Page Range | 49517-49854 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 49634 - Request for Information on Payday Loans, Vehicle Title Loans, Installment Loans, and Open-End Lines of Credit | |
81 FR 49853 - National Korean War Veterans Armistice Day, 2016 | |
81 FR 49849 - Anniversary of the Americans with Disabilities Act, 2016 | |
81 FR 49698 - Temporary Emergency Committee of the Board of Governors; Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 49712 - In the Matter of American Transportation Holdings, Inc.; Order of Suspension of Trading | |
81 FR 49712 - Authority To Submit Declarations and Claim Privileges on Behalf of the United States Under Military Rules of Evidence 505 and 506 | |
81 FR 49714 - Eleventh Meeting Special Committee 231 TAWS | |
81 FR 49619 - Finished Carbon Steel Flanges From India, Italy, and Spain: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigations | |
81 FR 49634 - Scientific Integrity Office; Notice of Availability and Request for Public Comment | |
81 FR 49625 - Finished Carbon Steel Flanges From India: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation | |
81 FR 49662 - Medicare Program; Request for an Exception to the Prohibition on Expansion of Facility Capacity Under the Hospital Ownership and Rural Provider Exceptions to the Physician Self-Referral Prohibition | |
81 FR 49660 - Notice of Opportunity for Hearing on Compliance of Arkansas State Plan Provisions Concerning Provision of Benefits During a Reasonable Opportunity Period With Titles XI and XIX (Medicaid) of the Social Security Act | |
81 FR 49695 - In the Matter of Troy A. Morehead | |
81 FR 49691 - In the Matter of Kyle Lynn Dickerson | |
81 FR 49690 - Virgil C. Summer Nuclear Station, Units 2 and 3; South Carolina Electric & Gas Company; Main Control Room Emergency Habitability System Design Changes | |
81 FR 49685 - Notice Announcing the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Protest Module as the Sole CBP-Authorized Method for Filing Electronic Protests | |
81 FR 49649 - Public Water System Supervision Program Revision for the State of Florida | |
81 FR 49618 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 249-Pensacola, Florida; Notification of Proposed Production Activity GE Renewables North America, LLC, Subzone 249A, (Wind Turbine Nacelles, Hubs, and Drivetrains), Pensacola, Florida | |
81 FR 49619 - Approval of Subzone Status-Flemish Master Weavers-Sanford, Maine | |
81 FR 49712 - SunTx Capital III Management Corp., et al.-Control-TBL Group, Inc.; GBJ, Inc.; Echo Tours and Charters L.P. | |
81 FR 49718 - National Research Advisory Council; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 49716 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49613 - Waybill Data Reporting for Toxic Inhalation Hazards; Withdrawal | |
81 FR 49687 - National Cooperative Geologic Mapping Program (NCGMP) and National Geological and Geophysical Data Preservation Program (NGGDPP) Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 49633 - Proposed Information Collection; Comment Request; Reporting Requirements for Sea Otter Interactions With the Pacific Sardine Fishery; Coastal Pelagic Species Fishery Management Plan | |
81 FR 49614 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Groundfish Fisheries in the Gulf of Alaska; Reopening of Comment Period | |
81 FR 49646 - Notice of Commissioner and Staff Attendance at the National Association of Regulatory Utility Commissioners Summer Committee Meetings | |
81 FR 49638 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 49653 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49715 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49689 - Notice of Intent To Seek Approval To Extend a Current Information Collection | |
81 FR 49717 - Solicitation of Nominations for Appointment to the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses | |
81 FR 49689 - Revision of OMB Circular No. A-130, “Managing Information as a Strategic Resource” | |
81 FR 49635 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
81 FR 49674 - Prescription Drug User Fee Rates for Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 49687 - Notice of Public Meeting, Dakotas Resource Advisory Council Meeting | |
81 FR 49688 - Notice of Filing of Plats of Survey, New Mexico | |
81 FR 49684 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49686 - Receipt of an Application for an Incidental Take Permit for Karner Blue Butterfly, From the Slack Chemical Company, and Availability of Proposed Habitat Conservation Plan | |
81 FR 49681 - Oncologic Drugs Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 49680 - Psychopharmacologic Drugs Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 49647 - Brentwood Dam Ventures, LLC; Notice of Proposed Termination of Exemption by Implied Surrender and Soliciting Comments, Protests and Motions To Intervene | |
81 FR 49640 - California Department of Water Resources; Notice of Application Accepted for Filing and Soliciting Comments, Motions To Intervene, and Protests | |
81 FR 49644 - Tri-State Generation and Transmission Association, Inc.; Notice of Petition for Partial Waiver | |
81 FR 49637 - Data Collection for Analytics and Surveillance and Market-Based Rate Purposes; Notice of the Technical Workshop on the Draft Data Dictionary Attached to the Data Collection for Analytics and Surveillance and Market-Based Rate Purposes Notice of Proposed Rulemaking | |
81 FR 49591 - Ownership Information in Market-Based Rate Filings; Withdrawal | |
81 FR 49636 - Kenai Hydro, LLC ; Notice of Scoping Meetings and Environmental Site Review and Soliciting Scoping Comments | |
81 FR 49641 - Cyber Systems in Control Centers | |
81 FR 49590 - Collection of Connected Entity Data From Regional Transmission Organizations and Independent System Operators; Withdrawal | |
81 FR 49635 - Gresham Municipal Utilities; Notice of Availability of Environmental Assessment | |
81 FR 49638 - Southwest Power Pool, Inc.; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date | |
81 FR 49639 - Billing Procedures for Annual Charges for the Costs of Other Federal Agencies for Administering Part I of the Federal Power Act; Notice Reporting Costs for Other Federal Agencies' Administrative Annual Charges for Fiscal Year 2015 | |
81 FR 49644 - Water Street Land, LLC; Notice of Application Tendered for Filing With the Commission and Soliciting Additional Study Requests | |
81 FR 49664 - Animal Drug User Fee Rates and Payment Procedures for Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 49580 - Standards for Business Practices and Communication Protocols for Public Utilities | |
81 FR 49646 - Combined Notice of Filings | |
81 FR 49647 - Ninnescah Wind Energy, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 49646 - Rush Springs Wind Energy, LLC; Supplemental Notice That Initial Market-Based Rate Filing Includes Request for Blanket Section 204 Authorization | |
81 FR 49637 - Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.; Notice of Institution of Section 206 Proceeding and Refund Effective Date | |
81 FR 49645 - Combined Notice of Filings #2 | |
81 FR 49648 - Combined Notice of Filings #1 | |
81 FR 49688 - Porcelain-on-Steel Cooking Ware From China; Determination | |
81 FR 49635 - Withdrawal of Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Impact Statement for Western Lake Erie Basin, Blanchard River Watershed Study | |
81 FR 49659 - Disease, Disability, and Injury Prevention and Control Special Emphasis Panel (SEP): Initial Review; Cancelation | |
81 FR 49657 - Board of Scientific Counselors, Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response; Meetings | |
81 FR 49698 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BATS Exchange, Inc.; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 6, To Amend BATS Rule 14.11(i) To Adopt Generic Listing Standards for Managed Fund Shares | |
81 FR 49709 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Price Improvement XL Pricing | |
81 FR 49705 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Modify the Complimentary Services Offered to Certain New Listings | |
81 FR 49708 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49714 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 49618 - Agenda and Notice of Public Meeting of the New Mexico Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 49632 - Hydrofluorocarbon Blends and Components Thereof From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Correction to the Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value | |
81 FR 49633 - Fisheries of the Gulf of Mexico; Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review (SEDAR); Assessment Webinar for Gulf of Mexico Data-Limited Species | |
81 FR 49669 - Animal Generic Drug User Fee Rates and Payment Procedures for Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 49683 - National Cancer Institute Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 49619 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 189-Kent/Ottawa/Muskegon Counties, Michigan; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Adient US LLC; Subzone 189D (Motorized Seat Adjusters for Motor Vehicles); Holland and Zeeland, Michigan | |
81 FR 49628 - Dioctyl Terephthalate From the Republic of Korea: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigation | |
81 FR 49624 - Antidumping Duty Investigation of 1,1,1,2 Tetrafluoroethane (R-134a) From the People's Republic of China: Postponement of Preliminary Determination of Antidumping Duty Investigation | |
81 FR 49673 - Blood Donor Deferral Policy for Reducing the Risk of Human Immunodeficiency Virus Transmission by Blood and Blood Products; Establishment of a Public Docket; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 49652 - Notice of Agreements Filed | |
81 FR 49678 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Pre-Submission Program for Medical Devices | |
81 FR 49681 - Biosimilar User Fee Rates for Fiscal Year 2017 | |
81 FR 49659 - National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion, Interagency Committee on Smoking and Health (ICSH) | |
81 FR 49657 - National Center for Injury Prevention and Control (NCIPC), Board of Scientific Counselors, National Center for Injury Prevention and Control, (BSC, NCIPC) | |
81 FR 49659 - National Center for HIV/AIDS, Viral Hepatitis, STD, and TB Prevention (NCHHSTP)-Advisory Council for the Elimination of Tuberculosis (ACET) | |
81 FR 49658 - Request for Nominations of Candidates To Serve on the Advisory Committee to the Director, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (ACD, CDC) | |
81 FR 49650 - The Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest System Advisory Board: Request for Nominations | |
81 FR 49652 - Notice of Proposals To Engage in or To Acquire Companies Engaged in Permissible Nonbanking Activities | |
81 FR 49688 - 182nd Meeting of the Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 49815 - Hills Pharmacy, LLC; Decision and Order | |
81 FR 49575 - Airworthiness Directives; Turbomeca S.A. Turboshaft Engines | |
81 FR 49572 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
81 FR 49577 - Airworthiness Directives; Bombardier, Inc. Airplanes | |
81 FR 49592 - Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Attainment Plan for Oakridge, Oregon PM2.5 | |
81 FR 49650 - Final National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System General Permit for Discharges From Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations in New Mexico | |
81 FR 49556 - Motions To Reopen Removal, Deportation, or Exclusion Proceedings Based Upon a Claim of Ineffective Assistance of Counsel | |
81 FR 49539 - Participation by Disadvantaged Business Enterprises in Procurements Under EPA Financial Assistance Agreements | |
81 FR 49591 - Participation by Disadvantaged Business Enterprises in Procurements Under EPA Financial Assistance Agreements | |
81 FR 49517 - Commerce Control List: Addition of Items Determined To No Longer Warrant Control Under United States Munitions List Category XIV (Toxicological Agents) or Category XVIII (Directed Energy Weapons) | |
81 FR 49531 - Amendment to the International Traffic in Arms Regulations: Revision of U.S. Munitions List Categories XIV and XVIII | |
81 FR 49553 - Unified Registration System; Correction | |
81 FR 49598 - Significant New Uses of Chemical Substances; Updates to the Hazard Communication Program and Regulatory Framework; Minor Amendments to Reporting Requirements for Premanufacture Notices | |
81 FR 49719 - Regulatory Capital Rules: Regulatory Capital, Implementation of Tier 1/Tier 2 Framework |
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
Industry and Security Bureau
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Air Force Department
Engineers Corps
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Geological Survey
Land Management Bureau
Drug Enforcement Administration
Executive Office for Immigration Review
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce.
Final rule.
This final rule implements changes described in a proposed rule that the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) published on June 17, 2015. Specifically, this final rule describes how articles the President has determined no longer warrant control under Category XIV (Toxicological Agents, Including Chemical Agents, Biological Agents, and Associated Equipment) or Category XVIII (Directed Energy Weapons) of the United States Munitions List (USML) are now controlled under the Commerce Control List (CCL). The affected Category XIV articles consist primarily of dissemination, detection, and protection “equipment” and related articles, such as production and test “equipment,” and are controlled under new Export Control Classification Numbers (ECCNs) 1A607, 1B607, 1C607, 1D607, and 1E607, as added to the CCL by this final rule. The affected Category XVIII articles consist primarily of tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models, and related articles and are controlled under new ECCNs 6B619, 6D619 and 6E619, as added to the CCL by this final rule.
This final rule is one in a series of rules describing how various types of articles that the President has determined no longer warrant control on the USML, as part of the Administration's Export Control Reform Initiative, are controlled on the CCL in accordance with the requirements of the Export Administration Regulations (EAR).
This final rule is being published by BIS in conjunction with a final rule from the Department of State, Directorate of Defense Trade Controls, which amends the list of articles controlled by USML Categories XIV and XVIII. The citations in this BIS rule to USML Categories XIV and XVIII reflect the amendments contained in the Department of State's rule. The revisions made by BIS in this rule are part of Commerce's retrospective regulatory review plan under Executive Order 13563 completed in August 2011.
This rule is effective December 31, 2016.
The Department of Commerce's full retrospective regulatory review plan can be accessed at:
For questions regarding dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related items that are controlled under new ECCNs 1A607, 1B607, 1C607, 1D607, and 1E607, contact Richard P. Duncan, Ph.D., Director, Chemical and Biological Controls Division, Office of Nonproliferation and Treaty Compliance, Bureau of Industry and Security, telephone: (202) 482-3343, email:
For questions regarding tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models, and related items that are controlled under new ECCNs 6B619, 6D619 and 6E619, contact Mark Jaso, Sensors and Aviation Division, Office of National Security & Technology Transfer Controls, Bureau of Industry and Security, telephone: (202) 482-0987, email:
This final rule is published by the Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) as part of the Administration's Export Control Reform (ECR) Initiative, the object of which is to protect and enhance U.S. national security interests. The implementation of the ECR initiative includes amendment of the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) and its U.S. Munitions List (USML), so that they control only those items that provide the United States with a critical military or intelligence advantage or otherwise warrant such controls, and amendment of the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) to control military items that do not warrant USML controls. This series of amendments to the ITAR and the EAR will reform the U.S. export control system to enhance our national security by: (i) Improving the interoperability of U.S. military forces with allied countries; (ii) strengthening the U.S. industrial base by, among other things, reducing incentives for foreign manufacturers to design out and avoid U.S.-origin content and services; and (iii) allowing export control officials to focus government resources on transactions that pose greater national security, foreign policy, or proliferation concerns than those involving our NATO allies and other multi-regime partners.
Following the structure set forth in the final rule titled “Revisions to the Export Administration Regulations: Initial Implementation of Export Control Reform” (78 FR 22660, April 16, 2013) (hereinafter the “April 16 (initial implementation) rule”), this final rule describes BIS's implementation of controls, under the EAR's CCL, on certain dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related articles previously controlled under USML Category XIV in the ITAR and certain tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models and related articles previously controlled under USML Category XVIII of the ITAR.
In the April 16 (initial implementation) rule, BIS created a series of new ECCNs to control items that would be removed from the USML and similar items from the Wassenaar Arrangement on Export Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual Use Goods and Technologies Munitions List (Wassenaar Arrangement Munitions List or WAML) that were already controlled elsewhere on the CCL. That final rule referred to this series of new ECCNs as
Pursuant to section 38(f) of the Arms Export Control Act (AECA), the President is obligated to review the USML “to determine what items, if any, no longer warrant export controls under” the AECA. The President must report the results of the review to Congress and wait 30 days before removing any such items from the USML. The report must “describe the nature of any controls to be imposed on that item under any other provision of law.” 22 U.S.C. 2778(f)(1).
The changes made by this final rule and in the State Department's companion rule to Categories XIV and XVIII of the USML are based on a review of these USML Categories by the Defense Department, which worked with the Departments of State and Commerce in preparing these amendments. Other agencies with expertise and equities in the items at issue in these rules were consulted as well. The review focused on identifying those types of articles that provide the United States with a critical military or intelligence capability and that are not currently in normal commercial use. Such items remain on the USML. Other items with less than a critical military or intelligence capability not in normal commercial use will transition to the “600 series” controls. It is the intent of the agencies that USML Categories XIV and XVIII, and the corresponding “600 series” ECCNs on the CCL, not control items in normal commercial use. Such items should be controlled under existing dual-use controls on the CCL, consistent with the Wassenaar Arrangement List of Dual-Use Goods and Technologies.
All references to the USML in this rule are to the list of defense articles that are controlled for purposes of export, temporary import, or brokering pursuant to the ITAR, and not to the list of defense articles on the United States Munitions Import List (USMIL) that are controlled by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) for purposes of permanent import under its regulations at 27 CFR part 447. Pursuant to section 38(a)(1) of the AECA, all defense articles controlled for export or import, or that are subject to brokering controls, are part of the “USML” under the AECA. For the sake of clarity, references to the USMIL are to the list of defense articles controlled by ATF for purposes of permanent import. All defense articles described in the USMIL or the USML are subject to the brokering controls administered by the U.S. Department of State in part 129 of the ITAR. The transfer of defense articles from the ITAR's USML to the EAR's CCL, for purposes of export controls, does not affect the list of defense articles that are controlled on the USMIL under the AECA for purposes of permanent import.
On January 18, 2011, the President issued Executive Order 13563, affirming general principles of regulation and directing government agencies to conduct retrospective reviews of existing regulations. The revisions made by this rule are part of Commerce's retrospective regulatory review plan under Executive Order 13563. Commerce's full plan, completed in August 2011, can be accessed at:
This final rule implements amendments to the EAR proposed in BIS's rule titled “Commerce Control List: Addition of Items Determined to No Longer Warrant Control under United States Munitions List Category XIV (Toxicological Agents) or Category XVIII (Directed Energy Weapons),” which was published in the
BIS received comments from eight parties in response to the proposed amendments in the June 17 (toxicological agents and directed energy weapons) rule that addressed dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related items.
As for the scope of the license requirements that apply to CARC, all items in ECCN 1A607, including CARC, are subject to NS Column 1 and RS Column 1 license requirements, which apply to all destinations, except Canada. While the scope of the EAR license requirements on CARC is considerably broader than that maintained by some of our allies, exports of CARC are authorized without a license, under License Exception STA, for destinations in, or nationals of, Country Group A:5 in Supplement No. 1 to part 740 of the EAR, which currently contains 36 countries. Furthermore, the EAR requirements that apply to the CARC that were previously controlled under USML Category XIV and are now controlled under new ECCN 1A607.f represent a significant easing of the regulatory burden on exporters of such CARC through: (i) Elimination of some license requirements; (ii) greater availability of license exceptions; (iii) simpler license application procedures; and (iv) reduced or eliminated registration fees. With respect to the commenter's recommendation that all CARC be placed under the export licensing jurisdiction of a single U.S. Government agency, BIS notes that the only CARC that continue to be controlled under USML Category XIV (specifically, in paragraph (f)(7) of USML Category XIV) are those that have been qualified to one of the following four military specifications: MIL-PRF-32348, MIL-DTL-64159, MIL-C-46168, or MIL-DTL-53039. In light of the anticipated benefits of moving certain CARC from USML Category XIV to new ECCN 1A607 on the EAR's CCL, as described above, there would appear to be little practical upside to continuing to control all CARC under the export licensing jurisdiction of a single U.S. Government agency.
The control criteria in USML Category XIV(f)(4), as described above, are the result of a review of USML Category XIV, as part of the Administration's Export Control Reform (ECR) Initiative, to ensure that it controls only those items that are inherently military, provide the United States with a critical military or intelligence advantage, or otherwise warrant control on the USML. In the absence of any compelling evidence contrary to the results of this review, no change is contemplated, with respect to these USML Category XIV criteria, at this time. New ECCN 1A607.f controls “equipment” previously controlled under USML Category XIV(f)(4) or (f)(5) that the President has determined no longer warrants control on the USML (
With respect to the commenter's recommendation that all individual protection “equipment” and clothing controlled under new ECCN 1A607.f should be authorized for export under License Exception BAG (under special provisions similar to those currently applicable to “personal protective equipment”), this final rule amends the License Exception BAG provisions in Section 740.14(h) of the EAR to authorize exports, reexports, or in-country transfers of chemical or biological agent protective gear consistent with the requirements and restrictions described therein. In a corresponding change, this final rule also amends the License Exception TMP provisions in Section 740.9(a)(11) of the EAR to authorize temporary exports, reexports, or in-country transfers of chemical or biological agent protective gear consistent with the requirements and restrictions described therein. These changes are also intended to make the scope of these license exceptions, as they apply to chemical or biological agent protective gear controlled under new ECCN 1A607.f, conform with the scope of the ITAR exemption for personal protective equipment in Section 123.17 of the ITAR.
In response to the commenter's request for clarification concerning controls on filter cartridges that meet the requirements of specifications PRF-EA-2251 for the M61 filter cartridge, but do not contain ASZM-TEDA carbon, their control status also would depend upon the sorbents that they contain. As indicated above, filter cartridges that contain any of the sorbents controlled by USML Category XIV (
(1) Valves with a closure element designed to be interchangeable, as listed under 6.b on the AG Control List of Dual-Use Chemical Manufacturing Facilities and Equipment); and (2) nose-only exposure apparatus, as listed under 8.b on the AG Control List of Dual-Use Biological Equipment.
This final rule creates five new “600 series” ECCNs in CCL Category 1 (ECCNs 1A607, 1B607, 1C607, 1D607, and 1E607) that clarify the EAR controls applicable to certain dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related items that the President has determined no longer warrant control under USML Category XIV. Terms such as “part,” “component” “accessories,” “attachments,” and “specially designed” are applied in the same manner in this rule as those terms are defined in Section 772.1 of the EAR. In addition, to assist exporters in determining the control status of their items, a “Specially Designed” Decision Tool and a CCL Order of Review Decision Tool are available on the BIS Web site at:
In new ECCN 1A607, paragraphs .a through .d, paragraph .i, and paragraphs .l through .w are reserved. Paragraph .e of ECCN 1A607 controls “equipment” “specially designed” for military use and for the dissemination of any of the riot control agents controlled in ECCN 1C607.a. Paragraph .f of ECCN 1A607 controls protection “equipment” “specially designed” for military use and for defense against either materials controlled by USML Category XIV(a) or (b) or any of the riot control agents in new ECCN 1C607.a. Paragraph .g of ECCN 1A607 controls decontamination “equipment” not controlled by USML Category XIV(f) that is “specially designed” for military use and for the decontamination of objects contaminated with materials controlled by USML Category XIV(a) or (b). Paragraph .h controls “equipment” not controlled by USML Category XIV(f) that is “specially designed” for military use and for the detection or identification of either materials specified by USML Category XIV(a) or (b) or riot control agents controlled by new ECCN 1C607.a. Paragraph .j controls “equipment” “specially
In new ECCN 1B607, paragraph .a controls “equipment,” not including incinerators, that is “specially designed” for the destruction of chemical agents controlled by USML Category XIV(a). Paragraph .b of ECCN 1B607 controls test facilities and “equipment” that are “specially designed” for military certification, qualification, or testing of commodities controlled by new ECCN 1A607.e, .f, .g, .h, or .j or by USML Category XIV(f), except for XIV(f)(1). Paragraph .c of ECCN 1B607 controls tooling and “equipment” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of commodities controlled under new ECCN 1A607.e, .f, .g, .h, or .j or USML Category XIV(f). Paragraphs .d through .w are reserved. Paragraph .x controls “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments,” not enumerated or otherwise described elsewhere in the USML, that are “specially designed” for a commodity controlled by ECCN 1B607.b or .c or for a defense article controlled by USML Category XIV(f).
As indicated above, ECCN 1B607.b does not control test facilities and “equipment” that are “specially designed” for military certification, qualification, or testing of commodities and are enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XIV(f)(1), as set forth in State's companion rule to this final rule (
New ECCN 1C607.a controls specified tear gases and riot control agents. Paragraph .b of ECCN 1C607 controls “biopolymers” not controlled by USML Category XIV(g) that are “specially designed” or processed for the detection or identification of chemical warfare (CW) agents specified by USML Category XIV(a) and the cultures of specific cells used to produce them. Paragraph .c controls specified “biocatalysts” and biological systems that are not controlled by USML Category XIV(g) and are “specially designed” for the decontamination or degradation of CW agents specified by USML Category XIV(a). Paragraph .d controls chemical mixtures not controlled by USML Category XIV(f) that are “specially designed” for military use for the decontamination of objects contaminated with materials specified by USML Category XIV(a) or (b).
New ECCN 1D607.a controls “software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation, or maintenance of items controlled by ECCN 1A607, 1B607 or 1C607. Paragraph .b of ECCN 1D607 is reserved.
New ECCN 1E607.a controls “technology” “required” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of items controlled by ECCN 1A607, 1B607, 1C607, or 1D607. Paragraph .b of ECCN 1E607 is reserved.
Amendments to License Exceptions BAG and TMP related to Individual Protection “Equipment” in ECCN 1A607.f.
In response to public comments recommending that all individual protection “equipment” and clothing controlled under new ECCN 1A607.f should be authorized for export under License Exception BAG (under special provisions similar to those currently applicable to “personal protective equipment”), this final rule amends the License Exception BAG provisions in Section 740.14(h) of the EAR to authorize exports, reexports, or in-country transfers of chemical or biological agent protective gear consistent with the requirements and restrictions described therein. In a corresponding change, this final rule also amends the License Exception TMP provisions in Section 740.9(a)(11) of the EAR to authorize temporary exports, reexports, or in-country transfers of chemical or biological agent protective gear consistent with the requirements and restrictions described therein. The amendments to License Exceptions BAG and TMP also change the requirements for Afghanistan to be consistent with those of the majority of other Country Group D:5 destinations (
BIS received comments from two parties in response to the proposed amendments in the June 17 (toxicological agents and directed energy weapons) rule related to tooling, production “equipment,” test, and evaluation “equipment,” test models and other articles related to directed energy weapons.
This rule creates three new “600 series” ECCNs in CCL Category 6 (ECCNs 6B619, 6D619 and 6E619) that clarify the EAR controls applicable to certain tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models, and related articles for Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) that the President has determined no longer warrant control under USML Category XVIII. Terms such as “part,” “component” “accessories,” “attachments,” and “specially designed” are applied in the same manner in this rule as those terms are defined in Section 772.1 of the EAR. In addition, to assist exporters in determining the control status of their items, a “Specially Designed” Decision Tool and a CCL Order of Review Decision Tool are available on the BIS Web site at:
New ECCN 6B619.a controls tooling, templates, jigs, mandrels, molds, dies, fixtures, alignment mechanisms, and test “equipment” not enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XVIII and not elsewhere specified on the USML that are “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of commodities controlled by USML Category XVIII. The commodities that are controlled under new ECCN 6B619.a are used to produce directed energy weapons (including non-lethal directed energy weapons, such as active denial systems) and are similar to commodities that are in operation in a number of other countries, some of which are not allies of the United States or members of multinational export control regimes. Research and development is currently underway to determine the possible uses of such commodities (
Paragraphs .b through .w of ECCN 6B619 are reserved. Paragraph .x controls “parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control under paragraph .a of this ECCN and not enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XVIII and not elsewhere specified on the USML.
New ECCN 6D619 controls “software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation or maintenance of commodities controlled by ECCN 6B619. Inclusion of this “software” on the CCL is appropriate, because it is limited to “software” “specially designed” for ECCN 6B619 commodities and does not include any “software” for items specifically enumerated or otherwise described on the USML.
New ECCN 6E619 controls “technology” “required” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, overhaul or refurbishing of commodities controlled by ECCN 6B619, or “software” controlled by 6D619. Inclusion of this “technology” on the CCL is appropriate, because it is limited to “technology” “required” for ECCN 6B619 commodities and does not include any “technology” for items specifically enumerated or otherwise described on the USML.
Pursuant to the framework established in the April 16 (initial implementation) rule, detection and protection “equipment” and related commodities classified under ECCN 1A607; related test, inspection and production “equipment” classified under ECCN 1B607; tear gases, riot control agents and related commodities classified under ECCN 1C607 (except for items listed in ECCN 1C607.a.10, .a.11, .a.12, or a.14, all of which are specifically excluded from WAML Category 7 by Note 1 thereto); related “software” classified under ECCN 1D607 (except “software” for items listed in ECCN 1C607.a.10, .a.11, .a.12, or a.14); and related “technology” classified under ECCN 1E607 (except “technology” for items listed in ECCN 1C607.a.10, .a.11, .a.12, or a.14 and 1D607 “software” therefor) are subject to the licensing policies that apply to items controlled for national security (NS) reasons, as described in § 742.4(b)(1)—specifically, NS Column 1 controls. The same level of NS controls and licensing policies also apply to the directed energy weapons items that are controlled under the three new ECCNs (
Also, in accordance with §§ 742.4(b)(1) and 742.6(b)(1) of the EAR, exports and reexports of “600 series” items controlled for NS or RS reasons will be reviewed consistent with United States arms embargo policies in § 126.1 of the ITAR, if destined to a country listed in Country Group D:5 of Supplement No. 1 to part 740 of the EAR. All items controlled for NS or RS reasons, as set forth in this final rule, are subject to this licensing policy.
BIS believes that the principal effect of this final rule, when considered in the context of similar rules being published as part of the ECR, will be to provide greater flexibility for exports and reexports to NATO member countries and other multiple-regime-member countries of items the President determines no longer warrant control on the USML. This greater flexibility is in the form of: the application of the EAR's
The April 16 (initial implementation) rule imposed certain unique
The April 16 (initial implementation) rule imposed certain restrictions on the use of license exceptions for items controlled under “600 series” ECCNs on the CCL. The general restrictions that apply to the use of license exceptions for such items are described in § 740.2(a)(13) of the EAR. The EAR provisions that describe the requirements specific to individual license exceptions contain additional restrictions on the use of license exceptions for such items.
For example, this rule authorizes limited License Exception STA availability for the new “600 series” ECCNs contained herein. None of the items controlled under these new ECCNs are eligible for the STA “controls of lesser sensitivity” described in § 740.20(c)(2) of the EAR. Instead, STA eligibility for all such items is limited to the destinations listed in § 740.20(c)(1) of the EAR (
None of the items controlled under the new “600 series” ECCNs created by this rule are treated as “end items” for purposes of License Exception STA and, therefore, such items are not subject to the License Exception STA eligibility request requirements in § 740.20(g) of the EAR.
Items controlled under new ECCN 1B607 or 6B619 are also eligible for License Exception LVS (limited value shipments) up to a value of $1,500, TMP (temporary exports), and RPL (servicing and replacement parts). License Exceptions TMP and RPL also are available for items controlled under new ECCN 1A607. In addition, special provisions in License Exception TMP (see § 740.9(a)(11) of the EAR) and License Exception BAG (baggage) (see § 740.14(h) of the EAR), as amended by this final rule, authorize exports, reexports, or in-country transfers of certain protection “equipment” described in ECCN 1A607.f.
BIS believes that the restrictions that apply to the use of license exceptions for the items in the new “600 series” ECCNs represents an overall reduction from the level of restrictions that previously applied to such items on the USML. This is particularly true with respect to exports of such items to NATO members and multiple-regime member countries.
Since the beginning of ECR, the Administration has stated that the reforms will be consistent with the United States' obligations to the multilateral export control regimes. Accordingly, the Administration has, in this final rule, exercised its national discretion to implement, clarify, and, to the extent feasible, align its controls with those of the regimes. In this rule, new ECCNs 1A607 and 1C607 implement, to the extent possible, the controls in WAML Category 7; new ECCNs 1B607 and 6B619 implement, to the extent possible, the controls in WAML Category 18 for production “equipment;” new ECCNs 1D607 and 6D619 implement, to the extent possible, the controls in WAML
Although the Export Administration Act expired on August 20, 2001, the President, through Executive Order 13222 of August 17, 2001, 3 CFR, 2001 Comp., p. 783 (2002), as amended by Executive Order 13637 of March 8, 2013, 78 FR 16129 (March 13, 2013), and as extended by the Notice of August 7, 2015 (80 FR 48233 (Aug. 11, 2015), has continued the Export Administration Regulations in effect under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (50 U.S.C. 1701
1. Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person is required to respond to, nor is any person subject to a penalty for failure to comply with, a collection of information, subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
As stated in the proposed rule published on July 15, 2011 (76 FR 41958) (the “July 15 proposed rule”), BIS initially estimated that the combined effect of all rules to be published, adding items to the EAR that would be removed from the ITAR as part of the Administration's Export Control Reform Initiative, would increase the number of license applications to be submitted to BIS by approximately 16,000 annually, resulting in an increase in burden hours of 5,067 (16,000 transactions at 17 minutes each) under control number 0694-0088. As the review of the USML has progressed, the interagency group has gained more specific information about the number of items that would come under BIS jurisdiction and whether those items would be eligible for export under license exception. As of June 21, 2012, BIS revised its estimate to reflect an increase in license applications of 30,000 annually, resulting in an increase in burden hours of 8,500 (30,000 transactions at 17 minutes each) under control number 0694-0088. BIS continues to believe that its revised estimate is accurate. Notwithstanding this increase in license applications under the EAR, the net burden that U.S. export controls impose on U.S. exporters is expected to go down, as described below, as a result of the transfer of less sensitive military items to the jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce, under the EAR, and the application of the license exceptions and other provisions in the EAR that are described in this final rule.
As implemented by this rule, certain dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related articles currently controlled under USML Category XIV in the ITAR and certain tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models and related articles currently controlled under USML Category XVIII of the ITAR are now subject to the licensing jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce under the EAR and its CCL, and also are eligible for certain license exceptions, including License Exception STA. For example, items controlled under new ECCN 1A607, 1B607, 1C607, 1D607, 1E607, 6B619, 6D619, or 6E619 are now eligible under certain provisions of License Exception STA and do not need a determination of eligibility as described in § 740.20(g) of the EAR. BIS believes that the increased use of License Exception STA resulting from the combined effect of all rules to be published, adding items to the EAR that would be removed from the ITAR as part of the Administration's Export Control Reform Initiative, would increase the burden associated with control number 0694-0137 by about 23,858 hours (20,450 transactions at 1 hour and 10 minutes each).
BIS expects that this increase in burden hours under the EAR will be more than offset by a reduction in the burden hours associated with currently approved collections related to the ITAR. With few exceptions, most exports of the dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related articles and the tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models and related articles that this rule adds to the CCL previously required State Department authorization, even when destined to NATO member states and other close allies. In addition, the exports of “technology” necessary to produce such items in the inventories of the United States and its NATO and other close allies previously required State Department authorization. Under the EAR, as implemented by this rule, such “technology” is now eligible for export to NATO member states and other close allies under License Exception STA, unless otherwise specifically excluded.
The anticipated reduction in burden hours will particularly impact exporters of “parts” and “components” that are no longer be subject to the ITAR, because, with few exceptions, the ITAR exempt from license requirements only exports to Canada. Most exports of such “parts” and “components,” even when destined to NATO and other close allies, previously required State Department authorization. Under the EAR, as implemented by this rule, a small number of low-level “parts” and “components” do not require a license to most destinations, while most other “parts” and “components” identified under the new “600 series” ECCNs are eligible for export to NATO and other close allies under License Exception STA.
Use of License Exception STA imposes a paperwork and compliance burden because, for example, exporters must furnish information about the item that is being exported to the consignee and obtain from the consignee an acknowledgement and commitment to comply with the requirements of the EAR. However, the Administration believes that complying with the requirements of STA is likely to be less
Even in situations in which a license is required under the EAR, the burden likely will be reduced, compared to the previous license requirement under the ITAR. In particular, license applications for exports of “technology” controlled by ECCN 1E607 or 6E619 are likely to be less complex and burdensome than the authorizations required to export ITAR-controlled “technology,”
3. This rule does not contain policies with Federalism implications as that term is defined under E.O. 13132.
4. The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA), 5 U.S.C. 601
Although BIS does not collect data on the size of entities that apply for, and are issued, export licenses and is, therefore, unable to estimate the exact number of small entities—as defined by the Small Business Administration's regulations implementing the RFA—BIS acknowledges that some small entities may be affected by this proposed rule.
The amendments set forth in this rule are part of the Administration's ECR initiative, which seeks to revise the USML to be a positive control list—one that does not use generic, catch-all control text to describe items subject to the ITAR—and to move some items that the President has determined no longer warrant control under the ITAR to control under the EAR and its CCL. Such items, along with certain military items currently identified on the CCL (most of which are identified on the WAML), will be controlled under new “600 series” ECCNs on the CCL. In addition, certain other items currently on the CCL will move from existing ECCNs to the new “600 series” ECCNs.
This rule addresses certain dissemination, detection and protection “equipment” and related articles previously enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XIV (Toxicological Agents, Including Chemical Agents, Biological Agents, and Associated Equipment) and certain tooling, production “equipment,” test and evaluation “equipment,” test models and related articles previously enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XVIII (Directed Energy Weapons). Most toxicological agents (
Moreover, “parts” and “components” that are controlled under the ITAR remain under ITAR control when incorporated into foreign-made items, regardless of the significance or insignificance of the item. This discourages foreign buyers from incorporating such U.S. content. The availability of
Many exports and reexports of the Category XIV or Category XVIII articles that are added to the CCL by this rule (particularly, the “parts” and “components” that are controlled under new ECCN 1A607.x, 1B607.x, or 6B619.x) are now eligible for license exceptions that apply to exports to U.S. Government agencies, exports of “parts” and “components” for use as replacement parts, temporary exports and limited value exports (for ECCN 1B607 and 6B619 items, only), as well as License Exception STA, thereby reducing the number of licenses that exporters will need to obtain for these items. License exceptions under the EAR allow suppliers to send routine replacement parts and low level parts to NATO and other close allies and export control regime partners for use by those governments and for use by contractors building equipment for those governments or for the U.S. Government without having to obtain export licenses. Under License Exception STA, the exporter needs to furnish information about the item being exported to the consignee and obtain a statement from the consignee that, among other things, will commit the consignee to comply with the EAR and other applicable U.S. laws. Because such statements and obligations can apply to an unlimited number of transactions and have no expiration date, they will result in a net reduction in burden on transactions routinely approved by the government through the license application process that the License Exception STA statements would replace.
Even for exports and reexports for which a license will be required, the process for obtaining a license is simpler and less costly under the EAR. When a USML Category XIV or Category
Under the USML licensing procedure, an applicant must include a purchase order or contract with its application. There is no such requirement under the CCL licensing procedure. This difference gives the CCL applicant at least two advantages. First, the applicant has a way to determine whether the U.S. Government will authorize the transaction before it enters into potentially lengthy, complex and expensive sales presentations or contract negotiations. Under the USML procedure, the applicant must caveat all sales presentations with a reference to the need for government approval, and is more likely to engage in substantial effort and expense only to find that the government will reject the application. Second, a CCL license applicant need not limit its application to the quantity or value of one purchase order or contract. It may apply for a license to cover all of its expected exports or reexports to a specified consignee over the life of a license (normally four years, but maybe longer if circumstances warrant a longer period), thus reducing the total number of licenses for which the applicant must apply.
In addition, many applicants exporting or reexporting items that this rule transfers from the USML to the CCL will realize cost savings through the elimination of some or all registration fees assessed under the USML's licensing procedure. Currently, USML applicants must pay to use the USML licensing procedure even if they never actually are authorized to export. Registration fees for manufacturers and exporters of articles on the USML start at $2,250 per year, increase to $2,750 for organizations applying for one to ten licenses per year and further increase to $2,750 plus $250 per license application (subject to a maximum of three percent of total application value) for those who need to apply for more than ten licenses per year. Conversely, there are no registration or application processing fees for applications to export items listed on the CCL. Entities who applied for licenses from the Department of State, for the Category XIV or Category XVIII items subject to this rulemaking that are removed from the USML and added to the CCL, will find their registration fees reduced if the number of USML licenses those entities need declines. If an entity's entire product line moves to the CCL, its ITAR registration and registration fee requirement will be eliminated.
BIS expects that the changes to the EAR implemented by this rule will have a positive effect on all affected entities, including small entities. While BIS acknowledges that this rule may have some cost impacts on small (and other) entities, those costs are more than offset by the benefits to the entities from the licensing procedures under the EAR, which are much less costly and less time consuming than the procedures under the ITAR. As noted above, any new burdens created by this rule will be offset by a reduction in the number of items that will require a license, increased opportunities for use of license exceptions for exports to certain countries, simpler export license applications, reduced or eliminated registration fees and application of a
Administrative practice and procedure, Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Exports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, parts 740 and 774 of the Export Administration Regulations (15 CFR parts 730-774) are amended as follows:
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
(a) * * *
(11)
(A) The items are with the U.S. person's baggage or effects, whether accompanied or unaccompanied (but not mailed);
(B) The items are for that U.S. person's exclusive use and not for transfer of ownership unless reexported or transferred (in-country) to another U.S. person.
(ii)
(B)
(iii) Items exported, reexported, or transferred (in-country) under this paragraph (a)(11), if not consumed or destroyed in the normal course of authorized temporary use abroad, must be returned to the United States or other country from which the items were so transferred as soon as practicable but no later than four years after the date of export, reexport or transfer (in-country).
(h)
(i) The items are with the U.S. person's baggage or effects, whether accompanied or unaccompanied (but not mailed);
(ii) The items are for that person's exclusive use and not for transfer of ownership unless reexported or transferred (in-country) to another U.S. person.
(2)
(ii)
50 U.S.C. app. 2401
a. through d. [Reserved]
e. “Equipment” “specially designed” for military use and for the dissemination of any of the riot control agents controlled in ECCN 1C607.a.
f. Protection “equipment” (including air conditioning units, protective coatings, and protective clothing):
f.1. Not controlled by USML Category XIV(f);
f.2. “Specially designed” for military use and for defense against:
f.2.1. Materials specified by USML Category XIV (a) or (b);
f.2.2. Riot control agents controlled in 1C607.a.
g. Decontamination “equipment”:
g.1. Not controlled by USML Category XIV(f);
g.2. “Specially designed” for military use and for decontamination of objects contaminated with materials controlled by USML Category XIV(a) or (b).
h. “Equipment”:
h.1. Not controlled by USML Category XIV(f);
h.2. “Specially designed” for military use and for the detection or identification of:
h.2.1. Materials specified by USML Category XIV(a) or (b);
h.2.2. Riot control agents controlled by ECCN 1C607.a.
i. [Reserved]
j. “Equipment” “specially designed” to:
j.1. Interface with a detector, shelter, vehicle, vessel, or aircraft controlled by the USML or a “600 series” ECCN;
j.2. Collect and process samples of articles controlled in USML Category XIV(a) or (b).
k. Medical countermeasures that are “specially designed” for military use (including pre- and post-treatments, antidotes, and medical diagnostics) and “specially designed” to counter chemical agents controlled by the USML Category XIV(a).
l. through w. [Reserved]
x. “Parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” that are “specially designed” for a commodity controlled by ECCN 1A607.e, .f, .g, .h, or .j or for a defense article controlled by USML Category XIV(f) and that are not enumerated or otherwise described elsewhere in the USML.
a. “Equipment” “specially designed” for the destruction of the chemical agents controlled by USML Category XIV(a).
b. Test facilities and “equipment” “specially designed” for military certification, qualification, or testing of commodities controlled by ECCN 1A607.e, .f, .g, .h, or .j or by USML Category XIV(f), except for XIV(f)(1).
c. Tooling and “equipment” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of commodities controlled by ECCN 1A607.e, .f .g, .h, or .j or USML Category XIV(f).
d. through w. [RESERVED]
x. “Parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” that are “specially designed” for a commodity controlled by ECCN 1B607.b or .c, or for a defense article controlled by USML Category XIV(f), and that are not enumerated or otherwise described elsewhere in the USML.
a. Tear gases and riot control agents including:
a.1. CA (Bromobenzyl cyanide) (CAS 5798-79-8);
a.2. CS (o-Chlorobenzylidenemalononitrile or o-Chlorobenzalmalononitrile) (CAS 2698-41-1);
a.3. CN (Phenylacyl chloride or w-Chloroacetophenone) (CAS 532-27-4);
a.4. CR (Dibenz-(b,f)-1,4-oxazephine) (CAS 257-07-8);
a.5. Adamsite (Diphenylamine chloroarsine or DM) (CAS 578-94-9);
a.6. N-Nonanoylmorpholine, (MPA) (CAS 5299-64-9);
a.7. Dibromodimethyl ether (CAS 4497-29-4);
a.8. Dichlorodimethyl ether (ClCi) (CAS 542-88-1);
a.9. Ethyldibromoarsine (CAS 683-43-2);
a.10. Bromo acetone (CAS 598-31-2);
a.11. Bromo methylethylketone (CAS 816-40-0);
a.12. Iodo acetone (CAS 3019-04-3);
a.13. Phenylcarbylamine chloride (CAS 622-44-6);
a.14. Ethyl iodoacetate (CAS 623-48-3);
b. “Biopolymers,” not controlled by USML Category XIV(g) “specially designed” or processed for the detection or identification of chemical warfare agents specified by USML Category XIV(a), and the cultures of specific cells used to produce them.
c. “Biocatalysts,” and biological systems therefor, not controlled by USML Category XIV(g) “specially designed” for the decontamination or degradation of chemical warfare agents controlled in USML Category XIV (a), as follows:
c.1. “Biocatalysts” “specially designed” for the decontamination or degradation of chemical warfare agents controlled in USML Category XIV(a) resulting from directed laboratory selection or genetic manipulation of biological systems;
c.2. Biological systems containing the genetic information specific to the production of “biocatalysts” specified by 1C607.c.1, as follows:
c.2.a. “Expression vectors;”
c.2.b. Viruses;
c.2.c. Cultures of cells.
d. Chemical mixtures not controlled by USML Category XIV(f) “specially designed” for military use for the decontamination of objects contaminated with materials specified by USML Category XIV(a) or (b).
a. “Software” “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” operation, or maintenance of commodities controlled by ECCN 1A607, 1B607, or 1C607.
b. [RESERVED]
a. “Technology” “required” for the “development,” “production,” operation, installation, maintenance, repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of items controlled by ECCN 1A607, 1B607, 1C607 or 1D607.
b. [RESERVED]
a. Tooling, templates, jigs, mandrels, molds, dies, fixtures, alignment mechanisms, and test “equipment” not enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XVIII and not elsewhere specified on the USML that are “specially designed” for the “development,” “production,” repair, overhaul, or refurbishing of commodities controlled by USML Category XVIII.
b. through w. [Reserved]
x. “Parts,” “components,” “accessories,” and “attachments” “specially designed” for a commodity subject to control under paragraph .a of this ECCN and not enumerated or otherwise described in USML Category XVIII and not elsewhere specified on the USML.
The list of items controlled is contained in the ECCN heading.
The list of items controlled is contained in the ECCN heading.
Department of State.
Final rule.
As part of the President's Export Control Reform effort, the Department of State amends the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) to revise Categories XIV (toxicological agents, including chemical agents, biological agents, and associated equipment) and XVIII (directed energy weapons) of the U.S. Munitions List (USML) to describe more precisely the articles warranting control on the USML. The revisions contained in this rule are part of the Department of State's retrospective plan under E.O. 13563, completed on August 17, 2011. The Department of State's full plan can be accessed at
This Final rule is effective on December 31, 2016.
Mr. C. Edward Peartree, Director, Office of Defense Trade Controls Policy, Department of State, telephone (202) 663-2792; email
The Directorate of Defense Trade Controls (DDTC), U.S. Department of State, administers the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) (22 CFR parts 120-130). The items subject to the jurisdiction of the ITAR,
All references to the USML in this rule are to the list of defense articles controlled for the purpose of export or temporary import pursuant to the ITAR, and not to the defense articles on the USML that are controlled by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATFE) for the purpose of permanent import under its regulations.
This final rule revises USML Category XIV, covering toxicological agents, including chemical agents, biological agents, and associated equipment. The revisions are undertaken in order to more accurately describe the articles
This final rule adopts for those pathogens and toxins that meet specific capabilities listed in paragraph (b) the “Tier 1” pathogens and toxins established in the Department of Health and Human Services and the United States Department of Agriculture select agents and toxins regulations (42 CFR part 73 and 9 CFR part 121). The Tier 1 pathogens and toxins that do not meet these capabilities remain controlled in Export Control Classification Number (ECCN) 1C351 on the CCL.
Additionally, this rule, in concert with the analogous rule published by the Department of Commerce, moves riot control agents to the export jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce, as well as the articles covered previously in paragraphs (j), (k), and (l), which include test facilities, equipment for the destruction of chemical and biological agents, and tooling for production of articles in paragraph (f), respectively.
Other changes include the addition of paragraph (a)(5) to control chemical warfare agents “adapted for use in war” and not elsewhere enumerated, as well as the removal of paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(6) and movement to the CCL of equipment for the sample collection and decontamination or remediation of chemical agents and biological agents. Paragraph (f)(5) for collective protection was removed and partially combined in paragraph (f)(4) or the CCL. Paragraph (g) enumerates antibodies, recombinant protective antigens, polynucleotides, biopolymers, or biocatalysts exclusively funded by a Department of Defense contract for detection of the biological agents listed in paragraph (b)(1)(ii).
The Department notes that the controls in paragraph (f)(2) that include the phrase “developed under a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization” do not apply when the Department of Defense acts solely as a servicing agency for a contract on behalf of another agency of the U.S. government. Moreover, “other funding authorization” refers to other funding authorization from the Department of Defense.
The Department notes that the controls in paragraphs (g)(1) and (h) that include the phrase “exclusively funded by a Department of Defense contract” do not apply when the Department of Defense acts solely as a servicing agency for a contract on behalf of another agency of the U.S. government, or, for example, in cases where the Department of Defense provides initial funding for the development of an item but another agency of the U.S. government provides funding to further develop or adapt the item.
Paragraph (h) enumerates certain vaccines funded exclusively by the Department of Defense, as well as certain vaccines controlled in (h)(4) that are specially designed for the sole purpose of protecting against biological agents and biologically derived substances identified in (b). Thus, the scope of vaccines controlled in (h)(4) is circumscribed by the nature of funding and the satisfaction of the term “specially designed” as that term is defined in ITAR § 120.41. In evaluating the scope of this control, please note that the Department offers a decision tool to aid exporters in determining whether a defense article meets the definition of “specially designed.” This tool is available at
Paragraph (i) is updated to provide better clarity on the scope of the control by including examples of Department of Defense tools that are used to determine or estimate potential effects of chemical or biological weapons strikes and incidents in order to plan to mitigate their impacts.
A new paragraph (x) has been added to USML Category XIV, allowing ITAR licensing on behalf of the Department of Commerce for commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR, provided those commodities, software, and technology are to be used in or with defense articles controlled in USML Category XIV and are described in the purchase documentation submitted with the application. The intent of paragraph (x) is not to impose ITAR jurisdiction on commodities, software, and technology subject to EAR controls. Items described in paragraph (x) remain subject to the jurisdiction of the EAR. The Department added the paragraph as a regulatory reference point in response to industry requests to be able to use a Department of State license to export shipments that have a mix of ITAR controlled items and EAR controlled items for use in or with items described in that category.
Finally, this rule establishes USML control in subparagraph (f)(2) of certain chemical or biological agent equipment only when it contains reagents, algorithms, coefficients, software, libraries, spectral databases, or alarm set point levels developed under a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization.
One commenter questioned whether the use of the words “to include” in proposed paragraph (a) was meant to indicate an all-inclusive list or only examples of controlled agents. The Department has modified paragraph (a) to replace “to include” with the all-inclusive “as follows” in light of this comment, and in order to align this language with the comparable language that appears in paragraph (b).
A commenting party suggested that the removal of former subparagraph (n)(2) would inhibit university research with respect to agents controlled by paragraph (a). The Department disagreed with this comment because former subparagraph (n)(2) applied only to agents controlled in paragraph (b).
Several commenters expressed confusion with respect to subparagraph (b)(1), arguing that, for example, the list in subparagraph (b)(1)(ii) was incomplete, or represented a migration to ITAR control of agents or research formerly subject to the EAR. The Department clarifies that all of the biological agents subject to control under revised paragraph (b) were also subject to ITAR control under former paragraph (b), which generally controlled those biological agents or biologically derived substances that were specifically developed, configured, adapted, or modified for the purpose of increasing their capability to produce casualties in humans or livestock, degrade equipment, or damage crops.
By contrast, subparagraph (b)(1) of revised Category XIV controls only those agents that meet the criteria of both subparagraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii). To be controlled, the agent must be one of the specific listed microorganisms or toxins, or their non-naturally occurring genetic elements,
One commenting party recommended an exclusion in paragraph (b) for research funded by the National Institutes of Health, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, or the U.S. Department of Agriculture. Given the refined and narrowed scope of
Four commenting parties argued that regulation of biological agents in paragraph (b) is not necessary in the manner proposed because of the existence of the Federal Select Agent Program and the Dual Use Research of Concern policy. The Department disagreed with these comments because the referenced program and policy are not munitions export control regimes and do not share the national security and foreign policy objectives of the ITAR. As stated above, the articles described in revised paragraph (b) were subject to the ITAR under the previous Category XIV and do not include any biological agents that were not previously subject to the ITAR; as such, there is no expansion of control beyond what existed previously, and the relationship between these agents and the Federal Select Agent Program or Dual Use Research of Concern policy is unchanged.
One commenting party observed that subparagraph (b)(1)(ii) of the proposed rule adopted the Tier 1 list of select agents meeting certain criteria, but did not incorporate the exclusions of the Federal Select Agent Program. Revised Category XIV is not intended to intersect with the Federal Select Agent Program. The ITAR and Federal Select Agent Program do not share identical objectives; accordingly, it would be inappropriate to provide common exclusions for largely unrelated regulatory concerns.
Four commenters requested the reinstatement of former subparagraph (n)(2), which provided an exclusion for agents otherwise controlled in paragraph (b) that had been modified for civil applications. The Department disagreed with these comments because, as noted above, paragraph (b) has been reduced in scope significantly to control only weaponized strains of specified agents. By contrast, former paragraph (b) required the subparagraph (n)(2) exclusion because it was otherwise overly broad. Since the revised paragraph (b) does not capture modifications that would be undertaken for civil applications that do not merit control, the subparagraph (n)(2) exclusion is no longer appropriate.
One commenting party stated that former paragraph (b) was in essence an empty box because the export licensing of biological agents as munitions would violate the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC). The Department disagreed with this comment because such treatment of biological agents does not violate the BWC when used in the development of countermeasures, which serve “prophylactic” or “protective” purposes explicitly permitted by the BWC. Moreover, prevention of the acquisition of weaponized biological agents for impermissible purposes, as is achieved through regulation of such agents under the ITAR, is consistent with the objectives of the BWC.
A commenter expressed the view that based on proposed paragraph (b), an expression vector that produces Ebola virus envelope protein for use in pseudotyping minimal lentiviral vectors, even though harmless in itself, might be subject to ITAR control because the envelope is a pathogenicity factor to Ebola virus, even in the absence of Ebola virus. The Department disagrees with this comment because the described item would not be controlled by paragraph (b) unless it satisfied the criteria of subparagraph (b)(1)(i), particularly taken together with Note 2 to paragraph (b).
One commenter suggested that the list of biological agents in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) fails to take into account the danger and exposure risk presented by each toxin. The Department notes, as stated above, that the list in subparagraph (b)(1)(ii) does not stand alone as a list of agents subject to control. To be subject to the ITAR, an agent listed in subparagraph (b)(1)(ii) must also meet the criteria of subparagraph (b)(1)(i).
Four commenting parties indicated that the properties referenced in subparagraph (b)(1)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) are not properties for which researchers would typically test, and that the proposed language might result in mandatory testing for these properties to avoid inadvertent violations. The Department revised the language in these subparagraphs to limit the analysis of modifications to those that are known to or are reasonably expected to result in an increase in the subject properties.
Two commenters suggested that the research subject to control in subparagraph (b)(1) should focus on the intent or purpose of the research. The Department disagreed with this comment in light of the revisions made to subparagraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) in response to public comments, and also in order to avoid the introduction of an intent or end use-based control, which has been a longstanding objective of the ECR initiative.
Three commenting parties observed that the use of “
One commenter requested a definition of “persistence in a field environment” in subparagraph (b)(2)(i)(A) to avoid ambiguity. The Department refined the subparagraph to provide more comprehensive criteria.
Three commenters noted that ECCN 1C352 has been combined with ECCN 1C351, and that any references to the former should be deleted from Category XIV. The Department agrees with these comments.
Two commenting parties submitted comments that suggested a misunderstanding that references in subparagraph (b)(2) to ECCNs 1C351, 1C353, and 1C354 would move agents controlled under those ECCNs to the jurisdiction of the Department of State. No biological agents are moved from the CCL to the USML as a result of this rulemaking, nor was such movement suggested in the proposed rule. The ECCNs are referenced merely in order to better define the articles subject to control, to which the criteria of both subparagraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) must apply.
Two commenting parties observed that the use of “
Similarly, two commenting parties observed that the use of “
One commenter stated that Note 2 to paragraph (b)'s limitation to wild type agents is still unnecessarily restrictive with respect to the agents listed in subparagraph (b)(1)(ii). The Department disagreed with this comment because, as indicated previously, to be subject to the ITAR an agent listed in subparagraph (b)(2)(ii) must also meet the criteria of subparagraph (b)(2)(i).
A commenter remarked that the controls described in the proposed rule would establish ITAR control over technical data and research and development activities related to,
A commenting party identified typographical errors in subparagraphs (c)(4) and (c)(5). The Department made the appropriate corrections.
Two commenters requested clarification regarding the phrase “Department of Defense contract or funding authorization,” as it appears in subparagraphs (f)(1)(ii), (f)(2), and (f)(2)(ii). The Department clarifies that the quoted language captures a range of possible Department of Defense funding authorization mechanisms that extend beyond contracts, such as grants. While these subparagraphs do not require exclusive funding by the Department of Defense to cause the articles to become subject to ITAR control, and there is no
A commenting party questioned the intent and meaning of Note 3 to paragraph (f)(2). The Department deleted the note.
Two commenting parties recommended a revision to subparagraph (f)(2)(i) to control only relevant equipment for chemical or biological agents specified in the Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization as intended for control under USML Category XIV, or to clarify the funding mechanism that specifies the chemical or biological agent and thus triggers the provision. The Department disagreed with the former comment because it would introduce a discretionary contract mechanism that could allow for the subjective application or removal of ITAR control, but modified the subparagraph to better define the scope of control. The modifications clarify the link between the funding mechanisms referenced in subparagraph (f)(2) and (f)(2)(ii).
One commenting party recommended the movement to the EAR of all articles controlled in subparagraph (f)(4), or the removal of the Significant Military Equipment (SME) designation at a minimum. The Department disagreed with this comment because the commenter did not provide a sufficient rationale to compel removal from the USML or the SME designation for these articles.
A comment recommended that subparagraph (f)(4)(iii) be revised to remove the trade name ASZM-TEDA and instead specify the parameters or criteria that merit control for activated carbon products. The Department revised the subparagraph to reference the specification that merits control.
Two commenters observed that paragraph (f)(4)(iv) would not distinguish between military and non-military protective apparel, but would rely on a “breakthrough test” that could capture garments designed to National Fire Protection Association standards or designed to integrate with civil gas masks if they met breakthrough levels. The Department has refined subparagraph (f)(4)(iv) to the same paragraph to more precisely describe the articles that warrant control and incorporated the elements described in the prior Note into the control parameters.
One commenting party recommended that Chemical Agent Resistant Coatings (CARC) be moved from subparagraph (f)(7) to the EAR. The Department updated the subparagraph to control the appropriate specification, but disagreed with the remainder of the comment in order to maintain ITAR control over coatings that have been qualified to military specifications.
A commenter suggested the replacement of the word “qualified” in subparagraph (f)(7) with the phrase “meet the requirements of.” The Department disagreed with this comment because the phrasing used is intended to mean that the article has in fact been qualified by the Department of Defense to the relevant standard.
One commenting party recommended the removal of the SME designation for subparagraph (f)(7). The Department disagreed with this comment because the commenter did not provide a sufficient rationale for removal of the designation.
Three commenting parties suggested that subparagraph (g)(1) should control relevant articles based on parameters or criteria other than the funding source. The Department notes that subparagraph (g)(1) controls only those relevant articles that are exclusively funded by the Department of Defense, for detection of the biological agents listed in subparagraph (b)(1)(ii). The Department believes that this is an appropriately tailored subparagraph, particularly in light of the requirement that Department of Defense funding be exclusive.
One commenter presented a similar comment with respect to the analogous exclusive funding provision in subparagraph (h). Again, the Department disagrees with this comment because the exclusive funding requirement narrows the range of controlled vaccines to an appropriate scope.
A commenting party suggested that the use of specially designed in paragraph (h) undermines the notion of control due to funding source, as certain vaccines could be released through ITAR § 120.41(b). The Department disagrees with this comment because it is not likely that ITAR § 120.41(b) would allow for the release of vaccines that were exclusively funded by the Department of Defense to protect against biological agents controlled under paragraph (b).
A commenter requested clarification as to whether subparagraph (h)(4) is subject to the requirement that the vaccine be funded exclusively by a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization. Since this exclusive funding requirement appears in subparagraph (h), the Department confirms that this is the case.
This final rule revises USML Category XVIII, covering directed energy weapons. As with USML Category XIV, the revisions are undertaken in order to more accurately describe the articles within the subject categories, and to establish a “bright line” between the USML and the CCL for the control of these articles. This final rule revises paragraph (a) to control only those articles that, other than as a result of incidental, accidental, or collateral effect, achieve the effects described in the paragraph by way of non-acoustic techniques.
The articles controlled previously in paragraphs (c) and (d) are moved to the export control jurisdiction of the Department of Commerce.
The remaining paragraphs in this category underwent conforming changes to bring their structures into alignment with the analogous provisions found in other revised USML categories.
A commenting party suggested that the reference in proposed paragraph (a) to the “primary purpose” of system or equipment at issue was unclear. The Department revised the paragraph to remove this language and clarify the intended scope of control.
Two commenting parties recommended revisions to the structure of paragraph (a). The Department revised the paragraph text to enhance clarity and readability.
A commenter noted that “flash blindness,” as used in proposed paragraph (a), has no commonly understood meaning. The Department revised the subject language to clarify the intended scope of control.
One commenting party recommended the addition of a note to paragraph (a) to confirm that the paragraph does not control articles subject to control under subparagraphs XI(a)(4)(iii) or XII(b)(9). The Department disagrees with this comment because the USML Order of Review establishes that the paragraph that most specifically identifies a given article will control that article; accordingly, it is not necessary to add clarifying notes of this nature.
A commenter observed that it was not clear what “associated systems or equipment” meant in proposed paragraph (e). The Department revised the paragraph to match the structure of analogous paragraphs found in other revised USML categories.
A commenting party recommended a note to paragraph (e) that would indicate that components, parts, accessories, attachments and associated systems or equipment specially designed for articles controlled under paragraph XVIII(e) are subject to the EAR. Noting that no such note has been applied to the analogous paragraphs in other revised USML categories, the Department disagrees with this comment because the inclusion of “specially designed” in paragraph (e) provides the intended scope of control for the articles at issue.
The Department of State is of the opinion that controlling the import and export of defense articles and services is a foreign affairs function of the United States Government and that rules implementing this function are exempt from sections 553 (Rulemaking) and 554 (Adjudications) of the Administrative Procedure Act. Although the Department is of the opinion that this rule is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of the APA, the Department published this rule as a proposed rule (80 FR 34572) with a 60-day provision for public comment and without prejudice to its determination that controlling the import and export of defense services is a foreign affairs function.
Since the Department is of the opinion that this rule is exempt from the rulemaking provisions of 5 U.S.C. 553, it does not require analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This amendment does not involve a mandate that will result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This amendment has been found not to be a major rule within the meaning of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.
This amendment will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this amendment does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on Federal programs and activities do not apply to this amendment.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributed impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has been designated a “significant regulatory action,” although not economically significant, under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
The Department of State has reviewed the amendment in light of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988 to eliminate ambiguity, minimize litigation, establish clear legal standards, and reduce burden.
The Department of State has determined that this rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this rulemaking.
Following is a listing of approved collections that will be affected by revision of the U.S. Munitions List (USML) and the Commerce Control List pursuant to the President's Export Control Reform (ECR) initiative. This rule continues the implementation of ECR. The list of collections pertains to revision of the USML in its entirety, not only to the categories published in this rule. The Department is not proposing or making changes to these collections in this rule. The information collections impacted by the ECR initiative are as follows:
(1) Statement of Registration, DS-2032, OMB No. 1405-0002.
(2) Application/License for Permanent Export of Unclassified Defense Articles and Related Unclassified Technical Data, DSP-5, OMB No. 1405-0003.
(3) Application/License for Temporary Import of Unclassified Defense Articles, DSP-61, OMB No. 1405-0013.
(4) Application/License for Temporary Export of Unclassified Defense Articles, DSP-73, OMB No. 1405-0023.
(5) Application for Amendment to License for Export or Import of Classified or Unclassified Defense Articles and Related Technical Data, DSP-6, -62, -74, -119, OMB No. 1405-0092.
(6) Request for Approval of Manufacturing License Agreements, Technical Assistance Agreements, and Other Agreements, DSP-5, OMB No. 1405-0093.
(7) Maintenance of Records by Registrants, OMB No. 1405-0111.
Arms and munitions, Exports.
Accordingly, for the reasons set forth above, title 22, chapter I, subchapter M, part 121 is amended as follows:
Secs. 2, 38, and 71, Pub. L. 90-629, 90 Stat. 744 (22 U.S.C. 2752, 2778, 2797); 22 U.S.C. 2651a; Pub. L. 105-261, 112 Stat. 1920; Section 1261, Pub. L. 112-239; E.O. 13637, 78 FR 16129.
*(a) Chemical agents, as follows:
(1) Nerve agents, as follows:
(i) O-Alkyl (equal to or less than C
(ii) O-Alkyl (equal to or less than C
(iii) O-Alkyl (H or equal to or less than C
(2) Amiton: O,O-Diethyl S-[2(diethylamino)ethyl] phosphorothiolate and corresponding alkylated or protonated salts (CAS 78-53-5) (CWC Schedule 2A);
(3) Vesicant agents, as follows:
(i) Sulfur mustards, such as: 2-Chloroethylchloromethylsulfide (CAS 2625-76-5) (CWC Schedule 1A); Bis(2-chloroethyl)sulfide (HD) (CAS 505-60-2) (CWC Schedule 1A); Bis(2-chloroethylthio)methane (CAS 63839-13-6) (CWC Schedule 1A); 1,2-bis (2-chloroethylthio)ethane (CAS 3563-36-8) (CWC Schedule 1A); 1,3-bis (2-chloroethylthio)-n-propane (CAS 63905-10-2) (CWC Schedule 1A); 1,4-bis (2-chloroethylthio)-n-butane (CWC Schedule 1A); 1,5-bis (2-chloroethylthio)-n-pentane (CWC Schedule 1A); Bis (2-chloroethylthiomethyl)ether (CWC Schedule 1A); Bis (2-chloroethylthioethyl)ether (CAS 63918-89-8) (CWC Schedule 1A);
(ii) Lewisites, such as: 2-chlorovinyldichloroarsine (CAS 541-25-3) (CWC Schedule 1A); Tris (2-chlorovinyl) arsine (CAS 40334-70-1) (CWC Schedule 1A); Bis (2-chlorovinyl) chloroarsine (CAS 40334-69-8) (CWC Schedule 1A);
(iii) Nitrogen mustards, or their protonated salts, as follows:
(A) HN1: Bis (2-chloroethyl) ethylamine (CAS 538-07-8) (CWC Schedule 1A);
(B) HN2: Bis (2-chloroethyl) methylamine (CAS 51-75-2) (CWC Schedule 1A);
(C) HN3: Tris (2-chloroethyl) amine (CAS 555-77-1) (CWC Schedule 1A); or
(D) Other nitrogen mustards, or their salts, having a propyl, isopropyl, butyl, isobutyl, or tertiary butyl group on the bis(2-chloroethyl) amine base;
Pharmaceutical formulations containing nitrogen mustards or certain reference standards for these formulations are not considered to be chemical agents and are subject to the EAR when: (1) The pharmaceutical is in the form of a final medical product; or (2) the reference standard contains salts of HN2 [bis(2-chloroethyl) methylamine], the quantity to be shipped is 150 milligrams or less, and individual shipments do not exceed twelve per calendar year per end user.
A “final medical product,” as used in this paragraph, is a pharmaceutical formulation that is (1) designed for testing and administration in the treatment of human medical conditions, (2) prepackaged for distribution as a clinical or medical product, and (3) approved for marketing by the Food and Drug Administration or has a valid investigational new drug application (IND) in effect, in accordance with 21 CFR part 312.
(iv) Ethyldichloroarsine (ED) (CAS 598-14-1); or
(v) Methyldichloroarsine (MD) (CAS 593-89-5);
(4) Incapacitating agents, such as:
(i) 3-Quinuclindinyl benzilate (BZ) (CAS 6581-06-2) (CWC Schedule 2A);
(ii) Diphenylchloroarsine (DA) (CAS 712-48-1); or
(iii) Diphenylcyanoarsine (DC) (CAS 23525-22-6);
(5) Chemical warfare agents not enumerated above adapted for use in war to produce casualties in humans or animals, degrade equipment, or damage crops or the environment. (
“Adapted for use in war” means any modification or selection (such as altering purity, shelf life, dissemination characteristics, or resistance to ultraviolet radiation) designed to increase the effectiveness in producing casualties in humans or animals, degrading equipment, or damaging crops or the environment.
Paragraph (a) of this category does not include the following: Cyanogen chloride, Hydrocyanic acid, Chlorine, Carbonyl chloride (Phosgene), Ethyl bromoacetate, Xylyl bromide, Benzyl bromide, Benzyl iodide, Chloro acetone, Chloropicrin (trichloronitromethane), Fluorine, and Liquid pepper.
Regarding U.S. obligations under the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), refer to Chemical Weapons Convention Regulations (CWCR) (15 CFR parts 710 through 721). As appropriate, the CWC schedule is provided to assist the exporter.
*(b) Biological agents and biologically derived substances and genetic elements thereof as follows:
(1) Genetically modified biological agents:
(i) Having non-naturally occurring genetic modifications that are known to or are reasonably expected to result in an increase in any of the following:
(A) Persistence in a field environment (
(B) The ability to defeat or overcome standard detection methods, personnel protection, natural or acquired host immunity, host immune response, or response to standard medical countermeasures; and
(ii) Being any micro-organisms/toxins or their non-naturally occurring genetic elements as listed below:
(A) Bacillus anthracis;
(B) Botulinum neurotoxin producing species of Clostridium;
(C) Burkholderia mallei;
(D) Burkholderia pseudomallei;
(E) Ebola virus;
(F) Foot-and-mouth disease virus;
(G) Francisella tularensis;
(H) Marburg virus;
(I) Variola major virus (Smallpox virus);
(J) Variola minor virus (Alastrim);
(K) Yersinia pestis; or
(L) Rinderpest virus.
(2) Biological agent or biologically derived substances controlled in ECCNs 1C351, 1C353, or 1C354:
(i) Physically modified, formulated, or produced as any of the following:
(A) 1-10 micron particle size;
(B) Particle-absorbed or combined with nano-particles;
(C) Having coatings/surfactants, or
(D) By microencapsulation; and
(ii) Meeting the criteria of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this category in a manner that is known to or is reasonably expected to result in an increase in any of the following:
(A) Persistence in a field environment (
(B) Dispersal characteristics (
(C) The ability to defeat or overcome: standard detection methods, personnel protection, natural or acquired host immunity, or response to standard medical countermeasures.
Non-naturally occurring means that the modification has not already been observed in nature, was not discovered from samples obtained from nature, and was developed with human intervention.
This paragraph does not control biological agents or biologically derived substances when these agents or substances have been demonstrated to be attenuated relative to natural pathogenic isolates and are incapable of causing disease or intoxication of ordinarily affected and relevant species (
Biological agents or biologically derived substances that meet both paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this category are controlled in paragraph (b)(1).
*(c) Chemical agent binary precursors and key precursors, as follows:
(1) Alkyl (Methyl, Ethyl, n-Propyl or Isopropyl) phosphonyl difluorides, such as: DF: Methyl Phosphonyldifluoride (CAS 676-99-3) (CWC Schedule 1B); Methylphosphinyldifluoride (CAS 753-59-3) (CWC Schedule 2B);
(2) O-Alkyl (H or equal to or less than C
(3) Chlorosarin: O-Isopropyl methylphosphonochloridate (CAS 1445-76-7) (CWC Schedule 1B);
(4) Chlorosoman: O-Pinacolyl methylphosphonochloridate (CAS 7040-57-5) (CWC Schedule 1B); or
(5) Methylphosphonyl dichloride (CAS 676-97-1) (CWC Schedule 2B); Methylphosphinyldichloride (CAS 676-83-5) (CWC Schedule 2B).
(d) [Reserved]
(e) Defoliants, as follows:
(1) 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (CAS 93-76-5) mixed with 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (CAS 94-75-7) (Agent Orange (CAS 39277-47-9)); or
(2) Butyl 2-chloro-4-fluorophenoxyacetate (LNF).
*(f) Parts, components, accessories, attachments, associated equipment, materials, and systems, as follows:
(1) Any equipment for the dissemination, dispersion, or testing of articles controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (e) of this category, as follows:
(i) Any equipment “specially designed” for the dissemination and dispersion of articles controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), or (e) of this category; or
(ii) Any equipment “specially designed” for testing the articles controlled in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (e), or (f)(4) of this category and developed under a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization.
(2) Any equipment, containing reagents, algorithms, coefficients, software, libraries, spectral databases, or alarm set point levels developed under a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization, for the detection, identification, warning, or monitoring of:
(i) Articles controlled in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this category; or
(ii) Chemical agents or biological agents specified in the Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization.
This paragraph does not control articles that are (a) determined to be subject to the EAR via a commodity jurisdiction determination (see § 120.4 of this subchapter), or (b) identified in the relevant Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization as being developed for both civil and military applications.
Note 1 does not apply to defense articles enumerated on the USML.
(3) [Reserved]
(4) For individual protection or collective protection against the articles controlled in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this category, as follows:
(i) M53 Chemical Biological Protective Mask or M50 Joint Service General Purpose Mask (JSGPM);
(ii) Filter cartridges containing sorbents controlled in paragraph (f)(4)(iii) or (n) of this category;
(iii) Carbon meeting MIL-DTL-32101 specifications (
(iv) Ensembles, garments, suits, jackets, pants, boots, or socks for individual protection, and liners for collective protection that allow no more than 1% breakthrough of GD or no more than 2% breakthrough of any other chemical controlled in paragraph (a) of this category, when evaluated by executing the applicable standard method(s) of testing described in the current version of Test Operating Protocols (TOPs) 08-2-201 or 08-2-501 and using the defined Department of Defense-specific requirements;
(5)-(6) [Reserved]
(7) Chemical Agent Resistant Coatings that have been qualified to military specifications (MIL-PRF-32348, MIL-DTL-64159, MIL-C-46168, or MIL-DTL-53039); or
(8) Any part, component, accessory, attachment, equipment, or system that:
(i) Is classified;
(ii) Is manufactured using classified production data; or
(iii) Is being developed using classified information.
“Classified” means classified pursuant to Executive Order 13526, or predecessor order, and a security classification guide developed pursuant thereto or equivalent, or to the corresponding classification rules of another government.
(g) Antibodies, recombinant protective antigens, polynucleotides, biopolymers, or biocatalysts (including their expression vectors, viruses, plasmids, or cultures of specific cells modified to produce them) as follows:
(1) When exclusively funded by a Department of Defense contract for detection of the biological agents at paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this category even if naturally occurring;
(2) Joint Biological Agent Identification and Diagnostic System (JBAIDS) Freeze Dried reagents listed by JRPD-ASY-No and Description respectively as follows:
(i) JRPD-ASY-0016 Q-Fever IVD Kit;
(ii) JRPD-ASY-0100 Vaccinia (Orthopox);
(iii) JRPD-ASY-0106 Brucella melitensis (Brucellosis);
(iv) JRPD-ASY-0108 Rickettsia prowazekii (Rickettsia);
(v) JRPD-ASY-0109 Burkholderia ssp. (Burkholderia);
(vi) JRPD-ASY-0112 Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE);
(vii) JRPD-ASY-0113 Western equine encephalitis (WEE);
(viii) JRPD-ASY-0114 Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE);
(ix) JRPD-ASY-0122 Coxiella burnetii (Coxiella);
(x) JRPD-ASY-0136 Influenza A/H5 IVD Detection Kit;
(xi) JRPD-ASY-0137 Influenza A/B IVD Detection Kit; or
(xii) JRPD-ASY-0138 Influenza A Subtype IVD Detection Kit;
(3) Critical Reagent Polymerase (CRP) Chain Reactions (PCR) assay kits with Catalog-ID and Catalog-ID Product respectively as follows:
(i) PCR-BRU-1FB-B-K Brucella Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(ii) PCR-BRU-1FB-K Brucella Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix;
(iii) PCR-BRU-1R-K Brucella Target 1 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(iv) PCR-BURK-2FB-B-K Burkholderia Target 2 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(v) PCR-BURK-2FB-K Burkholderia Target 2 FastBlock Master Mix;
(vi) PCR-BURK-2R-K Burkholderia Target 2 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(vii) PCR-BURK-3FB-B-K Burkholderia Target 3 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(viii) PCR-BURK-3FB-K Burkholderia Target 3 FastBlock Master Mix;
(ix) PCR-BURK-3R-K Burkholderia Target 3 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(x) PCR-COX-1FB-B-K Coxiella burnetii Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(xi) PCR-COX-1R-K Coxiella burnetii Target 1 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(xii) PCR-COX-2R-K Coxiella burnetii Target 2 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(xiii) PCR-OP-1FB-B-K Orthopox Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(xiv) PCR-OP-1FB-K Orthopox Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix;
(xv) PCR-OP-1R-K Orthopox Target 1 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(xvi) PCR-OP-2FB-B-K Orthopox Target 2 FastBlock Master Mix Biotinylated;
(xvii) PCR-OP-3R-K Orthopox Target 3 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(xviii) PCR-RAZOR-BT-X PCR-RAZOR-BT-X RAZOR CRP BioThreat-X Screening Pouch;
(xix) PCR-RIC-1FB-K Ricin Target 1 FastBlock Master Mix;
(xx) PCR-RIC-1R-K Ricin Target 1 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix;
(xxi) PCR-RIC-2R-K Ricin Target 2 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix; or
(xxii) PCR-VEE-1R-K Venezuelan equine encephalitis Target 1 LightCycler/RAPID Master Mix; or
(4) Critical Reagent Program Antibodies with Catalog ID and Product respectively as follows:
(i) AB-AG-RIC Aff. Goat anti-Ricin;
(ii) AB-ALVG-MAB Anti-Alphavirus Generic Mab;
(iii) AB-AR-SEB Aff. Rabbit anti-SEB;
(iv) AB-BRU-M-MAB1 Anti-Brucella melitensis Mab 1;
(v) AB-BRU-M-MAB2 Anti-Brucella melitensis Mab 2;
(vi) AB-BRU-M-MAB3 Anti-Brucella melitensis Mab 3;
(vii) AB-BRU-M-MAB4 Anti-Brucella melitensis Mab 4;
(viii) AB-CHOL-0139-MAB Anti-V.cholerae 0139 Mab;
(ix) AB-CHOL-01-MAB Anti-V. cholerae 01 Mab;
(x) AB-COX-MAB Anti-Coxiella Mab;
(xi) AB-EEE-MAB Anti-EEE Mab;
(xii) AB-G-BRU-A Goat anti-Brucella abortus;
(xiii) AB-G-BRU-M Goat anti-Brucella melitensis;
(xiv) AB-G-BRU-S Goat anti-Brucella suis;
(xv) AB-G-CHOL-01 Goat anti-V.cholerae 0:1;
(xvi) AB-G-COL-139 Goat anti-V.cholerae 0:139;
(xvii) AB-G-DENG Goat anti-Dengue;
(xviii) AB-G-RIC Goat anti-Ricin;
(xix) AB-G-SAL-T Goat anti-S. typhi;
(xx) AB-G-SEA Goat anti-SEA;
(xxi) AB-G-SEB Goat anti-SEB;
(xxii) AB-G-SEC Goat anti-SEC;
(xxiii) AB-G-SED Goat anti-SED;
(xxiv) AB-G-SEE Goat anti-SEE;
(xxv) AB-G-SHIG-D Goat anti-Shigella dysenteriae;
(xxvi) AB-R-BA-PA Rabbit anti-Protective Antigen;
(xxvii) AB-R-COX Rabbit anti-C. burnetii;
(xxviii) AB-RIC-MAB1 Anti-Ricin Mab 1;
(xxix) AB-RIC-MAB2 Anti-Ricin Mab 2;
(xxx) AB-RIC-MAB3 Anti-Ricin Mab3;
(xxxi) AB-R-SEB Rabbit anti-SEB;
(xxxii) AB-R-VACC Rabbit anti-Vaccinia;
(xxxiii) AB-SEB-MAB Anti-SEB Mab;
(xxxiv) AB-SLT2-MAB Anti-Shigella-like t x2 Mab;
(xxxv) AB-T2T-MAB1 Anti-T2 Mab 1;
(xxxvi) AB-T2T-MAB2 Anti-T2 Toxin 2;
(xxxvii) AB-VACC-MAB1 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 1;
(xxxviii) AB-VACC-MAB2 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 2;
(xxxix) AB-VACC-MAB3 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 3;
(xl) AB-VACC-MAB4 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 4;
(xli) AB-VACC-MAB5 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 5;
(xlii) AB-VACC-MAB6 Anti-Vaccinia Mab 6;
(xliii) AB-VEE-MAB1 Anti-VEE Mab 1;
(xliv) AB-VEE-MAB2 Anti-VEE Mab 2;
(xlv) AB-VEE-MAB3 Anti-VEE Mab 3;
(xlvi) AB-VEE-MAB4 Anti-VEE Mab 4;
(xlvii) AB-VEE-MAB5 Anti-VEE Mab 5;
(xlviii) AB-VEE-MAB6 Anti-VEE Mab 6; or
(xlix) AB-WEE-MAB Anti-WEE Complex Mab.
(h) Vaccines exclusively funded by a Department of Defense contract, as follows:
(1) Recombinant Botulinum ToxinA/B Vaccine;
(2) Recombinant Plague Vaccine;
(3) Trivalent Filovirus Vaccine; or
(4) Vaccines specially designed for the sole purpose of protecting against biological agents and biologically derived substances identified in paragraph (b) of this category.
See ECCN 1A607.k for military medical countermeasures such as autoinjectors, combopens, and creams.
(i) Modeling or simulation tools, including software controlled in paragraph (m) of this category, for chemical or biological weapons design, development, or employment developed or produced under a Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization (
(j)-(l) [Reserved]
(m) Technical data (as defined in § 120.10 of this subchapter) and defense services (as defined in § 120.9 of this subchapter) directly related to the defense articles enumerated in paragraphs (a) through (l) and (n) of this category. (
(n) Developmental countermeasures or sorbents funded by the Department of Defense via contract or other funding authorization;
This paragraph does not control countermeasures or sorbents that are (a) in production, (b) determined to be subject to the EAR via a commodity jurisdiction determination (see § 120.4 of this subchapter), or (c) identified in the relevant Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization as being developed for both civil and military applications.
Note 1 does not apply to defense articles enumerated on the USML, whether in production or development.
This paragraph is applicable only to those contracts and funding authorizations that are dated July 28, 2017, or later.
(o)-(w) [Reserved]
(x) Commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR (see § 120.42 of this subchapter) used in or with defense articles controlled in this category.
Use of this paragraph is limited to license applications for defense articles controlled in this category where the purchase documentation includes
* (a) Directed energy weapons as follows:
(1) Systems or equipment that, other than as a result of incidental, accidental, or collateral effect:
(i) Degrade, destroy or cause mission-abort of a target;
(ii) Disturb, disable, or damage electronic circuitry, sensors or explosive devices remotely;
(iii) Deny area access;
(iv) Cause lethal effects; or
(v) Cause ocular disruption or blindness; and
(2) Use any non-acoustic technique such as lasers (including continuous wave or pulsed lasers), particle beams, particle accelerators that project a charged or neutral particle beam, high power radio-frequency (RF), or high pulsed power or high average power radio frequency beam transmitters.
*(b) Systems or equipment specially designed to detect, identify, or provide defense against articles specified in paragraph (a) of this category.
(c)-(d) [Reserved]
(e) Components, parts, accessories, attachments, systems or associated equipment specially designed for any of the articles in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this category.
(f) Developmental directed energy weapons funded by the Department of Defense via contract or other funding authorization, and specially designed parts and components therefor;
This paragraph does not control directed energy weapons (a) in production, (b) determined to be subject to the EAR via a commodity jurisdiction determination (see § 120.4 of this subchapter), or (c) identified in the relevant Department of Defense contract or other funding authorization as being developed for both civil and military applications.
Note 1 does not apply to defense articles enumerated on the USML, whether in production or development.
This paragraph is applicable only to those contracts and funding authorizations that are dated July 28, 2017, or later.
(g) Technical data (see § 120.10 of this subchapter) and defense services (as defined in § 120.9 of this subchapter) directly related to the defense articles enumerated in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this category;
(x) Commodities, software, and technology subject to the EAR (see § 120.42 of this subchapter) used in or with defense articles controlled in this category.
Use of this paragraph is limited to license applications for defense articles controlled in this category where the purchase documentation includes commodities, software, or technology subject to the EAR (see § 123.1(b) of this subchapter).
Environmental Protection Agency.
Direct final rule.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action on revisions to the EPA's Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (DBE) program. We are approving these revisions to improve the practical utility of the program, minimize burden, and clarify requirements that have been the subject of questions from recipients of EPA financial assistance and from disadvantaged business enterprises. These revisions are in accordance with the requirements of the Federal laws that govern the EPA DBE program.
This rule is effective on October 26, 2016 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse comment by August 29, 2016. If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OA-2006-0278, at
Teree Henderson, Office of the Administrator, Office of Small Business Programs (mail code: 1230A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-2222; fax number: 202-566-0548; email address:
Acronyms and Abbreviations. The following acronyms and abbreviations are used in this document.
EPA is publishing this rule without a prior proposed rule because we view this as a noncontroversial action and anticipate no adverse comments. The actions are intended to improve the practical utility of the program, minimize burden, and clarify requirements that have been the subject of questions from recipients of EPA financial assistance and from disadvantaged business enterprises. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of this
If EPA receives adverse comment, we will publish a timely withdrawal in the
If you are a recipient of an EPA financial assistance agreement; an entity receiving an identified loan under a financial assistance agreement capitalizing a revolving loan fund; or a minority-owned, woman-owned, or small business, this rule may affect you. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the person listed in the preceding
• Identify the rulemaking by docket number and other identifying information (subject heading,
• Follow directions—The agency may ask you to respond to specific questions or organize comments by referencing a Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) part or section number.
• Explain why you agree or disagree; suggest alternatives and substitute language for your requested changes.
• Describe any assumptions and provide any technical information and/or data that you used.
• If you estimate potential costs or burdens, explain how you arrived at your estimate in sufficient detail to allow for it to be reproduced.
• Provide specific examples to illustrate your concerns, and suggest alternatives.
• Explain your views as clearly as possible, avoiding the use of profanity or personal threats.
• Make sure to submit your comments by the comment period deadline identified.
The EPA's DBE Program is implemented through 40 CFR part 33, which was promulgated on March 26, 2008 (73 FR 15904) (hereafter referred to as “part 33”). The DBE program arose out of a review of affirmative action programs in the federal government following the Supreme Court's decision in
The DBE Program has four major components designed to ensure that minority and women-owned businesses have the opportunity to participate in procurements funded by EPA financial assistance agreements. These components are as follows:
•
•
•
•
When the final rule was promulgated, the EPA stated that the agency will “evaluate the propriety of the Disadvantaged Business Enterprise program in 7 years through subsequent rulemaking” (73 FR 15904). On August 13, 2013, OMB approved the information collection request supporting the DBE Program with the following Terms of Clearance: “This ICR is approved for a period of 2 years until 2015, when EPA will undertake a comprehensive review of the Disadvantaged Business Enterprise rule.” The EPA Office of Small Business Programs (OSBP) has subsequently worked collaboratively with various program offices within the Agency and EPA regional DBE coordinators through various face-to-face meetings and conference calls from May-December 2014.
The EPA is amending subparts A through E of part 33 to improve the practical utility of the EPA's DBE program and minimize the burden to affected entities. The EPA made three major revisions in the rule that will significantly impact the way the DBE program currently operates. These changes, which are described in detail in section IV of this preamble, include:
1. Establishing a self-certification platform for MBEs and WBEs. The EPA removed existing EPA certification requirements in subpart B of part 33 for firms that cannot be certified by another federal agency, and will instead allow qualified firms to self-certify as an MBE or WBE.
2. Updating the exemption threshold for fair share negotiations. The EPA increased the threshold for recipients exempted from negotiating fair share objectives in subpart D of part 33 from $250,000 to $1 million.
3. Revising the reporting frequency and applicability. The EPA revised subpart E of part 33 to change the frequency of DBE reporting to annual for all recipients, and limit reporting to financial assistance agreements with funds budgeted for procurements above the simplified acquisition threshold of $150,000.
In addition to these changes, the EPA made minor changes to part 33 to minimize information collection, clarify requirements, update references, and harmonize requirements with uniform administrative requirements published by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
Additional details for the revisions to subparts A through E of part 33 and the rationale for these revisions are described respectively in the sections below.
The EPA has made several changes to the General Provisions (subpart A) of part 33 to clarify the objectives, applicability, and implementation procedures of the DBE Program. The changes are intended primarily to clarify the requirements that apply to recipients and will not impose any new requirements or burdens that do not already exist.
First, we changed the first statement of DBE program objectives in 40 CFR 33.101(a) from: “To ensure nondiscrimination in the award of contracts under EPA assistance agreements” to: “To foster nondiscrimination in the award and administration of procurements under EPA financial assistance agreements”. The purpose of this change is to clarify that the program is not limited to particular types of procurements by a recipient of EPA financial assistance (
Second, we clarified to whom the requirements of part 33 apply. We changed the title of 40 CFR 33.102 to “To Whom Does This Part Apply?”. The EPA further amended the text to specify that part 33 applies to recipients of any of four different types of financial assistance agreements issued by the EPA, which are as follows: EPA financial assistance agreements, grants, or cooperative agreements used to capitalize revolving loan funds, Special Appropriations Act Projects, and subawards from an EPA recipient of any such funds. The revision still specifies that part 33 does not apply to work that is conducted outside the United States or its territories and insular possessions, or that is not funded under an EPA financial assistance agreement. Next, the EPA updated the definitions of terms in 40 CFR 33.103. One goal of the revisions to part 33 incorporates the principles established by 2 CFR part 200—Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, And Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (hereafter referred to as “part 200”). Part 200 was finalized on October 9, 2015, and supersedes a number of OMB circulars governing the administration of federal financial awards. The reforms adopted by part 200 were intended (1) to streamline OMB guidance for the administration of financial awards to ease burden, and (2) to strengthen oversight of federal awards to increase efficiency and effectiveness of the awards. The rule applies both to federal agencies that issue financial assistance, encompassing the types of financial assistance provided by the EPA, and to recipients of the awards. We made minor amendments throughout Part 33 to incorporate these changes. In 40 CFR 33.104, we amended and added several definitions to be consistent with part 200, as well as update the introduction to the section to state that terms not defined in Part 33 will have the meaning given to them in part 200.
We also consolidated several existing definitions in 40 CFR 33.104. For example, we added the term “procurement” as “the acquisition of goods and services under a financial assistance agreement as defined by applicable regulations for the particular type of financial assistance received”. The term encompasses all forms of procurement and will replace the current definitions for “construction”, “equipment”, “services”, and “supplies” in subpart A and throughout part 33. To improve readability, we consolidated the definitions of all terms in Part 33 into subpart A by moving all the terms that are defined in 40 CFR part 33, subparts B, C, D, and E into 40 CFR 33.103. For example, we revised 40 CFR 33.202 and 33.303 to move the definitions of “ownership or control,” “socially disadvantaged individual”, and “economically disadvantaged individual” to 40 CFR 33.103. Also, we amended certain definitions to be consistent with the rules of the Small Business Administration (13 CFR part 124) Department of Transportation (DOT) DBE Program, and Title X of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 (42 U.S.C. 7601 note), as well as to add minor clarifications.
The EPA also made changes to the provisions of 40 CFR 33.104 for recipients to obtain a waiver from any of the requirements of part 33. We made a substantive change that will place a 5 year limitation on the duration of each waiver and a recipient will need to reapply for the waiver at least 60 days prior to the expiration date. Previously, waivers were granted for “a reasonable duration” to be determined by the Director of the Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization, and could be terminated at any time at the Director's discretion. Providing specific time frames for waiver duration ensures equity and consistency in issuing waivers across all recipients. The rule also changes the title of Director of the Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization to Director of Small Business Programs to reflect current EPA organizational structure. We made similar harmonizing changes throughout part 33 to update all references to the Office of Small and Disadvantaged Business Utilization (OSDBU) to the Office of Small Business Programs (OSBP).
The rule also revises 40 CFR 33.105, “What are the compliance and enforcement provisions of this part?” to more clearly parallel the applicable noncompliance remedies available to the EPA under regulations of the Office of Management and Budget for federal awards in 2 CFR 200.338. We changed a reference in 40 CFR 33.105 from 2 CFR part 200 to the more specific applicable reference of 2 CFR 200.338, and to edit the list of examples of remedial actions in 40 CFR 33.105 to be identical to the examples provided in 2 CFR 200.338. The EPA incorporated a new requirement into 40 CFR 33.107 for recordkeeping and records access. We incorporated by reference the recordkeeping and records access provisions of 2 CFR 200.33 through 200.337. These provisions, in general, require recipients of federal awards to retain all records that are relevant to the award for a period of 3 years and to allow the government access to the records for purposes of auditing. These changes are part of the EPA's effort to update part 33 to incorporate the principles established by part 200, as described in section IV.1 of this preamble. Finally, we revised appendix A to part 33. First, we revised appendix A from an appendix of part 33 (following subpart E) to an appendix of the General Provisions. The term and
The rule will implement several significant changes to the existing certification requirements of subpart B of part 33. First, the EPA revised the certification requirements of 40 CFR 33.204 through 33.211 to revise the EPA's existing certification process for firms that cannot be certified by another federal agency. Under the current requirements of part 33, the EPA requires an MBE or WBE to first seek certification by a federal agency (
In lieu of the current application and evaluation requirements, revised 40 CFR 33.204 and 33.205 to accept and implement a self-certification process for firms who are not otherwise certified by another entity. The requirements will allow qualified firms to self-certify under the EPA's DBE program as an MBE or WBE, using the EPA's Small Business Vendor Profile System (SBVPS). Under this approach, firms seeking an EPA certification will register in the online SBVPS. Registration in the SBVPS will require the firm to provide their firm name and contact information, federal tax ID, DUNS no., type of business, date of start, annual sales, company size and classification, ethnicity, any other prior certifications. Firms will then self-attest to meeting the eligibility requirements set forth in 40 CFR 33.202 and 33.203. The self-certification provided through the SBVPS will be legally-binding. This approach, which is consistent with the certification requirements of other federal agencies including the SBA, does not require submittal of additional information, or require EPA review of an application. However, the EPA could request entities to provide evidence that they meet the eligibility requirements at any time. These self-certification requirements will reduce burden on firms by removing the current paper application process and decreasing the time spent by entities acquiring certification. These changes will also streamline agency activities related to maintaining forms, conducting reviews, and responding to applicants, resulting in an overall burden reduction.
The approach will no longer require businesses to first seek certification from other entities before requesting EPA DBE certification. All businesses who meet the EPA DBE program certification requirements will be able to participate in self-certifying. The EPA will still accept certifications from other sources, including a federal agency, state, locality, Indian Tribe, or independent private organization, provided their standards for certification meet or exceed the EPA's. The EPA DBE self-certification will also remain only applicable to opportunities funded by EPA financial assistance agreements; 40 CFR 33.405 will clarify that the EPA's DBE certification will be not recognized by other federal, state or local organizations. Therefore, the EPA will continue to encourage businesses to obtain certifications from these sources. The self-certification approach will also provide for proof of certification for such facilities under EPA's DBE program. We revised 40 CFR 33.206 to provide for firms who self-certify through the SBVPS to be listed on the EPA's SBVPS through the OBSP Web site. The list will be publically available and provide assurance to recipients of EPA funding that the entities listed are certified and eligible for participation.
Similar to the existing EPA certification, EPA self-certifications under this new approach will be valid for a period of three years. We revised 40 CFR 33.207 to specify that this period will begin from the date an entity is self-certified in the EPA's SBVPS. The SBVPS database will automatically purge data every three years, therefore firms will be required to re-register every three years to maintain their MBE or WBE status. Because facilities will be responsible for their registration and are self-certifying, we removed the requirements of 40 CFR 33.207, 33.209, and 33.211, which apply to re-application, re-evaluation, and appeal of EPA determinations for certified entities. We also revised 40 CFR 33.210 to clarify that facilities are responsible for keeping the EPA informed of any changes which may affect the entity's certification, including requiring the entity to remove its self-certification from the SBVPS database within 30 days of any changes to its eligibility status. This timeline is consistent with current requirements. The EPA also made several minor revisions to subpart B of Part 33 that will clarify existing requirements or provide for additional flexibility for affected entities. As discussed in section IV.1 of this preamble, we consolidated the
We made several clarifications to 40 CFR 33.204, including clarifying the content by revising the title to read “What certifications are acceptable for establishing MBE or WBE status under the EPA DBE Program?” We also clarified the rule references for those outside certifications currently accepted by the EPA (
The EPA made several changes to the Good Faith Efforts requirements of subpart C of 40 CFR part 33 to clarify the requirements. The revisions will not impose any new requirements or burdens, but primarily reorganizes the subpart in a more logical order to make the goals and obligations more apparent. We made one change to reduce burden.
We made several changes to 40 CFR 33.301. First, we replaced the introduction to 40 CFR 33.301 (“What does this subpart require?”) with a statement of purpose to clarify that good faith efforts are methods used by EPA recipients to ensure that DBEs have the opportunity to compete for procurements funded by EPA financial assistance dollars. A new paragraph (h) will consolidate in one place and clarify the actions that constitute good faith efforts. Paragraph (h) is a result of reorganization and will not change any existing requirements. For example, we codified that recipients must use the services of available minority/women community organizations; minority/women contractors' groups; local, state, and Federal minority/women business assistance offices; and other organizations, when feasible, when conducting the good faith efforts. This requirement is based on the existing good faith efforts, as outlined in the July 24, 2003 proposed DBE rule (68 FR 43824). We made one minor harmonizing change to 40 CFR 33.408 for consistency.
The rule will also add several new paragraphs to 40 CFR 33.301 to clarify the administrative requirements for meeting the good faith efforts. First, we are adding new text in paragraphs (b) and (c) to clarify that no recipients are exempted from the good faith efforts requirements, including recipients that are exempt from the fair share objectives of 40 CFR part 33, subpart D. We also added a new paragraph (e) to clarify that recipients are required to ensure that all sub-recipients/prime contractors meet these requirements. These stipulations are inferred in the current provisions but were added to 40 CFR 33.301 for clarity. The changes to 40 CFR 33.301 will also clarify that subpart C does not negate the post federal award requirements of part 200.
We also clarified in 40 CFR 33.301(d) that recipients must retain records of the methods used to adhere to good faith efforts. This provision already is required by the existing recordkeeping requirements of 40 CFR 33.501(a), but was added to 40 CFR 33.301(d) for clarity and better organizational placement. In a related change, we added a new paragraph (i) to clarify what constitutes non-compliance with subpart C. Paragraph (i) specifies that recipients that fail to meet all the fair share goals will not be penalized if they document the circumstances that prohibited full execution of each requirement, but that failure to retain proper documentation may constitute noncompliance.
Next, for 40 CFR 33.302 (“Are there any additional contract administration requirements?”), we reduced a reporting requirement by eliminating Form 6100-2. Under the current rule, prime contractors are required to provide Form 6100-2 to DBE subcontractors. Form 6100-2 is an optional form that gives a DBE subcontractor the opportunity to inform the EPA about the work received and/or report any concerns regarding the EPA-funded project (
We made one editorial correction to 40 CFR 33.303 (“Are there special rules for loans under EPA financial assistance agreements?”) by changing the clause beginning with “such as . . .” to “including but not limited to . . .” so that the clause clarifies but does not limit applicability of the section.
Finally, we clarified 40 CFR 33.304 to more accurately reflect the contents of the provisions and to clarify that a Native American recipient includes a consortium. The title will be “What special rules apply to a Native American (either as an individual, organization, Tribe or Tribal Government or consortium) Recipient or Prime Contractor when following the six good faith efforts?” We also made a harmonizing change to 40 CFR 33.304(a).
The EPA made revisions to subpart D of part 33 to revise the requirements for recipients of EPA financial assistance agreements to negotiate fair share objectives for MBE and WBE participation. The changes will generally reduce burden for recipients by reducing the number of recipients required to negotiate fair share objectives or revising the information that must be submitted by recipients. We also provided additional clarifications and harmonizing changes that will not impose any new requirements or burdens that do not already exist.
First, the EPA revised 40 CFR 33.401 and 33.402 to clarify that in addition to negotiating its own fair share objectives,
We made one minor revision to 40 CFR 33.403 (“What is a fair share objective?”) to remove the categories of construction, equipment, services and supplies, consistent with the changes to the definition of “procurement” discussed in section IV.1 of this preamble.
Next, we revised the timeline for submittal of proposed fair share objectives and the EPA's subsequent review schedule. Specifically, we made revisions to 40 CFR 33.404 to shorten the time for recipients to submit their proposed MBE and WBE fair share objectives from 120 days to 90 days after acceptance of a financial assistance award. Because MBE and WBE fair share objectives must be agreed upon by the recipient and EPA before funds may be expended for procurement, the EPA has determined that recipients must submit their fair share objectives sooner in order to ensure that projects are commenced in a timely manner. These revisions will affect only those recipients that exceed the exemption threshold in 40 CFR 33.411. We also revised the timeframe for the EPA to respond in writing to the recipient's submission from 30 days to 45. We included these extra 15 days because the agency typically reviews a high number of applicants at one time. This time frame still allows for projects to commence earlier, as the rule provides that if EPA does not provide a response within 45 days then the fair share objectives submitted by the recipient are automatically agreed upon.
We made two substantive revisions to 40 CFR 33.405, which provides for how recipients must determine MBE and WBE fair share objectives. First, we made revisions to 40 CFR 33.405(a) to require recipients to propose two separate MBE and WBE fair share objectives. Under the current rule, recipients are required to determine separate MBE and WBE fair share objectives for each of the four procurement categories, with the option to combine the four categories into one weighted objective. The revision is a harmonizing change with the changes to the definition of “procurement” discussed in section IV.1 of this preamble, which removes the four procurement categories from part 33. The revisions will significantly reduce the burden required of recipients by reducing the number of fair share objectives that must be determined. We made related minor harmonizing changes to 40 CFR 33.405(b)(1) and (2). Additionally, we made revisions to 40 CFR 33.405(c) to clearly state the applicable noncompliance remedies available to the EPA for recipients that fail to determine and implement fair share objectives. The rule references the applicable remedies under OMB regulations for federal awards in 2 CFR 200.338, including the specific applicable reference of 2 CFR 200.338, and the list of examples provided in 2 CFR 200.338. The EPA made the same changes to 40 CFR 33.410 to clarify the remedial actions that may be taken when a recipient fails to meet the requirements of subpart D.
The EPA made amendments to 40 CFR 33.407 to revise the length of the period that a recipient's negotiated fair share objectives are effective from 3 fiscal years to 5 fiscal years. The increase reflects the typical award period for grants, which are 3 to 5 years in length. By increasing the period for which fair share objectives are effective to five years, the change eliminates the possibility of a grant recipient having to renegotiate its fair share objectives midway through a project. This revision reduces the burden on recipients by reducing the frequency and time needed to revise their objectives.
We made a significant change to 40 CFR 33.411 to revise the exemption threshold for recipients required to meet the fair share objectives of subpart D. Currently, recipients of any single EPA financial assistance agreement in the amount of $250,000 or less or recipients of more than one EPA financial assistance agreement with a combined total of $250,000 or less in any one fiscal year is not required to apply the fair share objective requirements. In its implementation of the DBE program, the EPA has received feedback from stakeholders receiving smaller financial assistance rewards regarding the burden associated with collecting data for the determination of fair share objectives. Typically, the recipients of funding awards totaling in an amount lesser than $1 million are smaller entities who have very limited resources and personnel available to collect directory and census bureau data, perform disparity studies, develop alternative methods, or collect evidence from related fields or recipients to calculate the fair share goals. Given these limitations, such recipients have expressed difficulty in meeting the fair share objectives in a timely manner to guarantee funding of the assistance agreement. In such cases, these recipients have been unable to take advantage of the awarded funds and experienced delays or failures in completing EPA projects. In order to reduce the burden for these recipients and ensure that these smaller entities are able to expend funds under their awarded financial assistance agreement, we revised the exemption threshold from $250,000 to $1 million. The EPA identified a new threshold of $1 million based on a review of funding awarded to all entities during implementation of the program. Through this review, the EPA determined that the majority of funding award by the EPA (over 90 percent) is allotted to larger entities who received financial assistance agreements of greater than $1 million or a combination of financial assistance agreements whose total exceeds $1 million. Therefore, the EPA determined that a $1 million threshold will provide relief for smaller entities while ensuring that those recipients that receive the majority of funding from financial assistance agreements awarded by the EPA will continue to develop fair share objectives. These larger entities typically have the resources and personnel to conduct the data gathering steps required for development of the fair share goals. As such, the new threshold will ensure that for the majority of financial assistance agreements awarded by the EPA, recipients will continue to set goals for MBE and WBE participation in procurement.
The EPA made additional minor revisions to 40 CFR 33.411. We revised 40 CFR 33.411(b) to clarify that the recipients of loans other than loans from the Clean Water State Revolving Fund (CWSRF) Program, Drinking Water State
The EPA made one significant change and several minor clarifications to the recordkeeping and reporting requirements of subpart E of part 33. Notably, we revised the reporting requirements of 40 CFR 33.502 to incorporate a Class Deviation previously issued by the EPA to grant exceptions from the reporting requirements of Part 33 (hereafter referred to as the “Deviation”). The Deviation changed the frequency of DBE reporting in 40 CFR 33.502 to annual for all recipients, and limited reporting to financial assistance agreements with funds budgeted for procurements above the simplified acquisition threshold. Specifically, the Deviation established that recipients, including recipients of financial assistance agreements that capitalize revolving loan programs, are required to report MBE/WBE participation annually on EPA Form 5700-52A when one or more of the following conditions are met: (1) There are funds budgeted for procurements, including funds budgeted for direct procurement by the recipient or procurement under sub-awards or loans in the “Other” category that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold amount of $150,000; (2) if at the time of award the budgeted funds for procurement exceed $150,000, but actual expenditures fall below, or; (3) if subsequent amendments and funding cause the total amount of procurement to surpass the $150,000 threshold. The Deviation also directed that where reporting is required, all procurement actions are reportable, not just the portion which exceeds $150,000. Reporting is not required if at the time of award, funds budgeted for procurements are less than or equal to $150,000 and are maintained below the threshold. The changes established in the Deviation have been effective since December 4, 2014, and are only being codified in this rule. We also added a provision to 40 CFR 33.502 to clarify that reports must be submitted by October 30th of each fiscal year, or 30 days after the end of the project period, whichever comes first. This revision is consistent with the reporting due date(s) established in the terms and conditions for assistance agreement recipients revised February 5, 2015. The change will incorporate terms that shortened the submission date from 90 days after the end of the project period to 30 days. The EPA previously incorporated these changes into existing agreements to ensure that final reports were received in a timely fashion to facilitate the close out process. The EPA cannot close out an assistance agreement until the final report is received. The changes codifies these terms and conditions for all assistance agreements for which reporting is required.
We made only minor revisions to 40 CFR 33.501. We revised 40 CFR 33.501(a) to change the term “grant” to “assistance agreement” to clarify that recipients of annual assistance agreements other than grants must maintain a bidder's list. We also removed the requirement for recipients to include the mailing address of any prime- or subcontractors in the bidder's list; a mailing address is no longer necessary because the information in the bidder's list is only handled electronically. Finally, revised 40 CFR 33.501(c) to change the phrase “a recipient under the CWSRF, DWSRF, or BCRLF Program” to “a recipient under the CWSRF, DWSRF, BCRLF, or other identified loan program” to clarify that the requirements are not limited to recipients of the programs currently listed in the rule; these changes are consistent with the changes to 40 CFR 33.303 and 40 CFR 33.411(b) discussed in sections IV.A and IV.D of this preamble, respectively.
Finally, we made one minor revision to 40 CFR 33.503 to clarify when reporting amounts of MBE and WBE participation as a percentage of total financial assistance agreement project procurement cost, recipients should only report funds used for procurements. This change is consistent with the existing requirements.
This action is not a significant regulatory action and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review.
The information collection activities in this rule will be submitted for approval to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the PRA. The Information Collection Request (ICR) document that the EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR number 2536.01. You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket for this rule, and it is briefly summarized here. The information collection requirements are not enforceable until OMB approves them.
Information requested as a result of the revisions relate to (1) the Contract Administration Forms which are required if there are DBE subcontractors involved in a procurement under 40 CFR 33.302 (d) and (e) (formerly 40 CFR 33.302(f) and (g)), (2) the EPA DBE Self Certification process, and (3) fair share objectives required of certain recipients of EPA financial assistance. The information that will be collected allows EPA to evaluate and ensure the effectiveness of, and compliance with, the program's requirements. Information gathered that may reasonably be regarded as proprietary or other confidential business information will be safeguarded from disclosure to unauthorized persons, consistent with applicable federal, state and local law. EPA has regulations concerning confidential business information. See 40 CFR part 2, subpart B.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The OMB control numbers for the EPA's regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9. When OMB approves this ICR, the Agency will announce that approval in the
This is rule being published as a direct final action. A public comment period prior to this publication was not required.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. In making this determination, the impact of concern is any significant adverse economic impact on small entities. An agency may certify that a rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities if the rule relieves regulatory burden, has no net burden or otherwise has a positive economic effect on the small entities subject to the rule. This action will improve the practical utility of the EPA's DBE program and minimize the burden to small entities. We have therefore concluded that this action will relieve regulatory burden for all directly regulated small entities.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The costs involved in this action are imposed only by conditions of federal assistance. UMRA excludes from the definition[s] of “federal intergovernmental mandate” duties that arise from conditions of federal assistance. Additionally, this action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Because this rule conditions the use of federal assistance, it will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments.
This action has tribal implications. However, it will neither impose substantial direct compliance costs on federally recognized tribal governments, nor preempt tribal law. The amendments generally reduce the burden and compliance costs associated with 40 CFR part 33.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it does not concern an environmental health risk or safety risk.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
The EPA believes this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations. The EPA made this determination because this rule does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment.
This action is subject to the CRA, and EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States. This action is not a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
Environmental protection, Grant programs.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Environmental Protection Agency is amending title 40, chapter I, of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
15 U.S.C. 637 note; 42 U.S.C. 4370d, 7601 note, 9605(f); E.O. 11625, 36 FR 19967, 3 CFR, 1971 Comp., p. 213; E.O. 12138, 49 FR 29637, 3 CFR, 1979 Comp., p. 393; E.O. 12432, 48 FR 32551, 3 CFR, 1983 Comp., p. 198, 2 CFR part 200.
(a) To foster nondiscrimination in the award and administration of procurements under EPA financial assistance agreements. To that end, implementation of this rule with respect to grantees, sub-grantees, loan recipients, prime contractors, or
(a) If you are a recipient or prime contractor of any of the following types of funds, this part applies to you:
(1) An EPA financial assistance agreement.
(2) Grants or cooperative agreements used to capitalize revolving loan funds, including, but not limited to, the Clean Water State Revolving Loan Fund (CWSRF) Program under Title VI of the Clean Water Act, as amended, 33 U.S.C. 1381
(3) Special Appropriation Act Projects (SAAP) funding.
(4) A subaward from an EPA recipient to carry out the project or program under the Federal award.
(b) If you are letting a contract, and that contract is to be performed entirely outside the United States or its territories and insular possessions, this part does not apply to the contract.
(c) If you are letting a contract that is not being funded under an EPA financial assistance agreement or not being funded as part of the required match for an EPA financial assistance agreement, this part does not apply to the contract.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Terms not defined below shall have the meaning given to them in 2 CFR 200.1 as applicable. As used in this part:
(1) For reports prepared on a cash basis, expenditures are the sum of:
(i) Cash disbursements for direct charges for property and services;
(ii) The amount of indirect expense charged;
(iii) The value of third-party in-kind contributions applied; and
(iv) The amount of cash advance payments and payments made to subrecipients.
(2) For reports prepared on an accrual basis, expenditures are the sum of:
(i) Cash disbursements for direct charges for property and services;
(ii) The amount of indirect expense incurred;
(iii) The value of third-party in-kind contributions applied; and
(iv) The net increase or decrease in the amounts owed by the non-Federal entity for goods and other property received; services performed by employees, contractors, subrecipients, and other payees; and programs for which no current services or performance are required, such as annuities, insurance claims, or other benefit payments.
(1) The Federal financial assistance that a non-Federal entity receives
(2) The instrument setting forth the terms and conditions of a grant agreement, cooperative agreement, other agreement for assistance covered in paragraph (b) of 2 CFR 200.40 (Federal financial assistance), or the cost-reimbursement contract awarded under the Federal Acquisition Regulations.
(3) Federal award does not include other contracts that a Federal agency uses to buy goods or services from a contractor or a contract to operate Federal Government owned, contractor operated facilities (GOCOs).
(1) In the case of the CWSRF Program, is a project funded from amounts equal to the capitalization grant;
(2) In the case of the DWSRF Program, is a loan project or set-aside activity funded from amounts up to the amount of the capitalization grant;
(3) In the case of the BCRLF Program, is a project that has been funded with EPA financial assistance; or
(4) In the case of other loan programs, is a project that has been funded with EPA financial assistance.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) A recipient may apply for a waiver from any of the requirements of this part that are not specifically based on a statute or Executive Order, by submitting a written request to the Director of the Office of Small Business Programs (OSBP).
(c) The OSBP Director has the authority to approve a recipient's request. If the OSBP Director grants a recipient's request, the recipient may administer its program as provided in the request, subject to the following conditions:
(2) There is a five year limitation on the duration of the recipient's modified program. Should it be necessary to extend a waiver beyond the five year period, recipients are required to submit a new waiver request at least 60 days prior to the modified program's expiration date. Should the recipient fail to submit a new waiver request prior to the modified program's expiration date, the recipient will be required to comply with the provisions of this part and all terms agreed upon as a condition of the waiver will expire; and
(3) Any other conditions the OSBP Director makes on the grant of the waiver.
(4) The OSBP Director may end a program waiver at any time upon notice
If a recipient fails to comply with any of the requirements of this part, EPA may take remedial action under 2 CFR 200.338, as appropriate, or any other action authorized by law, including, but not limited to, enforcement under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and/or the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (31 U.S.C. 3801
(a) Temporarily withholding cash payments pending correction of the deficiency by the recipient or more severe enforcement action by EPA;
(b) Disallowing (that is, denying both use of funds and any applicable matching credit for) all or part of the cost of the activity or action not in compliance;
(c) Wholly or partly suspending or terminating the EPA award;
(d) Initiating suspension or debarment proceedings as authorized under 2 CFR part 180 and EPA regulations (or in the case of a pass-through entity, recommend such a proceeding be initiated by EPA);
(e) Withholding further awards for the project or program; and
(f) Taking other remedies that may be legally available.
The addition reads as follows:
(b)
Each procurement contract signed by an EPA financial assistance agreement recipient or subrecipient, including those for an identified loan under an EPA financial assistance agreement capitalizing a revolving loan fund, must include provisions under 2 CFR part 200, appendix II, as applicable, as well as the following term and condition:
The contractor shall not discriminate on the basis of race, color, national origin or sex in the performance of this contract. The contractor shall carry out applicable requirements of 40 CFR part 33 in the award and administration of contracts awarded under EPA financial assistance agreements. Failure by the contractor to carry out these requirements is a material breach of this contract, which may result in the termination of this contract or other legally available remedies.
To qualify as an MBE or WBE under EPA's 8% statute, an entity must establish that it is owned or controlled by socially and economically disadvantaged individuals who are of good character and citizens of the United States. An entity need not demonstrate potential for success.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(a) EPA accepts the following certifications as being acceptable for establishing MBE or WBE status under the EPA DBE Program:
(1) The United States Small Business Administration (SBA), under its 8(a) Business Development Program (13 CFR part 124, subpart A), Small Disadvantaged Business (SDB) Program (13 CFR part 124, subpart B), or Economically Disadvantaged Woman Owned Small Business (EDWOSB) Program (13 CFR part 127, subpart B);
(2) The United States Department of Transportation (DOT), under its regulations for Participation by Disadvantaged Business Enterprises in DOT Programs (49 CFR parts 23 and 26) with U.S. citizenship;
(3) Any Indian Tribal Government, State Government, local Government or independent private organization certification that meets the criteria set forth in § 33.202 or § 33.203; or
(4) The EPA DBE self-certification as described in § 33.205.
(b) Such certifications shall be considered acceptable for establishing MBE or WBE status, as appropriate, under EPA's DBE Program as long as the certification meets EPA's U.S. citizenship requirement under § 33.202 or § 33.203.
(a) An entity may self-certify as an MBE or WBE under the EPA DBE Program. To self-certify, the entity must register in the EPA Small Business Vendor Profile System (SBVPS) and attest to meeting the eligibility requirements set forth in § 33.202 or § 33.203.
(b) EPA DBE Program's self-certifications are only applicable to opportunities funded by EPA financial assistance agreements and are not recognized by other federal, state or local organizations.
A list of firms that have chosen to self-certify as an MBE or WBE under the EPA DBE Program can be accessed through the EPA SBVPS on the OSBP Web site. EPA will not maintain a list of firms certified through other entities.
Self-certifications are valid for a period of three years from the date an entity is self-certified in the EPA SBVPS. Entities are required to re-enter their registration information in the EPA SBVPS every three years in order to maintain MBE or WBE status under the DBE program. Entries in the EPA SBVPS older than three years will be automatically removed from the system.
Should there be any changes to the entity's circumstances that affects its ability to meet disadvantaged status, ownership, and/or control requirements of this subpart, the entity must remove its self-certification entry in the EPA SBVPS within 30 days of the occurrence of the change. Failure to comply may result in the loss of MBE or WBE certification under EPA's DBE Program and EPA may take other remedies that may be legally available. Failure to comply may result in the loss of MBE or WBE certification under EPA's DBE Program, and EPA may take other remedies that may be legally available.
(a) The good faith efforts are methods used by all EPA recipients to ensure that DBEs have the opportunity to compete for procurements funded by EPA financial assistance dollars.
(b) A recipient, including one exempted from applying the fair share objective requirements by § 33.411, is required to make good faith efforts whenever making procurements under an EPA financial assistance agreement.
(c) Good faith efforts are required even if the fair share objectives have been achieved under subpart D.
(d) Methods used to adhere to good faith requirements must be documented and retained in the recipient's records; this documentation should include, but is not limited to, email logs, phone logs, electronic searches and communication, handouts, flyers or similar records.
(e) Recipients are required to ensure that the requirements of this subpart are passed down to all sub-recipients/prime contractors.
(f) There are no exemptions to the requirements of this subpart.
(g) This subpart does not negate the post federal award requirements set forth in 2 CFR part 200.
(h) The following is a list of actions a recipient must perform to satisfy the good faith effort requirement:
(1) Ensure DBEs are made aware of contracting opportunities to the fullest extent practicable through outreach and recruitment activities by placing DBEs on solicitation lists and soliciting them whenever they are potential sources.
(2) Make information on forthcoming opportunities available to DBEs and arrange time frames for contracts and establish delivery schedules, where the requirements permit, in a way that encourages and facilitates participation by DBEs in the competitive process. This includes, whenever possible, posting solicitations for bids or proposals for a minimum of 30 calendar days before the bid or proposal closing date.
(3) Consider in the contracting process whether firms competing for large contracts could subcontract with DBEs; this includes, where appropriate, breaking out requirements into economically feasible units to facilitate DBE participation.
(4) Encourage contracting with a consortium of DBEs when a contract is too large for one of these firms to handle individually.
(5) Effectively using the services of available minority/women community organizations; minority/women contractors' groups; local, state, and Federal minority/women business assistance offices; and other organizations, when feasible, to conduct the efforts described in paragraphs (h)(1) through (4) of this section.
(i) A recipient should make every attempt to conduct the efforts described in paragraphs (h)(1) through (5) of this section. In the event that one or more of the aforementioned efforts cannot be performed, the circumstances that have prohibited the full execution of each step should be documented and retained in the recipient's records. Recipients that fail to meet their fair share goals will not be penalized provided they attempt to follow the good faith efforts and adequately document the methods used to solicit DBEs. However, failure to retain proper documentation may constitute noncompliance and result in remedial action as described in § 33.105.
(c) If a DBE subcontractor fails to complete work under the subcontract for any reason, the recipient must require the prime contractor to employ the good faith efforts described in § 33.301(h) if soliciting a replacement subcontractor.
(d) A recipient must require its prime contractor to have its DBE subcontractors complete EPA Form 6100-3—DBE Program Subcontractor Performance Form. A recipient must then require its prime contractor to include all completed forms as part of the prime contractor's bid or proposal package.
(e) A recipient must require its prime contractor to complete and submit EPA Form 6100-4—DBE Program Subcontractor Utilization Form as part of the prime contractor's bid or proposal package.
(f) Copies of EPA Form 6100-2—DBE Program Subcontractor Participation Form, EPA Form 6100-3—DBE Program Subcontractor Performance Form, and EPA Form 6100-4—DBE Program
(g) Failure to include EPA Form 6100-3 and EPA Form 6100-4 in a bid or proposal package may constitute non-responsiveness. A recipient may consider this non-responsiveness in evaluating a prime contractor's proposal.
(h) A recipient must ensure that each procurement contract it awards contains the term and condition specified in 2 CFR part 200, appendix II, concerning compliance with the requirements of this part. A recipient must also ensure that this term and condition is included in each procurement contract awarded by an entity receiving an identified loan under a financial assistance agreement to capitalize a revolving loan fund.
(i) In addition to requirements stated above, all procurement contracts awarded by a recipient must contain provisions detailed in 2 CFR part 200, appendix II, as applicable.
A recipient of an EPA financial assistance agreement to capitalize a revolving loan fund, including, but not limited to, a State under the CWSRF or DWSRF or an eligible entity under the Brownfields Cleanup Revolving Loan Fund program, must require that borrowers receiving identified loans comply with the good faith efforts described in § 33.301 and the contract administration requirements of § 33.302. This provision does not require that such private and nonprofit borrowers expend identified loan funds in compliance with any other procurement procedures contained in 2 CFR part 200, subpart D (Post Federal Award Requirements, Procurement Standards), or 40 CFR part 35, subpart O, as applicable.
(a) A Native American (either as an individual, organization, corporation, Tribe or Tribal Government or consortium) recipient or prime contractor must follow the good faith efforts in § 33.301(h) only if doing so would not conflict with existing Tribal or Federal law, including but not limited to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450e), which establishes, among other things, that any federal contract, subcontract, grant, or subgrant awarded to Indian organizations or for the benefit of Indians, shall require preference in the award of subcontracts and subgrants to Indian organizations and to Indian-owned economic enterprises.
(b) Tribal organizations awarded an EPA financial assistance agreement have the ability to solicit and recruit Indian organizations and Indian-owned economic enterprises and give them preference in the award process prior to undertaking the good faith efforts. Tribal governments with promulgated tribal laws and regulations concerning the solicitation and recruitment of Native-owned and other minority business enterprises, including women-owned business enterprises, have the discretion to utilize these tribal laws and regulations in lieu of the good faith efforts. If the effort to recruit Indian organizations and Indian-owned economic enterprises is not successful, then the recipient must follow the good faith efforts. All tribal recipients still must retain records documenting compliance in accordance with § 33.501 and must report to EPA on their accomplishments in accordance with § 33.502.
(c) Any recipient, whether or not Native American, of an EPA financial assistance agreement for the benefit of Native Americans, is required to solicit and recruit Indian organizations and Indian-owned economic enterprises and give them preference in the award process prior to undertaking the good faith efforts. If the efforts to solicit and recruit Indian organizations and Indian-owned economic enterprises is not successful, then the recipient must follow the good faith efforts.
A recipient must either negotiate with the appropriate EPA award official or his/her designee fair share objectives for MBE and WBE participation in procurement under the financial assistance agreements, or use the approved fair share objective of another recipient with the same or similar relevant geographic buying market, purchasing the same or similar items.
(a) A recipient of an EPA financial assistance agreement to capitalize revolving loan funds must either:
(1) Apply its own fair share objectives negotiated with EPA under § 33.401 to identified loans using a substantially similar relevant geographic market;
(2) Negotiate separate fair share objectives with entities receiving identified loans, as long as such separate objectives are based on demonstrable evidence of availability of MBEs and WBEs in accordance with this subpart; or
(3) Use the approved fair share objective of another recipient with the same or similar relevant geographic buying market, with the same or similar items.
(b) If procurements will occur over more than one year, the recipient should apply the fair share objectives to the year in which the procurement action occurs.
A fair share objective is an objective based on the capacity and availability of qualified, certified MBEs and WBEs in the relevant geographic market compared to the number of all qualified entities in the same market, to reflect the level of MBE and WBE participation expected absent the effects of discrimination. A fair share objective is not a quota.
A recipient must submit its proposed MBE and WBE fair share objectives and supporting documentation to EPA within 90 days after its acceptance of its financial assistance award. EPA must respond in writing to the recipient's submission within 45 days of receipt, either agreeing with the submission or providing initial comments for further negotiation. Failure to respond within this time frame may be considered as agreement by EPA with the fair share objectives submitted by the recipient. MBE and WBE fair share objectives must be agreed upon by the recipient and EPA before funds may be expended for procurement under the recipient's financial assistance agreement.
The revisions and addition read as follows:
(a) Unless a recipient chooses to use the approved fair share objective of another recipient, it must determine its fair share objectives based on demonstrable evidence of the number of certified MBEs and WBEs that are ready, willing, and able to perform in the relevant geographic market. The market may be a geographic region of a State, an entire State, or a multi-State area. Fair share objectives must reflect the recipient's determination of the level of MBE and WBE participation it would expect absent the effects of discrimination. A recipient must propose separate objectives for MBEs and WBEs.
(b)
(1)
(2)
(c) * * *
(4) Unless exempt under § 33.411, a recipient that fails to establish and implement goals as provided in this section will be considered noncompliant and EPA may take remedial action under 2 CFR 200.338, as appropriate, or any other action authorized by law, including, but not limited to, enforcement under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and/or the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (31 U.S.C. 3801
Once MBE and WBE fair share objectives have been negotiated, they will remain in effect for five fiscal years unless there are significant changes to the data supporting the fair share objectives. The fact that a disparity study utilized in negotiating fair share objectives has become more than ten years old during the five-year period does not by itself constitute a significant change requiring renegotiation.
(a) Should the good faith efforts described in subpart C of this part or other race and/or gender neutral measures prove to be inadequate to achieve an established fair share objective, race and/or gender conscious action (
A recipient cannot be penalized, or treated by EPA as being in noncompliance with this subpart, solely because its MBE or WBE participation does not meet its applicable fair share objective. However, EPA may take remedial action under 2 CFR 200.338, as appropriate, or any other action authorized by law, including, but not limited to, enforcement under 18 U.S.C. 1001 and/or the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (31 U.S.C. 3801
(a)
(b)
(c)
(b) A recipient of a Continuing Environmental Program Grant or other annual assistance agreements must create and maintain a bidders list. In addition, a recipient of an EPA financial assistance agreement to capitalize a revolving loan fund also must require entities receiving identified loans to create and maintain a bidders list if the recipient of the loan is subject to, or
(2) Entity's telephone number and email address;
(c)
(a) Recipients are required to report MBE and WBE participation annually on EPA Form 5700-52A when one or more of the following conditions are met.
(1) There are funds budgeted for procurements, including funds budgeted for direct procurement by the recipient or procurement under sub-awards or loans in the “Other” procurement category that exceed the simplified acquisition threshold amount of $150,000;
(2) If at the time of award the budgeted funds for procurement exceed $150,000, but actual expenditures fall below; or
(3) If subsequent amendments and funding cause the total amount of procurement to surpass the $150,000 threshold.
(b) Those recipients exempted under § 33.411 from the requirement to apply the fair share objectives are required to report if one or more of the conditions stated above is met.
(c) Recipients of financial assistance agreements that capitalize revolving loan programs must require entities receiving identified loans to submit their MBE and WBE participation reports on an annual basis, if one or more of the conditions stated above is met. Reports should be submitted to the financial assistance agreement recipient, rather than to EPA.
(d) Where reporting is required, all procurement actions are reportable, not just that portion that exceeds $150,000.
(e) Reporting is not required if at the time of award, funds budgeted for procurements are less than or equal to $150,000 and are maintained below the threshold.
(f) Reports are due by October 30th of each fiscal year, or 30 days after the end of the project period, whichever comes first.
(a)
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Final rule; correction.
FMCSA is correcting the effective and compliance dates for its August 23, 2013, Unified Registration System (URS) final rule, as revised on October 21, 2015. The 2013 URS final rule was issued to improve the registration process for motor carriers, property brokers, freight forwarders, Intermodal Equipment Providers (IEPs), hazardous materials safety permit (HMSP) applicants, and cargo tank facilities required to register with FMCSA, and streamline the existing Federal registration processes to ensure the Agency can more efficiently track these entities. The October 21, 2015 final rule made slight revisions to the 2013 rule and delayed the effective dates of that rule. This final rule corrects the effective and compliance dates, revised in 2015, and corrects regulatory provisions that have not yet gone into effect, as well as several temporary sections that are in effect already, to allow FMCSA additional time to complete the information technology (IT) systems work.
The effective date of the rule published at 80 FR 63695 (October 21, 2015), is delayed until January 14, 2017, and §§ 365.T106, 368.T3, and 390.T200 are effective until January 13, 2017.
The corrections to the rule published October 21, 2015 (80 FR 63695), are effective on January 14, 2017.
The effective date of the rule published at 78 FR 52608 (August 23, 2013) is further delayed until January 14, 2017.
All background documents, comments, and materials related to this rule may be viewed in docket number FMCSA-1997-2349 using either of the following methods:
•
• Docket Management Facility (M-30), U.S. Department of Transportation, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001.
Mr. Kenneth Riddle, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590-0001, by telephone at (202) 366-9616 or via email at
To view comments submitted to previous rulemaking documents on this subject, go to
All comments received were posted without change to
The FMCSA is correcting the effective and compliance dates for its August 23, 2013, Unified Registration System (URS) final rule, as revised on October 21, 2015, in order to delay implementation of the URS provisions. While the FMCSA had hoped to be able to reach full implementation by September 30, 2016, unforeseen delays and complications in the IT development process require that we push the full implementation back until January 14, 2017. These delays include added complexities due to an unrelated system migration to the cloud and also due to the logistics of transferring millions of records.
In order to make this change, FMCSA must correct regulatory provisions that have not yet gone into effect, as well as several temporary sections that are in effect already. The method for making corrections differs depending upon whether or not the provision being corrected has gone into effect. First, under the heading “
We are also making minor corrections to fix errors found in the final rule published on October 21, 2015. In § 366.4, we are adding a sentence to clarify the requirements for motor carriers operating in Hawaii or Alaska, as these were inadvertently not covered in the original text. In § 385.305, we are correcting the reference to the online registration form MCSA-1, which was published without the “1” after the hyphen. In § 387.301, we are correcting the text in paragraph (a)(1) to clarify the financial responsibility requirements for school buses, including third parties providing school bus services. We have identified this as an area causing confusion, so a correction is needed.
After those corrections, numbered 1 through 6, we present the corrections to those provisions that came into effect on December 12, 2015. These corrections, which follow the “CFR amendments” heading, are presented as you would see amendatory instructions in any final rule. The result of these corrections will be to extend the effective dates of the temporary provisions in parts 365, 368, and 390 to January 14, 2017.
In FR Doc. 2015-26625 appearing on page 63695 in the
1. Beginning on page 63702, in the first column, in amendatory instruction #1 and continuing through all of the amendatory instructions except for #5, #24, and #59, the date “September 30, 2016” is corrected to read “January 14, 2017”.
2. On page 63706, in the first column, in § 366.2, the date “December 31, 2016” is corrected to read “April 14, 2017”.
3. On page 63706, in the first column, in § 366.4(a), the text is corrected to read “Every motor carrier, except a motor carrier operating exclusively in Alaska or Hawaii, must designate process agents for all 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, unless its operating authority registration is limited to fewer than 48 States and DC. When a motor carrier's operating authority registration is limited to fewer than 48 States and DC, it must designate process agents for each State in which it is authorized to operate and for each State traversed during such operations. Every motor carrier operating in the United States in the course of transportation between points in a foreign country shall file a designation for each State traversed. Every motor carrier maintaining a principal place of business and operating exclusively in Alaska or Hawaii must designate a process agent for the State where operations are conducted.”
4. On page 63707, in the second column, in § 385.305(b)(2), the phrase “Form MCSA-,” is corrected to read “Form MCSA-1,”.
5. On page 63709, in the first column, in § 387.19, the date “December 31, 2016” is corrected to read “April 14, 2017”.
6. On page 63709, in the third column, in § 387.301(a)(1), the text is corrected by adding the following sentence at the end of the paragraph: “Passenger motor carriers exempt under § 387.27 of this part are not subject to this limitation on transportation or required to file evidence of financial responsibility.”
Administrative practice and procedure, Brokers, Buses, Freight forwarders, Hazardous materials transportation, Highway safety, Insurance, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Moving of household goods, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds.
Administrative practice and procedure, Brokers, Buses, Freight forwarders, Motor carriers, Moving of household goods.
Brokers, Motor carriers, Freight forwarders, Process agents.
Administrative practice and procedure, Insurance, Motor carriers.
Administrative practice and procedure, Highway safety, Incorporation by reference, Mexico, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Buses, Freight, Freight forwarders, Hazardous materials transportation, Highway safety, Insurance, Intergovernmental relations, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Moving of household goods, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Surety bonds.
Highway safety, Intermodal transportation, Motor carriers, Motor vehicle safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Alcohol abuse, Drug abuse, Highway safety, Motor carriers.
In consideration of the foregoing, FMCSA is amending 49 CFR chapter III, subchapter B, parts 365, 368, and 390 are corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
5 U.S.C. 553 and 559; 49 U.S.C. 13101, 13301, 13901-13906, 14708, 31138, and 31144; 49 CFR 1.87.
(d) This section is in effect from December 12, 2015 through January 13, 2017.
49 U.S.C. 13301 and 13902; Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(d) This section is in effect from December 12, 2015 through January 13, 2017.
49 U.S.C. 504, 508, 31132, 31133, 31134, 31136, 31137, 31144, 31151, 31502; sec. 114, Pub. L. 103-311, 108 Stat. 1673, 1677, 1678; sec. 212, 217, Pub. L. 106-159, 113 Stat. 1748, 1766, 1767; sec. 229, Pub. L. 106-159 (as transferred by sec. 4115 and amended by secs. 4130-4132, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1726, 1743-44); sec. 4136, Pub. L. 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144, 1745; sections 32101(d) and 32934, Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 778, 830; sec. 2, Pub. L. 113-125, 128 Stat. 1388; and 49 CFR 1.87.
(a)
(d)
Executive Office for Immigration Review, Department of Justice.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Department of Justice (Department) is proposing to amend the regulations of the Executive Office for Immigration Review (EOIR) by establishing procedures for the filing and adjudication of motions to reopen removal, deportation, and exclusion proceedings based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. This proposed rule is in response to
Written comments must be postmarked and electronic comments must be submitted on or before September 26, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by EOIR Docket No. 170P, by one of the following methods:
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•
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Jean King, General Counsel, Office of the General Counsel, Executive Office for Immigration Review, 5107 Leesburg Pike, Suite 2600, Falls Church, VA 22041, telephone (703) 305-0470 (not a toll-free call).
Interested persons are invited to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written data, views, or arguments on all aspects of this rule. The Department also invites comments that relate to the economic, environmental, or federalism effects that might result from this rule. Comments that will provide the most assistance to the Department in developing these procedures will reference a specific portion of the rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information, or authority that support such recommended change.
All submissions received should include the agency name and EOIR Docket No. 170P for this rulemaking. Please note that all comments received are considered part of the public record and made available for public inspection at
If you want to submit personal identifying information (such as your name, address, etc.) as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online, you must include the phrase “PERSONAL IDENTIFYING INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment and identify what information you want redacted.
If you want to submit confidential business information as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online, you must include the phrase “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You also must prominently identify confidential business information to be redacted within the comment. If a comment has so much confidential business information that it cannot be effectively redacted, all or part of that comment may not be posted on
Personal identifying information and confidential business information identified as set forth above will be placed in the agency's public docket file, but not posted online. To inspect the agency's public docket file in person, you must make an appointment with agency counsel. Please see the
The reason that EOIR is requesting electronic comments before midnight Eastern Time on the day the comment period closes is because the inter-agency
This proposed rule would establish standards for adjudicating motions to reopen based on ineffective assistance of counsel in immigration proceedings before the immigration judges and the Board of Immigration Appeals (Board or BIA). The Board has addressed reopening proceedings based on ineffective assistance of counsel in
Under this proposed rule, an individual seeking to reopen his or her immigration proceedings would have to establish that the individual was subject to ineffective assistance of counsel and that, with limited exceptions, he or she suffered prejudice as a result. The proposed rule would provide guidelines for determining when counsel's conduct was ineffective, and when an individual suffered prejudice. Under the proposed rule, a motion to reopen based on ineffective assistance of counsel would be required to include: (1) An affidavit, or a written statement executed under the penalty of perjury, providing certain information; (2) a copy of any applicable representation agreement; (3) evidence that prior counsel was notified of the allegations and of the filing of the motion; and (4) evidence that a complaint was filed with the appropriate disciplinary authorities. The proposed rule would permit adjudicators, in exercises of discretion committed exclusively to EOIR, to excuse noncompliance with these requirements in limited circumstances. The proposed rule would also provide that deadlines for motions to reopen can be equitably tolled in certain instances where the motion is based on ineffective assistance of counsel.
The Department believes that this proposed rule would promote consistency in the reopening of EOIR proceedings based on ineffective assistance of counsel, thereby helping to ensure the integrity and fairness of those proceedings. Given the importance of the issues involved, the Department believes it is important for the public to be able to participate in formulating the framework for reopening proceedings based on ineffective assistance of counsel.
The Immigration and Nationality Act (“Act” or “INA”) provides the Attorney General with extensive authority relating to proceedings before the immigration courts and the Board. The Act provides the Attorney General with the authority to promulgate regulations governing such proceedings.
Immigration proceedings are civil proceedings with high stakes, including the potential removal from the United States of an individual with long-standing family or other ties, or the grant or denial of relief or protection to an individual who claims to fear harm in his or her native country.
The proposed rule would establish procedures and substantive requirements for the filing and adjudication of motions to reopen removal, deportation, and exclusion proceedings before the immigration judges and the Board based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. The rule would build on procedures, established in
In
The Board also required, in
For over 20 years since the Board's decision,
The Federal courts of appeals have generally endorsed the
While the Federal courts of appeals have generally endorsed the
The Federal courts of appeals have also proposed varying standards for prejudice. Some courts have required a strict standard for evaluating prejudice.
In addition, while the courts of appeals that have reached the issue have permitted the equitable tolling of filing deadlines for untimely motions to reopen based upon claims of ineffective assistance of counsel, some courts have not yet fully addressed whether these deadlines can be equitably tolled.
The purpose of this proposed rule is to establish uniform procedural and substantive requirements for the filing of motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel and to provide a uniform standard for adjudicating such motions. Like
This proposed rule would add new § 1003.48 to title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations (“regulations”). New § 1003.48 would provide the filing and evidentiary requirements for motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. This section would also incorporate standards for evaluating whether an individual has established that he or she (1) acted with due diligence for the purpose of determining the applicability of equitable tolling and (2) was prejudiced by prior counsel's conduct. In addition, this proposed rule would add a cross-reference to new § 1003.48 to the current regulations governing motions to reopen proceedings and to rescind orders of removal, deportation, or exclusion entered
The Department notes that the Board has consistently permitted the reopening of proceedings based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel.
The proposed provisions of the rule addressing motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel would cover conduct that occurred only after removal, deportation, or exclusion proceedings have commenced with the immigration courts.
The proposed motion provisions in § 1003.48 would provide for one explicit exception to the limitation on the Board's authority to provide a remedy for ineffective assistance of counsel before another administrative or judicial body. The exception would be with respect to a claim that counsel was ineffective for failing to file a timely petition for review of a Board decision with the appropriate court of appeals. Under the proposed rule at § 1003.48(c), an individual could file a motion to reopen with the Board in such a situation, and the Board would have discretion to reopen proceedings to address such a claim. The reason for allowing such a motion is that the failure to file a timely petition for review leaves the court of appeals without any jurisdiction to address the claim of ineffectiveness given that the 30-day deadline for filing a petition for review is mandatory and jurisdictional.
For his or her case to be reopened, an individual filing the motion based on failure to file a timely petition for review would have to comply with the requirements of § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3) (affidavit, notice to counsel, and complaint filed with the appropriate disciplinary authorities), described in more detail below. Under § 1003.48(c)(2), in order to establish that counsel acted ineffectively, the individual would have to establish that counsel had agreed to file a petition for review but failed to do so. To meet this burden, the individual would have to submit a representation agreement making clear that the scope of representation included the filing of a petition for review, or would have to otherwise establish that the scope of representation included the filing of a petition for review.
The proposed motion provisions would only apply to the conduct of certain individuals. With the exception discussed below, these provisions would cover only the conduct of attorneys and accredited representatives as defined in part 1292 of title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The reason for such a limitation is that attorneys and accredited representatives are governed by rules of professional conduct and have skills, including knowledge of immigration laws and procedures, which are directly related to furthering the interests that individuals and the government have in fair and accurate immigration proceedings.
However, this proposed rule would recognize that, sometimes, a person who is not an attorney or accredited representative may lead an individual in removal, deportation, or exclusion proceedings to believe that the person is an attorney or representative, and that the individual in proceedings, as a result of that mistaken belief, may retain that person to represent him or her in such proceedings. When this occurs, in assessing whether to reopen proceedings, the immigration judge or the Board would evaluate on a case-by-case basis whether it was reasonable for the individual in such proceedings to believe that the person in question was indeed an attorney or an accredited representative, and whether he or she then retained that person.
In addition to the above limitations, the proposed provisions of § 1003.48 would apply only to motions to reopen proceedings based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel filed with the immigration courts or the Board on or after the effective date of the final rule.
The proposed rule at § 1003.48 would provide filing and evidentiary requirements for motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. In order to succeed in a motion to reopen, the individual filing the motion would have to submit evidence both that prior counsel's conduct was ineffective and that the individual was prejudiced as a result of counsel's ineffective assistance.
With respect to the specific conduct that would amount to ineffective assistance in immigration proceedings, this rule would not set any bright line standards, or an enumerated list, of what specific conduct would amount to ineffective assistance in immigration proceedings. Rather, the proposed rule would provide, at § 1003.48(a)(2), that “[a] counsel's conduct constitutes ineffective assistance of counsel if the conduct was unreasonable, based on the facts of the particular case, viewed as of the time of the conduct.”
This provision, in calling for an inquiry based on the reasonableness of the counsel's conduct, viewed when the conduct occurred, would be based on the Supreme Court's holding in
Under this proposed provision, a tactical decision would not be ineffective assistance if the decision was reasonable when it was made, even if it proved unwise in hindsight.
The filing requirements described in proposed § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3) would serve to guide the individual filing the motion in providing the evidence necessary for a determination as to whether his or her counsel's conduct was ineffective. In order to demonstrate that counsel's conduct was ineffective, the motion should set forth clearly the particular circumstances underlying a given case. In order to prevail, the individual may need to submit documentary or other supporting evidence beyond that described in § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3). For example, additional evidence could include evidence of payment to prior counsel or an affidavit explaining what the individual in proceedings specifically disclosed to prior counsel, such as the individual's family ties or criminal history. Additional supporting evidence could also include written statements from current counsel or witnesses regarding prior counsel's conduct.
As discussed in detail in section E, in addition to demonstrating that prior counsel's conduct was ineffective, the individual filing the motion would have the burden of establishing that the individual was prejudiced as a result of that conduct. The requirement of providing evidence that the prior counsel was ineffective would be distinct from establishing prejudice as required in § 1003.48(b)(4). The Department cautions that the immigration judge or the Board would have the discretion to deny the motion without reaching the issue of prejudice, if the individual does not submit arguments or evidence establishing that the prior counsel's conduct was ineffective.
Proposed § 1003.48 would describe the required evidence to be included with a motion to reopen proceedings before the immigration judge or the Board based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. Section 1003.48(b)(1)(i) would require an individual to submit an affidavit, or a written statement executed under the penalty of perjury as provided in 28 U.S.C. 1746,
An affidavit is “[a] written or printed declaration or statement of facts, made voluntarily, and confirmed by the oath or affirmation of the party making it, taken before a person having authority to administer such oath or affirmation.”
Proposed § 1003.48(b)(1)(ii) would provide that, in addition to the affidavit or written statement executed under the
Proposed § 1003.48(b)(2) would require an individual filing a motion to provide evidence that the counsel whose representation is claimed to have been ineffective has been informed of the allegations leveled against that counsel and that a motion to reopen alleging ineffective assistance of counsel would be filed on that basis. As discussed in
The Department notes that merely copying counsel on a complaint filed with the appropriate State bar or governmental authority would not be sufficient to meet the notice requirement; rather, the individual filing the motion would have to provide notice to his or her prior counsel in a separate written correspondence that a motion to reopen would be filed alleging ineffective assistance of counsel. With the motion, the individual would also have to provide evidence of the date he or she provided notice to prior counsel, and the manner in which this notice was provided, and the individual would have to include a copy of the correspondence to the attorney. The individual would also have to submit to the immigration court or the Board any subsequent response from prior counsel. This obligation would continue until such time as a decision is rendered on the motion.
Proposed § 1003.48(b)(3) would further require the individual filing the motion to file a complaint with the appropriate disciplinary authorities with respect to any violation of prior counsel's ethical or legal responsibilities. This requirement would help to monitor the legal profession and to assist the appropriate disciplinary authorities in considering and acting on instances of ineffective assistance of counsel.
The proposed rule provides that the individual filing the motion would have to file the complaint against his or her representative with the appropriate disciplinary authorities. For an attorney, the individual would have to file the complaint with the relevant State licensing authority. For an accredited representative, the individual would have to file the complaint with the EOIR disciplinary counsel.
The individual filing the motion would have to submit a copy of the complaint and any correspondence from the disciplinary authority with his or her motion to the immigration court or the Board. In addition to filing the required complaint, the individual would not be precluded from taking any other actions to notify appropriate governmental or disciplinary authorities regarding the conduct of his or her prior counsel, accredited representative, or any person retained by the individual whom he or she reasonably but erroneously believed to be an attorney or accredited representative, and submitting evidence of such actions with his or her motion. In addition, the Department notes that this rule would not preclude the individual from taking any other actions to notify the
The Department welcomes input from the public about the requirement to submit, with a motion to reopen, a complaint filed with the appropriate disciplinary authorities. As noted above, there are important policy reasons for this requirement, although the Department acknowledges certain countervailing concerns, as referenced by Attorney General Mukasey in
Finally, proposed § 1003.48(b) would require the individual filing the motion to comply with the existing requirements for motions to reopen in §§ 1003.2 and 1003.23. Sections 1003.2 and 1003.23 require the individual to submit evidence of what will be proven at the hearing if the motion is granted and to submit any appropriate applications for relief, supporting documentation, or other evidentiary material. For a motion based on ineffective assistance of counsel, this could include evidence that the filer's prior counsel failed to provide to the immigration judge or the Board, or other independent evidence, such as affidavits, applications for relief and supporting documentation, proffered testimony of potential witnesses, family history, country conditions, identity documentation, or criminal records or clearances.
After promulgation of this rule, the Department may publish additional information, such as in a fact sheet or other format, to assist the public in filing motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. Additionally, the Department will seek out opportunities to engage the public in an effort to inform individuals about the process. The Department welcomes input from the public regarding what type of information might best assist counsel and unrepresented individuals in the preparation and filing of such motions with the immigration courts and the Board as well as information and ideas on how best to engage impacted communities.
As discussed above, the evidentiary requirements in proposed § 1003.48 would guide individuals in proceedings in providing the evidence necessary for a determination of whether the counsel's conduct was ineffective, and would assist the immigration judge and the Board in making this determination.
Most circuits have required some level of compliance with
It is all too easy after the fact to denounce counsel and achieve a further delay while that issue is sorted out. And in the absence of a complaint to the bar authorities, counsel may have all too obvious an incentive to help his client disparage the quality of the representation.
The Seventh, Eighth, and Tenth Circuits have also generally required compliance, but have not yet determined whether they might overlook a lack of compliance with the
The Sixth Circuit has also required that individuals filing motions generally comply with all three
Other courts have adopted or indicated an approach under which full compliance may be excused in certain limited circumstances. In
[A]lthough
However, a few courts of appeals have gone further, excusing a lack of compliance in a greater variety of situations. Such courts have warned of the “inherent dangers . . . in applying
The Ninth Circuit has found that, in some circumstances, the individual filing the motion does not need to comply with any of the requirements in
The proposed rule would provide adjudicators with the discretion, committed exclusively to EOIR, to excuse noncompliance with the filing requirements in § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3) for compelling reasons in various limited circumstances. Collectively, the filing requirements at § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3) are designed to ensure that adjudicators have access to crucial information to help them determine whether an individual was subject to ineffective assistance of counsel and suffered prejudice. However, the Department recognizes that there are limited situations in which an individual is unable to comply with a filing requirement but can still demonstrate that he or she was subject to ineffective assistance of counsel and suffered prejudice as a result, such that it would be appropriate to grant his or her motion.
As noted above, § 1003.48(b)(1)(i) would provide that an individual filing a motion must submit an affidavit, or a written statement executed under the penalty of perjury as provided in 28 U.S.C. 1746, setting forth in detail the agreement that was entered into with respect to the actions to be taken by counsel and what representations counsel did or did not make in this regard. If the individual submits a written statement, § 1003.48(b)(1)(i) would permit the adjudicator, in an exercise of discretion committed exclusively to EOIR, to excuse the requirement that the written statement be executed under the penalty of perjury if there are compelling reasons why the written statement was not so executed and the motion is accompanied by certain other evidence. For example, if the individual is unrepresented and speaks little English, and submits a written statement that does not fully comply with the technical requirements of 28 U.S.C. 1746 for a document to be under the penalty of perjury, it may be appropriate for the adjudicator, in the exercise of discretion, to excuse for compelling reasons the requirement that the written statement be executed under the penalty of perjury. The Department expects that the waiver issue would arise almost exclusively in cases where the individual is unrepresented and is not familiar with the requirement to submit a written statement under the penalty of perjury, inasmuch as attorneys are familiar with requirements for the submission of affidavits and written statements under the penalty of perjury.
A waiver of the requirement that a written statement be executed under the penalty of perjury would be inappropriate in the absence of other evidence independently establishing that the individual was subject to ineffective assistance of counsel and suffered prejudice as a result. This approach is consistent with the general rule that assertions in a written statement that are not under the penalty of perjury would be entitled to little or no evidentiary weight.
The Department seeks comments from the public on this provision. First, the Department seeks comment on whether an individual should be required, without exception, to submit an affidavit or a written statement executed under the penalty of perjury, given that assertions in documents not under the penalty of perjury are generally given little or no evidentiary weight. If an exception should exist, the Department seeks comments on whether this exception should be formulated differently. For example, the Department has considered providing that the requirement that the written statement be executed under penalty of perjury could be excused if there is good cause to do so, or if exceptional circumstances are present. The Department seeks comments on whether either of these standards is more appropriate than the current proposed “compelling reasons” standard.
Similarly, the remaining requirements in proposed § 1003.48(b)(1)(ii)-(3),
With respect to the requirement in § 1003.48(b)(1)(ii) that an individual filing a motion submit any applicable representation agreement with prior counsel, such an agreement is the best evidence of the nature, scope, or substance of the representation. However, if an individual filing a motion can establish compelling reasons for failing to submit such an agreement, then § 1003.48(b)(1)(ii) would permit the immigration judge or the Board, in the exercise of discretion committed exclusively to EOIR, to excuse this failure if the individual filing the motion submits other reasonably available evidence regarding his or her agreement with prior counsel.
With respect to the requirement in § 1003.48(b)(2) that an individual filing a motion notify prior counsel, the Department notes that State bar associations generally make their members' contact information publicly available. Further, the requirement to notify prior counsel applies even if a long period of time has passed since a person last had contact with the counsel. However, there are limited instances in which an individual filing a motion may be able to establish compelling reasons why he or she was unable to notify prior counsel. Examples may include instances where the prior counsel is incarcerated or has moved to a foreign country, or where the prior counsel is an individual the movant reasonably but erroneously believed to be an attorney or accredited representative and, despite diligent efforts, he or she cannot obtain prior counsel's contact information.
With respect to the requirement in § 1003.48(b)(3) that an individual filing a motion file a complaint with the appropriate disciplinary authorities, this standard is informed by the fact that the filing of a disciplinary complaint is “a relatively small inconvenience for an alien who asks that he or she be given a new hearing in a system that is already stretched in terms of its adjudicatory resources.”
It is important to consider the context for ineffective assistance of counsel claims under this rulemaking. These claims will typically arise after a final order has been entered in the case, and the proceedings have ended. The Department believes that the standards for excusing noncompliance with the filing requirements under § 1003.48(b)(1)-(3) must be carefully applied. In this regard, the adjudicator applying these standards should keep in mind the strong public and governmental interests in the expeditiousness and finality of proceedings.
The proposed
This rule would set forth a single uniform standard for prejudice to be applied nationwide in ineffective assistance of counsel cases. This would ensure that individuals in similar situations would not be subject to disparate results based solely on the fact that their cases arose in different Federal jurisdictions.
As already noted, the lack of uniformity among the circuits is plain. The Sixth Circuit applies a very strict standard for evaluating prejudice in ineffective assistance of counsel immigration cases.
Several circuits apply a standard similar to that established by the Supreme Court in
At the other end of the spectrum, the Ninth Circuit deems the prejudice requirement satisfied so long as an individual can show “plausible grounds for relief” on the underlying claim.
The Department has determined that using a prejudice standard modeled after
Proposed § 1003.48(a)(3) would provide that eligibility for relief arising after proceedings have concluded ordinarily has no bearing on the prejudice determination.
The exact type of evidence that would suffice to establish a “reasonable probability” would be dependent upon the particular circumstances of a given case. The individual filing the motion would bear the burden, however, to show a reasonable probability that, but for counsel's ineffective assistance, the result of the proceeding would have been different. The individual filing the motion should submit any necessary evidence to establish prejudice, including affidavits or sworn statements from witnesses who were not previously called to testify or whose testimony was adversely impacted by the ineffectiveness of counsel, copies of vital documents that were not submitted in a timely manner, persuasive legal arguments that should have been included in missing or deficient briefs, missing applications for relief with supporting evidence, and any other evidence that serves to undermine the decision-maker's confidence in the outcome of the case.
The Department notes that proposed § 1003.48 would provide two deviations from the “reasonable probability” standard. First, the rule would provide at § 1003.48(c)(3) that an individual is prejudiced by counsel's failure to file a petition for review with a Federal circuit court of appeals if he or she had “plausible grounds for relief” before the court. To establish that he or she was so prejudiced, the individual filing the motion must explain, with reasonable specificity, the ground or grounds for the petition. Neither the adjudicators nor opposing counsel should be expected to speculate as to what issues the individuals would have raised on appeal. The requirement that the ground or grounds for the petition for review must be explained “with reasonable specificity” would allow adjudicators to consider the filing party's sophistication in deciding whether prejudice has been established. In the Department's view, while some unrepresented individuals may explain the ground or grounds for appeal in general terms, attorneys and accredited representatives should explain, in detail, the factual and legal bases for appeal.
As discussed in section C of this preamble, for a motion based on counsel's failure to file a petition for review to be granted, the individual filing the motion would first have to establish that his or her prior counsel's conduct was ineffective within the scope of the counsel's representation. If the individual does not do so, the Board could deny the motion without addressing the issue of prejudice.
The second deviation from the “reasonable probability” standard is with respect to motions to reopen
As discussed above, motions to reopen based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel must be filed in accordance with the general requirements for motions provided in section 240(c)(7) of the Act and §§ 1003.2 and 1003.23 of the regulations. With a few exceptions noted in the regulations, motions to reopen must be filed within either 90 days or 180 days of the date of entry of a final administrative order of removal or deportation. In general, a motion to reopen must be filed within 90 days of the date of entry of a final order A motion to reopen proceedings to rescind an order of removal or deportation entered
Every circuit court of appeals to have addressed the issue has recognized that equitable tolling may apply to untimely motions to reopen in some instances.
The First Circuit has not yet decided the applicability of equitable tolling to the filing deadlines for motions to reopen based upon ineffective assistance of counsel, but has assumed without deciding that tolling is available.
In those circuits that have held that equitable tolling of the filing deadlines applies, the courts have differed on the precise standard for due diligence. The Board has not adopted a uniform approach to due diligence, instead applying the law of the circuit in which the motion was filed.
With respect to the due diligence standard, some courts have emphasized that the individual filing the motion has a duty to investigate whether his or her counsel is ineffective.
There are also other considerations. Some circuits, such as the Second Circuit, have found that due diligence is required in both discovering the ineffectiveness and taking appropriate action upon discovery.
The Department has determined that it may be appropriate in certain circumstances for an immigration judge or the Board to equitably toll the filing deadlines in section 240(c)(7) of the Act and §§ 1003.2 and 1003.23 of the regulations where the basis of the motion is a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel.
The Department recognizes that some motions to rescind
As discussed above, there is variation among the courts of appeals regarding the exact standard for determining that an individual exercised due diligence in discovering ineffective assistance of counsel. While eligibility for equitable tolling will depend upon the particulars of the case, the Department seeks to promote uniformity in the due diligence standard. As such, the Department considered various standards of the courts of appeals for evaluating due diligence. For example, the Department considered standards requiring the immigration judge or the Board to determine when the individual filing the motion, acting with due diligence, definitively learned of the ineffective assistance of counsel,
The evidence required for demonstrating due diligence would vary from case to case. However, to establish due diligence, an individual would ordinarily have to present evidence that he or she timely inquired about his or her immigration status and the progress of his or her case.
The Department welcomes comments from the public on the appropriateness of including the remedy of equitable tolling and the proposed standard for assessing due diligence in the rule.
The proposed rule would add a cross-reference to new § 1003.48 in the regulations governing motions to reopen proceedings and rescind orders of removal, deportation, or exclusion entered
As has been established in Board precedent, this rule would provide that an individual may establish exceptional circumstances or reasonable cause, whichever is applicable, by demonstrating that the failure to appear was due to ineffective assistance of counsel.
As discussed above, the rule would also permit equitable tolling of the time limitations on filing of motions to reopen and rescind an
The Department and DHS have independent roles and authorities with respect to the adjudication of applications for asylum under section 208 of the Act. As a general matter, DHS asylum officers have authority to adjudicate affirmative asylum applications filed with USCIS, while the immigration judges in EOIR have authority to adjudicate the asylum applications of individuals who are the subject of proceedings before EOIR. Under section 208(a)(2)(D) of the Act, an application for asylum may be considered despite the fact that it was not filed within one year of the applicant's arrival in the United States where he or she establishes “extraordinary circumstances” relating to the delay in filing of the application. The regulations of EOIR and DHS provide a non-exclusive list of situations that could fall within the extraordinary circumstances definition and specifically provide that a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel may constitute extraordinary circumstances excusing an applicant's failure to timely file an application for asylum.
This rule proposes to amend the EOIR asylum regulations at 8 CFR 1208.4(a)(5) to incorporate some of the language used in the motion to reopen provisions in proposed § 1003.48 for extraordinary circumstances claims based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel. The provisions of the rule addressing the one-year deadline for filing for asylum will apply upon the effective date of the final rule.
The Department notes that this rule proposes to amend only the EOIR asylum regulations in 8 CFR 1208.4.
The Department has reviewed this regulation in accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 605(b)) and has determined that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The rule will not regulate “small entities,” as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
This rule will not result in the expenditure by State, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any one year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995.
This rule is not a major rule as defined by section 251 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. 5 U.S.C. 804. This rule will not result in an annual effect on the economy of $100 million or more; a major increase in costs or prices; or significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or on the ability of United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies in domestic and export markets.
The proposed rule is considered by the Department to be a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f)(4) of Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the regulation has been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review. The Department certifies that this regulation has been drafted in accordance with the principles of Executive Order 12866, section 1(b), and Executive Order 13563. Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health, and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of using the best available methods to quantify costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility.
The Department believes that this proposed rule would provide significant net benefits relating to EOIR proceedings.
This rule will not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement.
This rule meets the applicable standards set forth in sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988.
This rule does not propose new or revisions to existing “collection[s] of information” as that term is defined under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35, and its implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1320.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Immigration.
Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Immigration.
Accordingly, for the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Attorney General is proposing to amend title 8, chapter V of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 6 U.S.C. 521; 8 U.S.C. 1101, 1103, 1154, 1155, 1158, 1182, 1226, 1229, 1229a, 1229b, 1229c, 1231, 1254a, 1255, 1324d, 1330, 1361, 1362; 28 U.S.C. 509, 510, 1746; sec. 2 Reorg. Plan No. 2 of 1950; 3 CFR, 1949-1953, Comp., p. 1002; section 203 of Pub. L. 105-100, 111 Stat. 2196-200; sections 1506 and 1510 of Pub. L. 106-386, 114 Stat. 1527-29, 1531-32; section 1505 of Pub. L. 106-554, 114 Stat. 2763A-326 to -328.
(b) * * *
(4) * * *
(v)
(a)
(1)
(i) An attorney or an accredited representative as defined in part 1292; or
(ii) A person whom the individual filing the motion reasonably but erroneously believed to be an attorney or an accredited representative and who was retained to represent him or her in the proceedings before the Board or an immigration judge.
(2)
(3)
(b)
(1)
(A) There are compelling reasons why the written statement was not executed under the penalty of perjury; and
(B) The motion is accompanied by other evidence independently establishing that the individual was subject to ineffective assistance of counsel and suffered prejudice as a result.
(ii) In addition, the individual filing the motion must submit a copy of any applicable representation agreement in support of the affidavit or written statement. If no representation agreement is provided, the individual must explain its absence in the affidavit or written statement and provide any reasonably available evidence on the scope of the agreement and the reason for its absence. The Board or an immigration judge may, in an exercise of discretion committed exclusively to the agency, excuse failure to provide any applicable representation agreement in support of the affidavit or written statement if the individual establishes that there are compelling reasons for the failure to provide the representation agreement and he or she presents other reasonably available evidence regarding the agreement made with counsel.
(2)
(3)
(i) With respect to attorneys in the United States: The licensing authority of a state, possession, territory, or Commonwealth of the United States, or of the District of Columbia that has licensed the attorney to practice law.
(ii) With respect to accredited representatives: The EOIR disciplinary counsel pursuant to § 1003.104(a).
(iii) With respect to a person whom the individual reasonably but erroneously believed to be an attorney or an accredited representative and who was retained to represent him or her in proceedings: The appropriate Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency with authority over matters relating to the unauthorized practice of law or immigration-related fraud.
(4)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(d)
(i) The motion to reopen is based upon a claim of ineffective assistance of counsel;
(ii) The individual filing the motion has established that he or she exercised due diligence in discovering the ineffective assistance of counsel; and
(iii) The motion is filed within 90 days after the individual discovered the ineffective assistance of counsel.
(2) In evaluating whether an individual has established that he or she has exercised due diligence, the standard is when the ineffective assistance should have been discovered by a reasonable person in the individual's position.
(e)
8 U.S.C. 1103, 1158, 1225, 1231, 1282.
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(iii) * * *
(A) The applicant files an affidavit, or a written statement executed under the penalty of perjury as provided in 28 U.S.C. 1746, setting forth in detail the agreement that was entered into with counsel with respect to the actions to be
(B) The applicant provides evidence that he or she informed counsel whose representation is claimed to have been ineffective of the allegations leveled against him or her. The applicant must provide evidence of the date and manner in which he or she provided notice to his or her prior counsel; and include a copy of the correspondence sent to the prior counsel and the response from the prior counsel, if any, or state that no such response was received. Failure to provide the required notice to counsel may be excused, in an exercise of discretion committed exclusively to the agency, if the applicant establishes that there are compelling reasons why he or she was unable to notify counsel.
(C) The applicant files and provides a copy of the complaint filed with the appropriate disciplinary authorities with respect to any violation of counsel's ethical or legal responsibilities, and any correspondence from such authorities. Failure to provide the complaint may be excused, in an exercise of discretion committed exclusively to the agency, if the applicant establishes that there were compelling reasons why he or she was unable to notify the appropriate disciplinary authorities. The fact that counsel has already been disciplined, suspended from the practice of law, or disbarred does not, on its own, excuse the applicant from filing the required disciplinary complaint. The appropriate disciplinary authorities are as follows:
(
(
(
(D) The term “counsel,” as used in this paragraph (a)(5)(iii), only applies to the conduct of an attorney or an accredited representative as defined in part 1292 of this chapter, or a person whom the applicant reasonably but erroneously believed to be an attorney or an accredited representative and who was retained to represent him or her in proceedings before the immigration courts and the Board.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the nose wheel well is subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). This proposed AD would require modification of the nose wheel body structure; a detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure for any cracking; a surface high frequency eddy current inspection (HFEC) or an open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord and web for any cracking; and all applicable related investigative actions including repetitive inspections, and other specified and corrective actions. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in the nose wheel well structure; such cracking could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by September 12, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as widespread fatigue damage. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We received an evaluation by the DAH indicating that the nose wheel well is subject to WFD. This condition, if not corrected, could result in cracking in the nose wheel well structure; such cracking could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015. The service information describes procedures for modification of the nose wheel body structure; a detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure for any cracking; a web surface HFEC and an open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord for any cracking; and repair. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.”
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this AD requires accomplishment of repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
The compliance time for the modification specified in this proposed AD for addressing WFD was established to ensure that discrepant structure is modified before WFD develops in airplanes. Standard inspection techniques cannot be relied on to detect WFD before it becomes a hazard to flight. We will not grant any extensions of the compliance time to complete any AD-mandated service bulletin related to WFD without extensive new data that would substantiate and clearly warrant such an extension.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 107 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by September 12, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 747-100, 747-100B, 747-100B SUD, 747-200B, 747-200C, 747-200F, 747-300, 747-400, 747-400D, 747-400F, 747SR, and 747SP series airplanes, certificated in any category, identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that the nose wheel well is subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct fatigue cracking in the nose wheel well structure; such cracking could adversely affect the structural integrity of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
For groups 1 and 4 airplanes as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, modify the nose wheel body structure, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
For groups 1 and 4 airplanes on which the actions of paragraph (g) have been done: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, do a detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure for any cracking; do a surface high frequency eddy current inspection (HFEC) or an open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord and web for any cracking; and do all applicable related investigative, other specified actions, and corrective actions, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instruction of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015; except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD. Do all applicable related investigative actions, other specified actions, and corrective actions before further flight. Repeat the detailed inspection of the nose wheel body structure, and either the surface HFEC or the open hole HFEC inspection of the vertical beam outer chord, thereafter, at the applicable interval specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015.
For groups 2, 3, 5 and 6 airplanes identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015: Except as required by paragraph (j)(1) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, do a detailed inspection
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) If any crack is found during any inspection required by this AD, and Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 747-53A2887, dated December 2, 2015, specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action, and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance): Before further flight, repair using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (k) of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Seattle Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (l)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Seattle ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (k)(4)(i) and (k)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Nathan Weigand, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120S, FAA, Seattle ACO, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; phone: 425-917-6428; fax: 425-917-6590; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Data & Services Management, P.O. Box 3707, MC 2H-65, Seattle, WA 98124-2207; telephone 206-544-5000, extension 1; fax 206-766-5680; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Turbomeca S.A. Arriel 1, 1A, 1A1, 1A2, 1B, 1B2, 1C, 1C1, 1C2, 1D, 1D1, 1E, 1E2, 1K1, 1S, and 1S1 turboshaft engines. This proposed AD was prompted by an anomaly that occurred during the grinding operation required by modification TU376, which increases the clearance between the rear curvic coupling of the centrifugal impeller and the fuel injection manifold. This proposed AD would require removing the centrifugal impeller and replacing with a part eligible for installation. We are proposing this AD to prevent failure of the centrifugal impeller, uncontained centrifugal impeller release, damage to the engine, and damage to the helicopter.
We must receive comments on this NPRM by September 26, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: 33 (0)5 59 74 40 00; fax: 33 (0)5 59 74 45 15. You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Community, has issued EASA AD 2016-0090, dated May 10, 2016 (referred to hereinafter as “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for the specified products. The MCAI states:
Turbomeca reported an anomaly that was generated during the grinding operation associated to the application of modification TU376, which increases the clearance between the rear curvic coupling of the centrifugal impeller and the fuel injection manifold.
This condition, if not corrected, could lead to crack initiation and propagation in the centrifugal impeller bore area, possibly resulting in centrifugal impeller failure, with consequent damage to, and reduced control of, the helicopter. To address this potential unsafe condition, the life of the affected centrifugal impellers was reduced and Turbomeca published Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) 292 72 0848 to inform operators about the life reduction and to provide instructions for the replacement of the affected centrifugal impellers.
For the reasons described above, this AD requires replacement of each affected centrifugal impeller before it exceeds the applicable reduced life limit.
You may obtain further information by examining the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Turbomeca S.A. has issued Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) 292 72 0848, Version B, dated April 13, 2016. The MSB describes procedures for reducing the life limit of the centrifugal impellers affected by an anomaly that occurred during the grinding operation required by modification TU376. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of France, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the European Community, EASA has notified us of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all information provided by EASA and determined the unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design. This proposed AD would require removal of the centrifugal impeller from service before exceeding the reduced life limit shown in Appendix 1 of EASA AD 2016-0090, dated May 10, 2016, and replacement with a part eligible for installation.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 3 engines installed on helicopters of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it would take about 22 hours per engine to comply with this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per hour. Required parts cost about $96,518 per engine. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on U.S. operators to be $295,164.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska to the extent that it justifies making a regulatory distinction, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by September 26, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to certain Arriel 1, 1A, 1A1, 1A2, 1B, 1B2, 1C, 1C1, 1C2, 1D, 1D1, 1E, 1E2, 1K1, 1S, and 1S1 turboshaft engines, with modification TU376 installed.
This AD was prompted by an anomaly that occurred during the grinding operation required by modification TU376, which increases the clearance between the rear curvic coupling of the centrifugal impeller and the fuel injection manifold. We are issuing this AD to prevent failure of the centrifugal impeller, uncontained centrifugal impeller release, damage to the engine, and damage to the helicopter.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
(1) Remove from service, any centrifugal impeller listed in Table 1 to paragraph (e) of this AD, before exceeding the applicable cycles since new (CSN) and replace with a centrifugal impeller not listed in Table 1 to paragraph (e) of this AD.
(2) Reserved.
The Manager, Engine Certification Office, FAA, may approve AMOCs for this AD. Use the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19 to make your request. You may email your request to:
(1) For more information about this AD, contact Philip Haberlen, Aerospace Engineer, Engine Certification Office, FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA 01803; phone: 781-238-7770; fax: 781-238-7199; email:
(2) Refer to MCAI, European Aviation Safety Agency AD 2016-0090, dated May 10, 2016, for more information. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
(3) Turbomeca S.A. Mandatory Service Bulletin (MSB) 292 72 0848, Version B, dated April 13, 2016, can be obtained from Turbomeca S.A., using the contact information in paragraph (g)(4) of this proposed AD.
(4) For service information identified in this proposed AD, contact Turbomeca S.A., 40220 Tarnos, France; phone: 33 (0)5 59 74 40 00; fax: 33 (0)5 59 74 45 15.
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Engine & Propeller Directorate, 1200 District Avenue, Burlington, MA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 781-238-7125.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a determination that the protective polyurethane tapes applied to the upper surfaces of the aluminum and titanium floor structural members may not be trimmed properly, and on some places may overhang the profiles of the floor structural parts. Subsequent tests revealed that the overhanging pieces of tapes that are not bonded to the structure do not meet the flammability requirements and may allow fire propagation below the floor structure. This proposed AD would require an inspection of the polyurethane protective tapes installed on the floor structure for excess tape or incorrect tape installation, and corrective actions if necessary. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct overhanging pieces of protective polyurethane tapes, which are not bonded to the structure and do not meet the flammability requirements; this condition may allow fire propagation below the floor structure.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by September 12, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Fabio Buttitta, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe and Mechanical Systems Branch, ANE-171, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, NY 11590; telephone 516-228-7303; fax 516-794-5531.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA), which is the aviation authority for Canada, has issued Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2016-14, dated May 18, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Bombardier, Inc. Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes, Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, and Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes. The MCAI states:
An inspection revealed that the protective polyurethane tapes applied to the upper surfaces of the aluminum and titanium floor structural members installed on CRJ 700/900/1000 aeroplanes may not be trimmed properly and on some places may overhang the profiles of the floor structural parts. Subsequent tests revealed that the overhanging pieces of tapes which are not bonded to the structure, do not meet the flammability requirements. If not corrected, this condition may allow fire propagation below the floor structure.
This [Canadian] AD was issued to mandate the [detailed] inspection and removal of any excessive pieces of overhanging tape [or replacing incorrectly installed tape] found on the floor structure.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
Bombardier has issued Service Bulletin 670BA-53-055, dated December 3, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspecting the polyurethane protective tapes for any excess tape or incorrect tape installation on the floor structure and corrective actions, which include removing any excess tape or replacing any incorrect tape installation found. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 569 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
The repair is done at the same time as the inspection. Therefore, we have not specified separate on-condition repair costs.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by September 12, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to the Bombardier, Inc. airplanes identified in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), and (c)(3) of this AD, certificated in any category.
(1) Model CL-600-2C10 (Regional Jet Series 700, 701, & 702) airplanes, serial numbers 10002 through 10342 inclusive.
(2) Model CL-600-2D15 (Regional Jet Series 705) airplanes and Model CL-600-2D24 (Regional Jet Series 900) airplanes, serial numbers 15001 through 15347 inclusive.
(3) Model CL-600-2E25 (Regional Jet Series 1000) airplanes, serial numbers 19001 through 19040 inclusive.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by a determination that the protective polyurethane tapes applied to the upper surfaces of the aluminum and titanium floor structural members may not be trimmed properly, and on some places may overhang the profiles of the floor structural parts. Subsequent tests revealed that the overhanging pieces of tapes that are not bonded to the structure do not meet the flammability requirements and may allow fire propagation below the floor structure. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct overhanging pieces of protective polyurethane tapes, which are not bonded to the structure and do not meet the flammability requirements; this condition may allow fire propagation below the floor structure.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 12,600 flight hours after the effective date of this AD: Do a detailed visual inspection for excess tape or incorrect tape installation of the polyurethane protective tapes installed between floor panels and floor structure between fuselage station (FS) 280.00 and FS969.00; and do all applicable corrective actions; in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-53-055, dated December 3, 2015, except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD. Do all applicable corrective actions before further flight.
Where Bombardier Service Bulletin 670BA-53-055, dated December 3, 2015, specifies to contact Bombardier, Inc., to “get an approved disposition to complete this service bulletin,” before further flight, repair using a method approved by the Manager, New York ACO, ANE-170, FAA; or Transport Canada Civil Aviation (TCCA); or Bombardier, Inc.'s TCCA Design Approval Organization (DAO).
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) Canadian Airworthiness Directive CF-2016-14, dated May 18, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Bombardier, Inc., 400 Côte-Vertu Road West, Dorval, Québec H4S 1Y9, Canada; telephone 514-855-5000; fax 514-855-7401; email
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) proposes to incorporate by reference the latest version (Version 003.1) of certain Standards for Business Practices and Communication Protocols for Public Utilities adopted by the Wholesale Electric Quadrant (WEQ) of the North American Energy Standards Board (NAESB). These standards mainly modify and update NAESB's WEQ Version 003 Standards. The Commission also proposes to revise its regulations to incorporate NAESB's updated Smart Grid Business Practice Standards in the Commission's General Policy and Interpretations.
Comments are due September 26, 2016.
Comments, identified by Docket No. RM05-5-025, may be filed in the following ways:
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1. In this notice of proposed rulemaking (NOPR), the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) proposes to amend its regulations under the Federal Power Act
2. These revised NAESB standards update earlier versions of these standards that the Commission previously incorporated by reference into its regulations at 18 CFR 38.1 in
3. NAESB's WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards include modifications to the following set of existing standards:
4. Additionally, the Version 003.1 standards include two new suites of standards:
5. These NAESB standards, developed through the NAESB standards development process or the NAESB minor correction process, build upon the Version 003 WEQ Business Practice Standards that NAESB filed with the Commission on September 18, 2012 and that the Commission incorporated by reference into its regulations in Order No. 676-H, a final rule issued by the Commission on September 18, 2014.
6. NAESB is a non-profit standards development organization established in late 2001 (as the successor to the Gas Industry Standards Board (GISB), which was established in 1994) and serves as an industry forum for the development of business practice standards and communication protocols for the wholesale and retail natural gas and electricity industry sectors. Since 1995, NAESB and its predecessor, the GISB, have been accredited members of the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), complying with ANSI's requirements that its standards reflect a consensus of the affected industries.
7. NAESB's standards include business practices intended to standardize and streamline the transactional processes of the natural gas and electric industries, as well as communication protocols and related standards designed to improve the efficiency of communication within each industry. NAESB supports all three quadrants of the gas and electric industries—wholesale gas, wholesale electric, and retail markets quadrant.
8. NAESB develops its standards under a consensus process so that the standards draw support from a wide range of industry members. NAESB's procedures are designed to ensure that all persons choosing to participate can have input into the development of a standard, regardless of whether they are members of NAESB, and each standard NAESB adopts is supported by a consensus of the relevant industry segments. Standards that fail to gain consensus support are not adopted. NAESB's consistent practice has been to submit a report to the Commission after it has made revisions to existing business practice standards or has developed and adopted new business practice standards. NAESB's standards are voluntary standards, which become mandatory for public utilities upon incorporation by reference by the Commission.
9. In Order No. 676,
10. The WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards include six OASIS-related standards
11. In addition, as part of the standards development process, NAESB made two additional revisions to the OASIS suite of standards that were not made in response to Commission orders. First, NAESB modified WEQ-001 and WEQ-013 to require resellers to enter off-OASIS resale transactions into OASIS sites in the “accepted” status to provide the assignee of the resale the opportunity to confirm the transaction on the OASIS. Second, NAESB revised WEQ-002-4.3.6.2 to allow for the unmasking of the source and sink of a request for transmission when that request is moved to any final state.
12. NAESB has adopted certain new and revised WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards based on developments involving NERC. First, NAESB developed the WEQ-022 Electric Industry Registry (EIR) Business Practice Standards to complement the transfer of registry functions from the NERC TSIN to the NAESB EIR. The EIR database serves as a central repository of information required for commercial interactions, including electronic transactions via e-Tags. Second, NAESB developed the WEQ-023 Modeling Business Practice Standards in response to a NERC petition to delete and retire the six “MOD A” Reliability Standards. As mentioned above, NERC filed a petition with the Commission on February 10, 2014 proposing to retire NERC's six MOD A Reliability Standards and replace them with Reliability Standard MOD-001-2, which NERC states will focus exclusively on the reliability aspects of ATC and AFC.
13. Third, NAESB has adopted revisions to NAESB standards that need to match up with NERC's Interchange Scheduling and Coordination (INT) Reliability Standards. In this regard, NAESB modified certain WEQ-000 and WEQ-004 Business Practice Standards to complement NERC's proposal to modify the INT Reliability Standards, including removal of the Load Serving Entity (LSE) category as one of the functional registration categories in the NERC Compliance Registry.
14. NAESB also includes as part of its Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards additional non-OASIS standards modifications to WEQ Version 003.1 that it made in the course of normal standards development. In Order No. 764, the Commission required transmission providers to provide for the scheduling of interchange in 15-minute intervals. In response, NAESB made two changes to the WEQ-004 Coordinate Interchange Business Practice Standards. NAESB also modified WEQ-019 to ensure consistency between WEQ Business Practice Standards and other standards organizations' standards. Additionally, NAESB modified WEQ-000 to harmonize definitions with NAESB Retail Market Quadrant efforts.
15. In Order 676-H, the Commission incorporated by reference WEQ Business Practice Standards to support Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). The WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards include additional PKI modifications to WEQ-002, WEQ-004, and WEQ-012 to support the NAESB Authorized Certification Authority (Certification Authority) Certification Program and to account for technological advances.
16. NAESB also has in place a process to make necessary minor corrections to its standards, when needed. The WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards include seven new minor corrections made by NAESB.
17. As discussed below, with certain enumerated exceptions, we propose to incorporate by reference (into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1(b)) the NAESB WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
18. The NAESB WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards contain six modifications to the OASIS suite of standards that NAESB developed to ensure consistency with certain policies articulated by the Commission in Order Nos. 676-H, 676-E, and 890. NAESB states that four of the six modifications align the OASIS suite of standards with guidance provided by the Commission in Order No. 676-H concerning the treatment of redirects for transmission service from conditional parent reservations, the one-day requirement for the posting of ATC Narratives, the treatment of point-to-point reservations under SAMTS, and new clarification of the requirements under which a transmission provider may deny a request to terminate service. In response to a directive in Order No. 676-E, NAESB also modified standards to explicitly permit a transmission provider to extend the performance of the biennial reassessment. Additionally, to implement the Commission's guidance provided in Order No. 890, NAESB modified pertinent standards to allow for the consistent posting of AFC-related data on OASIS sites.
19. In Order No. 676-H, the Commission declined to incorporate by reference NAESB Standards WEQ-001-9.5 and WEQ-001-10.5. The Version 003.0 WEQ-001-9.5 stated that, “upon confirmation of the request to Redirect on a firm basis, the Capacity Available to Redirect shall be reduced by the amount of the redirected capacity granted for the time period of that Redirect.” The Version 003.0 WEQ-001-10.5 contained nearly identical language relating to the confirmation of requests to redirect on a non-firm basis. The Commission explained that it found both of these standards inconsistent with the Commission's precedent in
20. As the Commission stated in
21. Having NAESB revise its standards to accommodate the Commission's policy in this area will help avoid confusion by public utilities as to their responsibilities under the Commission's policy and under the NAESB standards. The Commission's concern in
22. We appreciate the extensive work that NAESB and its stakeholder have undertaken in response to our directive in Order 676-H. NAESB has reached consensus on standards relating to redirects related to unconditional parent reservations, and we propose to incorporate those standards by reference into our regulations.
23. NAESB reports, however, that it was unsure whether and to what extent the
24. The concern about the negative effects of the potential loss of the customer's parent path when the parent reservation is conditional and subject to competition arguably is much less compelling than when the parent reservation is unconditional. While
25. We, therefore, invite comment on whether the Commission should apply the
26. NAESB developed Standard WEQ-001-14 to meet the requirement
27. NAESB's revised standards appear consistent with our findings in Order No. 676-H and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Moreover, as we explained above,
28. The NAESB SAMTS business practice standards that the Commission incorporated by reference in Order No. 676-H were developed in response to a Commission finding in Order No. 890 requesting that NAESB develop business practice standards in this area.
29. The Commission finds that NAESB's revised standards are consistent with our findings in Order No. 676-H and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revised standards on SAMTS-Related standards as set forth in the WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
30. In Order No. 676-H, the Commission declined to incorporate by reference Standard WEQ-001-106.2.5, explaining that the standard was “unclear in its application and could be read to allow Transmission Providers discretion to deny requests to terminate service in situations where this might not be warranted.”
31. NAESB's revised standards appear consistent with our findings in Order No. 676-H and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revised Standards WEQ-WEQ-001-106.2.21, WEQ-001-106.2.1.1, and WEQ-001-106.2.5, as set forth in the WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
32. In Order No. 676-E, the Commission stated “we reiterate here the Commission's finding in Order No. 890 that a transmission provider is permitted to extend the timeframe to reassess the availability of conditional firm service. Since the Version 002.1 Standards do not specifically address this issue, we would ask the industry, working through NAESB, to continue to look at additional business practice standards facilitating a transmission provider's extension of its right to perform a reassessment.”
33. NAESB's revised standards appear consistent with our findings in Order No. 676-E and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to five standards to extend the deadline by which a transmission provider must perform its biennial reassessment of the availability on its system of conditional firm service, as set forth in the WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
34. In Order No. 890-A, the Commission explained that “[t]o the extent MidAmerican or its customers find it beneficial also to post AFC, MidAmerican is free to post both ATC and AFC values.”
35. NAESB's revised standards appear consistent with our findings in Order No. 890-A and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to the data elements in the OASIS Data Dictionary and to the data OASIS Template in Standard WEQ-013 to provide an industry-wide mechanism for posting of AFC-related data, as set forth in the WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
36. In Order No. 768, the Commission eliminated the requirement to use DUNS numbers
37. NAESB's revised standards appear consistent with the Commission's findings in Order No. 768 and do not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to Standard WEQ-002-4.3.6.2.
38. The WEQ Version 003.1 standards include modifications to the WEQ-004 Coordinate Interchange Business Practice Standards to include in the EIR items eliminated by NERC, in Docket No. RR15-4-000, from the NERC Compliance Registry including the elimination of the LSE, the Purchase Selling Entity, and the Interchange Authority roles. This proposal was accepted by the Commission in orders issued on March 19, 2015
39. On November 13, 2012, the NAESB EIR replaced the NERC TSIN as the industry registry, a tool previously used by wholesale electric markets to help them develop e-Tags for electronic scheduling. Thus, the NAESB EIR is now the tool the industry uses to support OASIS users in the electronic scheduling of transactions by acting as the central repository for information used by the wholesale electric industry in the creation of e-Tags. The WEQ-004 Coordinate Interchange Business Practice Standards and e-Tag Functional Specifications and Schema provide the commercial framework for e-Tagging. The new WEQ-022 EIR Business Practice Standards establish business practices for the NAESB EIR and provide guidance for registry users.
40. NAESB's revised Standard WEQ-004 appears reasonable and does not appear inconsistent with any Commission directives or findings in other orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revised Standard WEQ-004 as set forth in the WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards.
41. WEQ's Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards includes a new suite of standards, the WEQ-023 Modeling Business Practice Standards, which address technical issues affecting the calculation of ATC for wholesale electric transmission services. NAESB developed these Modeling standards after NERC proposed to retire the bulk of its MOD A Reliability Standards, which address ATC calculation, and NERC requested that NAESB consider developing replacement Business Practice Standards for requirements that NERC identified as being potentially relevant for commercial purposes.
42. The Commission is considering NERC's proposed retirement of its ATC-related Reliability Standards in Docket No. RM14-7-000. In addition, the Commission has established a proceeding in Docket No. AD15-5-000 to consider proposed changes to the calculation of ATC, and has conducted a technical conference and received comments regarding such changes.
43. In addition to the standards revisions that NAESB made to comply with various Commission directives and requests, NAESB also developed and adopted five revisions to the Business Practice Standards at its own initiative. These revisions: (1) Introduce a requirement for resellers to post off-OASIS resale transactions on the OASIS in the “accepted” status to provide the assignee of the resale the opportunity to confirm the transaction on the OASIS; (2) allow for the unmasking of the source and sink of a request for transmission service, once that request is moved to any final state; (3) modify the Commission's existing non-mandatory guidance on Smart Grid standards; (4) modify the WEQ Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Definition of Terms in Standard WEQ-000 to maintain consistency between the defined terms used in the NAESB standards, including revisions to the
44. NAESB's WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards include a revision to the WEQ-013 OASIS Implementation Guide Business Practice Standards to allow off-OASIS resale transactions to be posted directly to the OASIS under an “accepted” status. Prior to the modification to WEQ-013-2.6.7.2, these transactions were posted only as confirmed transactions. NAESB has also adopted a revision to the WEQ-001 OASIS Business Practice Standards (WEQ-013-2.6.7.2) as a conforming change requiring a service agreement between an assignee and a transmission provider to be executed once the assignee has confirmed the resale transaction on the OASIS.
45. NAESB's revised standards on this subject appear reasonable and do not appear inconsistent with any directives or findings in any Commission orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to Standard WEQ-013-2.6.7.2 and to the WEQ-013 OASIS Implementation Guide Standards.
46. NAESB's WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards modify Standard WEQ-002-4.3.6.2 to unmask the source and sink for a request for transmission service for all instances where the request for transmission service is moved to any final state. Prior to this modification, masking of the source and sink of a request for transmission service was permitted until the status of that request was confirmed.
47. NAESB's revised standards appear reasonable and do not appear inconsistent with any directives or findings in any Commission order. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to Standard WEQ-002-4.3.6.2.
48. In Order 676-H, the Commission recognized the values of the Smart Grid standards and encouraged “further developments in interoperability, technological innovation and standardization in this area.” In Order No. 676-H, the Commission adopted in its regulations as non-mandatory guidance five Smart Grid related standards: (1) WEQ-016 Specifications for Common Electricity Product and Pricing Definition Business Practice Standards; (2) WEQ-017 Specifications for Common Schedule Communication Mechanism for Energy Transactions; (3) WEQ-018 Specifications for Wholesale Standard Demand Response Signals Business Practice Standards; (4) WEQ-019 Customer Energy Usage Information Communication Business Practice Standards; and (5) WEQ-020 Smart Grid Standards Data Elements Table Business Practice Standards. This guidance is published in the
49. In its Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards, NAESB has modified the Standard WEQ-019 Customer Energy Usage Information Communication Business Practice Standards. NAESB made this modification so that the revised standard will operate in harmony with other smart grid standards, including the Smart Energy Profile 2.0, the International Electrotechnical Commission Information Model, the NAESB REQ.21 Energy Service Providers Interface, and standards developed by the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, and Air-Conditioning Engineers.
50. Standard WEQ-019 provides for energy usage information and this revision allows consumers access to their energy usage information. These standards will not only be used by the wholesale electric industry, but also are important initiatives for use in ongoing utility programs for consumer data access. We, therefore, propose to revise our non-mandatory guidance that we listed in 18 CFR 2.27(d) to reference NAESB's updated Standard WEQ-019 as set out in the Version 003.1 package of WEQ Business Practice Standards, replacing the existing reference in 18 CFR 2.27(d) to Standard WEQ-019 as set out in the Version 003 WEQ Business Practice Standards.
51. Also included in Version 003.1 is a modification to WEQ Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Definition of Terms in Standard WEQ-000 to maintain consistency between the defined terms used in the NAESB standards, and modified the terms “Demand Reduction Value” and “Energy Efficiency” to mirror definitions proposed by the Retail Market Quadrant and prevent industry confusion.
52. NAESB's revised standards appear reasonable and do not appear inconsistent with any directives or findings in any Commission orders. Accordingly, we propose to incorporate by reference, into the Commission's regulations at 18 CFR 38.1, NAESB's revisions to Standard WEQ-000.
53. NAESB includes three modifications to support the WEQ-012 PKI Business Practice Standards previously incorporated by reference by the Commission in Order No. 676-H.
54. NAESB modified five standards and added three standards WEQ-002, which require the use of a certificate issued by a NAESB Certification Authority to access an OASIS site and include requirements related to support the implementation of PKI on OASIS sites as well as revisions to reflect the transmission of the registry from the NERC TSI to the NAESB EIR. NAESB includes one new standard, WEQ-004-2.3, which requires all e-Tagging communication to be secured by certifications issued by a NAESB Certification Authority. NAESB also includes modifications to WEQ-000 for consistency purposes.
55. In Order No. 676-H, the Commission incorporated by reference the WEQ-012 PKI Business Practice Standards. In Version 003.1, NAESB has filed three modifications to support these standards, requesting that the Commission also incorporate by reference these modifications. We propose to incorporate these revised standards by reference into the Commission's regulations. These revised standards will require public utilities to conduct transactions securely when using the internet and will eliminate confusion over which transactions involving public utilities must follow the approved PKI procedures to secure their transactions. The revisions support the NAESB Authorized Certification Authority (ACA) Certification Program and account for technological advances following the original adoption of the standards by NAESB.
56. Consistent with the policy that we introduced in Order No. 676-H,
57. The NAESB WEQ Version 003.1 Business Practice Standards were adopted by NAESB under NAESB's consensus procedures.
58. Office of Management and Budget Circular A-119 (section 11) (February 10, 1998) provides that Federal Agencies should publish a request for comment in a NOPR when the agency is seeking to issue or revise a regulation proposing to adopt a voluntary consensus standard or a government-unique standard. In this NOPR, the Commission is proposing to incorporate by reference voluntary consensus standards developed by the WEQ of NAESB.
59. The Office of the Federal Register requires agencies incorporating material by reference in final rules to discuss, in the preamble of the final rule, the ways that the materials it incorporates by reference are reasonably available to interested parties and how interested parties can obtain the materials.
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60. Our regulations provide that copies of the NAESB standards incorporated by reference may be obtained from the North American
61. NAESB is a private consensus standards developer that develops voluntary wholesale and retail standards related to the energy industry. The procedures used by NAESB make its standards reasonably available to those affected by the Commission regulations, which generally is comprised of entities that have the means to acquire the information they need to effectively participate in Commission proceedings.
62. The following collection of information contained in this proposed rule is subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507(d).
63. The Commission solicits comments on the Commission's need for this information, whether the information will have practical utility, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondents' burden, including the use of automated information techniques.
64. The following burden estimate is based on the projected costs for the industry to implement the new and revised business practice standards adopted by NAESB and proposed to be incorporated by reference in this NOPR.
The estimated
• FERC-516E: 132 entities * 1 response/entity * (6 hours/response * $74.50/hour) = $57,024.
• FERC-717: 132 entities * 1 response/entity * (30 hours/response * $74.50/hour) = $285,120.
65.
66.
67. Interested persons may obtain information on the reporting requirements by contacting the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Office of the Executive Director, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426 [Attn: Ellen Brown, email:
68. Comments concerning the information collections proposed in this NOPR and the associated burden estimates should be sent to the Commission at this docket and by email to the Office of Management and Budget, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs [Attention: Desk Officer for the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission]. For security reasons, comments should be sent by email to OMB at the following email address:
69. The Commission is required to prepare an Environmental Assessment or an Environmental Impact Statement for any action that may have a significant adverse effect on the human environment.
70. The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA)
71. The Small Business Administration (SBA) revised its size standards (effective January 22, 2014) for electric utilities from a standard based on megawatt hours to a standard based on the number of employees, including affiliates. Under SBA's standards, some transmission owners will fall under the following category and associated size threshold: Electric bulk power transmission and control, at 500 employees.
72. The Commission estimates that 5 of the 132 respondents are small. The Commission estimates that the impact on these entities is consistent with the paperwork burden of $2,682 per entity used above.
73. Based on the above, the Commission certifies that implementation of the proposed Business Practice Standards will not have a significant impact on a substantial number of small entities. Accordingly, no initial regulatory flexibility analysis is required.
74. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments on the matters and issues proposed in this notice to be adopted, including any related matters or alternative proposals that commenters may wish to discuss. Comments are due September 26, 2016. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM05-5-025 and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
75. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
76. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
77. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
78. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
79. From the Commission's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and/or downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number excluding the last three digits of this document in the docket number field.
80. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's Web site during normal business hours from the
Electric utilities, Guidance and policy statements.
Conflict of interests, Electric power plants, Electric utilities, Incorporation by reference, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
By direction of the Commission.
In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission proposes to amend parts 2 and 38, chapter I, title 18, Code of Federal Regulations, as follows:
5 U.S.C. 601; 15 U.S.C. 717-717z, 3301-3432, 16 U.S.C. 792-828c, 2601-2645; 42 U.S.C. 4321-4370h, 7101-7352.
(d) WEQ-019, Customer Energy Usage Information Communication (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015); and
16 U.S.C. 791-825r, 2601-2645; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352.
(b) The business practice and electronic communication standards the Commission incorporates by reference are as follows:
(1) WEQ-000, Abbreviations, Acronyms, and Definition of Terms (Version 003.1, Sep., 30, 2015);
(2) WEQ-001, Open Access Same-Time Information System (OASIS), OASIS Version 2.1 (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015) with the exception of Standards 001-9.5, 001-10.5, 001-14.1.3, 001-15.1.2 and 001-106.2.5);
(3) WEQ-002, Open Access Same-Time Information System (OASIS) Business Practice Standards and Communication Protocols (S&CP), OASIS Version 2.1 (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(4) WEQ-003, Open Access Same-Time Information System (OASIS) Data Dictionary Business Practice Standards, OASIS Version 2.1 (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(5) WEQ-004, Coordinate Interchange (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(6) WEQ-005, Area Control Error (ACE) Equation Special Cases (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(7) WEQ-006, Manual Time Error Correction (WEQ Version 003, Sep. 30, 2015);
(8) WEQ-007, Inadvertent Interchange Payback (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(9) WEQ-008, Transmission Loading Relief (TLR)—Eastern Interconnection (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(10) WEQ-011, Gas/Electric Coordination (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(11) WEQ-012, Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(12) WEQ-013, Open Access Same-Time Information System (OASIS) Implementation Guide, OASIS Version 2.1 (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(13) WEQ-015, Measurement and Verification of Wholesale Electricity Demand Response (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015);
(14) WEQ-021, Measurement and Verification of Energy Efficiency Products (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015).
(15) WEQ-022, Electric Industry Registry Business Practice Standards (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015); and
(16) WEQ-023, Modeling Business Practice Standards (WEQ Version 003.1, Sep. 30, 2015).
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.
Withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking and termination of rulemaking proceeding.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is withdrawing its proposal to amend its regulations to require each regional transmission organization and independent system operator to electronically deliver to the Commission, on an ongoing basis, data required from its market participants that would: Identify the market participants by means of a common alpha-numeric identifier; list their “Connected Entities;” and describe in brief the nature of the relationship of each Connected Entity. The Commission is also concurrently issuing a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in Docket No. RM16-17-000, which supersedes this proposal.
The notice of proposed rulemaking published on September 29, 2015, at 80 FR 58382, is withdrawn as of July 28, 2016.
Jamie Marcos, Office of Enforcement, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-6628,
1. On September 17, 2015, the Commission issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR) in this proceeding.
2. In the NOPR, the Commission proposed to amend its regulations to require each regional transmission organization and independent system operator to electronically deliver to the Commission, on an ongoing basis, data required from its market participants that would: (i) Identify the market participants by means of a common alpha-numeric identifier; (ii) list their “Connected Entities,” which included entities that have certain ownership, employment, debt, or contractual relationships with the market participants; and (iii) describe in brief the nature of the relationship of each Connected Entity. The Commission proposed to collect such information to assist with its screening and investigative efforts to detect market manipulation. The Commission has since developed a new proposal, as reflected in the concurrently issued Data Collection NOPR, which is substantially narrower than the proposal in the instant NOPR, and streamlines and consolidates the collection of market-based rate information with new information proposed to be collected for analytics and surveillance purposes. Among other things, in the Data Collection NOPR, the Commission proposes to require market-based rate sellers and certain market participants in Commission-jurisdictional organized electric markets to submit certain, defined information about their financial and legal connections to other entities. While the Data Collection NOPR proposes to collect similar information to that which was proposed in the NOPR in this proceeding, this new proposal presents substantial revisions, thereby superseding the proposal in the instant NOPR.
3. The Commission therefore withdraws the NOPR and terminates this rulemaking proceeding.
By direction of the Commission.
Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.
Withdrawal of notice of proposed rulemaking and termination of rulemaking proceeding.
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is withdrawing its proposal to amend its regulations to clarify the scope of ownership information that sellers seeking to obtain or retain market-based rate authority must provide. The Commission is also concurrently issuing a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking in Docket No. RM16-17-000, which supersedes this proposal.
The notice of proposed rulemaking published on December 24, 2015, at 80 FR 80302, is withdrawn as of July 28, 2016.
1. On December 17, 2015, the Commission issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NOPR) in this proceeding.
2. In the NOPR, the Commission proposed to amend its regulations to clarify the scope of ownership information that sellers seeking to obtain or retain market-based rate authority must provide. The Commission has since developed a new proposal, as reflected in a concurrently issued NOPR (Data Collection NOPR),
3. The Commission therefore withdraws the NOPR and terminates this rulemaking proceeding.
By the Commission.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to amend the Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (DBE) program. These proposed amendments will improve the practical utility of the program, minimize burden, and clarify requirements that have been the subject of questions from recipients of EPA financial assistance and from disadvantaged business enterprises. These revisions are in accordance with the requirements of the Federal laws that govern the EPA DBE program.
Comments must be received on or before August 29, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OA-2006-0278, at
Teree Henderson, Office of the Administrator, Office of Small Business Programs (mail code: 1230A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-2222; fax number: 202-566-0548; email address:
The Agency has published a direct final rule in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Any parties interested in commenting must do so at this time. For further information, please contact the persons in the
Environmental protection, Grant programs.
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
On December 12, 2012, the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality (ODEQ) submitted, on behalf of the Governor of Oregon, a State Implementation Plan (SIP) submission to address violations of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for particulate matter with an aerodynamic diameter of less than or equal to a nominal 2.5 micrometers in diameter (PM
Comments must be received on or before August 29, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R10-OAR-2013-0004 at
Christi Duboiski at (360) 753-9081,
Throughout this document, wherever “we”, “us” or “our” are used, it is intended to refer to the EPA.
On July 18, 1997, the EPA promulgated the 1997 PM
On October 17, 2006, the EPA strengthened the 24-hour PM
On January 4, 2013, the D.C. Circuit Court issued a decision in
Prior to the January 4, 2013
The ODEQ submitted an attainment plan for the Oakridge NAA on December 12, 2012. The plan included measures intended to demonstrate attainment of the 2006 PM
With respect to the requirements for attainment plans for the PM
The CAA requirements of subpart 1 for attainment plans include: (i) The section 172(c)(1) requirements for reasonably available control measures (RACM), reasonably available control technology (RACT) and attainment demonstrations; (ii) the section 172(c)(2) requirement to demonstrate reasonable further progress (RFP); (iii) the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories; (iv) the section 172(c)(5) requirements for a nonattainment new source review (NSR) permitting program; and (v) the section 172(c)(9) requirement for contingency measures.
The CAA subpart 4 requirements for moderate areas are generally comparable with the subpart 1 requirements and include: (i) The section 189(a)(1)(A) NSR permit program requirements; (ii) the section 189(a)(1)(B) requirements for attainment demonstration; (iii) the section 189(a)(1)(C) requirements for RACM; and (iv) the section 189(c) requirements for RFP and quantitative milestones. In addition, under subpart 4 the moderate area attainment date is as expeditiously as practicable but no later than the end of the 6th calendar year after designation.
The LRAPA, in coordination with ODEQ, developed the 2012 SIP submission for the Oakridge NAA that was subsequently adopted by the State and submitted by the ODEQ to the EPA. The following describes the relevant contents of the 2012 SIP submission, the 2016 SIP withdrawal, and the EPA's
The 2012 SIP submission included provisions that address the requirements of an attainment plan for a moderate PM
The 2016 SIP withdrawal included the State's withdrawal of the following 2012 SIP submission provisions:
• OAR 340-200-0040—General Air Pollution Procedures and Definitions; the adopted and amended version of the rules and Redline/strikeout version of the adopted and amended rules.
• The LRAPA's Title 29—Designation of Air Quality Areas; the adopted and amended version of the rules and redline/strikeout version of the adopted and amended rules
The state withdrew OAR-340-200-0040, portions of the LRAPA Title 29, Title 38 and the Smoke Management Directive because they were not intended to be included in the SIP submission.
The 2012 SIP submission contained revised portions of the LRAPA Title 29, “Designation of Air Quality Areas” (29-0010(10) and 29-0030) adopted on October 18, 2012 that identify and describe the Oakridge PM
Section 172(c)(3) of the CAA requires the development of emissions inventories for nonattainment areas. In addition, the planning and associated modeling requirements set forth in CAA section 189(a) make the development of an accurate and up-to-date emissions inventory a critical element of any viable attainment plan. EPA guidance specifies the best practices for developing emission inventories for PM
The EPA has reviewed the base year emission inventory and believes it satisfies the CAA section 172(c)(3) requirement for a comprehensive, accurate and current inventory of actual 2008 emissions of the relevant pollutants in the Oakridge NAA. Thus, the EPA proposes to approve the base year emission inventory in the 2012 SIP submittal.
The 2012 SIP submittal included a projected 2014 attainment year emissions inventory that supported attainment by December 2014. The 2014 attainment year emissions inventory included the same source categories as the 2008 base year. Emissions in the 2014 attainment year inventory were adjusted to account for emissions increases due to anticipated growth between 2008 and 2014 and emissions decreases from implementation of the control strategies identified in the RACM analysis.
Due to the fact that the Oakridge NAA failed to attain the PM
The general SIP planning requirements for nonattainment areas under subpart 1 include section 172(c)(1), which requires implementation of all RACM (including RACT). The language of section 172(c) requires that attainment plans provide for the implementation of RACM (including RACT) to provide for attainment of the NAAQS. Therefore, what constitutes RACM and RACT is related to what is necessary for attainment in a given area.
Subpart 4 also requires states to develop attainment plans that evaluate potential control measures and impose RACM and RACT on sources within a moderate nonattainment area that are necessary to expeditiously attain the NAAQS. Section 189(a)(1)(C) requires that moderate nonattainment plans provide for implementation of RACM and RACT no later than four years after the area is designated as nonattainment. As with subpart 1, the terms RACM and RACT are not defined within subpart 4. Nor do the provisions of subpart 4 specify how states are to meet the RACM and RACT requirements. However, the EPA's longstanding guidance in the General Preamble provides recommendations for determining which control measures constitute RACM and RACT for purposes of meeting the statutory requirements of subpart 4. 57 FR 13540-41.
For both RACM and RACT, the EPA notes that an overarching principle is that if a given control measure is not needed to attain the relevant NAAQS in a given area as expeditiously as practicable, then that control measure would not be required as RACM or RACT because it would not be reasonable to impose controls that are not in fact needed for attainment purposes. Accordingly, a RACM and RACT analysis is a process to identify emissions sources, evaluate potential emissions controls, and impose those control measures and technologies that are reasonable and necessary to bring the area into attainment as expeditiously as practicable, but by no later than the applicable attainment date for the area. However, the EPA has long-applied a policy that states evaluate the combined effect of reasonably available control measures that were not necessary to demonstrate attainment by the statutory attainment, and if they collectively advance the attainment date by at least one-year the measures should be adopted to satisfy the statutory requirement that attainment be as expeditious as practicable (80 FR 15369).
The LRAPA provided a RACM and RACT analysis in Appendix J of the 2012 SIP submission. The submission explained that residential wood combustion (RWC) sources (
Emissions from RWC for winter home heating has been a long-standing air pollution problem for the Oakridge NAA, first identified when EPA designated the area nonattainment for the PM
• RWC curtailment during adverse meteorological conditions and air quality advisories are issued: Oakridge City ordinance 889;
• Motor vehicle emission reductions due to federal emissions requirements; and,
• Woodstove change outs of uncertified stoves to EPA certified stoves since 2008.
In its RACT analysis, the LRAPA identified two industrial stationary sources in the nonattainment area, a rock crusher and ready-mix concrete plant, which are described as minor sources of direct and precursor emissions for purposes of PM
In the 2012 SIP submission, the LRAPA reviewed the two stationary sources and determined that the air pollution control technology installed on these sources are the current standard for the industry. The rock crusher controls emissions of PM
The measures selected and implemented by the LRAPA to meet RACM including RACT requirements did not provide for attainment of the PM
Section 189(a)(1)(B) requires that a PM
All attainment demonstrations must project air quality below the standard using air quality modeling. The ODEQ submitted a modeled demonstration that is consistent with the recommendations contained in the EPA's modeling guidance document “Guidance on the Use of Models and Other Analyses for Demonstrating Attainment of Air Quality Goals for Ozone, PM
The LRAPA used a proportional “roll-forward” model to project air quality levels into the future. The linear model the LRAPA used for the Oakridge NAA considered the concentrations of individual chemical species analyzed from the PM
The attainment demonstration starts with estimating the baseline design value for PM
Quality-assured and certified ambient air monitoring data from the Willamette Activity Center monitoring site from 2012 through 2014, yields a design value of 40 µg/m
For PM
In the 2012 SIP submission, the LRAPA did not address RFP and quantitative milestone requirements. The 2012 SIP submission projected attainment of the 2006 PM
Section 172(c)(9) of the CAA requires that an attainment plan provide for implementation of specific contingency measures in the event that an area fails to attain a standard by its applicable attainment date, or fails to meet RFP. These measures should consist of other available control measures not included in the control strategy and must be fully adopted rules or measures that take effect without any further action by the state or the EPA. Contingency measures should also contain trigger mechanisms and an implementation schedule, and should provide for emission reductions equivalent to one year's worth of RFP (57 FR 13498).
While the LRAPA discussed contingency measures in the 2012 SIP submission, the ordinance enacting the contingency measures was not included in the SIP submission. Because the regulatory text of the contingency measures was not included in the 2012 SIP submission, the EPA is proposing to disapprove the 2012 SIP submission with respect to the contingency measure requirements of the CAA.
Section 176(c) of the CAA requires federal actions in nonattainment and maintenance areas to “conform to” the goals of SIPs. This means that such actions will not cause or contribute to violations of a NAAQS, worsen the severity of an existing violation, or delay timely attainment of any NAAQS or any interim milestone. Actions involving Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) or Federal Transit Administration (FTA) funding or approval are subject to the transportation conformity rule (40 CFR part 93, subpart A). Under this rule, metropolitan planning organizations (MPOs) in nonattainment and maintenance areas coordinate with state air quality and transportation agencies, the EPA, and the FHWA and the FTA to demonstrate that their long-range transportation plans and transportation improvement programs (TIPs) conform to applicable SIPs. This demonstration
For budgets to be approvable, they must meet, at a minimum, the EPA's adequacy criteria (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)). One of the adequacy criteria requires that motor vehicle emissions budgets when considered together with all other emissions sources, are consistent with the applicable requirements for reasonable further progress, attainment or maintenance (40 CFR 93.118(e)(4)(iv)). In this case the applicable requirement is attainment of the 2006 24-hour PM
This section explains the consequences of a disapproval of a SIP under the CAA. The Act provides for the imposition of sanctions and the promulgation of a federal implementation plan (FIP) if a state fails to submit and the EPA approve a plan revision that corrects the deficiencies identified by the EPA in its disapproval.
If the EPA finalizes disapproval of a required SIP submission, such as an attainment plan submission, or a portion thereof, CAA section 179(a) provides for the imposition of sanctions unless the deficiency is corrected within 18 months of the final rulemaking of disapproval. The first sanction would apply 18 months after the EPA disapproves the SIP submission, or portion therefore. Under EPA's sanctions regulations, 40 CFR 52.31, the first sanction imposed would be 2:1 offsets for sources subject to the new source review requirements under section 173 of the Act. If the state has still failed to submit a SIP submission to correct the identified deficiencies for which the EPA proposes full or conditional approval 6 months after the first sanction is imposed, the second sanction will apply. The second sanction is a prohibition on the approval or funding certain highway projects.
In addition to sanctions, if the EPA finds that a state failed to submit the required SIP revision or finalizes disapproval of the required SIP revision, or a portion thereof, the EPA must promulgate a FIP no later than 2 years from the date of the finding if the deficiency has not been corrected within that time period.
One consequence if EPA finalizes disapproval of a control strategy SIP submission is a conformity freeze.
We propose to approve the following elements of the 2012 SIP submission:
• Description of the Oakridge NAA and listing as nonattainment, and
• The base year 2008 emission inventory to meet the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories.
We propose to disapprove the following elements of the 2012 SIP submission:
• The attainment year emission inventory to meet the section 172(c)(3) requirement for emissions inventories,
• the section 172(c)(1) requirement for reasonably available control measures (RACM), including reasonably available control technology (RACT),
• the section 189(a)(1)(B) requirement for an attainment demonstration,
• Transportation conformity and MVEB,
• Section 172(c)(2) and section 189(c) requirements for RFP and quantitative milestones, and
• Section 172(c)(9) requirement for contingency measures.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this proposed action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
EPA is proposing changes to the existing regulations governing significant new uses of chemical substances under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) to align these regulations with revisions to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) Hazard Communications Standard (HCS), which are proposed to be cross referenced, and with changes to the OSHA Respiratory Protection Standard and the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) respirator certification requirements pertaining to respiratory protection of workers from exposure to chemicals. EPA is also proposing changes to the significant new uses of chemical substances regulations based on issues that have been identified by EPA and issues raised by public commenters for Significant New Use Rules (SNURs) previously proposed and issued under these regulations. Additionally, EPA is proposing a minor change to reporting requirements for premanufacture notices (PMNs) and other TSCA section 5 notices. EPA expects these changes to have minimal impacts on the costs and burdens of complying, while updating the significant new use reporting requirements to assist in addressing any potential effects to human health and the environment.
Comments must be received on or before September 26, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2014-0650, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture (defined by TSCA to include import), process, or use chemical substances subject to regulations in 40 CFR part 721. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Manufacturers or processors of chemical substances (NAICS codes 325 and 324),
Section 5(a)(2) of TSCA (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(2)) authorizes EPA to determine that a use of a chemical substance is a “significant new use.” EPA must make this determination by rule after considering all relevant factors, including those listed in TSCA section 5(a)(2). Such rules are called “significant new use rules” (SNURs). Once EPA determines that a use of a chemical substance is a significant new use, TSCA section 5(a)(1)(B) requires persons to submit a significant new use notice (SNUN) to EPA at least 90 days before they manufacture or process the chemical substance for that use (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(B)). Section 5(a)(1)(A) of TSCA requires persons to notify EPA at least 90 days before manufacturing a new chemical substance for commercial purposes (under TSCA manufacture includes import). Section 3(9) of TSCA defines a “new chemical substance” as any substance that is not on the TSCA Inventory of Chemical Substances compiled by EPA under section 8(b) of TSCA.
EPA is proposing changes to general requirements for SNURs in 40 CFR part 721, Significant New Uses of Chemical Substances. Most of the proposed changes are changes to the standard significant new uses for new chemical SNURs identified in subpart B which apply to chemical substances when they are cited in subpart E. Other proposed changes are procedural changes to the general provisions in subpart A that apply to all SNURs. EPA is also clarifying in the preamble of this proposed rule some definitions contained in 40 CFR part 721 and proposing a minor change to reporting requirements for TSCA section 5 notices
Based on changes that have occurred for respiratory protection requirements since 1989, as codified in NIOSH regulations at 42 CFR part 84 and the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1910.134, EPA is proposing changes to 40 CFR 721.63. In addition, based on the changes to 29 CFR 1910.1200, OSHA's modified Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) published March 26, 2012 (77 FR 17574) (Ref. 1), EPA is proposing changes to 40 CFR 721.72. EPA is also proposing other changes to 40 CFR part 721 subparts A and B and clarifying definitions contained in 40 CFR part 721. EPA is proposing these changes and making the clarifications based on its experience in issuing and administering over 2,800 SNURs. Many of the proposed changes are based on public comments received by EPA when proposing and issuing SNURs, and questions from the public regarding current SNUR requirements such as: Considering a hierarchy of controls before using personal protective equipment to control exposures; clarifying what use other than as described in the premanufacture notice referenced in subpart E of this part for the substance means under 40 CFR 721.80(j); allowing for removal in wastewater treatment when computing estimated surface water concentrations according to 40 CFR 721.91; and revising the
There will be a very minor increase in the overall compliance burden and cost because of the modified requirements in 40 CFR parts 720, 721, and 723. The modified SNUR requirements will be compatible with the current hazard communication requirements under 29 CFR 1910.1200 and the respiratory protection requirements at 42 CFR part 84 and 29 CFR 1910.134. The modified SNUR requirements will also allow persons subject to a SNUR that has been previously issued to use the updated requirements of 40 CFR 721.63 and 721.72 without additional rulemaking.
1.
2.
On July 27, 1989 (54 FR 31298; FRL-3504-6) (Ref. 2), EPA published a final rule, titled “Significant New Use Rules; General Provisions for New Chemicals Follow-up” that put into place an expedited process for issuing SNURs for certain new chemical substances. The process applies to new chemical substances for which EPA has issued TSCA section 5(e) consent orders and other new chemical substances for which no TSCA section 5(e) consent orders have been issued, but that may present risks to human health or the environment if exposures or releases are significantly different from those described in the PMN. EPA has issued over 2,800 new chemical SNURs using these standard significant new uses. The standard designations in the sections titled “Protection in the workplace” (40 CFR 721.63) and “Hazard communication program” (40 CFR 721.72) were modeled on OSHA and NIOSH regulations that were in force at the time the rule was issued in 1989.
The July 27, 1989 final rule established subparts B, C, and D and amended subpart A of 40 CFR part 721. Subpart A contains definitions and general provisions that apply to all SNURs. In subpart B of 40 CFR part 721, EPA identified certain standard significant new uses that EPA regularly cites in new chemical SNURs. For example, EPA may consider use of a specific chemical substance to be a “significant new use” if the use does not meet requirements for protection in the workplace as described in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(1). EPA applies these standard significant new uses as appropriate when promulgating SNURs for a specific chemical substance. As explained in 40 CFR 721.50, these standard significant new use designations apply only when they are referenced as applying to a chemical substance listed in 40 CFR part 721 subpart E. Subpart C describes recordkeeping requirements for SNURs. As described in 40 CFR 721.100, these standard recordkeeping requirements apply only when they are referenced as applying to a chemical substance listed in 40 CFR part 721 subpart E. Subpart D describes an expedited process for issuing significant new use rules for new chemical substances and the process for the modification or revocation of significant new use requirements for new chemical substances. Subpart E lists significant new use and recordkeeping requirements for specific chemical substances.
On March 29, 1995 (60 FR 16311; FRL-4291-9) (Ref. 3), EPA published an amended rule titled, “Amendment for Expedited Process to Issue Significant New Use Rules for Selected New Chemical Substances.” The rule amendment authorized EPA to use “significant new use” designations using expedited rulemaking procedures to promulgate SNURs for certain new chemical substances not subject to TSCA section 5(e) orders (referred to as non-section 5(e) SNURs). The amendment authorized EPA to include other designations, such as protection in the workplace and hazard communication, in non-section 5(e) SNURs promulgated via expedited rulemaking procedures.
As explained in the March 29, 1995 final rule, a TSCA section 5(e) consent order applies only to the original PMN submitter who signs the consent order, while a SNUR applies to all other manufacturers and processors of the chemical substance. The reporting requirements of a non-section 5(e) SNUR apply to all manufacturers and processors of a chemical substance including the PMN submitter. The changes to subpart B in this proposed rule would make it possible for EPA to issue non-section 5(e) SNURs as direct final rules with the updated standard SNUR designations.
How the different subparts of 40 CFR part 721 are used for new chemical SNURs and existing chemical SNURs are summarized in Table 1. New chemical SNURs are issued for certain chemical substances that have undergone PMN review. EPA typically utilizes subparts B, C, and D when issuing new chemical SNURs. Other SNURs including existing chemical SNURs may be issued for chemical substances either not on the TSCA Inventory or for those on the TSCA Inventory that typically have not undergone PMN review. EPA does not
EPA is proposing substantive changes or clarifying language in subparts A and B. The proposed changes in subpart A would affect all SNURs. The proposed changes in Subpart B may affect some previously issued new chemical SNURs already in subpart E and would affect future new chemical SNURs that would be issued using the changed terms in Subpart B. Unit III describes each proposed change and how the changes affect previously issued SNURs and SNURs that would be issued after the proposed rule becomes final. Not all of the more than 2,800 previously issued new chemical SNURs will be affected by the changes in Subpart B. For example, as described in the economic analysis for this proposed rule (Ref.13), per the EPA Chemical Data Report for Reporting Year 2011, 195 chemicals were reported in commerce and subject to new chemical SNURS. Only 60 of the 195 chemicals contained provisions for worker protection and/or hazard communication. This rule does not propose any changes to subparts C, D, or E.
In March, 2012, OSHA modified its Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) to conform to the United Nations' Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) to enhance the effectiveness of the HCS by ensuring that employees are apprised of the chemical hazards to which they may be exposed, and by reducing the incidence of chemical-related occupational illnesses and injuries. (Ref. 1) The GHS is an internationally harmonized system for classifying chemical hazards and developing labels and safety data sheets. It is a set of criteria and provisions that regulatory authorities can incorporate into existing systems, or use to develop new systems.
The GHS allows a regulatory authority to choose the provisions that are appropriate to its sphere of regulation. This is referred to as the “building block approach.” The GHS includes all of the regulatory components, or building blocks, that might be needed for classification and 22 labeling requirements for chemicals in the workplace, transport, pesticides, and consumer products. The modified HCS adopted those sections of the GHS that are appropriate to OSHA's regulatory sector. For example, while the GHS includes criteria on classifying chemicals for aquatic toxicity, these provisions were not adopted for the HCS because OSHA does not have the regulatory authority to address environmental concerns. The building block approach also gives regulatory agencies the authority to select which classification criteria and provisions to adopt. OSHA adopted the classification criteria and provisions for labels and SDSs, because the current HCS covers these elements. As described in Unit III, EPA is also proposing to adopt some of the GHS criteria for hazard communication pertaining to aquatic toxicity.
As a result of changes to OSHA and NIOSH requirements, and other issues identified through EPA's experience issuing and administering SNURs, EPA is proposing several changes to the SNUR regulations in subparts A and B. EPA will describe each proposed change and the reason for proposing the change.
Based on changes that have occurred in respiratory protection requirements since 1989, per the NIOSH regulation at 42 CFR part 84 and the OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1910.134, EPA is proposing changes to 40 CFR 721.63. In June 1995, NIOSH updated and modernized its Federal regulation for testing and certifying non-powered, air-purifying, and particulate-filter respirators (42 CFR part 84). The 42 CFR part 84 respirators have passed a more demanding certification test than older respirators (
Additionally, in January 1998, OSHA's revised Respiratory Protection
EPA is proposing to update language pertaining to respiratory protection requirements that is listed in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(4), (a)(5), and (a)(6) to be consistent with both OSHA and NIOSH requirements. In 40 CFR 721.63(a)(4) which requires that respirators be used in accordance with 30 CFR part 11, EPA is proposing to replace the reference to 30 CFR part 11 with a reference to 42 CFR part 84 to cite the most updated NIOSH regulation for testing and certifying respirators. Most manufacturers and processors are already subject to and complying with 42 CFR part 84. This change would apply to all previously issued SNURs that contain significant new use requirements pertaining to respiratory protection in that it will make clear that manufacturers and processors subject to current SNURs can follow updated respiratory protection requirements without triggering a SNUN requirement; and the updated language would be cited when issuing new SNURs as appropriate. EPA is proposing updated NIOSH-certified respirator language in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5). EPA is currently citing the new respirator language in SNURs and has not been referencing the respirators currently listed in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5). EPA intends to continue citing the new respirator language when issuing new SNURs during the pendency of this rulemaking. The proposed updates to 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5) would standardize the use of the new respirator language by allowing EPA to cross-reference the respirator language for new chemical SNURs rather than impose the respirator language on a case-by-case basis.
EPA is proposing language that would allow persons subject to SNURs with older respirator requirements in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5) already cited in subpart E to avoid triggering a SNUN requirement by continuing to use those respirators, if they are available. These are the 15 listed respirators in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5)(i) through (xv). EPA is also proposing language in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5) that would allow persons subject to the older respirator requirements in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(5)(i) through (xv) to use an equivalent respirator under the newer requirements provided that the APF of the new respirator is equal to or greater than the respirator cited in subpart E. EPA has included in the public docket a chart comparing the APF of the respirator classes in the current regulations with the corresponding older respirator requirements that can be consulted in order to determine availability of suitable substitutes (Ref. 7). The proposed language in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(6) also updates language for the airborne form of a chemical substance that would apply to the respiratory protection requirements in 40 CFR 721.63(a)(4). EPA would cite this language when issuing new SNURs.
Any personal protection equipment requirements would be a minimum set of requirements so that users are encouraged to modernize (upgrade to next generation) protective equipment to include such features as an electronic chip to identify when personnel use and discontinue use of a respirator. The electronic chip also could monitor the condition and maintenance of the respirator. EPA is specifically requesting comments on the use of next generation respirators.
EPA is also proposing a revision to 40 CFR 721.63 that would make it a significant new use not to implement a hierarchy of controls to protect workers. This revision would require persons subject to applicable SNURs to determine and use appropriate engineering and administrative controls before using personal protective equipment (PPE) for worker protection, similar to the requirements in OSHA standards at 29 CFR 1910.134(a)(1) and guidance in Appendix B to subpart I of 29 CFR 1910.
This change is being proposed partly due to comments received on recently promulgated SNURs. In response to the proposed SNURs published in the
In the final SNURs published on June 26, 2013 (78 FR 32810) (FRL-9390-6) (Ref. 9), EPA responded to the comments, agreeing that a hierarchy of controls should be applied and that PPE should be the last option to control exposures. EPA noted that its New Chemicals Exposure Limits language in TSCA section 5(e) consent orders already states that attempting to prevent exposures through higher controls in the hierarchy than PPE is EPA's preferred method for protecting workers. See:
All new chemical SNURs published since June 26, 2013 have included the same language to consider and implement engineering controls and administrative controls where feasible when the SNURs contained significant new uses pertaining to the lack of PPE for workers. These requirements to consider engineering and administrative controls are based on and consistent with the OSHA requirements at 29 CFR 1910.134(a)(1). EPA is proposing to revise 40 CFR 721.63(a)(1) and 40 CFR 721.63(a)(4) to add language which requires consideration and use of engineering and administrative controls where feasible before PPE for worker protection. This proposed change would
Based on the changes to 29 CFR 1910.1200, OSHA's modified HCS, EPA is proposing changes to 40 CFR 721.72. In March, 2012, OSHA modified its HCS to conform to the United Nations' Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals (GHS) to enhance the effectiveness of the HCS by ensuring that employees are apprised of the chemical hazards to which they may be exposed, and by reducing the incidence of chemical-related occupational illnesses and injuries. (Ref. 1) Modifications to the HCS include revised criteria for classification of chemical hazards; revised labeling provisions that include requirements for use of standardized signal words, pictograms, hazard statements, and precautionary statements; a specified format for safety data sheets; and related revisions to definitions of terms used in the HCS and requirements for employee training on labels and safety data sheets.
Under the current rules, when SNURs are issued citing section 40 CFR 721.72 in subpart E for a chemical substance, it is considered a significant new use if the company does not develop a written hazard communication program for the substance in the workplace. Paragraphs (a) through (h) of 40 CFR 721.72 can be cited in subpart E as the elements that must be included in the hazard communication program. Manufacturers and processors subject to a SNUR in subpart E for a chemical substance can rely on an existing hazard communication program, such as one established under the OSHA HCS or one based on GHS recommendations to comply with this significant new use requirement to the extent the hazard communication program contains elements cited for that SNUR from 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (a) through (h).
EPA is proposing to add new paragraphs (i) and (j) that EPA would use when issuing hazard communication requirements for SNURs issued after this rulemaking has been finalized. The new paragraph (i) would require that a written hazard communication program be developed and implemented for the substance in each workplace in accordance with 29 CFR 1910.1200, the OSHA HCS.
The proposed approach would maintain consistency in compliance for persons subject to TSCA and OSHA regulations for the same activity. Because the OSHA HCS is detailed and complex, by cross-referencing it EPA would avoid any errors in duplication as well as avoid the unintentional creation of additional obligations. In addition, any amendments to the OSHA HCS would apply at the same time for the purposes of complying with the SNUR. This approach would also be consistent with the requirement for EPA to coordinate with other federal executive departments and agencies under TSCA section 9(d) to impose “the least burdens of duplicative requirements on those subject to the chapter and for other purposes.”
The new paragraph (j) describes specific statements and other warnings that could be required for SNURs for substances identified in subpart E. The specific statements and warnings that could be required would be based on EPA's risk assessment of the chemical substance and would be consistent with the OSHA HCS and GHS recommendations.
EPA expects that, whenever the statements in paragraphs (g), (h), and (j) are required and the determinations for the SNUR are published, manufacturers and processors subject to the SNUR will also consider if they trigger any other corresponding hazard communication requirements under the OSHA HCS or recommendations under GHS recommendations. Any hazard and precautionary statements required by the SNUR would be a minimum set of hazard warnings. EPA may also propose individual SNURs or issue section 5(e) SNURs under 40 CFR 721.160 using other specific statements, signal words, symbols, hazard category, and pictograms as hazard communication requirements.
EPA is proposing to update 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (a) through (h) to be consistent with both OSHA requirements and GHS recommendations. When the rulemaking is finalized, these changes would apply to individual SNURs in subpart E issued before the effective date of the final rule as described in the next two paragraphs. EPA is proposing changes to 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (a), (c), and (d) to change using the word material safety data sheet (MSDS) to safety data sheet (SDS) and to allow easily accessible electronic versions and other alternatives to maintaining paper copies of the SDS. These changes would apply to any previously issued SNUR in subpart E that cites these paragraphs. EPA is also proposing changes pertaining to hazard and precautionary statements that are listed in 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (g) and (h) to be consistent with statements required under the OSHA HCS and recommended by the GHS. The proposed changes would add new precautionary and hazard statements that are consistent with the OSHA HCS and GHS recommendations. While the previously issued SNUR precautionary and hazard statements will be retained solely for previously issued SNURs, EPA is proposing to identify which of the proposed new statements can be used as alternatives. EPA is proposing that manufacturers and processors subject to a previously issued SNUR will have the option to use the prior older precautionary and hazard statements or use the new alternative statements that are consistent with the OSHA HCS or GHS recommendations to comply with the SNUR.
EPA is also proposing language allowing any person subject to a previously issued SNUR for a substance identified in subpart E containing requirements for 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (a) through (h) to comply with those requirements by following the requirements of the proposed 40 CFR 721.72 paragraph (i), which is being proposed for use in future SNURs, and using any statements specified for that substance in the proposed 40 CFR 721.72 paragraphs (g) or (h). For example, a person currently subject to a SNUR citing the requirements to establish a hazard communication program as described in 40 CFR part 721.72 paragraphs (a) through (f) and the requirement for a hazard statement in paragraph (g)(1)(iii), central nervous system effects, could comply by taking the following steps: That person could establish a hazard communication program according to the requirements in the proposed paragraph (i) and use the hazard statement in paragraph (g)(1)(iii), “central nervous system effects,” or the proposed alternative hazard statement (g)(1)(xi), “may cause damage to the central nervous system through prolonged or repeated exposure.”
EPA recommends using a Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number to identify the chemical substance whenever available. EPA makes this recommendation because CAS numbers are widely used by industry including in SDSs to provide a unique identifier for chemical substances and provide an
EPA is also clarifying its use of the significant new use for new chemical SNURs described at 40 CFR 721.80(j), which identifies as a significant new use, “Use other than as described in the premanufacture notice referenced in subpart E of this part for the substance.” EPA is not proposing to change the language of 721.80(j). Instead, EPA is clarifying how it identifies as a significant new use, “Use other than as described in the premanufacture notice referenced in subpart E of this part for the substance” for individual SNURs. When EPA issues a SNUR using the designation at 40 CFR 721.80(j) in subpart E for a chemical substance and that use described in the premanufacture notice is claimed as confidential, EPA cites 40 CFR 721.80(j). See Unit III.5 for a discussion of how manufacturers and processors subject to a SNUR with a confidential significant new use designation can currently file a
To more clearly identify the significant new use, EPA has changed this procedure to only cite 40 CFR 721.80(j) when the use described in the PMN is confidential. When the use described in the PMN is not confidential, EPA intends to identify the significant new use in a new chemical SNUR by describing the use, such as in the following example: “A significant new use is any use other than as a pesticide intermediate.” (This example was published in the direct final SNUR issued on February 12, 2014 (79 FR 8291) (Ref. 11) and is codified in subpart E at 40 CFR 721.10718.)
When EPA issues a new chemical SNUR citing the significant new uses described in 40 CFR 721.90 (a)(4), (b)(4), and (c)(4), the SNUR requires significant new use notification if the results of the equation for computation of estimated surface water concentrations in 40 CFR 721.91 exceed the level specified for that SNUR in subpart E. The equation estimates surface water concentrations based on the amount of a chemical substance released from industrial processes and the flows of the water body. The current equation does not take into consideration amounts of a chemical substance released to a surface water after control technology such as wastewater treatment. EPA is proposing to revise this requirement to allow manufacturers and processors to account for reductions in surface water concentrations resulting from wastewater treatment. 40 CFR 721.91 contains instructions for the computation of estimated surface water concentrations according to the equation specified in 40 CFR 721.90 (a)(4), (b)(4), and (c)(4). EPA is proposing to revise 40 CFR 721.91 to allow for a certain percentage of removal of a chemical substance from wastewater when undergoing control technology, when using the equation to calculate surface water concentrations to meet requirements in 40 CFR 721.90. EPA has previously allowed surface water concentrations to be calculated with a consideration of wastewater treatment in certain SNURs by adding regulatory text to individual rules. This change to 40 CFR 721.91 will make the consideration of control technology part of the calculations for the equation specified in 40 CFR 721.90 when cited in subpart E for a specific chemical substance. EPA will cite the control technology and the percentage removal for SNURs in subpart E, based on EPA's assessment of the effectiveness of the control technology for the specific chemical substance. Based on past experience with new chemical SNURs, EPA expects that the control technology will usually be wastewater treatment. However, EPA will not identify a percentage of removal from wastewater for every chemical substance subject to a SNUR with the significant new use specified in 40 CFR 721.90 (a)(4), (b)(4), and (c)(4). EPA would identify an applicable removal percentage when issuing new SNURs. It does not apply to existing SNURs where a removal percentage has not been identified.
Because of numerous questions from manufacturers and processors about the phrase “predictable or purposeful release” in 40 CFR 721.90, EPA is clarifying the meaning of that phrase. The phrase is used to qualify significant new uses pertaining to releases to water in 40 CFR 721.90. As described in the proposed rule of April 29, 1987, Proposed General Provisions for New Chemicals Follow-up (52 FR 15608) (Ref. 12), the phrase predictable or purposeful does not include releases where true emergency conditions exist and significant new use notification is not possible. Therefore, routine or repeated activity that results in releases to water or non-routine releases to water that are not due to emergency conditions would be included in the term predictable or purposeful. EPA did not intend the phrase “predictable or purposeful release” to limit the agency's strict liability authority under the statute.
Some new chemical SNURs have a significant new use designation which is a production volume limit or use other than described in the PMN that is based on CBI contained in the PMN and which is therefore not disclosed in the published SNUR. Currently, for each SNUR that contains a significant new use designation that is CBI, that SNUR cross-references the
When the chemical identity in a SNUR is CBI, 40 CFR 721.11 provides a means by which
EPA is proposing to revise requirements in 40 CFR 720.38, 720.45, and 40 CFR 723.50 to require that any SDS already developed to either comply with OSHA requirements or already developed by a notice submitter for other purposes must also be submitted as part of the notification (PMN, SNUN, LVE, LoREX, or TME application) under section 5 of TSCA. Many submitters already submit available SDSs as part of their submission and the information contained in SDSs is often useful for EPA's assessments of chemicals. This proposed revision would not require submitters to develop an SDS. It would only require a submitter to submit an SDS that has already been developed to the extent it is known or reasonably ascertainable by the submitter.
EPA is proposing to correct several typographical errors and more accurately use the terms manufacture, manufacturer, and manufacturing in the regulatory text of sections 40 CFR parts 720, 721, and 723.
EPA evaluated the potential costs of implementing these proposed changes to section 5 SNUR requirements for potential manufacturers (including importers) and processors of the chemical substances. The proposed changes result in minimal increases in burden associated with issuing future SNURs and administration and compliance with previously issued SNURs. For new chemical SNURs, the incremental increase is estimated at 364 hours of burden with an associated $20,387 in the steady state; for section 5 notices, the incremental increase is estimated at 247 hours of burden with an associated cost of $17,843 in the steady state. The Agency's complete Economic Analysis is available in the docket under docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2014-0650 (Ref. 13).
The following is a listing of the documents that are specifically referenced in this action. The docket includes these documents and other information considered by EPA, including documents that are referenced within the documents that are included in the docket, even if the referenced document is not physically located in the docket. For assistance in locating these other documents, please consult the technical person listed under
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has determined that this proposed rule is not a “significant regulatory action,” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Accordingly, this action was not submitted to OMB for review under Executive Order 12866 and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011).
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to an information collection request subject to the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501
Respondents/affected entities: Certain manufacturers (including importers) and processors.
In your comments on this proposed rule, EPA is also interested in any comments about the accuracy of the burden estimate, and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden, including revisions to the automated collection techniques being used for submissions to EPA under TSCA, which are now required to use the Agency's Central Data Exchange (CDX) portal at
Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
Under the RFA, small entities include small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions. For purposes of assessing the impacts of this proposed rule on small entities, small entity is defined as: (1) A small business, as defined by the Small Business Administration's (SBA) regulations at 13 CFR 121.201; (2) a small governmental jurisdiction that is a government of a city, county, town, school district or special district with a population of less than 50,000; and (3) a small organization that is any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field. Since the regulated community is not expected to include small governmental jurisdictions or small not-for-profit organizations, the analysis focuses on small businesses.
EPA has observed only a very small proportion of SNUNs submitted by self-declared small businesses. To the extent that the percentage of small firms abiding by a SNUR is similar to the percentage of small firms submitting SNUNs, it is unlikely that a substantial number of small entities would be affected by this proposed rule's changes to SNUR requirements. Similarly, for section 5 notices, assuming that a similar small proportion of small firms are submitting all notices, it is likewise unlikely that substantial number of small entities would be affected by this proposed rule's changes.
EPA also believes the incremental per-response costs for complying with the proposed rule at $61 per SNUR chemical•firm and $18 per notice are low compared to the cost of developing and marketing a chemical new to the firm. Given the relatively low prevalence of small businesses in the new chemicals universe, and the extremely small incremental burden, the proposed rule is thus very unlikely to have a significant adverse economic impact on a substantial number of small entities (SISNOSE). Therefore EPA presumes a “no SISNOSE” finding. EPA continues to be interested in the potential impacts of this proposed rule on small entities and welcomes comments on issues related to such impacts.
Based on EPA's experience with proposing and finalizing SNURs, State, local, and Tribal governments have not been impacted by these rulemakings, and EPA does not have any reasons to believe that any State, local, or Tribal government would be impacted by this rulemaking. As such, EPA has determined that this action would not impose any enforceable duty, contain any unfunded mandate, or otherwise have any effect on small governments subject to the requirements of UMRA sections 202, 203, 204, or 205 (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action would not have a substantial direct effect on States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, as specified in
This action would not have Tribal implications because it is not expected to have substantial direct effects on Indian Tribes. This proposed rule would not significantly nor uniquely affect the communities of Indian Tribal governments, nor would it involve or impose any requirements that affect Indian Tribes. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), do not apply to this proposed rule.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997), because this is not an economically significant regulatory action as defined by Executive Order 12866, and this action does not address environmental health or safety risks disproportionately affecting children.
This action is not a “significant energy Action” as defined in Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001), because it is not likely to have a significant adverse effect on energy supply, distribution, or use.
Since this action does not involve any technical standards, NTTAA section 12(d) (15 U.S.C. 272 note) does not apply to this action.
This action does not entail special considerations of environmental justice related issues as delineated by Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994), because EPA has determined that this action will not have disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority or low-income populations.
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Hazardous materials, Recordkeeping, and Reporting requirements.
Therefore, it is proposed that 40 CFR chapter I be amended as follows:
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2613.
The revisions reads as follows:
(r)
(1) To manufacture with the purpose of obtaining an immediate or eventual commercial advantage for the manufacturer, and includes, among other things, “manufacture” of any amount of a chemical substance or mixture:
(s)
(2) The manufacturer and any person to whom the substance is distributed for purposes of export or processing solely for export (as defined in § 721.3 of this chapter), may not use the substance except in small quantities solely for research and development in accordance with § 720.36.
(cc)
(b)(6) Any safety data sheet already developed for the chemical substance.
(i) Any safety data sheet already developed for the new chemical substance.
15 U.S.C. 2604, 2607, and 2625(c).
The revisions read as follows:
The revisions reads as follows:
(a) A person who intends to manufacture or process a chemical substance which is subject to a significant new use rule in subpart E of this part may ask EPA whether the substance or a proposed use is subject to the requirements of this part if that substance is described by a generic chemical name or if the significant new use is confidential and therefore not described specifically in the rule. EPA will answer such an inquiry only if EPA determines that the person has a
(e) If the manufacturer or processor has shown a
(f) A disclosure to a person with a
(g) EPA will answer an inquiry on whether a particular chemical substance is subject to this part or identify and confidential significant new uses within 30 days after receipt of a complete submission under paragraph (b) of this section.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) Whenever a substance is identified in subpart E of this part as being subject to this section, any manner or method of manufacturing (including importing) or processing associated with any use of the substance is considered a significant new use unless a program is established whereby:
(1) Where people are reasonably likely to have dermal or eye exposure to the chemical substance in the work area, either through direct handling of the substance, or through contact with surfaces on which the substance may exist, or because the substance becomes airborne in the form listed in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, and the form is cited in subpart E of this part for the chemical substance, engineering control measures (
(4) Where each person who is reasonably likely to be exposed to the chemical substance by inhalation in the work area in one or more of the forms listed in paragraph (a)(6) of this section and cited in subpart E of this part for the chemical substance, engineering control measures (
(5) The following NIOSH-certified respirators meet the requirements for paragraph (a)(4) of this section:
(xvi) NIOSH-certified N100 (if oil aerosols absent), R100, or P100 filtering facepiece respirator. (APF = 10)
(xvii) NIOSH-certified air-purifying half-mask respirator equipped with N100 (if oil aerosols absent), R100, or P100 filters. (APF = 10)
(xviii) NIOSH-certified air-purifying half mask respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges. (APF = 10)
(xix) NIOSH-certified air-purifying half-mask respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with N100, R100, or P100 filters or an appropriate canister incorporating N100, R100, or P100 filters. (APF = 10)
(xx) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator equipped with a half-mask. (APF = 10)
(xxi) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) equipped with a half mask. (APF = 10)
(xxii) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a hood or helmet and HEPA filters. (APF = 25)
(xxiii) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator with a hood or helmet equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges. (APF = 25)
(xxiv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator with a hood or helmet and with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with HEPA filters. (APF = 25)
(xxv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece and HEPA filters. (APF = 25)
(xxvi) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges. (APF = 25)
(xxvii) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with HEPA filters. (APF = 25)
(xxviii) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a hood or helmet. (APF = 25)
(xxix) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a loose fitting facepiece. (APF = 25)
(xxx) NIOSH-certified air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with N100, R-100, or P-100 filter(s). (APF = 50)
(xxxi) NIOSH-certified air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges or canisters. (APF = 50)
(xxxii) NIOSH-certified air-purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with N100, R100, or P100 filters or an appropriate canister incorporating N100, R100, or P100 filters. (APF = 50)
(xxxiii) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a tight-fitting half mask and HEPA filters. (APF = 50)
(xxxiv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a tight-fitting half mask and appropriate gas/vapor cartridges or canisters. (APF = 50)
(xxxv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator with a tight-fitting half mask and appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with HEPA filters. (APF = 50)
(xxxvi) NIOSH-certified pressure-demand or other positive pressure mode
(xxxvii) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece. (APF = 50)
(xxxviii) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a tight-fitting half mask. (APF = 50)
(xxxix) NIOSH-certified negative pressure (demand) self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) equipped with a hood or helmet or a full facepiece. (APF = 50)
(xl) NIOSH-certified powered air purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with HEPA filters. (APF = 1,000)
(xli) NIOSH-certified powered air purifying full facepiece respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges. (APF = 1,000)
(xlii) NIOSH-certified powered air purifying fill facepiece respirator equipped with appropriate gas/vapor cartridges in combination with HEPA filters. (APF = 1,000)
(xliii) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a hood or helmet and N100, R100, or P100 filters
(xliv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator equipped with a hood or helmet and appropriate gas/vapor cartridges
(xlv) NIOSH-certified powered air-purifying respirator with a loose-fitting hood or helmet that is equipped with an appropriate gas/vapor cartridge in combination with HEPA filters
(xlvi) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece. (APF = 1,000)
(xlvii) NIOSH-certified continuous flow supplied-air respirator equipped with a hood or helmet
(xlviii) NIOSH-certified pressure-demand supplied-air respirator equipped with a full facepiece. (APF = 1,000)
(xlix) NIOSH-certified pressure-demand or other positive-pressure mode (
(l) If one of the respirators in paragraph (a)(5)(i) through (a)(5)(xv) is cited for a substance identified in subpart E an employer may substitute a respirator from paragraphs (a)(5)(xvi) through (a)(5)(xlix) as long as its assigned protection factor is equal to or greater than the respirator cited in subpart E for that substance.
(li) Without testing data that demonstrates a level of protection of 1,000 or greater, all air purifying respirators and supplied air respirators with helmets/hoods are to be treated as loose-fitting facepiece respirators with an APF of 25.
(6) When cited in subpart E of this part for a substance, the following airborne form(s) of the substance, in combination or alone, are referenced by paragraphs (a)(1) and (4) of this section:
(vii) Particulate or aerosol (solids or liquid droplets suspended in a gas;
(viii) Gas/vapor.
(ix) Combination particulate and gas/vapor (gas and liquid/solid physical forms are both present,
(c) * * *
(2) If, after receiving a statement of assurance from a recipient under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, a manufacturer or processor has knowledge that the recipient is engaging in an activity that is not consistent with the implementation of the program specified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person is considered to have knowledge that the person is engaging in a significant new use and is required to follow the procedures in § 721.5(d).
The revisions and additions read as follows:
Whenever a substance is identified in subpart E of this part as being subject to this section, a significant new use of that substance is any manner or method of manufacture (including import) or processing associated with any use of that substance without establishing a hazard communication program as described in this section. Paragraphs (a) through (h) apply to SNURs issued before September 26, 2016. Paragraphs (i) and (j) apply to SNURs issued on or after September 26, 2016. Any person subject to the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) have the option of following the requirements of paragraph (i) or using the statements specified in paragraphs (g) or (h).
(a)
(1) A list of each substance identified in subpart E of this part as subject to this section known to be present in the work area. The list must be maintained in the work area and must use the identity provided on the appropriate SDS for each substance required under paragraph (c) of this section. The list may be compiled for the workplace or for individual work areas.
(b) * * *
(5) If the label or alternative form of warning is to be applied to a mixture containing a substance identified in subpart E of this part as subject to this section in combination with another substance identified in subpart E of this part and/or a substance defined as a “hazardous chemical” under the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), the employer may prescribe on the label, SDS, or alternative form of warning, the measures to control worker exposure or environmental release which the employer determines provide the greatest degree of protection. However, should these control measures differ from the applicable measures required under subpart E of this part, the employer must seek a determination of equivalency for such alternative control measures pursuant to § 721.30 before prescribing them under this paragraph (b)(5).
(c) * * *
(5) If the employer becomes aware of any significant new information regarding the hazards of the substance or ways to protect against the hazards, this new information must be added to the SDS within 3 months from the time the employer becomes aware of the new information. If the substance is not currently being manufactured, processed, or used in the employer's workplace, the employer must add the new information to the SDS before the substance is reintroduced into the workplace.
(7) The employer must maintain a copy of the SDS in its workplace, and must ensure that it is readily accessible during each work shift to employees when they are in their work areas. (Easy and immediate electronic access and other alternatives to maintaining paper copies of the safety data sheets are permitted as long as complete and accurate versions of the SDS are available immediately to employees in each workplace by such options.)
(9) The SDS must be in English; however, the information may be repeated in other languages.
(g) * * *
(1) Human health hazard statements:
(i) Causes skin irritation.
(ii) Respiratory complications. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(x) of this section for this designation.).
(iii) Central nervous system effects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xi) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(iv) Internal organ effects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xi) of this section for this designation.)
(v) Birth defects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xii) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(vi) Reproductive effects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xii) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(vii) May cause cancer.
(viii) Immune system effects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xi) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(ix) Developmental effects. (You may also use paragraph (g)(1)(xii) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(x) May cause allergy or asthma symptoms or breathing difficulties if inhaled.
(xi) May cause damage to organs <. . .> through prolonged or repeated exposure.
<. . .> (State all organs identified in subpart E of this part for this substance.).
(xii) May damage fertility or the unborn child <. . .>.
<. . .> (State specific effect identified in subpart E of this part for this substance.)
(xiii) May cause an allergic skin reaction.
(xiv) Causes eye irritation.
(2) Human health hazard precautionary statements:
(i) Avoid skin contact. (You may also use paragraph (g)(2)(vi) of this section for this designation.)
(ii) Avoid breathing substance. (You may also use paragraph (g)(2)(viii) of this section for this designation.)
(iii) Avoid ingestion.
(iv) Use respiratory protection. (You may also use paragraph (g)(2)(vii) of this section for this designation.)
(v) Use skin protection. (You may also use paragraph (g)(2)(vi) of this section for this designation.)
(vi) Wear protective gloves/protective clothing/eye protection/face protection. Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify type of equipment, as required.)
(vii) Wear respiratory protection. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify equipment as required.)
(viii) Avoid breathing dust/fume/gas/mist/vapors/spray. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify applicable conditions.)
(3) * * *
(i) Toxic to fish. (You may also use paragraph (g)(3)(iii) of this section for this designation.)
(ii) Toxic to aquatic organisms. (You may also use paragraph (g)(3)(iii) of this section for this designation.)
(iii) Toxic to aquatic life.
(4) * * *
(i) Disposal restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (g)(4)(iv) of this section for this designation.)
(ii) Spill clean-up restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (g)(4)(iv) of this section for this designation.)
(iii) Do not release to water. (You may also use paragraph (g)(4)(iv) of this section for this designation.)
(iv) Dispose of contents/container to . . . (Specify disposal requirements in subpart E of this part and whether they apply to contents, container or both.)
(h)(1) * * *
(ii)
(A) Causes skin irritation.
(B) Respiratory complications. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(J) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Central nervous system effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(K) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(D) Internal organ effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(K) of this section for this designation.)
(E) Birth defects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(F) Reproductive effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(G) Cancer.
(H) Immune system effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(K) of this
(I) Developmental effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(J) May cause allergy or asthma symptoms or breathing difficulties if inhaled.
(K) May cause damage to organs <. . .> through prolonged or repeated exposure.
<. . .> (state all organs identified in subpart E of this part for this substance.)
(L) May damage fertility or the unborn child <. . .>.
<. . .> (state specific effect identified in subpart E of this part for this substance.)
(M) May cause an allergic skin reaction.
(N) Causes eye irritation.
(iii)
(A) Avoid skin contact. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(F) of this section for this designation.)
(B) Avoid breathing substance. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(H) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Avoid ingestion.
(D) Use respiratory protection. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(G) of this section for this designation.)
(E) Use skin protection. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(F) of this section for this designation.)
(F) Wear protective gloves/protective clothing/eye protection/face protection. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify type of equipment, as required.)
(G) Wear respiratory protection. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify equipment as required.)
(H) Avoid breathing dust/fume/gas/mist/vapors/spray. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify applicable conditions.)
(iv)
(A) Toxic to fish. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iv)(C) of this section for this designation.)
(B) Toxic to aquatic organisms. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(iv)(C) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Toxic to aquatic life.
(v)
(A) Disposal restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(v)(D) of this section for this designation)
(B) Spill clean-up restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(v)(D) of this section for this designation)
(C) Do not release to water. (You may also use paragraph (h)(1)(v)(D) of this section for this designation.)
(D) Dispose of contents/container to . . . (Specify disposal requirements in subpart E of this part and whether they apply to contents, container or both.)
(2) * * *
(ii)
(A) Causes skin irritation.
(B) Respiratory complications. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(J) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Central nervous system effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(K) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(D) Internal organ effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(K) of this section for this designation.)
(E) Birth defects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(F) Reproductive effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(G) May cause cancer.
(H) Immune system effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(K) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(I) Developmental effects. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(L) of this section for this designation but you must include this specific effect.)
(J) May cause allergy or asthma symptoms or breathing difficulties if inhaled.
(K) May cause damage to organs <. . .> through prolonged or repeated exposure.<. . .> (state all organs identified in subpart E for this substance.)
(L) May damage fertility or the unborn child <. . .>.<. . .> (state specific effect identified in subpart E for this substance.)
(M) May cause an allergic skin reaction.
(N) Causes eye irritation.
(iii)
(A) Avoid skin contact. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iii)(F) of this section for this designation.)
(B) Avoid breathing substance. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iii)(H) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Avoid ingestion.
(D) Use respiratory protection. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iii)(G) of this section for this designation.)
(E) Use skin protection. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iii)(F) of this section for this designation.)
(F) Wear protective gloves/protective clothing/eye protection/face protection.
(Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify type of equipment, as required.)
(G) Wear respiratory protection. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify equipment as required.)
(H) Avoid breathing dust/fume/gas/mist/vapors/spray. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify applicable conditions.)
(iv)
(A) Toxic to fish. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iv)(C) of this section for this designation.)
(B) Toxic to aquatic organisms. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(iv)(C) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Toxic to aquatic life.
(v)
(A) Disposal restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(v)(D) of this section for this designation.)
(B) Spill clean-up restrictions apply. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(v)(D) of this section for this designation.)
(C) Do not release to water. (You may also use paragraph (h)(2)(v)(D) of this section for this designation.)
(D) Dispose of contents/container to . . . (Specify disposal requirements in subpart E of this part and whether they apply to contents, container or both.)
(i)
(j)
(1) Human health hazard statements:
(i) Causes skin irritation.
(ii) May cause cancer.
(iii) Immune system effects.
(iv) Developmental effects.
(v) May cause allergy or asthma symptoms or breathing difficulties if inhaled.
(vi) May cause damage to organs <. . .>through prolonged or repeated exposure.<. . .> (state all organs identified in subpart E for this substance.)
(vii) May damage fertility or the unborn child<. . .>.< . . . >(state specific effect identified in subpart E for this substance.)
(viii) May cause an allergic skin reaction.
(ix) Causes eye irritation.
(2) Human health hazard precautionary statements:
(i) Avoid ingestion.
(ii) Wear protective gloves/protective clothing/eye protection/face protection. (Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify type of equipment, as required.)
(iii) Wear respiratory protection.
(Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify equipment as required.)
(iv) Avoid breathing dust/fume/gas/mist/vapors/spray.
(Chemical manufacturer or distributor to specify applicable conditions.)
(3) Environmental hazard statements: This substance may be:
(i) Toxic to aquatic life.
(ii) Very toxic to aquatic life.
(iii) Harmful to aquatic life.
(iv) Very toxic to aquatic life with long term effects.
(v) Toxic to aquatic life with long lasting effects.
(vi) Harmful to aquatic life with long lasting effects.
(vii) May cause long lasting harmful effects to aquatic life.
(4) Environmental hazard precautionary statements: Notice to users:
(i) Avoid release to the environment (if this is not the intended use.)
(ii) Collect spillage.
(iii) Dispose of contents/container to . . . (Specify disposal requirements in subpart E of this part and whether they apply to contents, container or both.)
The revision reads as follows:
These instructions describe the use of the equation specified in § 721.90(a)(4), (b)(4), and (c)(4) to compute estimated surface water concentrations which will result from release of a substance identified in subpart E of this part. The equation shall be computed for each site using the stream flow rate appropriate for the site according to paragraph (b) of this section, and the highest number of kilograms calculated to be released for that site on a given day according to paragraph (a) of this section. Two variables shall be considered in computing the equation, the number of kilograms released, and receiving stream flow.
(a) * * *
(7) When a substance is designated in subpart E of this part with a specific control technology and a percentage removal of the substance from wastewater resulting from use of the specified control technology, you may subtract that percentage from the highest expected daily release if that control technology is applied.
At the time EPA adds a substance to subpart E of this part, EPA will specify appropriate recordkeeping requirements which correspond to the significant new use designations for the substance selected from subpart B of this part. Each manufacturer and processor of the substance shall maintain the records for 5 years from the date of their creation. In addition to the records specified in § 721.40, the records whose maintenance this section requires may include the following:
(a) Records documenting the manufacturing volume of the substance and the corresponding dates of manufacture.
(c) Records documenting the names and addresses (including shipment destination address, if different) of all persons outside the site of manufacture or processing to whom the manufacturer or processor directly sells or transfers the substance, the date of each sale or transfer, and the quantity of the substance sold or transferred on such date.
(j) Records documenting compliance with any applicable disposal requirements under § 721.85, including the method of disposal, location of disposal sites, dates of disposal, and volume of the substance disposed. Where the estimated disposal volume is not known to or reasonably ascertainable by the manufacturer or processor, that person must maintain other records which demonstrate establishment and implementation of a program that ensures compliance with any applicable disposal requirements.
15 U.S.C. 2604.
The revisions read as follows:
(a) * * *
(1) This section grants an exemption from the premanufacture notice requirements of section 5(a)(1)(A) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 U.S.C. 2604(a)(1)(A)) for the manufacture of:
* * *
(e) * * *
(2) * * *
(xi) * * *
(A) The manufacturer intends to manufacture the new chemical substance for commercial purposes, other than in small quantities solely for research and development, under the terms of this section.
* * *
(xiii) Safety Data Sheet (§ 720.45(i)).
Surface Transportation Board.
Proposed rule, withdrawal.
The Surface Transportation Board is withdrawing the proposed rules and discontinuing the EP 385 (Sub-No. 7) rulemaking proceeding which proposed to expand the Waybill Sample collection with respect to traffic movements designated as a Toxic Inhalation Hazard.
The proposed rule published on February 2, 2010 (75 FR 5261) is withdrawn and the rulemaking proceeding is discontinued on July 28, 2016.
Allison Davis at (202) 245-0378. Assistance for the hearing impaired is available through the Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) at 1-800-877-8339.
On January 28, 2010, in the above titled docket, the Board issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPR) seeking public comment on a proposal to expand information that certain railroads are required to submit to the Board for purposes of the carload Waybill Sample (75 FR 5261, February 2, 2010). Specifically, the proposal would require railroads to submit information about all traffic movements designated as a Toxic Inhalation Hazard (TIH).
As explained below, this proceeding will be discontinued.
The Waybill Sample is the Board's primary source of information about freight rail shipments terminating in the United States. A waybill is a document describing the characteristics of an individual rail shipment, and includes (among other things) the following information: The originating and terminating freight stations, the railroads participating in the movement, the points of all railroad interchanges, the number of cars, the car initial and number, the movement weight in hundredweight, the commodity, and the freight revenue. Currently, railroads that are required to file Waybill Sample information may report a random sample of as little as 1% (using the manual system) or 2.5% (using the computerized system) of carloads on a waybill.
In the NPR, the Board suggested that the expanded information gathered from the proposed rule would permit the Board to assess TIH traffic within the United States more accurately. The NPR also stated that the information would be beneficial in Three-Benchmark rail rate cases involving TIH traffic, giving parties a larger number of movements from which to develop comparison groups. The additional information would also assist the Board in quantifying the magnitude of TIH traffic, and would help the Board more accurately measure the associated costs of handling such traffic.
On March 4, 2010, the Association of American Railroads (AAR) filed the single comment received in response to the NPR. The AAR agrees that expanded TIH waybill data for use in Three-Benchmark rate cases would be useful; but, it expressed several security-related concerns regarding the potential use of TIH-related data the Board proposed to collect. (AAR Comments 2, 7.)
The Board appreciates and understands the AAR's concerns about security as it relates to TIH traffic. Without commenting on the AAR's suggested alternatives, we will discontinue this proceeding. Taking into consideration the security concerns raised and the lack of broader comment on the NPR, we will not move forward with the proposed rule and will discontinue this docket in the interest of administrative finality. However, the Board will consider ways to address this issue as part of future proceedings.
Decided: July 21, 2016.
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman. Commissioner Begeman commented with a separate expression.
COMMISSIONER BEGEMAN, commenting:
This proceeding was initiated in January 2010, well before a majority of the current members began serving here. The only real action that has occurred on this matter that I am aware of was when the Association of American Railroads filed its comments in March 2010. Since that time, the Board could have worked to meaningfully address AAR's concerns and ultimately improve the proposal. Yet no such effort occurred. Therefore, the best course of action for this proceeding—one that has been effectively dormant for over six years—is for it to be discontinued, regardless of the proposal's potential merits.
This proceeding is just one example of why I believe Congress has directed the Board to issue quarterly reporting on all of its outstanding rulemaking proposals. We simply must do more to improve the timeliness of all Board actions.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement; reopening of public comment period.
NMFS, in consultation with the North Pacific Fishery Management Council (Council), announces its intent to expand the scope of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for a new bycatch management program for trawl groundfish fisheries in the Gulf of Alaska (GOA). The bycatch management program for the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries would provide participants with incentives to effectively manage and reduce Chinook salmon and Pacific halibut bycatch and promote increased utilization of groundfish harvested in the GOA. NMFS previously published a notice of intent to prepare an EIS for the new bycatch management program on July 14, 2015. In June 2016, NMFS and the Council decided to reopen the comment period on the notice of intent to prepare an EIS because the Council and NMFS expanded scope of the EIS. NMFS will accept written comments from the public to identify issues of concern and assist the Council in determining the appropriate range of management alternatives for the EIS.
The comment period for the notice of intent published on July 14, 2015 (80 FR 40988) is reopened. Written comments will be accepted through September 26, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2014-0150, by any of the following methods:
•
•
Rachel Baker, (907) 586-7228 or email
The Council is considering the establishment of a new bycatch management program for the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries. On July 14, 2015, NMFS announced its intent to prepare an EIS pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) on the proposed bycatch management program (80 FR 40988). In the notice of intent, NMFS requested input from the public on the scope of the EIS, in addition to seeking comment for a range of reasonable alternatives and impacts to affected resources. NMFS received 36 public comments during the scoping period and provided a scoping report to the Council in October 2015. Based on the comments received on the July 14, 2015, notice of intent and on public input received by the Council at 10 of its meetings between October 2012 and June 2016, NMFS and the Council have decided to seek additional public input to assist them in determining the appropriate range of management alternatives for the EIS. The July 14, 2015, notice of intent provides additional detail on the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries and the proposed EIS (80 FR 40988).
NMFS and the Council have determined the preparation of an EIS may be required for the proposed action because some important aspects of the bycatch management program on target and bycatch species and their users may be uncertain or unknown and may result in significant impacts on the human environment not previously analyzed. NMFS and the Council are seeking information from the public through the EIS scoping process on the range of alternatives to be analyzed, and on the environmental, social, and economic issues to be considered in the analysis. Written comments generated during the previous scoping process and this scoping process will be provided to the Council and incorporated into the EIS for the proposed action.
Under the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act), the United States has exclusive fishery management authority over all fishery resources found within the exclusive economic zone (EEZ). The management of these fishery resources is vested in the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary). The Council has the responsibility to prepare fishery management plans for the fishery resources that require conservation and management in the EEZ off Alaska. Management of the Federal groundfish fisheries in the GOA is carried out under the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Gulf of Alaska (FMP). The FMP, its amendments, and implementing regulations (found at 50 CFR part 679) are developed in accordance with the requirements of the Magnuson-Stevens Act and other applicable Federal laws and executive orders, notably the NEPA and the Endangered Species Act (ESA).
In October 2012, the Council unanimously adopted a purpose and need statement, and goals and objectives, to support the development of a proposed bycatch management program that would allocate exclusive harvest privileges for target groundfish species and prohibited species catch (PSC) to individuals, cooperatives, or other entities. Allocation of allowable harvests in the form of exclusive harvest privileges is a type of management approach that replaces the rigid management structure of a derby fishery with a flexible program that provides vessel-level accountability for harvests and removes disincentives to controlling and reducing bycatch and waste. Allocating exclusive harvest privileges to fishery participants can mitigate the potential negative impacts of a derby fishery on target and prohibited species, and on the operational and economic efficiency of the fisheries. In this type of management approach, a portion of the catch for a species (the exclusive harvest privilege) is allocated to individual fishermen, cooperatives, or other entities. Each participant in the fishery must have an exclusive harvest privilege, and each
The Council has recommended and NMFS has implemented groundfish management programs in the EEZ off Alaska that allocate exclusive harvest privileges to fishery participants. These programs allocated a long-term exclusive harvest privilege to initially qualified participants for target groundfish species and PSC. The long-term exclusive harvest privilege yields an annual allocation of a portion of the TAC for target groundfish species and a portion of the applicable PSC limit. Based on experience with these programs, the Council and NMFS have determined that allocating exclusive harvest privileges of target groundfish species and PSC creates a structure for fishery participants to efficiently manage harvesting and processing activities that can result in reduced bycatch and improved utilization of groundfish fisheries. Additional information on these management programs is provided in the final rules implementing the American Fisheries Act in the Bering Sea (67 FR 79692, December 30, 2002), the Amendment 80 Program in the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands (72 FR 52668, September 14, 2007), and the Rockfish Program in the Central GOA (76 FR 81248, December 27, 2011).
The Council continued to develop and refine its purpose and need and goals and objectives for a proposed bycatch management program for the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries at six of its meetings between October 2012 and October 2014. During this time period, the Council received testimony from stakeholders that the allocation of long-term exclusive harvest privileges can reduce opportunities for new participants to enter the fisheries. These stakeholders noted that the long-term exclusive harvest privileges allocated in previous management programs have acquired a high value as the overall value of the fishery increased. This has created a high cost of entry for new participants because they must purchase long-term exclusive harvest privileges to participate in the fisheries. The stakeholders indicated that the high cost of entry has resulted in economic barriers to new entry in these fisheries and requested that the Council consider measures to minimize these economic barriers in the proposed bycatch management program. The Council also received testimony indicating that the allocation of long-term harvest privileges can adversely impact fishery-dependent communities through fleet consolidation and changes in the distribution of fishery benefits.
In October 2015, the Council stated its intent to address concerns about potential economic barriers for new participants and adverse impacts on communities by including a new type of proposed bycatch management program that would allocate only PSC on an annual basis to individuals or cooperatives rather than allocating long-term exclusive harvest privileges for both target groundfish species and PSC. In June 2016, the Council identified an overarching goal and objective for the proposed bycatch management program to minimize economic barriers for new participants and maintain opportunities for entry into the trawl groundfish fisheries by limiting the type and duration of exclusive harvest privileges that may be allocated under the proposed bycatch management program. The Council also stated its intent to seek public input on additional mechanisms to limit exclusive harvesting privileges that may be allocated under the proposed bycatch management program to meet the Council's goals and objectives for the program.
The Council has identified the following purpose and need statement and goals and objectives for the proposed bycatch management program:
Management of Gulf of Alaska (GOA) groundfish trawl fisheries has grown increasingly complicated in recent years due to the implementation of measures to protect Steller sea lions and reduced Pacific halibut and Chinook salmon Prohibited Species Catch (PSC) limits under variable annual total allowable catch (TACs) limits for target groundfish species. These changes complicate effective management of target and non-target resources, and can have significant adverse social and economic impacts on harvesters, processors, and fishery-dependent GOA coastal communities.
The current management tools in the GOA Groundfish Fishery Management Plan (FMP) do not provide the GOA trawl fleet with the ability to effectively address these challenges, especially with regard to the fleet's ability to best reduce and utilize PSC. As such, the Council has determined that consideration of a new management regime for the GOA trawl fisheries is warranted.
The purpose of the proposed action is to create a new management structure which allocates prohibited species catch limits and/or allowable harvest to individuals, cooperatives, or other entities, which will mitigate the impacts of a derby-style race for fish. It is expected to improve stock conservation by creating vessel-level and/or cooperative-level incentives to eliminate wasteful fishing practices, provide mechanisms to control and reduce bycatch, and create accountability measures when utilizing PSC and/or target and secondary species. It will also increase at-sea monitoring in the GOA trawl fisheries, have the added benefit of reducing the incentive to fish during unsafe conditions, and improve operational efficiencies.
The Council recognizes that GOA harvesters, processors, and communities all have a stake in the groundfish trawl fisheries. The new program shall be designed to provide tools for the effective management and reduction of PSC and bycatch, and promote increased utilization of both target and secondary species harvested in the GOA. The program is also expected to increase the flexibility and economic efficiency of the GOA groundfish trawl fisheries and support the continued direct and indirect participation of the coastal communities that are dependent upon those fisheries. These management measures could apply to those species, or groups of species, harvested by trawl gear in the GOA, and/or to PSC. This program will not modify the overall management of other sectors in the GOA, or the Central GOA rockfish program, which already operates under a catch share system.
The overarching goal of the Gulf of Alaska Trawl Bycatch Management program is to provide the fleet tools for the effective management and reduction of PSC and bycatch, and promote increased utilization of both target and secondary species while minimizing
The proposed action to be analyzed in the EIS is a bycatch management program for the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries that would provide participants with incentives to effectively manage bycatch and reduce PSC, and that would promote increased utilization of groundfish harvested in the GOA. The proposed action is intended to improve stock conservation by imposing accountability measures for utilizing target and incidental catch and minimizing PSC to the extent practicable, creating incentives to eliminate wasteful fishing practices, providing mechanisms for participants to control and reduce bycatch in the trawl groundfish fisheries, and improving safety of life at sea and operational efficiencies. The proposed action would apply to participants in Federal groundfish fisheries prosecuted with trawl gear in the following areas: (1) The Western GOA Regulatory Area (Western GOA), (2) the Central GOA Regulatory Area (Central GOA), and (3) the West Yakutat District of the Eastern GOA Regulatory Area (West Yakutat District). These areas are defined at § 679.2 and shown in Figure 3 to 50 CFR part 679.
NMFS, in coordination with the Council, will evaluate a range of alternative bycatch management programs for the trawl groundfish fisheries in the Western GOA, Central GOA, and West Yakutat District. NMFS and the Council recognize that implementation of a GOA trawl bycatch management program would result in substantial changes to many of the current management measures for the GOA groundfish fisheries. The EIS will analyze these changes as well as alternative ways to manage target and incidental groundfish species and PSC in the GOA groundfish fisheries. The potential alternatives already identified for the bycatch management program are available on the Council's Web site at
Alternative 1 is the no action alternative (status quo). The Council and NMFS annually establish biological thresholds and annual total allowable catch limits for groundfish species to sustainably manage the groundfish fisheries in the GOA. The Council and NMFS implemented the license limitation program (LLP), which limits access to the groundfish fisheries in the GOA. The groundfish LLP requires each vessel in the GOA to have an LLP license on board the vessel at all times while directed fishing for license limitation groundfish, with limited exemptions. The preamble to the final rule implementing the groundfish LLP provides a more detailed explanation of the rationale for specific provisions in the LLP (October 1, 1998; 63 FR 52642).
While the LLP limits the total number of vessels that can participate in the GOA groundfish fisheries, it does not limit harvest by individual vessels or assign exclusive harvest privileges to specific vessels or entities. This has led to a competitive derby fishery in the GOA groundfish fisheries, in which fishermen race against each other to harvest as much fish as they can before the annual catch limit or the PSC limit is reached and the fishery is closed for the season. A derby fishery relies on a fairly rigid management structure that is not adaptable to changes in weather, markets, or other operating considerations. Therefore, a derby fishery often results in shorter fishing seasons and unsafe fishing practices. It can also create a substantial disincentive for participants to take actions to reduce bycatch use and waste, particularly if those actions could reduce groundfish catch rates. In a derby fishery, participants who choose not to take actions to reduce bycatch and waste stand to gain additional groundfish catch by continuing to harvest at a higher bycatch rate, at the expense of any vessels engaged in bycatch avoidance.
The Council has designated Pacific salmon and Pacific halibut, along with several other species (Pacific herring, steelhead trout, king crab, and Tanner crab) as prohibited species in the GOA groundfish fisheries. Prohibited species are species taken incidentally in the groundfish trawl fisheries and designated as “prohibited species” because they are target species in other, fully utilized domestic fisheries. The Council has recommended and NMFS has implemented various measures to control the catch of such prohibited species in GOA groundfish fisheries. Prohibited species incidentally caught while directed fishing for groundfish in the GOA may not be sold or kept for personal use and must be discarded with a minimum of injury. In addition, the GOA groundfish fishery restrictions include PSC limits for Chinook salmon and Pacific halibut to constrain the
Alternative 2 is a bycatch management program that would allocate exclusive harvest privileges to participants in the Western GOA, Central GOA, and West Yakutat District trawl groundfish fisheries who voluntarily join a cooperative. Participants who do not choose to join a cooperative would have the opportunity to participate in the current limited access management system under the groundfish LLP. In Alternative 2, the Council is considering allocating exclusive harvest privileges for target groundfish species and Chinook salmon and Pacific halibut PSC to cooperatives. Alternative 2 contains several elements and options for determining eligible participants, groundfish species and PSC to be allocated, and methods for determining allocations to cooperatives and the limited access fishery. Alternative 2 includes elements and options for cooperative formation and membership that are intended to provide incentives for participation by harvesters and processors to improve coordination and operational efficiencies. Alternative 2 also contains a number of elements that are intended to provide for fishery dependent community stability, such as harvest privilege consolidation limits and area- and port-specific delivery requirements.
Alternative 3 is a bycatch management program that would allocate Chinook salmon and Pacific halibut PSC to participants in the Western GOA, Central GOA, and West Yakutat District trawl groundfish fisheries who voluntarily join a cooperative. Participants who do not choose to join a cooperative would have the opportunity to participate in the current limited access management system under the groundfish LLP. Alternative 3 contains several elements and options for determining eligible participants and methods for determining PSC allocations to cooperatives and the limited access management fishery. Alternative 3 also includes elements and options for cooperative formation and membership that are intended to provide incentives for participation by harvesters and processors to improve coordination and operational efficiencies.
Alternative 4 is a bycatch management program that would allocate exclusive harvest privileges to fishery participants who voluntarily join a cooperative under Alternative 2 and either (1) a Community Fishing Association as defined in section 303A(c)(3) of the Magnuson-Stevens Act or (2) an Adaptive Management Program. Participants who do not choose to join a cooperative would have the opportunity to participate in the current limited access management system under the groundfish LLP. In Alternative 4, the Council is considering allocating exclusive harvest privileges for target groundfish species and PSC to cooperatives and either a Community Fishing Association or to persons who meet the criteria established for an Adaptive Management Program. The allocation to a Community Fishing Association or Adaptive Management Program would meet objectives that include providing for sustained participation of fishing communities, promoting conservation measures, and assisting vessel owner-operators, captains, and crew who want to enter and participate in the GOA trawl groundfish fisheries.
Scoping is an early and open process for determining the scope of issues to be addressed in an EIS and for identifying the significant issues related to the proposed action. A principal objective of the scoping and public involvement process is to identify a range of reasonable management alternatives that, with adequate analysis, will delineate critical issues and provide a clear basis for distinguishing among those alternatives and selecting a preferred alternative. Through this notice, NMFS is reopening the comment period on scoping for the EIS for the proposed bycatch management program so that interested or affected people may participate and contribute to the final decision.
NMFS is reopening the comment period to seek written public comments on the scope of issues, including potential impacts, and alternatives that should be considered for a bycatch management program for the trawl groundfish fisheries in the Western GOA, Central GOA, and West Yakutat District of the GOA. NMFS will consider written public comments received during this scoping process, as well as those received during the scoping process from July 14, 2015, through August 28, 2015 (80 FR 40988), and provide the Council with a summary of all written comments received to assist the Council in determining the appropriate range of management alternatives for the EIS. Written comments should be as specific as possible to be the most helpful. Written comments received during the scoping process, including the names and addresses of those submitting them, will be considered part of the public record of the proposed action and will be available for public inspection. Written comments will be accepted at the address above (see
The public is invited to participate and provide input at Council meetings where the latest scientific information regarding the GOA groundfish fisheries is reviewed and alternative bycatch management programs are developed and evaluated. Notice of future Council meetings will be published in the
16 U.S.C. 1801
Commission on Civil Rights.
Announcement of meetings.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission), and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), that a planning meeting of the New Mexico Advisory Committee to the Commission will convene at 11:00 a.m. (MDT) on Thursday, August 4, 2016, via teleconference. The purpose of the meeting is to review and comment on transcript of the June 24, 2016 briefing meeting on Elder Abuse. The committee will also discuss next steps for the project.
Members of the public may listen to the discussion by dialing the following Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-481-2844; Conference ID: 7748208. Please be advised that before being placed into the conference call, the operator will ask callers to provide their names, their organizational affiliations (if any), and an email address (if available) prior to placing callers into the conference room. Callers can expect to incur charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, and the Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free phone number.
Persons with hearing impairments may also follow the discussion by first calling the Federal Relay Service (FRS) at 1-800-977-8339 and provide the FRS operator with the Conference Call Toll-Free Number: 1-888-481-2844, Conference ID: 7748208. Members of the public are invited to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office by Monday, September 5, 2016. Written comments may be mailed to the Rocky Mountain Regional Office, U.S. Commission on Civil Rights, 1961 Stout Street, Suite 13-201, Denver, CO 80294, faxed to (303) 866-1050, or emailed to Evelyn Bohor at
Records and documents discussed during the meeting will be available for public viewing as they become available at
Thursday, August 4, 2016, at 11:00 a.m. (MDT)
To be held via teleconference:
Malee V. Craft, DFO,
GE Renewables North America, LLC (GE Renewables) submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facility in Pensacola, Florida within Subzone 249A. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on July 22, 2016.
GE Renewables already has authority to produce wind turbines and related hubs and nacelles within Subzone 249A and also has a request pending to add foreign status materials/components to the scope of authority (Doc. B-41-2016). The current request would add a finished product and foreign status materials/components to the scope of authority. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), additional FTZ authority would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components and specific finished products described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt GE Renewables from customs duty payments on the foreign-status materials/components used in export production. On its domestic sales, GE Renewables would be able to choose the duty rates during customs entry procedures that apply to: wind turbines and related hubs and nacelles; and, repower drivetrain assemblies (duty-free or 2.5%) for the foreign-status materials/components noted below and in the existing scope of authority. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The materials/components sourced from abroad include the following repower drivetrain components: Brake calipers; brake hydraulic power units; gearboxes; main bearings; main shafts; and, pillow blocks (duty rate ranges from duty-free to 5.8%).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is September 6, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Elizabeth Whiteman at
Adient US LLC (Adient), owned by Johnson Controls, Inc., submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facilities within FTZ 189D, at sites in Holland and Zeeland, Michigan. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on July 13, 2016.
The facilities are used for the production of motorized seat adjusters for motor vehicles. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status components and specific finished product described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt Adient from customs duty payments on the foreign-status components used in export production. On its domestic sales, Adient would be able to choose the duty rate during customs entry procedures that applies to motorized seat adjusters (duty free) for the foreign-status electric seat adjuster motors (duty rate—2.8%). Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is September 6, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Diane Finver at
On April 21, 2016, the Executive Secretary of the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board docketed an application submitted by the City of Waterville, grantee of FTZ 186, requesting subzone status subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 186, on behalf of Flemish Master Weavers in Sanford, Maine.
The application was processed in accordance with the FTZ Act and Regulations, including notice in the
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Fred Baker at (202) 482-2924 (India); Moses Song or Edythe Artman at (202) 482-5041 or (202) 482-3931, respectively (Italy); and Michael Heaney at (202) 482-4475 (Spain), AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On June 30, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) received antidumping duty (AD) petitions concerning imports of finished carbon steel flanges (steel flanges) from India, Italy, and Spain, filed in proper form on behalf of Weldbend Corporation and Boltex Mfg. Co., L.P. (Petitioners).
On July 6, 8, and 12, 2016, the Department requested additional information and clarification of certain areas of the Petitions.
In accordance with section 732(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), Petitioners allege that imports of steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value within the meaning of section 731 of the Act, and that such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 732(b)(1) of the Act, the Petitions are accompanied by information reasonably available to Petitioners supporting their allegations.
The Department finds that Petitioners filed these Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because Petitioners are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. The Department also finds that Petitioners demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the AD investigations that Petitioners are requesting.
Because the Petitions were filed on June 30, 2016, the period of investigation (POI) for each investigation is, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b)(1), April 1, 2015, through March 31, 2016.
The product covered by these investigations is steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain. For a full description of the scope of these investigations,
During our review of the Petitions, the Department issued questions to, and received responses from, Petitioners pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petitions would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (scope). The Department will consider all comments received from parties and, if necessary, will consult with parties prior to the issuance of the preliminary determinations. If scope comments include factual information (
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigations be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigations may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. All such comments must be filed on the records of each of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
The Department will be giving interested parties an opportunity to provide comments on the appropriate physical characteristics of steel flanges to be reported in response to the Department's AD questionnaires. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the merchandise under consideration in order to report the relevant costs of production accurately as well as to develop appropriate product-comparison criteria.
Interested parties may provide any information or comments that they feel are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. Specifically, they may provide comments as to which characteristics are appropriate to use as: (1) General product characteristics and (2) product-comparison criteria. We note that it is not always appropriate to use all product characteristics as product-comparison criteria. We base product-comparison criteria on meaningful
In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaires, all comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. EDT on August 9, 2016, which is 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice. Any rebuttal comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. EDT on August 19, 2016. All comments and submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the records of the India, Italy, and Spain less-than-fair-value investigations, as well as the India countervailing duty investigation.
Section 732(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, the Department shall: (i) Poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, Petitioners do not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigations. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that steel flanges constitute a single domestic like product and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether Petitioners have standing under section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petitions with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigations,” in Appendix I of this notice. Petitioners provided their production of the domestic like product in 2015,
Our review of the data provided in the Petitions and other information readily available to the Department indicates that Petitioners have established industry support.
The Department finds that Petitioners filed the Petitions on behalf of the domestic industry because they are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act and they have demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the AD
Petitioners allege that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product is being materially injured, or is threatened with material injury, by reason of the imports of the subject merchandise sold at less than normal value (NV). In addition, Petitioners allege that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
Petitioners contend that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share, underselling and price suppression or depression, lost sales and revenues, declines in production, capacity utilization, and U.S. shipments, negative impact on employment variables, and decline in financial performance.
The following is a description of the allegations of sales at less-than-fair value upon which the Department based its decision to initiate investigations of imports of steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and NV are discussed in greater detail in the country-specific initiation checklists.
For India, Italy, and Spain, Petitioners based export price (EP) U.S. prices on average unit values (AUVs) calculated using publicly available import statistics from the ITC's Dataweb for each country under the relevant Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings for steel flanges.
For India and Italy, Petitioners provided home market price information obtained through market research for steel flanges produced and offered for sale in India and Italy,
Pursuant to section 773(b)(3) of the Act, COP consists of the cost of manufacturing (COM), SG&A expenses, financial expenses, and packing expenses. Petitioners calculated COM based on Petitioners' experience, adjusted for known differences between producing in the United States and producing in the respective country (
For Italy, pursuant to sections 773(a)(4), 773(b), and 773(e) of the Act, Petitioners provided information that sales of steel flanges in the home market were made at prices below the cost of production (COP) and also calculated NV based on constructed value (CV).
Based on the data provided by Petitioners, there is reason to believe that imports of steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain, are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value. Based on comparisons of EP to NV in accordance with section 773(a) of the Act, the estimated dumping margin(s) for steel flanges are as follows: (1) India ranges from 17.80 to 37.84 percent;
Based upon the examination of the AD Petitions on steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain, we find that Petitions meet the requirements of section 732 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating AD investigations to determine whether imports of steel flanges for India, Italy, and Spain are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value. In accordance with section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determinations no later than 140 days after the date of this initiation.
On June 29, 2015, the President of the United States signed into law the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, which made numerous amendments to the AD and CVD law.
Petitioners named 31 companies in India, 26 companies in Italy, and 6 companies in Spain as producers/exporters of steel flanges.
Comments for the above-referenced investigations must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5:00 p.m. EDT by the dates noted above. We intend to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 20 days of publication of this notice.
In accordance with section 732(b)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), copies of the public version of the Petitions have been provided to the governments of India, Italy, and Spain via ACCESS. To the extent practicable, we will attempt to provide a copy of the public version of the Petitions to each exporter named in the Petitions, as provided under 19 CFR 351.203(c)(2).
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 732(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petitions were filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain are materially injuring or threatening material injury to a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). Any party, when submitting factual information, must specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct. Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Please review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in these investigations.
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under part 351, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under part 351 expires. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 777(i) of the Act.
The scope of these investigations covers finished carbon steel flanges. Finished carbon steel flanges differ from unfinished carbon steel flanges (also known as carbon steel flange forgings) in that they have undergone further processing after forging, including, but not limited to, beveling, bore threading, center or step boring, face machining, taper boring, machining ends or surfaces, drilling bolt holes, and/or de-burring or shot blasting. Any one of these post-forging processes suffices to render the forging into a finished carbon steel flange for purposes of these investigations. However, mere heat treatment of a carbon steel flange forging (without any other further processing after forging) does not render the forging into a finished carbon steel flange for purposes of these investigations.
While these finished carbon steel flanges are generally manufactured to specification ASME 816.5 or ASME 816.47 series A or series 8, the scope is not limited to flanges produced under those specifications. All types of finished carbon steel flanges are included in the scope regardless of pipe size (which may or may not be expressed in inches of nominal pipe size), pressure class (usually, but not necessarily, expressed in pounds of pressure,
(a) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements:
(b) The carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and
(c) none of the elements listed below exceeds the quantity, by weight, as indicated:
(i) 0.87 percent of aluminum;
(ii) 0.0105 percent of boron;
(iii) 10.10 percent of chromium;
(iv) 1.55 percent of columbium;
(v) 3.10 percent of copper;
(vi) 0.38 percent of lead;
(vii) 3.04 percent of manganese;
(viii) 2.05 percent of molybdenum;
(ix) 20.15 percent of nickel;
(x) 1.55 percent of niobium;
(xi) 0.20 percent of nitrogen;
(xii) 0.21 percent of phosphorus;
(xiii) 3.10 percent of silicon;
(xiv) 0.21 percent of sulfur;
(xv) 1.05 percent of titanium;
(xvi) 4.06 percent of tungsten;
(xvii) 0.53 percent of vanadium; or
(xviii) 0.015 percent of zirconium.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Keith Haynes, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5139.
On March 23, 2016, the Department of Commerce (“Department”) initiated an antidumping duty investigation on 1,1,1,2 Tetrafluoroethane (“R-134a”) from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”).
Section 733(b)(1) of the Act requires the Department to issue the preliminary determination in an antidumping duty investigation within 140 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. However, if the petitioner makes a timely request for a postponement, section 733(c)(1)(A) of the Act allows the Department to postpone the preliminary determination until no later than 190 days after the date on which the Department initiated the investigation. On July 13, 2016, Petitioners submitted a timely request pursuant to section 733(c)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(e).
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 733(c)(2) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(f)(1).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Yasmin Bordas at (202) 482-3813, or Davina Friedmann at (202) 482-0698, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On September 30, 2015, the Department of Commerce (Department) received a countervailing duty (CVD) petition concerning imports of finished carbon steel flanges (steel flanges) from India, filed in proper form on behalf of Weldbend Corporation & Boltex Mfg. Co., L.P. (collectively, Petitioners). The CVD petition was accompanied by antidumping duty (AD) petitions concerning imports of steel flanges from India, Italy, and Spain.
On July 6, 2016, the Department requested information and clarification for certain areas of the Petition.
In accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), Petitioners allege that the Government of India (GOI) is providing countervailable subsidies (within the meaning of sections 701 and 771(5) of the Act) to imports of steel flanges from India, and that such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 702(b)(1) of the Act, for those alleged programs in India on which we have initiated a CVD investigation, the Petition is accompanied by information reasonably available to Petitioners supporting their allegations.
The Department finds that Petitioners filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because Petitioners are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. The Department also finds that Petitioners demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the CVD investigation that Petitioners are requesting.
The period of investigation is January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015.
The product covered by this investigation is steel flanges from India. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
During our review of the Petitions, the Department issued questions to, and received responses from, Petitioners pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petitions would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (scope). The Department will consider all comments received from parties and, if necessary, will consult with parties prior to the issuance of the preliminary determinations. If scope comments include factual information (
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigations be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigations may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information. All such comments must be filed on the records of each of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
Pursuant to section 702(b)(4)(A)(i) of the Act, the Department notified representatives of the GOI of the receipt of the Petition. Also, in accordance with section 702(b)(4)(A)(ii) of the Act, the Department provided representatives of the GOI the opportunity for consultations with respect to the CVD petition. On July 19, 2016, consultations were held with the GOI. All invitation letters and memoranda regarding these consultations are on file electronically
Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 702(c)(4)(A)
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, Petitioners do not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that steel flanges constitute a single domestic like product and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether Petitioners have standing under section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petition with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigation,” in Appendix I of this notice. Petitioners provided their production of the domestic like product in 2015,
Our review of the data provided in the Petition and other information readily available to the Department indicates that Petitioners have established industry support.
The Department finds that Petitioners filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because they are interested parties as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act and they have demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the CVD investigation that they are requesting the Department initiate.
Because India is a “Subsidies Agreement Country” within the meaning of section 701(b) of the Act, section 701(a)(2) of the Act applies to this investigation. Accordingly, the ITC must determine whether imports of the subject merchandise from India materially injure, or threaten material injury to, a U.S. industry.
Petitioners allege that imports of the subject merchandise are benefitting from countervailable subsidies and that such imports are causing, or threaten to cause, material injury to the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product. In addition, Petitioners allege that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
In CVD petitions, section 771(24)(B) of the Act provides that imports of subject merchandise from developing and least developed countries must exceed the negligibility threshold of four percent. The import data provided by Petitioners demonstrate that subject imports from India, which has been designated as a least developed country,
Petitioners contend that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by reduced market share, underselling and price suppression or depression, lost sales and revenues, declines in production, capacity utilization, and U.S. shipments, negative impact on employment variables, and decline in financial performance.
Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires the Department to initiate a CVD investigation whenever an interested party files a CVD petition on behalf of an industry that: (1) Alleges the elements necessary for an imposition of a duty under section 701(a) of the Act; and (2) is accompanied by information reasonably available to Petitioners supporting the allegations.
Petitioners allege that producers/exporters of steel flanges in India benefit from countervailable subsidies bestowed by the GOI. The Department examined the Petition and finds that it complies with the requirements of section 702(b)(1) of the Act. Therefore, in accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Act, we are initiating a CVD investigation to determine whether manufacturers, producers, or exporters of steel flanges from India receive countervailable subsidies from the GOI.
On June 29, 2015, the President of the United States signed into law the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, which made numerous amendments to the AD and CVD law.
Based on our review of the petition, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on 15 of the 99 alleged programs in India. For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate or not initiate on each program,
In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 65 days after the date of this initiation.
Petitioners named 34 companies as producers/exporters of steel flanges in India.
Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by ACCESS, by 5 p.m. EDT by the date noted above. We intend to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 20 days of publication of this notice. Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(b). Instructions for filing such applications may be found on the Department's Web site at
In accordance with section 702(b)(4)(A)(i) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), a copy of the public version of the Petition has been provided to the GOI
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 702(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petition was filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of steel flanges from India are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). The regulation requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct. Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Parties should review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301 expires. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in the letter or memorandum setting forth the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, stand-alone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely-filed requests for the extension of time limits. Review
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 702 and 777(i) of the Act.
The scope of this investigation covers finished carbon steel flanges. Finished carbon steel flanges differ from unfinished carbon steel flanges (also known as carbon steel flange forgings) in that they have undergone further processing after forging, including, but not limited to, beveling, bore threading, center or step boring, face machining, taper boring, machining ends or surfaces, drilling bolt holes, and/or de-burring or shot blasting. Any one of these post-forging processes suffices to render the forging into a finished carbon steel flange for purposes of this investigation. However, mere heat treatment of a carbon steel flange forging (without any other further processing after forging) does not render the forging into a finished carbon steel flange for purposes of this investigation.
While these finished carbon steel flanges are generally manufactured to specification ASME 816.5 or ASME 816.47 series A or series 8, the scope is not limited to flanges produced under those specifications. All types of finished carbon steel flanges are included in the scope regardless of pipe size (which may or may not be expressed in inches of nominal pipe size), pressure class (usually, but not necessarily, expressed in pounds of pressure,
(a) Iron predominates, by weight, over each of the other contained elements:
(b) The carbon content is 2 percent or less, by weight; and
(c) none of the elements listed below exceeds the quantity, by weight, as indicated:
(i) 0.87 percent of aluminum;
(ii) 0.0105 percent of boron;
(iii) 10.10 percent of chromium;
(iv) 1.55 percent of columbium;
(v) 3.10 percent of copper;
(vi) 0.38 percent of lead;
(vii) 3.04 percent of manganese;
(viii) 2.05 percent of molybdenum;
(ix) 20.15 percent of nickel;
(x) 1.55 percent of niobium;
(xi) 0.20 percent of nitrogen;
(xii) 0.21 percent of phosphorus;
(xiii) 3.10 percent of silicon;
(xiv) 0.21 percent of sulfur;
(xv) 1.05 percent of titanium;
(xvi) 4.06 percent of tungsten;
(xvii) 0.53 percent of vanadium; or
(xviii) 0.015 percent of zirconium.
Finished carbon steel flanges are currently classified under subheadings 7307.91.5010 and 7307.91.5050 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). They may also be entered under HTSUS subheadings 7307.91.5030 and 7307.91.5070. The HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes; the written description of the scope is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Shanah Lee or Eve Wang, at (202) 482-6386 or (202) 482-6231, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On June 30, 2016, the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) received an antidumping duty (“AD”) petition concerning imports of dioctyl terephthalate (“DOTP”) from the Republic of Korea (“Korea”), filed in proper form on behalf of Eastman Chemical Company (“Petitioner”).
On July 5, 2016, the Department requested additional information and clarification of certain areas of the
In accordance with section 732(b) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”), Petitioner alleges that imports of DOTP from Korea are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value within the meaning of section 731 of the Act, and that such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, an industry in the United States. Also, consistent with section 732(b)(1) of the Act, the Petition is accompanied by information reasonably available to Petitioner supporting its allegations.
The Department finds that Petitioner filed this Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because Petitioner is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. The Department also finds that Petitioner demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the AD investigation that Petitioner is requesting.
Because the Petition was filed on June 30, 2016, the period of investigation (“POI”) is, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b)(1), April 1, 2015, through March 31, 2016.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is DOTP from Korea. For a full description of the scope of this investigation,
During our review of the Petition, the Department issued questions to, and received responses from, Petitioner pertaining to the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petition would be an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
As discussed in the preamble to the Department's regulations,
The Department requests that any factual information the parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigation be submitted during this time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigation may be relevant, the party may contact the Department and request permission to submit the additional information.
All submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (“ACCESS”).
The Department requests comments from interested parties regarding the appropriate physical characteristics of DOTP to be reported in response to the Department's AD questionnaires. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the subject merchandise in order to report the relevant costs of production accurately as well as to develop appropriate product-comparison criteria.
Interested parties may provide any information or comments that they feel are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. Specifically, they may provide comments as to which characteristics are appropriate to use as: (1) General product characteristics and (2) product-comparison criteria. We note that it is not always appropriate to use all product characteristics as product-comparison criteria. We base product-comparison criteria on meaningful commercial differences among products. In other words, although there may be some physical product characteristics utilized by manufacturers to describe DOTP, it may be that only a select few product characteristics take into account commercially meaningful physical characteristics. In addition, interested parties may comment on the order in which the physical characteristics should be used in matching products. Generally, the Department attempts to list the most important physical characteristics first and the least important characteristics last.
In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaires, all comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. EDT on August 9, 2016, which is 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice. Any rebuttal comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. EDT on August 19, 2016. All comments and submissions to the Department must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the record of this less-than-fair-value investigation.
Section 732(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) At least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for
Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs the Department to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The International Trade Commission (“ITC”), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both the Department and the ITC must apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
With regard to the domestic like product, Petitioner does not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation. Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that DOTP, as defined in the scope, constitutes a single domestic like product and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
In determining whether Petitioner has standing under section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act, we considered the industry support data contained in the Petition with reference to the domestic like product as defined in the “Scope of the Investigation,” in Appendix I of this notice. To establish industry support, Petitioner provided its 2015 production of the domestic like product.
Our review of the data provided in the Petition and other information readily available to the Department indicates that Petitioner has established U.S. industry support.
The Department finds that Petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry because it is an interested party as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act and it has demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the AD investigation that it is requesting the Department initiate.
Petitioner alleges that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product is being materially injured, or is threatened with material injury, by reason of the imports of the subject merchandise sold at less than normal value (“NV”). In addition, Petitioner alleges that subject imports exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
The following is a description of the allegation of sales at less-than-fair value upon which the Department based its decision to initiate the investigation of imports of DOTP from Korea. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and NV are discussed in greater detail in the AD initiation checklist.
Petitioner based export prices on a Korean producer's price offerings to its customers in the United States for DOTP produced in, and exported from, Korea during the POI.
Petitioner provided home market price information from an industry report for DOTP produced in and offered for sale in Korea. The home market price information in the industry report included inland freight to the customer in Korea; therefore, Petitioner deducted inland freight expenses to calculate ex-factory prices.
Based on the data provided by Petitioner, there is reason to believe that imports of DOTP from Korea are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair value. Based on comparisons of export price to NV in accordance with sections 772 and 773 of the Act, the estimated dumping margins for DOTP for Korea range from 23.70 to 47.86 percent.
Based upon the examination of the AD Petition on DOTP from Korea, we find that the Petition meets the requirements of section 732 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating a less-than-fair-value investigation to determine whether imports of DOTP from Korea are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less-than-fair-value. In accordance with section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 140 days after the date of this initiation.
On June 29, 2015, the President of the United States signed into law the Trade Preferences Extension Act of 2015, which made numerous amendments to the AD and CVD law.
Petitioner named three companies as producers/exporters of DOTP from Korea.
Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically-filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the Department's electronic records system, ACCESS, by 5 p.m. EDT, by the dates noted above. We intend to make our decision regarding respondent selection within 20 days of publication of this notice.
In accordance with section 732(b)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), a copy of the public version of the Petition has been provided to the government of Korea via ACCESS. To the extent practicable, we will attempt to provide a copy of the public version of the Petition to the exporters named in the Petition, as provided under 19 CFR 351.203(c)(2).
We will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 732(d) of the Act.
The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 45 days after the date on which the Petition was filed, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of DOTP from Korea are materially injuring or threatening material injury to a U.S. industry.
Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) Evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by the Department; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). Any party, when submitting factual information, must specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted
Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351, or as otherwise specified by the Secretary. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351 expires. For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. EDT on the due date. Under certain circumstances, we may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due
Any party submitting factual information in an AD or countervailing duty (“CVD”) proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. On January 22, 2008, the Department published
This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 777(i) of the Act.
The merchandise covered by this investigation is dioctyl terephthalate (“DOTP”), regardless of form. DOTP that has been blended with other products is included within this scope when such blends include constituent parts that have not been chemically reacted with each other to produce a different product. For such blends, only the DOTP component of the mixture is covered by the scope of this investigation.
DOTP that is otherwise subject to this investigation is not excluded when commingled with DOTP from sources not subject to this investigation. Commingled refers to the mixing of subject and non-subject DOTP. Only the subject component of such commingled products is covered by the scope of the investigation.
DOTP has the general chemical formulation C
Subject merchandise is currently classified under subheading 2917.39.2000 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”). Subject merchandise may also enter under subheadings 2917.39.7000 or 3812.20.1000 of the HTSUS. While the CAS registry number and HTSUS classification are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the scope of this investigation is dispositive.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Dennis McClure, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5973.
On June 29, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published in the
This correction to the final determination of sales at LTFV is issued and published in accordance with sections 735(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice of SEDAR 49 assessment Webinar II for Gulf of Mexico Data-limited Species.
The SEDAR 49 assessment of the Gulf of Mexico Data-limited Species will consist of a data workshop, a review workshop, and a series of assessment Webinars.
The SEDAR 49 assessment Webinar II will be held on August 25, 2016, from 10 a.m. to 12 p.m., to view the agenda, see
The Webinar is open to members of the public. Those interested in participating should contact Julie A. Neer at SEDAR (See Contact Information Below) to request an invitation providing Webinar access information. Please request Webinar invitations at least 24 hours in advance of each Webinar.
Julie A. Neer, SEDAR Coordinator; (843) 571-4366 or email:
The Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils, in conjunction with NOAA Fisheries and the Atlantic and Gulf States Marine Fisheries Commissions have implemented the Southeast Data, Assessment and Review (SEDAR) process, a multi-step method for determining the status of fish stocks in the Southeast Region. SEDAR is a multi-step process including: (1) Data Workshop; (2) Assessment Process utilizing Webinars; and (3) Review Workshop. The product of the Data Workshop is a data report that compiles and evaluates potential datasets and recommends which datasets are appropriate for assessment analyses. The product of the Assessment Process is a stock assessment report that describes the fisheries, evaluates the status of the stock, estimates biological benchmarks, projects future population conditions, and recommends research and monitoring needs. The assessment is independently peer reviewed at the Review Workshop. The product of the Review Workshop is a Summary documenting panel opinions regarding the strengths and weaknesses of the stock assessment and input data. Participants for SEDAR Workshops are appointed by the Gulf of Mexico, South Atlantic, and Caribbean Fishery Management Councils and NOAA Fisheries Southeast Regional Office, HMS Management Division, and Southeast Fisheries Science Center. Participants include data collectors and database managers; stock assessment scientists, biologists, and researchers; constituency representatives including fishermen, environmentalists, and NGO's; International experts; and staff of Councils, Commissions, and state and federal agencies.
The items of discussion in the Assessment Process Webinars are as follows:
1. Using datasets and initial assessment analysis recommended from the Data Workshop, panelists will employ assessment models to evaluate stock status, estimate population benchmarks and management criteria, and project future conditions.
2. Participants will recommend the most appropriate methods and configurations for determining stock status and estimating population parameters.
Although non-emergency issues not contained in this agenda may come before this group for discussion, those issues may not be the subject of formal action during this meeting. Action will be restricted to those issues specifically identified in this notice and any issues arising after publication of this notice that require emergency action under section 305(c) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act, provided the public has been notified of the intent to take final action to address the emergency.
These meetings are physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to the Council office (see
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Notice.
The Department of Commerce, as part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
Written comments must be submitted on or before September 26, 2016.
Direct all written comments to Jennifer Jessup, Departmental Paperwork Clearance Officer, Department of Commerce, Room 6616, 14th and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230 (or via the Internet at
Requests for additional information or copies of the information collection instrument and instructions should be directed to Joshua Lindsay, (562) 980-4034 or
This request is for extension of a currently approved information collection.
On May 30, 2007, the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) published a Final Rule (72 FR 29891) implementing a requirement under the Coastal Pelagic Species Fishery Management Plan (CPS FMP) to report any interactions that may occur between a CPS vessel and/or fishing gear and sea otters.
Specifically, these reporting requirements are:
1. If a southern sea otter is entangled in a net, regardless of whether the animal is injured or killed, such an
2. While fishing for CPS, vessel operators must record all observations of otter interactions (defined as otters within encircled nets or coming into contact with nets or vessels, including but not limited to entanglement) with their purse seine net(s) or vessel(s). With the exception of an entanglement, which will be initially reported as described in #2 above, all other observations must be reported within 20 days to the Regional Administrator.
When contacting NMFS after an interaction, fishermen are required to provide information regarding the location, specifically latitude and longitude, of the interaction and a description of the interaction itself. Descriptive information of the interaction should include: Whether or not the otters were seen inside or outside the net; if inside the net, had the net been completely encircled; did contact occur with net or vessel; the number of otters present; duration of interaction; otter's behavior during interaction; and, measures taken to avoid interaction.
The information will be collected on forms submitted by mail, phone, facsimile or email.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden (including hours and cost) of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for OMB approval of this information collection; they also will become a matter of public record.
Office of Oceanic and Atmospheric Research (OAR), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of availability and request for public comment.
NOAA Research (OAR) publishes this notice on behalf of the NOAA Scientific Integrity Office to announce the availability of the draft Procedural Handbook to accompany NOAA Administrative Order 202-735D, the scientific integrity policy, for public comment. The draft procedural handbook provides revised NOAA procedures to respond to allegations of scientific and research misconduct.
Comments on the draft Procedural Handbook must be received by August 29, 2016.
The draft Procedural Handbook is available on the NOAA Scientific Integrity Commons Web site at:
Dr. Cynthia Decker, NOAA Scientific Integrity Officer, NOAA 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, Maryland 20910. Phone: 301 734-1459, during normal business hours of 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern Time, Monday through Friday, or, visit the NOAA Scientific Integrity Commons at
The Presidential Memorandum on Scientific Integrity, the Office of Science and Technology Policy guidance memorandum on scientific integrity, and NOAA's 2011 Scientific Integrity policy call for the highest level of integrity in all aspects of the executive branch's involvement with scientific and technological processes. The draft Procedural Handbook that accompanies NOAA's Scientific Integrity Policy (in NOAA Administrative Order 202-735D) supports these principals by outlining how NOAA will respond to allegations of misconduct. The draft Procedural Handbook is a proposed revision of the original handbook put in place in 2011. This draft Procedural Handbook provides the revised procedures NOAA will follow in responding to allegations of Scientific and Research Misconduct by NOAA employees, NOAA contractors, and external recipients of NOAA financial assistance awards for scientific or research activities. This Procedural Handbook should be read in conjunction with NOAA's Scientific Integrity Policy in NOAA Administrative Order 202-735D.
In notice document 2016-13492, appearing on pages 47781 through 47789 in the issue of Friday, July 22, 2016, make the following correction:
On page 47781, in the second column, on the sixth line, “October 14, 2016” should read “November 7, 2016”.
Department of the Air Force, DoD.
Notice to delete a system of records.
The Department of the Air Force proposes to delete one system of records notice from its inventory of record systems subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended. The system of records notice is F035 AF SAFPA D, entitled “Your Guardians of Freedom User Database.”
Comments will be accepted on or before August 29, 2016. This proposed action will be effective on the day following the end of the comment period unless comments are received which result in a contrary determination.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
*
*
Mr. LaDonne L. White, Department of the Air Force Privacy Office, Air Force Privacy Act Office, Office of Warfighting Integration and Chief Information Officer, ATTN: SAF/CIO A6, 1800 Air Force Pentagon, Washington, DC 20330-1800, or by phone at (571) 256-2515.
The Department of the Air Force systems of records notices subject to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), as amended, have been published in the
Your Guardians of Freedom User Database (November 18, 2003, 68 FR 65038)
Department of the Army, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, DoD.
Notice of withdrawal.
The purpose of this notice is to inform the public that the non-Federal sponsor (Hancock County, Ohio) for the Blanchard River Watershed Study has decided to complete the design and construction of the proposed project. Therefore, the current NEPA process with the Corps of Engineers acting as the lead agency has been terminated, and notice to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) and notice of availability are withdrawn.
Michael D. Pniewski, Project Manager, 1776 Niagara Street, Buffalo, NY 14207-3199, Telephone 419-726-9121; electronic mail:
On November 30, 2012, (77 FR 71404), the United States Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) in partnership with Hancock County (County) announced its intent to prepare an EIS in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) to evaluate proposed flood risk management and riparian wetland habitat restoration measures in the Blanchard River Watershed in the vicinity of the city of Findlay, Ohio. On April 10, 2015 (80 FR 19316), USACE and the County announced the availability of the Draft EIS (EIS No. 20150102). The Draft EIS evaluated the potential environmental impacts associated with the proposed Federal action and its reasonable alternatives. The purpose of the project was to reduce the risk of flooding and improve the overall quality of life for the residents of the Findlay area. Subsequent to the release of the Draft Detailed Project Report and EIS, the County has decided to proceed with the design and construction of the project without USACE involvement.
In accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission or FERC) regulations, 18 CFR part 380 (Order No. 486, 52
The environmental assessment analyzes the potential environmental effects of continuing to operate the projects, and concludes that issuing subsequent licenses for the projects, with appropriate environmental measures, would not constitute a major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
A copy of the EA is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
Any comments should be filed within 30 days from the date of this notice. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
Although the Commission strongly encourages electronic filing, documents may also be paper-filed. In lieu of electronic filing, please send a paper copy to: Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426. Please put docket number(s) “P-2464-015” and/or “P-2484-018,” as appropriate, on the first page of your response.
For further information, please contact Chelsea Hudock by phone at (202) 502-8448, or by email at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with Commission and is available for public inspection:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file scoping comments using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all interveners filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervener files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
k. This application is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
l. The proposed Grant Lake Hydroelectric Project would consist of: (1) An intake structure within Grant Lake; (2) a 3,300-foot-long tunnel; (3) a 72-inch-diameter, 150-foot-long, steel penstock; (4) a power house containing two 2.5-megawatt Francis turbine/generator units; (5) a 95-foot-long open channel tailrace; (6) a 3.6-acre tailrace detention pond; (6) a 1.1-mile-long, 115-kilovolt transmission line; (7) two miles of project access road; and (8) appurtenant facilities.
m. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
n.
The Commission intends to prepare an Environmental assessment (EA) on the project in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act. The EA will consider both site-specific and cumulative environmental impacts and reasonable alternatives to the proposed action.
FERC staff will conduct one agency scoping meeting and one public meeting. The agency scoping meeting will be held during business hours and will focus on resource agency and non-governmental organization (NGO) concerns, while the public scoping meeting is primarily for public input and will be held in the evening. All interested individuals, organizations, and agencies are invited to attend one or both of the meetings, and to assist the staff in identifying the scope of the environmental issues that should be analyzed in the EA. The times and locations of these meetings are as follows:
Copies of the Scoping Document (SD3) outlining the subject areas to be addressed in the EA were distributed to the parties on the Commission's mailing list and to Kenai Hydro's distribution list. Copies of the SD3 will be available at the scoping meetings and may be viewed on the Web at
The Applicant and FERC staff will conduct a project Environmental Site Review beginning at 8:00 a.m. on September 7, 2016. All participants interested in the environmental site review and hiking into the location of the proposed powerhouse should meet at the Moose Pass Community Hall on the Seward Highway at mile 29.5 by 8 a.m. on September 7, 2016. Participants should be in good health and prepared/able to hike without assistance for 5 miles in unimproved trail conditions with a 200 yard section of off trail hiking in a heavily forested area. The elevation gain for the hike is approximately 200 feet. Participants should also pack their own lunch, snacks and water, wear rugged footwear, and be prepared for inclement and potentially cold weather conditions. Anyone with questions about the site visit should contact Mike Salzetti at (907) 283-2375 or
At the scoping meetings, the staff will: (1) Summarize the environmental issues tentatively identified for analysis in the EA; (2) solicit from the meeting participants all available information, especially quantifiable data, on the resources at issue; (3) encourage statements from experts and the public on issues that should be analyzed in the EA, including viewpoints in opposition to, or in support of, the staff's preliminary views; (4) determine the resource issues to be addressed in the EA; and (5) identify those issues that require a detailed analysis, as well as those issues that do not require a detailed analysis.
The meetings are recorded by a stenographer and become part of the formal record of the Commission proceeding on the project.
Individuals, organizations, and agencies with environmental expertise and concerns are encouraged to attend the meeting and to assist the staff in defining and clarifying the issues to be addressed in the EA.
On July 21, 2016, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL16-99-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of the Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.'s Transmission, Energy and Operating Reserve Markets Tariff.
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL16-99-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking on Data Collection for Analytics and Surveillance and Market-Based Rate Purposes (NOPR) issued today in Docket No. RM16-17 proposes to revise the Commission's regulations to collect certain data for analytics and surveillance purposes from market-based rate (MBR) sellers and entities trading virtual products or holding financial transmission rights and to change certain aspects of the substance and format of information submitted for MBR purposes.
All interested parties are invited to attend. The workshop will be held in Washington, DC, on August 11, 2016 from 9:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. at FERC headquarters in the Commission Meeting Room, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC. For those unable to attend in person, access to the workshop sessions will be available by webcast.
The workshop is intended to provide a forum for interactive, detailed discussion of the elements contained in the sample data dictionary. Commission staff will lead the workshop. The agenda for the workshop is attached. Notes from the workshop will be posted on
Due to the detailed, substantive nature of the subject matter, parties interested in actively participating in the discussion are encouraged to attend in person. All interested parties (whether attending in person or via webcast) are asked to register online at
Those wishing to actively participate in the discussion by telephone during the workshop should send a request for a telephone line to
Commission workshops are accessible under section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. For accessibility accommodations please send an email to
For additional information, please contact David Pierce of FERC's Office of Enforcement at (202) 502-6454 or send an email to
On July 21, 2016, the Commission issued an order in Docket No. EL16-91-000, pursuant to section 206 of the Federal Power Act (FPA), 16 U.S.C. 824e (2012), instituting an investigation into the justness and reasonableness of certain aspects of Southwest Power Pool, Inc.'s Open Access Transmission Tariff.
The refund effective date in Docket No. EL16-91-000, established pursuant to section 206(b) of the FPA, will be the date of publication of this notice in the
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric corporate filings:
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
1. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is required to determine the reasonableness of costs incurred by other Federal agencies (OFAs)
2. The Commission has completed its review of the forms and supporting documentation submitted by the U.S. Department of the Interior (Interior), the U.S. Department of Agriculture (Agriculture), and the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) for fiscal year 2015. This notice reports the costs the Commission included in its administrative annual charges for fiscal year 2016.
3. The basis for eligible costs that should be included in the OFAs' administrative annual charges is prescribed by the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) Circular A-25—
4. Circular A-25 provides for user charges to be assessed against recipients of special benefits derived from federal activities beyond those received by the general public.
5. The Commission received cost forms and other supporting documentation from the Departments of the Interior, Agriculture, and Commerce (OFAs). The Commission completed a review of each OFA's cost submission forms and supporting reports. In its examination of the OFAs' cost data, the Commission considered each agency's ability to demonstrate a system or process which effectively captured, isolated, and reported Part I costs as required by the “Other Federal Agency Cost Submission Form.”
6. The Commission held a Technical Conference on April 7, 2016 to report its initial findings to licensees and OFAs. Representatives for several licensees and most of the OFAs attended the conference. Following the technical conference, a transcript was posted, and licensees had the opportunity to submit comments
7. Written comments were filed by Idaho Falls Group (Idaho Falls). Idaho Falls generally supported the Commission's analysis but raised questions regarding certain various individual cost submissions. The Commission will address the issues raised in the Appendix to this notice.
8. After additional reviews, full consideration of the comments presented, and in accordance with the previously cited guidance, the Commission accepted as reasonable any costs reported via the cost submission forms that were clearly documented in the OFAs' accompanying reports and/or analyses. These documented costs will be included in the administrative annual charges for fiscal year 2016.
9. Figure 1 summarizes the total reported costs incurred by Interior, Agriculture, and Commerce with respect to each OFA's participation in administering Part I of the FPA. Additionally, Figure 1 summarizes the reported costs that the Commission determined were clearly documented and accepted for inclusion in its FY 2016 administrative annual charges.
10. As presented in the preceding table, the Commission determined that $6,832,378 of the $7,625,929 in total reported costs were determined to be reasonable and clearly documented in the OFAs' accompanying reports and/or analyses. Based on these findings, 10% of the total reported cost was determined to be unreasonable. The Commission noted the most significant issues with regard to the insufficiency of documentation provided by the OFAs was the lack of supporting documentation to substantiate costs reported on the “Other Federal Agency Cost Submission Form” as well as the failure to segregate Municipal and Non-Municipal costs.
11. The cost reports that the Commission determined were clearly documented and supported could be traced to detailed cost-accounting reports, which reconciled to data provided from agency financial systems or other pertinent source documentation. A further breakdown of these costs is included in the Appendix to this notice, along with an explanation of how the Commission determined their reasonableness.
12. If you have any questions regarding this notice, please contact Norman Richardson at (202) 502-6219 or Raven Rodriquez at (202) 502-6276.
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection:
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The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, motions to intervene, and protests using the Commission's eFiling system at
The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person whose name appears on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.
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m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Department of Energy.
Notice of Inquiry.
In this Notice of Inquiry, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission seeks comment on possible modifications to the Critical Infrastructure Protection Reliability Standards regarding the cybersecurity of Control Centers used to monitor and control the bulk electric system in real time.
Comments are due September 26, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and in accordance with the requirements posted on the Commission's Web site,
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1. In this Notice of Inquiry, pursuant to section 215 of the Federal Power Act (FPA),
2. Specifically, as discussed below, the Commission seeks comment on possible modifications to the CIP Reliability Standards—and any potential impacts on the operation of the Bulk-Power System resulting from such modifications—to address the following matters: (1) Separation between the Internet and BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers performing transmission operator functions; and (2) computer administration practices that prevent unauthorized programs from running, referred to as “application whitelisting,” for cyber systems in Control Centers.
3. On January 28, 2008, the Commission approved an initial set of eight CIP Reliability Standards pertaining to cybersecurity.
4. On December 23, 2015, three regional electric power distribution companies in Ukraine experienced a cyberattack resulting in power outages that affected at least 225,000 customers. An analysis conducted by a team from the Electricity Information Sharing and Analysis Center (E-ISAC) and SANS Industrial Control Systems (SANS ICS) observed that “the cyber attacks in Ukraine are the first publicly acknowledged incidents to result in power outages.”
5. On February 25, 2016, the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Industrial Control Systems Cyber Emergency Response Team issued an “Alert” in response to the Ukraine incident.
In addition, the Alert reported that the affected companies indicated that the attackers wiped some systems at the conclusion of the cyberattack, which erased selected files, rendering systems inoperable.
6. In response to the Ukraine incident, the Alert recommended the following key examples of best practice mitigation strategies:
7. The Commission seeks comment on whether to modify the CIP Reliability Standards to better secure Control Centers from cyberattacks. The Commission also seeks comment on the potential consequences or complications arising from implementing such modifications. In response to lessons learned from the Alert and analyses of the Ukraine incident, the Commission seeks comment on whether to modify the CIP Reliability Standards to require: (1) Separation between the Internet and BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers performing transmission operator functions; and (2) “application whitelisting” for BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers.
8. In response to the Ukraine incident, the Alert recommended that:
9. Commission-approved Reliability Standard CIP-007-6, Requirement R1 (Ports and Services), Part 1.1 requires, where technically feasible, unused logical ports to be disabled.
10. The current CIP Reliability Standards do not require isolation between the Internet and BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers performing transmission operator functions through use of physical (hardware) or logical (software) means. Although BES Cyber Systems are protected by electronic security perimeters and the disabling of unused logical ports, BES Cyber Systems are permitted, within the scope of the current CIP Reliability Standards, to route, or connect, to the Internet.
11. The Commission seeks comment on whether the CIP Reliability Standards should be modified to require isolation between the Internet and BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers performing the functions of a transmission operator. In addition, the Commission seeks comment on the operational impact to the Bulk-Power System if BES Cyber Systems were isolated from the Internet in all Control Centers performing transmission operator functions. Specifically, the Commission seeks comment on what, if any, reliability issues might arise from such a requirement. For example, would requiring isolation prevent an activity required by another Reliability Standard? If isolation is required, is logical isolation preferable to physical isolation (or vice versa) and, if so, why? The Commission also seeks comment on whether and how such a requirement might affect a transmission operator's communications with its reliability coordinator or other applicable entities required under the Reliability Standard. Finally, if isolation is not required, are there communications with these Control Centers for which the use of one-way data diodes would be reliable and appropriate?
12. Application whitelisting is a computer administration practice used to prevent unauthorized programs from running.
13. In response to the Ukraine incident, the Alert recommended that:
Similarly, a December 2015 document by DHS identifies application whitelisting as the first of seven strategies to defend industrial control systems and states that this strategy would have “potentially mitigated” 38 percent of ICS-CERT Fiscal Year 2014 and 2015 incidents, more than any of the other strategies.
Due to the wide range of equipment comprising the BES Cyber Systems and the wide variety of vulnerability and capability of that equipment to malware as well as the constantly evolving threat and resultant tools and controls, it is not practical within the standard to prescribe how malware is to be addressed on each Cyber Asset. Rather, the Responsible Entity determines on a BES Cyber System basis, which Cyber Assets have susceptibility to malware intrusions and documents their plans and processes for addressing those risks and provides evidence that they follow those plans and processes. There are numerous options available including traditional antivirus solutions for common operating systems, white-listing solutions, network isolation techniques, Intrusion Detection/Prevention (IDS/IPS) solutions, etc.
14. While application whitelisting is identified above as one available option, the Ukraine incident and the subsequent Alert raise the question of whether application whitelisting should be required. Application whitelisting could be a more effective mitigation tool than other mitigation measures because whitelisting allows only software applications and processes that are reviewed and tested before use in the system network. By knowing all installed applications, the security professional can set the application whitelisting program to know the application is approved; all unapproved applications will trigger an alert.
15. The Commission seeks comment on whether the CIP Reliability Standards should be modified to require application whitelisting for all BES Cyber Systems in Control Centers. Is application whitelisting appropriate for all such systems? If not, are there certain devices or components on such systems for which it is appropriate? In addition, the Commission seeks comment on the operational impact, including potential reliability concerns, for each approach.
16. The Commission invites interested persons to submit comments, and other information on the matters, issues and specific questions identified in this notice. Comments are due September 26, 2016. Comments must refer to Docket No. RM16-18-000, and must include the commenter's name, the organization they represent, if applicable, and their address in their comments.
17. The Commission encourages comments to be filed electronically via the eFiling link on the Commission's Web site at
18. Commenters that are not able to file comments electronically must send an original of their comments to: Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Secretary of the Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
19. All comments will be placed in the Commission's public files and may be viewed, printed, or downloaded remotely as described in the Document Availability section below. Commenters on this proposal are not required to serve copies of their comments on other commenters.
20. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the
21. From FERC's Home Page on the Internet, this information is available on
22. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the FERC's Web site during normal business hours from FERC Online Support at 202-502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at
By direction of the Commission.
Take notice that on July 15, 2016, pursuant to section 292.402 of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission's (Commission) Rules of Practice and Procedure,
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest this filing must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211and 385.214). Protests will be considered by the Commission in determining the appropriate action to be taken, but will not serve to make protestants parties to the proceeding. Any person wishing to become a party must file a notice of intervention or motion to intervene, as appropriate. Such notices, motions, or protests must be filed on or before the comment date. Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Petitioner.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper using the “eFiling” link at
This filing is accessible online at
Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.
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k. Pursuant to section 4.32(b)(7) of 18 CFR of the Commission's regulations, if any resource agency, Indian Tribe, or person believes that an additional scientific study should be conducted in order to form an adequate factual basis for a complete analysis of the application on its merit, the resource agency, Indian Tribe, or person must file a request for a study with the Commission not later than 60 days from the date of filing of the application, and serve a copy of the request on the applicant.
l. Deadline for filing additional study requests and requests for cooperating agency status: September 12, 2016.
The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file additional study requests and requests for cooperating agency status using the Commission's eFiling system at
m. The application is not ready for environmental analysis at this time.
n. The proposed Natick Pond Dam Project would consist of: (1) An existing 265-foot-long granite block dam with a 166-foot-long spillway; (2) an existing 58-foot to 125.3-foot-wide, 1-foot to 28-foot-deep earth embankment; (3) an existing 44-foot-long, 4-foot to 20-foot-high south granite block training wall; (4) an existing 1,244-foot-long, 18-foot to 41.25-foot-high granite block and cobble stone north training wall; (5) an existing 4-foot-wide, 6-foot-high granite block low level outlet; (6) an existing 46.0-acre impoundment (Natick Pond) with a normal surface elevation of about 48.5 feet North American Vertical Datum of 1988; (7) a new 97-foot-long, 32.2-foot-wide, 6.6-foot-deep concrete intake channel; (8) a new 7.6-foot-high, 11.1-foot-wide steel sluice gate with a new 8.3-foot-high, 32.2-foot-wide steel trashrack with 6-inch clear bar spacing; (9) two new 113-foot-long, 28-foot-wide concrete turbine bays containing two 42.7-foot-long, 9.2-foot-diameter Archimedes screw turbine-generator units each rated at 180 kilowatts (kW) for a total installed capacity of 360 kW; (10) a new 20.8-foot-high, 23.8-foot-long, 27.8-foot-wide concrete powerhouse containing a new gearbox and electrical controls; (11) a new 43-foot long, 29-foot-wide, 5-foot-deep tailrace; (12) a new 220-foot-long, 12.47-kilovolt above-ground transmission line connecting the powerhouse to National Grid's distribution system; and (13) appurtenant facilities. The estimated annual generation of the proposed Natick Pond Dam Project would be about 1,800 megawatt-hours. The applicant proposes to operate the project in a run-of-river mode. There are no federal or state lands associated with the project.
o. A copy of the application is available for review at the Commission in the Public Reference Room or may be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
You may also register online at
p. With this notice, we are initiating consultation with the Rhode Island State Historic Preservation Officer (SHPO), as required by section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act and the regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation, 36 CFR 800.4.
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Ready for Environmental Analysis October 2016
Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) hereby gives notice that members of the Commission and/or Commission staff may attend the 2016 National Association of Regulatory Utility Commissioners Summer Committee Meetings, including the following:
The above-referenced meetings will be held at: Omni Nashville Hotel, 250 Fifth Avenue South, Nashville, TN 37203.
Further information may be found at
The discussions at the meetings described above may address matters at issue in the following proceedings:
For more information, contact Sandra Waldstein, Office of External Affairs, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission at (202) 502-8092 or
Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.
Any person desiring to protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rule 211 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date.
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Rush Springs Wind Energy, LLC`s application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is August 10, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
This is a supplemental notice in the above-referenced proceeding of Ninnescah Wind Energy, LLC's application for market-based rate authority, with an accompanying rate tariff, noting that such application includes a request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability.
Any person desiring to intervene or to protest should file with the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426, in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214). Anyone filing a motion to intervene or protest must serve a copy of that document on the Applicant.
Notice is hereby given that the deadline for filing protests with regard to the applicant's request for blanket authorization, under 18 CFR part 34, of future issuances of securities and assumptions of liability, is August 10, 2016.
The Commission encourages electronic submission of protests and interventions in lieu of paper, using the FERC Online links at
Persons unable to file electronically should submit an original and 5 copies of the intervention or protest to the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426.
The filings in the above-referenced proceeding are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the appropriate link in the above list. They are also available for electronic review in the Commission's Public Reference Room in Washington, DC. There is an eSubscription link on the Web site that enables subscribers to receive email notification when a document is added to a subscribed docket(s). For assistance with any FERC Online service, please email
Take notice that the following hydroelectric proceeding has been initiated by the Commission:
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i. Deadline for filing comments, protests, and motions to intervene is 30 days from the issuance date of this notice by the Commission. The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, protests, and motions to intervene using the Commission's eFiling system at
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The exemptee's failure to operate and maintain the project as authorized by its exemption is a violation of Standard Article 1. Commission records indicate that the project has not been operated since 1998. The current exemptee acquired the project in February 2009 and has been unable to restore project operation. On December 19, 2013, the exemptee filed a plan and schedule to restore project operation, which Commission staff approved with the requirement that the exemptee file quarterly progress reports starting October 1, 2014. The exemptee did not file the first progress report. By letter on December 19, 2014, Commission staff requested that the exemptee file the overdue progress report. In response, on January 9, 2015, the exemptee filed a
l. This notice is available for review and reproduction at the Commission in the Public Reference Room, Room 2A, 888 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20426. The notice and other project records may also be viewed on the Commission's Web site at
m. Individuals desiring to be included on the Commission's mailing list should so indicate by writing to the Secretary of the Commission.
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Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:
The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system by clicking on the links or querying the docket number.
Any person desiring to intervene or protest in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211 and 214 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211 and 385.214) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at:
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of tentative approval.
Notice is hereby given that the State of Florida is revising its approved Public Water System Supervision Program. Florida has adopted the following rules: Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rule, Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule, and Ground Water Rule. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has determined that Florida's rules are no less stringent than the corresponding federal regulations. Therefore, EPA is tentatively approving this revision to the State of Florida's Public Water System Supervision Program.
Any interested person may request a public hearing. A request for a public hearing must be submitted by August 29, 2016, to the Regional Administrator at the EPA Region 4 address shown below. The Regional Administrator may deny frivolous or insubstantial requests for a hearing. However, if a substantial request for a public hearing is made by August 29, 2016, a public hearing will be held. If no timely and appropriate request for a hearing is received and the Regional Administrator does not elect to hold a hearing on her own motion, this tentative approval shall become final and effective on August 29, 2016. Any request for a public hearing shall include the following information: The name, address, and telephone number of the individual, organization, or other entity requesting a hearing; a brief statement of the requesting person's interest in the Regional Administrator's determination and a brief statement of the information that the requesting person intends to submit at such hearing; and the signature of the individual making the request, or, if the request is made on behalf of an organization or other entity, the signature of a responsible official of the organization or other entity.
All documents relating to this determination are available for inspection between the hours of 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at the following offices: Florida Department of Environmental Protection, Drinking Water and Aquifer Protection Program, 2600 Blair Stone Road, Tallahassee, Florida 32399; and the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, Drinking Water Section, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303.
Dale Froneberger, EPA Region 4, Drinking Water Section, by mail at the Atlanta address given above, by telephone at (404) 562-9446, or by email at
On March 20, 2013, the State of Florida submitted requests that EPA Region 4 approve a revision to the State's Safe Drinking Water Act Public Water System Supervision Program to include the authority to implement and enforce the Stage 2 Disinfectants and Disinfection Byproducts Rule, the Long Term 2 Enhanced Surface Water Treatment Rule, and the Ground Water Rule. For the requests to be approved, EPA must find the state rules codified at Chapters 62-550 and 62-560, F.A.C., to be no less stringent than the federal rules codified at 40 CFR part 141, subpart A—General; 40 CFR part 141, subpart C—Monitoring and Analytical Requirements; 40 CFR part 141, subpart D—Reporting and Recordkeeping; 40 CFR part 141, subpart G—Maximum Contaminant Levels and Maximum Residual Disinfectant Levels; 40 CFR part 141, subpart L—Disinfectant Residuals, Disinfection Byproducts, and Disinfection Byproduct Precursors; 40 CFR part 141, subpart O—Consumer Confidence Reports; 40 CFR part 141, subpart Q—Public Notification of Drinking Water Violations; 40 CFR part 141, subpart S—Ground Water Rule; 40 CFR part 141, subpart U—Initial Distribution System Evaluations; 40 CFR part 141, subpart V—Stage 2 Disinfection Byproducts Requirements; and 40 CFR part 141, subpart W—Enhanced Treatment for
Section 1413 of the Safe Drinking Water Act, as amended (1996), and 40 CFR part 142.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final NPDES general permit issuance.
The Director of the Water Quality Division, EPA Region 6, provides notice of reissuance of the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) General Permit No. NMG010000 for existing and new dischargers in New Mexico, under the Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFO) Point Source Category and producing Horses, Dairy Cows, and Cattle other than Veal Calves, except those discharges on Indian Country. A copy of the Region's responses to comments and the final permit may be obtained from the EPA Region 6 Internet site:
This permit is effective, and is deemed issued for the purpose of judicial review, on September 1, 2016, and expires August 31, 2021. Under section 509(b) of the CWA, judicial review of this general permit can be held by filing a petition for review in the United States Court of Appeals within 120 days after the permit is considered issued for judicial review. Under section 509(b)(2) of the CWA, the requirements in this permit may not be challenged later in civil or criminal proceedings to enforce these requirements. In addition, this permit may not be challenged in other agency proceedings.
Ms. Evelyn Rosborough, Region 6, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1445 Ross Avenue, Dallas, Texas 75202-2733. Telephone: (214) 665-7515.
Pursuant to section 402 of the Clean Water Act (CWA), 33 U.S.C. 1342, EPA proposed and solicited comments on NPDES general permit NMG010000 at
1. Permit Part II.A.5.a.ii. is revised to require calibration of land application equipment to be performed at least annually, in accordance with procedures and schedules to be established in the nutrient management plan for all equipment.
2. Permit Part I.E.8. is updated to require Notice of Intent (NOI) and Nutrient Management Plan (NMP) submittals to NMED.
3. Permit Part I.H, Change in Ownership is clarified and Permit Part I. E.9. is revised to remove the 7 day public review and comment for NOIs resulting from transfer of ownership of a facility with prior permit coverage.
4. Permit Part II.A.2.a.v. is clarified regarding equipment inspection deficiencies to specify deficiencies not corrected in 30 days to be explained.
5. Permit Part III. B. is revised to align facility closure requirements with New Mexico impoundment closure requirements.
6. Permit Part III.C.1.b. is changed to require retention of the telephone number of the recipient of any transferred manure, litter or process wastewater.
7. Permit Part V.A. is revised to change the annual report due date from January 31 to March 31.
8. Other minor changes and clarifications.
Under section 401(a)(1) of the CWA, EPA may not issue a NPDES permit until the State or Tribal authority in which the discharge will occur grants or waives certification to ensure compliance with appropriate requirements of the CWA and State law. The New Mexico Environment Department issued the 401 certification on April 15, 2015.
The Endangered Species Act (ESA) of 1973 requires Federal Agencies such as EPA to ensure, in consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) and the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) (also known collectively as the “Services”), that any actions authorized, funded, or carried out by the Agency (
Clean Water Act,
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Request for nominations.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) invites nominations of qualified candidates to be considered for a three-year appointment to fill one IT expert position on the Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest System Advisory Board (the “Board”). Pursuant to the Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest Establishment Act (the “e-Manifest Act”
Nominations should be received on or before August 29, 2016.
Nominations should be submitted via email to
Fred Jenkins, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Office of Resource Conservation and Recovery, (MC: 5303P), 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC, 20460, Phone: 703-308-7049; or by email:
The e-Manifest Act was signed into law on October 5, 2012 (
In addition, the e-Manifest Act directs EPA to develop a system that attracts sufficient user participation and service revenues to ensure the viability of the system. As a result, the Act provides EPA broad discretion to establish reasonable user fees, as the Administrator determines are necessary, to pay costs incurred in developing, operating, maintaining, and upgrading the system, including any costs incurred in collecting and processing data from any paper manifest submitted to the system after the system enters operation. The Board will meet to assess the adequacy and reasonableness of the service fees and, if necessary, make recommendations to the Administrator to adjust the fees accordingly.
Prior to system deployment, the Board will be asked to provide recommendations on important system development matters and on potential increases or decreases to the amount of a service fee determined under the fee structure. Substantial system development planning work is underway. The Agency is utilizing lean start-up product development strategies with agile, user-centered design and development methodologies, and is currently conducting additional system development procurement activities. The Agency anticipates the initial system deployment to occur in 2018.
The system will provide the functionality of the current paper manifest process, in a more efficient electronic workflow, and will meet all requirements specified in the e-Manifest Act and e-Manifest Final Rule, which was published on February 7, 2014 (
Although the system has not been completed, the Board is established in accordance with the provisions of the, e-Manifest Act and the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), 5 U.S.C. App.2. The Board is in the public interest and supports EPA in performing its duties and responsibilities. Pursuant to the e-Manifest Act, the Board will be comprised of nine members, of which one member is the Administrator (or a designee), who will serve as Chairperson of the Board, and eight members will be individuals appointed by the EPA administrator:
The Board will meet at least annually as required by the e-Manifest Act. However, additional meetings may occur approximately once every six months or as needed and approved by the DFO.
Member Nominations: Pursuant to the e-Manifest Act, the Board will assist the Agency in evaluating the effectiveness of the e-Manifest IT system and associated user fees; identifying key issues associated with the system, including the need (and timing) for user fee adjustments; system enhancements; and providing independent advice on matters and policies related to the e-Manifest program. The Board will provide recommendations on matters related to the operational activities, functions, policies, and regulations of EPA under the e-Manifest Act, including proposing actions to encourage the use of the electronic (paperless) system, and actions related to the E-Enterprise strategy that intersect with e-Manifest. These intersections may include issues such as business to business communications, performance standards for mobile devices, and Cross Media Electronic Reporting Rule (CROMERR) compliant e-signatures.
Any interested person and/or organization may nominate qualified individuals for membership. EPA values and welcomes diversity. In an effort to obtain nominations of diverse candidates, the Agency encourages nominations of women and men of all racial and ethnic groups. All candidates will be considered and screened against the criteria listed below as well as EPA's Conflict of Interest (COI) and appearance of bias guidance (
IT nominees should have core competencies and experience in large scale systems and application development and integration, deployment and maintenance, user help desk and support, and expertise relevant to support the complexity of an e-Manifest system. Examples of this expertise may include but are not limited to: Expertise with web-based and mobile technologies, particularly that support large scale operations for geographically diverse users; expertise in IT security, including perspective on federal IT security requirements; expertise in electronic signature and user management approaches; expertise with scalable hosting solutions such as cloud-based hosting; and expertise in user experience. Existing knowledge of, or willingness to gain an understanding of EPA shared services and enterprise architecture is a plus as is experience in setting and managing fee-based systems in general. Additional criteria used to evaluate nominees include:
• Excellent interpersonal, oral, and written communication skills;
• Demonstrated experience developing group recommendations;
• Willingness to commit time to the Board and demonstrated ability to work constructively on committees;
• Absence of financial conflicts of interest;
• Impartiality (including the appearance of impartiality); and
• Background and experiences that would help members contribute to the diversity of perspectives on the Board,
Nominations must include a resume, which provides the nominee's background, experience and educational qualifications, as well as a brief statement (one page or less) describing the nominee's interest in serving on the Board and addressing the other criteria previously described. Nominees are encouraged to provide any additional information that they believe would be useful for consideration, such as: Availability to participate as a member of the Board; how the nominee's background, skills and experience would contribute to the diversity of the Board; and any concerns the nominee has regarding membership. Nominees should be identified by name, occupation, position, current business address, email, and telephone number. Interested candidates may self-nominate. The Agency will acknowledge receipt of nominations.
The person selected for membership will receive compensation for travel and a nominal daily compensation (if appropriate) while attending meetings. Additionally, the selected candidate will be designated as a Special Government Employee (SGE) or consultant. Candidates designated as SGEs are required to fill out the “Confidential Financial Disclosure Form for Environmental Protection Agency Special Government Employees” (EPA Form 3310-48). This confidential form provides information to EPA ethics officials to determine whether there is a conflict between the SGE's public duties and their private interests, including an appearance of a loss of impartiality as defined by federal laws and regulations. One example of a potential conflict of interest may be for IT professional(s) serving in an organization that is awarded any related e-Manifest system development contract(s).
The Commission hereby gives notice of the filing of the following agreements under the Shipping Act of 1984. Interested parties may submit comments on the agreements to the Secretary, Federal Maritime Commission, Washington, DC 20573, within twelve days of the date this notice appears in the
By Order of the Federal Maritime Commission.
The companies listed in this notice have given notice under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843) (BHC Act) and Regulation Y, (12 CFR part 225) to engage
Each notice is available for inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The notice also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the question whether the proposal complies
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding the applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than August 11, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Minneapolis (Jacquelyn K. Brunmeier, Assistant Vice President) 90 Hennepin Avenue, Minneapolis, Minnesota 55480-0291:
1.
Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System
Notice for comment regarding the Federal Reserve proposal to extend, with revision, the clearance under the Paperwork Reduction Act for the following information collection activity.
The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board or Federal Reserve) invites comment on a proposal to extend for three years, with revision, the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing information collection applicable to bank holding companies (BHCs) with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more and U.S. intermediate holding companies (IHCs) established by foreign banking organizations under 12 CFR 252.153 (FR Y-14A/Q/M; OMB No. 7100-0341).
On June 15, 1984, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) delegated to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) its approval authority under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), to approve of and assign OMB numbers to collection of information requests and requirements conducted or sponsored by the Board. Board-approved collections of information are incorporated into the official OMB inventory of currently approved collections of information. Copies of the PRA Submission, supporting statements and approved collection of information instruments are placed into OMB's public docket files. The Federal Reserve may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB number.
Comments must be submitted on or before September 26, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by
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All public comments are available from the Board's Web site at
Additionally, commenters may send a copy of their comments to the OMB Desk Officer, Shagufta Ahmed, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503 or by fax to (202) 395-6974.
A copy of the PRA OMB submission, including the proposed reporting form and instructions, supporting statement, and other documentation will be placed into OMB's public docket files, once approved. These documents will also be made available on the Federal Reserve Board's public Web site at:
Federal Reserve Board Clearance Officer, Nuha Elmaghrabi, Office of the Chief Data Officer, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551 (202) 452-3884. Telecommunications Device for the Deaf (TDD) users may contact (202) 263-4869, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
The following information collection, which is being handled under this delegated authority, has received initial Board approval and is hereby published for comment. At the end of the comment period, the proposed information collection, along with an analysis of comments and recommendations received, will be submitted to the Board for final approval under OMB delegated authority. Comments are invited on the following:
a. Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the Federal Reserve's functions; including whether the information has practical utility;
b. The accuracy of the Federal Reserve's estimate of the burden of the proposed information collection, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
c. Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
d. Ways to minimize the burden of information collection on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and
e. Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.
Proposal to approve under OMB delegated authority the extension for three years with revision of the following report:
With regard to the CFO-level attestation requirement, which is intended to improve accountability and accuracy and heighten requirements for internal control, the Board has provided sufficient description and justification to require such attestation from respondents, consistent with the aforementioned statutory authorities.
As these data are collected as part of the supervisory process, they are subject to confidential treatment under exemption 8 of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8)). In addition, commercial and financial information contained in these information collections may be exempt from disclosure under exemption 4 of FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4)), if disclosure would likely have the effect of (1) impairing the government's ability to obtain the necessary information in the future, or (2) causing substantial harm to the competitive position of the respondent. Such exemptions would be made on a case-by-case basis. Such exemptions would be made on a case-by-case basis.
The Capital Assessments and Stress Testing information collection consists of the FR Y-14A, Q, and M reports. The semi-annual FR Y-14A collects quantitative projections of balance sheet, income, losses, and capital across a range of macroeconomic scenarios and qualitative information on methodologies used to develop internal projections of capital across scenarios.
The FR Y-14A Schedule A.1.d. (Summary—Capital) would be revised for December 31, 2016, to (1) add certain items used to calculate the SLR in alignment with the Board's extension of the initial application of the SLR requirement in the capital plan rule;
The FR Y-14Q (quarterly collection) would be revised for December 31, 2016, to add a new column to Schedule B (Securities) to collect the price of the security as a percent of par to enhance supervisory modeling.
Finally, the FR Y-14M (monthly collection) would be revised for December 31, 2016, to modify the definition of Gross Charge-Off Amount on Schedule D (Credit Cards) in order to ensure proper reporting across firms.
These data are, or will be, used to assess the capital adequacy of BHCs and U.S. IHCs using forward-looking projections of revenue and losses to support supervisory stress test models and continuous monitoring efforts, as well as to inform the Board's operational decision-making as it continues to implement the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
The Board proposes to add an attestation requirement to the FR Y-14A/Q/M reports for U.S. IHC respondents that will be subject to the LISCC framework. Foreign banking organizations with non-branch assets of $50 billion or more were required to form a U.S. IHC by July 1, 2016. As of April 2016, the IHCs established by Barclays, Credit Suisse, UBS and Deutsche Bank are expected to be the LISCC U.S. IHC respondents. This requirement would be consistent with the existing attestation requirement applicable to U.S. BHCs subject to the LISCC framework (LISCC respondents).
On September 16, 2015, the Board published a notice in the
As discussed in the final
The Board initially applied the attestation requirement to only LISCC respondents given the added resources required to implement the attestation.
Under the proposal the attestation would include three parts. First, for projected data reported on the FR Y-14A/Q and for actual data reported on the FR Y-14A/Q/M reports, collectively, the CFO (or equivalent senior officer
As indicated above, the Board proposes that the attestation for LISCC U.S. IHCs would follow a phased-in implementation approach beginning December 31, 2017. The attestation submitted with reports as-of December 31, 2017, would relate to the effectiveness of internal controls over submissions for the as-of date and would not include an attestation to
The Board proposes to require additional submissions of certain FR Y-14 schedules to collect information on adjustments to planned capital actions and incremental capital distribution from firms that have elected to make such adjustments, effective with the reports as-of December 31, 2016. An ad-hoc process is currently used to collect this information, which is necessary if, for example, firms intend to exercise the option to adjust their planned capital distributions based on the preliminary results of the supervisory quantitative assessment in CCAR.
The proposed requirement includes two components. First, for adjustments to planned capital actions, firms would be required to submit an updated FR Y-14A Schedule A.1.d (Summary, Capital—CCAR) for the BHC Baseline, Supervisory Adverse, and Supervisory Severely Adverse scenarios and an updated FR Y-14A Schedule C (RCI). These submissions would be collected subsequent to the firms' annual FR Y-14 submission in a timeframe communicated by the Board of at least 14 calendar days in advance of the submission. Second, for incremental capital action requests (
To allow for the collection of the information necessary to understand these adjustments, the Board proposes adding certain items to the FR Y-14A Schedule C (RCI) including: (1) Cash dividends declared on preferred stock, (2) cash dividends declared on common stock, (3) common shares outstanding (Millions), and (4) common dividends per share ($).
The proposed revisions to the FR Y-14A consist of adding data items in accordance with the finalized modifications to the capital plan and stress test rules (Regulation Y and YY),
In addition, to collect more precise information regarding deferred tax assets (DTAs), the Board proposes modifying one existing item on the FR Y-14A Schedule A.1.d (Summary—Capital) as-of December 31, 2016. The Board proposes changing existing item 111 on Schedule A.1.d. (Summary—Capital), “Deferred tax assets arising from temporary differences that could not be realized through net operating loss carrybacks, net of DTLs, but before related valuation allowances”, to “Deferred tax assets arising from temporary differences, net of DTLs.” A firm in a net deferred tax liability (DTL) position would report this item as a negative number. This modification would provide more specific information about the components of the “DTAs arising from temporary differences that could not be realized through net operating loss carrybacks, net of related valuation allowances and net of DTLs” subject to the common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold.
The Board also proposes removing Schedule HC-M, Memoranda item 107, “Total number of bank holding company common shares outstanding”, from the FR Y-14A Schedule A (Summary—Capital) with the reports as-of December 31, 2016, to reduce burden on firms. This item provides minimal additional value and therefore, is no longer needed.
Finally, to reduce the risk of inconsistencies in reporting and align with other regulatory reports, certain definitions in the instructions for the FR Y-14A Schedule A.1.d (Summary—Capital) would be clarified or streamlined to reference comparable items on the FR Y-9C.
The Board proposes several changes to the FR Y-14A Schedule E (Operational Risk) for the reports as-of December 31, 2016, to align with the
In order to capture the information surrounding the risk management infrastructure and processes as outlined in SR Letter 15-18, the Board proposes adding two sub-schedules to the FR Y-14A Schedule E (Operational Risk) and modifying the supporting documentation requirements for this schedule effective with the reports as-of December 31, 2016. First, new sub-schedule E.2, Material Risk Identification, would collect information on a firm's material operational risks included in loss projections based on their risk management framework, a component of risk management emphasized in SR Letter 15-18. Second, new sub-schedule E.3, Operational Risk Scenarios, would collect a firm's operational risk scenarios included in the BHC Baseline and BHC Stress projections, a fundamental element of the framework. Finally, the Board recommends updating the requirements for supporting documentation and modifying certain terminology, definitions, and references to align with SR Letter 15-18.
Certain information related to the previous methodology are no longer necessary to collect given the aforementioned change in guidance, resulting in the proposed removal of these items and updating of associated terminology. Sub-schedule E.1 (BHC Operational Risk Historical Capital) would be removed as this schedule pertains to Advanced Measurement Approaches (AMA) methodology and these data are no longer necessary. This change in methodology also results in the removal of two associated columns on the FR Y-14A Schedule A.6 (Operational Risk Scenario Inputs and Projections): Type of Data and Brief Description. References to previous methodology would be updated, including changing the name of a column on the FR Y-14A Schedule A.6 (Operational Risk Scenario Inputs and Projections) from Units of Measure to Risk Segment. These changes would also be effective with the report as-of December 31, 2016.
The proposed revision to the FR Y-14Q consists of adding an item to more accurately collect information that is currently derived. This proposed change would allow for more accurate and consistent reporting of information with minimal anticipated burden on respondents.
For reports as-of December 31, 2016, the Board proposes adding a new column to the FR Y-14Q Schedule B.1 (Securities 1—Main Schedule) to collect the price of the security to more accurately collect price information and thereby enhance supervisory modeling. Because this information is believed to be readily available, the Board estimates this revision would impose minimal additional burden while improving the ability to use these data.
For reports as-of December 31, 2016, the Board proposes modifying the definition of Item 62, Gross Charge-off Amount—Current month to reflect the intended method of reporting the item and in response to industry comments. The definition would be modified to indicate that all gross charge-offs must be reported regardless of whether they are from purchased or impaired loans by eliminating the reference to allowance for loan and lease losses (ALLL).
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee:
For additional information about the Board, please visit:
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announce the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
The Board of Scientific Counselors makes recommendations regarding policies, strategies, objectives, and priorities; and reviews progress toward injury prevention goals and provides evidence in injury prevention-related research and programs. The Board also provides advice on the appropriate balance of intramural and extramural research, the structure, progress and performance of intramural programs. The Board is designed to provide guidance on extramural scientific program matters, including the: (1) Review of extramural research concepts for funding opportunity announcements; (2) conduct of Secondary Peer Review of extramural research grants, cooperative agreements, and contracts applications received in response to the funding opportunity announcements as it relates to the Center's programmatic balance and mission; (3) submission of secondary review recommendations to the Center Director of applications to be considered for funding support; (4) review of research portfolios, and (5) review of program proposals.
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is soliciting nominations for possible membership on the ACD, CDC. ACD, CDC consists of 15 experts in fields related to health policy, public health, global health, preparedness, preventive medicine, the faith-based and community-based sector, and allied fields, who are selected by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). The committee advises the HHS Secretary and the CDC Director concerning policy and broad strategies that will enable CDC to fulfill its mission of protecting health through health promotion, prevention, and preparedness. The committee recommends ways to prioritize CDC's activities, improve results, and address health disparities. It also provides guidance to help CDC work more effectively with its various private and public sector constituents to make health protection a practical reality.
Nominations are being sought for individuals who have the expertise and qualifications necessary to contribute to accomplishment of the committee's objectives. Nominees will be selected by the HHS Secretary or designee from authorities knowledgeable in the fields of public health as well as from the general public. Federal employees will not be considered for membership. Members may be invited to serve for terms of up to four years.
The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services policy stipulates that committee membership be balanced in terms of points of view represented and the committee's function. Consideration will be given to a broad representation of geographic areas. Appointments shall be made without discrimination on the basis of age, race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, HIV status, disability, and cultural, religious, or socioeconomic status. Nominees must be U.S. citizens and cannot be full-time employees of the U.S. Government. Current participation on federal workgroups or prior experience serving on a federal advisory committee does not disqualify a candidate; however, HHS policy is to avoid excessive individual service on advisory committees and multiple committee memberships. Committee members are Special Government Employees, requiring the filing of financial disclosure reports at the beginning and annually during their terms. CDC reviews potential candidates for ACD, CDC membership each year and provides a slate of nominees for consideration to the Secretary of HHS for final selection. HHS notifies selected candidates of their appointment near the start of the term in July 2017 or as soon as the HHS selection process is completed. Note that the need for different expertise varies from year to year and a candidate who is not selected in one year may be reconsidered in a subsequent year.
Nominees must be U.S. citizens and cannot be full-time employees of the U.S. Government. Candidates should submit the following items:
• Current
• A letter of recommendation stating the qualifications of the candidate.
Nomination materials must be postmarked by August 12, 2016 and sent to
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
This is to announce the cancelation of a meeting, Operations Research (Implementation Science) for Strengthening Global Health Protection, Funding Opportunity Announcement (FOA) GH16-007, initial review.
This meeting was announced in the
Hylan Shoob, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, CDC, 1600 Clifton Road NE., Mailstop D-69, Atlanta, Georgia 30333, Telephone: (404) 639-4796,
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
Toll free number +1 877-951-7311, Participant Code: 4727233.
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
In accordance with section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (P.L. 92-463), the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) announces the following meeting of the aforementioned committee.
Login information for teleconference is as follows:
Agenda items are subject to change as priorities dictate.
Contact Person for More Information: Substantive program information as well as summaries of the meeting and roster of committee members may be obtained from the internet at
The Director, Management Analysis and Services Office, has been delegated the authority to sign
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Notice of Opportunity for a Hearing Compliance of Arkansas Medicaid State Plan—Provision of Benefits During a Reasonable Opportunity Period.
Requests to participate in the hearing as a party must be received by the presiding officer by August 29, 2016.
Benjamin R. Cohen, Hearing Officer, Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 2520 Lord Baltimore Drive, Suite L, Baltimore, MD 21244.
This notice announces the opportunity for an administrative hearing concerning the finding of the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) that the State of Arkansas is not providing Medicaid benefits during a reasonable opportunity period.
Section 1902(a)(46) of the Social Security Act (the Act) requires state plans for medical assistance to provide “that information is requested and exchanged for purposes of income and eligibility verification in accordance with a State system which meets the requirements of section 1137 of this Act.” Section 1137(d) of the Act and regulations at 42 CFR 435.911(c) require that the state agency provide a reasonable opportunity period to individuals who are determined otherwise eligible for Medicaid but for whom the state agency is unable to promptly verify satisfactory immigration status. In its approved State Plan Amendment (SPA) 13-0018, the Arkansas Department of Human Services (DHS) provides assurance that it provides Medicaid to citizens and nationals of the United States and to certain non-citizens, including during a reasonable opportunity period pending verification of their citizenship, national status or satisfactory immigration status, in accordance with the requirements of sections 1902(a)(46), 1902(ee), 1903(x) and 1137(d) of the Act. Despite such assurance in the Medicaid state plan, it is CMS' understanding based on numerous discussions and interactions with the state that Arkansas is not providing Medicaid benefits to individuals who declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status, have met all other eligibility requirements for Medicaid in the state, and are pending verification of their immigration status.
With a formal determination by the CMS Administrator that the Arkansas DHS has failed to comply substantially with these requirements, made after a hearing or absent a hearing request, CMS will begin this FFP withholding and it will continue until the Arkansas DHS comes into compliance with the requirement to provide Medicaid benefits during a reasonable opportunity period for otherwise eligible non-citizens who have declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status.
Arkansas submitted state plan amendment (SPA) Transmittal Number 13-0018 on September 23, 2013, which described the Arkansas DHS's policies and practices related to citizenship and non-citizen eligibility, including the assurance that the Arkansas DHS provides Medicaid benefits during the reasonable opportunity period to individuals who have declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status pending verification of such status. During the review of this SPA, CMS learned that the Arkansas DHS was not providing Medicaid benefits during a reasonable opportunity period to individuals who have declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status and who meet all other eligibility requirements in the state, pending verification of such status. Throughout 2014 and 2015, CMS and Arkansas engaged in extensive technical assistance discussions. CMS sent a letter to the Arkansas DHS on April 1, 2015, reiterating the requirement for Arkansas to comply with the statute and regulations. During this time, CMS received multiple draft corrective action plans (CAPs) from Arkansas that set out schedules to come into compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act by July 1, 2014, October 2015, April 2016, and, most recently, August 2016.
On November 3, 2015, CMS approved Arkansas' SPA 13-0018. At the same time, CMS issued a companion letter informing Arkansas that, if it did not demonstrate compliance with these requirements within 30 days of the date of the letter, CMS would initiate formal compliance proceedings. To date, CMS
The notice to Arkansas containing the details concerning this compliance issue, the proposed withholding of FFP, opportunity for a hearing, and possibility of postponing and ultimately avoiding withholding by coming into compliance, reads as follows:
This letter provides notice that the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) has found a serious issue of noncompliance because the Arkansas Department of Human Services (DHS) is not providing Medicaid benefits during a reasonable opportunity period as required by section 1137(d) of the Social Security Act (the Act) and regulations at 42 CFR. § 435.911(c).
Pursuant to section 1904 of the Act and 42 CFR 430.35, a portion of the federal financial participation (FFP) of the administrative costs associated with the operation of the Arkansas Medicaid program will be withheld. However, CMS is first providing the Arkansas DHS with an opportunity for a hearing on this withholding decision. With a formal determination by the CMS Administrator that the Arkansas DHS has failed to comply substantially with these requirements, made after a hearing or absent a hearing request, CMS will begin this FFP withholding and it will continue until the Arkansas DHS comes into compliance with the requirement to provide Medicaid benefits during a reasonable opportunity period for otherwise eligible non-citizens who have declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status. The details of the finding, proposed withholding, opportunity for the Arkansas DHS to request a hearing on the finding, and possibility of postponing, and ultimately avoiding, withholding by coming into compliance are described below.
CMS learned of the Arkansas DHS' non-compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act and regulations at 42 CFR 435.911(c) during the review of State Plan Amendment (SPA) Transmittal Number 13-0018. Section 1902(a)(46) of the Act requires state plans for medical assistance to provide “that information is requested and exchanged for purposes of income and eligibility verification in accordance with a State system which meets the requirements of section 1137 of this Act.” Section 1137(d) of the Act requires that the state agency provide a reasonable opportunity period to individuals who are determined otherwise eligible for Medicaid but for whom the state agency is unable to promptly verify satisfactory immigration status. See also, 42 CFR. § 435.911(c). In the approved SPA 13-0018, the Arkansas DHS provides assurance that it provides Medicaid to citizens and nationals of the United States and to certain non-citizens, including during a reasonable opportunity period pending verification of their citizenship, national status or satisfactory immigration status, in accordance with the requirements of sections 1902(a)(46), 1902(ee), 1903(x) and 1137(d) of the Act. Despite such assurance in the Medicaid state plan, it is our understanding that the Arkansas DHS is not providing Medicaid benefits to individuals who declare under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status, meet all other eligibility requirements for Medicaid in the state, and are pending verification of such status.
In processing SPA 13-0018, CMS and the Arkansas DHS discussed this issue on October 10, 2013, and again on December 9, 2013, and the Arkansas DHS acknowledged that it is not furnishing benefits during the reasonable opportunity period to individuals who declare under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status. A formal Request for Additional Information (RAI) was issued on December 20, 2013, which requested a description of the steps the Arkansas DHS would take to implement the change, a timeline by which the steps would be accomplished and a date by which the changes will be completed to be in compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act. CMS also sent a letter to the Arkansas DHS on April 1, 2015, reiterating the requirement for the Arkansas DHS to comply with the statute and regulations.
Throughout 2014 and 2015, CMS and the Arkansas DHS engaged in extensive technical assistance discussions. During this time, CMS received multiple draft corrective action plans (CAPs) from the Arkansas DHS that set out schedules for compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act, including dates of compliance by July 1, 2014, October 2015, and April 2016. The Arkansas DHS formally responded to the December 20, 2013, RAI on October 7, 2015. The RAI response included a revised schedule for compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act by April of 2016. On November 3, 2015, CMS approved Arkansas' SPA 13-0018, which describes the Arkansas DHS's policies and practices related to citizenship and non-citizen eligibility, including the assurance that the Arkansas DHS is providing Medicaid benefits during the reasonable opportunity period to individuals who have declared under penalty of perjury that they are in a satisfactory immigration status pending verification of such status. At the same time, CMS issued a companion letter informing the Arkansas DHS that, if it did not demonstrate compliance with these requirements within 30 days of the date of the letter, CMS would initiate formal compliance proceedings. The Arkansas DHS did not come into compliance by the specified date and on February 23, 2016, submitted a revised timeline for compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act, with a compliance date of August 2016.
The Arkansas DHS' submission of its quarterly expenditure reports through the CMS-64 includes a certification that the Arkansas DHS is operating under the authority of its approved Medicaid state plan. However, at this time, CMS has not received information from the Arkansas DHS providing evidence of compliance with its approved state plan, section 1137(d) of the Act and regulations at 42 CFR 435.911(c).
In light of the Arkansas DHS' non-compliance with section 1137(d) of the Act, CMS is moving forward with a formal determination of substantial noncompliance with federal requirements described in section 1137(d) of the Act and the regulations at 42 CFR 435.911(c) to provide Medicaid coverage to otherwise eligible non-citizens pending verification of their satisfactory immigration status during a reasonable opportunity period if the individual meets all other eligibility criteria for Medicaid. Subject to the state's opportunity for a hearing, CMS will withhold a portion of federal financial participation (FFP) from the Arkansas DHS' quarterly claim of expenditures for administrative costs until such time as the Arkansas DHS is and continues to be in compliance with the federal requirements. The withholding will initially be three percent of the federal share of the Arkansas DHS' quarterly claim for administrative expenditures, an amount that was developed based on the proportion of total state Medicaid expenditures that are used for expenditures for eligibility determinations, as reported on Form CMS-64.10 Line 50. The withholding percentage will increase by two percentage points (
The state has 30 days from the date of this letter to request a hearing. As specified in the accompanying
If the Arkansas DHS plans to come into compliance with the approved state plan, the Arkansas DHS should submit, within 30 days of the date of this letter, an explanation of how the Arkansas DHS plans to come into compliance with federal requirements and the timeframe for doing so. If that explanation is satisfactory, CMS may consider postponing any requested hearing, which could also delay the imposition of the withholding of funds as described above. Our goal is to have the Arkansas DHS come into compliance, and CMS continues to be available to provide technical assistance to the Arkansas DHS in achieving this outcome.
Should you not request a hearing within 30 days, a notice of withholding will be sent to you and the withholding of federal funds will begin as described above.
If you have any questions or wish to discuss this determination further, please contact: Bill Brooks, Associate Regional Administrator, Division of Medicaid and Children's Health Operations, CMS Dallas Regional Office, 1301 Young Street, Suite 714, Dallas, TX 75202, 214-767-4461.
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), HHS.
Proposed notice.
The Social Security Act prohibits a physician-owned hospital from expanding its facility capacity, unless the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) grants the hospital's request for an exception to that prohibition after considering input on the hospital's request from individuals and entities in the community where the hospital is located. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) has received a request from a physician-owned hospital for an exception to the prohibition against expansion of facility capacity. This notice solicits comments on the request from individuals and entities in the community in which the physician-owned hospital is located. Community input may inform our determination regarding whether the requesting hospital qualifies for an exception to the prohibition against expansion of facility capacity.
In commenting, please refer to file code CMS-1667-PN. Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile (FAX) transmission.
You may submit comments in one of three ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):
For information on viewing public comments, see the beginning of the
All comments received before the close of the comment period are available for viewing by the public, including any personally identifiable or confidential business information that is included in a comment. We post all comments received before the close of the comment period on the following Web site as soon as possible after they have been received:
We will allow stakeholders 30 days from the date of this notice to submit written comments. Comments received timely will be available for public inspection as they are received, generally beginning approximately 3 weeks after publication of this notice, at the headquarters of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244, Monday through Friday of each week from 8:30 a.m. to 4 p.m. To schedule an appointment to view public comments, please phone 1-800-743-3951.
Section 1877 of the Social Security Act (the Act), also known as the physician self-referral law—(1) prohibits a physician from making referrals for certain “designated health services” (DHS) payable by Medicare to an entity with which he or she (or an immediate family member) has a financial relationship (ownership or compensation), unless the requirements of an applicable exception are satisfied; and (2) prohibits the entity from filing claims with Medicare (or billing another individual, entity, or third party payer) for those DHS furnished as a result of a prohibited referral.
Section 1877(d)(2) of the Act provides an exception for physician ownership or investment interests in rural providers (the “rural provider exception”). In order for an entity to qualify for the rural provider exception, the DHS must be furnished in a rural area (as defined in section 1886(d)(2) of the Act) and substantially all the DHS furnished by the entity must be furnished to individuals residing in a rural area.
Section 1877(d)(3) of the Act provides an exception, known as the hospital ownership exception, for physician ownership or investment interests held in a hospital located outside of Puerto Rico, provided that the referring physician is authorized to perform services at the hospital and the ownership or investment interest is in the hospital itself (and not merely in a subdivision of the hospital).
Section 6001(a)(3) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148) as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-152) (hereafter referred to together as “the Affordable Care Act”) amended the rural provider and hospital ownership exceptions to the physician self-referral prohibition to impose additional restrictions on physician ownership and investment in hospitals and rural providers. Since March 23, 2010, a physician-owned hospital that seeks to avail itself of either exception is prohibited from expanding facility capacity unless it qualifies as an “applicable hospital” or “high Medicaid facility” (as defined in sections 1877(i)(3)(E), (F) of the Act and 42 CFR 411.362(c)(2), (3) of our regulations) and has been granted an exception to the prohibition by the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary). Section 1877(i)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act provides that individuals and entities in the community in which the provider requesting the exception is located must have an opportunity to provide input with respect to the provider's application for the exception. For further information, we refer readers to the CMS Web site at:
On November 30, 2011, we published a final rule in the
As stated in regulations at § 411.362(c)(5), we will solicit community input on the request for an exception by publishing a notice of the request in the
A request for an exception to the facility expansion prohibition is considered complete as follows:
• If the request, any written comments, and any rebuttal statement include only HCRIS data: (1) The end of the 30-day comment period if CMS receives no written comments from the community; or (2) the end of the 30-day rebuttal period if CMS receives written comments from the community, regardless of whether the physician-owned hospital submitting the request submits a rebuttal statement (§ 411.362(c)(5)(i)).
• If the request, any written comments, or any rebuttal statement include data from an external data source, no later than: (1) 180 Days after the end of the 30-day comment period if CMS receives no written comments from the community; and (2) 180 days after the end of the 30-day rebuttal period if CMS receives written comments from the community, regardless of whether the physician-owned hospital submitting the request submits a rebuttal statement (§ 411.362(c)(5)(ii)).
If we grant the request for an exception to the prohibition on expansion of facility capacity, the expansion may occur only in facilities on the hospital's main campus and may not result in the number of operating rooms, procedure rooms, and beds for which the hospital is licensed to exceed 200 percent of the hospital's baseline number of operating rooms, procedure rooms, and beds (§ 411.362(c)(6)). The CMS decision to grant or deny a hospital's request for an exception to the prohibition on expansion of facility capacity must be published in the
As permitted by section 1877(i)(3) of the Act and our regulations at § 411.362(c), the following physician-owned hospital has requested an exception to the prohibition on expansion of facility capacity:
We seek comments on this request from individuals and entities in the community in which the hospital is located. We encourage interested parties to review the hospital's request, which is posted on the CMS Web site at:
• Is not the sole hospital in the county in which the hospital is located.
• With respect to each of the 3 most recent 12-month periods for which data are available as of the date the hospital submits its request, has an annual percent of total inpatient admissions under Medicaid that is estimated to be greater than such percent with respect to such admissions for any other hospital located in the county in which the hospital is located.
• Does not discriminate against beneficiaries of federal health care programs and does not permit physicians practicing at the hospital to discriminate against such beneficiaries.
Individuals and entities wishing to submit comments on the hospital's request should review the
This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
We will consider all comments we receive by the date and time specified in the
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the rates and payment procedures for fiscal year (FY) 2017 animal drug user fees. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Animal Drug User Fee Amendments of 2013 (ADUFA III), authorizes FDA to collect user fees for certain animal drug applications and supplements, for certain animal drug products, for certain establishments where such products are made, and for certain sponsors of such animal drug applications and/or investigational animal drug submissions. This notice establishes the fee rates for FY 2017.
Visit FDA's Web site at
Section 740 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 379j-12) establishes four different types of user fees: (1) Fees for certain types of animal drug applications and supplements; (2) annual fees for certain animal drug products; (3) annual fees for certain establishments where such products are made; and (4) annual fees for certain sponsors of animal drug applications and/or investigational animal drug submissions (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(a)). When certain conditions are met, FDA will waive or reduce fees (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(d)).
For FY 2014 through FY 2018, the FD&C Act establishes aggregate yearly base revenue amounts for each fiscal year (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(b)(1)). Base revenue amounts established for years after FY 2014 are subject to adjustment for inflation and workload (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)). Fees for applications, establishments, products, and sponsors are to be established each year by FDA so that the percentages of the total revenue that are derived from each type of user fee will be as follows: Revenue from application fees shall be 20 percent of total fee revenue; revenue from product fees shall be 27 percent of total fee revenue; revenue from establishment fees shall be 26 percent of total fee revenue; and revenue from sponsor fees shall be 27 percent of total fee revenue (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(b)(2)).
For FY 2017, the animal drug user fee rates are: $350,700 for an animal drug application; $175,350 for a supplemental animal drug application for which safety or effectiveness data are required and for an animal drug application subject to the criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360b(d)(4)); $8,195 for an annual product fee; $111,900 for an annual establishment fee; and $103,100 for an annual sponsor fee. FDA will issue invoices for FY 2017 product, establishment, and sponsor fees by December 31, 2016, and payment will be due by January 31, 2017. The application fee rates are effective for applications submitted on or after October 1, 2016, and will remain in effect through September 30, 2017. Applications will not be accepted for review until FDA has received full payment of application fees and any other animal drug user fees owed under the Animal Drug User Fee program (ADUFA program).
ADUFA III, Title I of Public Law 113-14, specifies that the aggregate fee revenue amount for FY 2017 for all animal drug user fee categories is $21,600,000 (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(b)(1)(B).).
The fee revenue amount established in ADUFA III for FY 2015 and subsequent fiscal years are subject to an inflation adjustment (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)(2)).
The component of the inflation adjustment for payroll costs shall be one plus the average annual percent change in the cost of all personnel compensation and benefits (PC&B) paid per full-time equivalent position (FTE) at FDA for the first three of the four preceding fiscal years, multiplied by the proportion of PC&B costs to total FDA costs for the first three of the four preceding fiscal years (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)(2)(A) and (B)). The data on total PC&B paid and numbers of FTE paid, from which the average cost per FTE can be derived, are published in FDA's Justification of Estimates for Appropriations Committees.
Table 1 summarizes that actual cost and FTE data for the specified fiscal years, and provides the percent change from the previous fiscal year and the average percent change over the first three of the four fiscal years preceding FY 2017. The 3-year average is 1.8759 percent.
The statute specifies that this 1.8759 percent should be multiplied by the proportion of PC&B costs to total FDA costs. Table 2 shows the amount of PC&B and the total amount obligated by FDA for the same 3 FYs.
The payroll adjustment is 1.8759 percent multiplied by 47.9108 percent (or 0.8988 percent).
The statute specifies that the portion of the inflation adjustment for non-payroll costs for FY 2017 is the average annual percent change that occurred in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for urban consumers (Washington-Baltimore, DC-MD-VA-WV; not seasonally adjusted; all items less food and energy; annual index) for the first 3 of the preceding 4 years of available data multiplied by the proportion of all costs other than PC&B costs to total FDA costs (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)(2)(C)). Table 3 provides the summary data for the percent change in the specified CPI for the Baltimore-Washington area. The data from the Bureau of Labor Statistics is shown in table 3.
To calculate the inflation adjustment for non-pay costs, we multiply the 1.7754 percent by the proportion of all costs other than PC&B to total FDA costs. Since 47.9108 percent was obligated for PC&B as shown in table 2, 52.0892 percent is the portion of costs other than PC&B (100 percent minus 47.9108 percent equals 52.0892 percent). The non-payroll adjustment is 1.7754 percent times 52.0892 percent, or 0.9248 percent.
Next, we add the payroll component (0.8988 percent) to the non-pay component (0.9248 percent), for a total inflation adjustment of 1.8236 percent for FY 2017.
ADUFA III provides for the inflation adjustment to be compounded each fiscal year after FY 2014 (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)(2)). The factor for FY 2017 (1.8236 percent) is compounded by adding 1 and then multiplying by 1 plus the inflation adjustment factor for FY 2016 (2.1121 percent), as published in the
A workload adjustment will be calculated to the inflation adjusted fee revenue amount established in ADUFA III for FY 2015 and subsequent fiscal years (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(c)(3)).
FDA calculated the average number of each of the five types of applications and submissions specified in the workload adjustment provision (animal drug applications, supplemental animal drug applications for which data with respect to safety or efficacy are required, manufacturing supplemental animal drug applications, investigational animal drug study submissions, and investigational animal drug protocol submissions) received over the 5-year period that ended on September 30, 2013 (the base years), and the average number of each of these types of applications and submissions over the most recent 5-year period that ended June 30, 2016.
The results of these calculations are presented in the first two columns of table 4. Column 3 reflects the percent change in workload over the two 5-year periods. Column 4 shows the weighting factor for each type of application, reflecting how much of the total FDA animal drug review workload was accounted for by each type of application or submission in the table during the most recent five years. Column 5 is the weighted percent change in each category of workload, and was derived by multiplying the weighting factor in each line in column 4 by the percent change from the base years in column 3. At the bottom right of table 4 the sum of the values in column 5 is added, reflecting a total change in workload of 3.3206 percent for FY 2017. This is the workload adjuster for FY 2017.
FDA experienced an increase in the number of new animal drug applications (NADAs) and supplemental NADAs with safety or effectiveness data. Over the last several years FDA has seen an increase in the number of animal drug products brought by animal drug sponsors for review in the drug evaluation process. These new animal drug products come from both existing animal drug sponsors as well as sponsors new to the animal drug market. The increase in new animal drug products have contributed to an increase in the number of protocol submissions and NADAs submitted for many novel drug classes and novel indications for both food-producing animals and companion animals. FDA can expect that the increases in reviewed protocols will lead in the near future to an increase in the number of Investigational Study Submissions and NADAs or supplemental NADAs as sponsors work their products through the regulatory review process. Additionally, FDA has seen an increase in the number of animal drug sponsors pursuing multiple changes to their existing NADAs (
ADUFA III specifies that the revenue amount of $23,673,000 for FY 2017 is to be divided as follows: 20 percent, or a total of $4,734,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars), is to come from application fees; 27 percent, or a total of $6,392,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars), is to come from product fees; 26 percent, or a total of $6,155,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars), is to come from establishment fees; and 27 percent, or a total of $6,392,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars), is to come from sponsor fees (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(b)).
Each person that submits an animal drug application or a supplemental animal drug application shall be subject to an application fee, with limited exceptions (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12 (a)(1)). The term “animal drug application” means an application for approval of any new animal drug submitted under section 512(b)(1) (21 U.S.C. 379j-11(1)). A “supplemental animal drug application” is defined as a request to the Secretary to approve a change in an animal drug application which has been approved, or a request to the Secretary to approve a change to an application approved under section 512(c)(2) for which data with respect to safety or effectiveness are required (21 U.S.C. 379j-11(2)). The application fees are to be set so that they will generate $4,734,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017. The fee for a supplemental animal drug application for which safety or effectiveness data are required and for an animal drug application subject to criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act is to be set at 50 percent of the animal drug application fee (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(a)(1)(A)(ii)).
To set animal drug application fees and supplemental animal drug application fees to realize $4,734,000 FDA must first make some assumptions about the number of fee-paying applications and supplements the Agency will receive in FY 2017.
The Agency knows the number of applications that have been submitted in previous years. That number fluctuates from year to year. In estimating the fee revenue to be generated by animal drug application fees in FY 2017, FDA is assuming that the number of applications that will pay fees in FY 2017 will equal the average number of submissions over the five most recent completed years of the ADUFA program (FY 2011 to FY 2015). FDA believes that this is a reasonable approach after 12 completed years of experience with this program.
Over the five most recent completed years, the average number of animal drug applications that would have been subject to the full fee was 7.2. Over this same period, the average number of supplemental applications and applications subject to the criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act that would have been subject to half of the full fee was 12.6.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 7.2 applications that pay the full fee and the estimated 12.6 supplemental applications and applications subject to the criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act that pay half of the full fee will generate a total of $4,734,000. To generate this amount, the fee for an animal drug application, rounded to the nearest $100, will have to be $350,700, and the fee for a supplemental animal drug application for which safety or effectiveness data are required and for applications subject to the criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act will have to be $175,350.
The animal drug product fee (also referred to as the product fee) must be paid annually by the person named as the applicant in a new animal drug
To set animal drug product fees to realize $6,392,000, FDA must make some assumptions about the number of products for which these fees will be paid in FY 2017. FDA developed data on all animal drug products that have been submitted for listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act and matched this to the list of all persons who had an animal drug application or supplement pending after September 1, 2003. As of June 2016, FDA estimates that there are a total of 804 products submitted for listing by persons who had an animal drug application or supplemental animal drug application pending after September 1, 2003. Based on this, FDA estimates that a total of 804 products will be subject to this fee in FY 2017.
In estimating the fee revenue to be generated by animal drug product fees in FY 2017, FDA is assuming that 3 percent of the products invoiced, or 24, will not pay fees in FY 2017 due to fee waivers and reductions. FDA has kept this estimate at 3 percent this year, based on historical data over the past 5 completed years of the ADUFA program. Based on experience over the first 12 completed years of the ADUFA program, FDA believes that this is a reasonable basis for estimating the number of fee-paying products in FY 2017.
Accordingly, the Agency estimates that a total of 780 (804 minus 24) products will be subject to product fees in FY 2017.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 780 products that pay fees will generate a total of $6,392,000. To generate this amount will require the fee for an animal drug product, rounded to the nearest $5, to be $8,195.
The animal drug establishment fee (also referred to as the establishment fee) must be paid annually by the person who: (1) Owns or operates, directly or through an affiliate, an animal drug establishment; (2) is named as the applicant in an animal drug application or supplemental animal drug application for an animal drug product submitted for listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act; (3) had an animal drug application or supplemental animal drug application pending at FDA after September 1, 2003; and (4) whose establishment engaged in the manufacture of the animal drug product during the fiscal year (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12(a)(3)). An establishment subject to animal drug establishment fees is assessed only one such fee per fiscal year. The term “animal drug establishment” is defined as a foreign or domestic place of business which is at one general physical location consisting of one or more buildings all of which are within 5 miles of each other, at which one or more animal drug products are manufactured in final dosage form (21 U.S.C. 379j-11(4)). The establishment fees are to be set so that they will generate $6,155,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017.
To set animal drug establishment fees to realize $6,155,000, FDA must make some assumptions about the number of establishments for which these fees will be paid in FY 2017. FDA developed data on all animal drug establishments and matched this to the list of all persons who had an animal drug application or supplement pending after September 1, 2003. As of June 2016, FDA estimates that there are a total of 62 establishments owned or operated by persons who had an animal drug application or supplemental animal drug application pending after September 1, 2003. Based on this, FDA believes that 62 establishments will be subject to this fee in FY 2017.
In estimating the fee revenue to be generated by animal drug establishment fees in FY 2017, FDA is assuming that 11 percent of the establishments invoiced, or seven, will not pay fees in FY 2017 due to fee waivers and reductions. FDA has reduced this estimate from 12 percent to 11 percent this year, based on historical data over the past 5 completed years. Based on experience over the past 12 completed years of the ADUFA program, FDA believes that this is a reasonable basis for estimating the number of fee-paying establishments in FY 2017.
Accordingly, the Agency estimates that a total of 55 establishments (62 minus 7) will be subject to establishment fees in FY 2017.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 55 establishments that pay fees will generate a total of $6,155,000. To generate this amount will require the fee for an animal drug establishment, rounded to the nearest $50, to be $111,900.
The animal drug sponsor fee (also referred to as the sponsor fee) must be paid annually by each person who: (1) Is named as the applicant in an animal drug application, except for an approved application for which all subject products have been removed from listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act, or has submitted an investigational animal drug submission that has not been terminated or otherwise rendered inactive and (2) had an animal drug application, supplemental animal drug application, or investigational animal drug submission pending at FDA after September 1, 2003 (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-11(6) and 379j-12(a)(4)). An animal drug sponsor is subject to only one such fee each fiscal year (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-12(a)(4)). The sponsor fees are to be set so that they will generate $6,392,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017.
To set animal drug sponsor fees to realize $6,392,000, FDA must make some assumptions about the number of sponsors who will pay these fees in FY 2017. Based on the number of firms that would have met this definition in each of the past 12 completed years of the ADUFA program, FDA estimates that a total of 189 sponsors will meet this definition in FY 2017.
Careful review indicates that 35 percent of these sponsors will qualify for minor use/minor species waiver or reduction (21 U.S.C. 379j-12(d)(1)(D)). Based on the Agency's experience to date with sponsor fees, FDA's current best estimate is that an additional 32 percent will qualify for other waivers or reductions, for a total of 67 percent of the sponsors invoiced, or 127, who will not pay fees in FY 2017 due to fee waivers and reductions. FDA has increased this estimate from 65 percent
Accordingly, the Agency estimates that a total of 62 sponsors (189 minus 127) will be subject to and pay sponsor fees in FY 2017.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 62 sponsors that pay fees will generate a total of $6,392,000. To generate this amount will require the fee for an animal drug sponsor, rounded to the nearest $50, to be $103,100.
The fee rates for FY 2017 are summarized in Table 5.
The appropriate application fee established in the new fee schedule must be paid for an animal drug application or supplement subject to fees under ADUFA III that is submitted on or after October 1, 2016. Payment must be made in U.S. currency by check, bank draft, U.S. postal money order payable to the order of the Food and Drug Administration, wire transfer, or electronically using
On your check, bank draft, or U.S. postal money order, please write your application's unique Payment Identification Number (PIN), beginning with the letters AD, from the upper right-hand corner of your completed Animal Drug User Fee Cover Sheet. Also write the FDA post office box number (P.O. Box 979033) on the enclosed check, bank draft, or money order. Your payment and a copy of the completed Animal Drug User Fee Cover Sheet can be mailed to: Food and Drug Administration, P.O. Box 979033, St. Louis, MO 63197-9000.
If payment is made by wire transfer, send payment to: U.S. Department of Treasury, TREAS NYC, 33 Liberty St., New York, NY 10045, FDA Deposit Account Number: 75060099, U.S. Department of Treasury routing/transit number: 021030004, SWIFT Number: FRNYUS33, Beneficiary: FDA, 8455 Colesville Rd., 14th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. You are responsible for any administrative costs associated with the processing of a wire transfer. Contact your bank or financial institution about the fee and add it to your payment to ensure that your fee is fully paid.
If you prefer to send a check by a courier, the courier may deliver the check and printed copy of the cover sheet to: U.S. Bank, Attn: Government Lockbox 979033, 1005 Convention Plaza, St. Louis, MO 63101. (
The tax identification number of FDA is 53-0196965. (
It is helpful if the fee arrives at the bank at least a day or two before the application arrives at FDA's CVM. FDA records the official application receipt date as the later of the following: The date the application was received by FDA's CVM, or the date U.S. Bank notifies FDA that your payment in the full amount has been received, or when the U.S. Treasury notifies FDA of receipt of an electronic or wire transfer payment. U.S. Bank and the U.S. Treasury are required to notify FDA within 1 working day, using the PIN described previously.
Step One—Create a user account and password. Log on to the ADUFA Web site at
Step Two—Create an Animal Drug User Cover Sheet, transmit it to FDA, and print a copy. After logging into your account with your user name and password, complete the steps required to create an Animal Drug User Fee Cover Sheet. One cover sheet is needed for each animal drug application or supplement. Once you are satisfied that the data on the cover sheet is accurate and you have finalized the cover sheet, you will be able to transmit it electronically to FDA and you will be able to print a copy of your cover sheet showing your unique PIN.
Step Three—Send the payment for your application as described in section VIII.A.
Step Four—Please submit your application and a copy of the completed Animal Drug User Fee Cover Sheet to the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Document Control Unit (HFV-199), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
By December 31, 2016, FDA will issue invoices and payment instructions for product, establishment, and sponsor fees for FY 2017 using this fee schedule. Payment will be due by January 31, 2017. FDA will issue invoices in November 2017 for any products, establishments, and sponsors subject to fees for FY 2017 that qualify for fees after the December 2016 billing.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the fee rates and payment procedures for fiscal year (FY) 2017 generic new animal drug user fees. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Animal Generic Drug User Fee Amendments of 2013 (AGDUFA II), authorizes FDA to collect user fees for certain abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs, for certain generic new animal drug products, and for certain sponsors of such abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs and/or investigational submissions for generic new animal drugs. This notice establishes the fee rates for FY 2017.
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Section 741 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 379j-21) establishes three different types of user fees: (1) Fees for certain types of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs; (2) annual fees for certain generic new animal drug products; and (3) annual fees for certain sponsors of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs and/or investigational submissions for generic new animal drugs (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)). When certain conditions are met, FDA will waive or reduce fees for generic new animal drugs intended solely to provide for a minor use or minor species indication (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(d)).
For FY 2014 through FY 2018, the FD&C Act establishes aggregate yearly base revenue amounts for each of these fee categories (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(b)). Base revenue amounts established for fiscal years after FY 2014 are subject to adjustment for workload (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(c)). The target revenue amounts for each fee category for FY 2017, after the adjustment for workload, are as follows: For application fees the target revenue amount is $2,835,000; for product fees the target revenue amount is $4,253,000; and for sponsor fees the target revenue amount is $4,253,000.
For FY 2017, the generic new animal drug user fee rates are: $232,400 for each abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug other than those subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360b(d)(4)); $116,200 for each abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4); $10,200 for each generic new animal drug product; $96,350 for each generic new animal drug sponsor paying 100 percent of the sponsor fee; $72,263 for each generic new animal drug sponsor paying 75 percent of the sponsor fee; and $48,175 for each generic new animal drug sponsor paying 50 percent of the sponsor fee. FDA will issue invoices for FY 2017 product and sponsor fees by December 31, 2016. These fees will be due by January 31, 2017. The application fee rates are effective for all abbreviated applications for a generic new animal drug submitted on or after October 1, 2016, and will remain in effect through September 30, 2017. Applications will not be accepted for review until FDA has received full payment of related application fees and any other fees owed under the Animal Generic Drug User Fee program (AGDUFA program).
AGDUFA II, Title II of Public Law 113-14, specifies that the aggregate revenue amount for FY 2017 for abbreviated application fees is $1,984,000 and each of the other two generic new animal drug user fee categories, annual product fees and annual sponsor fees, is $2,976,000 each (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(b)).
The amounts established in AGDUFA II for each year for FY 2014 through FY 2018 include an inflation adjustment; therefore, no further inflation adjustment is required.
For each FY beginning after FY 2014, AGDUFA II provides that statutory fee revenue amounts shall be further adjusted to reflect changes in review workload. (See 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(c)(2).)
FDA calculated the average number of each of the four types of applications and submissions specified in the workload adjustment provision (abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs, manufacturing supplemental abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs, investigational generic new animal drug study submissions, and investigational generic new animal drug protocol submissions) received over the 5-year period that ended on September 30, 2013 (the base years), and the average number of each of these types of applications and submissions over the most recent 5-year period that ended on June 30, 2016.
The results of these calculations are presented in the first two columns in table 1. Column 3 reflects the percent change in workload over the two 5-year periods. Column 4 shows the weighting factor for each type of application, reflecting how much of the total FDA generic new animal drug review workload was accounted for by each type of application or submission in the table during the most recent 5 years. Column 5 is the weighted percent change in each category of workload and was derived by multiplying the
Over the last year FDA has continued to see more sponsors getting involved in the generic animal drug approval process, including pioneer sponsors. This has contributed to sustained increases in the number of ANADAs, manufacturing supplements, and protocols submitted. Additionally, more sponsors continue to pursue drug approvals that do not qualify for a waiver of the requirement to conduct an in vivo bioequivalence study. For this reason we are seeing a large sustained increase in the number of generic investigational new animal drug study submissions.
As a result, the statutory revenue amount for each category of fees for FY 2017 ($1,984,000 for application fees and $2,976,000 for both product and sponsor fees) must now be increased by 42.9097 percent, for a total fee revenue target in FY 2017 of $11,341,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars) for fees from all three categories. The target for application fee revenue is $1,984,000 times 42.9097 percent, for a total of $2,835,000, rounded to the nearest thousand. The target for product fee revenue is $2,976,000 times 42.9097 percent, for a total of $4,253,000, rounded to the nearest thousand dollars, and the target for sponsor fee revenue is the same as for product fees ($4,253,000, rounded to the nearest thousand dollars).
Each person that submits an abbreviated application or a supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug shall be subject to an application fee, with limited exceptions (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(1)). The term “abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug” means an abbreviated application for the approval of any generic new animal drug submitted under section 512(b)(2) (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(k)(1)). A “supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug” is defined as a request to the Secretary to approve a change in an approved abbreviated application (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(k)(11)). The application fees are to be set so that they will generate $2,835,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017.
To set fees for abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs to realize $2,835,000, FDA must first make some assumptions about the number of fee-paying abbreviated applications it will receive during FY 2017.
The Agency knows the number of applications that have been submitted in previous years. That number fluctuates from year to year. FDA is making estimates and applying different assumptions for two types of full fee submissions: Original submissions of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs and “reactivated” submissions of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs. Any original submissions of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs that were received by FDA before July 1, 2008, were not assessed fees (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(1)(A)). Some of these non-fee-paying submissions were later resubmitted on or after July 1 because the initial submission was not approved by FDA (
Also, under AGDUFA II, an abbreviated application for an animal generic drug subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act and submitted on or after October 1, 2013, shall be subject to 50 percent of the fee applicable to all other abbreviated applications for a generic new animal drug (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(1)(C)(ii)).
Regarding original submissions of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs, FDA is assuming that the number of applications that will pay fees in FY 2017 will equal the average number of submissions over the 5 most recently completed years of the AGDUFA program (FY 2011-FY 2015). FDA believes that this is a reasonable approach after 7 complete years of experience with this program.
The average number of original submissions of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs over the 5 most recently completed years is 10 applications not subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act and 4.4 submissions subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4). Each of the submissions described under section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act pays 50 percent of the fee paid by the other applications and will be counted as one half of a fee. Adding all of the applications not subject to the criteria in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act and 50 percent of the number that are subject to such criteria results in a total of 12.2 anticipated full fees.
In prior years, FDA had estimated the number of reactivations of abbreviated applications for generic new animal drugs that had been originally submitted prior to July 1, 2008. Over the years, that number has decreased to the point that FDA no longer expects to receive any reactivations of applications initially submitted prior to July 1, 2008, and will include no provision for them in its fee estimates. Should such a submission be made, the submitter will be expected to pay the appropriate fee.
Based on the previous assumptions, FDA is estimating that it will receive a total of 12.2 fee-paying generic new animal drug applications in FY 2017 (10 original applications paying a full fee and 4.4 applications paying a half fee).
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 12.2 abbreviated applications that pay the fee will generate a total of $2,835,000. To generate this amount, the fee for a generic new animal drug application, rounded to the nearest hundred dollars, will have to be $232,400, and for those applications that are subject to the criteria set forth in section 512(d)(4) of the FD&C Act, 50 percent of that amount, or $116,200.
The generic new animal drug product fee (also referred to as the product fee) must be paid annually by the person named as the applicant in an abbreviated application or supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug product submitted for listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 360), and who had an abbreviated application or supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug product pending at FDA after September 1, 2008 (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(2)). The term “generic new animal drug product” means each specific strength or potency of a particular active ingredient or ingredients in final dosage form marketed by a particular manufacturer or distributor, which is uniquely identified by the labeler code and product code portions of the national drug code, and for which an abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug or supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug has been approved (21 U.S.C. 379j-21(k)(6)). The product fees are to be set so that they will generate $4,253,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017.
To set generic new animal drug product fees to realize $4,253,000, FDA must make some assumptions about the number of products for which these fees will be paid in FY 2017. FDA gathered data on all generic new animal drug products that have been submitted for listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act and matched this to the list of all persons who FDA estimated would have an abbreviated new animal drug application or supplemental abbreviated application pending after September 1, 2008. As of June 2016, FDA estimates a total of 417 products submitted for listing by persons who had an abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug or supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug pending after September 1, 2008. Based on this, FDA believes that a total of 417 products will be subject to this fee in FY 2017.
In estimating the fee revenue to be generated by generic new animal drug product fees in FY 2017, FDA is assuming that less than two products invoiced will qualify for minor use/minor species fee waiver (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(d)). FDA has kept this estimate at zero percent this year, based on historical data over the past 5 completed years of the AGDUFA program.
Accordingly, the Agency estimates that a total of 417 products will be subject to product fees in FY 2017.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated 417 products that pay fees will generate a total of $4,253,000. To generate this amount will require the fee for a generic new animal drug product, rounded to the nearest $5, to be $10,200.
The generic new animal drug sponsor fee (also referred to as the sponsor fee) must be paid annually by each person who: (1) Is named as the applicant in an abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug, except for an approved application for which all subject products have been removed from listing under section 510 of the FD&C Act, or has submitted an investigational submission for a generic new animal drug that has not been terminated or otherwise rendered inactive and (2) had an abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug, supplemental abbreviated application for a generic new animal drug, or investigational submission for a generic new animal drug pending at FDA after September 1, 2008 (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(k)(7) and 379j-21(a)(3), respectively). A generic new animal drug sponsor is subject to only one such fee each fiscal year (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(3)(C)). Applicants with more than six approved abbreviated applications will pay 100 percent of the sponsor fee; applicants with more than one and fewer than seven approved abbreviated applications will pay 75 percent of the sponsor fee; and applicants with one or fewer approved abbreviated applications will pay 50 percent of the sponsor fee (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(a)(3)(C)). The sponsor fees are to be set so that they will generate $4,253,000 in fee revenue for FY 2017.
To set generic new animal drug sponsor fees to realize $4,253,000, FDA must make some assumptions about the number of sponsors who will pay these fees in FY 2017. FDA now has 7 complete years of experience collecting these sponsor fees. Based on the number of firms that meet this definition and the average number of firms paying fees at each level over the 5 most recently completed years of the AGDUFA program (FY 2011 through FY 2015), FDA estimates that in FY 2017, 13 sponsors will pay 100 percent fees, 18 sponsors will pay 75 percent fees, and 38 sponsors will pay 50 percent fees. That totals the equivalent of 45.5 full sponsor fees (13 times 100 percent or 13, plus 18 times 75 percent or 13.5, plus 38 times 50 percent or 19).
FDA estimates that about 3 percent of all of these sponsors, or 1.37, may qualify for a minor use/minor species fee waiver (see 21 U.S.C. 379j-21(d)). FDA has reduced the estimate of the percentage of sponsors that will not pay fees from 4 percent to 3 percent this year, based on historical data over the past 5 completed years of the AGDUFA program.
Accordingly, the Agency estimates that the equivalent of 44.13 full sponsor fees (45.5 minus 1.37) are likely to be paid in FY 2017.
FDA must set the fee rates for FY 2017 so that the estimated equivalent of 44.13 full sponsor fees will generate a total of $4,253,000. To generate this amount will require the 100 percent fee for a generic new animal drug sponsor, rounded to the nearest $50, to be $96,350. Accordingly, the fee for those paying 75 percent of the full sponsor fee will be $72,263, and the fee for those paying 50 percent of the full sponsor fee will be $48,175.
The fee rates for FY 2017 are summarized in table 2 of this document.
The FY 2017 fee established in the new fee schedule must be paid for an abbreviated new animal drug application subject to fees under AGDUFA II that is submitted on or after October 1, 2016. Payment must be made in U.S. currency from a U.S. bank by check, bank draft, U.S. postal money order payable to the order of the Food and Drug Administration, wire transfer, or electronically using Pay.gov. The preferred payment method is online using electronic check (Automated Clearing House (ACH), also known as eCheck) or credit card (Discover, VISA, MasterCard, American Express). Secure electronic payments can be submitted using the User Fees Payment Portal at
On your check, bank draft, U.S. or postal money order, please write your application's unique Payment Identification Number, beginning with the letters “AG”, from the upper right-hand corner of your completed Animal Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet. Also write the FDA post office box number (P.O. Box 979033) on the enclosed check, bank draft, or money order. Your payment and a copy of the completed Animal Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet can be mailed to: Food and Drug Administration, P.O. Box 979033, St. Louis, MO 63197-9000.
If payment is made via wire transfer, send payment to U. S. Department of the Treasury, TREAS NYC, 33 Liberty St., New York, NY 10045, Account Name: Food and Drug Administration, Account No.: 75060099, Routing No.: 021030004, Swift No.: FRNYUS33, Beneficiary: FDA, 8455 Colesville Rd., 14th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. You are responsible for any administrative costs associated with the processing of a wire transfer. Contact your bank or financial institution about the fee and add it to your payment to ensure that your fee is fully paid.
If you prefer to send a check by a courier, the courier may deliver the check and printed copy of the cover sheet to: U.S. Bank, Attn: Government Lockbox 979033, 1005 Convention Plaza, St. Louis, MO 63101. (
The tax identification number of FDA is 53-0196965. (
It is helpful if the fee arrives at the bank at least a day or two before the abbreviated application arrives at FDA's Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM). FDA records the official abbreviated application receipt date as the later of the following: The date the application was received by CVM, or the date U.S. Bank notifies FDA that your payment in the full amount has been received, or when the U. S. Department of the Treasury notifies FDA of payment. U.S. Bank and the United States Treasury are required to notify FDA within 1 working day, using the Payment Identification Number described previously.
Step One—Create a user account and password. Log onto the AGDUFA Web site at
Step Two—Create an Animal Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet, transmit it to FDA, and print a copy. After logging into your account with your user name and password, complete the steps required to create an Animal Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet. One cover sheet is needed for each abbreviated animal drug application. Once you are satisfied that the data on the cover sheet is accurate and you have finalized the cover sheet, you will be able to transmit it electronically to FDA and you will be able to print a copy of your cover sheet showing your unique Payment Identification Number.
Step Three—Send the payment for your application as described in Section VII.A of this document.
Step Four—Please submit your application and a copy of the completed Animal Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet to the following address: Food and Drug Administration, Center for Veterinary Medicine, Document Control Unit (HFV-199), 7500 Standish Pl., Rockville, MD 20855.
By December 31, 2016, FDA will issue invoices and payment instructions for product and sponsor fees for FY 2017 using this fee schedule. Fees will be due by January 31, 2017. FDA will issue invoices in November 2017 for any products and sponsors subject to fees for FY 2017 that qualify for fees after the December 2016 billing.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of a public docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is establishing a public docket for comment on the Agency's blood donor deferral recommendations for reducing the risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission as described in the document entitled “Revised Recommendations for Reducing the Risk of Human Immunodeficiency Virus Transmission by Blood and Blood Products; Guidance for Industry” dated December 2015. Interested persons are invited to submit comments, supported by scientific evidence such as data from research, regarding potential blood donor deferral policy options to reduce the risk of HIV transmission, including the feasibility of moving from the existing time-based deferrals related to risk behaviors to alternate deferral options, such as the use of individual risk assessments. Additionally, comments are invited regarding the design of potential studies to evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of such alternative deferral options. FDA will take the comments received into account as it continues to reevaluate and update blood donor deferral policies as new scientific information becomes available.
Submit either electronic or written comments by November 25, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Jonathan McKnight, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 7301, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-7911.
In the
The December 2015 guidance updates blood donor deferral recommendations to reflect the most current scientific evidence. The recommendations also help ensure continued safety of the blood supply by reducing the risk of HIV transmission by blood and blood products. As part of the updated blood donor deferral recommendations in the December 2015 guidance, FDA changed the recommendation for an indefinite deferral period for men who have sex with men (MSM) to a deferral period of 12 months since the last sexual contact with another man. The updated recommendations better align the deferral period for MSM with the
As described in the December 2015 guidance, throughout the process of comprehensively updating blood donor deferral policies, FDA has worked with other government Agencies, considered input from external advisory committees, reviewed comments from stakeholders to the draft guidance of the same title (80 FR 27973, May 15, 2015), and carefully examined the most recent available scientific evidence. FDA also has implemented a nationally representative transfusion-transmissible infections monitoring system for the U.S. blood supply with assistance from the National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute at the National Institutes of Health. This system provides critical information to help inform future actions that FDA may take on blood donor policies.
When FDA issued the December 2015 guidance, it noted that while the December 2015 guidance represents FDA's current thinking on the subject, FDA was committed to continuing to reevaluate and update blood donor deferral policies as new scientific information becomes available. FDA also noted that, because the process must be data-driven, FDA could not specify a time for when future policy changes might occur.
As part of the effort to continue to assess its donor deferral policies, FDA is opening this docket to provide a mechanism for the public to submit additional information regarding potential blood donor deferral policy options. Specifically, we invite interested persons to submit to the docket comments supported by scientific evidence regarding possible revisions to FDA's blood donor deferral policies to reduce the risk of HIV transmission by blood and blood products. FDA requests that commenters provide scientific evidence, such as data from research, to support any suggestions. Additionally, comments are invited regarding the design of potential studies to evaluate the feasibility or effectiveness of such alternative deferral policy options.
FDA recognizes that many stakeholders have expressed the desire to move from a time-based deferral period to a deferral policy based on individual risk assessment. An individual risk assessment would involve asking potential donors a series of questions designed to defer donors with high risk behaviors. In particular, we invite commenters to address the following and provide supporting scientific evidence such as data from research:
FDA will consider comments and supporting scientific data received as it continues to reevaluate and update blood donor deferral policies as new scientific information becomes available.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the rates for prescription drug user fees for fiscal year (FY) 2017. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Prescription Drug User Fee Amendments of 2012 (PDUFA V), authorizes FDA to collect user fees for certain applications for the review of human drug and biological products, on establishments where the products are made, and on such products. This notice establishes the fee rates for FY 2017.
Robert J. Marcarelli, Office of Financial Management, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14202F, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-7223.
Sections 735 and 736 of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 379g and 379h, respectively) establish three different kinds of user fees. Fees are assessed on the following: (1) Certain types of applications and supplements for the review of human drug and biological products; (2) certain establishments where such products are made; and (3) certain products (section 736(a) of the FD&C Act). When certain conditions are met, FDA may waive or reduce fees (section 736(d) of the FD&C Act).
For FY 2013 through FY 2017, the base revenue amounts for the total revenues from all PDUFA fees are established by PDUFA V. The base revenue amount for FY 2013, which became the base amount for the remaining four FYs of PDUFA V, is $718,669,000, as published in the
This document provides fee rates for FY 2017 for an application requiring clinical data ($2,038,100), for an application not requiring clinical data or a supplement requiring clinical data ($1,019,050), for an establishment ($512,200), and for a product ($97,750). These fees are effective on October 1, 2016, and will remain in effect through September 30, 2017. For applications and supplements that are submitted on or after October 1, 2016, the new fee schedule must be used. Invoices for establishment and product fees for FY 2017 will be issued in August 2016 using the new fee schedule.
The base revenue amount for FY 2017 is $718,669,000 prior to adjustments for inflation, workload, the offset of excess collections, and the final year adjustment (see sections 736(c)(1), 736(c)(2), 736(g)(4), and 736(c)(3) of the FD&C Act, respectively).
PDUFA V specifies that the $718,669,000 is to be further adjusted for inflation increases for FY 2017 using two separate adjustments—one for personnel compensation and benefits (PC&B) and one for non-PC&B costs (see section 736(c)(1) of the FD&C Act).
The component of the inflation adjustment for payroll costs shall be one plus the average annual percent change in the cost of all PC&B paid per full-time equivalent (FTE) position at FDA for the first three of the preceding four FYs, multiplied by the proportion of PC&B costs to total FDA costs of process for the review of human drug applications for the first three of the preceding four FYs (see section 736(c)(1)(A) and (c)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act).
Table 1 summarizes that actual cost and FTE data for the specified FYs, and provides the percent changes from the previous FYs and the average percent changes over the first three of the four FYs preceding FY 2017. The 3-year average is 1.8759 percent.
The statute specifies that this 1.8759 percent should be multiplied by the proportion of PC&B costs to total FDA costs of the process for the review of human drug applications. Table 2 shows the PC&B and the total obligations for the process for the review of human drug applications for three FYs.
The payroll adjustment is 1.8759 percent from table 1 multiplied by 55.9064 percent (or 1.0487 percent).
The statute specifies that the portion of the inflation adjustment for non-payroll costs is the average annual percent change that occurred in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for urban consumers (Washington-Baltimore, DC-MD-VA-WV; not seasonally adjusted; all items; annual index) for the first three years of the preceding four years of available data multiplied by the proportion of all costs other than PC&B costs to total costs of the process for the review of human drug applications for the first three years of the preceding four FYs (see section 736(c)(1)(C) of the FD&C Act). Table 3 provides the summary data for the percent changes in the specified CPI for the Washington-Baltimore area. The data are published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics and can be found on its Web site at:
To calculate the inflation adjustment for non-payroll costs, we multiply the 1.1297 percent by the proportion of all costs other than PC&B to total costs of the process for the review of human drug applications obligated. Since 55.9064 percent was obligated for PC&B as shown in Table 2, 44.0936 percent is the portion of costs other than PC&B (100 percent minus 55.9064 percent equals 44.0936 percent). The non-payroll adjustment is 1.1297 percent times 44.0936 percent, or 0.4981 percent.
Next, we add the payroll adjustment (1.0487 percent) to the non-payroll adjustment (0.4981 percent), for a total
PDUFA V provides for this inflation adjustment to be compounded after FY 2013 (see section 736(c)(1) of the FD&C Act). This factor for FY 2017 (1.5468 percent) is compounded by adding one and then multiplying by one plus the compound inflation adjustment factor for FY 2016 (6.4414 percent), as published in the
The statute specifies that after the $718,669,000 has been adjusted for inflation, the inflation-adjusted amount shall be further adjusted for workload (see section 736(c)(2) of the FD&C Act).
To calculate the FY 2017 workload adjustment, FDA calculated the average number of each of the four types of applications specified in the workload adjustment provision: (1) Human drug applications; (2) active commercial investigational new drug applications (INDs) (applications that have at least one submission during the previous 12 months); (3) efficacy supplements; and (4) manufacturing supplements received over the 3-year period that ended on June 30, 2012 (base years), and the average number of each of these types of applications over the most recent 3-year period that ended June 30, 2016.
The calculations are summarized in table 4. The 3-year averages for each application category are provided in column 1 (“3-Year Average Base Years 2010-2012”) and column 2 (“3-Year Average 2014-2016”). Column 3 reflects the percent change in workload from column 1 to column 2. Column 4 shows the weighting factor for each type of application, estimating how much of the total FDA drug review workload was accounted for by each type of application in the table during the most recent 3 years. Column 5 is the weighted percent change in each category of workload. This was derived by multiplying the weighting factor in each line in column 4 by the percent change from the base years in column 3. The values in column 5 are summed, reflecting an increase in workload of 13.1047 percent (rounded) for FY 2017 when compared to the base years.
Table 5 shows the calculation of the inflation and workload adjusted amount for FY 2017. The $718,669,000 subject to adjustment on line 1 is multiplied by the inflation adjustment factor of 1.080878, resulting in the inflation-adjusted amount on line 3, $776,793,511. That amount is then multiplied by one plus the workload adjustment of 13.1047 percent on line 4, resulting in the inflation and workload adjusted amount of $878,590,000 on line 5, rounded to the nearest thousand dollars.
Under the provisions of the FD&C Act, if the sum of the cumulative amount of the fees collected for FY 2013 through 2015, and the amount of fees estimated to be collected under this section for FY 2016, exceeds the cumulative amount appropriated for fees for FYs 2013 through 2016, the excess shall be credited to FDA's appropriation account and subtracted from the amount of fees that FDA would otherwise be authorized to collect for FY 2017 under the FD&C Act (see section 736(g)(4) of the FD&C Act as amended by PDUFA V).
Table 6 shows the amounts specified in appropriation acts for each year from FY 2013 through FY 2016, and the amounts FDA has collected for FYs 2013, 2014, and 2015 as of June 30, 2016, and an additional $70,907,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars) that FDA estimates it will collect in FY 2016 based on historical data. Table 6 shows the estimated cumulative difference between PDUFA fee amounts specified in appropriation acts for FY 2013 through FY 2016 and PDUFA fee amounts collected.
The cumulative fees collected for FYs 2013 through 2016 are estimated to be $124,065,726 greater than the cumulative fee amounts specified in appropriation acts during this same period. Reducing the inflation and workload adjusted amount of $878,590,000 by the PDUFA V offset of $124,066,000 (rounded to the nearest thousand dollars) results in an amount of $754,524,000, before the final year adjustment.
Under the provisions of the FD&C Act, as amended, for FY 2017 the Secretary of Health and Human Services may, in addition to the inflation and workload adjustments, further increase the fees and fee revenues if such an adjustment is necessary to provide for not more than 3 months of operating reserves of carryover user fees for the process for the review of human drug applications for the first 3 months of FY 2018. If such an adjustment is necessary, the rationale for the amount of this increase shall be contained in the annual notice establishing fee revenues and fees for FY 2017 (see section 736(c)(3) of the FD&C Act).
After running analyses on the status of PDUFA's operating reserves and its estimated balance as of the beginning of FY 2018, FDA estimates that the PDUFA program will have sufficient funds for the operating reserves, thus FDA will not be performing a final year adjustment for FY 2018 because FDA has determined such an adjustment to be unnecessary.
The FD&C Act specifies that one-third of the total fee revenue is to be derived from application fees, one-third from establishment fees, and one-third from product fees (see section 736(b)(2) of the FD&C Act). Accordingly, one-third of the total revenue amount ($754,524,000), or a total of $251,508,000, is the amount of fee revenue that will be derived from each fee type: Application fees, establishment fees, and product fees.
Application fees will be set to generate one-third of the total fee revenue amount, or $251,508,000 in FY 2017.
For FY 2013 through FY 2017, FDA will estimate the total number of fee-paying full application equivalents (FAEs) it expects to receive the next FY by averaging the number of fee-paying FAEs received in the three most recently completed FYs. Beginning with FY 2016, prior year FAE totals will be updated annually to reflect refunds and waivers processed after the close of the FY.
In estimating the number of fee-paying FAEs, a full application requiring clinical data counts as one FAE. An application not requiring clinical data counts as one-half of an FAE, as does a supplement requiring clinical data. An application that is withdrawn, or refused for filing, counts as one-fourth of an FAE if the applicant initially paid a full application fee, or one-eighth of an FAE if the applicant initially paid one-half of the full application fee amount.
As Table 7 shows, the average number of fee-paying FAEs received annually in the most recent 3-year period is 123.405 FAEs. FDA will set fees for FY 2017 based on this estimate as the number of full application equivalents that will pay fees.
The FY 2017 application fee is estimated by dividing the average number of full applications that paid fees over the latest 3 years, 123.405, into the fee revenue amount to be derived from application fees in FY 2017, $251,508,000. The result, rounded to the nearest hundred dollars, is a fee of $2,038,100 per full application requiring clinical data, and $1,019,050 per application not requiring clinical data or per supplement requiring clinical data.
At the beginning of FY 2016, the establishment fee was based on an estimate that 485 establishments would be subject to and would pay fees. By the
At the beginning of FY 2016, the product fee was based on an estimate that 2,480 products would be subject to and would pay product fees. By the end of FY 2016, FDA estimates that 2,646 products will have been billed for product fees, before all decisions on requests for waivers, reductions, or exemptions are made. FDA assumes that there will be 41 waivers and reductions granted. In addition, FDA estimates that another 32 product fees will be exempted this year based on the orphan drug exemption in section 736(k) of the FD&C Act. FDA estimates that 2,573 products will qualify for and pay product fees in FY 2016, after allowing for an estimated 73 waivers and reductions, including the orphan drug products, and will use this number for its FY 2017 estimate. The FY 2017 product fee rate is determined by dividing the adjusted total fee revenue to be derived from product fees ($251,508,000) by the estimated 2,573 products for a FY 2017 product fee of $97,750 (rounded to the nearest ten dollars).
The fee rates for FY 2017 are displayed in table 8:
The appropriate application fee established in the new fee schedule must be paid for any application or supplement subject to fees under PDUFA that is received on or after October 1, 2016. Payment must be made in U.S. currency by electronic check, check, bank draft, wire transfer, or U.S. postal money order payable to the order of the Food and Drug Administration. The preferred payment method is online using electronic check (Automated Clearing House (ACH) also known as eCheck) or credit card (Discover, VISA, MasterCard, American Express). Secure electronic payments can be submitted using the User Fees Payment Portal at
FDA has partnered with the U.S. Department of the Treasury to use Pay.gov, a Web-based payment application, for online electronic payment. The Pay.gov feature is available on the FDA Web site after the user fee ID number is generated.
Please include the user fee identification (ID) number on your check, bank draft, or postal money order. Your payment can be mailed to: Food and Drug Administration, P.O. Box 979107, St. Louis, MO 63197-9000.
If checks are to be sent by a courier that requests a street address, the courier can deliver the checks to: U.S. Bank, Attention: Government Lockbox 979107, 1005 Convention Plaza, St. Louis, MO 63101. (Note: This U.S. Bank address is for courier delivery only. If you have any questions concerning courier delivery contact the U.S. Bank at 314-418-4013. This telephone number is only for questions about courier delivery).
Please make sure that the FDA post office box number (P.O. Box 979107) is written on the check, bank draft, or postal money order.
If paying by wire transfer, please reference your unique user fee ID number when completing your transfer. The originating financial institution may charge a wire transfer fee. Please ask your financial institution about the fee and add it to your payment to ensure that your fee is fully paid. The account information for wire transfers is as follows: U.S. Department of the Treasury, TREAS NYC, 33 Liberty St., New York, NY 10045, Acct. No.: 75060099, Routing No.: 021030004, SWIFT: FRNYUS33, Beneficiary: FDA, 8455 Colesville Rd., 14th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
The tax identification number of FDA is 53-0196965.
FDA will issue invoices for establishment and product fees for FY 2017 under the new fee schedule in August 2016. Payment will be due on October 1, 2016. FDA will issue invoices in November 2017 for any products and establishments subject to fees for FY 2017 that qualify for fee assessments after the August 2016 billing.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by September 26, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal:
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20851,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
The guidance entitled “Requests for Feedback on Medical Device Submissions: The Pre-Submission Program and Meetings with Food and Drug Administration Staff” describes the Pre-Submission program for medical devices reviewed in the Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH) and the Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER). The guidance provides recommendations regarding the information that should be submitted in a Pre-Submission package and procedures that should be followed for meetings between CDRH and CBER staff and industry representatives or application sponsors. In addition to Pre-Submissions, the guidance addresses other feedback mechanisms including Informational Meetings, Study Risk Determinations, Formal Early Collaboration Meetings, and Submission Issue Meetings and the procedures to request feedback using these mechanisms.
A Pre-Submission is defined as a formal written request from an applicant for feedback from FDA to be provided in the form of a formal written response
For clarity, we are requesting that the title of the information collection request, OMB control number 0910-0756, be changed to “Pre-Submission Program for Medical Devices.”
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Respondents are medical device manufacturers subject to FDA's laws and regulations. FDA's annual estimate of 2,544 submissions is based on experienced trends over the past several years. FDA's administrative and technical staffs, who are familiar with the requirements for current Pre-Submissions, estimate that an average of 137 hours is required to prepare a Pre-Submission.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Psychopharmacologic Drugs Advisory Committee and the Drug Safety and Risk Management Advisory Committee. The general function of the committees is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on September 14, 2016, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
Kalyani Bhatt, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, FAX: 301-847-8533, email:
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require accommodations due to a disability, please contact Kalyani Bhatt at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) announces a forthcoming public advisory committee meeting of the Oncologic Drugs Advisory Committee. The general function of the committee is to provide advice and recommendations to the Agency on FDA's regulatory issues. The meeting will be open to the public.
The meeting will be held on September 14, 2016, from 8 a.m. to 1 p.m.
FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (Rm. 1503), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Answers to commonly asked questions including information regarding special accommodations due to a disability, visitor parking, and transportation may be accessed at:
Lauren D. Tesh, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31, Rm. 2417, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-9001, Fax: 301-847-8533,
FDA intends to make background material available to the public no later than 2 business days before the meeting. If FDA is unable to post the background material on its Web site prior to the meeting, the background material will be made publicly available at the location of the advisory committee meeting, and the background material will be posted on FDA's Web site after the meeting. Background material is available at
Persons attending FDA's advisory committee meetings are advised that the Agency is not responsible for providing access to electrical outlets.
FDA welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with disabilities. If you require special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Lauren D. Tesh at least 7 days in advance of the meeting.
FDA is committed to the orderly conduct of its advisory committee meetings. Please visit our Web site at
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app. 2).
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing the rates for biosimilar user fees for fiscal year (FY) 2017. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act), as amended by the Biosimilar User Fee Act of 2012 (BsUFA), authorizes FDA to assess and collect user fees for certain activities in connection with biosimilar biological product development, certain applications and supplements for
BsUFA directs FDA to establish, before the beginning of each fiscal year, the initial and annual biosimilar biological product development (BPD) fees, the reactivation fee, and the biosimilar biological product application, establishment, and product fees. These fees are effective on October 1, 2016, and will remain in effect through September 30, 2017.
David Haas, Office of Financial Management, Food and Drug Administration, 8455 Colesville Rd., COLE-14202I, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-9845.
Sections 744G, 744H, and 744I of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 379j-51, 379j-52, and 379j-53), as added by BsUFA (Title IV of the Food and Drug Administration Safety and Innovation Act, Pub. L. 112-144), establish fees for biosimilar biological products. Under section 744H(a)(1)(A) of the FD&C Act, the initial BPD fee for a product is due when the sponsor submits an investigational new drug (IND) application that FDA determines is intended to support a biosimilar biological product application or within 5 calendar days after FDA grants the first BPD meeting, whichever occurs first. A sponsor who has paid the initial BPD fee is considered to be participating in FDA's BPD program for that product.
Under section 744H(a)(1)(B) of the FD&C Act, once a sponsor has paid the initial BPD fee for a product, the annual BPD fee is assessed beginning with the next fiscal year. The annual BPD fee is assessed for the product each fiscal year until the sponsor submits a marketing application for the product that is accepted for filing, or discontinues participation in FDA's BPD program.
Under section 744H(a)(1)(D) of the FD&C Act, if a sponsor has discontinued participation in FDA's BPD program and wants to re-engage with FDA on development of the product, the sponsor must pay a reactivation fee to resume participation in the program. The sponsor must pay the reactivation fee by the earlier of the following dates: No later than 5 calendar days after FDA grants the sponsor's request for a BPD meeting for that product, or upon the date of submission of an IND describing an investigation that FDA determines is intended to support a biosimilar biological product application. The sponsor will be assessed an annual BPD fee beginning with the first fiscal year after payment of the reactivation fee.
BsUFA also establishes fees for certain applications and supplements, establishments where approved biosimilar biological products are made in final dosage form, and for each biosimilar biological product approved in a biosimilar biological product application (section 744H(a)(2), 744H(a)(3), and 744H(a)(4), respectively, of the FD&C Act). Under certain conditions, FDA may grant a small business a waiver from its first biosimilar biological product application fee (section 744H(c)(1) of the FD&C Act).
Under BsUFA, the initial and annual BPD fee rates for a fiscal year are equal to 10 percent of the fee rate established under the Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA) for an application requiring clinical data for that fiscal year. The reactivation fee is equal to 20 percent of the fee rate established under PDUFA for an application requiring clinical data for that fiscal year. Finally, the application, establishment, and product fee rates under BsUFA are equal to the application, establishment, and product fee rates under PDUFA, respectively (section 744H(b)(1) of the FD&C Act).
BsUFA directs FDA to establish the biosimilar biological product fee rates in each fiscal year by reference to the user fees established under PDUFA for that fiscal year. For more information about BsUFA, please refer to the FDA Web site at
Under BsUFA, the initial and annual BPD fees equal 10 percent of the PDUFA fee for an application requiring clinical data, and the reactivation fee equals 20 percent of the PDUFA fee for an application requiring clinical data. The FY 2017 fee for an application requiring clinical data under PDUFA is $2,038,100. Multiplying the PDUFA application fee, $2,038,100, by 0.1 results in FY 2017 initial and annual BPD fees of $203,810. Multiplying the PDUFA application fee, $2,038,100, by 0.2 results in a FY 2017 reactivation fee of $407,620.
The FY 2017 fee for a biosimilar biological product application requiring clinical data equals the PDUFA fee for an application requiring clinical data, $2,038,100. The FY 2017 fee for a biosimilar biological product application not requiring clinical data equals half this amount, $1,019,050. However, under section 744H(a)(2)(A) of the FD&C Act, if a sponsor submitting a biosimilar biological product application has previously paid an initial BPD fee, annual BPD fee(s), and/or reactivation fee(s) for the product that is the subject of the application, the fee for the application is reduced by the cumulative amount of these previously paid fees. The FY 2017 fee for a biosimilar biological product supplement with clinical data is $1,019,050, which is half the fee for a biosimilar biological product application requiring clinical data.
The FY 2017 biosimilar biological product establishment fee for establishments where approved biosimilar biological products are made is equal to the FY 2017 PDUFA establishment fee of $512,200.
The FY 2017 biosimilar biological product fee for each biosimilar biological product approved in a biosimilar biological product application is equal to the FY 2017 PDUFA product fee of $97,750.
The fee rates for FY 2017 are provided in table 1.
The fees established in the new fee schedule are effective October 1, 2016. The initial BPD fee for a product is due when the sponsor submits an IND that FDA determines is intended to support a biosimilar biological product application for the product or within 5 calendar days after FDA grants the first BPD meeting for the product, whichever occurs first. Sponsors who have discontinued participation in the BPD program must pay the reactivation fee by the earlier of the following dates: No later than 5 calendar days after FDA grants the sponsor's request for a BPD meeting for that product, or upon the date of submission of an IND describing an investigation that FDA determines is intended to support a biosimilar biological product application.
The application or supplement fee for a biosimilar biological product is due upon submission of the application or supplement.
To make a payment of the initial BPD, reactivation, supplement, or application fee, complete the Biosimilar User Fee Cover Sheet, available on FDA's Web site (
FDA has partnered with the U.S. Department of the Treasury to use
Please include the user fee ID number on your check, bank draft, or postal money order, and make it payable to the Food and Drug Administration. Your payment can be mailed to: Food and Drug Administration, P.O. Box 979108, St. Louis, MO 63197-9000. If you prefer to send a check by a courier such as Federal Express or United Parcel Service, the courier may deliver the check and printed copy of the cover sheet to: U.S. Bank, ATTN: Government Lockbox 979108, 1005 Convention Plaza, St. Louis, MO 63101. (Note: This U.S. Bank address is for courier delivery only. Contact U.S. Bank at 314-418-4013 if you have any questions concerning courier delivery.) Please make sure that the FDA post office box number (P.O. Box 979108) is written on the check, bank draft, or postal money order.
If paying by wire transfer, please reference your unique user fee ID number when completing your transfer. The originating financial institution may charge a wire transfer fee. Please ask your financial institution about the fee and include it with your payment to ensure that your fee is fully paid. The account information is as follows: U.S. Department of Treasury, TREAS NYC, 33 Liberty St., New York, NY 10045, Acct. No.: 75060099, Routing No.: 021030004, SWIFT: FRNYUS33, Beneficiary: FDA, 8455 Colesville Rd., 14th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002.
The tax identification number of FDA is 53-0196965.
FDA will issue invoices for annual BPD, biosimilar biological product establishment, and biosimilar biological product fees under the new fee schedule in August 2016. Payment instructions will be included in the invoices. Payment will be due on October 1, 2016. If sponsors join the BPD program after the annual BPD invoices have been issued in August 2016, FDA will issue invoices in November 2016 to firms subject to fees for FY 2017 that qualify for the annual BPD fee after the August 2016 billing. FDA will issue invoices in November 2017 for any annual products and establishments subject to fees for FY 2017 that qualify for fee assessments after the August 2016 billing.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 concerning opportunity for public comment on proposed collections of information, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects. To request more information on the proposed projects or to obtain a copy of the information collection plans, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collections of information are necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration's (SAMHSA), Center for Mental Health Services, in partnership with the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) and the Administration for Children and Families (ACF), announces the establishment of the National Center of Excellence (CoE) for Infant and Early Childhood Mental Health Consultation (IECMHC), a new program to advance the implementation of high-quality infant and early childhood mental health consultation across the nation through the development of tools, resources, training, technical assistance, and collaborative public and private partnerships. Its primary goals will be to promote the healthy social and emotional development of infants and young children and to prevent mental, emotional and behavioral disorders within this age group. Major activities for the CoE include convening a national expert workgroup and to lead the workgroup in developing a state-of-the-art Toolkit of the latest research and best practices for IECMHC (
To monitor the reach, implementation and impact of the CoE's multiple efforts, learn which practices work for which populations, and gauge overall applicability and utility of the Toolkit to infant and early childhood mental health consultation, the CoE intends to employ a variety of standardized process and outcome measures that have been specifically designed to reduce participant burden. Measures will explore the related professional background and experience of IECMHC participants, degree of satisfaction with IECMHC trainings and technical assistance (TTA), usefulness of the TTA, areas for improvement, scope of IECMHC implementation across the State or Tribe, and IECMHC impact on childcare and pre-K expulsion rates.
Data-collection efforts will focus on two types of respondents: (1) Mental health consultants employed at maternal and child health, behavioral health, child care, Head Start, education and child welfare agencies, and (2) State or tribal representatives who have been selected to lead the implementation, expansion and sustainability of IECMHC in their state or tribal community.
The mental health consultants will be asked to provide background information on their prior experience in the IECMHC field, feedback immediately following the trainings, and follow-up feedback approximately two months after receiving training and/or technical assistance. Specific sample questions will include level of satisfaction with the training/technical assistance, perceptions of knowledge acquired, intentions to use training content, extent of implementation of content, and opinions regarding the training's cultural appropriateness for its audience.
State/tribal representatives will be asked to report on the reach and impact of the IECMHC program in the past year, level of satisfaction with IECMHC, suggested improvements for the program, and emerging state/tribal needs that the program could address. IECMHC mentors, whose primary role will be to work with the state/tribal representatives to implement the IECMHC Toolkit, will gather specific information from the representatives, including recommended IECMHC professional standards for mental health consultants, state- or tribal-level evaluations of IECMHC impact, and financing for the continuation of IECMHC. For programs also receiving funding from the Maternal Infant and Early Childhood Home Visiting (MIECHV) program, representatives will be asked to report on selected MIECHV outcome measures relating to maternal and newborn health; school readiness and achievement; and coordination and referrals for other community resources and supports.
SAMHSA will use this data to determine whether funded activities are progressing as expected, provide guidance to improve how work is being conducted, assess the impact of IECMHC on child-serving systems, and inform subsequent national, state, tribal and community policy and planning decisions.
Send comments to Summer King, SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 15E57-B, Rockville, Maryland 20857,
U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security.
General notice.
This document announces that the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Protest Module will be the sole method authorized by the Commissioner of U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) for filing electronic protests. This document also announces that CBP will no longer accept protests filed through the Automated Broker Interface (ABI) to the Automated Commercial System (ACS). Upon the effective date of this notice, ACE will replace ACS as the electronic data interchange system authorized for protest filing.
Effective August 29, 2016, the ACE Protest Module will be the sole CBP-authorized method for filing electronic protests.
For technical questions related to the ACE Protest Module, or to request an ACE Protest Account in the ACE Portal, contact your assigned client representative. Interested parties without an assigned client representative should direct their questions to Steven Zaccaro at
Section 514 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1514), provides that certain decisions made by CBP can be protested within 180 days of the date of liquidation,
The CBP regulations governing protests are found in part 174 of Title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR part 174).
On January 14, 2011, CBP published a Final Rule in the
Currently, CBP accepts electronic protests submitted through the Automated Broker Interface (ABI) to the Automated Commercial System (ACS), the electronic data interchange system currently authorized by CBP for this purpose.
In an effort to modernize the business processes essential to securing U.S. borders, facilitating the flow of legitimate shipments, and targeting illicit goods pursuant to the Mod Act and the Security and Accountability for Every (SAFE) Port Act of 2006 (Pub. L. 109-347, 120 Stat. 1884), CBP developed the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) to eventually replace ACS. Over the last several years, CBP has tested ACE and provided significant public outreach to ensure that the trade community is fully aware of the transition from ACS to ACE. CBP is now transitioning electronic protest filing from ACS to ACE. Upon the effective date of this notice, ACE will replace ACS as the electronic data interchange system authorized for protest filing.
This notice announces that the ACE Protest Module will be the sole CBP-authorized method for filing electronic protests. Filers who intend to submit a protest electronically must use the ACE Protest Module. The ACE Protest Module is an internet-based processing module which allows a filer to submit an electronic protest to ACE for processing by CBP. Protest filings will no longer be accepted in ACS. This transition has no effect on filers who intend to submit their protest in paper form, as specified in 19 CFR part 174.
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of availability, receipt of application.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of an application for an Incidental Take Permit (ITP) and a proposed Habitat Conservation Plan (HCP) from the Slack Chemical Company for public review and comment. We received the permit application from the Slack Chemical Company for incidental take of the endangered Karner blue butterfly resulting from the construction of a gravel access road, as well as from proposed mitigation activities over the next 10 years. Our preliminary determination is that the proposed HCP qualifies as low-effect in accordance with our Handbook for Habitat Conservation Planning and Incidental Taking Permitting Process. To make this determination, we used our Low-Effect HCP Screening Form/Environmental Action Statement (EAS), the preliminary version of which is also available for review.
We provide this notice to (1) seek public comments on the proposed HCP and application; (2) seek public comments on our preliminary determination that the HCP qualifies as low-effect and is therefore eligible for a categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA); and (3) advise other Federal and State agencies, affected Tribes, and the public of our intent to issue an ITP.
To ensure consideration, we must receive your written comments by August 29, 2016.
Noelle Rayman-Metcalf, by U.S. mail at U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, New York Field Office, 3817 Luker Road, Cortland, NY 13045; or via phone at 607-753-9334.
We received an application from the Slack Chemical Company for an ITP for take of the federally listed endangered Karner blue butterfly (
Section 9 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1531
Slack Chemical Company is seeking a permit for the incidental take of the Karner blue butterfly for a term of 10 years. Incidental take of this species will occur in an approximate 0.10-acre area within a National Grid right-of-way (ROW). Slack Chemical Company proposes to construct a gravel access road through the ROW to access approximately 8 acres for construction of a parking lot for their trucking fleet and a building. The project is located in Grande Industrial Park, Saratoga Springs, Saratoga County, New York. An additional 4.81 acres of temporary impacts to enhance Karner blue butterfly habitat will occur due to periodic mowing.
Proposed covered activities include the new construction of a gravel access road, as well as periodic mowing of occupied habitat of two existing New York State Department of Environmental Conservation management areas, and one National Grid easement area, as well as the seeding of wild blue lupine and other nectar species within a 0.10 acre patch in National Grid's ROW. The HCP's proposed conservation strategy is designed to minimize and mitigate the impacts of covered activities on the covered species. The biological goal is to complement the existing conservation efforts in New York State for the butterfly.
The proposed action consists of the issuance of an ITP and implementation of the proposed HCP. One alternative to the proposed action was considered in the HCP: No action (
We have made a preliminary determination that the Slack Chemical Company's proposed HCP, including proposed minimization and mitigation measures, will have a minor or negligible effect on the species covered in the plan, and that the plan qualifies
As further explained in the preliminary EAS, included for public review, our preliminary determination that the plan qualifies as a low-effect HCP is based on the following three criteria:
(1) Implementation of the plan would result in minor or negligible effects on federally listed, proposed, and candidate species and their habitats;
(2) Implementation of the plan would result in minor or negligible effects on other environmental values or resources prior to implementation of the mitigation measures; and
(3) Impacts of the plan, considered together with the impacts of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable similarly situated projects, would not result, over time, in cumulative effects to the environmental values or resources that would be considered significant.
We will evaluate the proposed HCP and comments we receive to determine whether the permit application meets the requirements of section 10(a) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
We invite the public to comment on the proposed HCP and preliminary EAS during a 30-day public comment period (see
All comments received, including names and addresses, will become part of the administrative record and will be available to the public. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—will be publicly available. If you submit a hard copy comment that includes personal identifying information, you may request at the top of your document that we withhold this information from public review. However, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice pursuant to section 10(c) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
U.S. Geological Survey, Interior.
Notice of annual meeting: Audio conference.
Pursuant to Public Law 106-148, the NCGMP and NGGDPP Advisory Committee will hold an audio conference call on Thursday, September 22, 2016, from 9 a.m.-5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time. The Advisory Committee, comprising representatives from Federal agencies, State agencies, academic institutions, and private companies, shall advise the Director of the U.S. Geological Survey on planning and implementation of the geologic mapping and data preservation programs.
The Committee will hear updates on progress of the NCGMP toward fulfilling the purposes of the National Geological Mapping Act of 1992, as well as updates on the NGGDPP toward fulfilling the purposes of the Energy Policy Act of 2005.
September 22, 2016, from 9 a.m.-5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time.
For the phone number and access code, please contact Michael Marketti, U.S. Geological Survey, Mail Stop 908, National Center, Reston, Virginia 20192, (703) 648-6976.
Meetings of the National Cooperative Geologic Mapping Program and National Geological and Geophysical Data Preservation Program Advisory Committee are open to the public.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of Public Meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act (FLPMA) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (FACA), the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) Dakotas Resource Advisory Council (RAC) will meet as indicated below.
The Dakotas Resource Advisory Council meeting will be held on August 25, 2016. When determined, the meeting location and times will be announced in a news release.
Mark Jacobsen, Public Affairs Specialist, BLM Eastern Montana/Dakotas District, 111 Garryowen Road, Miles City, Montana, 59301; (406) 233-2831;
The 15-member council advises the Secretary of the Interior through the BLM on a variety of planning and management issues associated with public land management in eastern Montana. At this meeting, topics will include: An Eastern Montana/Dakotas District report, North Dakota and South Dakota Field Office
43 CFR 1784.4-2.
Bureau of Land Management, Interior.
Notice of Filing of Plats of Survey.
The plats of survey described below are scheduled to be officially filed in the New Mexico State Office, Bureau of Land Management, Santa Fe, New Mexico, thirty (30) calendar days from the date of this publication.
These plats will be available for inspection in the New Mexico State Office, Bureau of Land Management, 301 Dinosaur Trail, Santa Fe, New Mexico. Copies may be obtained from this office upon payment. Contact Carlos Martinez at 505-954-2096, or by email at
The Supplemental plat, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 16 South, Range 13 West, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted January 14, 2016 for Group, 1173, NM.
The Supplemental plat, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 16 South, Range 13 West, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted January 14, 2016 for Group, 1173, NM.
The Supplemental plat, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 16 South, Range 14 West, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted January 14, 2016 for Group, 1173, NM.
The plat, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 30 North, Range 20 West, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted February 29, 2016 for Group, 1162, NM.
The plat, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 15 North, Range 6 East, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted March 1, 2016 for Group, 1167, NM.
The plat, in 5 pages, representing the dependent resurvey for the La Majada Grant, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted March 1, 2016 for Group, 1167, NM.
The plat, in 3 pages, representing the dependent resurvey in Township 19 North, Range 18 West, of the New Mexico Principal Meridian, accepted May 23, 2016 for Group, 1160, NM.
The plat, representing the dependent resurvey and survey in Township 3 South, Range 5 East, of the Indian Meridian, accepted February 24, 2016, for Group 227 OK.
These plats are scheduled for official filing 30 days from the notice of publication in the
A plat will not be officially filed until the day after all protests have been dismissed and become final or appeals from the dismissal affirmed.
A person or party who wishes to protest against any of these surveys must file a written protest with the Bureau of Land Management New Mexico State Director stating that they wish to protest.
A statement of reasons for a protest may be filed with the Notice of Protest to the State Director or the statement of reasons must be filed with the State Director within thirty (30) days after the protest is filed.
On the basis of the record
The Commission, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)), instituted this review on February 1, 2016 (81 FR 5133) and determined on May 6, 2016 that it would conduct an expedited review (81 FR 32345, May 23, 2016).
The Commission made this determination pursuant to section 751(c) of the Act (19 U.S.C. 1675(c)). It completed and filed its determination in this review on July 22, 2016. The views of the Commission are contained in USITC Publication 4625 (July 2016), entitled
By order of the Commission.
Pursuant to the authority contained in Section 512 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1142, the 182nd meeting of the Advisory Council on Employee Welfare and Pension Benefit Plans (also known as the ERISA Advisory Council) will be held on August 23-25, 2016.
The three-day meeting will take place at the U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210 in C5521 Room 4. The meeting will run from 9:00 a.m. to approximately 5:30 p.m. on August 23-24, with a one hour break for lunch each day, and from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on August 25. The purpose of the open meeting is for Advisory Council members to hear testimony from invited witnesses and to receive an update from the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA). The EBSA update is scheduled for the morning of August 25, subject to change.
The Advisory Council will study the following topics: (1) Participant Plan Transfers and Account Consolidation for the Advancement of Lifetime Plan Participation, on August 23 and (2) Cybersecurity Considerations for Benefit Plans, on August 24. The schedule is subject to change. Witnesses may testify on one or both issues on either August 23 or 24. Descriptions of these topics are available on the Advisory Council page of the EBSA Web site, at
Organizations or members of the public wishing to submit a written statement may do so by submitting 35 copies on or before August 16, 2016 to Larry Good, Executive Secretary, ERISA Advisory Council, U.S. Department of Labor, Suite N-5623, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210. Statements also may be submitted as email attachments in word processing or pdf format transmitted to
Individuals or representatives of organizations wishing to address the Advisory Council should forward their requests to the Executive Secretary or telephone (202) 693-8668. Oral presentations will be limited to 10 minutes, time permitting, but an extended statement may be submitted for the record. Individuals with disabilities who need special accommodations should contact the Executive Secretary by August 16.
Office of Management and Budget, Executive Office of the President.
Notice of availability.
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has revised Circular A-130, “Managing Information as a Strategic Resource,” to reflect changes in law and advances in technology. The revisions also ensure consistency with executive orders, presidential directives, recent OMB policy, and National Institute of Standards and Technology standards and guidelines.
The Circular establishes general policy for information governance, acquisitions, records management, open data, workforce, security, and privacy. It also emphasizes the role of both privacy and security in the Federal information life cycle. Importantly, it represents a shift from viewing security and privacy requirements as compliance exercises to understanding security and privacy as crucial elements of a comprehensive, strategic, and continuous risk-based program at Federal agencies.
When implemented by agencies, these revisions to the Circular will promote innovation, enable appropriate information sharing, and foster the wide-scale and rapid adoption of new technologies while strengthening protections for security and privacy.
Effective Upon Publication As of July 28, 2016 OMB is making revised Circular A-130 available to the public.
Circular is available at
Carol Bales, Office of Management and Budget, Office of the Federal Chief Information Officer, at
National Science Foundation.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to request renewal of the National Survey of College Graduates (OMB Control Number 3145-0141). In accordance with the requirement of 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Pub. L. 104-13, we are providing opportunity for public comment on this action. After obtaining and considering public comment, NSF will prepare the submission requesting that OMB approve clearance of this collection for three years.
Written comments on this notice must be received by September 26, 2016, to be assured of consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
The National Science Foundation Act of 1950, as subsequently amended, includes a statutory charge to “. . . provide a central clearinghouse for the collection, interpretation, and analysis of data on scientific and engineering resources, and to provide a source of information for policy formulation by other agencies of the Federal Government.” The NSCG is designed to comply with these mandates by providing information on the supply and utilization of the nation's scientists and engineers.
The U.S. Census Bureau, as in the past, will conduct the NSCG for NSF. The survey data collection will begin in February 2017 using web and mail questionnaires. Nonrespondents to the web or mail questionnaire will be followed up by computer-assisted telephone interviewing. The individual's response to the survey is voluntary. The survey will be conducted in conformance with Census Bureau statistical quality standards and, as such, the NSCG data will be afforded protection under the applicable Census Bureau confidentiality statues.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption and combined license amendment; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is granting an exemption to allow a departure from the certification information of Tier 1 of the generic design control document (DCD) and is issuing License Amendment No. 49 to Combined Licenses (COLs), NPF-93 and NPF-94. The COLs were issued to South Carolina Electric & Gas (SCE&G) (the licensee); for construction and operation of the Virgil C. Summer Nuclear Station (VCSNS) Units 2 and 3, located in Fairfield County, South Carolina. The granting of the exemption allows the changes to Tier 1 information asked for in the amendment. Because the acceptability of the exemption was determined in part by the acceptability of the amendment, the exemption and amendment are being issued concurrently.
The exemption and combined license amendment referenced in this document are available on July 28, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2008-0441 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Paul Kallan, Office of New Reactors, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2809; email:
The NRC is granting an exemption from paragraph B of section III, “Scope and Contents,” of Appendix D, “Design Certification Rule for the AP1000,” to part 52 of title 10 of the
Part of the justification for granting the exemption was provided by the review of the amendment. Because the exemption is necessary in order to issue the requested license amendment, the NRC granted the exemption and issued the amendment concurrently, rather than in sequence. This included issuing a combined safety evaluation containing the NRC staff's review of both the exemption request and the license amendment. The exemption met all applicable regulatory criteria set forth in 10 CFR 50.12, 10 CFR 52.7, and Section VIII.A.4 of Appendix D to 10 CFR part 52. The license amendment was found to be acceptable as well. The combined safety evaluation is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16095A202.
Identical exemption documents (except for referenced unit numbers and license numbers) were issued to the licensee for VCSNS Units 2 and 3 (COLs NPF-93 and NPF-94). The exemption documents for VCSNS Units 2 and 3 can be found in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16095A141 and ML16095A144, respectively. The exemption is reproduced (with the exception of abbreviated titles and additional citations) in Section II of this document. The amendment documents for COLs NPF-93 and NPF-94 are available in ADAMS under Accession Nos. ML16095A132 and ML16095A137, respectively. A summary of the amendment documents is provided in Section III of this document.
Following is the exemption document issued to VCSNS Units 2 and Unit 3. It makes reference to the combined safety evaluation that provides the reasoning for the findings made by the NRC (and listed under Item 1) in order to grant the exemption:
1. In a letter dated June 30, 2015, the licensee requested from the Commission an exemption from the provisions of 10 CFR part 52, appendix D, section III.B, as part of license amendment request 15-03, “Main Control Room Emergency Habitability System (VES) Design Changes (LAR 15-03).”
For the reasons set forth in Section 3.1, “Evaluation of Exemption,” of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation, which can be found in ADAMS under Accession No. ML16095A202, the Commission finds that:
A. The exemption is authorized by law;
B. the exemption presents no undue risk to public health and safety;
C. the exemption is consistent with the common defense and security;
D. special circumstances are present in that the application of the rule in this circumstance is not necessary to serve the underlying purpose of the rule;
E. the special circumstances outweigh any decrease in safety that may result from the reduction in standardization caused by the exemption; and
F. the exemption will not result in a significant decrease in the level of safety otherwise provided by the design.
2. Accordingly, the licensee is granted an exemption from the certified DCD Tier 1, as described in the licensee's request dated June 30, 2015. This exemption is related to, and necessary for the granting of License Amendment No. 49, which is being issued concurrently with this exemption.
3. As explained in Section 5.0, “Environmental Consideration,” of the NRC staff's Safety Evaluation (ADAMS Accession No. ML16095A202), this exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(9). Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment needs to be prepared in connection with the issuance of the exemption.
4. This exemption is effective as of the date of its issuance.
By letter dated June 30, 2015, the licensee requested that the NRC amend the COLs for VCSNS, Units 2 and 3, COLs NPF-93 and NPF-94. The proposed amendment is described in Section I of this
The Commission has determined for these amendments that the application complies with the standards and requirements of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), and the Commission's rules and regulations. The Commission has made appropriate findings as required by the Act and the Commission's rules and regulations in 10 CFR Chapter I, which are set forth in the license amendment.
A notice of consideration of issuance of amendment to facility operating license or combined license, as applicable, proposed no significant hazards consideration determination, and opportunity for a hearing in connection with these actions, was published in the
The Commission has determined that these amendments satisfy the criteria for categorical exclusion in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22. Therefore, pursuant to 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared for these amendments.
Using the reasons set forth in the combined safety evaluation, the staff granted the exemption and issued the amendment that the licensee requested on June 30, 2015. The exemption and amendment were issued on June 2, 2016, as part of a combined package to the licensee (ADAMS Accession No. ML16095A115).
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Confirmatory order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) issued a confirmatory order to Kyle Lynn Dickerson confirming agreements reached in an Alternative Dispute Resolution mediation session held on June 3, 2016. As part of the agreement, Mr. Dickerson has completed and will complete future agreed upon actions within 18 months of the issuance date of the confirmatory order.
The confirmatory order was issued on July 11, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0150 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John Kramer, Region IV, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington DC 20555-0001; telephone: 817-200-1121; email:
The text of the Order is attached.
Dated at Arlington, Texas, this 11th day of July 2016.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Mr. Kyle Lynn Dickerson is a radiographer employed by Acuren USA in Kenai, Alaska. Acuren USA is the holder of license 50-32443-01 issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or Commission) pursuant to Title 10 of the
This Confirmatory Order is the result of an agreement reached between Mr. Dickerson and the NRC during an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mediation session conducted on June 3, 2016.
On August 21, 2014, the NRC's Office of Investigations, Region IV Field Office, initiated an investigation to determine if radiographers assigned to the Acuren USA facility in Kenai, Alaska, willfully conducted radiographic operations without maintaining direct visual surveillance of the operation and without the proper postings. The investigation was completed on August 17, 2015, and was documented in NRC Investigation Report 4-2014-043.
Based on the evidence developed during the investigation, the NRC has concluded that a violation of 10 CFR 30.10(a)(1) occurred. Specifically, on April 10, 2014, Mr. Dickerson caused Acuren USA to be in violation of 10 CFR 34.51 and 10 CFR 34.53 by performing industrial radiographic operations without conspicuously posting the area with radiation area and high radiation area signs, and without maintaining continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area.
In a letter dated March 24, 2016 (ML16085A082), the NRC notified Mr. Dickerson of the results of the investigation, informed Mr. Dickerson that escalated enforcement action was being considered for an apparent violation, and provided Mr. Dickerson the opportunity to attend a predecisional enforcement conference or to participate in an ADR mediation session in an effort to resolve the concern. In response to the NRC's offer, Mr. Dickerson requested the use of the NRC's ADR process to resolve differences Mr. Dickerson had with the NRC. On June 3, 2016, the NRC and Mr. Dickerson met in an ADR session mediated by a professional mediator, arranged through Cornell University's Institute on Conflict Resolution. Alternative dispute resolution is a process in which a neutral mediator, with no decision-making authority, assists the parties in reaching an agreement on resolving any differences regarding the dispute. This Confirmatory Order is issued pursuant to the agreement reached during the ADR process.
During the ADR session, Mr. Dickerson and the NRC reached a preliminary settlement agreement. The elements of the agreement recognized corrective actions that Mr. Dickerson already completed as described below and included future agreed upon actions as follows:
Corrective actions taken by Mr. Dickerson included:
A. Repeated annual refresher training, which included the following topics:
1. Changes to Acuren USA Operating and Emergency Manual.
2. Changes to Federal and State regulations.
3. Department of Transportation requirements and regulation changes.
4. Security Awareness and Emergency Planning.
5. Increased controls and 10 CFR part 37.
6. Violation and incident review.
7. Notification procedures.
8. Radiation surveys and documentation.
9. Equipment maintenance and documentation.
10. As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) commitment.
B. Successfully completed annual refresher training test for items described in Section A.
C. Completed training and review of the following regulatory documents:
1. 10 CFR parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 34, 37, and 71.
2. New NRC license issued December 17, 2012.
3. ROEM-2011, Revision 1 (Radiographic Operation Emergency Manual).
4. NRC Form 3 (Notice to Employees).
5. Alaska Department of Health and Social Services (DHSS), Radiation Protection.
6. Blank daily radiation reports.
7. Blank Trustworthiness and Reliability (T&R) escort log.
8. Blank exposure device utilization sign out sheet.
9. Shipper's declaration of dangerous goods.
D. Completed Radiographic Personnel Training, which included an examination and follow-up practical demonstrations of the following:
1. Use of an exposure device.
2. Use of personnel monitoring equipment.
3. Use of radiographic survey meters.
4. Performance of daily visual inspections.
5. Demonstration of leak test procedures.
6. Instructions of field audit examinations.
E. Successfully completed training and examination of:
1. “Golden Rules” of radiography.
2. “Buddy Check” systems.
3. Barrier controls.
F. Completed U.S. Department of Transportation, Hazmat, Emergency Planning, and Security Awareness Training.
G. Subjected to and passed additional Acuren USA field audits.
The elements of the agreement, as signed by both parties, consist of the following:
A. The NRC and Mr. Dickerson agreed that on April 10, 2014, Mr. Dickerson
1. It is the NRC's view that the preponderance of the evidence supports the proposition that Mr. Dickerson deliberately performed industrial radiographic operations without conspicuously posting the area with radiation and high radiation area signs and without maintaining continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area.
2. However, Mr. Dickerson disagrees with the deliberate characterization of the violation.
B. Within 12 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, if supported by Mr. Dickerson's employer (currently Acuren USA), Mr. Dickerson will provide training to Acuren USA radiographers and radiographer's assistants.
1. Within 30 days before providing the training, Mr. Dickerson will submit the training agenda, materials, or content to the Director, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety (DNMS), Region IV.
2. The training (
C. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Dickerson will meet with and observe (
1. Mr. Dickerson will perform the field observations of at least four radiographic operations.
2. The observations will be conducted, to the extent possible, without the crew's knowledge.
3. The observations will be conducted at temporary job sites (
4. Mr. Dickerson will notify the Director, DNMS, Region IV, prior to the observations. This notification will be made by telephone at 817-200-1106 or email.
5. Within 1 month of the completion of each observation, Mr. Dickerson will provide written documentation to the NRC of the date that the observation occurred and the details of the observation (compliances and noncompliances observed, etc.). The information will be sent to the Director, DNMS, 1600 East Lamar Blvd., Arlington, Texas 76011-4511.
D. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Dickerson will submit an article to an industry publication or to a certifying entity (as defined in 10 CFR 34.3) for publication.
1. The article will convey personal lessons learned from the associated issue and may be co-written with the other radiographer involved with this case.
2. Mr. Dickerson will provide the article to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, 30 days prior to the submission of the article.
3. Mr. Dickerson will provide to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, demonstration of at least two attempts to publish the article, if publication of the article was not possible.
E. Administrative items.
1. The NRC and Mr. Dickerson agree that the above elements will be incorporated into a Confirmatory Order.
2. The NRC will consider the order an escalated enforcement action with respect to any future enforcement actions.
3. In consideration of the commitments delineated above, the NRC will refrain from issuing a Notice of Violation to Mr. Dickerson for the violation discussed in NRC Investigation Report 4-2014-043 and NRC Inspection Report 030-38596/2014-001 dated March 24, 2016 (IA-16-026).
On July 8, 2016, Mr. Dickerson consented to issuing this Confirmatory Order with the commitments, as described in Section V below. Mr. Dickerson further agreed that this Confirmatory Order will be effective upon issuance, the agreement memorialized in this Confirmatory Order settles the matter between the parties, and that Mr. Dickerson has waived his right to a hearing.
I find that Mr. Dickerson's commitments as set forth in Section V are acceptable and necessary, and conclude that with these commitments the public health and safety are reasonably assured. In view of the foregoing, I have determined that public health and safety require that Mr. Dickerson's commitments be confirmed by this Confirmatory Order. Based on the above and Mr. Dickerson's consent, this Confirmatory Order is effective upon issuance.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 81, 161b, 161i, 161o, 182, and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR part 30, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED, THAT:
A. Within 12 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, if supported by Mr. Dickerson's employer (currently Acuren USA), Mr. Dickerson will provide training to Acuren USA radiographers and radiographer's assistants.
1. Within 30 days before providing the training, Mr. Dickerson will submit the training agenda, materials, or content to the Director, DNMS, Region IV.
2. The training (
B. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Dickerson will meet with and observe (
1. Mr. Dickerson will perform the field observations of at least four radiographic operations.
2. The observations will be conducted, to the extent possible, without the crew's knowledge.
3. The observations will be conducted at temporary job sites (
4. Mr. Dickerson will notify the Director, DNMS, Region IV, prior to the observations. This notification will be made by telephone at 817-200-1106 or email.
5. Within 1 month of the completion of each observation, Mr. Dickerson will provide written documentation to the NRC of the date that the observation occurred and the details of the observation (compliances and noncompliances observed, etc.). The information will be sent to the Director, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 East Lamar Blvd., Arlington, Texas 76011-4511.
C. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Dickerson will submit an article to an industry publication or to a certifying entity (as defined in 10 CFR 34.3) for publication.
1. The article will convey personal lessons learned from the associated issue and may be co-written with the
2. Mr. Dickerson will provide the article to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, 30 days prior to the submission of the article.
3. Mr. Dickerson will provide to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, demonstration of at least two attempts to publish the article, if publication of the article was not possible within the 18 month period.
The Regional Administrator, Region IV, may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by Mr. Dickerson of good cause.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR 2.309, any person adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order, other than Mr. Dickerson, may request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance date of this Confirmatory Order. Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be directed to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139, August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012), which is codified in pertinent part at 10 CFR part 2, subpart C. The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten (10) days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System (EIE), users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF) in accordance with NRC guidance available on the NRC public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the agency's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
If a person other than Mr. Dickerson requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which his interest is adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f).
If a hearing is requested by a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue an Order designating the time and place of any hearing. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Confirmatory Order should be sustained.
In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section V above shall be final 30 days from the date of issuance without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section V shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Dated this 11th day of July 2016.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Confirmatory order; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) issued a confirmatory order to Troy A. Morehead confirming agreements reached in an Alternative Dispute Resolution mediation session held on June 3, 2016. As part of the agreement, Mr. Morehead has completed and will complete future agreed upon actions within 18 months of the issuance date of the confirmatory order.
The confirmatory order was issued on July 11, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0149 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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John Kramer, Region IV, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 817-200-1121; email:
The text of the Order is attached.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Mr. Troy Allen Morehead is a radiographer employed by Acuren USA in Kenai, Alaska. Acuren USA is the holder of license 50-32443-01 issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or Commission) pursuant to title 10 of the
This Confirmatory Order is the result of an agreement reached between Mr. Morehead and the NRC during an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mediation session conducted on June 3, 2016.
On August 21, 2014, the NRC's Office of Investigations, Region IV Field Office, initiated an investigation to determine if radiographers assigned to the Acuren USA facility in Kenai, Alaska, willfully conducted radiographic operations without maintaining direct visual surveillance of the operation and without the proper postings. The investigation was completed on August 17, 2015, and was documented in NRC Investigation Report 4-2014-043.
Based on the evidence developed during the investigation, the NRC has concluded that a violation of 10 CFR 30.10(a)(1) occurred. Specifically, on April 10, 2014, Mr. Morehead caused Acuren USA to be in violation of 10 CFR 34.51 and 10 CFR 34.53 by performing industrial radiographic operations without conspicuously posting the area with radiation area and high radiation area signs, and without maintaining continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area.
In a letter dated March 24, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16085A088), the NRC notified Mr. Morehead of the results of the investigation, informed Mr. Morehead that escalated enforcement action was being considered for an apparent violation, and provided Mr. Morehead the opportunity to attend a predecisional enforcement conference or to participate in an ADR mediation session in an effort to resolve the concern. In response to the NRC's offer, Mr. Morehead requested the use of the NRC's ADR process to resolve differences Mr. Morehead had with the NRC. On June 3, 2016, the NRC and Mr. Morehead met in an ADR session mediated by a professional mediator, arranged through Cornell University's Institute on Conflict Resolution. Alternative dispute resolution is a process in which a neutral mediator, with no decision-making authority, assists the parties in reaching an agreement on resolving any differences regarding the dispute. This Confirmatory Order is issued pursuant
During the ADR session, Mr. Morehead and the NRC reached a preliminary settlement agreement. The elements of the agreement recognized corrective actions that Mr. Morehead already completed as described below and included future agreed upon actions as follows:
Corrective actions taken by Mr. Morehead included:
A. Repeated annual refresher training, which included the following topics:
1. Changes to Acuren USA Operating and Emergency Manual.
2. Changes to Federal and State regulations.
3. Department of Transportation requirements and regulation changes.
4. Security Awareness and Emergency Planning.
5. Increased controls and 10 CFR part 37.
6. Violation and incident review.
7. Notification procedures.
8. Radiation surveys and documentation.
9. Equipment maintenance and documentation.
10. As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA) commitment.
B. Successfully completed annual refresher training test for items described in Section A.
C. Completed training and review of the following regulatory documents:
1. 10 CFR parts 19, 20, 21, 30, 34, 37, and 71.
2. New NRC license issued December 17, 2012.
3. ROEM-2011, Revision 1 (Radiographic Operation Emergency Manual).
4. NRC Form 3 (Notice to Employees).
5. Alaska Department of Health and Social Services (DHSS), Radiation Protection.
6. Blank daily radiation reports.
7. Blank Trustworthiness and Reliability (T&R) escort log.
8. Blank exposure device utilization sign out sheet.
9. Shipper's declaration of dangerous goods.
D. Completed Radiographic Personnel Training, which included an examination and follow-up practical demonstrations of the following:
1. Use of an exposure device.
2. Use of personnel monitoring equipment.
3. Use of radiographic survey meters.
4. Performance of daily visual inspections.
5. Demonstration of leak test procedures.
6. Instructions of field audit examinations.
E. Successfully completed training and examination of:
1. “Golden Rules” of radiography.
2. “Buddy Check” systems.
3. Barrier controls.
F. Completed U.S. Department of Transportation, Hazmat, Emergency Planning, and Security Awareness Training.
G. Subjected to and passed additional Acuren USA field audits.
The elements of the agreement, as signed by both parties, consist of the following:
A. The NRC and Mr. Morehead agreed that on April 10, 2014, Mr. Morehead caused Acuren USA to be in violation of 10 CFR 34.51 and 10 CFR 34.53 by performing industrial radiographic operations without conspicuously posting the area with radiation and high radiation area signs and without maintaining continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area. However, the NRC and Mr. Morehead disagree on the deliberate characterization of the violation. More specifically:
1. It is the NRC's view that the preponderance of the evidence supports the proposition that Mr. Morehead deliberately performed industrial radiographic operations without conspicuously posting the area with radiation and high radiation area signs and without maintaining continuous direct visual surveillance of the operation to protect against unauthorized entry into a high radiation area.
2. However, Mr. Morehead disagrees with the deliberate characterization of the violation.
B. Within 12 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, if supported by Mr. Morehead's employer (currently Acuren USA), Mr. Morehead will provide training to Acuren USA radiographers and radiographer's assistants.
1. Within 30 days before providing the training, Mr. Morehead will submit the training agenda, materials, or content to the Director, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety (DNMS), Region IV.
2. The training (
C. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Morehead will meet with and observe (
1. Mr. Morehead will perform the field observations of at least four radiographic operations.
2. The observations will be conducted, to the extent possible, without the crew's knowledge.
3. The observations will be conducted at temporary job sites (
4. Mr. Morehead will notify the Director, DNMS, Region IV, prior to the observations. This notification will be made by telephone at 817-200-1106 or email.
5. Within 1 month of the completion of each observation, Mr. Morehead will provide written documentation to the NRC of the date that the observation occurred and the details of the observation (compliances and noncompliances observed, etc.). The information will be sent to the Director, DNMS, 1600 East Lamar Blvd., Arlington, Texas 76011-4511.
D. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Morehead will submit an article to an industry publication or to a certifying entity (as defined in 10 CFR 34.3) for publication.
1. The article will convey personal lessons learned from the associated issue and may be co-written with the other radiographer involved with this case.
2. Mr. Morehead will provide the article to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, 30 days prior to the submission of the article.
3. Mr. Morehead will provide to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, demonstration of at least two attempts to publish the article, if publication of the article was not possible.
E. Administrative items.
1. The NRC and Mr. Morehead agree that the above elements will be incorporated into a Confirmatory Order.
2. The NRC will consider the order an escalated enforcement action with respect to any future enforcement actions.
3. In consideration of the commitments delineated above, the NRC will refrain from issuing a Notice of Violation to Mr. Morehead for the violation discussed in NRC Investigation Report 4-2014-043 and NRC Inspection Report 030-38596/2014-001 dated March 24, 2016 (IA-16-025).
On July 8, 2016, Mr. Morehead consented to issuing this Confirmatory Order with the commitments, as described in Section V below. Mr. Morehead further agreed that this Confirmatory Order will be effective
I find that Mr. Morehead's commitments as set forth in Section V are acceptable and necessary, and conclude that with these commitments the public health and safety are reasonably assured. In view of the foregoing, I have determined that public health and safety require that Mr. Morehead's commitments be confirmed by this Confirmatory Order. Based on the above and Mr. Morehead's consent, this Confirmatory Order is effective upon issuance.
Accordingly, pursuant to Sections 81, 161b, 161i, 161o, 182, and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR part 30, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED, EFFECTIVE UPON ISSUANCE, THAT:
A. Within 12 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, if supported by Mr. Morehead's employer (currently Acuren USA), Mr. Morehead will provide training to Acuren USA radiographers and radiographer's assistants.
1. Within 30 days before providing the training, Mr. Morehead will submit the training agenda, materials, or content to the Director, DNMS, Region IV.
2. The training (
B. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Morehead will meet with and observe (
1. Mr. Morehead will perform the field observations of at least four radiographic operations.
2. The observations will be conducted, to the extent possible, without the crew's knowledge.
3. The observations will be conducted at temporary job sites (
4. Mr. Morehead will notify the Director, DNMS, Region IV, prior to the observations. This notification will be made by telephone at 817-200-1106 or email.
5. Within 1 month of the completion of each observation, Mr. Morehead will provide written documentation to the NRC of the date that the observation occurred and the details of the observation (compliances and noncompliances observed, etc.). The information will be sent to the Director, Division of Nuclear Materials Safety, 1600 East Lamar Blvd., Arlington, Texas 76011-4511.
C. Within 18 months of the issuance date of the Confirmatory Order, Mr. Morehead will submit an article to an industry publication or to a certifying entity (as defined in 10 CFR 34.3) for publication.
1. The article will convey personal lessons learned from the associated issue and may be co-written with the other radiographer involved with this case.
2. Mr. Morehead will provide the article to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, 30 days prior to the submission of the article.
3. Mr. Morehead will provide to the Director, DNMS, Region IV, demonstration of at least two attempts to publish the article, if publication of the article was not possible within the 18 month period.
The Regional Administrator, Region IV, may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by Mr. Morehead of good cause.
In accordance with 10 CFR 2.202 and 10 CFR 2.309, any person adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order, other than Mr. Morehead, may request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance date of this Confirmatory Order. Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be directed to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene, and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139, August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012), which is codified in pertinent part at 10 CFR part 2, subpart C. The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least ten (10) days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on NRC's public Web site at
If a participant is electronically submitting a document to the NRC in accordance with the E-Filing rule, the participant must file the document using the NRC's online, Web-based submission form. In order to serve documents through the Electronic Information Exchange System (EIE), users will be required to install a Web browser plug-in from the NRC Web site. Further information on the Web-based submission form, including the installation of the Web browser plug-in, is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a request for hearing or petition for leave to intervene. Submissions
A person filing electronically using the agency's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is available to the public at
If a person other than Mr. Morehead requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which his interest is adversely affected by this Confirmatory Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f).
If a hearing is requested by a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue an Order designating the time and place of any hearing. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Confirmatory Order should be sustained.
In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section V above shall be final 30 days from the date of issuance without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section V shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Dated this 11th day of July 2016.
Wednesday, August 10, 2016, at 9:30 a.m.
Las Vegas, Nevada.
Closed.
1. Strategic Issues.
2. Pricing.
3. Financial Matters.
4. Personnel Matters and Compensation Issues.
5. Executive Session—Discussion of prior agenda items and Board governance.
The General Counsel of the United States Postal Service has certified that the meeting may be closed under the Government in the Sunshine Act.
Julie S. Moore, Secretary of the Board, U.S. Postal Service, 475 L'Enfant Plaza SW., Washington, DC 20260-1000. Telephone: (202) 268-4800.
On November 18, 2015, BATS Exchange, Inc. (now known as Bats BZX Exchange, Inc., “Exchange” or “BZX”)
On January 4, 2016, the Commission designated a longer period within which to approve the proposed rule change, disapprove the proposed rule change, or institute proceedings to determine whether to disapprove the proposed rule change.
On February 22, 2016, the Commission issued notice of filing of Amendments No. 1, 3, and 4 to the proposed rule change and instituted proceedings under section 19(b)(2)(B) of the Act
On June 3, 2016, the Exchange filed Amendment No. 5 to the proposed rule change, which replaced Amendment No. 1 (as further modified by Amendments No. 3 & 4) to the proposed rule change.
The Commission has not received any comments on the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 5. This order approves the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 6.
BATS Rule 14.11(i) governs the listing and trading of Managed Fund Shares on the Exchange. Managed Fund Shares are issued by exchange-traded funds (“ETFs”) that are actively managed and do not seek to replicate the performance of a specified index of securities.
Under its current rules, the Exchange must file separate proposals under section 19(b) of the Act before listing a new series of Managed Fund Shares.
The Exchange's proposed listing standards establish requirements for the various types of assets that may be held in the portfolio of a generically listed, actively managed ETF (“Portfolio”).
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i) establishes the criteria applicable to the equity securities included in a Portfolio. Equity securities include the following securities: U.S. Component Stocks, which are defined in BATS Rule 14.11(c)(1)(D); Non-U.S. Component Stocks, which are defined in BATS Rule 14.11(c)(1)(E); Derivative Securities Products, which are defined in BATS Rule 14.11(c)(3)(A)(i)(a); Linked
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i)(a) would require that U.S. Component Stocks (except as mentioned below) meet the following criteria initially and on a continuing basis:
(1) Component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) that in the aggregate account for at least 90% of the equity weight of the Portfolio (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) each shall have a minimum market value of at least $75 million;
(2) component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) that in the aggregate account for at least 70% of the equity weight of the Portfolio (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) each shall have a minimum monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the previous six months;
(3) the most heavily weighted component stock (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) must not exceed 30% of the equity weight of the Portfolio, and, to the extent applicable, the five most heavily weighted component stocks (excluding Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities) must not exceed 65% of the equity weight of the Portfolio;
(4) where the equity portion of the Portfolio does not include Non-U.S. Component Stocks, the equity portion of the Portfolio shall include a minimum of 13 component stocks; provided, however, that there would be no minimum number of component stocks if (a) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Linked Securities constitute, at least in part, components underlying a series of Managed Fund Shares, or (b) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Linked Securities account for 100% of the equity weight of the Portfolio of a series of Managed Fund Shares;
(5) except as provided in proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i)(a), equity securities in the Portfolio must be U.S. Component Stocks listed on a national securities exchange and must be NMS Stocks as defined in Rule 600 of Regulation NMS; and
(6) American Depositary Receipts (“ADRs”) may be exchange traded or non-exchange traded, but no more than 10% of the equity weight of the Portfolio shall consist of non-exchange traded ADRs.
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i)(b) requires that Non-U.S. Component Stocks must meet the following criteria initially and on a continuing basis:
(1) Non-U.S. Component Stocks each shall have a minimum market value of at least $100 million;
(2) Non-U.S. Component Stocks each shall have a minimum global monthly trading volume of 250,000 shares, or minimum global notional volume traded per month of $25,000,000, averaged over the last six months;
(3) the most heavily weighted Non-U.S. Component Stock shall not exceed 25% of the equity weight of the Portfolio, and, to the extent applicable, the five most heavily weighted Non-U.S. Component Stocks shall not exceed 60% of the equity weight of the Portfolio;
(4) where the equity portion of the Portfolio includes Non-U.S. Component Stocks, the equity portion of the Portfolio shall include a minimum of 20 component stocks; provided, however, that there shall be no minimum number of component stocks if (a) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Linked Securities constitute, at least in part, components underlying a series of Managed Fund Shares, or (b) one or more series of Derivative Securities Products or Linked Securities account for 100% of the equity weight of the Portfolio of a series of Managed Fund Shares; and
(5) each Non-U.S. Component Stock shall be listed and traded on an exchange that has last-sale reporting.
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(ii) establishes criteria for fixed income securities that are included in a Portfolio. Fixed income securities are debt securities
(1) Components that in the aggregate account for at least 75% of the fixed income weight of the Portfolio must each have a minimum original principal amount outstanding of $100 million or more;
(2) no component fixed-income security (excluding Treasury Securities and GSE Securities) shall represent more than 30% of the fixed income weight of the Portfolio, and the five most heavily weighted fixed income securities in the Portfolio (excluding Treasury Securities and GSE Securities) shall not in the aggregate account for more than 65% of the fixed income weight of the Portfolio;
(3) a Portfolio that includes fixed income securities (excluding exempted securities) shall include a minimum of 13 non-affiliated issuers, provided, however, that there shall be no minimum number of non-affiliated issuers required for fixed income securities if at least 70% of the weight of the Portfolio consists of equity securities as described in BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i);
(4) Component securities that in aggregate account for at least 90% of the fixed income weight of the Portfolio must be: (a) From issuers that are required to file reports pursuant to sections 13 and 15(d) of the Act; (b) from issuers each of which has a worldwide market value of its outstanding common equity held by non-affiliates of $700 million or more; (c) from issuers each of which has outstanding securities that are notes,
(5) non-agency, non-GSE, and privately issued mortgage-related and other asset-backed securities shall not account, in the aggregate, for more than 20% of the weight of the fixed income portion of the Portfolio.
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(iii) provides that a Portfolio may include cash and cash equivalents. Cash equivalents are defined as short-term instruments with maturities of less than 3 months.
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(iv) establishes listing criteria for the portion of a Portfolio that consists of listed derivatives such as futures, options, and swaps overlying commodities, currencies, financial instruments (
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(v) establishes a limit on OTC derivatives: No more than 20% of the weight of the Portfolio may be invested in OTC derivatives.
Proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(vi) provides that, to the extent that listed or OTC derivatives are used to gain exposure to individual equities and/or fixed income securities, or to indexes of equities and/or fixed income securities, the aggregate gross notional value of such exposure shall meet the criteria set forth in proposed BATS Rules 14.11(i)(4)(C)(i) and 14.11(i)(4)(C)(ii), respectively.
The daily dissemination of a Disclosed Portfolio
The Exchange proposes to add as an initial listing criterion applicable to all Managed Fund Shares (including those that are generically listed) the requirement that Managed Fund Shares must have a stated investment objective, which shall be adhered to under “Normal Market Conditions.”
The Exchange proposes to modify a continued listing criterion for
In support of the proposed rule change, the Exchange represents that:
(1) Generically listed Managed Fund Shares will conform to the initial and continued listing criteria under Rule 14.11(i)(4)(A) and (B).
(2) The Exchange's surveillance procedures are adequate to continue to properly monitor the trading of the Managed Fund Shares in all trading sessions and to deter and detect violations of Exchange rules. Specifically, the Exchange intends to utilize its existing surveillance procedures applicable to derivative
(3) Prior to the commencement of trading of a particular series of Managed Fund Shares, the Exchange will inform its Members in an information circular of the special characteristics and risks associated with trading the Managed Fund Shares, including procedures for purchases and redemptions of Managed Fund Shares, suitability requirements under Rule 3.7, the risks involved in trading the Managed Fund Shares during the Pre-Opening and After Hours Trading Sessions when an updated IIV will not be calculated or publicly disseminated, how information regarding the IIV and Disclosed Portfolio is disseminated, prospectus delivery requirements, and other trading information. In addition, the information circular will disclose that the Managed Fund Shares are subject to various fees and expenses, as described in the registration statement, and will discuss any exemptive, no-action, and interpretive relief granted by the Commission from any rules under the Act. Finally, the Bulletin will disclose that the NAV for the Managed Fund Shares will be calculated after 4 p.m. ET each trading day.
(4) The issuer of a series of Managed Fund Shares will be required to comply with Rule 10A-3 under the Act for the initial and continued listing of Managed Fund Shares, as provided under Rule 14.10(c)(3).
(5) BATS has represented that: (1) On a periodic basis, and no less than annually, the Exchange will review the Managed Fund Shares generically listed and traded on the Exchange under BATS Rule 14.11(i) for compliance with that rule and will provide a report to its Regulatory Oversight Committee presenting the findings of its review; and (2) on a quarterly basis, the Exchange will provide a report to the Commission staff that contains, for each ETF whose shares are generically listed and traded under BATS Rule 14.11(i): (a) Symbol and date of listing; (b) the number of active authorized participants (“APs”) and a description of any failure by either a fund or an AP to deliver promised baskets of shares, cash, or cash and instruments in connection with creation or redemption orders; and (c) a description of any failure by an ETF to comply with BATS Rule 14.11(i).
(6) Prior to listing pursuant to proposed amended Rule 14.11(i), an issuer would be required to represent to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by a series of Managed Fund Shares to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under section 19(g)(1) of the Exchange Act, the Exchange will surveil for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If a series of Managed Fund Shares is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under Exchange Rule 14.12.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the Exchange's proposal to amend its Rule 14.11(i) to, among other things, adopt generic listing criteria, is consistent with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to a national securities exchange.
In support of its proposal, the Exchange states that its proposed requirements for Managed Fund Shares are based in large part on the generic listing criteria currently applicable to Index Fund Shares.
Second, the proposed standards would differ slightly from the existing generic standards for Index Fund Shares with respect to Non-U.S. Component Stocks. The proposed standards would provide that
Third, while the Exchange's existing generic listing standards for index-based ETFs do not apply concentration limits to an index's exposure to specified exchange-traded products (called “Derivative Securities Products”), which have concentration limits or price transparency requirements within their own listing standards, proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(ii) would also deem Portfolio concentration limits not to apply to holdings of specified exchange-traded notes (called “Linked Securities”). The Commission believes that this change should not increase the susceptibility of Managed Fund Shares to manipulation because Linked Securities, like Derivative Securities Products, have asset-exposure concentration limits and requirements promoting price transparency within their own listing standards, and both Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities are listed and traded on national securities exchanges (which are all members of ISG), publicly provide information about listed Derivative Securities Products and Linked Securities, and provide trading and price information and other quantitative date for investors and other market participants.
And fourth, under current generic listing standards, index-based ETFs cannot seek inverse returns greater than 300% of the performance of their reference index, and there is no limit on positive leverage versus an index. By contrast, the proposed standards would impose an absolute cap—25%—on the amount of an ETF's portfolio that could be invested in leveraged or inverse-leveraged ETPs. The Commission believes that a limitation on the overall use of leveraged ETFs is consistent with section 6(b)(5) of the Act because it will limit the extent to which the performance of a generically listed, actively managed ETF can be tied to a product whose performance over periods of longer than one day can differ significantly from its stated daily performance objective.
The Commission believes that, taken together, the proposed requirements for the fixed income portion of a Portfolio are reasonably designed to ensure that a substantial portion of a Portfolio consists of fixed income securities for which information is publicly available and, when applied in conjunction with the other applicable listing requirements, will permit the listing and trading only of Managed Fund Shares that are sufficiently broad-based to minimize the potential for manipulation. The Commission also believes that these provisions should help ensure that the fixed income portion of a Portfolio consists of assets for which available intra-day values allow market participants to identify and capitalize upon arbitrage opportunities, which in turn should help keep the intra-day prices of generically listed Managed Fund Shares reasonably aligned with the intra-day values of their underlying assets.
With respect to listed derivatives, the proposal would allow a generically listed ETF to use listed derivatives to achieve 100% of its Portfolio exposure, provided that, in the aggregate, at least 90% of the weight of holdings in futures, exchange-traded options, and listed swaps consists of futures, options, and swaps for which: (1) The Exchange may obtain information from other ISG members or affiliate members; or (2) the principal market is a market with which the Exchange has a CSSA.
With respect to OTC derivatives, proposed BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(C)(v) would permit a Portfolio to include OTC derivatives, but would limit the amount of such derivatives to 20% of the fund's assets, thereby ensuring that the preponderance of a fund's investments would not be in derivatives that are not listed and centrally cleared. The Commission believes that this limit is sufficient to mitigate the risks associated with price manipulation because at least 80% of a Portfolio would consist of: Cash and cash equivalents; listed derivatives, of which 90% by portfolio weight would be traded on a principal market that is a member of ISG; and equity securities or fixed income instruments subject to numerous restrictions designed to prevent manipulation and ensure pricing transparency.
The Commission notes that, in addition to proposing the listing criteria described above for specific asset classes, the Exchange has committed to conduct an ongoing compliance review of the ETFs that are generically listed as Managed Fund Shares. Specifically, the Exchange has represented that, no less than annually, it will review the Managed Fund Shares generically listed and traded on the Exchange under BATS Rule 14.11(i) for compliance with that rule and will provide a report to its Regulatory Oversight Committee presenting the findings of its review. The Exchange has also committed to provide, on a quarterly basis, a report to the Commission staff that contains, for each ETF whose shares are generically listed and traded under BATS Rule 14.11(i): (a) The symbol and date of listing; (b) the number of active APs and a description of any failure by either a fund or an AP to deliver promised baskets of shares, cash, or cash and instruments in connection with creation or redemption orders; and (c) a description of any failure by an ETF to comply with BATS Rule 14.11(i).
The Commission also notes that, prior to listing pursuant to BATS Rule 14.11(i), an issuer would be required to represent to the Exchange that it will advise the Exchange of any failure by a series of Managed Fund Shares to comply with the continued listing requirements, and, pursuant to its obligations under section 19(g)(1) of the Act, the Exchange will surveil for compliance with the continued listing requirements. If a series of Managed Fund Shares is not in compliance with the applicable listing requirements, the Exchange will commence delisting procedures under Exchange Rule 14.12.
The Commission believes that the proposed generic listing criteria, taken together, should promote the listing only of Managed Fund Shares that are not susceptible to manipulation. Additionally, the proposed generic listing standards as a whole should ensure that Portfolios are composed predominantly of instruments for which available intra-day values allow market participants to identify and capitalize upon arbitrage opportunities, which in turn should help keep the intra-day prices of generically listed Managed Fund Shares reasonably aligned with the intra-day values of their underlying assets.
For the reasons discussed above, the Commission finds that the proposed generic listing standards for Managed Fund Shares are consistent with section 6(b)(5) of the Act.
In addition, BATS proposes changes to Rule 14.11(i) that apply to
The Exchange also proposes to amend the continued listing requirement in BATS Rule 14.11(i)(4)(B)(i), which is applicable to all Managed Fund Shares, to require dissemination of an IIV at least every 15 seconds during Regular Trading Hours, as defined in BATS Rule 1.5(w). The Exchange states that this requirement would be consistent with the IIV dissemination requirement for Index Fund Shares as well as representations made in support of approved proposals to list and trade shares of specific ETFs listed and traded as Managed Fund Shares.
Finally, the Exchange proposes to add as an initial listing criterion applicable to all Managed Fund Shares (including those that are generically listed) the requirement that Managed Fund Shares must have a stated investment objective, which shall be adhered to under “Normal Market Conditions,” defined as circumstances including, but not limited to, the absence of: Trading halts in the applicable financial markets generally; operational issues causing dissemination of inaccurate market information or systems failure; or
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 6, is consistent with section 6(b)(5) of the Act
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange proposes to modify the complimentary services offered to certain new listings.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
Nasdaq offers complimentary services to companies listing on the Nasdaq Global and Global Select Markets in connection with an initial public offering, upon emerging from bankruptcy, or in connection with a spin-off or carve-out from another company (“Eligible New Listings”) and to companies that switch their listing from the New York Stock Exchange (“NYSE”) to the Nasdaq Global or Global Select Markets (“Eligible Switches” and, together with Eligible New Listings, “Eligible Companies”).
First, Nasdaq currently offers Eligible Companies that have a market capitalization of $750 million or more a stock surveillance tool, through which an analyst attempts to determine who is buying and selling the company's stock. While any public company can use this offering, which is designed to enhance the company's investor relations activity, it may not be an appropriate fit for some companies, such as those that are closely held or otherwise have low liquidity or low volume. Other companies may prioritize different investor relations tools over stock surveillance. These companies therefore are more likely to derive value from a different market advisory service offered by Nasdaq Corporate Solutions. Accordingly, in order to make the package more attractive to these companies, Nasdaq proposes to allow companies eligible for this service to choose from the existing stock surveillance offering or, instead, to choose other alternatives, which are also designed to help companies identify current owners, potential buyers or sellers of their stock, or otherwise enhance their investor relations efforts. Specifically, instead of the existing offering, companies would be allowed to choose: (i) A global targeting package, where an investor targeting specialist will help focus the company's investor relations efforts on appropriate investors, tailor messaging to those investors' interests and measure the company's impact on their holdings; (ii) monthly ownership analytics and event driven targeting, which provide a monthly shareholder analysis and tracking report, which an analyst will help interpret during a monthly call, and a shareholder targeting plan around one event each year, such as a roadshow or investor conference;
Second, Nasdaq proposes to create a new tier of services for Eligible Companies with a market capitalization of $5 billion or more. As noted in the Prior Filings, Nasdaq believes that it is appropriate to offer different services based on a company's market capitalization given that larger companies generally will need more and different governance, communication and intelligence services.
Third, Nasdaq has determined to enhance the value of the package offered to Eligible Switches. NYSE recently modified the ongoing services it offers its listed companies, claiming to increase the value of those services.
The proposed rule change would also update the values and descriptions of the services offered as follows. The approximate retail value of the investor relations Web site would be updated from $15,000 to $16,000, the market analytic tool for two users from $30,000 to $29,000, and the stock surveillance tool from $50,000 to $51,000.
Where a company has a choice among different complimentary services under the revised rule, it must make its selection when it first begins to use a complimentary service. A company will not be permitted to subsequently change to a different complimentary service offered in the package. Of course the company can discontinue using a service at any time without penalty and can also elect to purchase from Nasdaq Corporate Solutions a service alternative that was previously declined or a comparable service from another competitor.
Nasdaq will implement this rule filing upon approval. Any company receiving services under the terms of the Prior Filings on the date of approval may elect to receive services under the revised terms in this proposed rule filing (even if those services were not available at the time the company listed on Nasdaq). If a company elects to receive services under the proposed rules, the services that the company is eligible to receive will be determined based on its status and market capitalization at the time of its original listing. The length of time that services are available to the company under the revised package will be calculated from the company's original listing date. In this manner, the rule will be applied prospectively, from approval.
Finally, the proposed rule change would modify the introductory note to IM-5900-7 to reference the historical changes to the program and explain the impact of the revisions to companies that are already listed. The rule would also be reorganized to enhance its readability and usability.
Nasdaq believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of section 6 of the Act,
Under the existing rule, Nasdaq offers companies with a market capitalization of $750 million or more a stock surveillance service and Nasdaq has justified why providing this service to such companies is not unfairly discriminatory in the Prior Filings. Nasdaq proposes to allow these companies to continue to receive this service or, at their election, to choose a different market advisory service with a lower retail value, but which may be more meaningful to the company. The addition of this flexibility does not change Nasdaq's fees nor how those fees are allocated among issuers and other persons using Nasdaq's facilities, and it does not unfairly discriminate against any issuer, because any issuer currently eligible to receive the higher value stock surveillance service would only receive a lower value service if the issuer voluntarily determines that the other service is more valuable to it based on its circumstances. Nasdaq believes that by allowing companies the ability to choose an appropriate market advisory tool, instead of offering just stock surveillance, the package will be more enticing. Therefore, this change will enhance competition among listing exchanges, rather than impose any burden on that competition. In addition, by providing companies the ability to choose a more meaningful market advisory tool, Nasdaq believes that these companies will have a better experience with the applicable tool; as a result, the companies are more likely to continue to use their chosen service. The ability to choose could create additional users of the service class and enhance competition among service providers.
Nasdaq also proposes to allow Eligible Companies with a market capitalization of $5 billion or more to receive an additional market advisory service. As noted above, Nasdaq has concluded that companies with a market capitalization of $5 billion or more have more complex investor relations functions and frequently have more shareholders and face greater changes in their shareholdings. These companies therefore can benefit from additional market advisory services and are more likely to purchase additional services at the end of the complimentary period. There is also enhanced competition for listing of these larger companies and offering them an additional market advisory service reflects that competition and the greater fees they generally pay. Nasdaq believes that this enhanced need, the increased likelihood that the company will purchase the service at the end of the complimentary period, the increased competition for these listings, and the greater fees generally paid by these companies form an equitable and reasonable basis to distinguish these issuers; as a result, Nasdaq does not believe that this change unfairly discriminates between issuers. Nasdaq also believes that by allowing certain companies the ability to choose an additional market advisory tool, the package will be more enticing and therefore will enhance competition among listing exchanges, rather than impose any burden on that competition. In addition, by providing companies the ability to use an additional market advisory tool, Nasdaq believes that these companies are more likely to continue to use their chosen service on an ongoing basis when the complimentary period is over. This ability to choose could create additional users of the service class and enhance competition among service providers.
Nasdaq previously offered market analytic tools for four users to all Eligible Companies but reduced that to two users based on Nasdaq's experience with company use of the service.
The proposed change to reinstate the four-year term of services provided to Eligible Switches with a market capitalization of $750 million or more restores the term of complimentary services that was in effect for these companies prior to the 2014 changes.
The adjustments proposed to reflect changes in the fair market values of the services offered do not meaningfully affect the allocation of Nasdaq's fees and
Nasdaq believes that it is not unfairly discriminatory to offer the revised service package only to currently listed companies that are receiving services at the time of the proposal's approval, and not to other currently listed companies. Companies receiving complimentary services are still in the process of sampling Nasdaq Corporate Solutions' offering and both the companies and Nasdaq Corporate Solutions will benefit from the ability of the company to utilize the revised services. Moreover, because Nasdaq Corporate Solutions continues to provide the complimentary services to these companies, extending their term and providing additional seats and advisory services is a seamless process. On the other hand, companies that are not currently receiving complimentary services from Nasdaq Corporate Solutions will have either entered into binding contractual agreements with Nasdaq Corporate Solutions and other providers for the specific services they require or determined that they do not wish to purchase the services. Extending the benefits of the revised rule to such companies would cause them to have duplicative services to what they have already contracted or provide them with the option for a service that they have already concluded they do not want. Accordingly, providing the benefit of the changes only to those companies receiving services when the proposed rule change is approved is not unfairly discriminatory.
Nasdaq does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended. As described in the statutory basis section, above, the proposed rule change responds to competitive pressures in the market for listings. Nasdaq believes the proposed changes will result in a more enticing package for potential listings and therefore will enhance competition among listing exchanges. The proposed changes to allow companies the ability to choose a more meaningful market advisory tool will provide companies a better experience with these tools, the proposed change to allow certain companies to receive two market advisory tools will expose eligible companies to additional service options. As a result, Nasdaq believes that when the complimentary period ends these companies are more likely to continue to use the Nasdaq Corporate Solutions service or a competing service, whereas otherwise they may not be exposed to the value of these services and therefore may not purchase any. This will create additional users of the service class and enhance competition among service providers. In addition, other service providers can also offer similar services to companies, thereby increasing competition to the benefit of those companies and their shareholders. Accordingly, Nasdaq does not believe the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act, as amended.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
On July 7, 1976, effective July 16, 1976 (
There is approximately 1 respondent per year that requires an aggregate total of 4 hours to comply with this rule. This respondent makes an estimated 1 annual response. Each response takes approximately 4 hours to complete. Thus, the total compliance burden per year is 4 burden hours. The approximate cost per hour is $20, resulting in a total internal cost of compliance for the respondent of approximately $80 (
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Pursuant to section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend the Exchange's Pricing Schedule at section IV, part A, to amend Price Improvement XL (“PIXL”) Pricing.
While changes to the Pricing Schedule pursuant to this proposal are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated these changes to be operative on August 1, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to amend PIXL Pricing in section IV, part A, to reduce the Penny Pilot Options Specialist
PIXL pricing is located in section IV, part A, of the Exchange's Pricing Schedule. A PIXL Auction Initiating Order is assessed $0.07 per contract. There are various incentives to lower the Initiating Order fee to $0.05 or $0.00.
The Exchange proposes to lower the Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker from $0.30 to $0.25 per contract in Penny Pilot Options. The total Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker in Penny Pilot Options would therefore be $0.25 per contract (Responder Fee) plus $0.25 per contract (Marketing Fee) for a total of $0.50 per contract. The Exchange believes that this fee reduction would better align Specialists and Market Makers responding in a PIXL auction with other responders, in Penny Pilot Options, who are not subject to the Marketing Fee.
The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with section 6(b) of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange's proposal to amend section IV, part A to lower the PIXL Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker from $0.30 to $0.25 per contract in Penny Pilot Options is reasonable because Specialists and Market Makers are subject to the Marketing Fee, whereas other types of market participants are not assessed the Marketing Fee. By lowering the PIXL Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker from $0.30 to $0.25 per contract these market participants would be more closely aligned with other responders. The Exchange believes that Specialists and Market Makers will be
The Exchange's proposal to amend section IV, part A to lower the PIXL Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker from $0.30 to $0.25 per contract in Penny Pilot Options is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for the following reasons. The differential as between Specialists and Market Makers and other Non-Customers (Professionals,
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited.
In this instance, the proposed changes to the charges assessed and credits available to member firms for execution of securities in securities of all three Tapes do not impose a burden on competition because the Exchange's execution services are completely voluntary and subject to extensive competition both from other exchanges and from off-exchange venues. The proposed PIXL Responder fees do not impose an undue burden on inter-market competition for the reasons described herein. In sum, if the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets.
The Exchange's proposal to amend section IV, part A to lower the PIXL Responder Fee for a Specialist or Market Maker from $0.30 to $0.25 per contract in Penny Pilot Options does not impose an undue burden on intra-market competition because the differential between the Initiating Order Fee and the Specialist or Market Maker contra party to the PIXL Order ($0.07 (presuming no discount) vs. $0.25 per contract for Penny Pilot Options is being decreased. The Marketing Fee is only paid by Specialists and Market Makers and not other market participants. Specialists and Market Makers would receive lower prices because have obligations to the market and regulatory requirements, which normally do not apply to other market participants in the continuous market, and as such the Exchange continues to believe Specialists and Market Makers should receive certain discounts in auctions.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
It appears to the Securities and Exchange Commission that the public interest and the protection of investors require a suspension of trading in the securities of American Transportation Holdings, Inc. (CIK No. 0001404526) because of recent, unusual and unexplained market activity in the company's stock taking place during a suspicious promotional campaign, and because of concerns about the accuracy of publicly available information, including but not limited to company press releases issued in June and July 2016. American Transportation Holdings Inc. is a Nevada corporation with its principal executive offices in Littleton, Colorado, with stock quoted on OTC Link (previously “Pink Sheets”) operated by OTC Markets Group, Inc. under the ticker symbol ATHI.
By the Commission.
By virtue of the authority vested in the Secretary of State, including the Department of State Basic Authorities Act, as amended (22 U.S.C. 2651a), I hereby delegate to the Legal Adviser, to the extent authorized by law, the authority to claim the privileges and provide the declarations described in Military Rules of Evidence 505 and 506.
Any act, executive order, regulation, or procedure subject to, or affected by, this delegation shall be deemed to be such act, executive order, regulation, or procedure as amended from time to time. This delegation of authority does not revoke or otherwise affect any other delegation of authority.
Notwithstanding this delegation of authority, this authority may be exercised by the Secretary, the Deputy Secretary, and the Deputy Secretary for Management and Resources.
This delegation of authority shall be published in the
Surface Transportation Board.
Notice tentatively approving and authorizing finance transaction.
On June 28, 2016, SunTx Capital III Management Corp. (SunTx III), SunTx Capital Partners III GP, LP (SunTx GP), SunTx TBL Logistics Management Holdings, LP (SunTx Holdings), and TBL Logistics Management, LLC (TBL Logistics), along with TBL Group, Inc. (TBL Group) and the motor carriers of passengers it controls, GBJ, Inc. (GBJ) and Echo Tours and Charters L.P. (Echo) (collectively, Applicants) filed an application under 49 U.S.C. 14303 to acquire control of TBL Group, GBJ, and Echo. Concurrently with their application, the parties also filed a request for interim approval under 49 U.S.C. 14303(i). In a decision served on July 28, 2016 in related Docket No. MCF 21070 TA, interim approval was granted, effective on the service date of that decision. The Board is tentatively approving and authorizing the transaction, and if no opposing comments are timely filed, this notice will be the final Board action. Persons wishing to oppose the application must follow the rules at 49 CFR 1182.5 and 1182.8.
Comments must be filed by September 12, 2016. Applicants may file a reply by September 26, 2016. If no comments are filed by September 12,
Send an original and 10 copies of any comments referring to Docket No. MCF 21070 to: Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, send one copy of comments to Applicants' representatives: Richard P. Schweitzer, Richard P. Schweitzer, P.L.L.C., 1717 K Street NW., Suite 900, Washington, DC 20006 (attorney for TBL Group, GBJ, and Echo) and Thomas J. Litwiler, Fletcher & Sippel LLC, 29 North Wacker Drive, Suite 920, Chicago, IL 60606-2832 (attorney for SunTx III, SunTx GP, SunTx Holdings, and TBL Logistics).
Allison Davis (202) 245-0378. Federal Information Relay Service (FIRS) for the hearing impaired: 1-800-877-8339.
Applicants assert the following facts. SunTx III, a noncarrier Texas corporation, is a general partner of SunTx GP, a noncarrier Texas limited partnership, which is, in turn, the general partner of SunTx Holdings, also a noncarrier Texas limited partnership. SunTx III, SunTx GP, and SunTx Holdings are components of SunTx Capital Partners, a private equity firm that invests in middle market manufacturing, distribution, and service companies. TBL Logistics is a newly formed noncarrier Delaware holding company. TBL Group is a noncarrier Texas corporation that owns and controls two federally regulated motor carriers of passengers: Echo d/b/a Echo Transportation (MC-755212) and GBJ d/b/a AFC Transportation (MC-369531).
Applicants seek Board authority for control of TBL Group, Echo, and GBJ through the creation of TBL Logistics. Specifically, Applicants state that, as a result of this transaction, TBL Logistics would own TBL Group through which TBL Logistics would control Echo and GBJ. TBL Logistics would be owned 80.1% by SunTx Holdings and 19.9% by TBL Group.
Applicants assert that, as a result of the proposed transaction, Echo and GBJ would benefit from financing that would enable them to purchase additional vehicles to upgrade the combined fleet. Applicants state that vehicles that average more than 12 years of age would be replaced with newer, safer, and more reliable vehicles that would offer better utilization factors, higher fuel economy, and lower emissions, and would provide the public with safer, more cost effective and environmentally responsible transportation. Applicants further state that the infusion of capital would allow Echo and GBJ to expand their service offerings in their existing markets and explore the possibility of offering service in new markets as well.
Under 49 U.S.C. 14303(b), the Board must approve and authorize a transaction that it finds consistent with the public interest, taking into consideration at least: (1) The effect of the proposed transaction on the adequacy of transportation to the public; (2) the total fixed charges that result from the proposed transaction; and (3) the interest of affected carrier employees affected by the proposed transaction. Applicants submitted information, as required by 49 CFR 1182.2, including information to demonstrate that the proposed transaction is consistent with the public interest under 49 U.S.C. 14303(b), and a statement that the aggregate gross operating revenues of Echo and GBJ exceeded $2 million for the preceding 12-month period under 49 U.S.C. 14303(g).
With respect to adequacy of transportation to the public, Applicants submit that the proposed transaction would not result in significant changes to the operations of Echo and GBJ. Applicants state that the proposed transaction would allow the companies to take advantage of better financial terms, which would allow them to replace aging vehicles on favorable terms. Applicants anticipate more efficient and effective service in each of the markets and that the transaction would enable Echo and GBJ to leverage the new investment to provide the same or greater level of transportation to the public. With respect to fixed charges, Applicants assert that the capital investment will lower interest payments on existing debt and allow them to secure attractive terms for additional financing of equipment acquisitions. Applicants also state that the proposed transaction would not have an overall negative impact on employees because, over time, the carriers would be able to grow by taking advantage of economies of scale, better financial terms, and increased buying power, which would result in increased service and additional personnel.
Applicants further claim that the proposed transaction would not have a material adverse effect on competition because Echo and GBJ do not plan on significantly altering their current operations, but would be taking advantage of efficiencies gained through improved capital financing. Applicants states that the areas served by Echo and GBJ have robust carrier competition. Specifically, in North Texas, Echo controls less than 10% of the charter, tour, shuttle, livery school, metro, and scheduled ground transportation market. Similarly, in South Texas, GBJ controls less than 10% of the charter, tour, shuttle, livery school, metro, and scheduled ground transportation market. Applicants note that areas served by the two motor carriers are largely separate and distinct, with a small amount of overlap in the larger markets. Applicants assert that the benefits associated with the transaction would only support increased competition. Applicants further reiterate the Board's findings in other cases regarding low barriers to entry into the interstate bus industry.
The Board finds that the proposed acquisition described in the application is consistent with the public interest and should be tentatively approved and authorized. If any opposing comments are timely filed, these findings will be deemed vacated, and, unless a final decision can be made on the record as developed, a procedural schedule will be adopted to reconsider the application.
This action is categorically excluded from environmental review under 49 CFR 1105.6(c).
1. The proposed transaction is approved and authorized, subject to the filing of opposing comments.
2. If opposing comments are timely filed, the findings made in this notice will be deemed vacated.
3. This notice will be effective September 13, 2016, unless opposing comments are filed by September 12, 2016.
4. A copy of this notice will be served on: (1) The U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590; (2) the U.S. Department of Justice, Antitrust Division, 10th Street & Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20530; and (3) the U.S. Department of Transportation, Office of the General Counsel, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590.
By the Board, Chairman Elliott, Vice Chairman Miller, and Commissioner Begeman.
Tennessee Valley Authority.
30-Day notice of submission of information collection approval and request for comments.
This is a renewal request for approval of the Application for Section 26a Permit (OMB No. 3316-0060). The information collection described below will be submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) at,
Comments should be sent to the Agency Clearance Officer and the OMB Office of Information & Regulatory Affairs, Attention: Desk Officer for Tennessee Valley Authority, Washington, DC 20503, or email:
Requests for information, including copies of the information collection proposed and supporting documentation, should be directed to the Senior Privacy Program Manager: Christopher A. Marsalis, Tennessee Valley Authority, 400 W. Summit Hill Dr. (WT 5D), Knoxville, Tennessee 37902-1401; telephone (865) 632-2467 or email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Eleventh Meeting Special Committee 231 TAWS.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of a meeting of Eleventh Meeting Special Committee 231 TAWS.
The meeting will be held September 20-23, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. Friday.
The meeting will be held at: RTCA, Inc., 1150 18th Street NW., Suite 910, Washington, DC 20036. Individuals wishing for WebEx/Audio information should contact the person listed in the
Rebecca Morrison at
Pursuant to section 10(a)(2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of the Eleventh Meeting Special Committee 231 TAWS. The agenda will include the following:
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Persons
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before August 29, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
The Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) provides a “single window” that allows importers and exporters to enter one set of data for each shipment of imported or exported goods. The TTB Partner Government Agency (PGA) Message Set defines the TTB-specific information that importers may submit electronically through ACE to meet TTB requirements.
With regard to imports, TTB intends to issue an alternate method to allow importers to submit the TTB PGA Message Set electronically, in lieu of submitting paper documents to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) at importation. This information collection covers the data that would be submitted electronically through ACE under that alternate method. Most of the information that the alternate method will require importers to submit through ACE is already required by TTB's regulations. However, there are some additional requirements. For example, importers who are required to have a TTB permit number will submit their TTB permit number when filing electronically in ACE. In general, importers of TTB-regulated commodities are required to obtain a permit from TTB, but they have not previously been required by regulation to file that number with CBP. The information collected under this information collection appears in the “ACE Filing Instructions for TTB-Regulated Commodities” available at
The Department of the Treasury will submit the following information collection requests to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before August 29, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimates, or any other aspect of the information collections, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for Treasury, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submissions may be obtained by emailing
Notice.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), Veterans Health Administration (VHA), is seeking nominations of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment as a member of the Research Advisory Committee on Gulf War Veterans' Illnesses (hereinafter referred to as “the Committee”). The Committee was established pursuant to Public Law 105-368, Section 104, to provide advice to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs (Secretary) on the proposed research studies, plans, and strategies related to understanding and treating the health consequences of military service in the Southwest Asia theatre of operations during the 1990-1991 Gulf War. In accordance with the statute and the Committee's current charter, the majority of the membership shall consist of non-Federal employees, appointed by the Secretary from the general public, serving as Special Government employees. The Committee provides, not later than December 1 of each year, an annual report summarizing its activities for the preceding year. The Secretary appoints Committee members for a period of 2 to 3 years. A term of service for any member may not exceed 3 years, but the Secretary may reappoint a member for an additional term of service. Self-nominations and nominations of non-Veterans will be accepted. Any letters of nomination from organizations or other individuals should accompany the package when it is submitted.
In accordance with recently revised guidance regarding the ban on lobbyists serving as members of advisory boards and commissions, Federally-registered lobbyists are prohibited from serving on Federal advisory committees in an individual capacity. Additional information regarding this issue can be found at:
Nominations for membership on the Committee must be received no later than 5:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time, on August 15, 2016.
All nominations should be mailed to Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., (10P9), Washington, DC 20420, emailed to
Dr. Victor Kalasinsky, Veterans Health Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., (10P), Washington, DC 20420, telephone (202) 443-5600. (This is not a toll free number.) A copy of the Committee's charter and list of the current membership can be obtained by contacting Dr. Kalasinsky or by accessing the Web site:
VHA is requesting nominations for upcoming vacancies on the Committee. The Committee is currently composed of 16 members. The members of the Committee are appointed by the Secretary from the general public, including but not limited to:
(1) Gulf War Veterans;
(2) Representatives of such Veterans;
(3) Members of the medical and scientific communities representing disciplines such as, but not limited to, epidemiology, immunology, environmental health, neurology, and toxicology.
To the extent possible, the Secretary seeks members who have diverse professional and personal qualifications. We ask that nominations include information of this type so that VA can ensure a balanced Committee membership.
The Committee meets at least once and up to three times annually. In accordance with Federal Travel Regulation, Committee members will receive travel expenses and a per diem allowance for any travel made in connection with duties as members of the Committee.
Nomination Package Requirements: Nominations must be typed (12 point font) and include: (1) A letter of nomination that clearly states the name and affiliation of the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
VA makes every effort to ensure that the membership of its advisory committees is fairly balanced in terms of points of view represented and the Committee's function. Appointments to this Committee shall be made without discrimination based on a person's race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. Nominations must state that the nominee appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership. An ethics review is conducted for each selected nominee.
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Farm Credit Administration.
Final rule.
The Farm Credit Administration (FCA or we) is adopting a final rule that revises our regulatory capital requirements for Farm Credit System (System) institutions to include tier 1 and tier 2 risk-based capital ratio requirements (replacing core surplus and total surplus requirements), a tier 1 leverage requirement (replacing a net collateral requirement for System banks), a capital conservation buffer and a leverage buffer, revised risk weightings, and additional public disclosure requirements. The revisions to the risk weightings include alternatives to the use of credit ratings, as required by section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
J.C. Floyd, Associate Director, Finance and Capital Markets Team, Timothy T. Nerdahl, Senior Policy Analyst—Capital Markets, or Jeremy R. Edelstein, Senior Policy Analyst, Office of Regulatory Policy, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, VA 22102-5090, (703) 883-4414, TTY (703) 883-4056; or Rebecca S. Orlich, Senior Counsel, or Jennifer A. Cohn, Senior Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, VA 22102-5090, (703) 883-4020, TTY (703) 883-4056.
The FCA's objectives in adopting this final rule are:
• To modernize capital requirements while ensuring that institutions continue to hold enough regulatory capital to fulfill their mission as a Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE);
• To ensure that the System's capital requirements are comparable to the Basel III framework and the standardized approach that the Federal banking regulatory agencies have adopted, but also to ensure that the rules take into account the cooperative structure and the organization of the System;
• To make System regulatory capital requirements more transparent; and
• To meet the requirements of section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act).
On September 4, 2014, the FCA published in the
The proposed rule was intended to:
• Improve the quality and quantity of System institutions' capital and enhance risk sensitivity in calculating risk weighted assets,
• Provide a more transparent picture of System institutions' capital to the investment-banking sector, which could facilitate System institutions' securities offerings to third-party investors, and
• Comply with section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Act
After the worldwide financial crisis that began in 2008, the BCBS issued the Basel III framework and has continued to issue additional standards, with the goal of strengthening financial organizations' capital. The U.S. rule reflects Basel III as well as aspects of Basel II and other BCBS standards. The provisions of the U.S. rule that are not specifically included in the Basel III framework are generally consistent with the goals of the framework.
The FCA's proposed rule was comparable to the standardized approach rules of the Federal banking regulatory agencies to the extent appropriate for the System's cooperative structure and status as a GSE with a mission to provide a dependable source of credit and related services for agriculture and rural America. Consistent with the U.S. rule, the FCA's proposed rule incorporated key aspects of the Basel III tier 1 and tier 2 framework and included the following minimum risk-based ratios:
• CET1 capital of 4.5 percent;
• Tier 1 capital of 6 percent; and
• Total capital of 8 percent.
We proposed a capital conservation buffer of 2.5 percent to enhance the resilience of System institutions, the same capital conservation buffer as in the U.S. rule. Our proposed capital conservation buffer similarly had a phase-in period of 3 years, but we did not propose to incorporate any of the other transition periods in Basel III and the U.S. rule.
The proposed rule imposed some new patronage refund and equity redemption requirements, including FCA prior approvals, on System institutions to provide comparability with the U.S. rule and also to ensure the stability and permanence of the capital includable in the tier 1 and tier 2 capital ratios. We proposed that System institutions must retain equities included in CET1 capital for at least 10 years and retain equities included in tier 2 capital for at least 5 years, unless the FCA grants prior approval to redeem or revolve at an earlier date. We proposed to require institutions to adopt a bylaw committing the institutions to the minimum redemption and revolvement periods. We provided a “safe harbor,” or deemed prior approval, for cash patronage refund payments and equity redemptions and revolvements as long as the dollar amount of the institution's CET1 capital was equal to or above the dollar amount of the institution's CET1 on the same date of the previous year. Both the Basel III framework and the U.S. rule and applicable law have similar prior approval requirements, but we adapted these requirements to the System's cooperative structure and operations.
The proposed rule contained regulatory deductions and adjustments in the capital ratio calculations that are comparable in purpose to those required in Basel III and the U.S. rule. However, we modified the deductions and adjustments in consideration of the two-tiered, financially interdependent, cooperative structure of the System. We proposed to require deductions from CET1 of goodwill and other intangibles and of allocated equity investments in other System institutions, service corporations, and the Funding Corporation. We also proposed to require System institutions that have purchased equity investments in other System institutions to deduct the investment using the corresponding deduction approach. A “haircut” deduction of a portion of allocated equities was required if an institution redeemed or revolved equities before the end of the applicable minimum redemption or revolvement period.
We proposed a limit on how much third-party capital—capital held by investors other than other System institutions or their member-borrowers—could count in the regulatory capital ratios. The proposed limit was similar to the limit the FCA had previously imposed on System institutions on a case-by-case basis.
The FCA also proposed changes to its risk-based capital rules for determining risk weighted assets—that is, the calculation of the denominator of a System institution's risk-based capital ratios. We proposed to eliminate the credit ratings of NRSROs from risk weights for certain exposures, consistent with section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Act. As an alternative, FCA proposed to include methodologies for determining risk weighted assets for exposures to sovereigns, foreign banks, and public sector entities, securitization exposures, and counterparty credit risk. We proposed an increased risk-weight for high-volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposures and for past due and nonaccrual exposures. We did not propose to alter FCA Bookletter BL-053, which since 2007 has permitted lower risk weights for certain exposures to generation and transmission and electric distribution cooperatives (electric cooperatives), but we also did not propose to include the lower risk weights in the rule. We proposed to increase the credit conversion factors (CCF) that apply to unused commitments, including commitments
We generally did not propose risk weightings for exposures that System institutions have no authority to acquire.
We did not propose to adopt the “advanced approaches” regulatory capital rules because no System institution has the volume of assets or foreign exposures that would subject it to those approaches if it were regulated by a Federal banking regulatory agency.
The proposed rule also required additional recordkeeping and disclosures by System banks, comparable to the required disclosures in the U.S. rule for commercial banks with assets of $50 billion and above. It was our belief that the benefits to the System of these proposed rules would more than outweigh the requirements and additional responsibilities we would require.
We proposed to: (1) Place the tier 1 and tier 2 risk weighted and leverage capital requirements in a new part 628 of FCA regulations in title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations: (2) rescind the risk-weighting provisions in subpart H of part 615 and the core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral requirements in subpart K of part 615; (3) retain in part 615 the requirements for the numerator of the permanent capital ratio, a measure that is mandated by the Farm Credit Act, but make the risk weightings for the denominator of the permanent capital ratio the risk weightings in new part 628; and (4) make conforming changes in other FCA regulations.
In the proposed rule, we used the general format and the section and paragraph numbering system of the U.S. rule to the extent possible. In many cases, we retained the numbering system by reserving sections and paragraphs where we did not propose parallel provisions. We did so in order to facilitate the comparison of the proposal with the U.S. rules.
The final rule replaces the FCA's core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral rules with common equity tier 1 (CET1), tier 1, total capital, capital conservation buffer, and leverage buffer rules as described below. The final rule also revises the risk weightings in the existing rule and makes minor adjustments to the permanent capital calculation. In addition, it expands public disclosure requirements for System banks. After considering the comments we received, we have made changes in the final rule to address policy, technical, and compliance concerns raised by commenters.
In the final rule, we have adopted the minimum CET1, tier 1, and total risk-based capital ratios as set forth in the proposed rule. We have adopted a lower tier 1 leverage ratio of 4 percent in the final rule but have retained the URE and URE equivalents requirement of 1.5 percent, and we have added a tier 1 leverage buffer of 1 percent.
We have adopted the capital conservation buffer of 2.5 percent as proposed and have provided a phase-in period of 3 years that will end on December 31, 2019.
We have revised a number of the proposed patronage refund and equity redemption or revolvement requirements:
• We have revised the minimum CET1 redemption or revolvement period to 7 years from 10 years in the proposal but have adopted the other minimum periods as proposed.
• We have provided that institution boards may adopt a resolution annually that commits the institutions to comply with the minimum redemption and revolvement periods, as an alternative to adopting a capital bylaw.
• We have expanded the “safe harbor” to exempt 3 types of equity redemptions or revolvements from the applicable minimum holding periods: (1) Equities mandated to be redeemed or retired by a final order of a court of competent jurisdiction; (2) equities belonging to the estate of a deceased former borrower; and (3) equities that the institution is required to cancel under § 615.5290 of our regulations.
We have adopted the regulatory deductions and adjustments in the final rule as proposed, with several exceptions. We have revised the 30-percent mandatory “haircut” for noncompliance with the minimum revolvement periods and have replaced it with a provision stating that the FCA may take a supervisory or enforcement action for noncompliance with the minimum revolvement periods, which may include requiring an institution to deduct a portion of its equities from CET1 capital.
We have simplified the calculation for the third-party capital limit.
We have not finalized the proposed provisions governing HVCRE at this time. We have not included lower risk weights for exposures to electric cooperatives in the rule, but FCA Bookletter BL-053 remains in effect. We have applied a 20-percent CCF to all unused commitments from System banks to fund direct loans without regard to maturity, rather than applying a 50-percent CCF to commitments longer than 14 months, and we have clarified that this capital treatment applies to direct loan commitments to OFIs as well as associations. We have retained the existing, but not proposed, 50-percent risk weight for loans to certain OFIs, but we have eliminated the credit rating standard for this risk weight. We have retained the higher risk weight for past due and nonaccrual exposures and the due diligence requirements for securitization exposures. We have revised the definition of Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE) to include the System.
We have adopted the recordkeeping disclosure requirements for System banks as proposed.
We have adopted conforming changes to existing FCA regulations.
The original comment period for the proposed rule was for 120 days, ending on January 2, 2015. At the request of the System, on December 23, 2014, the FCA extended the comment period to February 16, 2015,
The FCA received approximately 2400 public comments on the proposed rule. Nearly 500 of the comments were from individual System associations and their directors and officers; the 4 System banks; and the Farm Credit Council, a trade association representing the interests of System institutions. Approximately 1800 member-borrowers of one System association submitted comments.
In addition, 3 comments were from non-System agricultural lenders with lending relationships with System banks (other financing institutions or OFIs). Approximately 70 rural electric cooperatives and a trade association representing rural electric cooperatives submitted comments. Each of these two groups of commenters submitted a comment regarding the single issue of the proposed risk-weightings of System institutions' exposures to their particular business.
We also received comments from several educational and trade associations promoting the interests of farmers and farm businesses, cooperative businesses, rural electric cooperatives, and U.S. community bankers. The farm-related and cooperative trade associations all submitted a general comment supporting the System Comment Letter. They urged the FCA not to adopt regulations that would diminish the democratic nature of cooperatives, their unique governance structure, and their ability to maintain financial and ethical integrity. The trade association representing community banks expressed concern about some provisions of the U.S. rule as applied to community banks and generally recommended the imposition of more strenuous capital requirements on System institutions. The trade association asserted that 1) there was an implicit government guarantee of the debt and equity of System institutions that the Basel III framework and the proposed rule failed to address, and that 2) this failure put taxpayers at risk for future bailouts, while privately-funded and well-capitalized community banks suffer with higher funding costs and absence of a government backstop. These trade association letters did not include comments on specific aspects or requirements of the proposed rule.
This section of the preamble addresses the issues that the System Comment Letter identified as “Threshold Issues.”
The System Comment Letter expressed strong support for modernizing the FCA's capital regulations through the adoption of a tiered framework comparable to Basel III and the U.S. rule. The System stated that such a modernization “will be helpful to external investors and others who are acquainted with the Basel III framework and understand the overall financial strength and capital capacity of individual [System] institutions as cooperative financial institutions.” The
The System Comment Letter is divided into three parts. The first part discusses 9 “threshold” issues important to the System, including a number identified as “undermin[ing] cooperative principles and member participation in the management, ownership, and control of System institutions as required by the Act.” The second part, Appendix A, contains comments to specific questions we asked in the preamble to the proposed rule. The third part, Appendix B, identifies “various conceptual and technical issues” that are explained in a discussion of particular aspects of the regulation text. We first address the general assertion that the proposed rule is anti-cooperative as well as the issues identified in the System Comment Letter as “threshold issues.” The section that follows discusses the System's remaining comments and other comments that we received.
In proposing the capital rule, it was our intention to implement capital requirements that are comparable to the Basel III framework as embodied in the U.S. rule, with adjustments to take into consideration the structure and operations of System institutions. As the System Comment Letter notes, the Basel III framework's capital components are described by the Basel Committee in terms of the capital of joint-stock banks—that is, financial institutions that issue stock to investors whose objective is to earn a profit. (We note that System institutions, like some other cooperative financial institutions, do issue stock, but they are not joint-stock banks as that term is used by the Basel Committee.) Investors with voting interests in a joint-stock bank are not required to do business with the joint-stock bank in which they own stock, and there is no connection between their ownership interests and any customer relationship they may have with such bank. Cooperatives and mutual associations, unlike joint-stock banks, are not created for the profit of investors but rather for the benefit of their member-borrowers, and there is a close connection between their equity ownership and their customer relationship with the cooperative institution or mutual. The Basel Committee intended the criteria for joint-stock banks also to apply to other banking organizations, as explained in footnote 12 to the Basel III document:
The criteria also apply to non-joint stock companies, such as mutuals, cooperatives or savings institutions, taking into account their specific constitution and legal structure. The application of the criteria should preserve the quality of the instruments by requiring that they are deemed fully equivalent to common shares in terms of their capital quality as regards loss absorption and do not possess features which could cause the condition of the bank to be weakened as a going concern during periods of market stress. Supervisors will exchange information on how they apply the criteria to non-joint stock companies in order to ensure consistent implementation.
The System Comment Letter appears to interpret this footnote to mean that Basel III-based regulations for cooperatives, such as the FCA's proposed rule, must take account of the “specific constitution and legal structure” of System institutions by deferring to “all cooperative principles” that are inconsistent with the Basel III criteria for joint-stock banks. Such an interpretation is not entirely without basis, given the lack of detail in the footnote, and this may have already have led to greater flexibility than intended by the Basel Committee in some banking agencies' regulatory interpretations. We note that, in December 2014, banking experts appointed by the Basel Committee to assess whether European Union pronouncements and its member countries' regulations comply with the Basel III framework raised concerns about exceptions some countries made to the framework for mutually owned institutions and suggested the Basel Committee consider issuing more specific guidance.
In the case of one banking group, the Assessment Team observed that individual instruments of some cooperative banks were being marketed as being redeemable, non-loss absorbing in liquidation, and paying a distribution based on the face value. In the Assessment Team's view, this goes beyond the limits of permissible flexibility in Basel III. The fact that regulatory approval is required for redemption and that redemption may be deferred does not, in the team's opinion, mitigate the public perception that these instruments are redeemable, despite the approval requirements set out in the CRR.
While the amount of such instruments is clearly material for banks with mutual structures, the Assessment Team understands that these are well understood capital structures supported by Member State law that have proven resilient in times of stress. Moreover, some of the internationally active parts of such banking groups are capitalised by common equity in the form of publicly listed ordinary shares, which serves as an alternative source of loss-absorbing capital. This is an area where the Assessment Team believes the Basel Committee could provide additional guidance on the extent of flexibility considered appropriate for CET1 issued in mutual bank structures. As a result, this issue is noted as a deviation, but the Assessment Team has not factored this element into the grade for the definition of capital category nor into the overall assessment grade.
The crisis . . . revealed the inconsistency in the definition of capital across jurisdictions and the lack of disclosure that would have enabled the market to fully assess and compare the quality of capital between institutions.
To this end, the predominant form of Tier 1 capital must be common shares and retained earnings. This standard is reinforced through a set of principles that also can be tailored to the context of non-joint stock companies to ensure they hold comparable levels of high quality Tier 1 capital. Deductions from capital and prudential filters have been harmonized internationally and generally applied at the level of common equity or its equivalent in the case of non-joint stock companies.
The FCA disagrees with the apparent interpretation in the System Comment Letter that the Basel III footnote 12 directs regulators to defer to mutual and cooperative constitutions and legal structures. There are 4 key points in the footnote, as clarified by the discussion in the text of the framework document, that we followed in the proposed rule. First, cooperative capital
In the proposed rule we made appropriate exceptions and adjustments related to legal authorities, structure and also traditional operations that are cooperative in nature. These include the exception for the liquidation priorities of URE and common cooperative equities; the eligibility requirements to become member-borrowers; the requirement to purchase member stock in order to obtain a loan; the restriction of association voting rights to member-borrowers in agriculture and related businesses and the restriction of bank voting rights to member associations and retail cooperative member-borrowers; the one-member, one-vote mandate for association member-borrowers; and the proportional voting mandate for associations and cooperatives that borrow from System banks. An important difference from joint-stock corporations such as commercial banks is that the voting stockholders, because they are also the customers, want both low interest rates on their loans and high amounts of patronage payments, and they are in a position to pressure the institution to provide patronage payments on a regular basis. Some institutions encourage member expectations by promoting and illustrating patronage payments as a routine “cash-back dividend” that effectively reduces the real interest rate on a member's loan as demonstrated by materials on their Web sites and in press releases.
Our proposed rule also included exceptions and adjustments to take into account non-cooperative differences between System institutions and commercial banks in legal authorities, mandates, and legal structure. Such differences include: (1) The two-tiered structure of System banks supervising and lending to the System associations that own them; (2) the joint and several liability of System banks for almost all the general debt they issue; (3) the GSE status of the System; (4) the limitations on System associations to borrow from financial institutions other than their affiliated System bank; (5) the statutory discretion of a System institution to redeem purchased stock and retire allocated equities; and (6) the requirement that System institution voting members must approve amendments to the capitalization bylaws. Commercial banks have capital-related restrictions, some statutory and some in the U.S. rule, that the Act and our regulations have not previously imposed on System institutions, such as: (1) Restrictions on redemption of equities without both regulatory approval and stockholder approval; (2) restrictions on cash dividend payments without regulatory approval; and (3) prompt corrective action. Restrictions and adjustments in our capital rule, to the extent consistent with the System's GSE status, are also necessary in order to make our regulatory capital framework substantively comparable to the U.S. rule.
We note that the U.S. rule does not have specific provisions for mutual banking organizations.
The System Comment Letter states that allocated equities are retained earnings and uses the term “allocated retained earnings” throughout its comment, stating that “allocated retained earnings” are the same as URE and should be treated the same way. The System makes a number of additional assertions about Basel III and the U.S. rule. These assertions include:
• Basel III does not establish tiers of retained earnings, does not require deduction from retained earnings of amounts that a commercial bank has announced it plans to distribute, and does not exclude retained earnings from CET1 to reflect market pressures to pay dividends.
• The U.S. rule includes all retained earnings in CET1 even though commercial banks are authorized to distribute retained earnings in amounts up to current year earnings plus net income for the two previous years. If the FCA does not change its position to treat retained earnings differently from the Basel III framework and the U.S. rule, it should impose only criteria applicable solely to retained earnings.
• Basel III and the U.S. rule do not apply any of the CET1 criteria to retained earnings. The FCA's proposed rule inappropriately applies the criteria to “allocated retained earnings,” including minimum revolvement periods established in capitalization bylaws.
The System Comment Letter correctly states that Basel III and the U.S. rule fully include “retained earnings” in CET1 and do not apply to retained earnings any of the CET1 criteria they apply to equities. Our treatment of URE is identical to the treatment of “retained earnings” in Basel III and the U.S. rule. In our view, equating URE with the “retained earnings” in Basel III and the U.S. rule is correct because, to our knowledge, all the retained earnings of institutions covered by Basel III and the U.S. rule are unallocated. Our research has not revealed any financial cooperatives or mutuals under the Basel III framework or the U.S. rule that allocate equities. All the System's comments about treatment of retained earnings pertain only to our treatment of earnings that have been allocated to their members. Rather than establishing tiers of retained earnings, a structure the System's comment seems to both criticize and recommend, we treat allocated equities the same way we treat purchased equities, consistent with the provisions of the Act and our existing
We address here our basis for treating allocated equities the same way we treat purchased equities. We treat earnings that a System institution has allocated to a member as equities, irrespective of whether the institution calls them allocated equities, allocated stock, allocated surplus, or allocated retained earnings. “Allocated equities” is the term we use in existing capital regulations and also used in the proposed rule. The Act and existing FCA capital regulations most commonly use the term “allocated equities” and treat them as stock; in the Act and our regulations URE is consistently treated differently from stock and allocated equities.
We note that the term “allocated retained earnings” used in the System Comment Letter could potentially confuse third-party investors who are not familiar with the allocation process and may not understand the ownership attributes that attach once the earnings are allocated.
Many provisions of the Act treat URE and allocated equities in separate ways. Section 4.9A(d) of the Act, which defines and guarantees full repayment of “eligible borrower stock,” defines borrower stock to mean “voting and nonvoting stock, equivalent contributions to a guaranty fund, participation certificates, allocated equities, and other similar equities that are subject to retirement under a revolving cycle issued by any System institution and held by any person other than any System institution.” URE is not protected under section 4.9A of the Act. Sections 2.6 and 3.10 of the Act establish that associations and CoBank, ACB have liens on the stock and equities, including allocated equities, of their retail borrowers. In section 3.2(a)(2)(A)(ii) of the Act, voting by a bank for cooperatives' retail borrowers is based on a stockholder's proportional equity interest “including allocated, but not unallocated, surplus and reserves.” Retirement of stock for a bank for cooperatives as provided in sections 3.5 and 3.21 of the Act treats the retirement of allocated equities the same as the retirement of “issued” equities. In section 6.4 of the Act, which pertains to the Assistance Board's certification of a System institution to obtain financial assistance by issuing preferred stock, allocated equities are treated as stock. Section 6.26(c)(1)(B) of the Act, pertaining to the repayment of financial assistance by the System, bases part of the repayment amount on an institution's amount of URE but not allocated equities.
Existing FCA capital regulations are consistent with the Act's separate treatment of URE and allocated equities. Section 615.5330(b)(1) provides that a portion of core surplus must consist of URE and other includible equities
Though the reason for treating allocated equities differently from URE is not expressly stated in the Act, the difference is likely based on the ownership attributes of allocated equities that make allocated equities stock-like in nature. The rule's treatment of allocated equities as stock and its treatment of URE as equivalent to the “retained earnings” in Basel III and the U.S. rule are consistent with the treatment of allocated equities and URE in the Act and existing FCA regulations.
The proposed rule provided for minimum redemption and revolvement periods (holding periods) as part of the criteria for including equities in the new regulatory capital components. We proposed a minimum 10-year holding period for inclusion in CET1 capital and a minimum 5-year holding period for inclusion in tier 2 capital. In addition, consistent with Basel III and the U.S. rule, we proposed a 5-year no-call period for inclusion of equities in additional tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital, as well as a minimum 5-year term for term stock includible in tier 2 capital.
The System Comment Letter did not object to the minimum no-call periods or minimum term for term stock but expressed objections to the minimum redemption and revolvement periods as follows:
• The minimum holding period should be eliminated because there is no basis for it in Basel III.
• An allocated equity with an express minimum term of 10 years is no more permanent than an allocated equity that is perpetual on its face.
• The FCA has historically expressed a concern with member pressure on institutions for the payment of patronage or
• Several System institutions in the years 2007-2013 suspended cash patronage payments or reduced allocated equity redemptions when they experienced credit and business issues. Loan volume declined in some instances due to more conservative lending practices but not to borrower flight. The institutions resolved their credit and business issues and resumed cash patronage payments and increased allocated equity redemptions. This demonstrates that System institution retained earnings should qualify as CET1 without application of any limiting criteria.
• If FCA remains resolute in treating allocated equities differently from URE, the agency should continue the requirements in existing FCA regulations based on minimum revolvement periods: A plan or practice not to revolve CET1 equities for at least 5 years and not to revolve additional tier 1 equities for at least 3 years, with no minimum revolvement period for tier 2 equities.
• If FCA decides to adopt minimum holding periods as set forth in the proposed rule, a minimum holding period of 7 years for inclusion in CET1 capital would be more workable and reasonable.
The System is correct that Basel III does not include a minimum redemption or revolvement period for CET1 equities or tier 2 equities. Such a minimum holding period is not necessary in the Basel framework or in the U.S. rule because commercial banks must obtain their regulator's approval before redeeming any equities, no matter how many years the equities have been outstanding. System institutions, likewise, will be able to redeem or revolve equities before the holding period ends if the institutions receive FCA approval.
We do not understand the System's comment that an allocated equity with an “express minimum term of 10 years is no more permanent than an allocated equity that is perpetual on its face.” In the proposed rule, no term equities were included in CET1. On the contrary, only equities that were both perpetual “on their face” and held for at least 10 years were includible in CET1, and term (limited-life) equities were includible only in tier 2. It is true that, when an institution is placed into receivership, equities held by the institution at that point in time are available to absorb losses of the institution, regardless of whether the equities are perpetual or term and regardless of whether they have been outstanding for 10 years or for 10 days—in a receivership, every equity is as “permanent” as every other equity. We also acknowledge that, like the water level in a bathtub, the capital level of an institution will stay constant if the amount of new capital added is equal to the amount of capital the institution redeems, revolves, or otherwise pays out in cash.
The FCA believes that longer revolvement cycles benefit System institutions by enabling them to better capitalize asset growth while also improving the quality and quantity of capital, thus strengthening an institution's financial position. A System institution, like most cooperatives, has limited opportunities to raise capital other than through the direct sale of stock to member-borrowers, the sale of preferred stock to outside investors, and the retention of net income as URE or allocated equities. System associations in particular have adopted the statutory minimum borrower stock requirement of the lesser of $1,000 or 2 percent of the loan, and only one association has issued preferred stock to outside investors. Thus, a System institution is highly dependent on its ability to generate sufficient earnings to repay its creditors, pay cash dividends to outside investors, pay cash patronage to its member-borrowers, and add to its capital base. Cooperative institutions can pay patronage to their member-borrowers in three forms: (1) Cash, which is an immediate return; (2) allocated equities that may be revolved at some future date; or (3) a combination of cash and allocated equities. Allocating equities allows the institution to use this capital for a period of time to benefit the whole cooperative membership, such as for capitalizing growth or improving the financial condition. Many boards choose to revolve allocated equities on an approved cycle, provided that the institution can continue to meet its capital needs. Thus, capital planning assumes greater importance in the capital adequacy assessment for the System institution's long-term survival.
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Longer revolvement periods give an institution extra flexibility when earnings are stressed, as well as help maintain stronger capital levels when membership or existing borrowers' operations grow. The FCA strongly believes that System institutions, as financial cooperatives with GSE status, must have redemption and revolvement periods that are sufficiently permanent to maintain strong capital positions in a weak economy.
On the issue of whether System institutions face greater pressure to revolve allocated equities than the pressure on commercial banks to make dividend payments, we disagree with the System. It has long been our position that members can exert more pressure on their institutions because of their dual relationship as borrowers and
Commenters asserted that they did not experience borrower flight during the years 2007-2013 even given some institutions' reductions in patronage payments. FCA staff has reviewed the patronage payment activities of a number of System associations in the years 2007-2013 leading up to and after the 2008 global financial crisis. Though the financial crisis was deep in many sectors of the U.S. economy, the agricultural economy suffered little impact. Most System institutions had little or no exposure to the “toxic” assets that crippled many financial institutions because of the System's limited lending and investment authorities. In fact, many institutions continued to grow their loan volume. Some impacted institutions did reduce or suspend cash patronage payments and planned redemptions of allocated equities. They did so for a variety of reasons, including to address financial stress and to support increased loan demand. While the experiences of 2007-2013 are useful for analysis, there were no widespread or significant changes in patronage payment practices in the System, particularly redemption or revolvement of allocated equities. Thus, we do not believe these experiences are a strong indicator of what System institutions would experience in a severely weakened agricultural economy.
In the proposed rule, we also intended the minimum holding periods to provide a way for System institutions to comply with the Basel III and U.S. rule's expectation criterion. The expectation criterion, a new concept in Basel III and the U.S. rule, is part of the criteria for all 3 capital components—CET1, AT1, and tier 2 capital. For CET1, the U.S. rule provides that a commercial bank must not “create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument [must] not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation.” The criteria for AT1 and tier 2 are the same except that the expectation is with respect to exercising a call option on the instrument rather than buying back, redeeming, or canceling it. It is our understanding that this criterion is intended to curb actions like those of some commercial banks that continued to make large share buy-backs and dividend payments during the 2008 global crisis, in order not to send investors a signal of weakness.
There are two noteworthy aspects of the expectation criterion. First, it does not pertain to the intentions—implicit or explicit—of the commercial bank to redeem the instrument, but rather to the expectations created by the bank's behavior—its “actions or communications”—and the focus is on the impact of the bank's actions on others and its communications with others that could lead the bank to redeem stock when such redemption could potentially weaken the bank. The “others” in question could be stockholders, potential investors, the market, or banking analysts and traders.
Second, all the other criteria for CET1 and the other components of capital are based on primarily objective legal rights, legal status, or accounting principles.
The concept of a minimum holding period for System cooperative equities has been a part of FCA's existing core surplus capital regulations that have been in effect since 1997. Under that regulation, an association may include in core surplus allocated equities with an original revolvement period of at least 5 years, as long as such equities are not scheduled by the board or a board practice or expected by the members to be revolved in the next 3 years. The exclusion from core surplus in the last 3 years before revolvement focuses the board on longer-term planning to replace the soon-to-revolve allocated equities and better enables the board to revolve the allocated equities as expected, without reducing the institution's core surplus ratio. The core surplus regulation reflected the Agency's judgment that, first, member expectations of revolvement increase as the revolvement date approaches and, second, minimum revolvement periods make the equities more stable.
The fundamental purpose of allocating equities is to build capital by retaining earnings as opposed to distributing them out as cash. As such, allocated equities need to be sufficiently permanent for the institution to include
As we stated above, we believe a longer minimum holding period for the highest quality capital is more appropriate to ensure adequate capital when the agricultural economy is weak. We believe the holding period for CET1 capital should be longer than the similar 5-year no-call minimum period for lower quality additional tier 1 and tier 2 capital and the minimum term of 5 years for term stock includible in tier 2 capital. The 10-year minimum holding period for CET1 capital in our proposed rule would, in our view, have both tempered member expectations of redemption or revolvement and ensured the stability of capital through the long cycle of the agricultural economy. However, we have considered the System's comments for a shorter minimum holding period for CET1 equities, in light of the rule's other provisions that ensure the retention and conservation of high quality capital, such as the safe harbor provision and FCA prior approval requirements, and the overall higher capital requirements of the rule. We have concluded that a minimum 7-year redemption and revolvement period for CET1 equities will give System institutions added flexibility to manage their capital planning without significantly impacting their resilience. As we have noted, many of the System institutions that revolve allocated equities have already extended, or begun to extend, their revolvement periods to 7 years or longer. The final rule's shorter minimum CET1 holding period, together with our change in the final rule to permit institutions to commit to the minimum holding periods through an annual board resolution, should enable institutions to comply with the new capital requirements with minimal administrative burden.
We have decided not to adopt the System's recommendations of a 3 to 5-year minimum holding period for additional tier 1 capital and elimination of the minimum holding period for tier 2 equities. To do so would be inconsistent with the minimum no-call periods of 5 years for additional tier 1 and tier 2 capital in Basel III and the U.S. rule. Furthermore, elimination of the tier 2 minimum holding period would imprudently permit redemptions and revolvements of equities, such as the member equities issued by some System banks in connection with loan participation programs and the preferred stock issued by some associations to their members, that have been outstanding for as short a period as 1 quarter. In the final rule, we have retained the 5-year minimum holding periods for both additional tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
The System Comment Letter objects to the proposed rule's imposition of minimum redemption and revolvement periods on associations' investments in their funding banks. The proposal provided that these investments, which consist of both purchased and allocated equities, have the same minimum redemption and revolvement periods as all other cooperative equities. The System makes the following assertions about the proposed rule's minimum holding period requirement for the association investments in their banks:
• It is challenging, bureaucratic, unworkable, anti-cooperative, costly, and burdensome without any discernible benefit in capital quality or quantity, and it is unnecessary to achieving alignment of System capital regulations with Basel III.
• It is inconsistent with statutory requirements, creates a “first in first out” redemption principle for the investment, impedes a bank's ability to help a struggling association by redeeming or revolving equities, and could create an adverse tax consequence that would necessarily dissipate combined bank-association capital.
• An association's investment in its funding bank “is legally and functionally a permanent capital contribution to the bank and is understood as such by associations,” notwithstanding periodic capital equalizations by the System bank (which result in member associations' investments being adjusted, as necessary, to the same specified percentage of its outstanding borrowings from the bank).
• An association's investment in its funding bank “results from the statutorily directed financial relationship.” System associations must borrow exclusively from their bank unless they have approval from the bank to borrow from another financial institution. By contrast, an association's borrowers are free to borrow outside of the System.
• The investment requirements imposed on retail borrowers by associations are unlike those imposed by a System bank on its affiliated associations, since associations do not have unilateral authority to increase the requirements. System banks have bylaws that authorize them to call, preserve, and build capital from their associations. Also, a bank's general financing agreement with its affiliated association enables it to increase spreads on outstanding direct loans immediately without association approval.
The capital rule is consistent with statutory requirements. The rule applies the same minimum redemption and revolvement cycles to all cooperative equities except for the statutorily required investment of at least $1,000 or 2 percent of the loan amount, whichever is less. Stock or equities that meet this statutory requirement are exempt from a minimum redemption or revolvement period. We agree with the System that System banks and associations have a relationship defined by the Act that is long term and permanent except for very rare re-affiliations with another System bank or a termination of System status by one or both institutions. However, the statutory minimum required investment is the same for an association to obtain a loan from its affiliated bank as it is for a retail borrower to obtain a loan from an association or from CoBank, ACB, and the exemption from a minimum redemption or revolvement period in our rule applies only to the statutory minimum required investment.
We are not persuaded by the System's position that System banks have authority to call, preserve, and build capital from their associations that their associations lack. Associations have the same statutory and regulatory authority as banks to call, preserve, and build capital; it is the associations that have granted additional capital-building powers to their affiliated banks through bylaw provisions approved by the associations. We appreciate that associations are probably more willing to approve such bylaws because of their financial interdependence with their bank, and association retail members are probably less willing to commit themselves to purchase additional stock in the association. However, the capital-building provisions in a bank's bylaws do not eliminate the need for capital to have a minimum redemption or revolvement period.
The System Comment Letter states that the minimum holding period creates a “first in first out” redemption principle for the investment and impedes a bank's ability to help a struggling association by redeeming or revolving equities. As to the first point,
The FCA disagrees with the System's assertion that an association's investment in its affiliated bank “is legally and functionally a permanent capital contribution to the bank and is understood as such by associations.” Most System associations do clearly have very long relationships with their affiliated banks, but not all of the equities invested by an association in its affiliated bank are outstanding for lengthy periods. In fact, it appears to us that associations well understand that some of their investments in their affiliated banks are only short-term investments. System banks have discretion under section 4.3A(c)(1)(I) of the Act to redeem and revolve equities anytime, as long as the bank continues to meet the capital adequacy standards established under section 4.3(a) of the Act. By contrast, the CET1 equities issued by commercial banks are more truly permanent, because commercial banks are not permitted to retire such equities without the approval of stockholders owning two thirds of the shares (a statutory requirement) or without the prior approval of their regulator (a requirement of the U.S. rule). Similarly, tier 2 equities issued by commercial banks either are perpetual and require prior approval by their regulator to retire, or are limited-life preferred stock with a minimum term of 5 years (with no prior approval to retire on the maturity date). In our view, third-party investors, relying on an understanding that our capital rules are comparable to Basel III and the U.S. rule, would expect that System institutions' common cooperative equity retirements are subject to substantially the same prior approval requirements as commercial banks' equity retirements.
For many associations, the greater part of their investments in their affiliated banks is long term in practice. These investments include equities the banks allocated more than 10 years ago, and the banks have stated they do not intend to revolve these allocated equities unless their associations make corresponding allocated equity revolvements to their retail borrowers. Some of these allocated equities are quite stable, due in part to the fact that they are not taxable to associations until they are revolved (System banks' earnings derived from association business are not taxed).
However, many associations have investments in their banks that do not have the same stability and “permanence” of the long-held allocated equities. Some of these investments may be the stock purchased by associations to capitalize their direct loans from their banks; other stock is purchased by associations in order to capitalize asset loan participation program pools. Because the capital supporting these loan pools is usually equalized frequently by the bank, banks typically equalize by issuing or redeeming purchased stock because there are no tax consequences when the purchased stock is redeemed. The FCA observes that the practice of tying the investment amount to the loan amount and making frequent equalizations strongly resembles the “compensating balance” method of capitalization that both banks and associations employed in past decades—
We acknowledge that stock equalization at the bank level can be a tool for apportioning the bank's funding and operating costs among its affiliated associations. The FCA supports an equitable apportionment that is based
The System Comment Letter objected to the proposed rule's provision that a System institution may include cooperative equities in CET1 and tier 2 capital if the institution has adopted capitalization bylaws establishing minimum required redemption and revolvement periods. The proposed minimum redemption and revolvement periods, or minimum holding periods, were 10 years for inclusion in CET1 capital and 5 years for inclusion in tier 2 capital. Because section 4.3A(b) of the Act requires System institutions to obtain the approval of their members for changes to the bylaws, institutions would have had to exclude cooperative equities from CET1 and tier 2 capital if they had chosen not to seek member approval of the bylaw amendment or if the members had disapproved it.
The System made the following assertions about the proposed capitalization bylaw requirements:
• They are legally tantamount to a re-issuance of the cooperative equities.
• They are fundamentally unworkable, unnecessarily costly, and legally problematic, and they result in a meaningless vote that puts the System institution and its members in a Catch-22 situation.
• The bylaw changes would undermine the institution's ability to function consistent with cooperative principles as expected by the Act. Institutions with modest amounts of cooperative equities may choose to exclude their cooperative equities from regulatory capital than bear the cost, operational burdens, member confusion, and uncertainty of a member vote. If a significant number of institutions make this choice, there could be resulting harm to the overall regulatory capital position of the System.
• Holders of allocated equities that are not voting members may sue the FCA for depriving them of the right to have the institution's board forgo exercising its discretion to revolve the equities during the minimum holding periods.
• There is no basis for a minimum holding period in Basel III.
• A more cost-effective way to ensure there is a legal distinction among equities included in the various components of regulatory capital is to enhance the FCA's capital planning regulation to require boards to adopt binding resolutions regarding the minimum holding periods.
The proposed bylaw requirement to establish a minimum holding period was intended to provide a way for System institutions to comply with the Basel III and U.S. rule's “expectation” criterion. We discuss the expectation criterion under the “Required Minimum Redemption/Revolvement Periods” above.
The FCA's proposed minimum holding periods were also intended to ensure that System institutions equities are substantially comparable to the more truly permanent equities of a commercial bank that can be redeemed only with the prior approval of stockholders and the bank's regulator. Were we to apply identical requirements, System institutions would not be able to redeem or revolve any purchased or allocated equities without FCA approval and stockholder approval. As discussed under the safe harbor section below, the proposed rule would have permitted institutions to make limited redemptions and revolvements without regulator and stockholder approval. We believe that a minimum holding period lowers expectations of redemption or revolvement, and the bylaw requirement ensures both institution compliance and member buy-in regarding the minimum periods. A bylaw requirement would have explicitly established that a System institution's board had firmly committed, with its members' support, to limit its discretion under section 4.3A of the Act to redeem or revolve equities, in exchange for being able to include the equities in tier 1 and tier 2 capital, and that the institution's members understood and supported this limit on the board's discretion. However, we have considered the System's comments on the bylaw approval process and are persuaded that requiring an institution's board to adopt a redemption and revolvement resolution that it must re-affirm in its capital plan each year would be sufficient to ensure compliance with the rule's minimum holding periods. As described below in the section-by-section discussion, we have revised the capital planning regulation in § 615.5200 to require the institution's board to establish minimum redemption and revolvement periods for specifically identified equities included in tier 1 and tier 2 capital. Any change to the minimum periods will require FCA approval. The board will also be required to re-affirm annually its intention to comply with the capital rule's minimum holding periods. We note that this annual re-affirmation is not an annual opportunity for the board to change its mind about the redemption or revolvement periods of specified equities. In addition, for institutions that prefer a capitalization bylaw to an annual board resolution, we have retained the proposed capitalization bylaw provision as another method of compliance with the minimum holding periods.
The System Comment Letter objected to the proposed 5 percent minimum tier 1 leverage ratio and also on the requirement that at least 1.5 percent of the tier 1 capital must consist of URE and URE equivalents. The System's objections are as follows:
• A 5-percent tier 1 leverage ratio requirement is excessive, is unsupported, is inconsistent with the 4 percent tier 1 leverage ratio of Basel III and the U.S rule, would create an un-level playing field that gives an advantage to commercial banks in the capitalization of loans to farmers, and may raise questions and suspicion that the System is fundamentally riskier compared to other lending institutions.
• Such an inference does irreparable harm to the System and its mission achievement, given the lack of any quantifiable support for the higher minimum. The FCA has not provided “reasonable facts or data analysis” to support a higher minimum leverage requirement that could reduce institution lending capacity by over 20 percent during stressful periods. The FCA's justification is insufficient and unsupported by loss experience, making this proposed requirement arbitrary and capricious.
• The Basel III framework's minimum leverage ratio requirement, a measurement that was not required by Basel I or Basel II, was imposed in response to the “drying up” of liquidity during the financial crisis, which revealed inter-connections and inter-dependences between financial institutions and resulted in pressure on commercial banks to retire lower quality tier 1 capital instruments (hybrid instruments) when they were most needed to absorb losses. Stress-testing and economic modeling by System institutions show the System has enough loss-absorbing capital to withstand a severe adverse economic event while continuing to provide a steady flow of credit to agriculture.
• The interconnectedness of System institutions is an inherent part of the structure of the System and, despite its interconnectedness and its status as a monoline lender, the System remained “essentially unstressed” during the financial crisis.
• The proposed minimum leverage ratio is inappropriate for wholesale System banks and appears to create economic incentives for shifting ownership of loans from associations to System banks. The agency “appears not to have considered the two-tiered capitalization that exists within the System” that results in the System as a whole effectively holding minimum risk-based capital for association retail loans totaling 120 percent of the amount required for commercial banks. The risk-based capital requirements are more than adequate to protect against not only credit risk but also liquidity risk, operational risk, and other risks.
• There is no empirical evidence that the System's risks are more significant than the systemic risks that caused the financial crisis. FCA should support its higher minimum leverage ratio by conducting a study that demonstrates and quantifies that the proposed significant deviation from Basel III is justified by facts. After such a study, if the FCA remains focused on imposing a higher leverage ratio, the agency should consider a 4 percent minimum leverage ratio with an additional 1 percent leverage ratio buffer composed of tier 1 (not CET1) capital and pro-rated across the payout categories. Overall, a capital conservation buffer approach would support the objective of the proposed higher leverage ratio without unduly penalizing those System banks primarily engaged in wholesale lending to associations.
• The proposed 1.5 percent minimum URE requirement “calls into question the cooperative structure of the System” and “declares that URE is higher quality capital than CET1.” This “'super' or 'superior' CET1 subclass is an unmistakable message to the marketplace that the System's CET1 does not match up with CET1 of commercial banks” and reduces comparability and transparency.
• Implementation of the URE requirement results in a minimum 3 percent of URE (1.5 percent by the bank and 1.5 percent by the association) required to be held against each dollar of loans made by associations to member-borrowers. This violates the cooperative principle that members bear the risk and reward of their institution.
• The 1.5 percent minimum URE requirement, similar to a required component of the core surplus ratio in the FCA's existing regulations, should not be in the new capital framework. The FCA's reason for the existing URE requirement in core surplus was that higher URE levels cushioned member stock from impairment, thus minimizing the prospect of members seeking protection of their equities from Congress. Congress has already made it clear that members are at risk and will suffer the losses of the cooperative. Congress's action with respect to Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac emphasizes its resolve to allow significant shareholder losses regardless of personal impact.
The FCA disagrees with many of the System's comments and assertions. We do not believe a 5 percent minimum standard would create an “unlevel” playing field for the System that would give any appreciable advantage to commercial banks or raise suspicions that the System is fundamentally riskier than commercial banks. At the retail association level, there are so many differences between associations and commercial banks with respect to stable sources of funding, lending authorities, lending territories, tax status, and governance that we believe a higher minimum leverage ratio would not tilt the playing field. A higher leverage ratio requirement enhances the System's ability to achieve its mission by ensuring that System institutions have sufficient capital to achieve its mission, during good times as well as during periods of financial stress. More specifically, a higher leverage requirement will ensure that System institutions have sufficient amounts of capital at the height of the credit cycle so that they can continue to lend during a downturn, and thus, fulfill their mission. During a downturn, System borrowers need access to credit to ensure the continuation of their operations, and System institutions must ensure that they can continue to be a reliable source of credit to these borrowers. Moreover, we do not believe that a higher minimum leverage ratio for associations will raise suspicions in the capital markets. To our knowledge, individual association capital is not the focus of the capital markets, as we are aware of only one association that has raised equity capital from outside the System.
At the System bank level, the banks are able to issue Systemwide debt as a single entity because they are jointly and severally liable on the debt. The System's combined assets were approximately $300 billion as of December 31, 2015. By contrast, the vast majority of commercial banks subject to the 4 percent tier 1 leverage ratio requirement are considerably smaller in size than the combined size of the System.
The FCA disagrees that the Basel III framework imposed a minimum leverage ratio requirement in response to the “drying up” of commercial bank liquidity during the financial crisis. The 2008 financial crisis did begin with a severe liquidity crisis, but liquidity concerns were addressed primarily by Basel III's liquidity coverage ratio and the net stable funding ratio. The FCA updated the liquidity regulation in 2013 to incorporate the liquidity coverage principles of Basel III, as appropriate to the System.
We agree with the System's statement that the System remained “essentially unstressed” during the financial crisis despite its status as a monoline lender and the interconnectedness of System institutions. In our view, while the cyclical nature of the agricultural economy can increase agricultural lending risk overall, the agricultural economy happened to be at a very strong point in the cycle during the financial crisis. The System's low level of agriculture loan losses during the financial crisis, together with minimal exposure to troubled residential mortgages due to legal restrictions on the loans and investments System institutions can make, enabled the System to weather the financial crisis relatively unstressed.
Contrary to another System comment, the FCA did carefully consider the two-tiered structure of the System—
The FCA disagrees with the comment that a leverage ratio is inappropriate for wholesale banks. A leverage ratio can be more challenging for a wholesale System bank, since the majority of its assets are risk-weighted at 20 percent, while those of associations are risk weighted at 100 percent. However, as discussed elsewhere in this preamble, the two-tiered capitalization requirement recognizes the separate risks in the System structure and risks that are present to each party. The capital an association holds against loans to its borrowers offsets the general risk from those loan exposures, while the bank must hold capital to offset the general risk from its loan exposure to its affiliated associations. If banks did not hold capital against these exposures, the risk in loans to association borrowers would be present to both the bank and association but only capitalized by the association. In addition, the banks and associations have levels of operational risk, such as legal risk and management risk, that do not correlate with the level of credit risk. The Basel III framework and the U.S. rule do not exempt wholesale banks from their leverage ratio requirements, and we are not convinced that we should do so. As for the System's comment that our leverage requirements appear to create an economic incentive for shifting ownership of retail loans to the System banks, banks and associations are already doing this. If a bank agrees with its associations to buy their retail loans, that is a business decision for the institutions that is probably made for business reasons in addition to regulatory capital compliance.
We also disagree with the assertion that the minimum URE requirement is anti-cooperative. The requirement ensures at least a minimum level of URE and URE equivalents, and an institution may choose to meet this requirement with URE equivalents plus current year retained earnings. URE equivalents are nonqualified allocated equities that are not revolved and generally not subject to offset against a loan in default (without prior FCA approval). In any case, the characterization of URE as anti-cooperative is inapt for most cooperatively organized financial institutions, such as mutual savings associations. Such institutions have regulatory capital that consists entirely of unallocated retained earnings. We note that the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) issued a final rule in 2010 for corporate credit unions (which are also cooperative institutions),
We agree that Congress, in the provisions of the 1987 Act, sent a message that member stock was at risk and that members would be subject to their institutions' losses.
The 1987 Act also sent a strong message to the System not to expect Congress to provide financial assistance in the event of significant losses in the future.
The System also asserted that if FCA is determined to require a minimum URE standard, then it should be based on risk-adjusted assets, which is consistent with FCA's current regulatory requirements. The URE requirement would not undermine the System's ability to manage its capital sources as this requirement is only applicable to the tier 1 leverage ratio. We also believe that the 1.5-percent URE requirement should be based on total assets rather than risk-adjusted assets, as System commenters recommended. We believe this requirement is simple, transparent, easy to understand, and reflects the true underlying risk inherent in each System institution. A URE minimum based on risk-adjusted assets benefits institutions with favorable risk weights, and this may not be sufficient to protect System borrowers against a systemic event. We note that over half of the System's capital consists of URE and URE equivalents, with all System institutions easily meeting the required 1.5 percent.
As to the System's assertion that too much URE undermines the user-control and user-ownership principles, we disagree. Section 1.1(b) of the Act encourages farmer and rancher-borrowers to participate in the management, control, and ownership of a System institution, and the URE requirement does not undermine this section of the Act. All farmer and rancher-borrowers are allowed one vote, regardless of the amount of their investment in their System association. Moreover, the URE requirement can be fully met with nonqualified allocated surplus and stock, which supports the cooperative principle of user-ownership.
The System has asserted that the FCA has not provided reasonable facts, data analysis of loss experience, or empirical evidence to justify a 5-percent minimum leverage ratio. Much of the data the Basel Committee studied in its formulation of the Basel III framework was from the recent financial crisis. For similar data on the System, the FCA would have to go back to the 1980s, when the weakened agricultural economy in combination with the System's interest-rate model at the time resulted in borrower flight, significant losses of System capital, and eventually a Federal bailout. The scarcity and age of most of the relevant data make it of only limited use to us in formulating a leverage ratio, and both the System and financial world have changed radically since the 1980s. Another approach would be to wait until after the next crisis in the System, study the data, and formulate a new leverage ratio based on lessons learned. However, leaving the tier 1 leverage ratio out of our tier 1/tier 2 capital framework would make our capital rule far less comparable to Basel III and the U.S. rule than would a higher minimum leverage ratio.
Because of the scarcity of useful data at this time, the FCA has decided not to do a study to “demonstrate and quantify” that a 5-percent minimum leverage ratio is appropriate. However, the FCA does find considerable merit in the System's suggestion to replace the 5 percent minimum leverage ratio with a 4-percent minimum leverage ratio and a 1 percent leverage buffer, and we have revised the final rule to incorporate this suggestion. A 4-percent minimum tier 1 leverage ratio with a 1-percent tier 1 buffer will give additional flexibility to System institutions to make capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments (albeit on a more restricted basis), will appropriately address the System's concerns about a higher minimum leverage ratio giving an unwarranted negative impression about System operations to the capital markets, and will assure the FCA that System institutions will continue to hold healthy amounts of capital against all institution risks.
The System Comment Letter states the System “respect[s] in principle” the need for restrictions on capital distributions but objects to the proposed safe harbor as follows:
• Limiting capital distributions to the past year's net retained income and not allowing for any reductions in CET1 from the prior year-end makes management of regulatory capital “exceedingly challenging and inflexible” and provides no reasonable room to do so without seeking FCA prior approval.
• The safe harbor is far more restrictive than foreign cooperative bank regulators' safe harbor, allowing a reduction in CET1 of up to 2 percent without prior approval, and U.S. law that allows capital distributions equal to current year's earnings plus the retained net income for the prior 2 years.
• The 30-day approval process is burdensome and unworkable and should be streamlined for institutions with high FIRS ratings, with FCA granting approvals in as short a time as one day.
In practice, System institutions rarely pay dividends on preferred stock, make cash patronage payments, redeem or revolve equities that exceed their prior 12 months' net earnings. Associations generally pay out less than 50 percent of earnings, and only 5 System associations had payout ratios that were over 60 percent of their earnings in 2014. The 30-day approval is in effect a notification to the FCA of the intended payment, and an institution may make the payment after 30 days if the FCA has not disapproved it or not acted on the request. We expect boards to give significant thought to capital distribution decisions and how they impact overall capitalization of their institution, especially regarding a cash payment that exceeds net income over the past 12 months. The cash payments are generally made at very predictable intervals during the year (unlike, for example, funding requests), and we have not identified any situations where institutions are likely to need to make unplanned, significant capital distributions. Therefore, the FCA does not believe the safe harbor rule will be exceedingly challenging and unworkable for System institutions.
Our rule's safe harbor is different from the “advance permission” allowed by the European Bank Authority (EBA) as it is described in the System Comment Letter. The EBA has issued regulatory technical standards (RTSs) and guidelines that are binding on its member states, but it is up to the member states to promulgate regulations for their own countries. The RTS cited in the System Comment Letter regarding redemptions, reductions, and repurchases by European cooperative
We are aware that our safe harbor is more restrictive than the safe harbor amounts for commercial banks, in terms of cash payments for dividends, but we believe there are important reasons for the difference. First, U.S. national banks under 12 U.S.C. 60 have authority to pay cash dividends without prior regulatory approval in an amount up to current year's net income and the retained net income of the 2 previous years, and their regulator is not authorized to reduce that limit. With respect to cooperative System institutions, a lower limit is more prudent. We note also that our safe harbor is more permissive in several ways. It includes equity redemptions and revolvements, whereas Basel III and the U.S. rule require commercial banks to obtain prior regulatory approval before making stock redemptions. In addition, 12 U.S.C. 59 requires national banks to obtain the approval of shareholders owning two thirds of the shares of each affected class as well as OCC approval.
The System Comment Letter requested that institutions be able to redeem and revolve equities owned by the estate of a deceased former borrower and equities related to a defaulted or restructured loan without restriction. As discussed below in the section-by-section discussion, we have decided to exempt some of these redemptions and revolvements, as well as redemptions and revolvements ordered by a court, from the minimum holding period requirements in the safe harbor. This means that such cash redemptions and revolvements remain subject to the safe harbor on the amount of cash payments the institution can make.
By FCA Bookletter BL-053, dated February 27, 2007, the FCA permitted System institutions to assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply to certain electrical cooperative assets, based on the unique characteristics and lower risk profile of this industry segment.
We did not propose this favorable risk weighting for these exposures in this rule, but we sought comment as to whether we should retain this risk weighting. We received comments from approximately 65 electric cooperatives, in the System Comment Letter, and from several individual System institutions, all requesting that we retain a favorable risk weighting for these exposures.
The electric cooperatives specifically urged us to retain the 50-percent risk weighting, stating that the rationale in BL-053 regarding the unique characteristics and lower risk profile of the industry segment remains valid today. These commenters also asserted that raising the risk weighting would drive up their borrowing costs and would ultimately hurt rural electric rate payers.
The System Comment Letter and the individual System institutions urged us to retain both the 50-percent and the 20-percent risk weighting. They stated that the bookletter's rationale for these risk weights remains true today. In addition, they stated that the key institutions that provide financing to this segment, other than CoBank, ACB, and the U.S. Government, are not regulated, and they asserted that it is critical that FCA's capital rules not affect the System's ability to compete and collaborate with other lenders in meeting the financing needs of rural electric cooperatives.
These commenters also stated, without support, that a higher risk weight for these exposures would impede the ability of CoBank, ACB to competitively meet its mission to serve this industry and would therefore also harm rural residents and businesses. In addition, several institutions stated that their ability to purchase participations from CoBank, ACB allows them to diversify their own portfolios and therefore reduces their own credit risk.
We do not include this lower risk weight for exposures to electric cooperative assets in this final rule. However, FCA Bookletter BL-053 remains in effect. We continue to evaluate the comments we have received and anticipate that we will issue further guidance on the capital treatment of these exposures in the future. As under existing FCA Bookletter BL-053, this treatment would be authorized under our reservation of authority.
Because of the increased risk in these activities when compared to other System lending, we proposed to assign a 150-percent risk weight to HVCRE exposures, unless those exposures satisfied one or more of four specified exemptions. As in the U.S. rule, our proposed rule would have defined an HVCRE exposure as a credit facility that, prior to conversion to permanent financing, finances or has financed the acquisition, development, or construction of real property. Also as in the U.S. rule, four types of financing would have been exempted from this definition.
The System Comment Letter and several individual System banks and associations expressed concern about some of the proposed HVCRE provisions and requested clarification of a number of issues. These commenters raised important questions that we wish to consider and analyze further. Accordingly, we are not finalizing the provisions governing HVCRE exposures at this time. We expect that we will engage in additional rulemaking or issue guidance on HVCRE exposures in the future.
As we consider these issues, we will be guided by the objectives of this rule, which include, as stated above:
• Modernizing capital requirements while ensuring that institutions continue to hold enough regulatory capital to fulfill their mission as a GSE; and
• Ensuring that the System's capital requirements are comparable to the Basel III framework and the standardized approach the Federal banking regulatory agencies have adopted, while also ensuring that the rules take into account the cooperative structure and the organization of the System.
We note that new § 628.1(d)(3), like existing § 615.5210(f), reserves the FCA's authority to require a System institution to assign a different risk weight to an exposure than the regulation otherwise provides if that risk weight is not commensurate with the risk associated with the exposure. Accordingly, under both the existing rule and the new rule, FCA has the authority, where warranted, to assign a higher risk weight to an exposure that satisfies the characteristics of HVCRE exposures, even without a specific regulatory HVCRE risk weight.
For example, FCA has recently approved requests by System institutions to purchase and hold investments pursuant to § 615.5140(e).
We proposed to impose risk weight and credit conversion factor (CCF) requirements on the unused commitments from System banks to associations to fund their direct loans.
We received comments opposing this proposal in the System Comment Letter and from several individual System institutions, including both banks and associations. Their comments, and our responses, are set forth below.
The commenters stated that requiring banks to hold capital against these commitments results in the double counting of commitment exposures, because associations hold capital against their loans and commitments to retail borrowers, and the associations' funds come from their loans from the bank.
As we explained in the preamble to our proposed rule, although this treatment may be viewed as the double counting of exposures, it is consistent with the way we treat loan exposures; we require a System bank to hold capital against the outstanding balance of its loan to an association, and we also require an association to hold capital against its loans to borrowers (even though the association's loaned funds come from its loan with the System bank).
As with loan exposures, there are separate risks involved in System bank commitment exposures to associations and association commitment exposures to retail borrowers, and this treatment recognizes those separate risks. The capital an association holds against a commitment to its borrower offsets the general risk from that loan commitment, while the System bank must hold capital to offset the general risk from its loan commitment to its affiliated association. Even if the association is adequately capitalized with respect to its commitments, some risk to the System bank remains.
The commenters also contended that this capital treatment undermines well-established capital adequacy management disciplines used within the System because it confuses the concepts of capital for growth purposes and capital needed to fund existing commitments; System banks already build additional capital in anticipation of loan growth, including commitments.
While System banks may currently capitalize their commitments to associations as part of the capital they hold for loan growth purposes, capitalization of these commitments has not been pursuant to FCA regulations. This new regulation requires System banks to hold capital specifically for the purpose of capitalizing their commitments to associations. Beyond that amount, banks should hold sufficient additional capital for loan growth purposes. If, as the commenters assert, banks already capitalize their commitments to associations, then they should not need to hold additional capital under the new rule.
The commenters also stated that commitments from System banks to associations are different from and lower risk than other commitments, such as commitments from System associations to retail borrowers, because of System interdependencies and features of the GFA.
One difference, according to the commenters, is that in contrast to a typical lending relationship, such as that between an association and a retail borrower, in which the note establishes the definitive amount of the obligation, the GFA in a bank-association direct loan is open ended, providing for continued funding with no limit on the amount, as long as all terms and conditions of the GFA are met. Accordingly, there is no specific amount of unused commitment from the bank to the association in the traditional sense. This arrangement evolved from the symbiotic nature of the federated cooperative relationship between banks and associations, and it allows for growth of the associations without the necessity for administrative burdens such as numerous amendments to promissory notes and loan documents.
In response to this comment, we note that § 614.4125(d) requires the GFA or promissory note to establish a maximum credit limit determined by objective standards as established by the System bank. Prior to this rulemaking, FCA had never opined on whether this provision requires a specific dollar amount for the maximum credit limit in the GFA or promissory note. By proposing to determine the exposure amount of the commitment by reference to the maximum credit limit, however, FCA made clear that the regulation requires
We do not believe that this requirement would lead to numerous amendments to the GFA or promissory note. System banks and associations should establish a reasonable, specific dollar amount by considering the association's existing retail loans, commitments, other credit needs, and expected growth over the term of the commitment. If institutions engage in sound planning, this amount should rarely need to be changed within that term. We note that some System banks already have established a specific dollar amount for their maximum credit limits and have not identified any difficulties in doing so.
Another difference, according to the commenters, is that the GFA protects the System bank in a way that associations are not protected with respect to their retail borrowers. The GFA is typically secured by all of an association's assets, with discounts that cause the bank's collateral position to exceed the borrowing base.
In addition, according to the commenters, the GFA contains a number of covenants that provide safeguards that make it unnecessary for the bank to hold capital to support its commitments to fund direct loans. These covenants include a liquidity covenant that effectively limits the association's ability to borrow in excess of a percentage below the actual borrowing base without the bank's approval, which serves as an equity buffer to absorb losses in the event of credit adversity.
These covenants also include a requirement to maintain a minimum return on assets ratio of one percent and the requirement to submit a corrective action plan if an association's adverse assets to risk funds ratio exceeds 50 percent and to maintain a ratio of adversely classified assets to risk funds of less than 75 percent. In the event of default of either of these ratios, the bank has the right to take a wide variety of actions that could control its risk. The GFA also provides controls for early identification of potential events of default for associations with credit issues.
We are not persuaded that the GFA covenants and other provisions eliminate the need for System banks to hold capital against their commitments to fund direct loans. While these provisions do provide some protection to System banks, loan documents governing other commitments, such as the retail commitments of associations, often contain provisions that provide similar protections.
Moreover, we believe the relationship between System banks and affiliated associations carries risk that isn't present in most other lending relationships, such as that between associations and their retail borrowers. Although the GFA permits a bank to terminate an association's loan or to refuse to make additional disbursements in the event of default, an association can borrow only from its affiliated bank.
Nevertheless, because of the nature of the relationship between a System bank and its associations, we believe the risk in the commitment to fund the direct loan does not increase with the term of the commitment, as it does with other commitments. Accordingly, the final rule assigns a 20-percent CCF to all unused commitments to fund direct loans, regardless of the terms of the commitments.
The FCA proposed to adopt the following minimum capital ratios: (1) A common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio of 4.5 percent; (2) a tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent; (3) a total capital ratio of 8 percent; and (4) a tier 1 capital leverage ratio of 5 percent, of which at least 1.5 percent must be composed of URE and URE equivalents. Tier 1 capital equals the sum of CET1 and AT1 capital. Total capital consists of CET1, AT1, and tier 2 capital. We proposed to rescind the existing core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral regulations and proposed amendments to the permanent capital requirements. We did not propose to rescind the permanent capital regulations because the permanent capital ratio is required by the Farm Credit Act.
In addition, we proposed a capital conservation buffer in excess of the new risk-based capital requirements that imposed limitations on capital distributions and certain discretionary bonuses, as described in section II.C below. The capital conservation buffer is not considered to be a minimum capital ratio requirement.
In the final rule, we are adopting the new risk-based minimum ratios and the capital conservation buffer as proposed. However, we revised the minimum tier 1 leverage ratio requirement to 4 percent and added a 1-percent leverage buffer requirement as described in section II.B below.
Consistent with the FCA's authority under the Farm Credit Act and current capital regulations, § 628.10(d) of the final rule confirms FCA's authority to require an institution to hold a different amount of regulatory capital from what is otherwise required under the final rule, if we determine that the institution's regulatory capital is not commensurate with its credit, operational, or other risks. Therefore, the FCA will continue to hold each System institution accountable to maintain sufficient capital commensurate with the level and nature of the risks to which it is exposed. This may require capital significantly above the minimum requirements, depending on the institution's activities and risk profile. Section D below describes the requirement for overall capital adequacy of System institutions and the supervisory assessment of an institution's capital adequacy.
Consistent with Basel III and the U.S. rule, we proposed a tier 1 leverage ratio for all System institutions. We proposed a minimum leverage ratio of 5 percent, of which at least 1.5 percent of non-risk weighted total assets must be URE and
In response to the comments, we are adopting a 4-percent minimum leverage ratio, of which at least 1.5 percent must be URE and URE equivalents, and we are adding a leverage buffer of 1 percent in the final rule. We believe this revised requirement in the final rule addresses commenters' concerns, is not unduly restrictive, and will ensure that System institutions hold sufficient capital to continue to fulfill their mission as a GSE. In addition, we have revised the definition of URE equivalents to require institutions to designate equities as URE equivalents in their bylaws or board resolutions, and we have added corresponding language to paragraph (d) of the capital planning requirements in § 615.5200. We have also provided an exception to the offset prohibition for offsets required by court order and under § 615.5290.
The tier 1 leverage ratio buffer incorporates the same restrictions as the capital conservation buffer but is based on a 1-percent buffer as opposed to a 2.5-percent buffer. To avoid restrictions on cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, and allocated equity redemptions (collectively, capital distributions) or discretionary executive bonuses, an institution's tier 1 leverage ratio must be at least 1 percent above the minimum requirement of 4 percent. The tier 1 leverage ratio buffer consists of tier 1 capital. If the institution's tier 1 leverage ratio is below the minimum requirement of 4 percent, the institution's leverage buffer is zero. There will be no phase-in for the leverage buffer as our analysis based on September 30, 2015 call reports shows that all System institutions will be above the 1 percent leverage buffer.
The maximum leverage payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a System institution would be allowed to pay out in capital distributions and discretionary bonuses during the current calendar quarter and is determined by the amount of the tier 1 leverage ratio buffer held by the institution during the previous calendar quarter. The eligible retained income computation is the same as for the capital conservation buffer.
A System institution's maximum leverage payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to its eligible retained income multiplied by the applicable maximum leverage payout ratio in accordance with table 2 in § 628.11. An institution with a leverage buffer that is greater than 1 percent is not subject to a maximum leverage payout amount under this provision (although capital distributions without FCA prior approval may be restricted by other provisions in this proposed rule). If the applicable leverage buffer falls under 1 percent, the institution would remain subject to payout restrictions until it raises its leverage buffer above 1 percent. In addition, a System institution would not generally be able to make capital distributions or pay discretionary bonuses during the current calendar quarter if its eligible retained income is negative and its capital conservation buffer is less than 2.5 percent, or its leverage buffer is less than 1 percent, as of the end of the previous quarter. In the event that a System institution's capital requirements fall below the 1-percent leverage buffer as well as the 2.5-percent capital conservation buffer, when calculating the applicable payout amount, the institution must use the lower between the maximum payout ratio and the maximum leverage payout ratio. For example, under the capital conservation buffer, if an institution's total capital regulatory ratio is 10.25 percent (fully phased-in), based on table 1 in § 628.11, the maximum payout ratio would be 60 percent. Under the leverage buffer, the same institution's tier 1 leverage ratio is 4.6 percent and based on table 2 in § 628.11, the maximum leverage payout ratio would be 40 percent. As the leverage buffer is the lower maximum payout between the two, in this example, the payout ratio the System institution must use is 40 percent.
The leverage buffer is divided into quartiles, with greater restrictions on capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments as the leverage buffer falls closer to 0. Payouts are restricted to 60 percent of eligible retained income if the buffer is above 0.75 percent but at or below 1 percent. When the buffer is above 0.50 percent but less than or equal to 0.75 percent, the payout would be restricted to 40 percent of eligible retained income. When the buffer is above 0.25 percent but less than or equal to 0.50 percent, the payout would be restricted to 20 percent of eligible retained income. A leverage buffer of 0.25 percent or below would result in a 0 percent payout.
For the reasons discussed above, the proposed requirement of the tier 1 leverage ratio consisting of at least 1.5 percent of URE and URE equivalents is not modified in the final rule.
Consistent with Basel III and the U.S. rule, we proposed a capital conservation buffer to enhance the resilience of System institutions throughout financial cycles. To avoid restrictions on cash payments for capital distributions or discretionary executive bonuses, an institution's risk weighted regulatory capital ratios must be at least 2.5 percent above the minimums when the buffer is fully phased in. The proposed buffer provided an incentive for institutions to hold capital well above the minimum required levels to ensure that they would meet the regulatory minimums even during stressful conditions.
The FCA is adopting the capital conservation buffer requirements in § 628.11 with minor modifications from the proposed rule, as described below.
The capital conservation buffer consists of tier 1 capital and is the lowest of the following risk weighted measures:
• The institution's CET1 ratio minus its minimum CET1 ratio;
• The institution's tier 1 ratio minus its minimum tier 1 ratio; and
• The institution's total capital ratio minus its minimum total capital ratio.
If any of the institution's risk weighted ratios are at or below the minimum required ratios, the institution's capital conservation buffer is zero.
The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a System institution is allowed to pay out in capital distributions and discretionary bonuses during the current calendar quarter and is determined by the amount of the capital conservation buffer held by the institution during the previous calendar quarter. Eligible retained income is defined as the institution's net income as reported in its quarterly call reports to the FCA for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any capital distributions, certain discretionary bonus payments, and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income.
The System Comment Letter expressed concerns over the proposed definition of eligible retained income. The System stated that the proposed definition results in an excess deduction based on prior year distributions from current eligible retained income because the patronage distribution practices of cooperatives create a far more restrictive requirement than applicable to commercial banks. The System included an example that, to determine the eligible retained income in the first quarter of 2015, this would be based on 2014 net income, less the patronage distribution of 2013 that was paid in the first quarter of 2014. The System asserted that this is inappropriate and that deductions for patronage distributions should be aligned with when the earnings were generated.
The final rule adopts the proposed definition of eligible retained income without change. We believe that this definition of eligible retained income is appropriate and is essentially the same as the definition in the U.S. rule. We believe eligible retained income must reflect a System institution's most recent 12-month period at each quarter end, so that restrictions on capital distributions and discretionary payments to executive officers are based on the institution's most recent performance results. If a System institution declares a dividend payment or patronage payment in a specified year, the institution can recognize and accrue the dividend payment or patronage payment in the same year it was earned; that way it is reflected in that specified year's income. This could result in a change of practice for many institutions that do not recognize and accrue the patronage income in the year it was earned, but rather the following year when it is distributed. If an institution chooses not to change its patronage payment accounting practices, this treatment remains appropriate because at the declaration date, the dividend payment and patronage payment is deducted from the current year's earnings, even if it was based on the previous year's earnings. Furthermore, if the System institution wants to declare a dividend payment or patronage payment in the same quarter of every year, it will not be subject to a double deduction under the regulation.
We believe for this calculation that the declaration date determines what year the dividend payment and patronage payment are attributed. As the calculation is a rolling 12-month calculation for eligible retained income calculated each quarter, we believe institutions may decide to declare the dividend payment or patronage dividend payments the same quarter, in order to make this calculation comparable from year to year and quarter to quarter. To do otherwise would hinder both the FCA's and the System's ability to conduct quarter to quarter comparisons.
A System institution's maximum payout amount under the capital conservation buffer for the current calendar quarter is equal to its eligible retained income multiplied by the applicable maximum payout ratio in accordance with table 1 in § 628.11. An institution with a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent is not subject to a maximum payout amount under this provision (although capital distributions without FCA prior approval may be restricted by other provisions in this rule). If an institution's CET1, tier 1, or total capital ratio is 2.5 percent or less above the minimum ratio, the maximum payout ratio also declines. The institution remains subject to payout restrictions until it raises its capital conservation buffer above 2.5 percent. In addition, a System institution will not generally be able to make capital distributions or pay discretionary bonuses during the current calendar quarter if its eligible retained income is negative and its capital conservation buffer is less than 2.5 percent as of the end of the previous quarter.
The capital conservation buffer is divided into quartiles, with greater restrictions on capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments as the capital conservation buffer falls closer to 0 percent. When the buffer is fully phased in, payouts are restricted to 60 percent of eligible retained income if the buffer is above 1.875 percent but at or below 2.5 percent. When the buffer is above 1.25 percent but less than or equal to 1.875 percent, the payout is restricted to 40 percent of eligible retained income. When the buffer is above 0.625 percent but equal to or below 1.25 percent, the payout is restricted to 20 percent of eligible retained income. A capital conservation buffer of 0.625 percent or below results in a 0 percent payout.
We have made several changes to the definition of “capital distribution” to ensure the intent of the buffers—to conserve capital—is fulfilled, and to ensure comparability with the U.S. rule. In paragraphs (A) and (B) of § 628.11(a)(2)(vii), we have specified that the replacement capital instrument must be purchased capital. In paragraph (D) of § 628.11(a)(2)(vii), we have replaced the reference to “any tier 2 capital instrument” with a reference to “any capital instrument other than a tier 1 capital instrument” to ensure inclusion of any dividend declarations or interest payments on capital instruments that are not included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital. The final rule defines a capital distribution as:
• A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase or redemption of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, unless the redeemed capital is replaced in the same quarter by purchased tier 1 qualifying capital;
• A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, unless the redeemed capital is replaced in the same quarter by purchased qualifying tier 1 or tier 2 capital;
• A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
• A dividend declaration or interest payment on any capital instrument other than a tier 1 capital instrument if the institution has full discretion to suspend such payments permanently or temporarily without triggering an event of default;
• A cash patronage payment declaration or payment;
• A patronage payment declaration in the form of allocated equities that do not qualify as tier 1 or tier 2 capital;
• Any similar transaction that the FCA determines to be in substance a capital distribution.
The rule defines a discretionary bonus payment as a payment made to a senior officer of a System institution, where:
• The System institution retains discretion whether to pay the bonus and how much to pay until it awards the payment to the senior officer;
• The System institution determines the amount of the bonus without prior promise to, or agreement with, the senior officer; and
• The senior officer has no express or implied contractual right to the bonus payment.
The term “senior officer” is already defined in § 619.9310 as the Chief Executive Officer, the Chief Operations Officer, the Chief Financial Officer, and the General Counsel, or persons in similar positions, and any other person responsible for a major policy-making function.
The purpose of limiting restrictions on discretionary bonus payments to senior officers is to focus these measures on the individuals within an institution who could expose the institution to the greatest risk. We note that the institution may otherwise be subject to limitations on capital distributions under other provisions in this rule. In addition, we retain authority to approve a capital distribution or bonus payment if we determine that the payment would not be contrary to the purposes of the capital conservation buffer or the safety and soundness of the institution.
Section 628.10(d)(1) of the proposed rule required each System institution to maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which it was exposed and to have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile, as well as a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital. We did not receive any comments on this proposal and adopt it as final without modifications.
System institutions should have internal processes to assess capital adequacy that reflect a full understanding of risks and to ensure sufficient capital is held. Our supervisory assessment of capital adequacy must take account of the internal processes for capital adequacy, as well as risks and other factors that can affect an institution's financial condition, including the level and severity of problem assets and total surplus exposure to operational and interest rate risk. For this reason, a supervisory assessment of capital adequacy may differ significantly from conclusions that might be drawn solely from the level of the institution's risk-based capital ratios.
The FCA expects System institutions generally to operate with capital levels well above the minimum risk-based ratios and to hold capital commensurate with the level and nature of the exposed risk. For example, System institutions that are growing or that anticipate growth in the near future should maintain strong capital levels substantially above the minimums and should not allow significant weakening of financial strength below such levels to fund their growth. System institutions with high levels of risk are also expected to operate with capital well above the minimum levels. The supervisory assessment also evaluates the quality and trends in an institution's capital composition, including the share of common cooperative equities and URE and equivalents.
The supervisory assessment may include such factors as whether the institution has merged recently, entered new activities, or introduced new products. It also considers whether an institution (1) is receiving special supervisory attention from FCA, (2) has or is expected to have losses resulting in capital inadequacy, (3) has significant exposure due to risks from concentrations in credit or nontraditional activities, (4) has significant exposure to interest rate risk or operational risk, or (5) could be adversely affected by the activities or condition of an affiliated System institution.
The supervisory assessment also evaluates the comprehensiveness and effectiveness of a System institution's capital as required by § 615.5200 of existing FCA regulations.
Section 628.20(b) of the proposed rule defined a System institution's CET1 as the sum of URE and common cooperative equities, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions described in § 628.22. As discussed in Section I.E.1 of this preamble, we have adapted the criteria for the common cooperative equities in accordance with footnote 12 of Basel III, which states that the criteria for non-joint stock companies, including mutuals and cooperatives, should take into account their legal structure and constitution.
Basel III established 14 criteria a banking organization must meet to include an instrument in CET1 capital; the U.S. rule has 13 criteria. These criteria ensure that the instrument will be available to absorb losses at the banking organization on a going-concern basis. Several of the criteria provide that the instrument represents the most subordinated claim in liquidation, is entitled to a claim on residual assets proportional to its share of issued capital, and must take the first and proportionately greatest share of any losses as they occur.
Unlike joint-stock banks, System institutions have priorities of impairment among the various classes of member stock and allocated equities, and typically, all current and former members are entitled to the residual assets, based on historic patronage payments, in a liquidation of the institution. However, all common cooperative equities are impaired and depleted before all other instruments. Therefore, we proposed to replace some of the Basel III and U.S. rule criteria with criteria providing that the instrument must represent a claim subordinated to all other equities of an institution in liquidation, and the holder would receive payment only after all general creditors and debt holders are paid. We did not receive comments on the liquidation-related criteria and adopt them in the final rule as proposed.
Another CET1 criterion of Basel III and the U.S. rule—a criterion that also applies to additional tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital—is that the banking organization must do nothing to create an expectation at issuance that the instrument will be redeemed, nor do the statutory or contractual terms provide any feature that might give rise to such an expectation. In the System, institutions issue or allocate some cooperative equities that are never retired and that do not give rise to redemption or revolvement expectations by member-borrowers. Other cooperative equities, by contrast, are redeemed frequently and routinely. Through this practice, System institutions can create expectations on the part of their members that these purchased and allocated equities will be redeemed.
In the preamble to the proposed rule, we described our concern that the “expectation” requirement of Basel III and the U.S. rule could reasonably be interpreted to disallow cooperative equities redeemed or revolved by System institutions. We therefore proposed to permit System institutions to include cooperative equities in CET1 and tier 2 capital if they adopted bylaws committing the institution not to redeem or revolve for 10 years in the case of CET1 equities and for 5 years in the case of tier 2 equities. We also required the bylaw to state that the institution would not offset an instrument against a member-borrower's
We received extensive comments from System institutions on the 10-year minimum redemption and revolvement period for CET1 capital and the proposed bylaw requirement that we discuss in Part I.E.4 above. Commenters also asked us to provide exceptions permitting, without FCA prior approval, offsets of equities against loans in default or restructured loans and redemptions and revolvements of equities owned by the estates of former borrowers. As we described above, in the final rule we have given institution boards the option to adopt an annual resolution affirming the institution's commitment to the minimum redemption and revolvement periods as an alternative to adopting a capitalization bylaw. We have also adopted a minimum 7-year period for CET1 capital and retained the minimum 5-year period for tier capital. The final rule permits equity retirements mandated by final order of a court of competent jurisdiction and offsets mandated by § 615.5290, as well as redemptions and revolvements of the equities owned by the estate of a former borrower before the end of the minimum redemption and revolvement period. Such redemptions and revolvements may be made under the safe harbor provision in § 628.20(f) if they fit within the dollar limit.
The final rule adds new paragraph (d) to the capital planning requirements in § 615.5200, describing the requirements of the capital bylaw or board resolution an institution must adopt in order to include otherwise eligible purchased and allocated equities in CET1 and tier 2 capital. The institution must undertake or commit to obtain prior approval from the FCA under § 628.20(f) before redeeming or revolving CET1 equities less than 7 years after issuance (in the case of purchased equities) or allocation (the date of declaration in the case of allocated equities). For additional tier 1 equities, the institution must commit itself to obtain prior FCA approval before redeeming or calling equities. For tier 2 equities, the institution must make the same commitment not to redeem or revolve the equities less than 5 years after issuance or allocation without FCA approval. In addition, the institution must commit to obtaining approval from the FCA to change the regulatory capital treatment of the equities included in the new capital ratios, as follows:
(i) Redesignating URE equivalents as equities that the institution may exercise its discretion to redeem other than upon dissolution or liquidation;
(ii) Removing equities or other instruments from CET1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital other than through repurchase, redemption or revolvement; and
(iii) Redesignating equities included in one component of regulatory capital (CET1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital) as included in another component of regulatory capital.
The restrictions on removing or redesignating equities would, ensure that equities included in CET1 could not be redesignated by an institution as tier 2 equities so that the institution could redeem or revolve them after only 5 years. Similarly, equities cannot be removed from tier 1 and tier 2 capital without FCA prior approval and then redeemed or revolved in less than 5 years. We note that, to obtain the FCA approvals described here, the institutions must submit a request under paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) of § 628.20 and cannot rely on the deemed prior approval or “safe harbor” described in paragraph (f)(5).
The System Comment Letter objected to the rule's requirement that System institutions keep records of when they issue or allocate common cooperative equities included in CET1 and tier 2 (the comment refers to this as “date-stamping”). The System stated that date-stamping requires significant unnecessary administrative burden and is not logical because it does not “recognize the portfolio nature of cooperative equities.” The System asserted that, for long-time borrowers, it does not matter whether one share of their equity is held for 2 years and another share is held for 10 years because the borrower has committed to maintain a stable and predictable level of investment related to its business with the institution. The System suggested that institutions be permitted to comply with the minimum redemption and revolvement requirements by using a “loan-based approach” instead of a date-stamped approach.
The comment that cooperative equities have a portfolio nature is not clear to us. As for date-stamping, we disagree that it is a significant burden to keep these records. It is our understanding that the relevant software programs are available and inexpensive. Moreover, System associations have been required since 1997 to maintain records of when they issue or allocate common cooperative equities in order to include such equities in their core surplus ratios. System banks have not been required to maintain such records because they cannot include in core surplus the equities they issue or allocate to other System institutions. Currently, the System banks have various “loan-based” programs that require their borrowers to hold investments in their bank equal to a percentage of the outstanding loan amount. A bank may be able to include such equities in its CET1 and tier 2 capital ratios if its loan-based program operates so as to ensure that the equities meet the rule's applicable minimum revolvement periods and other criteria. The FCA will consider approving such requests from System institutions under § 628.1(d)(2)(ii).
As for the request to grandfather existing allocated equities for which the institution has no record of the date of allocation or issuance, we believe that most, if not all, institutions' records do contain the necessary data on when a borrower purchased or received equities. Any institution with insufficient records may submit to the FCA a request to include the equities in question along with an explanation of why the records are insufficient. We will consider whether to permit the institution to include such equities, or a portion of such equities, on a temporary basis.
The final rule requires that the common cooperative equities included in CET1 satisfy all the following criteria:
(1) The instrument is issued directly by the System institution and represents a claim subordinated to all preferred stock, all subordinated debt, and all liabilities in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
(2) If the holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the System institution, the claim will be paid only after all general creditors, subordinated debt holders, and preferred stock claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(3) The instrument has no maturity date, can be redeemed only at the
(4) The System institution did not create, through any action or communication, an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, revolve, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation, except that the establishment of a minimum revolvement period of 7 years or more, or the practice of revolving or redeeming the instrument no less than 7 years after issuance or allocation, will not be considered to create such an expectation;
(5) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income or unallocated retained earnings, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument;
(6) The System institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the System institution;
(7) Dividend payments and other distributions related to the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the System institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
(8) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur before any losses are borne by holders of preferred stock claims on the System institution and holders of any other claims with priority over common cooperative equity instruments in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(9) The instrument is classified as equity under GAAP;
(10) The System institution, or an entity that the System institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument, except that where there is an obligation for a member of the institution to hold an instrument in order to receive a loan or service from the System institution, an amount of that loan equal to the minimum borrower stock requirement under section 4.3A of the Farm Credit Act will not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:
(a) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan; and
(b) The purchase or acquisition of one or more member equities of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution;
(11) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(12) The instrument is issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations and with the institution's capitalization bylaws;
(13) The instrument is reported on the System institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments; and
(14) The System institution's capitalization bylaws or a resolution adopted by its board of directors and re-affirmed on an annual basis provides that it will not redeem or revolve the instrument for a period of at least 7 years after issuance or allocation (other than under § 615.5290), and that it will not reduce the original redemption or revolvement period to less than 7 years without the prior approval of the FCA, except that the minimum statutory borrower stock described under paragraph (b)(1)(x) of § 628.20 may be redeemed without a minimum period outstanding after issuance and without the prior approval of the FCA.
The criteria for AT1 are comparable to Basel III and the Federal regulatory banking agencies' rules. AT1 includes primarily noncumulative perpetual preferred stock issued by System institutions and is subject to certain adjustments and deductions. Qualifying instruments are primarily stock issued by System banks to third-party investors, though all System institutions have authority to issue such stock. AT1 does not include common cooperative equities.
The System Comment Letter and an individual affiliated with a commercial bank commented that a clause in the proposed criterion relating to distributions (paragraph (8) below and § 628.20(c)(1)(viii) in the final rule) was not part of the criterion in Basel III or the final U.S. rule. The clause in question is, “and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument.” In the proposed rule, we mistakenly included the clause in this criterion. We have deleted it in the final rule.
The criteria for inclusion in AT1 capital are:
(1) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
(2) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors and subordinated debt holders of the System institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(3) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(4) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
(5) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in AT1 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
(a) The System institution must receive prior approval from FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
(b) The System institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
(c) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either: Replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria for a CET1 or AT1 capital instrument;
(6) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from FCA;
(7) The System institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other capital distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the System institution except in relation to any capital distributions to holders of common cooperative equity instruments or other instruments that are
(8) Any capital distributions on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income, unallocated retained earnings, or surplus related to other AT1 capital instruments;
(9) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a
(10) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
(11) The System institution did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
(12) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the System institution, such as provisions that require the System institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified timeframe; and
(13) The System institution's capitalization bylaws or a resolution adopted on an annual basis by its board of directors provides that it will not call or redeem the instrument without the prior approval of the FCA.
Notwithstanding the criteria for AT1 capital instruments referenced above, an instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the minimum 5-year issuance requirement provided that the instrument was issued and included in a System institution's core surplus capital prior to the effective date of the final rule, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under § 628.20(c).
The FCA proposed to include in tier 2 capital the sum of tier 2 capital instruments that satisfy the applicable criteria, plus ALL up to 1.25 percent of risk weighted assets, less any applicable adjustments and deductions. The criteria are similar to those in Basel III and the U.S. rule, except that common cooperative equities that are not includable in CET1 may be included in tier 2 if they meet the applicable criteria.
The System Comment Letter suggested that we eliminate the minimum 5-year period for redemptions of perpetual stock and allocated equities. As discussed above in Section I.E.3 above, we have decided to retain the minimum 5-year period as it is comparable to the tier 2 required minimum term for term stock and the 5-year no-call period for other equities.
We have revised the bylaw requirement to permit compliance by an annual board resolution, and we have added the 2 exceptions to redemption or revolvement before the 5-year minimum period, which are the redemption or revolvement of equities owned by the estate of a former borrower and equities mandated to be retired by a court of competent jurisdiction.
The criteria for instruments (plus related surplus) included in tier 2 capital are:
(1) The instrument is issued and paid-in, is a common cooperative equity, or is member equity purchased in accordance with § 628.20(d)(1)(viii) of the proposed rule;
(2) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors of the System institution;
(3) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
(4) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least 5 years. At the beginning of each of the last 5 years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than 1 year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the System institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity;
(5) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
(a) The System institution must receive the prior approval of FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
(b) The System institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
(c) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either: Replace any amount called with an instrument that is of equal or higher quality regulatory capital under this section;
(6) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal, dividends, or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
(7) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(8) The System institution has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument, except that where common cooperative equity instruments are held by a member of the institution in connection with a loan, and the institution funds the acquisition of such instruments, that loan shall not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:
(a) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan;
(b) The purchase or acquisition of one or more capital instruments of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution; and
(c) The capital instruments are in excess of the statutory minimum stock purchase amount;
(9) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase is at the discretion of the System institution and requires the prior approval of the FCA; and
(10) If the instrument is a common cooperative equity, the System institution's capitalization bylaws or a resolution adopted by its board of directors and re-affirmed on an annual basis provides that it will not, except with the prior approval of the FCA, redeem such equity included in tier 2 capital for a period of at least 5 years after allocating it to a member, except that equities owned by the estate of a former borrower and equities required to be retired by final order of a court of competent jurisdiction may be redeemed without a minimum period outstanding after allocation.
Proposed § 628.20(e) required a System institution to obtain prior approval to include a new capital
We did not receive any comments on this proposal and adopt it as final without modification.
As described above, the proposed rule required FCA prior approval for the redemption of equities included in tier 1 and tier 2, consistent with Basel III and the U.S. rule. The proposal also required FCA prior approval of cash dividend payments and cash patronage payments. Prior approval is not a requirement of the Basel III framework but is a requirement imposed by statute or regulation on commercial banks and other federally chartered banking organizations regulated by the Federal banking regulatory agencies.
We also proposed a “safe harbor” provision in § 628.20(f) permitting institutions to pay cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, and to redeem equities with “deemed” FCA prior approval if the payments were within the specified parameters. Under the proposed safe harbor, an institution had “deemed” prior approval for capital distributions to make cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, or redemptions and revolvements of qualifying common cooperative equities provided that, after such capital distributions, the dollar amount of the System institution's CET1 capital equaled or exceeded the dollar amount of CET1 capital on the same date in the previous calendar year and the institution continued to comply with all regulatory capital requirements and supervisory or enforcement actions. The common cooperative equities that qualified for redemption or revolvement under the safe harbor were the minimum member stock requirement of $1,000 or 2 percent of the loan, whichever is less; equities included in CET1 capital that were issued or allocated at least 10 years ago; and equities included in tier 2 capital that were issued or allocated at least 5 years ago.
System institutions have not generally had to obtain FCA prior approval before paying dividend payments or patronage payments or redeeming equities under current regulations, and the Farm Credit Act does not require prior approval. However, prior approval of equity redemptions is a fundamental principle of the Basel III framework and U.S. rule, and there are limits on the cash dividends commercial banks may pay without prior approval of their Federal banking regulator. In order for the regulatory capital framework of System institutions to be comparable to the regulatory capital framework of the U.S. banking organizations, it was necessary to include these prior approval requirements in our proposed rule. However, in acknowledgment of the common cooperative equity redemption and revolvement practices of System institutions, we permitted a limited amount of these redemptions and revolvements under the safe harbor “deemed” prior approval. We stated our belief that most System institutions would be able to pay cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, and redeem equities within the safe harbor at the same levels that they pay currently.
The System Comment Letter made a number of comments, suggestions, and requests with respect to the prior approval requirements and the safe harbor provision. Two comments on the safe harbor's cap, or maximum payment amount, are discussed above in Section I.E.7 of this preamble. With respect to the prior approval process, the System expressed concern that the 30-day approval process would be burdensome and unworkable and suggested the process be streamlined for institutions with high FIRS ratings, with FCA granting approvals in as short a time as one day. A further suggestion was that the FCA could pre-approve all contemplated capital distributions under the capital plan required by § 615.5200.
The FCA has decided to retain its 30-day review in the final rule. We expect any proposed cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, redemptions and revolvements that must be submitted to us will have been long planned by the institution, and we need sufficient time for our review. We note that a 30-day period is comparable to the review periods of the Federal banking regulatory agencies.
The FCA has decided not to adopt the System's suggestion to “pre-approve” all capital distributions in an institution's capital plan required under § 615.5200. While FCA staff reviews the capital plans submitted by institutions, we do not formally approve the plans. However, as described above in the criteria for CET1 and tier 2 capital, we have modified the criteria and the safe harbor provision to provide two additional exceptions, in response to a comment the System made with respect to the capital plan requirements in § 615.5200.
In the proposed rule, we deleted a provision in existing § 615.5200(b) pertaining to redemptions or revolvements of equities in connection with a loan default or the death of a former borrower. The deleted provisions required an institution to make a prior determination that such redemptions or revolvements were in the best interest of the institution and also required the institution to charge off an amount of the indebtedness equal to the amount of the equities that were redeemed or revolved. The System approved the deletions as eliminating a restriction on System institutions' “absolute statutory right” to retire cooperative equities in the event of loan default and restructuring without regard to any restrictions on the equities included in tier 1 and tier 2 capital in new part 628. The System asked us to clarify whether institutions will also be able to continue to redeem or revolve equities in connection with the death of a former borrower with regard to the part 628 restrictions.
As we have discussed at some length here and in the preamble to the proposed rule, the required prior regulatory approval of equity retirements is a principle underlying the Basel III framework and the U.S. rule. Without the prior approval requirement, the new tier 1 and tier 2 framework we are adopting would not be comparable to the Basel III framework and the U.S. rule. System institutions forgo their discretion to redeem or revolve equities included in tier 1 and tier 2, and they must commit to obtain prior approval (or must rely on the safe harbor “deemed” prior approval) before redeeming or revolving the equities. The prior approval requirements apply to redemptions and revolvements related
(a) Equities mandated to be redeemed or retired by a final order of a court of competent jurisdiction;
(b) Equities held by the estate of a deceased former borrower; and
(c) Equities required by the institution to cancel under § 615.5290 in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
We are adding the exception for a final court order because an institution generally cannot disobey a court order. We are adding the exception for estates of former borrowers for the convenience of the estate administrator. The exception for a loan default or restructuring is limited to the required cancellation of equities under § 615.5290 and is the only offset that institutions are required to make. The other offset provisions in our regulations are permissive, not mandatory. We note that these excepted redemptions and revolvements will count in the total amount of cash payments an institution may make under the safe harbor. For payments in excess of the safe harbor cap, institutions will have to make a request to the FCA for prior approval.
We are adopting the prior approval requirements with the modifications described, including revising the reference to the minimum CET1 retention period to 7 years.
In the final rule, a System institution must deduct from CET1 capital the items described in § 628.22 of the proposed rule. A System institution must also exclude these deductions from its total risk weighted assets and leverage exposure. These deductions are:
Consistent with Basel III and the Federal regulatory banking agencies' rules, the proposed rule excluded goodwill and other intangible assets from regulatory capital because of the uncertainty that a System institution may realize value from these assets under adverse financial conditions. An institution was required to deduct goodwill and “non-mortgage” servicing assets, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs), from CET1 capital. That portion of mortgage servicing assets (MSAs) and DTAs above the threshold deductions were not risk weighted at 250 percent. Instead, the full amounts of MSAs and DTAs that arise from temporary differences relating to net operating loss carrybacks were risk weighted at 100 percent. Should the levels of MSAs held by System institutions increase significantly in the future, the FCA stated it would reconsider the appropriateness of this treatment.
The FCA did not propose the threshold deduction in Basel III and the U.S. rule for investments in other financial institutions. Instead, the proposed rule required that System institutions deduct their investments in other System institutions from their regulatory capital, as described below. Other equity investments were risk weighted according to § 628.52.
We stated that we did not believe DTAs that are risk weighted in this section would represent material items on a System institution's balance sheet because of System institutions' tax status. The FCBs and FLCAs
The System Comment Letter agreed with the FCA that the creation or purchase of MSAs is minimal and not material in the System. The System supported our proposal not to follow what it called the more complex and irrelevant Basel III deduction approach.
The FCA has decided to finalize the goodwill, other intangibles, and MSA treatment as proposed.
The proposed rule required a System institution to deduct from CET1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale associated with a securitization exposure. Under GAAP, any gain-on-sale from a traditional securitization would increase a System institution's CET1 capital. However, if a System institution received cash from the sale of the securitization exposure and the MSA, it did not deduct such amount from its CET1 capital. Any sale of loans to a securitization structure that creates a gain may include an MSA that also meets the proposed definition of “gain-on-sale.” A System institution must exclude any portion of a gain-on-sale reported as an MSA on FCA's Call Report.
The FCA did not receive comments on the proposed rule and is adopting it without modification.
The proposed rule required a System institution to deduct from CET1 capital a defined benefit pension fund net asset (an overfunded pension), net of any associated DTLs, because of the uncertainty of realizing any of the value from such assets. The proposed rule recognized under GAAP the amount of a defined benefit pension fund liabilities (an underfunded pension) on the balance sheet of the institution, would be the same amount included as CET1 capital. Therefore, a System institution could not increase its CET1 capital by the derecognition of these defined pension fund liabilities.
Because existing FCA regulations do not require the deduction of the defined benefit pension fund net assets in the regulatory capital calculations, our call report does not collect defined benefit pension fund net assets. In the proposed rule preamble, we stated that we would develop a call report schedule and require each System institution to report its individual year-end transactions for defined benefit pension fund net assets on their individual call report schedule.
The System Comment Letter objected to the proposed deduction in § 628.22(a)(5) of defined benefit pension fund net assets. The System stated that the FDIC has determined that it has access to commercial banks' prepaid pension assets in a receivership and, in the opinion of the System, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (FCSIC) has authority to make the same determination.
It is the FCA's position that the FCSIC as receiver would be able to make such a determination; however, this is an authority not expressly granted in our regulations. The absence of express authority could lead to legal challenges to the receiver's access to the prepaid pension fund assets. We have decided to retain the deduction requirement at this time.
We note that the proposed rule preamble stated that we were proposing to permit an institution, with our prior approval, to risk-weight defined benefit pension fund net assets to which the institution had unfettered and unrestricted access.
Section 628.22(a)(6) of the proposed rule would have required a System institution to deduct any allocated equity investment in another System institution
The proposed rule had a different equity elimination method from the U.S. rule. Our method was more conservative than the Federal banking regulatory agencies' rules but consistent with the principles of Basel III and more appropriate for System institutions. It was also simpler to calculate. System associations, as member-borrowers of a cooperative network, have equity investments in their affiliated banks. System institutions also have equity investments in other System institutions but few outside the System. The investments that System institutions have in other System institutions are counted in their GAAP financial statements as equity of the issuing or allocating institution and as assets of the recipient institution. The FCA continues to believe, as we have stated numerous times previously, that equities should be counted in the regulatory capital of the institution that has control of the equities. The allocating institutions alone have discretion whether to allocate equities and when, if ever, to distribute those equities. Therefore, in the proposed rule the allocating institutions would include in their CET1 capital the equities they have allocated to their members, provided those equities meet the criteria for inclusion in CET1 capital. The institutions that have received allocated equities from other institutions would deduct those equities from their CET1 capital.
We noted that System institutions would be able to include allocated equities in CET1 capital that are excluded from core surplus under our existing regulations. These deductions applied only to investments in other System institutions because, for the most part, our investment regulations restrict equity investments outside the System.
The System Comment Letter asserted that the regulatory deductions in paragraphs (a) and (c) in new § 628.22 “ignore statutory provisions pertaining to permanent capital.” The System stated its opinion that all equities categorized as tier 1 or tier 2 in the new rule must also qualify as permanent capital and must respect the allotment agreements set forth in section 4.3A(a)(1)(B). The System asserted that failure to respect the allotment agreements would have “an immediate and significant negative impact on regulatory capital ratios for some System institutions.” The System requested that, because of such impact, we permit institutions to use the allotment agreements in their tier 1 and tier 2 capital ratios calculations for the next 5 years instead of the deductions in paragraph (a)(6) of § 628.22. The System said that this phase-in period would allow System banks and their affiliated associations time “to adjust allocated investments to comport with the requirements.”
The FCA disagrees with the System's apparent position that the allotment agreements in section 4.3A(a)(1)(B) of the Act must be reflected in all regulatory capital calculations, as well as the implication that no other deductions or adjustments may be made to regulatory capital ratios unless they are specified in section 4.3A of the Act.
Currently a small number of associations with large allocations of equities from their affiliated banks count a large portion of those equities in their permanent capital ratio calculations. The associations will, of course, be able to continue to make allotment agreements for the permanent capital ratio calculations when the new rule becomes final. Our projections of System institutions' initial compliance
We are adopting the § 628.22(a)(6) deduction of allocated equity investments without modification from the proposed rule.
We stated in the preamble to our proposed rule that we proposed not to include the impacts of AOCI on CET1 capital. We did not receive any comments on the proposal, and this treatment is unchanged in the final rule. As we discussed in detail in the proposed rule preamble, our treatment is different from Basel III and the U.S. rule, which require banking organizations to include most elements of AOCI in CET1.
Our proposed rule did not include minority interests in CET1 and any other component of regulatory capital because System institutions have few or no minority equity interests in unconsolidated subsidiaries. This treatment is unchanged in the final rule.
Under § 628.22(f) of the proposed rule, if a System institution redeemed or revolved CET1 equities prior to the applicable minimum revolvement period, the institution was required to exclude 30 percent of the remaining purchased and allocated equities otherwise includable in CET1 capital for 3 years (30-percent haircut).
The System Comment Letter objected to the proposed haircut as an entirely new concept, not found in Basel III or regulations of other regulators, illogical from a policy perspective, and unclear. The System, among other criticisms, stated that a recordkeeping error or other de minimis redemptions could result in the required deduction, and that it was unclear whether the deduction was meant to be applied one time only or was cumulative or overlapping for repeated violations. The System suggested that the haircut could be a standing deduction to CET1 rather than a haircut for a violation. It is unclear to us what this suggestion means, other than perhaps, in effect, to allow institutions to apply a 30-percent haircut to their CET1 in order to eliminate the 7-year minimum redemption and revolvement period.
The FCA intended the 30-percent haircut to ensure proper management by System institutions of their member-borrowers' expectations of redemption and also to ensure that institutions are vigilant in their recordkeeping of the issuance and allocation dates of CET1. We continue to consider accurate recordkeeping to be very important under the new rule. However, in response to the comments, we have reconsidered the mandatory deduction and decided to revise it. Instead of a mandatory deduction, we have decided to identify the deduction of a portion of equities from CET1 as one of a possible range of supervisory or enforcement actions the FCA could take in response to a violation of the minimum redemption and revolvement period. Should we ever impose a haircut, we will specify the precise percentage and duration and whether the haircut could be cumulative or overlapping for repeated violations.
The final rule states that the FCA may respond to an institution's redemption or revolvement in violation of the minimum holding period by requiring such a haircut deduction or by taking other appropriate supervisory or enforcement action.
Section 628.22(c) incorporated the Basel III corresponding deduction approach for a System institution's purchased equity investment in another System institution. The corresponding deduction approach did not apply to allocated equity investments in another System institution. We responded above, in Section III.B.1.d under “Regulatory Adjustments and Deductions,” to the System Comment Letter's objections to the deductions of both purchased and allocated investments in other System institutions.
Under the final rule, a System institution is required to deduct an amount from the same component of capital for which the underlying instrument would qualify as if the System institution had issued the instrument itself. If a System institution does not have a sufficient amount of the specific component of regulatory capital for the entire deduction, then it must deduct the remaining portion from the next higher (more subordinated) capital component. Should a System institution not have enough AT1 capital to satisfy the required deduction, the shortfall must be deducted from CET1 capital elements.
Other than as described above, we did not receive comments on the corresponding deduction approach in the proposed rule and adopt the provision without modification.
In the proposed rule, the FCA proposed to simplify the netting of DTLs against DTAs and other deductible assets for deductions of DTAs. The proposal differed from the U.S. rule for deductions of DTAs. Rather, System institutions were required to adjust CET1 capital under § 628.22(a) net of any associated deferred tax effects. In addition, System institutions were required to deduct from CET1 capital elements under § 628.22(a) and (c) of the rule net of associated DTLs, pursuant to § 628.22(e). There is a detailed discussion of the proposal in the preamble to the proposed rule.
We did not receive any comments on this proposed provision and adopt it without modifications.
In the final rule, we continue to impose limits on the inclusion of third-party capital. However, in response to comments, in the final rule we have revised the limitations on third-party capital that we proposed. Specifically, third-party capital allowed to be included in total capital is limited to the lesser of 40 percent of total capital or 100 percent of common-equity tier 1. The final rule does not include separate limits on tier 1 capital and total capital; rather, there is one overall limit based on the aforementioned factors. However, if other capital instruments, such as unallocated retained earnings or common cooperative equities, decline in subsequent quarters causing third-party capital to exceed limits set in this final
As previously stated, FCA believes it is prudent to set a limit on the amount of third-party capital a System institution includes in its regulatory capital ratios. This limit ensures that unallocated retained earnings and common cooperative equities are the dominant forms of capital in the System and that the cooperative principal of user-control is not undermined. This increased limit provides increased flexibility for System institutions to manage its capital while ensuring that its member-borrowers' decisions are not heavily influenced by meeting third-party capital obligations. Commenters asserted that the applicable cooperative principle is user-benefit, and we believe that the limits do not undermine this principle.
The formulas for calculating third-party capital limits are:
2. ALTPC = max(ELTPC,CLTPC)
In general, commenters stated that they believed the risk weights we proposed were consistent with the implementation of Basel III by U.S. and foreign banking regulators, and they did not identify concerns with most of these risk weights. Commenters did request changes to or clarifications of several proposed risk-weighting provisions, however. We discuss those comments, and explain our response, in our discussion of those provisions. All provisions are generally adopted as proposed, unless a change is discussed.
In addition to the revisions discussed below, we also adopt definitions of “qualifying master netting agreement,” “collateral agreement,” “eligible margin loan,” and “repo-style transaction” that are revised from what we proposed. The OCC and the Federal Reserve Board adopted similar revisions to these terms after they adopted their capital rules.
Similar to the FCA's current risk-based capital rules, under these new rules a System institution must calculate its total risk weighted assets by adding together its on- and off-balance sheet risk weighted asset amounts and making any relevant adjustments to incorporate required capital deductions.
A System institution must determine its standardized total risk weighted assets by calculating the sum of its risk
Under the final rule, total risk weighted assets for general credit risk is the sum of the risk weighted asset amounts as calculated under § 628.31(a) of the rule. General credit risk exposures include a System institution's on-balance sheet exposures (other than cleared transactions, securitization exposures, and equity exposures, each as defined in § 628.2 of the final rule), exposures to over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contracts, off-balance sheet commitments, trade and transaction-related contingencies, guarantees, repo-style transactions, financial standby letters of credit, forward agreements, or other similar transactions. Section 628.32 of the final rule describes the risk weights that apply to sovereign exposures; exposures to certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs); exposures to Government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs); exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions (including certain exposures to other financing institutions (OFIs) owned or controlled by these entities); exposures to public sector entities (PSEs); corporate exposures (including certain exposures to OFIs); residential mortgage exposures; past due and nonaccrual exposures; and other assets (including cash, gold bullion, and certain MSAs and DTAs).
Generally, the exposure amount for the on-balance sheet component of an exposure is the System institution's carrying value for the exposure as determined under generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). Because all System institutions use GAAP to prepare their financial statements, we believe that using GAAP to determine the amount and nature of an exposure provides a consistent framework that System institutions can easily apply.
For purposes of the definition of exposure amount for available-for-sale (AFS) or held-to-maturity (HTM) debt securities and AFS preferred stock not classified as equity under GAAP, the exposure amount is the System institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure, less any net unrealized gains, and plus any net unrealized losses. For purposes of the definition of exposure amount for AFS preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP, the exposure amount is the System institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure, less any net unrealized gains that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the System institution's regulatory capital.
In most cases, the exposure amount for an off-balance sheet component of an exposure would typically be determined by multiplying the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component by the appropriate CCF as determined under § 628.33 of the final rule. The exposure amount for an OTC derivative contract or cleared transaction that is a derivative would be determined under § 628.34 of the final rule, whereas exposure amounts for collateralized OTC derivative contracts, collateralized cleared transactions that are derivatives, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans would be determined under § 628.37 of the final rule.
Under the final rule, a sovereign is defined as a central government (including the U.S. Government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government (for the U.S. Government, the central bank is the Federal Reserve). The final rule retains the current rules' risk weights for exposures to and claims directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government or its agencies.
An exposure conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, the Federal Reserve, or a U.S. Government agency receives a 20-percent risk weight. This includes an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or the NCUA.
The FCA's existing risk-based capital rules generally assign risk weights to direct exposures to sovereigns and exposures directly guaranteed by sovereigns based on whether the sovereign is a member of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and, as applicable, whether the exposure is unconditionally or conditionally guaranteed by the sovereign.
The OECD assigns Country Risk Classifications (CRCs) to many countries as an assessment of their credit risk. CRCs are used to set interest rate charges for transactions covered by the OECD arrangement on export credits. The OECD uses a scale of 0 to 7 with 0 being the lowest possible risk and 7 being the highest possible risk. The OECD no longer assigns CRCs to certain high-income countries that are members of the OECD and that have previously received a CRC of 0. These countries exhibit a similar degree of country risk as that of a jurisdiction with a CRC of 0.
Under the final rule, the risk weight for exposures to countries with CRCs is determined based on the CRCs. Exposures to OECD member countries that do not have CRCs are risk weighted at 0 percent. Exposures to non-OECD members with no CRC are risk weighted at 100 percent.
The FCA believes that use of CRCs in the final rule is permissible under section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Act and that section 939A was not intended to apply to assessments of creditworthiness by organizations such as the OECD. Section 939A is part of subtitle C of title IX of the Dodd-Frank Act, which, among other things, enhances regulation by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) of credit rating agencies, including Nationally Recognized Statistical Rating Organizations (NRSROs) registered with the SEC. Section 939A requires agencies to remove references to credit ratings and NRSROs from Federal regulations. In the introductory “findings” section to subtitle C, which is entitled “Improvements to the Regulation of Credit Ratings Agencies,” Congress characterized credit rating agencies as organizations that play a critical “gatekeeper” role in the debt markets and perform evaluative and analytical services on behalf of clients, and whose activities are fundamentally commercial in character.
Additionally, the FCA notes that the use of the CRCs is limited in the rule. The FCA considers CRCs to be a reasonable alternative to credit ratings for sovereign exposures and the proposed CRC methodology to be more granular and risk sensitive than the current risk-weighting methodology based solely on OECD membership.
The final rule also requires a System institution to apply a 150-percent risk weight to sovereign exposures immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years. Sovereign default is defined in the final rule as a noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal or interest fully and on a timely basis, arrearages, or restructuring. A default includes a voluntary or involuntary restructuring that results in a sovereign not servicing an existing obligation in accordance with the obligation's original terms.
Under the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, exposures to certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs) receive a 20-percent risk weight. Consistent with the Basel framework's treatment of exposures to supranational entities, the FCA's final rule applies a 0-percent risk weight to exposures to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, and the International Monetary Fund.
Similarly, the final rule applies a 0-percent risk weight to exposures to an MDB. The rule defines an MDB to include the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. Government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FCA determines poses comparable credit risk.
The FCA believes this treatment is appropriate in light of the generally high credit quality of MDBs, their strong shareholder support, and a shareholder structure comprised of a significant proportion of sovereign entities with strong creditworthiness. Exposures to regional development banks and multilateral lending institutions that are not covered under the definition of MDB generally are treated as corporate exposures and receive a 100-percent risk weight.
Like the Federal banking regulatory agencies, we define GSE as an entity established or chartered by the U.S. Government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. Because we believed it would make the regulations somewhat simpler, our proposed rule had excluded System institutions from this definition for the purpose of these capital rules.
The System is, however, a GSE, and the System Comment Letter asserted that our proposed definition was fundamentally incorrect and subject to misinterpretation. To alleviate any concerns about possible confusion regarding the System's GSE status, the final rule eliminates this exclusion. Accordingly, under our final rule, as under the U.S. rule, GSEs include the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac), the System, the Federal Home Loan Bank System, and Farmer Mac.
The final rule assigns a 20-percent risk weight to exposures to GSEs that are not equity exposures or preferred stock; this includes loans from System banks to associations (direct loans).
The final rule assigns a 100-percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a non-System GSE. This risk weighting represents a change to the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, which currently allow a System institution to apply a 20-percent risk weight to GSE preferred stock.
Under final § 628.22, a System institution must deduct from regulatory capital all equity investments (including preferred stock) in another System institution, and therefore we do not provide a risk weighting for these
System institutions have the authority to enter into loss-sharing agreements with other System institutions under § 614.4340. If System institutions enter into a loss-sharing agreement in the future, the FCA would assign a risk weight for any associated exposures at that time, using our regulatory reservation of authority.
The FCA's existing risk-based capital rules assign a 20-percent risk weight to all exposures to U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks incorporated in an OECD country. Short-term exposures to foreign banks incorporated in a non-OECD country receive a 20-percent risk weight and long-term exposures to such entities receive a 100-percent risk weight.
Under the final rule, exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions are assigned a 20-percent risk weight.
Our existing OFI rules assign a 20-percent risk weight to a claim on an OFI that is an OECD bank or is owned and controlled by an OECD bank that guarantees the claim or if the OFI or its parent has a sufficiently high credit rating.
Under this final rule, an exposure to a foreign bank receives a risk weight one category higher than the risk weight assigned to a direct exposure to the foreign bank's home country, based on the assignment of risk weights by CRC, as discussed above.
A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous 5 years.
Both the Basel capital framework and our existing regulation treat exposures to securities firms that meet certain requirements like exposures to depository institutions.
The FCA's existing risk-based capital rules assign a 20-percent risk weight to general obligations of states and other political subdivisions of OECD countries.
The final rule applies the same risk weights to exposures to U.S. states and municipalities as the existing risk-based capital rules apply. Under the final rule, these political subdivisions are included in the definition of “public sector entity” (PSE). Consistent with both the current rules and the Basel capital framework, the final rule defines a PSE as a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the level of a sovereign. This definition includes U.S. states and municipalities and does not include government-owned commercial companies that engage in activities involving trade, commerce, or profit that are generally conducted or performed in the private sector.
Under the final rule, a System institution would assign a 20-percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof and a 50-percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to such a PSE. The final rule defines a general obligation as a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a PSE. The final rule defines a revenue obligation as a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from a specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
Similar to the Basel framework's use of home country risk weights to assign a risk weight to a PSE exposure, the final rule requires a System institution to apply a risk weight to an exposure to a non-U.S. PSE based on (1) The CRC applicable to the PSE's home country or, if the home country has no CRC, whether it is a member of the OECD, and (2) whether the exposure is a general obligation or a revenue obligation, in accordance with Table 5.
The risk weights assigned to revenue obligations are higher than the risk weights assigned to a general obligation issued by the same PSE, as set forth, for non-U.S. PSEs, in Table 5. Similar to exposures to a foreign bank, exposures
The final rule allows a System institution to apply a risk weight to an exposure to a non-U.S. PSE according to the risk weight that the foreign banking organization supervisor allows to be assigned to it. In no event, however, may the risk weight for an exposure to a non-U.S. PSE be lower than the risk weight assigned to direct exposures to that PSE's home country.
Under the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, credit exposures to companies that are not depository institutions or securitization vehicles generally are assigned to the 100-percent risk weight category. A 20-percent risk weight is assigned to claims on, or guaranteed by, a securities firm incorporated in an OECD country that satisfies certain conditions.
The requirements of the final rule are generally consistent with the existing risk-based capital rules and require System institutions generally to assign a 100-percent risk weight to all corporate exposures.
Accordingly, this category includes borrower loans such as agricultural loans and consumer loans, regardless of the corporate form of the borrower, unless those loans qualify for different risk weights (such as a 50-percent risk weight for residential mortgage exposures) under other provisions. This category also includes premises, fixed assets, and other real estate owned.
Because they are corporate exposures, we proposed to include in this category all OFI exposures that do not qualify for the 20-percent depository institution/credit union risk weight provided in § 628.32(d) and discussed above. Our existing rules also contain a default 100-percent risk weight category.
We proposed to eliminate the 50-percent risk weight for OFIs and to assign a 100-percent risk weight to exposures to non-depository institution/non-credit union OFIs. In our proposal, we noted that this 50-percent risk weighting for what would otherwise be a corporate exposure is inconsistent with our treatment of other corporate exposures. We also noted that the Federal banking regulatory agencies would assign a 100-percent risk weight to these exposures.
We sought comment on our proposed capital treatment of exposures to OFIs and specifically on our proposal to eliminate the 50-percent risk weight. We received comments on this proposal from several OFIs and in the System Comment Letter. All commenters urged us to retain the 50-percent risk weight. Moreover, the OFIs suggested that we eliminate the 100-percent risk weight entirely.
In support of their request to retain the 50-percent risk weight, the OFIs stated that OFIs have historically been instrumental to the System and deserve recognition and fairness for their historical role. They also stated that FCA's policies have always been designed to ensure that OFIs have competitive access to System bank funding and that increasing the risk weight requirements could impair this competitive access. In addition, they stated that OFI borrowing is not risky because of the System banks' underwriting standards and loan terms and conditions and because the FCA oversees the banks' relationships with their OFIs and has the authority to examine OFIs.
The System Comment Letter asserted that the current risk weight regime has worked effectively, as evidenced by the System's low loss experience on OFI loans. According to this Letter, the underwriting requirements for OFIs found in FCA regulations at subpart P of part 614, coupled with the two levels of capital that support the exposure of System banks to OFIs (capital is held at the OFI level and at the individual OFI borrower level), make a higher risk weight inappropriate. Moreover, the Letter stated that OFIs are unique to the System and the FCA's regulations are designed not to hinder these relationships.
We believe the existing approach to risk weighting OFI exposures has worked well since it was adopted in 2004. As we said at that time, when we first adopted a 50-percent risk weight for lower-risk non-depository institution/non-credit union OFI exposures:
Lowering the capital requirements for most OFI loans will lower the operating costs of the OFI program to Farm Credit banks. This, in turn, should lower the cost of funds to well-capitalized and well-managed OFIs. Lower funding costs should enable these OFIs to reduce interest rates charged to their borrowers. These results would advance the System's public policy mission to provide affordable credit on a consistent basis to agriculture and rural America. Greater flexibility for the risk weighting of OFI loans should provide the Farm Credit banks additional incentives to expand their lending to both existing and new OFIs.
These ideas continue to be true today. Accordingly, the final rule retains a 50-percent risk weight for exposures to non-depository institution/non-credit union OFIs that meet capital, risk
In accordance with the Dodd-Frank Act, “investment grade” in the final rule refers to the definition in the rule rather than to NRSRO ratings. The final rule defines “investment grade,” in pertinent part, to mean that the entity to which the System institution is exposed through a loan has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the exposure. Such an entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
We do not intend for the elimination of NRSRO ratings to change substantively the standards System institutions must follow when deciding whether an exposure is investment grade. A System institution may, but is not required to, consider NRSRO ratings as part of its independent investment grade determination and due diligence. An institution's consideration of NRSRO ratings must be supplemented by the institution's own independent analysis; an exposure does not automatically satisfy an investment grade standard by virtue of its NRSRO rating.
We decline to eliminate the 100-percent risk weight for exposures to OFIs that do not satisfy the criteria for a more favorable risk weight. The higher risk inherent in exposures to those OFIs warrants the 100-percent risk weight that is generally applicable to corporate exposures.
Finally, in contrast to the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, all securities firms are subject to the same treatment as corporate exposures.
The FCA's existing risk-based capital rules assign “qualified residential loans” to the 50-percent risk-weight category.
In general, although our existing rule is structured differently, our existing safety and soundness standards are very similar to the U.S. rule's risk-weighting requirements for residential mortgage exposures.
In the interest of consistency, we now structure our final rule the same way as the Federal banking regulatory agencies do. Moreover, we adopt the safety and soundness standards of the Federal banking regulatory agencies. As mentioned above, and as discussed below, although these standards are already very similar, there are a few changes to our rule. Finally, while we retain two of our existing requirements regarding the characteristics of residential property, the final rule eliminates the rest of these requirements as unnecessary and burdensome.
The final rule defines a residential mortgage exposure as an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property, provided that the dwelling (including attached components such as garages, porches, and decks) represents at least 50 percent of the total appraised value of the collateral secured by the first or subsequent lien.
The final rule assigns a residential mortgage exposure to the 50-percent risk-weight category if the property is either owner-occupied or rented
A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all residential mortgage exposures that do not satisfy the criteria for a 50-percent risk weight.
The final rule maintains the current risk-based capital treatment for residential mortgage exposures that are guaranteed by the U.S. Government or U.S. Government agencies. Accordingly, residential mortgage exposures that are unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government or a U.S. Government agency receive a 0-percent risk weight, and residential mortgage exposures that are conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government or a U.S. Government agency receive a 20-percent risk weight.
Under the final rule, a residential mortgage exposure may be assigned to the 50-percent risk-weight category only if it is not restructured or modified. We believe this new restriction on System institution risk weighting, which the Federal banking regulatory agencies adopted, is appropriate based on risk.
However, a residential mortgage exposure modified or restructured on a permanent or trial basis solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program (HAMP) is not considered to be restructured or modified and continues to receive a 50-percent risk weighting. Treating mortgage loans modified pursuant to HAMP in this manner is appropriate in light of the special and unique incentive features of HAMP, and the fact that the program is offered by the U.S. Government to achieve the public policy objective of promoting sustainable loan modifications for homeowners at risk of foreclosure in a
System institutions should be mindful that the residential mortgage market is likely to change in the future, in part because of regulations the CFPB is adopting to improve the quality of mortgage underwriting and to reduce the associated credit risk and in part for market-driven or other reasons. The FCA may propose changes in the treatment of residential mortgage exposures in the future. If so, we intend to take into consideration structural and product market developments, other relevant regulations, and potential issues with implementation across various product types.
We proposed to assign a 150-percent risk weight to HVCRE exposures, unless those exposures satisfied one or more of four specified exemptions. Because the System Comment Letter identified this as one of its threshold issues, we discuss this issue above, in Section I.D.8. of this preamble. As explained in that section, we are not finalizing the provisions governing HVCRE exposures at this time, but we expect that we will engage in additional rulemaking or issue guidance on HVCRE exposures in the future.
Under the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, the risk weight of a loan does not change if the loan becomes past due or enters nonaccrual status, with the exception of certain residential mortgage loans. Like the Federal banking regulatory agencies, however, the FCA believes that a higher risk weight is appropriate for past due and nonaccrual exposures (such as past due or nonaccrual agricultural or other borrower loans) to reflect the increased risk associated with such exposures. We adopt without modification the proposed treatment of past due and nonaccrual exposures, which reflects the impaired credit quality of such exposures.
The final rule requires a System institution to assign a risk weight of 150 percent to an exposure that is not guaranteed or is not secured by financial collateral (and that is not a sovereign exposure or a residential mortgage exposure) if it is 90 days or more past due or recognized as nonaccrual.
Moreover, the increased risk weight does not double-count the risk of a past due or nonaccrual exposure, even though the ALL is already reflected in the risk-based capital numerator, because the ALL is intended to cover estimated, incurred losses as of the balance sheet date, not unexpected losses. The higher risk weight on past due and nonaccrual exposures ensures sufficient regulatory capital for the increased probability of unexpected losses on these exposures.
Rather than assigning a 150-percent risk weight under this section, a System institution is permitted to assign a risk weight pursuant to §§ 628.36 and 628.37 to the portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure that is collateralized by financial collateral or that is guaranteed if the financial collateral, guarantee, or credit derivative meets the requirements for recognition described in those sections.
The System Comment Letter agreed that our proposed risk weight for past due exposures was consistent with that of the Federal banking regulatory agencies, but it expressed concern that the FCA, as a matter of examination practice, has been prescriptive and slow to recognize the performance of a loan that is in past due or nonaccrual status. The Letter stated that the FCA's approach has resulted in a significant level of cash-basis nonaccrual loans, and it asked the FCA to provide improved examination direction for the movement of loans from nonaccrual to accrual.
An association commented that System institutions are much more conservative than commercial banks in their willingness to move accounts into nonaccrual status even if the loans remain in compliance and are current, as evidenced by the high percentage of current nonaccrual loans. This association asserted that requiring 50-percent additional capital for these loans will create an incentive to loosen these conservative standards, and it recommended that we revise the rule to apply only to exposures that are both 90 days past due and nonaccrual (rather than either 90 days past due or nonaccrual, as in the proposed rule). Alternatively, the association requested that we delete the nonaccrual standard completely and retain only the 90 days past due standard.
We decline to change, in this rulemaking, either our existing regulations governing nonaccrual status or the regulation governing risk weights for past due and nonaccrual loans that we now adopt. FCA's standards for nonaccrual loans are generally similar, although not identical, to those of the Federal banking regulatory agencies.
Nevertheless, we appreciate the comments we received on this issue. The FCA's Spring 2016 Regulatory Projects Plan, adopted by the FCA Board on February 11, 2016, indicates that we are reviewing, through April 2016, a project that would consider amendments to the criteria for reinstating nonaccrual loans under § 621.9.
Generally consistent with our existing risk-based capital rules, the final rule assigns the risk weights described below for the following exposures:
(1) A 0-percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of the System institution, in transit, or in accounts at a depository institution or a Federal Reserve Bank; to gold bullion held in a depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis to the extent gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities; and to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade;
(2) A 20-percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection;
(3) A 100-percent risk weight to DTAs arising from temporary differences relating to net operating loss carrybacks;
(4) A 100-percent risk weight to all MSAs; and
(5) A 100-percent risk weight to all assets not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this rule (other than exposures that would be deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 628.22).
As discussed above, the FCA's final rule, unlike the U.S. rule, requires a System institution to deduct from capital all DTAs, other than those arising from temporary differences that relating to net operating loss carrybacks. In addition, because System institutions have such little exposure to MSAs, the final rule simplifies the capital treatment that would apply under the U.S. rule. Accordingly, we risk weight DTAs and MSAs as stated above rather than adopting the capital treatment, including the 250-percent risk weight, adopted in the U.S. rule.
Under final § 628.22, as discussed above, a System institution must deduct from regulatory capital all equity investments (including preferred stock) in another System institution, and therefore we do not provide a risk weighting for these investments. These investments could include, for example, an association's investment in a System bank and a System bank's investment in an association.
System institutions have the authority to enter into loss-sharing agreements with other System institutions under § 614.4340. If System institutions enter into a loss-sharing agreement in the future, the FCA would assign a risk weight for any associated exposures at that time, using our regulatory reservation of authority.
By FCA Bookletter BL-052, dated January 25, 2006, the FCA permitted loans recorded before January 1, 2006 that were supported by Tobacco Buyout assignments to be risk weighted at 20 percent.
By FCA Bookletter BL-053, dated February 27, 2007, the FCA permitted System institutions to assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply to certain electrical cooperative assets, based on the unique characteristics and lower risk profile of this industry segment.
Under this final rule, as under our existing risk-based capital rules, a System institution calculates the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet item by multiplying the off-balance sheet component, which is usually the contractual amount, by the applicable CCF. This treatment applies to off-balance sheet items, such as commitments, contingent items, guarantees, certain repo-style transactions, financial standby letters of credit, and forward agreements.
We proposed to impose the risk weight and CCF requirements on the unused commitment of a System bank to an association to fund the direct loan.
Because the System Comment Letter identified this as one of its threshold issues, we discuss this issue above, in Section I.D.9. of this preamble. We discuss several technical and mechanical issues in this section.
This final rule clarifies that unused commitments on bank loans to OFIs are also subject to this capital treatment. Although it was not stated explicitly in the proposed rule, it was clear from the definition of “commitment” that commitments from banks to OFIs were included in this provision.
We provide the clarification that several commenters sought on the mechanics of the capital calculation. One commenter asked FCA to confirm that a 20-percent CCF would be applied to the wholesale unused commitment and that a 20-percent risk weight would be applied to the association obligor. With respect to associations, we confirm both of these interpretations. Under final § 628.33(b)(2)(iii), a System bank's unused commitment to an association that is not unconditionally cancelable by the System bank is assigned a 20-percent CCF, regardless of maturity. And final § 628.32(c) assigns a 20-percent risk weight to an exposure to a GSE (other than an equity exposure or preferred stock), including direct loans from System banks to associations.
Another commenter presumed, since the GFA is usually a multi-year agreement, that a 50-percent CCF would be assigned to the commitment. As discussed above, the final rule assigns a
A commenter asked how the commitment amount should be calculated, since the excess amount of the borrowing base changes on a daily basis. As discussed above, FCA regulation § 614.4125(d), which requires the GFA or promissory note to establish a maximum credit limit determined by objective standards, requires the maximum credit limit to be a specific dollar amount rather than an amount based on the daily borrowing base. Final § 628.33(a)(5) provides that the exposure amount of a System bank's unused commitment to an association or OFI is the difference between the association's or OFI's maximum credit limit with the System bank (as established by the general financing agreement or promissory note, as required by § 614.4125(d)) and the amount the association or OFI has borrowed from the System bank. For example, if a System bank has a $100 maximum credit limit to an association or OFI and the association or OFI has $80 outstanding on its direct loan, the System bank's exposure amount on its unused commitment would be $20.
A commenter asked how frequently this calculation should be performed. An institution must remain above the minimum capital requirements at all times, and it must therefore perform the calculation as often as is necessary to ensure compliance with these regulations.
Similar to the current risk-based capital rules, under the final rule a System institution would apply a 0-percent CCF to the unused portion of commitments that are unconditionally cancelable by the institution. Unconditionally cancelable means a commitment that a System institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law). In the case of an operating line of credit, a System institution is deemed able to unconditionally cancel the commitment if it can, at its option, prohibit additional extensions of credit, reduce the credit line, and terminate the commitment to the full extent permitted by applicable law. If a System institution provides a commitment that is structured as a syndication, it is required to calculate the exposure amount only for its pro rata share of the commitment.
The final rule maintains the current 20-percent CCF for self-liquidating, trade-related contingencies with an original maturity of 14 months or less.
As under our existing risk-based capital rules, under the final rule a System institution would apply a 50-percent CCF to unused commitments with an original maturity of more than 14 months that are not unconditionally cancelable by the institution (except, as discussed above, commitments of System banks to fund direct loans to associations or OFIs, which have a CCF of 20 percent) and to transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
Under this final rule, a System institution would be required to apply a 100-percent CCF to off-balance sheet guarantees, repurchase agreements, credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures, securities lending and borrowing transactions, financial standby letters of credit, forward agreements, and other similar exposures. The off-balance sheet component of a repurchase agreement equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has sold subject to repurchase. The off-balance sheet component of a securities lending transaction is the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has lent under the transaction. For securities borrowing transactions, the off-balance sheet component is the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the institution has posted as collateral under the transaction. In certain circumstances, a System institution may instead determine the exposure amount of the transaction as described in § 628.37 of the final rule.
In contrast to our existing risk-based capital rules, which require capital for securities lending and borrowing transactions and repurchase agreements only if they generate an on-balance sheet exposure, the final rule requires a System institution to hold risk-based capital against all repo-style transactions (that is, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, securities lending transactions, and securities borrowing transactions), regardless of whether they generate on-balance sheet exposures, as described in § 628.37 of the final rule. For example, capital is required against the cash receivable that a System institution generates when it borrows a security and posts cash collateral to obtain the security. We adopt this approach because System institutions face counterparty credit risk when engaging in repo-style transactions, even if those transactions do not generate on-balance sheet exposures, and thus these transactions should not be exempt from risk-based capital requirements.
Consistent with our existing risk-based capital rules, under the final rule a System institution is subject to a risk-based capital requirement when it provides credit-enhancing representations and warranties on assets sold or otherwise transferred to third parties, as such positions are considered recourse arrangements.
A System institution is required to hold capital only for the maximum contractual amount of its exposure under the representations and warranties, not against the value of the underlying loan. Moreover, a System institution must hold capital for the life of a credit-enhancing representation and warranty, but not after its expiration, regardless of the maturity of the underlying loan.
We proposed capital treatment that would require a System institution to hold risk-based capital for counterparty credit risk for an OTC derivative contract. We received no comments on this proposed capital treatment, and we adopt it as proposed.
As defined in final § 628.2, a derivative contract is a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. A derivative contract includes interest rate, exchange rate, equity, commodity, credit, and any other derivative contract that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular
Under the final rule, an OTC derivative contract does not include a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction, which is subject to a specific treatment as described elsewhere in this preamble.
The preamble to the proposed rule explains how to determine the risk weighted asset amount for a single OTC derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and for multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
Rather than repeating the discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
Like the BCBS and the Federal banking regulatory agencies, the FCA supports incentives designed to encourage clearing of derivative and repo-style transactions
We adopt without change the capital treatment that we proposed for cleared transactions. We received one comment that supported this proposed capital treatment.
Under the final rule, a System institution, acting as a clearing member client, is required to hold risk-based capital for all of its cleared transactions. The preamble to the proposed rule explains the definition of cleared transaction, as well as other relevant terms, such as clearing member client. It also explains that derivative transactions must satisfy additional criteria to be cleared transactions and that derivative transactions that do not meet these additional criteria are OTC derivative transactions. In addition, it explains the capital treatment for cleared transactions.
Rather than repeating the discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
System institutions use a number of techniques to mitigate credit risks. For example, a System institution may collateralize exposures with cash or securities; a third party may guarantee an exposure; a System institution may buy a credit derivative to offset an exposure's credit risk; or a System institution may net exposures with a counterparty under a netting agreement.
The final rule adopts without change the proposed rule's approach to allowing System institutions to recognize the risk-mitigation effects of guarantees, credit derivatives, and collateral for risk-based capital purposes. We received one comment that supported this proposed capital treatment.
In response to our request for comment on whether our regulation should permit the use of a System institution's own estimates, the System Comment Letter stated that it saw no need for a provision of this nature. It stated that the provisions we had proposed appear currently workable for the System, and it applauded the FCA for not including provisions that are not currently applicable or expected to be needed any time soon. Accordingly, like the proposed rule, the final rule does not permit System institutions to calculate market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility using their own internal estimates.
As the preamble to the proposed rule explains, a System institution generally may use a substitution approach to recognize the credit risk mitigation effect of an eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor and the simple approach to recognize the credit risk mitigation effect of collateral. That preamble explains these approaches in detail.
The preamble to the proposed rule also explains that although the use of credit risk mitigants may reduce or transfer credit risk, it simultaneously may increase other risks, including operational, liquidity, or market risk. Accordingly, a System institution is expected to employ robust procedures and processes to control risks, including roll-off and concentration risks, and monitor and manage the implications of using credit risk mitigants for the institution's overall credit risk profile.
Rather than repeating the discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
The final rule provides for a separate risk-based capital requirement for transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities
(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which the rule defines as the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or 5 business days).
Under the final rule, in the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system, or central counterparty, the FCA may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
This capital treatment is unchanged from that in the proposal. We received no comments on this proposed capital treatment.
The preamble to the proposed rule explains that the rule provides separate treatments for delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions with a normal settlement period, and non DvP/PvP transactions with a normal settlement period. It explains these transactions and their capital treatments.
Rather than repeating the discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
Under the FCA's existing risk-based capital rules, a System institution may use external ratings issued by NRSROs to assign risk weights to certain recourse obligations, residual interests, direct credit substitutes, asset-backed securities (ABS), and MBS. The final rule revises the risk-based capital framework for securitization exposures. These revisions include removing references to and reliance on credit ratings to determine risk weights for these exposures and using alternative standards of creditworthiness, as required by section 939A of the Dodd-Frank Act. In addition, we update the terminology for the securitization framework, include a definition of a securitization exposure that encompasses a wider range of exposures with similar risk characteristics, and implement new due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.
The final rule adopts without change the proposed risk-based capital framework for securitization exposures. The final rule defines a securitization exposure as an on- or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization), or an exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure.
The preamble to the proposed rule (1) explains that the securitization framework is designed to address the credit risk of exposures that involve the tranching of the credit risk of one or more underlying financial exposures;
Rather than repeating the comprehensive discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
First, we received comments on the omission of references to asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) programs in the proposed rule. The U.S. rule excludes certain exposures to asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) programs from the definition of resecuritization exposure. That rule defines an ABCP program as a program established primarily for the purpose of issuing commercial paper that is investment grade and backed by underlying exposures held in a bankruptcy-remote special purpose entity.
The System has access to the capital markets through the Funding Corporation; we believe it unlikely that a System institution would establish an ABCP program, because if the Funding Corporation's ability to issue debt ever was impeded, we believe the ability of an ABCP program to issue commercial paper would face the same difficulties. Accordingly, in the interest of simplifying our regulations where possible, we proposed to make no reference to ABCP programs.
In response to our specific request for comment as to whether we should include provisions in our risk-based capital rules regarding ABCP programs that are comparable to those in the U.S. rule, the System Comment Letter stated that our reason for proposing to omit ABCP provisions seemed reasonable and logical, that it seemed unlikely that either the System or an individual System bank would seek to establish an ABCP program, and that in the unlikely event they did want to establish such a program, the FCA could address it on a case-by-case basis. The Letter concluded, therefore, that ABCP provisions are unnecessary. Accordingly, the final rule, like the proposed rule, makes no reference to ABCP programs.
Second, we received comments on the due diligence requirements that we proposed for securitization exposures. Like the U.S. rule, our proposed due diligence requirements were designed to address the concern among regulators that during the recent financial crisis, many banking organizations relied exclusively on NRSRO ratings and did not perform their own credit analysis of the securitization exposures.
Our proposed rule would have required a System institution to demonstrate, to the FCA's satisfaction, a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the exposure's performance. The proposed rule would have required the System institution's analysis to be commensurate with the complexity of the exposure and the
(1) Structural features of the securitization that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
(2) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average LTV ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
(3) Relevant market data on the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
(4) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures.
Under the proposed rule, if the System institution was not able to meet these due diligence requirements and demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure to the FCA's satisfaction, the institution would have been required to assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
The System Comment Letter asserted that these due diligence requirements for “investment securities” contained in proposed § 628.41(c) significantly overlapped with the existing regulatory requirements on investment management in subpart E of part 615. The result, according to the Letter, would be significant redundancy and regulatory burden. The commenters asked us to make conforming changes to either the proposed capital rules or the existing investment management rules to eliminate duplication and potentially conflicting requirements.
We note, contrary to the assertion of the System Comment Letter, that the new due diligence requirements contained in proposed § 628.41(c) do not apply to “investment securities”. Rather, this regulation applies to securitization exposures, the definition of which is discussed above. In contrast, our investment management regulations in subpart E of part 615, including the due diligence requirements at § 615.5133(f), apply only to investments that System banks and associations are authorized to hold for specified purposes. These investments must satisfy FCA's eligibility requirements or be specifically approved by FCA.
If a System institution has a securitization exposure that is subject to our investment management regulations, then both our investment management due diligence regulation and the new securitization exposure due diligence regulation would apply. If, however, a System institution has a securitization exposure that is not subject to our investment management regulations, then only the securitization exposure due diligence regulation would apply, and not our investment management due diligence regulation. And if a System institution has an investment subject to our investment management regulations that is not a securitization exposure, then only our investment management due diligence regulation would apply, and not the new securitization exposure due diligence regulation.
Accordingly, for some exposures, only one due diligence regulation applies. Securitization exposures that are subject to our investment management regulations, however, are subject to both due diligence regulations. We do not believe these two due diligence regulations conflict with each other. Some requirements are contained in one regulation but not the other. For example, our investment management regulations require stress testing, while the securitization exposure regulation does not. Securitization exposures that are subject to our investment management regulations, therefore, like other investments, are subject to the investment management stress testing requirements.
Some requirements, such as risk analysis or value determination, are set forth in both regulations. For securitization exposures that are subject to our investment management regulations, institutions must fulfill the requirements of both regulations, but if one analysis or determination satisfies both regulations, they only need to perform it once, thus eliminating any potential duplication.
Because any potential overlaps can be satisfied with a single analysis or determination, we do not believe it is burdensome for an institution to have to comply with both regulations. Accordingly, we decline to change either of these regulations.
As discussed above, under § 628.22, a System institution must deduct from regulatory capital all equity investments (including preferred stock) in another System institution. Section 628.22 also requires a System institution to deduct from regulatory capital all equity investments in a service corporation or the Funding Corporation. Accordingly, we do not assign a risk weighting for these equity investments.
This final rule revises our existing risk-based capital rules' treatment for equity exposures that are not to other System institutions, service corporations, or the Funding Corporation. Institutions could acquire such exposures, for example, by making equity investments in UBEs,
The rule requires a System institution to apply the Simple Risk-Weight Approach for equity exposures that are not exposures to an investment fund and to apply certain look-through approaches to assign risk weighted asset amounts to equity exposures to an investment fund.
We received no comments on the capital treatment for equity exposures that we proposed. We adopt this capital treatment without change, except for the following. We do not adopt the provisions we proposed assigning risk weights to equity exposures authorized under FCA regulation § 615.5140(e). System institutions are authorized to acquire equity exposures under that regulation only with FCA's prior approval, and we assign a risk weight as a condition of that approval. Accordingly, it is unnecessary to assign
The preamble to the proposed rule explains the definition of equity exposure and exposure measurement. It explains how to calculate the risk weight for various equity exposures, including those that form effective hedge pairs. It also explains the three methods of assigning risk weights to equity exposures to investment funds. Rather than repeating the discussion of this capital treatment that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion in that preamble.
Meaningful public disclosure by banking organizations is one of the three pillars of the Basel framework. Public disclosure complements the minimum capital requirements and the supervisory review process by encouraging market discipline. The other Federal banking regulatory agencies adopted disclosure requirements for the banking organizations that they regulate with $50 billion or more in assets.
We proposed similar disclosure requirements for System banks on a bank-only basis (not on a consolidated, district-wide basis). In our proposal, we explained that the disclosure requirements are appropriate for all System banks—even those that currently have less than $50 billion in assets—because they are jointly and severally liable for the Systemwide debt obligations that they issue.
The proposal required each System bank to make these disclosures in its quarterly and annual reports to shareholders that are required in part 620 of our regulations.
We believed the proposal struck the proper balance between the market benefits of disclosure and the burden of providing the disclosures, and we invited comment on the appropriate application of the proposed disclosure requirements to System banks.
We received comments in the System Comment Letter and from several individual System institutions on the proposed disclosure requirements. The commenters objected to these requirements because the disclosures would not be harmonized across the System; associations would have one set of disclosures, banks would have another, combined district disclosures would be different from those of the bank, and the System-wide disclosure would be different yet again. They stated that this disclosure regime is not a good fit for the federated cooperative structure of the System. They asked the FCA to work with System banks on appropriate enhancements to the existing required disclosures in part 620 through other guidance, such as an Informational Memorandum, stating that this approach would be more flexible and not encumber the regulations with excessive requirements that apply to only four entities.
These comments do not persuade us to change the disclosure requirements we proposed. As discussed above, our existing regulations in part 620 require each System institution to prepare annual and quarterly reports. The regulations we proposed and that we now adopt without substantive change require System banks to disclose additional information that is particularly relevant to market participants as they assess the System's risk, providing a more transparent picture of System institutions' capital to the investment-banking sector.
We understand that any change in disclosure requirements may increase burden, as parties are required to disclose information they have never previously had to disclose. We believe, however, that the benefit of these additional disclosures outweighs any burden that might result. The disclosure requirements are similar to those adopted by the Federal banking regulatory agencies. As discussed above and in the preamble to our proposed rule, the System urged the FCA to adopt a capital framework that was as similar as possible to the U.S. rule, asserting that consistency and transparency would allow investors, shareholders, and others to better understand the financial strength and risk-bearing capacity of the System. We believe this rule accomplishes that objective.
A System bank also commented that the requirement is unfair because the four System banks are independent institutions with separate boards of directors, different charters, and diverse business models, and the total assets of two of the banks are below the $50 billion threshold that would trigger the requirement under the U.S. rule. Even though the banks are directed and managed independently of each other, we believe that all four of them—even those that currently have less than $50 billion in assets—should be required to make these disclosures. Each bank is jointly and severally liable for the System-wide debt obligations that they issue; market participants would be unable to assess the risk in the debt without having access to this information from all four banks.
Accordingly, we adopt as final our proposal to require all System banks to make disclosures, without substantive change other than to reflect differences from the proposed capital requirements. Rather than repeating the discussion of these disclosure requirements that we provided in the preamble to the proposed rule, we invite interested persons to review the discussion that preamble.
The proposed rule contained a number of conforming changes to current FCA regulations. Except for a modification of the proposed change to § 614.4351 as discussed below, we adopted the proposed changes in the final rule. We also added numerous additional nonsubstantive clarifying and conforming changes that were not in the proposed rule, primarily adding references in existing rules to the new part 628. The changes include:
In § 607.2(b), which defines “average risk-adjusted asset base” for purposes of the FCA's assessment and
In § 611.1265(e), which pertains to an institution in the process of terminating Farm Credit status, we deleted a reference to subpart K of part 615 and added a reference to part 628.
In proposed § 614.4351(a)(3), which describes the lending and leasing limit base for System institutions, we proposed to replace the reference to total surplus with a reference to tier 2 capital. The System Comment Letter pointed out that our proposed change had the potential effect of excluding third-party preferred stock from an institution's lending and leasing limit base if such stock is excluded under new § 628.23 from the institution's tier 1 and tier 2 capital. We agree with the System that our proposed change could have had this unintended effect. In the final rule, we have modified the language to ensure the inclusion of excess third-party capital under § 628.23 in the lending and leasing limit base, provided such preferred stock is otherwise includible in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
In § 615.5143(a) and (b), pertaining to the management of ineligible investments, we removed references to net collateral.
In § 615.5200, which contains capital planning requirements, we removed references to total capital, surplus, core surplus, total surplus, and unallocated surplus; we added references to CET1, tier 1 capital, total capital, and tier 1 leverage ratio and made other minor nonsubstantive and technical changes. We also made a number of substantive changes in § 615.5200 that are described above in Section D.3. of this preamble.
In § 615.5201, we removed of definitions that are no longer used in revised part 615, subpart H, including “bank,” “commitment,” “credit conversion factor,” “credit derivative,” “credit-enhancing interest-only strip,” “credit-enhancing representations and warranties,” “deferred-tax assets that are dependent on future income or future events,” “direct credit substitute,” “direct lender institution,” “externally rated,” “face amount,” “financial asset,” “financial standby letter of credit,” “Government agency,” “Government-sponsored agency,” “institution,” “nationally recognized statistical rating organization,” “non-OECD bank,” “OECD,” “OECD bank,” “performance-based standby letter of credit,” “qualified residential loan,” “qualifying bilateral netting contract,” “qualifying securities firm,” “recourse,” “residual interest,” “risk participation,” “Rural Business Investment Company,” “securitization,” “servicer cash advance,” “total capital,” “traded position,” and “U.S. depository institution”; we revised the definitions of “permanent capital” and “risk-adjusted asset base”; and we added definitions of “deferred tax assets,” “System bank,” and “System institution.” We also added back the definition of “allocated investment,” which was inadvertently transferred to part 628 definitions in the proposed rule.
In §§ 615.5206 and 615.5208, we removed references to the defunct Farm Credit System Financial Assistance Corporation (FAC) in § 615.5206(a); we removed §§ 615.5206(d) and 615.5208(c), which pertain to the FAC; and we made other minor nonsubstantive and technical changes.
In § 615.5207, which pertains to adjustments in the permanent capital computation, we made revisions in paragraph (f) to require deduction of an investment in the Funding Corporation and in paragraph (j) to eliminate the exclusion of AOCI and to require the exclusion of any defined benefit pension fund net asset, in order to make the deductions from the numerator of the permanent capital calculation consistent with the deductions from the denominator.
We removed §§ 615.5209 through 615.5212, which pertain to risk-weighting for the permanent capital ratio. Under the final rule, the denominator of the permanent capital ratio will be computed using the risk weightings in part 628.
In § 615.5220, which pertains to the capitalization bylaws, we made minor nonsubstantive and technical changes.
In § 615.5240, which sets forth a number of permanent capital requirements, we added a reference to the regulatory capital standards in proposed part 628.
In § 615.5250, which contains disclosure requirements for borrower stock, we added references to the regulatory capital standards in part 628.
In § 615.5255, which contains disclosure and review requirements for other equities, we added a reference to the new part 628 capital standards as suggested by the System Comment Letter and made minor nonsubstantive and technical changes. We did not make other changes requested by the System. In the event a disclosure statement is deemed to be cleared 60 days after receipt by the FCA of a proposed disclosure statement under paragraph (f), we did not add a reference to new part 628 that would have permitted the institution to treat the proposed issuance as CET1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital. This is consistent with the existing regulation's approach to core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral. We also did not shorten the FCA review period from 30 days to 5 days in paragraph (h) or the review period from 60 days to 30 days in paragraph (f). The suggested timeframes are not adequate for the agency's review procedures. In the case of third-party capital issuances, we are sensitive to the fact that institutions often have tight timeframes related to market expectations and timing, and we believe that we have been able to accommodate requests to expedite our review procedures whenever feasible.
We revised § 615.5270, pertaining to the retirement of equities other than eligible (protected) borrower stock, to incorporate restrictions and limits on redemptions of equities that are included in tier 1 and tier 2 capital.
In § 615.5290, pertaining to the retirement of capital stock and participation certificates in the event of restructuring, we made minor nonsubstantive and technical changes.
In § 615.5295, which pertains to the payment of dividends, we added a reference to part 628.
We removed part 615, subpart K, which contained the requirements for the core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral standards.
In §§ 615.5350, 615.5352, and 615.5355, pertaining to the establishment of minimum capital ratios for an individual institution, we replaced references to core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral with references to tier 1 and tier 2 capital.
In § 620.5, which lists the required contents of a System institution's annual report, we replaced references to core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral with references to the new part 628 regulatory capital requirements (including initial compliance plans under § 628.301) in paragraphs (d)(1)(ix), (f)(2) and (3), and (g)(4). In addition, we added a new paragraph (4) in § 620.5(f) to require disclosure of the core surplus, total surplus, and net collateral ratios in System institutions' annual reports for the years 2017-2021 for as long as these years are part of the “previous 5 fiscal years” for which disclosures are required.
We revised § 620.17, pertaining to notifying stockholders when a System institution falls below minimum capital requirements, to expand the notification requirement to include the regulatory capital standards in part 628.
In § 624.12, pertaining to the margin and capital requirements for covered
In § 627.2710, which sets forth the grounds for appointing a conservator or receiver, we deleted references to the total surplus and net collateral ratios.
Our proposed rule provided for an effective date of January 1, 2016. In the final rule, we are adopting an effective date of January 1, 2017.
We also proposed a 3-year phase-in period for the capital conservation buffer but without any transition or phase-in periods for regulatory adjustments to or deductions in the regulatory capital calculations. By contrast, Basel III and the U.S. rule have, in addition to the capital conservation buffer, numerous phase-in and transition periods for the capital regulations lasting from 2014 (2015 for banking organizations not using the advanced approaches rules) until 2019 or after. Many of the transition provisions pertain to regulatory deductions and adjustments, minority interests, and temporary inclusion of non-qualifying instruments. We have determined that most of the transition and phase-in periods are not needed to give System institutions sufficient time to come into compliance with the new standards.
We have analyzed every System institution's call report data for September 30, 2015. In our analysis, we first assumed that all institutions would extend their redemption and revolvement programs to 7 years and would adopt required bylaw provisions or an annual board resolution for inclusion in CET1 capital. Under this scenario, we concluded that all System institutions would meet all the minimum amounts including the buffers for the final CET1, tier 1 and total capital risk-based ratios if those requirements were in effect today. We then assumed, alternatively, that those institutions that redeem allocated equities would not extend their revolvement periods to 7 years and could not include them under CET1. Under this scenario as well, these institutions would still exceed the minimum capital requirements. Therefore, based on current information, all System institutions should exceed the minimum regulatory ratios on the effective date of the rule. The FCA believes that most, if not all, System institutions would adopt a bylaw provision or annual board resolution to ensure that the non-qualified allocated equities they do not redeem will meet the definition of URE equivalents, and that those equities that are routinely redeemed will be included in CET1.
For the risk weightings, we used current risk weights under FCA's existing capital regulations. For System associations, we assumed the final risk weightings would not be materially different from existing risk weightings in existing regulations. The most significant change to risk weights for associations would be past-due and non-accrual exposures, as well as the credit conversation factors for certain unused commitments. As just stated, we believe the changes in risk weights for associations would result in a negligible impact to current risk weighted asset amounts and that it is appropriate to use existing risk weights in our analysis.
For System banks, we believe that certain new risk weights or conversion factors could have a material impact. For instance, System banks will need to hold additional capital for their unconditionally cancelable unused commitments, as well as the unused commitments on the direct loans to their affiliated associations. To account for the new risk weights, our analysis increased risk-adjusted assets by 20 percent for each bank. With this increase, all banks still exceeded the minimum amounts (including the buffers) for the final CET1, tier 1 and total capital risk-based ratios. Our existing core surplus rules require both banks and associations to exclude shared capital; however, under the Tier 1/Tier 2 Capital Framework, System banks will be able to count the stock and equities they have issued or allocated to System associations in their regulatory capital ratios.
All System institutions would meet the 4.0 percent minimum tier 1 leverage ratio and 1 percent leverage buffer (including the 1.5-percent component of the ratio for URE and equivalents) if the final requirements were effective today. Our analysis indicates that the leverage ratio would not be a constraining ratio for System associations because total assets closely parallel risk-adjusted assets and the associations have strong tier 1 capital levels. The leverage ratios for associations will be similar to their tier 1 capital risk-based ratios. If the final rule were effective today, all System banks would exceed the 4.0 percent minimum tier 1 leverage ratio and 1-percent leverage buffer; however, one bank, which had a 5.4-percent tier 1 leverage ratio on September 30, 3015, would be near the leverage buffer requirement. Additionally, all System banks would significantly exceed the 1.5-percent URE and URE equivalents component of the minimum leverage ratio. This analysis assumed that System banks would be able to include all their non-qualified allocated surplus as URE equivalents. The System banks' tier 1 leverage ratios would be significantly lower than their tier 1 risk-based ratios because a large portion of their loans are to their affiliated associations and are risk weighted at 20 percent.
The final rule includes a phase-in period for the capital conservation buffer beginning January 1, 2017, with the buffer fully phased-in beginning January 1, 2020. Unlike the U.S. rule's adjustments and deductions transitions, the calculation of our capital conservation buffer will not change over the phase-in period, and there will be no additional burden on System institutions to revise how it is calculated each year. Rather, the amount of the minimum capital conservation buffer increases every year until fully phased-in. The transition period for the U.S. rule began in 2015 and will be fully phased in as of January 1, 2019. As noted above, the FCA's final rule will become effective for the reporting periods beginning in 2017.
In the event that some System institutions do not meet the tier 1 and tier 2 minimum capital ratios as of the effective date, the final rule permits them to comply by submitting a capital restoration plan. The plan requires FCA approval, and the institution will be required to submit its proposed plan within 20 days of the quarter-end during which the new capital standards become effective—
Pursuant to section 605(b) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
As we stated in the preamble to the final merger rule published August 24, 2015 (80 FR 51113), the RFA definition of a small entity incorporates the Small Business Administration (SBA) definition of a “small business concern,” including its size standards. A small business concern is one independently owned and operated, and not dominant in its field of operation. For purposes of the RFA, the interrelated ownership, supervisory control, and contractual relationship between associations and their funding banks are the basis for FCA's conclusion to treat them as a single entity. Therefore, System institutions do not satisfy the RFA definition of “small entities.”
The FCA is adopting this final rule (final rule or rule) to update the regulatory capital rules for the System to include provisions consistent with those suggested by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) to the international regulatory capital framework, the U.S. rule, and the requirements of the Dodd-Frank Act. Among other things, the final rule:
• Establishes a minimum risk-based common equity tier 1 (CET1) risk-based ratio of 4.5 percent;
• Establishes a minimum tier 1 risk-based ratio of 6 percent;
• Establishes a minimum total capital risk-based ratio of 8 percent;
• Establishes a minimum tier 1 leverage ratio of 4 percent, of which at least 1.5 percent must consist of unallocated retained earnings (URE) and URE equivalents;
• Establishes a capital conservation buffer of 2.5 percent and a leverage buffer of 1 percent below which an institution's discretionary capital distributions and bonuses would be limited or prohibited without FCA approval;
• Increases capital requirements for past-due and nonaccrual loans and certain short-term unused loan commitments;
• Expands the recognition of collateral and guarantors in determining risk weighted assets;
• Removes references to credit ratings;
• Establishes due diligence requirements for securitization exposures; and
• Increases required regulatory capital disclosures of System banks.
This addendum summarizes the final rule. The FCA intends for this addendum to act as a guide for System institutions to navigate the rule and identify the provisions that may be most relevant to them, but it is not comprehensive. The FCA expects and encourages all System institutions to review the final rule in its entirety.
We remind System institutions that the presence of a particular risk weighting does not itself provide authority for a System institution to have an exposure to that asset or item.
(a) Common cooperative equities (purchased member stock, purchased participation certificates, and allocated equities) with the following key criteria (among others):
• Borrower stock (regardless of redemption or revolvement period) up to the statutory minimum of $1000 or 2 percent of the loan amount, whichever is less;
• Equities are perpetual;
• Equities subject to discretionary revolvement or redemption are not retired for at least 7 years after issuance;
• Equities can be retired only with FCA prior approval (unless it is the statutory minimum borrower stock requirement or unless the distribution meets “safe harbor” standards) and the System institution has a capitalization bylaw or board of directors resolution (which must be re-affirmed annually) providing that it must obtain FCA approval prior to redeeming or revolving any equities it includes in CET1 before the end of the 7-year period;
• Equities represent a claim subordinated to all preferred stock, all subordinated debt, and all liabilities of the institution in a receivership, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(b) Unallocated retained earnings (URE); and
(c) Paid-in capital resulting from a merger of System institutions or repurchase of third-party capital.
In the final rule, System institutions are not required to include accumulated other comprehensive income in CET1.
Equities other than common cooperative equities (
(a) Equities, which may be common cooperative equities or equities held by third parties, not includable in Tier 1 with the following key criteria:
• Equities are perpetual or have an original maturity of at least 5 years;
• Equities subject to discretionary revolvement or redemption are not retired for at least 5 years after issuance; and
• Equities may not be redeemed or revolved prior to maturity or the end of the stated revolvement period without FCA prior approval (unless the distribution meets “safe harbor” standards);
(b) Subordinated debt that is not callable for at least 5 years and not subject to acceleration except in the event of a receivership, liquidation, or similar proceeding; and
(c) Allowance for losses (ALL) up to 1.25 percent of total risk weighted assets.
• Goodwill, intangible assets, gains-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure, defined benefit pension fund net assets, and deferred tax assets due to net operating loss carryforwards, all of which are net of associated deferred tax liabilities; and
• The System institution's allocated equity investments in another System institution.
A System institution's purchased equity investments in other System institutions must be deducted using the corresponding deduction approach. This means that a System institution would make deductions from the component of capital for which the underlying instrument qualified if it were issued by the System institution itself.
FCA prior approval would be required for redemption of equities included in tier 1 and tier 2, comparable to Basel III and the banking agencies' rule. Prior approval is also required for cash dividends and cash patronage payments in excess of a specified level, comparable to U.S. banking law and regulations. Exceptions to the FCA prior approval requirement are that System institutions can redeem member stock up to an amount equal to the Farm Credit Act's minimum member-borrower stock requirement of $1,000 or 2 percent of the member's loan, whichever is less. In addition, this amount of borrower stock would not have to be outstanding for a minimum period of 7 years in order for the institution to include it in CET1. However, redemptions of such amounts of stock would be included in the calculation for the “safe harbor” in proposed § 628.22(f)(5).
Under the proposed “safe harbor,” FCA prior approval is deemed to be granted (
(a) For revolvements or redemptions of common cooperative equities included in CET1 capital, such equities were issued or allocated at least 7 years before the revolvement or redemption (except the equities are not subject to the 7-year minimum if they are held by the estate of a deceased former borrower, if the institution is required to redeem or revolve the equities under a § 615.5290 restructuring, or if a court order requires the institution to redeem or revolve the equities);
(b) For redemptions or revolvements of common cooperative equities included in Tier 2 capital, such equities were issued or allocated at least 5 years before the redemption or revolvement (except the equities are not subject to the 5-year minimum if they are held by the estate of a deceased former borrower, if the institution is required to redeem or revolve the equities under a § 615.5290 restructuring, or if a court order requires the institution to redeem or revolve the equities);
(c) After such cash payments, the dollar amount of the System institution's CET1 capital equals or exceeds the dollar amount of CET1 capital on the same date of the previous calendar year; and
(d) After such cash payments, the System institution continues to comply with all minimum regulatory capital requirements and supervisory or enforcement actions.
The capital conservation buffer of 2.5 percent and the leverage buffer of 1 percent provide a cushion above regulatory capital minimums. The buffers' purpose is to restrict an institution's discretionary capital distributions of earnings before that institution reaches the minimum capital requirements.
If a System institution's CET1, tier 1
• The System institution's CET1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum CET1 capital ratio of 4.5 percent;
• The System institution's tier 1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent; and
• The System institution's total capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum total capital ratio of 8 percent.
If the CET1 ratio, tier 1 ratio,
A System institution's leverage buffer is the institution's tier 1 leverage ratio minus the minimum tier 1 leverage ratio of 4 percent. If the tier 1 leverage ratio is below 4 percent, the leverage buffer is zero.
• An exposure to the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency—§ 628.32(a)(1)(i)(A);
• The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency—§ 628.32(a)(1)(i)(B);
• An exposure to a sovereign entity that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(a) and Table 1;
• Exposures to certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks—§ 628.32(b);
• Cash—§ 628.32(l);
• Certain gold bullion—§ 628.32(l);
• Certain exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions with a central counterparty—§ 628.32(l);
• An exposure to an OTC derivative contract that meets certain criteria—§ 628.37(b)(3)(i);
• The collateralized portion of an exposure with respect to which the financial collateral meets certain criteria—§ 628.37(b)(3)(iii); and
• An equity exposure to any entity whose credit exposures receive a 0-percent risk weight—§ 628.52(b)(1).
• The portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency—§ 628.32(a)(1)(ii);
• An exposure to a sovereign entity that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(a) and Table 1;
• An exposure to a GSE, other than an equity exposure or preferred stock—§ 628.32(c)(1);
• Most exposures to U.S.- or state-organized depository institutions or credit unions, including those that are OFIs—§ 628.32(d)(1);
• An exposure to a foreign bank that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(d)(2) and Table 2;
• A general obligation exposure to a U.S. or state PSE—§ 628.32(e)(1)(i);
• An exposure to a non-U.S. PSE that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(4)(i) and Table 3;
• Cash items in the process of collection—§ 628.32(l)(2);
• A loan that a System bank makes to an association (a direct loan)—§ 628.32(m); and
• An equity exposure to a PSE or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac)—§ 628.52(b)(2).
• An exposure to a sovereign entity that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(a) and Table 1;
• An exposure to a foreign bank that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(d)(2) and Table 2;
• A revenue obligation exposure to a U.S. or state PSE—§ 628.32(e)(1)(ii);
• An exposure to a non-U.S. PSE that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4)(ii) and Tables 3 and 4;
• An exposure to an OFI that is not a depository institution or credit union but that is investment grade or that meets capital, risk identification and control, and operational standards similar to depository institutions and credit unions; and
• First lien residential mortgage exposures that meet certain criteria—§ 628.32(g).
• An exposure to a sovereign entity that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(a) and Table 1;
• Preferred stock issued by a non-System GSE—§ 628.32(c)(2);
• An exposure to a foreign bank that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(d)(2) and Table 2;
• An exposure to a non-U.S. PSE that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(5) and Tables 3 and 4;
• All corporate exposures—§ 628.32(f). This category would include the following:
○ Borrower loans such as agricultural loans and consumer loans, regardless of the corporate form of the borrower, unless those loans qualify for different risk weights under other risk-weighting provisions;
○ System bank exposures to OFIs that do not satisfy the criteria for a 20-percent or a 50-percent risk weight; and
○ Premises, fixed assets, and other real estate owned;
• All residential mortgage exposures that do not satisfy the criteria for a 50-percent risk weight—§ 628.32(g);
• Deferred tax assets arising from temporary differences that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks—§ 628.32(l)(3);
• All mortgage servicing assets—§ 628.32(l)(4);
• All assets that are not specifically assigned a different risk weight and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 628.22—§ 628.32(l)(5);
• The effective portion of a hedge pair—§ 628.52(b)(3)(ii); and
• Non-significant equity exposures—§ 628.52(b)(3)(iii).
• An exposure to a sovereign entity that meet certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(a) and Table 1;
• A sovereign exposure, if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years—§ 628.32(a)(6) and Table 1;
• An exposure to a foreign bank, if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years in the foreign bank's home country—§ 628.32(d)(2)(iv) and Table 2;
• An exposure to a non-U.S. PSE that meets certain criteria (as discussed below)—§ 628.32(e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(5) and Tables 3 and 4;
• An exposure to a PSE, if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years in the PSE's home country—§ 628.32(e)(6) and Tables 3 and 4; and
• The portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure that is not guaranteed or that is not secured by financial collateral (except for a sovereign exposure or a residential mortgage exposure, both risk weighted as discussed above)—§ 628.32(k).
• An equity exposure to an investment firm, provided that the investment firm meets specified conditions—§ 628.52(b).
• Certain high-risk securitization exposures, such as CEIO strips—§§ 628.41-628.45.
• One hundred percent (100%)—residential mortgage exposures—§ 628.32(g);
• A System institution may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section—§ 628.32(k)(2);
• A System institution may assign a risk weight to the portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure that is collateralized by financial collateral based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.37 if the financial collateral meets the requirements of that section—§ 628.32(k)(3); and
• One hundred fifty percent (150%)—all other past due and nonaccrual exposures—§ 628.32(k)
• Zero percent (0%)—commitment that is unconditionally cancellable by the System institution;
• Twenty percent (20%)—
○ Commitment, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of 14 months or less that is not unconditionally cancellable by the System institution;
○ Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of 14 months or less; and
○ A System bank's commitment to an association or OFI that is not unconditionally cancelable by the System bank, regardless of maturity.
• Fifty percent (50%)—
○ Commitments, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of more than 14 months that are not unconditionally cancellable by the System institution; and
○ Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit;
• One hundred percent (100%)—
○ Guarantees;
○ Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has sold subject to repurchase);
○ Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
○ Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has lent under the transaction);
○ Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the System institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);
○ Financial standby letters of credit; and
○ Forward agreements.
A System institution determines the risk-based capital requirement for a derivative contract by determining the exposure amount and then assigning a risk weight based on the counterparty or collateral. The exposure amount is the sum of current exposure plus potential future credit exposure (PFE). The current credit exposure is the greater of 0 or the mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract. The PFE is generally the notional amount of the derivative contract multiplied by a credit conversion factor for the type of derivative contract. Table 1 to § 628.34 shows the credit conversion factors for derivative contracts.
The rule introduces a specific capital treatment for exposures to central counterparties (CCPs), including certain transactions conducted through clearing members by System institutions that are not themselves clearing members of a CCP. Section 628.35 describes the capital treatment of cleared transactions and of default fund exposures to CCPs, including more favorable capital treatment for cleared transactions through CCPs that meet certain criteria.
The rule allows a System institution to substitute the risk weight of an eligible guarantor for the risk weight otherwise applicable to the guaranteed exposure. This treatment applies only to
The rule allows System institutions to recognize the risk-mitigating benefits of financial collateral (as defined) in risk weighted assets. In all cases, the System institution must have a perfected, first priority interest in the financial collateral.
Where the collateral satisfies specified criteria, a System institution may use the simple approach—that is, it may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral by using the risk weight of the collateral. There is a general risk weight floor of 20 percent.
For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions, a System institution may instead use the collateral haircut approach—that is, it may reduce the amount of exposure to be risk weighted (rather than substituting the risk weight of the collateral).
A System institution must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
The rule provides for a separate risk-based capital requirement for transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This capital requirement does not, however, apply to certain types of transactions, including cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin. The rule contains separate treatments for delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions with a normal settlement period, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions with a normal settlement period.
The rule introduces due diligence and other requirements for System institutions that own, originate, or purchase securitization exposures and introduces a new definition of securitization exposure. Under the rule, a System institution that originates the underlying exposures included in a securitization could have a securitization exposure and, if so, would be subject to the requirements.
Note that mortgage-backed pass-through securities (for example, those guaranteed by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation or the Federal National Mortgage Association) do not meet the definition of a securitization exposure because they do not involve a tranching of credit risk. Rather, only those MBS that involve tranching of credit risk are securitization exposures.
A System institution must apply a simple risk-weight approach (SRWA) to
The approaches described in this section apply to equity exposures to investment funds such as mutual funds, but not to hedge funds or other leveraged investment funds. For exposures to investment funds, a System institution must use one of three risk-weighting approaches: The full-look through approach; the simple modified look-through approach; or the alternative modified look-through approach.
A System institution must risk weight an exposure to a foreign government, foreign public sector entity (PSE), and a foreign bank based on the Country Risk Classification (CRC) that is applicable to the foreign government, or the home country of the foreign PSE or foreign bank. If a foreign country does not have a CRC, the risk weighting for its government, PSEs, and banks depends on whether or not the country is a member of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). A sovereign exposure is assigned a 150-percent risk weight immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years.
The risk weights for foreign sovereigns, foreign banks, and foreign PSEs are shown in the tables below:
The rule requires each System bank, generally on a quarterly basis, to make public disclosures related to its capital requirements. Disclosures are required as follows:
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
Agriculture Banks, Banking, Rural areas.
Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Foreign trade, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Government securities, Investments, Rural areas.
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Rural areas.
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Capital, Cooperatives, Credit, Margin requirements, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Risk, Rural areas, Swaps.
Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Claims, Rural areas.
Accounting, Agriculture, Banks, Banking, Capital, Government securities, Investments, Rural areas.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, parts 607, 611, 614, 615, 620, 624, 627, and 628 of chapter VI, title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations are amended as follows:
Secs. 5.15, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2250, 2252) and 12 U.S.C. 3025.
(b)
Secs. 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 1.13, 2.0, 2.1, 2.2, 2.10, 2.11, 2.12, 3.0, 3.1, 3.2, 3.21, 4.12, 4.12A, 4.15, 4.20, 4.21, 5.9, 5.17, 6.9, 6.26, 7.0-7.13, 8.5(e) of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2002, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2021, 2071, 2072, 2073, 2091, 2092, 2093, 2121, 2122, 2123, 2142, 2183, 2184, 2203, 2208, 2209, 2243, 2252, 2278a-9, 2278b-6, 2279a-2279f-1, 2279aa-5(e)); secs. 411 and 412 of Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1638; sec. 414 of Pub. L. 100-399, 102 Stat. 989, 1004.
(e)
42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128; secs. 1.3, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.9, 1.10, 1.11, 2.0, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.10, 2.12, 2.13, 2.15, 3.0, 3.1, 3.3, 3.7, 3.8, 3.10, 3.20, 3.28, 4.12, 4.12A, 4.13B, 4.14, 4.14A, 4.14C, 4.14D, 4.14E, 4.18, 4.18A, 4.19, 4.25, 4.26, 4.27, 4.28, 4.36, 4.37, 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 7.0, 7.2, 7.6, 7.8, 7.12, 7.13, 8.0, 8.5 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2011, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2071, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2091, 2093, 2094, 2097, 2121, 2122, 2124, 2128, 2129, 2131, 2141, 2149, 2183, 2184, 2201, 2202, 2202a, 2202c, 2202d, 2202e, 2206, 2206a, 2207, 2211, 2212, 2213, 2214, 2219a, 2219b, 2243, 2244, 2252, 2279a, 2279a-2, 2279b, 2279c-1, 2279f, 2279f-1, 2279aa, 2279aa-5); sec. 413 of Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1639.
(a) * * *
(2) Any amounts of preferred stock not eligible to be included in total capital as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter must be deducted from the lending limit base, except that otherwise eligible third-party capital that is required to be excluded from total capital under § 628.23 of this chapter may be included in the lending limit base.
Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.10, 1.11, 1.12, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 3.11, 3.25, 4.3,
(a) * * *
(3) It must be excluded as collateral under § 615.5050.
(b) * * *
(4) You may continue to hold the investment as collateral under § 615.5050 at the lower of cost or market value; and
(a) The Board of Directors of each System institution shall determine the amount of regulatory capital needed to assure the System institution's continued financial viability and to provide for growth necessary to meet the needs of its borrowers. The minimum capital standards specified in this part and part 628 of this chapter are not meant to be adopted as the optimal capital level in the System institution's capital adequacy plan. Rather, the standards are intended to serve as minimum levels of capital that each System institution must maintain to protect against the credit and other general risks inherent in its operations.
(b) Each Board of Directors shall establish, adopt, and maintain a formal written capital adequacy plan as a part of the financial plan required by § 618.8440 of this chapter. The plan shall include the capital targets that are necessary to achieve the System institution's capital adequacy goals as well as the minimum permanent capital, common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital, tier 1 capital, total capital, and tier 1 leverage ratios (including the unallocated retained earnings (URE) and URE equivalents minimum) standards. The plan shall address any projected dividend payments, patronage payments, equity retirements, or other action that may decrease the System institution's capital or the components thereof for which minimum amounts are required by this part and part 628 of this chapter. The plan shall set forth the circumstances and minimum timeframes in which equities may be redeemed or revolved consistent with the System institution's applicable bylaws or board of directors resolutions. Such bylaws or resolutions must include the information described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(c) In addition to factors that must be considered in meeting the minimum standards, the board of directors shall also consider at least the following factors in developing the capital adequacy plan:
(1) Capability of management and the board of directors (the assessment of which may be a part of the assessments required in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(7)(i) of § 618.8440 of this chapter);
(2) Quality of operating policies, procedures, and internal controls;
(3) Quality and quantity of earnings;
(4) Asset quality and the adequacy of the allowance for losses to absorb potential loss within the loan and lease portfolios;
(5) Sufficiency of liquid funds;
(6) Needs of a System institution's customer base; and
(7) Any other risk-oriented activities, such as funding and interest rate risks, potential obligations under joint and several liability, contingent and off-balance-sheet liabilities or other conditions warranting additional capital.
(d) In order to include otherwise eligible purchased and allocated equities in tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital under part 628 of this chapter, a System institution must adopt a capitalization bylaw, or its board of directors must adopt a resolution, which resolution must be re-affirmed by the board on an annual basis in the capital adequacy plan, in which the institution undertakes the following:
(1) The institution shall obtain prior FCA approval under § 628.20(f) of this chapter before:
(i) Redeeming or revolving equities included in CET1 capital;
(ii) Redeeming or calling equities included in additional tier 1 capital; and
(iii) Redeeming, revolving, or calling instruments included in tier 2 capital other than limited life preferred stock or subordinated debt on the maturity date.
(2) The institution shall have a minimum redemption or revolvement period of 7 years for equities included in CET1 capital, a minimum no-call or redemption period of 5 years for additional tier 1 capital, and a minimum no-call, redemption, or revolvement period of 5 years for tier 2 capital.
(3) The institution shall obtain prior FCA approval before:
(i) Redesignating URE equivalents as equities that the institution may exercise its discretion to redeem other than upon dissolution or liquidation;
(ii) Removing equities or other instruments from CET1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital other than through repurchase, cancellation, redemption or revolvement; and
(iii) Redesignating equities included in one component of regulatory capital (CET1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital) for inclusion in another component of regulatory capital.
(4) The institution shall not exercise its discretion to revolve URE equivalents except upon dissolution or liquidation and shall not offset URE equivalents against a loan in default except as required under final order of a court of competent jurisdiction or if required under § 615.5290 in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
For the purpose of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
(1) A temporary difference that a System institution could realize through a net loss carryback;
(2) A temporary difference that a System institution could not realize through net loss carryback; and
(3) An operating loss and tax credit carryforward.
(1) Current year earnings;
(2) Allocated and unallocated earnings (which, in the case of earnings allocated in any form by a System bank to any association or other recipient and retained by the bank, must be considered, in whole or in part, permanent capital of the bank or of any such association or other recipient as provided under an agreement between the bank and each such association or other recipient);
(3) All surplus;
(4) Stock issued by a System institution, except:
(i) Stock that may be retired by the holder of the stock on repayment of the holder's loan, or otherwise at the option or request of the holder;
(ii) Stock that is protected under section 4.9A of the Act or is otherwise not at risk;
(iii) Farm Credit Bank equities required to be purchased by Federal land bank associations in connection with stock issued to borrowers that is protected under section 4.9A of the Act;
(iv) Capital subject to revolvement, unless:
(A) The bylaws of the System institution clearly provide that there is no express or implied right for such capital to be retired at the end of the revolvement cycle or at any other time; and
(B) The System institution clearly states in the notice of allocation that such capital may only be retired at the sole discretion of the board of directors in accordance with statutory and regulatory requirements and that the institution does not grant any express or implied right to have such capital retired at the end of the revolvement cycle or at any other time;
(5) [Reserved]
(6) Financial assistance provided by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation that the FCA determines appropriate to be considered permanent capital; and
(7) Any other debt or equity instruments or other accounts the FCA has determined are appropriate to be considered permanent capital. The FCA may permit one or more System institutions to include all or a portion of such instrument, entry, or account as permanent capital, permanently or on a temporary basis, for purposes of this part.
(a) The System institution's permanent capital ratio is determined on the basis of the financial statements of the System institution prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
(b) The System institution's asset base and permanent capital are computed using average daily balances for the most recent 3 months.
(c) The System institution's permanent capital ratio is calculated by dividing the System institution's permanent capital, adjusted in accordance with § 615.5207 (the numerator), by the risk-adjusted asset base (the denominator) as defined in § 615.5201, to derive a ratio expressed as a percentage.
For the purpose of computing the System institution's permanent capital ratio, the following adjustments must be made prior to assigning assets to risk-weight categories and computing the ratio:
(a) Where two System institutions have stock investments in each other, such reciprocal holdings must be eliminated to the extent of the offset. If the investments are equal in amount, each System institution must deduct from its assets and its permanent capital an amount equal to the investment. If the investments are not equal in amount, each System institution must deduct from its permanent capital and its assets an amount equal to the smaller investment. The elimination of reciprocal holdings required by this paragraph must be made prior to making the other adjustments required by this section.
(b) Where an association has an equity investment in a System bank, the double counting of capital is eliminated in the following manner:
(1) For a purchased investment, each association must deduct its investment in a System bank from its permanent capital. Each System bank will consider all purchased stock investments as its permanent capital.
(2) For an allocated investment, each System bank and each of its affiliated associations may enter into an agreement that specifies, for computing permanent capital only, a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the association's allocated investment between the bank and the association. Section 615.5208 provides conditions for allotment agreements or defines allotments in the absence of such agreements.
(c) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank and a recipient, other than an affiliated association, of allocated earnings from such bank may enter into an agreement specifying a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the recipient's allocated earnings in the bank between the bank and the recipient. Such agreement must comply with § 615.5208, except that, in the absence of an agreement, the allocated investment must be allotted 100 percent to the allocating bank and 0 percent to the recipient. All equities of the bank that are purchased by a recipient are considered as permanent capital of the issuing bank.
(d) A bank for cooperatives and a recipient of allocated earnings from such bank may enter into an agreement specifying a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the recipient's allocated earnings in the bank between the bank and the recipient. Such agreement must comply with § 615.5208, except that, in the absence of an agreement, the allocated investment must be allotted 100 percent to the allocating bank and 0 percent to the recipient. All equities of a bank that are purchased by a recipient shall be considered as permanent capital of the issuing bank.
(e) Where a System institution has an equity investment in another System institution to capitalize a loan participation interest, the investing System institution must deduct from its permanent capital an amount equal to its investment in the participating System institution.
(f) Each System institution must deduct from permanent capital any equity investment in a service corporation chartered under section 4.25 of the Act or the Funding Corporation chartered under section 4.9 of the Act.
(g) Each System institution must deduct from its permanent capital an amount equal to all goodwill, whenever acquired.
(h) Each System institution must deduct from its risk-adjusted asset base any item deducted from permanent capital under this section.
(i) Where a System bank and an association have an enforceable written agreement to share losses on specifically identified assets on a predetermined quantifiable basis, such assets must be counted in each System institution's risk-adjusted asset base in the same proportion as the System institutions have agreed to share the loss.
(j) The permanent capital of a System institution must exclude any accumulated other comprehensive income (loss) as reported under GAAP.
(k) For purposes of calculating capital ratios under this part, deferred-tax assets are subject to the conditions, limitations, and restrictions described in § 628.22(a)(3) of this chapter.
(l) [Reserved]
(a) The following conditions apply to agreements that a System bank enters into with an affiliated association pursuant to § 615.5207(b)(2):
(1) The agreement must be for a term of 1 year or longer.
(2) The agreement must be entered into on or before its effective date.
(3) The agreement may be amended according to its terms, but no more frequently than annually except in the event that a party to the agreement is merged or reorganized.
(4) On or before the effective date of the agreement, a certified copy of the agreement, and any amendments thereto, must be sent to the field office of the Farm Credit Administration responsible for examining the System institution. A copy must also be sent within 30 calendar days of adoption to the bank's other affiliated associations.
(5) Unless the parties otherwise agree, if the System bank and the association have not entered into a new agreement on or before the expiration of an existing agreement, the existing agreement will automatically be extended for another 12 months, unless either party notifies the Farm Credit Administration in writing of its objection to the extension prior to the expiration of the existing agreement.
(b) In the absence of an agreement between a System bank and one or more associations, or in the event that an agreement expires and at least one party has timely objected to the continuation of the terms of its agreement, the following formula applies with respect to the allocated investments held by those associations with which there is no agreement (nonagreeing associations), and does not apply to the allocated investments held by those associations with which the bank has an agreement (agreeing associations):
(1) The allotment formula must be calculated annually.
(2) The permanent capital ratio of the System bank must be computed as of the date that the existing agreement terminates, using a 3-month average daily balance, excluding the allocated investment from nonagreeing associations but including any allocated investments of agreeing associations that are allotted to the bank under applicable allocation agreements. The permanent capital ratio of each nonagreeing association must be computed as of the same date using a 3-month average daily balance, and must be computed excluding its allocated investment in the bank.
(3) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association whose permanent capital ratio calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the association.
(4) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association whose capital ratio is below 7 percent must be allotted to the association until the association's capital ratio reaches 7 percent or until all of the investment is allotted to the association, whichever occurs first. Any remaining unallotted allocated investment must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the association.
(5) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is less than 7 percent, the amount of additional capital needed by the bank to reach a permanent capital ratio of 7 percent must be determined, and an amount of the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association must be allotted to the System bank, as follows:
(i) If the total of the allocated investments of all nonagreeing associations is greater than the additional capital needed by the bank, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association must be multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the amount of capital needed by the bank and whose denominator is the total amount of allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations, and such amount must be allotted to the bank. Next, if the permanent capital ratio of any nonagreeing association is less than 7 percent, a sufficient amount of unallotted allocated investment must then be allotted to each nonagreeing association, as necessary, to increase its permanent capital ratio to 7 percent, or until all such remaining investment is allotted to the association, whichever occurs first. Any unallotted allocated investment still remaining must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the nonagreeing association.
(ii) If the additional capital needed by the bank is greater than the total of the allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations, all of the remaining allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations must be allotted to the bank.
(a) The board of directors of each System bank and association shall, pursuant to section 4.3A of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (Act), adopt capitalization bylaws, subject to the approval of its voting shareholders, that set forth:
(1) Classes of equities and the manner in which they shall be issued, transferred, converted and retired;
(2) For each class of equities, a description of the class(es) of persons to whom such stock may be issued, voting rights, dividend rights and preferences, and priority upon liquidation, including rights, if any, to share in the distribution of the residual estate;
(3) The number of shares and par value of equities authorized to be issued for each class of equities. However, the bylaws need not state a number or value limit for these equities:
(i) Equities that are required to be purchased as a condition of obtaining a loan, lease, or related service.
(ii) Non-voting stock resulting from the conversion of voting stock due to repayment of a loan.
(iii) Non-voting equities that are issued to an association's funding bank in conjunction with any agreement for
(iv) Equities resulting from the distribution of earnings.
(4) For Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks (with respect to loans other than to cooperatives), and associations, the percentage or dollar amount of equity investment (which may be expressed as a range within which the board of directors may from time to time determine the requirement) that will be required to be purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan, which amount shall be not less than 2 percent of the loan amount or $1,000, whichever is less;
(5) For banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks (with respect to loans to cooperatives), the percentage or dollar amount of equity or guaranty fund investment (which may be expressed as a range within which the board may from time to time determine the requirement) that serves as a target level of investment in the bank for patronage-sourced business, which amount shall not be less than, 2 percent of the loan amount or $1,000, whichever is less;
(6) The manner in which equities will be retired, including a provision stating that equities other than those protected under section 4.9A of the Act are retireable at the sole discretion of the board, provided minimum capital adequacy standards established in subpart H of this part, part 628 of this chapter, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution, are met;
(7) The manner in which earnings will be allocated and distributed, including the basis on which patronage will be paid, which shall be in accord with cooperative principles; and
(8) For System banks, the manner in which the capitalization requirements of the Farm Credit bank shall be allocated and equalized from time to time among its owners.
(b) The board of directors of each service corporation (including the Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation) shall adopt capitalization bylaws, subject to the approval of its voting shareholders, that set forth the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section to the extent applicable. Such bylaws shall also set forth the manner in which equities will be retired and the manner in which earnings will be distributed.
(a) The capitalization bylaws shall enable the institution to meet the capital adequacy standards established under subpart H of this part, part 628 of this chapter, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution.
(b) In order to qualify as permanent capital, equities issued under the bylaws must meet the following requirements:
(1) Retirement must be solely at the discretion of the board of directors and not upon a date certain (other than the original maturity date of preferred stock) or upon the happening of any event, such as repayment of the loan, and not pursuant to any automatic retirement or revolvement plan;
(2) Retirement must be at not more than book value;
(3) The institution must have made the disclosures required by this subpart;
(4) For common stock and participation certificates, dividends must be noncumulative and payable only at the discretion of the board; and
(5) For cumulative preferred stock, the board of directors must have discretion to defer payment of dividends.
(a) For sales of borrower stock, which for this subpart means equities purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan, a System institution must provide a prospective borrower with the following documents prior to loan closing:
(1) The institution's most recent annual report filed under part 620 of this chapter;
(2) The institution's most recent quarterly report filed under part 620 of this chapter, if more recent than the annual report;
(3) A copy of the institution's capitalization bylaws; and
(4) A written description of the terms and conditions under which the equity is issued. In addition to specific terms and conditions, the description must disclose:
(i) That the equity is an at-risk investment and not a compensating balance;
(ii) That the equity is retireable only at the discretion of the board of directors consistent with the institution's bylaws and only if minimum capital standards established under subpart H of this part and part 628 of this chapter are met and that such retirement may also require the approval of the FCA;
(iii) Whether the institution presently meets its minimum capital standards established under subpart H of this part and part 628 of this chapter;
(iv) Whether the institution knows of any reason the institution may not meet its capital standards on the next earnings distribution date; and
(v) The rights, if any, to share in patronage payments.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, no materials previously provided to a purchaser (except the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section) need be provided again unless the purchaser requests such materials.
(a) A bank, association, or service corporation must submit a proposed disclosure statement to the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) for review and clearance prior to the proposed sale of any other equities, which for this subpart means equities not purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan.
(b) An institution may not offer to sell other equities until a disclosure statement is reviewed and cleared by the FCA.
(c) A disclosure statement must include:
(1) All of the information required by parts 620 and 628 of this chapter in the annual report to shareholders as of a date within 135 days of the proposed sale. An institution may satisfy this requirement by referring to its most recent annual report to shareholders and the most recent quarterly report filed with the FCA, provided such reports contain the required information;
(2) The information required by § 615.5250(a)(3) and (4); and
(3) A discussion of the intended use of the sale proceeds.
(d) An institution is not required to provide the materials identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section to a purchaser who previously received them unless the purchaser requests it.
(e) For any class of stock where each purchaser and each subsequent transferee acquires at least $250,000 of the stock and meets the definition of “accredited investor” or “qualified institutional buyer” contained in 17 CFR 230.501 and 230.144A, a disclosure statement submitted pursuant to this section is deemed reviewed and cleared by the FCA and an institution may treat stock that meets all requirements of this part as permanent capital for the purpose of meeting the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H of this part, unless the FCA notifies the institution to the
(f) For all other issuances, a disclosure statement submitted pursuant to this section is deemed cleared by the FCA, and an institution may treat stock that meets all requirements of this part as permanent capital for the purpose of meeting the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H unless the FCA notifies the institution to the contrary within 60 days of receipt of a complete disclosure statement submission. A complete disclosure statement submission includes the proposed disclosure statement plus any additional materials requested by the FCA.
(g) Upon request, the FCA will inform the institution how it will treat the proposed issuance for other regulatory capital ratios or computations.
(h) No institution, officer, director, employee, or agent shall, in connection with the sale of equities, make any disclosure, through a disclosure statement or otherwise, that is inaccurate or misleading, or omit to make any statement needed to prevent other disclosures from being misleading.
(i) Each bank and association must establish a method to disclose and make information on insider preferred stock purchases and retirements readily available to the public. At a minimum, each institution offering preferred stock must make this information available upon request.
(j) The requirements of this section do not apply to the sale of Farm Credit System institution equities to:
(1) Other Farm Credit System institutions;
(2) Other financing institutions in connection with a lending or discount relationship; or
(3) Non-Farm Credit System lenders that purchase equities in connection with a loan participation transaction.
(k) In addition to the requirements of this section, each institution is responsible for ensuring its compliance with all applicable Federal and state securities laws.
(a) Equities other than eligible borrower stock shall be retired at not more than their book value.
(b) Subject to the redemption restrictions in part 628 of this chapter, no equities shall be retired, except pursuant to §§ 615.5280 and 615.5290 or term stock at its stated maturity, unless after retirement the institution would continue to meet the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H of this part, part 628 of this chapter, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution.
(c) A System bank, association, or service corporation board of directors may delegate authority to retire at-risk stock to institution management if:
(1) The board has determined that the institution's capital position is adequate;
(2) All retirements are in accordance with applicable provisions of part 628 of this chapter and the institution's capital adequacy plan or capital restoration plan;
(3) After any retirements, the institution's permanent capital ratio will be in excess of 9 percent, its capital conservation buffer set forth in § 628.11 of this chapter will be above 2.5 percent, and its leverage buffer set forth in § 628.11 of this chapter will be above 1.0 percent;
(4) The institution will continue to satisfy all applicable regulatory capital standards after any retirements; and
(5) Management reports the aggregate amount and net effect of stock purchases and retirements to the board of directors each quarter.
(d) Each board of directors of a System bank, association, or service corporation that issues preferred stock must adopt a written policy covering the retirement of preferred stock that complies with this paragraph and part 628 of this chapter. The policy must, at a minimum:
(1) Establish any delegations of authority to retire preferred stock and the conditions of delegation, which must meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and include minimum levels for regulatory capital standards as applicable and commensurate with the volatility of the preferred stock.
(2) Identify limitations on the amount of stock that may be retired during a single quarterly (or shorter) time period;
(3) Ensure that all stockholder requests for retirement are treated fairly and equitably;
(4) Prohibit any insider, including institution officers, directors, employees, or agents, from retiring any preferred stock in advance of the release of material non-public information concerning the institution to other stockholders; and
(5) Establish when insiders may retire their preferred stock.
(e) The institution's board must review its policy at least annually to ensure that it continues to be appropriate for the institution's current financial condition and consistent with its long-term goals established in its capital adequacy plan.
(a) If a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank forgives and writes off, under § 617.7415 of this chapter, any of the principal outstanding on a loan made to any borrower, where appropriate the Federal land bank association of which the borrower is a member and stockholder shall cancel the same dollar amount of borrower stock held by the borrower in respect of the loan, up to the total amount of such stock, and to the extent provided for in the bylaws of the Bank relating to its capitalization, the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall retire an equal amount of stock owned by the Federal land bank association.
(b) If an association forgives and writes off, under § 617.7415 of this chapter, any of the principal outstanding on a loan made to any borrower, the association shall cancel the same dollar amount of borrower stock held by the borrower in respect of the loan, up to the total amount of such loan.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the borrower shall be entitled to retain at least one share of stock to maintain the borrower's membership and voting interest.
(c) Each System bank, association, and service corporation must exclude any accrued but unpaid dividends from regulatory capital computations under this part and part 628 of this chapter.
(a) The rules and procedures specified in this subpart are applicable to a proceeding to establish required
(a)
An institution that does not have or maintain the minimum capital ratios applicable to it, whether required in subpart H of this part or part 628 of this chapter, in a decision pursuant to this subpart, in a written agreement or temporary or final order under part C of title V of the Act, or in a condition for approval of an application, or an institution that has failed to submit or comply with an acceptable plan to attain those ratios, will be subject to such administrative action or sanctions as the Farm Credit Administration considers appropriate. These sanctions may include the issuance of a capital directive pursuant to subpart M of this part or other enforcement action, assessment of civil money penalties, and/or the denial or condition of applications.
(a) This subpart is applicable to proceedings by the Farm Credit Administration to issue a capital directive under sections 4.3(b) and 4.3A(e) of the Act. A capital directive is an order issued to an institution that does not have or maintain capital at or greater than the minimum ratios set forth in § 615.5205 or § 628.10 of this chapter; or established for the institution under subpart L of this part, by a written agreement under part C of title V of the Act, or as a condition for approval of an application. A capital directive may order the institution to:
Secs. 4.3, 4.3A, 4.19, 5.9, 5.17, 5.19 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2154, 2154a, 2207, 2243, 2252, 2254); sec. 424 of Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1656; sec. 514 of Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102.
(d) * * *
(1) * * *
(ix) The statutory and regulatory restrictions regarding retirement of stock and distribution of earnings pursuant to § 615.5215 of this chapter, and any requirements to add capital under a plan approved by the Farm Credit Administration pursuant to § 615.5350, § 615.5351, § 615.5353, § 615.5357, or § 628.301 of this chapter.
(f) * * *
(2) * * *
(ii) CET1 capital ratio.
(iii) Tier 1 capital ratio.
(iv) Total capital ratio.
(v) Tier 1 leverage ratio.
(3) * * *
(ii) CET1 capital ratio.
(iii) Tier 1 capital ratio.
(iv) Total capital ratio.
(4) The annual report for each fiscal year ending in 2017 through 2021 shall also include in comparative columnar form for each fiscal year ending in 2012 through 2016, the following ratios:
(i) Core surplus ratio.
(ii) Total surplus ratio.
(iii) For banks only, net collateral ratio.
(iv) Tier 1 leverage ratio.
(g) * * *
(4) * * *
(ii) Describe any material trends or changes in the mix and cost of debt and capital resources. The discussion shall consider changes in permanent capital, CET1 capital, tier 1 capital, total capital, the tier 1 leverage ratio, debt, and any off-balance-sheet financial arrangements.
(a) For purposes of this section, “regulatory capital ratios” include the capital ratios specified in § 628.10 of this chapter and the permanent capital standard prescribed under § 615.5205 of this chapter.
(b) When a Farm Credit bank or association determines that it is not in compliance with one or more applicable minimum regulatory capital ratios, that institution must prepare and provide to its shareholders and the FCA a notice stating that the institution has initially determined it is not in compliance with the minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios. Such notice must be given within 30 days following the month end.
(c) When notice is given under paragraph (b) of this section, the institution must also notify its shareholders and the FCA when the regulatory capital ratio or ratios that are the subject of such notice decrease by one half of 1 percent or more from the level reported in the original notice, or from that reported in a subsequent notice provided under this paragraph (c). This notice must be given within 45 days following the end of every quarter at which the institution's regulatory capital ratio or ratios decrease as specified.
(d) Each institution required to prepare a notice under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section shall provide the notice to shareholders or publish it in any publication with circulation wide enough to be reasonably assured that all of the institution's shareholders have access to the information in a timely manner. The information required to be included in this notice must be conspicuous, easily understandable, and not misleading.
(e) A notice, at a minimum, shall include:
(1) A statement that:
(i) Briefly describes the minimum regulatory capital ratios established by the FCA and the notice requirement of paragraph (b) of this section;
(ii) Indicates the institution's current level of capital; and
(iii) Notifies shareholders that the institution's capital is below the FCA minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios.
(2) A statement of the effect that noncompliance has had on the institution and its shareholders, including whether the institution is currently prohibited by statute or regulation from retiring stock or distributing earnings or whether the FCA has issued a capital directive or other enforcement action to the institution.
(3) A complete description of any event(s) that may have significantly contributed to the institution's noncompliance with the minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios.
(4) A statement that the institution is required by regulation to provide another notice to shareholders within 45 days following the end of any subsequent quarter at which the regulatory capital ratio or ratios decrease by one half of 1 percent or more from the level reported in the notice.
7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 12 U.S.C. 2154, 12 U.S.C. 2243, 12 U.S.C. 2252, and 12 U.S.C. 2279bb-1.
(b) In the case of any Farm Credit System institution other than the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, the capital regulations set forth in parts 615 and 628 of this chapter.
Secs. 4.2, 5.9, 5.17, 5.51, 5.58, 5.61 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2243, 2244, 2252, 2277a, 2277a-7, 2277a-10).
Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.10, 1.11, 1.12, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 3.11, 3.25, 4.3, 4.3A, 4.9, 4.14B, 4.25, 5.9, 5.17, 6.20, 6.26, 8.0, 8.3, 8.4, 8.6, 8.7, 8.8, 8.10, 8.12 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2015, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2076, 2093, 2122, 2128, 2132, 2146, 2154, 2154a, 2160, 2202b, 2211, 2243, 2252, 2278b, 2278b-6, 2279aa, 2279aa-3, 2279aa-4, 2279aa-6, 2279aa-7, 2279aa-8, 2279aa-10, 2279aa-12); sec. 301(a), Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1608; sec. 939A, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1326, 1887 (15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(ii) [Reserved]
(4)
(ii) [Reserved]
(iii) [Reserved]
(d)
(2)
(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, FCA may find that a capital element may be included in a System institution's CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 628.20(e).
(3)
(4)
(5) [Reserved]
(6)
(e)
(f) [Reserved]
As used in this part:
(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) [Reserved]
(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client System institution and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 628.3(a) are met; or
(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client System institution and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client System institution to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 628.3(a)(2) and (3).
(2) [Reserved]
(1) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
(2) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition.
(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
(2) An exposure to a GSE;
(3) A residential mortgage exposure;
(4) [Reserved]
(5) [Reserved]
(6) [Reserved]
(7) A cleared transaction;
(8) [Reserved]
(9) A securitization exposure;
(10) An equity exposure; or
(11) An unsettled transaction.
(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
(1) Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50-percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
(2) Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE), provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
(3) Warranties that permit the return of underlying exposures in instances of misrepresentation, fraud, or incomplete documentation.
(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating System institution (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating System institution or servicer;
(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
(ii) For a synthetic securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the System institution records net payments received on the swap as net income, the System institution records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
(1) Is written;
(2) Is either:
(i) Unconditional; or
(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. Government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment; and
(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure.
(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
(1) An extension of credit where:
(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
(ii) The collateral is marked-to-fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the System institution the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case, any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership,
(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, a System institution must comply with the requirements of § 628.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement of advances, except that a servicer may be obligated to make non-reimbursable advances for a particular underlying exposure if any such advance is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that exposure;
(2) The servicer's right to reimbursement is senior in right of payment to all other claims on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization; and
(3) The servicer has no legal obligation to, and does not make advances to the securitization if the servicer concludes the advances are unlikely to be repaid.
(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the System institution under GAAP;
(ii) The System institution is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security; an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the System institution determines the exposure amount under § 628.37; a cleared transaction; or a securitization exposure), the System institution's carrying value of the exposure.
(2) For a security (that is not a securitization exposure, equity exposure, or preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP) classified as available-for-sale or held-to-maturity, the System institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
(3) For available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP, the System institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the System institution's regulatory capital components.
(4) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the System institution calculates the exposure amount under § 628.37; a cleared transaction; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 628.33.
(5) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount determined under § 628.34.
(6) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 628.35.
(7) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the bank calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 628.37, the exposure amount determined under § 628.37.
(8) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 628.42.
(1) In the form of:
(i) Cash on deposit at a depository institution or Federal Reserve Bank (including cash held for the System institution by a third-party custodian or trustee);
(ii) Gold bullion;
(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
(2) In which the System institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit at a depository institution or Federal Reserve Bank and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent).
(1) Where all or substantially all of the assets of the company are financial assets; and
(2) That has no material liabilities.
(1) That is not subject to such a master netting agreement; or
(2) Where the System institution has identified specific wrong-way risk.
(1) Those subject to revolvement; and
(2) Those not subject to revolvement. The second type for GAAP purposes is generally considered an equivalent of unallocated surplus and consolidated with unallocated surplus on externally prepared shareholder reports.
(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the System institution can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
(1) Directly or indirectly originated the underlying exposures included in the securitization; or
(2) [Reserved]
(1) Any exchange registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU), as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act;
(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
(iii) Meets the following standards:
(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
(B) The System institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FCA that the central counterparty:
(
(
(
(2)(i) Provides the System institution with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the System institution is required to obtain under § 628.35(d)(3);
(ii) Makes available to the FCA and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by the FCA to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under § 628.35.
(3) A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 628.3(f).
(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
(2) The agreement provides the System institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case, any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws reference in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition;
(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
(4) In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, a System institution must comply with the requirements of § 628.3(d) with respect to that agreement.
(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559) or a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; or
(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the System institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case, any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
(B) The transaction is:
(
(
(
(
(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
(1) An exposure that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property, provided that the dwelling (including attached components such as garages, porches, and decks) represents at least 50 percent of the total appraised value of the collateral secured by the first or subsequent lien; or
(2) [Reserved]
(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization); or
(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
(1) The sum of:
(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 628.31;
(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions as calculated under § 628.35;
(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 628.38;
(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 628.42;
(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under §§ 628.52 and 628.53; minus
(vi) [Reserved]
(2) Any amount of the System institution's allowance for loan losses that is not included in tier 2 capital.
(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual retail exposure);
(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating entity;
(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a rural business investment company described in 7 U.S.C. 2009cc
(7) [Reserved]
(8) The FCA may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
(9) The FCA may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
(10) The transaction is not:
(i) An investment fund;
(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in [12 CFR 9.18 (national bank) and 12 CFR 151.40 (Federal saving association) (OCC); 12 CFR 208.34 (Board)];
(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a System institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 628.22; or
(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof.
(1) Designates as URE equivalents at the time of allocation (or on or before March 31, 2017, if allocated prior to January 1, 2017) and undertakes in its capitalization bylaws or a currently effective board of directors resolution not to change the designation without prior FCA approval; and
(2) Undertakes, in its capitalization bylaws or a currently effective board of directors resolution, not to exercise its discretion to revolve except upon dissolution or liquidation and not to offset against a loan in default except as required under final order of a court of competent jurisdiction or if required under § 615.5290 of this chapter in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subpart D of this part:
(a)
(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the System institution from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients. Omnibus accounts established under 17 CFR parts 190 and 300 satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
(3) The System institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter
(b)
(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of “eligible margin loan” in § 628.2; and
(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
(c) [Reserved]
(d)
(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 628.2; and
(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 628.2.
(e)
(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 628.2, and
(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
(f)
(a)
(b)
(1) A common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio of 4.5 percent.
(2) A tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent.
(3) A total capital ratio of 8 percent.
(4) A tier 1 leverage ratio of 4 percent, of which at least 1.5 percent must be composed of URE and URE equivalents.
(5) [Reserved]
(6) A permanent capital ratio of 7 percent.
(c)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(d) [Reserved]
(e)
(2) A System institution must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital under § 615.5200 of this chapter.
(a)
(ii) The leverage buffer for the tier 1 leverage ratio is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) [Reserved]
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(A) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase, redemption, or revolvement of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when a System institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased, redeemed, or revolved by issuing a purchased capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
(
(
(B) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, redemption prior to maturity, or revolvement of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when a System institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase, redemption, or revolvement is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased, redeemed, or revolved by issuing a purchased capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
(C) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
(D) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any capital instrument other than a tier 1 capital instrument if the System institution has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default;
(E) A cash patronage declaration or payment;
(F) A patronage declaration in the form of allocated equities that did not qualify as tier 1 or tier 2 capital; or
(G) Any similar transaction that the FCA determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
(viii)
(A) The System institution retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the senior officer;
(B) The amount paid is determined by the System institution without prior promise to, or agreement with, the senior officer; and
(C) The senior officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
(ix)
(3)
(A) The System institution's CET1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum CET1 capital ratio requirement under § 628.10;
(B) The System institution's tier 1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 628.10;
(C) The System institution's total capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 628.10; and
(D) The System institution's tier 1 leverage ratio minus the System institution's minimum tier 1 leverage ratio requirement under § 628.10.
(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A) through (D) of this section, if the System institution's CET1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, total capital ratio or tier 1 leverage ratio is less than or equal to the System institution's minimum CET1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, total capital ratio or tier 1 leverage ratio requirement under § 628.10, respectively, the System institution's capital conservation buffer or leverage buffer is zero.
(4)
(ii) A System institution that has a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent and a leverage buffer that is greater than 1.0 percent is not subject to a maximum payout amount or maximum leverage payout amount under this section.
(iii)
(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent, or the leverage buffer was less than 1.0 percent, as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
(iv)
(v)
(vi) A System institution is subject to the lower of the maximum payout amount as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section and the maximum leverage payout amount as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(vi) of this section.
(b) [Reserved]
(a)
(1) CET1 capital;
(2) AT1 capital; and
(3) Tier 2 capital.
(b)
(1) Any common cooperative equity instrument issued by a System institution that meets all of the following criteria:
(i) The instrument is issued directly by the System institution and represents a claim subordinated to general creditors, subordinated debt holders, and preferred stock holders in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the System institution, the claim will be paid only after all creditors, subordinated debt holders, and preferred stock claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can be redeemed only at the discretion of the System institution and with the prior approval of FCA, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
(iv) The System institution did not create, through any action or communication, an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, redeem, or revolve the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation, except that the establishment of a revolvement period of 7 years or more, or the practice of redeeming or revolving the instrument no less than 7 years after issuance or allocation, will not be considered to create such an expectation;
(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income or unallocated retained earnings, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument;
(vi) The System institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the System institution;
(vii) Dividend payments and other distributions related to the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the System institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur before any losses are borne by holders of preferred stock claims on the System institution and holders of any other claims with priority over common cooperative equity instruments in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(ix) The instrument is classified as equity under GAAP;
(x) The System institution, or an entity that the System institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument, except that where there is an obligation for a member of the institution to hold an instrument in order to receive a loan or service from the System institution, an amount of that loan equal to the minimum borrower stock requirement under section 4.3A of the Act will not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:
(A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan; and
(B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more member equities of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution;
(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(xii) The instrument is issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations and with the institution's capitalization bylaws;
(xiii) The instrument is reported on the System institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments; and
(xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 615.5200(d) of this chapter and re-affirmed by the board on an annual basis, provides that the institution:
(A) Establishes a minimum redemption or revolvement period of 7 years for equities included in CET1; and
(B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in CET1 without prior approval of the FCA under § 628.20(f), except that the minimum statutory borrower stock described in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section may be redeemed without a minimum period outstanding after issuance and without the prior approval of the FCA.
(2) Unallocated retained earnings.
(3) Paid-in capital resulting from a merger of System institutions or repurchase of third-party capital.
(4) [Reserved]
(5) [Reserved]
(c)
(1) Instruments and related surplus, other than common cooperative equities, that meet the following criteria:
(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors and subordinated debt holders of the System institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in AT1 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
(A) The System institution must receive prior approval from FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
(B) The System institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c),
(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from FCA;
(vii) The System institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the System institution except in relation to any distributions to holders of common cooperative equity instruments or other instruments that are pari passu with the instrument;
(viii) Any distributions on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income, unallocated retained earnings, or surplus related to other AT1 capital instruments;
(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
(xi) The System institution did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the System institution, such as provisions that require the System institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified timeframe; and
(xiii) [Reserved]
(xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 615.5200(d) of this chapter and re-affirmed by the board on an annual basis, provides that the institution:
(A) Establishes a minimum redemption or no-call period of 5 years for equities included in additional tier 1; and
(B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in additional tier 1 capital without prior approval of the FCA under § 628.20(f).
(2) [Reserved]
(3) [Reserved]
(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for AT1 capital instruments referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a System institution's core surplus capital prior to January 1, 2017, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this § 628.20(c).
(d)
(1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in, is a common cooperative equity, or is member equity purchased in accordance with paragraph (d)(1)(viii) of this section;
(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors of the System institution;
(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least 5 years. At the beginning of each of the last 5 years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than 1 year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the System institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity;
(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
(A) The System institution must receive the prior approval of FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
(B) The System institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either: replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section;
(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal, dividends, or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
(viii) The System institution has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument, except that where common
(A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan;
(B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more capital instruments of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution; and
(C) The capital instruments are in excess of the statutory minimum stock purchase amount.
(ix) [Reserved]
(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase is at the discretion of the System institution and requires the prior approval of the FCA;
(xi) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 615.5200(d) of this chapter and re-affirmed by the board on an annual basis, provides that the institution:
(A) Establishes a minimum call, redemption or revolvement period of 5 years for equities included in tier 2 capital; and
(B) Shall not call, redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in tier 2 capital without prior approval of the FCA under § 628.20(f).
(2) [Reserved]
(3) ALL up to 1.25 percent of the System institution's total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the ALL.
(4) [Reserved]
(5) [Reserved]
(6) [Reserved]
(e)
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) [Reserved]
(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in a System institution's CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital, FCA will make its decision publicly available.
(f)
(2) At least 30 days prior to the intended action, the System institution must submit a request for approval to the FCA. The FCA's 30-day review period begins on the date on which the FCA receives the request.
(3) The request is deemed to be granted if the FCA does not notify the System institution to the contrary before the end of the 30-day review period.
(4)(i) A System institution may request advance approval to cover several anticipated cash dividend or patronage payments, or equity redemptions, provided that the institution projects sufficient current net income during those periods to support the amount of the cash dividend or patronage payments and equity redemptions. In determining whether to grant advance approval, the FCA will consider:
(A) The reasonableness of the institution's request, including its historical and projected cash dividend and patronage payments and equity redemptions;
(B) The institution's historical trends and current projections for capital growth through earnings retention;
(C) The overall condition of the institution, with particular emphasis on current and projected capital adequacy as described in § 628.10(e); and
(D) Any other information that the FCA deems pertinent to reviewing the institution's request.
(ii) After considering these standards, the FCA may grant advance prior approval of an institution's request to pay cash dividends and patronage or to redeem or revolve equity. Notwithstanding any such approval, an institution may not declare a dividend or patronage payment or redeem or revolve equities if, after such declaration, redemption, or revolvement, the institution would not meet its regulatory capital requirements set forth in this part and part 615 of this chapter.
(5) Subject to any capital distribution restrictions specified in § 628.11, a System institution is deemed to have FCA prior approval for revolvements and redemptions of common cooperative equities, for cash dividend payments on all equities, and for cash patronage payments on all cooperative equities, provided that:
(i) For redemptions or revolvements of common cooperative equities included in CET1 capital or tier 2 capital, other than as provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, the institution issued or allocated such equities at least 7 years ago for CET1 capital and at least 5 years ago for tier 2 capital;
(ii) After such cash payments, the dollar amount of the System institution's CET1 capital equals or exceeds the dollar amount of CET1 capital on the same date in the previous calendar year; and
(iii) The System institution continues to comply with all regulatory capital requirements and supervisory or enforcement actions.
(6) The following equities are eligible to be redeemed or revolved under paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section in less than the applicable minimum required holding period (7 years for CET1 inclusion and 5 years for tier 2 inclusion), provided that the requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section are met:
(i) Equities mandated to be redeemed or retired by a final order of a court of competent jurisdiction;
(ii) Equities held by the estate of a deceased former borrower; and
(iii) Equities that the institution is required to cancel under § 615.5290 of this chapter in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
(a)
(1) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
(2) Intangible assets, other than mortgage servicing assets (MSAs), net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
(5) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, except that, with FCA prior approval, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the institution has
(6) The System institution's allocated equity investment in another System institution; and
(7) [Reserved]
(8) If, without the required prior FCA approval, the System institution redeems or revolves purchased or allocated equities included in its CET1 capital that have been outstanding for less than 7 years, the FCA may take appropriate supervisory or enforcement actions against the institution, which may include requiring the institution to deduct a portion of its purchased and allocated equities from CET1 capital.
(b) [Reserved]
(c)
(2)
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) [Reserved]
(iii) [Reserved]
(3) [Reserved]
(4) [Reserved]
(5)
(d) [Reserved]
(e)
(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
(3) [Reserved]
(4) [Reserved]
(5) A System institution must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period.
(f)
(g)
(h) [Reserved]
The combined amount of third-party capital instruments that a System institution may include in total (tier 1 and tier 2) capital is equal to the greater of the following:
(a) The then existing limit, if any; or
(b) The lesser of:
(1) Forty percent of total capital, calculated by taking two thirds of the average of the previous 4 quarters of total capital reported on the institution's Call Report filed with the FCA, less any amounts of third-party capital reported in total capital; or
(2) The average of the previous 4 quarters of CET1 capital reported on its Call Report filed with the FCA.
(c)
(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for all System institutions.
(b) [Reserved]
(a)
(1) A System institution must determine the exposure amount of each on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, financial standby letter of credit, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 628.38;
(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 628.35;
(iii) [Reserved]
(iv) A securitization exposure subject to §§ 628.41 through 628.45; or
(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 628.51 through 628.53.
(2) The System institution must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
(b) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.
(a)
(A) An exposure to the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency; and
(B) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or
(ii) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or National Credit Union Administration.
(2)
(3)
(i) The exposure is denominated in the sovereign's currency;
(ii) The System institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
(iii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that the sovereign allows banking organizations under its jurisdiction to assign to the same exposures to the sovereign.
(4)
(5)
(6)
(b)
(c)
(2) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a non-System GSE.
(3) Purchased equity investments (including preferred stock investments) in other System institutions do not receive a risk weight, because they are deducted from capital in accordance with § 628.22.
(d)
(2)
(ii) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
(iii) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC, with the exception of self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, and that have a maturity of 3 months or less, which may be assigned a 20-percent risk weight.
(iv) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous 5 years.
(3) [Reserved]
(e)
(ii) A System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
(2)
(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (3) of this section, a System institution must assign a risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a foreign PSE, in accordance with Table 4 to § 628.32, based on the CRC that
(3) A System institution may assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 and 4 to § 628.32 to an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
(i) The PSE's home country supervisor allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower risk weight to such exposures; and
(ii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Table 1 to § 628.32.
(4)
(ii) A System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE whose country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
(5)
(6) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to a PSE exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in a PSE's home country or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the PSE's home country during the previous 5 years.
(f)
(i) Borrower loans such as agricultural loans and consumer loans, regardless of the corporate form of the borrower, unless those loans qualify for different risk weights under other provisions of this subpart D;
(ii) System bank exposures to OFIs that do not satisfy the requirements for a 20-percent risk weight pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section or a 50-percent risk weight pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section; and
(iii) Premises, fixed assets, and other real estate owned.
(2)
(i) The OFI is investment grade or is owned and controlled by an investment grade entity that guarantees the exposure; or
(ii) The OFI meets capital, risk identification and control, and operational standards similar to the OFIs identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(g)
(i) Is secured by a property that is either owner-occupied or rented;
(ii) Is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards suitable for residential property, including standards relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property;
(iii) Is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and
(iv) Is not restructured or modified.
(2) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to junior-lien residential mortgage exposures.
(3) For the purpose of this paragraph (g), if a System institution holds the first-lien and junior-lien(s) residential mortgage exposures, and no other party holds an intervening lien, the System institution must combine the exposures and treat them as a single first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
(4) A loan modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program is not modified or restructured for purposes of this section.
(h) [Reserved]
(i) [Reserved]
(j) [Reserved]
(k)
(1) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is not secured by financial collateral.
(2) A System institution may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section.
(3) A System institution may assign a risk weight to the portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure that is collateralized by financial collateral based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.37 if the financial collateral meets the requirements of that section.
(l)
(2) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
(3) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to deferred tax assets (DTAs) arising from temporary differences in relation to net operating loss carrybacks.
(4) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all MSAs.
(5) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all assets that are not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 628.22.
(6) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) Where a System institution commits to provide a commitment, the System institution may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
(3) Where a System institution provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the System institution is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
(4) Where a System institution provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable.
(5) The exposure amount of a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI is the difference between the association's or OFI's maximum credit limit with the System bank (as established by the general financing agreement or promissory note, as required by § 614.4125(d) of this chapter), and the amount the association or OFI has borrowed from the System bank.
(b)
(2)
(i) Commitments, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of 14 months or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the System institution.
(ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of 14 months or less.
(iii) A System bank's commitment to an association or OFI that is not unconditionally cancelable by the System bank, regardless of maturity.
(3)
(i) Commitments, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of more than 14 months that are not unconditionally cancelable by the System institution.
(ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
(4)
(i) Guarantees;
(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has sold subject to repurchase);
(iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
(iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has lent under the transaction);
(v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the System institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);
(vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and
(vii) Forward agreements.
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(B) For purposes of calculating either the PFE under this paragraph or the gross PFE under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for exchange rate contracts and other similar contracts in which the notional principal amount is equivalent to the cash flows, notional principal amount is the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.
(C) For an OTC derivative contract that does not fall within one of the specified categories in Table 1 to § 628.34, the PFE must be calculated using the appropriate “other” conversion factor.
(D) A System institution must use an OTC derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
(E) The PFE of the protection provider of a credit derivative is capped at the net present value of the amount of unpaid premiums.
(2)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(2) Alternatively, if the financial collateral securing a contract or netting set described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, a System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures the contract or netting set by using the collateral haircut approach in § 628.37(c).
(c)
(2)
(ii) The provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section apply to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
(d)
(2) [Reserved]
(3) If the System institution risk weights the contract under the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 628.52, the System institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of the OTC equity derivative contract, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the OTC equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, a System institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
(e) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) [Reserved]
(b)
(ii) A clearing member client System institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
(2)
(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the current exposure method (CEM) for OTC derivative contracts under § 628.34; plus
(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client System institution and held by the central counterparty (CCP), clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction, the trade exposure amount equals:
(A) The exposure amount for the repo-style transaction calculated using the collateral haircut methodology under § 628.37(c); plus
(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client System institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
(3)
(A) Two (2) percent if the collateral posted by the System institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the clearing member client System institution due to the joint default or a
(B) Four (4) percent if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client System institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to § 628.32.
(4)
(ii) A clearing member client System institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with the requirements under § 628.32.
(c) [Reserved]
(d) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) This section applies to exposures for which:
(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the System institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
(3) Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 628.41 through 628.45.
(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, a System institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a System institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(b)
(2) A System institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
(i) The reference exposure ranks
(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
(2)
(i) The System institution may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under § 628.32, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
(ii) The System institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under § 628.32, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
(d)
(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfill its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the System institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the System institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the System institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to 1 year and its residual maturity is greater than 3 months.
(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the System institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant:
(e)
(f)
(2) A System institution must set
(3) A System institution must adjust
Where
(a)
(i) The simple approach in paragraph (b) of this section for any exposure.
(ii) The collateral haircut approach in paragraph (c) of this section for repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions.
(2) A System institution may use any approach described in this section that is valid for a particular type of exposure or transaction; however, it must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
(b)
(ii) To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every 6 months; and
(C) The collateral (other than gold) and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
(2)
(ii) A System institution must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight assigned to the exposure under this subpart.
(3)
(i) A System institution may assign a 0-percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-fair on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
(ii) A System institution may assign a 10-percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a 0-percent risk weight under § 628.32.
(iii) A System institution may assign a 0-percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
(B) The financial collateral is an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a 0-percent risk weight under § 628.32, and the System institution has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
(c)
(2)
(3)
(ii) For currency mismatches, a System institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H
(iii) For repo-style transactions, a System institution may multiply the standard supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of
(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section upward on the basis of a holding period of 20 business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 628.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period of 20 business days. If over the 2 previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set. A System institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward using the following formula:
(v) If the instrument a System institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral in § 628.2, the System institution must use a 25-percent haircut for fair value price volatility (
(4) [Reserved]
(a)
(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the fair value standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than 5 business days.
(4) Positive current exposure of a System institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current fair value price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the System institution to the counterparty.
(b)
(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 628.34).
(c)
(d)
(e)
(2) From the business day after the System institution has made its delivery until 5 business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the System institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the System institution as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under § 628.32.
(3) If the System institution has not received its deliverables by the 5th business day after counterparty delivery was due, the System institution must assign a 1,250-percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the System institution.
(f)
(a)
(1) The exposures are not reported on the System institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
(2) The System institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
(4) The securitization does not:
(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
(b)
(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
(i) Financial collateral;
(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 628.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 628.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 628.2.
(2) The System institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
(ii) Require the System institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the pool of underlying exposures;
(iii) Increase the System institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the System institution in response to a deterioration in the
(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the System institution after the inception of the securitization;
(3) The System institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
(c)
(2) A System institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure by:
(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within 3 business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value (LTV) ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures; and
(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure.
(a)
(1) A System institution must deduct from CET1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization (as provided in § 628.22) and must apply a 1,250-percent risk weight to the portion of a credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO) that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a System institution may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with § 628.43(a) through (d) and subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section. Alternatively, a System institution may assign a risk weight to the purchased securitization exposure using the gross-up approach in accordance with § 628.43(e), provided however, that such System institution must apply either the SSFA or the gross-up approach consistently across all of its securitization exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (4) of this section.
(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the System institution cannot or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach to the exposure, the System institution must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 628.44.
(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a System institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a System institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
(b)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(ii) [Reserved]
(iii) [Reserved]
(4)
(d)
(e)
(1) The System institution must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from CET1 capital (pursuant to § 628.22) any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
(2) The System institution must disclose publicly:
(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the System institution of providing such implicit support.
(f)
(2) For a System institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash payments that the System institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12-month period under the governing facility.
(g)
(i) The transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP.
(ii) The System institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the System institution's reasonably estimated liability under the contractual obligation.
(iii) The small business obligations are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act.
(iv) [Reserved]
(2) The total outstanding amount of contractual exposure retained by a System institution on transfers of small-business obligations receiving the capital treatment specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the System institution's total capital.
(3) If a System institution exceeds the 15-percent capital limitation provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the capital treatment under paragraph (h)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with retained contractual exposure that occurred during the time that the System institution did not exceed the capital limit.
(4) [Reserved]
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) [Reserved]
(i)
(2) [Reserved]
(3) [Reserved]
(4)
(ii)
(
(
(B) If a System institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the System institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the System institution had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the nth smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the underlying exposures.
(C) A System institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 628.34 for a nth-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 628.36(b).
(j)
(2)
(ii) If a System institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 628.45, the System institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 628.34.
(A) If the System institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization special purpose entity (SPE), the System institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to general risk weights under § 628.32.
(B) If the System institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the System institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this section, including paragraph (a)(4) of this section for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments).
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2) Parameter
(i) Ninety (90) days or more past due;
(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
(iv) Held as real estate owned;
(v) Has contractually deferred interest payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
(A) Federally guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for periods(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
(vi) Is in default.
(3) Parameter
(4) Parameter
(5) A supervisory calibration parameter,
(c)
(1) When the detachment point, parameter
(2) When the attachment point, parameter
(3) When
(i) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent equals:
(ii) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent times
(iii) The risk weight will be set equal to:
(d)
(2) Then the System institution must calculate
(3) The risk weight for the exposure (expressed as a percent) is equal to
(e)
(2) To use the gross-up approach, a System institution must calculate the following four inputs:
(i) Pro rata share
(ii) Enhanced amount
(iii) Exposure amount (carrying value)
(iv) Risk weight (
(3)
(i) The exposure amount
(ii) The pro rata share
(4)
(f)
(a)
(b) [Reserved]
(a)
(2) An investing System institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 628.36 or § 628.37, but only as provided in this section.
(b)
(a)
(2) [Reserved]
(3) [Reserved]
(b)
(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure (other than an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale), the System institution's carrying value of the exposure;
(2) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale, the System institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the System institution's regulatory capital components;
(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of 14 months or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over 14 months receive a CF of 50 percent.
(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(i) [Reserved]
(ii)
(iii)
(A) Equity exposures subject to paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section include:
(
(
(
(B) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a System institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the System institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a System institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the System institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the System institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
(C) When determining which of a System institution's equity exposures qualify for a 100-percent risk weight under this paragraph, a System institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated rural business investment companies or held through consolidated rural business investment companies described in 7 U.S.C. 2009cc
(4)
(5) [Reserved]
(6) [Reserved]
(7)
(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization in § 628.2 were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition; and
(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage.
(c)
(2)
(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the System institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals 0. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, less than 0 and greater than or equal to −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then E equals 0.
(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
(a)
(2) [Reserved]
(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the System institution does not use the full look-through approach, the System institution must use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 628.52(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
(b)
(1) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the System institution; and
(2) The System institution's proportional ownership share of the fund.
(c)
(d)
Sections 628.62 and 628.63 establish public disclosure requirements for each System bank related to the capital requirements contained in this part.
(a) A System bank must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 628.63. The System bank must make these disclosures in its quarterly and annual reports to shareholders required in part 620 of this chapter. The System bank need not make these disclosures in the format set out in the applicable tables or all in the same location in a report, as long as a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures is provided. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the System bank's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. This disclosure requirement may be satisfied by providing a notice under § 620.15 of this chapter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the System bank's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the 4th calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim.
(b) A System bank must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. The chief executive officer, the chief financial officer, and a designated board member must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
(c) If a System bank concludes that disclosure of specific proprietary or confidential commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would compromise its position, then the System bank is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
(a) Except as provided in § 628.62, a System bank must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 10 of this section. The System bank must make these disclosures publicly available for each of the last 3 years (that is, 12 quarters) or such shorter period beginning on January 1, 2017.
(b) A System bank must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
(1) CET1 capital, tier 1 capital, and total capital ratios, including all the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets;
(3) Regulatory capital ratios during the transition period, including a description of all the regulatory capital elements and all regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator and denominator of each capital ratio during the transition period; and
(4) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements as they relate to its balance sheet in any audited consolidated financial statements.
(c)
(a)
(2) Beginning January 1, 2017 through December 31, 2019 a System institution's maximum capital conservation buffer payout ratio must be determined as set forth in Table 1 to § 628.300.
(b) through (e) [Reserved]
(a) A System institution that fails to satisfy one or more of its minimum applicable CET1, tier 1, or total risk-based capital ratios or its tier 1 leverage ratio at the end of the quarter in which these regulations become effective shall report its initial noncompliance to the FCA within 20 days following such quarterend and shall also submit a capital restoration plan for achieving and maintaining the standards, demonstrating appropriate annual progress toward meeting the goal, to the FCA within 60 days following such quarterend. If the capital restoration plan is not approved by the FCA, the FCA will inform the institution of the reasons for disapproval, and the institution shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the FCA.
(b)
(1) The conditions or circumstances leading to the institution's falling below minimum levels, the exigency of those circumstances, and whether or not they were caused by actions of the institution or were beyond the institution's control;
(2) The overall condition, management strength, and future prospects of the institution and, if applicable, affiliated System institutions;
(3) The institution's capital, adverse assets (including nonaccrual and nonperforming loans), ALL, and other ratios compared to the ratios of its peers or industry norms;
(4) How far an institution's ratios are below the minimum requirements;
(5) The estimated rate at which the institution can reasonably be expected to generate additional earnings;
(6) The effect of the business changes required to increase capital;
(7) The institution's previous compliance practices, as appropriate;
(8) The views of the institution's directors and senior management regarding the plan; and
(9) Any other facts or circumstances that the FCA deems relevant.
(c) An institution shall be deemed to be in compliance with the regulatory capital requirements of this subpart if it is in compliance with a capital restoration plan that is approved by the FCA within 180 days following the end of the quarter in which these regulations become effective.
On October 8, 2014, the Deputy Assistant Administrator, Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, issued an Order to Show Cause to Hills Pharmacy, LLC (hereinafter, Hills or Respondent), which proposed the revocation of its DEA Certificate of Registration FH0772257, pursuant to which it is authorized to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V as a retail pharmacy, at the registered location of 7730 W. Hillsborough Ave., Tampa, Florida. ALJ Ex. 1, at 1. As grounds for the proposed action (which also includes the denial of any pending applications), the Show Cause Order alleged that Respondent's “continued registration is inconsistent with the public interest, as that term is defined in 21 U.S.C. 823(f).”
More specifically, the Show Cause Order alleged that Respondent's “pharmacists repeatedly failed to exercise their corresponding responsibility to ensure that controlled substances they dispensed were dispensed pursuant to prescriptions issued for legitimate medical purposes by practitioners acting within the usual course of their professional practice” and that its “pharmacists ignored readily identifiable red flags that [the] controlled substances prescribed were being diverted and dispensed despite unresolved red flags.”
The Show Cause Order listed various red flags which Respondent's pharmacists allegedly failed to resolve before dispensing prescriptions, including: (1) “multiple individuals presenting prescriptions for the same drugs in the same quantities from the same doctor”; (2) “individuals presenting prescriptions for controlled substances known to be highly abused, such as oxycodone and hydromorphone”; (3) “individuals paying high prices . . . for controlled substances with cash”; and (4) “individuals residing long distances from the pharmacy.”
The Show Cause Order then alleged that between July 28 and August 4, 2011, Respondent's “pharmacists dispensed large and substantially similar quantities of” oxycodone 30 mg tablets “to at least nine customers, all of whom received their prescriptions from physicians working at the same clinic,” and that seven of the customers “resided at least [50] miles from” Respondent and five of the customers “resided more than [100] miles from” it.
Next, the Show Cause Order alleged that “[o]n April 21, 2011, one or more Hills['] . . . pharmacists dispensed large and substantially similar quantities of . . . oxycodone 30 to at least [12] customers, three of whom resided more than [50] miles from [it], and two of whom resided more than [100] miles away.”
To similar effect, the Show Cause Order alleged that on January 16, 2012, Hills' pharmacists dispensed three prescriptions for oxycodone 30 mg tablets in quantities which ranged from 168 to 224 tablets to three persons who “resided more than [50] miles from Hills,” which were all “issued by physicians working at the same clinic.”
The Show Cause Order also alleged that on December 10, 2012, Hills' pharmacists engaged in a further instance of dispensing prescriptions (for 180 oxycodone 30) to two persons with the same last name on the same date “at or about the same time.”
Finally, the Show Cause Order alleged that in October 2011, Hills' pharmacists dispensed prescriptions for 196 and 240 tablets of hydromorphone 8 mg to two persons.
Next, the Show Cause Order alleged that Respondent “failed to create and maintain accurate records in violation of 21 U.S.C. 842(a)(5).”
Finally, the Show Cause Order alleged that a DEA audit of various schedule II drugs found both shortages and overages. The Order alleged that an audit for the period of July 24, 2012 through February 4, 2013 found “a shortage of 4,135” tablets of hydromorphone 4 mg and “an overage of 8,758” tablets of hydromorphone 8 mg.
On October 17, 2014, the Order to Show Cause was served on Respondent
On December 2, 2014, the Government filed its Prehearing Statement. ALJ EX. 7. Of note, the Government's Prehearing Statement contained no additional information beyond that provided by the Show Cause Order as to the identities of the patients whose prescriptions were at issue.
On January 9, 2015, Respondent filed its Prehearing Statement. ALJ Ex. 14. Respondent proposed to call as witnesses, “[a]ny and all patients whose prescriptions were seized by . . . DEA pursuant to the Administrative Inspection Warrant [AIW] executed February 4, 2013 or whose prescriptions for controlled substances were dispensed between January 1, 2011 and February 4, 2013.”
Respondent also proposed to call a consultant, who was a former Supervisory Diversion Investigator, who would testify regarding “his knowledge and experience in the investigation, preparation and execution of” AIWs, purported errors in the audits, and Respondent's “procedure for resolving potential `red flag' issues and compliance with recordkeeping requirements.”
On January 14, 2015, the ALJ conducted an on-the-record prehearing conference. Noting that the Government had referred to the patients by their initials, the ALJ ascertained that Government intended to request a protective order. Tr. 6 (Jan. 14, 2015). Continuing, the ALJ noted “the scope of the Respondent's [counsel's] prehearing statement and his inability up to this point to identify the witnesses” and asked the Government if it was “willing to exchange the prescriptions which it intend[ed] to utilize . . . so Respondent can ID the actual patients involved?”
The ALJ then asked Respondent's counsel to explain the purpose of the patients' testimony.
On January 15, the ALJ issued a Preliminary Order Regarding Scope Of Proceedings. ALJ Ex. 19. Therein, the ALJ explained that “any of those proposed patient and physician witnesses who are not linked to a prescription transaction which the Government asserts created a `red flag' present[s] the potential for providing no relevant evidence.”
Addressing Respondents' proffers of 13,510 pages of documents, the ALJ found “that many of these documents are not relevant to this proceeding.”
The same day, the ALJ also issued her Prehearing Ruling. In addition to setting the date of the evidentiary hearing, the Ruling also advised each party that if it chose to amend its witness list to include a new witness, it must file a supplement to its Prehearing Statement and include a summary of the witness's proposed testimony. ALJ Ex. 20, at 3. The Ruling further explained “that witnesses not properly identified and testimony not summarized in prehearing statements or supplements thereto will be excluded at the hearing,” and that if either party “wished to raise any issues of inadequacies or ambiguities regarding the proposed witness' testimony . . . [it] may do so by motion.”
Thereafter, both of Respondent's counsels moved to withdraw; the ALJ granted the motions. ALJ Exs. 24, 25, 29, 31. Subsequently, new counsel entered an appearance and simultaneously moved for a continuance. ALJ Ex. 27, 30. The ALJ granted the motion and continued the hearing for three weeks, scheduling it for March 10 through March 13, 2015. ALJ Ex. 40. In the meantime, both parties filed supplemental prehearing statements, ALJ Ex. 34 & 37, requests for subpoenas, and additional motions.
On March 10 through 12, 2015, the ALJ conducted an evidentiary hearing in Tampa, Florida.
On April 29, 2015, the ALJ issued her Recommended Decision. Therein, the ALJ found that the Government had “proved its
Respondent filed Exceptions to the Recommended Decision and the Government filed a Response to Respondent's Exceptions. Thereafter, the record was forwarded to me for Final Agency Action.
Having considered the record in its entirety, including Respondent's Exceptions (which I discuss throughout this decision), I adopt the ALJ's legal conclusions that Respondent violated the corresponding responsibility rule of 21 CFR 1306.04(a) with respect to many of the prescriptions. I also agree with her legal conclusion that Respondent failed to maintain accurate records as required by 21 U.S.C. 827. And I further agree with her legal conclusion that Respondent has failed to accept responsibility for the misconduct which has been proven on the record of the proceeding. Accordingly, I agree with the ALJ's ultimate conclusion that Respondent has committed acts which render its continued registration inconsistent with the public interest and will adopt her recommendation that I revoke Respondent's registration and deny any pending applications. I make the following
Respondent is the holder of DEA Certificate of Registration FH0772257, pursuant to which it is authorized to dispense controlled substances in schedules II through V, as a retail pharmacy, at the registered location of 7730 W. Hillsborough Ave., Tampa, Florida 33615. GX 1. This registration does not expire until October 31, 2016.
On February 4, 2013, DEA Investigators executed an Administrative Inspection Warrant (AIW) at Respondent. Tr. 233. The lead Investigator presented the AIW to Respondent's PIC (Mr. George), and obtained various records from Respondent including inventory records, receipt records, and prescriptions.
Respondent, however, disputed that the records were offsite. Its PIC testified that the records were onsite in a locked storage room, but that he had left the storeroom key at home that day, and that when Respondent's owner arrived with the duplicate key “two hours later,” “the officers [had] left” so he provided the records to its lawyer.
Federal law requires, however, that a registrant take biennial and not biannual inventories. 21 U.S.C. 827(a). Moreover, the transcript was not corrected. Thus, I take the transcript as it is.
The DI further testified that as part of executing the AIW, a closing inventory was taken in which various schedule II drugs were physically counted.
Using the inventories and the records of Respondent's receipts and prescriptions, the DI conducted an audit of Hills' handling of seven schedule II
Comparing the “total accountable for” with the “total accounted for” for the seven drugs, the DI found that Respondent had overages in six of the drugs, the most significant being 1,306 dosage units (du) of oxycodone 30 mg and 8,758 du of hydromorphone 8 mg.
Respondent disputed the accuracy of the audits. Specifically, its PIC testified that there were controlled substances in the will-call bins. Tr. 536-37. Respondent's PIC then explained that these drugs would be prescriptions that were finished in “vials with the label” and “waiting for the patient to come and collect it.”
Respondent, however, put forward no evidence that there were any drugs quarantined for disposal on the date that the AIW was executed, let alone that any of those drugs were those being audited. Subsequently, the DI testified that “[w]e asked where the controlled substances were,” and counted the drugs in the safe because “that's where we were shown.”
Respondent's PIC also testified that there were some medications that were returned to the pharmacy's stock when they were not picked up by the customer. Tr. 525. He further identified a document (RX 6, at 3) which lists six instances (by date, RX number, patient name, and quantity) in which a patient apparently did not pick up a prescription for hydromorphone 8 and the drugs were returned to stock. Tr. 525. The PIC testified that he did not know if DEA counted the pills that were returned to stock if they were still on hand.
Respondent did, however, introduce into evidence various documents for each of the audited drugs, including a list of the prescriptions that were dispensed, its perpetual inventory for the drug, the invoices and scheduled II order forms for its receipts, and, as explained above, in some instances, a document listing “returns to stock” from patients. As discussed later in this decision, with respect to the overages alleged by the Government as to oxycodone 30 mg and hydromorphone 8 mg, the records show that Respondent placed additional orders that were not counted by the Government and establish that the overages in these two drugs were substantially less than the quantities alleged by the Government. Respondent's records do not, however, call into question the conclusion that it had a large shortage in hydromorphone 4 mg and actually support the conclusion that the shortage was even larger than that alleged by the Government.
The same DI also testified as to other alleged violations. More specifically, the DI testified that several DEA Order Forms for Schedule II drugs (Form 222) were not properly completed, because “[w]hen they don't receive a drug, they need to write a zero if they didn't receive anything.” Tr. 255. While the DI did identify an instance in which Respondent had notated the receipt of six packages of methadone 10 mg, he noted that Respondent had failed to include the date that the packages were received.
The DI also testified that there were some instances in which Respondent provided him with a photocopy of the purchaser's copy of the 222 form, rather than the original which it is required to maintain for a period of two years.
Following the execution of the warrant, another DI provided a CD which contained copies of the schedule II prescriptions
Mr. Parrado testified that he obtained his B.S. in Pharmacy in 1970 from the University of Florida College of Pharmacy and that he has held a Florida pharmacist's license since 1971. Tr. 14; GX 2, at 1. Mr. Parrado testified that he has practiced as a pharmacist at both community pharmacies as well as hospital pharmacies; he also testified that he had been the pharmacy department manager at multiple pharmacies, including two pharmacies that he owned for approximately 19 years. Tr. 15-16; GX 2, at 1-2.
Mr. Parrado was a member of the Florida Board of Pharmacy from January 2001 through February 2009, and served as both Vice Chairman and Chairman of the Board. Tr. 17; GX 2, at 3. He is a member of the Florida Pharmacy Association, having served as both its President and then Chairman of the Board. GX 2, at 3. He is also a member of the Hillsborough County Alcohol & Drug Abuse Task Force, the National Community Pharmacists Association, and the American Society for Pharmacy Law.
On
On resumption of direct examination, the Government asked Mr. Parrado if there is “a specific protocol” that a pharmacist must follow “before dispensing a controlled substance?”
Well, there are certain requirements that have to be on a prescription. What creates a red flag is anything that causes a pharmacist concern about that prescription. . . . [T]here is a thing a pharmacist has to do before he fills a prescription that is called prospective drug review. He has to go over that prescription. He has to evaluate the prescription for appropriateness of therapy, for seeing if there is any therapeutic duplications of medications. Are there any drug/drug interactions? Are there any drug/disease interactions? Is the prescription for—does it show signs of clinical abuse or misuse? You know, that's just a basic thing a pharmacist does before he fills a prescription.
And then, knowing all the requirement of a prescription, what must be on that prescription as far as the patient name and address, the physician's name and address, the DEA number, the name of the medication, the strength, the directions, all those things, the quantity, have to be on that prescription.
Asked by the Government to explain what a “red flag” is and to give examples, Mr. Parrado testified that “a red flag . . . is anything that would cause a pharmacist concern,” and that “[t]here are lots of things that lead to red flags” when a pharmacist is “trying to determine” if a prescription was issued “for a legitimate medical purpose.”
A cocktail is multiple drugs . . . that are known to be abused on the street, and the most common . . . has a name, it's called the Holy Trinity, which would be oxycodone, which is an opioid, a benzodiazepine, which would be a tranquilizer such as Xanax, and a muscle relaxer like Soma. Those three together are well known combinations or cocktails that are abused on the street.
Next, the Government asked whether “a pharmacist look[s] at the actual amounts that are prescribed when determining whether there's a red flag on that prescription?”
One of the things that a pharmacist knows or should know is that oxycodone . . . that 80 milligrams a day has been listed in the literature as a lethal dose for an opioid naïve patient. So, when being presented with a prescription for a dose that would exceed 80 milligrams in one day, that pharmacist would need to stop and take a look and verify that the patient is not opioid naïve and has been on a regiment [sic] that has led him to develop a tolerance to that dose.
Mr. Parrado further identified as a red flag the simultaneous prescribing of two immediate release opioids, which he stated “would be inappropriate therapy.”
When I see multiple people presenting with a very similar group or combination of prescriptions coming from one particular clinic, that is very much a red flag. That's not what happens in the average course of a day in a pharmacy. You don't see groups of people coming in from the same clinic, all getting the same drugs in large quantities and all willing to pay cash.
Mr. Parrado identified a further red flag as “multiple people living in one household all receiving the same medications.”
Mr. Parrado testified that “the basic way of resolving a red flag is . . . to verify [the prescription] with the prescriber,” and that “you consult with the prescriber” and not his staff or nurse, “over your concerns.”
Mr. Parrado further testified that some red flags are unresolvable.
To counter Mr. Parrado's testimony as to the procedures a pharmacist must follow in dispensing controlled substances, Respondent called Dr. Sam Badawi. Dr. Badawi obtained his Doctor of Pharmacy degree from Samford University in 2002, and he is licensed to practice pharmacy in both Alabama and Florida, becoming licensed in the latter State in 2010. Tr. 346. He also
Mr. Badawi testified that he had worked as a full-time retail pharmacist in Alabama until sometime in 2004 or 2005, when he “transitioned into clinical pharmacy and IV infusion,” which involved working “with hospice patients who required intravenous pain prescriptions” and “morphine pumps.” Tr. 348. While Mr. Badawi asserted that he continued to work on a part-time basis in retail pharmacy, he subsequently went to work for Amgen, a biotechnology company where his duties involved clinical trial design.
On
Mr. Badawi further acknowledged that he is not currently practicing pharmacy.
On direct examination, Mr. Badawi testified that when a controlled substance prescription presents a red flag, “[a] reasonable, prudent pharmacist will follow the DEA [Pharmacist's] Manual,” which was published in 2010 and which at “page 67” lists criteria that “may be an indication . . . that [the] prescription was not issued for a legitimate medical purpose.”
Mr. Badawi then testified as to the prevention techniques listed in the Manual, which include “[k]now[ing] your patient . . . what's the story behind that patient,” “know[ing] your drug, and know[ing] the prescriber and the DEA.”
Mr. Badawi then testified that “[a] red flag is a caution sign for the pharmacist,” but “on its face alone does not mean the prescription is invalid.”
So after you stop with that red flag, and then you proceed with caution, and you exercise your discretion. So, if a pharmacist chooses to exercise that discretion favorably by resolving the red flag, then you dispense it. If not, then you don't dispense it.
Respondent's counsel then questioned Mr. Badawi about the specific red flags identified by the Government's Expert and how a pharmacist should resolve the red flag.
Respondent's counsel then asked Mr. Badawi whether the fact the drug alone was for oxycodone 30 mg was a red flag of the prescription's potential illegitimacy.
Mr. Badawi acknowledged his agreement with Mr. Parrado's testimony that a prescription that calls for the dispensing of a “very large or larger than normal amounts of a narcotic” raises a red flag which requires that the pharmacist make an inquiry.
As for the circumstance of a patient presenting prescriptions for two short acting narcotics, Mr. Badawi testified that he “would consider it as a red flag, and I would investigate further, and I would exercise my professional judgment.”
Mr. Badawi further testified that it is “common for physicians to issue prescriptions for [schedule II] drugs without the address being on the face of the prescription.”
As for how a pharmacist would address the circumstance in which a patient lives “a significant distance . . . from the pharmacy,” Mr. Badawi testified that “you want to know the patient, the reason why they're 100 miles way.”
Later, in response to a question by the ALJ, Mr. Badawi maintained that even if the patient was travelling a long distance, if the patient was a regular patron, “that would actually resolve the distance.”
Asked what types of prescriptions a reasonable pharmacist would “expect to see” when “there is a pain management facility that is seeing a large number of patients for chronic pain,” Mr. Badawi testified that a pharmacist would expect the prescriptions to be for “primarily opioids.”
Mr. Badawi then testified that standing alone, none of the red flags identified by the Government's Expert render a prescription invalid.
Mr. Badawi then testified that with the exception of a Board rule which requires a pharmacist to make a photocopy of a patient's identification, or if a copier is not available, to document descriptive information on the back of a prescription, there is no requirement that a pharmacist document his resolution of a red flag on the prescription.
I would rather, as a reasonable, prudent pharmacist, and to benefit my other colleagues who are working after my shift, to have access to this documentation is to have it on the computer under the patient notes so they can see what I've done versus the paper trail.
Mr. Badawi also testified that he had attended a presentation by Mr. Parrado two years earlier on dispensing controlled substances, during which Mr. Parrado “said there is a lot of gray area, it's not black or white, and to always use your professional judgment.”
On cross-examination, Mr. Badawi acknowledged that he had not looked at any of the prescriptions.
On questioning by the ALJ, Mr. Badawi acknowledged that there are some red flags that are not resolvable such as a prescription for some astronomical number of a drug such as morphine.
As another example of an unresolvable prescription, Mr. Badawi offered where “there is any drug-drug interactions that would deem that the prescription is not in the best interests of the patient.”
As between Mr. Parrado's and Mr. Badawi's testimony, there was substantial agreement on a number of issues. Where, however, there are areas of disagreement, I generally find that Mr. Parrado's testimony was more credible based on his years of service on the Florida Board of Pharmacy and because his experience in retail pharmacy is far lengthier and more current than that of Mr. Badawi.
At the hearing, the Government introduced into evidence copies of the front and back of 83 prescriptions for schedule II controlled substances which it alleged were dispensed by Respondent's pharmacists in violation of 21 CFR 1306.04(a) because they presented red flags which were not resolved.
For example, the Government introduced a prescription issued by Dr. P.C. of the 24th Century Medical Center on July 28, 2011 to T.V. for 210 oxycodone 30 mg, which Respondent filled the same day. GX 3, at 1. While T.V.'s address was not written on the prescription, the prescription bears an address label listing T.V.'s address as being in Pensacola, Florida, a distance of 472 miles from Respondent. R.D. at 6.
Mr. Parrado testified that the prescription presented several red flags, including the lack of the patient's address; that it was for oxycodone 30 mg, a known drug of abuse; and that it was for a minimum of 180 milligrams a day, which is “well above the 80 milligrams threshold” and “a very high dose” and large quantity. Tr. 63. Mr. Parrado then noted that the patient's address was in Pensacola, 472 miles from Respondent.
Mr. Parrado testified there was no indication on the prescription that “anything was done . . . except that it was filled.”
Next, on August 4, 2011, Dr. S.A.-H., also of the 24th Century Medical Center, issued a prescription to J.P. for 196 oxycodone 30 mg; Respondent filled the prescription the same day. GX 3, at 2. Here too, J.P.'s address was not written on the prescription; rather a label was attached which listed J.P.'s address as being in St. Augustine, Florida, a distance of 196 miles from Respondent.
Asked if the prescription presented any red flags, Mr. Parrado identified the lack of the patient's address; that is was written for oxycodone 30, “a known drug of abuse”; that “it's a very high quantity”; that the patient lived “a rather good distance” from Tampa; that it came from the 24th Century clinic; and that “[t]he patient paid $784 in cash.”
You don't see people paying $784 in cash. You tell a person they have a $50 co-pay and
Also on August 4, 2011, Dr. P.C. of the 24th Century Medical Center issued a prescription to T.P.—who has the same last name as J.P.—for 224 oxycodone 30 mg; Respondent filled the prescription the same day. GX 3, at 3. Here too, T.P.'s address was not written on the prescription; rather a label was attached which listed her address as also being in St. Augustine, Florida.
Asked if T.P.'s prescription presented any red flags, Mr. Parrado testified that “[h]ere we have two people with the same last name traveling from St. Augustine . . . to get very similar prescriptions.” Tr. 72. After noting the quantity of each prescription, Mr. Parrado testified that there were “the same red flags as before. No address, the known drug of abuse, the high quantity, traveling the long distances” and that T.P. “paid $896 in cash.”
Also on August 4, 2011, Dr. P.C. issued a prescription for 240 oxycodone 30 to W.J.; Respondent filled the prescription the same day. GX 3, at 4-5. Here too, W.J.'s address was not written on the prescription and had been added by a label which listed his address as being in San Antonio, Florida, a distance of 36 miles from Respondent.
Mr. Parrado testified that the prescription presented red flags which included the lack of the patient's address; that the drug was for oxycodone 30, a known drug abuse; that the quantity was very high; that the patient was travelling from a town which is “40 miles from Tampa”; that the patient paid $960; that the prescription was written by a doctor from the same clinic; and that the prescription number (2037895) preceded the numbers on the prescriptions presented to J.P. and T.P. Tr. 75. Mr. Parrado explained that “[t]hese were all filled on the same day, so you have multiple prescriptions coming in from people travelling a long way, from the same clinic, for very similar drugs, and paying in cash, very large quantities of cash.”
On July 29, 2011, Dr. S.A.-H. issued a prescription for 140 oxycodone 30 to W.D.; Respondent filled the prescription the same day. GX 3, at 6-7. Here again, the prescriber had not written W.D.'s address on the prescription and his address was added by label which listed it as being in St. Cloud, Florida, a distance of 92 miles from Respondent.
Mr. Parrado provided testimony to the effect that other prescriptions in GX 3 presented the same red flags as he had previously identified. These included two prescriptions written on July 29, 2011 by Dr. P.C. for 168 oxycodone 30 to C.D. and 224 oxycodone 30 to D.M., as well as two prescriptions written by Dr. S.A.-H. the same day for 168 oxycodone 30 to B.P. and 224 oxycodone 30 to C.C. GX 3, at 8-15. Respondent dispensed the prescriptions the same day. GX 3, at 8-15. As written, none of the prescriptions contained the patient's address.
Mr. Parrado testified that these prescriptions raised an additional red flag, in that he was “starting to see a pattern . . . coming from this one clinic of the same prescriptions” and that “[t]here is no individualization of therapy, which is important.” Tr. 80. He also testified that he did not see any evidence that the red flags were resolved.
On April 21, 2011, Dr. P.C. issued a prescription for 196 oxycodone 30 to C.B., which Respondent filled the same day. GX 3, at 16. Again, Dr. P.C. did not write C.B.'s address on the prescription.
Also on April 21, 2011, Dr. R.R. issued a prescription for 224 oxycodone 30 to S.S., which Respondent filled the same day. GX 3, at 17. Dr. R.R. did not write S.S.'s address on the prescription.
After testifying that the prescription raised the same red flags as the previous prescriptions, Mr. Parrado explained that there was documentation on the prescription that the pharmacist had dispensed two different brands. Tr. 82-83;
Pages 18 through 25 of Government Exhibit 3 contain copies of eight prescriptions which were also written on April 21, 2011 by physicians from the 24th Century clinic for oxycodone 30 (in quantities that range from 140 to 240 tablets) and filled the same day. As with the previous prescriptions, none of the prescribers wrote the patient's address on the prescription; instead, the prescriptions bear a label with the address.
It's just another day of doing the same thing. Yeah, could something like this happen once occasionally a person travels a long way and pays cash? Of course. Does it happen consistently day after day after day? No. That's what would be a nonresolvable red flag.
The Government then asked Mr. Parrado if he knew where Hudson is in relation to Tampa.
It's not so much just the red flag, it's the rapidity of people coming from other cities. You know, there's a lot of physicians' office, a lot of pharmacies between Hudson and Tampa. Why did they choose this pharmacy? That would have been the red flag I would have wanted resolved.
Next, the Government asked Mr. Parrado about the price of a prescription written by Dr. H.V.D. (also of 24th Century) on January 16, 2012 for 224 tablets of oxycodone 30, which Respondent filled the same day.
It's a very high price. I do know that about this time, in this timeframe, 2012, average wholesale price of oxycodone ran anywhere between $33 100 to maybe, depending on what wholesaler you went to, it could run as high as $150, $200 100. But that would still—this price would still be far exceeding anything that I would have ever, ever considered charging.
The second prescription was written by Dr. P.C. on January 19, 2012 for 168 oxycodone 30. GX 3, at 30. The patient's address was added by a label and showed he lived in Inglis, Florida, 80 miles from Respondent.
Next, the Government asked Mr. Parrado about two Dilaudid (hydromorphone
Asked whether these prescriptions presented any other red flags, Mr. Parrado testified:
Yeah. For starters, the drug. Dilaudid 8 milligram, extremely, extremely potent opioid. From my education, experience, and training, the average daily dose of Dilaudid would be probably between 12 and 24 milligrams a day. It would be a dose that would be a high dose because mostly people don't take Dilaudid 8 milligrams unless they're in a terminal stage of cancer. . . . [T]hat's just a drug that's very rarely dispensed anymore because of the potency, especially in that quantity. And to see a patient come in and get 200 plus of these tablets would be a . . . concern. To see multiple prescriptions for 200 tablets would be almost a nonresolvable red flag to me.
On January 19, 2012, Dr. R.R. of 24th Century issued a prescription for 120 oxycodone 30 to S.D. GX 3, at 33. According to the address label (Dr. R.R. again not having written the patient's address on the prescription), S.D. lived in Panama City, Florida. GX 3, at 33. Mr. Parrado testified that Panama City is in the western panhandle of Florida, and the parties stipulated that it is 331 miles from Respondent. Tr. 92; R.D. at 7. Mr. Parrado again found no evidence that the red flags had been resolved. Tr. 93.
Continuing, the Government questioned Mr. Parrado about prescription labels found at pages 34 and 35 of its Exhibit 3 which showed the prices Respondent was charging for oxycodone 30 in late April 2011 and in early December 2011. Specifically, the evidence showed that in late April 2011, Respondent was charging $3.75 for a tablet of oxycodone 30, but that in early December 2012, it was charging $7.50 a tablet. GX 3, at 34-35. Mr. Parrado explained that he determined the price per tablet because he knew “in that time frame that the wholesale costs had not doubled.” Tr. 96. Mr. Parrado then testified that the price Respondent charged raised a red flag.
The last page of Government Exhibit 3 contains the front and back of a prescription (dated April 25, 2011) which was written by a doctor from Tampa who was not affiliated with 24th Century. GX 3, at 36. The prescription authorized the dispensing of 120 tablets of methadone 10 mg for pain to B.V. but did not list B.V.'s address.
After noting that the prescription “had some documentation that somebody verified something,” Mr. Parrado testified to the effect that it was unclear what the pharmacist verified. Tr. 97;
Methadone . . . it is a drug that . . . it's being abused on the street. There's a lot of concern. I have a lot of concern about the use of . . . methadone because of the pharmacokinetics of the drug and the way it acts on patients. And . . . taking two tablets every 12 hours would probably be okay. I would want to verify with the doctor if the patient had developed a tolerance to this. I've seen people that have overdosed and died on methadone on the third dose of methadone because of the kinetics of that drug.
Thereafter, the Government showed its Exhibit Number 13 to Mr. Parrado. This exhibit includes 20 prescriptions for schedule II narcotics including oxycodone 30, MS Contin 30 (morphine sulfate continuous release), and Dilaudid in both eight and four milligrams per dosage unit.
Also, each prescription presented the issue of the distance travelled by the patient, with the closest any patient resided being in Tarpon Springs, a distance of 18 miles to Respondent.
Asked by the Government whether the GX 13 prescriptions raised the same or additional red flags, Mr. Parrado answered: “[i]t's all the same.” Tr. 105. After noting that one of the prescriptions was for a patient from Dunnellon, Mr. Parrado then testified that he did not see any indication that the red flags had been resolved.
Next, the Government asked Mr. Parrado about two prescriptions issued on January 8, 2013, by Dr. P.C. to B.W. and filled by Respondent the same day. Tr. 107-8; GX 14, at 1-5. The prescriptions were for 100 Dilaudid 8 mg and 60 methadone 10 mg. GX 14, at 1-4. While Dr. P.C. was not affiliated with 24th Century, he also failed to include B.W.'s address on the prescriptions; however, both prescriptions bear an address label which lists B.W.'s address as Tallevast, Florida, which is 54 miles from Respondent.
Asked if these prescriptions presented any red flags, Mr. Parrado testified that the dosing instruction on the Dilaudid prescription called for taking one tablet every four hours, which would result in a daily dosage of 48 milligrams, “double the upper recommended dose.” Tr. 107. Mr. Parrado then noted that the prescriptions raised an additional and serious concern because both Dilaudid and methadone were being prescribed and both drugs “are immediate release opioids . . . which could contribute to respiratory depression.”
The record includes prescriptions for 75 Dilaudid 8 mg and 90 methadone 10 mg issued on January 21, 2013, by Dr. E.G.-R. (who was not affiliated with 24th Century) to T.F. of Brooksville; Respondent filled the prescriptions the same day. GX 14, at 7-8. While the back of each prescription includes a handwritten notation dated “1/21/13,”
Mr. Parrado testified that while a prescription (GX 14, at 11-12), which was written by Dr. S.A.-H. of 24th Century, was for “only 90 tablets” of oxycodone 30 mg, the patient's address was in Middleburg, Florida, which is “a good ways from Tampa.” Tr. 111. According to the stipulation, Middleburg is 175 miles from Tampa. R.D. at 7. Mr. Parrado also testified that the price of the prescription, “$675 for just 90 tablets[,] seems like a very high price.” Tr. 112.
Aside from the first four prescriptions in GX 14, each of the remaining 16 prescriptions was written by a doctor with the 24th Century clinic.
While the back of each of the prescriptions issued by the 24th Century physicians also contains checkmarks or scribble, Mr. Parrado testified that “that just looks like they're verifying the quantity and possibly the directions, but . . . not addressing the red flag.”
Government Exhibit 15 contains an additional 13 prescriptions. GX 15. The first two prescriptions were written by Dr. V.S. on January 28, 2013 to J.A. and were for 56 Adderall 30 mg and 84 Dilaudid 8 mg.
Mr. Parrado testified that Adderall is a stimulant and that the patient was “getting an upper and downer together.” Tr. 114. Asked if this was a red flag, Mr. Parrado testified that “I would have wanted to know why they were giving an upper and a downer together. Maybe the patient was having some kind of narcolepsy . . . from one drug to cause him to need a stimulant from the other side, but I would have expected to see some documentation on that.”
As for the rest of the prescriptions in GX 15, the patients lived in Citra (117 miles from Respondent), Brooksville (46 miles), Gainesville (134 miles), Tarpon Springs (18 miles), Ocala (100 miles), Nokomis (79 miles), and Newberry (145 miles). GX 15, at 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, and 26. Mr. Parrado testified that the distances travelled by the patients raised red flags and that he did not see any evidence on the prescriptions that there was any attempt to resolve the red flags. Tr. 116.
Asked by the Government whether Respondent's pharmacists “exercise[d] the appropriate standard of care in the State of Florida,”
No. In my opinion, there are multiple things that a pharmacist has to do before he dispenses a prescription. He has to establish the appropriateness of the therapy. He has to discuss the . . . excessive and inappropriate quantities. He has to assess the therapeutic duplication of the two immediate release medications, all of which are in the laws and rules of the practice of pharmacy.
* * *
There are probably four or five other notations in the Florida law that things the pharmacist would have had to have done to verify the prescription and make sure it was
On cross-examination, Mr. Parrado acknowledged that every red flag he had “talked about . . . could potentially be resolved.”
After Mr. Parrado reiterated his earlier testimony that he “didn't see where anything [as to the resolution of red flags] was documented,” Respondent's counsel asked if it is “true that Florida does not require a pharmacist to document the resolution of red flags on the face of the prescription?”
However, Mr. Parrado subsequently acknowledged that resolution of a red flag could be documented other than on the back of a prescription.
Mr. Parrado rejected, however, the suggestion of Respondent's counsel that documentation need not be placed on the prescription because “there's no way for the floater pharmacist . . . who takes over to actually go through [the prescription file] and know where those [notes] are because they're all written on the back of prescriptions.”
Mr. Parrado acknowledged that a patient who has been on opiates for a significant time and who has developed tolerance may need to exceed the manufacturer's daily recommended dosage.
Asked if he had reviewed PMP data to determine the drug history of any of the patient, Mr. Parrado said that he had not and that the law did not allow him to.
Well, only because of what I saw in the Respondent's exhibits where there were some partial medical records that did have all the drugs the patient was taking on a very few cases, and on those it was the same on every one of them, the same group, same combination.
Mr. Parrado acknowledged that Florida law (Fla. Stat. § 893.04(2)(a)) states that a pharmacist may dispense a controlled substance in the exercise of his professional judgment when the pharmacist or pharmacist's agent has obtained satisfactory patient information from the patient or the patients' agent. Tr. 139. After Respondent's counsel pointed that this provision does not require that the pharmacist alone talk to the physician alone and allows a pharmacist to talk to the patient or the patient's agent, Mr. Parrado testified that “it says in [Fla. Admin. Code r.] 64B16-27.831 that when you have a concern you shall contact the prescriber.”
Turning to J.A., the patient who had received prescriptions for Adderall and Dilaudid, Mr. Parrado conceded that while opiates “have a respiratory depressant effect,” they are not categorized as depressants under the Controlled Substances Act.
While Mr. Parrado acknowledged that he did not go to the pharmacy closest to his home because he knows the pharmacist at the pharmacy he goes to, he explained that “[m]ost people go to
Mr. Parrado testified that the drugs themselves (hydromorphone and oxycodone 30) raised a red flag as they are known drugs of abuse.
Asked the same question with respect to hydromorphone, Mr. Parrado answered: “Well, you know, there again, looking at the dose, I would have to look at the patient profile, see if the patient has developed a tolerance to that drug, and at that point the red flag—there's nothing to write down because there isn't a red flag.”
Turning to the red flag of pattern prescribing, Mr. Parrado acknowledged that if a physician prescribed different narcotics for different patients, sometimes wrote for extended release drugs and other times immediate release drugs, and varied the strength of the drugs, this would not be pattern prescribing. Tr. 153. Mr. Parrado then agreed that the same would hold true for the clinic itself.
As for the red flag of therapeutic duplication, Mr. Parrado agreed that extended release drugs “were expensive” even though “[t]here were some generics available” during the time period at issue and that a patient who lacked insurance “would have difficulty paying for an extended release oxycodone product.”
Turning to the methadone prescription which Respondent filled for B.W. (GX 14, at 3) (on the same day it also filled a Dilaudid prescription for him), Mr. Parrado conceded that he did not have any evidence that B.W. had overdosed, abused the drug, or sold it on the street. Tr. 158-59. Mr. Parrado then acknowledged that he had no evidence that any of the prescriptions were abused or sold on the street.
Asked whether his concern about methadone-related overdoses was a general concern or a specific concern related to B.W., Mr. Parrado testified:
That was a concern that I would have wanted to have seen a red flag resolved. Why is he on hydromorphone and methadone both, which are both immediate release . . . you know, you don't use two immediate release opioids for breakthrough pain. You use a long acting as a base and then the immediate release for breakthrough.
Mr. Parrado then agreed with Respondent's counsel that “it's not common, but it's not completely unheard of for individuals who may not have insurance or may have allergies or other reasons why certain long-acting drugs do not work”
Mr. Parrado further acknowledged that the DEA Pharmacist's Manual does not use the term red flag and does not specifically tell pharmacists how to identify red flags.
After acknowledging that neither the CSA nor DEA regulations use the term “red flags,” as well as that the CSA and DEA regulations do not “talk about distances from patients,” Mr. Parrado agreed that “there is no bright line that . . . if it's beyond a certain distance, it's always wrong.”
As for whether family members seeing the same doctor “makes the doctor's prescriptions for those family members invalid,” Mr. Parrado testified that “[i]t raises a question. It may not make it invalid.”
Mr. Parrado further acknowledged that in evaluating whether a pharmacist had complied with the standards of practice in dispensing a prescription, “it would be helpful” to know various information.
Asked if he was aware that one of the physicians who issued the prescriptions he had testified about “is a noted anesthesiologist,” Mr. Parrado testified that “if it doesn't say it on the prescriptions itself, I wouldn't know it.”
Mr. Parrado further acknowledged that the issue of prescribers not placing the patient's address on prescriptions has become “very common,” but that the pharmacist has to verify the patient's address.
While Mr. Parrado continued practicing through 2012, he could not remember the pharmacies he worked at having ever filled prescriptions written by a doctor at the 24th Century clinic.
Asked whether there were other concerns besides the dosing with the prescriptions written by the Kenaday doctor, Mr. Parrado testified that another prescription presented a distance concern and he did not fill the prescription and gave it back to the patient.
Finally, Mr. Parrado acknowledged that a doctor can issue a prescription for a legitimate medical purpose and the patient may nonetheless misuse it or sell it on the street, but that this does not make the prescription invalid.
As noted above, Respondent's Expert Mr. Badawi did not address any of the prescriptions which the Government submitted into evidence. Kasey George, Respondent's PIC, did offer testimony as to why some of the prescriptions were dispensed.
Mr. George testified that he has been a pharmacist for 21 years, that he has 12 to 13 years of experience in retail pharmacy, and that he has been Respondent's PIC for seven years. Tr. 445-46. Mr. George holds an active pharmacist's license in Florida and holds inactive licenses in three other States.
Mr. George testified that he is the only full-time pharmacist at Respondent, which is open six days a week, and that if he has a day off, he schedules a temporary pharmacist to work that day.
. . . And we check the—call the doctor's office and get the diagnosis for the condition treated. And also we ask for the diagnosis studies they have done and make sure that the studies are consistent with the medical condition that is being treated and also the prescription. . . . And we ask for all the records to be sent to the pharmacy, and we check that they have the narcotic contract with the patient. . . . And also we ask for the urine drug test result and those records. Then we are not done with that.
And we have to check the patient's ID, which is present with the DMV Web site to
Mr. George testified that he reviewed the prescriptions submitted by the Government and he acknowledged that he was the dispensing pharmacist on “the vast majority of” them.
Mr. George testified that he was “required to document every conversation with a patient or physician if the conversation was about concern related to” a controlled substance prescription.
Asked by Respondent's counsel where he would “document the resolution of questions about” a controlled substance prescription, Mr. George answered:
It used to be if it is one or two items you used to document on the face of the prescription. Since the information needed to prevent the abuse and misuse and diversion, a lot of documents [sic] involved, if I decided to go extra step to get all the available documents filed in a separate sheet and document a pharmacist's checklist so I can do beyond the required, more than the required and go and fill in in vast places.
Mr. George then explained that his protocol also included interviewing the patients to “ask them their conditions and why they're being [sic] taken [sic] these prescriptions.”
Mr. George testified that “we verify . . . the credibility of the doctors through the paperwork and the documents.”
Mr. George acknowledged that he was familiar with the physicians who wrote the prescriptions at issue, and that most of them worked for 24th Century, which “is a pain management clinic.”
One doctor, he is no more. He's [sic] passed away three or four years ago. He was the director of this clinic, and he was the chief anesthesiologist in [sic] Tampa General Hospital. He was a famous doctor, and his expertise was a big asset at clinic, and many patients liked him.
Notably, Dr. Ruperto did not write any of the prescriptions at issue in this matter.
Asked by Respondent's counsel how he resolved the red flag of multiple patients presenting similar narcotic prescriptions which were written by the same doctor, Mr. George acknowledged that “[i]f I see that a doctor is writing a certain medication and the same quantity and same way to every patient, then it is a red flag to me.”
Next, Respondent's counsel asked Mr. George about the oxycodone 30 prescriptions whose labels bear sequential RX Numbers and which were dispensed on August 4, 2011 to J.P. and T.P., who have the same last name and had travelled from Saint Augustine (196 miles). GX 3, at 2-3. Mr. George asserted that “I remember that case in detail” and that J.P. and T.P. were husband and wife and that T.P. had a bulged disc from a 1998 accident and “was our patient from 2009.” Tr. 468. He also asserted that J.P. had “a motor vehicle accident” and “had problems with his neck and . . . back.”
Mr. George also acknowledged that a prescription that exceeds the manufacturer's recommended daily dosage presents a red flag. Tr. 470. Mr. George testified that the prescription “does not say the whole story” and when the patient's dose is above the manufacturer's recommended dose, the pharmacist “ha[s] to go and look at the patient's profile and profile history to make sure why this patient is taking higher doses.”
Addressing the prescriptions that were missing patient addresses, Mr. George testified that the former head of the Office of Diversion Control had published a memo which “says that if the pharmacist has to make any changes in C2 prescriptions, they have to follow state laws and guidelines.” Tr. 472. Mr. George then noted that Florida law “clearly says that [the address] shall be on the face of the prescription or the written record thereof,” and added that he would “verify the patient's address though the DMV Web site[] [a]nd also check the PDMP” and use the prescription label to provide the address.
As for the instances in which patients presented prescriptions for two short-acting opiates, Mr. George testified that “there are many reasons” that “doctors write two prescriptions,” including that “the patient is allergic to certain medications,” “has intolerance for the drug,” may have had “gastric bypass surgery,” or be a “dialysis patient.”
As for how he resolved the red flag, Mr. George testified that “you . . . study the situations [sic] and what is the condition of the patient through talking to the doctors and talking to the patients and checking their profiles [and] history.”
Mr. George further testified that he obtained medical records from the 24th Century clinic.
On
Asked by Respondent's counsel “what, if any information on pages 20 through 29 . . . was important to [him] at the time” he was deciding to fill controlled substance prescriptions for S.D., Mr. George testified that the records told him “what the diagnosis is, why this patient [is] being treated for the medication they [sic] are [sic] prescribed.”
Mr. George then testified that he looked at these records as “an extra step to prevent the abuse and misuse of the controlled substances.”
Asked whether there was information on page 44 (a December 6, 2012 Visit Note for H.C., Jr.) that would allow a layperson and pharmacist “to determine what condition the patient was being treated for,” Mr. George answered “yes.”
Next, Mr. George was asked about the prescription (GX 3, at 1) Respondent dispensed on July 28, 2011 to T.V., who lived in Pensacola—472 miles from Respondent—for 210 tablets of oxycodone 30. Tr. 493. Mr. George testified that she had been his patient “since 2009,” and that in deciding to fill her prescription, he had had done “all my due diligence, checked with the doctors, checked all the medical records [he] could” and “interviewed the patient.”
While on cross-examination, Mr. George testified that another pharmacist had filled this specific prescription,
After again stating that he did not fill the prescription, Mr. George testified that “every pharmacist who worked in that Hills Pharmacy have [sic] that file. That's the reason the due diligence paper is filed separately.”
Subsequently, the ALJ asked Mr. George if he recalled why T.V. “travelled from Pensacola to Hills Pharmacy?”
This patient had multiple surgeries done in Tampa General Hospital and that time the doctor, the chief anesthesiologist was Dr. Cornelio Ruperto, and he become [sic] the director of the clinic where this prescription was written. So she used to come
Respondent's counsel then asked Mr. George about the back side of two prescriptions for 180 oxycodone 30 (GX 3, at 35) which cost $1350 each and were written for H.C., Sr., and H.C., Jr.; the latter is the same person whose records are found at pages 34 through 51 of Respondent's Exhibit 3. Tr. 495-96. Asked to explain what inquiry he made to learn about him and his condition, Mr. George testified:
[W]hen I got this prescription, I did all my due diligence and followed my protocols. Then I looked—he has a bulging disc, and I filled this prescription. He is coming in my pharmacy from 2009 onwards. And when he came to pharmacy with all these conditions, he'd been filling for [sic] insurance—he had insurance coverage that time. Then that time he was paying $35, was the copay. So he'd been paying that from 2009 `till end . . . of 2010.
Then he left the pharmacy. Then two years he did not come to the pharmacy. Then in 2012, he came back to the pharmacy with a prescription, and he did not have insurance, which Hills Pharmacy always ask when he was in where is your insurance, and he said he lost the insurance. He didn't have any insurance coverage.
Then he said that I need this medication, I'm on this medication. And he brought a profile also where he was. And I don't remember that it is a—and he showed me he was taking this medication. So he said he's willing to pay whatever the cash price at that time. And I filled this prescription for cash.
Mr. George subsequently testified that he had no knowledge that any of the patients who received the prescriptions at issue abused or diverted the drugs he dispensed to them.
From 2013 onwards, I modified my protocol and changed it to print out patients' residence to less than 15 miles, and also in our protocol changes that we only fill the doses consistent with the manufacturer's recommended doses, and also we will not fill for patient for the controlled substances who reside in the same addresses. So after making that [sic] changes, if it—today I will—that red flag will be considered in a different way and say that this is not according to my protocol, so I will not be comfortable.
That doesn't mean that what I did before that was not written for legitimate medical purpose, but at this point, because my protocol is more stringent and more strong, in my effort to prevent the misuse and abuse and diversion, I will check one more time.
Sixty-three miles, this time, yes, I will not fill that 63 miles, above 50 miles because my protocol has changed after the administrative warrant then to less than 50 miles. But at that time then when I filled it, it was a red flag, but I did my due diligence and followed the protocol, so that time it was okay in that I resolved that red flag.
Next, Mr. George testified regarding a chart he had created which shows from January 1, 2011 through November 30, 2014, the total prescriptions dispensed by Respondent during each year (except for 2014), the total non-controlled and schedule II prescriptions dispensed, and the total schedule III through V prescriptions dispensed. RX 2, at 1. Notably, the chart does not provide any data for the schedule II prescriptions alone, and instead adds them to the non-controlled prescriptions.
Another chart shows data for Schedule II through V for the years 2011 through 2013 and for 2014 through November 30. RX 2, at 3. The chart reflects a decrease in the total number of controlled substance prescriptions dispensed and a decrease in the percentage of total dispensings comprised by schedule II through V dispensings.
Subsequently, Mr. George answered “yes” when asked by Respondent's counsel: “[d]o you accept responsibility for the fact that you filled prescriptions for controlled substances that had red flags on them?” Tr. 507. However, when then asked if he had “ever knowingly ignored your duties as a pharmacist to exercise your professional judgment?”, Mr. George answered: “No, I never did.”
On cross-examination, Mr. George acknowledged that a prescription which calls for the dispensing of “a high quantity” of a controlled substance presents a red flag as do “patients coming from long distance.”
I don't understand it the way the doctors are trained to understand. By experience, I look whether this prescription was issued for a legitimate medical reason. This is not my duty as a pharmacist. I would do something above and beyond in order to support the effort to prevent abuse and misuse. It is not part of my duty to read the medical report. I am doing an extra step for myself and to serve the community.
The Government then asked Mr. George about Respondent's dispensing of 240 oxycodone 30 tablets to K.D., on April 21, 2011, pursuant to a prescription issued by Dr. S.A.-H. of the 24th Century Clinic (GX 3, at 20); K.D. is one of the patients whose partial records were submitted into evidence.
The Government then asked Mr. George if he had dispensed the prescription found in the patient file for S.D., who resided in Panama City, Florida.
No. I look only for my prescription which is received in my hand. That is only my concern on that time. Where other places or where the patient got the medication, if I have the PDMP, that will support me on that cause. If I get the medical record, I have no way of saying and understanding where the patient had a different prescription unless I talk to the patient or doctors if he write any other prescriptions. I cannot guess where the prescription was filled for that patient.
And . . . I have one more thing to add on that question. This, as I said, these documents I am looking at, looking [sic] all these documents, above and beyond what the duty required of me because to help. It is not my pharmacist job to read, that is doctor's job. DEA give [sic] license to the doctors and they are well trained in writing these prescriptions, and they have the capacity to look at the patient's record and they are the one who is writing this prescription. I call them—give me a second. I call them, verify them, why they did it, what is the treatment plan, and I look above and beyond what are required of pharmacist. I go all the papers and I make my professional judgment whether this patient can be—this prescription can be dispensed.
Asked whether he saw a treatment plan in S.D.'s medical record, Mr. George testified:
In this, all records when you go through the records, there is a medical, the copy of the MRIs and the report from the radiologist and why they are treating it and the notes from the doctor's office, and it say what medication they are writing there, and the doctors notes, the visitation notes there.
Then asked whether he looked at S.D.'s MRI, Mr. George testified: “I don't look at MRI. I look at what is the diagnosis in that, whether patient, if it says that a patient has a bulging disc. A couple of the reasons why this medication being prescribed. That's my scope there.” Tr. 563. Mr. George then testified that he did look at the MRI report before dispensing the prescription.
Mr. George then denied that he was familiar with the term drug cocktail.
S.D.'s patient file also includes a visit note dated June 13, 2012. RX 3, at 24-27. This note states that “Pt. has not taken meds in 5 months” and lists S.D.'s current medications as including five drugs: (1) Carisoprodol 350 mg, one tablet twice daily; (2) Dilaudid 8 mg
Subsequently, the Government asked Mr. George if he had filled the prescription (GX 3, at 16) issued by Dr. P.C. (24th Century) to C.B. of Big Pine Key, which authorized the dispensing of 196 oxycodone 30. Tr. 568-69. Mr. George acknowledged that he had filled the prescription.
On this particular patient I don't remember, but I know that when it is more than this distance, definitely I did counsel the patient and record it in the due diligence sheet why they travel. In many cases, I don't remember particularly this patient again. Many cases the reasons are their [sic] spouse are [sic] living in Tampa, they're [sic] in job assignment, or their [sic] doctor is here and they like the doctor. So there are many reasons, but I don't particularly remember. This is from 2011.
On re-direct, Respondent's counsel, having noted the Government's questions “about remembering specifics about certain patients,” asked Mr. George how many patients he had “dispensed controlled substances for in the last five years?”
While that may be, Respondent certainly knew what prescriptions were at issue well in advance of the hearing, and if it was true that Respondent was maintaining the due diligence checklists, Mr. George could have reviewed those checklists with respect to the patients who filled the prescriptions.
Subsequently, the Government recalled Mr. Parrado to question him about Mr. George's testimony with respect to the medical records in Respondent's Exhibit 3. Tr. 598-99. Mr. Parrado testified that he had “never had medical records in any pharmacy I've ever worked in or managed.”
With respect to the medical record for S.D., which, as found above, showed that he had received prescriptions for oxycodone 30, MS Contin, carisoprodol and Xanax, even though he had not been on medications for five months and had tested negative for opiates, Mr. Parrado explained that “[t]here were some notations in his chart that caused me concern.”
Asked on cross-examination that “you know that there's no ceiling on narcotics, don't you,” Mr. Parrado answered: “[W]ell, but there is. On an opioid naïve patient there is.”
The notations said, and if I'm going to be looking at a chart as a pharmacist to determine if there was something, if this dose is appropriate to begin with, the fact the patient said he had not taken the medication, I'm seeing in the medical record that the drug screen says opiate negative. That's telling me I now have an opioid naïve patient. I have a concern.
On further questioning by Respondent's counsel, Mr. Parrado reiterated that the patient's statement that he had not taken medication in five months “was in that chart that I looked at.”
Under the CSA, “[a] registration pursuant to section 823 of this title to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance . . . may be suspended or revoked by the Attorney General upon a finding that the registrant . . . has committed such acts as would render [its] registration under section 823 of this title inconsistent with the public interest as determined under such section.” 21 U.S.C. 824(a)(4). In the case of a retail pharmacy, which is deemed to be a practitioner,
(1) The recommendation of the appropriate State licensing board or professional disciplinary authority.
(2) The applicant's experience in dispensing or conducting research with respect to controlled substances.
(3) The applicant's conviction record under Federal or State laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled substances.
(4) Compliance with applicable State, Federal, or local laws relating to controlled substances.
(5) Such other conduct which may threaten the public health and safety.
“[T]hese factors are . . . considered in the disjunctive.”
Under the Agency's regulation, “[a]t any hearing for the revocation or suspension of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such revocation or suspension pursuant to . . . 21 U.S.C. [§ ]824(a) . . . are satisfied.” 21 CFR 1301.44(e). In this matter, while I have considered all of the factors, the Government's evidence in support of its
As to factor three, I acknowledge that there is no evidence that Respondent, its owner, its manager, or any of its pharmacists, has been convicted of an
While the Government did not allege in the Show Cause Order any misconduct with respect to factor five, following the hearing, the Government argued that Mr. George provided incredible testimony. Because I consider his testimony in evaluating the evidence as to the dispensing allegations, as well as whether Respondent has credibly accepted responsibility for its misconduct, I deem it unnecessary to separately address Mr. George's testimony under factor five.
“Except as authorized by” the CSA, it is “unlawful for any person [to] knowingly or intentionally . . . manufacture, distribute, or dispense, or possess with intent to manufacture, distribute, or dispense, a controlled substance.” 21 U.S.C. 841(a)(1). Under the Act, a pharmacy's registration authorizes it “to dispense,”
The CSA's implementing regulations set forth the standard for a lawful controlled substance prescription. 21 CFR 1306.04(a). Under the regulation, “[a] prescription for a controlled substance to be effective must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice.”
[T]he responsibility for the proper prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances is upon the prescribing practitioner,
As the Agency has made clear, to prove a violation of the corresponding responsibility, the Government must show that the pharmacist acted with the requisite degree of scienter.
Here, the Government makes no claim that any of Respondents' pharmacists dispensed the prescriptions having actual knowledge that the prescriptions lacked a legitimate medical purpose. Instead, relying primarily on
The Government argues that Respondent's pharmacists violated this regulation by filling prescriptions for such drugs such oxycodone, hydromorphone, and MS Contin (morphine sulfate) which presented various “red flags” which were never resolved. Gov. Post-Hrng. Br. 22-24. It contends that its expert, Mr. Parrado, gave “unrefuted testimony” that “Respondent repeatedly distributed controlled substances pursuant to prescriptions that contained one or more unresolved red flags for diversion.”
However, with the exception of a provision of Florida law which requires that a pharmacist document that he has checked a patient's identification (or made a photocopy of the identification and attached it to the prescription), no provision of the CSA, DEA regulations, Florida law, or the Board of Pharmacy's rules requires that a pharmacist document the resolution of a red flag or flags on the prescription itself. While it may be the custom of the pharmacy profession to document the resolution of a red flag or flags on the prescription, that does not make it improper to document the resolution someplace else.
Recently, I rejected allegations that a registrant's pharmacists had failed to resolve red flags when the only evidence the Government offered to prove that fact was the absence of
Moreover, while there is no requirement that a pharmacist document the resolution of a red flag on a prescription, a regulation of the Florida Board of Pharmacy (then in effect) specifically required that “[a] patient record system . . . be maintained by all pharmacies for patients to whom new or refill prescriptions are dispensed” and that the “system shall provide for the immediate retrieval of information necessary for the dispensing pharmacist to identify previously dispensed drugs at the time a new or refill prescription is presented for dispensing.” Fla. Admin. Code r. 64B-16-27.800. This rule also required that the pharmacy maintain “[a] list of all new and refill prescriptions obtained by the patient at the pharmacy . . . during the two years immediately preceding the most recent entry” and include the “prescription number, name and strength of the drug, the quantity and date received, and the name of the prescriber.
The rule further required that the record include the “[p]harmacist['s] comments relevant to the individual's drug therapy, including any other information peculiar to the specific patient or drug.”
Of further note, the Board of Pharmacy's rules require that a pharmacist “review the patient record and each new and refill prescription presented for dispensing in order to promote therapeutic appropriateness.” Fla Admin Code r. 64B16-27.810. This rule specifically requires that a pharmacist identify such issues as: “[o]ver-utilization,” “[t]herapeutic duplication,” “[d]rug-drug interactions,” “[i]ncorrect drug dosage,” and “[c]linical abuse/misuse.”
Notwithstanding that the Board's rule specifically requires that a pharmacist document in the patient record his/her comments relevant to the patient's drug therapy and “other information peculiar to the patient” or drug, as well as “any related information” provided by the patient's physician, and thus, would seem to provide relevant evidence in assessing whether a pharmacist resolved the suspicion created by the prescriptions, the Government did not introduce any of the patient profiles. Nor did it provide any of the patient profiles to Mr. Parrado, Tr. 300, even though on cross-examination, he acknowledged that a pharmacist would generally need to see the patient profile to determine whether a patient had developed tolerance.
In
At the outset, the evidence shows that more than 90 percent of the schedule II prescriptions Respondent filled between January 3, 2011 and February 4, 2013 were written by doctors employed by Victor Obi, the brother of Respondent's owner. GX 12, at 2.
As found above, on July 28, 2011, Respondent dispensed 210 tablets of oxycodone 30 to T.V., who had travelled 472 miles from Pensacola to obtain a prescription from Dr. P.C., one of the doctors at 24th Century. GX 3, at 1. I find that the distance T.V. travelled to obtain the prescription, as well as the drug—a known drug of abuse—and dosing, were sufficient to establish a subjective belief on the part of the pharmacist who filled the prescription that there was a high probability that the prescription lacked a legitimate medical purpose.
Respondent is mistaken. While it is true that a pharmacist cannot violate his corresponding responsibility if a prescription was nonetheless issued for a legitimate medical purpose, Respondent ignores that the invalidity of a prescription can be proved by circumstantial evidence.
In its Exceptions, Respondent also argues that “[i]n
Here too, Respondent is mistaken. To be sure, in
This, however, was only one part—and a small part—of the case, and the three-part test was discussed in the context of the pharmacies' decisions to dispense prescriptions for oxycodone 30 and alprazolam 2, which were written by doctors in South Florida for patients, many of whom had travelled from out-of-state (
Regarding T.V., Mr. George testified that she had been a patient since 2009, that she had shown him scars from back surgeries, and that “even though the distance was far,” his experience and “the need of the patients” [sic] led him to fill the prescription.
Dr. Ruperto did not, however, issue the July 28, 2011 prescription. Indeed, his name does not appear among the lists of physicians on any of the 24th Century prescriptions. And while Mr. George testified that T.V. saw Dr. Ruperto “always” because she liked the doctor and that she had been coming to Respondent “from 2009 onwards,” Dr. Ruperto had died in December 2008, before T.V. had even started patronizing Respondent. I thus find that Mr. George's testimony as to why Respondent filled the prescription disingenuous. And I further conclude that Respondent's pharmacist knowingly filled an unlawful prescription.
On January 19, 2012, Respondent dispensed 120 tablets of oxycodone 30 to S.D., who had travelled 331 miles from Panama City to obtain the prescription from Dr. R.R. of the 24th Century Clinic. GX 3, at 33. In addition to the strong suspicion created by the distance S.D. had travelled, the partial medical records—which Mr. George testified he would obtain and review before dispensing—show that Dr. R.R. prescribed five different controlled substances to S.D. at this visit including oxycodone, MS Contin, Soma (carisoprodol), Xanax and Dilaudid, the latter being added at this visit. RX 3, at 29;
Thus, S.D.'s partial medical record created additional strong grounds for Mr. George (whose initials are on the prescription label as the dispensing pharmacist) to subjectively believe that there was a high probability that the prescriptions lacked a legitimate medical purpose. First, the record showed that Dr. R.R. had prescribed a drug cocktail of CNS depressants of opiates (oxycodone), benzodiazepines, and carisoprodol, which as Mr. Parrado explained, is known as the Holy Trinity and to be highly abused on the street. Notably, Mr. Badawi offered no testimony refuting Mr. Parrado on this issue. And while Mr. George denied being familiar with drug cocktails, Tr. 563-64, DEA had identified this combination of drugs in several final decisions as being highly abused prior to the events at issue here.
Mr. Parrado also testified that the maximum recommended dose of Dilaudid (hydromorphone) was 24 mg per day and that patients usually do not take the eight milligram dosage unless they have terminal cancer; he also testified that prescribing two short acting opiates is inappropriate therapy and raises a red flag.
Mr. Badawi also agreed with Mr. Parrado that the prescribing of two short-acting opiates together is a red flag that would require further investigation. Tr. 419. He then testified that a patient with kidney failure who undergoes dialysis could legitimately require two short-acting opiates. There is, however, no documentation on either progress note that S.D. had kidney failure. RX 3, at 25-29. And while Mr. Parrado acknowledged that prescribing an extended release drug would be problematic for a patient who had undergone bariatric surgery, S.D. was prescribed MS Contin, which is an extended-release drug.
Of further note, Mr. George testified that he had reviewed S.D.'s partial file before dispensing the prescription. Tr. 560-61. However, Mr. George offered no testimony other than his generalized assertion that he always did his due diligence, which neither the ALJ nor I find credible, to explain how he resolved the suspicion created by S.D.'s prescriptions. Thus, given the sum total
Likewise, the partial medical record for H.C., Jr., shows that on December 6, 2012, he, too, received the cocktail known as the Holy Trinity from Dr. R.R. of the 24th Century Clinic. RX 3, at 47. More specifically, he received a prescription for 180 oxycodone 30 mg, along with prescriptions for 112 tablets of OxyContin 40 mg, 84 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg, and 84 tablets of Xanax (alprazolam) 1 mg.
Mr. George offered a lengthy explanation as to why he had filled H.C., Jr.'s, prescription. More specifically, Mr. George explained that H.C., Jr., had been a patient who previously had insurance, that for two years he did not come to the pharmacy, and that when he returned he had lost his insurance but said he needed the medication and brought Mr. George a profile showing he had been on the medication and was “willing to pay whatever the cash price at that time.” Tr. 496-97. While Mr. George asserted that when he got the oxycodone 30 prescription, he did his due diligence and followed his protocols and determined that H.C., Jr. had a bulging disc,
The evidence also shows that on the same day, J.P. and T.P. who, according to Mr. George, were husband and wife, travelled 196 miles from St. Augustine to 24th Century, where they obtained prescriptions for 196 and 224 tablets respectively of oxycodone 30. GX 3, at 2-3. The sequential prescription numbers also support the inference that J.P. and T.P. presented their prescriptions to Mr. George one after the other, which he then filled.
Mr. George asserted that he remembered the case of J.P. and T.P. “in detail.” Tr. 468. He asserted that T.P. had a bulged disc from an accident in 1998 and “was our patient from 2009” and that J.P. had a “motor vehicle accident” and “had problems with his neck and . . . back”; however, he offered no evidence as to when J.P.'s accident had occurred and how long he had been a patient.
Here, notwithstanding Mr. George's statement that he remembered the case “in detail,” he offered no testimony as to why T.P. and J.P. needed to travel 196 miles each way to obtain medication for their purported conditions when there were likely a number of other clinics where they could have obtained treatment that are located far closer to St. Augustine then the 24th Century clinic. And while Mr. George asserted that he filled the prescriptions because he “was comfortable within [his] professional judgment” “after doing all the due diligence and following the protocols, talking to the doctors,”
Notably, the ALJ did not find Mr. George's testimony credible,
On April 21, 2011, Mr. George dispensed a prescription for 196 oxycodone 30 to C.B., which was written by Dr. P.C. of the 24th Century clinic. Tr. 569; GX 3, at 16. C.B. lived in Big Pine Key, which is near Key West and a distance of 400 miles from Respondent. GX 3, at 16; R.D. at 6.
Asked if he knew where Big Pine Key is, Mr. George answered that he knew it was in Florida. Asked if he recalled investigating why C.B. had travelled from Big Pine Key to Tampa to get the prescription, Mr. George asserted that he didn't “remember particularly this patient again.” Tr. 569. He then offered a generalized explanation as to why patients had addresses indicating that they lived a considerable distance from Tampa, such as “their [sic] spouse are [sic] living in Tampa, they're [sic] in job assignment, or their [sic] doctor is here and they like the doctor,” before acknowledging that “I don't particularly remember” the patient.
Here again, I conclude that the exact opposite of what Mr. George testified to is true—that he did not determine why C.B. had travelled from Big Pine Key to fill the prescription.
Mr. George did not otherwise address how he resolved the various red flags presented by any other specific
Relying on
I agree with the ALJ that an adverse inference is warranted based on Respondent's failure to produce the due diligence checklists and her assessment of Mr. George's credibility on the issue of whether he resolved all of the red flags. I nonetheless do not adopt her conclusion that Respondent's pharmacists violated their corresponding responsibility with respect to
In
As explained above, establishing the requisite scienter for a violation requires more than simply showing that a prescription presented a red flag. The ALJ, however, simply concluded that because each of the prescriptions presented a red flag or flags, without any assessment of the level of suspicion created by the red flag or flags, a violation was established because she found Mr. George not credible when he testified that he resolved all of the red flags. This approach is too untethered to the text of 21 CFR 1306.04(a) to support findings that Respondent's pharmacists either acted knowingly or with willful blindness when they dispensed each of the prescriptions.
To demonstrate, the record contains multiple prescriptions for MS Contin. The record is, however, devoid of any evidence as to why the quantities prescribed were suspicious, and certainly the prices paid for the prescriptions are not so outlandish as to support the conclusion that only a person who was abusing the drugs or selling them to others would be willing pay the amount charged by Respondent for the drug.
The record does, however, establish that Respondent filled multiple prescriptions for Dilaudid (hydromorphone) which authorized the dispensing of high quantities and called for daily dosing well above the 12-24 milligrams average daily dose. Specifically, Mr. George dispensed 240 tablets of Dilaudid 8 mg to D.K., which would provide a daily dose of 64 mg, and 196 tablets of Dilaudid 8 mg to G.C., which would provide a daily dose of approximately 52 mg.
As noted previously, Mr. Parrado provided unrefuted testimony that Dilaudid 8 mg is an “extremely, extremely potent opioid,” that the dose was “almost double the recommended upper daily dose” (it was actually more), and that the prescription provided “a high dose because mostly people don't take Dilaudid 8 [mg] unless they're in a terminal stage of cancer.” Tr. 90. Mr. Parrado then testified that “[t]o see multiple prescriptions for 200 tablets would be almost a non-resolvable red flag to me.”
As for whether Mr. George resolved the high probability that the prescriptions were illegitimate raised by their dosing and quantity, Mr. George did not specifically address these two prescriptions. To be sure, Mr. George testified as a general matter that he resolved the suspicion presented when a prescription authorizes the dispensing of a controlled substance in quantities and dosing which exceed the maximum recommended dose in opioid naïve patients by looking at the patient profiles to see if the patient had developed tolerance. However, while looking at a patient profile to determine how large a quantity a patient had previously been prescribed might well resolve whether a patient has developed tolerance, it does not conclusively resolve the issue of whether a prescription was issued for a legitimate medical purpose.
Moreover, Mr. George testified that while he always documented how he resolved the suspicion presented by a prescription, and, consistent with Mr. Parrado's testimony as to the standard of
I also note that after the Government rested, Respondent sought partial summary disposition on the dispensing allegations arguing that the Government did not “meet its burden of proof to show that the red flags were not resolved” and that all that “the Government has proven is that the resolution of the red flags was not present on the back of the prescriptions.” Tr. 336. The ALJ denied the motion, ruling that “Respondent has not provided any legal authority that supports [its] position that I can grant summary disposition of an issue in the course of this hearing,” and that she only had authority to recommend that I grant summary disposition.
Even if the ALJ committed error when she denied Respondent's motion, Respondent had the option of not putting forward evidence on the dispensing allegations. Respondent nonetheless chose to present Mr. George's testimony and submit the partial medical records.
Thus, I find that Mr. George either knew that the Dilaudid prescriptions issued to D.K. and G.C. lacked a legitimate medical purpose or subjectively believed that there was a high probability that the prescriptions lacked a legitimate medical purpose. I further find that an adverse inference is warranted that Respondent did not conclusively resolve the high probability that the Dilaudid prescriptions issued to D.K. and G.C. lacked a legitimate medical purpose. I therefore conclude that substantial evidence supports a finding that Mr. George violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a) when he dispensed these two prescriptions.
Mr. Parrado also identified as suspicious two instances in which patients (B.W. and T.F.) presented prescriptions for both Dilaudid 8 and methadone 10 which were issued on the same day. Tr. 107-11. Mr. George filled B.W.'s prescriptions, which were for 100 Dilaudid 8 mg and 60 methadone 10 mg, notwithstanding that: (1) B.W. had travelled from Tallevast (54 miles from Respondent); (2) the dosing instruction for the Dilaudid was to take one tablet every four hours for pain, thus resulting in a daily doses of 48 mg, double the upper recommended dose; and (3) that Dilaudid and methadone “are immediate release opioids, both of which could contribute to respiratory depression, which could be a serious concern,”; and (4) while methadone's analgesic effect peaks at “three to four hours and tapers off rather quickly,” the respiratory depression effects continue to grow. Tr. 107, 174.
Notably, even Mr. Badawi agreed that the simultaneous prescribing of two immediate release narcotics presents a red flag which requires further investigation.
In addition to the oxycodone 30 prescriptions Respondent dispensed to T.V., J.P., T.P., H.C., Jr., and C.B., the record contains an additional 29 oxycodone prescriptions which provided for the dispensing of quantities and dosing in excess of the 80 mg daily limit. Notably, 25 of the prescriptions provided for the dispensing of 168 du or more, and 13 of the prescriptions provided for the dispensing of 224 du or more.
As Mr. Parrado testified, “[o]ne of the things that a pharmacist knows or should know is that oxycodone . . . 80 milligrams a day has been listed in the literature as a lethal dose for or an opioid naïve patient. So, when being presented with a prescription for a dose that would exceed 80 milligrams in one day, that pharmacist would need to stop and take a look and verify that the patient[ ] is not opioid naïve and has been on a regimen[ ] that has led him to develop a tolerance to that dose.” Tr. 57. Mr. Badawi did not refute Mr. Parrado's testimony as to the maximum recommended dose for an opioid naïve patient and he agreed that when a prescription calls for the dispensing of a “very large or larger than normal amounts of a narcotic,” or an amount “larger than the manufacturer's recommended dosage,” a pharmacist must make an inquiry.
Here, the Government produced numerous prescriptions which provided quantities and dosing instructions that were two to three times the 80 milligram level. Moreover, Mr. George acknowledged that a prescription that exceeds the manufacturer's recommended daily dosage presents a red flag, and I conclude that when a narcotic prescription exceeds that dosage by the amounts present here, that red flag establishes that there was a high probability that the prescription lacks a legitimate medical purpose and that Mr. George subjectively believed as much.
As for the issue of whether Mr. George conclusively resolved that the prescriptions were issued for a legitimate medical purpose, as previously explained, Mr. George offered only his generalized and not credible testimony that he always checked the patient profiles and did his due diligence and failed to specifically address how he resolved any of these other prescriptions. That, plus Respondent's failure to produce the purported due diligence checklists to corroborate his testimony, support the adverse inference that he failed to do so. I therefore find that Respondent's pharmacists violated 21 CFR 1306.04(a) when they dispensed numerous other oxycodone prescriptions.
While I conclude that the quantities and dosing of these prescriptions alone support a finding that there was a high probability that the oxycodone prescriptions lacked a legitimate medical purpose, Mr. Parrado also identified another red flag—the high prices Respondent charged for the oxycodone prescriptions and the fact that patients were paying for them in cash or cash equivalents. Tr. 71-72, 75-76, 87-89, 112, 132-33, 165. As the evidence shows, the price Respondent charged for a 180 du prescription ranged from $675 in April 2011 to $1350 in in December 2012, and many of the prescriptions costs $800 or more. GX 3, at 1, 3, 5,11,15,17, 20, 24, 26, 28, 29, 30, 34, 35. As Mr. Parrado explained with respect to a prescription for 196 du which, at that time, cost $784:
You don't see people paying $784 in cash. You tell a person they have a $50 co-pay and they go ballistic on you. And for a person to willingly pay $784 and not have any documentation as to why they did that and to see that over and over every day is a concern to me. . . . That's a red flag I couldn't resolve.
Notably, Mr. Badawi offered no testimony refuting Mr. Parrado's testimony that the cost of the prescriptions was also a red flag. Indeed, were these patients legitimate chronic pain patients, they would presumably require oxycodone on a monthly basis and would have spent $7,000 to $10,000 a year for this medication in 2011 (when Respondent's prices were lowest) and thousands more the following year.
As the evidence shows, when the Government obtained Respondent's records, it took only the schedule II prescriptions and provided only these prescriptions to Mr. Parrado. Notably, during the period of 2011 through early 2013, combination hydrocodone drugs, which are among the most highly prescribed drugs overall and are prescribed for pain, were in schedule III of the CSA, and any such prescriptions were not provided to Mr. Parrado. So too, Mr. Parrado was not provided with the prescriptions, if any, written by the 24th Century doctors for other drugs they may have prescribed for pain such as Tylenol with codeine (also in schedule III), pregabalin (Lyrica, schedule V), as well as non-controlled medications such as ibuprofen and naproxen. Thus, there is no basis to conclude that the 24th Century doctors were engaged in pattern prescribing.
Against this evidence, Respondent points to the changes it made in its due diligence procedures after the AIW was served, the data it submitted showing that it has substantially decreased its dispensing of controlled substance prescriptions, and its decision—made three weeks before the hearing—to stop dispensing controlled substance prescriptions issued from pain management clinics. While Mr. George explained that he made these changes because “[a]s a professional provider,” he had “a part to do to prevent the abuse and misuse and diversion of . . . controlled substances,” even were I to accept his testimony as true, it does not outweigh the substantial evidence that he and Respondent's other pharmacists violated their corresponding responsibility and knowingly diverted controlled substances. 21 CFR 1306.04(a).
The Government also alleged that Respondent violated various recordkeeping provisions of the CSA and DEA regulations. The allegations included that Respondent: (1) Had failed to complete a biennial inventory, (2) did not notate on its schedule II order forms the date and quantity it received of schedule II drugs, (3) failed to retain Copy 3 of its order forms, and (4) its records were not readily retrievable. The Government further points to the results of an audit it conducted which found multiple overages and a shortage of schedule II drugs.
The Government alleged that Respondent “failed to maintain records of [s]chedule II prescriptions, inventory records, and receiving records . . . in a readily retrievable form at its registered location in violation of 21 CFR 1304.04(a) and (h)(2).” ALJ Ex. 1, at 4 As found above, a DI testified that Respondent was not able to provide all of the records when the AIW was executed, specifically the prescriptions from February 4, 2011 through April 2011, the inventories from February 4, 2011 through the end of 2011, and the receiving records from February 4, 2011 through the end of 2011. Tr. 252. According to the DI, he personally witnessed an attorney for Respondent state that the records were offsite and that the office manager had the key but was not available that day.
Reasoning that the attorney's statement was hearsay, the ALJ specifically found credible Mr. George's testimony that the records were locked in a storage room at the back of the pharmacy but that he did not have the key to the room on the date that the AIW was executed. R.D. at 45 n.30. While Mr. George testified that Respondent's owner showed up with the key within a couple of hours but after the Investigators had left, the Government put forward no evidence as to how long the Investigators were on the premises.
Under generally applicable regulations, except as otherwise provided, “every inventory and other records required to be kept under [21 CFR 1304] must be kept by the registrant and be available, for at least 2 years from the date of such inventory or records, for inspection and copying by
As to the schedule II order forms, “[t]he purchaser must retain Copy 3 of each executed DEA Form 222” and the forms “must be maintained separately from all other records of the registrant” and “be kept available for inspection for a period of two years” at the registered location.
In the Order to Show Cause, the Government nonetheless alleged that Respondent “failed to maintain records . . . in a readily retrievable form at its registered location.” ALJ Ex. 1, at 4. I find the violation proved. As explained above, the ALJ reasoned that the attorney's statement was hearsay and therefore gave it less weight than Mr. George's testimony. However, contrary to the ALJ's understanding, the attorney's statement was not hearsay because it was an admission of a party-opponent.
According to the DI, during the inspection, Respondent produced a document for the audited drugs on which it kept a perpetual inventory,
More specifically, the records showed that methadone 10 was inventoried on January 2, 2012. GX 5, at 1. While morphine sulfate 30 mg immediate release and morphine sulfate 100 m extended release were inventoried on January 2, 2012, morphine sulfate 60 mg extended release was inventoried on January 3, 2012, and morphine sulfate 30 mg extended release was not inventoried until June 9, 2012. GX 5, at 2-5. As for hydromorphone 8 mg, the only inventory listed is one taken on July 24, 2012, and while an inventory of Dilaudid 4 mg was taken on January 2, 2012, the sheet for generic hydromorphone 4 mg lists an inventory date of June 6, 2012 and the quantity on hand as “-4” while also including the undated notation of “60” in the header for the “balance” column.
Against this evidence, Respondent introduced an exhibit which purports to be an “Annual Inventory” of its schedule II controlled substances which was taken on January 2, 2012 and which lists Mr. George as its pharmacist.
The ALJ surmised that at the time of the AIW, either the DI did not request the biennial inventory or that Respondent's personnel did not understand the request. R.D. at 8-9 n.3. Nor does the record establish why this document was not turned over pursuant to the AIW (the AIW not being in the record either) with the documents that were subsequently turned over by Respondent's attorney. In any event, I find the evidence insufficient to support the allegation that Respondent failed to complete a biennial inventory as required by 21 CFR 1304.11(c). ALJ Ex. 1, at 4.
The Government also alleged that Respondent's manner of keeping its schedule II order forms violated DEA regulations in two respects. First, it alleges that Respondent failed to document on the forms the “receipt date or quantity received.”
As support for the allegations, the Government submitted copies of 11 “purchaser's Copy 3” of order forms Respondent submitted to various distributors. Under DEA's regulation, “[t]he purchaser must record on Copy 3 . . . the number of commercial or bulk containers furnished on each item and the dates on which the containers are received by the purchaser.” 21 CFR 1305.13(e). However, under another DEA regulation, an order form is not valid “more than 60 days after its
With respect to the 11 order forms, each of the forms includes notations indicating one or more items was filled by the supplier, with a handwritten notation as to the number of packages received, the date of receipt, and initials.
The order forms also included line items that were not filled in any part by the supplier, and the forms were left blank in the columns for “No. of Packages Received” and “Date Received.”
As to this contention, DEA regulations do not require a purchaser to notate on the order form that no portion of a particular item was received and a date.
As for the allegations that Respondent “failed to retain Copy 3 of the” order forms, the Government proof was comprised of a single 222 form which, according to the DI, was a xerox and not the original Copy 3. GX 11, at 2. This is a violation, as under 21 CFR 1305.17(a), “[t]he purchaser must retain Copy 3 of each executed DEA Form 222.” However, this violation, as well as the two other violations based on Respondent's failure to notate the date on which the packages were received, are of minor consequence.
“To give any weight to the DEA's documentary evidence would be tantamount to sanctioning the unlawful conduct of the investigators and would work a great procedural and substantive injustice on Respondent. The only fair action (thus, a “necessary action”) is to give no weight to the DEA's documentary evidence and to give no weight to the testimony about those documents.”
In its Exceptions, Respondent does not identify a single allegation that it has been unable to respond to because of the Government's delay in returning the documents or its failure to provide a meaningful accounting of the documents. Because Respondent has failed to establish prejudice, I reject its claim.
The Government also put forth evidence that it conducted an audit of Respondent's handling of seven controlled substances and found that it had overages in six drugs and a shortage in one drug. With respect to the latter, the audit found that Respondent was short 4,135 du of hydromorphone 4 mg. With respect to the overages, as alleged by the Government, the most significant were those of 8,758 du of hydromorphone 8 mg and 1,306 du of oxycodone 30 mg.
“Recordkeeping is one of the CSA's central features; a registrant's accurate and diligent adherence to this obligation is absolutely essential to protect against the diversion of controlled substances.”
Respondent raises a variety of challenges to the audit results. First, it asserts that the audits were flawed because they used figures from Respondent's perpetual inventory for the initial inventory rather than the inventory they produced at the hearing but had not provided to the Government previously. Resp. Exceptions, at 4. It further asserts that “[h]ad DEA started with the record that the Agency actually requires registrant to keep . . . . (the biennial inventory), DEA would have had to use all of Respondent's records of receipt and dispensing during 2012, and DEA would not have found the alleged overages and shortages that its investigators claimed to find.”
Yet the Investigator testified repeatedly that the so-called perpetual inventory is all that Respondent provided to him. Most significantly, the Investigator testified that Mr. George “stated that every line marked inventory was a physical count of what was on hand.” Tr. 270. I therefore find no basis to reject the audit result because the Government used the physical counts listed on the perpetual inventory.
As for the Government's audit of the hydromorphone 4 mg, Respondent produced a listing by date, prescription number, and the quantity dispensed for the period of July 30, 2012 through February 4, 2013.
By contrast, there is a substantial difference between the figures the Government and Respondent calculated for Respondent's receipts during the audit period. According to the Government, Respondent acquired 7,900 tablets during the period; according to Respondent, it acquired only 3,900 tablets. Compare GX 4
This disparity is explained, however, by the Government's identification of an additional transaction on January 28, 2013, when Respondent acquired 4,000 du from Nucare Pharmaceuticals. GX 6, at 8. Notably, this transaction does not appear on Respondent's list of its acquisitions.
As for Respondent's contention that the Agency was required to count the drugs in the “will-call bin,” by implication the regulation does not require counting these drugs.
As for Respondent's contention that the Government did not include those drugs that were returned to stock, where Respondent produced such documentation, I have considered the returns. Finally, Respondent produced no evidence that at the time the Investigators took the closing inventory, it had in its possession any dosage units of the drugs being audited that were quarantined for disposal.
Finally, Respondent argues that the DI “willfully chose to ignore” evidence in its ARCOS database regarding its purchases of schedule II drugs, apparently because he did not obtain Respondent's complete ARCOS data and compare it with his calculations. Resp. Exceptions, at 18. There is, however, no requirement that the Government obtain ARCOS data, which is not submitted by pharmacies but rather distributors and is thus dependent upon the accuracy of their submissions, and indeed, one of the purposes of doing an audit is to determine whether the registrant being audited is maintaining complete and accurate records. In any event, as I have carefully reviewed Respondent's invoices and credited Respondent for those receipts which were supported by its records but were omitted by the Government, this argument is moot.
As for the overage in hydromorphone 8 mg, Respondent disputed the Government's figure for the amounts received, the quantities distributed or dispensed, and the closing inventory. With respect to the amounts received, both the Government and Respondent provided a list of the shipments by date, order number, distributor's name, and quantity. Notably, Respondent's list includes four shipments which are not on the Government's list.
The first of these is an order purportedly filled by Harvard Drug on November 11, 2012 for 400 du pursuant to Order Form #121140458. RX 6, at 1. The order is, however, unsupported by an invoice, and notably, while Respondent submitted a copy of Order Form #121140458, that form was used to place an order with a different distributor, Red Parrot Distribution.
Respondent's list of receipts also includes shipments received from Attain Med on December 19 and 24, 2012, each of which was for 2,400 du, pursuant to Order Form #12x00003. RX 6, at 1. Respondent provided a copy of the order form and the invoices for each shipment.
Respondent's list also included two receipts of 2,500 du totaling 5,000 du from Nucare Pharmaceuticals pursuant to Order From #121140485. RX 6, at 1. According to the Government's list, Respondent received only one of these shipments. GX 6, at 6. Respondent, however, produced both a Form 222 (dated 12/17/12) which is annotated to reflect both shipments by date and quantity, as well as two invoices documenting its receipt of 5,000 du from Nucare pursuant to Order Form #121140485.
Respondent also listed a receipt of 2,400 du from Attain Med on January 19, 2013, pursuant to Order Form #13XX00001, RX 6, at 2; this shipment is not included on the Government's list.
Finally, while the Government's list includes an order for 4,000 du which was filled by Nucare and received by Respondent on January 28, 2013 pursuant to Order Form #121140486,
However, the Government also credited Respondent as having received two orders for 800 du each from Red Parrot on February 1, 2012 pursuant to Order Form #121140488. GX 6, at 7. Notably, while the DEA Form 222 shows that on January 29, 2013, Respondent ordered a total of 4,800 du, on the Order Form (as well as in his Perpetual Inventory), Respondent documented the receipt of only 800 du on February 1, 2013, an amount consistent with the invoice.
I therefore find that Respondent actually received an additional 7,500 du from its distributors than the amount calculated by the Government.
As for the dispensings, the Government calculated the total at 71,759 du, Respondent at 72,195. Respondent's figure, however, includes six prescriptions totaling 858 du which were dispensed on February 4, 2013, the date of the AIW. RX 6, at 16-17. The Government's evidence shows, however, that the closing inventory was taken at the beginning of business, and thus these prescriptions are not properly included in the audit period. GX 7; Tr. 237. Thus, according to Respondent's data, its total dispensings during the audit period were 71,337 du, a difference of 422 du from the Government's figure.
The disparity is explained by five prescriptions, four of which are listed
As for the closing inventory figures, the Government put forward evidence that Respondent had 5,114 du on hand at the beginning of business, which included 48 full 100 count bottles and 314 other du. GX 7. Respondent asserted that it had on hand 4,086 du; however, this figure appears to have been determined after Respondent dispensed six prescriptions totaling 858 du on February 4, 2013. RX 6, at 17. Adding back in the 858 units Respondent represents that it dispensed on that date, yields a total of 4,944 du. And adding the 71,337 du Respondent represented that it had dispensed to its closing inventory figure of 4,944 du yields a total of 76,281 dosage units, this being the total Respondent accounted for. This compares with the total of Respondent's opening inventory, its receipts (including both its purchases and the dosage units returned by patients) of 75,333.
Thus, even using Respondent's figures for its receipts, dispensings, and closing inventory, it still had an overage of 948 dosage units. While this is substantially less that the figure calculated by the Government, it is still material and supports a finding that Respondent did not maintain complete and accurate records as required by 21 U.S.C. 827(a).
As for the audit's finding that Respondent had an overage of 1,306 du of oxycodone 30, GX 4, Respondent disputed the Government's finding that it received 17,200 du during the audit period. Instead, it put forward evidence that it received 18,300 du from distributors during the period and a comparison of the orders compiled by the Government with the orders compiled by Respondent shows that it placed two orders which totaled 1,100 du that were not included in the Government's count. More specifically, the Government's count did not include an order filled by PD-RX for 500 du on September 12, 2012 (Order Form Number 12X000019), and an order for 600 du filled by Attain Med on December 5, 2012.
Notably, Respondent's Narcotic Control Sheet (RX 7, at 1) lists the same beginning count as the Government used (39 du), and the parties agreed that Respondent dispensed 18,322 du during the audit period. Including the orders that the Government did not include, Respondent was accountable for 18,351 du during the audit period and subtracting out the dispensings, should have had on hand 29 tablets at the time of the closing inventory. While Respondent's Narcotic Control Sheet lists the results of a physical inventory which was purportedly conducted on February 4, 2013 as 35 du (the same figure listed on Respondent's Perpetual Inventory as of February 4, 2013), this figure cannot possibly be accurate because on January 30, Respondent received an order of 300 du and its records show that it had only dispensed a single prescription for 140 du prior to the execution of the AIW and thus should have had at least 160 tablets on hand when the closing inventory was taken.
However, Respondent argues that because Mr. George did not participate in counting the drugs for the closing inventory, “the Government violated its own credibility safeguards.” Resp. Exceptions at 6;
Where, as here, “the Government has proved that a registrant has committed acts inconsistent with the public interest, a registrant must `“present sufficient mitigating evidence to assure the Administrator that it can be entrusted with the responsibility carried by such a registration.”'”
The Agency has also repeatedly held that the level of candor exhibited by a registrant's principals during “the hearing itself is an important factor to be considered in determining both whether [it] has accepted responsibility as well as for the appropriate sanction.”
Nor are these the only factors that are relevant in determining the appropriate sanction.
The Agency has also held that “`[n]either
Here, the ALJ found that Mr. George did not credibly accept responsibility for Respondent's misconduct. R.D. at 52. The ALJ specifically noted Mr. George's testimony that “[a]s the pharmacist in charge . . . I accept the responsibility of conduct of the pharmacy. Again while I did all my due diligence and protocol, as I said before, still I'm less than perfect.”
I agree with the ALJ that Mr. George's testimony was not credible and that Respondent has not accepted responsibility. Indeed, much of Mr. George's testimony was contrived and other portions were plainly disingenuous.
Of particular note is Mr. George's testimony regarding the reason that Respondent filled the prescription (for 210 oxycodone 30) for T.V., who had traveled 472 miles from Pensacola. According to Mr. George, T.V. had been coming to Respondent since 2009 and the reason she was travelling this distance was because “she used to come and see that doctor [Dr. Ruperto]
So too, with respect to H.C., Jr., Mr. George testified that notwithstanding that he no longer had insurance and had not filled a prescription at Respondent for two years, he was “willing to pay whatever the cash price at that time” was for his oxycodone 30 prescription—$1350—because he “need[ed] this medication.” Tr. 496-97. Mr. George thus stated that he “filled this prescription for cash.”
In still other instances, Mr. George gave inconsistent testimony. For example, Mr. George testified that he looked at the partial medical records as “an extra step to prevent the abuse and misuse of the controlled substances” and that “through experience, [he] learned to look through these forms and understand” them. Tr. 481. However, when asked with regard to patient S.D. whether he had reviewed the medical record before filling an oxycodone 30 prescription and if he could tell from the record what other controlled substances were dispensed that day, Mr. George testified that he “look[ed] only for my prescription which is received in my hand. That is only my concern.” Tr. 561. He then added that “[i]f I get the medical record, I have no way of saying and understanding where the patient had a different prescription unless I talk to the patient or doctors if he write any other prescriptions. I cannot guess where the prescription was filled for that patient.”
At another point, Mr. George testified that “[f]rom 2013 onwards,” he had “modified [his] protocol and changed it to print out patient's residence to less than 15 miles,” Tr. 499, thus suggesting (although there is an argument that his answer was incoherent) that he would no longer fill the prescriptions if the patient lived more than 15 miles away. Yet he later testified that after DEA executed the AIW (on Feb. 4, 2013), he changed the protocol to fill only for patients who lived within 50 miles.
Mr. George then testified that in “looking [at] all these documents,” he was “going above and beyond what the duty” of a pharmacist requires of him, and that “it is not [a] pharmacist's job to read, that is doctor's job.” Tr. 561-62. To be sure, as Mr. Parrado explained, pharmacists usually do not obtain medical records in the course of dispensing. Tr. 599. Nonetheless, registrants (and their principals such as Mr. George) are not excused from ignoring the information they do obtain and one does not need a degree in medicine to read S.D.'s progress note and recognize that S.D. had been prescribed five different controlled substances at the same visit, including not only duplicative therapy in the form of two short-acting narcotics (oxycodone 30 and Dilaudid 8 mg),
I thus agree with the ALJ that Mr. George, as Respondent's principal, has not adequately accepted responsibility for its misconduct. This finding provides reason alone to conclude that Respondent has not rebutted the Government's
The DEA may properly consider whether a physician admits fault in determining if the physician's registration should be revoked. When faced with evidence that a doctor has a history of distributing controlled substances unlawfully, it is reasonable for the [DEA] to consider whether that doctor will change his or her behavior in the future. And that consideration is vital to whether continued registration is in the public interest.
I further find that the misconduct proven on this record is egregious and supports the revocation of Respondent's registration. More specifically, my finding that Respondent's pharmacists dispensed multiple prescriptions in violation of their corresponding responsibility and thereby knowingly diverted controlled substances is, by itself, sufficient to support the revocation of its registration. Revocation is also warranted by my finding that Respondent was short more than 4,000 du of hydromorphone 4 mg. And I also find that revocation is supported by Mr. George's lack of candor during his testimony.
I further find that the Agency's interest in deterring future misconduct both on the part of Respondent (and Mr. George) as well as the community of pharmacy registrants supports revocation. As for the issue of specific deterrence, the revocation of Respondent's registration is not a permanent bar, and as to Mr. George, because pharmacists are not required to be registered under the CSA, revocation is warranted to deter Mr. George from engaging in future misconduct in the event he procures employment elsewhere. As for the issue of general deterrence, those members of the regulated community who contemplate using their registrations to divert controlled substances need to know that there will be serious consequences if they choose to do so.
I therefore conclude that the revocation of Respondent's registration is necessary to protect the public interest. And I will further order that any application of Respondent to renew or modify its registration be denied.
Pursuant to the authority vested in me by 21 U.S.C. 823(f) and 824(a), as well as 28 CFR 0.100(b), I order that DEA Certificate of Registration FH0772257 issued to Hills Pharmacy, LLC, be, and it hereby is, revoked. I further order that any application of Hills Pharmacy, LLC, to renew or modify its registration, be, and it hereby is, denied. This order is effective August 29, 2016.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |