in §§ 944.401(e) (olives) and 999.1(c)(1) (dates), respectively. These changes will make the olive and date import regulations consistent with the other fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop import regulations.
Finally, a paragraph titled “importation” in the date import regulations (§ 999.1(e)) is removed because it contains redundant and incomplete information about filing inspection or exemption documents with CBP. These requirements are more accurately explained elsewhere in the date regulations; specifically, § 999.1(b) provides the grade requirements that must be met by dates prior to importation, § 999.1(c) provides the inspection and certification requirements, and § 999.1(d) provides detailed exemption information and also references the safeguard section in the specialty crops import regulations (§ 999.500) that provides details on filing an electronic or paper FV-6 exemption form.
These changes will ensure the import regulations contain accurate and consistent information, which should benefit the import trade.
Changing the 8e import regulations to remove the paper-based notification of entry for imported pistachios supports the International Trade Data System (ITDS), a key White House economic initiative that has been under development for over ten years and is mandated for completion by December 31, 2016 (pursuant to Executive Order 13659,
By the end of 2016, the ITDS “single window” will be presented to the import and export trade through CBP's Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) platform. ACE will be the primary system through which the global trade community will file information about imports and exports so that admissibility into the U.S. may be determined and government agencies may monitor compliance.
Prior to the implementation of the ITDS “single window,” CBP is requiring that the 47 partnering government agencies that are participating in the ITDS project, including AMS, ensure that agency regulations provide for the electronic entry of import and/or export information.
AMS's Marketing Order and Agreement Division (MOAD) is currently developing the functionality of a new automated system called the Compliance and Enforcement Management System (CEMS) that will interface with CBP's ACE system in support of ITDS. CEMS will electronically link with the ACE system to create a “pipeline” through which data will be transmitted between MOAD and CBP. CEMS will contain several features, including an exempt imported commodities module and the ability to message CBP about whether a shipment may be released for importation into the United States.
AMS has determined that the changes in this rule meet CBP's requirements for ITDS by streamlining a notification process for imported pistachios; shifting an exempt-tomato reporting requirement to the proper safeguard section of the vegetable regulations, which was revised in 2015 to provide an electronic filing option; and by removing duplicate or revising outdated information. These changes will reduce the burden on America's import trade without compromising AMS's ability to ensure compliance with its import regulations.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened.
Small agricultural service firms, which includes importers and USDA-accredited laboratories who perform services required by import regulations, are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
Based on 2015 reporting, USDA estimates that there were two importers and two receivers of tomatoes that were exempt from 8e requirements. Although USDA does not have access to data about the business sizes of these importers and receivers, it is likely that the majority may be classified as large entities.
This action moves the requirements for reporting imported tomatoes destined for noncommercial outlets for experimental purposes, which are exempt from 8e regulations, from the tomato import regulations to the safeguard section of the vegetable import regulations. This change to the regulations does not revise the procedures currently used by importers and receivers of exempt tomatoes; instead, it shifts the outdated requirements currently listed under § 980.212 to the more appropriate safeguard section in § 980.501. Most importers and receivers already file FV-6 forms electronically using AMS's Marketing Order Online System (MOLS), while some paper forms are still submitted. In 2015, AMS estimates it received five electronic FV-6 forms and no paper FV-6 forms for approximately 14,900 pounds of exempt tomatoes.
As part of the full implementation of ITDS, importers and receivers will report exempt shipments through CBP's ACE system and AMS's CEMS system, which, as noted earlier, is currently under development and will eventually replace MOLS. An affirmation of interim rule as final rule was published in the
Regarding alternatives to this action, AMS determined that these changes to the regulations were needed to comply with the ITDS mandate. Moving an outdated, paper-based exempt form-filing requirement from the import tomato regulations to the safeguard section of the vegetable import regulations standardizes the regulations and properly provides for the current requirement of filing a paper or electronic form FV-6, which will benefit importers and receivers who import these exempt tomatoes. In addition, changing the pistachio regulations by removing the paper-based “stamp and fax” requirement streamlines the regulations and reduces the burden on the trade. The other administrative changes made in this action will also provide the import trade with accurate information.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. Chapter 35), the information collection requirements for the form FV-6 (for commodities exempt from 8e requirements) have been previously approved by OMB and assigned OMB No. 0581-0167 (Specific Commodities Imported into United States Exempt From Import Regulations). No changes in the requirements for the FV-6 form as a result of this action are necessary. The shift of the requirements for exempt-use filings from the tomato import regulations to the safeguard section for imported vegetables is administrative in nature and does not change the practice that has existed for many years. Should any changes to form FV-6 become necessary in the future, they would be submitted to OMB for approval.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
In addition, USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap or conflict with this rule.
Further, importers are already familiar with the long-existing process and requirement to file FV-6 forms for commodities exempt from 8e regulations. Also, the import trade is fully aware of the ITDS initiative, which is designed to streamline and automate the filing of import shipment data.
Finally, interested persons are invited to submit comments on this interim rule, including the regulatory and informational impacts of this action on small businesses.
This rule invites comments on updates to reporting and notification requirements, as well as other clarifying and administrative changes, to the regulations for fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop import regulations. Any comments received will be considered prior to finalization of this rule.
After consideration of all relevant material presented, it is found that this interim rule, as hereinafter set forth, will tend to effectuate the declared policy of the Act.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553, it is also found and determined upon good cause that it is impracticable, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest to give preliminary notice prior to putting this rule into effect and that good cause exists for not postponing the effective date of this rule until 30 days after publication in the
Avocados, Food grades and standards, Grapefruit, Grapes, Imports, Kiwifruit, Olives, Oranges.
Food grades and standards, Imports, Marketing agreements, Onions, Potatoes, Tomatoes.
Dates, Filberts, Food grades and standards, Imports, Nuts, Pistachios, Prunes, Raisins, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Walnuts.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, 7 CFR parts 944, 980, and 999 are amended as follows:
7 U.S.C. 601-674.
(e) Inspection shall be performed by USDA inspectors in accordance with said regulations governing the inspection and certification of processed fruits and vegetables and related products (part 52 of this title). The cost of each such inspection and related certification shall be borne by the applicant therefore. Applicants shall provide USDA inspectors with the entry number and such other identifying information for each lot as the inspector may request.
(b)
(a) Each person who imports or receives any of the commodities listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section shall file (electronically or paper) an “Importer's Exempt Commodity Form” (FV-6) with the Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA. * * *
(4) Pearl onions; or
(5) Tomatoes to be used in noncommercial outlets for experimental purposes.
(c)
(d)
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes; and certain Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report indicating that a cam latch on the main cargo door (MCD) broke during flight. This AD requires various inspections and related investigative and corrective actions, if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the AD as of January 9, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Patrick Farina, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety Branch, ANM-150L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5344; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to include an AD that would apply to certain The Boeing Company Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes; and certain Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Since we issued the NPRM, we have reviewed Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes). (We referred to Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, dated February 6, 2012; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012; as the appropriate sources of service information for accomplishing the actions specified in the NPRM.)
Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015; clarify the inspection conditions and the corrective actions for certain conditions. Certain inspections of the cam latches and latch pins were changed from detailed inspections to general visual inspections. Also, a detailed inspection of mating parts and immediately adjacent cam latches and latch pins for any cracks or any gouges in critical areas was added to certain corrective actions specified in the service information.
Also, the corrective actions for latch pin extensions that are between 0.84 and 0.89 inch or between 0.91 and 0.94 inch were changed. Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015; specify replacement of any discrepant latch pin and a detailed inspection of the mating cam latch for any cracks or gouges in lieu of the repetitive detailed inspections described in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, dated February 6, 2012; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012.
In light of the issuance of the revised service information discussed previously, we have revised paragraphs (c), (g), and (h) of this AD to refer to Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015. We have also added new paragraph (l) of this AD to give credit for doing actions before the effective date of this AD using Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, dated February 6, 2012; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012. In addition, we have removed the Optional Terminating Action, which was paragraph (m) in the proposed AD, and moved that information into paragraph (g)(2) of this AD to align with the revised service information. We have redesignated subsequent paragraphs accordingly.
In addition, since certain inspections and conditions were revised in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015; we have revised the description of the actions required by this AD to correspond with the terminology used in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015. As a result, certain paragraphs in the proposed AD have been rearranged, and the corresponding paragraph identifiers have been redesignated in this AD, as listed in the following table:
We have also revised the Costs of Compliance section in this final rule to reflect the number of work-hours specified in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015. We have also included the costs for the repetitive inspections required before the MCD rigging check as well as replacement of the alloy cross bolts; these costs were inadvertently omitted from the NPRM. In addition, we have included the costs for the concurrent actions in Boeing
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM and the FAA's response to each comment.
FedEx Express had no objection to the NPRM.
Boeing stated that it was difficult to align the requirements proposed in paragraphs (g), (h), (i), (j) and (l) of the proposed AD with the actions described in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, dated February 6, 2012; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012. Boeing commented that it is not clear which requirements in the proposed AD go with which section of table 1 and table 2 in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012. Boeing expressed concern that the proposed AD does not include all of the items in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012. Boeing suggested that the proposed AD be rewritten so operators are not confused with unclear compliance requirements, which might cause situations of non-compliance.
Boeing also requested that paragraphs (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(3)(i), and (h)(3)(ii) of the proposed AD be rewritten to improve clarity because words were omitted that might lead to confusion or misinterpretation of the requirements in the proposed AD.
We agree that the description of the parts to be inspected and the required tasks should be consistent throughout this final rule and should match what is described in the Boeing service information. With the exception of paragraph (l)(2) of this AD, we are requiring only actions that are described in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015. We have revised paragraphs (g), (h), (i), and (j) of this AD accordingly.
For clarity we have moved the “Concurrent Actions” paragraph of the proposed AD (paragraph (l) of the proposed AD) before the “Exceptions to Service Information Specifications” paragraph (paragraph (k) of the proposed AD). In this AD, the “Concurrent Actions” paragraph is redesignated as paragraph (i) of this AD.
The United States Air Force Joint STARS (Joint STARS) program stated that its concern is that the NPRM addresses only airplanes that are frequently used to haul cargo. For operators that do not haul cargo and typically only open the MCD for C-check inspections, the general visual inspections required every 330 flight cycles or 150 days is excessive. This commenter stated that these repetitive inspections do not fit into the current Joint STARS maintenance program and would result in airplane downtime and additional cost. This commenter noted that detailed inspections every 3,000 flight cycles or 24 months, and high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspections every 6,000 flight cycles or 48 months, would fit into its current maintenance schedule and not cause a significant impact.
We agree that the required intervals for repetitive inspections may not be appropriate for some operators because they infrequently use the cargo door. However, we disagree with revising the intervals for the repetitive inspections required by this AD. We need to evaluate the requests for different inspection intervals on a case-by-case basis, based on the operator and its use of the MCD. Operators may request a change in the intervals for the repetitive inspections by following the procedures in paragraph (m) of this AD and requesting approval of an alternative method of compliance.
We also note that the FAA has limited oversight of public aircraft operations (PAO). The government entity conducting the PAO is responsible for oversight of the operations, including aircraft airworthiness.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015; and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015. This service information describes procedures for doing a general visual inspection for broken or missing cam latches, latch pins, and latch pin cross bolts; torqueing the cross bolts in the latch pins; measuring the extension of the latch pins; replacing all alloy steel cross bolts through the latch pins with CRES cross bolts; doing a general visual inspection of all cam latches for lip deformation; doing a HFEC or magnetic particle inspection of cam latch 1 and cam latch 2 for cracks and replacing all cracked or broken parts; checking the rig of the MCD and re-rigging as applicable; and doing related investigative and corrective actions. This service information also describes procedures for doing repetitive inspections for certain conditions specified in the service information, which terminate after the MCD rigging is done as specified in this service information. This service information also describes procedures for doing MCD post-rigging inspections and corrective actions. These service bulletins are distinct because they apply to different airplane models.
We also reviewed Boeing 707/720 Service Bulletin 3477, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993; and Boeing Service Bulletin 727-52-0142, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993. This service information describes procedures for doing general a general visual inspection of the hinge fittings and the cam latches on the MCD, and related investigative and corrective actions. These service bulletins are distinct because they apply to different airplane models.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 18 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary related investigative actions and certain replacements that will be required based on the results of the inspections. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
None.
The Boeing Company airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this AD.
(1) Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes, as identified in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015.
(2) Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by a report that a cam latch on the main cargo door (MCD) broke during flight. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct discrepancies of the cam latches, latch pins, and latch pin cross bolts. Such discrepancies could reduce the structural integrity of the MCD, and result in potential loss of the cargo door and rapid decompression of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Except as provided by paragraph (k)(l) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes): Do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (g)(1)(iv) of this AD in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes).
(i) A general visual inspection of the MCD for broken or missing cam latches, latch pins, and latch pin cross bolts.
(ii) Torque the cross bolts in the latch pins.
(iii) Measure the extension of the latch pins.
(iv) Perform a general visual inspection of all cam latches for lip deformation.
(2) Except as required by paragraph (k)(2) of this AD, after accomplishing the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) through (g)(1)(iv) of this AD: Do all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, replace all alloy steel cross bolts through the latch pins with corrosion resistant steel (CRES) cross bolts, repeat the applicable inspections, and do the check of the MCD rig and the latch mechanism adjustment test, at the applicable times and intervals specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” and in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes). Accomplishment of the check of the MCD rig terminates the repetitive inspections required by this paragraph.
(1) Except as required by paragraph (k)(2) of this AD: At the applicable times specified in table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes): Do general visual inspections for any broken or missing cam latches, latch pins, and latch pin cross bolts; a detailed inspection of the cam latches and latch pins for any cracks, or any gouges in critical areas; and an HFEC or magnetic particle inspection of cam latch 1 and cam latch 2 for cracks in critical areas; and do all applicable corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes). Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(2) Repeat the inspections required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD at the applicable times specified in table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes).
(1) For airplanes identified in Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015: Before or concurrently with accomplishment of the general visual inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(iv) of this AD, do a general visual inspection of the hinge fittings and the cam latches on the MCD, and perform related investigative and corrective actions as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing 707/720 Service Bulletin 3477, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993.
(2) For airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015: Before or concurrently with accomplishment of the general visual inspections specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(iv) of this AD, do a general visual inspection of the hinge fittings and the cam latches on the MCD, and perform related investigative and corrective actions as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Service Bulletin 727-52-0142, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install an alloy steel bolt as a cross bolt through any latch pin fitting assembly in the lower sill of the MCD on any airplane.
The following exceptions apply to this AD.
(1) Where Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes); specifies a compliance time relative to the issue date of that service bulletin, this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) Where Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes); specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action: At the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes); repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (m) of this AD.
This paragraph provides credit for the corresponding actions required by paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD, if those actions were done before the effective date of this AD using Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, dated February 6, 2012 (for Model 707-300, 707-300B, and 707-300C series airplanes); or Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, dated January 30, 2012 (for Model 727C, 727-100C, and 727-200F series airplanes).
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (n)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Patrick Farina, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety Branch, ANM-150L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5344; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (o)(3) and (o)(4) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Boeing 707 Alert Service Bulletin A3536, Revision 1, dated September 16, 2015.
(ii) Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 727-52A0150, Revision 1, dated November 5, 2015.
(iii) Boeing 707/720 Service Bulletin 3477, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993.
(iv) Boeing Service Bulletin 727-52-0142, Revision 2, dated April 15, 1993.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. This AD was prompted by investigation results that determined that a certain thickness of the fuel tank panels is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. This AD requires inspecting the thickness of the fuel tank panels, and repair if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of January 9, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0216, dated October 28, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes. The MCAI states:
Several rear fuselage tanks of the Falcon 7X were assembled on the production line with a lateral panel, which had been excessively chemically-milled in some areas. Investigation results determined that the remaining thickness is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. Dassault Aviation identified the individual aeroplanes that are potentially affected by this production deficiency. Due to this reduced thickness, the risk of damaging and puncturing a fuel tank wall panel as a result of a high energy lightning strike is increased.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to loss of electrical power and/or other essential functions, possibly resulting in reduced control of the aeroplane or ignition of a fuel tank.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Dassault Aviation published Service Bulletin (SB) 7X-245 to provide inspection and repair instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of the fuel tank wall panels and, depending on findings, accomplishment of a repair.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of this AD.
We reviewed Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015. The service information describes procedures for measuring fuel tank panel thickness, and repair if necessary.
We estimate that this AD affects 6 airplanes of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 8 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts will cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $4,080, or $680 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 20 work-hours and require parts costing $2,244, for a cost of $3,944 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Dassault Aviation Model FALCON 7X airplanes, certificated in any category, serial numbers (S/Ns) 17 through 21 inclusive, S/Ns 86 through 90 inclusive, S/Ns 115 through 119 inclusive, S/Ns 129 through 138 inclusive, and S/N 155.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by investigation results that determined that a certain thickness of the fuel tank panels is insufficient to meet the certification requirements. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct improper thickness of the fuel tank panels. Improper thickness increases the risk of damaging and puncturing a fuel tank wall panel as a result of a high energy lightning strike, which could lead to loss of electrical power and/or other essential functions, possibly resulting in reduced control of the airplane or ignition of a fuel tank.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 99 months or 4,100 flight cycles, whichever occurs first since the date of first delivery of the airplane, inspect for improper thickness of the fuel tank panels, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015. If improper thickness is found during this inspection, before further flight, repair the fuel tank panels, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs): The Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the International Branch, send it to ATTN: Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Contacting the Manufacturer: For any requirement in this AD to obtain corrective actions from a manufacturer, the action must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Dassault Aviation's EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA). If approved by the DOA, the approval must include the DOA-authorized signature.
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0216, dated October 28, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Dassault Service Bulletin 7X-245, dated June 8, 2015.
(ii) Reserved.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Dassault Falcon Jet Corporation, Teterboro Airport, P.O. Box 2000, South Hackensack, NJ 07606; telephone 201-440-6700; Internet
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and 0100 airplanes. This AD was prompted by heavy corrosion found on the wing rear spar lower girder. This AD requires inspections of the affected areas, modification of the wing trailing edge lower skin panels, and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of January 9, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact, Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM 116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and 0100 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0113, dated June 22, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and 0100 airplanes. The MCAI states:
On an F28 Mark 0070 aeroplane, heavy corrosion was found on the wing rear spar lower girder. At small spots the effective thickness of the vertical flange of the lower girder was almost lost. Subsequently, a number of inspections were accomplished on other aeroplanes to provide additional information on possible corrosion in this area. Because the rear spar lower girder between Wing Stations (WSTA) 9270 and 11794 is hidden from view by the inboard and outboard aileron balancing plates, it is possible that corrosion in this area remains undetected during the zonal inspections in zone 536 and 636 (MRB [Maintenance Review Board] tasks 062505-00-01 and 062605-00-01).The heavy corrosion was not only found in the area between WSTA 9270 and 11794, but also in the area where the rear spar lower girder is directly visible.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, reduces the load carrying capability of the wing, possibly resulting in structural failure and loss of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Fokker Services issued Service Bulletin (SB) SBF100-57-049 to provide instructions to detect and remove corrosion and to modify the wing trailing edge lower skin panels into access panels. SBF100-57-050 was issued to provide repair instructions.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires inspections of the affected areas and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s) [including removing corrosion, repair, and restoring protective finish]. This [EASA] AD also requires modification of the wing trailing edge lower skin panels into access panels [This modification is to provide ease of access for later inspection and repairs in the affected areas.], and reporting of the results of the inspections to Fokker Services.
More information on this subject can be found in Fokker Services All Operators Message AOF100.197.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, which describes procedures for an inspection for corrosion of certain wing rear spar lower girder areas, modification of the wing trailing edge lower skin panels, and corrective actions if necessary. We also reviewed Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-050, Revision 1, dated May 19, 2015, which describes procedures for repair of the wing spar. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 8 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary corrective actions that will be required based on the results of the required inspection. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these corrective actions:
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and 0100 airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 57, Wings.
This AD was prompted by heavy corrosion found on the wing rear spar lower girder. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct corrosion of the wing rear spar lower girder. This condition could reduce the load-carrying capability of the wing, possibly resulting in structural failure and loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 1,000 flight cycles or 12 months, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD, accomplish a one-time detailed visual inspection for corrosion of the wing rear spar lower girder area from WSTA 9270 to 11794, in accordance with Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015.
Within 1,000 flight cycles or 12 months, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD, modify the wing trailing edge lower skin panels into access panels, in accordance with Part 1 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015.
Within 2,000 flight cycles or 24 months, whichever occurs first after the effective date of this AD, accomplish a one-time detailed visual inspection for corrosion of the wing rear spar lower girder area from WSTA 2635 to 8700 and WSTA 11794 to 12975, in accordance with Part 2 of the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015.
(1) If during any inspection required by paragraph (g) or (i) of this AD, as applicable, corrosion is found, before further flight, remove the corrosion and determine the remaining thickness at the damaged spots, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015. If the remaining thickness at the damaged spots, as determined by this paragraph, is not within the tolerances specified in Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, except as required by paragraph (k)(1) of this AD: Before further flight, accomplish the applicable corrective actions as defined in paragraph (j)(1)(i) or (j)(1)(ii) of this AD, as applicable.
(i) For corrosion damage found outboard of WSTA 8200 only: Repair, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-050, Revision 1, dated May 19, 2015.
(ii) Repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA); or Fokker Services B.V.'s EASA Design Organization Approval (DOA).
(2) If during any inspection required by paragraph (g) or (i) of this AD, only damage to the surface protection is found, or if the remaining thickness at the damaged spots, as determined by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, is within the tolerances specified in Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, except as required by paragraph (k)(1) of this AD: Before further flight, restore the surface protection, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, except as required by paragraph (k)(2) of this AD.
(1) Where Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, specifies the acceptability of smaller thickness or customized repairs: Before further flight, obtain acceptable tolerances, using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Fokker Services B.V.'s EASA DOA.
(2) Where Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, specifies contacting Fokker for a customized repair: Before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA; or EASA; or Fokker Services B.V.'s EASA DOA.
Submit a report of the findings, both positive and negative, of the inspections required by paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD to Fokker Services, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015, at the time specified in paragraph (l)(1) or (l)(2) of this AD.
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0113, dated June 22, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-049, dated March 24, 2015.
(ii) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-57-050, Revision 1, dated May 19, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant), and CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes. This AD was prompted by a report that a potential chafing condition exists between the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the auxiliary power unit (APU) and its surrounding structure and components. This AD requires, for certain airplanes, a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, and corrective actions if necessary. For certain other airplanes, this AD requires replacement of the APU negative-G fuel feed tube assembly and the drain line. We are issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
This AD is January 9, 2017.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of January 9, 2017.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; Widebody Customer Response Center North America toll-free telephone 1-866-538-1247 or direct-dial telephone 1-514-855-2999; fax 514-855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Norman Perenson, Aerospace Engineer, Propulsion and Services Branch, ANE-173, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone: 516-228-7337; fax: 516-794-5531.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant), and CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes. The NPRM published in the
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian AD CF-2015-26, dated August 31, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant) and CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A, CL-601-3R, and CL-604 Variants) airplanes. The MCAI states:
It was reported that a potential chaffing condition exist between the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) negative-G fuel feed drain line and its surrounding structure and components. Leakage of the negative-G fuel feed drain line is a dormant failure, however, in combination with a nearby hot surface or other potential ignition source, could result in an uncontrolled fire in the aft equipment bay.
This [Canadian] AD mandates [for certain airplanes] the detailed visual inspection [for chafing conditions,
Corrective actions include replacing the APU negative-G fuel feed drain line. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed the following Bombardier, Inc. service information.
• Bombardier Service Bulletin 601-0640, dated May 19, 2015; and Bombardier Service Bulletin 604-28-021, dated May 19, 2015. This service information describes procedures for a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, and corrective actions. These service bulletins are distinct since they apply to different airplane models.
• Bombardier Service Bulletin 605-28-009, dated May 19, 2015. This service information describes procedures for a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, replacement of the APU negative-G fuel feed tube assembly and the drain line, and corrective actions.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 504 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective January 9, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to Bombardier, Inc. airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD.
(1) Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant) airplanes, having serial numbers (S/Ns) 3001 through 3066 inclusive.
(2) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A and CL-601-3R Variants) airplanes, having S/Ns 5001 through 5194 inclusive.
(3) Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-604 Variant) airplanes, having S/Ns 5301 through 5665 inclusive, and 5701 through 5970 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a report that a potential chafing condition exists between the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the auxiliary power unit (APU) and its surrounding structure and components. We are issuing this AD to prevent a chafing condition in the negative-G fuel feed drain line, which can result in fuel leaking from the drain line. This condition, in combination with a nearby hot surface or other potential ignition source, could result in an uncontrolled fire in the aft equipment bay.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD, comply with the applicable actions specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (g)(3) of this AD, except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
(1) For Model CL-600-2A12 (CL-601 Variant) airplanes, having S/Ns 3001 through 3066 inclusive; and Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-601-3A and CL-601-3R Variants) airplanes, having S/Ns 5001 through 5194 inclusive: Do a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 601-0640, dated May 19, 2015.
(2) For Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-604 Variant) airplanes, having S/Ns 5301 through 5665 inclusive: Do a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 604-28-021, dated May 19, 2015.
(3) For Model CL-600-2B16 (CL-604 Variant) airplanes, having S/Ns 5701 through 5913 inclusive, 5917, 5918, and 5923 through 5970 inclusive: Do a detailed inspection for chafing conditions of the negative-G fuel feed drain line of the APU, and do all applicable corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions in Part A and, if applicable, Part B of Bombardier Service Bulletin 605-28-009, dated May 19, 2015.
For Model CL-600-2B16 (604 Variant) airplanes having S/Ns 5914 through 5916 inclusive and 5919 through 5922 inclusive: Within 24 months after the effective date of this AD, replace the APU negative-G fuel feed tube assembly and the drain line, in accordance with Part C of the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 605-28-009, dated May 19, 2015.
An inspection is not required.
Where any service information identified in paragraphs (g)(1), (g)(2), and (g)(3) of this AD specifies to contact the manufacturer for corrective action, before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), ANE-170, FAA; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO).
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian AD CF-2015-26, dated August 31, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Bombardier Service Bulletin 601-0640, dated May 19, 2015.
(ii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 604-28-021, dated May 19, 2015.
(iii) Bombardier Service Bulletin 605-28-009, dated May 19, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; Widebody Customer Response Center North America toll-free telephone: 1-866-538-1247 or direct-dial telephone: 1-514-855-2999; fax: 514-855-7401; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Final rule.
In this final rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) by removing the Special Iraq Reconstruction License (SIRL) from the EAR. This action furthers the objectives of the Retrospective Regulatory Review Initiative that directs BIS and other federal agencies to streamline regulations and reduce unnecessary regulatory burdens on the public. Specifically, the SIRL is outdated and seldom used by exporters, who now have more efficient options for exports and reexports to Iraq and transfers (in-country) in Iraq. This rule also makes conforming changes.
This rule is effective January 4, 2017.
Thomas Andrukonis, Director, Export Management and Compliance Division, Office of Exporter Services, Bureau of Industry and Security, by telephone at (202) 482-6396 or by email at
The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) issues this final rule to remove the Special Iraq Reconstruction License (SIRL) provisions from the Export Administration Regulations (EAR), consistent with the Retrospective Regulatory Review Initiative. In the preamble to the proposed rule published in the
The record indicates that exporters supplying items used in support of the civil reconstruction efforts in Iraq have not relied on the SIRL to advance those efforts, apparently because of its complexity and narrowness. Further, since 2004, BIS processed only three applications for the SIRL and approved only one, as compared to over 400 approved individual license applications for the export of items to Iraq between 2012 and 2015. Finally, with the implementation of updates to the EAR, the relative advantages of the SIRL have been offset by changes to individual licenses and other types of authorizations offered by BIS that provide less complex alternatives to the SIRL.
Thus, consistent with the President's Retrospective Regulatory Review Initiative to streamline regulations and reduce unnecessary regulatory burdens on the public (see “Improving Regulatory Review” (Executive Order 13563 of January 18, 2011)), BIS
BIS received no comments in response to the June 7 rule. BIS, therefore, publishes in final form the amendments to the EAR to remove the SIRL as described initially in the June 7 rule.
Although the Export Administration Act expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013) and as extended by the Notice of August 4, 2016, 81 FR 52587 (August 8, 2016), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222 as amended by Executive Order 13637.
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. This rule amends collections previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under Control Numbers 0694-0088, “Simplified Network Application Processing + System (SNAP+) and the Multi-Purpose Application,” which carries a burden hour estimate of 43.8 minutes to prepare and submit form BIS-748; and 0694-0137, “License Exemptions and Exclusions.”
The total burden hours associated with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Notwithstanding any other provision of the law, no person is required to respond to, nor shall any person be subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information subject to the requirements of the PRA, unless that collection of information displays a currently valid OMB Control Number.
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under Executive Order 13132.
4. The Chief Counsel for Regulation at the Department of Commerce certified to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy at the Small Business Administration that this rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The factual basis was published in the proposed rule and is not repeated here. BIS received no comments, which means there were no comments that addressed the economic impact of this rule on small entities. Therefore, a final regulatory flexibility analysis is not required and one was not prepared.
Administrative practice and procedure, Advisory committees, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Strategic and critical materials.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Foreign trade, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Business and industry, Confidential business information, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, under the authority of 50 U.S.C. 1701
50 U.S.C. 4601
50 U.S.C. 4601
50 U.S.C. 4601
Bureau of Industry and Security, Commerce.
Final rule.
In this rule, the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) amends the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) to remove one end-user from the list of validated end-users in the People's Republic of China (PRC). Specifically, BIS amends Supplement Number 7 to part 748 of the EAR to remove the Semiconductor Manufacturing International Corporation (SMIC) as a validated end-user in the PRC. BIS makes this change at the company's request, and not in response to activities of concern.
This rule is effective December 5, 2016.
Chair, End-User Review Committee, Office of the Assistant Secretary, Export Administration, Bureau of Industry and Security, U.S. Department of Commerce, Phone: 202-482-5991; Email:
Validated end-users (VEUs) are designated entities located in eligible destinations to which eligible items may be exported, reexported, or transferred (in-country) under a general authorization instead of a license. The names of the VEUs, as well as the dates they were so designated, and their respective eligible destinations (facilities) and items are identified in Supplement No. 7 to part 748 of the EAR (15 CFR part 748). Under the terms described in that supplement, and in conformity with section 748.15 of the EAR, VEUs may obtain eligible items without an export license from BIS. Eligible items vary between VEUs, and may include commodities, software, and technology, except items controlled for missile technology or crime control reasons on the Commerce Control List (CCL) (part 774 of the EAR).
VEUs are reviewed and approved by the U.S. Government in accordance with the provisions of section 748.15 and Supplement Nos. 8 and 9 to part 748 of the EAR. The End-User Review Committee (ERC), composed of representatives from the Departments of State, Defense, Energy, Commerce, and other agencies, as appropriate, is responsible for administering the VEU program. BIS amended the EAR in a final rule published on June 19, 2007 (72 FR 33646), to create Authorization VEU.
In this final rule, BIS amends Supplement No. 7 to part 748 of the EAR (Supplement No. 7) to remove the VEU SMIC from the list of VEUs in the PRC. Specifically, BIS removes information for SMIC from Supplement No. 7. BIS takes this action at SMIC's request. BIS makes this change to Supplement No. 7 at the company's request and not in response to activities of concern.
Although the Export Administration Act expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013), and as extended by the Notice of August 4, 2016, 81 FR 52587 (August 8, 2016), has continued the EAR in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act. BIS continues to carry out the provisions of the Export Administration Act, as appropriate and to the extent permitted by law, pursuant to Executive Order 13222 as amended by Executive Order 13637.
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. This rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866.
2. This rule involves collections previously approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under Control Number 0694-0088, “Multi-Purpose Application,” which carries a burden hour estimate of 43.8 minutes to prepare and submit form BIS-748; and for recordkeeping, reporting and review requirements in connection with Authorization VEU, which carries an estimated burden of 30 minutes per submission. Total burden hours associated with the Paperwork
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under Executive Order 13132.
4. Pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), BIS finds good cause to waive requirements that this rule be subject to notice and the opportunity for public comment because they are unnecessary. In determining whether to grant or remove VEU designations, a committee of U.S. Government agencies evaluates information about and commitments made by candidate companies, the nature and terms of which are set forth in 15 CFR part 748, Supplement Nos. 8 and 9. The criteria for evaluation by the committee are set forth in 15 CFR 748.15(a)(2) and the authority to remove VEU designations is contained in 15 CFR 748.15(a)(3). The information, commitments, and criteria for this extensive review were all established through the notice of proposed rulemaking and public comment process (71 FR 38313 (July 6, 2006) (proposed rule), and 72 FR 33646 (June 19, 2007) (final rule)). In publishing this final rule, BIS removes a VEU from the list of VEUs in the PRC, at the request of the VEU, similar to past requests by other VEUs, approved by the End-User Review Committee. This change has been made within the established regulatory framework of the VEU program. Further, this rule does not abridge the rights of the public or eliminate the public's option to export under any of the forms of authorization set forth in the EAR.
Publication of this rule in other than final form is unnecessary because the procedure for revocation of a VEU or facility from the Authorized VEU list is similar to the license revocation procedure, which does not undergo public review. During the VEU revocation procedure, the U.S. Government analyzes confidential business information according to set criteria to determine whether a given authorized VEU entity remains eligible for VEU status. Revocation may be the result of a material change in circumstance at the VEU or the VEU's authorized facility. Such changes may be the result of a VEU or VEU facility no longer meeting the eligibility criteria for Authorization VEU, and may thus lead the U.S. Government to modify or revoke VEU authorization. VEUs or VEU facilities that undergo material changes that result in their no longer meeting the criteria to be eligible VEUs must, according to the VEU program, have their VEU status revoked. Here, however, SMIC requested removal from the VEU program. Consequently, BIS is removing SMIC from the list of VEUs. Public comment on whether to make the removal is unnecessary.
Section 553(d) of the APA generally provides that rules may not take effect earlier than thirty (30) days after they are published in the
No other law requires that a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment be given for this final rule. Because a notice of proposed rulemaking and an opportunity for public comment are not required under the APA or by any other law, the analytical requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, part 748 of the EAR (15 CFR parts 730-774) is amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. 4601
Department of State.
Final rule; request for comments.
The Department of State is amending the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) to clarify recent revisions made pursuant to the President's Export Control Reform (ECR) initiative. This rule clarifies the scope of disclosure of information submitted to the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC), clarifies the policies and procedures regarding statutory debarments, and corrects administrative and typographical errors.
This Final rule is effective on December 5, 2016. The Department will accept comments on the Final regulation up to January 4, 2017.
Interested parties may submit comments within 30 days of the date of publication by one of the following methods:
•
•
Comments received after that date will be considered if feasible, but consideration cannot be assured. All comments (including any personally identifying information or information for which a claim of confidentiality is asserted in those comments or their transmittal emails) will be made
Mr. C. Edward Peartree, Director, Office of Defense Trade Controls Policy, Department of State, telephone (202) 663-2792; email
The Department makes the following revisions to the ITAR in this final rule:
• A definition of “classified” is moved from § 121.1(e) to § 120.46;
• The structure of § 121.1(a)-(e) is realigned, with paragraphs (a) and (b) revised to clarify the existing requirements for United States Munitions List (USML) controls, and paragraphs (c), (d) and (e) removed;
• Thirteen USML categories are amended to clarify that commodities, software, and technology subject to the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and related to defense articles in a USML category may be exported or temporarily imported on the same license with defense articles from any category, provided they are to be used in or with that defense article;
• In three places within the USML, the word “enumerated” is replaced with the word “described” to make the language consistent with changes directed in the Final Rule published at 79 FR 61226, Oct. 10, 2014;
• Section 122.4(c)(4) is revised to permit the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC) to approve an alternative timeframe, not less than 60 days, to the current 60-day requirement for registrants to provide a signed amended agreement;
• Section 124.2(c)(5)(v) is revised to correct errors to the USML category references for gas turbine engine hot sections, from VI(f) and VIII(b) to Category XIX;
• Section 124.12 is amended in paragraph (a)(9) to update the name of the Defense Investigative Service to Defense Security Service;
• Section 126.9 on Advisory Opinions and Related Authorizations is amended to correct paragraph (a);
• Paragraph (b) of § 126.10 is amended to clarify the scope of control and disclosure of information, however, notwithstanding the changes to paragraph (b) it is the Department's policy not to publicly release information relating to activities regulated by the ITAR except as required by law or when doing so is otherwise in the interest of the United States Government; and
• Section 127.7(b) is amended to clarify the policies and procedures regarding statutory debarments (addressing inadvertent omissions resulting from a prior amendment to that section), and § 127.11 is amended to make conforming revisions to paragraph (c) omitted from prior amendment to that section.
The Department of State is of the opinion that controlling the import and export of defense articles and services is a foreign affairs function of the United States Government and that rules implementing this function are exempt from sections 553 (Rulemaking) and 554 (Adjudications) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA). Although the Department is of the opinion that this rule is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the APA, the Department is providing 30 days for the public to submit comments without prejudice to its determination that controlling the import and export of defense services is a foreign affairs function.
Since this rule is exempt from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553, there is no requirement for an analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This rulemaking does not involve a mandate that will result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This rulemaking is not a major rule within the definition of 5 U.S.C. 804.
This rulemaking will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, the Department has determined that this rulemaking does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this rulemaking.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributed impacts, and equity). These executive orders stress the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. The Department has determined that, given the nature of the amendments made in this rulemaking, there will be minimal cost to the public. Therefore, the benefits of this rulemaking outweigh the cost. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” by the Office and Information and Regulatory Affairs under Executive Order 12866.
The Department of State reviewed this rulemaking in light of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
The Department of State determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
This rule does not impose any new reporting or recordkeeping requirements subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Arms and munitions, Classified information, Exports.
Arms and munitions, Exports.
Arms and munitions, Exports, Technical assistance.
Arms and munitions, Exports.
Arms and munitions, Exports, Crime, Law, Penalties, Seizures and forfeitures.
Accordingly, for the reasons set forth above, title 22, chapter I, subchapter M, parts 120, 121, 122, 124, 126, and 127 are amended as follows:
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2794; 22 U.S.C. 2651a; Pub. L. 105-261, 112 Stat. 1920; Pub. L. 111-266; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; Pub. L. 105-261, 112 Stat. 1920; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
The revisions read as follows:
(a)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(b)
(1) Enumerated in a category; or
(2) Described in a “catch-all” paragraph that incorporates “specially designed” (see § 120.41 of this subchapter) as a control parameter. In order to classify an item on the USML, begin with a review of the general characteristics of the item. This should guide you to the appropriate category, whereupon you should attempt to match the particular characteristics and functions of the article to a specific entry within that category. If the entry includes the term “specially designed,” refer to § 120.41 to determine if the article qualifies for one or more of the exclusions articulated in § 120.41(b). An item described in multiple entries should be categorized according to an enumerated entry rather than a specially designed catch-all paragraph. In all cases, articles not controlled on the USML may be subject to another U.S. government regulatory agency (
Sections 2 and 38, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(c) * * *
(4) Amendments to agreements approved by the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls to change the name of a party to those agreements. The registrant must provide to the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls a signed copy of such an amendment to each agreement signed by the new U.S. entity, the former U.S. licensor and the foreign licensee, within 60 days of this notification, unless an extension of time is approved by the Directorate of Defense Trade Controls. Any agreement not so amended may be considered invalid.
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 2776; Section 1514, Pub. L. 105-261; Pub. L. 111-266; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(c) * * *
(5) * * *
(v) Gas turbine engine hot sections covered by Category XIX(f);
(a) * * *
(9) For agreements that may require the export of classified information, the Defense Security Service cognizant security offices that have responsibility for the facilities of the U.S. parties to the agreement shall be identified. The facility security clearance codes of the U.S. parties shall also be provided.
Secs. 2, 38, 40, 42, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2780, 2791, and 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 287c; E.O. 12918, 59 FR 28205; 3 CFR, 1994 Comp., p. 899; Sec. 1225, Pub. L. 108-375; Sec. 7089, Pub. L. 111-117; Pub. L. 111-266; Sections 7045 and 7046, Pub. L. 112-74; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
(a)
(b)
Sections 2, 38, and 42, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2791); 22 U.S.C. 401; 22 U.S.C. 2651a; 22 U.S.C. 2779a; 22 U.S.C. 2780; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129; Pub. L. 114-74, 129 Stat. 584.
(b)
(c)
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Public and Indian Housing, HUD.
Final rule.
This rule requires each public housing agency (PHA) administering public housing to implement a smoke-free policy. Specifically, no later than 18 months from the effective date of the rule, each PHA must implement a “smoke-free” policy banning the use of prohibited tobacco products in all public housing living units, indoor common areas in public housing, and in PHA administrative office buildings. The smoke-free policy must also extend to all outdoor areas up to 25 feet from the public housing and administrative office buildings. This rule improves indoor air quality in the housing; benefits the health of public housing residents, visitors, and PHA staff; reduces the risk of catastrophic fires; and lowers overall maintenance costs.
Leroy Ferguson, Office of Public and Indian Housing, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410-0500; telephone number 202-402-2411 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons who
The purpose of the rule is to require PHAs to establish, within 18 months of the effective date, a policy disallowing the use of prohibited tobacco products, as such term is defined in § 965.653(c), inside all indoor areas of public housing, including but not limited to living units, indoor common areas, electrical closets, storage units, and PHA administrative office buildings, and in all outdoor areas within 25 feet of the housing and administrative office buildings (collectively, “restricted areas”). As further discussed in this rule, such a policy is expected to improve indoor air quality in public housing; benefit the health of public housing residents, visitors, and PHA staff; reduce the risk of catastrophic fires; and lower overall maintenance costs.
This rule applies to all public housing other than dwelling units in mixed-finance buildings. PHAs are required to establish, within 18 months of the effective date of the rule, policies disallowing the use of prohibited tobacco products in all restricted areas. PHAs may, but are not required to, further restrict smoking to outdoor dedicated smoking areas outside the restricted areas, create additional restricted areas in which smoking is prohibited (
PHAs are required to document their smoke-free policies in their PHA plans, a process that requires resident engagement and public meetings. The proscription on the use of prohibited tobacco products must also be included in a tenant's lease, which may be done either through an amendment process or as tenants renew their leases annually.
The costs to PHAs of implementing smoke-free policies may include training, administrative, legal, and enforcement costs. The costs of implementing a smoke-free policy are minimized by the existence of current HUD guidance on many of the topics covered by the mandatory smoke-free policy required by this rule. Already, hundreds of PHAs have voluntarily implemented smoke-free policies. Furthermore, infrastructure already exists for enforcement of lease violations, and violation of the smoke-free policy would constitute a lease violation. In addition, time spent by PHA staff on implementing and enforcing the smoke-free policy will be partially offset by the time that staff no longer have to spend mediating disputes among residents over secondhand smoke (SHS) infiltration within living units. Given the existing HUD guidance, initial learning costs (such as the costs of staff and resident training understanding of this policy) associated with implementation of a smoke-free policy may not be significant. For the hundreds of PHAs that are already implementing voluntary smoke-free policies, there will be minimal costs of updating smoke-free policies, and these minimal costs will generally apply only if their existing policies are not consistent with the minimum requirements for smoke-free policies proposed by this rule.
However, implementing the requirements successfully may require additional enforcement legal costs for cases where repeated violations lead to evictions. Total recurring costs to PHAs of implementation and enforcement are expected to be $7.7 million, although they may be higher in the first few years of implementation, given the necessity of establishing designated smoking areas (a total of $30.2 million in the first year).
The benefits of smoke-free policies could also be considerable. Over 700,000 units would be affected by this rule (including over 500,000 units inhabited by elderly households or households with a non-elderly person with disabilities), and their non-smoking residents would have the potential to experience health benefits from a reduction of exposure to SHS. PHAs will also benefit from a reduction of damage caused by smoking, and residents and PHAs both gain from seeing a reduction in injuries, deaths, and property damage from fires caused by prohibited tobacco products. Estimates of these and other rule-induced impacts are summarized in the following table:
For additional details on the costs and benefits of this rule, please see the Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) for this rule, which can be found at
On November 17, 2015, HUD published a proposed rule at 80 FR 71762, soliciting input from the public on requiring PHAs to have smoke-free policies in place for public housing. The proposed rule was an outgrowth of many years of research on the harms and costs associated with smoking and ongoing efforts from HUD to promote the voluntary adoption of smoke-free policies by PHAs and the owners/operators of federally subsidized multifamily properties. The preamble of this proposed rule contains more information on HUD's efforts and the findings on which HUD relied in proposing this regulation.
As a result of these combined actions, over 600 PHAs have implemented smoke-free policies in at least one of their buildings. While this voluntary effort has been highly successful, it has also resulted in a scattered distribution of smoke-free policies, with the greatest concentration in the Northeast, West, and Northwest, which also results in unequal protection from SHS for public housing residents. This is due to several factors, including the fact that many of the benefits accrue to residents instead of PHAs, implementation of new policies can be difficult in fiscally tight times, uncertainty over whether indoor smoking bans are enforceable, and differences in the opinions and experience of the boards that govern PHAs. HUD recognizes that additional action is necessary to truly eliminate the risk of SHS exposure to public housing residents, reduce the risk of catastrophic fires, lower overall maintenance costs, and implement uniform requirements to ensure that all public housing residents are equally protected.
Therefore, HUD is requiring PHAs to implement smoke-free policies within public housing except for dwelling units in a mixed-finance project. Public housing is defined as low-income housing, and all necessary appurtenances (
In finalizing this policy, it is important for HUD to reiterate that HUD's rule does not prohibit individual PHA residents from smoking. PHAs should continue leasing to persons who smoke. In addition, this rule is not intended to contradict HUD's goals to end homelessness and help all Americans secure quality housing. Rather, HUD is prohibiting smoking inside public housing living units and indoor common areas, public housing administrative office buildings, public housing community rooms or community facilities, public housing day care centers and laundry rooms, in outdoor areas within 25 feet of the housing and administrative office buildings, and in other areas designated by a PHA as smoke-free (collectively, “restricted areas”). PHAs have the discretion to establish outdoor designated smoking locations outside of the required 25 feet perimeter, which may include partially enclosed structures, to accommodate smoker residents, to establish additional smoke-free areas (such as in and around a playground), or, alternatively, to make their entire grounds smoke-free.
Furthermore, section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Fair Housing Act, and the Americans with Disabilities Act provide the participant the right to seek a reasonable accommodation, including requests from residents with mobility impairments or mental disabilities. A request for a reasonable accommodation from an eligible participant must be considered, and granted unless there is a fundamental alteration to the program or an undue financial and administrative burden.
The only substantive change in this final rule from the proposed rule is that now waterpipes (also known as hookahs) are included in the list of products that may not be used in the restricted areas. PHAs are required under this final rule to only permit the use of waterpipes outside the restricted areas. While HUD found no evidence of human fatalities associated with hookahs, there were sufficient incidents of property damage to warrant their inclusion in this rule.
In addition, HUD has changed the items covered under the smoking ban from “lit tobacco products” to “prohibited tobacco products” to make clear that waterpipes are included in the list of prohibited products.
Some commenters objected to the proposed 25-foot smoke-free perimeter around all public housing buildings. Some felt that the distance was too large because it would force smokers off the property and onto sidewalks or adjacent areas, including the street. Others expressed concern that the distance would be too great for elderly residents or residents with disabilities or would place residents in danger from having to travel so far. Some believed that the distance could subject smokers to crime or would force parents to leave sleeping children. Some also suggested that forcing residents to go so far to smoke would cause them to leave public housing, increasing turnover costs for PHAs.
Other reasons for objecting included an argument that it would effectively require PHAs to build designated smoking areas or it would be impossible to enforce. Commenters stated that requiring smokers to go outdoors is enough and that residents should be able to smoke on their porches or balconies. Some wrote that any extra perimeter is unfair if there is not a shared porch or landing where smoking there would affect others.
Commenters objecting to the 25-foot distances suggested that instead PHAs be allowed to create their own policies regarding outdoor smoking and any distance restrictions around buildings, taking their own layouts into account. Others suggested that HUD allow PHAs to comply with existing smoke-free policies or use minimum distances required by state laws.
Several commenters pointed out that PHAs may use office space in buildings not owned by the PHA, and the PHA has no control over the actions of other tenants in the building. These commenters asked for additional clarity on how the proposed rule would apply to such situations.
Some commenters suggested alternative requirements to the 25-foot barrier, including a minimum distance from common entrances or using a shorter distance such as 15 or 20 feet. Commenters also asked HUD for additional insight into their rationale for a 25-foot perimeter.
A group of commenters, however, supported the perimeter and even requested that HUD expand the outdoor restrictions. Some stated that 25 feet may not be enough to protect children, and that outdoor smoking should also be banned in areas frequented by children, particularly playgrounds. Some suggested that the perimeter be extended to 25 feet from all playgrounds. Other commenters suggested that all common areas, such as pools, should also be included in the smoke-free zone. Commenters suggesting that the smoke-free zone be more than 25 feet asked for a range of new distances, from 40-50 feet to 100 feet. Commenters stated that 25 feet may still be too close to buildings to prevent
Several commenters suggested that the smoke-free perimeter should be extended to cover the entire property. These commenters stated that such a policy would protect residents from drifting smoke in designated areas or would make smoke-free enforcement easier. Another commenter suggested that HUD should allow a PHA to designate a smoking area, outside of which no smoking would be allowed.
This policy is not intended to force anyone to move out of public housing, but instead to offer safe, decent and sanitary housing for all populations. HUD is not requiring any PHA to build a designated smoking area, but to work with residents to address any difficulties they encounter. HUD understands that PHAs only have the authority to implement smoke-free policies in buildings and office spaces they own.
Commenters objected to the proposed rule on the basis that it would impose too great a burden on PHAs. Some stated that this was an unfunded mandate from HUD. Others stated that the proposed rule would necessitate increased monitoring of residents without increasing funding for PHAs, or would increase the workload of an already inadequate staff. Several commenters wrote that the proposed rule would add administrative burden in implementing the policies by requiring education of residents, and through increased enforcement efforts. Several commenters pointed out that implementing the policies would have costs related to unit turnaround, either due to increased evictions or as a result of residents voluntarily moving out. Some stated that the proposed rule would increase paperwork on the PHA without providing additional benefits to residents or that putting the burden of monitoring and enforcement on public housing administrators is not practical or fair.
Commenters also stated that the policies would increase vacancies at public housing properties, stressing PHAs both financially and in Real Estate Assessment Center (REAC) evaluations. Commenters asked that HUD make financial incentives available to PHAs to offset implementation costs.
In addition to the concerns about burdens on PHAs generally, some commenters expressed concerns with burdens on small PHAs. Some stated that the proposed rule would have an outsized impact on small PHAs' administrative expenses. Others commented that there was not enough information in the proposed rule on how maintenance or insurance costs would be lower for small PHAs. Others stated that small, rural PHAs would be at a disadvantage because they are unable to partner with outside organizations to help with implementing the rule in a way that larger, more urban PHAs could. Some commenters also expressed concerns that small PHAs face greater competition in the affordable housing market, so a smoking ban would increase their vacancy rates.
The capital and operating funds can be used to implement smoke-free policies. Note, however, that capital funds can only be used for eligible activities identified in 24 CFR 905.200. Financial costs relative to funding for small PHAs are not expected to be greater than relative costs facing larger PHAs. Small PHAs, like large PHAs, can request insurance premium allowances from their insurance providers after implementing smoke-free policies.
Housing agencies are encouraged to start the process of implementing smoke-free policies early so that the necessary implementation activities can be spread out over the allowed 18-month implementation period with regular lease renewal practices (
HUD has no evidence that this policy will increase vacancies. In contrast, housing agencies that have implemented smoke-free policies have experienced greater demand for their units.
Many commenters objected to the proposed rule because of the burden it would place on public housing residents. Some stated that an indoor smoking ban is unfair to persons with disabilities who cannot easily travel outside their units, particularly if they live alone and cannot leave without help. Others commented that it was not right to force the elderly or persons with disabilities outside in bad weather, putting their health at risk. Some simply stated that it would be unfair to make the elderly or persons with disabilities walk that far to smoke. Some commented that people use smoking to deal with medical issues; prohibiting indoor smoking would force them to forego the use of nicotine to combat their pain.
Other commenters focused on the effects the proposed ban would have on those with mental health issues who may rely on smoking to help deal with those issues. Some stated that residents in acute stages of post-traumatic stress syndrome need to smoke to calm down but cannot leave their apartment. Some stated that smoking helps people calm down and relieve stress, and this rule would increase their burden. Several commenters stated that the use of eviction as an enforcement mechanism would result in the most vulnerable residents in public housing, who need secure housing the most, being forced out of their homes.
Some commenters stated that forcing residents, particularly women, outside at night and in bad weather would put them in danger.
Commenters stated that the rule should exempt PHAs serving seniors or residents with disabilities to avoid discrimination problems. Others asked that HUD allow PHAs to grandfather in existing residents; some pointed out that the smoke damage is already done, and it will be difficult to tell if the smell of smoke is from current or past smoking. However, other commenters stated that HUD should not allow smoke-free policies to be grandfathered in for existing public housing residents. These commenters stated that grandfathering the smoking ban for some but not all the residents would make enforcement difficult.
There is no “right” to smoke in a rental home, and smokers are not a protected sub-class under anti-discrimination laws. In addition, this rule does not prohibit smoking by residents; rather, it requires that if residents smoke that they do so at least 25 feet away from the buildings. HUD is aware that commenters and national surveys suggest that persons with disabilities tend to smoke at a higher rate than persons without a disability. See national survey of smoking prevalence among those with disabilities at
HUD is not aware of any medical conditions for which smoking is considered a legitimate, proven treatment. Also, in situations where nicotine treatment is appropriate (
Additionally, under this regulation, PHAs cannot “grandfather” tenants by exempting them from the application of the rule. PHAs that have implemented smoke-free policies have reported significant implementation challenges when they allow current residents to be “grandfathered” into the policy. Allowing this situation presents additional enforcement challenges and will only prolong the time that other residents are exposed to SHS and the risk of fire.
Many commenters asked HUD to include cessation help in the final rule. Commenters had a variety of suggestions on the best way to provide such services. Some stated that HUD should partner with other federal agencies such as the National Institutes of Health or Health and Human Services to provide resources; they stated that Health Centers target the same populations served by public housing. Commenters referenced the national quitline or state-operated quitlines as possible resources. Commenters stated that PHAs should be required to use cessation services that are proven to be effective, and suggested that PHAs and HUD work with state and local health agencies or tobacco prevention and cessation programs for resources. Some commenters pointed out that there is cessation help available through Medicaid and private insurance plans. Commenters also asked that HUD provide toolkits or other help to PHAs looking to partner with organizations to provide cessation help.
Commenters specifically mentioned a variety of cessation methods or techniques. Commenters suggested that HUD mandate that the types of required cessation treatments be varied instead of limited to a few options. Some requested that HUD provide nicotine replacement therapy. Some stated that any cessation courses or counseling be provided on-site. Some specifically stated that PHAs should give residents information on the interaction between
Commenters stated that cessation support should begin now and continue for a longer period of time after the effective date of the rule. Commenters stated that any cessation materials should be available in languages other than English when appropriate for the PHA's population.
Some commenters suggested that HUD should supply funding for the cessation services or at least help PHAs locate funding, especially if the PHA is serving a population with mental health issues. Several suggested that PHAs be allowed to use savings generated by the proposed rule to pay for incentives for cessation and associated costs of treatment programs such as child care or transportation. Commenters stated that the time that residents spend taking or volunteering at cessation courses should count towards their community service requirement or that PHAs should be able to count funding provided for cessation help and incentives as funding towards fulfilling Section 3 requirements.
Some commenters stated that residents face a variety of barriers to quitting smoking, including the fact that limited cellphone minutes or language barriers interfere with the use of quitlines. Others stated that it would be unfair to hold PHAs accountable for public health outcomes like cessation. Commenters were also concerned that rural PHAs would not have the same access to cessation tools and programs as PHAs in urban areas. Commenters asked HUD to explicitly forbid PHAs from requiring cessation as part of enforcement efforts.
Commenters on the proposed rule provided a lengthy list of resources that they used to assist residents. HUD will make this information, where applicable, available to interested PHAs.
Section 3 is a provision of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 that ensures employment and other economic opportunities generated by HUD financial assistance are directed to low-income persons, particularly those receiving housing assistance. Section 3 requirements may be fulfilled to the extent residents are employed in providing cessation services, in accordance with 24 CFR part 135, provided that employment opportunities for cessation services are generated by the use of covered PIH assistance.
Commenters asked HUD for expanded definitions of several key terms, particularly “smoking”. Several asked that HUD define the term broadly to capture a variety of dangerous products and not to limit the rule to “lit tobacco products” in order to be consistent with existing state and local standards.
Other requests for definitions included definitions for “smoke,” “electronic smoking devices,” “hookahs,” “enclosed,” “indoor area,” and “partially enclosed.” Some commenters were concerned that allowing for partially enclosed designated smoking areas would run against current state indoor smoking bans. Commenters also asked that HUD change the phrase “interior common areas” in the space where smoking is banned to be “interior areas” to make it clearer that smoking is prohibited in all indoor areas.
Commenters often provided examples from model or existing codes and standards for HUD to use as guides for many of these definitions.
HUD has changed the phrase “interior common areas” to “interior areas.”
Some commenters stated that the indoor ban was fine, but HUD should require PHAs to provide a reasonable DSA. Commenters wrote that any DSA should be sheltered from the weather, have shade and seating, and should be accessible to anyone with mobility issues and have appropriate safety features, such as lighting. Commenters stated that any DSA should be far enough away from buildings to prevent smoke drift, which some commenters specified as at least 25 or 50 feet from other smoke-free zones. Some stated that residents should have input on deciding whether or not to have a DSA or where any DSA should be located. Some asked that PHAs be required to sign memoranda of understanding with local police forces to clarify that using the DSA would not count as loitering.
Commenters expressed concern that the cost of building and maintaining benches or other amenities in a DSA would be too expensive for PHAs. Some stated that HUD should provide the funding or that PHAs should seek funding from the tobacco industry to pay for them. Some also stated that smokers should be allowed to contribute money to pay for covered smoking areas.
Some commenters stated that HUD should encourage outdoor smoke-free areas and discourage DSAs entirely, as having DSAs could raise concerns regarding reasonable accommodations and accessibility. Some commenters suggested that PHAs with DSAs evaluate their policies on a regular basis to determine if it would be appropriate to make the property 100 percent smoke-free. Commenters also stated that HUD should not encourage partially enclosed DSAs, as they can trap smoke,
Many commenters asked that HUD include ENDS in the list of prohibited tobacco products. These commenters pointed out that the aerosol emitted by the devices is not harmless, and the toxins in the aerosol are higher than in FDA-approved nicotine inhalers. Others stated that ENDS pose risks of fire or explosion due to their batteries or poisoning from the liquids. Commenters stated that ENDS also increases third-hand exposure to nicotine (nicotine that settles on surfaces within a building), and banning ENDS may help stop the increase of ENDS usage among teens.
Commenters stated that ENDS are not devices approved for stopping smoking, and their use can undermine efforts to de-normalize smoking. Others commented that the use of ENDS can undermine enforcement efforts, either by making it appear that the policy is not taken seriously, or by causing confusion about whether it is ENDS or a cigarette being used.
Some commenters supporting the ban of ENDS asked that if HUD does not include ENDS in the proposed rule, that HUD make it explicit that a PHA can choose to do so themselves. Others asked HUD to track and share research to help PHAs make the case for including ENDS in smoke-free policies.
Other commenters objected to the inclusion of ENDS in the indoor smoking ban. Some stated that the science on the harm caused by ENDS is not settled and therefore there is no justification at this time for including them in the policy, because prohibiting ENDS does not advance the proposed rule's goals of improved health and savings on maintenance costs. Commenters stated that ENDS are an important tool in stopping smoking and allowing them would therefore help to soften the larger no-smoking policy, while adding flexibility to the proposed rule. Some commenters stated that the proposed rule does not contain enough justification to include ENDS in the policy and therefore, if HUD decides to include them, there should be another round of comments.
Commenters also asked that if HUD includes ENDS in the final policy, HUD consider limiting the places ENDS are prohibited only to common areas. Some stated that enforcing ENDS would be more difficult than only enforcing a cigarette ban, because ENDS lacks some of the markers of cigarette smoke such as a smell.
However, PHAs may exercise their discretion to include a prohibition on ENDS in their individual smoke-free policies if they deem such a prohibition beneficial. In addition, if evidence in the future arises that banning ENDS will, for example, result in significant maintenance savings, HUD will reconsider including them in items that are prohibited inside public housing.
Many comments focused on how PHAs are to enforce smoke-free policies. Some commenters stated that enforcement would be impossible because PHAs would not be able to prove that residents were smoking or the exact origins of a smoke smell. Commenters asked for additional guidance on how to detect violations and expressed concern that enforcing policies across scattered sites or in non-business hours would be extremely difficult. Commenters also stated that HUD should provide additional guidance on who can report violations and that HUD should place the burden of proof of violations on the complaining party.
Commenters also expressed concern about having a primary method of enforcement be reporting from tenants. Commenters stated that relying on residents to report will erode trust and increase tensions between residents, staff, and management. Some commenters stated that requiring residents to report violations would lead to additional confrontations with police. Commenters stated that residents should be able to report violations in a way that makes them feel safe. Some commenters stated that resident reporting will require additional mediation between tenants and that HUD should create a method of enforcement that does not rely on residents reporting each other, such as using routine maintenance inspections to look for evidence of smoking indoors.
Some commenters asked for specific guidance on how PHAs are to enforce smoke-free policies, and asked for HUD to publish successful enforcement actions from agencies with smoke-free policies in place. Commenters expressed concern that some PHAs or managers would not enforce the smoke-free policies consistently, leading to liability for PHAs. To address such concerns, commenters suggested that HUD impose heavy fines on managers who do not enforce policies, conduct site visits to ensure enforcement, and provide information to residents on whom to contact if managers are not enforcing policies. Commenters also stated that the costs of enforcement will be equal to or greater than any savings on maintenance generated by smoke-free policies.
Commenters also expressed concern about the use of eviction as an enforcement mechanism, stating that evictions do not help create strong communities. Commenters also wrote that increased evictions will increase homelessness and costs to PHAs. Commenters stated that it was unfair to subject children to homelessness from eviction for the actions of their parents, that it would be unfair to evict an entire family for the actions of one individual, or that it would be unfair to evict tenants for the actions of their guests. Commenters stated that relying solely on eviction sets up residents for failure and puts groups at the highest risk for discrimination in housing or with higher health risks at even greater risk of homelessness. Some stated that if families who are evicted as a result of this rule tend to fall into a protected class, there might be a disparate impact claim against the PHA or HUD.
Some stated that evicting families for a legal activity would be impossible because courts would not uphold evictions, or even that local ordinances may make evictions for smoking illegal. Commenters suggested that the rule explicitly state that smoking in violation of the PHA's policy is an offense that can result in eviction in order to allow courts to enforce evictions.
Commenters suggest that HUD require PHAs to take specific, progressive enforcement steps prior to allowing eviction, in particular focusing on education and cessation treatments.
Others stated that the rule should minimize evictions, or eliminating evictions from enforcement options completely, perhaps using a system of fines, positive incentives, or cessation treatment instead. Commenters stated that the final rule language should specify that violation of a smoke-free policy is not a material or serious violation of the lease. Some commenters suggested that HUD consider structuring the smoke-free requirement like the community service requirement, where noncompliance mandates specific actions to allow a tenant to “cure” the violation and where PHAs do not renew leases instead of evicting tenants.
HUD affords PHAs flexibility in designing policies on reporting of violations by other residents, in order to fit the local needs of the housing communities. However, a PHA must sufficiently enforce its smoke-free policy in accordance with the rule's standards, by taking action when it discovers a resident is violating the policy. PHAs must ensure due process when enforcing the lease. If a PHA pursues lease enforcement as a remedy, public housing residents retain their right to an informal and formal hearing before their tenancy is terminated. As currently written, the new regulations intentionally distinguish lease violations based on criminal behaviors from violations based on civil behaviors, and place smoke-free violations in the latter category to discourage overly aggressive enforcement approaches and decrease the potential of eviction and homelessness.
Termination of assistance for a single incident of smoking, in violation of a smoke-free policy, is not grounds for eviction. Instead, HUD encourages a graduated enforcement approach that includes escalating warnings with documentation to the tenant file. HUD has not included enforcement provisions in this rulemaking because lease enforcement policies are typically at the discretion of PHAs, and it is appropriate for local agencies to ensure fairness and consistency with other policies. HUD also is not requiring any specific graduated enforcement procedure, because public housing leases are subject to different local and state procedural requirements that must be met prior to eviction. Best practices regarding smoke-free implementation and enforcement are available at
This rule does not expressly authorize or prohibit imposing fines on non-complying PHA managers. Once the rule takes effect, HUD may use PHA certifications to verify that PHAs have implemented a smoke-free policy within the required timeframe. HUD may also use the periodic REAC inspections and OIG audits to help monitor and confirm whether the policy is being enforced. The PIH regulations at 24 CFR 903.25 state that to ensure that a PHA is in compliance with all policies, rules, and standards adopted in the PHA Plan approved by HUD, HUD shall, as it deems appropriate, respond to any complaint concerning PHA noncompliance with its plan. If HUD determines that a PHA is not in compliance with its plan, HUD will take whatever action it deems necessary and appropriate.
Commenters asked that HUD have some sort of plan in place to evaluate the effect of the proposed rule. Some stated that HUD should evaluate, after 1 or 2 years, the success of the rule in getting units smoke-free and whether there have been health benefits. Others stated that HUD should review how each PHA has implemented a smoke-free policy, including surveys to residents on how the policy is working and if improvements are needed. Some commenters stated that the evaluation should be of the PHAs themselves, including how they document violations and manage accommodation requests, how well PHAs comply with the requirements and adhere to “best practices”, and the PHAs' outcomes of the smoke-free policies. These evaluations could be done as part of periodic reviews of PHA performance in general.
Other suggestions for evaluations focused on the effects of the rule itself. Some suggested that HUD should survey tenants to track smoking cessation progress. Others stated that HUD should evaluate support for the policies among tenants, numbers of complaints, health changes, costs, savings, and turnover and eviction as a result of the policies. Commenters stated that HUD should carefully keep track of the number of evictions due to smoke-free policies. Commenters suggested that HUD should study whether completely smoke-free grounds would be appropriate.
Commenters stated that HUD could partner with other agencies for evaluation studies.
Some commenters felt that it was unfair to only cover public housing with this proposed rule. Commenters felt that the covered properties should be expanded to include all multifamily dwelling units in the country, all rental and subsidized housing, mixed-finance developments, Section 8 vouchers, or all properties receiving HUD assistance.
However, other commenters stated that HUD should never consider requiring homeless assistance programs to have a smoke-free policy. Some also stated that HUD should not expand the requirement beyond public housing.
Commenters did have some questions about the applicability of the rule. Some asked about whether the rule applies to non-dwelling units leased to other entities. Others asked whether low-income housing on tribal lands would be covered. Commenters also asked how this rule would apply to public housing projects converting their assistance under the Rental Assistance Demonstration Program.
Commenters objected to the mandate that PHAs create smoke-free policies, instead asking that it continue to be left up to the PHA's discretion. They stated that letting PHAs make the decision would allow them to decide where to allocate resources and best account for the needs of the residents and PHA. Other commenters simply asked that PHAs be allowed to craft policies they designed instead of having policies determined by HUD. Commenters also asked that small PHAs be given more flexibilities.
Commenters specifically asked that PHAs be given flexibility with the implementation phase of smoke-free policies. Some asked for the ability to implement policies at a time of the year with pleasant weather to make compliance easier. Others asked for the ability to phase-in policies by buildings or properties instead of all at once; however, some commenters explicitly opposed phasing in the policy across buildings. Commenters also asked for a longer implementation period, even as much as 5 years.
Another specific flexibility requested by commenters was for a PHA to establish buildings or scattered-site locations as designated smoking buildings, if physically separate from non-smoking buildings.
Commenters also asked that PHAs with established smoke-free policies continue to keep the existing policies, even if the perimeter around buildings is less than 25 feet. These commenters stated that it would be extremely burdensome, costly, and confusing to change existing policies, and compliance with additional restrictions might impose additional costs, such as building shelters for smokers, that they have already decided are unnecessary. However, some commenters stated that PHAs should be required to conform to any policies that are stricter than what they may currently have in place.
Some commenters also asked that HUD make it explicit that a PHA may adopt policies that are stricter than the ones required by HUD.
Commenters also asked that HUD allow PHAs to have maximum budget flexibility during implementation to pay for up-front costs.
The flexibility inherent in the rule allows PHAs to implement their smoke-free policies in a way that does not violate the standards established in the final rule. The final rule bans the use of prohibited tobacco products in all public housing living units, interior common areas, and all outdoor areas within 25 feet from public housing and administrative office buildings where public housing is located. The rule also gives PHAs the flexibility to limit smoking to DSAs, which may include partially enclosed structures, to accommodate residents who smoke.
PHAs must exercise their discretion in a way that reasonably relates to the purpose of the rule, and PHAs face legal risk when imposing a standard that exceeds the scope of legal authority (
Budget flexibility in terms of combining operating, capital, or housing assistant payment funds is permitted to the extent otherwise provided under arrangements such as Moving to Work (MTW).
Commenters stated that HUD should provide funding for the implementation costs of this rule, specifically through increased Operating or Capital Fund allocations. Commenters wrote that without additional staff to help, the smoke-free policies cannot be successful. Commenters also asked for additional funding to remediate and repair any damage caused by residents who are currently smoking.
Many commenters expressed concern that tenants be adequately involved in a PHA's implementation of the final rule when effective. Commenters stated that HUD should require specific engagement activities. They stated that these requirements should include multiple meetings with tenants to educate them on the policy, how to comply, and what assistance is available to them. Commenters stated that PHAs should use community advisory boards to address issues and tenant concerns during implementation. Commenters stated that HUD should require PHAs to engage their residents, particularly on health issues associated with smoking and SHS, prior to amending leases; some stated that engagement should be ongoing for a year prior to a PHA amending a lease.
To ensure that residents are fully engaged from the beginning, some commenters stated that HUD should specify that implementing a smoke-free policy would require a significant amendment to the PHAs' plans. However, other commenters stated that PHAs with smoke-free policies in place should not have to make significant amendments.
Commenters also suggested changes to the timeline for compliance with the final rule. Several stated that 18 months is not enough time for PHAs to have smoke-free policies in effect. Commenters stated that 18 months was too short a time period to adequately educate tenants and get their support, amend leases, and do other supporting tasks like constructing DSAs. Some asked for specific time periods, from 24 to 36 months to up to 3 years, while others asked for PHAs to be able to apply for more time. Commenters stated that allowing PHAs flexibility on the timeline for implementing the rule so that the PHAs could use the existing Annual Plan amendment process would save money and effort.
Commenters alternatively asked that HUD allow for an implementation timeline in stages, allowing residents to participate voluntarily for the first 6 months, year, or 2 years of the policy before being subject to penalties.
Some commenters, however, stated that 18 months was too much time, and stated that HUD should encourage PHAs to begin implementation as soon as possible after the final rule is effective, including providing cessation help and educational resources. Commenters suggested that PHAs should be able to implement smoke-free policies for new residents prior to that deadline, and some stated that HUD should require compliance within 6 months. Commenters asked if PHAs would be able to phase-in their properties during the 18-month period.
The PHA must consult with resident advisory boards to assist with and make recommendations for the PHA plan. Those recommendations must include input from PHA residents. With regard to the smoke-free policy, the PHA plan will list the PHA's rules, standards and policies that will govern maintenance and management of PHA operations. HUD believes that 18 months will provide PHAs sufficient time to conduct resident engagement and hold public meetings that are required when an amendment constitutes a significant change to the PHA plan.
The final rule will become effective 60 days after publication in the
To amend individual resident leases based on the modified lease form adopted by the PHA, a PHA must notify a resident of the written revision to an existing lease 60 days before the lease revision is to take effect and specify a reasonable time period for the family to accept the offer (see 24 CFR 966.4(l)(2)(iii)(E)). PIH regulations also provide that leases are required to stipulate that the resident has an opportunity for a hearing on a grievance of any proposed adverse action against the resident (see 24 CFR 966.52(b)). However, PHA grievance procedures are not applicable to class grievances and cannot be used as a forum for initiating or negotiating policy changes, including smoke-free policy changes (see 24 CFR 966.51(b)).
HUD strongly encourages PHAs to post signs referencing the new smoke-free policy. Signs must be accessible to all residents and visitors, and must be posted in multiple languages if appropriate for residents of the PHA, in accordance with HUD's current guidance on limited English proficiency. PHAs are not required to construct smoking shelters or DSAs.
Commenters stated that the smoke-free language in leases should include not only the policy, but also information on any available DSAs or cessation services.
Commenters objected to the idea behind the proposed rule, stating that prohibiting smoking in public housing is an invasion of civil rights because it would ban an individual's freedom to do something that is legal. Others stated that it was an invasion of smokers'
Commenters also objected to the proposed policy because it does not prohibit smoking in private homes and therefore unfairly punishes the poor and working class. Commenters stated that smoking bans demonize and dehumanize smokers and discriminate against smokers. Some stated that if HUD is banning smoking, HUD should also ban all things that cause harm or smell, such as pet dander or smelly food.
In Constitutional jurisprudence, courts have found that smoke-free policies do not violate the Equal Protection Clause because there is no fundamental right to smoke,
Courts
Commenters stated that an indoor smoking ban would actually increase fires as people tried to hide their smoking and disposed of cigarettes improperly. Commenters also stated that they supported smoking bans in public places and near doors, but felt that smoking should still be permitted in an individual tenant's unit. Commenters suggested that instead of a smoking ban, PHAs could require a higher security deposit from smokers.
Commenters also stated that given the number of individuals with mental health problems who rely on smoking, this rule would be unfair to that population. Commenters wrote that bans in individual units would make it harder for tenants with mental illnesses to maintain stable housing. Some objected to the rule because they stated that some individuals who smoke do so to avoid returning to prior addictions. Commenters stated that discouraging any part of the population from affordable housing programs is contrary to the mission of HUD and PHAs.
Some commenters objected to the rule because they stated that the rule contradicts a recent notice from HUD that PHAs should slow evictions based on criminal history, while now encouraging evictions for legal activities. Other commenters stated that the rule contradicts Congressional direction to increase flexibility and reduce unnecessary regulatory burdens. Commenters also objected to the rule by stating that funding should be used for priorities other than enforcement of the rule, including evictions.
HUD emphasizes that this rule, unlike previous HUD guidance on smoking, is not optional or merely a recommendation. However, PHAs may not treat tenants who smoke punitively in their implementation of this regulation by, for example, requiring a higher security deposit from tenants who smoke. Residents can be charged for property damage that is beyond normal wear and tear, in accordance with 24 CFR 966.4(b)(2).
Commenters asked for more information and further clarification on what PHAs could offer as a reasonable accommodation under the rule. Some expressed confusion on whether smokers were eligible for reasonable accommodations, and some commenters explained that the reasonable accommodation was not available to help with the smoking habit, but rather was intended to address the underlying disability that frustrates the tenant's ability to comply with the smoke-free policy. Commenters explained that individuals with mental health disabilities or cognitive or learning disabilities may have difficulties in understanding the new smoke-free policies or complying with traditional cessation treatments, and that any PHA not allowing reasonable accommodations for tenants with disabilities is not considering the whole picture.
Others asked for specific lists of permissible accommodations or for best practices in providing reasonable accommodations. Some commenters requested that HUD explicitly state in the final rule that a PHA must grant appropriate requests for reasonable accommodations. Commenters also stated that HUD should take public comment on any future reasonable accommodation guidance.
Some commenters stated that reasonable accommodations should not include the ability to smoke indoors. Commenters asked whether HUD would defend PHAs who do not allow indoor smoking as a reasonable accommodation. Some commenters stated that smoking in the tenant's unit should be allowable as a reasonable accommodation, particularly for the elderly in winter or individuals who are disabled and cannot leave their unit. Commenters have stated that smaller PHAs may not have accommodations to offer other than allowing smoking in a tenant's unit.
Commenters offered other suggestions of permissible reasonable accommodations, including allowing the tenants to use ENDS in their unit, smoking closer to the building than the 25-foot barrier, additional time for compliance for those using cessation services, or moving smokers with mobility disabilities into units closer to elevators or on the ground floor. Commenters also stated that HUD should make it clear that smoking is not a bar to receiving assistance and should allow tenants who cannot comply to receive vouchers to move out of public housing.
However, commenters also expressed concern about the reasonable accommodation process. Commenters shared concerns that relying on the reasonable accommodation process assumes all residents with disabilities know their rights, assumes at least some requests will be granted, and places all the burden on the residents with disabilities themselves. Others stated that a PHA may be unable to move residents, due to costs of moving or a low vacancy rate. Commenters suggested that HUD require that language advising residents of their right to request a reasonable accommodation be included in leases along with other smoke-free requirements.
Often, a PHA's Admissions and Continued Occupancy Plan (ACOP) will include guidelines for submission consideration, but an individual with a disability is not required to use a specific format when requesting an accommodation. General guidance on the reasonable accommodation process can be found at
Research shows that SHS will intrude into other units even when there is mechanical ventilation or air cleaners are installed. HUD acknowledges that some persons, including persons with disabilities, may have additional challenges in quitting, but reiterates that this rule does not require persons who smoke to stop smoking; rather, they must perform the activity in allowable areas outside of the public housing facilities and other restricted areas.
HUD's guidance, “Change is in the Air,” available at
HUD continues to encourage PHAs to engage residents early in the development of the policy so that there is adequate time to consider reasonable accommodations requests they receive. Language advising residents of their right to request a reasonable accommodation should already be contained within the PHA's ACOP. Under this rule, HUD is not requiring that reasonable accommodation language be contained in the lease. Public housing residents who suspect they are victims of housing discrimination can call (800) 669-9777.
The act of smoking itself is not a disability under the ADA. HUD encourages all PHAs to fully engage with their residents so they fully understand the policy. Smokers with behavioral health conditions may require individualized attention to ensure they understand the policy and available cessation resources, as well as reasonable accommodation request procedures.
Some commenters were skeptical that there was adequate scientific justification for the rule and questioned whether SHS is dangerous. Commenters stated that the rule is merely part of a crusade against smokers.
Other commenters stated that the ban on indoor smoking would be unnecessary if better construction, insulating electrical outlets or improving ventilation, were used in public housing.
The Surgeon General also concluded in 2006 that “eliminating indoor smoking fully protects nonsmokers from exposure to SHS. Separating smokers from nonsmokers, cleaning the air, and ventilating buildings cannot eliminate exposure to secondhand smoke.” HUD acknowledges that the movement of SHS from a smoker's unit to other parts of a building can be partially reduced through improvements in ventilation systems and through the increased air sealing of units; however, these strategies cannot fully eliminate exposure. Increased air sealing could also have the disadvantage of increasing SHS exposures to non-smokers in the sealed units, and could increase the amount of SHS that settles on surfaces within the sealed units.
Commenters asked that HUD include requirements on no-smoking signs in the final rule. Commenters stated that HUD should require a minimum amount of signage, and others stated that any signs should be in all languages applicable to a given PHA.
Commenters stated that the proposed rule does not go far enough in only banning tobacco smoking. They asked that HUD include other items in the ban, including all products creating smoke, such as non-tobacco cigarettes and scented candles and incense, or other things posing health risks such as fatty foods or alcohol.
Commenters asked that HUD provide specific support for training in the final rule, both for residents and for PHA staff on both the reasons for the rule and proper enforcement of no-smoking policies.
Many commenters asked that HUD include waterpipes in the smoke-free policy. These commenters stated that they are still a fire hazard and the smoke gives off harmful elements like cigarette smoke. Some commenters stated that waterpipes pose a carbon monoxide hazard in addition to the other toxins. Commenters stated that hookah sessions frequently last longer than the time it takes to smoke a cigarette and that some experts believe the SHS from waterpipes may be more hazardous than that from cigarettes.
Commenters asked that if HUD does not include waterpipes in the smoke-free policy standard, the final rule should be explicit that PHAs may do so themselves.
Other commenters stated that HUD should not include waterpipes in the final rule, and noted that for some cultural groups, there is a cultural significance to smoking around a waterpipe that HUD should keep in mind.
Both the heating source and burning of tobacco are sources of contaminant emissions. HUD agrees with commenters that there is considerable evidence that the use of waterpipes results in the emission of contaminants that are similar to those identified in SHS from other tobacco products, including carbon monoxide, respirable particulate matter (PM
While the use of hookahs may be viewed as a significant cultural practice, this does not qualify a resident for exclusion from the policy. As previously noted, there is no fundamental right to smoke and the act of smoking is entitled to only a minimal level of protection under the Equal Protection Clause. Therefore, smoking a hookah, as a significant cultural practice, does not itself provide a reason for exclusion from the policy.
Commenters stated that no matter what, smoking should not be a bar to public housing tenancy, despite some statements by PHA directors that state they already discriminate against smokers.
Commenters also wrote that HUD should state in the rule that the rule does not guarantee a smoke-free environment in order to avoid lawsuits from tenants with non-compliant neighbors.
As part of the proposed rule, HUD asked the public to share specific information, particularly from PHAs who have already implemented smoke-free policies and can share their experiences. HUD received a number of comments with past experiences and suggestions for best practices, and we appreciate all the input. The information commenters submitted has helped inform HUD as to changes in the final rule and in developing further guidance for PHAs on implementing and enforcing this final rule.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) reviewed this proposed rule under Executive Order 12866 (entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review”). OMB determined that this rule was economically significant under the order. The docket file is available for public inspection in the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. The Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) prepared for this rule is also available for public inspection in the Regulations Division and may be viewed online at
The information collection requirements contained in this proposed rule have been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) and assigned OMB control number 2577-0226. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information, unless the collection displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
There are 2334 “small” PHAs (defined as PHAs with fewer than 250 units), which make up 75 percent of the public housing stock across the country. Of this number, approximately 378 have already instituted a voluntary full or partial policy on indoor tobacco smoking.
HUD anticipates that implementation of the policy will impose minimal additional costs, as creation of the smoke-free policy only requires amendment of leases and the PHA plan, both of which may be done as part of a PHA's normal course of business. Additionally, enforcement of the policy will add minimal incremental costs, as PHAs must already regularly inspect public housing units and enforce lease provisions. Any costs of this rule are mitigated by the fact that PHAs have up to 18 months to implement the policy, allowing for costs to be spread across that time period.
While there are significant benefits to the smoke-free policy requirement, the majority of those benefits accrue to the public housing residents themselves, not to the PHAs. PHAs will realize monetary benefits due to reduced unit turnover costs and reduced fire and fire prevention costs, but these benefits are variable according to the populations of each PHA and the PHA's existing practices.
Finally, this rule does not impose a disproportionate burden on small PHAs. The rule does not require a fixed expenditure; rather, all costs should be proportionate to the size of the PHA implementing and enforcing the smoke-free policy.
Therefore, the undersigned certifies that this rule will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.
A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) with respect to the environment has been made in accordance with HUD regulations in 24 CFR part 50 that implement section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4332(2)(C)). The FONSI is available for public inspection during regular business hours in the Regulations Division, Office of General Counsel, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 10276, Washington, DC 20410-0500. Due to security measures at the HUD Headquarters building, please schedule an appointment to review the FONSI by calling the Regulations Division at 202-708-3055 (this is not a toll-free number). Individuals with speech or hearing impairments may access this number via TTY by calling the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8339. The
Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments or is not required by statute, or the rule preempts state law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive Order. This final rule does not have federalism implications and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on state and local governments nor preempt state law within the meaning of the Executive Order.
The Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance number for the Public Housing program is 14.872.
Government procurement, Grant programs-housing and community development, Lead poisoning, Loan programs-housing and community development, Public housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Utilities.
Grant programs-housing and community development, Public housing, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, HUD amends 24 CFR parts 965 and 966 as follows:
42 U.S.C. 1547, 1437a, 1437d, 1437g, and 3535(d). Subpart H is also issued under 42 U.S.C. 4821-4846.
This subpart applies to public housing units, except for dwelling units in a mixed-finance project. Public housing is defined as low-income housing, and all necessary appurtenances (
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) Items that involve the ignition and burning of tobacco leaves, such as (but not limited to) cigarettes, cigars, and pipes.
(2) To the extent not covered by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, waterpipes (hookahs).
(a)
(1) All applicable PHA plans, according to the provisions in 24 CFR part 903.
(2) Tenant leases, according to the provisions of 24 CFR 966.4.
(b)
42 U.S.C. 1437d and 3535(d).
(f) * * *
(12) * * *
(i) To assure that no tenant, member of the tenant's household, or guest engages in:
(A)
(
(B)
(ii) To assure that no other person under the tenant's control engages in:
(A)
(
(B)
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Final and temporary regulations.
This document contains temporary regulations that modify existing regulations related to the penalty under section 6695(g) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) relating to
Rachel L. Gregory, 202-317-6845 (not a toll-free number).
The collection of information contained in these temporary and final regulations is in §§ 1.6695-2(b) and 1.6695-2T(b) and is reported on Form 8867, “Paid Preparer's Due Diligence Checklist.” Responses to this collection of information are mandatory. The collection of information in current § 1.6695-2 was previously reviewed and approved under control number 1545-1570. Control number 1545-1570 was discontinued in 2014, as the burden for the collection of information contained in § 1.6695-2 is reflected in the burden on Form 8867 under control number 1545-1629.
This document contains amendments to 26 CFR parts 1 and 602 under section 6695(g) of the Code, imposing a penalty on tax return preparers who fail to comply with the due diligence requirements imposed by the Secretary by regulations with respect to determining the eligibility for, or the amount of, the EIC. Section 6695(g) was added to the Code because Congress believed more thorough efforts by tax return preparers are important to improving EIC compliance. H.R. Rep. No. 105-148, 105th Cong. 1st Sess., p. 512 (June 24, 1997).
Enacted by section 1085(a)(2) of the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997, Public Law 105-34 (11 Stat. 788, 955 (1997)), and effective for taxable years beginning after December 31, 1996, section 6695(g) originally imposed a $100 penalty on an income tax return preparer who failed to meet the EIC due diligence requirements set forth in regulations prescribed by the Secretary. Section 8246 of the Small Business and Work Opportunity Tax Act of 2007, Public Law 110-28 (121 Stat. 112, 200 (2007)) amended the penalty to apply to all tax return preparers. Section 501(a) of the United States-Korea Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act, Public Law 112-41 (125 Stat. 428, 459 (2011)), amended section 6695(g) to increase the amount of the penalty to $500, effective for returns required to be filed after December 31, 2011. Section 208(c), Div. B of the Tax Increase Prevention Act of 2014, Public Law 113-295 (128 Stat. 4010, 4073 (2014)) (2014 Act), added section 6695(h), which indexes the penalty amount for inflation, effective for returns or claims for refund filed after December 31, 2014.
Section 1.6695-2 implements section 6695(g) by imposing due diligence requirements on persons who are tax return preparers under section 7701(a)(36) with respect to determining eligibility for, or the amount of, the EIC. The due diligence requirements set forth in § 1.6695-2(b) are that the preparer must: (1) Complete and submit Form 8867, “Paid Preparer's Earned Income Credit Checklist;” (2) complete the Earned Income Credit Worksheet (Worksheet), as contained in the Form 1040 instructions or record the preparer's computation of the credit, including the method and information used to make the computation; (3) not know or have reason to know that any information used by the preparer in determining eligibility for, and the amount of, the EIC is incorrect and make reasonable inquiries when required, documenting those inquiries and responses contemporaneously (knowledge requirement); and (4) retain, for three years from the applicable date, the Form 8867, the Worksheet (or alternative records), and the record of how and when the information used to determine eligibility for, and the amount of, the EIC was obtained by the preparer, including the identity of any person furnishing information and a copy of any document relied on by the preparer.
To comply with the knowledge requirement under § 1.6695-2(b)(3), the tax return preparer may not ignore the implications of information furnished to, or known by, the tax return preparer, and must make reasonable inquiries if the information furnished to the tax return preparer appears to be incorrect, inconsistent, or incomplete. Examples in § 1.6695-2(b)(3)(ii) illustrate this requirement. This knowledge requirement is consistent with the verification requirement imposed on all tax return preparers with respect to preparation of any tax return or claim for refund under the accuracy-related standards set forth in § 1.6694-1(e).
A tax return preparer is required to submit the Form 8867 to the IRS when the preparer electronically files the tax return. If a tax return preparer required to complete the Form 8867 is not electronically filing the taxpayer's return with the IRS, § 1.6695-2(b)(1) provides rules for submission of the form. If the tax return preparer required to complete the Form 8867 is not the signing tax return preparer, the preparer satisfies the submission requirement by providing a copy of the completed Form 8867 to the signing tax return preparer. If the tax return preparer required to complete the Form 8867 is the signing tax return preparer but the taxpayer is not electronically filing the return, the preparer must provide a copy of the completed Form 8867 to the taxpayer to be attached to the return being filed with the IRS.
Section 1.6695-2(c) provides that a firm that employs a tax return preparer subject to a penalty under section 6695(g) is also subject to a penalty if certain conditions apply. Under this rule, a firm will be subject to a penalty if and only if one or more members of principal management (or principal officers) of the firm or branch participated in, or prior to the time the return was filed, knew of the failure to comply with the due diligence requirements; the firm failed to establish reasonable and appropriate procedures to ensure compliance with the due diligence requirements; or, through willfulness, recklessness, or gross indifference (including ignoring facts that would lead a person of reasonable prudence and competence to investigate or ascertain) the firm disregarded its own reasonable and appropriate compliance procedures. A firm subject to a section 6695(g) penalty under this section is not eligible for the exception to the penalty in § 1.6695-2(d). Under this exception, the penalty will not be applied if the tax return preparer can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the IRS that, considering all of the facts and circumstances, the tax return preparer's normal office procedures are reasonably designed and routinely followed to ensure compliance with the due diligence requirements, and the failure to meet the due diligence requirements with respect to the particular tax return or claim for refund was isolated and inadvertent.
Section 207, Div. Q of the Protecting Americans from Tax Hikes Act of 2015, Public Law 114-113 (129 Stat. 2242, 3082 (2015)) (PATH Act) amended section 6695(g) by expanding the scope
These temporary regulations reflect the changes made to section 6695(g) by the PATH Act by expanding the due diligence requirements to the CTC/ACTC and the AOTC. These temporary regulations also conform the regulation to the 2014 Act, reflecting that the penalty is to be adjusted for inflation.
The temporary regulations amend § 1.6695-2 to implement the changes made by the PATH Act that extend the preparer due diligence requirements to returns or claims for refund including claims of the CTC/ACTC and/or AOTC in addition to the EIC. As a result of these changes, one return or claim for refund may contain claims for more than one credit subject to the due diligence requirements. Pursuant to the statute, each failure to comply with the due diligence requirements set forth in regulations prescribed by the Secretary results in a penalty. The section 6695(g) requirements apply to each credit claimed, meaning more than one penalty could apply to a single return or claim for refund. The temporary regulations provide examples to show how multiple penalties could apply when one return or claim for refund is filed.
The Form 8867 has been revised for the 2016 tax year and is a single checklist to be used for all applicable credits (EIC, CTC/ACTC, and/or AOTC) on the return or claim for refund subject to the section 6695(g) due diligence requirements. The Form 8867 was streamlined to eliminate unnecessary redundancy with other forms and schedules. These changes were intended to reduce burden while increasing the utility of the Form 8867 as a checklist for tax return preparers to more accurately determine taxpayer eligibility for credits, thereby reducing errors and increasing compliance by preparers and taxpayers. The temporary regulations clarify § 1.6695-2(b)(1)(ii) to illustrate that the completion of Form 8867 can be based on information provided by the taxpayer to the preparer or otherwise reasonably obtained or previously known by the preparer.
The examples provided in § 1.6695-2(b)(3)(ii) have been updated to provide more insight into when a tax return preparer has satisfied the due diligence knowledge requirement, including for purposes of the CTC and AOTC. The updates to the examples in § 1.6695-2T(b)(3)(ii) illustrate that the knowledge requirement for purposes of due diligence can be satisfied in conjunction with a tax return preparer's information-gathering activities done for the purpose of accurately completing other aspects of a tax return or claim for refund. New examples, Example 2 and Example 4, have also been added to illustrate that in certain circumstances a tax return preparer may satisfy the knowledge requirement based on existing knowledge without having to make additional reasonable inquiries. Another new example, Example 7, provides an example of due diligence for purposes of the AOTC.
Section 1.6695-2(a) is amended by the temporary regulations to reflect the changes made by section 208(c) of the 2014 Act, requiring the IRS to index the penalty for inflation for returns or claims for refund filed after December 31, 2014. In addition, § 1.6695-2T(c)(3) clarifies the parenthetical therein by removing the words “or ascertained.”
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required. For applicability of the Regulatory Flexibility Act, please refer to the cross-reference notice of proposed rulemaking published elsewhere in this issue of the
The principal author of this regulation is Rachel L. Gregory, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure & Administration).
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR parts 1 and 602 are amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
Section 1.6695-2T is also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695(g).
(a) [Reserved]. For further guidance regarding the penalty for failure to meet due diligence requirements with respect to certain credits, see § 1.6695-2T(a).
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) [Reserved]. For further guidance regarding the completion of Form 8867, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(1)(i).
(ii) [Reserved]. For further guidance regarding the information used to complete the Form 8867, see 1.6695-2T(b)(1)(ii).
(2) [Reserved]. For further guidance regarding computation, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(2).
(3) * * *
(i) [Reserved]. For further guidance regarding the knowledge requirement, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(3)(i).
(ii) [Reserved]. For current examples, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(3)(ii).
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) [Reserved]. For further guidance on the retention of records, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(4)(i)(B).
(C) [Reserved]. For further guidance on the retention of records, see § 1.6695-2T(b)(4)(i)(C).
(c) * * *
(3) [Reserved]. For further guidance on the special rule for firms, see § 1.6695-2T(c)(3).
(a)
(2)
Preparer A prepares a federal income tax return for a taxpayer claiming the CTC and the AOTC. Preparer A did not meet the due diligence requirements under this section with respect to the CTC or the AOTC claimed on the taxpayer's return. Unless the exception to penalty provided by paragraph (d) of this section applies, Preparer A is subject to two penalties under section 6695(g): One for failure to meet the due diligence requirements for the CTC and a second penalty for failure to meet the due diligence requirements for the AOTC.
Preparer B prepares a federal income tax return for a taxpayer claiming the CTC and the AOTC. Preparer B did not meet the due diligence requirements under this section with respect to the CTC claimed on the taxpayer's return, but Preparer B did meet the due diligence requirements under this section with respect to the AOTC claimed on the taxpayer's return. Unless the exception to penalty provided by paragraph (d) of this section applies, Preparer B is subject to one penalty under section 6695(g) for the failure to meet the due diligence requirements for the CTC. Preparer B is not subject to a penalty under section 6695(g) for failure to meet the due diligence requirements for the AOTC.
(b) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(b).
(1)
(A) through (C) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(b)(1)(i)(A) through (C).
(ii) The tax return preparer's completion of Form 8867 must be based on information provided by the taxpayer to the tax return preparer or otherwise reasonably obtained or known by the tax return preparer.
(2)
(A) Complete the worksheet in the Form 1040, 1040A, 1040EZ, and/or Form 8863 instructions or such other form including such other information as may be prescribed by the IRS applicable to each credit described in paragraph (a) of this section claimed on the return or claim for refund; or
(B) Otherwise record in one or more documents in the tax return preparer's paper or electronic files the tax return preparer's computation of the credit or credits claimed on the return or claim for refund, including the method and information used to make the computations.
(ii) The tax return preparer's completion of an applicable worksheet described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section (or other record of the tax return preparer's computation of the credit or credits permitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section) must be based on information provided by the taxpayer to the tax return preparer or otherwise reasonably obtained or known by the tax return preparer.
(3)
(ii)
In 2018, Q, a 22 year-old taxpayer, engages Preparer C to prepare Q's 2017 federal income tax return. Q completes Preparer C's standard intake questionnaire and states that she has never been married and has two sons, ages 10 and 11. Based on the intake sheet and other information that Q provides, including information that shows that the boys lived with Q throughout 2017, Preparer C believes that Q may be eligible to claim each boy as a qualifying child for purposes of the EIC and the CTC. However, Q provides no information to Preparer C, and Preparer C does not have any information from other sources, to verify the relationship between Q and the boys. To meet the knowledge requirement in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, Preparer C must make reasonable inquiries to determine whether each boy is a qualifying child of Q for purposes of the EIC and the CTC, including reasonable inquiries to verify Q's relationship to the boys, and Preparer C must contemporaneously document these inquiries and the responses.
Assume the same facts as in
In 2018, R, an 18 year-old taxpayer, engages Preparer D to prepare R's 2017 federal income tax return. R completes Preparer D's standard intake questionnaire and states that she has never been married, has one child, an infant, and that she and her infant lived with R's parents during part of the 2017 tax year. R also provides Preparer D with a Form W-2 showing that she earned $10,000 during 2017. R provides no other documents or information showing that R earned any other income during the tax year. Based on the intake sheet and other information that R provides, Preparer D believes that R may be eligible to claim the infant as a qualifying child for the EIC and the CTC. To meet the knowledge requirement in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, Preparer D must make reasonable inquiries to determine whether R is eligible to claim these credits, including reasonable inquiries to verify that R is not a qualifying child of her parents (which would make R ineligible to claim the EIC) or a dependent of her parents (which would make R ineligible to claim the CTC), and Preparer D must contemporaneously document these inquiries and the responses.
The facts are the same as the facts in
In 2018, S engages Preparer E to prepare his 2017 federal income tax return. During Preparer E's standard intake interview, S states that he has never been married and his niece and nephew lived with him for part of the 2017 tax year. Preparer E believes S may be eligible to claim each of these children as a qualifying child for purposes of the EIC and the CTC. To meet the
W engages Preparer F to prepare her federal income tax return. During Preparer F's standard intake interview, W states that she is 50 years old, has never been married, and has no children. W further states to Preparer F that during the tax year she was self-employed, earned $10,000 from her business, and had no business expenses or other income. Preparer F believes W may be eligible for the EIC. To meet the knowledge requirement in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, Preparer F must make reasonable inquiries to determine whether W is eligible for the EIC, including reasonable inquiries to determine whether W's business income and expenses are correct, and Preparer F must contemporaneously document these inquiries and the responses.
Y, who is 32 years old, engages Preparer G to prepare his federal income tax return. Y completes Preparer G's standard intake questionnaire and states that he has never been married. As part of Preparer G's client intake process, Y provides Preparer G with a copy of the Form 1098-T Y received showing that University M billed $4,000 of qualified tuition and related expenses for Y's enrollment or attendance at the university and that Y was at least a half-time undergraduate student. Preparer G believes that Y may be eligible for the AOTC. To meet the knowledge requirements in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, Preparer G must make reasonable inquiries to determine whether Y is eligible for the AOTC, as Form 1098-T does not contain all the information needed to determine eligibility for the AOTC or to calculate the amount of the credit if Y is eligible, and contemporaneously document these inquiries and the responses.
(4)
(A) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(b)(4)(i)(A).
(B) A copy of each completed worksheet required under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section (or other record of the tax return preparer's computation permitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section); and
(C) A record of how and when the information used to complete Form 8867 and the applicable worksheets required under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section (or other record of the tax return preparer's computation permitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section) was obtained by the tax return preparer, including the identity of any person furnishing the information, as well as a copy of any document that was provided by the taxpayer and on which the tax return preparer relied to complete Form 8867 and/or an applicable worksheet required under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section (or other record of the tax return preparer's computation permitted under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section).
(ii) through (iii) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(b)(4)(ii) through (iii).
(c) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(c).
(1) through (2) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(c)(1) through (2).
(3) The firm disregarded its reasonable and appropriate compliance procedures through willfulness, recklessness, or gross indifference (including ignoring facts that would lead a person of reasonable prudence and competence to investigate) in the preparation of the tax return or claim for refund with respect to which the penalty is imposed.
(d) [Reserved]. For further guidance, see § 1.6695-2(d).
(e)
(f)
26 U.S.C. 7805.
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, DoD.
Final rule.
This final rule implements the responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense for administering the National Security Education Program (NSEP) and explains the responsibilities of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)) for policy and funding oversight for NSEP. It discusses requirements for administering and executing the NSEP service agreement and; and assigns oversight of NSEP to the Defense Language and National Security Education Office (DLNSEO).
This final rule is effective on January 4, 2017.
Alison Patz, 571-256-0771.
On November 9, 2015, the Department of Defense published a proposed rule titled, “National Security Education Program (NSEP) and NSEP Service Agreement,” (80 FR 69166-69171) for a 60-day public comment period. The public comment period closed on January 8, 2016. No public comments were received.
After the 60-day public comment period for the proposed rule, minor administrative edits were made to provide clarity or remove outdated, unnecessary, or confusing language in the regulatory text due to an internal DoD re-organization. Offices and symbols have been updated to reflect the most current organizational structure.
The David L. Boren National Security Education Act of 1991 (Title VIII, Pub. L. 102-183), as amended, codified at 50 U.S.C. 1901
The NSEP is authorized through 50 U.S.C. 1901-1912 to award scholarships, fellowships, and grants to
NSEP oversees nine national security language and culture initiatives designed to attract, recruit, and train a future federal workforce skilled in languages and cultures to work across all agencies involved in national security. These initiatives support professional proficiency language training at U.S. colleges and universities, as well as support students to study overseas in regions critical to U.S. national security through scholarships and fellowships.
The final rule outlines requirements applicable to the NSEP office and NSEP award recipients. This includes information about the NSEP service agreement, which award recipients must adhere to as a condition of award. In exchange for support, NSEP awardees must work in qualifying national security positions in the U.S. federal government for at least one year.
NSEP, as outlined in the David L. Boren National Security Education Act of 1991, oversees multiple critical initiatives. All of NSEP's programs are designed to complement one another, ensuring that the lessons learned in one program inform the approaches of the others. Congress specifically—and uniquely—structured NSEP to focus on the combined issues of language proficiency, national security, and the needs of the federal workforce.
NSEA outlines five major purposes for NSEP, namely:
• To provide the necessary resources, accountability, and flexibility to meet the national security education needs of the United States, especially as such needs change over time;
• To increase the quantity, diversity, and quality of the teaching and learning of subjects in the fields of foreign languages, area studies, counterproliferation studies, and other international fields that are critical to the nation's interest;
• To produce an increased pool of applicants to work in the departments and agencies of the United States government with national security responsibilities;
• To expand, in conjunction with other federal programs, the international experience, knowledge base, and perspectives on which the United States citizenry, government employees, and leaders rely; and
• To permit the federal government to advocate on behalf of international education.
As a result, NSEP is the only federally-funded effort focused on the combined issues of language proficiency, national security, and the needs of the federal workforce.
• Boren Scholarships are awarded to U.S. undergraduates for up to one academic year of overseas study of languages and cultures critical to national security. Boren Scholars demonstrate their merit for an award in part by agreeing to fulfill a one year (minimum) service commitment to the U.S. government. NSEP awards approximately 150 Boren Scholarships annually.
• Boren Fellowships are awarded for up to two years to U.S. graduate students who develop independent projects that combine study of language and culture in areas critical to national security. Boren Fellows demonstrate their merit for an award in part by agreeing to fulfill a one year (minimum) service commitment to the U.S. government. NSEP awards approximately 100 Boren Fellowships annually.
• The Language Flagship supports students to achieve superior-level proficiency in critical languages including Arabic, Chinese, Hindi Urdu, Korean, Persian, Portuguese, Russian, Swahili, and Turkish. Flagship students combine language study with a major discipline of their choice and complete a year-long overseas program that includes intensive language study, direct enrollment in a local university, and a professional internship experience. In addition, The Language Flagship awards grants to U.S. universities recognized as leaders in the field of language education and supports new concepts in language education. More than 2,000 U.S. undergraduate students participate annually in The Language Flagship's programs, which are based at more than 20 U.S. institutions of higher education and multiple universities overseas.
• The Language Flagship also manages a Flagship/ROTC initiative, through which ROTC cadets and midshipmen are supported at Flagship institutions, thus building a cadre of students with professional-level proficiency and commitment to serve in the U.S. armed forces.
• The English for Heritage Language Speakers (EHLS) program provides professional English language instruction for U.S. citizens who are native speakers of critical languages. Participants receive scholarships to the EHLS program at Georgetown University, which provides eight months of instruction. This training allows participants to achieve professional-level proficiency in the English language and prepares them for key federal job opportunities. NSEP awards approximately 20 EHLS Scholarships annually.
• The African Flagship Languages Initiative (AFLI) is a Flagship language program, designed in cooperation with Boren Scholarships and Fellowships, to improve proficiency outcomes in a number of targeted African languages. The Intelligence Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010, Section 314 (Pub. L. 111-259) initially directed the establishment of a pilot program to build language capabilities in areas critical to U.S. national security interests, but where insufficient instructional infrastructure currently exists domestically. Based on the successes of its many critical language initiatives, NSEP was designated to spearhead the effort. All AFLI award recipients are funded through either a Boren Scholarship or Boren Fellowship. Participants complete eight weeks of domestic language study at the University of Florida prior to departure overseas, followed by intensive, semester-long study internationally. AFLI's current language offerings include Akan/Twi, French (for Senegal), Hausa, Portuguese (for Mozambique), Swahili, Wolof, and Zulu.
• The National Language Service Corps (NLSC) is a civilian corps of volunteers with certified proficiency in foreign languages. Its purpose is to support DoD or other U.S. departments or agencies in need of foreign language services, including surge or emergency requirements. NLSC capabilities include language support for interpretation, translation, analysis, training, logistics activities, and emergency relief activities. Members generally possess professional-level proficiency in a foreign language and in English, and may have clearances or may be clearable.
• Project GO provides grants to U.S. institutions of higher education with large ROTC student enrollments, including the Senior Military Colleges. In turn, these institutions provide language and culture training to ROTC students from across the nation, funding domestic and overseas ROTC language programs and scholarships. To
• Language Training Centers (LTC) are a collaborative initiative to develop expertise in critical languages, cultures and strategic regions for DoD personnel. Section 529(e) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010 authorized the establishment of the program in 2011. The program's purpose is to leverage the expertise and infrastructure of higher education institutions to train DoD personnel in language, culture, and regional area studies. In 2010, NSEP funded the study “Leveraging Language and Cultural Education and U.S. Higher Education” to fulfill a Congressional request. Findings from the Leveraging report revealed that federal investments in language and culture at higher education institutions produced a group of universities with well-established programs and faculty expertise that are capable of supporting the military's needs for proficiency-based training in critical and less commonly taught languages at various levels of acquisition. Therefore, facilitating the establishment and continued growth of relationships among these institutions, military installations, and DoD entities is an integral part of the LTC program.
To manage and run its initiatives, NSEP employs 8.78 full-time equivalents (FTE), ranging in salary from Federal General Schedule (GS) grade 6 through GS grade 15 (three employees devote partial time to NSEP initiatives, which equates to 0.78 FTE). Using the 2014 GS pay scale for the Washington, DC metro area, NSEP's 8.78 FTEs equate to approximately $795,154 in DoD expenditure annually. To calculate this figure, NSEP used GS step one wage rates for all employees.
NSEA legislates $14,000,000 for Boren Scholarships, Boren Fellowships, and The Language Flagship programs annually (sec. 1910-1911) and $2,000,000 for the EHLS program annually (sec. 1912). In addition, the Intelligence Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2010, Section 314 (Pub. L. 111-259) directed the establishment of an African language program, a hybrid of Boren and Flagship, at $2,000,000. In addition to these amounts, NSEP receives $10,000,000 annually from DoD appropriations in support of Flagship program efforts.
This final rule will be reported in future status updates of DoD's retrospective review in accordance with Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review.” DoD's full plan can be accessed at:
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) (Pub. L. 104-4) requires agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2014, that threshold is approximately $141 million. This document will not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
The Department of Defense certifies that this final rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
It has been certified that 32 CFR part 208 does impose reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. These requirements have been approved by OMB and assigned OMB Control Number 0704-0368, National Security Education Program (Service Agreement Report for Scholarship and Fellowship Awards).
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. This final rule will not have a substantial effect on State and local governments.
Education, Languages, Service agreement.
50 U.S.C. 1901-1912, 50 U.S.C. 1903, 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
This part:
(a) Implements the responsibilities of the Secretary of Defense for administering NSEP.
(b) Updates DoD policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures and requirements for administering and executing the NSEP service agreement in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
(c) Modifies requirements related to the NSEP service agreement.
(d) Assigns oversight of NSEP to the Defense Language and National Security Education Office.
This part applies to:
(a) The Office of the Secretary of Defense, the Military Departments, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Joint Staff, the Combatant Commands, the Office of the Inspector General of the Department of Defense, the Defense Agencies, the DoD Field Activities, and all other organizational entities in the DoD (referred to collectively in this part as the “DoD Components”).
(b) The administrative agent, and all recipients of awards by NSEP.
These terms and their definitions are for the purpose of this part.
(1) A deferral reschedules the date by which an NSEP award recipient must begin to fulfill service.
(2) Qualified further education includes, but is not limited to, no less than half-time enrollment in any degree-granting, accredited institution of higher education worldwide or participation in an academic fellowship program (
(3) A deferral is calculated by first calculating the length of enrollment in the degree program from start date to anticipated graduation date, and then adding the length of enrollment in the degree program to the service deadline.
(4) Approvals of deferrals will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
(1) 0 is No Proficiency.
(2) 0+ is Memorized Proficiency.
(3) 1 is Elementary Proficiency.
(4) 1+ is Elementary Proficiency, Plus.
(5) 2 is Limited Working Proficiency.
(6) 2+ is Limited Working Proficiency, Plus.
(7) 3 is General Professional Proficiency.
(8) 3+ is General Professional Proficiency, Plus.
(9) 4 is Advanced Professional Proficiency.
(10) 4+ is Advanced Professional Proficiency, Plus.
(11) 5 is Functional Native Proficiency.
It is DoD policy that:
(a) NSEP assist in making available to DoD and other federal entities, as applicable, personnel possessing proficiency in languages and foreign regional expertise critical to national security by providing scholarships and fellowships pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a). These scholarships and fellowships will be awarded to:
(1) Students who are U.S. citizens, to pursue qualifying undergraduate and graduate study in domestic and foreign education systems to assist in meeting national security needs for professionals with in-depth knowledge of world languages and cultures, and who enter into an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. 1902(b); or
(2) Students who are U.S. citizens who are native speakers of a foreign language identified as critical to the national security of the United States, but who are not proficient at a professional level in the English language with respect to reading, writing, and other skills, to enable such students to pursue English language studies at institutions of higher education. Recipients must agree to enter into an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. 1902(b).
(b) Grants will be awarded to institutions of higher education for programs in critical areas pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a) and 1902(f) to implement a national system of programs to produce advanced language expertise critical to the national security of the United States.
(c) An NSEP award recipient must enter into an NSEP service agreement before receipt of an award as required by 50 U.S.C. chapter 37. The award recipient must agree to maintain satisfactory academic progress and work in fulfillment of the NSEP service agreement until all service requirements are satisfied.
(d) All NSEP award recipients who are government employees or members of the uniformed services at the time of award must confirm that they have resigned from such employment or service before receiving support for their NSEP-funded overseas study. These stipulations apply to all individuals, including employees of a department, agency, or entity of the U.S. Government and members of the uniformed services, including members of a Reserve Component of the uniformed services. ROTC participants who are also members of a Reserve Component must be in an inactive, non-drilling status during the course of their NSEP-funded overseas study.
(e) Neither DoD nor the U.S. Government is obligated to provide, or offer work or employment to, award recipients as a result of participation in the program. All federal agencies are encouraged to assist in placing NSEP award recipients upon successful completion of the program.
(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)), the ASD(R):
(1) Develops programs, processes, and policies to support NSEP award recipients in fulfilling their NSEP service agreement through internships or employment in federal service pursuant to 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
(2) Determines, pursuant to 50 U.S.C. 1902(a), after consultation with the National Security Education Board, which countries, languages, and disciplines are critical and in which there are deficiencies of knowledgeable personnel within federal entities.
(b) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&R) through the ASD(R), and in coordination with the Director, Department of Defense Human Resources Activity (DoDHRA), the DASD(FE&T), or his or her designee:
(1) Makes available competitive scholarship, fellowship, and English for Heritage Language Speakers (EHLS) awards to U.S. citizens who wish to engage in study for the purposes of national security in accordance with 50 U.S.C. chapter 37.
(2) Manages, oversees, and monitors compliance of NSEP service agreements on behalf of the Secretary of Defense.
(3) Advises NSEP award recipients who are seeking federal or national security positions on how to fulfill their NSEP service agreement in national security positions.
(4) Maintains documentation of successful completion of federal service or initiates debt collection procedures for those NSEP recipients who fail to comply with the NSEP service agreement.
(5) Works with agencies or offices in the U.S. Government to identify potential employment opportunities for NSEP award recipients and make employment opportunities and information readily available to all award recipients.
(6) Approves or disapproves all DD Form 2573 written requests for service credit, deferrals, extensions, or waivers of the NSEP service agreement, including adjudication of all cases involving award recipients who decline job offers.
(c) Under the authority, direction, and control of the USD(P&R), and in coordination with the DASD(FE&T), the Director, DoDHRA:
(1) Provides administrative and operational support to NSEP.
(2) Provides fiscal management and oversight to ensure all funds provided for NSEP are separately and visibly accounted for in the DoD budget.
(a)
(1) Maintain satisfactory academic progress in the course of study for which assistance is provided, according to the regularly prescribed standards and practices of the institution in which the award recipient is matriculating.
(2) As a condition of receiving an award, sign an NSEP service agreement as required by 50 U.S.C. chapter 37, which among other requirements, must acknowledge an understanding and agreement by the award recipient that failure to maintain satisfactory academic progress constitutes grounds upon which the award may be terminated and trigger the mandatory requirement to return to the U.S. Treasury the scholarship, fellowship, or EHLS funds provided to the award recipient.
(3) Notify the DASD(FE&T) within ten business days if advised of failure to maintain academic progress by the institution of matriculation.
(4) Notify the DASD(FE&T) in a timely manner and in advance of the service deadline should any request for deferral, extension, or waiver become necessary.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(B) The DASD(FE&T), will consider requests for extensions and waivers of the NSEP service agreement only under special circumstances as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The request must set forth the basis, situation, and causes which support the requested action. The award recipient must submit requests electronically on
(5) Immediately upon successful completion of the award program and either completion of the degree for which the award recipient is matriculated or withdrawal from such degree program, begin the federal job search. Award recipients should concurrently seek positions within DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, the DHS, or DOS.
(6) Work to satisfy all service requirements in accordance with applicable NSEP service agreements until all NSEP service requirements are
(7) Work for the total period of time specified in the NSEP service agreement either consecutively in one organization, or through follow-on employment in two or more organizations.
(8) Repay the U.S. Treasury the award funds provided to the award recipient if the requirements of the NSEP service agreement are not met.
(9) Submit DD Form 2753 to NSEP no later than one month after termination of the period of study funded by NSEP and annual reports thereafter until the NSEP service requirement is satisfied. The DD Form 2753 will include:
(i) Any requests for deferrals, extensions, or waivers with adequate support for such requests.
(ii) The award recipient's current status (
(iii) Updated contact information.
(10) Notify the ASD(R), through the DASD(FE&T), within ten business days of any changes to the award recipient's mailing address.
(b)
(i) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b) outlines requirements for NSEP award recipients to fulfill their federal service requirement through work in positions that contribute to the national security of the United States. An emphasis is placed on work within one of four organizations: DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, DHS, or DOS. On a case-by-case basis, NSEP may consider employment with a federal contractor of one of these four priority organizations as meeting the service requirement should the award recipient provide adequate documentary evidence that the salary for the position is funded by the U.S. Government.
(ii) Stipulate that absent the availability of a suitable position in the four priority organizations or a contractor thereof, award recipients may satisfy the service requirement by serving in any federal agency or office in a position with national security responsibilities. It will also stipulate that absent the availability of a suitable position in DoD, any element of the Intelligence Community, DHS, DOS, a contractor thereof, or any federal agency with national security responsibilities, award recipients may satisfy the service requirement by working in the field of education in a discipline related to the study supported by the program if the recipient satisfactorily demonstrates to the Secretary of Defense through the Director, NSEP, that no position is available in the departments, agencies, and offices covered by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
(2)
(i) Prior to receiving assistance, the award recipient must sign an NSEP service agreement. The award recipient will submit to the NSEP Administrative Agent, in advance of program of study start date, any proposed changes to the approved award program (
(ii) The minimum length of service requirement for undergraduate scholarship, graduate fellowship, and EHLS award recipients is one year. The duration of the service requirement for graduate fellowship award recipients is equal to the duration of assistance provided by NSEP.
(iii) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), undergraduate scholarship students must begin fulfilling the NSEP service agreement within three years of completion or termination of their undergraduate degree program.
(iv) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), graduate fellowship students must begin fulfilling the NSEP service agreement within two years of completion or termination of their graduate degree program.
(v) In accordance with 50 U.S.C. 1902(b), EHLS award recipients must begin fulfilling the service requirement within three years of completion of their program.
(vi) The award recipient must accept a reasonable offer of employment, as defined by the Director, NSEP, or his or her designee, in accordance with the NSEP service agreement, at a salary deemed by the hiring organization as commensurate with the award recipient's education level, and consistent with the terms and conditions of the NSEP service agreement.
(vii) The award recipient will annually submit a DD Form 2753 to NSEP until all NSEP service agreement requirements are satisfied. The DD Form 2753 must be received and reviewed by the NSEP Service Approval Committee. The receipt of a completed DD Form 2753 will be acknowledged through official correspondence from NSEP. Award recipients who do not submit the DD Form 2753 as required will be notified by NSEP of the intent to pursue collection action.
(viii) If the award recipient fails to maintain satisfactory academic progress for any term in which assistance is provided, probationary measures of the host institution will apply to the award recipient. Failure to meet the institution's requirements to resume satisfactory academic progress within the prescribed guidelines of the institution will result in the termination of assistance to the award recipient.
(ix) Extenuating circumstances, such as illness of the award recipient or a close relative, death of a close relative, or an interruption of study caused by the host institution, may be considered acceptable reasons for non-satisfactory academic progress. The award recipient must notify the NSEP Administrative Agent of any extenuating circumstances within 10 business days of occurrence. The NSEP Administrative Agent will review these requests to determine what course of action is appropriate and make a recommendation to NSEP for final determination. The DASD(FE&T) will upon receipt of the NSEP Administrative Agent recommendation, determine by what conditions to terminate or reinstate the award to the award recipient.
(x) NSEP award recipients may apply to the DASD(FE&T) for a deferral of the NSEP service agreement requirement if pursuing qualified further education.
(xi) NSEP award recipients may apply to the DASD(FE&T), to receive an extension of the NSEP service agreement requirement if actively seeking to fulfill the NSEP service agreement in a well-documented manner.
(xii) In extraordinary circumstances an NSEP award recipient may request a waiver to be relieved of responsibilities associated with the NSEP service agreement. Conditions for requesting a waiver to the NSEP service agreement may include:
(A) Situations in which compliance is either impossible or would involve extreme hardship to the award recipient.
(B) Interruptions in service due to temporary physical or medical disability or other causes beyond the award recipient's control.
(C) Unreasonable delays in the hiring process not caused by the award recipient, including delays in obtaining a security clearance if required for employment.
(D) Hiring freezes that adversely affect award recipients who are seeking positions with the U.S. Government.
(E) Permanent physical or medical disability that prevent the award recipient from fulfilling the obligation.
(F) Inability to complete the NSEP service agreement due to terminations or interruptions of work beyond the award recipient's control.
(G) Death of the award recipient.
(xiii) In cases where assistance to the award recipient is terminated, the amount owed to the U.S. Government is equal to the support received from NSEP. Repayment to the U.S. Treasury must be made within a period not to exceed six months from expiration of the service deadline. Noncompliance with repayment requirements will result in the initiation of standard U.S. Government collection procedures to obtain payment for overdue indebtedness, unless a waiver is specifically granted by the DASD(FE&T). Further job search assistance to an award recipient will be denied if any outstanding debt remains unpaid as a result of an award termination.
(A) Repayment to the U.S. Treasury for the amount of assistance provided becomes due, either in whole or in part, if the award recipient fails to fulfill the NSEP service agreement. Award recipients who do not submit the SAR as required will be notified by NSEP of the intent to pursue collection action. Noncompliance with repayment requirements will result in the initiation of standard U.S. Government collection procedures to obtain payment for overdue indebtedness, unless a waiver is specifically granted by the DASD(FE&T).
(B) Repayment recovery procedures will include one or a combination of the following:
(
(
(
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of enforcement of regulation.
The Coast Guard will enforce the San Diego Parade of Lights special local regulations on the waters of San Diego Bay, California on December 11, 2016 and December 18, 2016. These special local regulations are necessary to provide for the safety of the participants, crew, spectators, sponsor vessels, and general users of the waterway. During the enforcement period, persons and vessels are prohibited from anchoring, blocking, loitering, or impeding within this regulated area unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative.
The regulations in 33 CFR 100.1101 will be enforced from 5 p.m. through 8:30 p.m. on December 11, 2016 and December 18, 2016 for Item 5 in Table 1 of Section 100.1101.
If you have questions about this publication of enforcement, call or email Lieutenant Robert Cole, Waterways Management, U.S. Coast Guard Sector San Diego, CA; telephone (619) 278-7656, email
The Coast Guard will enforce the special local regulations in 33 CFR 100.1101 for the San Diego Parade of Lights in San Diego Bay Bay, CA in 33 CFR 100.1101, Table 1, Item 5 of that section from 5 p.m. until 8:30 p.m. on December 11, 2016 and December 18, 2016. This enforcement action is being taken to provide for the safety of life on navigable waterways during the event. The Coast Guard's regulation for recurring marine events in the San Diego Captain of the Port Zone identifies the regulated entities and area for this event. Under the provisions of 33 CFR 100.1101, persons and vessels are prohibited from anchoring, blocking, loitering, or impeding within this regulated area, unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, or his designated representative. The Coast Guard may be assisted by other Federal, State, or local law enforcement agencies in enforcing this regulation.
This document is issued under authority of 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 33 CFR 100.1101. In addition to this document in the
If the Captain of the Port Sector San Diego or his designated representative determines that the regulated area need not be enforced for the full duration stated on this document, he or she may use a Broadcast Notice to Mariners or other communications coordinated with the event sponsor to grant general permission to enter the regulated area.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the S168 (Battlefield Blvd. S/SR 168 BUS) Bridge across the Albemarle & Chesapeake Canal, mile 12.0, Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Chesapeake (Great Bridge), VA. The deviation is necessary to accommodate the 32nd Annual Chesapeake Rotary Christmas Parade. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
The deviation is effective from 4:00 p.m. to 10:00 p.m., December 3, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-1007] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Martin Bridges, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6422, email
The City of Chesapeake, who owns the S168 (Battlefield Blvd. S/SR 168 BUS) Bridge across the Albemarle & Chesapeake Canal, mile 12.0, Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway, Chesapeake (Great Bridge), VA, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations set out in 33 CFR 117.997(g) to facilitate the 32nd Annual Chesapeake Rotary Christmas Parade.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 4:00 p.m. to 6:00 p.m. and from 8:00 p.m. to 10:00 p.m., on December 3, 2016. The closure has been requested to ensure the safety of the increased volume of cars and spectators that will be participating in the 32nd Annual Chesapeake Rotary Christmas Parade. The bridge is a single bascule bridge and has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 8 feet above mean high water.
The Atlantic Intracoastal Waterway (Albemarle and Chesapeake Canal) is used by a variety of vessels including recreational, tug and barge, fishing vessels, and small commercial vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed- position may do so at any time. The bridge will open in case of an emergency and there is no immediate alternate route for vessels to pass. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local Notice and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Coleman Memorial (US 17) Swing Bridge across the York River, mile 7.0, Yorktown, VA. The deviation is necessary to accommodate maintenance to the bridge's hydraulic motors, pumps, and hoses. This deviation allows the bridge to remain in the closed-to-navigation position.
This deviation is effective without actual notice from December 5, 2016 through 8 p.m. on December 15, 2016. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 7:00 a.m. on December 1, 2016, until December 5, 2016.
The docket for this deviation, [USCG-2016-1016] is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email Mr. Martin Bridges, Bridge Administration Branch Fifth District, Coast Guard, telephone 757-398-6422, email
The Virginia Department of Transportation, who owns the Coleman Memorial (US 17) Swing Bridge across the York River, mile 7.0, Yorktown, VA, has requested a temporary deviation from the current operating regulations set out in 33 CFR 117.1025 to facilitate maintenance to the bridge's hydraulic motors, pumps, and hoses.
Under this temporary deviation, the bridge will remain in the closed-to-navigation position from 7:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m., on December 1, 2016, and December 8, 2016; with an alternate date on December 15, 2016. At all other times, the bridge will operate per 33 CFR 117.1025. The bridge is a swing bridge and has a vertical clearance in the closed-to-navigation position of 60 feet above mean high water.
The York River is used by a variety of vessels including recreational, tug and barge, fishing vessels, and small commercial vessels. The Coast Guard has carefully considered the nature and volume of vessel traffic on the waterway in publishing this temporary deviation.
Vessels able to pass through the bridge in the closed-position may do so at any time. The bridge will not be able to open in case of an emergency. The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterway through our Local Notice and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress.
Final rule.
The Copyright Royalty Judges announce a cost of living adjustment (COLA) in the royalty rates that commercial and noncommercial noninteractive webcasters pay for eligible transmissions pursuant to the statutory licenses for the public performance of and for the making of
Kimberly Whittle, Attorney Advisor, by telephone at (202) 707-7658 or by email at
Sections 112(e) and 114(f) of the Copyright Act, title 17 of the United States Code, create statutory licenses for certain digital performances of sound recordings and the making of ephemeral reproductions to facilitate transmission of those sound recordings. On May 2, 2016, the Copyright Royalty Judges (Judges) adopted final regulations governing the rates and terms of copyright royalty payments under those licenses for the license period 2016-2020 for performances of sound recordings via eligible transmissions by commercial and noncommercial noninteractive webcasters.
Pursuant to those regulations, at least 25 days before January 1 of each year, the Judges shall publish in the
The adjustment in the royalty fee shall be based on a calculation of the percentage increase in the CPI-U from the CPI-U published in November 2015 (237.838),
The 2017 rate for eligible transmission of sound recordings by commercial webcasters remains unchanged at a rate of $.0022 per subscription performance and $.0017 per nonsubscription performance.
Application of the formula to rates for noncommercial webcasters results in an unchanged rate of $.0017 per performance for all digital audio transmissions in excess of 159,140 ATH in a month on a channel or station.
As provided in 37 CFR 380.1(d), the royalty fee for making ephemeral recordings under section 112 of the Copyright Act to facilitate digital transmission of sound recordings under section 114 of the Copyright Act is included in the section 114 royalty fee and comprises 5% of the total fee.
Copyright, Sound recordings.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Judges amend part 380 of title 37 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
17 U.S.C. 112(e), 114(f), 804(b)(3).
The revision reads as follows:
(a)
(1)
(2)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes a tolerance for residues of tau-fluvalinate in or on wine grapes. Makhteshim Agan of North America, Inc., d/b/a ADAMA requested this tolerance under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective December 5, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 3, 2017, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0439, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0439 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 3, 2017. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0439, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for tau-fluvalinate including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with tau-fluvalinate follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
Tau
No increased prenatal susceptibility was observed following developmental toxicity studies in the rat or rabbit. Tau-fluvalinate did not have an effect on fetal development in the prenatal developmental study in rats. In the prenatal developmental study in rabbits, maternal and fetal effects were seen at the highest dose tested. Developmental effects included skeletal anomalies, a lower implantation efficiency, higher incidence of resorption and concurrent lower fetal viability. Maternal effects involved anorexia and general depression. The qualitative susceptibility seen during the prenatal developmental study in rabbits is secondary to maternal toxicity and occurs at the same dose. Evidence of quantitative post-natal sensitivity was
A dermal assessment was not conducted based on the lack of systemic toxicity in the rabbit dermal study at the limit dose and the low potential for dermal absorption. These findings are consistent with the toxicology profile of many pyrethroids. In an acute inhalation neurotoxicity study, neurotoxic effects were observed in the functional observational battery (FOB) including decreased rearing, forelimb grip strength and body temperature in females. This route-specific study provides a robust endpoint for the inhalation route of exposure and was used to estimate human inhalation risks. The standard interspecies extrapolation uncertainty factor is reduced from 10X to 3X due to the human equivalent concentration (HEC) calculation accounting for pharmacokinetic (not pharmacodynamic) interspecies differences. However, due to the lack of a clear no- observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) in the acute inhalation neurotoxicity study, an additional 10X is added to extrapolate a NOAEL from a lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL). The 10X intraspecies factor is also applied. The total uncertainty factor for inhalation exposure is 300X for adults and children >6 years of age. The total inhalation uncertainty factor for children ≤6 years of age is 1,000X since the Food Quality Protection Act safety factor (FQPA SF) of 3X applies.
There was no evidence of carcinogenicity in the combined chronic gavage/carcinogenicity study in rats or the carcinogenicity study in mice. In a battery of mutagenicity studies, there was no evidence of a mutagenic effect.
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by tau-fluvalinate as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
The database of tau-fluvalinate toxicology studies is complete and provides a robust characterization of the hazard potential for children and adults. In addition to the standard guideline studies, numerous studies from the scientific literature that describe the pharmacodynamic (PD) and pharmacokinetic (PK) profile of the pyrethroids in general have been considered in EPA's assessment. Tau-fluvalinate is rapidly absorbed following an oral dose, and effects are typically observed within the first several hours after dosing. For pyrethroids, as a class, the combination of rapid absorption, metabolism, and elimination precludes accumulation and increased potency following repeated dosing. This is also true of tau-fluvalinate. However, the combined chronic gavage/carcinogenicity neurotoxicity study is more appropriate for point of departure (POD) selection than the acute oral studies, because it is more sensitive. This is likely due to the lower doses tested, and the lower gavage volume used to administer tau-fluvalinate. While acute neurotoxic effects are the most sensitive effects observed in the toxicity database, neurotoxic effects attributable to chronic exposure to tau-fluvalinate have not been identified. The clinical signs in the combined chronic gavage/carcinogenicity neurotoxicity study disappeared each day prior to the next dosing and did not progress in severity across time. This POD is the most protective within the database and will be protective of the acute neurotoxic effects seen in the acute, subchronic and 2-generation reproduction studies in the rat. All exposure durations for the tau-fluvalinate risk assessment are assessed as single-day exposures.
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for tau-fluvalinate used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1 of this unit.
1.
i.
Such effects were identified for tau-fluvalinate. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used food consumption information from the United States Department of Agriculture's (USDA) 2003-2008 National Health and Nutrition Survey/What We Eat in America (NHANES/WWEIA). As to residue levels in food, EPA assumed tolerance-level residues and 100 percent crop treated (PCT) for all registered and proposed commodities.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
3.
Although there is potential for post-application exposure to individuals as a result of being in an environment that has been previously treated with tau-fluvalinate, post-application inhalation exposure is anticipated to be negligible due to the combination of low vapor pressure for tau-fluvalinate and the expected dilution in outdoor air. In addition, because no dermal POD was selected for tau-fluvalinate (
Post-application non-dietary ingestion exposure was also not quantitatively assessed for young children. Unlike treated grass at home or in recreational areas or indoor floor surfaces, for the tau-fluvalinate registered outdoor uses (
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at
4.
The Agency has determined that the pyrethroids and pyrethrins share a common mechanism of toxicity
Tau-fluvalinate was included in the 2011 pyrethroid CRA. In the cumulative assessment, residential exposure was the greatest contributor to the total exposure. There are currently registered tau-fluvalinate products for outdoor residential uses that have not been previously assessed and were not included in the CRA. In order to determine if the currently registered tau-fluvalinate residential uses will significantly contribute to or change the overall findings in the pyrethroid CRA, the Agency performed a quantitative cumulative screening assessment. This assessment used the currently registered application rates for tau-fluvalinate along with the previous assumptions as used in the 2011 CRA (
The outdoor garden uses resulting in the highest residential exposures for tau-fluvalinate are selected for the screening assessment (specifically, the backpack sprayer and RTU hose-end sprayer garden scenarios). As there is no post-application inhalation or child incidental oral exposures expected from the garden uses, and there is no dermal hazard for tau-fluvalinate, it is only necessary to perform an adult handler inhalation assessment.
The resulting screening MOEs (adult handler) for tau-fluvalinate garden backpack and hose end sprayer scenarios are 1,300,000 and 61,000, respectively. In the CRA, the garden risk driver was identified as the tau-fluvalinate backpack use and the MOE for that scenario was 1,300. However, since the 2011 CRA, it has been determined that there is no dermal hazard for tau-fluvalinate. With the dermal exposures removed, that MOE would now be 780,000 and would no longer be considered the highest risk driver. Therefore, the next highest risk driver for the CRA garden scenario is used which is the cypermethrin backpack use with a total MOE of 1,400. Since the screening MOEs (1,300,000 and 260,000) are much greater than the CRA MOE (1,400), it can be concluded that the currently registered tau-fluvalinate residential uses will not significantly impact the overall findings in the 2011 pyrethroid CRA.
Dietary exposures make a minor contribution to the total pyrethroid exposure. The dietary exposure assessment performed in support of the pyrethroid cumulative was much more highly refined than that performed for the single chemical. The proposed tolerance for residues of tau-fluvalinate on imported wine grape will make an insignificant contribution to dietary risk to the pyrethroids as a whole.
1.
2.
Although sensitivity was observed in the 2-generation reproduction study, there is a clear NOAEL for the effects (tremors), and the PODs selected for risk assessment are 10-fold lower than where sensitivity was observed, and are therefore protective. When considered within the context of the totality of the database, EPA believes that the apparent sensitivity in the multi-generation reproduction toxicity study in rats is a reflection of the study's design rather than a lifestage sensitivity
3.
i. The toxicology database is adequate for the evaluation of risks to infants and children. Acceptable studies include: Rat and rabbit developmental toxicity studies, a rat multi-generation reproduction study and chronic toxicity/carcinogenicity studies in mice and rats. In addition, acceptable acute (non-guideline) and subchronic (guideline) neurotoxicity studies in the rat are adequate to evaluate the neurotoxicity of tau-fluvalinate.
EPA is making best use of the extensive scientific knowledge about the adverse outcome pathway of pyrethroids in the risk assessments for this class of pesticides. In this way, information on a subset of pyrethroids can be used to help interpret and understand the toxicological profile for other members of the class. In that regard, a group of pesticide registrants and product formulators known as the Council for the Advancement of Pyrethroid Human Risk Assessment (CAPHRA) has been conducting multiple experiments with permethrin and deltamethrin as model Type I and Type II compounds, respectively, in order to develop an initial extensive database of
ii. As with other pyrethroids, tau-fluvalinate causes neurotoxicity from interaction with sodium channels leading to clinical signs of neurotoxicity. Neurotoxicity was observed in several of the toxicity studies for the active ingredient; however, concern is low, because the selected endpoints are protective of the observed effects. The effects are well characterized and adequately assessed by the available guideline and non-guideline studies.
iii. There were no indications of fetal toxicity in the rat developmental toxicity study. In the rabbit developmental toxicity study, there were fetotoxic effects, as indicated by a lower implantation efficiency, higher incidence of resorption and concurrent lower fetal viability in the high-dose group. However, effects were likely secondary to maternal toxicity at the same dose (125 mg/kg/day). There were signs of post-natal sensitivity in the tau-fluvalinate 2-generation reproduction study in rats. The parental generation did not experience any systemic effects up to the highest dose tested, where there were tremors during lactation in both F
iv. There are no residual uncertainties in the exposure database. Dietary exposures to tau-fluvalinate are estimated using tolerance level residues and 100 PCT. The high-end EDWC for tau
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
An Aggregate Risk Index (ARI) approach was used to aggregate the
4.
Because no intermediate-term adverse effect was identified, tau-fluvalinate is not expected to pose an intermediate-term risk.
5.
6.
Acceptable methods are available for enforcement and data collection purposes for both plant and animal commodities. The Pesticide Analytical Manual (PAM) Volume II lists Method I, a GC method with electron capture detection (ECD), for the enforcement of tolerances for fluvalinate in/on plant and animal commodities.
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established a MRL for tau-fluvalinate.
Finally, EPA has revised the tolerance expression to clarify (1) that, as provided in FFDCA section 408(a)(3), the tolerance covers metabolites and degradates of tau-fluvalinate not specifically mentioned; and (2) that compliance with the specified tolerance levels is to be determined by measuring only the specific compounds mentioned in the tolerance expression.
Therefore, a tolerance is established for residues of tau-fluvalinate, in or on grape, wine at 1.0 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(a)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of oxathiapiprolin in or on multiple commodities which are identified and discussed later in this document. In addition, this regulation amends the established tolerance for vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C; and removes existing tolerances for
This regulation is effective December 5, 2016. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before February 3, 2017, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0049, is available at
Michael L. Goodis, Acting Director, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Publishing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0049 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before February 3, 2017. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0049, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
The petition, 5F8437, requested that 40 CFR 180.685 be amended by establishing tolerances for residues of the fungicide oxathiapiprolin, 1-[4-[4-[5-
The Syngenta petition, 5F8441, requested that 40 CFR 180.685 be amended by establishing tolerances for residues of the fungicide oxathiapiprolin, 1-[4-[4-[5-(2,6-difluorophenyl)-4,5-dihydro-3-isoxazolyl]-2-thiazolyl]-1-piperidinyl]-2-[5-methyl-3-(trifluoromethyl)-1H-pyrazol-1-yl]-ethanone, in or on: citrus oil at 2.0 ppm; citrus, pulp at 0.09 ppm; fruit, citrus, group 10-10 at 0.06 ppm; potato, wet peel at 0.07 ppm; and requested revising the existing 0.01 ppm tolerance on vegetable, tuberous and corm, subgroup 1C to 0.04 ppm.
The Dupont petition, 5F8435, requested that 40 CFR 180.685 be amended by establishing tolerances for residues of the fungicide oxathiapiprolin, 1-[4-[4-[5-(2,6-difluorophenyl)-4,5-dihydro-3-isoxazolyl]-2-thiazolyl]-1-piperidinyl]-2-[5-methyl-3-(trifluoromethyl)-1H-pyrazol-1-yl]-ethanone, in or on: soybean at 0.01 ppm, and sunflower at 0.01 ppm.
A summary of the petitions prepared by IR4 and the registrants, DuPont and Syngenta, are available in the docket,
Based upon review of the data supporting the subject petitions, EPA has revised the proposed tolerance level for certain crops and corrected commodity definitions, as needed, to be consistent with current EPA policy. The reason for these changes are explained in Unit IV.D.
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue....”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for oxathiapiprolin including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with oxathiapiprolin follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered their validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children. In the toxicity studies for oxathiapiprolin, no treatment-related effects were seen in any species at doses up to the limit dose (1,000 millgrams/kilogram (mg/kg)/day). No treatment-related effects were seen in subchronic or chronic oral toxicity (rats, mice, or dogs), dermal toxicity, neurotoxicity, or immunotoxicity studies. Additionally, there was no evidence of carcinogenicity in cancer studies with rats or mice. No treatment-related effects were seen in maternal or fetal animals in rat or rabbit developmental toxicity studies. Treatment-related effects were observed in offspring animals in rat reproduction studies (decreased body weight and delayed preputial separation); however, the effects were only observed at doses above the limit dose. Such high doses are not relevant for human health risk. The lack of observed treatment-related oxathiapiprolin toxicity effects is consistent with the low to moderate oral absorption and lack of bioaccumulation reported in the rat metabolism studies. In acute lethality studies, exposure to oxathiapiprolin resulted in low toxicity via the oral, dermal, and inhalation routes of exposure. Oxathiapiprolin was not a dermal or eye irritant, or a skin sensitizer.
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by oxathiapiprolin as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological points of departure (POD) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which no adverse effects are observed (the NOAEL) and the lowest dose at which adverse effects of concern are identified (the LOAEL). Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
The majority of the toxicity studies for oxathiapiprolin did not demonstrate treatment-related effects, with the exception of the reproduction study. The effects in the reproduction study were minimal and seen at doses (above the limit dose) not relevant for human exposure. There were no adverse acute or chronic effects identified for any population groups (including infants and children). Therefore, due to the limited toxicity in the oxathiapiprolin toxicological database, toxicity endpoints and points of departure were not selected for oxathiapiprolin exposure scenarios and a quantitative risk assessment was not conducted.
1.
2.
3.
Oxathiapiprolin is not proposed or registered for any specific use pattern that would result in residential handler exposure. However, some of the uses could involve commercial application in areas where residential post-application activities could occur (
Further information regarding EPA standard assumptions and generic inputs for residential exposures may be found at:
4.
1.
2.
3.
Taking into account the available data for oxathiapiprolin, EPA has concluded that given the lack of toxicity of this substance, no risks of concern are expected. Therefore, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children, from aggregate exposure to oxathiapiprolin.
Method 30422 (Supplement No. 1) was developed for plant commodities, and Method 31138 was developed for livestock commodities. Residues of oxathiapiprolin and associated metabolites are extracted from crop or livestock commodity samples using a solution of formic acid, water and acetonitrile, and diluted with acetonitrile and water. Both methods use liquid chromotography with tandem mass spectrometry (LC/MS/MS), specifically reverse-phase liquid chromatography (LC), and detection by electrospray tandem mass spectrometry (MS/MS).
The FDA multi-residue methods are not suitable for detection and enforcement of oxathiapiprolin residues or associated metabolites. However, the European Multiresidue Method (DFG Method S19) and the QuEChERS Multiresidue Method have shown success in some matrices.
Adequate enforcement methodology (LC/MS/MS) is available to enforce the tolerance expression. The method may be requested from: Chief, Analytical Chemistry Branch, Environmental Science Center, 701 Mapes Rd., Ft. Meade, MD 20755-5350; telephone number: (410) 305-2905; email address:
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the international maximum residue limits (MRLs) established by the Codex Alimentarius Commission (Codex), as required by FFDCA section 408(b)(4). The Codex Alimentarius is a joint United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization food standards program, and it is recognized as an international food safety standards-setting organization in trade agreements to which the United States is a party. EPA may establish a tolerance that is different from a Codex MRL; however, FFDCA section 408(b)(4) requires that EPA explain the reasons for departing from the Codex level.
The Codex has not established maximum residue limits (MRLs) for oxathiapiprolin.
A comment was received from an anonymous commenter objecting to EPA “approving additional uses of oxathiapiprolin that add to the thousands of existing toxic chemical residues as well as the undetermined synergistic effects these toxicants pose to America's population.” The existing legal framework provided by section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) states that tolerances may be set when the pesticide meets the safety standard imposed by that statute. As required by that statute, EPA conducted a comprehensive assessment of oxathiapiprolin, including its potential for carcinogenicity. Based on its assessment of the available data, the Agency believes that given the observed lack of toxicity of this chemical, no risks of concern are expected. Therefore, EPA concludes that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to the general population, or to infants and children, from aggregate exposure to oxathiapiprolin.
In the notice of filing for petition 5E8437, the titles of the designated new commodity group and subgroups are as listed in the “Tolerance Crop Grouping Program IV” proposal of November 14, 2014 (79 FR 68153). In the final rule which published on May 3, 2016, “Pesticide Tolerances Crop Grouping Program Amendment IV,” EPA revised the crop group/subgroup titles by roughly retaining the same name and number as the pre-existing group/subgroup, except the number is followed by a hyphen and the final digits of the year established. Hence, the title of the requested “
To be consistent with current EPA policy, the commodity definitions were corrected for the following crops: vegetable, stalk and stem, subgroup 22A to stalk and stem vegetable subgroup 22A; citrus fruit, crop group 10 10 to fruit, citrus, group 10-10; citrus oil to citrus, oil; citrus pulp to citrus, dried pulp; soybean to soybean, seed; and sunflower to sunflower, seed.
For certain proposed crop tolerances, the Agency corrected the proposed tolerance levels. For caneberry subgroup 13-07A, the corrected tolerance level includes an additional significant figure (0.50 ppm rather than the proposed 0.5 ppm). This is to avoid the situation where rounding of an observed residue to the level of precision of the tolerance expression would be considered non-violative (such as 0.54 ppm being rounded to 0.5 ppm). For the same reason, the corrected tolerance for stalk and stem vegetable subgroup 22A is 2.0 ppm instead of the proposed 2 ppm.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of the fungicide oxathiapiprolin, 1-[4-[4-[5-(2,6-difluorophenyl)-4,5-dihydro-3-isoxazolyl]-2-thiazolyl]-1-piperidinyl]-2-[5-methyl-3-(trifluoromethyl)-1H-pyrazol-1-yl]-ethanone, in or on basil, dried leaves at 80 ppm; basil, fresh leaves at 10 ppm;
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) * * *
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the following tables.
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some of these communities may adopt and submit the required documentation of legally enforceable floodplain management measures after this rule is published but prior to the actual suspension date. These communities will not be suspended and will continue to be eligible for the sale of NFIP flood insurance. A notice withdrawing the suspension of such communities will be published in the
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Final rule.
This rule identifies communities where the sale of flood insurance has been authorized under the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP) that are scheduled for suspension on the effective dates listed within this rule because of noncompliance with the floodplain management requirements of the program. If the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) receives documentation that the community has adopted the required floodplain management measures prior to the effective suspension date given in this rule, the suspension will not occur and a notice of this will be provided by publication in the
The effective date of each community's scheduled suspension is the third date (“Susp.”) listed in the third column of the following tables.
If you want to determine whether a particular community was suspended on the suspension date or for further information, contact Patricia Suber, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-4149.
The NFIP enables property owners to purchase Federal flood insurance that is not otherwise generally available from private insurers. In return, communities agree to adopt and administer local floodplain management measures aimed at protecting lives and new construction from future flooding. Section 1315 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4022, prohibits the sale of NFIP flood insurance unless an appropriate public body adopts adequate floodplain management measures with effective enforcement measures. The communities listed in this document no longer meet that statutory requirement for compliance with program regulations, 44 CFR part 59. Accordingly, the communities will be suspended on the effective date in the third column. As of that date, flood insurance will no longer be available in the community. We recognize that some
In addition, FEMA publishes a Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM) that identifies the Special Flood Hazard Areas (SFHAs) in these communities. The date of the FIRM, if one has been published, is indicated in the fourth column of the table. No direct Federal financial assistance (except assistance pursuant to the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act not in connection with a flood) may be provided for construction or acquisition of buildings in identified SFHAs for communities not participating in the NFIP and identified for more than a year on FEMA's initial FIRM for the community as having flood-prone areas (section 202(a) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4106(a), as amended). This prohibition against certain types of Federal assistance becomes effective for the communities listed on the date shown in the last column. The Administrator finds that notice and public comment procedures under 5 U.S.C. 553(b), are impracticable and unnecessary because communities listed in this final rule have been adequately notified.
Each community receives 6-month, 90-day, and 30-day notification letters addressed to the Chief Executive Officer stating that the community will be suspended unless the required floodplain management measures are met prior to the effective suspension date. Since these notifications were made, this final rule may take effect within less than 30 days.
Flood insurance, Floodplains.
Accordingly, 44 CFR part 64 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 4001
Surface Transportation Board.
Final rule.
The Surface Transportation Board (STB or Board) is adopting a final rule to establish new regulations requiring all Class I railroads and the Chicago Transportation Coordination Office (CTCO), through its Class I members, to report certain service performance metrics on a weekly, semiannual, and occasional basis.
This rule is effective on January 29, 2017. The initial reporting date will be February 8, 2017.
Sarah Fancher at (202) 245-0355. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at (800) 877-8339.
The Board initiated this rulemaking proceeding in response to the service problems that began to emerge in the railroad industry in late 2013. Those service problems affected the transportation of a wide range of commodities, including grain, fertilizer, ethanol, coal, automobiles, chemicals, propane, consumer goods, crude oil, and industrial commodities.
In response to the service challenges, the Board held two public hearings, in April 2014 in Washington, DC, and in September 2014 in Fargo, ND, to allow interested persons to report on service problems, to hear from rail industry executives on plans to address rail service problems, and to explore options to improve service. During and after these hearings, parties expressed concerns about the lack of publicly available information related to rail service and requested access to performance data from the railroads to better understand the scope, magnitude, and impact of the service issues,
Based on these concerns and to better understand railroad operating conditions, the Board issued an order on October 8, 2014, requiring all Class I railroads and the Class I railroad members of the CTCO to file weekly reports containing specific service performance data.
On October 22, 2014, the Class I railroads and the Association of American Railroads (on behalf of the CTCO) filed the first set of weekly reports in response to the
The weekly filings have allowed the Board and its stakeholders to monitor the industry's performance and have allowed the Board to develop baseline data. Based on the Board's experience with the reporting to date, and as expressly contemplated in the
The proposed reporting requirements in the
Following receipt of comments in response to the
In response to the
The primary purpose of this rulemaking has been to develop a set of performance data that will allow the agency to monitor current service conditions in the industry and to identify trends or aberrations, which may indicate problems. The cumulative data will give the Board reference points for measuring an individual railroad against its past performance. A corollary benefit is that shippers and other stakeholders will have access to the reported data to assist in their business decisions and supply-chain planning. At the same time, the Board has sought to make sure that any rule adopted regarding service data results in the collection of information that will be useful to the agency and its stakeholders. The Board believes that the final rule adopted here is an appropriate balance of considerations that will provide helpful information to both the agency and the public.
These rules will be effective on January 29, 2017. Carriers will begin reporting on Wednesday, February 8, 2017.
The following parties provided comments in this proceeding, either in the form of written comments or oral comments during the ex parte meetings that were then summarized and posted by the Board, or both:
Alliance for Rail Competition et al.; American Chemistry Council; Association of American Railroads (AAR); BASF Corporation; BNSF Railway Company (BNSF); Canadian Pacific Railway Company (CP); Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning (CMAP); CSX Transportation, Inc. (CSXT); Freight Rail Customer Alliance; Highroad Consulting, Ltd. (HRC); Kansas City Southern Railway Company (KCS); Thomas F. McFarland and Gordon P. MacDougall; National Corn Growers Association; National Grain and Feed Association (NGFA); National Industrial Transportation League (NITL); Norfolk Southern Railway Company (NSR); South Dakota Corn Growers Association; The Fertilizer Institute (TFI); Texas Trading and Transportation Services, LLC, et al.; Union Pacific Railway Company (UP); U.S. Department of Agriculture; U.S. Department of Transportation; and Western Coal Traffic League, et al. (WCTL). The Honorable John Thune, Chairman, Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation, submitted comments in this proceeding as well.
Below we generally summarize the comments received on the
AAR's position is that the Board should state a valid regulatory purpose for the rule before adding to the cumulative regulatory burden on the railroads. (AAR SNPR Comments 5.) AAR argues that the rules are not necessary for improving rail service, expressing the view that rail service improved in 2013-2014 “because of efforts of railroads to serve their customers.” (
As the Board stated in the
As also explained in the
The Board also finds no merit to the AAR's suggestion that the data reporting would be unhelpful in determining if some of the statutory provisions listed by the Board are met. The AAR argues that these statutory provisions require “particularized findings” that would necessitate more granular information than would be provided for by the reported data. However, even if more granular information would be required for the Board to act in a particular circumstance, the Board has explained that the reporting will assist it in determining whether to request more granular data or information.
The Board believes that the long-term utility of the data collection in this final rule outweighs the additional burden placed on the rail industry. It will also help promote the RTP as outlined above.
NSR agrees that service performance metrics tailored to specific commodities may create a misleading picture of overall service and asserts that the burdens of such reporting outweigh the benefits. (NSR SNPR Comments 3.) UP and CP likewise assert that the final rule should only include network-specific metrics. (CP SNPR Comments 2; UP SNPR Comments 2-3.) UP asserts that the more detailed metrics are too narrow to provide more meaningful information, and can be required based on service issues. (UP SNPR Comments 2-3.) In addition, UP again opposes NGFA's request for additional grain reporting. (UP SNPR Reply 1-3.).
The
In response to NGFA's criticisms of the Wednesday reporting day, AAR states that NGFA provides no support for its assertion that a Monday reporting day is essential. (AAR SNPR Reply 2.) UP also states that it needs until Wednesday afternoon to capture, validate, analyze/process, and compile the information from different sources that goes into its reports. (UP SNPR Reply 3-4.)
The
For Request No. 1, the
For Request No. 2, the
Finally, the railroads generally oppose the addition of fertilizer to Request No. 1 and to all other metrics that would require carriers to report data on fertilizer unit trains or carloads. AAR argues that commodity specific reporting, including fertilizer, is not useful for comparing service metrics for traffic that moves in different service and equipment. (AAR SNPR Comments 7-8.) It states that although there is no single definition of fertilizer, the Board's proposed definition is overbroad and erroneously includes commodities
UP argues that the Board should not adopt new fertilizer metrics based on past service issues that no longer exist. (UP SNPR Comments 3.) Regarding fertilizer unit train reporting, UP argues that, because a small amount of fertilizer moves in unit train service (one in seven UP fertilizer shipments), the proposed metric would not provide useful information to the Board or allow the Board to reach meaningful conclusions about service. (
Finally, for Request No. 1 and all other metrics requiring carriers to report data on fertilizer unit trains, TFI recognizes that fertilizer shipments are not evenly distributed across carriers and agrees with UP that reporting fertilizer unit trains may raise confidentiality concerns among railroads with limited shipments. Accordingly, TFI states that it “no longer advocates for the reporting of fertilizer unit trains.” (TFI SNPR Reply 2, 6.)
The Board will deny NGFA's request to incorporate vegetable oils and vegetable meals into Request Nos. 1-2. Most carloads of vegetable oils move in manifest service as opposed to unit train service. (AAR SNPR Reply 4-5.) NGFA has not demonstrated a strong need for such a specifically tailored metric. Moreover, NGFA fails to explain why the railroads' reporting of system average train speed for manifest trains does not capture the velocity of vegetable oil and vegetable meal traffic, such that a specifically tailored metric is necessary. Similarly, NGFA fails to demonstrate that weekly average terminal dwell time does not adequately reflect terminal dwell for cars of vegetable oils and vegetable meals.
The
NGFA urges the Board to require carriers to “provide ISP reports upon one-time written request from rail customers.” (NGFA SNPR Comments 9.) It argues the ISP reports are an important source of data because they are a truer reflection of service than the current metrics which only reflect velocities from terminal-to-terminal. (NGFA SNPR Comments 6.) NGFA asserts that ISP reports better indicate the service shippers and receivers are actually receiving. (
The Board will adopt the proposed change in the
The Board will not mandate that railroads report to shippers upon request their respective ISP percentages for their local service design plans. NGFA's basis for seeking such reporting appears to be its view that other metrics contained in the
Lastly, for the reasons explained above, the Board will decline NGFA's request to expand this metric to include vegetable oils and vegetable meals. Additionally, because these commodities typically do not move in unit train configurations, dwell time at origin would not be a meaningful metric.
The
Since it was proposed in the
Both railroad and shipper commenters generally support the modification proposed in the SNPR of converting this metric into a weekly average of a daily snapshot of trains holding on each railroad's network, which is consistent with the way the industry monitors fluidity. The Board originally created the six-hour category to capture trains holding outside of their operating plan. However, railroads argued that the category was ineffective because some trains are held for six hours or longer as part of their operating plan. Railroads also argued that it was problematic from a data tracking standpoint because their internal metrics were not programmed to be compatible with the six-hour or longer filter. (BNSF NPR Comments 5-7; UP NPR Comments 15-16.) Accordingly, we will proceed to eliminate it from the final rules. The Board recognizes BNSF's concern that, even by eliminating the six-hour category, the trains holding metric will still capture trains being held as part of their operating plan. Nevertheless, the data will provide value over the course of time by allowing the agency to monitor trends and spot aberrations.
With regard to categorization of trains being held by cause, the Board seeks to simplify reporting, as proposed in the
Lastly, for the reasons explained above, the Board will decline NGFA's request to expand this metric to cover vegetable oils and vegetable meals. Additionally, because these commodities typically do not move in unit train configurations, the reported data would not be meaningful as a measure of fluidity as to vegetable oils and vegetable meal.
The
Although AAR and some railroads note that fertilizer represents a relatively small fraction of overall rail traffic, the Board believes that it is necessary to help monitor the rail fertilizer supply chain because of its critical importance to the nation's agricultural production. As became apparent to the Board at the April 2014 hearing, disruption of the rail fertilizer supply chain arising from service issues threatened to impede spring planting throughout the Midwest. In order to focus attention on restoring the supply chain, the Board directed certain railroads to report on their progress moving fertilizer over a six-week period.
The
The
Also, for the reasons explained above, the Board will decline NGFA's request to expand this metric to include vegetable oils and vegetable meals.
The
The
The
However, as discussed above, the railroads oppose the inclusion of fertilizer in this metric. They assert that creating a line-item for fertilizer will require substantial system changes (AAR SNPR Comments 8; BNSF SNPR Comments 5), and point out that fertilizer is not one of the commodity groups currently reported to the AAR on a weekly basis. (AAR SNPR Comments 8; BNSF SNPR Comments 5-6.) UP states that fertilizer accounted for only 2% of its carloadings in 2015. (UP SNPR Comments 4.) CSXT argues that including fertilizer here would “compromise the usefulness of a long-standing economic indicator that has been followed . . . for decades.” (CSXT SNPR Comments 4.)
Through this metric, the Board seeks to gain specific data for carloadings and interchange traffic that will allow it to better monitor this commodity group. However, the Board understands the railroads' concern that including fertilizer could disrupt the continuity of reporting cars originated and received in interchange, as presently reported to AAR. Accordingly, the Board will create two subcategories for this metric. In the first subcategory, the Board will require reporting according to the 22 existing traffic categories currently reported to AAR. The second subcategory will include only fertilizer.
By requiring fertilizer reporting in this manner, the Board is not asking railroads to modify or extract traffic from the existing 22 categories, which should be reported in their current form; rather, the agency is adding a new, stand-alone category covering the STCCs identified above.
The
The
AAR reports that the railroads have agreed to provide CMAP and other Illinois entities with a weekly report related to the Chicago terminal. (AAR SNPR Comments 10.) AAR states that “the railroads have begun to provide the Chicago entities a report that include[s] cars en route to Chicago and cars processed, each broken out by cars terminated in Chicago and those transitioning through . . . . [and] a7-day average freight transit time through Chicago.” (
As noted above, CMAP also reports that it has reached an agreement with AAR to receive weekly information on “yard inventories, terminal dwell times for railcar yards, the number of railcars en route and processed, and the overall crosstown transit times” for the Chicago terminal, and that it agrees with AAR's suggestion to share this report with the Board. (CMAP SNPR Comments 1.) CMAP recommends that the Board also require additional performance metrics focusing on intermodal trains. (
While the Board appreciates CP's recommendations for extending certain reporting requirements to IHB and BRC, the Board believes that the data reporting currently provided by the CTCO, through its Class I members, already provides focused visibility and heightened attention into this key gateway. The final rule, as augmented by the data that AAR has offered to submit voluntarily, will continue to maintain a robust view of operating conditions in the Chicago gateway. In the Chicago metrics, the Board will receive average daily car volumes at eleven key yards in the Chicago
The
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 601-612, generally requires a description and analysis of new rules that would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. In drafting a rule, an agency is required to: (1) Assess the effect that its regulation will have on small entities; (2) analyze effective alternatives that may minimize a regulation's impact; and (3) make the analysis available for public comment. sections 601-604. In its final rule, the agency must either include an initial regulatory flexibility analysis, section 603(a), or certify that the proposed rule would not have a “significant impact on a substantial number of small entities.” section 605(b). The impact must be a direct impact on small entities “whose conduct is circumscribed or mandated” by the proposed rule.
The final rules adopted here are limited to Class I railroads and, thus, will not have a significant economic impact upon a substantial number of small entities.
In a supplemental
The proposed collection was submitted to OMB for review as required under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), and 5 CFR 1320.11. OMB withheld approval pending submission of the final rule. The Board has submitted the collection contained in this final rule to OMB for approval. Once approval is received, the Board will publish a notice in the
1. The final rule set forth below is adopted and will be effective on January 29, 2017. The initial reporting date will be February 8, 2017. Notice of the rule adopted here will be published in the
2. A copy of this decision will be served upon the Chief Counsel for Advocacy, Office of Advocacy, U.S. Small Business Administration.
Having considered all written and oral comments on the
Administrative practice and procedure, Railroads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Surface Transportation Board amends title 49, chapter X, subchapter C, of the Code of Federal Regulations by adding part 1250 to read as follows:
49 U.S.C. 1321 and 11145.
(a) The reporting period covers:
(1) For § 1250.2(a)(1)-(9), 12:01 a.m. Saturday-11:59 p.m. Friday;
(2) For § 1250.2(a)(10), the previous calendar month;
(3) For § 1250.2(a)(11), 12:01 a.m. Sunday-11:59 p.m. Saturday;
(4) For § 1250.3(a)(1)-(2), 12:01 a.m. Saturday-11:59 p.m. Friday.
(b) The data required under § 1250.2 and § 1250.3(a) must be reported to the Board via the method and in the form prescribed by the Board's Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs, and Compliance (OPAGAC) by 5 p.m. Eastern Time on Wednesday of each week. In the event that a particular Wednesday is a Federal holiday or falls on a day when STB offices are closed for any other reason, then the data should be reported on the next business day when the offices are open.
(c) Each reporting railroad shall provide an explanation of its methodology for deriving the data with its initial filing and an update if and when that methodology changes. This explanation should include the unit train definition that the railroad will use in its data reporting, which shall reflect its assignment of train codes in accordance with its normal business practices. If and when a railroad changes its definition of unit train it shall notify the Board of the change at the time it goes into effect in the form prescribed by OPAGAC.
(d) Unless otherwise provided, the performance data, Chicago data and alert levels, narrative infrastructure reporting, and any methodologies or explanations of data collection reported to the Board under this part will be publicly available and posted on the Board's Web site.
(a) Each Class I railroad must report the performance data elements in paragraphs (a)(1)-(9) and (11) of this section on a weekly basis, and the data elements in paragraph (a)(10) on a monthly basis, for the reporting period, as defined in § 1250.1(a). However, with regard to data elements in paragraph (a)(7) and (8), Kansas City Southern Railway Company is not required to report information by state, but instead shall report system-wide data.
(1) System-average train speed for the overall system and for the following train types for the reporting week. (Train speed should be measured for line-haul movements between terminals. The average speed for each train type should be calculated by dividing total train-miles by total hours operated.)
(i) Intermodal.
(ii) Grain unit.
(iii) Coal unit.
(iv) Automotive unit.
(v) Crude oil unit.
(vi) Ethanol unit.
(vii) Manifest.
(viii) System.
(2) Weekly average terminal dwell time, measured in hours, excluding cars on run-through trains (
(3) Weekly average cars on line by the following car types for the reporting week. (Each railroad shall average its daily on-line inventory of freight cars. Articulated cars should be counted as a single unit. Cars on private tracks (
(i) Box.
(ii) Covered hopper.
(iii) Gondola.
(iv) Intermodal.
(v) Multilevel (Automotive).
(vi) Open hopper.
(vii) Tank.
(viii) Other.
(ix) Total.
(4) Weekly average dwell time at origin for the following train types: Grain unit, coal unit, automotive unit, crude oil unit, ethanol unit, and all other unit trains. (For the purposes of this data element, dwell time refers to the time period from release of a unit train at origin until actual movement by the receiving carrier.)
(5) The weekly average number of trains holding per day sorted by train type (intermodal, grain unit, coal unit, automotive unit, crude oil unit, ethanol unit, other unit, and manifest) and by cause (crew, locomotive power, or other). (Railroads are instructed to run a same-time snapshot of trains holding each day, and then to calculate the average for the reporting period.)
(6) The weekly average of loaded and empty cars, operating in normal movement and billed to an origin or destination, which have not moved in 48 hours or more sorted by service type (intermodal, grain, coal, crude oil, automotive, ethanol, fertilizer (the following Standard Transportation Commodity Codes (STCCs): 2871236, 2871235, 2871238, 2819454, 2812534, 2818426, 2819815, 2818170, 2871315, 2818142, 2818146, 2871244, 2819173, and 2871451), and all other). In order to derive the averages for the reporting period, carriers should run a same-time snapshot each day of the reporting period, capturing cars that have not moved in 48 hours or more. The number of cars captured on the daily snapshot for each category should be added, and then divided by the number of days in the reporting period. In deriving this data, carriers should include cars in normal service anywhere on their system, but should not include cars placed at a customer facility; in constructive placement; placed for interchange to another carrier; in bad order status; in storage; or operating in railroad service (
(7) The weekly total number of grain cars loaded and billed, reported by state, aggregated for the following STCCs: 01131 (barley), 01132 (corn), 01133 (oats), 01135 (rye), 01136 (sorghum grains), 01137 (wheat), 01139 (grain, not elsewhere classified), 01144 (soybeans), 01341 (beans, dry), 01342 (peas, dry), and 01343 (cowpeas, lentils, or lupines). “Total grain cars loaded and billed” includes cars in shuttle service; dedicated train service; reservation, lottery, open and other ordering systems; and private cars. Additionally, separately report the total cars loaded and billed in shuttle service (or dedicated train service), if any, versus total cars loaded and billed in all other ordering systems, including private cars.
(8) For the aggregated STCCs listed in § 1250.2(a)(7), for railroad-owned or leased cars that will move in manifest
(i) Running total of orders placed;
(ii) The running total of orders filled;
(iii) For orders which have not been filled, the number of orders that are 1-10 days past due and 11+ days past due, as measured from when the car was due for placement under the railroad's governing tariff.
(9) Weekly average coal unit train loadings or carloadings versus planned loadings for the reporting week by coal production region. Railroads have the option to report unit train loadings or carloadings, but should be consistent week over week.
(10) For Class I carriers operating a grain shuttle program, the average grain shuttle turns per month, for the total system and by region, versus planned turns per month, for the total system and by region. This data shall be included in the first weekly report of each month, covering the previous calendar month.
(11) Weekly carloads originated and carloads received in interchange by 23 commodity categories, separated into two subgroups:
(i) Twenty-two historical commodity categories.
(A) Chemicals.
(B) Coal.
(C) Coke.
(D) Crushed Stone, Sand and Gravel.
(E) Farm Products except Grain.
(F) Food and Kindred Products.
(G) Grain Mill Products.
(H) Grain.
(I) Iron and Steel Scrap.
(J) Lumber and Wood Products.
(K) Metallic Ores.
(L) Metals.
(M) Motor Vehicles and Equipment.
(N) Non Metallic Minerals.
(O) Petroleum Products.
(P) Primary Forest Products.
(Q) Pulp, Paper and Allied Products.
(R) Stone, Clay and Glass Products.
(S) Waste and Scrap Materials.
(T) All Other.
(U) Containers.
(V) Trailers.
(ii) Fertilizer commodity category.
(A) Fertilizer (for STCCs defined in paragraph (a)(6) of this section).
(B) [Reserved]
(b) [Reserved]
(a) Each Class I railroad operating at the Chicago gateway must jointly report the following performance data on a weekly basis for the reporting period, as defined in § 1250.1(a). The reports required under this section may be submitted by the Association of American Railroads (AAR).
(1) Average daily car volume in the following Chicago area yards: Barr, Bensenville, Blue Island, Calumet, Cicero, Clearing, Corwith, Gibson, Kirk, Markham, and Proviso for the reporting week; and
(2) Average daily number of trains held for delivery to Chicago sorted by receiving carrier for the reporting week. The average daily number should be derived by taking a same time snapshot each day of the reporting week, capturing the trains held for each railroad at that time, and then adding those snapshots together and dividing by the days in the reporting week.
(i) For purposes of this request, “held for delivery” refers to a train staged by the delivering railroad short of its scheduled arrival at the Chicago gateway at the request of the receiving railroad, and that has missed its scheduled window for arrival.
(ii) If Chicago terminal yards not identified in § 1250.2(b)(1) are included in the Chicago Transportation Coordination Office's (CTCO) assessment of the fluidity of the gateway for purposes of implementing service contingency measures, then the data requested in § 1250.2(b)(1) shall also be reported for those yards.
(b) The Class I railroad members of the CTCO (or one Class I railroad member of the CTCO designated to file on behalf of all Class I railroad members, or AAR) must:
(1) File a written notice with the Board when the CTCO changes its operating Alert Level status, within one business day of that change in status.
(2) If the CTCO revises its protocol of service contingency measures, file with the Board a detailed explanation of the new protocol, including both triggers and countermeasures, within seven days of its adoption.
(c) Reports under paragraph (b) of this section shall be reported to the Director of the Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs and Compliance (OPAGAC) via the method and in the form prescribed by OPAGAC.
(a) Class I railroads shall submit annually a narrative report of significant rail infrastructure projects that will be commenced during the current calendar year, and a six-month update on those projects. The reports should briefly describe each project, its purpose, location (state/counties), and projected date of completion.
(b) A “significant rail infrastructure project” is defined as a project with anticipated expenditures of $75 million or more over the life of the project.
(c) The narrative report should be submitted no later than March 1 of each calendar year and the update no later than September 1 of each calendar year via email to the Board's Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs and Compliance (OPAGAC) via the method and in the form prescribed by OPAGAC. In the event that March 1 or September 1 is a Federal holiday, weekend, or falls on a day when STB offices are closed for any other reason, then the data should be reported on the next business day when the offices are open.
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Proposed rule.
This proposed rule would change the reporting of export certificate information under regulations issued pursuant to the Export Apple Act (7 CFR part 33) and the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 CFR part 35). This change would require shippers of apples and grapes exported from the United States to electronically enter an Export Form Certificate number or a USDA-defined exemption code into the Automated Export System (AES). This rule would also define “shipper,” shift the current file retention requirement from carriers to shippers, and require shippers to provide, upon request, copies of the certificates to the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS). These changes would enable AMS to track exported apple and grape shipments to ensure that exports meet inspection and certification requirements. This action is also required to support the International Trade Data System (ITDS), a key White House economic initiative that will automate the filing of export and import information by the trade. This proposal would also remove obsolete regulations and make clarifying changes. It also announces AMS' intention to request revision to a currently approved information collection for exported apples and grapes.
Comments must be received by January 4, 2017.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments concerning this proposal. Comments must be sent to the Docket Clerk, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Fax: (202) 720-8938; or Internet:
Shannon Ramirez, Compliance and Enforcement Specialist, or Vincent Fusaro, Compliance and Enforcement Branch Chief, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
Small businesses may request information on complying with this regulation by contacting Antoinette Carter, Marketing Order and Agreement Division, Specialty Crops Program, AMS, USDA, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., STOP 0237, Washington, DC 20250-0237; Telephone: (202) 720-2491, Fax: (202) 720-8938, or Email:
This proposed rule is issued under the Export Apple Act (7 U.S.C. 581-590) and the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 U.S.C. 591-599) (together hereinafter referred to as the “Export Fruit Acts”). The Export Fruit Acts promote foreign trade of U.S.-grown fruit by authorizing the implementation of regulations related to quality, container markings, and inspection requirements. These regulations are contained in 7 CFR part 33 (Regulations Issued under the Export Apple Act) and 7 CFR part 35 (Export Grapes and Plums).
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility. This action has been designated as a “non-significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has waived the review process.
This action has been reviewed in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments. The review reveals that this regulation would not have substantial and direct effects on Tribal governments and would not have significant Tribal implications.
This proposed rule has been reviewed under Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform. This proposed rule is not intended to have retroactive effect and shall not abrogate nor nullify any other regulations, whether State or Federal, dealing with the same subjects. It is intended that all such regulations shall remain in full force and effect except in so far as they are inconsistent herewith or repugnant hereto (7 U.S.C. 587; 7 U.S.C. 597).
The Export Fruit Acts provide for administrative proceedings that must be exhausted before parties may file suit in court. Pursuant to 7 U.S.C. 586 and sections 33.13 and 33.14 of the regulations (for apples) and 7 U.S.C. 596 and sections 35.14 and 35.15 of the regulations (for grapes), any person subject to the Export Fruit Acts may file with USDA a request for hearing, along with a written responsive answer to alleged violations of the provisions of the Export Fruit Acts and regulations, no later than 10 days after service of notice of alleged violations. After opportunity for hearing, the Secretary is
This proposed rule would change the reporting of export certificate information under regulations issued pursuant to both the Export Apple Act and the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 CFR part 33, “Regulations Issued Under Authority of the Export Apple Act,” and 7 CFR part 35, “Export Grapes and Plums,” respectively). Shippers of apples and grapes exported from the United States subject to inspection would be required to enter the certificate number from inspection certificates (
This proposed rule would also define “shipper” and would remove the requirement that carriers of exported apples and grapes retain certificates on file (because the requirement to retain the certificates would shift to shippers of exported apples and grapes). It would also remove regulations that are no longer applicable to grape exports and add structure and language to clarify the regulations.
Plums are not currently regulated under the Export Grape and Plum Act; therefore, this change would not impact shipments of plums exported from the United States. If plums exported from the United States are regulated in the future under the Export Grape and Plum Act, the reporting of export certificate information similar to what is being proposed herein for exported grapes and apples would be proposed.
Sections 33.11(a) and 35.12(b) of the regulations issued under the Export Fruit Acts for apples and grapes, respectively, specify that, prior to export, the fruit must be inspected by the Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service (unless the fruit is otherwise exempted from inspection under the Export Fruit Acts). These sections further specify that Export Form Certificates must be issued by the inspection service and must contain a statement indicating the fruit meets the requirements of the Export Fruit Acts. Additionally, these sections currently require that shippers provide a copy of the certificates to the export carrier or, in those instances where the fruit is inspected and certified at any location other than the port of exportation, to the agent of the first carrier who transports the fruit to port for exportation. These two sections also currently contain requirements related to the retention of certificates by export carriers and spray residue tolerance.
Section 33.12 of the export apple regulations specifies those apples that are not subject to regulation, including apples shipped to Canada in bulk containers (§ 33.12(d)), which are containers that hold a quantity of apples weighing more than 100 pounds.
Sections 33.2 and 33.4 of the export apple regulations and §§ 35.2 and 35.4 of the export grape regulations define “person” and “carrier,” respectively. The term “shipper” is used in parts 33 and 35 but is not currently defined in either of those regulations.
The Foreign Relations Authorization Act (FRAA) (Pub. L. 107-228) authorizes regulations requiring that all persons who are required to file export information under Chapter 9 of Title 13 of the U.S. Code (Collection and Publication of Foreign Commerce and Trade Statistics) file such information through the Automated Export System (AES) for all shipments where a paper Shipper's Export Declaration was previously required. As such, shippers of most U.S.-grown apples and grapes are required to electronically file export shipment information in AES.
AES is a joint venture between U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) and the U.S. Census Bureau (Census) that was implemented in phases, starting in 1995. It is a nationwide system, available at all U.S. ports, that serves as a central point for the electronic collection of export data that are used by several different Federal government agencies including Census and CBP. Census regulations issued under the authority of the FRAA and related to AES include the Foreign Trade Regulations (15 CFR part 30) and the Export Clearance Requirements (15 CFR part 758).
AMS is responsible for enforcing the regulations under the Export Fruit Acts, including verifying that exported apples and grapes that are subject to regulation are inspected and certified as meeting quality requirements. However, the Export Fruit Acts regulations do not currently require that shippers provide AMS with information about inspected and certified fruit.
AMS has determined that access to the Census Bureau's AES data would allow AMS to monitor compliance with and enforce the regulations issued under the Export Fruit Acts. As a result, AMS and Census have entered into a Memorandum of Understanding that will give AMS access to certain specific data in the AES related to apple and grape exports, including an Export Form Certificate number that is associated with each lot of inspected and certified fruit or, in lieu of a certificate number, a USDA-defined exemption code (BULK CONTRS) for apples shipped to Canada in bulk containers.
For those apples and grapes subject to inspection, information about each inspected lot of apples or grapes is noted on an Export Form Certificate (FV-205 or FV-207 paper form; FV-205e and FV-207e electronic form) that is completed by an inspector. In addition to stating whether the lot meets the export requirements, the certificate also contains information about the date and place of inspection; the name of the applicant; and the quantity, variety, and identification marks of the lot. The certificate is provided to the shipper and is identified with a unique certificate number. The inspection service that inspects and certifies the export shipment will also electronically maintain the certificate information.
AMS believes that the most effective way to verify that apple and grape exports meet export inspection and certification requirements would be to have shippers enter the unique Export Form Certificate numbers into the AES. AMS would then verify the validity of a certificate number by cross-referencing it and the associated shipment information with inspection data (
Some exported apples and grapes are exempt from the inspection requirements of the Export Fruit Acts regulations pursuant to § 33.12 for apples and §§ 35.12 and 35.13 for grapes. In most instances, information about a shipment (
In comparison, if a shipment of apples weighing 6,000 pounds in bulk containers is destined for Canada, the shipper's entry of that shipment's weight and destination into AES would trigger the requirement that the shipper enter an Export Form Certificate number because the weight and destination of the shipment would meet the parameters associated with mandatory inspection. However, apples in bulk containers destined for Canada are exempt from inspection requirements pursuant to § 33.12(d). Currently, there is no mechanism within AES that will recognize this exemption, so USDA has created a special exemption code (BULK CONTRS) that shippers of these apples would enter in the Export Form Certificate field in lieu of a certificate number. Entry of this special USDA-defined exemption code would enable shippers of apples in bulk containers destined for Canada to complete the entry of information in AES.
In the future, AMS intends to work with Census to develop a new harmonized tariff schedule (HTS) code specifically for exported apples in bulk containers that are destined for Canada. Once this HTS code is developed, shippers would enter that code into AES, which would signal to AES that the shipment is exempt and would therefore not require entry of the special exemption code. Once this new HTS code becomes available, changes to the regulations would be proposed to remove the requirement to enter the special BULK CONTRS exemption code.
As noted earlier, most shippers are accustomed to entering data about exports into AES to create mandatory Electronic Export Information (EEI) about each shipment. There are various methods for filing EEI into AES, such as through AES-certified software from a third-party vendor or through AES
This proposed action would also require a shipper to maintain and submit, upon request, a paper or electronic copy of the Export Form Certificate to AMS. As previously noted, AMS would compare EEI from AES against inspection information from its SCI Division. However, there could be instances when AMS might need further verification of inspection and would, therefore, need to request a copy of the Export Form Certificate from the shipper. For example, if a certificate number in AES does not match any certificate numbers in SCI-provided data, AMS might require that the shipper provide a copy of an Export Form Certificate to AMS so that the information on that certificate could be compared against the EEI from AES. These proposed changes would give AMS the ability to track exports of apples and grapes to confirm that quality requirements are being met. Accordingly, this requirement would be added to the Export Fruit Acts regulations in § 33.11(c) for apples and § 35.12(c) for grapes.
In conjunction with these proposed new recordkeeping requirements, this proposed action would also remove the requirement in § 33.11(a) for apples and § 35.12(c) for grapes that carriers of exported fruit retain a copy of the Export Form Certificate. This requirement would no longer be necessary for AMS compliance monitoring because, as proposed herein, shippers would be required to retain a copy of the certificate (and upon request, the shipper would be required to provide such copy, electronically or in paper form, to AMS).
Changing the Export Fruit Acts regulations to provide for the electronic entry of an Export Form Certificate number supports the International Trade Data System (ITDS), a key White House economic initiative that has been under development for over ten years and is mandated for completion by December 31, 2016 (pursuant to Executive Order 13659,
By the end of 2016, the ITDS “single window” will be presented to the export and import trade through CBP's Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) platform. ACE will be the primary system through which the global trading community will file information about imports and exports so that admissibility into the U.S. may be determined and government agencies may monitor compliance.
In March 2014, AES functionality was incorporated into ACE, and export transactions are now processed in ACE. The migration of AES functionality to ACE was, for the most part, transparent to filers of export shipment data. This system migration supports the ITDS “single window” because, as noted earlier, ACE will be the system primarily used by the trade community to file import and export shipment data, with the functionality of AES embedded within that system.
Prior to the implementation of the ITDS “single window,” CBP is requiring that the 47 partnering government agencies (PGAs) that are participating in the ITDS project, including AMS, ensure that agency regulations provide for the electronic entry of export and/or import information.
AMS' Marketing Order and Agreement Division (MOAD) is currently developing the functionality of a new automated system called the Compliance and Enforcement Management System (CEMS) that will store and analyze data in support of ITDS. CEMS will receive export data from the ACE system that will be utilized in monitoring compliance with regulations under the Export Fruit Acts.
The revised reporting requirements for exported apples and grapes will meet CBP's requirements for ITDS/ACE by providing for the electronic entry of the Export Form Certificate number (or the special BULK CONTRS exemption code, when applicable).
In addition to the previously described changes, this action would make changes to update and clarify the regulations. First, a definition of
Additionally, gender-specific language would be changed from “he” to “he or she” in new § 33.11(d) and § 35.12(e).
In addition, existing § 35.12(d) would be removed because it is no longer needed. The requirements in § 35.12(d) were enacted to fulfill provision 2 of the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 U.S.C. 592), which provides that grapes could be shipped in fulfillment of contracts that were entered into prior to the effective date of the Export Grape and Plum Act regulations, as long as those grapes were shipped within 2 months of the date of the contracts. The intent of § 35.12(d) was to provide exporters with an opportunity to meet prior contractual obligations and comply with the newly enacted regulations without meeting additional requirements. Because the need for § 35.12(d) no longer exists, this section would be removed.
Finally, in addition to new paragraphs being added to §§ 33.11 and 33.12, existing §§ 33.11(a) and 35.12(b)(2) would be reorganized into multiple paragraphs in an effort to make the regulations easier to read, understand, and follow. Adding additional requirements to already lengthy paragraphs might cause confusion and misunderstanding; therefore, reorganization was deemed to be appropriate. To further improve the overall readability of §§ 33.11 and 35.12, headings would also be added at the beginning of each paragraph to help the reader quickly identify the paragraph's content.
Pursuant to requirements set forth in the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601-612), the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) has considered the economic impact of this action on small entities. Accordingly, AMS has prepared this initial regulatory flexibility analysis.
The purpose of the RFA is to fit regulatory actions to the scale of businesses subject to such actions in order that small businesses will not be unduly or disproportionately burdened. Small agricultural service firms, including shippers and carriers, are defined by the Small Business Administration (SBA) as those having annual receipts of less than $7,500,000, and small agricultural producers are defined as those having annual receipts of less than $750,000 (13 CFR 121.201).
This proposed rule would change the reporting of export certificate information under regulations issued pursuant to the Export Apple Act and the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 CFR part 33, “Regulations Issued Under Authority of the Export Apple Act,” and 7 CFR part 35, “Export Grapes and Plums,” respectively) by requiring shippers of apples and grapes exported from the United States to enter into AES the certificate numbers of Export Form Certificates for such exports (or, in lieu of certificate numbers, the exemption code BULK CONTRS for apples in bulk bins destined for Canada). It would also require shippers to provide, upon request, paper or electronic copies of the certificates to AMS. It would also remove the requirement that carriers retain copies of the certificates. Plums are not currently regulated under 7 CFR part 35, so this change has no impact on exporters or carriers of plums.
Requiring shippers of apples and grapes to electronically enter an export certificate number (or the BULK CONTRS exemption code) would have very little impact on them. The certificate number is currently provided to shippers on the certificate they receive from the Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service, and AMS is providing the special BULK CONTRS exemption code to shippers for those instances when it is required. Also, shippers already use AES to enter Electronic Export Information (EEI) about shipments, currently approved for collection under OMB No. 0607-0152, and entry of the certificate number or exemption code would be part of that EEI process.
Finally, shippers currently provide copies of Export Form Certificates to other parties, such as carriers, as required by the Export Fruit Acts regulations. Therefore, requiring shippers to provide AMS with a copy of an Export Form Certificate (upon request, when other methods of compliance verification are not available to AMS) would be a usual and customary practice. This proposed action would also require that shippers maintain certificates (electronic or paper) on file for a minimum of three (3) years in the event AMS would require that a shipper provide proof of inspection for compliance purposes. Maintaining records, such as export certificates, is a standard business practice and, therefore, should not have a major economic impact on shippers.
These proposed changes would create a minimal burden on shippers while providing AMS with the ability to properly monitor export shipments for compliance with the regulations.
Removing the requirement that carriers of exported apples and grapes retain copies of inspection certificates (Export Form Certificates) would reduce the recordkeeping burden on those carriers.
According to apple industry statistics, there are approximately 60 shippers of exported apples subject to regulation under the Export Apple Act. USDA's Foreign Agricultural Service (FAS) data estimates the value of fresh apple exports subject to regulation in 2015 was approximately $1.0 billion. Therefore, the estimated receipts for shippers of exported apples is well over $7,500,000.
According to grape industry information, there are approximately 14 shippers of exported grapes subject to regulation under the Export Grape and Plum Act. Data provided by FAS indicate that the estimated value of grape exports in 2015 that were subject to these regulations was $512 million. Therefore, the estimated receipts for shippers of exported grapes is well over $7,500,000.
USDA estimates there are approximately 15 carriers of exported apples and 5 carriers of exported grapes that would be impacted by the lessening of regulatory requirements proposed by this action. USDA does not have access to data about the business sizes of these carriers.
Based on the above information, it may be concluded that a majority of shippers of exported apples and grapes would not be classified as small businesses. USDA is unable to make a determination about whether carriers of exported apples and grapes could be classified as small businesses.
This proposed rule is issued under the authority of the Export Apple Act (7 U.S.C. 581-590), and the Export Grape and Plum Act (7 U.S.C. 591-599). This proposed rule proposes changing “Regulations Issued under Authority of the Export Apple Act” (7 CFR part 33) and “Export Grapes and Plums” (7 CFR part 35). This action would require shippers of apples and grapes exported from the United States to enter the Export Form Certificate number for those exports into the U.S. Census Bureau's Automated Export System (AES) (or, in lieu of a certificate number, to enter exemption code BULK CONTRS for apples in bulk containers destined for Canada). It would also require shippers to maintain and provide, upon request, a paper or electronic copy of the Export Form Certificate to AMS and would remove the requirement that carriers retain copies of the certificates. These changes to the reporting requirements would allow AMS to
There are estimated to be 60 shippers of U.S.-grown apples, 14 shippers of U.S.-grown grapes, and 20 carriers of these apples and grapes subject to the Export Fruit Acts regulations. The shippers currently receive copies of Export Form Certificates from the Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service upon completion of an inspection of apples or grapes destined for export. The regulations currently require that the shippers provide copies of the certificates to the export carriers who transport the fruit, and these carriers are, in turn, required to keep these certificates on file for at least three years following the date of export. The burden of recordkeeping for the maintenance of these certificates is currently approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under OMB No. 0581-0143, “Export Fruit Acts” (7 U.S.C. 581-590 and 7 U.S.C. 591-599).
Regarding alternatives to this proposed action, AMS considered making no changes to the Export Fruit Acts regulations. However, AMS determined that having the Export Form Certificate number for apples and grapes exported from the United States is necessary for monitoring compliance of these shipments with the regulations. AMS also considered not requiring shippers of apples in bulk containers destined for Canada to enter a special USDA-defined exemption code in lieu of a certificate number. However, until a new HTS code is created for these exempt apples, shipments of bulk containers of apples destined for Canada will require entry of data in the AES export certificate number field; therefore, the BULK CONTRS exemption code would enable shippers of these apples to complete the electronic entry of export data in AES.
AMS also considered requiring shippers to provide AMS with a paper or electronic copy of all Export Form Certificates (rather than just upon request) but determined that entering the certificate number in AES would be less burdensome for shippers. AMS also determined that this change would meet CBP's requirement that all government agencies who are partnering with CBP on the ITDS project (including AMS) update their regulations to provide for the electronic entry of export and import shipment data.
AMS also considered not requesting a shipper to submit a copy of an Export Form Certificate upon request; however, there may be some unique cases where additional verification of compliance would be required if AES or SCI data were not sufficient.
Finally, AMS considered keeping the requirement that carriers maintain copies of the Export Form Certificates on file; however, AMS determined that the other changes proposed herein would make this requirement redundant and burdensome. Therefore, alternatives to this proposed rule were rejected.
This proposed rule would revise the information collection currently approved under OMB No. 0581-0143 by increasing the existing recordkeeping burden on shippers and reducing the existing recordkeeping burden on carriers. These changes in burden will be further explained in the Paperwork Reduction Act section below.
AMS is responsible for enforcing the regulations of the Export Fruit Acts, including verification that export shipments of apples and grapes meet quality requirements. Currently, the regulations do not require shippers of these export fruits to provide AMS with proof of inspection and certification compliance. Without this proposed change to the regulations, AMS will lack the ability to effectively meet its duty of enforcement.
AMS is committed to complying with the E-Government Act, to promote the use of the Internet and other information technologies to provide increased opportunities for citizen access to Government information and services, and for other purposes.
USDA has not identified any relevant Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with this proposed rule.
A small business guide on complying with fruit, vegetable, and specialty crop marketing agreements and orders may be viewed at:
A 30-day comment period is provided to allow interested persons to respond to this proposal. Thirty days is deemed appropriate because (1) the export industry is fully aware of ITDS and its goal to streamline and automate paper-based processes and has attended annual ITDS Trade Support Network plenary sessions conducted by the U.S. government over the past few years, and (2) CPB is requiring the timely update of import and export regulations to meet the ITDS electronic data submission requirement. All written comments timely received will be considered before a final determination is made on this matter.
All written comments timely received will be considered before a final determination is made on this matter.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), AMS announces its intention to submit a revision to a currently approved information collection.
Under the Export Fruit Acts regulations, unless otherwise exempted by those Acts, each shipment of fresh apples and grapes must be inspected by the Federal or Federal-State Inspection Service to ensure the fruit meets quality and other requirements effective under the Acts. This inspection and certification must occur prior to export. If the inspection service determines that a lot of apples or grapes intended for export meets the applicable quality requirements, the inspector completes an Export Form Certificate (currently, a paper FV-207 or electronic FV-207e for non-Canadian export destinations and a paper FV-205 or electronic FV-205e for exports to Canada), certifying the fruit meets quality export requirements and providing shipping identification information. This certificate is provided to the shipper of the apples or grapes. In turn, the shipper must then provide a copy of the certificate to the export carrier or, if the fruit is inspected and certified somewhere other than the port of exportation, to the agent of the first carrier who transports the fruit to port for exportation. Currently, export carriers must keep these certificate copies on file for at least three years after the date of export.
A shipper does not currently complete any form or file with USDA any form or form-related information as part of this inspection and certification process.
This proposed action would establish a requirement that shippers enter the Export Form Certificate number assigned to each inspection certificate into the Automated Export System (AES), an existing system that facilitates
In addition, this proposed action would require shippers to maintain and provide, upon request, a paper or electronic copy of the Export Form Certificate to MOAD when needed to monitor compliance with regulations. MOAD anticipates that the majority of its compliance monitoring would be accomplished by verifying the Export Form Certificate number and other EEI entered by a shipper into AES against inspection data provided by SCI; however, when needed, MOAD would request copies of these certificates from shippers to help verify that apple and grape exports meet export inspection and certification requirements.
Finally, this proposed action would remove the requirement that carriers retain a copy of the Export Form Certificate. As noted above, this action would add a requirement that a shipper maintain and provide to MOAD, upon request, a paper or electronic copy of the certificate. MOAD would require a shipper to submit a copy of the certificate in those cases when it would be needed to monitor compliance. Because shippers would be responsible for maintaining and submitting the certificates, upon request, MOAD would no longer require a carrier to retain a copy of these certificates for its compliance purposes.
A shipper's failure to provide proof of compliance to MOAD could result in a compliance investigation and legal action, if warranted.
The information collection under OMB No. 0581-0143 was last approved in 2013. On June 14, 2016, AMS published a 60-day Notice in the
The currently approved collection authorizes the use of FV-207 (inspection certificate for export shipments bound for non-Canadian destinations). In the 2016 renewal, AMS added the FV-205 form (inspection certificate for Canadian-bound export shipments) that is also used by SCI (the FV-205 was not previously approved under this or any other OMB collection) and revised it to combine information from the existing FV-205 and FV-207 forms. As a result, the existing FV-207 will be discontinued. In the 2016 renewal, AMS is also seeking OMB approval to decrease the burden per certificate from the currently approved 15 minutes to 5 minutes. This is sufficient time to complete the related recordkeeping actions.
In the last renewal of the collection in 2013, it was reported that a total of 102 respondents (68 shippers and 15 carriers for exported apples, and 14 shippers and 5 carriers for exported grapes) use FV-207. Current industry data indicate a slight reduction in the estimated number of export apple shippers (60) but no changes in the estimated number of export grape shippers (14) or carriers of export apples (15) and grapes (5).
The 2013 renewal reported the number of certificates per year to be approximately one response per respondent. This suggested that there were only 102 certificates issued per year. This was reported in error, and the 2016 renewal provides more accurate figures. USDA's Foreign Agricultural Service estimates that, for the five-year period 2011-2015, the average number of export apple and grape shipments requiring inspection per year was 42,326 for apples and 10,462 for grapes, for a total five-year average of 52,788 certificates per year that would need to be maintained.
Based on this information and the proposed decreased burden per certificate, the 2016 renewal estimates a total recordkeeping burden of 4,381 hours, an increase of 4,356 burden hours from the currently approved 25 burden hours.
In addition, AMS estimates it may require shippers to submit approximately 10 percent of these certificates (5,279) upon request. The estimated burden for maintaining the revised FV-205 form certificates as well as for submitting an estimated 10 percent of those certificates to AMS, when requested, would be 5 minutes, which is less than the current 15-minute recordkeeping burden. As a result of this action, the information collection package would be revised to reflect a total estimated recordkeeping burden of 4,837 hours. Since carriers would no longer be required to keep copies of the certificates, the current recordkeeping burden for carriers of apples and grapes would be removed. AMS would submit a Justification for Change to OMB for approval that encompasses these revisions.
As noted earlier, the FV-205 form is being revised to combine the information contained on the existing FV-205 and FV-207 forms; this change will result in discontinuance of the FV-207 form. The FV-205 update also adds instructions for the shipper regarding entry of the Export Form Certificate number in AES for exported apples and grapes and revises the text to include a burden statement and other minor modifications, such as updating the program name in the form heading. SCI will continue to use the existing electronic versions of the forms (FV-205e and FV-207e) until SCI's Fresh Electronic Inspection Reporting System (FEIRS) is modified to reflect the data contained in the revised FV-205 form. FEIRS allows inspectors to electronically enter and report inspection data; it is able to electronically transmit a certificate to an email address or fax number, or the certificate may be printed. Once the necessary FEIRS revisions are completed to enable entry of data to the revised FV-205e form, the FV-207e form will be discontinued.
Comments are invited on: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information
AMS is committed to compliance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act, which requires government agencies in general to provide the public with the option of submitting information or transacting business electronically to the maximum extent possible.
Apples, Exports, Pears, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Grapes, Plums, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, AMS proposes to amend 7 CFR parts 33 and 35 as follows:
48 Stat. 124; 7 U.S.C. 581-590.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
74 Stat. 734; 75 Stat. 220; 7 U.S.C. 591-599.
(a)
(b)
(1) For any variety meeting specifications of paragraph (a) of § 35.11 “Meets requirements of Export Grape and Plum Act” or (2) For any variety meeting specifications of paragraph (b) of § 35.11 “Meets requirements of Export Grape and Plum Act except for export to destinations in Europe, Greenland, or Japan.” No carrier shall transport or receive for transportation any such variety to any foreign destination other than Canada or Mexico unless a copy of the Export Form Certificate issued thereon showing that the grapes meet requirements for the applicable export destination is surrendered to such carrier when such variety is received.
(c)
(d)
(e)
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Department of Energy.
Reopening of public comment period.
On September 23, 2016, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) published a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (SNOPR) and announcement of public meeting pertaining to proposed energy conservation standards for residential furnaces in the
The comment period for the supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking published on September 23, 2016 (81 FR 65719) is reopened. DOE will accept comments, data, and information regarding this rulemaking received no later than January 6, 2017.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The docket Web page can be found at:
Mr. John Cymbalsky, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, Building Technologies Program, EE-2J, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-1692. Email:
Ms. Johanna Jochum, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of the General Counsel, GC-33, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0121. Telephone: (202) 287-6307. Email:
On September 2, 2016, DOE issued a pre-publication supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking (September 2016 SNOPR) pertaining to proposed energy conservation standards for residential furnaces on the Appliance and Equipment Standards Web page
Following publication in the
In view of the requests for an additional comment period extension for the September 2016 SNOPR, DOE has determined that a reopening of the public comment period and a 45-day extension to January 6, 2017 for the September 2016 SNOPR is appropriate. The comment period is reopened until January 6, 2017. DOE further notes that any submissions of comments or other information submitted between the original comment end date and January 6, 2017 will be deemed timely filed.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by reports indicating in-flight valve failure of the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve. This proposed AD would require replacing the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 19, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Stanley Chen, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6585; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received reports indicating in-flight valve failure of the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve. These valves can fail in their open positions causing elevated temperatures in the flight deck or the passenger cabin during cruise. Operators have reported events where they were unable to control the flight deck and passenger cabin temperatures during cruise. This condition, if not corrected, could result in temperatures in excess of 100 degrees Fahrenheit in the flight deck or the passenger cabin during cruise, which
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-21A1203, dated June 8, 2016. The service information describes procedures for replacing the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve, part number 398908-4, with new part number 398908-3 or 398908-5. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 319 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 19, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-800, -900, and -900ER series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-21A1203, dated June 8, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 21, Air conditioning.
This AD was prompted by reports indicating in-flight valve failure of the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve. We are issuing this AD to prevent temperatures in excess of 100 degrees Fahrenheit in the flight deck or the passenger cabin during cruise, which could lead to the impairment of the flightcrew and consequent risk of loss of continued safe flight and landing.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, replace the left temperature control valve and control cabin trim air modulating valve, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-21A1203, dated June 8, 2016.
As of the effective date of this AD, no person may install a temperature control valve, part number 398908-4, on either the left temperature control valve location or the control cabin trim air modulating valve location on any Model 737-800, -900, or -900ER airplane.
Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-21A1203, dated June 8, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact: Stanley Chen, Aerospace Engineer, Cabin Safety and Environmental Systems Branch, ANM-150S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6585; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, and -900 series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the web lap splices in the aft pressure bulkhead are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections of the web lap splices in the aft pressure bulkhead for cracking of the fastener holes, and repair if necessary. We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 19, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Alan Pohl, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6450; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as widespread fatigue damage. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
Analysis by the DAH has determined that the web lap splices in the aft pressure bulkhead are susceptible to WFD for certain Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, and -900 series airplanes. This cracking, if left undetected, could result in possible rapid decompression and loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
During in-service inspections of a 737-300 aft pressure bulkhead, one operator reported two cracks on the web lap splices outside the specified inspection area. Since Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, and -900 series airplanes have a similar structural design for the aft pressure bulkhead, cracks could develop in the same location on these airplanes.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016. The service information describes procedures for a low frequency eddy current inspection to detect cracking of each web lap splice of the aft pressure bulkhead at the fastener row common to the stiffener, and a high frequency eddy current inspection to detect cracking of each web lap splice of the aft pressure bulkhead at the fastener row not common to the stiffener. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of these same type designs.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Difference Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.”
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed AD would require using repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 693 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 19, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-600, -700, -700C, -800, and -900 series airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the web lap splices in the aft pressure bulkhead are subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks of the web lap splices in the aft pressure bulkhead, which could result in possible rapid decompression and loss of structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraph (h) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016: Do a low frequency eddy current (LFEC) inspection to detect cracking of each web lap splice of the aft pressure bulkhead at the fastener row common to the stiffener, and a high frequency eddy current (HFEC) inspection to detect cracking of each web lap splice of the aft pressure bulkhead at the fastener row not common to the stiffener, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016.
(1) If no crack is found: Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016.
(2) If any crack is found: Do the actions specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) and (g)(2)(ii) of this AD.
(i) Repair the crack before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (i) of this AD. Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016, specifies to contact Boeing for repair instructions, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair as specified in this paragraph.
(ii) On areas that are not repaired, repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016.
Where paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1353, dated July 21, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the Original Issue date of this Service Bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as RC, the provisions of paragraphs (i)(4)(i) and (i)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Alan Pohl, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6450; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all The Boeing Company Model MD-90-30 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of cracking in a horizontal stabilizer rear spar cap. This proposed AD would require repetitive open hole eddy current high frequency (ETHF) or surface eddy current low frequency (ETLF) inspections for any crack in the left and right side horizontal stabilizer rear spar upper caps, and repair or replacement if necessary. We are proposing this AD to prevent the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by January 19, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Haytham Alaidy, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5224; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
We have received a report of cracking in an MD-90 horizontal stabilizer rear spar cap at station XE = +/−5.931. The affected airplane had accumulated 36,588 total flight hours and 24,975 total landing cycles. Without routine inspections, such cracks could grow to critical length before being detected. This condition, if not corrected, could result in fatigue cracking of the horizontal stabilizer rear spar upper cap, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016. The service information describes procedures for repetitive open hole ETHF or surface ETLF inspections for any crack in the left and right side horizontal stabilizer rear spar upper caps common to the elevator hinge fitting at station XE = +/−5.931, and repair or replacement. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously. For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 105 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary repairs or replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions:
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by January 19, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to all The Boeing Company Model MD-90-30 airplanes, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 55, Stabilizers.
This AD was prompted by a report of cracking in a horizontal stabilizer rear spar cap at station XE = +/−5.931. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking of the horizontal stabilizer rear spar upper cap, which could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD, at the applicable times specified in table 1 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016: Do either an open hole eddy current high frequency (ETHF) or a surface eddy current low frequency (ETLF) inspection for any crack in the left and right side horizontal stabilizer rear spar upper caps common to the elevator hinge fitting at station XE = +/−5.931, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016, except as required by paragraph (i) of this AD. Repeat the inspection thereafter at the time specified in tables 1 through 4, as applicable, of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, repair or replace before further flight in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016.
Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin MD90-55A018, dated June 29, 2016, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or sub-step is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or sub-step. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Haytham Alaidy, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5224; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Tribal consultation; reopening of comment period.
On June 20, 2016, the Bureau of Indian Affairs announced Tribal consultation on potential updates to probate regulations and announced that it would accept written comments until August 1, 2016. We are reopening the comment period to allow additional time for Tribal and public comment and will accept all comments received before January 4, 2017.
The comment period announced on June 20, 2016 (81 FR 39874) is reopened. Written comments must be received by January 4, 2017.
You may submit comments by one of the following methods:
•
•
Ms. Elizabeth Appel, Director, Office of Regulatory Affairs and Collaborative Action, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs; telephone (202) 273-4680,
As described below, we have identified three areas for modification that will have an immediate impact in streamlining the probate process. We are seeking comments with regard to the following topics, and welcome insight on other aspects of the probate regulatory framework that could be improved.
The regulation, at 25 CFR 15.301, currently establishes a monetary limit of $1,000 for distribution of Individual Indian Money (IIM) account funds to pay for funeral expenses. There is an ongoing concern that $1,000 is not sufficient to pay for funeral expenses. While individuals may submit funeral related claims to be paid from estate account funds at any time before the conclusion of the first hearing by the Office of Hearings and Appeals (OHA), the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BIA) is aware that family members sometimes suffer financial hardship and lengthy delays as the estate is finalized and claims are approved.
Revisions under consideration:
• The BIA is considering a modification to this subpart that would increase the amount of funds available to use for funeral expenses. One proposed modification would amend current regulations by increasing the amount an individual may request from the decedent's IIM to no more than $5,000 for funeral expenses. The account must still contain a minimum balance of $2,500 in order to approve an expense under this section.
• In the interests of preserving estate account funds for heirs and other claimants, an alternative option would be to likewise raise the maximum payout to $5,000,
The current regulation, at 43 CFR 30.126, requires a judge to issue a modification order if trust or restricted property belonging to a decedent is omitted from the inventory of an estate. As a result, it can take significant time to make minor estate inventory corrections to include omitted property.
Revision under consideration:
• The BIA is considering a regulatory modification to grant the BIA the authority to make estate inventory modifications when heirship has already been determined by an OHA order. The BIA would notify all interested parties to an estate in the event property interests were to be added. As in this current regulatory section, any modification that would result in property taking a different line of descent would still require OHA issuing a decision to re-determine heirs. For example, if adding property to a decedent's estate would cause that interest to become 5% or more of the parcel, and thus no longer subject to the American Indian Probate Reform Act's highly fractionated interest provisions, OHA would need to issue a new decision to re-determine descent and distribution of those interests. There would be no change to the requirement that any
The current regulation at 43 CFR 30.254 governs how a judge distributes a decedent's trust or restricted property when the decedent died without a valid will and has no heirs. The rule establishes different distributions based on whether 25 U.S.C. 2206(a) applies, but does not identify trust personalty as a stand-alone category of trust property for distribution (where there are no land interests in the decedent's estate or within the jurisdiction of any tribe).
Revision under consideration:
• A modification to this regulation would provide clear authority for OHA to order distribution of trust funds when there are either no land interests in a decedent's estate or no land interests within the jurisdiction of any tribe. Additionally, where the estate contains trust personalty associated with one tribe but interests in trust lands associated with another, OHA would order the trust personalty distributed to the tribe with sufficient nexus to the funds, as determined by the judge, and the land distributed to the tribe with jurisdiction over those interests.
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Notice of proposed rulemaking by cross-reference to temporary regulations.
In the Rules and Regulations section of this issue of the
Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by March 6, 2017.
Send submissions to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-102952-16), Room 5205, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to: CC:PA:LPD:PR (REG-102952-16), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20224, or sent electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at
Concerning the proposed regulations, Rachel L. Gregory, 202-317-6845; concerning submissions of comments and the hearing, Regina Johnson, 202-317-6901 (not toll-free numbers).
The collection of information in current § 1.6695-2 was previously reviewed and approved under control number 1545-1570. Control number 1545-1570 was discontinued in 2014, as the burden for the collection of information contained in § 1.6695-2 is reflected in the burden on Form 8867, “Paid Preparer's Due Diligence Checklist,” under control number 1545-1629.
Temporary regulations in the Rules and Regulations section of this issue of the
The text of those regulations also serves as the text of these proposed regulations. The preamble to the temporary regulations explains the amendments.
Certain IRS regulations, including this one, are exempt from the requirements of Executive Order 12866, as supplemented and reaffirmed by Executive Order 13563. Therefore, a regulatory assessment is not required.
Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. chapter 6), it is hereby certified that these proposed rules, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. When an agency issues a notice of proposed rulemaking, the RFA requires the agency to “prepare and make available for public comment an initial regulatory flexibility analysis” that will “describe the impact of the proposed rule on small entities.” (5 U.S.C. 603(a)). Section 605 of the RFA provides an exception to this requirement if the agency certifies that the proposed rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The proposed rules affect tax return preparers who determine the eligibility for, or the amount of, the EIC, the CTC/ACTC and/or the AOTC. The North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code that relates to tax return preparation services (NAICS code 541213) is the appropriate code for tax return preparers subject to this notice of proposed rulemaking. Entities identified as tax return preparation services are considered small under the Small Business Administration size standards (13 CFR 121.201) if their annual revenue is less than $20.5 million. The IRS estimates that approximately 75 to 85 percent of the 505,000 persons who work at firms or are self-employed tax return preparers are operating as or employed by small entities. The IRS has therefore determined that these proposed rules will have an impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The IRS has further determined, however, that the economic impact on entities affected by the proposed rules will not be significant. The current regulations under section 6695(g) already require tax return preparers to complete the Form 8867 when a return or claim for refund includes a claim of the EIC. Tax return preparers also must currently maintain records of the checklists and EIC computations, as well as a record of how and when the information used to compute the EIC was obtained by the tax return preparer.
Based on these facts, the IRS hereby certifies that the collection of information contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Accordingly, a Regulatory Flexibility Analysis is not required.
Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on the impact on small business.
Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any written comments (a signed original and eight (8) copies) or electronic comments that are timely submitted to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the
The principal author of this regulation is Rachel L. Gregory, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure & Administration).
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is proposed to be amended as follows:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(a) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(a) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(a) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(i) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(1)(i) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(1)(i) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(ii) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(1)(ii) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(1)(ii) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(2) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(2) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(2) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(3) * * *
(i) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(3)(i) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(3)(i) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(ii) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(3)(ii) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(3)(ii) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(4) * * *
(i) * * *
(B) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2(b)(4)(i)(B) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(4)(i)(B) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(C) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2T(b)(4)(i)(C) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(b)(4)(i)(C) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(c) * * *
(3) [The text of the proposed amendment to § 1.6695-2T(c)(3) is the same as the text of § 1.6695-2T(c)(3) published elsewhere in this issue of the
(e)
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to disapprove the visibility transport (prong 4) portion of a revision to the Alabama State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted by the Alabama Department of Environmental Management (ADEM), addressing the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) infrastructure SIP requirements for the 2008 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). The CAA requires that each state adopt and submit a SIP for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of each NAAQS promulgated by EPA, commonly referred to as an “infrastructure SIP.” Specifically, EPA is proposing to disapprove the prong 4 portion of Alabama's August 20, 2012, 2008 8-hour ozone infrastructure SIP submission. All other applicable infrastructure requirements for this SIP submission have been addressed in separate rulemakings.
Comments must be received on or before December 27, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No EPA-R04-OAR-2012-0689 at
Sean Lakeman of the Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Lakeman can be reached by telephone at (404) 562-9043 or via electronic mail at
By statute, SIPs meeting the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA are to be submitted by states within three years after promulgation of a new or revised NAAQS to provide for the implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the new or revised NAAQS. EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) require states to address basic SIP elements such as for monitoring, basic program requirements, and legal authority that are designed to assure attainment and maintenance of the newly established or revised NAAQS. More specifically, section 110(a)(1) provides the procedural and timing requirements for infrastructure SIPs. Section 110(a)(2) lists specific elements that states must meet for the infrastructure SIP requirements related to a newly established or revised NAAQS. The contents of an infrastructure SIP submission may vary depending upon the data and analytical tools available to the state, as well as the provisions already contained in the state's implementation plan at the time in which the state develops and submits the submission for a new or revised NAAQS.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) has two components: 110(a)(2)(D)(i) and 110(a)(2)(D)(ii). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) includes four distinct components, commonly referred to as “prongs,” that must be addressed in infrastructure SIP submissions. The first two prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I), prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment of the NAAQS in another state (prong 1) and from interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS in another state (prong 2). The third and fourth prongs, which are codified in section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), prohibit any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration of air quality in another state (prong 3) or from interfering with measures to protect visibility in another state (prong 4). Section 110(a)(2)(D)(ii) requires SIPs to include provisions insuring compliance with sections 115 and 126 of the Act, relating to international and interstate pollution abatement, respectively.
On March 12, 2008, EPA revised the 8-hour ozone NAAQS to 0.075 parts per million.
The requirement for states to make a SIP submission of this type arises out of section 110(a)(1). Pursuant to section 110(a)(1), states must make SIP submissions “within 3 years (or such shorter period as the Administrator may prescribe) after the promulgation of a national primary ambient air quality standard (or any revision thereof),” and these SIP submissions are to provide for the “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of such NAAQS. The statute directly imposes on states the duty to make these SIP submissions, and the requirement to make the submissions is not conditioned upon EPA's taking any action other than promulgating a new or revised NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) includes a list of specific elements that “each such plan” submission must address.
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of Title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of section 169A of the CAA, and nonattainment new source review permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, Title I, part D.
Section 110(a)(1) addresses the timing and general requirements for infrastructure SIP submissions and section 110(a)(2) provides more details concerning the required contents of these submissions. The list of required elements provided in section 110(a)(2) contains a wide variety of disparate provisions, some of which pertain to required legal authority, some of which pertain to required substantive program provisions, and some of which pertain to requirements for both authority and substantive program provisions.
The following examples of ambiguities illustrate the need for EPA to interpret some section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) requirements with respect to infrastructure SIP submissions for a given new or revised NAAQS. One example of ambiguity is that section 110(a)(2) requires that “each” SIP submission must meet the list of requirements therein, while EPA has long noted that this literal reading of the statute is internally inconsistent and would create a conflict with the nonattainment provisions in part D of Title I of the CAA, which specifically address nonattainment SIP requirements.
Another example of ambiguity within section 110(a)(1) and (2) with respect to infrastructure SIPs pertains to whether states must meet all of the infrastructure SIP requirements in a single SIP submission, and whether EPA must act upon such SIP submission in a single action. Although section 110(a)(1) directs states to submit “a plan” to meet these requirements, EPA interprets the CAA to allow states to make multiple SIP submissions separately addressing infrastructure SIP elements for the same NAAQS. If states elect to make such multiple SIP submissions to meet the infrastructure SIP requirements, EPA can elect to act on such submissions either individually or in a larger combined action.
Ambiguities within section 110(a)(1) and (2) may also arise with respect to infrastructure SIP submission requirements for different NAAQS. Thus, EPA notes that not every element of section 110(a)(2) would be relevant, or as relevant, or relevant in the same way, for each new or revised NAAQS. The states' attendant infrastructure SIP submissions for each NAAQS therefore could be different. For example, the monitoring requirements that a state might need to meet in its infrastructure SIP submission for purposes of section 110(a)(2)(B) could be very different for different pollutants, because the content and scope of a state's infrastructure SIP submission to meet this element might be very different for an entirely new NAAQS than for a minor revision to an existing NAAQS.
EPA notes that interpretation of section 110(a)(2) is also necessary when EPA reviews other types of SIP submissions required under the CAA. Therefore, as with infrastructure SIP submissions, EPA also has to identify and interpret the relevant elements of section 110(a)(2) that logically apply to these other types of SIP submissions. For example, section 172(c)(7) requires attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D to meet the “applicable requirements” of section 110(a)(2); thus, attainment plan SIP submissions must meet the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(A) regarding enforceable emission limits and control measures and section 110(a)(2)(E)(i) regarding air agency resources and authority. By contrast, it is clear that attainment plan SIP submissions required by part D would not need to meet the portion of section 110(a)(2)(C) that pertains to the PSD program required in part C of Title I of the CAA, because PSD does not apply to a pollutant for which an area is designated nonattainment and thus subject to part D planning requirements. As this example illustrates, each type of SIP submission may implicate some elements of section 110(a)(2) but not others.
Given the potential for ambiguity in some of the statutory language of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2), EPA believes that it is appropriate to interpret the ambiguous portion of section 110(a)(1) and section 110(a)(2) in the context of acting on a particular SIP submission. In other words, EPA assumes that Congress could not have intended that each and every SIP submission, regardless of the NAAQS in question or the history of SIP development for the relevant pollutant, would meet each of the requirements, or meet each of them in the same way. Therefore, EPA has adopted an approach under which it reviews infrastructure SIP submissions against the list of elements in section 110(a)(2), but only to the extent each element applies for that particular NAAQS.
Historically, EPA has elected to use guidance documents to make recommendations to states for infrastructure SIPs, in some cases conveying needed interpretations on newly arising issues and in some cases conveying interpretations that have already been developed and applied to individual SIP submissions for particular elements.
As an example, section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) is a required element of section 110(a)(2) for infrastructure SIP submissions. Under this element, a state must meet the substantive requirements of section 128, which pertain to state boards that approve permits or enforcement orders and heads of executive agencies with similar powers. Thus, EPA reviews infrastructure SIP submissions to ensure that the state's SIP appropriately addresses the requirements of section 110(a)(2)(E)(ii) and section 128. The 2013 Guidance explains EPA's interpretation that there may be a variety of ways by which states can appropriately address these substantive statutory requirements, depending on the structure of an individual state's permitting or enforcement program (
As another example, EPA's review of infrastructure SIP submissions with respect to the PSD program requirements in section 110(a)(2)(C), (D)(i)(II), and (J) focuses upon the structural PSD program requirements contained in part C and EPA's PSD regulations. Structural PSD program requirements include provisions necessary for the PSD program to address all regulated sources and NSR pollutants, including Greenhouse Gases (GHGs). By contrast, structural PSD program requirements do not include provisions that are not required under EPA's regulations at 40 CFR 51.166 but are merely available as an option for the state, such as the option to provide grandfathering of complete permit applications with respect to the PM
For other section 110(a)(2) elements, however, EPA's review of a state's infrastructure SIP submission focuses on assuring that the state's SIP meets basic structural requirements. For example, section 110(a)(2)(C) includes,
With respect to certain other issues, EPA does not believe that an action on a state's infrastructure SIP submission is necessarily the appropriate type of action in which to address possible deficiencies in a state's existing SIP. These issues include: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions from sources during periods of startup, shutdown, or malfunction (SSM) that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions;
EPA's approach to review of infrastructure SIP submissions is to identify the CAA requirements that are logically applicable to that submission. EPA believes that this approach to the review of a particular infrastructure SIP submission is appropriate, because it would not be reasonable to read the general requirements of section 110(a)(1) and the list of elements in section 110(a)(2) as requiring review of each and every provision of a state's existing SIP against all requirements in the CAA and EPA regulations merely for purposes of assuring that the state in question has the basic structural elements for a functioning SIP for a new or revised NAAQS. Because SIPs have grown by accretion over the decades as statutory and regulatory requirements under the CAA have evolved, they may
For example, EPA's 2013 Guidance gives simpler recommendations with respect to carbon monoxide than other NAAQS pollutants to meet the visibility requirements of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II), because carbon monoxide does not affect visibility. As a result, an infrastructure SIP submission for any future new or revised NAAQS for carbon monoxide need only state this fact in order to address the visibility prong of section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II).
Finally, EPA believes that its approach with respect to infrastructure SIP requirements is based on a reasonable reading of section 110(a)(1) and (2) because the CAA provides other avenues and mechanisms to address specific substantive deficiencies in existing SIPs. These other statutory tools allow EPA to take appropriately tailored action, depending upon the nature and severity of the alleged SIP deficiency. Section 110(k)(5) authorizes EPA to issue a “SIP call” whenever the Agency determines that a state's SIP is substantially inadequate to attain or maintain the NAAQS, to mitigate interstate transport, or to otherwise comply with the CAA.
Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires a state's SIP to contain provisions prohibiting sources in that state from emitting pollutants in amounts that interfere with any other state's efforts to protect visibility under part C of the CAA (which includes sections 169A and 169B). The 2013 Guidance states that these prong 4 requirements can be satisfied by approved SIP provisions that EPA has found to adequately address any contribution of that state's sources that impacts the visibility program requirements in other states. The 2013 Guidance also states that EPA interprets this prong to be pollutant-specific, such that the infrastructure SIP submission need only address the potential for interference with protection of visibility caused by the pollutant (including precursors) to which the new or revised NAAQS applies.
The 2013 Guidance lays out two ways in which a state's infrastructure SIP may satisfy prong 4. The first way is through an air agency's confirmation in its infrastructure SIP submission that it has an EPA-approved regional haze SIP that fully meets the requirements of 40 CFR 51.308 or 51.309. 40 CFR 51.308 and 51.309 specifically require that a state participating in a regional planning process include all measures needed to achieve its apportionment of emission reduction obligations agreed upon through that process. A fully approved regional haze SIP will ensure that emissions from sources under an air agency's jurisdiction are not interfering with visibility protection in other air agencies' jurisdiction.
Alternatively, in the absence of a fully approved regional haze SIP, a state may meet the requirements of prong 4 through a demonstration in its infrastructure SIP submission that emissions within its jurisdiction do not interfere with other air agencies' plans to protect visibility. Such an infrastructure SIP submission would need to include measures to limit visibility-impairing pollutants and ensure that the reductions conform with any mutually agreed regional haze reasonable progress goals for mandatory Class I areas in other states.
Alabama's August 20, 2012, 2008 8-hour ozone infrastructure submission cites to the State's regional haze SIP alone to satisfy prong 4 requirements.
Implementation plans must give specific attention to certain stationary sources. Specifically, section 169A(b)(2)(A) of the CAA requires states to revise their SIPs to contain such measures as may be necessary to make reasonable progress towards the natural visibility goal, including a requirement that certain categories of existing major stationary sources built between 1962 and 1977 procure, install, and operate BART as determined by the state. Under the Regional Haze Rule, states are directed to conduct BART determinations for such “BART-eligible” sources that may be anticipated to cause or contribute to any visibility impairment in a Class I area.
In that limited disapproval action, EPA also amended the Regional Haze Rule to provide that CSAPR can serve as an alternative to BART,
At the time of the rule amendment, questions regarding the legality of CSAPR were pending before the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit (D.C. Circuit) and the court had stayed implementation of the rule. The D.C. Circuit subsequently vacated and remanded CSAPR in August 2012, leaving CAIR in place temporarily.
Following the Supreme Court remand, the D.C. Circuit conducted further proceedings to address the remaining claims. In July 2015, the court issued a decision denying most of the claims but remanding the Phase 2 sulfur dioxide (SO
Due to these expected changes to CSAPR's scope, EPA conducted a sensitivity analysis to the 2012 analytic CSAPR “alternative to BART” demonstration showing that the analysis would have supported the same conclusion if the actions that EPA has proposed to take or has already taken in response to the D.C. Circuit's remand of various CSAPR Phase 2 budgets—specifically, the proposed withdrawal of PM
Alabama sought to convert the 2012 limited approval/limited disapproval of the State's regional haze SIP to a full approval through a SIP revision submitted on October 26, 2015. This SIP revision intended to adopt the CSAPR trading program into the SIP, including the Phase 2 annual NOx and annual SO
EPA is therefore proposing to disapprove the prong 4 element of Alabama's August 20, 2012, 2008 8-hour ozone infrastructure SIP submission. Alabama did not submit this infrastructure SIP to meet requirements for Part D or a SIP call; therefore, if EPA takes final action to disapprove the prong 4 portion of this submission, no sanctions will be triggered. However, if EPA finalizes this proposed disapproval, that final action will trigger the requirement under section 110(c) that EPA promulgate a federal implementation plan (FIP) no later than two years from the date of the disapproval unless EPA approves a SIP revision satisfying prong 4 requirements before EPA promulgates such a FIP.
As described above, EPA is proposing to disapprove the prong 4 portion of Alabama's August 20, 2012, 2008 8-hour ozone infrastructure SIP submission. All other applicable infrastructure requirements for this SIP submission have been addressed in separate rulemakings.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notification of submission to the Secretary of Agriculture.
This document notifies the public as required by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) that the EPA Administrator has forwarded to the Secretary of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) a draft regulatory document concerning removal of obsolete information. The draft regulatory document is not available to the public until after it has been signed and made available by EPA.
See Unit I. under
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2016-0227 is available at
Kathryn Boyle, Field and External Affairs Division (7506P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (703) 305-6304; email address
Section 25(a)(2)(B) of FIFRA requires the EPA Administrator to provide the Secretary of USDA with a copy of any draft final rule at least 30 days before signing it in final form for publication in the
No. This document is merely a notification of submission to the Secretary of USDA. As such, none of the regulatory assessment requirements apply to this document.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Confidential business information, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Labeling, Occupational safety and health, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Laboratories, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Packaging and containers, Pesticides and pests.
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Advertising, Exports, Labeling, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Environmental protection, Agricultural worker, Employer, Farms, Forests, Greenhouses, Nurseries, Pesticide handler, Pesticides, Worker protection standard.
Environmental protection, Intergovernmental relations, Labeling, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Research.
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
In consultation with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), PHMSA proposes to amend the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR) to align with current international standards for the air transportation of hazardous materials. The proposals in this rule would amend certain special provisions, packaging requirements, notification of pilot-in-command (NOTOC) requirements, and exceptions for passengers and crew members. In addition to harmonization with international standards, several of the proposals in this rule are responsive to petitions for rulemaking submitted by the regulated community. PHMSA invites all interested persons to provide comments regarding these proposed revisions.
Comments must be received by February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Aaron Wiener, Office of Hazardous Materials Standards, International Standards, (202) 366-4579, Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., 2nd Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
In consultation with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), PHMSA (also “we” or “us”) proposes to amend the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR; 49 CFR parts 171-180) to more closely align with certain provisions of the International Civil Aviation Organization's Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods (ICAO TI). This NPRM also responds to four petitions for rulemaking submitted by the regulated community. The intended effect of these amendments is to update miscellaneous regulatory requirements for hazardous materials offered for transportation, or transported, in commerce by aircraft. The petitions are included in the docket for this proceeding and are discussed at length in Section II (“Overview of Proposals in this NPRM”) of this rulemaking.
The Dangerous Goods Advisory Council petitioned PHMSA to remove the additional intermediate packaging requirements found in special provisions A3 and A6,
• Special provision A3 states that if glass inner packagings are used for transportation of referenced commodities, they must be packed with absorbent material in tightly closed metal receptacles before being packed in outer packagings.
• Special provision A6 states that if plastic inner packagings are used for transportation of referenced commodities, they must be packed in tightly closed metal receptacles before being packed in outer packagings.
The petitioner notes that the packaging requirements imposed by special provisions A3 and A6 are domestic provisions not found in the ICAO TI and that maintaining these differences creates both a trade barrier to U.S. exports and a burden to the domestic market. The petitioner contends that the requirement for “metal receptacles” is overly restrictive and provides a competitive advantage to shippers in countries that allow these products to be shipped without additional intermediate packagings.
Section 173.27(d) establishes the type of closure required for transportation of liquid hazardous materials by air. It states that the inner packaging for PG I liquid hazardous materials must have a secondary means of closure applied. The inner packaging for PG II or PG III liquid hazardous materials must have a secondary closure applied unless the secondary closure is impracticable. If the secondary closure is impracticable, the closure requirements for PG II and PG III liquids may be satisfied by securely closing the inner packaging and placing it in a leakproof liner or bag before placing the inner packaging in the outer packaging.
Section 173.27(e) sets the absorbency requirements for PG I liquid hazardous materials of Classes 3, 4, or 8, or Divisions 5.1 or 6.1, when the materials are packaged in glass, earthenware, plastic, or metal inner packagings and offered or transport by air. It requires that inner packagings be packed in a rigid and leakproof receptacle or intermediate packaging that that is sufficiently absorbent to absorb the entire contents of the inner packaging before the inner package is packed in the outer package.
After reviewing the petition, PHMSA agrees that current requirements in § 173.27(d) and (e) make special provisions A3 and A6 redundant for liquid PG I materials. We also agree that the requirements in § 173.27(d) for inner packagings to have a secondary means of closure or a leakproof liner or bag adequately address the hazards that special provision A6 was designed to mitigate for PG II and III materials. However, we maintain that the material of construction of the inner packaging referenced in special provision A3 (glass) necessitates an intermediate package to perform a containment function in the event an inner packaging breaks.
Therefore, we propose to: (1) Amend special provision A3 in § 172.102 to authorize rigid and leakproof receptacles for intermediate packaging; (2) remove references to special provision A3 from assigned PG I entries in the HMT; and (3) remove references to special provision A6 from assigned liquids in the HMT.
Four solid materials (UN Nos. 1326, 1390, 1889 and 3417) are currently assigned special provisions A6 in the HMT. Unlike the liquids currently assigned special provision A6, these solid materials are not subject to the intermediate or secondary packaging provisions in § 173.27. PHMSA solicits public comment on maintaining special provision A6 for currently assigned solid materials or whether revisions to the packaging provisions for these materials should be considered in a future rulemaking
Phillips Healthcare petitioned PHMSA to revise § 175.10(a)(18)(i) to increase the quantity limits applicable to the transportation of portable medical electronic devices (
A global increase in air travel, as well as a growing aged population in many countries, makes it reasonable to assume that there will be a significant increase in older passengers and passengers with illness. An automated external defibrillator can make the difference between life and death during cardiac arrest.
In addition, the petitioner notes that increasing the quantity limits for portable medical electronic devices containing lithium metal batteries and spare batteries would be consistent with section 828 of the “FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012” (Pub. L. 112-98, 126 Stat. 133; Feb. 14, 2012),
PHMSA agrees that harmonizing the HMR with the ICAO TI on the issue
The petitioner further asks that portable medical electronic devices with increased lithium contents be authorized for transport by passengers or crew members without the approval of the operator. PHMSA points the petitioner to the ICAO TI part 8, table 8-1 provisions with which we are proposing to harmonize and notes that, under the ICAO TI, approval of the operator is required for lithium metal battery powered portable medical electronic devices and their spare batteries exceeding 2 grams of lithium content but not exceeding 8 grams of lithium content. PHMSA is not compelled by the reasoning in the petition to be less restrictive than what international standards currently prescribe. Moreover, we believe that operator approval can be an important safety provision, especially in the context of large lithium metal batteries otherwise forbidden for transportation in carry-on or checked baggage. Accordingly, PHMSA does not propose to eliminate the operator approval provision.
In this NPRM, we propose to amend § 175.10(a)(18)(i) to authorize passengers and crewmembers to carry on board an aircraft lithium metal battery-powered portable medical electronic devices and two spare batteries for those devices exceeding 2 grams of lithium content per battery, but not exceeding 8 grams of lithium content per battery, with the approval of the operator.
Consistent with the ICAO TI and the current HMR prohibitions, spare lithium batteries (
The United Parcel Service petitioned PHMSA to revise the notification of the captain/pilot-in-command (NOTOC) requirements to match the ICAO TI. The pilot-in-command must receive the NOTOC in order to appropriately consider the presence, amount and location of hazardous materials onboard the aircraft in an emergency.
In its petition, the United Parcel Services asks PHMSA to amend the domestic NOTOC requirements in § 175.33 to reduce what it considers extraneous information and more closely align the HMR with existing international practices. The petitioner stated that harmonization with more elements of the ICAO TI's NOTOC requirements will reduce the regulatory burden for operators, as well as the costs associated with training employees and contract personnel to two sets of standards.
PHMSA proposes adding each of the following requirements to the HMR: (a) The operator must provide to the flight dispatcher the same information as provided on the NOTOC; (b) the information must be provided to pilots and dispatchers prior to an aircraft moving under its own power; (c) the air operator must retain the pilot-in-command's confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication that the required information was received; and (d) the person responsible for loading must provide a signed confirmation or other form of indication that no damaged or leaking packages or packages showing evidence of damage or leakage were loaded on the aircraft. These changes and other general changes discussed below will result in PHMSA harmonizing more closely with the ICAO TI in regards to the information required to be provided in the NOTOC.
•
For operations subject to the HMR where no dispatcher is required, other personnel with responsibilities for operational control of the aircraft (
Providing an additional and potentially quicker means for airport rescue and firefighting (ARFF) personnel to receive the NOTOC underscores that the ARFF community is as much an intended consumer of the NOTOC as flight crews. We note that ARFF training in hazardous materials incidents is required under 14 CFR 139, which specifies the FAA's requirements for certificated airports.
•
•
•
•
The current HMR contain a requirement that a notification prepared in accordance with the ICAO TI must also include any additional elements required to be shown on shipping papers by subpart C of part 171 of this subchapter. The additional elements currently required are: An indication of the “EX Number” for Division 1.4G safety devices; an indication of “RQ” and technical names if applicable for hazardous substances; an indication that the hazardous material is a “Waste” for hazardous wastes; and the inclusion of the words “Poison-Inhalation Hazard” or “Toxic-Inhalation Hazard” and the words “Zone A,” “Zone B,” “Zone C,” or “Zone D” for gases, or “Zone A” or “Zone B” for liquids, as appropriate for Division 2.3 materials meeting the definition of a material poisonous by inhalation. PHMSA proposes to remove the requirement for a NOTOC made in accordance with the ICAO TI to include these additional elements. This information would still be required on shipping papers.
General harmonization between the HMR NOTOC requirements and those found in the ICAO TI will ensure consistency for operators subject to both regulatory systems, thus reducing inconsistencies and the cost of complying with two different sets of standards. However, minor differences between the two regulations will remain even if PHMSA adopts the provisions of this NPRM into a final rule. One noteworthy difference is that the HMR requires that the date of the flight be included on the NOTOC. We believe that maintaining the flight date provides a benefit by adding another safety control to ensure pilots have the correct form and will result in a negligible compliance burden by those required to prepare and maintain a NOTOC under the HMR.
Labelmaster Services petitioned PHMSA to amend § 175.30(c)(1) by removing language prohibiting any package, outside container, or overpack containing hazardous materials from being transported on an aircraft if it has holes.
PHMSA agrees that the wording of the current requirement may be construed to prohibit carriage of such items whenever any hole is found in the package, outside container, or overpack. PHMSA believes the current restriction prohibiting acceptance of any of these containment methods with holes to be overly prescriptive, especially as the paramount safety requirement is that there must not be any indication that the integrity of the containment method has been compromised. In this NPRM, consistent with the ICAO TI, PHMSA proposes to amend § 175.30(c)(1) to remove language prohibiting packages, outside containers, or overpacks containing hazardous materials from being transported on an aircraft simply due to the presence of holes when the holes do not compromise the integrity of the containment device. Under the proposed amendment to § 175.30(c)(1), aircraft operators would be authorized to accept packages with small holes that do not compromise the integrity of the containment method during transportation aboard an aircraft. However, we note that operators may continue to have more restrictive standards as a part of their business practice. Moreover, operators are ultimately responsible for their decision to accept such a package for transportation, as the acceptance of the package is tantamount to the operator's determination that the hole will not compromise the integrity of the package.
The petitioner's request to add a new paragraph in § 173.24 is outside the scope of this rulemaking and may be considered in a future rule.
Additionally, we propose to amend § 175.88(c) to require hazardous materials loaded in an aircraft be protected from damage, including by the
Stores (supplies). a) Stores (supplies) for consumption; and b) Stores (supplies) to be taken away.
Stores (supplies) for consumption. Goods, whether or not sold, intended for consumption by the passengers and the crew on board aircraft, and goods necessary for the operation and maintenance of aircraft, including fuel and lubricants.
Stores (supplies) to be taken away. Goods for sale to the passengers and the crew of aircraft with a view to being landed.
The following is a section-by-section review of the amendments proposed in this NPRM:
Section 172.101 contains the Hazardous Materials Table (HMT) and provides instructions for its use. Section 172.101(h) describes column (7) of the HMT, which specifies codes for special provisions applicable to hazardous materials. PHMSA proposes revisions to the column (7) special provisions. Please review all changes for a complete understanding of the amendments and see “Section 172.102 special provisions” for a detailed discussion of the proposed deletions to the special provisions addressed in this NPRM.
PHMSA specifically proposes to remove: (1) Special provision A3 from all assigned PG I HMT entries in column (7); and (2) special provision A6 from all assigned liquid HMT entries in column (7). Table 1 illustrates the HMT entries for which changes are proposed:
Section 172.102 lists special provisions applicable to the transportation of specific hazardous materials. Special provisions contain packaging requirements, prohibitions, and exceptions applicable to particular quantities or forms of hazardous materials. PHMSA proposes, to replace the existing requirement for tightly closed metal receptacles in special provision A3 from § 172.102(b)(2), which applies only to transportation by aircraft, with a requirement for rigid and leakproof receptacles or intermediate packaging packed with absorbent material.
Section 175.10 provides exceptions for passengers, crewmembers, and air operators. PHMSA proposes to revise § 175.10(a)(18)(i) to authorize passengers and crewmembers to carry on board aircraft portable medical electronic devices containing lithium metal batteries with a lithium content exceeding 2 grams per battery, but not exceeding 8 grams of lithium content per battery, and no more than two individually protected lithium metal spare batteries for these portable medical electronic devices each exceeding 2 grams of lithium content, but not exceeding 8 grams of lithium content, with the approval of the operator. Consistent with the ICAO TI and the current HMR prohibitions, spare lithium batteries (
Section 175.30 prescribes requirements for the inspection and acceptance of hazardous materials. PHMSA proposes revising § 175.30(c)(1) to no longer prohibit packages, outside containers, overpacks, or ULDs containing hazardous materials from being transported on an aircraft if there are one or more holes present when the hole(s) or other indications do not indicate compromised integrity to the package, overpack, freight container, or ULD. This change will harmonize the HMR with language in ICAO TI part 7; 1.3.1(i), which states “the package, overpack, freight container or unit load device is not leaking and there is no indication that its integrity has been compromised.”
Section 175.33 establishes requirements for shipping papers and for the notification of the pilot-in-command (NOTOC) when hazardous materials are transported by aircraft. PHMSA proposes to harmonize the HMR NOTOC requirements with those found in the ICAO TI. Specifically, we propose to more closely align the information that is required to be provided in the NOTOC; ensure the NOTOC is provided to dispatchers or when dispatchers are not utilized, other ground support personnel designated in the operator's manual assigned to the flight; harmonize with ICAO requirements addressing when the NOTOC must be provided to the pilots and dispatchers; require confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the pilot-in-command (PIC) to indicate that the required information was received; and require confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the person responsible for loading the aircraft that no damaged or leaking packages or packages showing evidence of damage or leakage have been loaded on the aircraft.
Finally, and consistent with the ICAO TI, we propose to amend § 175.33 by removing the requirement to include additional informational requirements in § 175.33(a)(1)(i) and (ii). This information will continue to be required on shipping papers.
Section 175.88 prescribes requirements for inspection, orientation, and securing packages of hazardous materials aboard aircraft. PHMSA proposes revisions to § 175.88(c) to require hazardous materials loaded in an aircraft to be protected from damage, including by the movement of baggage, mail, stores, or other cargo, consistent with general loading requirements found in the ICAO TI. This proposed change would require that packages be protected from damage during loading operations through dragging or mishandling of packages containing hazardous materials and further harmonize specific portions of the general loading/securement requirements pertaining to appropriate securing and loading practices of the HMR with those found in the ICAO TI.
This proposed rule is published under the statutory authority of the Federal hazardous materials transportation law (Federal hazmat law). 49 U.S.C. 5101
This rule proposes to amend regulations to increase alignment with international standards by incorporating various amendments, including changes to special provisions, packaging requirements, air transport notification of pilot-in-command (NOTOC) requirements, and allowances for hazardous materials to be carried on board an aircraft by passengers and crewmembers. To this end, this rule proposes to more fully align the HMR with the ICAO TI. The large volume of hazardous materials transported in international commerce warrants the harmonization of domestic and international requirements to the greatest extent possible.
Harmonization serves to facilitate international commerce, while also promoting the safety of people, property, and the environment by reducing the potential for confusion and misunderstanding that could result if shippers and operators were required to comply with two or more conflicting sets of regulatory requirements. PHMSA's goal is to harmonize without sacrificing the current HMR level of safety or imposing undue burdens on the regulated community. Additionally, we consulted the Federal Aviation Administration in the development of this rule.
This proposed rule is not considered a significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866, “Regulatory Planning and Review,” 58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993), and, therefore, was not reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget. This proposed rule is not considered a significant rule under the Regulatory Policies and Procedures of the Department of Transportation. 44 FR 11034 (Feb. 26, 1979).
Executive Order 13563, “Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review,” 76 FR 3821 (Jan. 21, 2011), supplements and reaffirms Executive Order 12866, stressing that, to the extent permitted by law, an agency rulemaking action must be based on benefits that justify its costs, impose the least burden, consider cumulative burdens, maximize benefits, use performance objectives, and assess available alternatives.
Pursuant to Executive Order 13563, PHMSA analyzed the expected benefits of these proposed provisions. Typically the benefits of rules are derived from (1) enhanced health and safety factors and (2) reduced expenditures, such as private-sector savings, government administrative savings, gains in work time, harmonization impacts, and costs of compliance. In the case of this NPRM, most of the benefits from the rule will be derived from health and safety factors, and reduced compliance costs.
The quantifying health and safety benefits specifically attributable to modifications of the NOTOC requirements are not easily calculable with any degree of accuracy. The pilot signature and stronger confirmation requirements from the person responsible for loading the aircraft will result in more effective and efficient response in the event of an aviation incident. The proposed requirement that packages be protected from damage during loading operations will result in increased safety and environmental protection. Benefits would also be realized through a more efficient response time as a result of emergency response personnel having quicker access to hazardous materials information for each flight.
The primary reduced expenditures benefits expected from this NPRM result from reduced packaging costs in relation to the removal of special provision A3 from all assigned PG I HMT entries and special provision A6 from all assigned liquid HMT entries, as well as cost savings from general harmonization of NOTOC requirements.
Currently, compliance with special provisions A3 and A6 requires domestic shippers to use extra
To arrive at this benefit, PHMSA (1) analyzed commodity flow survey data for commodities assigned A3, A6, or both in the HMR, (2) determined an estimate of total tons of freight for affected commodities offered for transportation by aircraft annually, (3) used this general commodity flow survey data to estimate the number of impacted packages, and (4) determined a cost basis for packages prepared under existing requirements versus proposed requirements.
The reduced expenditure cost savings associated with general harmonization are not easily calculable with any degree of accuracy. Inconsistent hazardous materials regulations result in additional compliance costs for industry and increase compliance training efforts, whereas consistency of regulations reduces regulatory compliance costs and helps to avoid rejected or frustrated shipments.
The primary costs associated with this NPRM are time costs related to proposed requirements for (1) confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the person responsible for loading the aircraft that no damaged or leaking packages were loaded on the aircraft, and (2) confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the pilot-in-command to indicate that the required information was received. PHMSA estimates the annual costs associated with harmonizing the HMR NOTOC requirements with those found in the ICAO TI to be $705,590. PHMSA notes that many air operators already comply with the ICAO TI NOTOC requirements; therefore, the estimated cost of harmonizing likely is overestimated in this analysis. The HMR currently requires confirmation that no damaged or leaking packages have been loaded on the aircraft. In satisfying this current requirement, it is assumed that many operators are already using the proposed specific confirmation requirement (signature or other indication) from the person responsible loading the aircraft and are already be accounted for in time costs. Under current practice, the NOTOC is transmitted to the pilot-in-command. We assume the additional provision of identical NOTOC information to the dispatcher (or other personnel) will incur negligible costs, if any, especially as we understand this to be a common industry practice. PHMSA invites comments on this assumption and on any unanticipated costs associated with this proposed requirement.
PHMSA expects the adoption of the proposal to eliminate the intermediate packaging requirements provided in special provision A6 for liquids (and A3 for PG I materials) to yield a modest increase in safety costs due to increased transport volumes that may result from the reduced packaging costs. Based on an estimated 10 percent increase in transport volumes of commodities currently assigned special provisions A3 and A6, PHMSA estimates the annual increased safety cost attributable to the removal of these special provisions as proposed in this NPRM is $2,051.
Based on the previous discussions of benefits and costs, PHMSA estimates the net benefit associated with this NPRM (2137-AF10) to be $1,107,002.
This proposed rule was analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13132, “Federalism,” 64 FR 43255 (Aug. 10, 1999). This proposed rule may preempt State, local, and Indian tribe requirements but does not propose any regulation that has substantial direct effects on the States, the relationship between the national government and the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, the consultation and funding requirements of Executive Order 13132 do not apply.
The Federal hazardous material transportation law, 49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, contains an express preemption provision, 49 U.S.C. 5125(b), that preempts State, local, and Indian tribe requirements on certain covered subjects, as follows:
(1) The designation, description, and classification of hazardous material;
(2) The packing, repacking, handling, labeling, marking, and placarding of hazardous material;
(3) The preparation, execution, and use of shipping documents related to hazardous material and requirements related to the number, contents, and placement of those documents;
(4) The written notification, recording, and reporting of the unintentional release in transportation of hazardous material; and
(5) The design, manufacture, fabrication, inspection, marking, maintenance, recondition, repair, or testing of a packaging or container represented, marked, certified, or sold as qualified for use in transporting hazardous material in commerce.
This proposed rule addresses covered subject items (2), (3), and (5) above and preempts State, local, and Indian tribe requirements not meeting the “substantively the same” standard. This proposed rule is necessary to harmonize with international standards. If the proposed changes are not adopted into the HMR, U.S. companies—including numerous small entities competing in foreign markets—would be at an economic disadvantage because of their need to comply with a dual system of regulations. The changes in this proposed rulemaking are intended to avoid this result. Federal hazardous materials transportation law provides at 49 U.S.C. 5125(b)(2) that, if DOT issues a regulation concerning any of the covered subjects, DOT must determine and publish in the
This proposed rule was analyzed in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in Executive Order 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” 65 FR 67249 (Nov. 9, 2000). Because this proposed rule does not have tribal implications, does not impose substantial direct compliance costs, and is required by statute, the funding and consultation requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply.
This proposed rule was developed in accordance with Executive Order 13272, “Proper Consideration of Small Entities in Agency Rulemaking,” 67 FR 53461 (Aug. 16, 2002), and DOT's Policies and Procedures to promote compliance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, 5 U.S.C. 601
This proposed rule facilitates the transportation of hazardous materials in international commerce by increasing consistency with international standards. It applies to offerors and carriers of hazardous materials, some of whom are small entities, such as chemical manufacturers, users and suppliers, packaging manufacturers, distributors, aircraft operators, and training companies. As previously discussed in Section IV, Subsection B (“Executive Order 12866, Executive Order 13563, and DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures”), PHMSA expects that the majority of amendments in this proposed rule will result in cost savings and ease the regulatory compliance burden for shippers engaged in domestic and international commerce, including trans-border shipments within North America. Many companies will realize economic benefits as a result of these amendments. Additionally, the changes effected by this NPRM will relieve U.S. companies, including small entities competing in foreign markets, from the
PHMSA currently has approved information collection under Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Control Number 2137-0034, “Hazardous Materials Shipping Papers and Emergency Response Information.” We anticipate that this proposed rule will result in an increase in the annual burden of this information collection because of an increase in the amount of time needed to complete the NOTOC due to additional requirements for (1) confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the person responsible for loading the aircraft that no damaged or leaking packages were loaded on the aircraft, and (2) confirmation via signature or other appropriate indication by the pilot-in-command that the required information was received.
This rulemaking identifies a revised information collection that PHMSA will submit to OMB for approval based on the requirements in this NPRM. PHMSA has developed burden estimates to reflect changes in this NPRM and estimates that the information collection and recordkeeping burden in this rule are as follows:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, no person is required to respond to an information collection unless it has been approved by OMB and displays a valid OMB control number. Section 1320.8(d) of 5 CFR requires that PHMSA provide interested members of the public and affected agencies an opportunity to comment on information and recordkeeping requests. PHMSA specifically invites comments on the information collection and recordkeeping burdens associated with developing, implementing, and maintaining these proposed requirements. Address written comments to the Dockets Unit as identified in the
A regulation identifier number (RIN) is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in April and October of each year. The RIN contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross-reference this action with the Unified Agenda.
This proposed rule does not impose unfunded mandates under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995. It does not result in costs of $141.3 million or more, adjusted for inflation, to either State, local, or tribal governments, in the aggregate, or to the private sector in any one year, and is the least burdensome alternative that achieves the objective of the rule.
The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. 4321-4375, requires that Federal agencies analyze proposed actions to determine whether the action will have a significant impact on the human environment. The Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations that implement NEPA, 40 CFR parts 1500-1508, require Federal agencies to conduct an environmental review considering (1) the need for the proposed action, (2) alternatives to the proposed action, (3) probable environmental impacts of the both the proposed action and the alternatives, and (4) the agencies and persons consulted during the consideration process. 40 CFR 1508.9(b).
In this NPRM, PHMSA proposes to amend the HMR in to increase harmonization with international standards and to address four petitions for rulemaking submitted by shippers, carriers, manufacturers, and industry representatives. These proposed revisions are intended to harmonize with international standards, while also maintaining or enhancing safety. Specifically, PHMSA, consistent with P-1487, proposes to harmonize the HMR with the 2015-2016 ICAO TI requirements for the NOTOC, the ICAO TI requirement for the air operator to provide a copy of the NOTOC to the flight dispatcher, and the ICAO TI requirement for the air operator to obtain and retain a confirmation that the NOTOC was received and agreed to by the pilot. This NPRM addresses three additional petitions for rulemaking (P-1637, P-1649, and P-1671), proposing to: (1) More closely harmonize with the ICAO TI in regard to intermediate packaging requirements for certain low and medium danger hazardous materials; (2) add an exception to allow passengers to bring on board an aircraft portable medical electronic devices containing lithium batteries that exceed the lithium battery limits in § 175.10(a)(18)(i), as well as spare batteries for these devices with the approval of the operator; and (3) remove language prohibiting any package, outside container, or overpack containing hazardous materials from being transported on an aircraft if it has holes when there is no indication that the integrity of the containment method has been compromised. All of these proposals more closely harmonize U.S. regulations with international standards.
This action is necessary to: (1) Fulfill our statutory directive to promote transportation safety; (2) fulfill our statutory directive under the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) that requires Federal agencies to give interested persons the right to petition an agency to issue, amend, or repeal a rule, 5 U.S.C. 553(e); (3) align the HMR with international transport standards and requirements to the extent practicable in accordance with Federal hazmat law,
With this action, we intend to more closely align the HMR with international transport standards and requirements, without diminishing the level of safety currently provided by the HMR or imposing undue burdens on the regulated public.
In proposing this rulemaking, PHMSA is considering the following alternatives:
If PHMSA were to choose this alternative, we would not proceed with any rulemaking on this subject and the current regulatory standards would remain in effect.
This alternative is the current proposal as it appears in this NPRM, applying to transport of hazardous materials by air. The proposed amendments included in this alternative are more fully addressed in the preamble and regulatory text sections of this NPRM. However, they generally include the following:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If PHMSA were to choose the No Action Alternative, we would not proceed with any rulemaking on this subject and the current regulatory standards would remain in effect. However, efficiencies gained through harmonization in updates to transport standards would not be realized. Foregone efficiencies in the No Action Alternative include freeing up limited resources to concentrate on air transport hazard communication (hazcom) issues of potentially much greater environmental impact.
Additionally, the Preferred Alternative encompasses enhanced and clarified regulatory requirements, which would result in increased compliance and less environmental and safety incidents. Not adopting the proposed environmental and safety requirements in the NPRM under the No Action Alternative would result in a lost opportunity for reducing environmental and safety-related incidents.
Greenhouse gas emissions would remain the same under the No Action Alternative.
If PHMSA selects the provisions as proposed in this NPRM, we believe that safety and environmental risks would be reduced and that protections to human health and environmental resources would be increased. Consistency between U.S. and international notification requirements can enhance the safety and environmental protection of hazardous materials transportation, reduce compliance costs, increase the flow of hazardous materials from their points of origin to their points of destination (or diversion airport when required), and improve the emergency response in the event of a hazardous materials incident or accident.
Overall, harmonization will result in more targeted and effective training and thereby enhanced environmental protection. These proposed amendments will reduce inconsistent hazardous materials regulations, which can increase the time and cost of compliance training. For ease of compliance with appropriate regulations, air carriers engaged in the transportation of hazardous materials generally elect to accept and transport hazardous materials in accordance with the ICAO TI, as appropriate. Increasing consistency between these international regulations and the HMR allows shippers and carriers to more efficiently train hazmat employees in their responsible functions. PHMSA believes that these proposed amendments, which will increase standardization and consistency of regulations, will result in greater protection of human health and the environment:
(1)
Greenhouse gas emissions would remain the same under this proposed amendment.
(2)
Greenhouse gas emissions would remain the same under this proposed amendment.
(3)
Greenhouse gas emissions would remain the same under this proposed amendment.
(4)
Greenhouse gas emissions would remain the same under this proposed amendment.
PHMSA has coordinated with the U.S. Federal Aviation Administration in the development of this proposed rule. PHMSA will consider the views expressed in comments to the NPRM submitted by members of the public, State and local governments, and industry.
The provisions of this proposed rule build on current regulatory requirements to enhance the transportation safety and security of shipments of hazardous materials transported by aircraft, thereby reducing the risks of an accidental or intentional release of hazardous materials and consequent environmental damage. PHMSA believes the net environmental impact will be positive and that there are no significant environmental impacts associated with this proposed rule.
PHMSA welcomes any views, data, or information related to environmental impacts that may result if the proposed requirements are adopted, as well as possible alternatives and their environmental impacts.
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the document (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). You may review DOT's complete Privacy Act Statement in the
Under Executive Order 13609, “Promoting International Regulatory Cooperation,” 77 FR 26413 (May 4, 2012), agencies must consider whether the impacts associated with significant variations between domestic and international regulatory approaches are unnecessary or may impair the ability of American business to export and compete internationally. In meeting shared challenges involving health, safety, labor, security, environmental, and other issues, international regulatory cooperation can identify approaches that are at least as protective as those that are or would be adopted in the absence of such cooperation. International regulatory cooperation can also reduce, eliminate, or prevent unnecessary differences in regulatory requirements.
Similarly, the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, Public Law 96-39, as amended by the Uruguay Round Agreements Act, Public Law 103-465, prohibits Federal agencies from establishing any standards or engaging in related activities that create unnecessary obstacles to the foreign commerce of the United States. For purposes of these requirements, Federal agencies may participate in the establishment of international standards, so long as the standards have a legitimate domestic objective, such as providing for safety, and do not operate to exclude imports that meet this objective. The statute also requires consideration of international standards and, where appropriate, that they be the basis for U.S. standards.
PHMSA and the FAA participate in the establishment of international standards to protect the safety of the American public, and we have assessed the effects of the proposed rule to ensure that it does not cause unnecessary obstacles to foreign trade. In fact, the proposed rule is designed to facilitate international trade by eliminating differences between the domestic and international air transportation requirements. Accordingly, this rulemaking is consistent with Executive Order 13609 and PHMSA's obligations under the Trade Agreement Act, as amended.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995, 15 U.S.C. 272 note, directs Federal agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless doing so would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
Education, Hazardous materials transportation, Hazardous waste, Incorporation by reference, Labeling, Markings, Packaging and containers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Air carriers, Hazardous materials transportation, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
In consideration of the foregoing, PHMSA proposes to amend 49 CFR chapter I as follows:
49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, 44701; 49 CFR 1.81, 1.96 and 1.97.
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
A3 For combination packagings, if glass inner packagings (including ampoules) are used, they must be packed with absorbent material in tightly closed rigid and leakproof receptacles before packing in outer packagings.
49 U.S.C. 5101-5128, 44701; 49 CFR 1.81 and 1.97.
(a) * * *
(18) Except as provided in § 173.21 of this subchapter, portable electronic devices (
(i) For a lithium metal battery, the lithium content must not exceed 2 grams. With the approval of the operator, portable medical electronic devices (
(c) A hazardous material may be carried aboard an aircraft only if, based on the inspection by the operator, the package, outside container, freight container, overpack, or unit load device containing the hazardous material:
(1) Has no leakage or other indication that its integrity has been compromised; and
(a) When a hazardous material subject to the provisions of this subchapter is carried in an aircraft, a copy of the shipping paper required by § 175.30(a)(2) must accompany the shipment it covers during transportation aboard the aircraft. The operator of the aircraft must provide the pilot-in-command and dispatcher (or other ground support personnel with responsibilities for operational control of the aircraft as designated in the operator's manual) assigned to the flight with accurate and legible written information as early as practicable before departure of the aircraft, but in no case later than when the aircraft moves under its own power, which specifies at least the following:
(1) The air waybill number (when issued);
(2) The proper shipping name, hazard class, subsidiary risk(s) corresponding to a required label(s), packing group and identification number of the material, including any remaining aboard from prior stops, as specified in § 172.101 of this subchapter or the ICAO Technical Instructions (IBR, see § 171.7 of this subchapter). In the case of Class 1 materials, the compatibility group letter also must be shown.
(3) The total number of packages;
(4) The location of the packages aboard the aircraft;
(5) The net quantity or gross weight, as applicable, for each package except those containing Class 7 (radioactive) materials. For a shipment consisting of multiple packages containing hazardous materials bearing the same proper shipping name and identification number, only the total quantity and an indication of the quantity of the largest and smallest package at each loading location need to be provided. For consumer commodities, the information provided may be either the gross mass of each package or the average gross mass of the packages as shown on the shipping paper;
(6) For Class 7 (radioactive) materials, the number of packages, overpacks or freight containers, their category, transport index (if applicable), and their location aboard the aircraft;
(7) Confirmation that the package must be carried only on cargo aircraft if its transportation aboard passenger-carrying aircraft is forbidden;
(8) The airport at which the package(s) is to be unloaded;
(9) An indication, when applicable, that a hazardous material is being carried under terms of a special permit;
(10) The telephone number of a person not aboard the aircraft from whom the information contained in the notification of pilot-in-command can be obtained. The aircraft operator must ensure the telephone number is monitored at all times the aircraft is in flight. The telephone number is not required to be placed on the notification of pilot-in-command if the phone number is in a location in the cockpit available and known to the flight crew; and
(11) The date of the flight;
(12) For UN1845, Carbon dioxide, solid (dry ice), only the UN number, proper shipping name, hazard class, total quantity in each hold aboard the aircraft, and the airport at which the package(s) is to be unloaded must be provided.
(13) For UN 3480, Lithium ion batteries, and UN 3090, Lithium metal batteries, the information required by paragraph (a) of this section may be replaced by the UN number, proper shipping name, class, total quantity at each specific loading location, and whether the package must be carried on cargo aircraft only. UN 3480 (Lithium ion batteries) and UN 3090 (Lithium metal batteries) carried under an approval must meet all of the requirements of this section.
(b)(1) The information provided to the pilot-in-command must also include a signed confirmation or some other indication from the person responsible for loading the aircraft that there was no evidence of any damage to or leakage from the packages or any leakage from the unit load devices loaded on the aircraft;
(2) A copy of the written notification to pilot-in-command shall be readily available to the pilot-in-command and dispatcher during flight. Emergency response information required by subpart G of part 172 of this subchapter must be maintained in the same manner as the written notification to pilot-in-command during transport of the hazardous material aboard the aircraft.
(3) The pilot-in-command must indicate on a copy of the information provided to the pilot-in-command, or in some other way, that the information has been received.
(c) The aircraft operator must—
(1) Retain a copy of the shipping paper required by § 175.30(a)(2) or an electronic image thereof, that is accessible at or through its principal place of business and must make the shipping paper available, upon request, to an authorized official of a federal, state, or local government agency at reasonable times and locations. For a hazardous waste, each shipping paper copy must be retained for three years after the material is accepted by the initial carrier. For all other hazardous materials, each shipping paper copy must be retained by the operator for one year after the material is accepted by the initial carrier. Each shipping paper copy must include the date of acceptance by the carrier. The date on the shipping paper may be the date a shipper notifies the air carrier that a shipment is ready for transportation, as indicated on the air waybill or bill of lading, as an alternative to the date the shipment is picked up or accepted by the carrier. Only an initial carrier must receive and retain a copy of the shipper's certification, as required by § 172.204 of this subchapter.
(2) Retain a copy of each notification of pilot-in-command, an electronic image thereof, or the information contained therein for 90 days at the airport of departure or the operator's principal place of business.
(3) Have the information required to be retained under this paragraph readily accessible at the airport of departure and the intended airport of arrival for the duration of the flight leg.
(4) Make available, upon request, to an authorized official of a Federal, State, or local government agency (which includes emergency responders) at reasonable times and locations, the documents or information required to be retained by this paragraph. In the event of a reportable incident, as defined in § 171.15 of this subchapter, the aircraft operator must make immediately available to an authorized official of a Federal, State, or local government agency (which includes emergency responders), the documents or information required to be retained by this paragraph.
(d) The documents required by paragraphs (a) and (b) this section may be combined into one document if it is given to the pilot-in-command before departure of the aircraft.
(c) Packages containing hazardous materials must be:
(1) Secured in an aircraft in a manner that will prevent any shifting or change in the orientation of the packages;
(2) Protected from being damaged, including by the movement of baggage, mail, stores, or other cargo;
(3) Handled so that accidental damage is not caused through dragging or mishandling; and
(4) When containing Class 7 (radioactive) materials, secured in a manner that ensures that the separation requirements of §§ 175.701 and 175.702 will be maintained at all times during flight.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Correction.
On November 30, 2016, we, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), published a document in the
Correction issued on December 5, 2016. To ensure that we will have adequate time to consider submitted information during the status reviews for the leopard and lesser prairie-chicken, we request that we receive information no later than January 30, 2017.
Regarding
In the
Agricultural Marketing Service, USDA.
Notice of availability of final guidance.
This notice announces availability of final guidance intended for use by accredited certifying agents, certified operations, material evaluation programs, and other organic industry stakeholders. The first set of guidance documents, NOP 5033, follows recommendations from the National Organic Standards Board (NOSB) concerning the classification of materials under the USDA organic regulations (7 CFR part 205). The Classification of Materials guidance, NOP 5033, details the procedures and decision trees for classifying materials used for organic crop production, livestock production, and handling. The second set of guidance documents, NOP 5034, clarifies certain materials for use in organic crop production. These documents include an illustrative list of allowed natural and synthetic materials and a limited appendix of materials prohibited in organic crop production.
The guidance explains the policy of the National Organic Program (NOP) concerning the portions of the regulations in question, referenced herein.
The final guidance documents announced by this notice are effective on December 6, 2016.
Paul Lewis, Ph.D., Director, Standards Division, National Organic Program, USDA-AMS-NOP, 1400 Independence Ave. SW., Room 2646-So., Ag Stop 0268, Washington, DC 20250. Telephone: (202) 720-3252; Fax: (202) 205-7808.
On April 2, 2013, the Agricultural Marketing Service (AMS) published in the
The draft guidance documents can be viewed online at
AMS received 47 public comments on the draft guidance. Based on the comments received, NOP revised and is publishing final guidance on these topics.
The final guidance documents are available from NOP through “The Program Handbook: Guidance and Instructions for Certifying Agents and Certified Operations.” The Program Handbook provides those who own, manage, or certify organic operations with guidance and instructions that can assist them in complying with the USDA organic regulations. The current edition of the Program Handbook is available online at
Under the Organic Foods Production Act (OFPA) (7 U.S.C. 6501-6522), the National List of Allowed and Prohibited Substance section of the USDA organic regulations must include synthetic substances that are permitted for use in organic crop production, and nonsynthetic (natural) substances that are prohibited for use in organic crop production.
Because industry typically uses the word “material” to describe “substance,” for the purposes of these guidance documents, “substance” and “material” are synonymous and interchangeable.
Nonsynthetic (natural) materials are generally permitted to be used in organic production, but are not required to be included in the National List. At times, this construction of the National List has led to inconsistent determinations by industry on which input materials are allowed for organic production, since permitted nonsynthetic materials (
The guidance document NOP 5033, Classification of Materials, provides guidance to the industry on how materials are classified as nonsynthetic, synthetic, agricultural, or nonagricultural. The terms “nonsynthetic,” “synthetic,” “agricultural,” and “nonagricultural” are defined at 7 CFR 205.2 of the USDA organic regulations. This guidance implements a series of NOSB recommendations and clarifies the classification of these defined terms. NOP 5033-1 includes a decision tree for classifying a material as synthetic or nonsynthetic. NOP 5033-2 includes a decision tree for classifying a material as agricultural or nonagricultural. For materials used in organic crop production, the classification guidance is intended to be used in conjunction with the final guidance NOP 5034, Materials for Organic Crop Production.
The guidance document NOP 5034, Materials for Organic Crop Production, guides the industry on materials used in organic crop production. NOP 5034-1 is a tool for organic producers to understand which input materials are allowed in organic crop production. The guidance includes substances that are specifically allowed in section 205.601 of the USDA organic regulations, as well as materials that are permitted, but are not required to be included on the National List. The appendix NOP 5034-2 provides a list of materials that are specifically prohibited in organic crop production. Neither list is intended to be all inclusive. NOP 5034-2 does include items that have been previously reviewed by the NOSB and not recommended for use or whose use in organic crop production has expired. The appendix of prohibited materials also includes materials that are specifically listed in section 205.602 of
These final guidance documents are being issued in accordance with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Bulletin on Agency Good Guidance Practices (GGPs) (January 25, 2007, 72 FR 3432-3440). The purpose of GGPs is to ensure that program guidance documents are developed with adequate public participation, are readily available to the public, and are not applied as binding requirements. These final guidance documents represent NOP's current positions on these topics. It does not create or confer any rights for, or on, any person and does not operate to bind NOP or the public. Guidance documents are intended to offer uniform methods for operations that comply with the Organic Foods Production Act (OFPA), as amended (7 U.S.C. 6501-6522) and USDA organic regulations, thereby reducing the burden on operators of developing their own methods and to simplify audits and inspections. Alternative approaches that can demonstrate compliance with the OFPA and its implementing regulations are also acceptable. As with any alternative compliance approach, NOP strongly encourages industry to discuss alternative approaches with the NOP before implementing them to avoid unnecessary or wasteful expenditures of resources and to ensure the proposed alternative approach complies with the Act and its implementing regulations.
Persons with access to Internet may obtain a copy of final guidance documents from the NOP's Web site at
7 U.S.C. 6501-6522.
Forest Service, USDA.
Notice of meeting.
The Lyon-Mineral Resource Advisory Committee (RAC) will meet in Yerington, Nevada. The committee is authorized under the Secure Rural Schools and Community Self-Determination Act (the Act) and operates in compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The purpose of the committee is to improve collaborative relationships and to provide advice and recommendations to the Forest Service concerning projects and funding consistent with Title II of the Act. RAC information can be found at the following Web site:
The meeting will be held January 12, 2017, at 1:00 p.m.
All RAC meetings are subject to cancellation. For status of the meeting prior to attendance, please contact the person listed under
The meeting will be held at the Lyon County Administration Complex, Commissioners Meeting Room, 27 South Main Street, Yerington, Nevada.
Written comments may be submitted as described under
Jeremy Marshall, Designated Federal Officer by phone at 760-932-5801, or via email at
Individuals who use telecommunication devices for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 between 8:00 a.m. and 8:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, Monday through Friday.
The purpose of the meeting is to:
1. Discuss new project proposals; and
2. Receive an update on current and completed projects.
The meeting is open to the public. The agenda will include time for people to make oral statements of three minutes or less. Individuals wishing to make an oral statement should request in writing by January 3, 2017, to be scheduled on the agenda. Anyone who would like to bring related matters to the attention of the committee may file written statements with the committee staff before or after the meeting. Written comments and requests for time for oral comments must be sent to Jeremy Marshall, Designated Federal Officer, Bridgeport Ranger District, HC 62, Box 1000, Bridgeport, California 93517; or by email to
Office of Inspector General, USDA.
Notice.
On November 9, 2016, USDA Inspector General Phyllis K. Fong, pursuant to authority vested in her by the Federal Vacancies Reform Act (5 U.S.C. 3345-3349d) and the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended (5 U.S.C. app. 3), issued IG-1313, Change 8, Succession, Delegations of Authority, and Signature Authorities. This directive is a revised succession order and reflects delegations of authority for the Office of Inspector General. This directive has been revised to update the lines of succession and delegation, and to clarify procedures to be followed in the event the Office of Inspector General (OIG) headquarters must be relocated. This directive provides guidance on the transfer of functions and duties of the Inspector General (IG), as well as other OIG central management functions,
November 29, 2016.
Christy Slamowitz, Counsel to the Inspector General, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Room 441-E, Washington, DC 20250-2308, Telephone: (202) 720-9110.
The OIG proposes revising the succession and delegations of authority for OIG by publishing a detailed sequence of succession within the Washington, DC, headquarters, followed by a detailed sequence of succession by region and position. This action is taken pursuant to authority vested in the Inspector General by the Federal Vacancies Reform Act (5 U.S.C. 3345-3349d) and the Inspector General Act of 1978 (5 U.S.C. app. 3).
For the reasons stated in the preamble, IG-1313, Change 8, Succession, Delegations of Authority, and Signature Authorities, has been revised to give notice of a delegation of authority and the line of succession from the Inspector General as follows:
I. Pursuant to authority vested in me by the Federal Vacancies Reform Act (5 U.S.C. 3345-3349d) and the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended (5 U.S.C. app. 3), during any period in which the Inspector General (IG), United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), resigns, dies, or is otherwise unable to perform the functions and duties of the office, and unless the President shall designate another officer to perform the functions and duties of the position, the Deputy IG, as the designated first assistant to the IG, shall temporarily perform the IG's functions and duties in an acting capacity, pursuant to and subject to the Federal Vacancies Reform Act (5 U.S.C. 3345-3349d). In the absence of the IG and Deputy IG, the officials designated below, in the order listed, shall become the acting Deputy IG and so shall temporarily perform the functions and duties of the IG. This order may be changed by a delegation in writing from the IG, or by the Deputy IG while acting in the absence of the IG:
1. Assistant IG for Audit (AIG/A);
2. Assistant IG for Investigations (AIG/I);
3. Assistant IG for Management (AIG/M);
4. Assistant IG for Data Sciences (AIG/DS);
5. Counsel to the IG;
6. Deputy Assistant IG for Audit (DAIG/A), by seniority;
7. Deputy Assistant IG for Investigations (DAIG/I);
The following officials for the listed locations in the following order:
8. Audit Directors, by seniority, then Investigations Director, Technical Crimes Division—Kansas City, Missouri;
9. Special Agent-in-Charge (SAC)—Temple, Texas;
10. Audit Director—Beltsville, Maryland;
11. SAC—New York, New York;
12. Audit Director, then SAC—Oakland, California;
13. Audit Director, then SAC—Atlanta, Georgia;
14. Audit Director, then SAC—Chicago, Illinois;
15. Director, Office of Compliance and Integrity; or
16. Director, Office of Diversity and Conflict Resolution.
II. For purposes of this order of succession, a designated official is a person holding a permanent appointment to the position. Persons filling positions in an acting capacity do not substitute for officials holding a permanent appointment to a position. If a position is vacant or an official occupying the position on a permanent basis is absent or unavailable, authority passes to the next available official occupying a position in the order of succession.
III. This delegation is not in derogation of any authority residing in the above officials relating to the operation of their respective programs, nor does it affect the validity of any delegations currently in force and effect and not specifically cited as revoked or revised herein.
IV. The authorities delegated herein may not be redelegated.
5 U.S.C. 3345-3349d; 5 U.S.C. app. 3.
Bureau of the Census, Department of Commerce.
Notice of determination.
As required by Section 203 of the Voting Rights Act of 1965, as amended, this notice publishes the Bureau of the Census (Census Bureau) Director's determinations as to which political subdivisions are subject to the minority language assistance provisions of the Act. As of this date, those jurisdictions that are listed as covered by Section 203 have a legal obligation to provide the minority language assistance prescribed by the Act.
This notice is effective on December 5, 2016.
For information regarding this notice, please contact Mr. James Whitehorne, Chief, Census Redistricting and Voting Rights Data Office, Bureau of the Census, United States Department of Commerce, Room 4H057, 4600 Silver Hill Rd, Washington, DC 20233, by telephone at 301-763-4039, or visit the Redistricting & Voting Rights Data Office Internet site at
For information regarding the applicable provisions of the Act, please contact T. Christian Herren, Jr., Chief, Voting Section, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice, Room 7254-NWB, 950 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20530, by telephone at (800) 253-3931 or visit the Voting Section Internet site at
In July 2006, Congress amended the Voting Rights Act of 1965, now codified at Title 52, United States Code (U.S.C.), § , 10301
Section 203 mandates that a state or political subdivision must provide language assistance to voters if more than five (5) percent of voting age citizens are members of a single-language minority group and do not “speak or understand English adequately enough to participate in the electoral process” and if the rate of those citizens who have not completed the fifth grade is higher than the national rate of voting age citizens who have not completed the fifth grade. When a state is covered for a particular language minority group, an exception is made for any political subdivision in which less than five (5) percent of the voting age citizens are members of the minority group and are limited in English proficiency, unless the political subdivision is covered independently. A political subdivision is also covered if more than 10,000 of the voting age citizens are members of a single-language minority group, do not “speak
Finally, if more than five (5) percent of the American Indian or Alaska Native voting age citizens residing within an American Indian Area, as defined for the purposes of the decennial census, are members of a single language minority group, do not “speak or understand English adequately enough to participate in the electoral process,” and the rate of those citizens who have not completed the fifth grade is higher than the national rate of voting age citizens who have not completed the fifth grade, any political subdivision, such as a county, which contains all or any part of that American Indian Area, is covered by the minority language assistance provision set forth in Section 203. For the 2010 Census, American Indian areas and Alaska Native Regional Corporations were identified by the federally recognized tribal governments, Bureau of Indian Affairs, and state governments. The Census Bureau worked with American Indians and Alaska Natives to identify statistical areas, such as Oklahoma Tribal Statistical Areas (OTSA), Tribal Designated Statistical Areas (TDSA), State Designated Tribal Statistical Areas (SDTSA), and Alaska Native Village Statistical Areas (ANVSA).
Pursuant to Section 203, the Census Bureau Director has the responsibility to determine which states and political subdivisions are subject to the minority language assistance provisions of Section 203. The state and political subdivisions obligated to comply with the requirements are listed in the attachment to this Notice.
Section 203 also provides that the “determinations of the Director of the Census under this subsection shall be effective upon publication in the
Economics and Statistics Administration (ESA), Department of Commerce.
Extension of deadline for nominations of members to the Commerce Data Advisory Council (CDAC).
The Secretary of Commerce is requesting nomination of individuals to the Commerce Data Advisory Council. The Secretary will consider nominations received in response to this notice, as well as from other sources. The
The Economics and Statistics Administration must receive nominations of members by midnight December 16, 2016.
Please submit nominations to the email account
Burton Reist, Director of External Affairs, Economics and Statistics Administration, Department of Commerce, at (202) 482-3331 or email
The Department of Commerce (Department) collects, compiles, analyzes, and disseminates a treasure trove of data, including data on the Nation's economy, population, and environment. This data is fundamental to the Department's mission and is used for the protection of life and property, for scientific purposes, and to enhance economic growth. However, the Department's capacity to disseminate the increasing amount of data held and to disseminate it in formats most useful to its customers is significantly constrained.
In order to realize the potential value of the data the Department collects, stores, and disseminates, the Department must minimize barriers to accessing and using the data. Consistent with privacy and security considerations, the Department is firmly committed to unleashing its untapped data resources in ways that best support downstream information access, processing, analysis, and dissemination.
The Commerce Data Advisory Council (CDAC) provides advice and recommendations, to include process and infrastructure improvements, to the Secretary on ways to make Commerce data easier to find, access, use, combine and disseminate. The aim of this advice shall be to maximize the value of Commerce data to all users including governments, businesses, communities, academia, and individuals.
The Secretary will draw CDAC membership from the data industry academia, non-profits and state and local governments with a focus on recognized expertise in collection, compilation, analysis, and dissemination. As privacy concerns span the entire data lifecycle, expertise in privacy protection also will be represented on the Council. The Secretary will select members that represent the entire spectrum of Commerce data including demographic, economic, scientific, environmental, patent, and geospatial data. The Secretary will select members from the information technology, business, non-profit, and academic communities, and state and local governments. Collectively, their knowledge will include all types of data Commerce distributes and the full lifecycle of data collection, compilation, analysis, and dissemination.
The Council shall advise the Secretary on ways to make Commerce data easier to find, access, use, combine, and disseminate. Such advice may include recommended process and infrastructure improvements. The aim of this advice shall be to maximize the value of Commerce data to governments, businesses, communities, and individuals.
In carrying out its duties, the Council may consider the following:
The Council meets up to four times a year, budget permitting. Special meetings may be called when appropriate.
Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), which sets forth standards for the formation and use of advisory committees, is the governing instrument for the CDAC.
1. The Council shall consist of up to 20 members.
2. The Secretary shall select and appoint members and members shall serve at the pleasure of the Secretary.
3. Members shall represent a cross-section of business, academic, non-profit, and non-governmental organizations.
4. The Secretary will choose members of the Council who ensure objectivity and balance, a diversity of perspectives, and guard against potential for conflicts of interest.
5. Members shall be prominent experts in their fields, recognized for their professional and other relevant achievements and their objectivity.
6. In order to ensure the continuity of the Commerce Data Advisory Council, the Council shall be appointed so that each year the terms expire of approximately one-third of the members of the Council.
7. Council members serve for terms of two years and may be reappointed to any number of additional terms. Initial appointments may be for 12-, 18- and 24-month increments to provide staggered terms.
8. Nominees must be able to actively participate in the tasks of the Council, including, but not limited to regular meeting attendance, Council meeting discussant responsibilities, and review of materials, as well as participation in conference calls, webinars, working groups, and special Council activities.
9. Should a council member be unable to complete a two-year term and when vacancies occur, the Secretary will select replacements who can best either replicate the expertise of the departing member or provide the CDAC with a new, identified needed area of expertise. An individual chosen to fill a vacancy shall be appointed for the remainder of the term of the member replaced or for a two-year term as deemed. A vacancy shall not affect the exercise of any power of the remaining members to execute the duties of the Council.
10. No employee of the federal government can serve as a member of the Census Scientific Advisory Committee.
All members of the Commerce Data Advisory Council shall adhere to the conflict of interest rules applicable to Special Government Employees as such employees are defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a). These rules include relevant provisions in 18 U.S.C. related to criminal activity, Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch (5 CFR part 2635), and Executive Order 12674 (as modified by Executive Order 12731).
1. Membership is under voluntary circumstances and therefore members do not receive compensation for service on the Commerce Data Advisory Council.
2. Members shall receive per diem and travel expenses as authorized by 5 U.S.C. 5703, as amended, for persons employed intermittently in the Government service.
The Secretary will consider nominations of all qualified individuals to ensure that the CDAC includes the areas of subject matter expertise noted above (see ”Background and Membership”). Individuals may nominate themselves or other individuals, and professional associations and organizations may nominate one or more qualified persons for membership on the CDAC. Nominations shall state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the Council. A nomination package should include the following information for each nominee:
1. A letter of nomination stating the name, affiliation, and contact information for the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
2. A biographical sketch of the nominee and a copy of his/her resume or curriculum vitae; and
3. The name, return address, email address, and daytime telephone number at which the nominator can be contacted.
The Department of Commerce is committed to equal opportunity in the workplace and seeks diverse Committee membership. The Department has special interest in assuring that women, minority groups, and the physically disabled are adequately represented on advisory committees; and therefore, extends particular encouragement to nominations for appropriately qualified female, minority, or disabled candidates. The Department of Commerce also encourages geographic diversity in the composition of the Council. All nomination information should be provided in a single, complete package and received by the stated deadline, December 16, 2016. Interested applicants should send their nomination package to the email or postal address provided above.
Potential candidates will be asked to provide detailed information concerning financial interests, consultancies, research grants, and/or contracts that might be affected by recommendations of the Council to permit evaluation of possible sources of conflicts of interest. Finally, nominees will be required to certify that they are not subject to the Foreign Agents Registration Act (22 U.S.C. 611) or the Lobbying Disclosure Act (2 U.S.C. 1601
Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Effective December 5, 2016.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the Agreement Suspending the Countervailing Duty Investigation of Sugar from Mexico (the CVD Agreement) for the period December 19, 2014, through December 31, 2015 (CVD review). Based upon the current record of this review, there is some indication that certain individual
Sally C. Gannon or David Cordell, Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-0162 or (202) 482-0408.
Merchandise covered by this CVD Agreement is typically imported under the following headings of the HTSUS: 1701.12.1000, 1701.12.5000, 1701.13.1000, 1701.13.5000, 1701.14.1000, 1701.14.5000, 1701.91.1000, 1701.91.3000, 1701.99.1010, 1701.99.1025, 1701.99.1050, 1701.99.5010, 1701.99.5025, 1701.99.5050, and 1702.90.4000. The tariff classification is provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope of this CVD Agreement is dispositive.
On December 19, 2014, the Department signed an agreement under section 704(c) of the Act, with the GOM, suspending the countervailing duty investigation on sugar from Mexico.
On December 30, 2015, Imperial and AmCane submitted requests for an administrative review of the CVD Agreement.
The review of the CVD Agreement was initiated on February 9, 2015,
The Department has conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(C) of the Act, which specifies that the Department shall “review the current status of, and compliance with, any agreement by reason of which an investigation was suspended.” Pursuant to the CVD Agreement, the GOM agreed that the subject merchandise would be subject to export limits as outlined in the CVD Agreement.
After reviewing the information received to date from the respondent companies in their questionnaire responses, there is some indication that certain individual transactions of subject merchandise may not be in compliance with the CVD Agreement and that the CVD Agreement may no longer be meeting all of the statutory requirements, as set forth in sections 704(c) and (d) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (the Act). However, based on the Department's review to date of the record information, we do not yet find a sufficient basis to make a reliable judgment as to whether the GOM and the Mexican respondent mills have adhered to the terms of the CVD Agreement and whether the CVD Agreement continues to meet the relevant requirements of the Act for such agreements. As detailed above, the Department found it necessary, late in the review, to seek additional information,
As discussed above, the Department needs additional information before making a definitive preliminary finding. Therefore, absent the issuance of a revised suspension agreement, we intend to issue our post-preliminary finding on these issues as soon as practicable. The comment period on these preliminary results as well as the post-preliminary results will be stated with the release of the post-preliminary results. At that time interested parties will have the opportunity to submit case and rebuttal briefs.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing, or to participate if one is requested, must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance, filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. Eastern Time within 30 days after the date of the issuance of the post-preliminary results. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues to be discussed. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case briefs. The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is conducting an administrative review of the Agreement Suspending the Antidumping Duty Investigation of Sugar from Mexico (the AD Agreement) for the period December 19, 2014, through November 30, 2015 (AD review). Based upon the current record of this review, there is some indication that certain individual transactions of subject merchandise may not be in compliance with the terms of the AD Agreement, and further, that the AD Agreement may no longer be meeting all of the statutory requirements, as set forth in sections 734(c) and (d) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). The Department, therefore, needs to obtain additional information in order to confirm whether the Mexican signatories subject to individual examination in this review are in compliance with the terms of the AD Agreement, and whether the current AD Agreement continues to meet the relevant statutory requirements referenced above. The preliminary results are set forth in the section titled “Methodology and Preliminary Results,”
Effective December 5, 2016.
Sally C. Gannon or Julie H. Santoboni, Enforcement & Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-0162 or (202) 482-3063.
Merchandise covered by this AD Agreement is typically imported under the following headings of the HTSUS: 1701.12.1000, 1701.12.5000, 1701.13.1000, 1701.13.5000, 1701.14.1000, 1701.14.5000, 1701.91.1000, 1701.91.3000, 1701.99.1010, 1701.99.1025, 1701.99.1050, 1701.99.5010, 1701.99.5025, 1701.99.5050, and 1702.90.4000. The tariff classification is provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope of this AD Agreement is dispositive.
On December 19, 2014, the Department signed an agreement under section 734(c) of the Act, with a representative of Mexican sugar producers/exporters accounting for substantially all imports of sugar from Mexico, suspending the antidumping duty investigation on sugar from Mexico.
On December 30, 2015, Imperial and AmCane submitted requests for an administrative review of the AD Agreement.
The review of the AD Agreement was initiated on February 9, 2015, for the December 19, 2014 through November 30, 2015, period of review.
The Department has conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(C) of the Act, which specifies that the Department shall “review the current status of, and compliance with, any agreement by reason of which an investigation was suspended.” Pursuant to the AD Agreement, each signatory producer/exporter individually agrees that it will not sell the subject merchandise at less than the reference prices established in Appendix I to the AD Agreement.
After reviewing the information received to date from the respondent companies in their questionnaire responses, there is some indication that certain individual transactions of subject merchandise may not be in compliance with the terms of the AD Agreement, and further, that the AD Agreement may no longer be meeting all of the statutory requirements, as set forth in sections 734(c) and (d) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (the Act). However, based on the Department's review to date of the record information, we do not yet find a sufficient basis to make a reliable judgment as to whether the respondents have adhered to the terms of the AD Agreement and whether the AD Agreement continues to meet the relevant requirements of the Act for such agreements. As detailed above, the Department found it necessary, late in the review, to seek additional information,
As discussed above, the Department needs additional information before making a definitive preliminary finding. Therefore, absent the issuance of a revised suspension agreement, we intend to issue our post-preliminary findings on these issues as soon as practicable. The comment period on these preliminary results as well as the post-preliminary results will be established at the release of the post-preliminary results. At that time interested parties will have the opportunity to submit case and rebuttal briefs, as well as to request a hearing pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c).
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, including the results of its analysis of the issues raised in any written briefs, not later than 120 days after the date of publication of this notice, pursuant to section 751(a)(3)(A) of the Act.
We are issuing and publishing these results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (the Department) is rescinding the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on prestressed concrete steel rail tie wire from Mexico for the period June 1, 2015, through May 31, 2016.
Effective December 5, 2016.
Aqmar Rahman or Jesus Saenz, AD/CVD Operations, Office VIII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-0768 and (202) 482-8184, respectively.
On June 2, 2016, the Department published in the
On June 20, 2016, in accordance with section 751(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.213(b), the Department received a timely request from Aceros Camesa, S.A. de C.V. (Camesa), a Mexican producer and exporter of the subject merchandise, to conduct an administrative review.
On August 11, 2016, the Department published in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if a party that requested a review withdraws the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. Camesa timely withdrew its review request before the 90-day deadline, and no other party requested an administrative review of the antidumping duty order. Therefore, in response to the timely withdrawal of the review request, the Department is rescinding in its entirety the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on prestressed concrete steel rail tie wire from Mexico covering the period June 1, 2015, through May 31, 2016.
The Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of prestressed concrete steel rail tie wire from Mexico. Antidumping duties shall be assessed at rates equal to the cash deposit of estimated antidumping duties required at the time of entry, or withdrawal from warehouse, for consumption, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(c)(1)(i). The Department intends to issue appropriate assessment instructions directly to CBP 41 days after the date of publication of this notice in the
This notice serves as the only reminder to importers of their responsibility, under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2), to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement may result in the presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
This notice is published in accordance with section 751 of the Act and 19 CFR 351.213(d)(4).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce
The Department of Commerce (the Department) determines that imports of certain carbon and alloy steel cut-to-length plate (CTL Plate) from Brazil, South Africa, and the Republic of Turkey (Turkey) are being, or likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation (POI) is April 1, 2015, through March 31, 2016. The final estimated dumping margins of sales at LTFV are shown in the “Final Determinations” section of this notice.
Effective December 5, 2016.
Mark Kennedy at (202) 482-7883 (Brazil); Julia Hancock or Susan Pulongbarit at (202) 482-1394 or (202) 482-4031, respectively (South Africa); or Dmitry Vladimirov at (202) 482-0665 (Turkey), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On September 7, 2016, and September 22, 2016, the Department published, respectively, the preliminary affirmative determinations of critical circumstances concerning Brazil and Turkey, and the preliminary affirmative determinations of sales at LTFV in the investigations of CTL Plate from Brazil, South Africa, and Turkey.
The products covered by these investigations are CTL plate. For a full description of the scope of the Brazil and Turkey investigations,
Prior to the
Because the mandatory respondents in these investigations did not provide the information requested, the Department did not conduct verifications.
As noted above, we received no comments pertaining to the
For Brazil, in accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily found that critical circumstances exist with respect to the mandatory respondents, CSN and Usiminas, and the “All-Others” group.
For Turkey, in accordance with section 733(e) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, we preliminarily found that critical circumstances exist with respect to the mandatory respondent, Erdemir, and the “All-Others” group.
As stated above, the Department did not receive any comments concerning the preliminary determinations. Thus, for these final determinations, we continue to find that, in accordance with section 735(a)(3) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, critical circumstances exist for imports from all producers and exporters of CTL plate from Brazil and Turkey.
As discussed in the
The final estimated weighted-average dumping margins are as follows:
In accordance with section 735(c)(4)(A) of the Act, for these final determinations, we will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of CTL Plate from Brazil and Turkey, as described in Appendix I of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after June 24, 2016 (90 days prior to the date of publication of the
In accordance with section 735(c)(1)(B) of the Act, for this final determination, the Department will instruct CBP to continue to suspend liquidation of all entries of CTL Plate from South Africa, as described in Appendix II of this notice, which were entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after September 22, 2016, the date of publication of the preliminary determination of the South Africa investigation in the
With respect to Brazil, pursuant to pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act, CBP shall require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) For CSN and Usiminas, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin which the Department determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for the producer of the subject merchandise; (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will be 74.52 percent, as discussed in the “All Others Rate” section, above.
With respect to South Africa, pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act, CBP shall require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) For Evraz Highveld, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin which the Department determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for the producer of the subject merchandise; (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will be 87.72 percent, as discussed in the “All Others Rate” section, above.
With respect to Turkey, pursuant to section 735(c)(1)(B)(ii) of the Act, CBP shall require a cash deposit equal to the weighted-average amount by which normal value exceeds U.S. price, as follows: (1) For Erdemir, the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin which the Department determined in this final determination; (2) if the exporter is not a firm identified in this investigation but the producer is, then the cash deposit rate will be equal to the estimated weighted-average dumping margin established for the producer of the subject merchandise; (3) the cash deposit rate for all other producers or exporters will be 42.02 percent, as discussed in the “All Others Rate” section, above.
These instructions suspending liquidation will remain in effect until further notice.
The weighted-average dumping margins assigned to the mandatory respondents in these investigations in the
In accordance with section 735(d) of the Act, we will notify the International Trade Commission (ITC) of the final affirmative determinations of sales at LTFV and final affirmative determinations of critical circumstances for Brazil and Turkey. Because the final determinations in these proceedings are affirmative, the ITC will make its final determinations as to whether the domestic industry in the United States is materially injured, or threatened with material injury, by reason of imports of CTL Plate from Brazil, South Africa, and Turkey, in accordance with section 735(b)(2) of the Act. If the ITC determines that such injury does not exist, these proceedings will be terminated and all securities posted will be refunded or canceled. If the ITC determines that such injury exists, the Department will issue antidumping duty orders directing CBP to assess, upon further instruction by the Department, antidumping duties on all imports of the subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the effective date of the suspension of liquidation.
This notice serves as a reminder to parties subject to an administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance
These determinations are issued and published in accordance with sections 735(d) and 777(i)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.210(c).
The products covered by these investigations are certain carbon and alloy steel hot-rolled or forged flat plate products not in coils, whether or not painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances (cut-to-length plate). Subject merchandise includes plate that is produced by being cut-to-length from coils or from other discrete length plate and plate that is rolled or forged into a discrete length. The products covered include (1) Universal mill plates (
For purposes of the width and thickness requirements referenced above, the following rules apply:
(1) Except where otherwise stated where the nominal and actual thickness or width measurements vary, a product from a given subject country is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above unless the product is already covered by an order existing on that specific country (
(2) where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
Steel products included in the scope of the investigations are products in which:
(1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; and
(2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less by weight.
Subject merchandise includes cut-to-length plate that has been further processed in the subject country or a third country, including but not limited to pickling, oiling, levelling, annealing, tempering, temper rolling, skin passing, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, beveling, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of these investigations if performed in the country of manufacture of the cut-to-length plate.
All products that meet the written physical description, are within the scope of these investigations unless specifically excluded or covered by the scope of an existing order. The following products are outside of, and/or specifically excluded from, the scope of these investigations:
(1) Products clad, plated, or coated with metal, whether or not painted, varnished or coated with plastic or other non-metallic substances;
(2) military grade armor plate certified to one of the following specifications or to a specification that references and incorporates one of the following specifications:
(3) stainless steel plate, containing 10.5 percent or more of chromium by weight and not more than 1.2 percent of carbon by weight;
(4) CTL plate meeting the requirements of ASTM A-829, Grade E 4340 that are over 305 mm in actual thickness;
(5) Alloy forged and rolled CTL plate greater than or equal to 152.4 mm in actual thickness meeting each of the following requirements:
(a) Electric furnace melted, ladle refined & vacuum degassed and having a chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) With a Brinell hardness measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness falling within one of the following ranges:
(i) 270-300 HBW,
(ii) 290-320 HBW, or
(iii) 320-350 HBW;
(c) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.5, B not exceeding 1.0, C not exceeding 0.5, D not exceeding 1.5; and
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 2 mm flat bottom hole;
(6) Alloy forged and rolled steel CTL plate over 407 mm in actual thickness and meeting the following requirements:
(a) Made from Electric Arc Furnace melted, Ladle refined & vacuum degassed, alloy steel with the following chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.5, B not exceeding 1.5, C not exceeding 1.0, D not exceeding 1.5;
(c) Having the following mechanical properties:
(i) With a Brinell hardness not more than 237 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 75ksi min and UTS 95ksi or more, Elongation of 18% or more and Reduction of area 35% or more; having charpy V at −75 degrees F in the longitudinal direction equal or greater than 15 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 20 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens) and conforming to the requirements of NACE MR01-75; or
(ii) With a Brinell hardness not less than 240 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 90ksi min and UTS 110ksi or more, Elongation of 15% or more and Reduction of area 30% or more; having charpy V at −40 degrees F in the longitudinal direction equal or greater than 21 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 31 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens);
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 3.2 mm flat bottom hole; and
(e) Conforming to magnetic particle inspection in accordance with AMS 2301;
(7) Alloy forged and rolled steel CTL plate over 407 mm in actual thickness and meeting the following requirements:
(a) Made from Electric Arc Furnace melted, ladle refined & vacuum degassed, alloy steel with the following chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.0(t) and 0.5(h), B not exceeding 1.5(t) and 1.0(h), C not exceeding 1.0(t) and 0.5(h), and D not exceeding 1.5(t) and 1.0(h);
(c) Having the following mechanical properties: A Brinell hardness not less than 350 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 145ksi or more and UTS 160ksi or more, Elongation of 15% or more and Reduction of area 35% or more; having charpy V at −40 degrees F in the transverse direction equal or greater than 20 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 25 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens);
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 3.2 mm flat bottom hole; and
(e) Conforming to magnetic particle inspection in accordance with AMS 2301.
The products subject to the investigations are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7208.40.3030, 7208.40.3060, 7208.51.0030, 7208.51.0045, 7208.51.0060, 7208.52.0000, 7211.13.0000, 7211.14.0030, 7211.14.0045, 7225.40.1110, 7225.40.1180, 7225.40.3005, 7225.40.3050, 7226.20.0000, and 7226.91.5000.
The products subject to the investigations may also enter under the following HTSUS item numbers: 7208.40.6060, 7208.53.0000, 7208.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7210.90.9000, 7211.19.1500, 7211.19.2000, 7211.19.4500, 7211.19.6000, 7211.19.7590, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7212.50.0000, 7214.10.0000, 7214.30.0010, 7214.30.0080, 7214.91.0015, 7214.91.0060, 7214.91.0090, 7225.11.0000, 7225.19.0000, 7225.40.5110, 7225.40.5130, 7225.40.5160, 7225.40.7000, 7225.99.0010, 7225.99.0090, 7226.11.1000, 7226.11.9060, 7226.19.1000, 7226.19.9000, 7226.91.0500, 7226.91.1530, 7226.91.1560, 7226.91.2530, 7226.91.2560, 7226.91.7000, 7226.91.8000, and 7226.99.0180.
The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigations is dispositive.
The products covered by this investigation are certain carbon and alloy steel hot-rolled or forged flat plate products not in coils, whether or not painted, varnished, or coated with plastics or other non-metallic substances (cut-to-length plate). Subject merchandise includes plate that is produced by being cut-to-length from coils or from other discrete length plate and plate that is rolled or forged into a discrete length. The products covered include (1) Universal mill plates (
For purposes of the width and thickness requirements referenced above, the following rules apply:
(1) Except where otherwise stated where the nominal and actual thickness or width measurements vary, a product from a given subject country is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above; and
(2) where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
Steel products included in the scope of the investigation are products in which: (1) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements; and (2) the carbon content is 2 percent or less by weight.
Subject merchandise includes cut-to-length plate that has been further processed in the subject country or a third country, including but not limited to pickling, oiling, levelling, annealing, tempering, temper rolling, skin passing, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, beveling, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of this investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the cut-to-length plate.
All products that meet the written physical description, are within the scope of this investigation unless specifically excluded or covered by the scope of an existing order. The following products are outside of, and/or specifically excluded from, the scope of this investigation:
(1) Products clad, plated, or coated with metal, whether or not painted, varnished or coated with plastic or other non-metallic substances;
(2) military grade armor plate certified to one of the following specifications or to a specification that references and incorporates one of the following specifications:
(3) stainless steel plate, containing 10.5 percent or more of chromium by weight and not more than 1.2 percent of carbon by weight;
(4) CTL plate meeting the requirements of ASTM A-829, Grade E 4340 that are over 305 mm in actual thickness;
(5) Alloy forged and rolled CTL plate greater than or equal to 152.4 mm in actual thickness meeting each of the following requirements:
(a) Electric furnace melted, ladle refined & vacuum degassed and having a chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) With a Brinell hardness measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness falling within one of the following ranges:
(i) 270-300 HBW,
(ii) 290-320 HBW, or
(iii) 320-350 HBW;
(c) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.5, B not exceeding 1.0, C not exceeding 0.5, D not exceeding 1.5; and
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 2 mm flat bottom hole;
(6) Alloy forged and rolled steel CTL plate over 407 mm in actual thickness and meeting the following requirements:
(a) Made from Electric Arc Furnace melted, Ladle refined & vacuum degassed, alloy steel with the following chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.5, B not exceeding 1.5, C not exceeding 1.0, D not exceeding 1.5;
(c) Having the following mechanical properties:
(i) With a Brinell hardness not more than 237 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 75ksi min and UTS 95ksi or more, Elongation of 18% or more and Reduction of area 35% or more; having charpy V at −75 degrees F in the longitudinal direction equal or greater than 15 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 20 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens) and conforming to the requirements of NACE MR01-75; or
(ii) With a Brinell hardness not less than 240 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 90 ksi min and UTS 110 ksi or more, Elongation of 15% or more and Reduction of area 30% or more; having charpy V at −40 degrees F in the longitudinal direction equal or greater than 21 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 31 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens);
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 3.2 mm flat bottom hole; and
(e) Conforming to magnetic particle inspection in accordance with AMS 2301;
(7) Alloy forged and rolled steel CTL plate over 407 mm in actual thickness and meeting the following requirements:
(a) Made from Electric Arc Furnace melted, ladle refined & vacuum degassed, alloy steel with the following chemical composition (expressed in weight percentages):
(b) Having cleanliness in accordance with ASTM E45 method A (Thin and Heavy): A not exceeding 1.0(t) and 0.5(h), B not exceeding 1.5(t) and 1.0(h), C not exceeding 1.0(t) and 0.5(h), and D not exceeding 1.5(t) and 1.0(h);
(c) Having the following mechanical properties: A Brinell hardness not less than 350 HBW measured in all parts of the product including mid thickness; and having a Yield Strength of 145ksi or more and UTS 160ksi or more, Elongation of 15% or more and Reduction of area 35% or more; having charpy V at −40 degrees F in the transverse direction equal or greater than 20 ft. lbs (single value) and equal or greater than 25 ft. lbs (average of 3 specimens);
(d) Conforming to ASTM A578-S9 ultrasonic testing requirements with acceptance criteria 3.2 mm flat bottom hole; and
(e) Conforming to magnetic particle inspection in accordance with AMS 2301.
The products subject to the investigation are currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under item numbers: 7208.40.3030, 7208.40.3060, 7208.51.0030, 7208.51.0045, 7208.51.0060, 7208.52.0000, 7211.13.0000, 7211.14.0030, 7211.14.0045, 7225.40.1110, 7225.40.1180, 7225.40.3005, 7225.40.3050, 7226.20.0000, and 7226.91.5000.
The products subject to the investigation may also enter under the following HTSUS item numbers: 7208.40.6060, 7208.53.0000, 7208.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7210.90.9000, 7211.19.1500, 7211.19.2000, 7211.19.4500, 7211.19.6000, 7211.19.7590, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7212.50.0000, 7214.10.0000, 7214.30.0010, 7214.30.0080, 7214.91.0015, 7214.91.0060, 7214.91.0090, 7225.11.0000, 7225.19.0000, 7225.40.5110, 7225.40.5130, 7225.40.5160, 7225.40.7000, 7225.99.0010, 7225.99.0090, 7226.11.1000, 7226.11.9060, 7226.19.1000, 7226.19.9000, 7226.91.0500, 7226.91.1530, 7226.91.1560, 7226.91.2530, 7226.91.2560, 7226.91.7000, 7226.91.8000, and 7226.99.0180.
The HTSUS subheadings above are provided for convenience and customs purposes only. The written description of the scope of the investigation is dispositive.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Commerce.
Notice of decision and availability of decision documents on the issuance of six ESA section 10(a)(1)(A) research/enhancement permits for take of threatened species.
This notice advises the public that six direct take permits have been issued pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA) for continued operation, monitoring, and evaluation of hatchery program rearing and releasing salmon in Northeast Oregon and Southeast Washington portions of the Snake River basin, and associated decision documents. The permits were issued to the Oregon Department of Fish and Wildlife, Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife, and the Bureau of Indian Affairs.
The permits were issued on October 28, 2016, subject to certain conditions set forth therein. Subsequent to issuance, the necessary countersignatures by the applicants were received. The permits expire on December 31, 2027.
Requests for copies of the decision documents or any of the other associated documents should be directed to the Sustainable Fisheries Division, NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service, 1201 NE Lloyd Blvd., Suite 1100, Portland, Oregon 97232. The documents are also available online at
Brett Farman, Portland, Oregon, at phone number: (503) 231-6222, email:
This notice is relevant to the following species and evolutionarily significant units (ESUs):
Chinook salmon (
Steelhead (
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of determination and availability of analysis documents on ten hatchery programs rearing salmon and steelhead in Hood Canal, Puget Sound, Washington State.
NMFS has evaluated ten Hatchery and Genetics Management Plans (HGMPs) submitted to NMFS pursuant to the limitation on take prohibitions for actions conducted under Limit 6 of the 4(d) Rule for salmon and steelhead promulgated under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). The HGMPs specify the propagation of Chinook, coho, pink, and fall chum salmon and steelhead in the Hood Canal watershed of Washington State. This document serves to notify the public that NMFS, by delegated authority from the Secretary of Commerce, has determined pursuant to Limit 6 of the ESA 4(d) Rule for salmon and steelhead that implementing and enforcing the plans will not appreciably reduce the likelihood of survival and recovery of Puget Sound Chinook salmon, Hood Canal summer chum, and Puget Sound steelhead.
The final determination on the HGMPs was made on October 17, 2016.
Requests for copies of the decision documents or any of the other associated documents should be directed to the Sustainable Fisheries Division, NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service, 1201 NE Lloyd Blvd., Suite 1100, Portland, Oregon 97232. The documents are also available on the Internet at
Charlene Hurst, Portland, Oregon, at phone number: (503) 230-230-5409, email:
Chinook salmon (
Steelhead (
Chum salmon (
The Washington Department of Fish and Wildlife (WDFW), the Port Gamble S'Klallam Tribe, The Skokomish Tribe, the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), and NOAA's National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) Northwest Fisheries Science Center submitted ten Hatchery and Genetics Management Plans (HGMP) for salmon and steelhead hatchery programs in Hood Canal. The ten HGMPs were submitted for review and determination under Limit 6 of the ESA 4(d) Rule, 50 CPR 223.203(b)(6) (65 FR 42422; July 10, 2000, as amended 70 FR 37160; June 28, 2012).
Two of these programs are designed to preserve and bolster the natural spawning abundance of the native Hood Canal populations and contribute to recovery of the listed species. The remaining eights programs are operated for harvest augmentation purposes.
As required by § 223.203(b)(6) of the ESA 4(d) rule, NMFS must determine pursuant to 50 CFR 223.209 and pursuant to the government-to-government processes therein whether the ten plans for Hood Canal salmon and steelhead hatchery programs would appreciably reduce the likelihood of survival and recovery of the Puget Sound Chinook Salmon ESU, Hood Canal Summer Chum ESU, or Puget Sound Steelhead DPS. NMFS must take comments on how the plans address the criteria in § 223.203(b)(5) in making that determination.
Two of the programs, the Hamma Hamma Chinook salmon and Hood Canal Steelhead Supplementation programs, provide conservation benefits for species listed under the Endangered Species Act (ESA). The remaining eight programs are implemented to help meet tribal fishery harvest allocations guaranteed through treaties, as affirmed in
The programs are intended to conserve native, ESA-listed and non-listed populations of salmon and steelhead in Hood Canal. NMFS' Sustainable Fisheries Division prepared, pursuant to section 7 of the ESA, a biological opinion to evaluate the effects of the action on listed salmonids. As described in SFD's biological opinion, the approval of the HGMPs is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence or recovery of listed Puget Sound Chinook salmon, Hood Canal Summer Chum Salmon, or Puget Sound steelhead, nor result in the destruction or adverse modification of their critical habitat.
The programs may also help attenuate impacts associated with climate change over the short-term by providing a refuge from adverse effects for the propagated species through circumvention of potentially adverse migration, natural spawning, incubation, and rearing conditions.
The HGMPs include provisions for annual reports that will assess compliance with performance standards established through the HGMPs. Reporting and inclusion of new information derived from HGMP research, monitoring, and evaluation activities provides assurance that performance standards will be achieved in future seasons. NMFS' evaluation is available on the West Coast Region Web site at
NMFS published notice of its proposed evaluation and pending determination on the plans for public review and comment on March 3, 2016 (81 FR 11192). The proposed evaluation and pending determination and an associated draft environmental assessment were available for public review and comment for 30 days.
During the public comment period, NMFS received one comment letter. None of the comments raised issues that required substantive modification of the NMFS 4(d) or NEPA documents. The comments and NMFS' detailed responses are available on the West Coast Region Web site, as an appendix to the environmental assessment. Based on its evaluation and recommended determination and taking into account the public comments, NMFS issued its final determination on the Hood Canal salmon and steelhead hatchery plans.
Under section 4 of the ESA, the Secretary of Commerce is required to adopt such regulations as he deems necessary and advisable for the conservation of species listed as threatened. The ESA salmon and steelhead 4(d) rule (65 FR 42422; July 10, 2000) specifies categories of activities that contribute to the conservation of listed salmonids and sets out the criteria for such activities. The rule further provides that the prohibitions of paragraph (a) of the rule do not apply to actions undertaken in compliance with a plan developed jointly by a state and a tribe and determined by NMFS to be in accordance with the salmon and steelhead 4(d) rule (65 FR 42422; July 10, 2000).
Proposed collection; comment request.
The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A), is proposing an extension of an existing information collection; the Native American Tribal Insignia Database.
Written comments must be submitted on or before February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
Requests for additional information should be directed to Catherine Cain, Attorney Advisor, Office of the Deputy Commissioner for Trademark Examination Policy, United States Patent and Trademark Office, P.O. Box 1451, Alexandria, VA 22313-1451; by telephone at 571-272-8946; or by email to
The Trademark Law Treaty Implementation Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-330, 302, 112 Stat. 3071) required the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) to study issues surrounding the protection of the official insignia of federally and state-recognized Native American tribes under trademark law. The USPTO conducted the study and presented a report to the House and Senate Judiciary Committees on November 30, 1999. One of the recommendations made in the report was that the USPTO create and maintain an accurate and comprehensive database containing the official insignia of all federally and state-recognized Native American tribes. In accordance with this recommendation, the Senate Committee on Appropriations directed the USPTO to create this database.
The USPTO database of official tribal insignias provides evidence of what a federally or state-recognized Native American tribe considers to be its official insignia. The database thereby assists trademark examining attorneys in their examination of applications for trademark registration by serving as a reference for determining the registrability of a mark that may falsely suggest a connection to the official insignia of a Native American tribe. The database is also available to the public on the USPTO Web site at
Tribes are not required to request that their official insignia be included in the database. The entry of an official insignia into the database does not confer any rights to the tribe that submitted the insignia, and entry is not the legal equivalent of registering the insignia as a trademark under 15 U.S.C. 1051
Requests from federally recognized tribes to enter an official insignia into the database must be submitted in writing and include: (1) A depiction of the insignia, including the name of the tribe and the address for correspondence; (2) a copy of the tribal resolution adopting the insignia in question as the official insignia of the tribe; and (3) a statement, signed by an official with authority to bind the tribe, confirming that the insignia included with the request is identical to the official insignia adopted by the tribal resolution.
Requests from state-recognized tribes must also be in writing and include each of the three items described above that are submitted by federally recognized tribes. Additionally, requests from state-recognized tribes must include either: (a) A document issued by a state official that evidences the state's determination that the entity is a Native American tribe; or (b) a citation to a state statute designating the entity as a Native American tribe.
The USPTO enters insignia that have been properly submitted by federally or state-recognized Native American tribes into the database and does not investigate whether the insignia is actually the official insignia of the tribe making the request.
This collection includes the information needed by the USPTO to enter an official insignia for a federally or state-recognized Native American tribe into a database of such insignia. No forms are associated with this collection.
By mail, facsimile, or hand delivery to the USPTO.
Customers may incur postage costs when submitting the information in this collection to the USPTO by mail. The USPTO estimates that the average first-class postage cost for a submission mailed through the U.S. Postal Service will be $1.20 (based on a large 9″ by 12″ envelope weighing 2 ounces) and that 4 submissions will be mailed to the USPTO per year. Therefore, the total annual (non-hour) respondent cost burden for this collection is estimated to be approximately $4.80 per year.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
The USPTO is soliciting public comments to:
(a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Air Force Materiel Command.
Notice of intent.
Pursuant to the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations, the Department of the Air Force hereby gives notice of its intent to grant an exclusive patent license agreement to Protective Innovations, LLC, a corporation of the State of Delaware.
Written objections must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of publication of this Notice.
Submit written objections to the Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Room 260, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109; Facsimile: (937) 255-3733; or Email:
Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Rm. 260, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109; Facsimile: (937) 255-3733; Email:
The Department of the Air Force intends to grant the exclusive patent license agreement for the invention described in:
Air Force Materiel Command.
Notice of intent.
Pursuant to the Bayh-Dole Act and implementing regulations, the Department of the Air Force hereby gives notice of its intention to grant an exclusive patent license agreement to The University of Utah, an educational institution duly organized, validly existing, and in good standing in the State of Utah, having a place of business at 615 Arapeen Drive, Suite 310, Salt Lake City, UT 84108. Authority: 35 U.S.C. 209; 37 CFR 404.
Written objections must be filed no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the date of publication of this Notice.
Submit written objections to the Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Rm. 101, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109; Facsimile: (937) 255-3733; or Email:
Air Force Materiel Command Law Office, AFMCLO/JAZ, 2240 B Street, Rm. 101, Wright-Patterson AFB, OH 45433-7109;
The Department of the Air Force intends to grant an exclusive patent license agreement for the invention described in:
• U.S. Provisional Application No. 62/054,835, entitled, “EBOLAVIRUS PREHAIRPIN INTERMEDIATE MIMICS,” by Tracy Clinton, Michael Jacobsen, Matthew Weinstock, Brett Welch, Debra Eckert, and Michael Kay, and filed on 24 September 2014; and
• International Application No. PCT/US15/052,061, entitled, “EBOLAVIRUS PRE-HAIRPIN INTERMEDIATE MIMICS AND METHODS OF USE,” by Tracy Clinton, Michael Jacobsen, Matthew Weinstock, Brett Welch, Debra Eckert, and Michael Kay, filed on 24 September 2015, and published as International Application Publication No. WO 2016/049380.
The Department of the Air Force may grant the prospective license unless a timely objection is received that sufficiently shows the grant of the license would be inconsistent with the Bayh-Dole Act or implementing regulations. A competing application for a patent license agreement, completed in compliance with 37 CFR 404.8 and received by the Air Force within the period for timely objections, will be treated as an objection and may be considered as an alternative to the proposed license.
Office of Science, Department of Energy.
Notice of cancellation of open teleconference.
On November 25, 2016, the Department of Energy (DOE) published a notice of open teleconference scheduled for December 12, 2016, of the President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology. This notice announces the cancellation of this meeting. The meeting is being cancelled because the board will not have a quorum due to scheduling conflicts by members.
The teleconference scheduled for December 12, 2016, announced in the November 25, 2016, issue of the
Ms. Jennifer Michael at email:
This constitutes notice, in accordance with 18 CFR 385.2201(b), of the receipt of prohibited and exempt off-the-record communications.
Order No. 607 (64 FR 51222, September 22, 1999) requires Commission decisional employees, who make or receive a prohibited or exempt off-the-record communication relevant to the merits of a contested proceeding, to deliver to the Secretary of the Commission, a copy of the communication, if written, or a summary of the substance of any oral communication.
Prohibited communications are included in a public, non-decisional file associated with, but not a part of, the decisional record of the proceeding. Unless the Commission determines that the prohibited communication and any responses thereto should become a part of the decisional record, the prohibited off-the-record communication will not be considered by the Commission in reaching its decision. Parties to a proceeding may seek the opportunity to respond to any facts or contentions made in a prohibited off-the-record communication, and may request that the Commission place the prohibited communication and responses thereto in the decisional record. The Commission will grant such a request only when it determines that fairness so requires. Any person identified below as having made a prohibited off-the-record communication shall serve the document on all parties listed on the official service list for the applicable proceeding in accordance with Rule 2010, 18 CFR 385.2010.
Exempt off-the-record communications are included in the decisional record of the proceeding, unless the communication was with a cooperating agency as described by 40 CFR 1501.6, made under 18 CFR 385.2201(e)(1)(v).
The following is a list of off-the-record communications recently received by the Secretary of the Commission. The communications listed are grouped by docket numbers in ascending order. These filings are available for electronic review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric reliability filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of final peer reviewer selection, public peer review meeting and final peer review charge questions.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing
The public peer review meeting will be held on January 10 and 11, 2017. The meeting will be held from approximately 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., eastern time, on January 10; and from approximately 8:30 a.m. to 2 p.m., eastern time, on January 11. The registration deadline to attend the meeting in-person or via teleconference, and to request to make a brief oral statement at the meeting, is January 3, 2017. See the
The public peer review meeting will be held at the Crystal City Marriott at Reagan National Airport, located at 1999 Jefferson Davis Highway, Arlington, Virginia. The phone number for the teleconference line will be provided to registered observers prior to the meeting.
Questions regarding logistics or registration for the external peer review meeting should be directed to Versar, Inc., at 6850 Versar Center, Springfield, VA 22151; by email:
To attend the peer review meeting as an observer, either in-person or via teleconference, register no later than January 3, 2017. You may register by sending an email to
EPA announced the release of the draft BBDR model for perchlorate in drinking water and accompanying draft model report for purposes of public comment (scientific views) and peer review on September 30, 2016, in the
EPA announced the release of the draft peer review charge questions on September 30, 2016, in the
Consistent with guidelines for the peer review of highly influential scientific assessments, EPA tasked a contractor (Versar, Inc.) to assemble a panel of experts to evaluate the draft BBDR model and draft model report. Versar, Inc., evaluated 35 candidates who were either nominated during two previous public comment periods (March 1 to 31, 2016, and June 3 to July 5, 2016) or were identified by Versar to augment the list of publically-nominated candidates. Versar narrowed the list of potential reviewers to 19 candidates and solicited public comments on the interim list on September 30, 2016, in the
EPA requests that no individual or organization contact in any way the peer reviewers regarding the subject of the peer review meeting, send them written materials regarding the subject of the meeting, or make any offers or requests to any of them that appear to be linked to their participation in the peer review. The contractor (Versar, Inc.) will direct the reviewers to report any such contacts to the contractor (Versar, Inc.), who will take appropriate action in consultation with EPA to ensure the independence and impartiality of the peer review.
EPA has charged the peer reviewers with evaluating and preparing written comments on the draft BBDR model and draft model report. Specifically, reviewers will provide general comments, their overall impressions of the draft model and draft model report and responses to the charge questions. Reviewers will also consider the appropriateness of the quality, accuracy and relevance of the data in the documents. Versar will provide a summary of comments (along with the full text of the comments) submitted to EPA's public docket (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2016-0438) during the 56-day public comment period on the draft model and draft model report to the peer reviewers ahead of the meeting for their consideration.
Peer reviewers will participate in the two-day, public peer review meeting to discuss the scientific basis supporting EPA's draft BBDR model and model report. Following the peer review meeting, Versar will provide a peer review summary report to EPA containing the comments and recommendations from the peer reviewers. EPA will make the final peer review report available to the public.
In preparing the final BBDR model and model report, EPA will consider Versar's report of the comments and recommendations from the external peer review meeting, as well as written public comments received through the official public docket during the previous 56-day comment period on the draft model and draft model report.
Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board.
Notice.
The exposure draft is available on the FASAB Web site at
Respondents are encouraged to comment on any part of the exposure draft. Written comments are requested by January 9, 2017, and should be sent to
Ms. Wendy M. Payne, Executive Director, 441 G Street NW., Mailstop 6H19, Washington, DC 20548, or call (202) 512-7350.
Federal Advisory Committee Act, Pub. L. 92-463.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before February 3, 2017. If you anticipate that you will submit comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice of public meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this notice advises interested persons that the Federal Communications Commission's (FCC) Technological Advisory Council will hold a meeting.
Wednesday, December 7th, 2016 in the Commission Meeting Room, from 10:00 a.m. to 4 p.m.
Federal Communications Commission, 445 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20554.
Walter Johnston, Chief, Electromagnetic Compatibility Division, 202-418-0807;
At the December 7th meeting, the FCC Technological Advisory Council will final recommendations on its work program agreed to at its initial meeting on March 9th, 2016. The FCC will attempt to accommodate as many people as possible. However, admittance will be limited to seating availability. Meetings are also broadcast live with open captioning over the Internet from the FCC Live Web page at
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communication Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before January 4, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Nicholas A. Fraser, OMB, via email
For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) Go to the Web page <
Among other things, the FCC established procedures in document FCC 11-151 to facilitate the filing of formal and informal complaints alleging violations of sections 255, 716, or 718 of the Act. Those procedures include a nondiscretionary pre-filing notice procedure to facilitate dispute resolution. As a prerequisite to filing an informal complaint, complainants must first request dispute assistance from the Consumer and Governmental Affairs Bureau's Disability Rights Office.
The filing of a request for dispute assistance is used to initiate a 30-day period which must precede the filing of an informal complaint. The burdens associated with filing requests for dispute assistance and informal complaints are contained in the collection found in OMB control number 3060-0874. Therefore, the Commission extracted those burdens from the collection found in OMB control number 3060-1167. In addition, the Commission has revised its estimate of the number of requests for dispute assistance and the number of informal complaints that it expects to receive and the burdens associated with the processing and handling of those requests and complaints.
The rules adopted by the Commission, in FCC 16-89, contain the following information collections:
Section 25.136—This rule contains both a third party coordination requirement and a filing requirement. Both requirements are necessary to ensure that Fixed Satellite Service earth stations can receive interference protection without having an undue impact on terrestrial deployment.
Section 30.3—This rule contains a filing requirement which is necessary to ascertain compliance with the foreign ownership restrictions contained in the Communications Act and the Commission's rules.
Section 30.8—This rule contains a requirement that each licensee file a statement describing its network security plans and related information, which shall be signed by a senior executive within the licensee's organization with personal knowledge of the security plans and practices within the licensee's organization. This statement is necessary to ensure that licensees properly take security into consideration when designing their systems.
Section 30.105—This rule contains filing requirements relating to demonstration of compliance with the Commission's buildout requirements. These filings are necessary in order to ensure that licensees are placing the spectrum in use and not warehousing spectrum.
Section 30.107—This rule contains filing requirements that apply when licensees propose to discontinue service. These filings are necessary in order to ensure that licensees are placing the spectrum in use and not warehousing spectrum.
On August 5, 2016, the Commission released a Report and Order, document FCC 16-101, adopting rules to establish the NDBEDP, also known as “iCanConnect,” as a permanent program. See 47 CFR 64.6201 through 64.6219. In document FCC 16-101, the Commission clarified that the pilot program will not terminate until after all reports have been submitted, all payments and adjustments have been made, and all wind-down activities have been completed, and no issues with regard to the NDBEDP pilot program remain pending. Information collections related to NDBEDP pilot program activities are included in OMB Control Number 3060-1146, Implementation of the Twenty-first Century Communications and Video Accessibility Act of 2010, Section 105, Relay Services for Deaf-Blind Individuals, CG Docket No. 10-210, which will expire June 30, 2018.
Rules for the NDBEDP permanent program that are subject to the PRA will become effective on the date specified in a notice published in the
Because the information collection burdens related to NDBEDP pilot program activities overlap in time with the information collection burdens related to NDBEDP permanent program activities, the Commission is seeking approval for a new collection for the information burdens associated with the permanent NDBEDP.
In document FCC 16-101, the Commission adopted rules requiring the following:
(a) Entities must apply to the Commission for certification to receive reimbursement from the TRS Fund for NDBEDP activities.
(b) A program wishing to relinquish its certification before its certification expires must provide written notice of its intent to do so.
(c) Certified programs must disclose to the Commission actual or potential conflicts of interest.
(d) Certified programs must notify the Commission of any substantive change that bears directly on its ability to meet the qualifications necessary for certification.
(e) A certified entity may present written arguments and any relevant documentation as to why suspension or revocation of certification is not warranted.
(f) When a new entity is certified as a state's program, the previously certified entity must take certain actions to complete the transition to the new entity.
(g) Certified programs must require an applicant to provide verification that the applicant is deaf-blind.
(h) Certified programs must require an applicant to provide verification that the applicant meets the income eligibility requirement.
(i) Certified programs must re-verify the income and disability eligibility of an equipment recipient under certain circumstances.
(j) Certified programs must permit the transfer of an equipment recipient's account when the recipient relocates to another state.
(k) Certified programs must include an attestation on consumer application forms.
(l) Certified programs must conduct annual audits and submit to Commission-directed audits.
(m) Certified programs must document compliance with NDBEDP requirements, provide such documentation to the Commission upon request, and retain such records for at least five years.
(n) Certified programs must submit reimbursement claims as instructed by the TRS Fund Administrator, and supplemental information and documentation as requested. In addition, the entity selected to conduct national outreach will submit claims for reimbursement on a quarterly basis.
(o) Certified programs must submit reports every six months as instructed by the NDBEDP Administrator. In addition, the entity selected to conduct national outreach will submit an annual report.
(p) Informal and formal complaints may be filed against NEDBEDP certified programs, and the Commission may conduct such inquiries and hold such proceedings as it may deem necessary.
(q) Certified programs must include the NDBEDP whistleblower protections in appropriate publications.
Federal Election Commission.
Thursday, December 8, 2016 at 10:00 a.m.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC (Ninth Floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
Individuals who plan to attend and require special assistance, such as sign
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The application also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B)). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than December 30, 2016.
1.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than December 30, 2016.
1.
The notificants listed below have applied under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and § 225.41 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41) to acquire shares of a bank or bank holding company. The factors that are considered in acting on the notices are set forth in paragraph 7 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)).
The notices are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notices also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing to the Reserve Bank indicated for that notice or to the offices of the Board of Governors. Comments must be received not later than December 19, 2016.
1.
Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”).
Notice and request for comment.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the FTC is seeking public comments on its request to OMB for a three-year extension of the current PRA clearance for the FTC's portion of the information collection requirements contained in the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Regulation N (the Mortgage Acts and Practices—Advertising Rule). The FTC shares enforcement of Regulation N with the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (“CFPB”). This clearance expires on December 31, 2016.
Comments must be received by January 4, 2017.
Interested parties may file a comment online or on paper, by following the instructions in the Request for Comment part of the
Requests for additional information or copies of the proposed information requirements should be addressed to Carole L. Reynolds, Attorney, Division of Financial Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20580, (202) 326-3230.
The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act)
Regulation N's recordkeeping requirements constitute a “collection of information”
Regulation N requires covered persons to retain: (1) Copies of materially different commercial communications and related materials, regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, that the person made or disseminated during the relevant time period; (2) documents describing or evidencing all mortgage credit products available to consumers during the relevant time period; and (3) documents describing or evidencing all additional products or services (such as credit insurance or credit disability insurance) that are or may be offered or provided with the mortgage credit products available to consumers during the relevant time period. A failure to keep such records would be an independent violation of the Rule.
Commission staff believes these recordkeeping requirements pertain to records that are usual and customary and kept in the ordinary course of business for many covered persons, such as mortgage brokers, lenders, and servicers; real estate brokers and agents; home builders, and advertising agencies.
The information retained under the Rule's recordkeeping requirements is used by the Commission to substantiate compliance with the Rule and may also provide a basis for the Commission to bring an enforcement action. Without the required records, it would be difficult either to ensure that entities are complying with the Rule's requirements or to bring enforcement actions based on violations of the Rule.
On August 31, 2016, the Commission sought comment on the Rule's information collection requirements.
As required by OMB regulations, 5 CFR part 1320, the FTC is providing this second opportunity for public comment.
• Derived from 1,000 likely respondents
• Since the FTC shares enforcement authority with the CFPB for Regulation N, the FTC's allotted PRA burden is 1,500 annual hours.
You can file a comment online or on paper. For the Commission to consider your comment, we must receive it on or before January 4, 2017. Write “Regulation N: FTC File No. P134811; K05” on your comment. Your comment—including your name and your state—will be placed on the public record of this proceeding, including, to the extent practicable, on the public Commission Web site, at
Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive personal information, such as anyone's Social Security number, date of birth, driver's license number or other state identification number or foreign country equivalent, passport number, financial account number, or credit or debit card number. You are also solely responsible for making sure that your comment does not include any sensitive health information, like medical records or other individually identifiable health information. In addition, do not include any “[t]rade secret or any commercial or financial information which is . . . privileged or confidential,” as discussed in Section 6(f) of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 46(f), and FTC Rule 4.10(a)(2), 16 CFR 4.10(a)(2). In particular, do not include competitively sensitive information such as costs, sales statistics, inventories, formulas, patterns, devices, manufacturing processes, or customer names.
If you want the Commission to give your comment confidential treatment, you must file it in paper form, with a request for confidential treatment, and you are required to follow the procedure explained in FTC Rule 4.9(c), 16 CFR 4.9(c). Your comment will be kept confidential only if the FTC General Counsel grants your request in accordance with the law and the public interest.
Postal mail addressed to the Commission is subject to delay due to heightened security screening. As a result, we encourage you to submit your comment online, or to send it to the Commission by courier or overnight service. To make sure that the Commission considers your online comment, you must file it at
If you file your comment on paper, write “Regulation N: FTC File No. P134811; K05” on your comment and on the envelope, and mail or deliver it to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Room H-113 (Annex J), 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20580, or deliver your comment to the following address: Federal Trade Commission, Office of the Secretary, Constitution Center, 400 7th Street SW., 5th Floor, Suite 5610 (Annex J), Washington, DC 20024. If possible, submit your paper comment to the Commission by courier or overnight service.
Visit the Commission Web site at
Comments on the information collection requirements subject to review under the PRA should also be submitted to OMB. If sent by U.S. mail, address comments to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Trade Commission, New Executive Office Building, Docket Library, Room 10102, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503. Comments sent to OMB by U.S. postal mail, however, are subject to delays due to heightened security precautions. Thus, comments instead should be sent by facsimile to (202) 395-5167.
Administration for Children and Families, HHS.
Notice.
Statement of Organizations, Functions, and Delegations of Authority. The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) has added the title Deputy Assistant Secretary for Native American Affairs to Commissioner, Administration for Native Americans position.
Jeff Hild, ACF Chief of Staff, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20201, (202) 401-5180.
Part K of the Statement of Organization, Functions, and Delegations of Authority of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Administration for Children and Families (ACF) is being amended at Chapter K, Administration for Children and Families, as last amended at 81 FR 49223 as follows:
I. Under Chapter K, ACF, delete K.10 Organization in its entirety and replace with the following:
K.10 Organization. The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) is a principal operating division of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The Administration for Children and Families is headed by the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families, who reports directly to the Secretary. The Assistant Secretary also serves as the Director of Child Support Enforcement. In addition to the Assistant Secretary, the Administration consists of the Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary; the Chief of Staff; the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Administration; the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy; the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Early Childhood Development; the Deputy Assistant Secretary for Native American Affairs and Commissioner, Administration for Native Americans; the Deputy Assistant Secretary for External Affairs; and Staff and Program Offices. ACF is organized as follows:
II. Under Chapter KA, Office of the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families, delete KA.20 Functions, Paragraph A in its entirety and replace with the following:
KA.20 Functions. A. Office of the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families: The Office of the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families is responsible to the Secretary for carrying out ACF's mission and providing executive supervision of the major components of ACF. These responsibilities include providing executive leadership and direction to plan and coordinate ACF program activities to ensure their effectiveness; approving instructions, policies, publications, and grant awards issued by ACF; and representing ACF in relationships with governmental and nongovernmental organizations. The Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary serves as an alter ego to the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families on program matters and acts in the absence of the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families. The Chief of Staff advises the Assistant Secretary for Children and Families and provides executive leadership and direction to the operations of ACF. The Deputy Assistant Secretary for External Affairs provides executive leadership and direction to the Offices of Regional Operations and Communications. The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Early Childhood Development serves as a key liaison and representative to the Department for early childhood development on behalf of the Assistant Secretary, ACF, and to other agencies across the government on behalf of the Department. The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Native American Affairs and Commissioner of the Administration for Native Americans is responsible for handling a variety of assignments requiring knowledge and expertise in advising the Assistant Secretary, ACF, in the formulation of policy views, positions, and implementation strategies related to American Indians, Alaska Natives, and Native Americans as delineated in the Native American Programs Act (NAPA). The incumbent will also serve as a key liaison and representative to all ACF program and staff offices on behalf of the Assistant Secretary related to tribal and Native American affairs. The Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy has responsibility for cross-program coordination of ACF initiatives, including efforts to promote interoperability and program integration.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Clinical Pharmacology Section of Labeling for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products—Content and Format.” This guidance is one of a series of guidance documents intended to assist applicants in complying with FDA regulations on the content and form at of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products. The guidance describes the recommended information to include in the CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY section of labeling that pertains to the safe and effective use of human prescription drug and biological products. This guidance finalizes the 2014 revised draft guidance entitled “Clinical Pharmacology Labeling for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products—Considerations, Content, and Format.”
Submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; or to the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Joseph Grillo, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 3177, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-5008; or Stephen Ripley, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
In the
In the
FDA is announcing the availability of a guidance for industry entitled “Clinical Pharmacology Section of Labeling for Human Prescription Drug and Biological Products—Content and Format” as one of a series of guidance documents intended to assist applicants in complying with FDA regulations on the content and format of labeling for human prescription drug and biological products. This guidance provides clarity on the information that should be included in section 12 CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY of the prescription
This guidance provides a general framework and set of recommendations that should be adapted to specific drugs and their conditions of use. Not all of the information identified in this guidance for inclusion in the CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY section of product labeling will be applicable for every drug. For the purposes of this notice, all references to drugs include both human drugs and biological products unless otherwise specified.
The guidance outlines the use of subsections, headings, and subheadings to provide organization for the CLINCAL PHARMACOLOGY section in labeling. The guidance also emphasizes the importance of providing variability measures related to pharmacokinetic measures and parameters, pharmacodynamic measures, and other clinical pharmacology study results.
In addition to clarifications and edits throughout the guidance on various subsections of section 12, some notable changes from the revised draft guidance include:
• Addressing whether applicants are expected to revise current approved labeling if reserved sections 12.4 and 12.5 have already been used for other topics, and
• Providing revised recommendations on the inclusion of pregnancy and lactation information to be consistent with recommendations in FDA's “Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule” (
This guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on inclusion of clinical pharmacology information in section 12 CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY of product labeling. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirement of the applicable statutes and regulations.
This guidance refers to previously approved collections of information that are subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520). The collections of information in 21 CFR 201.56 and 201.57 have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0572; the collections of information related to pharmacogenomic data have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0557.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the document at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing the availability of a revised guidance for industry entitled “Health Document Submission Requirements for Tobacco Products.” The guidance provides information to assist persons making health document submissions to FDA as required by the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act. We received several comments to the draft guidance, and those comments were considered as the guidance was finalized.
Submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be
Submit written requests for single copies of the guidance to the Center for Tobacco Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send two self-addressed adhesive labels to assist that office in processing your requests. See the
Katherine Collins, Center for Tobacco Products, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Document Control Center, Bldg. 71, Rm. G335, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 1-877-287-1373, email:
FDA is announcing the availability of a revised guidance for industry entitled “Health Document Submission Requirements for Tobacco Products.”
The revised guidance includes guidance for manufacturers or importers of newly deemed tobacco products that are subject to chapter IX of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 387). Cigarettes, cigarette tobacco, roll-your-own, and smokeless tobacco were immediately subject to chapter IX of the FD&C Act, including section 904(a)(4), which requires the submission of certain health documents. Section 901(b) of the FD&C Act grants FDA authority to deem all other tobacco products subject to chapter IX of the FD&C Act as well. Pursuant to that authority, FDA issued a final rule deeming all other products that meet the statutory definition of “tobacco product,” set forth in section 201(rr) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 321(rr)), except for accessories of those products, subject to the Chapter IX of the FD&C Act (81 FR 28973). FDA published the final rule on May 10, 2016 (81 FR 28973) and it became effective on August 8, 2016. Therefore, manufacturers and importers of such tobacco products are now required to comply with chapter IX of the FD&C Act, including section 904(a)(4).
FDA is issuing this guidance consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The guidance represents the current thinking of FDA on health document submission requirements. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
This guidance also refers to previously approved collections of information found in FDA statute. The guidance includes information and recommendations for how to provide health document submissions. The collections of information in section 904 (a)(4) of the FD&C Act have been approved under OMB control number 0910-0654.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain an electronic version of the guidance at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a revised Compliance Policy Guide (CPG) 615.115 entitled “Extralabel Use of Medicated Feeds for Minor Species.” In advance of the January 1, 2017, date on which we anticipate that a number of drugs will convert from over-the-counter (OTC) to veterinary feed directive (VFD) status, this revised CPG clarifies policy and regulatory action guidance to FDA staff on the Agency's exercise of regulatory discretion with regard to the extralabel use of medicated feeds containing those drugs in minor species.
The Agency is soliciting public comment, but is implementing this CPG immediately because the Agency has determined that prior public participation is not feasible or appropriate. You may submit either electronic or written comments on Agency guidances at any time.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of the CPG to the Policy and Regulations Staff (HFV-6), Center for Veterinary Medicine, Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your request. See the
Amber McCoig, Center for Veterinary Medicine (HFV-230), Food and Drug Administration, 7519 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855, 240-402-5556,
The revised CPG is intended to clarify policy and regulatory action guidance to FDA staff on the Agency's exercise of regulatory discretion with regard to the extralabel use of medicated feed in minor species. We are implementing this CPG without prior public comment because we have determined that prior public participation is not feasible or appropriate (21 CFR 10.115(g)(2)). Although this CPG is immediately in effect, it remains subject to comment in accordance with FDA's good guidance practices regulation.
The treatment of minor species is especially challenging for two reasons. First, many minor species, such as fish and game birds, have very few drugs approved for their use. As a result, veterinarians often times have to treat these species in an extralabel manner, using drugs that are not approved for them. Further, some minor species cannot practically be medicated in any way other than through the use of medicated feeds. Because extralabel use of medicated feeds is not permitted, veterinarians face an additional challenge to prevent unnecessary suffering and death of minor species.
In 2001, FDA published CPG 615.115 to provide guidance to FDA staff concerning the Agency's exercise of regulatory discretion with regard to the extralabel use of medicated feeds in minor species. The CPG was silent regarding the different marketing statuses of medicated feeds and did not explicitly address situations involving feeds containing VFD drugs.
In the
This CPG is being issued as a level 1 guidance for FDA staff consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The CPG represents the current thinking of FDA on the extralabel use of medicated feeds for minor species. It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternate approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the CPG at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has determined the regulatory review period for BEXSERO and is publishing this notice of that determination as required by law. FDA has made the determination because of the submission of applications to the Director of the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO), Department of Commerce, for the extension of a patent which claims that human biological product.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published (see the
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Beverly Friedman, Office of Regulatory Policy, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6250, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3600.
The Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-417) and the Generic Animal Drug and Patent Term Restoration Act (Pub. L. 100-670) generally provide that a patent may be extended for a period of up to 5 years so long as the patented item (human drug product, animal drug product, medical device, food additive, or color additive) was subject to regulatory review by FDA before the item was marketed. Under these acts, a product's regulatory review period forms the basis for determining the amount of extension an applicant may receive.
A regulatory review period consists of two periods of time: A testing phase and an approval phase. For human biological products, the testing phase begins when the exemption to permit the clinical investigations of the biological product becomes effective and runs until the approval phase begins. The approval phase starts with the initial submission of an application to market the human biological product and continues until FDA grants permission to market the biological product. Although only a portion of a regulatory review period may count toward the actual amount of extension that the Director of USPTO may award
FDA has approved for marketing the human biologic product BEXSERO (Meningococcal Group B vaccine). BEXSERO is indicated for active immunization to prevent invasive disease caused by
FDA has determined that the applicable regulatory review period for BEXSERO is 3,963 days. Of this time, 3,779 days occurred during the testing phase of the regulatory review period, while 184 days occurred during the approval phase. These periods of time were derived from the following dates:
1.
2.
3.
This determination of the regulatory review period establishes the maximum potential length of a patent extension. However, the USPTO applies several statutory limitations in its calculations of the actual period for patent extension. In its applications for patent extension, this applicant seeks 518 days or 255 days of patent term extension.
Anyone with knowledge that any of the dates as published are incorrect may submit either electronic or written comments and ask for a redetermination (see
Submit petitions electronically to
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; extension of comment period.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is extending the comment period for the public meeting on Pre-Market Evaluation of Abuse-Deterrent Properties of Opioid Drug Products that was announced in the
FDA is extending the comment period on the Public Meeting on Pre-Market Evaluation of Abuse-Deterrent Properties of Opioid Drug Products published October 6, 2016 (81 FR 69532). Submit either electronic or written comments by January 3, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Michelle Eby, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6184, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-4714,
In the
Additional comments specific to the draft guidance “General Principles for Evaluating the Abuse Deterrence of Generic Solid Oral Opioid Drug Products” should be submitted to the docket for the draft guidance (FDA-2016-D-0785) in lieu of, or in addition to, the docket for the public meeting. Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by December 1, 2016. Other comments should be submitted to this docket by January 3, 2016. FDA has committed to taking steps to address the epidemic of opioid abuse transparently and in close cooperation with stakeholders and will provide other opportunities to comment, as appropriate. For example, FDA intends to issue a general guidance for public comment describing the Agency's recommendations for standardized in vitro testing to evaluate purported abuse-deterrent properties and considerations for a potential applicant as it develops an abuse-deterrent formulation of an opioid drug product.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Section 502 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 352), among other things, establishes requirements for the label or labeling of a medical device to avoid misbranding. Section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (the PHS Act) (42 U.S.C. 262) establishes requirements that manufacturers of biological products must submit a license application for FDA review and approval prior to marketing a biological product for introduction into interstate commerce.
In the
The guidance document recommends that a glossary of terms accompany each IVD to define the symbols used on that device's labels and/or labeling. Furthermore, the guidance recommends an educational outreach effort to enhance the understanding of newly introduced symbols. Both the glossary and educational outreach information help to ensure that IVD users have enough general familiarity with the symbols used, as well as provide a quick reference for available materials, thereby further ensuring that such labeling satisfies the labeling requirements under section 502(c) of the FD&C Act and section 351 of the PHS Act.
The likely respondents for this collection of information are IVD manufacturers who plan to use the selected symbols in place of text on the labels and/or labeling of their IVDs.
The glossary activity is inclusive of both domestic and foreign IVD manufacturers. FDA receives submissions from approximately 689 IVD manufacturers annually. The 4-hour estimate for a glossary is based on the average time necessary for a manufacturer to modify the glossary for
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing that a proposed collection of information has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Fax written comments on the collection of information by January 4, 2017.
To ensure that comments on the information collection are received, OMB recommends that written comments be faxed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB, Attn: FDA Desk Officer, FAX: 202-395-7285, or emailed to
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
In compliance with 44 U.S.C. 3507, FDA has submitted the following proposed collection of information to OMB for review and clearance.
Under section 520(f) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360j(f)), the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services has the authority to prescribe regulations requiring that the methods used in, and the facilities and controls used for, the manufacture, preproduction design validation (including a process to assess the performance of a device, but not including an evaluation of the safety and effectiveness of a device), packing, storage, and installation of a device conform to Current Good Manufacturing Practice (CGMP), as described in such regulations, to assure that the device will be safe and effective and otherwise in compliance with the FD&C Act.
The CGMP/Quality System (QS) regulation implementing authority provided by this statutory provision is found under part 820 (21 CFR part 820) and sets forth basic CGMP requirements governing the design, manufacture, packing, labeling, storage, installation, and servicing of all finished medical devices intended for human use. The authority for this regulation is covered under sections 501, 502, 510, 513, 514, 515, 518, 519, 520, 522, 701, 704, 801, and 803 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 351, 352, 360, 360c, 360d, 360e, 360h, 360i, 360j, 360l, 371, 374, 381, and 383). The CGMP/QS regulation includes requirements for purchasing and service controls, clarifies recordkeeping requirements for device failure and complaint investigations, clarifies requirements for verifying/validating production processes and process or product changes, and clarifies requirements for product acceptance activities quality data evaluations and corrections of nonconforming product/quality problems.
Requirements are compatible with specifications in the international standards “ISO 9001: Quality Systems Model for Quality Assurance in Design/Development, Production, Installation, and Servicing.” The CGMP/QS information collections will assist FDA inspections of manufacturers for compliance with QS requirements encompassing design, production, installation, and servicing processes.
Section 820.20(a) through (e) requires management with executive responsibility to establish, maintain, and/or review the following topics: (1) The quality policy, (2) the organizational structure, (3) the quality plan, and (4) the quality system procedures of the organization. Section 820.22 requires the conduct and documentation of QS audits and re-audits. Section 820.25(b) requires the establishment of procedures to identify training needs and documentation of such training.
Section 820.30(a)(1) and (b) through (j) requires, in respective order, the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Procedures to control design of class III and class II devices and certain class I devices as listed therein; (2) plans for design and development activities and updates; (3) procedures identifying, documenting, and approving design input requirements; (4) procedures defining design output, including acceptance criteria, and documentation of approved records; (5) procedures for formal review of design results and documentation of results in the design history file (DHF); (6) procedures for verifying device design and documentation of results and approvals in the DHF; (7) procedures for validating device design, including documentation of results in the DHF; (8) procedures for translating device design into production specifications; (9) procedures for documenting, verifying, and validating approved design changes before implementation of changes; and (10) the records and references constituting the DHF for each type of device.
Section 820.40 requires manufacturers to establish and maintain procedures controlling approval and distribution of required documents and document
Section 820.50(a) and (b) requires the establishment and maintenance of procedures and requirements to ensure service and product quality, records of acceptable suppliers, and purchasing data describing specified requirements for products and services.
Sections 820.60 and 820.65 require, respectively, the establishment and maintenance of procedures for identifying all products from receipt to distribution and for using control numbers to track surgical implants and life-sustaining or supporting devices and their components.
Section 820.70(a) through (e), (g)(1) through (g)(3), (h), and (i) requires the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Process control procedures; (2) procedures for verifying or validating changes to specification, method, process, or procedure; (3) procedures to control environmental conditions and inspection result records; (4) requirements for personnel hygiene; (5) procedures for preventing contamination of equipment and products; (6) equipment adjustment, cleaning, and maintenance schedules; (7) equipment inspection records; (8) equipment tolerance postings, procedures for utilizing manufacturing materials expected to have an adverse effect on product quality; and (9) validation protocols and validation records for computer software and software changes.
Sections 820.72(a), (b)(1), and (b)(2); and 820.75(a) through (c) require, respectively, the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Equipment calibration and inspection procedures; (2) national, international, or in-house calibration standards; (3) records that identify calibrated equipment and next calibration dates; (4) validation procedures and validation results for processes not verifiable by inspections and tests; (5) procedures for keeping validated processes within specified limits; (6) records for monitoring and controlling validated processes; and (7) records of the results of revalidation where necessitated by process changes or deviations.
Sections 820.80(a) through (e) and 820.86, respectively, require the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Procedures for incoming acceptance by inspection, test, or other verification; (2) procedures for ensuring that in process products meet specified requirements and the control of product until inspection and tests are completed; (3) procedures for, and records that show, incoming acceptance or rejection is conducted by inspections, tests or other verifications; (4) procedures for, and records that show, finished devices meet acceptance criteria and are not distributed until device master record (DMR) activities are completed; (5) records in the device history record (DHR) showing acceptance dates, results, and equipment used; and (6) the acceptance/rejection identification of products from receipt to installation and servicing.
Sections 820.90(a), (b)(1), and (b)(2) and 820.100 require, respectively, the establishment, maintenance and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Procedures for identifying, recording, evaluating, and disposing of nonconforming product; (2) procedures for reviewing and recording concessions made for, and disposition of, nonconforming product; (3) procedures for reworking products, evaluating possible adverse rework effect and recording results in the DHR; (4) procedures and requirements for corrective and preventive actions, including analysis, investigation, identification and review of data, records, causes, and results; and (5) records for all corrective and preventive action activities.
Section 820.100(a)(1) through (a)(7) states that procedures and requirements shall be established and maintained for corrective/preventive actions, including the following: (1) Analysis of data from process, work, quality, servicing records, investigation of nonconformance causes; (2) identification of corrections and their effectiveness; (3) recording of changes made; and (4) appropriate distribution and managerial review of corrective and preventive action information. Section 820.120 states that manufacturers shall establish/maintain procedures to control labeling storage/application; and examination/release for storage and use, and document those procedures.
Sections 820.120(b) and (d); 820.130; 820.140; 820.150(a) and (b); 820.160(a) and (b); and 820.170(a) and (b), respectively, require the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Procedures for controlling and recording the storage, examination, release, and use of labeling; (2) the filing of labels/labeling used in the DHR; (3) procedures for controlling product storage areas and receipt/dispatch authorizations; (4) procedures controlling the release of products for distribution; (5) distribution records that identify consignee, product, date, and control numbers; and (6) instructions, inspection and test procedures that are made available, and the recording of results for devices requiring installation.
Sections 820.180(b) and (c); 820.181(a) through (e); 820.184(a) through (f); and 820.186 require, respectively, the maintenance of records that are: (1) Retained at prescribed site(s), made readily available and accessible to FDA, and retained for the device's life expectancy or for 2 years; (2) contained or referenced in a DMR consisting of device, process, quality assurance, packaging and labeling, and installation, maintenance, and servicing specifications and procedures; (3) contained in a DHR and demonstrate the manufacture of each unit, lot, or batch of product in conformance with DMR and regulatory requirements include manufacturing and distribution dates, quantities, acceptance documents, labels and labeling, and control numbers; and (4) contained in a quality system record, consisting of references, documents, procedures, and activities not specific to particular devices.
Sections 820.198(a) through (c); and 820.200(a) through (d), respectively, require the establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of the following topics: (1) Complaint files and procedures for receiving, reviewing, and evaluating complaints; (2) complaint investigation records identifying the device, complainant, and relationship of the device to the incident; (3) complaint records that are reasonably accessible to the manufacturing site or at prescribed sites; (4) procedures for performing and verifying that device servicing requirements are met and that service reports involving complaints are processed as complaints; and (5) service reports that record the device, service activity, and test and inspection data.
Section 820.250 requires the establishment and maintenance of procedures to identify valid statistical techniques necessary to verify process and product acceptability; and sampling plans, when used, which are written and based on valid statistical rationale; and procedures for ensuring adequate sampling methods.
The CGMP/QS regulation added design and purchasing controls, modified previous critical device requirements, revised previous validation and other requirements, and harmonized device CGMP requirements with QS specifications in the international standard “ISO 9001: Quality Systems Model for Quality
The establishment, maintenance, and/or documentation of procedures, records, and data required by the regulation assists FDA in determining whether firms are in compliance with CGMP requirements, which are intended to ensure that devices meet their design, production, labeling, installation, and servicing specifications and, thus are safe, effective, and suitable for their intended purpose. In particular, compliance with CGMP design control requirements should decrease the number of design-related device failures that have resulted in deaths and serious injuries.
The CGMP/QS regulation applies to approximately 24,738 respondents. A query of the Agency's registration and listing database shows that approximately 13,294 domestic and 11,444 foreign establishments are respondents to this information collection.
In the
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The guidance document entitled “Providing Information About Pediatric Uses of Medical Devices—Guidance for Industry and Food and Drug Administration Staff” suggests that applicants who submit certain medical device applications include, if readily available, pediatric use information for diseases or conditions that the device is being used to treat, diagnose, or cure that are outside the device's approved or proposed indications for use, as well as an estimate of the number of pediatric patients with such diseases or conditions. The information submitted will allow FDA to identify pediatric uses of devices outside their approved or proposed indication for use to determine areas where further pediatric device development could be useful. This recommendation applies to applicants who submit the following applications: (1) Any request for a humanitarian device exemption submitted under section 520(m) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360j(m)); (2) any premarket approval application (PMA) or supplement to a PMA submitted under section 515 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360e); and (3) any product development protocol submitted under section 515 of the FD&C Act.
Respondents are permitted to submit information relating to uses of the device outside the approved or proposed indication if such uses are described or acknowledged in acceptable sources of readily available information. We estimate that 20 percent of respondents submitting information required by section 515A of the FD&C Act will choose to submit this information and that it will take 30 minutes for them to do so.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the requirement for opportunity for public comment on proposed data collection projects (Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995), HRSA announces plans to submit an Information Collection Request (ICR), described below, to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). Prior to submitting the ICR to OMB, HRSA seeks comments from the public regarding the burden estimate, below, or any other aspect of the ICR.
Comments on this ICR must be received no later than February 3, 2017.
Submit your comments to
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and draft instruments, email
When submitting comments or requesting information, please include the information request collection title for reference.
(1)
(2)
HRSA specifically requests comments on (1) the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, (2) the accuracy of the estimated burden, (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and (4) the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
Notice of Public Meeting.
This notice announces the meeting date for the Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee (hereafter referred to as “the Committee”) on Friday, December 16, 2016 in Washington, DC.
The meeting will be held on Friday, December 16, 2016, from 10:30 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EST) and it is open to the public.
The meeting will be held at the Holiday Inn Capitol by the Smithsonian Museums in Capitol Room I, 550 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20024.
Ann Page, Designated Federal Officer, at the Office of Health Policy, Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 200 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20201, (202) 690-6870.
The Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee (“the Committee”) is required by the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015, 42 U.S.C 1395ee. This Committee is also governed by provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C App.), which sets forth standards for the formation and use of federal advisory committees. In accordance with its statutory mandate, the Committee is to review physician-focused payment model proposals and prepare recommendations regarding whether such models meet criteria that were established through rulemaking by the Secretary of Health and Human Services (the Secretary). The Committee is composed of 11 members appointed by the Comptroller General.
The Committee will continue discussions about the process by which physician-focused payment model proposals will be received and reviewed by the Committee based on the criteria established by the Secretary for physician-focused payment models. The Committee will also discuss the role of non-physician stakeholders including beneficiaries and employers in payment models and in the Committee's processes. There will be time allocated for public comment on these agenda items. Documents will be posted on the Committee Web site and distributed on the Committee listserv prior to the public meeting.
The December 16, 2016 meeting is open to the public; however, in-person attendance is limited to space available. Priority to attend the meeting in-person will be given to those who pre-register. If the meeting venue reaches its seating capacity, other registrants will be limited to participating by telephone.
All the following information must be submitted when registering:
If sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodation for a disability is needed, please contact Angela Tejeda, no later than December 8, 2016 by sending an email message to
Persons wishing to attend this meeting must register by following the instructions in the “Meeting Registration” section of this notice. A confirmation email will be sent to the registrants shortly after completing the registration process.
Individuals requiring special accommodations must include the request for these services during registration.
The Secretary's Charter for the Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee is available on the ASPE Web site at
Coast Guard, DHS.
Solicitation for membership.
This notice requests individuals interested in serving on the Area Maritime Security Committee (AMSC), Eastern Great Lakes, and the four regional sub-committees: Northeast Ohio Region, Northwestern Pennsylvania Region, Western New York Region, and Eastern New York Region submit their applications for membership to the Captain of the Port, Buffalo. The Committee assists the Captain of the Port, Buffalo, in developing, reviewing, and updating the Area Maritime Security Plan for their area of responsibility.
Requests for membership should reach the U.S. Coast Guard Captain of the Port, Buffalo, on January 4, 2017.
Applications for membership should be submitted to the Captain of the Port at the following address: Captain of the Port, Buffalo, Attention: LCDR Karen Jones, 1 Fuhrmann Boulevard, Buffalo, NY 14203-3189.
For questions about submitting an application, or about the AMSC in general, contact:
For the Northeast Ohio Region Sub-Committee Executive Coordinator: Mr. Peter Killmer at 216-937-0136.
For the Northwestern Pennsylvania Region Sub-Committee Executive Coordinator: Mr. Joseph Fetscher at 216-937-0126.
For the Western New York Region Sub-Committee Executive Coordinator: LCDR Karen Jones at 716-843-9373.
For the Eastern New York Region Sub-Committee Executive Coordinator: Mr. Ralph Kring at 315-343-1217.
Section 102 of the Maritime Transportation Security Act (MTSA) of
Members of the AMSC should have at least five years of expertise related to maritime or port security operations. The AMSC Eastern Great Lakes Committee has 16 members. The Northeast Ohio Region Sub-Committee has 31 members. The Northwestern Pennsylvania Region Sub-Committee has 23 members. The Western New York Region Sub-Committee has 29 members. The Eastern New York Region Sub-Committee has 60 members. We are seeking to fill the following vacancies with this submission:
(A) Northeast Ohio Region Sub-Committee (2 members): (1) Executive Board member representing the maritime (on-water) Port Harbormaster community of Northeast Ohio {
(B) Northwestern Pennsylvania Region Sub-Committee (1 member): Executive Board member to serve as Chairperson of the Sub-Committee and concurrently as member of the Eastern Great Lakes AMSC when so convened by the FMSC.
(C) Western New York Region Sub-Committee (no new members): No applications are being taken for this Sub-Committee at this time.
(D) Eastern New York Region Sub-Committee (1 member): Executive Board member to serve as Vice Chairperson of the Sub-Committee and concurrently as member of the Eastern Great Lakes AMSC when so convened by the FMSC.
Applicants may be required to pass an appropriate security background check prior to appointment to the Committee. Applicants must register with and remain active as Coast Guard HOMEPORT users if appointed. Members' terms of office will be for five years; however, a member is eligible to serve additional terms of office. Members will not receive any salary or other compensation for their service on an AMSC. In accordance with 33 CFR 103, members may be selected from the Federal, Territorial, or Tribal governments; the State government and political subdivisions of the State; local public safety, crisis management, and emergency response agencies; law enforcement and security organizations; maritime industry, including labor; other port stakeholders having a special competence in maritime security; and port stakeholders affected by security practices and policies.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) does not discriminate in selection of Committee members on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, political affiliation, sexual orientation, gender identity, marital status, disability and genetic information, age, membership in an employee organization, or other non-merit factor. DHS strives to achieve a widely diverse candidate pool for all of its recruitment actions.
Those seeking membership are not required to submit formal applications to the local Captain of the Port, however, because we do have an obligation to ensure that a specific number of members have the prerequisite maritime security experience, we encourage the submission of resumes highlighting experience in the maritime and security industries.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: Including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, HUD.
Notice.
HUD is seeking approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for the information collection described below. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, HUD is requesting comment from all interested parties on the proposed collection of information. The purpose of this notice is to allow for 60 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 4176, Washington, DC 20410-5000; telephone 202-402-3400 (this is not a toll-free number) or email at
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QDAM, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond; including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: Including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Office of the Chief Information Officer, HUD.
Notice.
HUD has submitted the proposed information collection requirement described below to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act. The purpose of this notice is to allow for an additional 30 days of public comment.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments regarding this proposal. Comments should refer to the proposal by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to: HUD Desk Officer, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503; fax: 202-395-5806. Email:
Colette Pollard, Reports Management Officer, QMAC, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20410; email Colette Pollard at
Copies of available documents submitted to OMB may be obtained from Ms. Pollard.
This notice informs the public that HUD is seeking approval from OMB for the information collection described in Section A.
The
This notice is soliciting comments from members of the public and affected parties concerning the collection of information described in Section A on the following:
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information;
(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond: Including through the use of appropriate automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
HUD encourages interested parties to submit comment in response to these questions.
Section 3507 of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of receipt of permit applications; request for comment.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, invite the public to comment on the following applications to conduct certain activities with endangered species. With some exceptions, the Endangered Species Act (Act) prohibits activities with listed species unless a Federal permit is issued that allows such activities. The Act requires that we invite public comment before issuing these permits.
We must receive written data or comments on the applications at the address given in
•
•
Karen Marlowe, Permit Coordinator, 205-726-2667 (telephone) or 205-726-2479 (fax).
We invite review and comment from local, State, and Federal agencies and the public on applications we have received for permits to conduct certain activities with endangered and threatened species under section 10(a)(1)(A) of the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (16 U.S.C. 1531
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
The applicant requests renewal of his permit to take (capture, mark, transport, release, recapture, and salvage) the endangered Saint Francis' satyr butterfly (
The applicant requests a permit to take (capture, handle, release) 19 species of endangered and threatened freshwater mussels and the threatened Big Sandy crayfish (
The applicant requests renewal of his permit to continue take (capture with mist nets or harp traps, handle, identify, band, radio-tag, salvage) of Indiana bats (
The applicant requests amendment of their permit to add the States of Iowa, Illinois, Minnesota, and Wisconsin as locations where they may conduct take (capture, handle, tag, release) of 31 species of endangered and threatened freshwater mussels for presence/absence surveys and add authorization to take (capture, handle, tag, and release) of spectaclecase (
We provide this notice under section 10(c) of the Act.
Bureau of Indian Affairs, Interior.
Notice.
The State of California entered into compacts governing Class III gaming with the Buena Vista Rancheria of Me-Wuk Indians of California, the Barona Group of Capitan Grande Band of Mission Indians of the Barona Reservation, the Jamul Indian Village of California, the Pechanga Band of Luiseno Mission Indians of the Pechanga Reservation, and the Yocha Dehe Wintun Nation. This notice announces that the compacts are taking effect.
The effective date of the compacts is December 5, 2016.
Ms. Paula L. Hart, Director, Office of Indian Gaming, Office of the Assistant Secretary—Indian Affairs, Washington, DC 20240, (202) 219-4066.
Section 11 of the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (IGRA) requires the Secretary of the Interior to publish in the
Bureau of Land Management, Department of the Interior.
Notice of intent.
Pursuant to applicable provisions of the Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act (FLREA), the Bureau of Land Management (BLM), Roseburg District Office, is proposing to begin collecting fees for overnight camping at Scaredman Recreation Site, located in Douglas County, Oregon.
To ensure that comments will be considered, the BLM must receive written comments on the proposal to collect fees by February 3, 2017. Comments received in person or by electronic mail after this date may not be considered by the BLM. Effective no less than six months after publication of this notice, the BLM Roseburg District will initiate fee collection at Scaredman Recreation Site, unless the BLM publishes a
You may submit comments by mail, hand delivery, or electronic mail.
Copies of the fee proposal are available at the BLM Roseburg District Office at the above address and online at
Erik Taylor, Supervisory Outdoor Recreation Planner, Roseburg District Office, 777 NW Garden Valley Blvd., Roseburg, OR, 97471, by phone at (541) 440-4930, or by email at
Scaredman Recreation Site (T. 25S., R. 1W., Sec. 24) is located north of the Rogue-Umpqua Scenic Byway on Canton Creek Road (BLM Road 24-1-31). Under Section 3(g) of the Federal Lands Recreation Enhancement Act (FLREA), the Scaredman Recreation Site area will qualify, as is, as a site wherein visitors can be charged an “Expanded Amenity Recreation Fee.” Visitors wishing to use the expanded amenities that exist at the site would purchase a recreation use permit as described at 43 CFR part 2930. Pursuant to FLREA and implementing regulations at 43 CFR Subpart 2933, fees may be charged for overnight camping where specific amenities and services are provided. Specific visitor fees will be identified and posted at the site. Fees must be paid at the self-service pay station located at the camping areas. People holding the America the Beautiful—Senior Pass and/or Access Pass will be entitled to a 50 percent fee reduction on overnight fees.
The Scaredman Recreation site is a semi-primitive campground on Canton Creek in a semi-remote area. Canton Creek Road is 40 miles east of Roseburg off of the Rogue-Umpqua National Scenic Byway (Highway 138). Scaredman provides 10 individual tent campsites, drinking water, vault toilets, refuse containers, fire rings, a campground host and reasonable visitor protection. There are several undeveloped water play areas to enjoy along Canton Creek and Steamboat Creek. Fly fishing is available 3 miles south on the North Umpqua River. This recreation site is the only one in the Roseburg District that provides such amenities and recreation opportunities and that does not currently charge a fee. In the past years, prior to 2013, it has been used heavily because it is the only “free” campground in the area. The likely recreation season for Scaredman will be from mid-May through mid-October.
Camping fees will be $10.00/per site, per night, which would be consistent with other established fee sites in the area including other BLM-administered sites in the area and those overnight sites managed by the Umpqua National Forest and Douglas County Parks Department. Future adjustments in the fees charged could be made in accordance with the Roseburg District Business Plan for recreation sites and with concurrence from the Southwest Oregon Resource Advisory Council (SWOR RAC). The Bureau of Land Management, Roseburg District has notified and involved the public about the proposal to collect fees and the
The BLM has found that recreation fee proposals are of a procedural nature and are not identified as major Federal actions, and are therefore excluded from environmental review under Section 102(2)(C) of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA), 42 U.S.C. 4332(C), pursuant to 43 CFR 46.210(i). In addition, the fee proposals do not present any of the 12 extraordinary circumstances listed at 43 CFR 46.215.
The Bureau of Land Management, Roseburg District welcomes public comments on this proposal. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personally identifiable information in your comment, be advised that your entire comment—including your personally identifiable information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold from public review your personally identifiable information, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
16 U.S.C. 6803(b) and 43 CFR 2932.13.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice.
The plats of survey of lands described below are scheduled to be officially filed in the Bureau of Land Management, California State Office, Sacramento, California.
January 4, 2017.
A copy of the plats may be obtained from the California State Office, Bureau of Land Management, 2800 Cottage Way, Sacramento, California 95825, upon required payment.
Chief, Branch of Geographic Services, Bureau of Land Management, California State Office, 2800 Cottage Way W-1623, Sacramento, California 95825, 1-916-978-4310. Persons who use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) may call the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339 to contact the above individual during normal business hours. The FIRS is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, to leave a message or question with the above individual. You will receive a reply during normal business hours.
A person or party who wishes to protest a survey must file a notice that they wish to protest with the Chief, Branch of Geographic Services. A statement of reasons for a protest may be filed with the notice of protest and must be filed with the Chief, Branch of Geographic Services within thirty days after the protest is filed. If a protest against the survey is received prior to the date of official filing, the filing will be stayed pending consideration of the protest. A plat will not be officially filed until the day after all protests have been dismissed or otherwise resolved. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
Authority: 43 U.S.C., Chapter 3.
Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, Interior.
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (OSMRE) is announcing that the information collection request for 30 CFR 822—Special Permanent Program Performance Standards—Operations in Alluvial Valley Floors, has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and reauthorization. The information collection package was previously approved and assigned control number 1029-0049. This notice describes the nature of the information collection activity and the expected burdens.
OMB has up to 60 days to approve or disapprove the information collection but may respond after 30 days. Therefore, public comments should be submitted to OMB by January 4, 2017, in order to be assured of consideration.
Submit comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Department of the Interior Desk Officer, by telefax at (202) 395-5806, or via email to
To receive a copy of the information
OMB regulations at 5 CFR 1320, which implement provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), require that interested members of the public and affected agencies have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities [see 5 CFR 1320.8 (d)]. OSMRE has submitted a request to OMB to renew its approval for the collection of information for part 822—Special Permanent Program Performance Standards—Operations in Alluvial Valley Floors. OSMRE is requesting a 3-year term of approval for this information collection.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control number for part 822 is 1029-0049 and is referenced in § 822.10.
As required under 5 CFR 1320.8(d), a
Send comments on the need for the collection of information for the performance of the functions of the agency; the accuracy of the agency's burden estimates; ways to enhance the quality, utility and clarity of the information collection; and ways to minimize the information collection burden on respondents, such as use of automated means of collection of the information, to the address listed above. Please refer to OMB control number 1029-0049 in all correspondence.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of expedited reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty orders on polyester staple fiber from Korea and Taiwan would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.
Joanna Lo (202-205-1888), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of these reviews and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the reviews must be served on all other parties to the reviews (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
These reviews are being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
December 9, 2016.
11:00 a.m.
9:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
In accordance with 19 CFR 201.35(d)(2)(i), the Commission hereby gives notice that the Commission has determined to change the time of the meeting of December 9, 2016, from 11:00 a.m. to 9:00 a.m.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on October 31, 2016, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337, on behalf of DSM Desotech, Inc. of Elgin, Illinois and DSM IP Assets B.V. of the Netherlands. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain UV curable coatings for optical fibers, coated optical fibers, and products containing same by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent Nos. 6,961,508 (“the '508 patent”), 7,171,103 (“the '103 patent”), 7,067,564 (“the '564 patent”), and 7,706,659 (“the '659 patent”). The complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337.
The complainants request that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders.
The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at
The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.
The authority for institution of this investigation is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and in section 210.10 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10 (2016).
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain UV curable coatings for optical fibers, coated optical fibers, and products containing same by reason of infringement of one or more of claims 1-8, 10-15, and 18-22 of the '508 patent; claims 1-10 and 13-15 of the '103 patent; claims 2-4, 9, 11-12, and 15 of the '564 patent; and claims 1-3, 9, 12, 16-18, 21, and 30 of the '659 patent; and whether an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337;
(2) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(1), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(1), the presiding administrative law judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties and other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the
(3) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainants are:
(b) The respondents are the following entities alleged to be in violation of section 337, and are the parties upon which the complaint is to be served:
(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and
(4) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of an expedited review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on glycine from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury within a reasonably foreseeable time.
Effective November 4, 2016.
Carolyn Carlson (202-205-3002), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of this review and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A, D, E, and F (19 CFR part 207).
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the rules, each document filed by a party to the review must be served on all other parties to the review (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will
This review is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.62 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice of the scheduling of the final phase of antidumping investigation No. 731-TA-1315 (Final) pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”) to determine whether an industry in the United States is materially injured or threatened with material injury, or the establishment of an industry in the United States is materially retarded, by reason of imports of ferrovanadium from Korea, provided for in subheading 7202.92.00 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, preliminarily determined by the Department of Commerce to be sold at less than fair value.
Lawrence Jones (202-205-3358), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
For further information concerning the conduct of this phase of the investigation, hearing procedures, and rules of general application, consult the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).
Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigation must be served on all other parties to the investigation (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.
This investigation is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.21 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the presiding administrative law judge (“ALJ”) has issued a recommended determination on remedy and bonding in the above-captioned investigation. The Commission is soliciting submissions from the public on any public interest issues raised by the recommended relief. The ALJ recommended that a limited exclusion order issue against certain air mattress systems, components thereof, and methods of using the same, imported by respondents Sizewise Rentals LLC of Kansas City, Missouri; American National Manufacturing Inc. of Corona, California; and Dires LLC and Dires LLC d/b/a Personal Comfort Beds of Orlando, Florida (collectively, “Respondents”). The ALJ did not recommend that cease and desist orders issue as to the respondents found to infringe by the Commission. The ALJ found that Respondents did not show that the remedial orders to be issued by the Commission would have an adverse effect on public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive products in the United States, or United States consumers. Parties are to file public interest submissions pursuant to 19 CFR 210.50(a)(4).
Michael Liberman, Esq., Office of the General Counsel, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-3115. Copies of non-confidential documents filed in connection with this investigation are or will be available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
Section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 provides that if the Commission finds a violation it shall exclude the articles concerned from the United States: Unless, after considering the effect of such exclusion upon the public health and welfare, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, and United States consumers, it finds that such articles should not be excluded from entry. 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1). A similar provision applies to cease-and-desist orders. 19 U.S.C. 1337(f)(1).
The Commission is interested in further development of the record on the public interest in these investigations. Accordingly, members of the public are invited to file, pursuant to 19 CFR 210.50(a)(4), submissions of no more than five (5) pages, inclusive of attachments, concerning the public interest in light of the administrative law judge's recommended determination on remedy and bonding issued in this investigation on October 27, 2016. Comments should address whether issuance of the limited exclusion order (“the recommended remedial order”) in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the recommended remedial order is used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the recommended remedial order;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the recommended remedial order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the recommended remedial order would impact consumers in the United States.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business on December 19, 2016. Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to section 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the investigation number (“Inv. No. 971”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and in part 210 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR part 210).
By order of the Commission.
Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives, Department of Justice.
60-Day notice.
The Department of Justice (DOJ), Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF), will submit the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until February 3, 2017.
If you have additional comments, particularly with respect to the estimated public burden or associated response time, have suggestions, need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions, or desire any additional information, please contact Shawn Stevens, Federal Explosives Licensing Center either by mail at 244 Needy Road, Martinsburg, WV 25405, or by telephone at 304-616-4421.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Evaluate whether and if so how the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected can be enhanced; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Bureau of Justice Assistance, Department of Justice.
60-day notice.
The Department of Justice, Office of Justice Programs will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. BJA's CBOB Office will use the CBOB application information to confirm the eligibility of applicants to be considered for the CBOB, and forward the application as appropriate to the Federal or the State and Local CBOB Board for their further consideration.
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until February 3, 2017.
If you have additional comments especially on the estimated public burden or associated response time, suggestions, or need a copy of the proposed information collection instrument with instructions or additional information, please contact Michelle Martin, Administrative Services Director Bureau of Justice Assistance, 810 Seventh Street NW., Washington, DC 20531 (phone: 202-514-9354).
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address one or more of the following four points:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The estimated public burden associated with this collection is 61 hours. If additional information is required contact: Jerri Murray, Department Clearance Officer, United States Department of Justice, Justice Management Division, Policy and Planning Staff, Two Constitution Square, 145 N Street NE., 3E.405B, Washington, DC 20530.
In accordance with section 512(a)(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act and its implementing regulations issued by the General Services Administration (GSA), the charter for the Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans is renewed.
The Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans shall advise the Secretary of Labor on technical aspects of the provisions of ERISA and shall provide reports and/or recommendations each year on its findings to the Secretary of Labor. The Council shall be composed of fifteen members appointed by the Secretary. Not more than eight members of the Council shall be of the same political party. Three of the members shall be representatives of employee organizations (at least one of whom shall be a representative of any organization members of which are participants in a multiemployer plan); three of the members shall be representatives of employers (at least one of whom shall be a representative of employers maintaining or contributing to multiemployer plans); three members shall be representatives appointed from the general public (one of whom shall be a person representing those receiving benefits from a pension plan); and there shall be one representative each from the fields of insurance, corporate trust, actuarial counseling, investment counseling, investment management, and accounting.
The Advisory Council will report to the Secretary of Labor. It will function solely as an advisory body and in compliance with the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, and its charter will be filed under the Act. For further information, contact Larry I. Good, Executive Secretary, Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, telephone (202) 693-8668.
Office of Workers' Compensation Programs, Department of Labor.
Announcement of meeting of the Subcommittee on Evidentiary Requirements for Part B Lung Disease of the Advisory Board on Toxic Substances and Worker Health (Advisory Board) for the Energy Employees Occupational Illness Compensation Program Act (EEOICPA).
The subcommittee will meet via teleconference on December 21, 2016, from 2:30 p.m. to 6:00 p.m. Eastern Time.
You may contact Antonio Rios, Designated Federal Officer, at
The Advisory Board is mandated by Section 3687 of EEOICPA. The Secretary of Labor established the Board under this authority and Executive Order 13699 (June 26, 2015). The purpose of the Advisory Board is to advise the Secretary with respect to: (1) The Site Exposure Matrices (SEM) of the Department of Labor; (2) medical guidance for claims examiners for claims with the EEOICPA program, with respect to the weighing of the medical evidence of claimants; (3) evidentiary requirements for claims under Part B of EEOICPA related to lung disease; and (4) the work of industrial hygienists and staff physicians and consulting physicians of the Department of Labor and reports of such hygienists and physicians to ensure quality, objectivity, and consistency. The Advisory Board sunsets on December 19, 2019. This subcommittee is being assembled to gather and analyze data and continue working on advice under Area #3, Evidentiary Requirements for Part B lung conditions.
The Advisory Board operates in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) (5 U.S.C. App. 2) and its implementing regulations (41 CFR part 102-3).
OWCP transcribes Advisory Board subcommittee meetings. OWCP posts the transcripts on the Advisory Board Web page,
•
•
Comments must be received by December 14, 2016. OWCP will make available publically, without change, any written comments, including any personal information that you provide. Therefore, OWCP cautions interested parties against submitting personal information such as Social Security numbers and birthdates.
Electronic copies of this
Signed at Washington, DC.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Notice of Intent to Grant an Exclusive License.
This notice is issued in accordance with 35 U.S.C. 209(e) and 37 CFR 404.7(a)(1)(i). The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) hereby gives notice of its intent to grant an exclusive license in the United States to practice the inventions described and claimed in U.S. Patent Number 8,111,943, titled “Smart Image Enhancement Process,” NASA Case Number LAR-17240-1; U.S. Patent Number 8,655,513, titled “Methods of
The prospective exclusive license may be granted unless, within fifteen (15) days from the date of this published notice, NASA receives written objections including evidence and argument that establish that the grant of the license would not be consistent with the requirements of 35 U.S.C. 209 and 37 CFR 404.7. Competing applications completed and received by NASA within fifteen (15) days of the date of this published notice will also be treated as objections to the grant of the contemplated partially exclusive license.
Objections submitted in response to this notice will not be made available to the public for inspection and, to the extent permitted by law, will not be released under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
Objections relating to the prospective license may be submitted to Patent Counsel, Office of Chief Counsel, NASA Langley Research Center, MS 30, Hampton, VA 23681; (757) 864-3221 (phone), (757) 864-9190 (fax).
Andrea Z. Warmbier, Patent Attorney, Office of Chief Counsel, NASA Langley Research Center, MS 30, Hampton, VA 23681; (757) 864-3221; Fax: (757) 864-9190. Information about other NASA inventions available for licensing can be found online at
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) will be submitting the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before January 4, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for NCUA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by emailing
FinCEN and law enforcement agencies use the information on BSA-SARs and the supporting documentation retained by the banks for criminal investigation and prosecution purposes.
This information is necessary to evaluate the safety and soundness of the decision to open the branch and to protect the interests of the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Notice.
This notice identifies Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities applicable to a single agency that were established or revoked from April 1, 2016, to April 30, 2016.
Senior Executive Resources Services,
In accordance with 5 CFR 213.103, Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities available for use by all agencies are codified in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities applicable to a single agency are not codified in the CFR, but the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) publishes a notice of agency-specific authorities established or revoked each month in the
(a) Not to Exceed 203 positions that require unique technical skills needed for the re-designing and re-building of digital interfaces between citizens, businesses, and government as a part of Smarter Information Technology Delivery Initiative. This authority may be used nationwide to make permanent, time-limited and temporary appointments to Digital Services Expert positions (GS-301) directly related to the implementation of the Smarter Information Technology Delivery Initiative at the GS-11 to 15 level. No new appointments may be made under this authority after September 30, 2017.
No Schedule B Authorities to report during April 2016.
The following Schedule C appointing authorities were approved during April 2016.
The following Schedule C appointing authorities were revoked during April 2016.
5 U.S.C. 3301 and 3302; E.O. 10577, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218.
U.S. Office of Personnel Management
Emergency clearance notice and request for comments.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, May 22, 1995), this notice announces the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) submitted a request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for emergency clearance and review for OPM Form SF 15,
The SF 15 is used by agencies, OPM examining offices, and agency appointing officials to adjudicate individuals' claims for veterans' preference in accordance with the Veterans' Preference Act of 1944.
Public burden reporting for this collection of information is estimated to take approximately 10 minutes per response, including time for reviewing instructions, searching existing data sources, gathering and maintaining the data needed, and completing and reviewing the collection of information.
Comments are invited on:
• Whether this information is necessary for the proper performance of functions on the Office of Personnel Management, and whether it will have practical utility;
• whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; and
• ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
For copies of this proposal, contact
Comments on this proposal for emergency review should be received within December 15, 2016. We are requesting OMB to take action within 10 calendar days from the close of this
You may send or deliver comments to: Kimberly A. Holden, Deputy Associate Director for Recruitment and Hiring, Employee Services, U.S. Office of Personnel Management, Room 6351D, 1900 E Street NW., Washington, DC 20415-9700, or email at
Roseanna Ciarlante by telephone at (267) 932-8640; by fax at (202) 606-4430; by TTY at (202) 418-3134; or by email at
U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM).
Notice.
This notice identifies Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities applicable to a single agency that were established or revoked from June 1, 2016 to June 30, 2016.
Senior Executive Resources Services, Senior Executive Service and Performance Management, Employee Services, 202-606-2246.
In accordance with 5 CFR 213.103, Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities available for use by all agencies are codified in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). Schedule A, B, and C appointing authorities applicable to a single agency are not codified in the CFR, but the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) publishes a notice of agency-specific authorities established or revoked each month in the
No schedule A authorities to report during June 2016.
No schedule B authorities to report during June 2016.
The following Schedule C appointing authorities were approved during June 2016.
The following Schedule C appointing authorities were revoked during June 2016.
5 U.S.C. 3301 and 3302; E.O. 10577, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation S (17 CFR 230.901 through 230.905) sets forth rules governing offers and sales of securities made outside the United States without registration under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
FINRA is proposing to amend FINRA Rule 6191 to modify the Web site data publication requirements relating to the Regulation NMS Plan to Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program (“Plan”).
The text of the proposed rule change is available on FINRA's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, FINRA included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. FINRA has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, FINRA, and several other self-regulatory organizations (the “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
FINRA adopted rule amendments to implement the requirements of the Plan, including relating to the Plan's data collection requirements and requirements relating to Web site data publication.
FINRA is proposing amendments to Rule 6191(b)(2)(B) (regarding Appendix B.I and B.II data), Rule 6191(b)(3)(C) (regarding Appendix B.IV data), and Rule 6191(b)(4)(B) (regarding Appendix C data), to provide that data required to be made available on FINRA's Web site be published within 120 calendar days following month end. In addition, the proposed amendments to Rule 6191.12 would provide that, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(2)(B), (b)(3)(C) and (b)(4)(B), FINRA shall make data for the Pre-Pilot period publicly available on the FINRA Web site pursuant to Appendix B and C to the Plan by February 28, 2017.
The proposed rule change also will provide that, with respect to Appendix C data, FINRA will aggregate and publish, categorized by Control Group and each Test Group: (1) Market Maker profitability statistics for Market Makers for which FINRA is the designated examining authority (“DEA”), (2) Market Maker profitability statistics collected from other Participants that are DEAs, and (3) Market Maker profitability statistics for Market Makers whose DEA is not a Participant.
The purpose of delaying the publication of the Web site data is to address confidentiality concerns by providing for the passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
FINRA has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness and has requested that the Commission waive the 30-day operative delay. If the Commission waives the 30-day operative delay, the operative date of the proposed rule change will be the date of filing.
FINRA believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 15A(b)(6) of the Act,
FINRA believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan and is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the SEC. FINRA believes that the instant proposal is consistent with the Act in that it is designed to address confidentiality concerns by permitting FINRA to delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information.
In addition, in approving the Plan, the Commission recognized that requiring the publication of Market Maker data may raise confidentiality concerns, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers.
FINRA does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. FINRA notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan.
The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns that may adversely impact competition, especially for Pilot Securities that may have a relatively small number of designated Market Makers, by permitting FINRA to (1) delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information; and (2) aggregate and publish Market Maker profitability data for all Participant DEAs, including Market Makers for which FINRA is not the DEA. FINRA notes that the proposed change will not affect the data reporting requirements for members for which FINRA is the DEA.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
FINRA notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist the Participants in meeting their regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. The proposal is intended to address confidentiality concerns by permitting FINRA to (1) delay Web site publication to provide for passage of additional time between the market information reflected in the data and the public availability of such information; and (2) aggregate and publish Market Maker profitability data for all Participant DEAs, including Market Makers for which FINRA is not the DEA. FINRA notes that the proposed change will not affect the data reporting requirements for members for which FINRA is the DEA.
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow FINRA to implement these proposed changes that are intended to address confidentiality concerns. The Commission notes that the Pre-Pilot data is currently required to be published on November 30, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative as of the date of this notice.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is given that the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) intends to issue an order, pursuant to Section 203(h) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Act”), cancelling the registration of Ajenifuja Investments, LLC, hereinafter referred to as the registrant.
Section 203(h) provides, in pertinent part, that if the Commission finds that any person registered under Section 203, or who has pending an application for registration filed under that section, is no longer in existence, is not engaged in business as an investment adviser, or is prohibited from registering as an investment adviser under section 203A, the Commission shall by order, cancel the registration of such person.
The registrant indicated on its initial and its most recent Form ADV filings that it is relying on rule 203A-2(e) to register with the Commission, which provides an exemption from the prohibition on registration for an adviser that provides investment advice to all of its clients exclusively through the adviser's interactive Web site, except that the adviser may advise fewer than 15 clients through other means during the preceding 12 months.
Any interested person may, by December 27, 2016, at 5:30 p.m., submit to the Commission in writing a request for a hearing on the cancellation, accompanied by a statement as to the nature of his or her interest, the reason for such request, and the issues, if any, of fact or law proposed to be controverted, and he or she may request that he or she be notified if the Commission should order a hearing thereon. Any such communication should be addressed: Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
At any time after December 27, 2016, the Commission may issue an order cancelling the registration, upon the basis of the information stated above, unless an order for a hearing on the cancellation shall be issued upon request or upon the Commission's own motion. Persons who requested a hearing, or who requested to be advised as to whether a hearing is ordered, will receive any notices and orders issued in this matter, including the date of the hearing (if ordered) and any postponements thereof. Any adviser whose registration is cancelled under delegated authority may appeal that decision directly to the Commission in accordance with rules 430 and 431 of the Commission's rules of practice (17 CFR 201.430 and 431).
For further information contact: Emily Rowland, Attorney-Adviser at 202-551-6787 (Office of Investment Adviser Regulation).
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt rules for an open-outcry trading floor. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and statutory basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to adopt rules to allow for open-outcry trading on a physical trading floor (“Trading Floor”). The Exchange notes that this is not a novel proposal and that other exchanges currently offer open-outcry trading in addition to electronic trading.
The Exchange is proposing various changes to the definition section of the Rulebook to accommodate the proposed Trading Floor. First, the Exchange is proposing to define “Floor Participant” as Floor Brokers as defined in Rule 7540 and Floor Market Makers as defined in Rule 8510(b).
The Exchange is proposing to add the definition of “Presiding Exchange Officials.”
Next, the Exchange is proposing to add a definition for the “BOX Order Gateway.” The BOX Order Gateway (“BOG”) is a component of the Exchange that is designed to enable Floor Brokers to enter transactions on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is also proposing to provide details on how the public outcry on the Trading Floor will work. Specifically, the Exchange is proposing that bids and offers must be made in an
The Exchange is proposing that all bids or offers made on the Trading Floor shall be deemed to be for one option contract unless a specific number of option contracts is expressed in the bid or offer and that bid or offer for more than one option contract shall be deemed to be for the amount thereof or a smaller number of options contracts.
The Exchange is proposing to adopt Rule 7230(f) Limitation of Liability, which codifies that each Options Participant that physically conducts business on the Exchange's Trading Floor is required, at its sole cost, to procure and maintain liability insurance that provides defense and indemnity coverage for itself, any person associated with it, and the Exchange for any action or proceeding brought relating to the conduct of the Options Participant or associated person.
In order for a Participant to be admitted to the Trading Floor the Participant will be required to register with the Exchange. Additionally, all Floor Participants must be registered as a Participant
The Exchange is proposing to adopt Rule 2020(h) Trading Floor Registration, which codifies that each Floor Broker, Floor Market Maker and registered representative on the Exchange Trading Floor must be registered as “Member Exchange” (“ME”) under “BOX” on Form U4. In addition, each Floor Broker, Floor Market Maker and registered representative on the Exchange Trading Floor must successfully complete the appropriate floor trading examination(s), if prescribed by the Exchange, in addition to requirements imposed by other Exchange Rules.
The Exchange is also proposing to add Rule 2020(i), which details Non-Participant and Clerk Registration. Specifically, all Trading Floor personnel, including clerks, interns, stock execution clerks and any other associated persons, of a Floor Participant not required to register pursuant to this Rule 2020 must be registered as “Floor Employee” (“FE”) under BOX on Form U4. Further, the
The Exchange is proposing Rule 2110, which details the sanctions for breach of regulations on the Trading Floor. Specifically, the rule states that an Options Exchange Official or Exchange Staff may exclude a Floor Participant and any associated person from the Trading Floor and also impose on Floor Participants and their associated persons fines for breaches of regulations that relate to administration of order, decorum, health, safety and welfare on the Exchange or an Options Exchange Official. Additionally, Exchange Staff may refer the matter for discipline in accordance with the Rule 12000 series.
Lastly, the Exchange sets forth the procedure to be followed in cases where a pre-set fine of up to $5,000.00 is summarily assessed for actions related to the Trading Floor and also the procedure to be followed when a Floor Participant and/or its associated persons are to be excluded from the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is proposing to add Rule 2120, which will allow the Exchange to enforce compliance with the Order and Decorum Code for the Trading Floor, as provided in the Exchange's Order and Decorum Policies which shall be distributed to Floor Participants periodically, pursuant to Rule 2110. While ordinarily a finding of a violation will result in the appropriate pre-set fine and/or sanction, an Options Exchange Official or Exchange Staff may refer the matter to the Panel where it shall proceed in accordance with the Rule 12000 Series as applicable.
Currently, Rule 4180 Brokers' Blanket Bond provides that every OFP
The majority of the proposed rules governing the activity on the Trading Floor will be contained in the 7000 series, Doing Business on BOX, of the Exchange's Rules.
Dealings on the Trading Floor will be limited to the hours that the Exchange is open for transacting business.
The Exchange is proposing certain restrictions for dealings on the Trading Floor. Specifically, that no Options Participant shall, while on the Trading Floor, make any transactions with any non-Options Participants in any security admitted to dealing on the Exchange.
As previously mentioned, the Exchange is proposing two categories of Participants on the Trading Floor; Floor Brokers and Floor Market Makers. A Floor Broker is an individual who is registered with the Exchange for the purpose, wholly on the Trading Floor, of accepting and handling option orders.
Prior to being admitted to the Trading Floor, a Floor Broker shall file an application in writing with the Exchange staff on such form or forms as the Exchange may prescribe.
Floor Brokers will have certain responsibilities while conducting business on the Trading Floor. The proposed rules covering Floor Brokers' responsibilities are based on the rules of another exchange
Floor Brokers must make a reasonable effort to ascertain whether each order entrusted to them is for the account of a Public Customer or broker-dealer.
The Exchange is also proposing rules for how a Floor Broker must handle contingency orders that are dependent upon the price of the underlying security and for how a Floor Broker must handle orders he is representing when they are for the account of a Market Maker.
As previously mentioned, in order to create an electronic audit trail for options orders represented and executed by Floor Brokers on the Exchange's Trading Floor, the Exchange is proposing the BOG to aid Floor Brokers with the execution of orders.
All orders entrusted to a Floor Broker will be considered Not Held Orders, unless otherwise specified by a Floor Broker's client.
The Exchange is proposing that all transactions occurring on the Trading Floor must be processed through the BOG as provided in proposed Rule 7600 and must be two-sided orders, including multi-leg orders.
The Exchange is proposing rules with respect to Floor Brokers and discretionary transactions.
Floor Brokers may use any communication device on the Trading Floor and in any Crowd Area to receive orders, provided that audit trail and record retention requirements of the Exchange are met.
The Exchange is not including certain PHLX rules related to Floor Broker duties to allocate, match and time stamp trades executed in open outcry and to submit the matched trade tickets to the exchange.
As previously mentioned, all orders on the Trading Floor must be two-sided and submitted for execution through the BOG. As such, BOX is proposing to introduce a new order type to facilitate transactions on the Trading Floor. Specifically, the Exchange is proposing to adopt a Qualified Open Outcry (“QOO”) Order type.
The Exchange is proposing that the execution price of the QOO Order must be equal to or better than the NBBO.
The Floor Broker must submit the QOO Order through the BOG. The Exchange is proposing that the QOO Order is not deemed executed until the QOO Order is received and processed by the Trading Host. Once the Floor Broker submits the QOO Order to the BOG there will be no opportunity for the submitting Floor Broker to alter the terms of the QOO Order.
The Exchange is additionally proposing that when a Floor Broker executes a Complex QOO Order, the priority and rules for Complex Orders contained in Rule 7240(b)(2) and (3) will continue to apply, except that the Floor Broker may disable the Complex Order Filter under Rule 7240(b)(3)(iii). For Complex QOO Orders, the Complex QOO Orders (1) may not trade through any equal or better priced Public Customer Complex Orders on the Complex Order Book
As mentioned above, the Exchange is also proposing to amend the current rules related to Complex Orders on the Exchange in order to incorporate the trading of Complex Orders on the Trading Floor. Currently, incoming Complex Orders to the Exchange are filtered to ensure that each leg of a Complex Order will be executed at a price that is equal to or better than the NBBO and BOX BBO.
All QOO Orders must be represented to the trading crowd prior to the QOO Order being submitted to the BOG for execution.
The Exchange believes that by having the QOO Order execute when it is received by the BOG, the Exchange is providing a system that will prevent executions that appear to be at prices that are worse than the NBBO due to the fact that on traditional open-outcry floors the time that the execution is printed may be substantially after the time an execution actually occurred on the trading floor. The Exchange believes that having the QOO Order execute when it is submitted to the BOG will minimize trade-through violations and provide an accurate and sequential audit trail. The Exchange notes that this is the same way executions on PHLX occur.
The Exchange is proposing that the initiating side of the QOO Order will first execute against any bids or offers that have priority pursuant to proposed Rule 7600(c), provided that an adequate book sweep size pursuant to proposed Rule 7600(h) was provided by the Floor Broker, and then the remaining balance will be executed through the Trading Host against the contra-side of the QOO Order.
The Exchange is proposing to provide a book sweep size on the Trading Floor to help Floor Brokers execute orders when there are bids or offers on the BOX Book that have priority over the QOO Order.
The Exchange notes that another exchange provides functionality to help Floor Brokers clear the electronic book.
The following are examples of how the QOO Order will operate on the Trading Floor.
The following example is designed to illustrate a QOO Order executing.
The following example illustrates how the Exchange will handle a QOO Order that is submitted with a book sweep size that is greater than the size of the QOO Order.
The following example illustrates how the Exchange will handle a QOO Order that is priced outside of the NBBO.
The following example illustrates a QOO Order that utilizes the book sweep size and therefore executes against interest on the BOX Book.
The following example is designed to illustrate the situation where an executing Floor Broker did not provide an adequate book sweep size to have the QOO Order execute immediately when it was submitted to the BOG.
The following example is designed to illustrate how the BOG will handle a QOO Order that is submitted at a price that would trade-through an away exchange.
The following is an example of an execution of a Complex QOO Order on the Trading Floor.
• BOX BBO for Complex Order
The following is an example of a Complex QOO Order that is rejected by the BOG because the Floor Broker did not provide an adequate book sweep size to satisfy the resting interest on the Complex Order Book.
• Complex QOO Order for 100 of A+B at 3.07 (initiating side is sell)
• Book sweep size = 25
• NBBO for Complex Order A+B is 3.06 − 3.20.
The following example is designed to illustrate the situation where the Complex QOO Order executes against Implied Orders
The following example illustrates how the Exchange will handle a Complex QOO Order that executes against BOX Book interest first but leaves interest on the BOX Book.
The Exchange is proposing to allow for a participation guarantee for certain orders executed by Floor Brokers on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is proposing additional requirements for Floor Participants while present on the Trading Floor.
BOX is proposing the adoption of rules that will allow for tied hedge transactions. Tied hedge transactions are transactions that involve an option transaction and a hedging transaction occurring on a non-option market, as described in greater detail below.
The Exchange is further proposing that all tied hedge transactions (regardless of whether the option order is a simple or Complex Order) are treated the same as Complex Orders for purposes of the Exchange's open outcry allocation and reporting procedures. Tied hedge transactions are subject to the existing NBBO Trade-Through requirements for options and stock, as applicable, and may qualify for various exceptions; however, when the option order is a simple order, the execution of the option leg of a tied hedge transaction does not qualify for the NBBO Trade-Through exception for a Complex Trade (defined in proposed Rule 7610(e)). Floor Participants that participate in the option transaction must also participate in the hedging position and may not prevent the option transaction from occurring by giving a competing bid or offer for one component of such order. In the event the conditions in the non-options market prevent the execution of the non-option leg(s) at the agreed prices, the trade representing the options leg(s) may be cancelled. BOX is proposing that prior to entering tied hedge orders on behalf of Public Customers, the Floor Broker must deliver to the Public Customer a written notification informing the Public Customer that his order may be executed using the Exchange's tied hedge procedures. The proposed rule dealing with tied hedge orders is based on the rules of another options exchange.
The Exchange is proposing rules for determining priority of bids and offers on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is proposing that the Floor Participant with first priority is entitled to buy or sell as many contracts as the Floor Broker may have available to trade. If there are any contracts remaining, the Floor Participant with second priority will be entitled to buy or sell as many contracts as there are remaining in the Floor Broker's order, and so on, until the Floor Broker's order has been filled entirely. An Options Exchange Official has the same responsibilities as a Floor Broker when the Options Exchange Official calls for a market.
The Exchange's proposed rules will also cover the situation where a Floor Broker requests a market in order to fill a large order and the Floor Participants provide a collective response.
The Exchange is proposing rules for split price transactions occurring on the Trading Floor.
Additionally, if a Floor Participant purchases (sells) 50 or more option contracts of a particular series at a particular price or prices, the Floor Participant shall, at the next lower (higher) price have priority in purchasing (selling) up to the equivalent number of option contracts of the same series that the Floor Participant purchased (sold) at the higher (lower) price or prices, but only if the Floor Participant bid (offer) is made promptly and the purchase (sale) so effected represents the opposite side of the transaction with the same order or offer (bid) as the earlier purchase or purchases (sale or sales). The Exchange may increase the minimum qualifying order size above 100 contracts for split price priority for all products. Announcements regarding changes to the minimum qualifying order size shall be made via Circular. If the bids or offers of two or more Floor Participants are both entitled to priority in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2) of proposed Rule 7610(f), it shall be afforded them, insofar as practicable, on an equal basis.
The Exchange is also proposing to add clarifying language with respect to split price priority that provides that Floor Participants who bid (offer) on behalf of a non-Market Maker Participant must ensure that the non-Market Maker Participant qualifies for an exemption from Section 11(a)(1) of the Exchange Act or that the transaction satisfies the requirements of Exchange Act Rule 11a2-2(T), otherwise the Floor Participant must yield priority to orders for the accounts of non-Participants. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule providing for split price priority is similar to the rule of another exchange.
The Exchange is proposing Rule 7620 Orders Executed Manually to make clear how priority on the Trading Floor will be established based on account type.
The Exchange is proposing to adopt Rule 7630 Clerks, which provides requirements for Clerks on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is also proposing Rule 7630(d), which details the registration requirements for a Floor Broker who employs a Clerk that performs any function other than a solely clerical or ministerial function. On the Trading Floor, a Clerk may enter an order under the direction of a Floor Broker by way of any order handling entry device.
The Exchange is proposing to adopt Rule 7640 to codify the process for resolution of trading disputes on Trading Floor.
The Exchange is proposing that an Options Exchange Official shall institute the course of action deemed to be most fair to all parties under the circumstances at the time when issuing decisions for the resolution of trading disputes. An Options Official may direct the execution of an order on the Trading Floor or adjust the transaction terms or Participants to an executed order on the Trading Floor, and may also nullify a transaction if the transaction is determined to have been in violation of Exchange Rules. Options transactions that are the result of an Obvious Error or Catastrophic Error shall be subject to the provisions and procedures set forth in Rule 7170. The proposed rule also states that all rulings rendered by an Options Exchange Official are effective immediately and must be complied with promptly; failure to do so may result in an additional violation. Furthermore, failure to promptly comply with other Options Exchange Official rulings issued pursuant to the Exchange's Order and Decorum Policies (Rule 2120) or violation of any additional Trading Floor policies and not concerning a trading dispute may result in an additional violation.
Proposed Rule 7640(d) states that Options Exchange Official rulings issued pursuant to the Order and Decorum Code are reviewable pursuant to IM-2110-1. All other Options Exchange Official rulings are reviewable pursuant to paragraph (e) of proposed Rule 7640. Proposed Rule 7640(e) states that all Options Exchange Official rulings are reviewable by the CRO or his or her designee, and sets forth the process for such review. Regulatory staff must be advised within 15 minutes of an Options Exchange Official's ruling that a party to such ruling has determined to appeal from such ruling to the CRO or his or her designee. The Exchange may establish the procedures for the submission of a request for a review of an Options Exchange Official ruling. Options Exchange Official rulings (including those concerning the nullification or adjustment of transactions) may be sustained, overturned, or modified by the CRO or his or her designee. In making a determination, the CRO or his or her designee may consider facts and circumstances not available to the ruling Options Exchange Official, as well as action taken by the parties in reliance on the Options Exchange Official's ruling (
Lastly, as discussed in proposed IM-7640-1, the Exchange may determine that an Options Exchange Official is ineligible to participate in a particular ruling where it appears that such Options Exchange Official has a conflict of interest. The Exchange also sets forth when a conflict of interest exists, and allows that Exchange staff may consider other circumstances, on a case-by-case basis, in determining the eligibility or ineligibility of a particular Options Exchange Official to participate in a particular ruling due to a conflict of interest.
The Exchange is proposing Rule 7650, which will govern Trading for Joint Accounts.
The Exchange is proposing Rule 7660 Communications and Equipment, which deals with communication and equipment on the Trading Floor. Specifically, the proposed rule details which communication devices are prohibited; provides the Exchange with the ability to remove any communication device that is in violation; sets forth the registration requirement and process; specifies the capacity and functionality of communication devices; outlines the communication devices allowed to Floor Market Makers, Floor Brokers, and Clerks; requires the maintenance of telephone records, and excludes the
The Exchange is proposing Rule 8500 Floor Market Maker, which details the rules surrounding Floor Market Makers, including registration as a Market Maker and suspension and termination of a Floor Market Maker.
Proposed Rule 8500 codifies that a Floor Market Maker shall only quote in classes on the Trading Floor for which the Market Maker is already quoting electronically. Therefore, a Floor Market Maker must already be registered as a Market Maker on BOX prior to becoming a Floor Market Maker. The Exchange proposes that a Floor Market Maker shall not effect on the Exchange purchases or sales of any option in which such Floor Market Maker is registered, for any account in which he or his Options Participant is directly or indirectly interested, unless such dealings are reasonably necessary to permit such Floor Market Maker to maintain a fair and orderly market.
Also, the Exchange proposes certain expectations of Floor Market Makers. Specifically, proposed Rule 8500(d) details that it is ordinarily expected that a Floor Market Maker will engage, to a reasonable degree under the existing circumstances, in dealings for his own account in options when lack of price continuity or lack of depth in the options market or temporary disparity between supply and demand in the options market exists or is reasonably to be anticipated. The Exchange is proposing that transactions effected on the Exchange by a Floor Market Maker for his own account, and in the options in which he is registered, are to constitute a course of dealings reasonably calculated to contribute to the maintenance of price continuity with reasonable depth, and to the minimizing of the effects of temporary disparity between supply and demand, immediate or reasonably to be anticipated. Transactions in such options not part of such a course of dealings are not to be effected by a Floor Market Maker for his own account.
The Exchange is proposing Rule 8510 which will govern the obligations and restrictions applicable to Floor Market Makers.
More specifically, the Exchange is proposing two Floor Market Maker Obligations: (1) Continuous Electronic Quoting Obligation; and (2) Continuous Open Outcry Quoting Obligation.
The Exchange also proposes affirmative obligations for Floor Market
The Exchange is also proposing restrictions for Floor Market Makers in classes of option contracts other than those to which they are appointed. Specifically, with respect to classes in which Floor Marker Makers are not appointed, Floor Market Makers should not (1) individually or as a group, intentionally or unintentionally, dominate the market in option contracts of a particular class; or (2) effect purchases or sales on the Trading Floor of the Exchange except in a reasonable and orderly manner; (3) be conspicuous in the general market or in the market in a particular option.
Proposed Rule 8510(h) discusses option priority and parity on the Trading Floor. Specifically, it references proposed Rule 7610, which directs Floor Participants in the establishment of priority of orders on the Trading Floor. An account type is either a controlled account or a Public Customer account.
The Exchange is also clarifying that Floor Participants must follow just and equitable principles of trade when dealing on the Trading Floor.
The Exchange is proposing substantial Interpretive Material to supplement the Floor Market Maker Rules.
Additionally, the Exchange proposes that an off-Floor order for an account in which a Participant has an interest is to be treated as an on-Floor order if it is executed by the Participant who initiated it.
The Exchange is proposing that an on-Floor order given by a Floor Market Maker to a commission broker, for an account in which the Floor Market Maker has an interest, is subject to all the rules restricting Floor Market Makers.
The Exchange is proposing that the number of Floor Market Makers in the trading crowd who are establishing or increasing a position may temporarily be limited when, in the judgment of an Options Exchange Official, the interests of a fair and orderly market are served by such limitation.
The proposed rules applicable to Floor Market Makers are based predominately on the rules of PHLX. However, BOX omitted certain PHLX rules from the proposed rules due to certain differences with how the Exchange is designing the Trading Floor. The Exchange is not including any of PHLX's waiver provisions in the proposed rules.
The Exchange is not including certain PHLX rules related to participation guarantees, allocation and priority. PHLX participant guarantee rules are designed to provide a guarantee entitlement to specialists on the trading floor. BOX is not proposing to have specialists on the Trading Floor and therefore there is no reason to include these PHLX rules. Additionally, BOX's proposed allocation and priority rules for orders executed on the Trading Floor are based on the rules of NYSE Arca
The Exchange has not yet determined the fees for transactions executed on the Trading Floor. Prior to commencing trading on the Trading Floor, the Exchange will file proposed fees with the Commission. However, the Exchange is currently proposing to amend Rule 7010 Fees and Charges. Specifically, the Exchange is proposing that the Board may, from time to time, fix and impose a charge upon Participants measured by their respective net commissions on transactions effected on the Trading Floor or the Exchange.
The Exchange is also proposing minor edits to other sections of the Exchange's Rulebook in order to accommodate the various changes. Specifically, the Exchange is proposing several new definitions which results in the renumbering of numerous other definitions. Therefore, the Exchange is amending various references to definitions in the Rulebook.
Lastly, the Exchange notes that it will submit a separate filing to the SEC which will cover minor rule violations on the Trading Floor. Specifically, the Exchange will file with the SEC to amend the Exchange's Minor Rule Violation Plan in Rule 12140.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act
BOX believes that the proposal is consistent with the Act and furthers the foregoing objectives by increasing the opportunities for Participants to execute orders and provide an additional venue for seeking liquidity. The Exchange believes the adoption of the proposed rules allowing for an open-outcry floor is consistent with the goals of the Act to remove the impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market because it will benefit Participants by providing an additional mechanism for Participants to provide and seek liquidity for large and complex orders. The Exchange believes that the nature of open outcry transactions lends itself better to larger-sized transactions than the liquidity that is generally available electronically and the proposed rules would encourage greater participation in such large trades. Therefore, the proposed rule changes will benefit the market as a whole by providing an additional venue for market participants to seek liquidity for large-sized and complex orders. Providing an additional venue for these orders will benefit investors, the national market system, Participants, and the Exchange market by increasing competition for order flow and executions, and thereby spur product enhancements and lower prices. The Exchange believes that the proposal is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices because all surveillance coverage currently performed by the Exchange will cover trading on the Trading Floor. Additionally, the Exchange will have surveillance coverage in place to monitor issues unique to the Trading Floor.
The Exchange believes the proposed changes to Rule 100(a) to include definitions of Floor Participant and Trading Floor are consistent with the goals of the Act. Specifically, the proposed changes are designed to protect investors and the public interest by providing background and clarity in the Rulebook. Additionally, proposed Rule 100(b) will provide additional clarity in the Rulebook. Specifically, the definition for Presiding Exchange Officials provides Floor Participants with notice of who is responsible for monitoring and regulating the Trading Floor. The other sections of proposed Rule 100(b) provide general background for Floor Participants in the beginning of the Rulebook that will aid in understanding the applicable rules throughout, which will protect investors and the public by making the Exchange's Rulebook simpler to understand. Additionally, the Exchange notes that the various sections of proposed Rule 100(b) are based on the rules of another exchange with an open-outcry floor.
The Exchange believes that the proposed registration requirements, including floor trading examinations, if required, for Floor Brokers, Floor Market Makers and registered representatives on the Trading Floor, are reasonable and further the objectives of the Act.
Similarly, the Exchange believes that prescribing appropriate registration requirements including floor trading
The proposed rule dealing with breaches of regulations on the Trading Floor
In addition, the Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act in general, and furthers the objective of Section 6(b)(4) of the Act
The Exchange believes that the proposed rules governing activity on the Trading Floor, including Trading Floor hours, opening the market, admittance, joint accounts, and dealings on the Trading Floor,
The Exchange believes the proposal to require each Options Participant that physically conducts a business on the Trading Floor to procure and maintain liability insurance
The Exchange is proposing various rules related to Clerks on the Trading Floor
The Exchange believes the proposed rule relating to disputes on the Trading Floor will provide clarity and direction for the resolution of such disputes.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable to exclude Floor Market Makers and Floor Brokers from Rule 4180 when they do not conduct business with the public.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to allow the Board the authority to fix and impose a charge upon Participants conducting business on the Trading Floor is consistent with the Act. Specifically, the Exchange will
The proposal outlining bids and offers made on the Trading Floor and the solicitation of quotations on the Trading Floor
The Exchange believes that the proposed rules applicable to Floor Brokers,
The proposed responsibilities for Floor Brokers
Additionally, the Exchange believes that the proposal to not require a Floor Market Maker to be present in the Crowd Area
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 11(a) of the Act and the rules thereunder. The Commission has stated various times that it believes transactions executed against interest on the BOX Book are consistent with the requirements of Section 11(a) of the Act, including Section 11(a)(1)(G) thereof and the rules thereunder.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rules applicable to executions and priority on the Trading Floor
The Exchange further believes that protecting non-Public Customer interest on the BOX Book that is ranked ahead of Public Customer interest is consistent with just and equitable principles of trade because it maintains the Exchange's existing price/time priority rules by protecting interest that has time priority over Public Customer interest that has priority. The Exchange also notes that this proposed priority interaction with the BOX Book is the same as NYSE Arca.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to provide a Floor Broker with a guarantee for certain orders executed on the Trading Floor
The Exchange believes that the proposed priority provisions for Complex Orders executed on the Trading Floor are reasonable because it aligns the Exchange's Rules for Complex Orders executed on the Trading Floor with that of other exchanges with open-outcry floors.
BOX believes the adoption of split price priority rules
The Exchange believes that the BOG
The Exchange believes that requiring that all transactions on the Trading Floor must be executed through the BOG will increase the speed and efficiency in which Floor Brokers handle orders, thereby making the Exchange's market more efficient, to the benefit of the investing public and consistent with promoting just and equitable principles of trade.
The Exchange believes that the proposal to adopt a new order type
The Exchange believes that the book sweep size in proposed Rule 7600(h) is consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the
The Exchange believes the proposed rule involving communications and equipment on the Trading Floor
The Exchange believes that the proposed Rules applicable to Floor Market Makers
The Exchange believes that the proposed electronic quoting requirements for Floor Market Makers in proposed Rule 8510(c)(1) are consistent with Section 6(b)(5) of the Act, in particular, the electronic quoting requirements are designed to promote just and equitable principles of trade, remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general to protect investors and the public interest. Specifically, the Exchange believes that the electronic quoting requirements for Floor Maker Makers will benefit investors, the national market system, Participants, and the Exchange by ensuring the liquidity directed toward BOX's electronic marketplace does not decrease with the launch of BOX's Trading Floor. Instead, Options Participants wishing to register as Floor Market Makers will also be required to register as a Market Maker on BOX's electronic book, with the same electronic quoting obligations as Market Makers on BOX who only quote electronically. Further, the Exchange believes the electronic quoting requirements will protect investors and the public interests by ensuring that robust quoting on BOX electronic book continues, which may lead to increased liquidity, tighter spreads and better executions with lower execution costs, which will benefit all market participants. The Exchange also believes that the proposed electronic quoting requirements are reasonable as they are
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule changes will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The Exchange notes that other exchanges currently offer open-outcry floors. The Exchange believes that the proposed rules will allow the Exchange to compete with these other exchanges. Additionally, while the proposed rule changes would permit BOX to operate a Trading Floor, the Exchange is not requiring that Participants register and have a presence on the Trading Floor. Therefore, the proposed rule changes do not impose a burden on intra-market competition.
Overall, the proposal is pro-competitive for several reasons. In particular, by helping Floor Brokers at the Exchange compete for executions against floor brokers at other exchanges, it also helps them to be more efficient and provide a better audit trail of their executions on the Trading Floor. This, in turn, helps the Exchange compete against other exchanges in a deeply competitive landscape. The Exchange believes its proposed unique features for open-outcry trading will provide value to Floor Participants, which in turn, will help the Exchange compete.
The Exchange has neither solicited nor received comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove the proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to adopt a new Extended Life Priority Order Attribute under Rule 4703, and to make related changes to Rules 4702, 4752, 4753, 4754, and 4757.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The
The Exchange is proposing a new Extended Life Priority Order Attribute, which will allow Displayed Orders that are committed to a one-second or longer resting period to receive higher priority than other Displayed Orders of the same price on the Nasdaq Book. From its inception, Nasdaq has been an innovator and change agent in the financial markets. Innovation is in Nasdaq's DNA, beginning with the development of electronic trading and continuing today as we seek to bring new ideas to the financial markets, such as streamlined proxy voting using blockchain technology,
As the markets became more automated in the 1990s and 2000s, and in particular since the implementation of the Regulation NMS Order Protection Rule (Rule 611) and the Access Rule (Rule 610) beginning in 2006,
Nonetheless, the price/display/time priority system may not serve the interests of all market participants. In particular, the price/display/time priority system provides incentives to set new prices and optimize trading strategies based on the time priority in an order book. Increasing competition in the price/time priority structure has led to market velocity and displayed order duration becoming widely discussed and debated topics in recent years. Over time, as order placement competition on Nasdaq has grown, the importance of an order's ranking in the order queue has increased. In addition, orders that access resting liquidity on exchanges have decreased in size due to the fragmented nature of the broader market and the adoption of algorithmic trading and routing strategies. As a result, when these smaller orders come to an exchange to access liquidity in the most liquid securities, there are orders deep in the queue that may not always have the opportunity to participate.
As an innovator, Nasdaq develops new functionality to promote the evolution of the markets. Nasdaq believes that it is imperative to address the needs of various market participants in new ways. Specifically, Nasdaq is proposing to supplement the ubiquitous price/display/time priority structure in the U.S. Equities markets to address the needs of market participants that focus their passive trading strategies on their ability to assume market risk by resting orders for an extended duration. Nasdaq believes that many of these participants have a longer investment horizon (
Nasdaq is proposing to offer a new Order Attribute
Currently, Nasdaq's System
The Exchange has observed that many of the market participants that have not focused on efficient Order queue placement of Displayed Order entry often represent retail customer and institutional Order flow, which tend to have longer investment time horizons. Nasdaq believes that promoting Displayed Orders with longer time horizons will enhance the market so that it works for a wider array of market participants, and will benefit publicly traded companies by promoting long-term investment in corporate securities, whether listed on Nasdaq or other exchanges. To further this goal, the Exchange is proposing an exception to the general priority rules
Another component to consider with regards to the optimal priority structure is the risk associated with submitting a Displayed Order into the market. There are various elements of risk that are considered when a market participant chooses a price and a time at which to post a Displayed Order on the Nasdaq Book. As noted earlier, price/display/time priority does not necessarily reward or recognize the various types of risks associated with an Order. Nasdaq believes that rewarding market participants that enter Displayed Orders and commit to a longer resting time on the Nasdaq Book, would enable it to broaden the types of behavior and incentives provided, in particular in securities in which the depth of the Nasdaq Book may inhibit these Orders from being placed on Nasdaq. As noted above, these market participants are typically considered long term investors, representing retail and institutional order flow.
In its initial implementation, Nasdaq plans to support the Extended Life Priority Attribute for Designated Retail Orders.
Nasdaq will carefully monitor members' use of the Extended Life Priority Attribute on a quarter-by-quarter basis and will not rely solely on a member's attestation with regard to Extended Life Priority usage. Nasdaq will determine whether a member was in compliance with the eligibility requirements for a given quarter within five business days of the end of that quarter. Any member that has not met the requirements in a quarter will be ineligible to receive Extended Life Priority treatment for its Orders in the quarter immediately following the quarter in which it did not comply.
To implement the retail phase of the Extended Life Priority Attribute, Nasdaq is developing a unique identifier that
As noted above, if an Order with Extended Life Priority is not marketable upon entry, the Order will post and display at its limit price, and will be ranked under the price/display/ELO/time priority structure. In other words, an Order with the Extended Life Priority Attribute will be ranked ahead of other Displayed Orders that do not have the Extended Life Priority attribute and behind any other Displayed Orders with Extended Life Priority that were received previously. For example, if five members attest to enter Orders designated with the Extended Life Priority Attribute and each member enters a Displayed Order so designated at the same price, the Order entered first will receive the highest priority among the five, the second Order will be ranked second, and so on; all Displayed Orders entered at the same price and not designated with the Extended Life Priority Attribute will be ranked behind the five Orders designated with the Extended Life Priority Attribute.
There are three instances in which an Order entered with the Extended Life Priority Attribute will not gain ELO priority. First, an Order with the Extended Life Priority Attribute will only have Extended Life Priority ranking at its displayed price. If an Order with the Extended Life Priority Attribute is ranked at a Non-Displayed price, it will be ranked without Extended Life Priority among Non-Displayed Orders. For example, if a Price to Comply Order
Second, a Designated Retail Order with a Non-Display Attribute that is also entered with Extended Life Priority will be added to the Nasdaq Book as a Non-Display Order without Extended Life Priority, following price/display/time processing among resting Orders without Extended Life Priority.
Third, while cross-specific Orders marked with Extended Life Priority will be eligible to participate in the Nasdaq Opening,
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Nasdaq believes that requiring Designated Retail Orders to exist on the Nasdaq Book unaltered for at least one second is a meaningful time, representing a significant level of risk taken by the market participant in return for the priority in the Nasdaq Book. In addition, Nasdaq is initially requiring members to attest that at least 99% of the Designated Retail Orders submitted with Extended Life Priority exist on the Nasdaq Book unaltered for at least one second.
Nasdaq believes that, if successful, the proposed change may bring greater stability to the Displayed quote and increase Displayed size on Nasdaq. Thus, Nasdaq believes that the Extended Life Priority Attribute is good for market structure because it may provide incentive to market participants that are long-term investors and may diversify Order interaction on Nasdaq, thereby enhancing price discovery and market resiliency.
Although the proposed change is novel in U.S. equity markets, certain U.S. options markets currently grant preference in their order books for customer orders.
For these reasons Nasdaq believes that the proposed Extended Life Order further perfects the mechanism of a free and open market, promotes competition, broadens participation in the market, considers the cost/benefit of implementation and provides market participants with incentive to provide market-improving Order flow.
Nasdaq does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, Nasdaq believes that the proposed change increases competition among market participants because it allows certain market participants to compete based on elements other than the sequence of order arrival. Specifically, the proposed change will allow market participants that have not invested in limit order queue placement but rather take risk by allowing an Order to rest on the Nasdaq Book unchanged for a certain duration to gain priority in the Nasdaq Book. Although market participants that do not submit Orders that qualify as Extended Life Orders may lose priority to Extended Life Orders on the Nasdaq Book, any burden arising therefrom is necessary to further refine the market to serve a broader group of market participants. In particular, Nasdaq believes Extended Life Priority will incentivize behavior from participants that currently, may struggle to participate and are willing to provide market-improving Order flow, which benefits all market participants. Moreover, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily choose between competing venues if they deem participation in Nasdaq's market is no longer desirable. In such an environment, the Exchange must carefully consider the impact that any change it proposes may have on its participants, understanding that it will likely lose participants to the extent a change is viewed as unfavorable by them. Because competitors are free to modify the incentives and structure of their markets, the Exchange believes that the degree to which modifying the market structure of an individual market may impose any burden on competition is limited. Last, to the extent the proposed change is successful in attracting retail Order flow, Nasdaq also believes that the proposed change will promote competition among trading venues by making Nasdaq a more attractive trading venue for long-term investors and therefore capital formation.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
(A) By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
(B) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 12h-1(f) (17 CFR 240.12h-1(f)) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) provides an exemption from the Exchange Act Section 12(g) registration requirements for compensatory employee stock options of issuers that are not required to file periodic reports under the Exchange Act. The information required under Exchange Act Rule 12h-1 is not filed with the Commission. Exchange Act Rule 12h-1(f) permits issuers to provide the required information to the option holders either by: (i) Physical or electronic delivery of the information; or (ii) written notice to the option holders of the availability of the information on a password-protected Internet site. We estimate that it takes approximately 2 burden hours per response to prepare and provide the information required under Rule 12h-1(f) and it is prepared and provided by approximately 40 respondents. We estimate that 25% of the 2 hours per response (0.5 hours per response) is prepared by the company for a total annual reporting burden of 20 hours (0.5 hours per response × 40 responses).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Phlx Rule 1034 (Minimum Increments),
Proposed new language is
(a) Except as provided in sub-paragraphs (i)(B) and (iii) below, all options on stocks, index options, and Exchange Traded Fund Shares quoting in decimals at $3.00 or higher shall have a minimum increment of $.10, and all options on stocks and index options quoting in decimals under $3.00 shall have a minimum increment of $.05.
(i)(A) No Change.
(B) For a pilot period scheduled to expire [December 31, 2016]
The Exchange may replace any pilot issues that have been delisted with the next most actively traded multiply listed options classes that are not yet included in the pilot, based on trading activity in the previous six months. The replacement issues may be added to the pilot on the second trading day following [July 1, 2016]
(C) No Change.
(ii)-(v) No Change.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend Phlx Rule 1034 to extend the Penny Pilot through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier,
Under the Penny Pilot, the minimum price variation for all participating options classes, except for the Nasdaq-100 Index Tracking Stock (“QQQQ”), the SPDR S&P 500 Exchange Traded Fund (“SPY”) and the iShares Russell 2000 Index Fund (“IWM”), is $0.01 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at less than $3 per contract and $0.05 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at $3 per contract or greater. QQQQ, SPY and IWM are quoted in $0.01 increments for all options series. The Penny Pilot is currently scheduled to expire on December 31, 2016.
The Exchange proposes to extend the time period of the Penny Pilot through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier, and to provide a revised date for adding replacement issues to the Penny Pilot. The Exchange proposes that any Penny Pilot Program issues that have been delisted may be replaced on the second trading day following January 1, 2017. The replacement issues will be selected based on trading activity in the previous six months.
This filing does not propose any substantive changes to the Penny Pilot Program; all classes currently participating in the Penny Pilot will remain the same and all minimum increments will remain unchanged. The Exchange believes the benefits to public customers and other market participants who will be able to express their true prices to buy and sell options have been demonstrated to outweigh the potential increase in quote traffic.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
In particular, the proposed rule change, which extends the Penny Pilot for an additional six months through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier, and changes the date for replacing Penny Pilot issues that were delisted to the second trading day following January 1, 2017, will enable public customers and other market participants to express their true prices to buy and sell options for the benefit of all market participants. This is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, this proposal is pro-competitive because it allows Penny Pilot issues to continue trading on the Exchange.
Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will allow for further analysis of the Pilot and a determination of how the Pilot should be structured in the future; and will serve to promote regulatory clarity and consistency, thereby reducing burdens on the marketplace and facilitating investor protection.
The Pilot is an industry-wide initiative supported by all other option exchanges. The Exchange believes that extending the Pilot will allow for continued competition between market participants on the Exchange trading similar products as their counterparts on other exchanges, while at the same time allowing the Exchange to continue to compete for order flow with other exchanges in option issues trading as part of the Pilot.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-Phlx-2016-115 and should be submitted on or before December 27, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 15b11-1 provides that a broker or dealer may register by notice pursuant to section 15(b)(11)(A) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78
The Commission staff estimates that the total annual reporting burden associated with Rule 15b11-1 and Form BD-N is approximately three hours, based on an average of two initial notice registrations per year that each take approximately 30 minutes to complete, for one hour, plus an average of nine amendments per year that each take approximately fifteen minutes to complete, for 2.25 hours, rounded down to two hours, for a total of three hours.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimates of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Please direct your written comments to: Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549, or send an email to:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Section 17(d) (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(d)) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a
Rule 17d-1 also contains a number of exceptions to the requirement that a fund must obtain Commission approval prior to entering into joint transactions or arrangements with affiliates. For example, funds do not have to obtain Commission approval for certain employee compensation plans, certain tax-deferred employee benefit plans, certain transactions involving small business investment companies, the receipt of securities or cash by certain affiliates pursuant to a plan of reorganization, certain arrangements regarding liability insurance policies and transactions with “portfolio affiliates” (companies that are affiliated with the fund solely as a result of the fund (or an affiliated fund) controlling them or owning more than five percent of their voting securities) so long as certain other affiliated persons of the fund (
Thus, the rule contains two filing and recordkeeping requirements that constitute collections of information. First, rule 17d-1 requires funds that wish to engage in a joint transaction or arrangement with affiliates to meet the procedural requirements for obtaining exemptive relief from the rule's prohibition on joint transactions or arrangements involving first- or second-tier affiliates. Second, rule 17d-1 permits a portfolio affiliate to enter into a joint transaction or arrangement with the fund if a prohibited participant has a financial interest that the fund's board determines is not material and records the basis for this finding in their meeting minutes. These requirements of rule 17d-1 are designed to prevent fund insiders from managing funds for their own benefit, rather than for the benefit of the funds' shareholders.
Based on an analysis of past filings, Commission staff estimates that 18 funds file applications under section 17(d) and rule 17d-1 per year. The staff understands that funds that file an application generally obtain assistance from outside counsel to prepare the application. The cost burden of using outside counsel is discussed below. The Commission staff estimates that each applicant will spend an average of 154 hours to comply with the Commission's applications process. The Commission staff therefore estimates the annual burden hours per year for all funds under rule 17d-1's application process to be 2772 hours at a cost of $1,113,228.
As noted above, the Commission staff understands that funds that file an application under rule 17d-1 generally use outside counsel to assist in preparing the application. The staff estimates that, on average, funds spend an additional $93,131 for outside legal services in connection with seeking Commission approval of affiliated joint transactions. Thus, the staff estimates that the total annual cost burden imposed by the exemptive application requirements of rule 17d-1 is $1,676,358.
We estimate that funds currently do not rely on the exemption from the term “financial interest” with respect to any interest that the fund's board of directors (including a majority of the directors who are not interested persons of the fund) finds to be not material. Accordingly, we estimate that annually there will be no transactions under rule 17d-1 that will result in this aspect of the collection of information.
Based on these calculations, the total annual hour burden is estimated to be 2772 hours and the total annual cost burden is estimated to be $1,676,358.
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The estimate is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules. Complying with these collections of information requirement is necessary to obtain the benefit of relying on rule 17d-1. Responses will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Regulation 12B (17 CFR 240.12b-1 through 12b-37) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form 15F (17 CFR 249.324) is filed by a foreign private issuer when terminating its Exchange Act reporting obligations pursuant to Exchange Act Rule 12h-6 (17 CFR 240.12h-6). Form 15F requires a foreign private issuer to disclose information that helps investors understand the foreign private issuer's decision to terminate its Exchange Act reporting obligations and assists the Commission staff in determining whether the filer is eligible to terminate its Exchange Act reporting obligations pursuant to Rule 12h-6. Rule 12h-6 provides a process for a foreign private issuer to exit the Exchange Act registration and reporting regime when there is relatively little U.S. investor interest in its securities. Rule 12h-6 is intended to remove a disincentive for foreign private issuers to register their securities with the Commission by lessening concerns that the Exchange Act registration and reporting system would be difficult to exit once an issuer enters it. The information provided to the Commission is mandatory and all information is made available to the public upon request. We estimate that Form 15F takes approximately 30 hours to prepare and is filed by approximately 30 foreign private issuers. We estimate that 25% of the 30 hours per response (7.5 hours per response) is prepared by the filer for a total annual reporting burden of 225 hours (7.5 hours per response × 30 responses).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Section 17(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”), generally prohibits affiliated persons of a registered investment company (“fund”) from borrowing money or other property from, or selling or buying securities or other property to or from, the fund or any company that the fund controls.
To qualify for the exemptions in rule 17a-10, the subadvisory relationship must be the sole reason why section 17(a) prohibits the transaction. In addition, the advisory contracts of the subadviser entering into the transaction, and any subadviser that is advising the purchasing portion of the fund, must prohibit the subadvisers from consulting with each other concerning securities transactions of the fund, and limit their responsibility to providing advice with respect to discrete portions of the fund's portfolio.
To qualify for the exemptions in rule 17a-10, the subadvisory relationship must be the sole reason why section 17(a) prohibits the transaction. In addition, the advisory contracts of the subadviser entering into the transaction, and any subadviser that is advising the purchasing portion of the fund, must prohibit the subadvisers from consulting with each other concerning securities transactions of the fund, and limit their responsibility to providing advice with respect to discrete portions of the fund's portfolio. This requirement regarding the prohibitions and limitations in advisory contracts of subadvisers relying on the rule constitutes a collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”).
The staff assumes that all existing funds with subadvisory contracts amended those contracts to comply with the adoption of rule 17a-10 in 2003, which conditioned certain exemptions upon these contractual alterations, and therefore there is no continuing burden for those funds.
Based on an analysis of fund filings, the staff estimates that approximately 319 funds enter into new subadvisory agreements each year.
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The estimate is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules. Complying with this collection of information requirement is necessary to obtain the benefit of relying on rule 17a-10. Responses will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Director/Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, C/O Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend Chapter VI, Section 5 (Minimum Increments),
The text of the proposed rule change is set forth below.
Proposed new language is
(a) The Board may establish minimum quoting increments for options contracts traded on BX Options. Such minimum increments established by the Board will be designated as a stated policy, practice, or interpretation with respect to the administration of this Section within the meaning of Section 19 of the Exchange Act and will be filed with the SEC as a rule change for effectiveness upon filing. Until such time as the Board makes a change in the increments, the following principles shall apply:
(1)-(2) No Change.
(3) For a pilot period scheduled to expire on [December 31, 2016]
The Exchange may replace any pilot issues that have been delisted with the next most actively traded multiply listed options classes that are not yet included in the pilot, based on trading activity in the previous six months. The replacement issues may be added to the pilot on the second trading day following [July 1, 2016]
(4) No Change.
(b) No Change.
The text of the proposed rule change is also available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of this filing is to amend Chapter VI, Section 5, to extend the Penny Pilot through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier,
Under the Penny Pilot, the minimum price variation for all participating options classes, except for the Nasdaq-100 Index Tracking Stock (“QQQQ”), the SPDR S&P 500 Exchange Traded Fund (“SPY”) and the iShares Russell 2000 Index Fund (“IWM”), is $0.01 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at less than $3 per contract and $0.05 for all quotations in options series that are quoted at $3 per contract or greater. QQQQ, SPY and IWM are quoted in $0.01 increments for all options series. The Penny Pilot is currently scheduled to expire on December 31, 2016.
The Exchange proposes to extend the time period of the Penny Pilot through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier, and to provide a revised date for adding replacement issues to the Penny Pilot. The Exchange proposes that any Penny Pilot Program issues that have been delisted may be
This filing does not propose any substantive changes to the Penny Pilot Program; all classes currently participating in the Penny Pilot will remain the same and all minimum increments will remain unchanged. The Exchange believes the benefits to public customers and other market participants who will be able to express their true prices to buy and sell options have been demonstrated to outweigh the potential increase in quote traffic.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
In particular, the proposed rule change, which extends the Penny Pilot for an additional six months through June 30, 2017 or the date of permanent approval, if earlier, and changes the date for replacing Penny Pilot issues that were delisted to the second trading day following January 1, 2017, will enable public customers and other market participants to express their true prices to buy and sell options for the benefit of all market participants. This is consistent with the Act.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. To the contrary, this proposal is pro-competitive because it allows Penny Pilot issues to continue trading on the Exchange.
Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change will allow for further analysis of the Pilot and a determination of how the Pilot should be structured in the future; and will serve to promote regulatory clarity and consistency, thereby reducing burdens on the marketplace and facilitating investor protection.
The Pilot is an industry-wide initiative supported by all other option exchanges. The Exchange believes that extending the Pilot will allow for continued competition between market participants on the Exchange trading similar products as their counterparts on other exchanges, while at the same time allowing the Exchange to continue to compete for order flow with other exchanges in option issues trading as part of the Pilot.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-BX-2016-062. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for Web site viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street, NE., Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. All comments received will be posted without change; the Commission does not edit personal identifying information from submissions. You should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly.
All submissions should refer to File Number SR-BX-2016-062 and should be submitted on or before December 27, 2016.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.18 relating to disaster recovery. The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site (
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange adopted Rule 6.18 in 2006 for the limited purpose of providing alternative means of operation in the event of a physical disaster. In particular, Rule 6.18, as originally adopted, was intended to deal with trading floor closures, providing for the operation of a “Disaster Recovery Facility” (“DRF”) in the event that a disaster or other unusual circumstance rendered the trading floor inoperable.
In 2012, Rule 6.18 was amended in connection with the Exchange's relocation of its primary data center to the East Coast and the consequent conversion of its former primary data center to a back-up data center in Chicago.
In 2015, Rule 6.18 was again amended to add greater detail to the Exchange's disaster recovery rules and harmonize the disaster recovery rules with newly implemented disaster recovery-related regulatory imperatives of Regulation Systems Compliance and Integrity (“Regulation SCI”), which superseded and replaced the SEC's voluntary Automation Review Policy.
The Exchange now proposes to make additional changes to its disaster recovery rules to provide the Exchange authority to take additional steps necessary to preserve the Exchange's ability to conduct business in the event that the Exchange's data centers become inoperable or otherwise unavailable for use due to a significant systems failure, disaster or other unusual circumstances and make clear in the Rules the intermediary steps that the Exchange may take to disable certain systems and users' connectivity while continuing to operate its primary data center. The Exchange believes this authority serves the interests of all investors and the general public, because it helps the Exchange ensure its continuous operation and ability to maintain fair and orderly markets in the event of a
The Exchange proposes to amend Rule 6.18 relating to disaster recovery. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to make changes to Rule 6.18 to: (1) Allow the Exchange to establish additional temporary requirements applicable to certain market participants to help ensure the operation of fair and orderly markets during use of the Exchange's back-up data center; (2) provide that the Exchange may determine to temporarily operate in an exclusively floor-based environment via open outcry in order to preserve the Exchange's ability to conduct business in the event that the Exchange's data centers become inoperable or otherwise unavailable for use due to a significant systems failure, disaster, or other unusual circumstances; (3) permit the Exchange to deactivate certain nonessential systems and systems functionalities in response to limited systems disruptions or malfunctions, security intrusions, systems compliance issues, or other unusual circumstances; and (4) permit the Exchange to restrict access of a TPH or associated person to the Hybrid Trading System
The Exchange proposes to add new Rule 6.18(b)(iv)(B) (Alternative BCP/DR Participant Obligations), which would provide that the Exchange may, if necessary for the maintenance of fair and orderly markets, establish additional temporary requirements applicable to Designated BCP/DR Participants
For example, if circumstances that led to use of the back-up data center also caused a decrease in liquidity on the Exchange, the Exchange might determine that it is necessary, in the interests of fair and orderly markets, to temporarily heighten the quoting obligations of Market-Makers or tighten bid/ask differentials during the use of the back-up data center to enhance liquidity and continue to provide a viable, competitive marketplace. Proposed Rule 6.18(b)(iv)(B) would give the Exchange authority to take these types of action to help ensure the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in the event the Exchange were to switch operations to the back-up data center. In such cases, the Exchange would notify market participants of any such additional temporary requirements prior to implementation in a reasonable manner as determined by the Exchange.
The Exchange proposes to add Rule 6.18(c) (Operation via Open Outcry), which would provide that if the Exchange's data centers become inoperable or otherwise unavailable for use due to a significant systems failure, disaster or other unusual circumstances, the Exchange may temporarily operate in an exclusively floor-based environment via open outcry in order to preserve the Exchange's ability to conduct business.
The Exchange also proposes to add Rule 6.18(e) (Deactivation of Certain Systems), which would provide that in the event of a systems disruption or malfunction, security intrusion, systems compliance issue, or other unusual circumstances, the Exchange may, in accordance with the Rules or if necessary to maintain fair and orderly markets or to protect investors, temporarily deactivate certain systems or systems functionalities that are not essential to conducting business on the Exchange. Many of the systems and systems functionalities described in the Rules are provided optionally by the Exchange to enhance participants' trading experience, but are not required to be active under the Rules and are not
In addition, the activation of other functionalities may not be described by rule, but could be suspended temporarily (
Finally, the Exchange proposes Rule 6.18(f) (Connectivity Restriction), which would permit the Exchange to temporarily restrict a TPH's or associated person's access to the Hybrid Trading System or other electronic trading systems if it is determined by the President (or designee) of the Exchange, that because of a systems issue, such access threatens the Exchange's ability to operate systems essential to the maintenance of fair and orderly markets. Such access would remain restricted until the end of the trading session or an earlier time if the President (or designee) of the Exchange, in consultation with the affected TPH(s), determines that lifting the restriction no longer poses a threat to the Exchange's ability to operate systems essential to conducting business or continuing to maintain a fair and orderly market on the Exchange or investors. In the current electronic trading environment, if a TPH's systems malfunctions or is compromised, it could disrupt the Exchange's systems or market or harm other investors. For example, software malfunctions may pose a risk to the Exchange's systems, investors, and the general public without proper risk controls. Proposed Rule 6.18(f) would simply give the Exchange the authority to activate additional risk controls to stem the access of a TPH that has experienced a systems disruption or malfunction, which poses undue risk to the Exchange.
The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the Exchange and, in particular, the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The proposed rule change is designed to promote the Exchange's ability to ensure the continued operation of a fair and orderly market in the event of a systems failure, disaster, or other unusual circumstances that might threaten the ability to conduct business on the Exchange. The Exchange recognizes that switching operations to the back-up data center may occur in times of uncertainty or great volatility in the markets. It is at these times that the investors may have the greatest need for viable, trustworthy marketplaces. The proposed rule change seeks to ensure that such a marketplace will exist when most needed and thus, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule protects investors in the most fundamental sense.
In particular, the Exchange believes that proposed Rule 6.18(b)(iv)(B) allowing it to establish additional temporary requirements applicable to Designated BCP/DR Participants and/or other market participants during use of the back-up data center is consistent with the Act in that additional temporary requirements such as heightened quoting obligations for Market-Makers or more constricted bid-ask differentials would help ensure the maintenance of a fair and orderly market in the event of a disaster, which is in the interests of all market participants, investors, and the general public. The Exchange believes that adopting rules that help ensure that markets are open and available during times of turmoil and emergency is an important goal consistent with the Act. In the same vein, the Exchange believes that proposed Rule 6.18(c) to temporarily operate in an exclusively floor-based environment via open outcry in order to preserve the Exchange's ability to conduct business serves the interests of market participants, investors, and the general public by helping to ensure that the Exchange's market remains open and available for trading. The Exchange also believes that deactivation of certain systems in proposed Rule 6.18(e), whether by rule or otherwise, in order to ensure that the Exchange is able to provide a fair and orderly market in the face of systems disruptions and malfunction is in the best interests of market participants, investors, and the general public.
Similarly, the Exchange believes that the proposed connectivity restriction in proposed Rule 6.18(f) would help ensure that the Exchange remains open and available to all market participants. The Exchange notes that similar [sic]
The Exchange also believes that the proposed rule change promotes just and equitable principles of trade by adding detail and clarity to the Rules. The proposed rule change seeks to provide additional clarity to the Exchange's disaster recovery rules, putting all market participants on notice as to how the Exchange will function in case of significant systems disruption or other disaster situation. The Exchange is continuously updating the Rules to provide additional detail, clarity, and transparency regarding its operations and trading systems and regulatory authority. The Exchange believes that the adoption of detailed, clear, and transparent rules reduces burdens on competition and promotes just and equitable principles of trade. The Exchange also believes that adding greater detail to the Rules regarding the Exchange's ability to ensure the continuous operation of the market and preserve the ability to conduct business on the Exchange will increase confidence in the markets and encourage wider participation in the markets and greater investment.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Rather, the proposed rule change will help ensure that competitive markets remain operative in the event of a systems failure or other disaster event. The Exchange notes that the proposed rule change is designed to provide the Exchange with authority to require market participants to participate in, and provide necessary liquidity to, the market to ensure that the Exchange functions in a fair and orderly manner in the event of a significant systems failure, disaster, or other unusual circumstances. Accordingly, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is designed to ensure fair and competitive markets at time when they may be most needed.
The Exchange neither solicited nor received written comments on the proposed rule change.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
A. By order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or
B. institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form N-CSR (17 CFR 249.331 and 274.128) is a combined reporting form used by registered management investment companies (“funds”) to file certified shareholder reports under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1
Form N-CSR is filed semi-annually, and the Commission estimates that there are 3,449 respondents with 11,642 portfolios. The Commission further estimates that the hour burden for preparing and filing a report on Form N-CSR is 7.21 hours per portfolio. The total annual hour burden for Form N-CSR, therefore, is estimated to be 167,878 hours. We estimate that the cost burden of preparing and filing a report on Form N-CSR is $132.35 and therefore estimate that the total annual cost burden associated with Form N-CSR is $3,081,637.
Estimates of average burden hours and costs are made solely for purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and are not derived from a comprehensive or even representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. Compliance with the information collection requirements of Form N-CSR is mandatory. Responses to the collection of information will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Written comments are invited on: (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's estimate of the burden of the collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted in writing within 60 days of this publication.
Please direct your written comments to Pamela Dyson, Chief Information Officer, Securities and Exchange Commission, c/o Remi Pavlik-Simon, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549; or send an email to:
All submissions should refer to File Number 270-512. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's Internet Web site (
Pursuant to Section 11A(a)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The current parties to the Symbology Plan are BATS Exchange, Inc. (“BATS”), NASDAQ OMX BX, Inc. (“BX”), BOX Options Exchange, LLC (“BOX”), Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE”), CHX, EDGA Exchange, Inc. (“EDGA”), EDGX Exchange, Inc. (“EDGX”), FINRA, the International Securities Exchange, LLC (“ISE”), Nasdaq, New York Stock Exchange, LLC (“NYSE”), NYSE MKT LLC (“NYSE MKT”), and NYSE Arca, Inc. (“NYSE Arca”), NSX and Phlx.
IEX has submitted a signed copy of the Symbology Plan to the Commission in accordance with the requirement set forth in the Symbology Plan regarding new parties to the plan. Additionally, IEX represented that it maintains a market for the listing or trading of Plan Securities. Finally, IEX has agreed to pay all costs required by IEX pursuant to the Symbology Plan, including its proportionate share of the aggregate development costs previously paid by the other parties to the Processor.
The foregoing proposed Symbology Plan amendment has become effective pursuant to Rule 608(b)(3)(iii)
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the Amendment is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
By the Commission.
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice of delegation of authority.
This document provides the public with notice of the delegation of authority for certain activities related to the licensing of small business investment companies by the Administrator of the Small Business Administration (SBA) to the Agency Licensing Committee.
Carol Fendler, Office of Investment and Innovation, U.S. Small Business Administration, 409 3rd Street SW., Washington, DC 20416; (202) 205-7559 or
This document provides the public with notice of the Administrator's delegation of authority to the Agency Licensing Committee to review and recommend to the Administrator for approval applications for licenses to operate as a small business investment company under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended.
This delegation of authority reads as follows:
Pursuant to the authority vested in me pursuant to section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended, the authority to take any and all actions necessary to review applications for licensing under section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended, and to recommend to the Administrator which such applications should be approved is delegated to the Agency Licensing Committee.
The Agency Licensing Committee shall be composed of the following members:
On April 1, 2014, and October 8, 2014, the Board issued two orders in response to service issues at the time across the U.S. rail network. The first order, in Docket No. EP 724, announced a public hearing in response to concerns about service problems that were occurring across significant portions of the nation's rail network. In response to the concerns raised at that hearing (as well as a second public hearing), the Board issued an order in Docket No. EP 724 (Sub-No. 3) requiring all Class I carriers and the Chicago Transportation Coordination Office (CTCO) (through its Class I members) to file weekly public performance data on an interim basis. For the reasons stated below, the proceedings in Docket No. EP 724 and Docket No. EP 724 (Sub-No. 3) will be discontinued. Concurrently with this decision, the Board is issuing a final rule in Docket No. EP 724 (Sub-No. 4) requiring all Class I railroads and the CTCO to file public performance data on a permanent basis.
Concurrently with this decision, the Board is issuing its final rule in Docket No. EP 724 (Sub-No. 4). The final rule requires Class I railroads to begin reporting the required data on February 8, 2017, at which point reporting under the
1. The final date for reporting under the
2. The proceedings in Docket No. EP 724 and Docket No. EP 724 (Sub-No. 3) will be discontinued as described above, effective February 2, 2017.
3. Notice of the Board's action will be published in the
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman.
Tennessee Valley Authority.
Notice of intent.
The Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) intends to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) to address the potential environmental effects associated with management of coal combustion residual (CCR) material produced at the Cumberland Fossil Plant (CUF) located near Cumberland City, Stewart County, Tennessee. The purpose of the proposed EIS is to address long-term management of CCR produced at CUF. The project will help TVA comply with state and federal regulatory requirements related to CCR production and management, including the requirements of U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA's) CCR Rule and Effluent Limitations Guidelines.
TVA will evaluate the potential environmental impacts of construction and operation of a new bottom ash dewatering facility and options for management and disposal of dry CCR produced at CUF. TVA will also evaluate closure of the Bottom Ash and the Main Ash Impoundments. TVA will develop and evaluate various alternatives to these actions, including the No Action Alternative. Public comments are invited concerning both the scope of the review and environmental issues that should be addressed.
Comments on the scope of the EIS must be received on or before January 6, 2017.
Written comments should be sent to Ashley Pilakowski, NEPA Compliance Specialist, 400 West Summit Hill Dr., WT 11D, Knoxville, TN 37902-1499. Comments also may be submitted online at:
Other related questions should be sent to Ashley A. Pilakowski, NEPA Compliance Specialist, Tennessee Valley Authority, at 865-632-2256 or
This notice is provided in accordance with the regulations promulgated by the Council on Environmental Quality (40 CFR parts 1500 to 1508) and TVA's procedures implementing the National Environmental Policy Act (
TVA is a corporate agency and instrumentality of the United States created by and existing pursuant to the TVA Act of 1933 that provides electricity for business customers and local power distributors. TVA serves more than 9 million people in parts of seven southeastern states. TVA receives no taxpayer funding, deriving virtually all of its revenues from sales of electricity. In addition to operating and investing its revenues in its electric system, TVA provides flood control, navigation and land management for the Tennessee River system and assists local power companies and state and local governments with economic development and job creation.
Historically, TVA has managed its CCRs in wet impoundments or dry landfills. Currently, CUF consumes an average of 5.6 million tons of coal per year, generates approximately 16 billion kilowatt-hours of electricity a year (enough to supply 1.1 million homes), and produces approximately 1.3 million tons of CCR a year which are managed in an existing fly ash stack, gypsum ash stack, Bottom Ash Impoundment and Main Ash Impoundment. CUF sells approximately 75% of the CCRs produced (725,000 tons gypsum and 275,000 tons of fly ash) annually for beneficial reuse as raw manufacturing material.
In July 2009, the TVA Board of Directors passed a resolution for staff to review TVA practices for storing CCRs at its generating facilities, including CUF, which resulted in a recommendation to convert the wet ash management system at CUF to a dry storage system. On April 17, 2015, the EPA published the final Disposal of CCRs from Electric Utilities rule, also known as the CCR Rule.
In June 2016, TVA issued a Final Programmatic Environmental Impact Statement (PEIS) that analyzed methods for closing CCR impoundments TVA fossil plants and identified specific screening and evaluation factors to help frame its evaluation of closures at its other facilities. A Record of Decision was released in July 2016 that would allow future environmental reviews of qualifying CCR impoundment closures to tier from the PEIS.
This EIS is intended to tier from the 2016 PEIS to evaluate the closure alternatives for the existing CCR Bottom Ash Impoundment and Main Ash Impoundment. The EIS will also evaluate construction and operation of a new bottom ash dewatering facility and management of dry CCR in a new lined CCR landfill meeting Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation criteria. This project supports TVA's Board of Directors July 2009 resolution and subsequent recommendation to convert the wet ash management system at CUF to dry storage.
In addition to a No Action Alternative, this EIS will address alternatives that have reasonable prospects of providing a solution to the management and disposal of CCRs generated at CUF. TVA has determined that either the construction of a new on-site landfill or hauling CCR to an existing offsite permitted landfill are the most reasonable alternatives to address the need for dry CCR disposal. A new dewatering facility would dry bottom ash prior to disposal. TVA will consider closure alternatives for the Bottom Ash Impoundment and the Main Ash Impoundment in accordance with and consistent with TVA's PEIS and EPA's CCR Rule.
No decision has been made about CCR management at CUF beyond the current operations. TVA is preparing this EIS to inform decision makers, other agencies and the public about the potential for environmental impacts associated with the long-term management of CCR generated at CUF.
This EIS will identify the purpose and need of the project and will contain descriptions of the existing environmental and socioeconomic resources within the area that could be affected by management of CCR at CUF. Evaluation of potential environmental impacts to these resources will include, but not be limited to, water quality, aquatic and terrestrial ecology, threatened and endangered species, wetlands, land use, historic and archaeological resources, as well as solid and hazardous waste, safety, socioeconomic and environmental
TVA is interested in an open process and wants to hear from the community, interested agencies and special interest groups about the scope of resources and issues they would like to be considered in this EIS.
The public is invited to submit comments on the scope of this EIS no later than the date identified in the
After consideration of comments received during the scoping period, TVA will develop and distribute a document that will summarize public and agency comments that were received and identify the schedule for completing the EIS process. Following analysis of the issues, TVA will prepare a draft EIS for public review and comment. In making its final decision, TVA will consider the analyses in this EIS and substantive comments that it receives. A final decision on proceeding with construction and operation of a bottom ash dewatering facility, management and final disposal of CCR and closure of the Bottom Ash Impoundment and Main Ash Impoundment will depend on a number of factors. These include results of the EIS, requirements of the CCR Rule, engineering and risk evaluations and financial considerations.
TVA anticipates holding a community meeting near the plant after releasing the Draft EIS. Meeting details will be posted on TVA's Web site. TVA expects to release the Draft EIS in summer of 2017.
Federal Railroad Administration (FRA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of Safety Advisory.
FRA is issuing Safety Advisory 2016-03 to stress to passenger and commuter railroads the importance of taking action to help mitigate human factor accidents, assist in the investigation of such accidents, and enhance the safety of operations in stations and terminals with stub end tracks. This safety advisory contains various recommendations to passenger and commuter railroads related to inward- and outward-facing cameras, sleep apnea, and operating practices to potentially mitigate the occurrence and assist in the investigation of human factor related accidents and to enhance the safety of operations in terminals and stations with stub end tracks.
Christian Holt, Operating Practices Specialist, Office of Railroad Safety, FRA, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590, telephone (202) 493-0978.
On September 29, 2016, at approximately 8:38 a.m., New Jersey Transit (NJT) Train 1614 travelling at 21 miles per hour (mph) impacted the bumping block at the end of the track No. 5 Depot, at Hoboken Terminal, in Hoboken, New Jersey. The cab car overrode the bumping block and struck the wall of the terminal building, near the ticket office in the corner of the building. NJT Train 1614 was occupied by three crew members and approximately 331 passengers. The accident resulted in the three crewmembers and 108 passengers being transported to four area hospitals. One individual who was standing on the pedestrian walkway between the tracks and the station was fatally injured from falling debris.
The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) has taken the lead role in conducting the investigation of this accident under its legal authority.
On Tuesday, May 12, 2015, National Railroad Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) passenger train 188 (Train 188) was traveling from Washington, DC, to New York City. Aboard the train were five crew members and approximately 238 passengers. Shortly after 9:20 p.m., the train derailed while traveling through a curve in the track at Frankford Junction in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. As a result of the accident, eight persons were killed and a significant number of persons were seriously injured.
NTSB conducted an investigation of this accident under its legal authority and issued its findings on May 17, 2016.
On July 8, 2015, NTSB sent a letter to FRA reiterating NTSB recommendations
On September 12, 2008, in Chatsworth, California, an accident occurred involving a collision between a Southern California Regional Rail Authority (Metrolink) passenger train and a Union Pacific Railroad Company (UP) freight train.
Shortly after the Metrolink accident, the Rail Safety Improvement Act of 2008
The NTSB's report on the Chatsworth accident resulted in two new Safety Recommendations, R-10-01 and R-10-02.
Require the installation, in all controlling locomotive cabs and cab car operating compartments, of crash- and fire-protected inward- and outward-facing audio and image recorders capable of providing recordings to verify that train crew actions are in accordance with rules and procedures that are essential to safety as well as train operating conditions. The devices should have a minimum 12-hour continuous recording capability with recordings that are easily accessible for review, with appropriate limitations on public release, for the investigation of accidents or for use by management in carrying out efficiency testing and system wide performance monitoring programs.
In addition, Safety Recommendation R-10-02 recommended that FRA:
Require that railroads regularly review and use in-cab audio and image recordings (with appropriate limitations on public release), in conjunction with other performance data, to verify that train crew actions are in accordance with rules and procedures that are essential to safety.
On December 1, 2013, at approximately 7:20 a.m. EST, southbound Metro-North Railroad (Metro-North) passenger train 8808 derailed as it approached the Spuyten Duyvil Station in New York City. All passenger cars and the locomotive derailed, and, as a result, four passengers died and at least 61 passengers were injured. The train was traveling at 82 mph when it derailed in a section of curved track where the maximum authorized speed was 30 mph. Following the accident, the engineer reported that: (1) He felt dazed just before the derailment;
Railroad safety is of the utmost importance to FRA, and, based on the above accidents, FRA recommends several measures discussed below, to address human factor-caused accidents
On December 4, 2015, the President signed into law the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act, Public Law 114-94, 129 Stat. 1686 (Dec. 4, 2015) (FAST Act). Section 11411 of the FAST Act, codified in the Federal railroad safety laws at 49 U.S.C. 20168 (the Statute), requires FRA (as the Secretary of Transportation's delegate) to promulgate regulations requiring each railroad carrier that provides regularly scheduled intercity rail passenger or commuter rail passenger transportation to install inward- and outward-facing image recording devices in all controlling locomotives of passenger trains. 49 U.S.C. 20168(a). Although FRA is in the process of developing a regulatory proposal addressing this statutory mandate, FRA encourages railroads to accelerate the installation of the cameras. The Statute contains various design and operational requirements related to these cameras including:
• A minimum 12-hour continuous recording capability (49 U.S.C. 20168(b)(1));
• Crash and fire protections for any in-cab image recordings that are stored only within a controlling locomotive cab or cab car operating compartment (49 U.S.C. 20168(b)(2));
• Recordings must be accessible for review during an accident or incident investigation (49 U.S.C. 20168(b)(3));
• Railroads may use the recordings to:
○ Verify that train crew actions follow applicable safety laws and the railroad carrier's operating rules and procedures (49 U.S.C. 20168(d)(1));
○ Assist in an investigation into the causation of a reportable accident or incident (49 U.S.C. 20168(d)(2)); and
○ Document a criminal act or monitor unauthorized occupancy of the controlling locomotive cab or car operating compartment (49 U.S.C. 20168(d)(3)).
In addition to the design and operational requirements in the FAST Act, the Statute also contains various other requirements regarding the use and maintenance of inward- and outward-facing cameras as well as limitations and protections on how data from the cameras can be used. Importantly, the Statute prohibits railroads from using image recordings to retaliate against their employees. 49 U.S.C. 20168(i). In addition, to discourage tampering with the cameras, the Statute allows railroads to take enforcement actions against employees that tamper with or disable an inward- or outward-facing image recording device. 49 U.S.C. 20168(f). Furthermore, recording device data obtained from a locomotive involved in a FRA reportable accident or incident must be preserved by the railroad for one year after the accident or incident. 49 U.S.C. 20168(g).
Once FRA has acquired this data from the railroad, FRA is prohibited from publicly disclosing locomotive audio and image recordings or transcripts of oral communications between train, operating, and communication center employees related to the accident or incident FRA is investigating. However, FRA may publicly release a transcript of a written depiction of visual information that the agency deems is relevant to the accident at the time other factual reports on the accident are released to the public. 49 U.S.C. 20168(h). This restriction is similar to the prohibition on public disclosure of locomotive recordings that NTSB takes possession of during an investigation. 49 U.S.C. 1114(d).
FRA remains concerned with the ability to fully investigate accidents that appear to be human factor-caused where there is insufficient information from the controlling locomotive cab or cab operating compartment to conclusively determine what caused or contributed to an accident. Locomotive cab recording information could benefit investigations and help identify necessary corrective actions before similar train accidents occur. Inward- and outward-facing image recording devices would be valuable in revealing crew actions and interactions before, during, and after an accident. FRA also believes that inward- and outward-facing cameras will give railroads the ability to monitor crew behavior to ensure compliance with existing Federal regulations and railroad operating rules and deter noncompliance. Existing Federal regulations at 49 CFR part 217 require railroads to conduct operational tests to determine the extent of employees' compliance with railroad operating rules, and particularly those rules which are most likely to cause the most accidents or incidents.
Fatigue of railroad employees continues to be a concern of FRA, particularly for employees with sleep disorders who operate passenger trains. This Advisory contains suggested measures that railroads and employees should utilize to prevent work-related errors and on-the-job accidents as a result of sleep disorders.
Sleep disorders represent a serious health problem and left untreated can result in impaired work performance, including possible loss of alertness and situational awareness, which could in turn present an imminent threat to transportation safety.
OSA is a respiratory disorder characterized by a reduction or cessation of breathing during sleep. OSA is characterized by repeated episodes of upper airway collapse in the region of the upper throat (pharynx) that results in intermittent periods of partial airflow obstruction (hypopneas), complete airflow obstruction (apneas), and respiratory effort-related arousals from sleep (RERAs) in which affected individuals awaken partially and may experience gasping and choking as they struggle to breathe. Risk factors for developing OSA include: Obesity, male gender, advancing age, family history of OSA, large neck size, and an anatomically small oropharynx (throat). Additionally, OSA is associated with increased risk for other adverse health conditions such as: Hypertension (high blood pressure), diabetes, cardiac dysrhythmias (irregular heartbeat), myocardial infarction (heart attack), stroke, and sudden cardiac death. Individuals who have undiagnosed OSA are often unaware they have experienced periods of sleep interrupted by breathing difficulties (apneas, hypopneas, or RERAs) when they awaken in the morning. As a result, the condition is often unrecognized by affected individuals and underdiagnosed by medical professionals.
For individuals with OSA, eight hours of sleep can be less restful or refreshing than four hours of ordinary, uninterrupted sleep. Undiagnosed or inadequately treated moderate to severe OSA can cause unintended sleep episodes and resulting deficits in attention, concentration, situational awareness, and memory, thus reducing the capacity to safely respond to hazards when performing safety sensitive duties. Thus, OSA is a critical safety issue that can affect operations in all modes of travel in the transportation industry.
On March 10, 2016, FRA published an advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) requesting data and information concerning the prevalence of moderate-to-severe OSA of individuals occupying safety sensitive positions in rail transportation and the potential consequences for rail safety.
The Hoboken accident involved NJT Train 1614 that was traversing a stub end track entering a passenger station at 21 mph-11 mph over the 10 mph posted speed limit. FRA recommends identifying locations that have stub end tracks at passenger terminals and stations that are equipped with technology that can warn and enforce passenger trains to stop short of a stub end track and ensure they enforce applicable speed limits. If such locations are not equipped with technology that can warn and enforce passenger trains to stop short of a stub end track and ensure they enforce applicable speed limits, then FRA encourages railroads to take other operational actions to prevent trains from overrunning stub end tracks equipped with or without bumping posts. One such operational action would be to require communications between the engineer and other qualified employees that can take appropriate action, such as applying the emergency brakes, if necessary.
In light of the recent accident discussed above, and in an effort to ensure the safety of the Nation's railroads, their employees, and the general public, FRA recommends that intercity passenger and commuter railroads do each of the following:
1. Instruct their employees during training classes and safety briefings on the importance of compliance with maximum authorized train speed limits and other speed restrictions when entering passenger stations and terminals;
2. Not less than once every six months evaluate operational testing data as required by 49 CFR 217.9. A railroad should consider increasing the frequency of operational testing where its reviews show any non-compliance with maximum authorized train speeds in passenger stations or terminals. Railroads should conduct a significant number of operational tests on trains required to operate into a station or terminal with stub end tracks;
3. Adopt procedures requiring communication between crew members and the locomotive engineer before and during operation into a station or terminal and/or implement technology to appropriately control and/or stop the train short of the stub end track. These actions could include:
a. Making modifications to automatic train control (ATC), cab signal, or other signal systems capable of providing warning and enforcement to ensure trains comply with applicable speed limits and stop short of stub end tracks;
b. If a railroad does not utilize an ATC, cab signal, or other signal system capable of providing warning and enforcement at applicable passenger terminals and stations with stub end tracks platforms (or if a signal system modification would interfere with the implementation of PTC or is otherwise not viable), making all passenger train movements at the identified locations while in communication with a second qualified crew member. This will provide constant communication with the locomotive engineer and allow the second crewmember to take immediate appropriate action if the locomotive engineer is not responding or is unable to stop short of stub end tracks. This could also include making a safety stop at predetermined location and if the locomotive engineer does not make an appropriate safety stop the second qualified crew member can take appropriate action to stop the train;
4. Review Safety Advisory 2004-04 (69 FR 58995, Oct. 1, 2004); Effect of Sleep Disorders on Safety of Railroad Operations, in its entirety with all operating crews. Recommended actions from Safety Advisory 2004-04 are listed below:
a. Establish training and educational programs to inform employees of the potential for performance impairment as a result of fatigue, sleep loss, sleep deprivation, inadequate sleep quality, and working at odd hours, and document when employees have received the training. Incorporate elements that encourage self-assessment, peer-to-peer communication, and co-worker identification accompanied by policies consistent with these recommendations. The Railroaders' Guide to Healthy Sleep Web site (
b. Ensure that employees' medical examinations include assessment and screening for possible sleep disorders and other associated medical conditions (including use of appropriate checklists and records). Develop standardized screening tools, or a good practices guide, for the diagnosis, referral and treatment of sleep disorders (especially OSA) and other related medical conditions to be used by company paid or recommended physicians during routine medical examinations; and provide an appropriate list of certified sleep disorder centers and related specialists for referral when necessary;
c. Develop and implement rules that request employees in safety-sensitive positions to voluntarily report any sleep disorder that could incapacitate, or seriously impair, their performance;
d. Develop and implement policies such that, when a railroad becomes aware that an employee in a safety-sensitive position has an incapacitating or performance-impairing medical condition related to sleep, the railroad prohibits that employee from performing any safety-sensitive duties until that medical condition appropriately responds to treatment; and
e. Implement policies, procedures, and any necessary agreements to—
i. Promote self-reporting of sleep-related medical conditions by protecting the medical confidentiality of that information and protecting the employment relationship, provided that the employee complies with the recommended course of treatment;
ii. Encourage employees with diagnosed sleep disorders to participate in recommended evaluation and treatment; and
iii. Establish dispute resolution mechanisms that rapidly resolve any issues regarding the current fitness of employees who have reported sleep-related medical conditions and have cooperated in evaluation and prescribed treatment.
5. Accelerate the installation of inward- and outward-facing cameras in passenger trains in the cab of the controlling locomotive or cab car operating compartment per the FAST Act. FRA notes that the FAST Act includes provisions on standards for the cameras, use of the cameras, and preservation and protection of data from the cameras.
FRA encourages all intercity passenger and commuter railroads to take actions consistent with the preceding recommendations. FRA acknowledges that action on some of the
FRA may modify this Safety Advisory 2016-03, issue additional safety advisories, or take other appropriate action necessary to ensure the highest level of safety on the Nation's railroads, including pursing other corrective measures under its rail safety authority.
Federal Transit Administration (FTA), (DOT).
Tribal Transit Program Announcement of Project Selections.
The Federal Transit Administration (FTA) announces the selection of 35 projects for funding with Fiscal Year (FY) 2016 appropriations for the Public Transportation on Indian Reservations Program Tribal Transit Program (TTP), as authorized by (49 U.S.C. 5311(c)(1)(a)(j)), as amended by the Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act, Public Law 114-94 (December 4, 2015). A total of $5 million is available under this program.
Successful applicants should contact the appropriate FTA Regional office for information regarding applying for the funds or program-specific information. A list of Regional offices, along with a list of tribal liaisons can be found at
On March 14, 2016, FTA published a Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO) through a
A total of 44 applications were received from 39 tribes in 13 states requesting $8.3 million, indicated that there is significant demand for funds for public transportation projects. Project proposals were evaluated based on each applicant's responsiveness to the program evaluation criteria outlined in FTA's March 2016 NOFO. The FTA also took into consideration the current status of previously funded applicants. This included examining available prior year competitive and formula balances; and geographic balance and diversity, including regional balance based on tribal population. As a result, FTA is funding a total of 35 projects for 34 tribes in 12 states. The projects selected in Table 1 provide funding for transit planning studies, capital and operating requests for existing, start-up, expansion and replacement projects. Funds must be used only for the specific purposes identified in Table 1. Allocations may be less than what the applicant requested and were capped at $329,843 to provide funding to all highly recommended, recommended, and planning proposals that received a “pass” rating; planning projects were capped at $25,000. Tribes selected for competitive funding should work with their FTA regional office to finalize the grant application in FTA's Transit Award Management System (TrAMs) for the projects identified in the attached table, so that funds are expeditiously obligated. In cases where the allocation amount is less than the proposer's requested amount, tribes should work with the regional office to ensure the funds are obligated for eligible aspects of the projects, and for specific purpose intended as reflected in Table 1. A competitive project identification number has been assigned to each project for tracking purposes, and must be used in the TrAMs application. For more information about TrAMs, please visit:
Tribes must continue to report to the NTD to be eligible for formula apportionment funds. To be considered in the FY 2017 formula apportionments, tribes should have submitted their reports to the NTD no later than June 30, 2016; voluntary reporting to the NTD is also encouraged. For tribes who have not reported before, please contact the NTD Operations Center in advance to get a reporting account for the NTD on-line data collection system. The Operation Center can be reached Monday-Friday, 8:00 a.m.-7:00 p.m. (ET), by email
TTP grantees must comply with all applicable Federal statutes, regulations, executive orders, FTA circulars, and other Federal requirements in carrying out the project supported by the FTA grant. To assist tribes with understanding these requirements, FTA has conducted Tribal Transit Technical Assistance Workshops, and expects to offer additional workshops in FY2017. FTA has also expanded its technical assistance to tribes receiving funds under this program, with the Tribal Transit Technical Assistance Assessments initiative. Through these assessments, FTA collaborates with tribal transit leaders to review processes and identify areas in need of improvement and then assist with solutions to address these needs. These assessments include discussions of compliance areas pursuant to the Master Agreement, a site visit, promising practices reviews, and technical assistance from FTA and its contractors. These workshops and assessments have received exemplary feedback from Tribal Transit Leaders, and provide FTA with invaluable opportunities to learn more about tribal transit leaders' perspectives, and honor the sovereignty of tribal nations. FTA will post information about upcoming workshops to its Web site and disseminate information about the reviews through its Regional offices. A list of Tribal
Funds allocated in this announcement must be obligated in a grant by September 30, 2018. Tribes selected for competitive funding should work with their FTA regional tribal liaison to finalize the grant application in TrAMs.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition.
Spartan Motors USA, Inc. (Spartan), has determined that certain model year (MY) 2013-2015 Utilimaster Vans do not fully comply with Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) No. 208,
For further information on this decision please contact James A. Jones, Office of Vehicle Safety Compliance, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), telephone (202) 366-5294, facsimile (202) 366-3081.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h) (see implementing rule at 49 CFR part 556), Spartan submitted a petition for an exemption from the notification and remedy requirements of 49 U.S.C. Chapter 301 on the basis that this noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety.
Notice of receipt of the petition was published, with a 30-day public comment period, on July 21, 2016 in the
S4.5.1(c)
(a) Spartan cited the definition of motor vehicle safety as stated in the Safety Act under 49 U.S.C. 30111(a). Spartan also cited 49 U.S.C. 30118(d) under the Safety Act where Congress acknowledges that there are cases where a manufacturer has failed to comply with a safety standard, yet the impact on motor vehicle safety is so slight that an exemption from the notice and remedy requirements of the Safety Act is justified.
(b) Spartan stated that paragraph S4.5.1(b)(2) of FMVSS No. 208 requires an air bag warning label to be installed, at the manufacturer's option, on either side of the sun visor at each outboard seating position equipped with an inflatable restraint. Within that same section of FMVSS No. 208, it states that air bag warning labels are to be installed, at the manufacturer's option, in accordance with Figure 8 or 11 of the standard. Footnotes under Figures 8 and 11, among others, state “Sun Visor Label Visible when Visor is in Down Position.”
Spartan submitted a photograph depicting that the air bag warning label on the subject vehicles is visible when the sun visor is in the down position, however, the content is inverted.
(c) Spartan specified that the content of the sun visor label identifies the risks associated with the placement of children, or child seats, encourages the use of seatbelts, and defers to the owner's manual for information pertaining to the air bags.
Spartan notes that they are a vehicle alterer in this case and are not responsible for the content of the air bag warning label and that they make no assertions relating to compliance of the label. However, during alterations to the vehicles they do remove and reinstall the sun visors.
(d) Spartan also stated that they alter a completed vehicle (in this case a van) to become a vocational vehicle intended to be used as a delivery service vehicle (
(e) Spartan clearly expressed that they do not alter information in the owner's manual although it may provide supplements related to the alterations being made. Spartan says that the content in the owner's manual states that the air bag system is supplemental to the seat belts and further describes risks associated with the air bag system. Furthermore, the information in the owner's manual discusses an air bag warning indicator (tell-tale) of which the vehicle is equipped and its function (this indicator would provide indication to the driver that the vehicle is equipped with an air bag system.)
(f) Spartan believes that while the content on the sun visor warning label (although not provided by Spartan) may not be in the upright position to be easily read by the occupants, it is visible with the sun visor in the down position. And even though the label is inverted, the coloring scheme would continue to signify risks associated with the air bag system.
Spartan elaborated by saying that the information within the owner's manual for the affected vehicles expands on potential risks related to the system but also encourages the use of seatbelts as the primary purpose of occupant protection.
Spartan additionally informed NHTSA that on December 8, 2015 containment actions were conducted and all units in control of Utilimaster were inspected and the noncompliance corrected. This included vehicles currently undergoing alterations.
In summation, Spartan believes that given the vocational use of the affected vehicles and information provided in the foregoing that the subject noncompliance is inconsequential to motor vehicle safety, and that its petition, to exempt Spartan from providing notification of the noncompliances as required by 49 U.S.C. 30118 and remedying the noncompliance as required by 49 U.S.C. 30120 should be granted.
On May 12, 2000, NHTSA refreshed the content requirements of the air bag warning labels consistent with its intent to require labels for vehicles with advanced air bags. Additionally, in order to provide consumers with adequate information about their occupant restraint system, NHTSA required manufacturers to provide a written explanation of the vehicle's advanced air bag system in owner's manuals. See 65 FR 30722.
The left and right-side sun visors are nearly identical in size, have identical attachment points to the headliner and are interchangeable. Apparently, when re-installing the sun visors, Spartan incorrectly placed the left-side visor on the right-side of the vehicle and vice-versa. As a result, the air bag warning labels are no longer visible to vehicle occupants when the sun visors are stowed. Rather, the air bag warning labels are inverted and only visible to vehicle occupants when the sun visors are deployed.
In accordance with paragraph S4.5.1(c) of FMVSS No.208, if the air bag warning label is not visible when the sun visor is in the stowed position, an additional label (
This petition is granted solely on the agency's decision that the noncompliance in the subject vehicles is inconsequential as it relates to motor vehicle safety. It is important that all other vehicles subject to these requirements continue to meet them.
NHTSA notes that the statutory provisions (49 U.S.C. 30118(d) and 30120(h)) that permit manufacturers to file petitions for a determination of inconsequentiality allow NHTSA to exempt manufacturers only from the duties found in sections 30118 and 30120, respectively, to notify owners, purchasers, and dealers of a defect or noncompliance and to remedy the defect or noncompliance. Therefore, this decision only applies to the subject vehicles that Spartan no longer controlled at the time it determined that the noncompliance existed. However, the granting of this petition does not relieve vehicle distributors and dealers of the prohibitions on the sale, offer for sale, or introduction or delivery for introduction into interstate commerce of the noncompliant vehicles under their control after Spartan notified them that the subject noncompliance existed.
(49 U.S.C. 30118, 30120: delegations of authority at 49 CFR 1.95 and 501.8)
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Notice of proposed Federal guidelines.
This notice details the proposed contents of the second phase of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's (NHTSA) Driver Distraction Guidelines (Phase 2 Guidelines). The purpose of the Phase 2 Guidelines is to provide a safety framework for developers of portable and aftermarket electronic devices to use when developing visual-manual user interfaces for their systems. The Guidelines encourage innovative solutions such as pairing and Driver Mode that, when implemented, will reduce the potential for unsafe driver distraction by limiting the time a driver's eyes are off the road, while at the same time preserving the full functionality of these devices when they are not used while driving. Currently no safety guidelines exist for portable device technologies when they are used during a driving task. NHTSA seeks comments and suggestions to improve this proposal.
You should submit your comments early enough to be received not later than February 3, 2017.
You may submit comments to the docket number identified in the heading of this document by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For technical issues, you may contact Dr. Chris Monk, phone: (202) 366-5195, or
The final version of the Phase 2 Guidelines will not have the force and effect of law and will not be a regulation. Therefore, NHTSA is not required to provide notice and an opportunity for comment. NHTSA is doing so, however, to ensure that the final Phase 2 Guidelines benefit from the input of all knowledgeable and interested members of the public.
In 2015,
The crash data indicate that visual-manual interaction (an action that requires a user to look away from the roadway and manipulate a button or interface) with portable devices, particularly cell phones, is often the main distraction for drivers involved in crashes. In 2014, there were 385 fatal crashes that involved the use
Driver distraction is a specific type of inattention that occurs when drivers divert their attention away from the driving task to focus on another activity. This distraction can come from electronic devices, such as texting or emailing on cell phones or smartphones, and more traditional activities such as interacting with passengers, eating, or events external to the vehicle. Driver distraction can affect drivers in different ways, and can be broadly categorized into the following types:
•
•
•
Tasks can involve one, two, or all three of these distraction types.
NHTSA is aware of the effect that these types of distraction can have on driving safety, particularly visual-manual distraction. At any given time, an estimated 542,073 drivers are using hand-held cell phones while driving.
As an agency committed to reducing deaths, injuries, and economic losses resulting from motor vehicle crashes, NHTSA has initiated, and continues to work toward eliminating crashes attributable to driver distraction. Most prominently, NHTSA and the United States Department of Transportation (US DOT) have encouraged efforts by states and other local authorities to pass laws prohibiting hand-held use of portable devices while driving. NHTSA, in conjunction with industry, local governments, and various public interest groups, has also taken numerous steps to educate the public about the dangers of distracted driving.
However, until distracted driving is eliminated, the agency must work in the real-world where many drivers continue to use their portable devices and other in-vehicle systems in unsafe ways while driving. Thus, NHTSA has also worked on how to mitigate the distraction that may be caused by these new technologies. In April 2010, NHTSA called for the development of voluntary guidelines addressing driver distraction caused by in-vehicle systems and portable devices.
The development of non-binding, voluntary guidelines for in-vehicle and portable devices is being implemented in three phases. The Phase 1 Driver Distraction Guidelines (Phase 1 Guidelines), released in 2013, cover visual-manual interfaces of electronic devices installed in vehicles as original equipment (OE).
While NHTSA is proposing the Phase 2 Guidelines, it is important to note that the agency continues to support state efforts to prohibit hand-held use of portable devices while driving. In proposing the Phase 2 Guidelines, NHTSA stresses that it does not encourage the hand-held use of portable devices while driving. While NHTSA acknowledges that there are many available technology solutions, state laws, and consumer information campaigns designed to help reduce distracted driving, the agency believes that an important way to help mitigate the real-world risk posed by driver distraction from portable devices is for these devices to have limited functionality and simplified interfaces when they are used by drivers while driving. This is especially true because some of these devices are intended to be used while driving and others have applications that are clearly meant to be used by drivers to complete the driving task. These Guidelines are, therefore, intended to reduce the potential distraction associated with hand-held portable and aftermarket device use while driving. The agency believes these Guidelines will provide a framework for portable device and application developers to take into account real-world device use by consumers when driving. In addition, the agency notes that applications that are meant to be used by drivers while driving are likely to continue to be developed and made available.
While these Guidelines help manufacturers develop portable and aftermarket devices while keeping safe driving in mind, it remains the driver's responsibility to ensure the safe operation of the vehicle and to comply with all state traffic laws. This includes, but is not limited to laws that ban texting and/or the use of hand-held devices while driving. NHTSA and the US DOT support and will continue to support State and Federal efforts to combat distracted driving.
This notice announces the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines for Portable and Aftermarket Devices. The Phase 1 Guidelines for OE in-vehicle interfaces, discussed in detail below, provide the foundation for the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines. Phase 1 provided specific recommendations for minimizing the distraction potential from OE in-vehicle interfaces that involve visual-manual interaction. Particularly, the Phase 1 Guidelines are focused on recommending acceptance criteria for driver glance behavior where single average glances away from the forward roadway are 2 seconds or less and where the sum of the durations of all individual glances away from the forward roadway are 12 seconds or less while performing a testable task, such as selecting a song from a satellite radio station.
To the extent practicable, the Phase 2 Guidelines apply the Phase 1 recommendations to the visual-manual interfaces of portable devices (
The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines present two concurrent approaches for mitigating distraction associated with the use of portable and aftermarket devices by drivers. First, the proposed Guidelines recommend that portable and OE in-vehicle systems be designed so that they can be easily paired to each other and operated through the OE in-vehicle interface. Assuming that the OE in-vehicle interface conforms to the Phase 1 Guidelines, pairing would ensure that the tasks performed by the driver while driving meet the time-based, eye-glance task acceptance criteria specified in the Phase 1 Guidelines. Pairing would also ensure that certain activities that would inherently interfere with the driver's ability to safely control the vehicle would be locked out while driving (
• Displaying video not related to driving;
• Displaying certain graphical or photographic images;
• Displaying automatically scrolling text;
• Manual text entry for the purpose of text-based messaging, other communication, or internet browsing; and
• Displaying text for reading from books, periodical publications, Web page content, social media content, text-based advertising and marketing, or text-based messages.
NHTSA encourages all entities involved with the engineering and design of pairing technologies to jointly develop compatible and efficient processes that focus on improving the usability and ease of connecting a driver's portable device with their in-vehicle system.
The second approach recommended by the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines is that portable devices that do not already meet the NHTSA glance and per se lock out criteria when being used by a driver should include a Driver Mode that is developed by industry stakeholders (
The Driver Mode should present an interface to the driver that conforms with the Phase 1 Guidelines and, in particular, locks out tasks that do not meet Phase 1 task acceptance criteria or are among the per se lock outs listed above. The purpose of Driver Mode is to provide a simplified interface when the device is being used unpaired while driving, either because pairing is unavailable or the driver decides not to pair. The Guidelines recommend two methods of activating Driver Mode depending on available technology. The first option, and the one encouraged by the agency, is to automatically activate the portable device's Driver Mode when: (1) The device is not paired with the in-vehicle system, and (2) the device, by itself, or in conjunction with the vehicle in which it is being used, distinguishes that it is being used by a driver who is driving. The driver mode does not activate when the device is being used by a non-driver,
NHTSA has learned that technologies to detect whether a driver or passenger is using a device have been developed but are currently being refined such that they can reliably detect whether the device user is the driver or a passenger and are not overly annoying and impractical.
Additionally, the Phase 2 Guidelines include recommendations for aftermarket devices—those devices that are intended to be permanently installed in the vehicle, which were not addressed in Phase 1. The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines suggest that aftermarket devices meet the same task acceptance criteria and other relevant recommendations as specified for OE interfaces in Phase 1.
Due to the close relationship between the Phase 1 and Phase 2 Guidelines, the agency is considering combining the two phases into a single document when the Phase 2 Guidelines are finalized. The agency requests comment on whether a single combined document would be easier for industry to use and the public at large to reference, or whether separate documents would be simpler.
Because these proposed Guidelines are voluntary and nonbinding, they will not require action of any kind, and for that reason they will not confer benefits or impose costs. Nonetheless, and as part of its continuing research efforts, NHTSA welcomes comments on the potential benefits and costs that would result from voluntary compliance with the Guidelines.
The Phase 1 Guidelines recommend that interfaces and tasks determined to be more distracting than a specified level should not be accessible to the user while the user is driving. Similarly, conformance with the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines would result in drivers interacting with their paired portable devices through Phase 1-conforming OE, built-in interfaces. In many cases, it is up to the driver to pair his or her device with the vehicle's interface or, as in the case with many older vehicles, the vehicle does not have the capability to pair with a portable device, so the Phase 2 Guidelines also recommend that the portable device be put in Driver Mode for use while driving instead of the portable device's default interface.
There are several distinctions between portable devices and in-vehicles systems that result in different considerations between the Phase 1 and Phase 2 Guidelines. The first distinction is that many portable devices are designed with the intent of being used in a variety of contexts that may or may not include driving, whereas OE in-vehicle interfaces are designed specifically for use while driving (unless specific functions are inaccessible when the vehicle is in motion). As a result, it is important that the Phase 2 Guidelines account for the need to reliably identify when a portable device is in fact being used by the driver of a moving vehicle.
A second distinction between portable devices and in-vehicle systems is that the portable devices may be used by other vehicle occupants in locations where the driver cannot see or access the device,
A third distinction between portable devices and in-vehicle systems is that, if not paired with the in-vehicle system, portable devices can be placed and/or mounted in a variety of different locations in the vehicle. There is also variability in the placement of an aftermarket device—although to a lesser extent than for portable devices, since aftermarket devices are confined to the available locations on the vehicle, such as inside the center stack or on top of the dashboard. NHTSA has elected not to include recommendations concerning whether or where a portable device should be mounted in this proposed set
A fourth distinction is that the user-interface experience with portable devices can be different from built-in and installed aftermarket systems due to a wide range of device characteristics (
The variability of potential locations for portable and aftermarket devices has implications for testing procedures to determine conformance with our recommendations concerning Driver Mode. Specifically, the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines' test procedure for when the device is in Driver Mode includes recommendations about the placement of the portable electronic devices during testing. In order to address the issues mentioned above regarding the variability of the portable device's location and driver's access to its screen, the proposed test procedure recommends that unpaired portable devices be tested in a mounted location that is easy for the driver to reach and is based on driver viewing angle specified in Phase 1. NHTSA has included a general recommended testing location for unpaired portable devices but seeks comment on whether a location could be specified that would not result in infinite possibilities or be too particular to any one device or vehicle.
For aftermarket devices that are intended to be permanently installed in the vehicle, the proposed test procedure recommends that they be tested in the installation location prescribed by the device manufacturer.
NHTSA is committed to reducing deaths and injuries resulting from motor vehicle crashes from distraction by encouraging the development of devices that can be safer if used while driving. As part of the ongoing process of harmonizing with industry standards and practices, NHTSA hosted a public meeting on March 12, 2014, to bring together vehicle manufacturers and suppliers, portable and aftermarket device manufacturers, portable and aftermarket device operating system providers, cellular service providers, industry associations, application developers, researchers, and consumer groups to discuss technical issues regarding the agency's development of the Phase 2 Driver Distraction Guidelines for portable and aftermarket devices. NHTSA held the public meeting to ensure the stakeholders' interests were communicated and considered in the development of the Phase 2 Guidelines. NHTSA has met with portable and aftermarket device manufacturers through the Consumer Technology Association (CTA)
Driver distraction is a safety problem in the United States. The latest crash and fatality data implicate driver distraction in 10 percent of fatal crashes, 18 percent of injury crashes, and 16 percent of all motor vehicle traffic crashes in 2014.
Driver distraction is a specific type of inattention that occurs when drivers divert their attention away from the driving task to focus on another activity. These distractions can come from electronic devices, such as navigation systems and cell/smartphones, and from more conventional activities, such as viewing sights or events external to the vehicle, interacting with passengers, and/or eating. These distracting tasks can affect drivers in different ways, and can be broadly categorized into the following types:
•
•
•
Any given task can involve one, two, or all three of these types of distraction. NHTSA is aware of the effect that these types of distraction can have on driving
The impact of distraction on driving is determined from multiple criteria, the type and level of distraction, and the frequency and duration of task performance. Even if performing a task results in a low level of distraction, a driver who engages in it frequently, or for long durations, may increase the crash risk to a level comparable to that of a more difficult task performed less often.
NHTSA is concerned about the role of portable electronic devices in distracted driving crashes. NHTSA has been monitoring drivers' use of portable devices through its National Occupant Protection Use Survey (NOPUS),
Surveys of drivers indicate even higher rates of portable device use while driving. According to a 2012 survey published by NHTSA,
NHTSA's 2013 Cell Phone Naturalistic Driving Study
In a more recent survey by the AAA Foundation for Traffic Safety,
The portable device market generally consists of portable devices including smartphones, tablets, navigation devices, and portable music players (
The significant safety impact of distracted driving is evident from NHTSA's crash data, which comes from the Fatality Analysis Reporting System (FARS)
The crash data indicate that the use of portable and aftermarket devices, particularly cell phones, is often a leading distraction for drivers involved in crashes (note that smartphones reached significant market presence beginning in 2007). In 2014, there were 385 fatal crashes that involved the use of a cell phone, though it is possible that this is an underestimate due to the difficult nature in relating cell phone use to crashes at the crash scene. These cell phone fatal crashes represented 13 percent of the total distraction-affected fatal crashes. The data also indicate that there were 75 distraction-affected fatal crashes in 2014 that involved the driver using or reaching for a device or object brought into the vehicle. This catch-all category of fatal distraction crashes includes crashes that involved the use of portable devices such as navigation devices in addition to other types of objects (
Of the 967,000 distraction-affected crashes in 2014, 8 percent (69,000 crashes) involved the use of cell phones, resulting in 33,000 people injured. The tables below quantify the effects of cell phone or other device use on fatal crashes from 2010 through 2014 and non-fatal crashes that involved the use of cell phones or other devices from 2007 through 2014.
The majority of crash risk data related to portable devices has focused on cell phones. However, it is important to note that cell phones have evolved from a portable hand-held phone designed specifically for voice calls to a device that can be used for various forms of communication, entertainment, and access to content. Examples include applications developed for messaging, photo-sharing, gaming, social networking, navigation, and other location-based services. While these features are not intended to be used while driving, they remain just as accessible to the driver in driving situations as any other feature on a smartphone. Whether on smartphones, tablet computers, or other portable electronic devices, access to more content can lead to more visual-manual distraction, which the studies summarized below consistently show is associated with higher levels of crash and near-crash risk, and decreased driving performance.
The agency's distraction focus has been on research and test procedures that measure aspects of driver performance having the strongest connection to crash risk. As described below, interactions with a distraction task that require visual attention (
A key component of the NHTSA distraction plan is to understand the crash risk of drivers using a cell phone while driving. Early epidemiological research reported that using a cell phone, hand-held or hands-free, was associated with a quadrupling of the risk of injury and property damage
In April 2013, NHTSA published a study
SCE risk was investigated using two approaches: (1) A risk rate approach, which assessed the SCE risk relative to general driving (where non-cell-phone secondary tasks could occur), and (2) a case-control approach, which assessed the SCE risk relative to “just driving” (where non-driving-related secondary tasks did not occur). The risk rate results are shown below (see the full report for the case-control results along with driver performance results). The odds ratio indicates the relative risk of an SCE during the listed activity. An odds ratio value of 1.0 is considered equivalent to driving while not distracted. Odds ratio values above 1.0 indicate elevated risk and values below 1.0 indicate decreased risk, though the difference must be statistically significant (
The risk rate approach generates a powerful estimate of risk by using all accounts of when cell phones were used while driving. However, it cannot assess the SCE risk relative to “just driving” (defined as driving void of all non-driving-related secondary tasks) without the availability of estimates of the propensity for each potential secondary task that is performed while driving. The case-control approach was thus used to address this limitation. A total of 2,308 baseline periods were randomly sampled based on each driver's driving time in the study. This number was selected to be at least four times the 342 SCEs that were identified. The odds of an SCE occurring during specific cell phone subtasks were then compared to the odds of an SCE occurring when just driving. Note that “just driving” was only found in 46 percent of the baseline periods. Table 6 presents the odds ratios (ORs) and 95-percent confidence limits for various cell phone subtasks. As in the previous risk analysis, only VM subtasks performed on an HH cell phone were found to be associated with an increased SCE risk. Conversing on a cell phone (
The overall results from the study presented a clear finding: Visual-manual subtasks performed on hand-held cell phones degraded driver performance and increased SCE risk. Although current hands-free cell phone interfaces allow drivers to communicate with their voices, there is a concern that they still require visual-manual interactions. In fact, drivers in this study frequently initiated hands-free calls and performed other visual-manual operations (
Recognizing the distraction safety issue outlined above, NHTSA published the “Overview of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's Driver Distraction Program,”
1. Improve the understanding of the extent and nature of the distraction problem. This includes improving the quality of data NHTSA collects about distraction-related crashes and improving analysis techniques.
2. Reduce the driver workload associated with performing tasks using original equipment, aftermarket, and portable in-vehicle electronic devices by working to limit the visual, manual, and cognitive demand associated with secondary tasks performed using these devices. Better device interfaces will minimize the time and effort involved in a driver performing a task using the device. Minimizing the workload associated with performing secondary tasks with a device will permit drivers to maximize the attention they focus toward the primary task of driving. NHTSA's Driver Distraction Guidelines fall under this initiative.
3. Keep drivers safe through the introduction of crash avoidance technologies. These include the use of crash warning systems to re-focus the
4. Educate drivers about the risks and consequences of distracted driving. This includes targeted media messages, drafting and publishing sample text-messaging laws for consideration and possible use by the states, testing high-visibility enforcement programs, and publishing guidance for a ban on text messaging by Federal government employees while driving.
In June 2012, the US DOT released a “Blueprint for Ending Distracted Driving.”
Industry and safety advocacy groups have also been working to eliminate driver distraction using education and public awareness campaigns, as well as through design guidance for built-in systems and other aftermarket solutions. The following sections highlight the efforts by NHTSA and the US DOT in legislative and enforcement approaches, education and public awareness approaches, and device-based solutions (
Most states, with the support of NHTSA and the US DOT, have passed laws to limit the use of portable devices while driving. Currently, 46 states, DC, Puerto Rico, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands ban texting while driving for drivers of all ages. Fourteen states, DC, Puerto Rico, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands ban drivers of all ages from using hand-held cell phones while driving.
In 2012, NHTSA partnered with the State of California and the State of Delaware to initiate a high-visibility enforcement (increased police presence supported by paid and earned media) demonstration program in the Sacramento area of California and in the State of Delaware in support of laws banning the use of hand-held cell phones while driving. Three waves of enforcement were conducted between October 2012 and June 2013. The featured tagline for the public face of the program was “
The US DOT and NHTSA have put considerable effort toward reaching out to the community and the various stakeholders since the emergence of distracted driving as a traffic safety concern. The US DOT and NHTSA conducted two national summits, one in 2009 and one in 2011, to bring attention to the issue.
Following these distraction summits, NHTSA has held several meetings with stakeholders such as representatives of the automotive and communications industries as well as researchers and other key leaders to continue the public policy discussion on the distracted driving issue. For the public, NHTSA has created a Web site,
NHTSA has had, and continues to use, public service messages to change the attitudes and behaviors of drivers through social norming and enforcement messages. Social norming messaging is designed to appeal to the individual to change their behavior because it is the socially acceptable thing to do without an underlying theme related to deterrence (
NHTSA has also made efforts to reach out into the community on the issue of distracted driving through social media (
On February 6, 2014, the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation, led by Senator Jay Rockefeller (West Virginia), held a summit that focused on addressing potential technological solutions for minimizing driver distraction. The summit consisted of three roundtable sessions: (1) The State of Distracted Driving, (2) The State of Technology, and (3) Where do we go from there? Participants in all three of these roundtables consisted of Federal agencies, safety advocacy groups, industry associations, and companies from the automobile, consumer electronics, technology, and communications industries. The summit facilitated a dialogue between the various organizations, encouraging all participants to continue working together technologically to reduce the negative impacts of driver distraction.
A range of industry stakeholders have also put forth an effort to educate drivers on the dangers of distracted driving. While there are too many education and public service announcement campaigns from industry and information outlets to list in this notice, two recent efforts by the wireless industry are included as examples (see
As part of NHTSA's efforts to reduce driver workload associated with performing tasks using devices within the vehicle (original equipment, aftermarket, and portable in-vehicle electronic devices) the agency has been developing Driver Distraction Guidelines for these devices. NHTSA issued its first phase of driver distraction guidelines on April 26, 2013, after notice and comment.
To facilitate the development of these guidelines, NHTSA studied existing guidelines relating to driver distraction prevention and reduction and found the “Statement of Principles, Criteria and Verification Procedures on Driver-Interactions with Advanced In-Vehicle Information and Communication Systems” developed by the Alliance of Automobile Manufacturers (Alliance Guidelines) to be the most complete and up-to-date. The Alliance Guidelines provided valuable input in NHTSA's efforts to address driver distraction issues. Although NHTSA drew heavily on that input in developing the Phase 1 Guidelines, the agency identified a number of aspects that could be improved upon in order to further enhance driving safety, enhance guideline usability, improve implementation consistency, and incorporate the latest driver distraction research findings.
The Phase 1 Guidelines are based upon a number of fundamental principles. These principles include that:
• The driver's eyes should usually be looking at the road ahead;
• The driver should be able to keep at least one hand on the steering wheel while performing a secondary task (both driving-related and non-driving related);
• The distraction induced by any secondary task performed while driving should not exceed that associated with a baseline reference task (manual radio tuning);
• Any task performed by a driver should be interruptible at any time;
• The driver, not the system/device, should control the pace of task interactions; and
• Displays should be easy for the driver to see and content presented should be easily discernible.
The Phase 1 Guidelines list certain activities that inherently interfere with a driver's ability to safely control the vehicle, and the Guidelines recommend that in-vehicle devices be designed so that they cannot be used by the driver to perform these inherently distracting activities while driving (referred to as “per se lock outs”). The basis for these lock outs includes activities that are discouraged by public policy and, in some instances, prohibited by Federal regulation and/or State law (
• Displaying video not related to driving;
• Displaying certain graphical or photographic images;
• Displaying automatically scrolling text;
• Manual text entry for the purpose of text-based messaging, other communication, or internet browsing; and
• Displaying text for reading from books, periodical publications, Web page content, social media content, text-based advertising and marketing, or text-based messages.
The per se lock out recommendations are not intended to prevent the display of images related to driving such as simple, two-dimensional map displays for the purpose of navigation, which would conform to these Guidelines, as long as they are displayed in a safe manner. These recommendations are also not intended to prevent the display of internationally standardized symbols and icons, Trademark
For all other visual-manual secondary tasks, the Phase 1 Guidelines specify two alternative test methods for measuring the impact of performing a task on driving safety, as well as time-based acceptance criteria for assessing whether a task interferes too much with driver attention. It should be noted that
The first recommended test method measures the amount of time that the driver's eyes are drawn away from the forward roadway while performing a
In addition to identifying inherently distracting tasks and providing a means to measure and evaluate the level of distraction associated with other secondary tasks, the Phase 1 Guidelines contain other recommendations for in-vehicle devices designed to limit and reduce their potential for distraction. Examples include a recommendation that performance of visual-manual tasks should not require the use of more than one hand, a recommendation that each device's active display be located as close as practicable to the driver's forward line of sight, and a recommended maximum downward viewing angle to the geometric center of each display.
In the notice announcing the Phase 1 Guidelines, the agency clarified that because the Guidelines were voluntary and non-binding, NHTSA's normal enforcement procedures related to Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) compliance were not applicable. However, NHTSA indicated that as part of its ongoing distraction research activities, the agency does intend to monitor manufacturers' voluntary adoption of the Phase 1 Guidelines.
Various efforts focused on portable and aftermarket devices have been initiated by industry to address driver distraction. In July 2013, the Consumer Technology Association (CTA), an association comprised of 2,000 companies within the consumer technology industry, initiated a Working Group focused on addressing portable and aftermarket electronic devices used by drivers in vehicles (formally named R6 WG18 Driver-Device Interface Working Group). Through mid-2014, the group had the goal of developing industry-based guidelines for portable device design that would address driver distraction. As indicated in a letter to the agency, the group had planned to use the NHTSA Phase 1 Guidelines as a starting point. The focus of this group had been to create a set of recommended practices by bringing together industry stakeholders and soliciting their technical input and expertise. These voluntary, industry-based recommended practices were intended to be used by portable electronic device manufacturers, software developers, and any other interested parties to improve the safety of driving and non-driving-related task performance. In mid-2014, the Working Group abandoned its work to develop industry-based guidelines due to liability concerns, instead modifying its overall objective to produce a technical report that categorizes “products and services offered by the consumer electronics (CE) industry that help make the driving experience safer.”
There have also been efforts within the standardization sector of the International Telecommunications Union (ITU-T)
NHTSA is also participating as a liaison for a task group formed by the Car Connectivity Consortium (CCC), the developers of Mirror Link, to discuss the technical issues of device pairing, integration, testing, and certification. Mirror Link represents a major industry effort to enable and promote device pairing in vehicles. This effort began in November 2014.
In addition to these formal industry efforts to produce best practices, guidelines, and recommendations, several companies and groups have demonstrated various technical solutions for aspects of the distracted driving problem to NHTSA. These solutions include a driver mode for portable devices, anti-texting software applications that provide the capability to lock out the portable device screen, and driver distinction technologies that are both vehicle- and portable-device based. Each of these topics was included in NHTSA's Phase 2 Public Meeting in March 2014.
On March 12, 2014, NHTSA hosted a public meeting to bring together vehicle manufacturers and suppliers, portable and aftermarket device manufacturers, portable and aftermarket device operating system providers, cellular service providers, industry associations, application developers, researchers, and consumer groups to discuss technical issues regarding the agency's development of Phase 2 Driver Distraction Guidelines for portable and aftermarket devices. The transcript for the public meeting and webcast video can be found in the docket for today's proposed guidelines,
In the public meeting, NHTSA presented an overview of the Phase 1 Driver Distraction Guidelines and the key technical issues in Phase 2. CTA presented a summary of its efforts to develop industry-based best practices for portable and aftermarket devices that could be used by drivers inside the vehicle. Following these presentations, there were three panels of invited experts who addressed the following technical topics: (1) Vehicle and portable/aftermarket device pairing, (2) Driver Mode and advanced technologies, and (3) technologies that automatically distinguish between devices used by drivers and passengers.
In its presentation about the Distraction Guidelines, NHTSA highlighted the guiding principles for the guidelines along with the technical approaches to Phases 1 and 2. NHTSA emphasized pairing between the vehicle and portable devices as a means for incorporating portable and aftermarket devices under the Phase 1 Distraction Guidelines. NHTSA also discussed Driver Mode as an approach for unpaired portable devices. NHTSA encouraged the development of technology that can distinguish driver portable device use from passenger portable device use. NHTSA noted that similar test procedures and acceptance thresholds from Phase 1 would be applied to Phase 2. Other issues under consideration for the Phase 2 Distraction Guidelines included applicability to head-up displays and wearable devices, any additional per se lock outs that might be required for portable and aftermarket devices, placement of the portable device for testing, and continuous display information that does not meet the Phase 1 task definition. NHTSA concluded its presentation by highlighting the general process for publishing the Phase 2 Distraction Guidelines.
Following NHTSA's presentation, CTA gave a presentation on its Driver-Device Interface Working Group and activities for generating industry-based best practices. In its presentation at the public meeting, CTA noted that it believes best practices developed by industry collaboration have the greatest chance of success in the marketplace. Additionally, CTA recommended pairing. As of mid-2014, the Working Group modified its objective, choosing to develop a technology inventory instead of guidelines or recommendations.
The pairing panel consisted of presentations by General Motors, Toyota, Delphi, and the Car Connectivity Consortium. The Driver Mode and Advanced Technologies panel consisted of presentations by AT&T, Garmin, and Pioneer. The Driver-Passenger Distinction panel consisted of presentations by Cellcontrol, Cellepathy, and Lakeland Ventures Development-Takata. NHTSA conducted a period of questions and answers from the panelists after the presentations. NHTSA received additional comments from Consumers Union, Origo, and Vesstech that were read from the floor. Each of these presentations and spoken remarks can be found in the Phase 2 docket.
The Alliance, Blackberry Limited, General Motors, and Consumers Union all supported NHTSA's emphasis on paired solutions. The Alliance reiterated findings from research that quantified the extent to which consumers are “connected” in their daily lives, including while driving. The Alliance highlighted this research, which was posted to the Phase 1 Docket, as additional support for pairing or tethering solutions. The Alliance also highlighted that some of its members were already working towards pairing solutions, and that the Car Connectivity Consortium was a formal industry organization working towards that end. General Motors mentioned its own efforts towards paired solutions. Blackberry Limited urged NHTSA to consider the ITU-T draft set of industry-generated recommendations for information and communications technologies. Consumers Union described its findings on various existing pairing solutions, and specifically how easy or user-friendly the pairing process was for drivers. Blackberry Limited offered several specific suggestions for NHTSA to consider about pairing solutions and Driver Mode.
The response to Driver Mode solution was mixed, with the Alliance stating that the only acceptable Driver Mode was the portable device in the “off” setting, and that Driver Mode “apps” that drivers must choose to engage are not realistic solutions. Blackberry Limited, Consumers Union, and Life Apps provided specific recommendations or support for Driver Mode implementations. Blackberry Limited had specific suggestions regarding pairing and Driver Mode, and urged NHTSA to not recommend less stringent guidelines for Driver Mode, but also not to include specific technological approaches (
The Alliance supported NHTSA's inclusion of driver-passenger distinction technology and urged NHTSA to establish a cooperative research program
Some commenters in the public meeting had specific implementation suggestions for portable device-use while driving. For example, the National Safety Council suggested NHTSA require portable devices have an option to quickly turn the portable device off while driving. Life Apps highlighted an approach that uses the portable device only, which does not require hardware components to detect that the driver is using the device when driving. Vesstech argued for a solution that included mandatory vocal warnings to be automatically spoken to drivers. It suggested that the emotional content relayed by the human voice would be an effective deterrent that would discourage portable device use while driving. CTIA argued that education, legislation, and technical innovation are the best ways to address distraction from portable devices, and listed the ways in which they have been active in each area.
NHTSA provided a detailed explanation and rationale for the focus on visual-manual distraction in the Phase 1 Guidelines,
NHTSA has reviewed each of the detailed recommendations from the various commenters on both pairing and driver mode. Some of those recommendations are consistent with NHTSA's goal of remaining neutral regarding specific technological approaches to pairing and to Driver Mode activation, and therefore are reflected in these proposed Phase 2 Guidelines. At NHTSA's public meeting, participants on the Driver-Passenger Distinction panel presented different technological approaches to identifying which vehicle occupant is using a portable device. Most approaches use a combination of hardware and software installed in the vehicle and on the portable device to determine whether the device user is a driver or passenger.
One approach involved a piece of hardware that creates zones within a vehicle by emitting signals. The driver's seating position would have a different signal that could be identified by software and/or hardware on a portable device. Identifying the driver's position with this method would potentially allow the device to activate the driver mode only for the driver while he or she is driving. This signal could vary depending on the transmission state.
Another driver-passenger distinction technology uses capacitive sensors within the seats that allow the vehicle to detect where portable devices are being used within a vehicle. These sensors are able to determine if each occupant is holding and using a portable device by utilizing the conductivity of the human body. By detecting if a driver is using a portable device, the vehicle can tell the portable device to activate the driver mode. Driver Mode can be activated depending on the state of the vehicle's transmission (
Finally, a device-only solution uses an authentication task approach where a device automatically goes into a limited use state (
NHTSA recognizes that there may be other concepts to achieve driver-passenger distinction that were not presented in the Public Meeting, but those presented provide an example of how this capability can be achieved technologically. Accordingly, NHTSA continues to monitor the development and progress of driver-passenger distinction technologies, and seeks input on how to foster the refinement of that technology to enhance reliable and automatic Driver Mode solutions for unpaired portable devices. For example, the Alliance recommended establishing a cooperative research program. The agency seeks comments from all stakeholders on what specific research needs remain to progress driver-passenger distinction technology to full maturity.
All presentations and comments from the NHTSA Phase 2 Public Meeting are available for download in the Phase 2 docket,
The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines would apply to the visual-manual interfaces of portable and aftermarket devices that may be used by a driver. A “portable device” is defined as a device that can reasonably be expected to be brought into a vehicle on a trip-by-trip basis and used in the vehicle by a driver while driving, that is electrically powered, and that has one or more of the following capabilities:
• Allows user interaction.
• Enters, sends, and/or receives information.
• Displays information in a visual and/or auditory manner, or
• Displays graphical, photographic, and/or video images.
The agency has tentatively concluded that this definition sets out the appropriate scope for the types of device
Additionally, this definition would include some of the new portable technology that is beginning to appear, such as wearable technology (electronic devices with interfaces that are worn on and move with the body) and certain non-OE, head-up displays (HUDs).
Finally, NHTSA recognizes that many of these new portable devices are released as pre-production versions, thereby allowing the market to update, refine, and shape the maturation of the technology. NHTSA seeks comment on portable device product cycles along with software updating processes to better understand the evolving stakeholder landscape.
For the purposes of this Phase 2 proposal, an “aftermarket device” is defined as a device designed to be or reasonably expected to be installed or integrated into a vehicle after the vehicle is manufactured, is electrically powered, and has one or more of the following capabilities:
• Allows user interaction.
• Enters, sends, and/or receives information.
• Displays information in a visual and/or auditory manner, or
• Displays graphical images, photographic images, and/or video.
An example of an aftermarket device would be a non-OE head unit, such as in-dash car audio/video systems or in-dash navigation systems.
NHTSA requests comments on its proposed definitions in the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines.
The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines exclude several devices/device interfaces, including the auditory-vocal portions of a portable or aftermarket device interface,
The agency also seeks comment on device interfaces that should or should not be covered by the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines.
The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines would be applicable to the same types of visual-manual secondary tasks covered by the Phase 1 Guidelines, including all non-driving-related tasks and some driving-related tasks (as noted earlier), specifically those that are neither related to the safe operation and control of the vehicle nor involve the use of a system required by law. Table 1 of the updated Phase 1 Guidelines
Like the Phase 1 Guidelines, the Phase 2 Guidelines would not apply to tasks performed by the driver as part of the safe operation and control of the vehicle, including any task related to the proper use of a driver safety warning system. Although the agency did not define the term driver safety warning system in the Phase 1 Guidelines, the agency is including a definition in the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines (that also shall apply to Phase 1) because of the wide variety of portable and aftermarket device applications that exist and the agency's concern that applications with a questionable link to safety might be labeled as driver safety warning systems. Accordingly, the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines define “driver safety warning system” as “a system or application that is intended to assist the driver in the avoidance or mitigation of crashes.” An example of a system that would fall within this definition is a portable device application that uses the device's features (
Finally, the Phase 2 Guidelines apply to tasks that are clearly bounded by start and end states as is discussed in the Phase 1 Guidelines (see section IV.B.9 on p. 24884). Displays that continuously report a system state like speed or fuel economy status are unbounded and are therefore not subject to the Phase 1 or 2 Guidelines.
In order to address the vehicle safety problem posed by driver distraction due to aftermarket and portable device usage, NHTSA tentatively recommends the following in its Phase 2 Guidelines:
• Portable device manufacturers incorporate pairing capabilities and Driver Mode functions into their devices to reduce driver distraction.
• OEMs incorporate pairing capabilities into the design of their vehicles
• Manufacturers of aftermarket devices meet the requirements as specified for OE interfaces in Phase 1.
Figure 1 depicts how the Phase 2 Guidelines apply to both portable and aftermarket devices, including pairing and Driver Mode configurations.
NHTSA recommends pairing a portable device with the in-vehicle system (
Although NHTSA recommends that pairing a portable device with the in-vehicle interface is the best way to mitigate the distraction associated with operating a visual-manual portable device interface, the agency acknowledges that there will be situations when pairing does not occur, either because the in-vehicle system and/or portable device does not possess the capability for pairing or because the driver chooses not to pair with the in-vehicle system. In order to mitigate the additional distraction associated with the use of an unpaired portable device, the agency recommends that portable devices include a Driver Mode that, when activated, will present an interface that conforms with thePhase 1 Guidelines recommendations for electronic devices used by the driver while driving. In particular, when a portable device is in Driver Mode, the device should lock out tasks that are among the Phase 1 Guidelines per se lock outs or do not meet Phase 1 task acceptance criteria.
NHTSA seeks comment on this approach and whether additional per se lock outs are appropriate for portable and aftermarket devices, whether paired with the in-vehicle system or in Driver Mode.
NHTSA acknowledges that some devices, such as standalone portable navigation devices, are designed for, and exist primarily for use in a single context (
The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines recommend that vehicle manufacturers and portable device manufacturers should provide the necessary mechanisms to easily enable pairing
In order to ensure that a paired portable device's functions are operated through the in-vehicle interface, which is intended and designed specifically for the driving environment, the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines recommend that the visual interface of the portable device be locked out when the portable device is paired to the in-vehicle system, with the exception of access to emergency services and emergency notifications. All non-emergency functions and applications of the portable device should be operable exclusively through the in-vehicle system's interface. A paired system with a compelling user experience and features should discourage the need for the driver to access or interact with the portable device while driving. NHTSA seeks comment on displaying and operating all non-emergency paired device functions through the in-vehicle interface and whether doing so creates unintended consequences. NHTSA also seeks comment on how best to accommodate passenger use of a paired portable device.
The primary purpose of this document is to address driver distraction and vehicle safety. However, NHTSA acknowledges that the pairing recommendations may touch on potential privacy concerns regarding the possibility of data transfer, sharing, and storage between the vehicle, device, and off-board systems. The proposed Guidelines do not recommend any particular method of pairing or specify how automakers and the portable and aftermarket device industries should address how information is shared and used. The agency encourages industry to consider how privacy risks can be minimized as part of the development and improvement of pairing systems.
Industry groups have begun to address the issue of privacy as the Alliance of Automobile Manufacturers and Global Automakers published a set of principles on November 12, 2014.
In light of these potential issues, NHTSA seeks comment on how information is shared between the vehicle, device, and off-board systems when devices are paired with the vehicle, how the type of information that is shared may change in the future, how this information sharing effects privacy, and what role the Guidelines can and should play in addressing these privacy issues.
Designing portable devices so that they can be paired with motor vehicles must be accompanied by appropriate cybersecurity measures. Unless such care is taken, adding another Internet-connected device to a vehicle's electronics system can introduce additional cybersecurity vulnerabilities into a vehicle's computer systems.
Safeguarding the traveling public through a combination of measures requiring and/or encouraging the incorporation of safety features and systems in motor vehicles and motor vehicle equipment as well as measures to protect the performance of those features and systems is part of NHTSA's core mission. Equally important is identifying motor vehicles or items of motor vehicle equipment that create an unreasonable risk of accidents occurring or unreasonable risk of death or injury occurring in an accident because of deficiencies in design, construction, or performance and requiring their recall and remedy.
These Guidelines do not suggest or recommend particular methods for creating and maintaining an effective level of cybersecurity in motor vehicles or in portable or aftermarket devices. NHTSA expects that OEMs, portable device manufacturers, and aftermarket manufacturers to be proactive and take the steps necessary to protect against present and future motor vehicle cybersecurity threats. We seek comment on the continuing steps that must be taken to ensure that pairing does not adversely affect vehicle cybersecurity.
Ideally, a Driver Mode would not be necessary since NHTSA believes those functions related to the driving task should occur when the device is paired with an in-vehicle system that conforms with the Phase 1 Guidelines. However, our data confirms what everyday observation indicates: Many drivers routinely use their portable device(s) while driving. The agency believes that over time as pairing becomes easier, increased device pairing may help reduce this behavior, but is unlikely to eliminate it, because not all vehicles will have been designed to allow pairing and drivers may not choose to pair their devices. The agency, therefore, believes it is necessary to propose guidelines that attempt to reduce the risk associated with using an unpaired portable device while driving. The agency believes that the proposed Driver Mode outlined below, which suggests that the device's interface follow the Phase 1 principles to the extent possible, is the best way to minimize the distraction posed by these devices.
Driver Mode is a simplified interface for unpaired devices that conforms to the Phase 1 Guidelines when being used by a person who is driving. When in Driver Mode, the portable device should lock out any visual-manual secondary tasks that do not meet the Phase 1 Guidelines, either because they are per se lockouts or because they do not meet the eye-glance-based task acceptance criteria using a modified version of the Phase 1 task acceptance testing procedures described in Section V of the Phase 2 Guidelines.
The Phase 1 Guidelines specify two different test options for measuring the impact of performing a task on driving safety and acceptance criteria for assessing whether a task interferes enough with driver attention to be unsuitable for performance while driving. Either test may be run to assess conformance with the guidelines. Both of these test methods focus on the amount of visual attention necessary to complete a task because existing research on visual-manual distraction establishes a link between visual
The first recommended test method measures the amount of time that the driver's eyes are drawn away from the roadway during the performance of the task. The proposed Phase 2 Guidelines, like the Phase 1 Guidelines, recommend that devices be designed so that tasks can be completed by the driver while driving with glances away from the roadway of 2 seconds or less and a cumulative time spent glancing away from the roadway of 12 seconds or less. NHTSA anticipates that stakeholders (
The second test method uses a visual occlusion technique, and both the Phase 1 and proposed Phase 2 Guidelines recommend that, when tested with this method, devices be designed so that tasks can be completed in a series of 1.5-second glances with a cumulative time of not more than 12 seconds.
Detailed discussions of how these thresholds were developed are contained in the proposed Phase 1 Guidelines notice
NHTSA has tentatively concluded that because the crash risk associated with distraction caused by vehicle OE interfaces and portable devices is borne out of similar visual-manual interaction between the driver and the device, the Phase 2 Guidelines should apply the Phase 1 Guidelines to the proposed Driver Mode. In other words, because a driver would be diverting his or her attention away from the road to an area within reach and view of the driver compartment, a recommendation for a portable device in Driver Mode should be similar to that of in-vehicle systems.
In addition to the recommendations regarding per se lock outs and the task acceptance criteria, the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines recommend that when in Driver Mode, portable device interfaces conform to the following Phase 1 Guidelines recommendations:
Due to the differences between integrated OE interfaces and portable devices, the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines do not include the Phase 1 recommendations related to maximum downward viewing angle, lateral position of visual displays, and minimum size of displayed text information. These recommendations relate to the placement of the interface or the size of the interface text given that placement. Because the placement of a portable device in a vehicle is determined by the owner or driver of the vehicle rather than the device manufacturer or software designer, the agency has tentatively concluded that, as it cannot know for certain where, how, or if the device will be mounted, these recommendations are not appropriate for portable devices.
Despite this fact, the agency still believes it is necessary to propose a repeatable test that would allow the agency to determine what devices conform with the proposed Driver Mode. Such a test, even if it does not reflect how all drivers use portable devices in all circumstances, would, nevertheless, provide the agency with a benchmark to measure conformance across a wide variety of different devices. The agency proposes that manufacturers test unpaired portable devices, including those in Driver Mode, in a location within a vehicle that, to the greatest extent possible, conforms to the recommendations enumerated in Phase 1 (
The agency requests comments on differences between vehicle OE interfaces and portable devices. Specifically, NHTSA would like to know what, if any testing methods, stakeholders currently use (or suggest using) to address the varying placements of a portable device inside an automobile.
The Phase 1 Guidelines per se lock outs include activities that are discouraged by public policy and, in some instances, prohibited by Federal regulation or State law (
• Device functions and tasks not intended to be used by a driver while driving.
• Manual Text Entry. Manual text entry by the driver for the purpose of text-based messaging, other communication, or internet browsing.
• Displaying Video. Displaying (or permitting the display of) video including, but not limited to, video-based entertainment and video-based communications including video phoning and videoconferencing.
• Exceptions:
• Map displays. The visual presentation of dynamic map and/or location information in a two-dimensional format, with or without perspective, for the purpose of providing navigational information or driving directions when requested by the driver (assuming the presentation of this information conforms to all other recommendations of these Guidelines). However, the display of informational detail not critical to navigation, such as photorealistic images, satellite images, or three-dimensional images is not recommended.
• Displaying Images. Displaying (or permitting the display of) non-video graphical or photographic images.
•
• Displaying driving-related images including maps (assuming the presentation of this information conforms to all other recommendations of these Guidelines). However, the display of map informational detail not critical to navigation, such as photorealistic images, satellite images, or three-dimensional images is not recommended.
• Static graphical and photographic images displayed for the purpose of aiding a driver to efficiently make a selection in the context of a non-driving-related task (
• Internationally standardized symbols and icons, as well as Trademark
• Automatically Scrolling Text. The display of scrolling (either horizontally or vertically) text that is moving at a pace not controlled by the driver.
• Displaying Text to Be Read. The visual presentation of the following types of non-driving-related task textual information:
•
• The visual presentation of limited amounts of other types of text during a testable task is acceptable. The maximum amount of text that should be visually presented during a single testable task is determined by the eye-glance-based acceptance tests.
The agency requests comment on the applicability of the Phase 1 per se lock outs to portable devices. Are additional exceptions needed for certain portable device tasks? Are there additional portable device tasks that should be included in the per se lock outs if the device has a Phase 1 Guidelines-conforming Driver Mode interface?
The Phase 2 Guidelines' proposed recommendations regarding the activation of the Driver Mode would differ significantly from the Phase 1 Guideline's recommendations in terms of when OE in-vehicle devices should lock out certain tasks and meet certain other device recommendations.
In particular, the Phase 1 Guidelines recommend that OE in-vehicle devices should lock out certain tasks from performance by the driver while “driving.” “Driving” is defined as whenever a vehicle's means of propulsion is activated unless the vehicle's transmission is in the “Park” position or, for manual transmission vehicles, the vehicle's transmission is in the “neutral” position, the parking brake is engaged, and the vehicle's speed is less than 5 mph.
This definition was based on definitions used in various statutes, regulations, and Executive Orders related to distracted driving,
In analyzing how to apply the Phase 1 Guidelines to portable and aftermarket devices, the agency has determined activation of Driver Mode is dependent upon the technologies and features present, as well as the level of communication between a portable/aftermarket device and a vehicle. Based on these considerations, the agency has developed two alternative methods for activating Driver Mode.
The first option, and the one encouraged by the agency, is automatic activation, meaning that Driver Mode automatically engages within a reasonable period of time when the portable device by itself or in conjunction with the vehicle distinguishes that it is being used by a driver while driving. If desired, the user would have the ability to deactivate or opt-out of automatic engagement of Driver Mode. Like the “driving” condition described in the Phase 1 Guidelines, this definition is based on information (
The agency recognizes that automatic activation technologies are still in the process of being refined, and, without the ability to reliably detect whether the device user is the driver or a passenger, may be overly annoying to device users. Accordingly, the agency is proposing a second option, voluntary activation, meaning that the Driver Mode is activated in a simple manner by the user. In other words, under this option, Driver Mode is manually activated by the driver rather than automatically. The agency expects technologies that support automatic Driver Mode activation to be implemented as soon as practicable. In order to provide flexibility, NHTSA has not included any additional specific recommendations on how activation of Driver Mode should be designed. The agency requests comment on whether additional specification should be included in the final guidelines.
Recognizing that some drivers may choose not to activate Driver Mode, and accordingly, not reduce the distraction potential of the portable device, the agency foresees driver-initiated activation being a temporary option in the Phase 2 Guidelines until driver-passenger distinction technology is more developed and widely available. The agency expects such technology to be implemented as soon as practicable. The agency recognizes the inherent limitations of a driver-activated Driver Mode and seeks comment on alternative approaches to Driver Mode activation as a temporary option until driver-passenger distinction technology is implemented.
The US DOT's Blueprint for ending Distracted Driving specified that aftermarket electronic devices would be addressed in NHTSA's Phase 2 Guidelines. In line with the Blueprint, the Phase 2 Guidelines propose to make recommendations for aftermarket devices. Tentatively, the agency concludes that recommendations applicable to OE manufacturers in the Phase 1 Guidelines shall be recommendations to aftermarket electronic device manufacturers.
Aftermarket devices include communication, entertainment, or navigation devices that are designed to be or would be reasonably expected to be installed or integrated after the vehicle is manufactured, are often incorporated into existing OE slots in the dashboard or are permanently affixed to the top surface of the dashboard. Examples of aftermarket devices include in-dash car stereos/receivers and in-dash navigation devices. While aftermarket devices are addressed in the same guideline document as portable devices, there are notable differences between portable and aftermarket devices. As aftermarket devices are typically hardwired into a vehicle, they are not likely to be moved in and out of a vehicle like portable devices. Additionally, because there is a physical link between an aftermarket device and the vehicle, there is no need for any pairing recommendation, as the vehicle and aftermarket device are linked by virtue of installation.
With regard to placement within the vehicle, the installation location of an aftermarket device is likely to be either on the dashboard or in a vacated spot in the dash previously occupied by an OE interface. NHTSA has tentatively concluded that because the crash risk associated with distraction caused by OE interfaces and aftermarket devices is borne out of similar visual-manual interaction from the same location in a vehicle, the Phase 2 Guidelines should apply the Phase 1 guidelines to aftermarket devices. In many cases, aftermarket devices serve as replacement devices for vehicle OE systems, replacing the function of OE units while occupying the same location within a vehicle. NHTSA is seeking comment on this approach.
NHTSA's overall expectation for the Phase 2 Distraction Guidelines is to provide a safety framework for developers of portable and aftermarket electronic devices and applications to use when developing their systems that will reduce driver distraction through two specific technological means. First, NHTSA envisions easy pairing solutions for users of portable devices in their vehicles that will result in accelerated growth and acceptance of pairing, leading to pairing implementations throughout entire vehicle lineups and trim levels. Pairing solutions should become seamless, thereby fostering highly efficient interactions between the drivers, portable devices, and in-vehicle electronics systems. Second, NHTSA expects these guidelines will encourage the further growth and innovation of automatic driver distinction technologies that will enable more practical and pervasive Driver Mode implementations for portable devices in unpaired scenarios. The development of automatic driver distinction technologies and consequently Driver Mode interfaces should result in reduced distraction when used by drivers while driving. Again, the agency's goal is that information available to the driver inside the vehicle will not cause an unsafe level of distraction to the driver (either by functions being locked out or conforming to the applicable Phase 1 Guidelines' 2/12 performance criteria).
In addition, NHTSA expects that through these guidelines, automotive OEMs, application developers, portable and aftermarket device manufacturers, operating system providers, wireless carriers, and all involved stakeholders will jointly work together with the primary goal of reducing fatalities, injuries, and crashes attributable to the use of portable and aftermarket devices by drivers. NHTSA expects that the proposed guidelines will serve as a framework for stakeholders to continue developing a variety of technologies and designs that reduce visual-manual distraction while driving. Ultimately, these proposed Guidelines will raise awareness of driver distraction and elevate vehicle safety to a top priority within the product development processes for these wide-ranging organizations.
NHTSA wants to make it absolutely clear that since its Driver Distraction Guidelines are voluntary and non-binding, they do not have a “lead time” in the same way that a FMVSS or other regulation has a lead time. Portable and aftermarket device manufacturers, application developers, and vehicle manufacturers are not required to meet the NHTSA Guidelines.
NHTSA stated that it anticipated vehicle manufacturers would incorporate Phase 1 conformance into their normally scheduled production cycles, and therefore NHTSA anticipates seeing production vehicles that conform to Phase 1 Guidelines no sooner than three years from the publication of Phase 1. NHTSA recognizes that the production cycles for portable devices are dramatically shorter than for vehicles; therefore NHTSA seeks comment on reasonable conformance testing timing for Phase 2. We believe 16 months is appropriate given the speed at which technology changes and the time needed to benchmark product against
The agency also notes that the Guidelines are just one of many efforts by both government and industry to address the distracted driving problem. The NHTSA Distraction Plan
NHTSA's Office of Vehicle Safety Research intends to perform future monitoring to assess conformance to our Driver Distraction Guidelines. Whereas the details of this monitoring have yet to be determined, we plan to test actual production vehicles, and production portable and aftermarket devices. Vehicles, portable and aftermarket devices, and applications will be selected for such monitoring so that they represent a representative portion of makes and models available for public consumption. NHTSA envisions that these test results would be made available to the public.
The agency's authority to issue the voluntary, non-binding
By issuing these Guidelines, NHTSA seeks to fulfill its duties under both the Highway Safety Act and the Vehicle Safety Act. The foundation for these Guidelines is the agency research on distraction caused by portable and aftermarket devices, and our evaluation of research from other experts. The agency believes that today's guidelines are an effective way of expressing NHTSA's research conclusions. Encapsulating and publishing research results in the form of recommendations, best practices, or guidelines is not novel for this agency.
Additionally, we note that in recently enacting the Fixing America's Surface Transportation Act,
As NHTSA has stated in various agency documents, the guidelines for portable devices are a crucial part of a
Accordingly, we believe that private industry could effectively complement the state efforts by addressing the technological risk factors related to portable application/device use and
Your comments must be written and in English. To ensure that your comments are correctly filed in the Docket, please include the docket number of this document in your comments.
Your comments should not be more than 15 pages long. (See 49 CFR 553.21.) We established this limit to encourage you to write your primary comments in a concise fashion. However, you may attach necessary additional documents to your comments. There is no limit on the length of the attachments.
Comments may be submitted to the docket electronically by logging onto the Docket Management System Web site at
You may also submit two copies of your comments, including the attachments, to Docket Management at the address given above under
Please note that pursuant to the Data Quality Act, in order for substantive data to be relied upon and used by the agency, it must meet the information quality standards set forth in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) and US DOT Data Quality Act guidelines. Accordingly, we encourage you to consult the guidelines in preparing your comments. OMB's guidelines may be accessed at
If you wish Docket Management to notify you upon its receipt of your comments, enclose a self-addressed, stamped postcard in the envelope containing your comments. Upon receiving your comments, Docket Management will return the postcard by mail.
If you wish to submit any information under a claim of confidentiality, you should submit three copies of your complete submission, including the information you claim to be confidential business information, to the Chief Counsel, NHTSA, at the address given above under
We will consider all comments that Docket Management receives before the close of business on the comment closing date indicated above under
You may read the comments received by Docket Management at the address given above under
Please note that even after the comment closing date, we will continue to file relevant information in the Docket as it becomes available. Further, some people may submit late comments. Accordingly, we recommend that you periodically check the Docket for new material.
Under the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (NTTAA) (Pub. L. 104-113), all Federal agencies and departments must use technical standards that are developed or adopted by voluntary consensus standards bodies, using such technical standards as a means to carry out policy objectives or activities determined by the agencies and departments, except when use of such a voluntary consensus standard would be inconsistent with the law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards are technical standards (
As part of the Phase 1 Guidelines, NHTSA identified a number of voluntary consensus standards related to distracted driving. After careful consideration, the agency incorporated several of these standards into the test methods in the Phase 1 Guidelines: ISO International Standard 15008:2003, “Road vehicles—Ergonomic aspects of transport information and control systems—Specifications and compliance procedures for in-vehicle visual presentation”; ISO International Standard 16673:2007(E), “Road Vehicles—Ergonomic Aspects of Transport Information and Control Systems—Occlusion Method to Assess Visual Demand due to the use of In-Vehicle Systems”; and multiple versions of SAE Recommended Practice J941, “Motor Vehicle Drivers' Eye Locations,” including SAE J941 (June 1992), SAE J941 (June 1997), SAE J941 (September 2002), SAE J941 (October 2008), and SAE J941 (March 2010). Because the proposed Phase 2 Guidelines involve the use of the Phase 1 Guidelines test procedure, with several modifications, as described in
The agency requests comment on any other voluntary consensus standards appropriate for use in these Guidelines.
The purpose of the NHTSA driver distraction guidelines is to reduce the number of motor vehicle crashes and the resulting deaths and injuries that occur due to a driver being distracted from the primary driving task while performing secondary activities with a portable or aftermarket device within the vehicle.
Phase 2 extends and tailors the recommendations specified in the Phase 1 Visual-Manual NHTSA Driver Distraction Guidelines for In-Vehicle Electronic Devices (henceforth referred to as “Phase 1 Guidelines”) to cover portable and aftermarket devices. These Guidelines are presented as an aid to vehicle manufacturers, portable and aftermarket device manufacturers, developers, carriers, and application developers in designing products that discourage unsafe driver distraction resulting from use of the devices. Adherence to these guidelines is voluntary and conformance with them is not required.
These Guidelines are meant to reduce the potential distraction associated with portable and aftermarket device interfaces. A portable or aftermarket device's conformance with these Guidelines does not mean that the device is safe to use while driving. It remains the driver's responsibility to ensure the safe operation of the vehicle under all operating conditions and to comply with all traffic laws, including those that ban texting and/or the use of hand-held devices while driving.
1.
2.
These Guidelines are not applicable to:
a. The auditory-vocal portions of a portable or aftermarket device's human-machine interface.
b. A device manufactured primarily for use in one of the following:
c. A device or device function, control, and/or display specified by Federal, State, or local law or regulation.
1.
These Guidelines are also applicable to
2.
The following terms are defined in the Phase 1 Guidelines, and have the same meaning in these Guidelines:
1.
2.
3.
a. For a vehicle equipped with a transmission with a “Park” position—The vehicle's transmission is in the “Park” position.
b. For a vehicle equipped with a transmission without a “Park” position—All three of the following conditions are met:
i. The vehicle's parking brake is engaged, and
ii. The vehicle's transmission is known (via direct measurement with a sensor) or inferred (by calculating that the rotational speed of the engine divided by the rotational speed of the driven wheels does not equal, allowing for production and measurement tolerances, one of the overall gear ratios of the transmission/vehicle) to be in the neutral position, and
iii. The vehicle's speed is less than 5 mph.
4.
5.
6.
7.
1.
a. Allows user interaction;
b. Enters, sends, and/or receives information;
c. Enables communication with other people, devices, or machines;
d. Displays information in a visual and/or auditory manner; or
e. Displays graphical images, photographic images, and/or video.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Figure 2 below is a flow diagram that summarizes the overall recommendations for both portable and aftermarket devices. For the Driver Mode recommendation, the diagram depicts the preferred automatic activation with the recognition that driver distinction technology is not currently available in a product-level state. When the distinction technology matures to an implementable state, NHTSA strongly recommends that it be applied to managing the interaction of unpaired portable devices. Manual activation of Driver Mode by the driver, also depicted in Figure 2, is NHTSA's temporary recommendation until the preferred automatic activation configuration is available. For the remainder of this section, the recommendations for aftermarket and portable devices are presented separately.
Installed aftermarket devices should meet the requirements as specified for OE interfaces in the Phase 1 Guidelines.
Vehicle manufacturers and portable device manufacturers should provide the necessary mechanisms to enable pairing between the portable device and in-vehicle system. Pairing should be an easy-to-understand task that allows the driver to set up their portable device with their in-vehicle system with the fewest number of steps possible.
If the initial or subsequent pairing process between the portable device and in-vehicle system requires visual-manual interaction by the driver, the initial process of pairing should be disabled while driving.
Portable device control input means should be locked out when the portable device is paired to the in-vehicle system and Driver mode on the device is activated. The functions and applications on the portable device should be operable exclusively through the in-vehicle system's interface with the exception of accessing emergency services and messages.
In the event that emergency services are required, access through the locked out paired portable device interface should be quick and easily accessible for the driver. Along with access to emergency services, the receiving of emergency notifications and alerts as text messages should be allowable for display on the paired portable device interface. All emergency messaging and alert services should follow the standard protocol as specified by the Wireless Emergency Alerts (WEA) system which is managed by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) and the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
Portable devices should have a Driver Mode that consists of a simplified interface that is available to the driver when the device is unpaired, either because the in-vehicle system and/or portable device does not possess the capability for pairing or because the driver chooses not to pair with the in-vehicle system. However, a portable device designed primarily for use while driving and whose native interface design conforms to the Phase 1 Guidelines recommendations can be considered to essentially always be in driver mode and therefore would not warrant a separate mode for use while driving.
The Driver Mode interface should conform to the Phase 1 Guidelines for electronic devices used by the driver while driving. Specifically, while in Driver Mode, the portable device should adhere to the per se lock out tasks listed in sections V.F.1 through V.F.6 of the Phase 1 Guidelines.
Driver Mode should also lock out any
In the event that emergency services are required, access through the portable device Driver Mode interface should be quick and easily accessible for the user. Along with access to emergency services, the receiving of emergency notifications and alerts as text messages should be allowable for display on the Driver Mode interface. All emergency messaging and alert services shall follow the standard protocol as specified by the WEA system which is managed by the FCC and the FEMA.
a. Option 1—Automatic Activation. Driver mode automatically activates within a reasonable period of time when the portable device: (1) Is not paired with the in-vehicle system, and (2) by itself, or in conjunction with the vehicle in which it is being used, distinguishes that it is being used by a driver who is driving. The driver mode does not activate when the device is being used by a non-driver.
i. Development of technologies that can distinguish between a device being used by a driver and a device being used by a passenger and appropriately alter, limit, or eliminate their visual-manual interfaces when used by a driver is encouraged. In the case in which Driver Mode is automatically activated in a moving vehicle, the technology should be able to distinguish the driver-operated devices from the passenger-operated devices to a high-degree of accuracy and reliability; and be executed in a prompt manner relative to the starting motion of the driver's vehicle.
b. Option 2—Driver Activation. Driver Mode is activated by the driver before driving. If this option is used, Driver Mode should be easily accessible via the portable device's software or hardware user interface, enabling the driver to engage Driver Mode quickly and with the fewest number of steps possible.
A specific location for an unpaired portable device (
Task acceptance testing for portable devices should use the same test methods as those described in the Phase 1 Guidelines Section VI. The specific procedures for Eye Glance Measurement Using Driving Simulator Testing and Occlusion Testing are incorporated by reference, as detailed in the following subsections of the Phase 1 Guidelines Section VI:
A. Test Participant Recommendations.
B. Test Participant Training Recommendations.
C. Driving Simulator Recommendations.
D. Recommended Driving Simulator Scenario.
E. Eye Glance Measurement Using Driving Simulator Test Procedure.
F. Eye Glance Characterization.
G. Occlusion Testing.
H. Text Performance Errors During Testing.
The Acceptance Criteria detailed in the Phase 1 Guidelines for both the Simulator (Section VI.E.14) and Occlusion (Section VI.G.17) test methods are also applicable for testing portable devices.
1. Permanently Installed Aftermarket Devices. Devices that are intended to be permanently installed in the vehicle should be tested in the location prescribed by the device manufacturer, and according to the test procedures noted above. Such prescribed installation locations should conform to the guidelines specified in the following subsections from Phase 1 Guidelines Section V:
A. No Obstruction of View.
B. Easy to See and Reach.
C. Maximum Display Downward Angle.
D. Lateral Position of Visual Displays.
2. Paired Devices: Testing procedures assume the portable device is already paired to the vehicle system, as defined in Section III. Because the testing of the paired portable device will use the built-in display and controls system, the location of the paired portable device itself is not specified.
3. Unpaired Devices: Unpaired portable devices should only be tested in a mounted location using tasks that are accessed through the Driver Mode interface. NHTSA recognizes that there are substantial variations in portable device mounting hardware options and vehicle interior designs that are available to drivers. As such, unpaired portable devices should be mounted within a vehicle to the greatest extent possible to the following recommendations:
a. The mount location should conform to the recommendations specified in the Phase 1 Guidelines Section V.A through Section V.D noted above.
b. The mounting location should not result in the portable device interfering with airbag deployment zones or safe operation of the vehicle controls (
NHTSA intends to clarify the meaning of its Driver Distraction Guidelines in response to questions posed through the issuance of interpretation letters.
1. Guidelines interpretation letters will only be issued in response to specific written requests for interpretation of the NHTSA Guidelines.
2. Requests for Guidelines interpretation letters may be submitted to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. The mailing address is: Chief Counsel, NCC-200, National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590.
3. Responses will be mailed to requestors, published in the docket, and posted in a designated area on the NHTSA Web site.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Final rule.
FMCSA amends the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations to establish requirements for the Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse (Clearinghouse), a database under the Agency's administration that will contain information about violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program for the holders of commercial driver's licenses (CDLs). This rule is mandated by the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21). It will improve roadway safety by identifying commercial motor vehicle (CMV) drivers who have committed drug and alcohol violations that render them ineligible to operate a CMV.
Mr. Juan Jose Moya, Compliance Division, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, by telephone at (202) 366-4844 or via email at
The purpose of the Clearinghouse, as mandated by section 32402 of MAP-21, is to maintain records of all drug and alcohol program violations in a central repository and require that employers query the system to determine whether current and prospective employees have incurred a drug or alcohol violation that would prohibit them from performing safety-sensitive functions covered by the FMCSA and U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) drug and alcohol testing regulations. This will provide FMCSA and employers the necessary tools to identify drivers who are prohibited from operating a CMV and ensure that such drivers receive the required evaluation and treatment before resuming safety-sensitive functions. Specifically, information maintained in the Clearinghouse will ensure that drivers who commit a drug or alcohol violation while working for another employer, or who attempt to find work with another employer, do not perform safety-sensitive functions until completing the return-to-duty process. The Clearinghouse thus addresses the situation in which drivers can conceal their drug and alcohol violations merely by moving on to the next job or the next jurisdiction. As explained below, drug and alcohol violation records maintained in the Clearinghouse will “follow” the driver regardless of how many times he or she changes employers, seeks employment or applies for a CDL in a different State. The Clearinghouse will be administered and maintained in strict compliance with applicable Federal security standards. The Agency will comply with the consent requirements of the Privacy Act prior to releasing any driver's Clearinghouse record to an employer.
Employers and medical review officers (MROs), or their designated representatives, are required to report information about positive drug test results, alcohol test results greater than 0.04 blood alcohol content, refusals to test and other non-test violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol regulations. In addition, Substance Abuse Professionals (SAPs) are required to report information about drivers undergoing the return-to-duty drug and alcohol rehabilitation process. Employers must search the Clearinghouse for information during the pre-employment process for prospective employees and at least once a year for current employees to determine whether anyone has incurred a drug or alcohol violation with a different employer that would prohibit him or her from performing safety-sensitive functions.
In the Initial Regulatory Analysis, the Agency estimated the annual benefit of the proposed rule at $187 million and the annual cost at $186 million. The present value of the proposed rule was $8 million at a 7 percent discount rate. The Final Regulatory Impact Analysis estimates the annual benefit of the final rule at $196 million and the annual cost at $154 million. Net present value benefit is estimated at $316 million at a 7 percent discount rate.
The principal factor causing the reduction in costs is the analytical change necessary to account for the program change concerning the testing rate for annual random drug tests. Effective January 1, 2016, the random drug testing rate is now 25 percent of drivers employed by a carrier, as opposed to 50 percent. This change was made pursuant to 49 CFR 382.305, and is unrelated to the Clearinghouse or the final rule. The industry has only been in operation for less than a year at the lower testing rate. Therefore, no drug survey data available that indicates that the random positive drug test rate has, or will, materially diverge from the three-year average of positive test rates used to estimate the number of positive random drug tests for the forecast period. This change reduces the estimate of the number of annual random positive drug tests from 28,000 in the Initial Regulatory Impact Analysis to 10,000 in the Final Regulatory Impact Analysis. The principal effect of this change is a reduction in return-to-duty costs from the $101 million estimated in the Initial Regulatory Impact Analysis to $56 million in the Final Regulatory Impact Analysis. In addition, FMCSA estimated drivers' opportunity cost for the personal income they would forgo for the hours in which they are in substance abuse education or treatment programs. This opportunity cost is included in the estimate of total return-to-duty costs. In the Final RIA, FMCSA estimated employers' opportunity cost as the monetized value of on-duty time lost for the entire period of time drivers, with drug and alcohol violations are detected as a result of the final rule, are prohibited from performing safety-sensitive functions.
The Agency estimates about $196 million in annual benefits from crash
• $29 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare annual employer queries;
• $11 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare pre-employment queries;
• $3 million for employers to designate service agents, and $1 million for SAPs to report initiation of the return-to-duty Initial Assessment;
• $5 million incurred by various reporting entities to register with the Clearinghouse, verify authorization, and become familiar with the rule, plus an additional $700,000 for these entities to report positive tests;
• $35 million of fees and consent and verification costs consisting of $24 million in Clearinghouse access fees incurred by employers for pre-employment queries, limited annual queries and full annual queries, plus $11 million of the monetized value of drivers' time to provide consents to employers and verification to FMCSA to allow employers access to drivers' records;
• $2.2 million for development of the Clearinghouse and management of records;
• $56 million incurred by drivers to go through the return-to-duty process, including $7 million of opportunity costs in the form of income forgone for those hours spent in substance abuse education and treatment programs in lieu of hours that could be spent in non-safety-sensitive in positions; and
• $11.5 million of opportunity costs incurred by employers due to lost on-duty hours and profits associated with drivers suspended from safety-sensitive functions until successful completion of the return-duty-process.
Total net benefits of the rule are $42 million annually ($196 million-$154 million). The 10-year projection of net benefits is $316 million when discounted at 7 percent and $369 million when discounted at 3 percent. The annualized net benefit of the final rule is $42 million at the 7 percent and 3 percent discount rates. The estimated benefits include only those associated with reductions in CMV crashes.
Section 32402 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405), codified at 49 U.S.C. 31306a, directs the Secretary of Transportation (Secretary) to establish a national Clearinghouse containing CMV operators' violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program. This rule implements that mandate.
In addition, FMCSA has general authority to promulgate safety standards, including those governing drivers' use of drugs or alcohol while operating a CMV. The Motor Carrier Safety Act of 1984 (the 1984 Act), codified at 49 U.S.C. 31136(a), provides concurrent authority to regulate drivers, motor carriers, and vehicle equipment. The 1984 Act requires the Secretary to prescribe safety standards for CMVs which, at a minimum, shall ensure that: (1) CMVs are maintained, equipped, loaded, and operated safely; (2) the responsibilities imposed on CMV operators do not impair their ability to
The FMCSA Administrator has been delegated authority under 49 CFR 1.87(e) and (f) to carry out the functions vested in the Secretary by 49 U.S.C. chapter 313 and 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapters I and III, relating to CMV programs and safety regulation. This rule will implement, in part, the Agency's delegated authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(a)(1) to ensure that CMVs are “operated safely,” and, under section 31136(a)(3), to ensure that “the physical condition of operators of commercial motor vehicles is adequate to enable them to operate the vehicles safely.” The final rule does not directly address the operational responsibilities imposed on CMV drivers (section 31136(a)(2)) or possible physical effects caused by driving a CMV (section 31136(a)(4)). FMCSA prohibits employers from submitting false reports of drug or alcohol violations to the Clearinghouse, which could be used to exercise coercive influence over drivers (49 U.S.C. 31136(a)(5)). FMCSA also exercises the broad recordkeeping and implementation authority under 49 U.S.C. 31133(a)(8) and (10).
The Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, Title V, 105 Stat. 917, at 952, October 28, 1991, codified at 49 U.S.C. 31306), mandated the alcohol and controlled substances (drug) testing program for DOT. OTETA affirmed the existing regulations for drug testing and required the Secretary to promulgate regulations for alcohol testing for persons in safety-sensitive positions in four modes of transportation—motor carrier, airline, railroad, and mass transit. Those regulations, including subsequent amendments, are codified at 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs.” Part 40 establishes requirements for all DOT-regulated parties, including employers of drivers with CDLs subject to FMCSA testing requirements, for conducting drug and alcohol tests. Part 40 also defines the roles and responsibilities of service agents, including MROs, SAPs, and consortia/third party administrators (C/TPAs), who perform critical functions under DOT-wide drug and alcohol testing program requirements.
In 1994, FMCSA's predecessor agency, the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), published a final rule addressing the OTETA and amending regulations, including penalties, codified in 49 CFR part 382, “Controlled Substances and Alcohol Use and Testing.” In 2001, FMCSA revised its regulations in 49 CFR part 382 to make FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing procedures consistent with and non-duplicative of the revised regulations at 49 CFR part 40.
This rule incorporates many of the findings and recommendations contained in FMCSA's March 2004 report to Congress, which was required under section 226 of the Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999 (Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1771, December 9, 1999).
Agency regulations at 49 CFR part 382 apply to persons and employers of such persons who operate CMVs in commerce in the United States and who are subject to the CDL requirements in 49 CFR part 383 or the equivalent CDL requirements for Canadian and Mexican drivers (49 CFR 382.103(a)). Part 382 requires that employers conduct pre-employment drug testing, post-accident testing, random drug and alcohol testing, and reasonable suspicion testing, as well as return-to-duty testing and follow-up testing for those drivers who test positive or otherwise violate DOT drug and alcohol program requirements.
Motor carrier employers are prohibited from allowing an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions, which include operating a CMV, if the employee tests positive on a DOT drug or alcohol test, refuses to take a required test, or otherwise violates the DOT or FMCSA drug and alcohol testing regulations. The prohibition on performing safety-sensitive functions continues until the employee satisfies all of the requirements of the return-to-duty process prescribed in 49 CFR part 40, subpart O. Additionally, part 382 provides that an employer may not allow a covered employee to perform safety-sensitive functions when the employer has actual knowledge that a driver has engaged in on-duty or pre-duty alcohol use, used alcohol prior to post-accident testing, or used a controlled substance. An employer has “actual knowledge” of a driver's drug or alcohol use while performing safety-sensitive functions based upon the employer's direct observation of employee drug or alcohol use, an admission by the employee of drug or alcohol use, information provided by a previous employer, or if the employee receives a traffic citation for driving a CMV while under the influence of drugs or alcohol. An employer may not use a driver under these circumstances until the driver has completed the return-to-duty process prescribed in 49 CFR part 40, subpart O. Although not required to do so, the employer may, at its discretion, fire the employee without giving the opportunity to complete the return-to-duty process. FMCSA does not regulate an employer's decision to terminate or the conditions under which an employer chooses to keep a driver on after a drug or alcohol violation.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) require that a motor carrier employer obtain information from a job applicant that includes the names and addresses of the applicant's employers for the past 3 years, and whether or not the applicant was subject to the FMCSRs and to the drug and alcohol testing requirements under 49 CFR part 40 (49 CFR 391.21(b)). Interstate motor carrier employers are then required to investigate the applicant's history under the DOT drug and alcohol testing program by contacting any named DOT-regulated employers to determine whether the applicant has, within the past 3 years, violated the drug and alcohol prohibitions under part 382 or the testing requirements under part 40 (49 CFR 391.23(e)). A similar background check requirement exists in part 40.
Part 40 defines an “employee” as “any person who is designated in a DOT agency regulation as subject to drug testing and/or alcohol testing” including “applicants for employment subject to
FMCSA published the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) for the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse on April 22, 2014 (79 FR 9703). Changes to the published proposal are discussed in detail below.
The Agency received 165 comments. FMCSA's responses to those comments follow.
Canadian and Mexican motor carriers will follow the same procedures as U.S.-based motor carriers to query and report to the Clearinghouse. All Canadian and Mexican motor carriers engaged in cross-border trucking are required to obtain a USDOT number and maintain active registration. They will use those credentials to register with the Clearinghouse just as any U.S.-based carrier would. Similarly, FMCSA will enforce Clearinghouse requirements using the same tools it currently uses to enforce DOT and FMCSA drug and alcohol testing requirements against Canadian and Mexican motor carriers: Investigations, roadside inspections, and other enforcement mechanisms.
Currently, FMCSA is able to access information about Canadian CDL holders through the CDLIS pointer system. As a result, FMCSA does not anticipate having trouble accessing or accommodating Canadian information as a part of the Clearinghouse design. To the extent that issues arise that may affect the ability of Canadian carriers to comply with the requirements of this rule due to differences between Canadian and U.S. privacy laws and regulations, the Agency will work with Canadian authorities to resolve those issues. FMCSA intends to provide access to the Clearinghouse only in English, although parties will be able to enter French or Spanish words and names in the various data entry fields. Users with limited English proficiency may seek assistance with the Clearinghouse by contacting FMCSA's Office of Civil Rights at (202) 366-8810 to request a language accommodation.
FMCSA acknowledges, as one commenter noted, that § 382.501prohibits any driver from performing safety-sensitive functions, including operating CMVs that do not require a CDL, if the driver has violated part 382. We note, however, that the provision applies only to CDL holders. FHWA, in adopting § 382.501(c) in 1994, explained its intent: “. . . a driver removed from performing safety-sensitive functions because of a rule violation occurring in a 26,001 pound or greater vehicle in inter- or intrastate commerce, also is prohibited from driving a 10,001 pound or greater vehicle in interstate commerce, until complying [with return-to-duty requirements].” (59 FR 7484, 7501, February 15, 1994). Further, § 382.501(c) does not subject CDL holders operating CMVs with GVWRs between 10,001 and 26,000 pounds, or their employers, to the requirements of part 382.
FMCSA therefore concludes that, at this time, it would not be appropriate to require that motor carriers who employ individuals (either non-CDL holders or CDL holders) to operate CMVs with GVWRs between 10,001 and 26,000 pounds, to query the Clearinghouse. Such a requirement would expand the reach of this rulemaking to employers and drivers who are not required to participate in FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program. Because those parties are not subject to part 382 requirements, they did not have sufficient notice that Clearinghouse requirements could become applicable to them and, accordingly, have not had a fair opportunity to participate in this proceeding. Should FMCSA, on the basis of demonstrable need, subsequently exercise its discretion under the 1984 Act (49 U.S.C. 31136(1) and (3)) to require that these employers query the Clearinghouse, we will provide notice and an opportunity for comment.
The Agency notes, however, that. “non-CDL” employers operating in interstate commerce remain subject to the investigation and inquiry requirements of § 391.23. Employers obtaining records related to an applicant's driving and safety performance history under § 391.23(a) would, for example, be able to discern whether the applicant had voluntarily downgraded a CDL to a motor vehicle operator's license and thus have a basis on which to question the applicant concerning the reason for the downgrade. “Non-CDL” employers must also request drug and alcohol testing information from “all previous DOT regulated employers that employed the driver within the previous three years . . . in a safety-sensitive function that required alcohol and controlled substance testing specified by 49 CFR part 40” (§ 391.23(e)). Section 391.23(f) requires that prospective employers provide previous employers with the driver's written consent, as required by § 40.321(b), to allow for the release of this privacy-protected information. Use of FMCSA's Pre-employment Screening Program (PSP) will also assist motor carrier employers in finding disqualifying drug and alcohol offenses and identifying prior DOT-regulated employers. The availability of this information will enable prospective employers to determine whether applicants who are CDL holders are subject to § 382.501.
Additionally, subject to applicable State requirements, “non-CDL” employers may conduct pre-employment and/or random non-DOT drug and alcohol testing (though the results of such tests would not be reportable to the Clearinghouse, as explained below).
FMCSA, as the government agency communicating this information, is subject to disclosure requirements under section 1681a(o)(5)(C). FMCSA meets these disclosure requirements through the provisions of this final rule on driver notification and access to the Clearinghouse in 49 CFR 382.707 and 382.709. Under § 382.707, FMCSA must notify a driver when information concerning that driver has been added to, revised, or removed from the Clearinghouse. When information concerning that driver has been released from the Clearinghouse to an employer, the Agency must specify the reason for the release. Such notice will inform the driver how to access his or her information in the Clearinghouse and will comply with the disclosure requirements in section 1681a(o)(5)(C).
An employer that takes adverse action based in whole or in part on a communication from the Clearinghouse, whether that information indicates a current disqualification or a resolved violation, would be subject to the FCRA's “subsequent disclosure” requirement. This requirement provides that the employer shall disclose “a summary containing the nature and substance of the communication upon which the adverse action is based.” 15 U.S.C. 1681a(y)(2). Employers should consult with their own experts for more information on how to comply with the FCRA.
With respect to the Clearinghouse reporting to States, at this time FMCSA is considering the most efficient way to share information with the SDLAs. There is a more complete discussion below of Agency efforts to coordinate information sharing with SDLAs.
FMCSA proposed to define a positive alcohol test to make it easier to differentiate between the consequences of results showing a blood alcohol level of 0.02-0.039 and 0.04 or higher. We understand, however, that this definition could be confusing given that it would be a violation of FMCSA's rules for a driver to operate a CMV with a blood alcohol level of either 0.02 or 0.04, but that different consequences would apply. As a result, we have removed the definition of positive alcohol test from the rule along with all references to it in the regulatory text. The final rule uses the term “an alcohol confirmation test with a concentration of 0.04 or higher” in all places where “positive alcohol test result” appeared in the proposal.
Using a driver's CDL number and State of issuance to track drug and alcohol violations does not require a change to the CCF or ATF. These forms specifically permit the use of either the Social Security number or an employee identification number. Under this final rule, the person completing the form is required to use the driver's CDL number and State of issuance as the employee identification number.
Once laboratories are approved to use HHS's eCCF, the likelihood of a collection site mistakenly using an identification number other than the CDL number and State of issuance will drop significantly. But in those cases in which the CDL number and State of issuance is not entered, the parties will have an opportunity to input the correct number later in the process.
Under certain circumstances, electronic documents and signatures can be used to satisfy part 382 requirements. We note, as discussed below, that this rule permits drivers to provide electronic consent for limited queries. Consent related to full queries must be provided electronically through the Clearinghouse. The Agency's previously published guidance on electronic signatures and documents can be found at
It is important to be aware, however, that FMCSA's guidance applies only to those requirements that appear in 49 CFR parts 300-399. Except for use in the eCCF, the DOT Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance (ODAPC) has not approved the use of electronic signatures or documents to satisfy the requirements of the DOT-wide drug and alcohol regulations, which are found at 49 CFR part 40.
Further, we note that electronic documents and signatures fall within the scope of a separate NPRM that FMCSA published on April 28, 2014 (79 FR 23306), in which the Agency proposes to amend its regulations to allow the use of electronic records and signatures to satisfy its regulatory requirements. In addition, under section 5203 of the Fixing America's Surface Transportation (FAST) Act (Pub. L. 114-94, 129 Stat. 1312, Dec. 4, 2015), FMCSA is required to take certain steps in addressing the Agency's Regulatory Guidance Program. Therefore, changes to regulatory guidance regarding electronic documents and signatures may also occur under this initiative.
SAPAA and FE wanted to know whether § 382.217(d) requires employers to report actual knowledge of drug or alcohol use to the Clearinghouse when a driver voluntarily self-reports such use under § 382.121. SAPAA suggested that § 382.217 should include each violation under which a driver is not allowed to engage in a safety-sensitive function prior to complying with the return-to-duty process.
After consideration of the above comments and further review of the proposed regulatory text, we conclude that, although this purpose was expressed in the preamble, the regulatory text does not clearly convey the intended result. Accordingly, this final rule revises the regulatory text to clarify that no employer may allow a driver to operate a CMV if he or she is
Regardless, it appears that the proposed change created more confusion than clarity. As a result, the final rule clarifies that employers must maintain drug and alcohol program records, including records of all part 382 drug and alcohol violations, for a minimum of 5 years.
Congress authorized FMCSA to grant the NTSB access to an individual's Clearinghouse record “if the individual is involved in an accident that is under investigation by the National Transportation Safety Board.” 49 U.S.C. 31306a(i). Based on this statutory language, FMCSA believes that Congress intended to limit the NTSB's access to individual records to instances when that particular individual is involved in an accident under NTSB investigation. Accordingly, § 382.405 remains as proposed.
The purpose of the changes to § 382.409(c) in this final rule is to include the Clearinghouse in the category of entities to which MROs and C/TPAs may report test results. FMCSA did not intend, and did not propose, to expand the list of entities that are entitled to obtain drug test results beyond the Clearinghouse. Moreover, § 382.409(c), as proposed, is consistent with the parallel provisions authorizing the release of drug and alcohol information under the DOT-wide drug and alcohol testing program.
Further, it is unnecessary to add any language to allow for release of information to SAPs. The DOT-wide program expressly authorizes MROs to release drug-related violation information about a driver to the driver's SAP without additional consent. 49 CFR 40.163(g); 40.327(b); 40.293(g).
Finally, no statutory or regulatory authority permits the release of information to a consumer reporting agency without the driver's consent. To the contrary, such a release would be inconsistent with the fundamental privacy protections that parts 40 and 382 afford.
FMCSA proposed to require employers to conduct pre-employment and annual queries of the Clearinghouse.
Employers will be required to query the Clearinghouse and request drug and alcohol testing histories from previous employers until the Clearinghouse has been in operation for at least 3 years. After 3 years, employers subject to part 382 will no longer be required to request drug and alcohol testing histories from previous employers, except in the following situations. When an employer relies on the § 382.301(b) exception to the pre-employment testing requirement, the employer must meet all of the requirements, including verifying that the driver participated in the controlled substances testing specified in § 382.301(b)(2)(i) and (ii) and had no recorded violations of another DOT agency's controlled substances use rule within the previous 6 months.
In addition, for drivers subject to follow-up testing, an employer must request the follow-up testing plan from the previous employer if the driver's Clearinghouse record does not indicate that he/she successfully completed follow-up testing. Employers are required to obtain an employee's ongoing follow-up testing plan pursuant to § 40.25(b)(5). As discussed below, the duration of the follow-up testing and the number and type of follow-up tests prescribed by the SAP will not be reported to the Clearinghouse. Therefore employers will continue to be required to request this information directly from the previous employer. The need to request the follow-up testing plan will be apparent when the driver's Clearinghouse record indicates that he/she successfully completed the return-to-duty process, but there is no report, required under § 382.705(b)(1)(v), that the driver completed all follow-up tests as prescribed by the SAP. In cases where a driver who is subject to follow-up testing is not currently employed, the gaining employer may obtain the driver's follow-up testing plan from the SAP, whose contact information will be available in the Clearinghouse.
Finally, if a prospective employee was subject to drug and alcohol testing with a DOT mode other than FMCSA, employers must continue to request background information from those DOT-regulated employers, who are not subject to the Clearinghouse reporting requirements. The Clearinghouse therefore will not contain any non-FMCSA drug and alcohol information. FMCSA revised §§ 382.413 and 391.23 to implement these changes. These revisions will make clear that an employer that queries the Clearinghouse has satisfied the background investigation requirements of § 40.25(b), subject to the exceptions described above.
Employers may conduct more frequent queries so long as they obtain employee consent in accordance with § 382.703. FMCSA envisions that employers would obtain one general consent to conduct a limited query (or queries) from drivers at the time they are hired. Employers should ensure that the general consent to query does not restrict them to one query per year if they intend to conduct limited queries on a more frequent basis.
FMCSA proposed that employers may not query the Clearinghouse without the affected driver's consent.
FMCSA will not, however, compel employers to include detailed information about the Clearinghouse or an individual's rights on the consent form.
The Agency intends that consent for full queries will be managed electronically through the Clearinghouse. FMCSA envisions that an employer will make an electronic request for records through the Clearinghouse and, once FMCSA receives electronic confirmation of consent from the driver, records, if they exist, would be released to the requesting employer. Employers would not be required to obtain or keep any other written forms of consent for full queries. The Clearinghouse will provide notice to the driver each time his or her information is released in connection with a full query. In addition, a driver will be given the option to receive electronic notification each time someone conducts a limited query on that driver. The driver will be given the opportunity to provide electronic contact information when he or she registers with the Clearinghouse.
FMCSA proposed to require employers, MROs, and SAPs to report information about violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program to the Clearinghouse. Section 382.705 identified and assigned responsibility for these reporting requirements.
To clarify that MROs and employers have mutually exclusive reporting requirements, this final rule distinguishes between those paragraphs of 49 CFR 40.191 that implicate MRO reporting and those that implicate employer reporting. The final rule now states that employers are required to report refusals to take drug tests pursuant to § 40.191(a)(1)-(4), (a)(6), (a)(8)-(10), or (d)(1) and to report situations in which the employee admits to the collector that he or she adulterated or substituted the specimen in accordance with § 40.191(a)(11). MROs, on the other hand, are required to report refusals that are determined pursuant to § 40.191(a)(5), (a)(7), (b), and (d)(2). MROs are also required to report refusals when the employee admits to the MRO that he or she adulterated or substituted the specimen in accordance with § 40.191(a)(11).
Additionally, we note that MROs and employers do not have overlapping reporting responsibilities related to positive test results. Consequently, duplicate reporting, in which the same test result is reported to the Clearinghouse by different sources, will not occur. However, to the extent that duplicate test results are inadvertently reported to the Clearinghouse by the same source as a result of administrative error, drivers may request that duplicate reports be removed through the data correction procedures established under § 382.717.
Nothing in the final rule prohibits an MRO or SAP from allowing authorized staff to enter information into the Clearinghouse. The MRO or SAP remains responsible, however, for the accuracy of any information entered by staff on their behalf.
The rule does not require SDLAs to report DUI citations to the Clearinghouse. FMCSA believes that some of the commenters misunderstood the requirement to report that an individual was cited for a DUI while driving a CMV. The rule proposed that it would be the employer's responsibility to report a violation of §§ 382.205, 382.207, or 382.213 that is based on the employer's actual knowledge of a citation for DUI while driving a CMV. The Clearinghouse was never intended to be a repository for all citations for DUI while driving a CMV. In accordance with § 382.107, it will only contain those citations that an employer uses to substantiate actual knowledge that an employee violated FMCSA's drug and alcohol program.
In this final rule, FMCSA will require employers to report and substantiate all violations of § 382.205, § 382.207, or § 382.213 based on the employer's actual knowledge of the circumstances. We discuss these provisions in more detail below.
In addition, this final rule mandates that any owner-operator, regardless of whether he or she operates solo or has other driver-employees, must use a C/TPA to comply with the employer reporting requirements established in this rule. FMCSA implements this requirement in response to commenters' concerns about the conflict of interest owner-operators have in self-reporting their own drug and alcohol violations. The Agency does not believe that this will cause any increased costs or burdens on owner-operators. In the case of owner-operators who employ only themselves, they are already required to participate in a testing pool managed by a C/TPA.
FMCSA does not believe that reporting aftercare information is appropriate at this time. The purpose of the Clearinghouse is to be a tool for employers to use to determine whether an employee or prospective employee is prohibited from performing a safety-sensitive function. While the details of aftercare are relevant to the driver's return-to-duty process, they do not, in and of themselves, indicate whether a driver is prohibited from driving.
There is no comparable reporting period in part 40 for employers or SAPs, however. FMCSA appreciates the commenters' concerns about the short period of time required for reporting, but must also balance this requirement against the public safety interest in timely reporting and the driver's interest in returning to work as soon as he or she is eligible. Accordingly, this final rule requires SAPs to complete their reporting requirements by the close of
For employers, the reporting period has been extended to the end of the third business day following the event triggering the violation. This change was made to reflect the fact that, in the case of a violation substantiated by an employer's actual knowledge of drug or alcohol use, or in the case of an employer's report of a driver's failure to appear for a test, new reporting requirements apply. The final rule affords more time for employers to report violations because employers are now required to generate or gather documents in order to substantiate these types of reports. These reporting requirements are discussed in further detail below. In order to maintain a uniform reporting period applicable to employer reports, the reporting period in this rule applies to all reports made by employers, not just those requiring additional documentation.
We also note these reporting periods establish the maximum amount of time in which MROs, SAPs and employers can submit their reports to the Clearinghouse. Nothing in this rule prohibits the submission of reports at an earlier point within the reporting window.
C/TPAs who report information to the Clearinghouse stand in the shoes of the employer, when they are designated to take on that responsibility. Accordingly, any time frame applicable to an employer is equally applicable to the C/TPA acting on the employer's behalf.
Several commenters supported the proposal and said that reports to the Clearinghouse should not be based on undocumented information that could be used to coerce drivers. One of these commenters, OOIDA, said that employers should order a reasonable suspicion test when they have actual knowledge of a violation, but opposed permitting “unverified” actual knowledge violations to be reported to the Clearinghouse.
One commenter stated that no DUI information should be available.
Any violation based on an employer's actual knowledge of a driver's drug or alcohol use requires detailed, contemporaneous documentation in the Clearinghouse. Employers are required to report the details of the violation and upload evidence documenting the violation by the end of the third business day following the triggering event. Employers must report the date of the violation, a detailed description of the event, including the approximate time the violation occurred, and the names and contact information for any corroborating witness. Employers must also provide evidence to support each fact alleged in its description of the violation. In the absence of any tangible written, video, or audio evidence, the employer must attest to each fact alleged in an affidavit. Finally, the employer must verify that it provided all of the evidence supporting the violation to the employee.
The Agency intends, during the implementation phase, to build technology into the Clearinghouse that allows an employer to report an actual knowledge violation
Reporting an actual knowledge violation to the Clearinghouse will have the effect of prohibiting a driver from engaging in his or her occupation; however, it typically is not accompanied by the type of paperwork or documentation that accompanies a test result. Given the severity of the consequences for the employee, we do not believe that an employer should be able to report an actual knowledge violation without evidence substantiating each allegation. Accordingly, these requirements create objective standards for documenting actual knowledge violations and hold employers accountable for what they report to the Clearinghouse.
In addition, as a part of the system design and implementation process, FMCSA intends to build functionality into the Clearinghouse that requires the person submitting information to state that it is true and correct and that will warn the user that the submission of false or misleading information is subject to civil and criminal penalties under § 382.507. These requirements are implemented to address concerns about coercion and harassment. They are designed to ensure that no employer reports any violation based on actual knowledge without providing evidence to support the violation. Moreover, no employer will be able to report any violation based on actual knowledge after the window for reporting has closed, eliminating the possibility for after-the-fact harassment or coercion.
Although a full query will alert an employer or prospective employer when a driver has a prohibition based on an employer's actual knowledge, the Clearinghouse will not release the details of that violation to anyone other than the driver. The circumstances of the violation have no bearing on whether the employee is eligible to perform safety-sensitive functions. All that is relevant is whether the driver is prohibited from performing safety-sensitive functions.
The Agency believes that this reporting requirement does not impose an additional cost burden on employers because a prudent employer would compile such documentation to support the termination or transfer of an employee to a non-safety-sensitive function, pending the driver's completion of the return-to-duty process.
Accordingly, we are adding new documentation requirements related to the reporting, by an employer, or a C/TPA acting as the employer's service agent, of a driver's failure to appear for an alcohol or drug test. Under 49 CFR 40.261(a)(1) and 49 CFR 40.191(a)(1), failure to appear at a testing site after being directed to do so by an employer constitutes a refusal. In submitting such reports to the Clearinghouse under § 382.705(b)(3), an employer must provide documentation, such as a contemporaneous record or an affidavit, of the time and date that the driver was notified to appear at a testing site, as well as the time and date the driver was directed to appear; documentation, such as electronic mail or an affidavit, of the date the employee was terminated or resigned (
The NPRM proposed, under § 382.705(b)(1), that employers report test refusals to the Clearinghouse by the close of the business day following the date on which they obtained the information. In recognition of the fact that additional time may be needed to comply with these new documentation requirements for “failure to appear” refusals, in this rule we extend the reporting period for all test refusals to the close of the third business day following the date on which the violation information was obtained. Further, we note that the 3-year implementation period for this rule will afford employers ample opportunity to make any necessary adjustments to their record keeping systems in order to comply with these requirements.
Similar to the reporting requirements for actual knowledge violations, FMCSA intends that the Clearinghouse functionality will allow “failure to appear” refusals to be reported only if the employer certifies that the report contains the required documentation, as described above, and a copy of the documentation has been provided to the employee. As noted above, FMCSA also intends that the Clearinghouse functionality will require the person submitting information to state that it is true and correct and will warn the user that the submission of false or misleading information is subject to civil and criminal penalties under § 382.507. These requirements are implemented to address concerns about coercion and harassment.
Finally, in the event that an employer falsely certifies either that the required documentation has been provided, or that the employee has received a copy of the documentation, the employee may request that FMCSA remove the report from the Clearinghouse pursuant to new § 382.717(a)(2)(iii).
FMCSA proposed that each employer and designated service agent register with the Clearinghouse before accessing or reporting information to the Clearinghouse.
Several commenters asked whether an MRO working for several different organizations would need multiple registrations and whether different MROs working for one organization would need individual registrations. Finally, Driver IQ/CARCO suggested that employers and service agents should not have to verify their designated employees on an annual basis.
To register with the Clearinghouse, MROs and SAPs must upload documentation showing that they are qualified, in accordance with the requirements of 49 CFR 40.121 and 40.281, to act as an MRO or SAP. The type of documentation will vary depending on the individual MRO or SAP's professional qualifications. FMCSA does not consider this process to be time consuming. Under current rules, MROs and SAPs are otherwise required to maintain this documentation and provide it upon request to DOT agency representatives. (
An MRO's registration will be personal to that individual and will depend on his or her credentials and other qualifications. Accordingly, each MRO must have his or her own personal registration regardless of the type of organization with which he or she is affiliated.
FMCSA did not make any changes to the requirement that employers annually verify the identity of employees who are authorized to access the Clearinghouse on their employer's behalf. All employers are obligated to keep their verifications updated, but in the event that an employer fails to do so, the annual verification procedure will ensure that unauthorized employees do not retain access to the Clearinghouse indefinitely.
In this final rule, FMCSA retains the right to revoke Clearinghouse registration for anyone who fails to comply with the applicable rules. However, an employer that had its registration revoked for failure to comply with the Clearinghouse rules would nonetheless have to ensure that its employees were not subject to prohibitions related to drug or alcohol violations. We anticipate that, in order to query or report violations, such employers would need to contact FMCSA's drug and alcohol program directly, so that program staff could conduct queries or enter violations into the Clearinghouse in a timely manner. The Agency recognizes that these alternative means of querying and reporting are not nearly as efficient as using the Clearinghouse directly and expects that revocation of an employer's access would occur only when an employer has egregiously violated the Clearinghouse's rules of use.
During the implementation phase, we will continue to explore more efficient means of querying and reporting for employers whose access has been revoked. We expect, however, that the civil and criminal penalties associated with an employer's failure to lawfully use the Clearinghouse (§§ 382.723(c) and 382.727) will provide, in most instances, an adequate deterrent to its misuse.
FMCSA's regulations governing patterns or practices of safety violations by motor carrier management are specifically limited to violations of safety regulations arising under 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapter III. Authority for the Clearinghouse arises under 49 U.S.C. 31306a, which does not fall within chapter 311, subchapter III. Accordingly, instances of non-compliance with this final rule will not be considered for the purposes of establishing a pattern or practice of safety violations under part 385, subpart K.
FMCSA proposed administrative procedures for correcting errors in a driver's Clearinghouse record.
The Agency also removed the proposed requirement in § 382.717(a) that petitions for review be submitted within 18 months of the date the allegedly erroneous information was reported to the Clearinghouse. Upon further consideration, we determined that drivers should have the option to request that inaccurate information be corrected for as long as the allegedly erroneous record is retained in the Clearinghouse. Finally, as further discussed below, FMCSA reduced the time in which it will resolve petitions for administrative review and notify the driver of its decision from 90 days, as proposed, to 45 days following the Agency's receipt of a complete petition. We also reduced the time in which we will complete an administrative review under § 382.717(f) from 60 days, as proposed, to 30 days.
Where an employer has reported a citation for DUI in a CMV to the Clearinghouse and that citation did not result in a conviction, the driver is responsible for submitting a request for removal under § 382.717(a)(2)(i).
With respect to removing erroneous information, all procedures in part 40 continue to apply to the processing of drug and alcohol tests. A positive test that is reported but subsequently cancelled would not be a prohibition on driving and therefore would be removed from the Clearinghouse. If a positive test is incorrectly associated with a particular driver, regardless of whether the error results from identity theft, mistake, or administrative error, the affected driver would submit a petition under § 382.717 to correct the erroneously reported information. Additional remedies related to the correction or removal of violation reports submitted to the Clearinghouse are discussed below.
As discussed above, information disseminated through the Clearinghouse is considered “excluded” communications for the purposes of the FCRA. Accordingly, no FCRA procedures are necessary.
Section 382.717 does, however, contain data correction procedures to ensure accuracy in reporting. For example, a driver may use the procedures set forth in this rule to challenge an incorrect name or CDL number, or to remove duplicate test results (that is, a single test result reported more than once to the Clearinghouse), but may not challenge the outcome of a test. To make it clearer that the procedures in § 382.717 pertain primarily to the correction of data that is erroneously reported in the Clearinghouse record (except as otherwise provided in § 382.717(a)(2)) and not for substantive challenges to drug and alcohol violation determinations, we re-designated paragraph (c) as paragraph (a) in this section. FMCSA will consider each correction request on a case-by-case basis and assess the validity of information presented in determining whether correction is warranted.
FMCSA notes the importance of the difference between a citation for DUI in a CMV and a conviction. Although a driver must immediately discontinue safety-sensitive functions after being cited for a DUI in a CMV, he or she may resume safety-sensitive functions without completing the return-to-duty process if that citation does not result in a conviction. Prohibiting a driver from performing safety-sensitive functions when a citation does not result in a conviction contravenes fundamental principles of fairness. Using the expedited procedures in § 382.717, the driver is responsible for requesting that FMCSA remove from the Clearinghouse an employer's report related to a citation that did not result in a conviction.
Moreover, it would not be in the interest of safety to withhold violation reports during the review period. FMCSA believes that to do so would encourage drivers to file frivolous or baseless challenges to accurate reports solely for the purpose of extending their ability to continue performing safety-sensitive functions. Adopting the commenter's suggestion would thus delay necessary rehabilitation and keep drug and alcohol abusers on the road. Neither of these outcomes serves the best interests of the driver or the motoring public.
On the other hand, a number of individual commenters were in favor of a 3-year term. Yet others were in favor of removing information as soon as the driver completed the return-to-duty process. Some commenters suggested that information be retained for 3 years from the driver's completion of the return-to-duty process. Another commenter suggested that information be made available for at least 5 years after the driver's return-to-duty date.
The basis for a 3-year retention period was 49 U.S.C. 31306a(f)(3), which requires prospective employers to use the Clearinghouse to determine whether any employment prohibitions exist on new hires and prohibits employers from hiring anyone to drive a CMV if that person has had a drug or alcohol violation during the preceding 3 years. This requirement mirrors current FMCSA regulations that also direct employers to investigate prospective hires' compliance with DOT drug and alcohol programs during the preceding 3 years. (
Moreover, nothing in either FMCSA's existing regulations or section 31306a(f)(3) prohibits employers from requesting or obtaining drug and alcohol compliance histories going back more than 3 years. In FMCSA's judgment, the 3-year pre-employment look—back is intended to be the regulatory (and now statutory)
The basis for the 5-year retention period is section 31306a(g)(6), titled “retention of records,” which directs the Agency to hold records of driver violations in the Clearinghouse for 5 years, except where a driver has failed to complete the return-to-duty process. Assuming a driver completes the return-to-duty process within 5 years, the statute directs the Agency to archive the records in a separate location. We interpret this section to require the Agency to make all records of driver violations available to authorized employers for 5 years or until the driver completes the return-to-duty process, whichever is longer. After that, the Agency must move them to the archives.
There are fundamental differences between the 3-year and 5-year look—back provisions in section 31306a that direct us to require a 5-year retention period in this final rule. For example, while the 3-year look back in section 31306a(f)(3) focuses on the scope of an
Comparing the text of sections 31306a(f)(3) and (g)(6) provides additional support for this interpretation. Section 31306a(f)(3) provides no recordkeeping guidance at all; it does not address what happens if a prospective hire has an unresolved drug or alcohol violation dating back more than 3 years, or what should happen to the records after the time for release has expired. Nor does it make any mention of the look-back period for annual queries; it is focused exclusively on how an employer should conduct a pre-employment background investigation. Section 31306a(g)(6), on the other hand, addresses all of these other contingencies and is, in fact, titled “retention of records.” Based on all of the considerations discussed above, we interpret MAP-21 to mandate a 5-year record retention period.
But, even in the face of statutory ambiguity, we believe that safety interests dictate that the 5-year retention period is appropriate. Overwhelmingly, employers who submitted comments to the docket requested that they have access to 5 years' worth of drug and alcohol compliance histories so that they could make informed decisions about the risk they assume when they hire drivers. Moreover, FMCSA believes the fact that a driver's compliance history will follow him or her for a minimum of 5 years will act as a significant deterrent to illegal drug and alcohol use. As we continue to raise the severity of the consequences for unsafe conduct behind the wheel, drivers who wish to be productive participants in the industry should modify their behavior accordingly.
FMCSA will contract with a third-party to operate and maintain the Clearinghouse. Accordingly, Clearinghouse user fees will be determined through that competitive bidding process. One of the criteria for selecting a contractor to design and operate the Clearinghouse will be the ability to provide reliable, accurate, and cost-effective service to stakeholders. In its request for proposal FMCSA will require batch processing of data, subscription fees and pre-population of recurring data. This should minimize transaction costs relative to the time per test, per driver and per entity costing methodology used to estimate the costs of queries.
The Regulatory Impact Analysis (RIA) acknowledges that annual queries to the Clearinghouse impose costs on employers not present under the current regulations. The annual query is a statutory requirement pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 31306a(f)(4). The RIA demonstrates that the rule produces net benefits based on a conservative estimate of the incremental cost of annual queries calculated on a per transaction basis (
The information in the Clearinghouse may have a direct impact on the ability of the individual to hold or obtain a CDL. If information available to an SDLA shows that a CDL applicant is not qualified to operate a CMV, that driver should not be issued a CDL. FMCSA will provide more detailed guidance on this subject in conjunction with its implementation of SDLA access to the Clearinghouse.
At this time, FMCSA will not pursue agreements with law enforcement agencies to obtain information on DUI convictions. That information is currently available from other sources and need not be duplicated in the Clearinghouse. Further, because the Clearinghouse is limited to drug and alcohol violations under parts 40 and 382, inclusion of other disqualifying
Finally, Canadian and Mexican licensing agencies will not have access to the Clearinghouse because Congress authorized access for only the SDLAs in the 50 States and the District of Columbia (49 U.S.C. 31306a(h)(2)). However, in accordance with its authority under section 31306a(b)(5), FMCSA intends to explore alternative ways in which information about drug and alcohol violations for CMV drivers licensed in Canada and Mexico can be made available to their respective licensing authorities and to U.S. law enforcement, including using the Foreign Convictions and Withdrawal Database under § 384.209(a)(2).
Motor carriers will benefit from this rule in a variety of ways. For example, the Clearinghouse will automate the pre-employment drug and alcohol background investigation process, which will save motor carriers time and conserve resources. In addition, closing the loopholes that allow job-hoppers to evade the consequences of drug and alcohol violations will increase employers' confidence in the pre-employment screening process, allowing them to more easily identify drivers who are not eligible to drive. While these are not the only benefits that will accrue to employers, they are some of the more tangible immediate benefits that will offset the costs of compliance.
FMCSA relies on the statistics it publishes to determine the number of drivers affected by this rule.
In addition, we believe that the appropriate wage rates were used for developing query and test reporting transaction costs. The wage rate used to calculate the cost incurred by SAPs to report to the Clearinghouse results of return-to-duty progress is the BLS estimate of the hourly wage for Occupational and Safety Workers. The BLS hourly wage for heavy truck drivers was used to estimate driver consent costs. These rates are directly applicable to the individuals responsible for performing these tasks. The remaining cost estimates for registration, familiarization with the rule, pre-employment queries, designation of C/TPAs, and reporting of test results are based on the BLS wage rate for Bookkeeping, Accounting and Audit Clerks.
The Agency has no information indicating that administrative functions performed by employees of C/TPAs, MROs, SAPs, and other service agents require a higher level sensitivity for personal information. Medical service and health care providers performing similar functions in other industries
Finally, the hourly wage rate and fringe benefits rate do not result in double counting of employment costs. Fringe benefits include paid leave, supplemental pay, insurance (health and life), retirement and savings, and legally required benefits (
This final rule makes the following changes to the NPRM in response to comments.
In § 382.107, we removed the proposed definition of “positive alcohol test.” We eliminated proposed § 382.404, which would have required laboratories to report summary statistics on drug tests. As a result of that change, we will not collect employers' USDOT Numbers on the ATF and CCF and, accordingly, removed those proposed requirements from § 382.123. Section 382.705 now requires that employers report all violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program that are identified in part 382, subpart B, including violations based on any type of actual knowledge. We updated the text in other sections of the final rule to reflect these changes.
In § 382.413, we extended the drug and alcohol background investigation requirement to cover the previous 3 years, consistent with the requirement in § 391.23. In both §§ 382.413 and 391.23, we added provisions that require employers to query the Clearinghouse in lieu of conducting the background investigations required under §§ 40.25 and 391.23, as the query satisfies these requirements for employers subject to § 382.701(a), with specified exceptions. We added language to § 382.415 to make it clear that a driver need not report a violation to the employer that administered the test.
In § 382.701(a) and (b), we added language to make it more clear which type of query, full or limited, an employer is required to conduct, as well as a clearer explanation of the difference between full and limited queries. In paragraph (c) of that section we extended the employer notification period from 7 to 30 days after a Clearinghouse query. In paragraph (e), we clarified that, 3 years after the compliance date of this final rule, an employer who maintains a valid registration on the Clearinghouse system meets the recordkeeping requirement.
In § 382.705(a), we changed an MRO's reporting period to 2 business days. In paragraph (b), we changed the employer's reporting period to the close of the third business day. We added language distinguishing between the types of refusals employers and MROs must report. We also added the requirement that employers report all drug and alcohol violations based on an employer's actual knowledge and established evidentiary requirements for those reports. New paragraph (b)(3) identifies documentation requirements for the reporting of “failure to appear” test refusals. New paragraph (b)(6) requires owner-operators who employ themselves as drivers to designate a C/TPA to comply with all employer related reporting requirements with respect to the individual's drug and alcohol use. We provided new language for paragraph (c) that makes clear that C/TPAs are subject to the reporting requirements of the employers on whose behalf they report. Paragraph (c) also makes clear that the employer remains responsible for compliance regardless of whether it uses a C/TPA. We simplified the language in the introductory paragraph of paragraph (d) and amended paragraph (d)(2) to make clear that a SAP has until the close of the following business day to report his or her required information to the Clearinghouse. In paragraph (e), we expanded the responsibility for reporting information to the Clearinghouse truthfully and accurately by prohibiting anyone from reporting information he or she should know is false or inaccurate.
In § 382.711(b), we added the requirement that an employer update its service agent designation within 10 days of making a change. In paragraph (d), we extended the rules governing C/TPA registration to all service agents. We updated the text throughout the final rule to conform to this change.
In § 382.715, we updated the language to make clear that an employer must authorize a C/TPA or other service agent before they can enter any information into the Clearinghouse on the employer's behalf. In response to comments, FMCSA added paragraph (b) to make clear that it is the employee, not the employer, who designates a SAP to enter information about the employee.
We made changes to the procedures in § 382.717 for correcting information in the Clearinghouse. Any request for correction must be addressed to FMCSA's Drug and Alcohol Program Manager and must include the words “Administrative Review of Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse Decision.” We shortened FMCSA's period for expedited treatment of a request for data correction from 30 days to 14 days and added a provision that requires the Agency to notify employers that previously accessed information was subsequently corrected or removed. We re-ordered the paragraphs, so that paragraph (a) clearly states that this section may only be used for data correction, with three exceptions related to a DUI citation that did not result in a conviction and reporting violations based on an employer's actual knowledge and a driver's refusal to appear for a test.
In § 382.725, we clarified that an SDLA's access to the Clearinghouse is solely for the purpose of determining whether the driver is qualified to operate a CMV. Finally, we amended part 383 to implement the statutory
In § 383.73, we made changes to reflect the new requirement that SDLAs check the Clearinghouse before issuing, renewing, transferring or upgrading a CDL.
In § 391.23, we made changes to require employers subject to § 382.701(a) to use the Clearinghouse to conduct drug and alcohol background investigations.
FMCSA amends parts 382, 383, 384, and 391 in the following ways.
In § 382.103, “Applicability,” this final rule makes clear that the requirements of part 382 apply to service agents; otherwise this section remains as proposed.
In § 382.107, this final rule includes definitions of “Clearinghouse” and “Negative return-to-duty test,” which remain as proposed. “Clearinghouse” means the database implemented by this final rule that contains records of drug and alcohol program violations. A “negative return-to-duty test” is a negative drug test or an alcohol test showing an alcohol concentration of less than 0.02.
In response to comments, FMCSA removed the definition of “positive alcohol test” for the reasons explained in this final rule's response to comments.
The Agency proposed to amend this section to require anyone filling out an ATF or CCF to record the employee's CDL number and State of issuance on the form. That requirement remains as proposed. FMCSA also proposed to require that the person filling out the form record the USDOT Number or EIN of the employer requesting the test. FMCSA requested that information so that laboratories could produce annual reports summarizing drug testing activity for specific employers. As discussed in the response to comments on this matter, the Agency eliminated the annual summary requirement. Without the annual summary requirement, it is not necessary to record USDOT Numbers or EINs on the ATF or CCF.
FMCSA proposed a new § 382.217 that would prohibit an employer from allowing a driver to operate a CMV if the Clearinghouse has a record that shows that the driver has not successfully completed the return-to-duty process required by 49 CFR 40.305. The core function of this section remains as proposed, with several changes to conform to updates in other sections of the rule. The first change removes reference to a “positive alcohol test” and replaces it with the specific alcohol test result that constitutes a violation (0.04 BAC or higher). The remaining several changes update § 382.217 to prohibit an employer from allowing a driver to operate a CMV if the Clearinghouse shows any violation of part 382, subpart B, including violations based on actual knowledge of drug or alcohol use. This conforms to changes in § 382.701, discussed in the relevant response to comments section of this rule.
Section 382.401, as proposed, was intended to require employers to keep records of all reportable drug and alcohol violations for a minimum of 5 years. As discussed in the response to comments on this issue, the proposed changes caused some confusion. Accordingly, this final rule makes clear that employers are required to keep records of all employee drug and alcohol violations for a minimum of 5 years.
The changes to § 382.405 remain as proposed. Section 382.405(d) requires service agents who maintain records for an employer to make copies of all DOT drug and alcohol test results available to the Secretary, any DOT agency, or any State or local officials with regulatory authority over the employer. Paragraph (e) authorizes FMCSA to provide the NTSB access to a CDL driver's records in the Clearinghouse when that driver is involved in a crash under investigation by the NTSB and requires employers to disclose information related to the administration of post-accident testing following the crash under investigation.
The changes to § 382.409 remain as proposed. The changes add the Clearinghouse to the list of entities to which an MRO or C/TPA is authorized to release a driver's drug test results. They also amend the title of § 382.409 to add the words “or consortium/third party administrator” so that it reads “Medical review officer or consortium/third party administrator record retention for controlled substances” to reflect more accurately the contents of the section.
In response to comments, this final rule includes changes to § 382.413. That section previously required employers to request drug and alcohol testing information from an employee's employers during the preceding 2 years. First, we changed the scope of § 382.413 to cover drug and alcohol testing information during the preceding 3 years. This change reconciles § 382.413 with § 391.23(e), which currently requires employers to gather information going back 3 years. Second, § 382.413 now provides that an employer who queries the Clearinghouse does not have to make an additional request to previous FMCSA-regulated employers for this information once the Clearinghouse has been in effect for 3 years. In other words, querying the Clearinghouse will satisfy the § 382.413 background investigation requirement—but only with respect to FMCSA-regulated employers. Employers must continue to request information from previous employers if the employee was subject to drug and alcohol testing under an employer regulated by one of the other DOT modes.
For example, an FMCSA-regulated employer would have to request drug and alcohol information about employees who were subject to testing under Federal Railroad Administration, Federal Aviation Administration, or other modes' regulations. If an employee violates the drug or alcohol testing program with an employer regulated by another mode, that person may not perform safety-sensitive functions for motor carrier employers until he or she successfully complies with the part 40 return-to-duty process. Because records of violations with non-FMCSA-regulated employers will not be reported to the Clearinghouse, employers must continue to request those records directly from the previous employers.
In addition, we added an exception pertaining to drivers who are subject to follow-up testing who have not completed their follow-up testing plan. In such cases, the gaining employer is required to request that information from the previous employer since the number, type, and duration of follow-up tests will not be reported to the Clearinghouse.
Section 382.415 remains largely as proposed. That section requires an employee to notify all current employers when he or she violates the drug and alcohol rules in part 382. FMCSA intends that employees notify all current employers, aside from the employer that administered the test. The purpose of this section is to place an obligation on an employee with multiple employers to notify all other employers when he or she has a drug or alcohol violation with one of them. As discussed above, there was some confusion about how this section should work. Accordingly, the Agency amended the proposal to make clear that the employee need not notify the employer that ordered the test or documented the violation.
Section 382.601 remains largely as proposed. That section requires an employer to promulgate a policy on the misuse of drugs and alcohol and to provide educational materials on the subject to its new and current employees. This rule requires that materials required under this section put employees on notice that information on drug and alcohol violations will be reported to the Clearinghouse. FMCSA made several changes to the proposal to conform to other changes in this final rule. The first change removes reference to a “positive alcohol test” and replaces it with the specific result that constitutes a violation (0.04 BAC or higher). The remaining changes update the type of violations reportable to the Clearinghouse to include all violations in part 382, subpart B, including those based on actual knowledge of drug or alcohol use.
This section sets out the basic requirements for querying the Clearinghouse. Paragraph (a) requires employers to conduct a pre-employment query on all prospective drivers to determine if they have drug or alcohol program violations. We made two organizational changes to paragraph (a). First, we added a paragraph title, “Pre-employment query required” to alert the reader to the subject of the paragraph. Second, to provide better organization for the reader, we separated paragraph (a) into two subparagraphs. In paragraph (a)(1), we establish the employer's requirement to conduct a pre-employment query and identify the different types of drug and alcohol violations that will be searched in the query. We updated the language in that paragraph to remove reference to a positive alcohol test, as discussed above. Also as discussed above, we updated the language in this section to include all of the prohibitions in part 382, subpart B, that constitute violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol program, including all violations based on an employer's actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107.
In paragraph (a)(2), we added new language to state explicitly that an employer must have a prospective employee's specific consent for a full release of information before it can conduct a pre-employment query. We refer to this type of query as a full query, meaning that the consent obtained grants the employer access to information about that driver. This is distinguished from a limited query, described in § 382.701(b)(2), which tells the employer whether there is any information in the Clearinghouse about that driver, but does not provide access to the information without further consent.
For paragraph (b), we added a title, “Annual query required,” and separated the paragraph into three subparagraphs for organizational reasons. Paragraph (b)(1) requires employers to conduct a Clearinghouse query for all employees at least once a year to find out whether there is any information in the Clearinghouse about those employees. Paragraph (b)(2) explains that an employer may, but is not required, to conduct a full query. The employer may choose, instead, to conduct a limited query, which alerts the employer to whether information exists in the Clearinghouse about a particular employee, but does not release the substance of the information without additional specific consent from the employee. Paragraph (b)(3) tells the employer that if it conducts a limited query and the Clearinghouse reports back that it contains information about a particular employee, the employer must conduct a full query within 24 hours to determine whether that information shows that the employee is prohibited from performing safety-sensitive functions. Once 24 hours pass, the employer may not allow the employee to perform safety-sensitive functions until it has completed the full query and the results show that the driver does not have any violations prohibiting him or her from performing safety-sensitive functions. We added language making this last point more clear.
As proposed, paragraph (c) provided that the Clearinghouse would notify employers if new information appeared in the Clearinghouse within 7 days of conducting a query. We include two changes to this paragraph in this final rule. First, similar to changes made to paragraphs (a) and (b), FMCSA added the following title for organizational purposes: “Employer notification.” Second, as discussed in the response to comments on this matter, FMCSA extended the new information notification period to 30 days.
Paragraph (d) prohibits an employer from allowing an employee to drive if its Clearinghouse query shows that the employee has committed one of the part 382, subpart B, drug and alcohol violations without completing the return-to-duty process. We made two changes to this paragraph as a part of this final rule. First, like changes we made in the preceding paragraphs, we added a title for organizational purposes: “Prohibition.” Second, we updated the language in this section to include all of the prohibitions in part 382, subpart B, that constitute violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol program, including those based on an employer's actual knowledge.
Paragraph (e) remains substantively as proposed. It requires employers to maintain records of all Clearinghouse queries. FMCSA amended this section to clarify that the employer can maintain those records on the Clearinghouse system so long as its Clearinghouse registration is valid. Regardless, nothing prohibits an employer from maintaining the records as a part of its own recordkeeping system. FMCSA made only one change to proposed paragraph (e): It now includes a title, “Recordkeeping required,” for organizational purposes.
Section 382.703 remains largely as proposed. This section provides that no employer may obtain information about an individual from the Clearinghouse without that individual's express consent. It also provides that an employee cannot perform safety-sensitive functions if he or she refuses to give this consent. We updated the language in this section to make clear that the employee grants consent for the employer to view information about all of the driver's part 382, subpart B drug and alcohol violations, including those based on the employer's actual knowledge, as well as return-to-duty information. We also make clear, in new paragraph (d), that the driver must provide electronic consent to FMCSA before the Agency releases
Section 382.705 describes who is responsible for reporting information to the Clearinghouse. This paragraph contains several key changes and additions. Paragraph (a) lays out MRO reporting responsibilities, which include reporting verified positive, adulterated, or substituted test results and those results the MRO determines to be a refusal. This paragraph explains what information the MRO will report, including information identifying the driver and test results. The MRO is required to report this information within 2 business days of reaching a determination. But if the MRO subsequently makes a change to its determination, it must report that change by the close of the next business day.
In response to comments, the Agency changed the initial MRO reporting period from 1 day to 2 days. Second, FMCSA simplified the instructions for recording a driver's CDL number and State of issuance. Finally, the Agency eliminated the requirement that MROs report the requesting employer's USDOT Number or EIN. As discussed above, FMCSA will no longer be collecting USDOT Numbers or EINs.
Paragraph (b) lays out employer responsibilities for reporting an alcohol confirmation test with a concentration of 0.04 or higher, alcohol refusals, drug refusals that do not involve an MRO determination, negative return-to-duty tests, and successful completion of follow-up tests. The NPRM required the employer to report this information by the close of business the day after having received notice of the determination. In order to accommodate the employer's need to comply with new documentation requirements for reporting certain violations, described below, we changed the reporting period to the end of the third business day following the date on which the employer obtained the violation information.
When an employer has actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107, that an employee has used alcohol on duty, before duty, or prior to taking a post-accident test, or that an employee used drugs in violation of FMCSA's drug and alcohol regulations, the employer must report that use to the Clearinghouse. The employer must report
Paragraph (b)(3) also identifies employer responsibilities for reporting “failure to appear” test refusals to the Clearinghouse. As explained in the response to comments, paragraph (b) identifies the types of documentation that employers, and the C/TPAs' designated as their service agents, must submit each time they report a “failure to appear” refusal and requires the employer to demonstrate that the documentation was provided to the employee.
New paragraph (b)(6) requires owner-operators who employ themselves as drivers to designate a C/TPA to comply with all employer-related reporting requirements with respect to the individual's drug and alcohol use.
Paragraph (c) lays out a C/TPA's Clearinghouse reporting responsibilities. In the NPRM, we provided a detailed list of all of the information an employer could ask a C/TPA to report. The comments we received indicated, however, that this approach caused confusion about how a C/TPA reports to the Clearinghouse. To eliminate this confusion, this final rule simply states that when a C/TPA acts on behalf of an employer, that C/TPA stands in the shoes of the employer with respect to all of the rights and responsibilities the employer delegated to it. Accordingly, a properly authorized C/TPA can fulfill any of an employer's responsibilities under paragraph (b). That said, an employer does not discharge its responsibilities under paragraph (b) when it delegates compliance to a C/TPA; the employer remains responsible for compliance with paragraph (b) regardless of whom it assigns to interact with the Clearinghouse on its behalf.
Paragraph (d) requires a SAP to report to the Clearinghouse when he or she conducts an initial assessment of an employee and when an employee completes the return-to-duty process. The NPRM proposed that the SAP make these reports within 1 business day following the day of the event or determination that triggered the reporting obligation. After consideration of comments, we changed the reporting period to require SAPs to complete their reporting requirements by the close of the business day after the event that triggered their reporting responsibility. In addition, as discussed above in the response to comments, we no longer require that the SAP report the follow-up testing plan to the Clearinghouse. SAPs will continue to provide that information directly to employers in accordance with 49 CFR 40.311.
Paragraph (e) obligates anyone reporting to the Clearinghouse to do so truthfully and accurately. As discussed in the Response to Comments section, we changed this final rule to prohibit anyone from reporting anything he or she knows or
Section 382.707 remains as proposed. This section requires FMCSA to notify a driver when information about that driver is entered in, revised, or removed from the Clearinghouse. It also requires FMCSA to notify a driver when information from the Clearinghouse is released to an employer and to state the reason for the release. The Agency will send a letter by U.S. Mail to the address on record with the SDLA that issued the driver's CDL unless drivers provide an alternate address or method of communication, such as electronic mail (email).
Section 382.709 remains essentially as proposed. This section grants a driver the right to review information in the Clearinghouse about himself or herself. This section now makes clear that, in order to access such information, a driver must register with the Clearinghouse.
Under § 382.711(a), all users must register with the Clearinghouse before querying or reporting any information. In the proposal, this paragraph stated that only employers and their service agents had to register. This language inadvertently excluded service agents that work for employees,
Paragraph (b) explains what an employer must do to register with the Clearinghouse. The employer must provide contact information, USDOT
Paragraph (b) is different from the proposal in three ways. First, with respect to the contact information an employer must provide, we removed reference to the EIN. FMCSA will not allow a motor carrier to use an EIN in lieu of a USDOT Number for identification purposes. All motor carriers must use their USDOT Numbers to register. If an employer does not have a USDOT Number, it will leave this field blank. Second, we updated the language in paragraph (b)(3) to include service agents (other than C/TPAs) as entities that can act on an employer's behalf for querying and reporting to the Clearinghouse. Finally, to eliminate any confusion about an employer's obligation to update service agent designations, we included the 10-day period for reporting a change in service agent designation.
Paragraph (c) is the same as was proposed in the NPRM. It explains what MROs and SAPs must do to register with the Clearinghouse. MROs and SAPs must provide contact information, certification that the MRO or SAP meets the minimum requirements in part 40 for MROs or SAPs, and documentation that shows that the MRO or SAP meets those minimum qualifications or training requirements. For example, an MRO would be required to provide documentation showing that he or she is a licensed physician, as required by § 40.121(a), and has completed the required training or re-training requirements in § 40.121(c). He or she would also be required to certify that he or she has the basic knowledge and experience related to drug testing and DOT regulations, as required by § 40.121(b). A SAP would be required to provide documentation showing that he or she is licensed or certified to provide substance abuse counseling in accordance with the requirements of § 40.281(a), has completed the qualification training in § 40.281(c), and has completed the continuing education requirements in § 40.281(d). He or she would also be required to certify that he or she has the basic knowledge and experience related to substance abuse diagnosis and treatment, SAP functions, and DOT drug and alcohol testing regulations required by § 40.281(b).
Paragraph (d) remains largely as proposed. It explains what C/TPAs and other service agents must do to register with the Clearinghouse. They must provide contact information and names of authorized users. Similar to employer requirements in paragraph (b), C/TPAs and other service agents must verify their authorized users annually. The Agency made some changes to the text to make clear that these registration requirements apply to C/TPAs as well as other service agents acting on an employer's behalf.
Section 382.713 remains as proposed. It explains the terms under which Clearinghouse registrations remain active, or are revoked or cancelled. The initial Clearinghouse registration term is 5 years unless the Agency takes action to revoke or cancel it. The Agency will cancel any registrant that does not use the Clearinghouse for 2 years. The Agency also has the authority to revoke the Clearinghouse registration of anyone who does not comply with Clearinghouse regulations.
Section 382.715(a) requires employers to authorize C/TPAs or other service agents to access the Clearinghouse on their behalf before the C/TPA or other service agent can enter information on their behalf into the Clearinghouse. Similarly, paragraph (b) requires employees to authorize a SAP before the SAP can enter information about the employee's return-to-duty process.
The final rule differs from the proposal in several respects. Originally, this section had only one paragraph that required employers to designate C/TPAs acting on their behalf. Changes implemented in this final rule require employers to designate any other service agents authorized to enter information on the employer's behalf as well. That original paragraph is now paragraph (a). In response to comments, FMCSA added paragraph (b) to make clear that it is the employee, not the employer, who designates a SAP to enter information about the employee.
Section 382.717 explains the procedures for a driver to request that FMCSA change information reported incorrectly to the Clearinghouse. We reordered the paragraphs in the final rule to highlight that the procedures in this section may be used primarily to request data correction. Accordingly, paragraph (a), which was proposed as paragraph (c), explains that no driver may use the procedures in § 382.717 to challenge a particular test result. The procedures are for challenging information that was not accurately reported. Paragraph (a) contains two exceptions related to reporting violations based on an employer's actual knowledge of drug or alcohol use and one exception related to reporting a driver's failure to appear for a test. The first remains as proposed: A driver may petition the Agency to remove a violation when it is based on the driver receiving a citation for DUI in a CMV and the citation does not result in a conviction. The second is new: A driver may petition the Agency to remove a report of a violation that does not meet the minimum reporting requirements, including evidentiary requirements, provided in § 382.705(b)(5). The third exception is also new: A driver may petition for removal of a report of a “failure to appear” refusal that does not meet the reporting requirements in new § 382.705(b)(3).
Paragraph (b), which was proposed as paragraph (a), provides that the petition must include information identifying the driver and the information he or she wants to be corrected, the reasons he or she believes the information is inaccurate, and evidence supporting his or her challenge. As noted above, we removed the proposed requirement that petitions be submitted within 18 months of the date the allegedly incorrect information was reported to the Clearinghouse.
The address for submitting the petition is in paragraph (c), which was originally proposed as paragraph (b). FMCSA added “Attention: Drug and Alcohol Program Manager” to the address as a part of this final rule. In addition, we added the option for electronic submission of petitions through the Clearinghouse system; the precise means by which electronic submission is accomplished will be addressed during the implementation process. In order to reflect the addition of an electronic submittal option, we changed the title of the paragraph from “Address” to “Submission of Petition”.
Paragraph (d) provides that FMCSA will inform the driver of its decision to remove, retain, or correct the driver's information in the Clearinghouse and will explain the basis for its decision. The Agency reduced, from 90 days (as proposed) to 45 days, the time in which it will respond to petitions submitted under this section. We believe that the electronic submission of petitions will allow us to process those requests more efficiently.
Paragraph (e) provides an option for drivers to request expedited treatment. A driver may request expedited
Paragraph (f) explains that a driver may seek administrative review if FMCSA does not grant his or her petition for correction. The driver must submit a request, with the words “Administrative Review of Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse Decision” conspicuously noted at the top of the document, to FMCSA's Associate Administrator for Enforcement. The request must explain the basis for administrative review and provide all supporting explanations and documents. FMCSA will issue a decision within 30 days and that decision will constitute the final agency order on the matter. Paragraph (f) remains largely as proposed, except that this final rule added the requirement for prominent display of “Administrative Review of Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse Decision” at the top of the request and the option to submit the request electronically through the Clearinghouse. We reduced the time in which the Agency will complete its administrative review from 60 days (as proposed) to 30 days because we believe the electronic submission of requests for review will allow for a speedier resolution. The 30-day time frame is also consistent with the administrative review provisions of the Privacy Act.
In response to comments, we added a new paragraph (g). That paragraph explains that after FMCSA corrects or removes information in response to a petition, it will notify any employer that viewed the incorrect information that a correction has been made.
Under § 382.719, the Clearinghouse will stop releasing information about a driver's drug and alcohol violations under the following conditions: (1) The SAP reports all of the required information about the initial assessment and driver completion of the return-to-duty process; (2) the employer reports that the driver had a negative return-to-duty test; (3) the employer reports that the driver completed all of the prescribed follow-up tests; and (4) 5 years have passed since the date of the violation determination, which is the date the violation was submitted to the Clearinghouse. Unless all of these conditions are satisfied, information in the Clearinghouse will remain available to employers with authorized access. As previously noted, exceptions apply to records otherwise removed from the Clearinghouse, such as a DUI citation not resulting in a conviction or records removed in accordance with § 382.717. Once these conditions are satisfied and the information is removed, FMCSA will maintain an archived record of this information—not available to employers—for internal use such as research into the effectiveness of the drug and alcohol program, auditing for compliance with this rule, and identifying non-compliant employers or employees for enforcement action.
This final rule differs from the proposal in one critical aspect: How long the Clearinghouse will make records available to employers before moving them to the archives. In the NPRM, FMCSA announced a dual proposal concerning the searchable records retention period. Based on the language of MAP-21, the Agency concluded that there was a basis for making the minimum period for which employers could search records either 3 or 5 years. After considering comments, we conclude that the statutory provisions in MAP-21, as well as over-arching safety considerations, compel the Agency to implement the 5-year retention period. A full discussion of the Agency's analysis is in the response to comments.
Section 382.721 remains as proposed. It authorizes FMCSA to collect fees from entities that are required to query the Clearinghouse. The Agency is prohibited, however, from collecting fees from drivers accessing their own records.
Section 382.723 remains as proposed. It prohibits unauthorized access to the Clearinghouse, inaccurate or misleading reporting to the Clearinghouse, and unauthorized disclosure of information obtained from the Clearinghouse. Employers are limited to using information from the Clearinghouse for determining whether a driver is prohibited from operating a CMV. And employers may not divulge any information to anyone not directly involved in that determination. Anyone who violates the requirements of this section is subject to the civil and criminal penalties in § 382.507. This section would not prohibit FMCSA from accessing information in the Clearinghouse for research, auditing, or enforcement purposes. For example, FMCSA could use the information in the database to identify trends in testing data that could help the Agency focus its oversight activities.
Section 382.725 requires each State chief commercial driver's license official to obtain information in the Clearinghouse about an applicant for a CDL for the purpose of determining whether that applicant is qualified to operate a CMV. The applicant is not required to grant prior consent; an applicant is deemed to have granted consent by virtue of applying for a CDL. The chief commercial driver's license officials are required to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the information they receive. Failure to comply will result in the official losing his or her right of access.
As proposed, this section authorized, but did not require, States to access the Clearinghouse. As discussed in the response to comments, section 31306a(h)(2) makes access permissive, but MAP-21 amendments to section 31311(a) make it mandatory. To implement the amendments to section 31311(a), this final rule will require that States query the Clearinghouse to determine whether an applicant is qualified under FMCSA's regulations to operate a CMV.
FMCSA is aware that some States have licensing standards that prohibit applicants from obtaining CDLs if they failed or refused a drug or alcohol test, or have other drug and alcohol program violations. This rule also will permit those States to use the information in the driver's record, obtained from the Clearinghouse, to determine whether the individual is qualified to operate a commercial motor vehicle in accordance with applicable State laws and regulations. This implements the permissive access requirements of section 31306a(h)(2) and reconciles the two different types of access referenced in that section and the amendments to section 31311(a).
Section 382.727 remains as proposed. It explains that there are civil and criminal penalties for violations of the Clearinghouse regulations. As stated above, 49 CFR 382.507 already
This final rule includes changes to the CDL standards in part 383 that were not proposed in the NPRM. As discussed above and in the response to comments, these changes implement the statutory requirement that SDLAs obtain driver information from the Clearinghouse before issuing a CDL. Accordingly, new paragraphs (b)(10), (c)(10), (d)(9), and (e)(8) require the States to query the Clearinghouse before issuing a new, renewed, upgraded, or transferred CDL. FMCSA will work with the States to provide for an automatic, electronic query system to minimize costs and maximize efficiencies.
This final rule includes a conforming change to part 384. FMCSA recognizes the need to hold States accountable to request information from the Clearinghouse in accordance with the new changes to § 383.73.
This final rule includes changes to § 391.23(e) and (f) that were not proposed in the NPRM. Section 391.23(e) requires employers to investigate a prospective employee's drug and alcohol compliance history during the preceding 3 years. Section 391.23(f) prohibits employers from allowing a driver to operate a CMV if he or she refuses to grant consent for the release of his or her information. As discussed above and in the response to comments, section 31306a(f)(3) requires employers to use the Clearinghouse to conduct this background investigation. Once the Clearinghouse has been in operation for 3 years, any pre-employment query will provide the employee's 3-year compliance history. To implement the requirement in section 31306a(f)(3) and to avoid redundant searches and investigations, the Agency amended § 391.23(e) to state that an employer subject to § 382.701(a) must query the Clearinghouse, after it has been in operation for 3 years, to satisfy the drug and alcohol background investigation requirement. Similarly, the Agency amended § 391.23(f) to prohibit an employer from allowing a driver to operate a CMV if he or she refuses to grant consent for the query.
As explained in § 382.413, however, employers must continue to request information from previous employers if the employee was subject to drug and alcohol testing under an employer regulated by one of the other DOT modes. For employees subject to follow-up testing who have not completed their follow-up testing plan prescribed by the SAP, gaining employers must continue to request the follow-up plan from the previous employer because that information will not be reported to the Clearinghouse.
FMCSA has determined that this rulemaking is an economically significant regulatory action under section 3(f) of Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, Regulatory Planning and Review, as supplemented by E.O. 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011). It also is significant under Department of Transportation regulatory policies and procedures because the economic costs and benefits of the rule exceed the $100 million annual threshold and because of the substantial congressional and public interest concerning the crash risks associated with CMV drivers operating while under the influence of drugs or alcohol. FMCSA has prepared a Regulatory Impact Assessment (RIA) of the benefits and costs of the rule. The summary of the RIA follows.
In the Initial RIA, the Agency estimated the annual benefit of the proposed rule at $187 million and the annual cost at $186 million. The present value of the proposed rule was $9 million at a 7 percent discount rate. The Final RIA estimates the annual benefit of the final rule at $196 million and the annual cost at $154 million. The present value of the final rule is estimated at $42 million at a 7 percent discount rate.
The principal factor causing the reduction in costs is the analytical change necessary to account for the recent program concerning the testing rate for annual random drug tests. Effective January 1, 2016, the random drug testing rate is now 25 percent of drivers employed by a carrier, as opposed to 50 percent. This change was made pursuant to 49 CFR 382.305, and is unrelated to the Clearinghouse or the final rule. The industry has been in operation for less than a year at the lower testing rate. Therefore, no drug survey data is available that indicates that the random positive drug test rate has, or will, materially diverge from the three-year average of positive test rates used to estimate the number of positive random drug tests for the forecast period. This change reduces the estimate of the number of annual random positive drug tests from 28,000 in the Initial Regulatory Impact Analysis to 10,000 in the Final Regulatory Impact Analysis. The principal effect of this change is a reduction in return-to-duty costs from the $101 million estimated in the Initial Regulatory Impact Analysis to $56 million. The final analysis also includes updates of drug and alcohol survey data through 2013 and crash statistic. These changes had a modest impact on estimated benefits and estimated costs other than return-to-duty costs.
All employers subject to the drug and alcohol testing regulations are required to query the Clearinghouse (1) on an annual basis to determine whether their employees have drug or alcohol violations that would prohibit them from performing safety-sensitive function and (2) as part of a prospective driver's pre-employment screening process.
Given the established, sizeable success of mandatory testing programs on crash reduction,
Brady, Joanne E., Susan P. Baker, Charles DiMaggio, Melissa McCarthy, George W. Rebok, and Guohua Li, “Effectiveness of Mandatory Alcohol Testing Programs in Reducing Alcohol Involvement in Fatal Motor Carrier Crashes,” American Journal of Epidemiology, Vol. 170, No. 6, pp.775-782 (Advance Access Publication 19-August-2009).
The Agency estimates about $196 million in annual crash reduction benefits from the rule, which consists of $55 million from the annual queries and $141 million from the pre-employment queries. FMCSA estimates about $154 million in total annual costs, which include costs for:
• $29 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare annual employer queries;
• $11 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare pre-employment queries;
• $3 million for employers to designate service agents, and $1 million for SAPs to report initiation of the return-to-duty Initial Assessment;
• $5 million incurred by various reporting entities to register with the Clearinghouse, verify authorization, and become familiar with the rule, plus an additional $700,000 for these entities to report positive tests;
• $35 million of fees and consent and verification costs consisting of $24 million in Clearinghouse access fees incurred by employers for pre-employment queries, limited annual queries and full annual queries, plus $11 million of the monetized value of drivers' time to provide consents to employers and verification to FMCSA to allow employers access to drivers' records.;
• $2.2 million for development of the Clearinghouse and management of records;
• $56 million incurred by drivers to go through the return-to-duty process, including $7 million of opportunity costs incurred by drivers for those hours in which they are in substance abuse education and treatment programs; and
• $11.5 million of opportunity costs incurred by employers due to lost on-duty hours of drivers suspended from safety-sensitive functions until successful completion of the return-duty-process.
The annual net benefit of the rule is $42 million. The 10-year projection of net benefits is $316 million when discounted at 7 percent and $369 million when discounted at 3 percent. Estimated benefits include only those associated with reductions in CMV crashes.
FMCSA could not precisely quantify improved health, quality-of-life improvements, and increased life expectancy for CMV drivers. The Agency believes these non-quantified benefits are significant, and, if they were included in the benefits estimates, would clearly result in net benefits in excess of the estimated $38 million annual benefit. The net benefit of the final rule is summarized in the table below.
The benefits of the rule derive from reductions in crashes due to the additional information on employee-failed and -refused drug and alcohol tests disseminated through the annual and pre-employment queries. The rationale is that drivers who fail or refuse drug and alcohol tests are assumed to be more crash-prone than drivers who take and pass these tests. Further, queries of the Clearinghouse provide the information on positive tests that prevents these identified drivers from operating until they successfully complete the return-to-duty process. Given this, the benefits of the rule are the reduction in crashes by drivers kept off the road by queries of the Clearinghouse. The Clearinghouse makes available information that employers would not otherwise obtain or be able to act on.
A major study on the effectiveness of mandatory
The authors performed multivariate logistic-regression analyses that estimated the effects of the above-listed factors on whether or not alcohol was involved in the fatal crash. Whether or not alcohol was involved in the crash was defined by a blood-alcohol-level (BAC) greater than or equal to 0.01 grams per deciliter (g/DL) for the driver involved in the fatal crash. With the controls for driver age, gender, history of driving while intoxicated, and survival status, “implementation of the mandatory alcohol testing programs was found to be associated with a
A major study on the effectiveness of
The authors employed a negative binomial model that estimated the effects of the above-listed factors on the number of fatalities in a given State in a given year. With controls for seat-belt laws, speed-limit laws, and other factors, drug-testing legislation is estimated to have led to about a
The current drug-testing program is estimated to generate $152 million in annual crash-reduction benefits from 29,590 annual positive tests, which averages to approximately $5,100 per positive drug test ($152 million/29,590 positive tests, rounded to the nearest hundred). The
The current alcohol testing program is estimated to generate $95 million in annual crash-reduction benefits from 3,135 annual positive alcohol tests, which averages to approximately $30,300 per positive alcohol test ($95 million/3,135 positive tests, rounded to nearest hundred). The
The annual drug and alcohol queries required by the rule are estimated to generate $55 million in benefits. Annual drug testing is estimated to produce benefits totaling $31 million. Annual alcohol testing is estimated to produce benefits totaling $24 million. The
The
With annual benefits to the drug-testing side of the pre-employment queries estimated at $77 million and the alcohol-testing side at $64 million, total annual benefits realized from pre-employment queries are estimated at $141 million ($77 million + $64 million).
Given the $55 million in annual benefits from the information on positive drug and alcohol tests disseminated because of the mandatory annual queries ($31 million drug and $24 million alcohol) and the $141 million in annual benefits from the information on positive tests disseminated because of the mandatory pre-employment queries ($77 million drug and $64 million alcohol), the total annual benefits of rule are
Based on the annual benefits of $196 million, the
By reducing drug and alcohol abuse by drivers, this rule could also lead to improved health, quality-of-life improvements, and increased life expectancy for drivers beyond those associated with reductions in vehicle crashes.
FMCSA estimates that the total annual cost of this action comes in at $154 million, which can be separated into several categories. The rule defines a number of entities with specific roles related to reporting to, or making queries of, the Clearinghouse. Therefore, the annual costs of the rule are organized by categories consistent with the role of each entity.
• $29 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare annual employer queries;
• $11 million that is the estimated monetized value of employees' time to prepare pre-employment queries;
• $3 million for employers to designate service agents, and $1 million for SAPs to report initiation of the return-to-duty Initial Assessment;
• $5 million incurred by various reporting entities to register with the Clearinghouse, verify authorization, and become familiar with the rule, plus an additional $700,000 for these entities to report positive tests;
• $35 million of fees and consent and verification costs consisting of $24 million in Clearinghouse access fees incurred by employers for pre-employment queries, limited annual queries and full annual queries, plus $11 million of the monetized value of drivers' time to provide consents to employers and verification to FMCSA to allow employers access to drivers' records.;
• $2.2 million for development of the Clearinghouse and management of records;
• $56 million incurred by drivers to go through the return-to-duty process, including $7 million of opportunity cost associates with the hours spent in substance abuse education and treatment programs in lieu of hours that could be spent in non-safety-sensitive in positions; and
• $11 million of opportunity costs incurred by employers due to lost on-duty hours associated with drivers suspended from safety-sensitive functions until successful completion of the return-duty-process.
Annual costs by cost category are summarized in the table below.
Based on the annual cost of $154 million, the 10-year cost projection is $1,157 billion when discounted at 7 percent and $1.353 billion when discounted at 3 percent.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (codified at 5 U.S.C. 601)) requires Federal agencies to “. . . endeavor, consistent with the objectives of the rule and of applicable statutes, to fit regulatory and informational requirements to the scale of the businesses, organizations, and governmental jurisdictions subject to regulation.” The Act requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of the regulatory action on small business and other small entities and to minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. Accordingly, DOT policy requires an analysis of the impact of all regulations (or proposals) on small entities, and mandates that agencies shall strive to lessen any adverse effects on these businesses.
A Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (RFA) must address the following topics:
FMCSA is issuing this final rule pursuant to a statutory mandate and recommendations of the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) and the General Accountability Office (GAO).
Section 32402 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405), codified at 49 U.S.C. 31306a, directs the Secretary of Transportation (Secretary) to establish a national clearinghouse containing commercial motor vehicle operators' violations of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program. In addition, FMCSA has general authority to promulgate safety standards, including those governing drivers' use of drugs or alcohol while operating a CMV. The Motor Carrier Safety Act of 1984 (Pub. L. 98-554, Title II, 98 Stat. 2832, October 30, 1984) (the 1984 Act), as amended, provides authority to regulate drivers, motor carriers, and vehicle equipment and requires the Secretary to prescribe minimum safety standards for CMVs. FMCSA has been delegated authority under 49 CFR 1.87(e) and (f) to carry out the functions vested in the Secretary by 49 U.S.C. chapter 313 and 49 U.S.C. chapter 311, subchapters I and III, relating to CMV programs and safety regulation.
The NTSB recommendation arose from its investigation of 1999 bus crash in New Orleans resulted in 22 passenger fatalities. The driver of the motor-coach had failed pre-employment drug testing when applying for previous positions. He had also failed to disclose on his employment application that a previous employer had fired him after he tested positive for a controlled substance. Therefore, his employer at the time of the crash was unaware of the driver's history of positive tests because of his failure to provide a complete employment history. Without that history, his employer was unable to contact prior employers to obtain his drug and alcohol test history.
The NTSB made recommendations to the Agency pertaining to the reporting of CMV driver drug and alcohol testing results. Specifically, the NTSB recommended that FMCSA “develop a system that records all positive drug and
The GAO issued two reports discussing its observations of drivers “job-hopping” under FMCSA's current regulations. When CDL holders fail, or refuse to submit to, a drug or alcohol test, some quit that job and—after a brief delay to ensure that drugs or alcohol are no longer detectable—pass the pre-employment test at another carrier and resume driving without having a completed the return-to-duty process. Obviously, job-hopping defeats the purpose of the drug and alcohol testing program. The GAO identified and verified 43 cases (based on insider information supplied by a third party to a Congressman).
In response to the NPRM and Initial RFA, public comments were submitted by 165 individuals including national trucking and motor coach industry associations, regional trucking associations, trade unions, SDLA's and the NTSB.
The final rule revises 49 CFR part 382, Controlled Substances and Alcohol Use and Testing, to establish a database, identified as the “Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse,” for reporting of drug and alcohol violations. Upon implementation, the final rule also requires employers to query the Clearinghouse for drug and alcohol test result information on employees and prospective employees. This rule is intended to increase compliance with FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program.
The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (SBA) did not submit comments in response to the NPRM.
Because FMCSA does not have direct revenue figures for all carriers, power units serve as a proxy to determine the carrier size that will qualify as a small business given the SBA's revenue threshold. In order to produce this estimate, it is necessary to determine the average revenue generated by a power unit.
With regard to truck power units, the Agency has estimated that a power unit produces about $189,000 in revenue annually (in 2014 dollars).
This amounts to 515,000 carriers (514,800 = 99 percent × 520,000 active motor carriers, rounded to the nearest thousand). Therefore, an overwhelming majority of interstate carriers of property are small entities.
The final rule requires additional reporting, recordkeeping and compliance requirements beyond what is required by FMCSA's current drug and alcohol testing regulations. The entities required to report to, or make queries of, the Clearinghouse are employers, MROs, C/TPAs and SAPs.
There are an estimated 58,500 annual positive drug and alcohol tests consisting of 52,000 positive drug tests and 6,500 positive alcohol tests at full participation (including refusals). Each positive drug test will be reported to the Clearinghouse by an MRO. Each positive alcohol test will be reported by an employer or a C/TPA. Each driver's subsequent return-to-duty process for positive test results and test refusals will be reported by an SAP. Ninety-nine percent of motor carriers, MROs, C/TPAs, and SAPs are most likely small entities. With regard to SAPs submitting driver information, FMCSA estimates that drivers, bookkeepers, audit clerks accounting clerks, and occupational health and safety specialists, will perform reporting functions under the final rule.
The Agency did not identify any significant alternatives to the rule that could lessen the burden on small entities without compromising its goals or the Agency's statutory mandate to implement the Clearinghouse. Because small businesses are such a large part of the demographic the Agency regulates, providing alternatives to small business to permit noncompliance with FMCSA
FMCSA is not a covered agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 609(d)(2) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Therefore, it is not required to take steps to minimize any additional cost of credit for small entities.
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires Federal agencies to assess the effect of their discretionary regulatory actions (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538). An assessment under UMRA is not required for regulations that incorporate requirements specifically set forth in law (2 U.S.C. 1531). Because MAP-21 mandated that DOT establish, operate, and maintain a clearinghouse for records related to alcohol and drug testing of CMV operators, an assessment was not prepared.
A rule has implications for Federalism under E.O. 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on State or local governments and would either preempt State law or impose a substantial direct cost of compliance on them. FMCSA recognized that, as a practical matter, this rule may have an impact on the States. Accordingly, by letters sent March 28, 2011, the Agency sought advice from the National Governors Association (NGA), National Conference of State Legislators (NCSL), and the AAMVA on the topic of developing a database that the Agency believed would increase the effectiveness of its drug and alcohol testing program. (Copies of the letters are available in the docket for this rulemaking.) FMCSA offered NGA, NCSL, and AAMVA officials the opportunity to meet and discuss issues of concern to the States. FMCSA did not receive any responses to this letter. Nevertheless, during the public comment period several commenters indicated that the Clearinghouse rule would have implications for Federalism under this executive order.
At this time, section 32402 of MAP-21 preempts State and local laws inconsistent with the Clearinghouse. Preemption specifically applies to the reporting of drug and alcohol tests, refusals, and any other violation of FMCSA's drug and alcohol testing program. MAP-21 does not preempt State laws related to a driver's CDL or driving record. Each State must review its current requirements to determine whether they are compatible with this final rule.
This action meets applicable standards in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of E.O. 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden.
FMCSA has analyzed this action under Executive Order 13045, Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks. FMCSA determined that this final rule will not create an environmental risk to health or safety that may disproportionately affect children.
FMCSA reviewed this action in accordance with Executive Order 12630, Governmental Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Property Rights, and has determined it would not effect a taking of private property or otherwise have taking implications.
FMCSA conducted a privacy impact assessment of this action as required by section 522(a)(5) of division H of the FY 2005 Omnibus Appropriations Act, Pub. L. 108-447, 118 Stat. 3268 (Dec. 8, 2004) [set out as a note to 5 U.S.C. 552a]. The assessment considers any impacts of the final rule on the privacy of information in an identifiable form and related matters. FMCSA has determined that this action would impact the handling of personally identifiable information (PII). FMCSA has also determined the risks and effects the rulemaking might have on collecting, storing, and sharing PII and has examined and evaluated protections and alternative information handling processes in developing the rule in order to mitigate potential privacy risks. The Privacy Impact Assessment for the Clearinghouse is available for review in the docket for this rulemaking.
The regulations implementing E.O. 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this rule.
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), a Federal agency must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information it conducts, sponsors, or requires through regulations. FMCSA analyzed this action and preliminarily determined that its implementation would create a new information collection burden on CDL holders, motor carriers, and entities that provide services as part of FMCSA's mandatory alcohol and controlled substances testing process under 49 CFR part 382. FMCSA will seek approval of the information collection requirements in a new information collection entitled “Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse.”
The collected information encompasses information that is generated, maintained, retained, disclosed, and provided to, or for, the Agency for a database that will be entitled the “Commercial Driver's License Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse” or Clearinghouse.
DOT currently has approval for two information collections for its alcohol and controlled substances testing programs: (1) The Federal Chain of Custody and Control Form, OMB control number 0930-0158, and (2) the U.S. Department of Transportation Alcohol and Controlled Substances Testing Program, OMB control number 2105-0529. Although the Clearinghouse obtains information from the forms covered by the two information collections, this action does not create any revisions or additional burden under those collections.
This rule will create a new information collection to cover the requirements set forth in the amendments to 49 CFR part 382. These amendments will create new requirements for CDL drivers, employers of CDL drivers, MROs, SAPs, and C/TPAs to register with the new database, which will be created and administered by FMCSA. Clearinghouse registration will be a prerequisite to both placing information in the database and obtaining information from the database. Access to information in the database will be strictly limited and controlled, and available only with the consent of the CDL holders about whom information is sought.
Prospective employers of CDL drivers are required to query the Clearinghouse to determine if job applicants have controlled substance or alcohol testing violations that preclude them, under existing FMCSA regulations in part 382, from carrying out safety-sensitive functions. Employers will also be required to query the database once annually for information about drivers whom they currently employ. Employers, C/TPAs that perform testing and other services for carriers, MROs, and SAPs will place information into the database about alcohol and controlled substances testing violations.
The total burden to respondents for queries, designations, registration, familiarization, reporting, and recordkeeping to the Clearinghouse is estimated at about 1.86 million hours annually. The hours attributed to each activity are presented in the table below.
FMCSA prepared an information collection request and supporting statement that was submitted to the Office of Management and Budget and that is available for viewing pursuant to a notice to be published in the
When FMCSA drafted the NPRM, the Agency prepared a draft environmental assessment (EA) under the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
However, after reviewing FMCSA's NEPA Implementing Procedures and Policy for Considering Environmental Impacts, Order 5610.1 (FMCSA Order), March 1, 2004 (69 FR 9680), FMCSA determined that this final rule is excluded from further environmental review and documentation because it falls under a categorical exclusion (CE). The CE in paragraph 6(r) applies to regulations implementing employer controlled substances and alcohol use and testing procedures. As FMCSA received no comments on the draft EA, and does not expect the environmental impacts listed above to be considered significant under NEPA, the Agency has prepared a statement of Categorical Exclusion Determination for this final rule and does not find it necessary to issue a final EA or prepare an Environmental Impact Statement.
FMCSA also analyzed this rule under the Clean Air Act, as amended (CAA), section 176(c) (42 U.S.C. 7401
FMCSA evaluated the environmental effects of this final rule in accordance with E.O. 12898 and determined that there are no environmental justice issues associated with its provisions nor any collective environmental impact resulting from its promulgation. Environmental justice issues would be raised if there were “disproportionate” and “high and adverse impact” on minority or low-income populations.
FMCSA has analyzed this rule under E.O. 13211, Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use. While FMCSA's analysis shows a small reduction in fuel used due to eliminating traffic idling caused by CMV crashes, we have determined that it would not be a “significant energy action” under that Executive Order because it would not be likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy.
This rule does not have tribal implications under E.O. 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes.
The National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (15 U.S.C. 272 note) directs agencies to use voluntary consensus standards in their regulatory activities unless the agency provides Congress, through OMB, with an explanation of why using these standards would be inconsistent with applicable law or otherwise impractical. Voluntary consensus standards (
FMCSA is aware of the regulatory reform requirements imposed by the FAST Act concerning public participation in rulemaking (49 U.S.C.
This final rule implements the MAP-21 mandate that DOT establish and maintain a national clearinghouse for records related to alcohol and controlled substances testing. The public had ample opportunity to comment on the Agency's February 20, 2014 NPRM proposing the establishment of the Clearinghouse (79 FR 9703). The Agency received 165 comments to the 2014 NPRM and made significant changes, reflected in this rule, in response to the commentary. Further, the final rule is the product of years of study and deliberation concerning an important public safety issue. As previously noted, this rule implements the NTSB's recommendation, included in its August 2001 report on the 1999 New Orleans bus crash resulting in multiple fatalities, that FMCSA establish a system to record positive DOT drug and alcohol test results and require prospective employers to query the system before hiring a driver. The rule also incorporates many of the findings and recommendations contained in FMCSA's March 2004 report to Congress, “A Report to Congress on the Feasibility and Merits of Reporting Verified Positive Federal Controlled Substance Test Results to the States and Requiring FMCSA-Regulated Employers to Query the State Databases Before Hiring a Commercial Drivers License (CDL) Holder”. In addition, this rule implements a key recommendation of the GAO's May 2008 Report to Congress, “Improvements to Drug Testing Programs Could Better Identify Illegal Drug Users and Keep Them off the Road” (GAO-08-600) and responds to concerns identified in GAO's June 2008 report to Congress, “Examples of Job-hopping by Commercial Drivers after Failing Drug Tests” (GAO-08-0829R). In view of the extensive record of public input, study and oversight that informs this final rule, any further public participation measures would be unnecessary. Because the Agency strongly believes that establishment of the Clearinghouse will improve highway safety, the public interest is best served by the publication of this rule.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Highway safety, Motor carriers, Penalties, Safety, Transportation.
Administrative practice and procedure, Commercial driver's license, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
Driver qualification, Highway safety, Motor carriers, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration amends 49 CFR parts 382, 383, 384, and 391 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 31133, 31136, 31301
(a) This part applies to service agents and to every person and to all employers of such persons who operate a commercial motor vehicle in commerce in any State and are subject to:
(a)
(b)
(1) The driver's commercial driver's license number and State of issuance in Step 1, section C of the CCF.
(2) The employer's name and other identifying information required in Step 1, section A of the ATF.
No employer may allow, require, permit or authorize a driver to operate a commercial motor vehicle during any period in which an employer determines that a driver is not in compliance with the return-to-duty requirements in 49 CFR part 40, subpart O, after the occurrence of any of the following events:
(a) The driver receives a positive, adulterated, or substituted drug test result conducted under part 40 of this title.
(b) The driver receives an alcohol confirmation test result of 0.04 or higher alcohol concentration conducted under part 40 of this title.
(c) The driver refused to submit to a test for drugs or alcohol required under this part.
(d) The driver used alcohol prior to a post-accident alcohol test in violation of § 382.209.
(e) An employer has actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107, that a driver has:
(1) Used alcohol while performing safety-sensitive functions in violation of § 382.205;
(2) Used alcohol within four hours of performing safety-sensitive functions in violation of § 382.207; or
(3) Used a controlled substance.
(b) * * *
(1) * * *
(vi) Records related to the administration of the alcohol and controlled substances testing program, including records of all driver violations, and
(d) Each employer, and each service agent who maintains records for an employer, must make available copies of all results for DOT alcohol and/or controlled substances testing conducted by the employer under this part and any other information pertaining to the employer's alcohol misuse and/or controlled substances use prevention program when requested by the Secretary of Transportation, any DOT agency, or any State or local officials with regulatory authority over the employer or any of its drivers.
(e) When requested by the National Transportation Safety Board as a part of a crash investigation:
(1) Employers must disclose information related to the employer's administration of a post-accident alcohol and/or a controlled substances test administered following the crash under investigation; and
(2) FMCSA will provide access to information in the Clearinghouse concerning drivers who are involved with the crash under investigation.
(c) No person may obtain the individual controlled substances test results retained by a medical review officer (MRO as defined in § 40.3 of this title) or a consortium/third party administrator (C/TPA as defined in § 382.107), and no MRO or C/TPA may release the individual controlled substances test results of any driver to any person, without first obtaining a specific, written authorization from the tested driver. Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall prohibit a MRO or a C/TPA from releasing to the employer, the Clearinghouse, or to the Secretary of Transportation, any DOT agency, or any State or local officials with regulatory authority over the controlled substances and alcohol testing program under this part, the information delineated in part 40, subpart G, of this title.
(a) Employers must request alcohol and controlled substances information from previous employers in accordance with the requirements of § 40.25 of this title, except that the employer must request information from all DOT-regulated employers that employed the driver within the previous 3 years and the scope of the information requested must date back 3 years.
(b) As of January 6, 2023, employers must use the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.701(a) to comply with the requirements of § 40.25 of this title with respect to FMCSA-regulated employers. Exception: When an employee who is subject to follow-up testing has not successfully completed all follow-up tests, employers must request the employee's follow-up testing plan directly from the previous employer in accordance with § 40.25(b)(5) of this title.
(c) If an applicant was subject to an alcohol and controlled substance testing program under the requirements of a DOT Agency other than FMCSA, the employer must request the alcohol and controlled substances information required under this section and § 40.25 of this title directly from those employers regulated by a DOT Agency other than FMCSA.
Each person holding a commercial driver's license and subject to the DOT controlled substances and alcohol testing requirements in this part who has violated the alcohol and controlled substances prohibitions under part 40 of this title or this part without complying with the requirements of part 40, subpart O, must notify in writing all current employers of such violation(s). The driver is not required to provide notification to the employer that administered the test or documented the circumstances that gave rise to the violation. The notification must be made before the end of the business day following the day the employee received notice of the violation, or prior to performing any safety-sensitive function, whichever comes first.
The addition reads as follows:
(b) * * *
(12) The requirement that the following personal information collected and maintained under this part shall be reported to the Clearinghouse:
(i) A verified positive, adulterated, or substituted drug test result;
(ii) An alcohol confirmation test with a concentration of 0.04 or higher;
(iii) A refusal to submit to any test required by subpart C of this part;
(iv) An employer's report of actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107:
(A) On duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.205;
(B) Pre-duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.207;
(C) Alcohol use following an accident pursuant to § 382.209; and
(D) Controlled substance use pursuant to § 382.213;
(v) A substance abuse professional (SAP as defined in § 40.3 of this title) report of the successful completion of the return-to-duty process;
(vi) A negative return-to-duty test; and
(vii) An employer's report of completion of follow-up testing.
(a)
(2) The employer must conduct a full query under this section, which releases information in the Clearinghouse to an employer and requires that the individual driver give specific consent.
(b)
(2) In lieu of a full query, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an employer may obtain the individual driver's consent to conduct a limited query to satisfy the annual query requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The limited query will tell the employer whether there is information about the individual driver in the Clearinghouse, but will not release that information to the employer. The individual driver may give consent to conduct limited queries that is effective for more than one year.
(3) If the limited query shows that information exists in the Clearinghouse about the individual driver, the employer must conduct a full query, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, within 24 hours of conducting the limited query. If the employer fails to conduct a full query within 24 hours, the employer must not allow the driver to continue to perform any safety-sensitive function until the employer conducts the full query and the results confirm that the driver's Clearinghouse record contains no prohibitions as defined in paragraph (d) of this section.
(c)
(d)
(1) That the driver has successfully completed the SAP evaluation, referral, and education/treatment process set forth in part 40, subpart O, of this title; achieves a negative return-to-duty test result; and completes the follow-up testing plan prescribed by the SAP.
(2) That, if the driver has not completed all follow-up tests as prescribed by the SAP in accordance with § 40.307 of this title and specified in the SAP report required by § 40.311 of this title, the driver has completed the SAP evaluation, referral, and education/treatment process set forth in part 40, subpart O, of this title and achieves a negative return-to-duty test result, and the employer assumes the responsibility for managing the follow-up testing process associated with the testing violation.
(e)
(a) No employer may query the Clearinghouse to determine whether a record exists for any particular driver without first obtaining that driver's written or electronic consent. The employer conducting the search must retain the consent for 3 years from the date of the last query.
(b) Before the employer may access information contained in the driver's Clearinghouse record, the driver must submit electronic consent through the Clearinghouse granting the employer access to the following specific records:
(1) A verified positive, adulterated, or substituted controlled substances test result;
(2) An alcohol confirmation test with a concentration of 0.04 or higher;
(3) A refusal to submit to a test in violation of § 382.211;
(4) An employer's report of actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107, of:
(i) On duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.205;
(ii) Pre-duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.207;
(iii) Alcohol use following an accident pursuant to § 382.209; and
(iv) Controlled substance use pursuant to § 382.213;
(5) A SAP report of the successful completion of the return-to-duty process;
(6) A negative return-to-duty test; and
(7) An employer's report of completion of follow-up testing.
(c) No employer may permit a driver to perform a safety-sensitive function if the driver refuses to grant the consent required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
(d) A driver granting consent under this section must provide consent electronically to the Agency through the Clearinghouse prior to release of information to an employer in accordance with § 382.701(a)(2) or (b)(3).
(e) A driver granting consent under this section grants consent for the Agency to release information to an employer in accordance with § 382.701(c).
(a)
(i) Verified positive, adulterated, or substituted controlled substances test results;
(ii) Refusal-to-test determination by the MRO in accordance with 49 CFR 40.191(a)(5), (7), and (11), (b), and (d)(2).
(2) MROs must provide the following information for each controlled substances test result specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
(i) Reason for the test;
(ii) Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form specimen ID number;
(iii) Driver's name, date of birth, and CDL number and State of issuance;
(iv) Employer's name, address, and USDOT number, if applicable;
(v) Date of the test;
(vi) Date of the verified result; and
(vii) Test result. The test result must be one of the following:
(A) Positive (including the controlled substance(s) identified);
(B) Refusal to test: Adulterated;
(C) Refusal to test: Substituted; or
(D) Refusal to provide a sufficient specimen after the MRO makes a determination, in accordance with § 40.193 of this title, that the employee does not have a medical condition that has, or with a high degree of probability could have, precluded the employee from providing a sufficient amount of urine. Under this subpart a refusal would also include a refusal to undergo a medical examination or evaluation to substantiate a qualifying medical condition.
(3) Within 1 business day of making any change to the results report in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a MRO must report that changed result to the Clearinghouse.
(b)
(i) An alcohol confirmation test result with an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater;
(ii) A negative return-to-duty test result;
(iii) A refusal to take an alcohol test pursuant to 49 CFR 40.261;
(iv) A refusal to test determination made in accordance with 49 CFR 40.191(a)(1) through (4), (a)(6), (a)(8) through (11), or (d)(1), but in the case of a refusal to test under (a)(11), the employer may report only those admissions made to the specimen collector; and
(v) A report that the driver has successfully completed all follow-up tests as prescribed in the SAP report in accordance with §§ 40.307, 40.309, and 40.311 of this title.
(2) The information required to be reported under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include, as applicable:
(i) Reason for the test;
(ii) Driver's name, date of birth, and CDL number and State of issuance;
(iii) Employer name, address, and USDOT number;
(iv) Date of the test;
(v) Date the result was reported; and
(vi) Test result. The test result must be one of the following:
(A) Negative (only required for return-to-duty tests administered in accordance with § 382.309);
(B) Positive; or
(C) Refusal to take a test.
(3) For each report of a violation of 49 CFR 40.261(a)(1) or 40.191(a)(1), the employer must report the following information:
(i) Documentation, including, but not limited to, electronic mail or other contemporaneous record of the time and date the driver was notified to appear at a testing site; and the time, date and testing site location at which the employee was directed to appear, or an affidavit providing evidence of such notification;
(ii) Documentation, including, but not limited to, electronic mail or other correspondence, or an affidavit, indicating the date the employee was terminated or resigned (if applicable);
(iii) Documentation, including, but not limited to, electronic mail or other correspondence, or an affidavit, showing that the C/TPA reporting the violation was designated as a service agent for an employer who employs himself/herself as a driver pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section when the reported refusal occurred (if applicable); and
(iv) Documentation, including a certificate of service or other evidence, showing that the employer provided the employee with all documentation reported under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(4) Employers must report the following violations by the close of the third business day following the date on which the employer obtains actual knowledge, as defined at § 382.107, of:
(i) On-duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.205;
(ii) Pre-duty alcohol use pursuant to § 382.207;
(iii) Alcohol use following an accident pursuant to § 382.209; and
(iv) Controlled substance use pursuant to § 382.213.
(5) For each violation in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the employer must report the following information:
(i) Driver's name, date of birth, CDL number and State of issuance;
(ii) Employer name, address, and USDOT number, if applicable;
(iii) Date the employer obtained actual knowledge of the violation;
(iv) Witnesses to the violation, if any, including contact information;
(v) Description of the violation;
(vi) Evidence supporting each fact alleged in the description of the violation required under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, which may include, but is not limited to, affidavits, photographs, video or audio recordings, employee statements (other than admissions pursuant to § 382.121), correspondence, or other documentation; and
(vii) A certificate of service or other evidence showing that the employer provided the employee with all information reported under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
(6) An employer who employs himself/herself as a driver must designate a C/TPA to comply with the employer requirements in paragraph (b) of this section related to his or her own alcohol and controlled substances use.
(c)
(d)
(i) SAPs name, address, and telephone number;
(ii) Driver's name, date of birth, and CDL number and State of issuance;
(iii) Date of the initial substance-abuse-professional assessment; and
(iv) Date the SAP determined that the driver demonstrated successful compliance as defined in 49 CFR part 40, subpart O, and was eligible for return-to-duty testing under this part.
(2) SAP must report the information required by paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section by the close of the business day following the date of the initial substance abuse assessment, and must report the information required by paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section by the close of the business day following the determination that the driver has completed the return-to-duty process.
(e)
(a) FMCSA must notify a driver when information concerning that driver has been added to, revised, or removed from the Clearinghouse.
(b) FMCSA must notify a driver when information concerning that driver has been released from the Clearinghouse to an employer and specify the reason for the release.
(c) Drivers will be notified by letter sent by U.S. Mail to the address on record with the State Driver Licensing Agency that issued the driver's commercial driver's license. Exception: A driver may provide the Clearinghouse with an alternative means or address for notification, including electronic mail.
A driver may review information in the Clearinghouse about himself or herself, except as otherwise restricted by law or regulation. A driver must register with the Clearinghouse before accessing his or her information.
(a)
(b)
(i) Name, address, and telephone number;
(ii) USDOT number, except if the registrant does not have a USDOT Number, it may be requested to provide other information to verify identity; and
(iii) Name of the person(s) the employer authorizes to report information to or obtain information from the Clearinghouse and any additional information FMCSA needs to validate his or her identity.
(2) Employers must verify the names of the person(s) authorized under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section annually.
(3) Identification of the C/TPA or other service agent used to comply with the requirements of this part, if applicable, and authorization for the C/TPA to query or report information to the Clearinghouse. Employers must update any changes to this information within 10 days.
(c)
(1) Name, address, telephone number, and any additional information FMCSA needs to validate the applicant's identity;
(2) A certification that the applicant's access to the Clearinghouse is conditioned on his or her compliance with the applicable qualification and/or training requirements in 49 CFR part 40; and
(3) Evidence of required professional credentials to verify that the applicant currently meets the applicable qualification and/or training requirements in 49 CFR part 40.
(d)
(1) Name, address, telephone number, and any additional information FMCSA needs to validate the applicant's identity; and
(2) Name, title, and telephone number of the person(s) authorized to report information to and obtain information from the Clearinghouse.
(3) Each C/TPA or other service agent must verify the names of the person(s) authorized under paragraph (d)(2) of this section annually.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(2)
(ii) Petitioners may request that FMCSA remove from the Clearinghouse an employer's report of actual knowledge (other than as provided for in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) if that report does not comply with the reporting requirements in § 382.705(b)(5).
(iii) Petitioners may request that FMCSA remove from the Clearinghouse an employer's report of a violation under 49 CFR 40.261(a)(1) or 40.191(a)(1) if that report does not comply with the reporting requirements in § 382.705(b)(3).
(b)
(1) The petitioner's name, address, telephone number, and CDL number and State of issuance;
(2) Detailed description of the basis for the allegation that the information is not accurate; and
(3) Evidence supporting the allegation that the information is not accurate. Failure to submit evidence is cause for dismissing the petition.
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2) If FMCSA grants expedited treatment, it will subsequently inform the driver of its decision in writing within 14 days of receipt of a complete petition.
(f)
(2) The request must prominently state at the top of the document: “Administrative Review of Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse Decision” and the driver may submit his/her request electronically through the Clearinghouse or in writing to the Associate Administrator for Enforcement (MC-E), Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590.
(3) The driver's request must explain the error he or she believes FMCSA committed and provide information and/or documents to support his or her argument.
(4) FMCSA will complete its administrative review no later than 30 days after receiving the driver's request for review. The Associate Administrator's decision will constitute the final Agency action.
(g)
(a)
(1) The SAP reports to the Clearinghouse the information required in § 382.705(d);
(2) The employer reports to the Clearinghouse that the driver's return-to-duty test results are negative;
(3) The driver's current employer reports that the driver has successfully completed all follow-up tests as prescribed in the SAP report in accordance with §§ 40.307, 40.309, and 40.311 of this title; and
(4) Five years have passed since the date of the violation determination.
(b)
(c)
(2) Information about a particular driver's drug or alcohol violation may be removed in accordance with § 382.717(a)(2)(ii) and (iii) or in accordance with 49 CFR part 10.
(d)
FMCSA may collect a reasonable fee from entities required to query the Clearinghouse. Exception: No driver may be required to pay a fee to access his or her own information in the Clearinghouse.
(a) Except as expressly authorized in this subpart, no person or entity may access the Clearinghouse. No person or entity may share, distribute, publish, or otherwise release any information in the Clearinghouse except as specifically authorized by law. No person may report inaccurate or misleading information to the Clearinghouse.
(b) An employer's use of information received from the Clearinghouse is limited to determining whether a prohibition applies to a driver performing a safety-sensitive function with respect to a commercial motor vehicle. No employer may divulge or permit any other person or entity to divulge any information from the Clearinghouse to any person or entity not directly involved in determining whether a prohibition applies to a driver performing a safety-sensitive function
(c) Violations of this section are subject to civil and criminal penalties in accordance with applicable law, including those set forth at § 382.507.
(d) Nothing in this part shall prohibit FMCSA from accessing information about individual drivers in the Clearinghouse for research, auditing, or enforcement purposes.
(a) In order to determine whether a driver is qualified to operate a commercial motor vehicle, the chief commercial driver's licensing official of a State must obtain the driver's record from the Clearinghouse if the driver has applied for a commercial driver's license from that State.
(b) By applying for a commercial driver's license, a driver is deemed to have consented to the release of information from the Clearinghouse in accordance with this section.
(c) The chief commercial driver's licensing official's use of information received from the Clearinghouse is limited to determining an individual's qualifications to operate a commercial motor vehicle. No chief driver's licensing official may divulge or permit any other person or entity to divulge any information from the Clearinghouse to any person or entity not directly involved in determining an individual's qualifications to operate a commercial motor vehicle.
(d) A chief commercial driver's licensing official who does not take appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained under this section is subject to revocation of his or her right of access under this section.
An employer, employee, MRO, or service agent who violates any provision of this subpart shall be subject to the civil and/or criminal penalty provisions of 49 U.S.C. 521(b)(2)(C).
49 U.S.C. 521, 31136, 31301
The additions read as follows:
(b) * * *
(10) Beginning January 6, 2020, request information from the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.725 of this chapter.
(c) * * *
(10) Beginning January 6, 2020, request information from the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.725 of this chapter.
(d) * * *
(9) Beginning January 6, 2020, request information from the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.725 of this chapter.
(e) * * *
(8) Beginning January 6, 2020, request information from the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.725 of this chapter.
(f) * * *
(4) Beginning January 6, 2020, for drivers seeking issuance, renewal, upgrade or transfer of a non-domiciled CDL, request information from the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse in accordance with § 382.725 of this chapter.
49 U.S.C. 31136, 31301,
Beginning January 6, 2020, the State must request information from the Clearinghouse in accordance with § 383.73 of this chapter.
49 U.S.C. 504, 508, 31133, 31136, 31149, and 31502; sec. 4007(b) of Pub. L. 102-240, 105 Stat. 1914, 2152; sec. 114 of Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1677; sec. 215 of Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1767; sec. 32934 of Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 830; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(e) * * *
(4) As of January 6, 2023, employers subject to § 382.701(a) of this chapter must use the Drug and Alcohol Clearinghouse to comply with the requirements of this section with respect to FMCSA-regulated employers.
(i)
(B) If an applicant was subject to an alcohol and controlled substance testing program under the requirements of a DOT mode other than FMCSA, the employer must request alcohol and controlled substances information required under this section directly from those employers regulated by a DOT mode other than FMCSA.
(ii) [Reserved]
(f)(1) A prospective motor carrier employer must provide to the previous employer the driver's consent meeting the requirements of § 40.321(b) of this title for the release of the information in paragraph (e) of this section. If the driver refuses to provide this consent, the prospective motor carrier employer must not permit the driver to operate a commercial motor vehicle for that motor carrier.
(2) If a driver refuses to grant consent for the prospective motor carrier
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
Final rule.
The FDIC is adopting a final rule to facilitate prompt payment of FDIC-insured deposits when large insured depository institutions fail. The final rule requires each insured depository institution that has two million or more deposit accounts to (1) configure its information technology system to be capable of calculating the insured and uninsured amount in each deposit account by ownership right and capacity, which would be used by the FDIC to make deposit insurance determinations in the event of the institution's failure, and (2) maintain complete and accurate information needed by the FDIC to determine deposit insurance coverage with respect to each deposit account, except as otherwise provided.
Effective April 1, 2017.
Marc Steckel, Deputy Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, 571-858-8224; Teresa J. Franks, Associate Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, 571-858-8226; Shane Kiernan, Counsel, Legal Division, 703-562-2632; Karen L. Main, Counsel, Legal Division, 703-562-2079.
With this final rule (“final rule”), the FDIC adopts regulatory requirements that will facilitate the FDIC's prompt payment of deposit insurance after the failure of insured depository institutions (“IDIs”) with two million or more deposit accounts. These institutions are typically large and complex. By law, the FDIC must pay deposit insurance “as soon as possible” after an IDI fails while also resolving the IDI in the manner least costly to the Deposit Insurance Fund (“DIF”).
The final rule is expected to significantly reduce the difficulties the FDIC would face in making prompt deposit insurance determinations at the largest IDIs. While the FDIC is authorized to rely upon the deposit account records of a failed IDI to determine deposit insurance coverage, the institution's records can be voluminous and inconsistent. Moreover, they may be incomplete for deposit insurance purposes. Consolidation of the banking industry has resulted in larger institutions that have more complex information technology systems (“IT systems”) and data management challenges. The final rule generally requires IDIs with two million or more deposit accounts (“covered institutions”) to maintain complete and accurate depositor information and to configure their IT systems in a manner that permits the FDIC to calculate deposit insurance coverage promptly in the event of failure.
The final rule will facilitate consideration of the full range of resolution options that can be invoked by the FDIC to resolve a covered institution in a manner that satisfies the least-cost resolution requirement. These resolution methods include: Purchase-and-assumption transactions; establishment of bridge depository institutions; and payout and liquidation, in which the FDIC pays depositors the insured amount of their deposits and liquidates the failed IDI's assets to pay remaining claims. Expanding the range of resolution options and including those that impose losses on uninsured depositors can also improve market discipline.
In order to resolve a bank under the least-cost requirement, the FDIC must be able to estimate the cost to the DIF of each possible resolution type. As part of this estimate, the FDIC must be able to rapidly identify insured versus uninsured deposits. Insufficient information about a bank's insured deposits and the difficulties posed in identifying relationships between deposit accounts at the time of closing, due in part to the large volume of deposit accounts managed by the institution, may impede the FDIC's ability to meet the least-cost requirement or to ensure timely access to insured funds.
Covered institutions often use multiple deposit systems, which complicates deposit insurance determinations. Depending on the structure of the deposit systems, data aggregation and account identification may be burdensome, inefficient, and time-consuming, all adding to the cost of resolution. For certain types of deposit accounts, depositors need daily access to funds, so prompt payment is essential to providing confidence and maintaining financial stability. While challenges resulting from incomplete information are present when any bank fails, obtaining the necessary information could significantly delay the availability of funds when information is incomplete for a large number of accounts. Such delays could lead to a decrease in public confidence in the FDIC's deposit insurance program. Ensuring the swift availability of funds for millions of depositors at a large institution promotes financial stability by increasing confidence in deposit insurance and availability of funds.
Another of the final rule's policy objectives is that depositors at both large and small failed banks receive the same prompt access to their deposits with full recognition of and respect for the deposit insurance limits, which should reduce potential disparities that might undermine market discipline or create unintended competitive advantages in the deposit market. Confidence in the ability of the FDIC to promptly determine insured amounts and provide access to insured deposits should help uninsured depositors realize that they may face losses in a large bank failure. This realization should mitigate moral hazard and help to curtail excessive risk taking on the part of the largest banks.
The FDIC is authorized to prescribe rules and regulations as it may deem necessary to carry out the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDI Act”).
Although the statutory requirement that the FDIC pay insurance “as soon as possible” does not specify a time period for paying insured depositors, the FDIC strives to pay depositors promptly in the event of an IDI's failure. Indeed, the FDIC strives to make most insured deposits available to depositors by the next business day after a bank fails. For the reasons set forth earlier, the FDIC believes that prompt payment of deposit insurance is essential.
The FDIC took an initial step toward ensuring that prompt deposit insurance determinations could be made at large IDIs through the issuance of § 360.9 of the FDIC's regulations.
While § 360.9 would assist the FDIC in fulfilling its legal mandates regarding the resolution of a failed institution that is subject to that rule, the FDIC believes that if the largest of depository institutions were to fail with little prior warning, additional measures would be needed to ensure the prompt and accurate payment of deposit insurance to all depositors.
The FDIC is authorized to rely upon the deposit account records of a failed IDI to determine the amount of deposit insurance available on each account. However, in the FDIC's experience, it is not unusual for a failed bank's records to be ambiguous or incomplete. For example, an account may be titled as a joint account but may not qualify to be insured as a joint account because signature cards are missing or have not been signed by all joint account holders. A further complication is that bank records on trust accounts are often in paper form or electronically scanned images that require a time-consuming manual review.
In addition to problems with ambiguity or incompleteness of an institution's records, it is also possible that an institution simply is not required to maintain record of the beneficial owners of deposits with respect to certain types of deposit accounts under the existing regulatory framework. For example, under part 330, a deposit may be insured even if record of beneficial ownership is maintained outside of the IDI by an agent or third party that has been designated to maintain such record.
Under each of these circumstances, in order to ensure the accurate payment of deposit insurance without imposing risk of overpayment by the DIF, the FDIC would need to delay the payment of deposit insurance while it manually reviews files and obtains additional information. Such delays in the insurance determination process could increase the likelihood of disruptions to an assuming institution's or an FDIC-managed bridge depository institution's payment processing functions, such as clearing checks and authorizing direct debits.
While these challenges to accurately determining and promptly paying deposit insurance may be present at any size of failed institution, they become increasingly formidable as the size and complexity of the institution increases. Larger institutions are generally more complex, have more deposit accounts, greater geographic dispersion, multiple deposit systems, and more issues with data accuracy and completeness. The largest IDIs which grew through acquisition have inherited the legacy recordkeeping and deposit account systems of the acquired banks. Those systems might have inaccurate or incomplete deposit account records. Additionally, acquired records might not be automated or compatible with the acquiring institution's deposit systems, resulting in use of multiple deposit platforms.
Although some of the largest institutions are able to conduct their banking operations without integrating these inherited systems or updating the acquired deposit account records, the state of their deposit systems would complicate and prolong the deposit insurance determination process in the event of failure. Because of the potential problems posed by delays in determination and payment of deposit insurance, improved strategies must be implemented to ensure that deposit insurance can be paid promptly.
The FDIC's experiences during the most recent financial crisis, which peaked in the months following the promulgation of § 360.9, indicated that failures can often happen with very little notice and time for the FDIC to prepare. Since 2009, the FDIC was called upon to resolve 47 institutions with 30 days or less to plan the resolution (which includes review of deposit account records). While these 47 institutions were smaller, the financial condition of two banks with a very large number of deposit accounts—Washington Mutual Bank and Wachovia—deteriorated very quickly, also leaving the FDIC little time to prepare.
The FDIC has worked with institutions covered by § 360.9 for several years to confirm their ability to comply with that rule's requirements. This implementation process has led the FDIC to conclude that the standard data sets and other requirements of § 360.9 are not sufficient to mitigate the complexities presented in the failure of the largest institutions. Based on its experience reviewing deposit data (and often finding inaccurate or incomplete data), deposit recordkeeping systems, and capabilities for imposing provisional holds in the course of its § 360.9 compliance visits, the FDIC believes that § 360.9 has not been as effective as intended in enhancing the capacity of the FDIC to make prompt deposit insurance determinations necessary for the largest IDIs. Specifically, the continued growth in the number of deposit accounts at larger IDIs and the number and complexity of deposit systems used by many of these institutions since the promulgation of § 360.9 would exacerbate the difficulties present in making prompt deposit insurance determinations. Additionally, the institutions covered by § 360.9 are permitted discretion when populating the data fields that often results in missing information.
A failed IDI that has multiple deposit systems would further complicate the aggregation of deposits by depositor in a particular right and capacity, causing additional delay. Additionally, deposit taking practices have evolved, and innovative products and services have proliferated throughout the financial services markets. Customer use of deposit accounts has changed. Accounts that may have been used in the past as traditional savings vehicles are now used more frequently for transactional purposes. For example, checking accounts held in connection with a formal revocable trust are used to pay for everyday living expenses. Brokered deposits are sometimes held in money market deposit accounts (“MMDAs”).
Using the FDIC's IT system to make deposit insurance determinations at a failed institution with a large number of deposit accounts would require the transmission of massive amounts of deposit data from the IDI's IT system to the FDIC's IT system. The transfer of such a large volume of data would be very time consuming and the time required for processing that data would present a significant impediment to making deposit insurance determinations in the timely manner that the public has come to expect. The 38 institutions currently covered by the final rule each have between 2 million and 87 million deposit accounts as of June 30, 2016. Requiring these covered institutions to enhance their deposit account data and upgrade their IT systems so that the FDIC can promptly determine deposit insurance available on most deposit accounts using the covered institutions' IT systems would help to resolve the timing issues presented when transferring and processing such a large volume of deposit data.
On April 28, 2015, the FDIC published in the
Following the ANPR, the FDIC developed and then published in the
The NPR's comment period expired on June 27, 2016. The FDIC received 14 comment letters in total from IDIs, industry trade associations, financial intermediaries, mortgage servicing companies, technology firms, an industry consultant, and an individual. In addition, FDIC staff participated in meetings or conference calls with industry representatives. The FDIC considered all of the comments it received when developing the final rule, and the comments and the FDIC's responses are discussed in
The scope of the final rule is unchanged from the NPR. It applies to any IDI that has two million or more deposit accounts, defined as a “covered institution.” As contemplated by the proposed rule, under the final rule, each covered institution must configure its IT system to be capable of accurately calculating the deposit insurance available for each deposit account in accordance with the FDIC's deposit insurance rules set forth in 12 CFR part 330 should the covered institution fail.
In order for the FDIC to effectively use the covered institution's IT system to calculate deposit insurance, the covered institution's deposit account records must contain certain information concerning the identity of the owner of the funds on deposit and details about the right and capacity in which the deposit is held for deposit insurance purposes. The proposed rule would have required covered institutions to maintain this information in their deposit account records for all accounts unless the FDIC granted the covered institution an exception from this requirement. In light of comments received in response to the NPR, the final rule modifies this approach. Recognizing that insured depository institutions do not maintain all information needed for deposit insurance determination in their deposit account records for every account, along with the significant challenges associated with collecting that information, the FDIC has bifurcated the recordkeeping requirement.
Under the final rule's general recordkeeping requirements, a covered institution will need to ensure that its deposit account records contain the information needed for its IT system to be able to calculate deposit insurance coverage for those deposit accounts for which it already maintains the necessary information. A covered institution should, in the normal course of business, already maintain in its deposit account records the information necessary to do this for: Single ownership accounts; joint ownership accounts; accounts held by a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association for themselves; informal revocable trust (
The final rule recognizes that, under the FDIC's deposit insurance rules set forth in 12 CFR part 330, the amount of deposit insurance available may not be determinable without reference to information that an IDI does not, and is not otherwise required to, maintain in its deposit account records under the existing regulatory framework. After an IDI fails, this information must be provided to the FDIC so that the FDIC can determine the full amount of deposit insurance available. Accordingly, under the final rule, a covered institution does not need to meet the general recordkeeping requirements described in this section, but may instead meet alternative recordkeeping requirements with respect to certain types of deposit accounts for which it is not required under 12 CFR part 330 to maintain in its deposit account records the information that would be needed for the FDIC to determine the full amount of deposit insurance coverage. Certain additional provisions apply to deposit accounts with transactional features.
To meet the alternative recordkeeping requirements, the covered institution must maintain in its deposit account records certain information that will facilitate the FDIC's prompt collection of the information needed to determine deposit insurance with respect to those deposit accounts after its failure. These alternative recordkeeping requirements apply to deposit accounts that would be insured on a “pass-through” basis (such as brokered deposits) because beneficial owner information is not maintained by the covered institution, and to deposit accounts for which the amount of insurance is dependent on additional facts (such as deposit accounts held in connection with a trust). The FDIC also recognizes that it may not always be feasible for a covered institution to maintain information in its deposit account records needed to calculate the deposit insurance with respect to official items prior to presentment and, therefore, if the information needed for deposit insurance calculation is not available, the covered institution will need to maintain in its deposit account records certain information that will facilitate the FDIC's deposit insurance determination after the failure of a covered institution.
For deposit accounts with “transactional features” for which the covered institution maintains its deposit account records in accordance with the alternative recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(b)(1), a covered institution must certify that the information needed to calculate deposit insurance coverage will be submitted to the FDIC so that deposit insurance can be determined within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. The FDIC has been concerned about timely deposit insurance determinations for accounts with transactional features since the inception of this rulemaking process. One of the options presented in the ANPR was that “[f]or a large subset of deposits (“closing night deposits”), including those where depositors have the greatest need for immediate access to funds (such as transaction accounts and money market deposit accounts (“MMDAs”), deposit insurance determinations would be made on closing night.”
After reviewing the comments received on the ANPR, the FDIC concluded that there really was no consensus among the potentially covered institutions regarding what types of deposits could be designated as “closing night deposits.” As a result, the FDIC adopted the approach in the proposed rule that, generally, covered institutions would need to collect and maintain the necessary depositor information for all deposit accounts unless the conditions for exception could be satisfied. Then, the FDIC would have all the depositor information necessary to begin the deposit insurance determinations immediately upon the covered institution's failure. However, in response to the commenters' objections to the proposed rule's approach, the FDIC developed the bifurcated approach set forth in the final rule. In this way, the final rule is consistent with the recordkeeping standards established in §§ 330.5 and 330.7;
The proposed rule would have provided a two-year timeframe for implementation of IT system and recordkeeping requirements. Under the final rule, a covered institution has three years after the effective date for implementation and can apply to the FDIC for extension of that timeframe.
The purpose of the final rule is to help the FDIC overcome the challenges it faces when fulfilling its statutory mandate to pay deposit insurance as soon as possible after the failure of an IDI with millions of deposit accounts at the least cost to the DIF. These challenges become more pronounced as the number of deposit accounts at an IDI rises above two million. Moreover, the number of deposit accounts is highly correlated with other attributes that contribute to this challenge, such as the complexity of account relationships and the use of multiple deposit systems by these institutions. Accordingly, the final rule requires IDIs with two million or more deposit accounts to configure their IT systems to be capable of calculating the amount of deposit insurance coverage available for each deposit account in the event of failure.
This section provides definitions of terms that are used in the final rule. A
For purposes of the final rule,
Several terms are defined by reference to their statutory or regulatory definitions. Specifically,
As was proposed in the NPR, each covered institution is required to configure its IT system to be capable of accurately calculating the deposit insurance available to each beneficial owner of funds on deposit in accordance with the FDIC's deposit insurance rules set forth in 12 CFR part 330. Additionally, the IT system must be able to adjust account balances within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. Each covered institution's IT system would need to be capable of grouping each beneficial owner's deposits within the applicable ownership right and capacity because deposit insurance is available up to the SMDIA for each ownership right and capacity in which the deposits are held. To do this, a covered institution must maintain in its deposit account records certain information, as described in § 370.4. The covered institution's IT system would also need to be able to
If a covered institution were to fail, its depositors' access to their funds would need to be restricted while the FDIC makes deposit insurance determinations in order to avoid overpayment. Each covered institution's IT system would need to be capable of restricting access to some or all of the funds in each deposit account until the FDIC has determined the deposit insurance coverage for that account using the covered institution's IT system.
The deposit insurance determinations for most deposit accounts would be made within 24 hours after failure and holds on those accounts would be removed. Holds would remain in place on deposit accounts for which a deposit insurance determination has not been made within that time frame and would be removed after the determination has been made.
The covered institution's IT system would need to adjust the balance in each deposit account, if necessary, after the deposit insurance determination has been completed so that only insured deposits are made available. Specifically, if any of a beneficial owner's deposits within a particular ownership right and capacity were not insured, then the covered institution's IT system would need to debit the respective deposit accounts for the uninsured amount associated with each account. To the extent that a beneficial owner of deposits is uninsured, it will have a claim against the receivership for the failed covered institution that would be paid out of the assets of the receivership on equal footing with all other deposit claims, including the FDIC's subrogated claim for insured deposits.
A covered institution's IT system would need to be capable of performing these functions for most deposit accounts within 24 hours after the FDIC's appointment as receiver should the covered institution fail, and within 24 hours after the FDIC receives from the remaining account holders the additional information needed to determine deposit insurance coverage.
The FDIC's regulations and resources concerning deposit insurance that are available to the public on the FDIC's Web site are useful tools that covered institutions can use to develop the capabilities of their IT systems to meet the final rule's requirements.
In response to commenters' recommendations, the final rule's recordkeeping requirements have been modified from those set forth in the proposed rule. While the proposed rule would have required covered institutions to collect and maintain significantly more information on deposit relationships than is currently contemplated under part 330, the final rule recognizes that such information may continue to reside in records maintained outside the covered institution by either the account holder or a party designated by the account holder, as set forth in part 330. The final rule contemplates, however, that in many instances, a covered institution will already maintain in its deposit account records the necessary information for its IT system to calculate deposit insurance coverage and therefore the institution will be capable of fulfilling the general recordkeeping requirement to maintain in its deposit account records for each account the unique identifier for the appropriate parties and the applicable ownership right and capacity code. Accordingly, § 370.4(a) imposes a general recordkeeping requirement whereby the covered institution must assign a unique identifier to each account holder, beneficial owner, grantor, and beneficiary, as appropriate, and assign the applicable ownership right and capacity code listed in Appendix A. A covered institution should, in the normal course of business, already have in its deposit account records the necessary information to do this for, among others, deposit accounts that would be insured as: single ownership accounts; joint ownership accounts; accounts owned by a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association; informal revocable trust (
The final rule recognizes, however, that under the FDIC's deposit insurance rules, where an IDI's deposit account records disclose the existence of a relationship that might provide a basis for additional insurance, the details of the relationship must be ascertainable from either the IDI's deposit account records or from records maintained by the depositor or by a third party that has undertaken to maintain such records for the depositor. (See 12 CFR 330.5 concerning recognition of deposit ownership and fiduciary relationships; 12 CFR 330.7 concerning accounts held by an agent, nominee, guardian, custodian, or conservator; 12 CFR 330.10 concerning revocable trust accounts; and 12 CFR 330.13 concerning irrevocable trust accounts.) Accordingly, under § 370.4(b), a covered institution may meet alternative recordkeeping requirements with respect to those types of accounts. Under the alternative recordkeeping requirements, the covered institution must maintain in its deposit account records for each deposit account where the basis for additional deposit insurance is contained in records maintained by the account holder, or a party designated by the account holder, the unique identifier for only the account holder. It must also maintain in its deposit account records information sufficient to populate the “pending reason” field of the pending file set forth in Appendix B, which is to be generated by the covered institution's IT system pursuant to § 370.3(b) of the final rule. For deposit accounts held in connection with formal trusts for which the covered institution is not trustee, the covered institution will need to maintain in its deposit account records the unique identifier of the account holder, and the unique identifier of the grantor (if the grantor is not the account holder) if the account has transactional features. The unique identifier of the grantor is needed in order to begin calculating how much deposit insurance would be available, at a minimum, on deposit accounts held in connection with a formal trust. The covered institution will also need to maintain in its deposit account records information sufficient to populate the “pending reason” field of the pending file set forth in Appendix B, which is to be
Additionally, a covered institution will need to maintain in its deposit account records the information needed for its IT system to calculate deposit insurance coverage with respect to payment instruments drawn on an account of the covered institution (commonly referred to as “official items”), such as a cashier's check, teller's check, certified check, personal money order, or foreign draft. The FDIC recognizes that it may not always be feasible to identify the beneficial owner of such instruments and, therefore, if the necessary information is not available, the covered institution will need to maintain in its deposit account records for those accounts only the “pending reason” code to indicate that more information is needed before deposit insurance can be calculated. This will be used to populate the “pending reason” field of the pending file set forth in Appendix B, which is to be generated by the covered institution's IT system pursuant to § 370.3(b) of the final rule.
To the extent that a covered institution does not meet the recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(a) and instead meets the alternative recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(b), it must take the additional action set forth in § 370.5 with respect to those deposit accounts that have transactional features.
The FDIC is concerned that many deposit accounts held in the name of someone other than the beneficial owner of the deposit (such as an agent, nominee, custodian, fiduciary, or other third party) are relied upon for transactions. In the case of a failure of a covered institution, with its millions of deposit accounts, any material delay in the payment of deposit insurance could undermine public confidence in the financial system and be extremely disruptive not only for individual depositors but also for the community or region as a whole. Widespread or extended delay could even result in systemic consequences. Therefore, § 370.5(a) imposes the requirement that, with respect to deposit accounts with transactional features that are held in the name of a third party for the benefit of others, the covered institution certify that all information needed to calculate deposit insurance coverage can and will be submitted to the FDIC upon failure of the covered institution to minimize any delay in the FDIC's efforts to calculate deposit insurance within 24 hours after appointment as receiver using the covered institution's IT system. The timeframe within which this information must be received will likely need to be less than 24 hours because the covered institution's IT system will need time to process the information once received. This requirement applies not only to traditional demand and checking accounts, but also to savings deposit accounts that have transactional features, such as MMDAs, and to prepaid accounts that are entitled to deposit insurance coverage. The final rule provides, however, that this certification requirement does not apply with respect to mortgage servicing accounts, lawyers trust accounts, real estate trust accounts, or accounts held by employee benefits plans. A covered institution that is unable to provide this certification must apply to the FDIC for an exception from the certification requirement. In addition, the final rule makes clear that a covered institution's failure to provide the certification shall be deemed not to constitute a violation of this part if the FDIC has granted the covered institution relief from the certification requirement.
This section provides that a covered institution must comply with the final rule no later than the compliance date, which is three years after the later of the effective date of the final rule or the date on which the institution becomes a covered institution by reaching the threshold of two million deposit accounts. Under § 370.6(b), a covered institution may request that the FDIC extend the implementation time period. The request must state the amount of additional time needed and the reasons therefor. It must also report the total number of, and dollar amount in, accounts for which the covered institution's IT system could not calculate deposit insurance coverage if the covered institution were to fail as of the date of the request.
The final rule provides for accelerated implementation on a case-by-case basis and after notice from the FDIC to a covered institution in three scenarios. The first would be when a covered institution has received a composite rating of 3, 4, or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution's Rating System (CAMELS rating) in its most recently completed Report of Examination. The second scenario would be when a covered institution has become undercapitalized, as defined in the prompt corrective action provisions of 12 CFR part 325. The third would be when the appropriate Federal banking agency or the FDIC, in consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency, has determined that a covered institution is experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the covered institution by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent Report of Examination.
While the FDIC recognizes concerns about the imposition of an accelerated implementation deadline during economic distress, including the concern that a covered institution's attention might be diverted to solving critical problems that threaten its financial condition, providing depositors with immediate access to funds and preserving systemic stability is also critical. The ability to accelerate the implementation deadline must be balanced against any hardship an accelerated implementation period might impose on a covered institution. Before accelerating the implementation time period, the FDIC would consult with the covered institution's appropriate Federal banking agency. The FDIC would also evaluate the complexity of the covered institution's deposit systems and operations, the extent of the covered institution's asset quality difficulties, the volatility of the covered institution's funding sources, the expected near-term changes in the covered institution's capital levels, and other relevant factors appropriate for the FDIC's consideration as deposit insurer.
Under § 370.8(a) of the final rule, a covered institution may submit a request to the FDIC for an exemption if it demonstrates that it has not and will not take deposits which, when aggregated, would exceed the SMDIA (currently $250,000) for any beneficial owner of the funds on deposit. In other words, if each owner of deposits were to have an amount equal to or less than the SMDIA on deposit at a covered institution, then all deposits would be fully insured. Deposit insurance determinations at failed covered institutions that meet this condition should not be complicated and, therefore, the FDIC does not believe that requiring such covered institutions to develop the capability to calculate deposit insurance coverage would be necessary.
Recognizing that circumstances may currently exist, or emerge in the future,
A covered institution that no longer meets the criteria for being a covered institution may submit a request for release from the final rule's requirements. Section 370.8(c) provides that if the number of deposit accounts at a covered institution drops below the two million deposit account threshold for three consecutive quarters based on Schedule RC-O in the Report of Condition and Income, the institution may request release. Like any other IDI, an institution released under this paragraph would become a covered institution again if it were to have two million or more deposit accounts for two consecutive quarters.
The objectives of the final rule supersede the objectives of 12 CFR 360.9. Accordingly, if a covered institution reaches full compliance with the final rule, the results intended under § 360.9 will be largely accomplished. Paragraph (d) permits a covered institution to request a release from the requirements set forth in § 360.9 upon submission of its first certification of compliance with the final rule's requirements.
This section further provides that the FDIC will consider all requests made under relevant provisions of the final rule on a case-by-case basis in light of the final rule's objectives, and that the FDIC's grant of a covered institution's request may be conditional or time-limited.
This section requires that within ten business days after either the effective date of the final rule or becoming a covered institution, whichever is later, a covered institution notify the FDIC of the person(s) responsible for implementing the recordkeeping or IT system requirements set forth in this part. Point-of-contact information, reports and requests are to be submitted in writing to: Office of the Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429-0002.
The final rule sets forth a two-part approach for compliance. First, beginning on or before the compliance date and annually thereafter, a covered institution must certify that it has implemented and successfully tested its IT system for compliance with the final rule's requirements during the preceding calendar year. The certification must be signed by the covered institution's chief executive officer or chief operating officer. Along with its certification of compliance, the covered institution must also submit a summary deposit insurance coverage report to the FDIC. The summary deposit insurance coverage report would list key metrics for evaluating deposit insurance risk to the DIF and coverage available to a covered institution's depositors. Those metrics are: The number of account holders, the number of deposit accounts, and the dollar amount of deposits by ownership right and capacity; the total number of fully-insured deposit accounts and the dollar amount of deposits in those accounts; the total number of deposit accounts with uninsured amounts and the total dollar amount of insured and uninsured amounts in those accounts; the total number of deposit accounts and the dollar amount of deposits in accounts, broken out by account type, for which the covered institution's IT system cannot calculate deposit insurance coverage because it is permitted to maintain alternative recordkeeping requirements as set forth in § 370.4(b); and a description of any substantive change to the covered institution's IT system or deposit taking operations since the prior annual certification.
Second, the FDIC will conduct periodic on-site inspections and tests of each covered institution's IT system's capability to accurately calculate deposit insurance coverage in the event of failure. Testing will begin no sooner than the last day of the first calendar quarter following the compliance date, and will occur no more frequently than on a three-year cycle thereafter, unless there is a material change to the covered institution's IT system, deposit-taking operations, or financial condition. The FDIC will provide data integrity and IT system testing instructions to covered institutions through the issuance of procedures or guidelines prior to the final rule's effective date and before initiating its compliance testing program, and will provide outreach to covered institutions to facilitate their implementation efforts. The final rule also requires covered institutions to assist the FDIC in resolving any issues that arise upon the FDIC's on-site inspection and testing of the IT system's capabilities.
The final rule provides that a covered institution will not be in violation of any requirements of the rule for which the institution has submitted a request for relief pursuant to § 370.6(b) or § 370.8(a)-(c) while awaiting the FDIC's response to the request.
Using current data, the FDIC estimates that the rule will apply to 38 institutions, each with two million or more deposit accounts.
The FDIC has evaluated the estimated cost to implement this rule, as well as the benefits to the FDIC's resolution process and to the millions of account holders who would need immediate access to their funds in the event of failure of a covered institution. The main determinants of the estimated cost to institutions covered by the final rule are the number of deposit accounts they hold and the number of deposit IT systems they manage. Benefits of the rule include: Ensuring prompt and efficient deposit insurance determinations by the FDIC and thus the liquidity of deposit funds; enabling the FDIC to readily resolve a failed IDI; reducing the costs of failure of a covered institution by increasing the FDIC's resolution options; and promoting long term stability in the banking system by reducing moral hazard.
These benefits are expected to accrue to the public at large. However, because there is no market in which the value of these expected benefits can be determined, it is not possible to quantify these benefits with precision. As the public benefits cannot be quantified, the FDIC presents an analytical framework that describes the qualitative effects of the proposed rule and the quantitative effects where possible, consistent with
The FDIC's initial estimate of the cost of this rule, as described in the NPR, was approximately $328 million. The FDIC has updated its cost estimate to $478 million, based in part upon comments the FDIC received in response to the NPR. The updated estimated cost to covered institutions represents $386 million of this total, with the remaining estimated costs accruing to depositors and the FDIC. Even with these updates, the estimated costs to covered institutions remain small relative to their revenues and expenses.
In estimating the costs of this rule, the FDIC engaged the services of an independent consulting firm. Working with the FDIC, the consultant used its extensive knowledge and experience with IT systems at financial institutions to develop a model to provide cost estimates for the following activities:
Cost estimates for these activities were derived from a projection of the types of workers needed for each task, an estimate of the amount of labor hours required, an estimate of the industry average labor cost (including benefits) for each worker needed, and an estimate of worker productivity. The analysis assumed that manual data clean-up would be needed for 5 percent of deposit accounts, 10 accounts per hour would be resolved, and internal labor would be used for 60 percent of the clean-up. This analysis also projected higher costs for institutions based on the following factors:
Illustration 1 provides a diagram of the cost model.
Table 1 shows that almost half of the rule's estimated total costs are attributable to legacy data clean-up. These legacy data clean-up cost estimates are sensitive to both the number of deposit accounts and the number of deposit IT systems. More than 90 percent of the legacy data clean-up costs are associated with manually collecting account information from customers and entering it into the covered institution's systems. Data aggregation, which is sensitive to the number of deposit IT systems, makes up about 13 percent of the rule's estimated costs.
These estimates of initial and ongoing costs of implementation are higher than those provided in the NPR. The increase in total estimated implementation costs is the result of updating the data, reviewing the cost methodology, and incorporating comments received on the NPR. Even with the revisions, however, the updated cost estimate does not alter the FDIC's overall assessment of the expected effects of the final rule.
The estimated total cost of the final rule remains relatively small for covered institutions. The estimated costs amount to an average of 93 cents per deposit account and one-quarter of one percent of pre-tax net income, as shown in Table 2. Banks with more serious deficiencies in their current systems or with greater complexity in their business lines, accounts, and operations are expected to incur above-average compliance costs. These estimates may overstate the costs of the final rule because some covered institutions are already undertaking efforts to improve their data quality to address their own operational concerns and to comply with other statutes and regulations.
The recent financial crisis has demonstrated that large financial institutions can fail very rapidly. The failure of a covered institution would likely involve millions of deposit insurance claims. An orderly resolution requires ready access to complete and accurate information about the insurance status of depositors. The final rule ensures that the FDIC can conduct an orderly resolution of covered institutions despite the informational challenges they pose.
Financial crises are, by their very nature, unpredictable, and unique and the likelihood, duration and magnitude of any such crisis cannot be predicted with mathematical precision. There are over $9 trillion in deposits in United States banks and the FDIC insures each qualifying account up to a maximum of $250,000, regardless of the events that unfold during any particular crisis. During the recent financial crisis, the federal government provided trillions of dollars of government support to large financial institutions.
The FDIC expects that the benefits of the final rule will accrue broadly to the public at large, to bank customers, to IDIs not covered by the rule, and to the covered institutions themselves. As discussed earlier, the FDIC expects the final rule to provide significant benefits, including ensuring prompt and efficient deposit insurance determinations by the FDIC and thus the liquidity of deposit funds; enabling the FDIC to more readily resolve a failed IDI; reducing the costs of failure of a covered institution by increasing the FDIC's resolution options; and promoting long term stability in the banking system by reducing moral hazard.
The public at large will be the primary beneficiaries of the final rule. An effective failed bank resolution maintains liquidity in the economy by providing timely access to insured funds, promotes financial stability by ensuring an orderly, least costly resolution, and reduces moral hazard by recognizing deposit insurance limits (since uninsured depositors could be subject to losses even at the largest banks). Making accurate deposit insurance determinations for all insured institutions is a key component in carrying out the FDIC's mission of maintaining confidence in the banking system and minimizing costs to the DIF.
Broadly, the final rule facilitates the consideration of resolution methods that might otherwise be unavailable, enabling the FDIC to resolve a failing covered institution in the least costly manner. With more resolution options, the FDIC may be less likely to resolve a failing large institution by having another large institution absorb it; absorption by another large institution would further increase concentration among the largest banks and raise concerns about longer term financial stability. This final rule reduces the likelihood of invoking a systemic risk exception, the cost of assistance provided as the result of a failure and receivership for which the systemic risk exception has been invoked, and the associated long-term risk of increased moral hazard and damaged market discipline.
Bank customers will also benefit from the final rule. Timely deposit insurance determinations will give bank customers expeditious access to insured funds to meet their transaction needs and financial obligations. Moreover, any current deficiencies in IT systems and data gathering that prevent covered institutions from identifying relationships between deposit accounts are likely to also prevent them from having the ability to quickly inform customers whether or not their deposits are insured, if asked.
IDIs not covered by the final rule will benefit because the prompt payment of deposit insurance at the largest IDIs should promote public confidence in the banking system as a whole. The provisions of the final rule will help to level the competitive playing field between large banks with two million or more deposit accounts and community banks, which typically maintain far fewer deposit accounts. The requirements of the final rule will reduce the perception that uninsured depositors at large banks are less likely to incur losses in the event of failure than their counterparts at smaller institutions.
The enhancements to data accuracy and completeness supported by the final rule should benefit covered institutions as well. Improvements to data on depositors and information systems as a result of adopting the final rule may lead to efficiencies in managing customer data. Accordingly, the upgrades in depositor information required under this rule are likely to benefit covered institutions by improving their ability to serve their customers and increasing their depositors' confidence that deposit insurance can be paid promptly by the FDIC in the event of failure. Moreover, the processing of daily bank transactions may be less prone to data errors.
A number of alternatives were considered in developing the final rule. The major alternatives include (1) adjusting thresholds above or below the proposed two million accounts, (2) imposing recordkeeping requirements on all account types, (3) maintaining the FDIC's current approach to deposit insurance determinations (status quo), (4) developing an internal IT system and transfer processes within the FDIC capable of subsuming the deposit system of any large covered IDI in order to perform deposit insurance determinations, and (5) simplifying deposit insurance coverage rules. The FDIC considers the final rule to be the most effective approach among the alternatives in terms of cost to the industry, the speed and accuracy of deposit insurance determinations, access to funds, and reduction of systemic and information security risks. Development of the final rule was based on a careful evaluation of expected effects, public comments, and the FDIC's experience in resolving failed banks.
In deciding which institutions would be subject to the final rule, the FDIC considered thresholds above and below two million deposit accounts. Raising the threshold would decrease the costs of the final rule to the industry because fewer institutions would be covered, but would also increase the risk that the FDIC would be unable to make timely and accurate deposit insurance determinations for large institutions and limit the FDIC's resolution options, thereby potentially increasing the costs of resolution.
Making a correct and timely deposit insurance determination requires that the FDIC have access to accurate data on deposit accounts as well as on any relationships among those accounts. The FDIC has learned from prior experience that it is possible to manage data quality problems at small institutions without delaying or materially altering the outcome of the deposit insurance determination. However, the ability of the FDIC to promptly manage data quality problems at large institutions declines rapidly with the number and complexity of deposit accounts. Therefore, resolving data quality problems at institutions with the largest number of accounts and most complex deposit account systems prior to failure, as required by this final rule, should substantially lower the risk of inaccuracy or delay in making determinations.
As described in
In determining the scope of the final rule, the FDIC considered requiring covered institutions to maintain complete and accurate records for all accounts as originally proposed. However, the FDIC recognizes that covered institutions may not maintain in their deposit account records, and may not be able to obtain, for all accounts the information needed for deposit insurance purposes. The FDIC's regulation that sets forth the standards for deposit insurance coverage, 12 CFR part 330, permits records to reside outside of an IDI with respect to certain types of deposit accounts, as long as certain requirements are satisfied, without adverse consequences for the insurability of deposits. Similarly, the final rule recognizes that covered institutions will not have and therefore do not need to keep complete records for deposit insurance purposes for those types of deposit accounts.
Additionally, costs associated with developing the ability to collect data, produce key account holder information in a timely manner, and perform a deposit insurance calculation are estimated to be relatively high for some account types. For example, for covered institutions the costs associated with collecting key information regarding beneficial ownership of deposits held by a prepaid account program manager on behalf of program participants is likely to be higher than for other account types for which beneficial ownership can be readily determined. For trust accounts, the identity and number of beneficiaries can often change, making the costs associated with collecting key information from the account holder, trustee, or other interested parties relatively high.
Another alternative is to maintain the status quo established by 12 CFR 360.9. However, that rule does not adequately address an important problem that arises in the resolution of the largest and most complex institutions. Deposit insurance determinations under § 360.9 necessitate a secure bulk download of depositor data that introduces additional delays in making determinations. The FDIC's experience in resolving large institutions shows that the amount of time for data to download can vary widely based on the file size, complexity of the data, and the number of deposit systems, among other things. Given the limited time available to the FDIC to make determinations, these delays pose the risk of creating financial hardships for depositors and disrupting financial markets.
Another alternative considered was to establish a system to rapidly transmit all deposit data from a failed IDI's IT system to the FDIC for processing in order to calculate and make deposit insurance determinations. Although this alternative utilizes a common deposit insurance calculation IT system, absorbing the deposit system or systems of a large, complex institution quickly enough to make a prompt insurance determination is infeasible as a practical matter. Unlike typical small and mid-sized IDIs, covered institutions have large amounts of data and often use multiple deposit account IT systems which are programmed to meet institution-specific needs. FDIC staff, working with staff from each large institution, would have to develop an individualized solution for each institution tailored to its IT systems and third-party applications. Extensive initial and ongoing testing would be required to establish that the data transmission would allow a prompt and accurate insurance determination. Additionally, covered institutions would still bear the cost of legacy data cleanup and data aggregation, which are the two largest cost components in the cost model.
The alternative of the FDIC establishing an IT system to rapidly transfer all deposit data from a failed IDI would also likely impose large ongoing costs for covered institutions because any significant change to the deposit system of a large IDI would necessitate further testing and validation. Further, the large IT development, testing, and recertification costs borne by the FDIC under this alternative would ultimately be paid by insured depository institutions through ongoing deposit insurance assessments. In contrast, the final rule requires that a covered institution's IT system have the ability to calculate deposit insurance coverage for all deposit accounts in the event of a failure. It would use the data that the covered institution has on hand at the time of failure as well as data collected by the FDIC from depositors shortly after failure. Under the final rule, IT costs would be absorbed by covered institutions rather than by the entire banking industry.
Another alternative the FDIC considered was to simplify deposit insurance coverage rules. Currently, deposit insurance is provided under different ownership rights and capacities, some of which involve complex types of deposit accounts. Reducing the number of rights and capacities or simplifying the coverage rules would reduce the costs associated with covered institutions' development of the capability to calculate deposit insurance coverage. However, efforts to simplify the deposit insurance coverage rules could effectively reduce coverage to depositors at all FDIC insured institutions, an approach that would impose a cost on a wider range of institutions and bank customers. Further, these complex account types present problems when the FDIC must analyze a significant number of these accounts at the same time. The FDIC's established methods for dealing with these more complex accounts in smaller and mid-sized resolutions include manual processing, an approach that could take too long in a larger resolution involving a significant number of these accounts. Consequently, the FDIC is not pursuing simplification of the deposit insurance coverage rules.
Generally, the issues raised by the commenters may be categorized under the following topics: The need for regulation, expected effects of the proposed rule, possible alternatives to the proposed rule, problems with the proposed rule's requirements, and possible adverse consequences.
The commenters generally agree that it is important for depositors to have prompt access to their insured deposits in the event of the failure of a large and complex IDI. However, some commenters contended that the proposed rule is unnecessary because covered institutions are unlikely to fail. One commenter remarked that the likelihood of failure is “essentially zero.” This commenter maintained that it is more likely that market forces and the FDIC's enforcement powers and supervisory authority would solve the problems of a large institution before failure. This commenter also asserted that, even if failure did occur, a transaction in which all deposits are assumed by another institution would be the least costly resolution, thereby avoiding the need for a deposit insurance determination. The payment of all uninsured deposits would preserve the failed bank's franchise value, this commenter argued, while adherence to deposit insurance limits could cause runs at other financial institutions and be systemically disruptive. Another commenter suggested that it would be “unlikely” that the FDIC would use a straight deposit payoff, an insured deposit transfer, or a deposit insurance national bank to resolve a large bank. Similarly, other commenters posited that, if a
While the likelihood of any particular covered institution's failure may be low at a given point in time, history suggests that the financial condition of institutions that are perceived to be in good health can deteriorate quickly and with little notice. In 2008 and 2009, several large insured depository institutions failed, including IndyMac Bank and Washington Mutual Bank. In general, very large IDIs rely on credit-sensitive funding more than smaller IDIs do, which makes them more likely to suffer a rapid liquidity-induced failure.
The contention that warning signs will give the FDIC sufficient notice to plan for resolution of a covered institution and the related argument by another commenter that the “FDIC has provided absolutely no evidence that a large bank . . . has ever failed with little prior warning” are also controverted by the events of the recent banking and financial crisis. The financial condition of several large and complex financial institutions deteriorated very rapidly in 2008. Numerous academic studies, articles, reports to Congress, other government reports, and Congressional testimony (including testimony from FDIC officials) have documented that short term funding challenges rapidly caused distress at banks during the last financial crisis (resulting in either bank failure or government intervention to prevent failure, as in the case of Wachovia Bank and Citibank).
While certain post-crisis reforms have resulted in a more resilient banking system with stronger liquidity and capital, the effect of these reforms has not been tested in a crisis. These post-crisis reforms mitigate but do not eliminate the risk of failure. Other post-crisis reforms have limited the FDIC's authorities. For example, during the most recent crisis the FDIC was able to provide debt guarantees through the Temporary Liquidity Guarantee Program under then-existing statutory authority to bolster liquidity in the financial system. Under current law, such a program would require Congressional approval.
The contentions that, even if a large bank did fail, a transaction in which all deposits are assumed by another institution or in which all assets are purchased and deposit liabilities assumed would be the least costly resolution (thus avoiding the need for a deposit insurance determination), or that it would be “unlikely” that the FDIC would use a straight deposit payoff, an insured deposit transfer, or a deposit insurance national bank to resolve a large bank are again controverted by the facts. Since 2008, the FDIC has conducted 36 resolutions where an all-deposit assumption transaction could not be arranged. Moreover, the sheer size of many covered institutions limits the number of institutions that could even consider purchasing all assets and assuming all deposits (or simply assuming all deposits), increasing the chances that a deposit insurance payout or a bridge bank will be the least costly alternative.
Moreover, a former Chairman of the FDIC publicly shared his reaction to a commenter's suggestion that the FDIC would never need to determine deposit insurance for the largest banks, stating that the suggestion was “in effect, proposing 100% deposit insurance at banks, which would sound the death knell for any pretense of market discipline and a private sector banking system.” He stated that, historically, the FDIC “had no ability to deal with large bank failures in any way other than by recapitalizing them or merging them into even larger banks if [the FDIC] couldn't quickly segregate the uninsured deposits from the insured. Without this information, the FDIC might as well throw in the towel on instilling private sector discipline in the banking system.”
Some commenters assert that additional regulation is unnecessary because the FDIC's informational needs for a deposit insurance determination are already addressed in its current regulation at 12 CFR 360.9. The current approach under § 360.9 is not adequate and additional regulation is necessary for two reasons. First, as discussed in
Second, because deposit data files must be transmitted to the FDIC, standardized by FDIC staff, and then processed on the FDIC's IT system, a deposit insurance determination is still a very time consuming and manually intensive endeavor. While § 360.9 would assist the FDIC in fulfilling its legal mandates regarding the resolution of failed institutions subject to that rule, the FDIC believes that if one of the largest IDIs were to fail with little prior warning, additional measures would be needed to ensure the prompt and accurate payment of deposit insurance to all depositors.
Beyond the constraints apparent in § 360.9, significant resources are needed to collect and standardize the information needed to process the high volume of accounts a covered institution has in a manner that will
Several commenters assert that there is no need for covered institutions to maintain account information that duplicates or overlaps with information already maintained outside the institution by account holders who can provide the information expeditiously in the event of the institution's failure. These commenters believe that a two-pronged approach by which prompt payment is made to most depositors and later payment is made to certain other depositors once the required information has been received has had no negative effect on public confidence in deposit insurance and the banking system. To a large extent, the final rule accommodates this concern by limiting the recordkeeping requirements for certain types of deposit accounts for which covered institutions do not already maintain the information needed for deposit insurance determination.
The evolution of deposit products and relationships has rendered current regulatory standards less effective in facilitating rapid deposit insurance determination. Account features and customer use and expectations have changed. Immediate and continuous access to deposit accounts is more common now than in the past. Deposit accounts are increasingly used by beneficial owners of deposits who are not the named account holder (
Some of the commenters maintain that the FDIC should develop its own IT system capabilities to handle deposit insurance determinations at an institution of any size. One advocated for the development and use of a single insurance calculation system to be deployed at every covered institution, while another discussed the use of a custodial facility to reconcile depositor data transmitted by the institution with data transmitted by financial intermediaries. As described in
Several commenters challenged the conclusions and methodology of the FDIC's analysis of the proposed rule's expected effects. One commenter remarked that the “proposed rule would impose unnecessary costs without delivering any benefit” and that the FDIC “almost certainly has grossly underestimated the cost to the affected banks of implementing and maintaining deposit-account aggregation as specified in the NPR.” Commenters criticized different cost components of the analysis, including whether the model was up-to-date, captured the impact of the rule on all market participants, and the assumptions and robustness of the model. The FDIC has considered these comments in development of the final rule.
Multiple commenters argued that the FDIC should quantify the expected benefits of the final rule. None of the commenters provided their view on the quantitative benefits of the rule. Because there is no market in which the value of these public benefits can be determined, it is not possible to quantify or estimate these benefits with precision.
Some commenters questioned the benefits that the rule would provide. One individual argued that the rule would not deliver any benefit. One group of trade associations described the expected benefits as “marginal,” and
As described in
In deciding which institutions would be subject to the final rule, the FDIC considered thresholds above and below two million deposit accounts. The FDIC received one comment on this alternative. The commenter suggested that the threshold should include both the number of accounts and total dollar amount of deposits and suggested that the threshold for the number of accounts should be higher—10 million accounts. Raising the threshold would decrease the costs of the rule on the industry because fewer institutions would be covered, but would also increase the risk that the information would not be available for the FDIC to make timely and accurate deposit insurance determinations for large institutions and limit the FDIC's resolution options, thereby potentially increasing its loss.
Several commenters argued that it would be too costly to impose additional recordkeeping requirements for certain types of deposit accounts. The FDIC recognizes that under current generally applicable deposit insurance rules for certain types of deposit accounts, information needed for deposit insurance purposes may reside outside an IDI's deposit account records, and the final rule does not require that covered institutions collect the additional information needed from account holders for these types of deposit accounts.
Some commenters supported maintaining the status quo and considered existing regulatory standards (specifically § 360.9) to be adequate. Adoption of § 360.9 was an important step toward resolving a large depository institution in an efficient and orderly manner. However, while § 360.9 would assist the FDIC in fulfilling its legal mandates regarding the resolution of a failed institution that is subject to that rule, the FDIC believes that if the largest of depository institutions were to fail with little prior warning, additional measures would be needed to ensure the prompt and accurate payment of deposit insurance to all depositors.
The FDIC received a comment supporting the alternative in which the FDIC creates a software solution to calculate and make deposit insurance determinations to be deployed at all covered institutions. The FDIC finds that alternative is not feasible, given the challenge of creating one program to accommodate the different and bespoke deposit systems of all covered institutions.
One commenter stated that requiring a large amount of beneficial owner data to be collected on a daily basis would be superfluous because the FDIC would only need to use the data for deposit insurance determinations if and when a covered institution failed. Moreover, requiring daily updates on beneficial customer data would result in high costs and risk customer dissatisfaction. Generally speaking, beneficial ownership of deposits placed in covered institutions relies upon the principles of agency law or fiduciary relationships to provide “pass-through” deposit insurance coverage to the beneficial owners of those accounts. In most circumstances, the agents, fiduciaries, custodians, or other accountholders maintain the requisite beneficial ownership data in their own records, and presumably, those accountholders update their records as necessary, including on a daily basis, as ownership of the underlying deposits changes. While the final rule requires a covered institution's IT system to be capable of accepting and processing beneficial ownership data for all accounts on any given day,
Some commenters remarked that having to submit requests for exceptions for individual account holders would be “senselessly cumbersome and grossly inefficient—including for the FDIC itself—considering that all or most covered banks would be expected to seek exceptions for certain classes or accounts.” The FDIC has considered the comments regarding the inefficiency as well as the burden to both the covered institutions and the FDIC of having to submit and process, respectively, requests for exceptions from the final rule's requirements for each individual account holder for whom it would not be possible to obtain the requisite information. The FDIC has revised its proposal to address this concern. As more fully described in
Certain commenters claimed that the proposed rule would be unduly costly, burdensome, and impracticable in the case of particular account holders, such as banks needing to obtain ownership and balance information from agents and other custodians who service payment cards issued by large corporations as checking and debit substitutes. One commenter expected that information for retirement plan participants would not be forthcoming from sponsors, fiduciaries and others involved in plan administration because participants' interests change daily, there are multiple intermediaries from whom information would need to be collected, and because plan sponsors and fiduciaries won't disclose participant information for fear of violating participants' privacy and breaching fiduciary duties under the Employee Retirement Income Security
After balancing the goals of the final rule and the concerns of the commenters, the FDIC decided to align the deposit account recordkeeping requirements of this final rule with the recordkeeping requirements set forth in 12 CFR 330.5 and 12 CFR 330.7. These two sections of the FDIC's regulations address deposit account ownership (and recordkeeping) in the context of fiduciary relationships (as described in § 330.5) and which includes agents, nominees, guardians and custodians. Compliance with these recordkeeping requirements is necessary to ensure the availability of pass-through deposit insurance to the underlying beneficial owners of the deposits. The commenters presented various arguments for different types of pass-through deposits to support their request for “class” exceptions.
The same commenters asserted that Real Estate Trust Accounts (“RETAs”) are very similar in structure and concept to IOLTAs and, therefore, should also be excepted as a class of deposits from the recordkeeping requirements of final part 370. RETAs represent another type of pooled, custodial account in which a title/escrow agent deposits funds from multiple clients; the funds are usually held for a short period of time until the clients' real estate transactions are completed. Deposit account recordkeeping for RETAs is also subject to the off-site recordkeeping requirements of § 330.5(b)(1)-(3) for fiduciary relationships. Therefore, covered institutions will only be required to assign a unique identifier to the account holder and maintain a “pending reason” code in its deposit account records in accordance with § 370.4(b)(1)(ii).
Another commenter provided data concerning the scope and composition of brokered deposits and sweep programs as a subset of the entire banking industry's deposit base. According to this commenter, as of March 31, 2016, there were $813 billion of brokered deposits reported on bank Call Reports; of this amount,
Brokered deposits—for example, those that are part of a deposit placement network or as brokered CDs offered by or sweep programs sponsored by a broker-dealer—represent another type of deposit account where a fiduciary or other agent or custodian is the account holder on behalf of beneficial owners. In recognition of the recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 330.5, the final rule provides for “alternative recordkeeping” for those deposit accounts. The covered institutions are authorized to maintain their account records for brokered deposit accounts in accordance with the off-site and multi-tiered relationship methods set forth in § 330.5(b). The covered institutions will be required to assign a unique identifier to the account holder which will be the entity placing the deposit(s) in the covered institution. The covered institutions will not be able to designate the appropriate right and capacity code because they will not have access to the requisite underlying information regarding the beneficial owners; consequently, they will need to maintain in their deposit account records information sufficient to populate the pending reason field in the pending file that would be generated by the IT system as required under § 370.4(b)(1) and Appendix B of the final rule and, if appropriate, comply with the certification requirement set forth in § 370.5.
This commenter also advocated for a class exemption for open-loop cards. The commenter noted that there are practical limitations to obtaining beneficiary-level information given customers' very real concern for data security and privacy. It emphasized that employers and government agencies are very sensitive to daily transmittal of PII and would prefer to maintain the information in their own systems. In addition, this commenter believed that it is highly unlikely that any individual would receive benefits on an open-loop payroll card or government benefits card in excess of $250,000. Finally, it pointed out that other Federal agencies (the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, FinCEN) have issued regulations on prepaid accounts (or imposed additional customer identification requirements) that may or may not complement the proposed rule's requirements.
Covered institutions that issue and administer their own prepaid account programs will need to meet the general recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(a) because they maintain in their deposit account records the information needed to determine deposit insurance coverage. On the other hand, if an account holder (such as a third party program manager, for example) administers a prepaid account program and the covered institution does not maintain the information needed to determine deposit insurance coverage in its deposit account records, then those deposits would be eligible for pass-through deposit insurance coverage in accordance with §§ 330.5 and 330.7 if specified conditions are met. Consequently, the alternative recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(b)(1) would be applicable instead.
One comment stated that for a subset of prepaid accounts, the covered institutions have represented that they will modify their deposit systems (in addition to other IT systems enhancements required by the final rule) to be able to receive “sensitive [PII] from employers and government agencies at the specific point in time of a bank resolution.” According to the commenter, this additional modification would allow employers or governments to maintain the accuracy and integrity of employee/beneficiary data on their own systems. Industry-driven technological innovations also may facilitate the covered institutions' ability to comply with this critical timing requirement.
Under the final rule, the covered institutions will be permitted to rely on the alternative recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(b)(1) for any type of deposit account that meets the criteria set forth therein,
Although deposit insurance coverage for trust accounts is not dependent upon the principle of pass-through insurance, issues concerning the identification of the beneficiaries of a trust and their respective interests create a similar problem for covered institutions, and ultimately for the FDIC, when faced with making such deposit insurance determinations. Several commenters contended that covered institutions, regardless of client base, would satisfy at least one, if not all three, of the criteria identified as warranting an exception under § 370.4(c) of the proposed rule for these types of accounts;
The FDIC has considered all of the arguments advanced by the commenters as described above. Rather than adopt the exception process as described in the proposed rule, the FDIC has decided to require recordkeeping for certain types of trust accounts based upon the covered institution's knowledge about the trustee or grantor (the account holder), as well as information regarding the beneficiaries of the trust which should be maintained by the covered institution. The FDIC has developed this approach based upon the comment letters. Moreover, the FDIC has considered the deposit account ownership analysis provided in 12 CFR part 330 in the context of the various types of trust accounts. For example, the FDIC recognizes that such factors as the common law and statutory duties of confidentiality and loyalty imposed upon trustees would make it difficult or impossible for them to disclose the necessary information regarding the beneficiaries of certain trust accounts. Therefore, the FDIC has determined that all deposit accounts established pursuant to a formal trust agreement—either formal revocable or irrevocable (when the trustee of the irrevocable trust is not the covered institution) must comply with the alternative recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(b)(2). This alternative recordkeeping method should include all formal revocable trust accounts which are commonly referred to as “living trusts” or “family trusts”
In contrast, any deposit account held in a covered institution established pursuant to an informal testamentary trust will be required to comply with all of the recordkeeping requirements set forth in § 370.4(a) of the final regulation. “Such informal trusts are commonly referred to as payable-on-death accounts, in-trust-for accounts, or Totten Trust accounts” (“PODs”).
As with other classes of deposits for which the FDIC will not have the requisite information at the time of a covered institution's failure, deposit insurance determinations on the various types of formal trust accounts will not be possible until the account holder provides the FDIC with the necessary trust documentation after closing weekend. Therefore, based upon how quickly the trust documentation and/or information about beneficiaries is provided as well as the number of trust accounts to be determined, account holders may experience a delay in receiving the insured deposits placed in their trust accounts. This is the deposit insurance determination process currently employed by the FDIC; however, the volume of trust accounts at a covered institution could prolong the deposit insurance determination period.
An area of particular concern for many commenters was the proposal's requirement that a covered institution obtain PII from third parties such as financial intermediaries, trustees, escrow companies, benefit plan administrators, and government entities who have opened deposit accounts on behalf of other entities. A commenter remarked that the requirement to obtain and store PII and other sensitive information regarding covered institutions' financial intermediary customers and their beneficial owners
The FDIC has addressed this concern. Because the recordkeeping requirements for all types of pass-through deposit accounts will be based upon the existing recordkeeping requirements for deposit insurance purposes set forth in §§ 330.5 and 330.7, the covered institutions will not be required to request, collect, and maintain PII on the beneficial owners of the deposits placed by certain financial intermediaries. In addition, the covered institutions will not be required to request and maintain information regarding the beneficiaries (which are required to perform a deposit insurance determination) of trust accounts that are governed by a formal trust agreement pursuant to §§ 330.10 and 330.13.
The statutory definition of deposit includes, but is not limited to, certified checks, traveler's checks, cashier's checks and money orders.
One commenter submitted that the proposed rule's requirement to assign the appropriate ownership right and capacity code to each of the covered institution's deposit accounts presents practical and administrative challenges for both the covered institution and its deposit customers. Other commenters pointed out that covered institutions will be required to review all of their current account records in order to accurately identify and code their deposit accounts in accordance with the FDIC's deposit insurance categories. In addition, many accounts on legacy systems would have to be reviewed and missing data and documentation obtained in order to comply with certain part 330 requirements. According to one commenter, this would be “a momentous undertaking” imposing significant burden.
Covered institutions would also have to develop new procedures when opening accounts and re-train employees to classify accounts appropriately. Also, in many cases, the covered institutions' employees do not have the subject matter expertise to accurately designate some types of accounts such as trust accounts. Other types of deposit accounts potentially difficult to identify and/or designate include joint accounts and accounts for corporations, partnerships, and unincorporated associations. The problems with assigning the correct right and capacity code to joint accounts, as described by the commenters, will be discussed separately,
The commenters offered the following recommendations regarding the proposed requirement that covered institutions assign the correct right and capacity code to each deposit account. It appears the first choice would be for the FDIC to amend 12 CFR part 330 prior to finalizing proposed part 370—presumably by eliminating certain criteria which the FDIC uses to define or characterize various categories of deposit accounts. Another suggestion would be to allow the covered institutions to rely on their internal coding to assign the requisite codes rather than requiring them to align their designations with the FDIC's rights and capacities codes. Some commenters seem to assume that in the context of bank failures and the concomitant deposit insurance determination, the FDIC disregards part 330's requirements. The commenters requested that the final rule permit “covered banks to classify accounts for FDIC insurance determination as recorded on their internal systems, in line with FDIC's current practice in bank failures.” The commenters asked that the FDIC make deposit insurance determinations in the same manner (based upon the same criteria) for covered institutions as it would in the case of a smaller bank failure.
As discussed previously in the preamble to the NPR, the FDIC will not be amending 12 CFR part 330 prior to or in conjunction with the issuance of 12 CFR part 370 as a final rule.
The covered institutions requested that they be allowed to rely on the internal coding of their deposit accounts. The FDIC presumes that for many accounts, the covered institutions' internal coding will, in fact, align with the appropriate FDIC right and capacity code,
The FDIC does not anticipate handling deposit insurance determinations at a covered institution in a different manner than it has done historically with smaller IDIs. Smaller IDIs have not generally had numerous deposit accounts that are not readily assigned to the most common FDIC rights and capacities codes; therefore, this has not created a problem for either the smaller institutions or the FDIC at failure. The FDIC has recognized, however, that for certain types of deposit accounts,
Finally, the commenters asserted that this requirement, in effect, transfers the FDIC's responsibility to interpret and apply part 330 to the covered institutions. IDIs play an important role in maintaining a functioning deposit insurance system, which benefits them, their customers and the public in general. Prompt payment of deposit insurance is only possible when IDIs maintain sufficient records to enable the FDIC to perform its deposit insurance determination function consistent with FDI Act requirements and authority. The FDIC provides a number of different resources to the banking industry as well as the public to assist in the interpretation and application of the part 330 rules. For example, the FDIC conducts live Deposit Insurance Coverage Seminars for bank officers and employees throughout the year. Moreover, videos of these seminars are available on YouTube. The FDIC also provides guidance to IDIs and the public through the operation of a call center. FDIC staff receives calls from bank customer service representatives seeking assistance in real time to structure new deposit accounts for their customers properly. A new edition of the FDIC's
Both in response to the ANPR and the NPR, certain commenters have expressed their concern with the challenges they would face trying to comply with § 330.9(c)(1)(ii) of the FDIC's regulations. That particular paragraph requires that “each co-owner has personally signed a deposit account signature card” in order to be a “qualifying joint account” for purposes of deposit insurance under part 330.
Regulations requiring that each co-owner of a joint account must personally sign a signature card or the account would not be treated as a joint account for deposit insurance determinations have been in existence since 1967.
Several commenters noted that requiring account holders of deposits eligible for pass-through insurance to provide beneficial owner data would force community banks to share confidential data on their most vital asset,
One of the commenters raised another concern that the proposed rule would adversely affect community banks that participate in deposit placement networks. According to this commenter, thousands of community banks participate in deposit placement networks and the commenter believes that deposit allocation services are a vital tool for community banks. Those banks would be required to furnish competing banks with confidential information about some of their largest depository customers any business day that a community bank placed customer funds at a covered institution. Two commenters recommended that an exception from the requirements of the proposed rule should automatically apply to the class of deposits (rather than an account by account exception) placed by community banks in a covered institution through a deposit placement network. According to the commenter, this type of exception would assure community banks that they would not be penalized if they participated in a deposit placement network.
The requirements of the final rule have addressed these potential concerns. As discussed above, the final rule provides for “alternative recordkeeping” for deposits placed by agents, custodians or some other fiduciary on behalf of others as set forth in §§ 330.5 and 330.7 of the FDIC's deposit insurance rules. Therefore, community banks will not be required to provide covered institutions with proprietary information concerning their large-dollar customers in the event a community bank places deposits with a covered institution. As currently permitted pursuant to the applicable provisions of part 330, community banks will be allowed to retain the beneficial ownership information on these customers rather than provide it to the covered institution. Likewise, the recordkeeping requirements applicable to deposit placement networks will not be affected by the issuance of the final rule. Nevertheless, if deposits placed by community banks with covered institutions serve as transaction accounts for the beneficial owners thereof, then the underlying ownership information (
Two commenters recommended that foreign deposits,
In accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1813(
A commenter argued that providing the FDIC with the authority to approve or disapprove a covered institution's request “in its sole discretion” would confer unlimited power on the FDIC to discourage or prohibit lawful acceptance by well-capitalized covered institutions of brokered deposits and other deposits placed on a pass-through insurance basis through deposit allocation sweep services. This commenter cited as a source of concern recent regulatory actions by the FDIC and other Federal banking agencies and asked the FDIC to avoid the misperception that it will discourage lawful deposit brokerage relationships by making them too costly or burdensome for covered institutions.
The commenter's concern that the FDIC will exercise “virtually unlimited power to use the Proposed Rule . . . to discourage or prohibit well-capitalized covered institutions from accepting brokered and other pass-through deposits” is unfounded. The particular concern that the FDIC would discourage lawful brokerage relationships under this final rule is addressed by the adoption of alternate recordkeeping requirements permitted for brokered deposits. It is not intended to otherwise affect brokered deposits.
Several commenters asserted that obtaining the information from account holders that is needed for deposit insurance calculations would be a significant challenge; one of these commenters remarked that full compliance with the proposed rule for certain account types would be “extremely difficult if not practically impossible.” These commenters argued that the volume of information on financial intermediaries and their beneficial owners, the frequency of changes to the information, and certain legal impediments to disclosure would pose significant operational and cost issues. In addition to requesting exceptions for classes of deposits, some of the commenters believed that the final rule should also include a process for requesting exceptions for other “idiosyncratic accounts” for which obtaining the requisite depositor information would be impossible or cost-prohibitive.
The FDIC believes that the modifications to the recordkeeping requirements as described in the final rule should address the concerns of covered institutions and the concerns raised about community banks. As a result of the concerns raised by commenters, the FDIC has decided that the deposit account recordkeeping
Several commenters believed a more detailed exception process than that provided for in the proposed rule is needed, and they posed a number of questions regarding the process. For example, there were several questions concerning how a covered institution would demonstrate that an entire class of deposit accounts would meet one or more of the three criteria for an exception. The commenters also asked whether a covered institution would be required to continue to gather depositor information on accounts subject to an exception request during the pendency of the FDIC's consideration of that request. They wanted assurances both that the FDIC would respond expeditiously to requests for exceptions and that in the event that a request was denied, the FDIC would not require immediate compliance. The commenters were concerned that a covered institution be allowed a reasonable time to achieve compliance should an exception request be denied.
As discussed,
The commenters asked whether there would be a general sunset time frame for approved exceptions, and if so, whether there would be a flexible process to renew those exceptions. The final rule does not impose a general sunset time frame for approved exceptions. Depending on the circumstances, approvals could be tailored to be time-limited or open-ended. Section 370.8(e) allows the FDIC to grant its approval of a covered institution's request for an exception subject to certain conditions that would have to be met or to limit its approval to a particular time frame.
The commenters also wanted to know what type of process there would be to appeal the FDIC's adverse ruling on a petition for an exception. They recommended that the FDIC provide public notice of all exceptions granted or denied on a timely and ongoing basis—without naming the petitioners or specific deposit account holders—with explanations of the bases for those rulings. These commenters also believed that because the exception process “is so critical that input from covered institutions would be needed to assure a workable scheme,” the exception process should be further clarified and re-proposed for public notice and comment.
The FDIC believes that the modifications to the recordkeeping requirements as described in the final rule should provide much of the requested relief. Given the alternative recordkeeping allowed for certain described deposit accounts, the FDIC does not anticipate that many covered institutions will need to request exceptions from the final rule's requirements. With respect to § 370.4(b)(1) accounts that have transactional features, if a covered institution will not be able to provide the certification required pursuant to § 370.5(a), then the covered institution must submit a request for an exception from that certification requirement as provided for in § 370.8(b).
The proposed rule provided for an implementation period of two years, and several commenters proposed that four years would be an appropriate time-frame for implementation. The FDIC has considered the commenters' discussion of impediments that would exist for a two-year implementation period and believes that the modifications made in the final rule to harmonize it with the recordkeeping permitted under 12 CFR part 330 make a three-year implementation period reasonable and feasible.
Several commenters expressed concern over possible adverse consequences for covered institutions, related entities, and the financial system generally if the proposed rule was adopted as proposed. One commenter specifically noted that the rule could result in treating some depositors at covered institutions differently than the same kind of depositors at non-covered institutions because the covered institution would be applying a more stringent standard to its deposits for insurance purposes, and deposit insurance determinations should not depend on the size or complexity of the depository institution. As discussed,
One commenter objected to the proposed rule's requirement that, if a covered institution is granted an exception, it must then notify account
The FDIC has adopted the suggestion of another commenter, however, who argued that disclosures regarding a delay in payment should not be required whenever the custodian, administrator or other fiduciary will provide the current beneficial owner data to the FDIC before midnight on the day of the covered institution's failure. Section 370.5(a) requires a covered institution to certify to the FDIC that the information needed to calculate deposit insurance for § 370.4(b)(1) accounts with transactional features will be available to the FDIC upon failure of the covered institution so that the FDIC will be able to use the covered institution's IT system to determine deposit insurance coverage within 24 hours of its appointment as receiver. In view of this requirement, there is no need for covered institutions to provide notification of a possible delay in deposit insurance payments because the FDIC will have the requisite information in time to complete the deposit insurance determination on these time-sensitive accounts during the closing weekend.
One commenter asserted that certain account holders likely would be motivated to seek out alternative banking relationships rather than provide the information requested by the covered institutions. This would result in disruption to these account holders and to other aspects of their banking relationship, as well as to the deposit markets. One commenter argued that the proposed rule could discourage smaller and mid-sized retail-focused institutions from actively seeking small deposit accounts in order to avoid being covered by the proposed rule. This in turn could encourage such institutions to consider riskier and more volatile funding sources. The FDIC believes that these concerns have been addressed and mitigated by the alternative recordkeeping requirements found in § 370.4(b) of the final rule.
These commenters also asserted that “end-to-end” testing for compliance on an annual basis would involve an excessive commitment of time and personnel. The requirement for end-to-end testing has been deleted from the final rule. Finally, they contended that it is not necessary and not in accordance with corporate governance principles for a covered institution's board of directors to certify or attest to the covered institution's compliance with the proposed rule's requirements. This additional board responsibility would be an undue burden on the board and should remain within the purview of the covered institution's management. The FDIC considered this comment and revised the corporate governance requirement accordingly. In the final rule, § 370.10(a)(1)(ii), the annual certification must be signed by the covered institution's chief executive officer or its chief operating officer.
The FDIC has determined that this final rule involves a collection of information pursuant to the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the “PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
The final rule would require a covered institution to (1) maintain complete and accurate data on each depositor's ownership interest by right and capacity for all of the institution's deposit accounts, except as provided, and (2) configure its IT system to be capable of calculating the insured and uninsured amount in each deposit account by ownership right and capacity, which would be used by the FDIC to make deposit insurance determinations in the event of the institution's failure.
These requirements also must be supported by policies and procedures and will involve ongoing burden for testing, reporting to the FDIC, and general maintenance of recordkeeping and IT systems functionality. Estimates of both initial implementation and ongoing burden are provided.
Compliance with this proposed rule would involve certain reporting requirements:
• Not later than ten business days after the effective date of the final rule or after becoming a covered institution, a covered institution shall designate a point of contact responsible for implementing the requirements of this rulemaking.
• Covered institutions would be required to certify annually that their IT systems can calculate deposit insurance coverage accurately and completely within the 24 hour time frame set forth in the final rule. If a covered institution experiences a significant change in its deposit taking operations, it may be required to demonstrate more frequently than annually that its IT system can calculate deposit insurance coverage accurately and completely.
• In connection with the certification, covered institutions shall complete a deposit insurance coverage summary report (as detailed in VI. The Proposed Rule).
• Covered institutions may seek relief from any specific aspect of the final rule's requirements if circumstances exist that would make it impracticable or overly burdensome to meet those requirements. When doing so, they must demonstrate the need for exception, describe the impact of an exception on
Comments submitted in response to the NPR did not estimate with particularity the implementation and ongoing costs for covered institutions to comply with the proposed rule. The FDIC has, however, estimated the costs to covered institutions based on, among other things, information gathered in connection with § 360.9 compliance visitations, the cost model developed by an outside consultant for the purpose of developing the ANPR, and estimated costs associated with burdens that were identified by commenters in response to the NPR. The total projected cost of the final rule for covered institutions amounts to $386 million and approximately 5.2 million total labor hours over three years. The cost components of the estimate include (1) implementing the deposit insurance calculation, (2) legacy data cleanup, (3) data extraction, (4) data aggregation, (5) data standardization, (6) data quality control and compliance, (7) data reporting, and (8) ongoing operations. Estimates of total costs and labor hours for each component are calculated by assuming a standard mix of skilled labor tasks, industry standard hourly compensation estimates, and labor productivity. It is assumed that a combination of in-house and external services is used for legacy data clean up in proportions of 40 and 60 percent respectively. Finally, the estimated costs for each institution are adjusted according to the complexity of their operations and systems.
Implementation costs are expected to vary widely among the covered institutions. There are considerable differences in the complexity and scope of the deposit operations across covered institutions. Some covered institutions only slightly exceed the two million deposit account threshold while others greatly exceed that number. In addition, some covered institutions—most notably the largest—have proprietary deposit systems likely requiring an in-house, custom solution for the proposed requirements while others may purchase deposit software from a vendor or use a servicer for deposit processing. Deposit software vendors and servicers are expected to incorporate the proposed requirements into their products or services to be available for their clients.
The implementation costs for all covered institutions are estimated to total $330 million and require approximately 5.2 million labor hours. The implementation costs cover (1) making the deposit insurance calculation, (2) legacy data cleanup,
The estimated burden on individual covered institutions for ongoing costs for reporting, testing, maintenance, and other periodic items is estimated to range between $68,676 and $99,865 annually and require between 458 and 666 labor hours.
The FDIC has a continuing interest in comments on paperwork burden. Comments are invited on (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the FDIC's functions, including whether the information has practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the estimates of the burden of the information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601,
The Office of Management and Budget has determined that this final rule is a “major rule” within the meaning of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 801,
The Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act requires that the FDIC, in determining the effective date and administrative compliance requirements of new regulations that impose additional reporting, disclosure, or other requirements on IDIs, consider, consistent with principles of safety and soundness and the public interest, any administrative burdens that such regulations would place on depository institutions, including small depository institutions, and customers of depository institutions, as well as the benefits of such regulations.
In accordance with these provisions, the FDIC has considered the final rule's benefits and any administrative burdens that the final rule would place on covered institutions and their customers in determining the effective date and administrative compliance requirements of the final rule.
Section 722 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Pub. L. 106-102, 113 Stat.1338, 1471) requires the Federal
Bank deposit insurance, Banks, Banking, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings and loan associations.
12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(9), 1819 (Tenth), 1821(f)(1), 1822(c), 1823(c)(4).
Unless otherwise provided in this part, each “covered institution” (defined in § 370.2(a)) is required to implement the information technology system and recordkeeping capabilities needed to calculate the amount of deposit insurance coverage available for each deposit account in the event of its failure. Doing so will improve the FDIC's ability to fulfill its statutory mandates to pay deposit insurance as soon as possible after a covered institution's failure and to resolve a covered institution at the least cost to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
For purposes of this part:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(a) A covered institution must configure its information technology system to be capable of performing the functions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. To the extent that a covered institution does not maintain its deposit account records in the manner prescribed under § 370.4(a) but instead in the manner prescribed under § 370.4(b) or (c), the covered institution's information technology system must be able to perform the functions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section upon input by the FDIC of additional information collected from account holders after failure of the covered institution.
(b) Each covered institution's information technology system must be capable of:
(1) Accurately calculating the deposit insurance coverage for each deposit account in accordance with 12 CFR part 330;
(2) Generating and retaining output records in the data format and layout specified in Appendix B;
(3) Restricting access to some or all of the deposits in a deposit account until the FDIC has made its deposit insurance determination for that deposit account using the covered institution's information technology system; and
(4) Debiting from each deposit account the amount that is uninsured as calculated pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(a)
(1) The unique identifier of each
(i) Account holder;
(ii) Beneficial owner of a deposit, if the account holder is not the beneficial owner;
(iii) Grantor and each beneficiary, if the deposit account is held in connection with an informal revocable trust that is insured pursuant to 12 CFR 330.10 (
(iv) Grantor and each beneficiary, if the deposit account is held by the covered institution as the trustee of an irrevocable trust that is insured pursuant to 12 CFR 330.12.
(2) The applicable ownership right and capacity code listed and described in Appendix A to this part.
(b)
(1) For each deposit account for which a covered institution's deposit account records disclose the existence of a relationship which might provide a basis for additional deposit insurance in accordance with 12 CFR 330.5 or 330.7 and for which the covered institution does not maintain information that would be needed for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3, the covered institution must maintain, at a minimum, the following in its deposit account records:
(i) The unique identifier of the account holder; and
(ii) The corresponding “pending reason” code in data field 2 of the pending file format set forth in Appendix B (and need not maintain a “right and capacity” code).
(2) For each formal revocable trust account that is insured as described in 12 CFR 330.10 and for each irrevocable trust account that is insured as described in 12 CFR 330.13, and for which the covered institution does not maintain the information that would be needed for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3, the covered institution must, at a minimum, maintain in its deposit account records:
(i) The unique identifier of the account holder;
(ii) The unique identifier of the grantor if the deposit account has transactional features; and
(iii) The corresponding “pending reason” code in data field 2 of the pending file format set forth in Appendix B (and need not maintain a “right and capacity” code).
(c)
(a) For each deposit account with transactional features for which the covered institution maintains its deposit account records in accordance with § 370.4(b)(1), a covered institution must certify to the FDIC that the account holder will provide to the FDIC the information needed for the covered institution's information technology system to calculate deposit insurance coverage as set forth in § 370.3(b) within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. Such certification may be part of the annual certification of compliance required pursuant to § 370.10(a)(1).
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered institution need not provide such certification with respect to:
(1) Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments by mortgagors of principal, interest, taxes and insurance;
(2) Accounts maintained by real estate brokers, real estate agents, or title companies in which funds from multiple clients are deposited and held for a short period of time in connection with a real estate transaction;
(3) Accounts established by an attorney or law firm on behalf of clients, commonly known as an
(4) Accounts held in connection with an employee benefit plan (as defined in 12 CFR 330.15(f)(2)).
(c) The covered institution's failure to provide the certification required under paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed not to constitute a violation of this part if the FDIC has granted the covered institution relief from that certification requirement.
(a) A covered institution must satisfy the information technology system and recordkeeping requirements set forth in this part before the compliance date.
(b) A covered institution may submit a request to the FDIC for an extension of its compliance date. The request shall state the amount of additional time needed to meet the requirements of this part, the reason(s) for which such additional time is needed, and the total number and dollar value of accounts for which deposit insurance coverage could not be calculated using the covered institution's information technology system were the covered institution to fail as of the date of the request. The FDIC's grant of a covered institution's request for extension may be conditional or time-limited.
(a) On a case-by-case basis, the FDIC may accelerate, upon notice, the implementation time frame for all or part of the requirements of this part for a covered institution that:
(1) Has a composite rating of 3, 4, or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution's Rating System (
(2) Is undercapitalized, as defined under the prompt corrective action provisions of 12 CFR part 325; or
(3) Is determined by the appropriate federal banking agency or the FDIC in consultation with the appropriate federal banking agency to be experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the covered institution by its appropriate federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination.
(b) In implementing this section, the FDIC must consult with the covered institution's appropriate federal banking agency and consider the complexity of the covered institution's deposit system and operations, extent of the covered institution's asset quality difficulties, volatility of the institution's funding sources, expected near-term changes in the covered institution's capital levels, and other relevant factors appropriate for the FDIC to consider in its role as insurer of the covered institution.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1) The certification must:
(i) Confirm that the covered institution has implemented and successfully tested its information technology system for compliance with this part during the preceding calendar year; and
(ii) Be signed by the covered institution's chief executive officer or chief operating officer.
(2) The deposit insurance coverage summary report must include:
(i) A description of any material change to the covered institution's information technology system or deposit taking operations since the prior annual certification;
(ii) The number of deposit accounts, number of different account holders, and dollar amount of deposits by ownership right and capacity code (as listed and described in Appendix A);
(iii) The total number of fully-insured deposit accounts and the total dollar amount of deposits in all such accounts;
(iv) The total number of deposit accounts with uninsured deposits and the total dollar amount of uninsured amounts in all of those accounts; and
(v) By deposit account type, the total number of, and dollar amount of deposits in, deposit accounts for which the covered institution's information technology system cannot calculate deposit insurance coverage using information currently maintained in the covered institution's deposit account records.
(3) If a covered institution experiences a significant change in its deposit taking operations, the FDIC may require that it submit a certification of compliance and a deposit insurance coverage summary report more frequently than annually.
(b)
(2) A covered institution shall provide the appropriate assistance to the FDIC as the FDIC tests the covered institution's ability to satisfy the requirements set forth in this part.
(c)
A covered institution must use the codes defined below when assigning ownership right and capacity codes.
The output files will include the data necessary for the FDIC to determine the deposit insurance coverage in a resolution. A covered institution must have the capability to prepare and maintain the files detailed below. These files must be prepared in successive iterations as the covered institution receives additional data from external sources necessary to complete any pending deposit insurance calculations. The unique identifier is required in all four files to link the customer information. All files are pipe delimited. Do not pad leading and trailing spacing or zeros for the data fields.
The data elements will include:
The data elements will include:
The data elements will include:
The data elements will include:
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.
Final rule.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission is revising its regulations to address incremental energy offer caps. We require that each regional transmission organization (RTO) and independent system operator (ISO): Cap each resource's incremental energy offer at the higher of $1,000/megawatt-hour (MWh) or that resource's verified cost-based incremental energy offer; and cap verified cost-based incremental energy offers at $2,000/MWh when calculating locational marginal prices (LMP). Further, we clarify that the verification process for cost-based incremental offers above $1,000/MWh should ensure that a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer reasonably reflects that resource's actual or expected costs. This Final Rule will improve price formation by reducing the likelihood that offer caps will suppress LMPs below the marginal cost of production, while compensating resources for the costs they incur to serve load, by enabling RTOs/ISOs to dispatch the most efficient set of resources when short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh, by encouraging resources to offer supply to the market when it is most needed, and by reducing the potential for seams issues.
1. In this Final Rule, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) finds that current regional transmission organization (RTO) and independent system operator (ISO) offer caps on incremental energy offers
2. We reach this conclusion for several reasons. First, offer caps in some RTOs/ISOs may prevent a resource from recouping its short-run marginal costs by not permitting that resource to include all of its short-run marginal costs within its incremental energy offer. Second, current offer caps in some RTOs/ISOs are likely to suppress LMPs below the marginal cost of production during periods when fuel costs increase dramatically. Third, when several resources have short-run marginal costs above $1,000/MWh but are unable to reflect those costs within their incremental energy offers due to the offer cap, the RTO/ISO is unable to dispatch the most efficient set of resources because it will not be able to distinguish among the resources' actual costs. Finally, the $1,000/MWh offer cap in some RTOs/ISOs may discourage resources with short-run marginal costs above $1,000/MWh from offering supply to the RTO/ISO, even though the market may be willing to purchase that supply.
3. We have modified the proposal in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR) to include a $2,000/MWh hard cap for the purposes of calculating LMPs. While the offer cap proposed in the NOPR would address the concerns identified above, we are convinced by commenters that the absence of a hard cap creates practical concerns that must be addressed. First, several commenters note that RTOs/ISOs and/or Market Monitoring Units may have imperfect information about resource short-run marginal costs, which can create challenges for the proposed requirement to verify cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh prior to the market clearing process. Additionally, as noted by market monitors, the dynamics of natural gas spot market prices during periods when they rise to levels that could result in the short-run marginal costs of some natural gas-fired resources exceeding $1,000/MWh can make verification challenging, particularly verification of expected costs. Thus, while a hard cap may diminish the ability to fully address the shortcomings of current offer caps identified above in all circumstances, we find that, on balance, a hard cap is necessary to reasonably limit the adverse impact that any imperfect information during the verification process could have on LMPs.
4. The goals of the price formation proceeding are to: (1) Maximize market surplus for consumers and suppliers; (2) provide correct incentives for market participants to follow commitment and dispatch instructions, make efficient investments in facilities and equipment, and maintain reliability; (3) provide transparency so that market participants understand how prices reflect the actual marginal cost of serving load and the operational constraints of reliably operating the system; and (4) ensure that all suppliers have an opportunity to recover their costs.
5. The reforms adopted in this Final Rule advance two of the Commission's goals with respect to price formation. First, the reforms will result in LMPs that are more likely to reflect the true marginal cost of production when resources' short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh. In the short run, LMPs that reflect the short-run marginal costs of production are particularly important during high price periods because they provide a signal to consumers to reduce consumption and a signal to suppliers to increase production or to offer new supplies to the market. In the long run, LMPs that reflect the short-run marginal cost of production are important because they inform investment decisions. Second, the reforms will give resources the opportunity to recover their short-run marginal costs, thereby encouraging resources to participate in RTO/ISO energy markets. Adequate investment in resources and resource participation in RTO/ISO energy markets ensure adequate and reliable energy for consumers. The benefits summarized above and discussed in detail below would ultimately help to ensure just and reasonable rates.
6. As discussed below, we require each RTO/ISO to submit a filing with the tariff changes needed to implement this Final Rule within 75 days of the Final Rule's effective date.
7. In June 2014, the Commission initiated a proceeding, in Docket No. AD14-14-000, to evaluate issues regarding price formation in the energy and ancillary services markets operated by RTOs/ISOs.
8. In the instant proceeding, on January 21, 2016, the Commission issued a NOPR proposing to require that each RTO/ISO: (1) Cap each resource's incremental energy offer to the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's verified cost-based incremental energy offer; and (2) use verified cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh to calculate LMPs.
9. The Commission also sought comments on the NOPR proposal regarding: (1) Whether a hard cap on cost-based incremental energy offers used for purposes of calculating LMPs should be included in any Final Rule in this proceeding and, if so, whether the hard cap should equal $2,000/MWh or another value; (2) the ability of the Market Monitoring Unit or RTO/ISO to verify the costs underlying incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh prior to the day-ahead or real-time market clearing process, including whether the verification of physical offer components is also necessary; (3) whether the Market Monitoring Unit or RTO/ISO may need additional information to ensure that all short-run marginal cost components, such as risk or opportunity costs that are often difficult to quantify, are accurately reflected in a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer, and whether an adder is appropriate; (4) whether the Market Monitoring Unit or RTO/ISO may need additional information or the authority to require revisions or corrections to cost-based incremental energy offers to ensure that cost-based incremental energy offers are accurate reflections of a resource's short-run marginal cost; (5) whether the proposal should apply to imports and whether a cost verification process for import transactions is feasible; (6) whether excluding virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh could limit hedging opportunities, present opportunities for manipulation or gaming, or create market inefficiencies; and (7) the impact the proposal would have on seams.
10. Supply offers in day-ahead and real-time energy markets consist of both financial and physical components. The financial components of a supply offer are denominated in dollars (
11. This Final Rule addresses the incremental energy offer component of a resource's supply offer, which is a financial component consisting of costs that vary with a resource's output or level of demand reduction. Incremental energy offers typically consist of a supply curve made up of multiple price-quantity pairs that indicate the price, expressed in $/MWh, that a resource is willing to accept to produce a given quantity of energy.
12. All six Commission-jurisdictional RTOs/ISOs have at one time imposed a $1,000/MWh cap on incremental energy offers.
13. While the current offer caps restrict the incremental energy offers, one of the components used to set LMP, they do not limit LMPs to the level of the offer caps because the addition of the congestion and loss components of the LMP can result in LMPs that exceed the offer cap. Scarcity or shortage pricing and emergency purchases can also cause LMPs to exceed the offer cap.
14. As described in the NOPR, after the extreme weather experienced during the winter of 2013/14, dubbed the “Polar Vortex”, PJM, NYISO, and MISO filed various requests to either temporarily or permanently revise their respective offer caps.
15. In the NOPR, the Commission preliminarily found that the $1,000/MWh offer caps currently in effect in some RTOs/ISOs
16. Several commenters, for various reasons, support the Commission's preliminary finding in the NOPR that existing offer caps in RTOs/ISOs are unjust and unreasonable,
17. Several commenters support the Commission's preliminary finding that existing RTO/ISO offer caps should be reformed because they can suppress LMPs below the marginal cost of production.
18. Other commenters agree with the Commission's preliminary finding that the $1,000/MWh offer cap should be reformed because it can discourage a resource with costs above the offer cap from offering its supply to the RTO/ISO, even though the market may be willing to purchase that supply.
19. CEA and EEI express general support for the Commission's preliminary finding in the NOPR that current offer caps could also prevent the RTO/ISO from dispatching the most efficient set of resources because the RTO/ISO will not have access to the underlying costs associated with the multiple incremental energy offers above the offer cap.
20. Several commenters disagree with the Commission's finding that the current offer cap is unjust and unreasonable and therefore should be reformed. For example, CAISO argues that the current $1,000/MWh offer cap in CAISO should not be changed because $1,000/MWh is far in excess of what the highest reasonable cost-justified offer could be from a CAISO resource.
21. The ISO-NE and SPP Market Monitors assert that there is no need to reform the offer caps in their markets. The ISO-NE Market Monitor states that there is no need to revise ISO-NE's $1,000/MWh offer cap because natural gas prices have become more stable and, if completed, proposed pipeline expansions in New England will help alleviate some of the natural gas congestion that led to the high LMPs observed in ISO-NE in 2014.
22. A number of commenters argue, for various reasons, that current RTO/ISO offer caps should not be revised.
23. Some commenters disagree with the NOPR's preliminary finding that offer caps are unjust and unreasonable because they can suppress LMPs below the marginal cost of production. For example, ODEC argues that a higher cap is unnecessary because LMPs are lower in PJM than they were when PJM's current higher offer cap was adopted.
24. Many commenters argue that the current offer caps in RTOs/ISOs should be maintained because they protect consumers from excessive LMPs that result from market power abuse.
25. Some commenters argue that current offer caps do not suppress LMPs in a manner that impacts resource investment decisions. AF&PA asserts that periodic and unpredictable price spikes have limited value in sustaining resource viability or inducing consumers to make long term behavioral changes.
26. Some commenters argue that offer cap waivers are the best remedy to address issues associated with the offer cap.
27. In addition to the four preliminary findings stated above,
28. The majority of commenters agree with the NOPR's proposal to make a change in the offer cap across all RTOs/ISOs in order to avoid seams issues,
29. The PJM Market Monitor states that the proposal's impact on seams would be consistent with efficient markets whereby energy would flow to where it is valued most.
30. With respect to the Western Electricity Coordinating Council (WECC), CAISO and Exelon argue that the Commission must address how it will ensure consistency between the proposed offer cap in CAISO and the existing $1,000/MWh offer cap in WECC.
31. Some market participants support the NOPR's applicability to all RTOs/ISOs in theory, but argue that the effect on seams would depend on implementation. The Delaware Commission cautions that the degree to which the verification of cost-based offers above $1,000/MWh is sufficiently rigorous will determine the effect on seams and that this will not be known until implementation.
32. Other commenters argue that there should be regional flexibility in implementing an offer cap. PG&E argues that a one-size-fits-all solution for all RTO/ISO markets is not appropriate.
33. APPA, NRECA, and AMP assert that the NOPR runs counter to the Commission's usual practice of recognizing and accommodating regional differences.
34. Based on our analysis of the record, we adopt the preliminary findings in the NOPR, and conclude that the offer caps currently in effect in RTOs/ISOs are unjust and unreasonable. We find that the currently effective offer caps may prevent a resource from recovering its short-run marginal costs, which could result in that resource operating at a loss.
35. We disagree with commenters who argue that there is no need to reform the offer cap or that the problems described in the NOPR are hypothetical and that insufficient evidence exists to
36. Without Commission action to remedy these deficiencies, some resources could be forced to operate at a loss and some resources would be discouraged from offering their supply to the grid when it is most needed. A central tenet of sound wholesale electric market design is that resources must have an opportunity to recover their costs, so the question left to the Commission is how to provide that opportunity for cost recovery when short-run marginal costs exceed the $1,000/MWh offer cap. We have essentially two choices to enable resources to recover short-run marginal costs above $1,000/MWh: To allow cost recovery through energy prices or through uplift. Short-run marginal costs, which resources include in the incremental energy component of their supply offers, are typically used to calculate LMP. As noted above,
37. We also disagree with commenters that LMPs above $1,000/MWh do not send useful price signals to market participants because, in fact, the Commission has found on prior occasions that LMPs based on short-run marginal cost send efficient short-run and long-run signals to the market.
38. Furthermore, as noted by Competitive Suppliers and EEI, even if LMPs exceed $1,000/MWh for only a few hours during the year, the resulting LMPs in those hours could affect long-term price signals.
39. With respect to the applicability of the reforms adopted in this Final Rule, we find that making the reforms applicable to all RTOs/ISOs will avoid seams issues that could arise if RTOs/ISOs had different offer caps.
40. We also find that continued use of temporary waivers related to the offer cap, as advocated by some commenters, is an inappropriate remedy for problems associated with current offer caps in RTOs/ISOs. The reforms adopted in this Final Rule will provide more certainty to market participants and reduce the administrative burden on RTOs/ISOs associated with requests for temporary waivers of various tariff provisions related to the $1,000/MWh offer caps prior to the start of every winter to ensure that resources are given the opportunity to recover their costs.
41. We find that the reasons for requiring the proposed offer cap reforms apply equally to CAISO. As discussed above, the potential for resources to have short-run marginal costs above CAISO's current $1,000/MWh offer cap requires some action to ensure that resources have an opportunity to recover costs. As in other RTO/ISO markets, increasing the offer cap will improve price formation in CAISO at times when the short-run marginal costs of CAISO resources exceed $1,000/MWh. CAISO's lack of a seam with another RTO/ISO does not alter these effects. Contrary to the implication of CAISO's argument, as explained above, we are not relying on the avoidance of seams issues as the sole rationale for adopting this Final Rule. With respect to comments regarding the WECC offer cap, we find that this issue is unique to CAISO, and if CAISO finds that this Final Rule raises seams issues with WECC, it may raise such issues elsewhere.
42. Having concluded that the existing offer caps are not just and reasonable, section 206 of the Federal Power Act requires that the Commission determine the practices that are just and reasonable.
(1) A resource's incremental energy offer must be capped at the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's cost-based incremental energy offer. For the purpose of calculating Locational Marginal Prices, Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators must cap cost-based incremental energy offers at $2,000/MWh. (Offer cap structure requirement)
(2) The costs underlying a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh must be verified before that offer can be used for purposes of calculating Locational Marginal Prices. If a resource submits an incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh and the costs underlying that offer cannot be verified before the market clearing process begins, that offer may not be used to calculate Locational Marginal Prices and the resource would be eligible for a make-whole payment if
(3) All resources, regardless of type, are eligible to submit cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $1,000/MWh. (Resource neutrality requirement)
43. The offer cap structure requirement is discussed in section IV.A. The verification requirement is discussed in section IV.B. The resource neutrality requirement is discussed in section IV.C.
44. In the NOPR, the Commission proposed the following offer cap structure requirement:
45. Comments about the proposed offer cap structure focus on two key areas: (1) Whether incremental energy above $1,000/MWh should be cost-based; and (2) how LMPs should be calculated when resource short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh, including whether resources with costs above $1,000/MWh should be compensated through higher LMPs or through uplift, whether a hard cap is necessary, and the appropriate level of any hard cap.
46. Commenters differed on the proposal to limit incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh to cost-based incremental energy offers. Some commenters support this proposal and argue that it is appropriate to limit incremental energy offers that are
47. Regarding offer caps in general, MISO states that the offer cap is currently necessary because demand in RTO/ISO energy and ancillary service markets is inelastic and also because they serve as a safety net.
48. Some commenters argue that the $1,000/MWh threshold, above which a resource's incremental energy offer submitted to the RTO/ISO must be cost-based, is too high. The Delaware and New Jersey Commissions recommend that in PJM, all incremental energy offers above $400/MWh be verified before such offers are eligible to set LMP,
49. Exelon states that while it supports removing the offer cap completely, if the Commission finds that incremental energy offers above a certain threshold must be cost-based,
50. Other commenters support an absolute cap on the incremental energy offers, even if a resource's short-run marginal costs exceed that cap.
51. However, several commenters state that resources should be able to submit incremental energy offers that reflect their short-run marginal costs, even if those offers exceed $1,000/MWh.
52. Some commenters argue that offer caps that limit the incremental energy offers that resources can submit should
53. MISO states that it does not oppose the NOPR proposal to revise the offer cap because the proposal will allow market clearing prices to more accurately reflect the true marginal cost of production while protecting consumers from the effects of manipulation and improving price transparency, and the proposal should also reduce uplift payments.
54. PJM Power Providers assert that resources should be able to submit cost-based incremental energy offers that reflect all short-run marginal costs.
55. Several commenters discuss how LMPs should be calculated when resource short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh, with some commenters arguing that LMPs should rise to reflect the marginal cost of production and others arguing that resources with short-run marginal costs above $1,000/MWh should be compensated outside of the market through uplift rather than through higher LMPs. Commenters also discuss the need for a hard cap and the appropriate level for any hard cap.
56. As noted above,
57. However, other commenters argue that incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh, even if they are cost-based, should not be able to set LMP.
58. Comments differ on the need for a hard cap that would limit the incremental energy offers RTOs/ISOs use to calculate LMPs, a limit referred to herein as a hard cap. Many commenters support a hard cap,
59. CAISO, ISO-NE, and NYISO support a hard cap. CAISO asserts that, assuming it were able to verify cost-based offers above $1,000/MWh, a hard cap is necessary if the Commission permits resources to submit incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh.
60. Potomac Economics, and the ISO-NE and PJM market monitors stress the need for the hard cap to address concerns about uncompetitive conditions in natural gas markets when natural gas supplies are scarce.
61. The ISO-NE Market Monitor also asserts that natural gas markets lack structural measures to prevent the exercise of market power. According to the ISO-NE Market Monitor, the offer cap in electricity markets can impact prices in natural gas markets when natural gas supplies are scarce because natural gas resources, particularly resources with must-offer requirements, are the marginal customers in natural gas markets and thus have a significant impact on natural gas prices.
62. Although the PJM Market Monitor argues that, in the absence of market power, there should be no absolute cap on the short-run marginal costs reflected in an incremental energy offer,
63. The ISO-NE, PJM, and SPP market monitors also explain that when natural gas supplies are scarce, open exchanges for natural gas, such as the Intercontinental Exchange (ICE), tend to have low liquidity and wide bid-ask spreads. These market monitors state that it can be difficult to verify the short-run marginal cost of natural gas resources during periods when open natural gas exchanges have low liquidity because natural gas resources may purchase natural gas bilaterally rather than through the exchanges, and therefore the bid and ask spreads and settled transactions observed on the open exchanges may not represent the costs of the natural gas resources that make bilateral natural gas purchases. Furthermore, when liquidity in the open exchanges is low and the bid-ask spreads are wide, the ISO-NE, PJM, and SPP market monitors explain that there may be little basis on which to verify a resource's natural gas procurement costs.
64. The New Jersey Commission and NY Transmission Owners also argue that a hard cap is necessary to address issues related to the interactions between the gas and electricity markets.
65. The SPP Market Monitor states that it would prefer to maintain SPP's existing $1,000/MWh offer cap, but if it is to be revised, it would prefer a new fixed hard cap to serve as a backstop market power mitigation measure during periods of market anomalies when existing measures may fail to protect consumers.
66. Comments from other stakeholders generally support a hard cap to protect customers against market power abuse.
67. Some commenters argue that a hard cap is necessary to protect customers from unjust and unreasonable prices resulting from market aberrations or other events when RTOs/ISOs fail to function properly.
68. Commenters opposed to the inclusion of a hard cap on offers used to calculate LMPs generally argue that any cap would artificially suppress LMPs and increase uplift payments.
69. MISO states that it does not have a strong preference on the imposition of a hard cap and notes that the same benefits and drawbacks that exist for the current $1,000/MWh hard cap (in some markets) would apply to any new hard cap.
70. Exelon and EEI oppose a hard cap, arguing that it is important for LMPs to be as consistent as possible with the marginal cost of operating the system and that, therefore, resources should always be permitted to offer their costs, and that such offers should always be eligible to set LMP.
71. Additionally, some commenters opposed to a hard cap assert that existing market monitoring and mitigation measures, as well as the proposed verification requirement for cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh, render a hard cap unnecessary and duplicative.
72. Commenters disagree about the appropriate level for any new hard cap. ISO-NE states that it does not have evidence to substantiate a specific recommendation for the level of any new hard cap.
73. Potomac Economics states that the $2,000/MWh level approved in PJM would be a reasonable hard cap for all RTOs/ISOs in the Eastern Interconnect.
74. TAPS argues that offers above $1,500/MWh should not be used to calculate LMPs because a MISO analysis indicated that natural gas resources in MISO would have a marginal cost below $1,138/MWh if natural gas prices reached $65/MMBtu and that more than 98 percent of MISO's gas capacity would have a marginal cost below $1,500/MWh if gas prices reached $100/MMBtu.
75. As noted above, some commenters support a $1,000/MWh hard cap on the incremental energy offers that are used to calculate LMPs.
76. Dominion states that the NOPR proposal will result in more accurate price signals and a better understanding of the true costs of serving demand, reduce uplift during stressed periods, and allow customers to more effectively hedge the costs of reliability through market participation.
77. The Commission is adopting aspects of the offer cap structure set forth in the NOPR, which caps a resource's incremental energy offer used for purposes of calculating LMPs in day-ahead and real-time energy markets at the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's cost-based incremental energy offer. Based on the comments received in this proceeding, the Commission is also adopting a hard cap as part of this Final Rule.
78. As a result of this Final Rule, an RTO/ISO will treat resources' incremental energy offers differently, depending on the level of the offer itself. Each RTO/ISO shall treat incremental energy offers below $1,000/MWh as it currently does. Such offers: (1) Are subject to existing RTO/ISO market power mitigation procedures and are not required to be cost-based; and (2) may be used to calculate LMPs. A resource may only submit an incremental energy offer equal to or above $1,000/MWh if the offer is cost-based, that is, if the offer accurately reflects that resource's actual or expected short-run marginal costs. For an incremental energy offer equal to or above $1,000/MWh and less than or equal to $2,000/MWh, the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit must verify that the offer is cost-based before the RTO/ISO may use the offer to calculate LMPs. For an incremental energy offer above $2,000/MWh, the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit must also verify that the offer is cost-based. Cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $2,000/MWh will be capped at $2,000/MWh for purposes of calculating LMPs. As such, the $2,000/MWh hard cap places an upper limit on the incremental energy offers that the RTO/ISO can use to calculate LMPs.
79. After consideration of the record in this proceeding, including responses to the question we asked about the need for a hard cap, we adopt a modified version of the offer cap structure proposed in the NOPR. This modified version recognizes the practical issues raised by commenters. While a hard cap may diminish the ability to fully address the shortcomings of the current offer caps identified above
80. First, the offer cap structure will reduce the likelihood that the $1,000/MWh offer cap in effect in some RTOs/ISOs
81. Second, the offer cap structure and associated uplift payments discussed further in section IV.B below give resources the opportunity to be compensated for the short-run marginal costs they incur to provide service, which achieves the price formation goal of ensuring that resources have an opportunity to recover their costs.
82. Third, the offer cap structure adopted in this Final Rule will encourage a resource to offer supply to the market when it is needed most. A resource that is compensated for its costs has an incentive to offer its supply into the market even when those costs are high, which often occurs when supplies are tight. Fourth, the offer cap structure enables RTOs/ISOs to dispatch the most efficient set of resources when resources' short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh.
83. We also find that the offer cap structure will mitigate market power associated with incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh, as some commenters suggest. The requirement that incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh be cost-based retains the backstop mitigation function that current offer caps play in existing RTO/ISO market power mitigation because incremental energy offers that are not cost-based may not exceed $1,000/MWh. A cost-based incremental energy offer is based on the associated resource's short-run marginal cost, which constitutes a competitive offer free from the exercise of market-power.
84. Revising the offer cap to permit cost-based incremental energy offers up to $2,000/MWh to set LMP will reduce the likelihood that the offer cap will suppress LMPs below the marginal cost of production. Permitting cost-based incremental energy offers up to $2,000/MWh to set LMP will also reduce uplift associated with the current offer caps, which will be beneficial to the market because uplift payments are less transparent to market participants than LMPs that reflect the marginal cost of production. Therefore, we disagree with arguments that all resources with short-run marginal costs above $1,000/MWh should be compensated through uplift rather than through the LMP. As discussed further below, we adopt a hard cap and provide cost recovery for resources with short-run marginal costs above $2,000/MWh to address practical concerns raised about the offer verification process. As discussed further below, some resources may not know their actual short-run marginal costs at the time they submit cost-based incremental energy offers.
85. We disagree with Industrial Customers that resources would have no incentive to minimize their fuel costs if the offer cap is above $1,000/MWh because, in the absence of market power, resources have an incentive to compete with other resources in order to clear the RTO/ISO day-ahead and real-time energy markets. Any resource that is able to procure natural gas at a cost less than the cost that sets the LMP will earn a profit and thus has a strong incentive to manage its fuel procurement.
86. However, as part of the offer cap structure, we will require a hard cap of $2,000/MWh on offers that are used to calculate LMPs. Under the hard cap, an RTO/ISO must place an upper limit, or hard cap, on the cost-based incremental energy offers that it uses to calculate LMPs.
A resource's incremental energy offer must be capped at the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's cost-based incremental energy offer.
87. We find that a hard cap is necessary for two primary reasons. First, a hard cap will address the fact that RTOs/ISOs and/or Market Monitoring Units may have imperfect information about resources' short-run marginal costs during the verification process. As discussed further in section IV.B below, several commenters note that there may be imperfect information associated with the verification of cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh prior to the market clearing process because some of those offers will be based on a resource's estimate of its costs and RTOs/ISOs or Market Monitoring Units may not have perfect information with which to estimate those costs. Additionally, as noted by market monitors, when natural gas spot market prices rise to levels that could result in the short-run marginal costs of some natural gas-fired resources exceeding $1,000/MWh, over-the-counter natural gas markets often lack liquidity or have wide bid-ask spreads, which can make verification challenging, particularly verification of expected costs. At those times, a market participant's expected costs could vary significantly from its actual costs. Although, as discussed further below, only verified cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh may be used to calculate LMPs subject to the $2,000/MWh hard cap. We find that, on balance, a hard cap will reasonably limit the adverse impact that any imperfect information about resources' short-run marginal costs during the verification process could have on LMPs.
88. Second, we agree with MISO that a hard cap will be easier to integrate with other market constructs that place caps or upper bounds on various market elements (
89. We are not persuaded by comments that a hard cap is duplicative of existing market power mitigation rules because existing market power mitigation provisions in most RTOs/ISOs only apply under certain circumstances, whereas this Final Rule essentially mitigates all incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh to a level based on short-run marginal costs. Additionally, as noted above, the hard cap is necessary to address concerns about the imperfect information that RTOs/ISOs and/or Market Monitoring Units have about resources' short-run marginal costs during the verification process.
90. Having determined that a hard cap is necessary, we find that $2,000/MWh is a just and reasonable level for that hard cap based on the record in this proceeding. Historically, high natural gas prices during the Polar Vortex resulted in at least one resource with a cost-based incremental energy offer of $1,724/MWh.
91. We recognize that a $2,000/MWh hard cap leaves some possibility for price suppression when the marginal cost of production legitimately exceeds $2,000/MWh. However, by allowing verified cost-based incremental energy offers in the $1,000/MWh-$2,000/MWh range to set LMPs, we significantly reduce the likelihood of such price suppression, and we find this balanced approach just and reasonable.
92. We decline to hold a technical workshop as suggested by NYISO or a triennial review as suggested by Exelon to determine an appropriate level for the hard cap because there is sufficient evidence in this record to support $2,000/MWh as a just and reasonable value. Based on the record, we decline to adopt a lower hard cap level, such as the $1,500/MWh value TAPS proposes, because this level is demonstrably lower than cost-based incremental energy offers observed during the Polar Vortex. Additionally, the PJM Market Monitor reported that on 54 occasions in early 2015, resources submitted cost-based incremental energy offers at prices above $1,000/MWh.
93. With respect to APPA, NRECA, and AMP's argument that concerns over seams do not justify revising RTO/ISO offer caps, particularly because the Commission accepted PJM's current $2,000/MWh offer cap, we reiterate that the Commission's finding in that order was limited to the facts in that record. In accepting PJM's proposal, the Commission stated that it would not prejudge broader reforms in the price formation proceeding.
94. We decline to hold, as CAISO suggests, a technical workshop on implementation challenges. We expect that any issues regarding the implementation of this Final Rule will be raised by RTOs/ISOs on compliance, and the Commission will address them at that time. We also decline to implement a $400/MWh cap on incremental energy offers that are not cost-based, as some commenters have suggested. We find that the fact that resources rarely submit incremental energy offers above $400/MWh does not indicate that allowing resources to submit incremental energy offers as high as $1,000/MWh which are not cost-based (referred to as “market-based offers” in PJM) will result in unjust and unreasonable rates.
95. In response to MISO's suggestion that future adjustments to the offer cap may be needed in response to market-based solutions that increase demand elasticity or resource mix changes, we decline to speculate as to what changes may or may not be necessary in the future.
96. In the NOPR, the Commission proposed the requirement that cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh be verified by the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit prior to being used to calculate LMPs (verification requirement).
97. The Commission reasoned that this requirement would ensure that the proposal results in LMPs that reflect the marginal cost of production during intervals when the marginal resource's short-run marginal cost exceeds $1,000/MWh. Further, in the NOPR, the Commission preliminarily found that the verification requirement was necessary to reduce the potential exercise of market power by resources, which could result in unjust and unreasonable rates.
98. As discussed further below, the Commission received several comments about the proposed verification requirement. Comments about the proposed verification requirement focus on whether it is needed and what type of verification would be acceptable and feasible. A number of commenters generally support the proposed verification requirement, but they express concerns or seek clarification about the proposed verification requirement.
99. Commenters disagree about whether the proposed verification requirement for cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh is necessary to reduce the potential exercise of market power. Several commenters support the verification requirement,
100. OMS contends that the verification requirement protects retail consumers from unlimited and unjustified wholesale price increases.
101. PJM Joint Consumer Advocates argue that the only way to protect consumers from unfair prices is to verify offers prior to the market clearing process and that fairness demands such a review, even if the verification process is technically complex. PJM Joint Consumer Advocates assert that market-based offers, which are not strictly tied to costs, should not be eligible to set LMP because they would unfairly inflate costs to consumers and result in a windfall for suppliers.
102. Other commenters assert that the verification requirement is unnecessary
103. The Commission sought comment on the Market Monitoring Unit's or RTO's/ISO's ability to timely verify cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh prior to the day-ahead or real-time market clearing process.
104. Many of the comments highlighted the difference between verification of
105. Many commenters, including RTOs/ISOs, market monitors, and generators, assert that because some resources, specifically natural gas resources, do not know their actual fuel procurement costs when they submit incremental energy offers to the RTO/ISO, it is impossible to verify the incremental energy offers of such resources prior to the market clearing process.
106. ISO-NE, MISO, and PJM/SPP state that some natural gas resources have not procured fuel by the time that they submit incremental energy offers to the RTO/ISO markets, and thus ISO-NE and PJM/SPP state that such resources often submit offers based on the cost that the resources expect to pay for natural gas on the natural gas spot market.
107. Comments from market monitors also suggest that some natural gas resources do not know their actual fuel costs at the time they submit offers.
108. Generators also state that verification of actual costs may not be possible because some natural gas resources can only submit an estimate of their expected fuel costs.
109. Several commenters state that the challenges associated with pre-verification become more acute during stressed system conditions when natural gas supplies are limited, which is precisely when resources may have incremental energy costs above $1,000/MWh.
110. PJM states that higher natural gas prices have led to higher cost-based incremental energy offers from resources, but verifying resource costs with natural gas price indices can be challenging because there is not a strong or straightforward correlation between changes in natural gas index prices and the magnitude of changes in cost-based offers, particularly when cost-based incremental energy offers in PJM are high.
111. The ISO-NE., PJM, and SPP market monitors state that cost verification is most challenging when natural gas demand is high because of low liquidity and high bid-ask spreads for natural gas purchased on open exchanges such as the ICE.
112. The Commission sought comment on the feasibility of the proposed verification requirement.
113. For example, Potomac Economics states that time constraints will make the proposal infeasible if the proposed verification requires that resource cost data be collected and fully validated to actual cost prior to market clearing.
114. Industrial Customers argue that market monitors cannot be expected to have the ability to assess the legitimacy of the cost component of resource offers in real-time.
115. Citing CAISO's prior comments about practical implementation challenges associated with before-the-fact verification, Industrial Customers argue that the proposal in the NOPR may not be beneficial because pre-verification presents significant challenges given time constraints.
116. EEI maintains that the NOPR proposal is heavily dependent on having a verification process that is not so cumbersome as to prevent a resource's cost based incremental energy offer from being verified in time to be used in the LMP calculation. It argues that the use of make-whole payments would not serve the Commission's goal of having clearing prices that reflect the true marginal cost of production, taking into account all physical constraints.
117. Competitive Suppliers argue that removing the offer cap entirely or increasing it significantly would alleviate any challenges inherent in a before-the-fact cost verification process.
118. Midcontinent Joint Consumer Advocates and TAPS argue that it is possible to perform the proposed cost verification prior to the market clearing process.
119. Several stakeholders commented on the after-the-fact review of costs in the event that the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit is unable to verify a resource's incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh prior to the market clearing process.
120. Competitive Suppliers state that in some instances, a resource may not be able to use the RTO's/ISO's verification process to set the market clearing price (for offers above $1,000/MWh) and in such rare cases, it may be necessary to compensate that resource through an uplift payment based on after-the-fact cost verification.
121. NEI states that, given that the Commission's price formation reforms are aimed at reducing the use of out-of-market payments, NEI is disappointed by the NOPR proposal to include uplift payments as a fall back if before-the-fact cost verification proves infeasible in practice.
122. Given the concerns about verification of actual costs, several commenters, including RTOs/ISOs,
123. Several commenters maintain that a prior-to-the-market-clearing verification process that requires cost-based offers be equal to actual costs will likely result in fewer incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh that are eligible to set LMP.
124. Several commenters ask the Commission to indicate the types of verification processes it would accept.
125. CAISO states that the simplest method of verifying cost-based incremental energy offers would involve reviewing a broker quote or procurement invoice provided as evidence of a resource's costs, but CAISO questions whether such information would be sufficient.
126. PJM/SPP state that the principles outlined in the NOPR are sound, provided that the Final Rule allows RTOs/ISOs flexibility to design verification procedures that are consistent with current RTO/ISO rules.
127. ISO-NE states that if its current cost verification process is acceptable to the Commission, then the offer cap proposal may be workable and would help improve price formation if high fuel prices cause generation costs to exceed $1,000/MWh.
128. The ISO-NE Market Monitor states that the Commission should revise the proposed verification requirement to permit use of ISO-NE's current Commission-approved process where a resource can update its cost-based incremental energy offer, which occurs through a “Fuel Price Adjustment.”
129. Potomac Economics states that MISO's current process for developing and updating reference levels would comply with a Final Rule which clarified that before-the-fact verification of a resource's expected costs is acceptable.
130. Potomac Economics explains that a NYISO resource may also request to update its cost-based incremental energy offer through a software process that automatically permits such an increase, provided the increase does not exceed a predetermined threshold.
131. The PJM Market Monitor explains that resource owners in PJM are responsible for submitting their own cost-based offers and fuel cost policies, and that fuel costs are an essential part of the verification process.
132. The PJM Market Monitor also maintains that it is essential that any verification process include a rigorous and timely after-the-fact review and a requirement that a resource follows the cost-based offer submission rules and abides by its approved fuel cost policy. The PJM Market Monitor states that the verification process requires strong compliance incentives, and the Commission should impose significant penalties if a resource violates the cost-based incremental energy offer guidelines.
133. Commenters representing generator and load interests also proposed verification processes. Competitive Suppliers and NEI state that lifting the offer cap to a level that does not artificially constrain LMPs is preferable to developing a verification process, as removing the cap allows the market price to convey accurate information of the state of the system even during high stress.
134. Competitive Suppliers prefer no verification requirement but contends that if the Commission requires that all cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh be verified, the RTO/ISO and the generator should be able to identify a set of accepted criteria and data inputs such that resources can submit offers that can be accepted and thus eligible to set LMP.
135. Exelon proposes that the Commission require RTOs/ISOs to adopt tariff provisions that will permit timely review and approval of resources' cost-based offers based on a resource-specific “safe harbor” formula that is agreed upon in advance.
136. Dominion supports a verification process that uses fuel estimates based on recent prices, historical prices during similar conditions, or a combination of both.
137. The New Jersey and Pennsylvania Commissions and OPSI maintain that in order to implement the proposal in PJM, resources should be required to have a fuel cost policy approved by the Market Monitoring Unit prior to submission of cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh.
138. SCE argues that each RTO/ISO should utilize its own stakeholder processes to develop specific verification rules, which may reflect regional factors such as differences in market power mitigation processes and region-specific costs such as emissions and greenhouse gas costs.
139. We adopt the NOPR proposal and clarify that each RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit is required to verify that any incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh reasonably reflects the associated resource's actual or expected costs prior to using that offer to calculate LMPs. We find that this verification requirement is necessary for incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh because market power concerns are heightened when a resource's short-run marginal costs exceed $1,000/MWh.
140. Based on the record, it is not practical to require that RTOs/ISOs or Market Monitoring Units verify a resource's actual costs in all circumstances because a resource may not know its actual short-run marginal costs at the time it submits an incremental energy offer to the RTO/ISO for various reasons, including the timing of natural gas procurement. Accordingly, we clarify that an RTO/ISO or a Market Monitoring Unit must verify that cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh reasonably reflect a resource's actual or expected costs. Under this requirement, the verification process for cost-based incremental offers above $1,000/MWh must ensure that a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer reasonably reflects that resource's actual or expected costs.
141. The RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit, as prescribed in the RTO/ISO tariff and consistent with Order No. 719,
142. Most RTOs/ISOs prohibit incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh, a prohibition that some market
143. In this way, the verification requirement requires RTOs/ISOs to make only an incremental change to their existing market power mitigation procedures because the market power mitigation provisions that apply to incremental energy offers below $1,000/MWh will be unchanged. While in this Final Rule we increase the offer cap for cost-based incremental energy offers, we also subject offers above $1,000/MWh to additional market power mitigation in the form of the verification requirement. The verification requirement is designed to ensure that a cost-based incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh is not an attempt by the associated resource to exercise market power. The verification requirement is part-and-parcel with the increase of the offer cap for cost-based incremental energy offers. We find that it would be inappropriate to raise the offer cap without imposing a verification requirement. The verification requirement thus serves as an additional backstop market power mitigation measure.
144. Contrary to Potomac Economics' assertion that competition is not diminished when short-run marginal costs rise above $1,000/MWh, we find that market power concerns are heightened during such periods because short-run marginal costs in this range may indicate that very few resources are available to provide additional supply. Supply may be limited during such periods because of fuel supply limitations or the physical limitations of resources (
145. As discussed above, this Final Rule will require RTOs/ISOs to limit incremental energy offers to $2,000/MWh when calculating LMPs, which may be below the cost-based incremental energy offer of a resource. Thus, we revise the verification requirement proposed in the NOPR as indicated below and add new language (underlined below) to account for any uplift associated with the $2,000/MWh hard cap and adopt the following verification requirement:
The costs underlying a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh must be verified before that offer can be used for purposes of calculating Locational Marginal Prices. If a resource submits an incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh and the costs underlying that offer cannot be verified before the market clearing process begins
146. We will retain the proposal in the NOPR which ensures that, if a resource's incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh is not verified but that resource is nonetheless dispatched, that resource would be eligible to receive an uplift payment to recover its verified costs. The basis of the uplift payment would be the difference between a given resource's energy market revenues and that resource's actual short-run marginal costs of the MWs dispatched, as verified after-the-fact by the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit.
147. This Final Rule will permit regional variation in the process for treating incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh that the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit cannot verify prior to the start of the market clearing process. For example, the RTO/ISO could have procedures to change the incremental energy offer to $1,000/MWh or to mitigate that offer to a level below $1,000/MWh pursuant to other applicable market power mitigation provisions.
148. In the NOPR, the Commission proposed the following resource neutrality requirement:
All resources, regardless of type, are eligible to submit cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $1,000/MWh.
The Commission reasoned that this requirement would ensure that the eligibility to submit cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $1,000/MWh would not be applied in an unduly discriminatory or unduly preferential manner.
149. Several commenters support the proposed resource neutrality requirement.
150. Commenters disagree about whether demand response resources should be able to submit incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh. Some commenters argue that demand response resources should be treated the same as other physical generation resources that provide offers.
151. However, other commenters argue that demand response should not be able to submit incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh. PJM/SPP argue that the proposed offer cap revisions should not apply to demand response resources because demand response resource offers are intended to capture foregone commercial revenues, not the short-run marginal cost of reducing output.
152. The New Jersey Commission argues that in the absence of a comprehensive definition of short-run marginal costs for demand response resource offers, demand response resources should not be permitted to offer and set the market clearing price above the Commission's determined offer cap.
153. Several commenters express concerns about whether RTOs/ISOs or Market Monitoring Units can verify the costs of demand response resources. For example, ISO-NE asserts that a demand response resource's costs would be based on that resource's marginal opportunity cost of foregone consumption and other information that is difficult to validate, particularly if the demand response resource's costs increase significantly from the prior day.
154. AEMA requests that the Commission clarify that the offer cap proposed in the NOPR only impacts demand response resources that participate in energy markets and would not apply to demand resources that exclusively participate in capacity markets.
155. AEMA requests that the Commission continue to allow demand response resources to submit offers up to the offer cap in energy markets and not impose additional verification requirements on demand response resource energy market offers beyond what has already been accepted.
156. We adopt the NOPR proposal and find that resources with costs above $1,000/MWh should be able to submit cost-based incremental energy offers to recover their costs, regardless of the type of resource. Prohibiting a particular set of resources from submitting cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh could preclude them from recovering their costs.
157. In the NOPR the term “resource” referred to all supply resources, including demand response resources, that offer incremental energy to RTO/ISO energy markets.
158. We recognize that the verification process for demand response resources will necessarily differ from the verification process for generation resources, as noted by ISO-NE and AEMA. The Commission has
159. Finally, we find that the New Jersey and Pennsylvania Commissions' comments that demand response resources should not be able to set LMP are beyond the scope of this Final Rule, which only applies to incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh, and not the general eligibility of demand response resources to set LMPs in RTO/ISO energy markets. We clarify, however, that reforms adopted in this Final Rule, which provide that resources are eligible to submit cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $1,000/MWh and require that those offers be verified, do not apply to capacity-only demand response resources that do not submit incremental energy offers in energy markets.
160. Although the Commission preliminarily found in the NOPR that virtual supply offers and virtual demand bids (virtual transactions) could not provide a cost basis for offers above $1,000/MWh, it sought comment about whether prohibiting virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh could limit hedging opportunities, present opportunities for manipulation or gaming, create market inefficiencies, or have other undesirable consequences.
161. CAISO states that virtual transactions do not face short-run marginal production costs and would thus be unable to justify costs above $1,000/MWh.
162. ISO-NE states that market participants should be able to submit virtual supply offers at levels as high as offers from physical resources to ensure that there is a liquid supply of offers that can compete with physical resources in the day-ahead market under all market conditions, which can reduce the potential exercise of market power during tight day-ahead conditions.
163. PJM argues that virtual transactions should be permitted to exceed $1,000/MWh or be subject to a reasonableness screen because virtual transactions increase competition in the day-ahead markets and reduce market share, and thus reduce market power.
164. NYISO states that cost-based incremental energy offers, interchange transactions (
165. Potomac Economics states that competitive virtual transactions should be permitted to exceed $1,000/MWh when real-time prices are expected to exceed $1,000/MWh.
166. Potomac Economics proposes that virtual transactions be permitted to exceed $1,000/MWh when real-time LMPs are expected to exceed $1,000/MWh for more than a specified period (
167. Separately, the PJM Market Monitor recommends that up-to-congestion transactions in PJM be excluded from any offer cap reforms stating that because up-to-congestion transactions are spread bids between nodes there is no reason to relax the current rules that govern such transactions.
168. Several commenters argue that the Commission should allow virtual transactions to exceed $1,000/MWh.
169. Dominion states that limiting the ability to submit virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh to physical resources with verified cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh in order to allow such resources to hedge would minimize concerns about market manipulation.
170. Several other commenters argue that virtual transactions should be prohibited from submitting transactions above $1,000/MWh.
171. Some commenters argue, as the PJM Market Monitor does, that allowing virtual transactions above the $1,000/MWh cap could lead to undesirable consequences, such as creating the opportunity for market manipulation and the exercise of market power.
172. In light of the comments received and our adoption of a $2,000/MWh hard cap, we find that it is just and reasonable to permit market participants to submit virtual transactions up to $2,000/MWh. We do not require that virtual transactions be subject to the cost verification described above. Allowing virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh could improve price convergence between day-ahead and real-time markets.
173. We find that market participants should be allowed to submit virtual transactions up to the hard cap, as they can today. As such, this Final Rule is therefore less likely to result in unintended consequences associated with capping virtual transactions at a level below the hard cap. For example, capping virtual transactions at $1,000/MWh when the incremental energy offers used to calculate LMPs are capped at $2,000/MWh could encourage some market participants to place virtual demand bids at $1,000/MWh, a transaction that may be profitable if real-time prices exceed $1,000/MWh but would not contribute to day-ahead and real-time price convergence.
174. Under this Final Rule, LMPs may rise above $1,000/MWh. By permitting virtual transactions to exceed $1,000/MWh, we preserve a market participant's ability to use virtual
175. We also find that allowing virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh may add liquidity to day-ahead markets. Permitting virtual transactions in the $1,000/MWh—$2,000/MWh range could result in additional demand bids and supply offers (
176. We recognize that virtual transactions, by their nature, cannot be subjected to the type of cost-verification discussed above. However, in response to comments arguing that virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh will raise LMPs above verifiable costs and/or result in market power abuse, we note that Market Monitoring Units currently monitor for anti-competitive behavior by market participants. While they are not required to do so, if RTOs/ISOs determine that additional measures are necessary to address any concerns that arise from permitting virtual transactions up to $2,000/MWh, RTOs/ISOs may propose such additional measures in a separate filing under section 205 of the Federal Power Act.
177. Dominion proposes to limit the ability to submit virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh to physical resources that have cost-based offers above $1,000/MWh. We find that Dominion's proposal to limit virtual transactions to certain market participants would be unduly discriminatory. Such a limitation would treat market participants differently depending on whether they owned physical generation assets, and would be unduly discriminatory because it would limit the benefits of virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh to those participants with physical assets. Further, such a limitation could limit the other potential benefits of virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh, such as increased liquidity and increased convergence between day-ahead and real-time LMPs. Additionally, we find that the PJM Market Monitor's and Potomac Economics' proposals to limit virtual transactions above $1,000/MWh to certain time periods or certain locations lack sufficient detail and record evidence to make a finding that either proposal is just and reasonable. Finally, we clarify that this Final Rule does not apply to up-to-congestion transactions in PJM, because such transactions are spread bids and not virtual supply offers or virtual demand bids.
178. In the NOPR, the Commission stated that external RTO/ISO resources (
179. CAISO maintains that the consistent treatment of internal resources and external resources (
180. ISO-NE states that it cannot verify the costs associated with energy import transactions in real-time.
181. PJM asserts that non-emergency imports should be allowed to submit offers above $1,000/MWh to ensure that economic import transactions occur even when PJM LMPs exceed $1,000/MWh because such purchases and sales will benefit the market and provide electric supplies by allowing the lowest cost energy to serve customers.
182. PJM explains that under PJM's current rules, economic transactions are capped at the maximum energy price (absent congestion and losses) of $2,700/MWh while emergency import transactions are not. PJM states that the value of lost load may exceed this level and states that PJM is thus willing to pay more than $2,700/MWh to procure emergency energy to prevent load shedding.
183. SPP states that verifying the costs of imports could be problematic because it is difficult to obtain cost information from resources outside of SPP.
184. According to the PJM Market Monitor, 99.99 percent of PJM imports are price takers but imports that are not price takers should continue to be limited to $1,000/MWh offers.
185. The SPP Market Monitor states that the proposed offer cap requirements should apply to imports because imports have the same potential impact on LMPs as internal resources. However, the SPP Market Monitor acknowledges that it is more challenging to verify the offers of
186. Several commenters assert that imports should be able to offer above $1,000/MWh provided the costs in their offers are verified beforehand,
187. Powerex asks the Commission to consider adopting a verification process for external resources that is distinct from the process used for internal resources because the two resource types differ.
188. Several commenters argue that limiting external resources to $1,000/MWh offers may dissuade them from offering electricity to the RTO/ISO in periods when it is most needed.
189. NYISO and Competitive Power Providers state that all market transactions, including imports and virtual transactions, should be capped at the level of the hard cap, which will allow for a greater degree of competition.
190. Some commenters discussed emergency imports. For example, PJM Power Providers agrees with PJM that the Commission should not apply the proposed offer requirements to emergency imports because an offer cap on emergency energy or emergency load reductions would limit PJM's ability to procure sufficient resources and could threaten reliability.
191. However, the PJM Market Monitor argues that emergency imports above $1,000/MWh should be subject to cost verification before they are eligible to set LMP in PJM and asserts that such imports currently have an unmitigated opportunity to exercise market power in PJM markets.
192. We find that it is just and reasonable to permit economic exchange transactions (
193. While in the NOPR the Commission proposed to make imports ineligible to offer above $1,000/MWh,
194. Further, prohibiting imports from offering above $1,000/MWh could result in uneconomic flows between RTOs/ISOs. For example, if the LMP in one
195. Additionally, we will not require import offers above $1,000/MWh be cost-verified and find that imports are not similarly situated to internal generation resources. Unlike incremental energy offers from internal resources, import offers are often not resource-specific and, thus, it is difficult—some commenters say impossible—to ascertain the underlying costs of most import offers. This approach is consistent with current market power mitigation measures in RTOs/ISOs that apply to internal resources but do not typically apply to imports.
196. Additionally, RTO/ISO market participants can import energy from adjacent markets and sell that energy in the RTO/ISO energy market. Therefore, it is difficult for external resources in an adjacent market to withhold because internal RTO/ISO resources can import energy from that adjacent market. Additionally, provided the adjacent market is competitive, which is expected if the adjacent market is an RTO/ISO with market power mitigation, it would be difficult for an external resource to exercise market power in the importing RTO/ISO.
197. Though it is not required, the Commission would consider proposals by RTOs/ISOs to verify or otherwise review the costs of imports or exports and/or develop additional mitigation provisions for import and export transactions above $1,000/MWh. Such proposals should be submitted in a separate filing under section 205 of the Federal Power Act.
198. We clarify that this Final Rule will not apply to Coordinated Transactions Schedules, which are spread bids as opposed to energy offers. Additionally, the Final Rule will not apply to emergency purchases, which would go beyond the scope of this Final Rule because such transactions are administratively priced rather than based on short-run marginal cost.
199. The Commission also sought comment on various aspects of the verification process and the types of costs that should be considered in the verification. Specifically, the Commission sought comment on (1) whether the Market Monitoring Unit or RTOs/ISOs may need additional information to ensure that all short-run marginal cost components that are difficult to quantify, such as certain opportunity costs, are accurately reflected in a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer, and (2) to the extent that RTOs/ISOs currently include an adder above cost in cost-based incremental energy offers, whether such an adder is appropriate for incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh.
200. Commenters express differing views on whether opportunity costs are legitimate costs, and if so, whether it is appropriate to include them within cost-based incremental energy offers. The PJM Market Monitor states that it currently calculates opportunity costs at the request of PJM members and does not need additional information about the details of opportunity costs.
201. Midcontinent Joint Consumer Advocates and TAPS oppose opportunity cost adders in the verification methodology for cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh.
202. Commenters expressed a range of opinions regarding whether it is appropriate to account for cost uncertainty or other risks through an adder in cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh. SPP takes no position on the appropriateness of the adder but argues that the different RTOs/ISOs should be allowed to develop verification rules that are consistent with their existing rules, including adders.
203. Dominion, Exelon, ODEC, and PJM support the inclusion of a ten percent adder to cost-based incremental offers.
204. However, the New Jersey Commission, Direct Energy, PG&E, TAPS, and Industrial Customers oppose including a ten percent adder in cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh.
205. With respect to other short-run marginal cost components, the Pennsylvania Commission, CAISO, and Industrial Customers argue that a resource's permissible short-run marginal costs should not include unauthorized natural gas costs and natural gas pipeline penalties.
206. The Commission also sought comment on whether the verification of physical offer components is necessary.
207. Several commenters state that adders above costs should be included in cost-based offers to account for cost uncertainty or risk.
208. Based on the record before us, we will not require that additional information on short-run marginal cost components be provided to the RTO/ISO or Market Monitoring Unit. Furthermore, we will not prescribe the manner in which RTOs/ISOs or Market Monitoring Units verify cost-based incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh. As indicated in the NOPR, RTOs/ISOs use different processes to develop and update the incremental energy offers used for mitigation and differ in how they define the components of cost-based incremental energy offers.
209. The Commission recognized in the NOPR that revising the offer cap may impact other RTO/ISO market elements that depend on the offer cap, such as shortage pricing levels or various penalty factors.
210. Four RTOs/ISOs commented that RTO/ISO market elements other than the offer cap may need to be revised if the offer cap is revised. CAISO states that it will face significant implementation challenges if it changes its current $1,000/MWh offer cap because the administrative penalty prices CAISO uses in its market model to indicate that constraints have been relaxed, such as the power balance constraint, are based on the offer cap.
211. PJM states that it would likely need to adjust shortage pricing rules in PJM in light of any Final Rule on offer caps.
212. APPA, NRECA, and AMP and ODEC state that any Final Rule
213. An RTO/ISO may file, pursuant to section 205 of the Federal Power Act, to propose modifications to shortage prices or other market elements that require revision in light of the offer cap reforms adopted in this Final Rule. However, we do not require such modifications to comply with this Final Rule. We find that it is not appropriate to determine in this Final Rule the changes that individual RTOs/ISOs should make to market elements that are not the subject of these reforms.
214. Commenters raised issues that are not discussed above and that are outside the scope of this rulemaking. Several commenters argue that the focus of the recommendations in the NOPR is too narrow. API recommends that the Commission look for ways to encourage the appropriate integration of new technologies, including quickly ramping gas-fired generation technology, to meet rapidly changing grid-conditions and allow prices in real-time markets to better reflect the true state of grid reliability at a given moment while addressing any remaining concerns of market power abuse.
215. The PJM Market Monitor argues that because gas is the only fuel likely to result in offers greater than $1,000/MWh, the removal of any cap on short run marginal cost therefore relies on the competitiveness of the gas markets.
216. The Pennsylvania Commission states that the Commission should direct PJM and other RTO/ISO stakeholders to develop a “circuit breaker” provision to cap energy market revenue during uncontrollable and sustained outage events.
217. Industrial Customers argue that increases to the current $1,000/MWh offer cap should be explored simultaneously with the elimination of capacity markets, and that the Commission could act more methodically to explore ways to improve capacity market competitiveness and transparency.
218. We appreciate the concerns raised by numerous commenters requesting that the Commission undertake various initiatives, as set forth above. However, we find that the requested initiatives go beyond the scope of this rulemaking, which only addresses incremental energy offers above $1,000/MWh. Accordingly, we will not address those concerns here.
219. The Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)
220. In this Final Rule, we are amending the Commission's regulations to improve the operation of organized wholesale electric power markets operated by RTOs/ISOs. We require that each RTO/ISO (1) cap each resource's incremental energy offer at the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's verified cost-based incremental energy offer; and (2) when calculating LMPs, RTOs/ISOs shall cap verified cost-based incremental energy offers at $2,000/MWh. The reforms required in this Final Rule would require a one-time tariff filing with the Commission due 75 days after the effective date of this Final Rule to implement these reforms. We anticipate the reforms required in this Final Rule, once implemented, would not significantly change currently existing burdens on an ongoing basis. With regard to those RTOs/ISOs that believe that they already comply with the reforms required in this Final Rule, they could demonstrate their compliance in the compliance filing required 75 days after the effective date of this Final Rule in this proceeding. The Commission will submit the proposed reporting requirements to OMB for its review and approval under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
221. In the NOPR, the Commission sought comments on the accuracy of provided burden and cost estimates and any suggested methods for minimizing the respondents' burdens, including the use of automated information techniques. Specifically, the Commission sought detailed comments on the potential cost and time necessary to implement aspects of the reforms proposed in the NOPR, including (1) software and business processes changes, including market power mitigation; (2) increased time spent validating cost-based incremental energy offers; and (3) processes for RTOs/ISOs to vet proposed changes amongst their stakeholders. The Commission also stated that although it did not expect other entities to incur
Legal (code 23-0000), $128.94
Computer and mathematical (code 15-0000), $60.54
Information systems manager (code 11-3021), $91.63
IT security analyst (code 15-1122), $63.55
Auditing and accounting (code 13-2011), $53.78
Information and record clerk (code 43-4199), $37.69
Electrical Engineer (code 17-2071), $64.20
Economist (code 19-3011), $74.43
Management (code 11-0000), $88.94
The average hourly cost (salary plus benefits), weighting all of these skill sets evenly, is $73.74. The Commission rounds it to $74 per hour.
The Commission notes that these estimates do not include costs for software or hardware. Software or hardware upgrades may not be required.
222. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the following: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attention: Ellen Brown, Office of the Executive Director], email:
223. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
224. This rule would apply to six RTOs/ISOs (all of which are transmission organizations). The average estimated annual cost to each of the RTOs/ISOs is $37,000, all in Year 1. This one-time cost of filing and implementing these changes is not significant.
225. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
226. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
227. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number of this document, excluding the last three digits, in the docket number field.
228. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
229. These regulations are effective February 21, 2017. The Commission has determined, with the concurrence of the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, that this rule is not a “major rule” as defined in section 351 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.
Electric power rates, Electric utilities, Non-discriminatory open access transmission tariffs.
By the Commission.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission amends part 35, chapter I, title 18,
16 U.S.C. 791a-825r, 2601-2645; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352.
(g) * * *
(9) A resource's incremental energy offer must be capped at the higher of $1,000/MWh or that resource's cost-based incremental energy offer. For the purpose of calculating Locational Marginal Prices, Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators must cap cost-based incremental energy offers at $2,000/MWh. The costs underlying a resource's cost-based incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh must be verified before that offer can be used for purposes of calculating Locational Marginal Prices. If a resource submits an incremental energy offer above $1,000/MWh and the costs underlying that offer cannot be verified before the market clearing process begins, that offer may not be used to calculate Locational Marginal Prices and the resource would be eligible for a make-whole payment if that resource is dispatched and the resource's costs are verified after-the-fact. A resource would also be eligible for a make-whole payment if it is dispatched and its verified cost-based incremental energy offer exceeds $2,000/MWh. All resources, regardless of type, are eligible to submit cost-based incremental energy offers in excess of $1,000/MWh.
The following appendix will not appear in the
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |