Page Range | 20241-20431 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
82 FR 20429 - Review of Designations Under the Antiquities Act | |
82 FR 20427 - Enforcing Statutory Prohibitions on Federal Control of Education | |
82 FR 20377 - Government in the Sunshine Act Meeting Notice | |
82 FR 20338 - Sunshine Act Meetings | |
82 FR 20285 - Fisheries of the Northeastern United States; Northeast Multispecies Fishery; Possession and Trip Limit Implementation for the Common Pool Fishery | |
82 FR 20322 - Federal Need Analysis Methodology for the 2018-19 Award Year-Federal Pell Grant, Federal Perkins Loan, Federal Work-Study, Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant, William D. Ford Federal Direct Loan, Iraq and Afghanistan Service Grant and TEACH Grant Programs | |
82 FR 20320 - Applications for New Awards; Expanding Opportunity Through Quality Charter Schools Program (CSP)-Grants to State Entities; Correction | |
82 FR 20353 - Office of Direct Service and Contracting Tribes; Tribal Management Grant Program | |
82 FR 20394 - Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments | |
82 FR 20363 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request; Generic Clearance for Surveys of Customers and Partners of the Office of Extramural Research of the National Institutes of Health | |
82 FR 20310 - Trichloroethylene; Regulation of Vapor Degreasing Under TSCA Section 6(a); Methylene Chloride and N-Methylpyrrolidone; Regulation of Certain Uses Under TSCA Section 6(a); Reopening of Comment Periods | |
82 FR 20411 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
82 FR 20338 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Savings and Loan Holding Companies | |
82 FR 20338 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
82 FR 20313 - Public Quarterly Meeting of the Board of Directors | |
82 FR 20399 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20403 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20398 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20402 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20408 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20404 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20409 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20401 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20318 - Advisory Committee for the Sustained National Climate Assessment | |
82 FR 20410 - Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements Under OMB Review | |
82 FR 20411 - Release of Waybill Data | |
82 FR 20367 - Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee | |
82 FR 20413 - Supplemental Type Certificates SA401SW, SE325SW, SE419SW (Original Product Type Certificate Numbers A1CE, 2A13, 1A15, 1A10, 2A3, 273, E5CE, 3E1, E246, and E267) | |
82 FR 20412 - Public Notice for Waiver of Aeronautical Land-Use Assurance | |
82 FR 20412 - Airport Privatization Pilot Program: Preliminary Application for St. Louis Lambert International Airport, St. Louis, MO | |
82 FR 20287 - Fisheries of the Exclusive Economic Zone Off Alaska; Greenland Turbot in the Aleutian Islands Subarea of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area | |
82 FR 20256 - Revocation of Class E Airspace and Establishment of Class E Airspace; Ruston, LA | |
82 FR 20290 - Proposed Establishment of Class E Airspace, Hawthorne, NV | |
82 FR 20372 - Secretary's Indian Water Rights Office; Proposed New Information Collection: OMB Control Number 1094-ONEW, Indian Water Rights Settlements: Economic Analysis | |
82 FR 20397 - New Postal Products | |
82 FR 20328 - Record of Decision and Floodplain Statement of Findings for the Golden Pass Products LLC Application To Export Liquefied Natural Gas to Non-Free Trade Agreement Countries | |
82 FR 20332 - Proposed Agency Information Collection Extension | |
82 FR 20333 - Agency Information Collection Extension | |
82 FR 20422 - Joint Biomedical Laboratory Research and Development and Clinical Science Research and Development Services Scientific Merit Review Board Amended; Notice of Meetings | |
82 FR 20345 - Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request | |
82 FR 20321 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; 2016-17 Baccalaureate and Beyond Longitudinal Study (B&B: 16/17) Main Study | |
82 FR 20331 - Certification Notice-247; Notice of Filing of Self-Certification of Coal Capability Under the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act | |
82 FR 20332 - Application To Export Electric Energy; RBC Energy Services LP | |
82 FR 20396 - Pacific Gas and Electric Company; Diablo Canyon Power Plant, Units 1 and 2 | |
82 FR 20313 - National Wildlife Services Advisory Committee; Notice of Solicitation for Membership | |
82 FR 20318 - Furfuryl Alcohol From the People's Republic of China: Final Results of Expedited Fourth Sunset Review of Antidumping Duty Order | |
82 FR 20314 - Initiation of Five-Year (“Sunset”) Reviews | |
82 FR 20315 - Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Order, Finding, or Suspended Investigation; Opportunity To Request Administrative Review | |
82 FR 20313 - Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Order, Finding, or Suspended Investigation; Advance Notification of Sunset Reviews | |
82 FR 20413 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes | |
82 FR 20415 - Commercial Driver's License (CDL): Application for Exemption; U.S. Custom Harvesters, Inc. (USCHI) | |
82 FR 20311 - State Inspection Programs for Passenger-Carrier Vehicles; Withdrawal | |
82 FR 20327 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
82 FR 20371 - Federal Housing Administration (FHA): Indefinite Deferral of Implementation of the Small Building Risk Sharing Initiative | |
82 FR 20284 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Reinstatement of Removal of Federal Protections for Gray Wolves in Wyoming | |
82 FR 20375 - Earned Import Allowance Program: Evaluation of the Effectiveness of the Program for Certain Apparel From the Dominican Republic, Eighth Annual Review | |
82 FR 20377 - Certain LTE Wireless Communication Devices and Components Thereof Institution of Investigation | |
82 FR 20411 - Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy; Notice of Charter Renewal | |
82 FR 20420 - 2017 Data Collection Under the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program | |
82 FR 20335 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 20365 - Current List of HHS-Certified Laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities Which Meet Minimum Standards To Engage in Urine Drug Testing for Federal Agencies | |
82 FR 20337 - Information Collections Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission | |
82 FR 20336 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
82 FR 20338 - Appraisal Subcommittee Notice of Meeting | |
82 FR 20288 - Airworthiness Directives; The Boeing Company Airplanes | |
82 FR 20343 - Proposed Data Collections Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
82 FR 20341 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
82 FR 20362 - National Cancer Institute; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
82 FR 20364 - Establishment of the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC) | |
82 FR 20405 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq ISE, LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Delay the Implementation of Simultaneous Complex Order Auctions | |
82 FR 20399 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Bylaws and Certificate of Incorporation | |
82 FR 20409 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated; Order Approving a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Bylaws and Certificate of Incorporation | |
82 FR 20404 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Fixed Income Clearing Corporation; Notice of Extension of Review Period of Advance Notice To Implement the Capped Contingency Liquidity Facility in the Government Securities Division Rulebook | |
82 FR 20396 - Proposed Submission of Information Collection for OMB Review; Comment Request; Annual Reporting (Form 5500 Series) | |
82 FR 20384 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Integrated Photonics Institute for Manufacturing Innovation Operating Under the Name of the American Institute for Manufacturing Integrated Photonics | |
82 FR 20383 - Notice Pursuant to the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993-Cooperative Research Group on Hedge IV | |
82 FR 20247 - Special Conditions: Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation, Model GVII-G500 Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 20241 - Special Conditions: Gulfstream Aerospace LP, Model Gulfstream G150 Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 20244 - Special Conditions: Bombardier Aerospace Inc., Model DHC-8-400 Series Airplanes; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 20253 - Special Conditions: Bombardier Aerospace Inc., Model BD-700-1A11 Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 20250 - Special Conditions: Bombardier Aerospace Inc., Model BD-500-1A10 Airplane; Non-Rechargeable Lithium Battery Installations | |
82 FR 20384 - Proposed Exemption From Certain Prohibited Transaction Restrictions | |
82 FR 20388 - OSHA Training Institute (OTI) Education Center; Notice of Competition and Request for Applications | |
82 FR 20418 - Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Request for Public Input | |
82 FR 20417 - Petition for Waiver of Compliance | |
82 FR 20418 - Petition for Waiver of Compliance | |
82 FR 20416 - Petition for Waiver of Compliance | |
82 FR 20257 - Drawbridge Operation Regulation; Hutchinson River, New York, NY | |
82 FR 20377 - Certain Dental Ceramics, Products Therefore, and Methods of Making the Same; Notice of Correction Concerning Institution of Investigation; Correction | |
82 FR 20371 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Entry of Articles for Exhibition | |
82 FR 20369 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Temporary Scientific or Educational Purposes | |
82 FR 20370 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Haitian Hemispheric Opportunity Through Partnership Encouragement Act of 2006 | |
82 FR 20368 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Transportation Entry and Manifest of Goods Subject to CBP Inspection and Permit | |
82 FR 20340 - Submission for OMB Review; Prospective Subcontractor Requests for Bonds | |
82 FR 20339 - Information Collection; Environmentally Sound Products | |
82 FR 20340 - Information Collection; Request for Authorization of Additional Classification and Rate, Standard Form 1444 | |
82 FR 20346 - Notice To Propose the Re-Designation of the Service Delivery Area for the Tolowa Dee-ni' Nation, Formerly Known as Smith River Rancheria | |
82 FR 20295 - Approval of California Air Plan Revisions, Eastern Kern Air Pollution Control District and Imperial County Air Pollution Control District | |
82 FR 20294 - Air Plan Approval; Rhode Island; Repeal of NOX | |
82 FR 20310 - Approval and Promulgation of State Air Quality Plans for Designated Facilities and Pollutants; State of Delaware, District of Columbia, and Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, City of Philadelphia; Control of Emissions From Existing Commercial and Industrial Solid Waste Incinerator Units | |
82 FR 20276 - Approval and Promulgation of State Air Quality Plans for Designated Facilities and Pollutants; State of Delaware, District of Columbia, and Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, City of Philadelphia; Control of Emissions From Existing Commercial and Industrial Solid Waste Incinerator Units | |
82 FR 20292 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; Maryland; Requirements for Continuous Emission Monitoring | |
82 FR 20274 - Air Plan Approval; Rhode Island; Repeal of NOX | |
82 FR 20293 - Air Plan Approval; ME; Emission Statement Reporting | |
82 FR 20257 - Air Plan Approval; ME; Emission Statement Reporting | |
82 FR 20262 - Air Plan Approval; CT; Approval of Single Source Orders | |
82 FR 20260 - Air Plan Approval; TN: Non-Interference Demonstration for Federal Low-Reid Vapor Pressure Requirement in Middle Tennessee | |
82 FR 20267 - Approval of Arizona Air Plan Revisions, Arizona Department of Environmental Quality and Pinal County Air Quality Control District | |
82 FR 20294 - Air Plan Approval; CT; Approval of Single Source Orders | |
82 FR 20297 - Air Plan Approval and Designation of Areas; KY; Redesignation of the Kentucky Portion of the Cincinnati-Hamilton 2008 8-Hour Ozone Nonattainment Area to Attainment | |
82 FR 20270 - Approval and Promulgation of Air Quality Implementation Plans; District of Columbia; Revision of Regulations for Sulfur Content of Fuel Oil | |
82 FR 20279 - Tioxazafen; Pesticide Tolerances | |
82 FR 20373 - High Pressure Steel Cylinders from China; Institution of Five-Year Reviews | |
82 FR 20381 - Foundry Coke From China; Institution of a Five-Year Review | |
82 FR 20378 - Tin- and Chromium-Coated Steel Sheet From Japan; Institution of a Five-Year Review | |
82 FR 20319 - Availability of Seats for National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Councils |
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy Office
Energy Information Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Indian Health Service
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
U.S. Customs and Border Protection
Fish and Wildlife Service
Antitrust Division
Employee Benefits Security Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
Federal Railroad Administration
Maritime Administration
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Gulfstream Aerospace LP (GALP) Model Gulfstream G150 airplane, as modified by Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation (Gulfstream). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Gulfstream Aerospace LP on May 1, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 15, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0363 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Gulfstream periodically applies to amend its supplemental type certificate that installs an executive passenger cabin interior, which includes non-rechargeable lithium batteries, in the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane. The GALP Model Gulfstream G150, approved under type certificate no. A16NM, is a twin engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 9 and a maximum takeoff weight of 26,100 pounds.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane, as modified by Gulfstream. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Gulfstream must show that the change and areas affected by the change on the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane meet the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. Earlier amended regulations may not precede those listed in type certificate no. A16NM or, for amended supplemental type certificate projects, those listed in the supplemental type certificate. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the applicant apply for a supplemental type certificate to modify any other model included on the same type certificate to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane, as modified by Gulfstream. Should Gulfstream apply at a later date for a supplemental type certificate to modify any other model included on type certificate no. A16NM to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the GALP Model Gulfstream G150 airplane modified by Gulfstream.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Bombardier Aerospace Inc. (Bombardier) Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Bombardier on May 1, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 15, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0362 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Bombardier holds type certificate no. A13NM, which provides the certification basis for the DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The DHC-8-400 series airplanes are twin engine, transport category airplanes with a passenger seating capacity of 86 and a maximum takeoff weight of 61,700 to 65,200 pounds, depending on the specific design.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the DHC-8-400 series airplanes. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Bombardier must show that the DHC-8-400 series airplanes meet the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. A13NM or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the DHC-8-400 series airplanes must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the DHC-8-400 series airplanes. Should Bombardier apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Bombardier Model DHC-8-400 series airplanes.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation (Gulfstream) Model GVII-G500 airplane. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Gulfstream Aerospace Corporation on May 1, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 15, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0366 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington, 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
On March 29, 2012, Gulfstream applied for a type certificate for a new Model GVII-G500 airplane. The GVII-G500 is a twin engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 19 and a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 76,850 pounds.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the GVII-G500 airplane. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.17, Gulfstream must show that the GVII-G500 airplane meets the applicable provisions of part 25, as amended by Amendments 25-1 through 25-137.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the Model GVII-G500 airplane must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36, and the FAA must issue a finding of regulatory adequacy under § 611 of Public Law 92-574, the “Noise Control Act of 1972.”
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.17.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123. Sections 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the GVII-G500 airplane. Should Gulfstream apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Gulfstream Model GVII-G500 airplane.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Bombardier Aerospace Inc. (Bombardier) Model BD-500-1A10 airplane. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Bombardier on May 1, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 15, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0359 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Bombardier holds type certificate no. T00008NY, which provides the certification basis for the BD-500-1A10 airplane. The BD-500-1A10 is a twin engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 127 and a maximum takeoff weight of 134,000 pounds.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the BD-500-1A10 airplane. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Bombardier must show that the BD-500-1A10 airplane meets the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. T00008NY or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the BD-500-1A10 must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
•
•
•
Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the BD-500-1A10 airplane. Should Bombardier apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Bombardier Model BD-500-1A10 airplane.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging. For the purpose of these special conditions, a “battery” and “battery system” are referred to as a battery.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final special conditions; request for comment.
These special conditions are issued for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the Bombardier Aerospace Inc. (Bombardier) Model BD-700-1A11 airplane. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are a novel or unusual design feature when compared to the state of technology envisioned in the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes. The applicable airworthiness regulations do not contain adequate or appropriate safety standards for this design feature. These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
This action is effective on Bombardier on May 1, 2017. We must receive your comments by June 15, 2017.
Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2017-0360 using any of the following methods:
•
•
•
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Nazih Khaouly, Airplane and Flight Crew Interface Branch, ANM-111, Transport Airplane Directorate, Aircraft Certification Service, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, Washington 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-2432; facsimile 425-227-1149.
The FAA anticipates that non-rechargeable lithium batteries will be installed in most makes and models of transport category airplanes. We intend to require special conditions for certification projects involving non-rechargeable lithium battery installations to address certain safety issues until we can revise the airworthiness requirements. Applying special conditions to these installations across the range of transport category airplanes will ensure regulatory consistency.
Typically, the FAA issues special conditions after receiving an application for type certificate approval of a novel or unusual design feature. However, the FAA has found that the presence of non-rechargeable lithium batteries in certification projects is not always immediately identifiable, since the battery itself may not be the focus of the project. Meanwhile, the inclusion of these batteries has become virtually ubiquitous on in-production transport category airplanes, which shows that there will be a need for these special conditions. Also, delaying the issuance of special conditions until after each design application is received could lead to costly certification delays. Therefore the FAA finds it necessary to issue special conditions applicable to these battery installations on particular makes and models of aircraft.
On April 22, 2016, the FAA published special conditions no. 25-612-SC in the
Section 1205 of the FAA Reauthorization Act of 1996 requires the FAA to consider the extent to which Alaska is not served by transportation modes other than aviation and to establish appropriate regulatory distinctions when modifying airworthiness regulations that affect intrastate aviation in Alaska. In consideration of this requirement and the overall impact on safety, the FAA does not intend to require non-rechargeable lithium battery special conditions for design changes that only replace a 121.5 megahertz (MHz) emergency locator transmitter (ELT) with a 406 MHz ELT that meets Technical Standard Order C126b, or later revision, on transport airplanes operating only in Alaska. This will support our efforts of encouraging operators in Alaska to upgrade to a 406 MHz ELT. These ELTs provide significantly improved accuracy for lifesaving services to locate an accident site in Alaskan terrain. The FAA considers that the safety benefits from upgrading to a 406 MHz ELT for Alaskan operations will outweigh the battery fire risk.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
We invite interested people to take part in this rulemaking by sending written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the special conditions, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data.
We will consider all comments we receive by the closing date for comments. We may change these special conditions based on the comments we receive.
Bombardier holds type certificate no. T00003NY, which provides the certification basis for the BD-700-1A11 airplane. The BD-700-1A11 is a twin engine, transport category airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 19 and a maximum takeoff weight of 87,700 to 92,500 pounds, depending on the specific design.
The FAA is issuing these special conditions for non-rechargeable lithium battery installations on the BD-700-1A11 airplane. The current battery requirements in title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 25 are inadequate for addressing an airplane with non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
Under the provisions of 14 CFR 21.101, Bombardier must show that the BD-700-1A11 airplane meets the applicable provisions of the regulations listed in type certificate no. T00003NY or the applicable regulations in effect on the date of application for the change, except for earlier amendments as agreed upon by the FAA. In addition, the certification basis includes certain special conditions, exemptions, or later amended sections that are not relevant to these special conditions.
If the Administrator finds that the applicable airworthiness regulations (
Special conditions are initially applicable to the airplane model for which they are issued. Should the type certificate for that model be amended later to include any other model that incorporates the same novel or unusual design feature, or should any other model already included on the same type certificate be modified to incorporate the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would also apply to the other model under § 21.101.
In addition to the applicable airworthiness regulations and special conditions, the BD-700-1A11 must comply with the fuel vent and exhaust emission requirements of 14 CFR part 34 and the noise certification requirements of 14 CFR part 36.
The FAA issues special conditions, as defined in 14 CFR 11.19, in accordance with § 11.38, and they become part of the type certification basis under § 21.101.
The novel or unusual design feature is the installation of non-rechargeable lithium batteries.
For the purpose of these special conditions, we refer to a battery and battery system as a battery. A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and alerting circuitry or hardware inside or outside of the battery. It also includes vents (where necessary) and packaging.
The FAA derived the current regulations governing installation of batteries in transport category airplanes from Civil Air Regulations (CAR) 4b.625(d) as part of the recodification of CAR 4b that established 14 CFR part 25 in February 1965. This recodification basically reworded the CAR 4b battery requirements, which are currently in § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4). Non-rechargeable lithium batteries are novel and unusual with respect to the state of technology considered when these requirements were codified. These batteries introduce higher energy levels into airplane systems through new chemical compositions in various battery cell sizes and construction. Interconnection of these cells in battery packs introduces failure modes that require unique design considerations, such as provisions for thermal management.
Recent events involving rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries prompted the FAA to initiate a broad evaluation of these energy storage technologies. In January 2013, two independent events involving rechargeable lithium-ion batteries revealed unanticipated failure modes. A National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) letter to the FAA, dated May 22, 2014, which is available at
On July 12, 2013, an event involving a non-rechargeable lithium battery in an emergency locator transmitter installation demonstrated unanticipated failure modes. The United Kingdom's Air Accidents Investigation Branch Bulletin S5/2013 describes this event.
Some known uses of rechargeable and non-rechargeable lithium batteries on airplanes include:
• Flight deck and avionics systems such as displays, global positioning systems, cockpit voice recorders, flight data recorders, underwater locator beacons, navigation computers, integrated avionics computers, satellite network and communication systems, communication management units, and remote-monitor electronic line-replaceable units;
• Cabin safety, entertainment, and communications equipment, including emergency locator transmitters, life rafts, escape slides, seatbelt air bags, cabin management systems, Ethernet switches, routers and media servers, wireless systems, internet and in-flight entertainment systems, satellite televisions, remotes, and handsets;
• Systems in cargo areas including door controls, sensors, video surveillance equipment, and security systems.
Some known potential hazards and failure modes associated with non-rechargeable lithium batteries are:
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Special condition no. 1 of these special conditions requires that each individual cell within a non-rechargeable lithium battery be designed to maintain safe temperatures and pressures. Special condition no. 2 addresses these same issues but for the entire battery. Special condition no. 2 requires the battery be designed to prevent propagation of a thermal event, such as self-sustained, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure from one cell to adjacent cells.
Special conditions nos. 1 and 2 are intended to ensure that the non-rechargeable lithium battery and its cells are designed to eliminate the potential for uncontrollable failures. However, a certain number of failures will occur due to various factors beyond the control of the battery designer. Therefore, other special conditions are intended to protect the airplane and its occupants if failure occurs.
Special conditions 3, 7, and 8 are self-explanatory.
Special condition no. 4 makes it clear that the flammable fluid fire protection requirements of § 25.863 apply to non-rechargeable lithium battery installations. Section 25.863 is applicable to areas of the airplane that could be exposed to flammable fluid leakage from airplane systems. Non-rechargeable lithium batteries contain an electrolyte that is a flammable fluid.
Special condition no. 5 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
While special condition no. 5 addresses corrosive fluids and gases, special condition no. 6 addresses heat. Special condition no. 6 requires that each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat the battery installation can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells. The means of meeting special conditions nos. 5 and 6 may be the same, but the requirements are independent and address different hazards.
These special conditions apply to all non-rechargeable lithium battery installations in lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments. Those regulations remain in effect for other battery installations.
These special conditions contain the additional safety standards that the Administrator considers necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to that established by the existing airworthiness standards.
These special conditions are applicable to the BD-700-1A11 airplane. Should Bombardier apply at a later date for a change to the type certificate to include another model incorporating the same novel or unusual design feature, these special conditions would apply to that model as well.
These special conditions are only applicable to design changes applied for after the effective date.
These special conditions are not applicable to changes to previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations where the only change is either cosmetic or to relocate the installation to improve the safety of the airplane and occupants. Previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations, as used in this paragraph, are those installations approved for certification projects applied for on or before the effective date of these special conditions. A cosmetic change is a change in appearance only, and does not change any function or safety characteristic of the battery installation. These special conditions are also not applicable to unchanged, previously certified non-rechargeable lithium battery installations that are affected by a change in a manner that improves the safety of its installation. The FAA determined that these exclusions are in the public interest because the need to meet all of the special conditions might otherwise deter these design changes that improve safety.
This action affects only a certain novel or unusual design feature on one model of airplane. It is not a rule of general applicability.
The substance of these special conditions has been subjected to the notice and comment period in prior instances and has been derived without substantive change from those previously issued. It is unlikely that prior public comment would result in a significant change from the substance contained herein. Therefore, the FAA has determined that prior public notice and comment are unnecessary and impracticable, and good cause exists for adopting these special conditions upon publication in the
Aircraft, Aviation safety, Reporting and record keeping requirements.
The authority citation for these special conditions is as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701, 44702, 44704.
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the following special conditions are issued as part of the type certification basis for the Bombardier Model BD-700-1A11 airplane.
In lieu of § 25.1353(b)(1) through (4) at Amendment 25-123 or § 25.1353(c)(1) through (4) at earlier amendments, each non-rechargeable lithium battery installation must:
1. Be designed to maintain safe cell temperatures and pressures under all foreseeable operating conditions to prevent fire and explosion.
2. Be designed to prevent the occurrence of self-sustaining, uncontrollable increases in temperature or pressure.
3. Not emit explosive or toxic gases, either in normal operation or as a result of its failure, that may accumulate in hazardous quantities within the airplane.
4. Meet the requirements of § 25.863.
5. Not damage surrounding structure or adjacent systems, equipment, or electrical wiring from corrosive fluids or gases that may escape in such a way as to cause a major or more severe failure condition.
6. Have provisions to prevent any hazardous effect on airplane structure or systems caused by the maximum amount of heat it can generate due to any failure of it or its individual cells.
7. Have a failure sensing and warning system to alert the flightcrew if its failure affects safe operation of the airplane.
8. Have a means for the flightcrew or maintenance personnel to determine the battery charge state if the battery's function is required for safe operation of the airplane.
A battery system consists of the battery and any protective, monitoring, and
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Final rule.
This action removes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Ruston Municipal Airport, Ruston, LA, as the airport has closed and controlled airspace is no longer required, and establishes Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at the new Ruston Regional Airport, Ruston, LA. This final rule is necessary to ensure the safety and management of instrument flight rules (IFR) operations at the new airport.
Effective 0901 UTC, August 17, 2017. The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference action under Title 1, Code of Federal Regulations, part 51, subject to the annual revision of FAA Order 7400.11 and publication of conforming amendments.
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Jeffrey Claypool, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Central Service Center, 10101 Hillwood Parkway, Fort Worth, TX 76177; telephone (817) 222-5711.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it modifies Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface in the airspace near Ruston, LA, to accommodate IFR procedures at the new Ruston Regional Airport.
On October 12, 2016, the FAA published in the
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
This document amends FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
This amendment to Title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 removes Class E airspace at Ruston Municipal Airport, Ruston, LA, as the airport has closed; therefore, controlled airspace is no longer needed. Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of the new Ruston Regional Airport, Ruston, LA is established for the safety and management of standard instrument approach procedures for IFR operations at the new airport.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that only affects air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, does not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
The FAA has determined that this action qualifies for categorical exclusion under the National Environmental Policy Act in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures,” paragraph 5-6.5.a. This airspace action is not expected to cause any potentially significant environmental impacts, and
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
In consideration of the foregoing, the Federal Aviation Administration amends 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g); 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 6.5-mile radius of the airport.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Notice of deviation from drawbridge regulation.
The Coast Guard has issued a temporary deviation from the operating schedule that governs the Hutchinson River Parkway Bridge across the Hutchinson River, mile 0.9 at New York, New York. This deviation is necessary to complete application of protective coating on the bridge as well as maintenance of operating machinery.
This deviation is effective without actual notice from May 1, 2017 through 12:01 a.m. on September 29, 2017. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from 12:01 a.m. on April 3, 2017 until May 1, 2017.
The docket for this deviation, USCG-2017-0231 is available at
If you have questions on this temporary deviation, call or email James M. Moore, Bridge Management Specialist, First District Bridge Branch, U.S. Coast Guard; telephone 212-514-4334, email
The New York City Department of Transportation, the owner of the bridge, requested a temporary deviation from the normal operating schedule to facilitate application of protective coating to the bridge as well as maintenance of operating machinery. The Hutchinson River Parkway Bridge, across the Hutchinson River, mile 0.9 at New York, New York has a vertical clearance of 30 feet at mean high water and 38 feet at mean low water in the closed position. The existing drawbridge operating regulations are listed at 33 CFR 117.793(b).
Under this temporary deviation, between April 3, 2017 and September 29, 2017 the draw of the Hutchinson River Parkway Bridge will be closed to navigation for a period not to exceed 7 days; the draw will then open for vessels in accordance with established operating regulations for a period not to exceed another 7 days, after which the cycle will repeat.
Vessels that can pass under the bridge without an opening may do so at all times. The bridge will not be able to open for emergencies. There is no alternate route for vessels to pass.
The Coast Guard will also inform the users of the waterways through our Local and Broadcast Notices to Mariners of the change in operating schedule for the bridge so that vessel operators can arrange their transits to minimize any impact caused by the temporary deviation.
In accordance with 33 CFR 117.35(e), the drawbridge must return to its regular operating schedule immediately at the end of the effective period of this temporary deviation. This deviation from the operating regulations is authorized under 33 CFR 117.35.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maine. The revision updates Maine's emissions reporting requirements for certain stationary sources that emit criteria pollutants. The intended effect of this action is to approve the revision into the Maine SIP. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This direct final rule is effective June 30, 2017, unless EPA receives adverse comments by May 31, 2017. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2017-0024 at
David L. Mackintosh, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, tel. 617-918-1584, fax 617-918-0668, email
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
EPA is approving a SIP revision submitted by the State of Maine on November 26, 2008, concerning updates to emission statement requirements for certain stationary sources that emit criteria pollutants. The Maine requirements, set out in Chapter 137 Emission Statements, were revised to be consistent with EPA's Air Emissions Reporting Requirements (AERR) at 40 CFR part 51, subpart A.
Sections 182(a)(3)(B) and 184(b)(2) of the CAA require that states develop and submit, as SIP revisions, rules which establish annual reporting requirements from certain stationary sources. EPA proposed updates to AERR on January 3, 2006 (71 FR 69) and then finalized the rule on December 17, 2008 (73 FR 76539). On November 26, 2008, Maine submitted a formal revision to its State Implementation Plan (SIP), which consists of updates to Maine's Chapter 137 Emission Statements rule. On January 23, 2017, Maine withdrew from the submittal certain sections of Chapter 137. EPA last approved Maine's Chapter 137 Emission Statements on November 21, 2007 (72 FR 65462).
Maine's November 26, 2008 SIP submittal includes Chapter 137 Emission Statements, effective in Maine on November 8, 2008, less the portions Maine withdrew from the submittal on January 23, 2017. The withdrawn sections no longer pending before EPA address non-criteria pollutant (
Maine's Chapter 137 Emission Statements has been revised to incorporate changes to be consistent with the AERR. The revised rule adds a definition for the term “Process Unit,” which is defined as “any combination of equipment or operation and material or fuel which emits pollutants.” The revised rule also includes an earlier emissions statement filing deadline. The deadline which was previously September 1 of the year following the inventory, was changed to July 1, 2009 for the 2008 inventory and then later changed to May 15 of the year following the inventory year beginning with inventory year 2009. The revisions also specify additional information to be submitted in the inventory statements:
1. Technical contact name, telephone number and email;
2. Latitude and longitude method accuracy description code used to define the accuracy of the geographic data;
3. Emissions control status indicating whether reported emissions are controlled or uncontrolled;
4. Unit type code indicating the type of emissions unit (
5. Unit operating status code indicating the operating status of the emissions unit (
6. Unit operating status date indicating the year in which the unit status is applicable; and
7. Emission release point type indicating the physical configuration of the release point (
EPA is approving, and incorporating into the Maine SIP, revised Chapter 137 Emission Statements, with the exception of portions of Chapter 137 that were withdrawn from Maine's submittal: Sections 1(C), (E), and (F); Definitions 2(A) through (F) and (I); Sections 3(B) and (C); the last sentence of Section 4(D)(5); and Appendix A and B.
The EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a notice withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. The EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on June 30, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the State of Maine regulation described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. The EPA has made, and will
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving the State of Tennessee's November 21, 2016, revision to its State Implementation Plan (SIP), submitted through the Tennessee Department of Environment and Conservation (TDEC), in support of the State's request that EPA change the federal Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) requirements for Davidson, Rutherford, Sumner, Williamson, and Wilson Counties (hereinafter referred to as the “Middle Tennessee Area” or “Area”). Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP submittal revises its maintenance plan for the Middle Tennessee Area for the 1997 8-hour ozone national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS) and demonstrates that relaxing the federal RVP requirements in this Area would not interfere with the Area's ability to meet the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act). Specifically, Tennessee's SIP revision concludes that relaxing the federal RVP requirement from 7.8 pounds per square inch (psi) to 9.0 psi for gasoline sold between June 1 and September 15 of each year in the Area would not interfere with attainment or maintenance of the NAAQS or with any other CAA requirement. EPA has determined that Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision is consistent with the applicable provisions of the CAA.
This rule is effective May 1, 2017.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket Identification No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0615. All documents in the docket are listed on the
D. Brad Akers, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Mr. Akers can be reached via telephone at (404) 562-9089 or via electronic mail at
On November 21, 2016, Tennessee submitted a SIP revision consisting of a revision to its 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS for the Middle Tennessee Area and the technical noninterference demonstration supporting the State's request to change the federal RVP requirements from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi in the Area. In a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) published on February 24, 2017 (82 FR 11517), EPA proposed to approve the State's noninterference demonstration and the updates to updated emissions inventory and projections associated with the mobile source modeling used in the State's noninterference demonstration related to RVP. The details of Tennessee's submittal and the rationale for EPA's actions are explained in the NPR. EPA did not receive any adverse comments on the proposed action.
EPA is approving Tennessee's November 21, 2016, SIP revision consisting of a revision to its 110(a)(1) maintenance plan for the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS for the Middle Tennessee Area and the technical noninterference demonstration supporting the State's request to change the federal RVP requirements from 7.8 psi to 9.0 psi in the Area. Specifically, EPA is finalizing updated emissions inventory and projections associated with the mobile source modeling used in the State's noninterference demonstration related to RVP. EPA has determined that the change in the RVP requirements for Davidson, Rutherford, Sumner, Williamson, and Wilson Counties will
EPA has determined that Tennessee's November 21, 2016, RVP-related SIP revision is consistent with the applicable provisions of the CAA for the reasons provided in the NPR. Through this action, EPA is not removing the federal 7.8 psi RVP requirement for Davidson, Rutherford, Sumner, Williamson, and Wilson Counties. Any such action would occur in a separate rulemaking.
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(d), EPA finds that there is good cause for this action to become effective immediately upon publication. This is because a delayed effective date is unnecessary because today's action approves a noninterference demonstration that will serve as the basis of a subsequent action to relieve the Area from certain CAA requirements that would otherwise apply to it. The immediate effective date for this action is authorized under both 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1), which provides that rulemaking actions may become effective less than 30 days after publication if the rule grants or recognizes an exemption or relieves a restriction, and section 553(d)(3), which allows an effective date less than 30 days after publication as otherwise provided by the agency for good cause found and published with the rule. The purpose of the 30-day waiting period prescribed in section 553(d) is to give affected parties a reasonable time to adjust their behavior and prepare before the final rule takes effect. This rule, however, does not create any new regulatory requirements such that affected parties would need time to prepare before the rule takes effect. Rather, this rule will serve as a basis for a subsequent action to relieve the Area from certain CAA requirements. For these reasons, EPA finds good cause under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) for this action to become effective on the date of publication of this action.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submittal that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, October 7, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements and Volatile organic compounds.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Connecticut. The revisions establish reasonably available control technology (RACT) for two facilities that emit volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the state. Additionally, we are also approving Connecticut's request to withdraw seven previously-approved single source orders from the SIP. This action is being taken in accordance with the Clean Air Act.
This direct final rule will be effective June 30, 2017, unless EPA receives adverse comments by May 31, 2017. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2016-0648 at
Bob McConnell, Environmental Engineer, Air Quality Planning Unit, Air Programs Branch (Mail Code OEP05-02), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts, 02109-3912; (617) 918-1046;
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
The Clean Air Act (CAA) requires states in the Ozone Transport Region (OTR), as well as moderate and above ozone nonattainment areas, to implement RACT for major sources of volatile organic compounds. Connecticut is in the OTR and the state is currently designated nonattainment and classified as moderate for the 2008 ozone standard. See 40 CFR 81.307.
The Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection (CT DEEP) submitted to EPA two single source orders establishing RACT for sources of VOCs for incorporation into the Connecticut State Implementation Plan (SIP), and also submitted requests to withdraw from the SIP seven previously-approved orders. The two orders submitted for approval are Consent Order 8001, issued to Mallace Industries, located in Clinton, Connecticut, submitted to EPA on January 13, 2006, and Consent Order 8029, issued to Hamilton Sundstrand, located in Windsor Locks, Connecticut, submitted to EPA on November 15, 2011. The seven withdrawal requests are for the following previously-approved Consent Orders: Order 8021 issued to Pfizer Global Manufacturing; Order 8032 issued to Heminway and Bartlett Company (which was subsequently renamed Coats North America); Order 8009 issued to Uniroyal Chemical Company; Order 8200 issued to Watson Laboratories; Order 8014 issued to Pratt & Whitney Aircraft; Order 8011 issued to the Dow Chemical Company; and Order 8010 issued to Sikorsky Aircraft.
A description of these submittals and our evaluation of them appears below in Section II of this document.
Consent Order 8001 was issued to Frismar, Incorporated, located in Clinton, Connecticut, on October 19, 1987, pursuant to section 22a-174-20(cc) of the Regulations of Connecticut
Consent Order 8029 was issued to Hamilton Standard, located in Windsor Locks, Connecticut, on December 22, 1989, pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee).
In addition, the CAA section 193 General Savings Clause applies to the above two orders since they were approved into the Connecticut SIP prior to the CAA amendments of 1990. Section 193 of the CAA prohibits any control measure in effect in a nonattainment area prior to the enactment of the CAA Amendments of 1990 to be modified after enactment, unless such modification yields equivalent or greater emission reductions. Our review of the updated orders issued to Mallace Industries and Hamilton Sundstrand indicates that they meet this requirement.
In 1988, Connecticut issued Consent Order 8021 to Pfizer Incorporated, located in Groton, Connecticut, to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee). The state submitted this order to EPA as a SIP revision request, and EPA approved it into the Connecticut SIP on November 30, 1989. See 54 FR 49284. During an inspection conducted on September 3, 2002, Connecticut confirmed that the manufacturing operations covered by Order 8021 had been permanently discontinued. Furthermore, within an April 23, 2003 letter to Connecticut, Pfizer notified the agency that it no longer intended to manufacture any of the products subject to Order 8021, making the order obsolete. By letter dated July 1, 2004, Connecticut requested that Order 8021 be withdrawn from the SIP. The state held a public hearing on this SIP withdrawal request on January 15, 2004, and we are approving the request and removing the order from the Connecticut SIP. For facilities such as this, as well as those described in sections III.2, III.3, and III.4 below, where operations have been permanently discontinued (
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8032 to the Heminway and Bartlett Company, located in Watertown, Connecticut, in 1989. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee), and an amended order was issued to update the ownership and operating conditions at the facility in 2004. Subsequent to the issuance of the amended order, the facility shut down, which Connecticut confirmed by an inspection conducted on May 13, 2005. Accordingly, Connecticut submitted a SIP revision request on January 13, 2006, asking that the order, which EPA approved into the Connecticut SIP on March 12, 1990 (see 55 FR 9442), be removed from the Connecticut SIP. The state held a public hearing on this SIP withdrawal request on January 6, 2006, and we are approving the request and removing the order from the Connecticut SIP.
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8009 to the Uniroyal Chemical Company, located in Naugatuck, Connecticut, in 1989. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee). Connecticut submitted Order 8009 to EPA as a SIP revision request, which EPA approved on December 22, 1989. See 54 FR 52798. Subsequent to the issuance of the order, the facility shut down, which Connecticut confirmed by an inspection conducted on August 26, 2004. Accordingly, Connecticut submitted a SIP revision request on January 13, 2006, asking that the order be removed from the Connecticut SIP. The state held a public hearing on this SIP withdrawal request on January 6, 2006, and we are approving the request and removing the order from the Connecticut SIP.
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8200 to Watson Laboratories, located in Danbury, Connecticut, in 2002. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-32(e)(6).
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8014 to Pratt & Whitney Aircraft located in East Hartford, Connecticut, in 1989. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee). Connecticut submitted the order to EPA as a SIP revision request, and EPA approved the Order on May 30, 1989. See 54 FR 22890. Subsequent to the issuance of the order, Connecticut adopted regulations limiting VOC emissions from the equipment and activity covered by Order 8014, and the facility ceased operation of most activity covered by the order. Specifically, the degreasers covered by Order 8014 have all been removed from the facility. Additionally, in 2010, Connecticut adopted section 22a-174-20(ii) defining RACT for hand wiping operations. These requirements were approved by EPA on June 9, 2014 (see 79 FR 32873) and are at least as stringent as those within Order 8014. Accordingly, Connecticut submitted a SIP revision request on July 15, 2016, asking that Order 8014 be removed from the Connecticut SIP. The state offered a notice of opportunity for public hearing on this SIP withdrawal request on March 18, 2016. Since the newer SIP-approved regulatory requirements are at least as stringent as the previously SIP-approved order, the CAA section 110(l) anti-back sliding requirements and the CAA section 193 General Savings Clause requirements have been met. Therefore, we are approving the state's request and removing the Order 8014 from the Connecticut SIP.
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8011 to the Dow Chemical Company located in Gales Ferry, Connecticut, in 1988. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee). Connecticut submitted Order 8011 to EPA as a SIP revision request, and EPA approved the Order on March 8, 1989. See 54 FR 9781. Subsequent to the issuance of the order, Dow shut down portions of its manufacturing operation, and transferred other portions of its manufacturing operations to Trinseo, LLC, and Americas Styrenics, LLC. Connecticut confirmed by an inspection conducted on August 1, 2011, that portions of the manufacturing operations covered by Order 8011 had been dismantled. Additionally, a Connecticut “Order Closure” dated May 4, 2016, indicates that Dow no longer owns or operates equipment covered by Order 8011, and that the VOC emitting equipment remaining at the facility operated by the entities mentioned above are subject to similar regulatory limits which, in most cases, were transferred to the new owners. Accordingly, Connecticut submitted a SIP revision request on July 15, 2016, asking that the Order 8011 be removed from the Connecticut SIP. The state provided public notice and an opportunity to comment on its intent to revise the SIP. Since the VOC emitting equipment subject to the Order 8011 has either been removed from the facility or is covered by other regulatory requirements that are at least as stringent as that required by Order 8011, the CAA Section 110(l) anti-back sliding requirements and the CAA section 193 General Savings Clause requirements have been met. Therefore, we are approving Connecticut's request, and removing the order from the Connecticut SIP.
Connecticut issued Consent Order 8010 to Sikorsky Aircraft located in Stratford, Connecticut, in 1988. The order was issued to establish VOC RACT requirements pursuant to RCSA section 22a-174-20(ee). Subsequently, in 1995, Connecticut added Addendum A to the order to set coating limits for the facility. Addendum B was also added to the order, providing emission reduction credits as a result of degreaser shutdowns. Connecticut submitted Order 8010 and both addenda to EPA as a SIP revision request, which EPA approved on February 9, 1998. See 63 FR 6484.
Subsequent to the issuance of the order and addenda, Connecticut issued Order 8246 to Sikorsky on October 31, 2003, to reflect updated operating conditions and regulations applicable to the facility. Order 8246 required Sikorsky to limit VOC emissions to the emission limits specified within 22a-174-20(s), with the exception of the limits for the coating of the exterior surface of assembled aircraft, as the facility could not meet that limit. Therefore, Order 8246 provided a method of compliance for the facility's use of exterior aircraft coatings through the generation and use of VOC emission reduction credits to offset excess emissions.
Subsequent to the issuance of Order 8246, Connecticut adopted amendments to 22a-174-20(s). EPA approved the amendments to RCSA 22a-174-20(s) into the Connecticut SIP on June 9, 2014. See 79 FR 32873. The amendments incorporated VOC content limits for coatings from EPA's aerospace National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) (see 40 CFR part 63, subpart GG), and EPA's aerospace control techniques guideline (see EPA-453/R-97-004, December 1997). By letter dated January 30, 2014, Sikorsky documented that all coatings used at the facility meet the requirements of the amended version of 22a-174-20(s). Since the facility demonstrated that it can meet the limits within 22a-174-20(s), compliance via the generation and use of VOC emission reduction credits is no longer necessary.
On May 4, 2016, Connecticut closed out the order because it had become obsolete, primarily due to the state's adoption of amendments to RCSA 22a-174-20(s). Connecticut submitted a withdrawal request to EPA for Order 8010 on July 15, 2016, asking that it be removed from the Connecticut SIP. The state offered a notice of opportunity for public hearing on this SIP withdrawal request on March 18, 2016. Since the current SIP requirements are at least as stringent as those in Order 8010, the CAA Section 110(l) anti-back sliding requirements and the CAA section 193 General Savings Clause requirements have been met. Therefore, we are approving Connecticut's request, and removing the order from the Connecticut SIP.
In addition, although Connecticut had previously submitted Order 8246 for Sikorsky to EPA as a SIP revision request, this request was later withdrawn by letter dated July 21, 2016, prior to EPA taking action on it.
EPA is approving, and incorporating into the Connecticut SIP, single source orders that establish VOC RACT requirements for Mallace Industries and Hamilton Sundstrand. EPA is also removing from the Connecticut SIP previously approved orders for Pfizer Global Manufacturing, Coats North America, Uniroyal Chemical Company, Watson Laboratories, Pratt and Whitney
The EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a notice withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. The EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on June 30, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
In this rulemaking, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is incorporating by reference VOC RACT orders for Mallace Industries and Hamilton Sunstrand, as previously discussed in section II in this rulemaking. EPA has made, and will continue to make, these materials generally available through
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
(48) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) State Order No. 8011, which was approved in paragraph (c)(48)(i)(B), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(C).
(51) * * *
(i) * * *
(D) State Order No. 8014, which was approved in paragraph (c)(51)(i)(B), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(D).
(52) * * *
(i) * * *
(D) State Order No. 8021, which was approved in paragraph (c)(52)(i)(B), and appendices C and D to State Order No. 8021, which were approved in paragraph (c)(52)(C), are removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(E).
(53) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) State Order No. 8009, which was approved in paragraph (c)(53)(i)(B), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(F).
(55) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) State Order No. 8032, which was approved in paragraph (c)(55)(i)(B), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(G).
(60) * * *
(i) * * *
(C) State Order No. 8010, which was approved in paragraph (c)(60)(i)(B), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(H).
(96) * * *
(i) * * *
(E) State Order No. 8200, which was approved in paragraph (c)(96)(i)(C), is removed without replacement; see paragraph (c)(115)(i)(I).
(115) Revisions to the State Implementation Plan submitted by the Connecticut Department of Energy and Environmental Protection on July 1, 2004, January 13, 2006, November 15, 2011, and July 15, 2016.
(i) Incorporation by reference.
(A) State of Connecticut vs. Mallace Industries Corporation, Consent Order No. 8258, issued as a final order on September 13, 2005.
(B) State of Connecticut vs. Hamilton Sundstrand, a United Technologies Company, Order No. 8029A, issued as a final order on September 3, 2009.
(C) State Order No. 8011, and attached Compliance Timetable and Appendix A (allowable limits by product classification) for Dow Chemical, U.S.A. in Gales Ferry, Connecticut, issued as State Order No. 8011, effective on October 27, 1988, and approved in paragraph (c)(48(i)(B) is removed without replacement.
(D) State Order No. 8014, and attached Compliance Timetable for Pratt & Whitney Division of United Technologies Corporation in East Hartford, Connecticut, issued as State Order No. 8014, effective on March 22, 1989, and approved in paragraph (c)(51)(i)(B) is removed without replacement.
(E) State Order No. 8021, and attached Compliance Timetable, and Appendix A (allowable limits on small, uncontrolled vents and allowable outlet gas temperatures for surface condensers) for Pfizer, Incorporated in Groton, Connecticut, issued as State Order No. 8021, effective on December 2, 1988, and approved in paragraph (c)(52)(i)B) is removed without replacement.
(F) State Order No. 8009, and attached Compliance Timetable, Appendix A, Appendix B, and Appendix C for Uniroyal Chemical Company, Inc. in Naugatuck, Connecticut, issued as State Order No. 8009, effective on September 5, 1989, and approved in paragraph (c)(53)(i)(B), is removed without replacement.
(G) State Order No. 8032, and attached Compliance Timetable for the Heminway & Bartlett Manufacturing Company in Watertown, Connecticut, issued as State Order No. 8032, effective on November 29, 1989, and approved in paragraph (c)(55)(i)(B), is removed without replacement.
(H) State Order No. 8010, for Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation, effective on January 29, 1990, as well as Addendum A and Addendum B to Order No. 8010, effective on February 7, 1996 and September 29, 1995, respectively, issued as State Order No. 8010, and two addenda, define and impose RACT on certain VOC emissions at Sikorsky Aircraft Corporation in Stratford, Connecticut, and approved in paragraph (c)(60)(i)(B) is removed without replacement.
(I) State Order No. 8200, issued by the Connecticut Department of Environmental Protection to Watson Laboratories, Inc., effective October 3, 2002, and approved in paragraph (c)(96)(i)(C) is removed without replacement.
(ii) Additional materials. [Reserved]
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve revisions to the Arizona State Implementation Plan (SIP). These revisions include a state statute and certain state rules that govern air pollution sources under the Arizona Department of Environmental Quality (ADEQ) and the Pinal County Air Quality Control District (PCAQCD). These revisions concern emissions of particulate matter (PM) from construction sites, agricultural activity and other fugitive dust sources. We are approving local rules that regulate these emission sources under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
These rules will be effective on May 31, 2017.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2016-0702. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Nancy Levin, EPA Region IX, (415) 972-3848,
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
On January 9, 2017, 82 FR 2305, the EPA proposed to approve the following rules into the Arizona SIP:
We proposed to approve these rules because we determined that they complied with the relevant CAA requirements. Our proposed action contains more information on the rules and our evaluation.
The EPA's proposed action provided a 30-day public comment period. We received no comments during this period.
No comments were submitted. Therefore, as authorized in section 110(k)(3) of the Act, the EPA is fully approving these rules into the Arizona SIP.
EPA notes that R18-2-610.03, Section F, and R18-2-612.01, Section E, allow commercial farmers and irrigation districts to develop BMPs different than those in the July 2, 2015 version of the rules and to submit alternatives “that are proven effective through on-farm demonstration trials” to the AgBMP Committee. These provisions also state that alternative BMPs “shall not become effective unless submitted as described in A.R.S. § 49-457(L),” and ARS § 49-457(L) in turn provides that approved alternative BMPs must be submitted to EPA as a SIP revision.
In this rule, the EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, the EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the Arizona statute and rules, and PCAPCD rules, described in the amendments to 40 CFR part 52 set forth below. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update to the SIP compilation.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Public Law 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• Does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements (see section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
The additions and revisions read as follows:
(c) * * *
(e) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking final action to approve revisions to the District of Columbia (the District) state implementation plan (SIP). The revision pertains to the update of the District of Columbia Municipal Regulations (DCMR) to lower the sulfur content of fuel oil. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
This final rule is effective on May 31, 2017.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID Number EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0199. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Sara Calcinore, (215) 814-2043, or by email at
On October 11, 2016 (81 FR 70064 and 81 FR 70020), EPA simultaneously published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPR) and a direct final rule (DFR) for the District. EPA received a comment on the rulemaking and attempted to withdraw the DFR prior to the effective date of December 12, 2016. However, EPA inadvertently did not withdraw the DFR prior to that date and the rule prematurely became effective on December 12, 2016, revising the District's SIP to include DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20 on that date. In the NPR, EPA had proposed to approve the SIP revision, which would add the revised versions of DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20 to the District's SIP. These revisions to the DCMR reduce the allowable sulfur content of fuel oils that are combusted in oil-burning combustion units in the District. On January 20, 2016, the District, through the District of Columbia Department of Energy and Environment, submitted the aforementioned regulations for inclusion into the District's SIP. The revisions to the DCMR reduce the sulfur content of fuel oil that can be combusted within the District and prohibit the combustion of certain higher sulfur content fuel oil regardless of where the fuel is refined. EPA is responding to the comment submitted on the proposed revision to the District's SIP, is approving the low sulfur fuel oil regulations for inclusion in the District's SIP, and is amending the effective date of the regulations' inclusion in the SIP to correct our
The combustion of fuel oil containing sulfur leads to direct emissions of fine particulate matter (PM
These revisions to DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20 require that the sulfur content of Number 2 (No. 2) fuel oil be no greater than 500 parts per million (ppm); the sulfur content of Number 4 (No. 4) fuel oil be no greater than 2,500 ppm; and prohibit the use of Number 5 (No. 5) and heavier fuel oils in the District. Additionally, beginning July 1, 2018, the sulfur content of No. 2 fuel oil can be no greater than 15 ppm. Any fuel oil stored by the ultimate consumer in the District prior to the applicable compliance date may be used after the applicable compliance date. The revisions also include changes to reporting and recordkeeping requirements related to the use and storage of the aforementioned fuel oils. Definitions for terminology which relate to reporting and recordkeeping requirements were added.
The updates to Chapter 1 include amendments to the definitions of “American Standards of Testing Materials (ASTM)” and “distillate oil.” The revision to Chapter 5 includes updates to the sampling and testing practices for fuel oils. The amended Chapter 5 regulations require the use of various ASTM methods for the sampling of petroleum; an ASTM standard for the determination of fuel oil grade; and various ASTM methods for the determination of sulfur content in fuel oil. Chapter 8 includes the revised sulfur content for No. 2 and No. 4 fuel oils and prohibits combustion of No. 5 and heavier fuel oils in the District. Chapter 8 also includes the aforementioned compliance provision and definitions related to reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
As discussed in the DFR and NPR, EPA finds the District's low sulfur fuel regulations will improve visibility while also helping the District to maintain the NAAQS for SO
EPA received comments from the Export Inspection Council of India within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India (hereinafter referred to as “commenter”) on November 10, 2016.
As the commenter notes, the District's regulation lowering the sulfur content of fuel oil combusted within the District will reduce SO
Finally, regarding whether the District's regulation has any significance to meeting any multilateral obligation, EPA is unaware to what the commenter refers by “multilateral obligation” as the commenter has not defined this phrase. Assuming arguendo that the commenter meant to ask whether this low sulfur fuel regulation from the District addresses any obligations of the District or of the United States to “international communities” via treaties or other international law obligations, EPA is not aware of any “multilateral obligations” to which this regulation is intended to apply. The District's January 20, 2016 submission only states that its submitted regulation which lowers the sulfur content of fuel combusted within the District was intended to reduce SO
EPA is approving revisions to the DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20 for inclusion in the District's SIP because the revisions meet the requirements of the CAA in section 110 and strengthen the District's SIP. The revisions to the DCMR Chapters include limits on sulfur content in fuels to be combusted within the District and a prohibition on combustion of high sulfur content fuels which will reduce SO
In this rule, EPA is finalizing regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is finalizing the incorporation by reference of the DCMR Chapters 1, 5, and 8 of Title 20. Therefore, these materials have been approved by EPA for inclusion in the SIP, have been incorporated by reference by EPA into that plan, are fully Federally enforceable under sections 110 and 113 of the CAA as of the effective date of the final rulemaking of EPA's approval, and will be incorporated by reference by the Director of the Federal Register in the next update of the SIP compilation.
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action.
This action approving the revisions to the District of Columbia's regulations to lower the sulfur content of fuel oil may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
Dated: March 21, 2017.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(c) * * *
Environmental Protection Agency.
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Rhode Island. This revision removes Air Pollution Control (APC) Regulation 41, entitled “NO
This direct final rule will be effective June 30, 2017, unless EPA receives adverse comments by May 31, 2017. If adverse comments are received, EPA will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2016-0092 at
Alison C. Simcox, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, telephone number (617) 918-1684, fax number (617) 918-0684, email
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA.
Organization of this document. The following outline is provided to aid in locating information in this preamble.
On October 6, 2014, Rhode Island submitted a formal revision to its State Implementation Plan (SIP). The SIP revision consists of a request to remove from its SIP Air Pollution Control (APC) Regulation 41, entitled “NO
Rhode Island's NBP was a market-based cap and trade program, which was created to reduce emissions of NO
Sources covered by the Rhode Island NBP include sources with a nameplate capacity greater than 15 megawatts electric (MWe) or with a maximum design heat input greater than 250 million British thermal units per hour (MMBtu/hr). The five sources meeting the NBP applicability criteria are Ocean State Power, Pawtucket Power Associates, Dominion Energy Manchester Street, Inc., Tiverton Power Inc., and Entergy Rhode Island State Energy, L.P. The EPA-approved Rhode Island NBP set the total NO
In May 2005, EPA issued the Clean Air Interstate Rule (CAIR) (70 FR 25162; May 12, 2005), which covered 27 eastern states and the District of Columbia. CAIR used a cap and trade program to reduce sulfur dioxide (SO
In order for Rhode Island to be able to remove its NBP from the SIP, the state has demonstrated that its total NO
On April 7, 2014, Rhode Island Department of Environmental Management (RI DEM) proposed to repeal APC Regulation No. 41 “NO
EPA has reviewed the Title V permits, and NO
The maximum allowable NO
Furthermore, as Rhode Island is meeting the requirements of the NO
EPA is approving Rhode Island's request, submitted to EPA on October 6, 2014, to remove from the Rhode Island SIP APC Regulation No. 41 “NO
The EPA is publishing this action without prior proposal because the Agency views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comments. However, in the proposed rules section of this
If the EPA receives such comments, then EPA will publish a notice withdrawing the final rule and informing the public that the rule will not take effect. All public comments received will then be addressed in a subsequent final rule based on the proposed rule. The EPA will not institute a second comment period on the proposed rule. All parties interested in commenting on the proposed rule should do so at this time. If no such comments are received, the public is advised that this rule will be effective on June 30, 2017 and no further action will be taken on the proposed rule. Please note that if EPA receives adverse comment on an amendment, paragraph, or section of this rule and if that provision may be severed from the remainder of the rule, EPA may adopt as final those provisions of the rule that are not the subject of an adverse comment.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the Clean Air Act, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Sulfur oxides.
Part 52 of chapter I, title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Direct final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking direct final action to notify the public that it has received negative declarations relating to commercial and industrial solid waste incineration (CISWI) units within the State of Delaware, the District of Columbia, and the City of Philadelphia in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. These negative declarations certify that CISWI units subject to the requirements of sections 111(d) and 129 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) do not exist within the jurisdictional boundaries of the State of Delaware, the District of Columbia, and the City of Philadelphia in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. EPA is accepting the negative declarations in accordance with the requirements of the CAA.
This rule is effective on June 30, 2017 without further notice, unless EPA receives adverse written comment by May 31, 2017. If EPA receives such comments, it will publish a timely withdrawal of the direct final rule in the
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0081 at
Mary Cate Opila, (215) 814-2041, or by email at
Sections 111(d) and 129 of the CAA require submittal of state plans to control certain pollutants (designated pollutants) at existing solid waste combustor facilities (designated facilities) whenever standards of performance have been established by EPA under section 111(b) for new sources of the same source category and the EPA has established emission guidelines for such existing sources. When designated facilities are located in a state, the state must then develop and
If a state fails to submit a satisfactory plan, the CAA provides the EPA the authority to prescribe a plan for regulating the designated pollutants at the designated facilities. The EPA prescribed plan, also known as a federal plan, is often delegated to states with designated facilities but no EPA approved state-specific plan. If no such designated facilities exist within a state's jurisdiction, a state may submit to the EPA a letter of certification to that effect (referred to as a negative declaration) in lieu of a state plan to satisfy the state's obligation. 40 CFR 60.23(b) and 62.06. A negative declaration exempts the state from the requirement to submit a CAA section 111(d)/section 129 plan for that designated pollutant and source category. 40 CFR 60.23(b).
On December 1, 2000 (60 FR 75338), the EPA promulgated new source performance standards for new CISWI units, 40 CFR part 60, subpart CCCC, and emission guidelines for existing CISWI units, 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD. After a series of legal challenges, amendments, and reconsiderations, the EPA promulgated the Reconsideration and Final Amendments for CISWI units on February 7, 2013 (78 FR 9112) (providing final standards for new and existing sources). A CISWI unit is any distinct operating unit of any commercial or industrial facility that combusts, or has combusted in the preceding six months, any solid waste, as that term is defined in 40 CFR part 241, Solid Wastes Used as Fuels or Ingredients in Combustion Units. 40 CFR 60.2875. A state plan must address all existing CISWI units that commenced construction on or before June 4, 2010, or for which modification or reconstruction was commenced on or before August 7, 2013, with limited exceptions as provided in 40 CFR 60.2555. See 40 CFR 60.2550.
As discussed previously, if there are no designated facilities in the state, the state may submit a negative declaration in lieu of a state plan. The EPA will provide public notice of receipt of a state's negative declaration with respect to CISWI. See 40 CFR 60.2530. If any subsequently identified existing CISWI unit is found in a state that had submitted a negative declaration, the Federal plan implementing the emission guidelines for subpart DDDD would automatically apply to that CISWI unit until a state plan is approved. See 40 CFR 60.2530.
The State of Delaware, through the Department of Natural Resources & Environmental Control (DNREC), the District of Columbia District through the Department of Energy & Environment (DDOEE), and the City of Philadelphia through the Department of Public Health, Air Management Services in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania (Philadelphia AMS) have determined that there are no CISWI units subject to CAA 111(d)/129 requirements in their respective jurisdictional boundaries. Accordingly, each state and local agency has submitted to EPA a negative declaration letter certifying this fact. DNREC submitted a negative declaration letter to EPA on January 7, 2014. DDOEE submitted a negative declaration letter to EPA on November 8, 2013. Philadelphia AMS submitted a negative declaration letter to EPA on March 4, 2015. A typographical error in the letter was noted and clarified by Philadelphia AMS in an email on February 4, 2016. These negative declaration letters and a copy of the February 4, 2016 email are in the docket for this action and are available online at
In this direct final action, EPA is amending 40 CFR part 62 to reflect the receipt of negative declaration letters from the noted state and local agencies. EPA accepts these negative declarations as meeting the requirements in paragraph 40 CFR 60.23(b). Amendments are being made to 40 CFR part 62, subparts I (Delaware), J (District of Columbia), and NN (Pennsylvania). With respect to subpart NN, this action is only applicable to the City of Philadelphia air pollution control agency's jurisdiction; it does not include the remaining geographical areas in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. EPA is providing notice of receipt of these negative declarations.
After publication of this
EPA is publishing this rule without prior proposal because EPA views this as a noncontroversial amendment and anticipates no adverse comment. However, in the “Proposed Rules” section of today's
Under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), this action is not a “significant regulatory action” and therefore is not subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget. For this reason, this action is also not subject to Executive Order 13211, “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001). This action merely notifies the public of EPA receipt of negative declarations from air pollution control agencies without any existing CISWI units within their jurisdictional boundaries. This action imposes no requirements. Accordingly, EPA certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
With regard to negative declarations for designated facilities received by EPA from states, EPA's role is to notify the public of the receipt of such negative declarations and revise 40 CFR part 62 accordingly. This action does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by June 30, 2017. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. Parties with objections to this direct final rule are encouraged to file a comment in response to the parallel notice of proposed rulemaking for this action published in the proposed rules section of today's
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Commercial and industrial solid waste incineration units, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 62 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(a) Letter from the Delaware Department of Natural Resources and Environmental Control submitted November 16, 2001, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the State of Delaware that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
(b) Letter from the Delaware Department of Natural Resources and Environmental Control submitted January 7, 2014, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the State of Delaware that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
(a) Letter from the District of Columbia Department of Health, Environmental Health Administration, submitted November 27, 2001, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the District of Columbia that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
(b) Letter from the District of Columbia, District Department of Energy & Environment, submitted November 8, 2013, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the District of Columbia that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
(a) Letter from the City of Philadelphia, Department of Public Health, submitted February 9, 2001, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the City of Philadelphia, Pennsylvania that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
(b) Letter from the City of Philadelphia, Department of Public Health, submitted March 4, 2015, as amended February 4, 2016, certifying that there are no existing commercial/industrial solid waste incineration units within the City of Philadelphia, Pennsylvania that are subject to 40 CFR part 60, subpart DDDD.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
This regulation establishes tolerances for residues of tioxazafen in or on corn, field, forage; corn, field, grain; corn, field, stover; cotton, gin byproducts; cotton, undelinted seed; soybean, forage; soybean, hay; soybean, meal; soybean, seed. Monsanto Company requested these tolerances under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA).
This regulation is effective May 1, 2017. Objections and requests for hearings must be received on or before June 30, 2017, and must be filed in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178 (see also Unit I.C. of the
The docket for this action, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0215, is available at
Michael Goodis, Registration Division (7505P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (703) 305-7090; email address:
You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:
• Crop production (NAICS code 111).
• Animal production (NAICS code 112).
• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).
• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).
You may access a frequently updated electronic version of EPA's tolerance regulations at 40 CFR part 180 through the Government Printing Office's e-CFR site at
Under FFDCA section 408(g), 21 U.S.C. 346a, any person may file an objection to any aspect of this regulation and may also request a hearing on those objections. You must file your objection or request a hearing on this regulation in accordance with the instructions provided in 40 CFR part 178. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, you must identify docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0215 in the subject line on the first page of your submission. All objections and requests for a hearing must be in writing, and must be received by the Hearing Clerk on or before June 30, 2017. Addresses for mail and hand delivery of objections and hearing requests are provided in 40 CFR 178.25(b).
In addition to filing an objection or hearing request with the Hearing Clerk as described in 40 CFR part 178, please submit a copy of the filing (excluding any Confidential Business Information (CBI)) for inclusion in the public docket. Information not marked confidential pursuant to 40 CFR part 2 may be disclosed publicly by EPA without prior notice. Submit the non-CBI copy of your objection or hearing request, identified by docket ID number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0215, by one of the following methods:
•
•
•
Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
In the
Based upon review of the data supporting the petition, EPA is establishing tolerance levels for corn, field, forage; corn, field, grain; and cotton, undelinted seed that differ from what the petitioner requested. In addition, the Agency determined tolerances were not necessary on cattle, fat; cattle, meat; cattle, meat byproducts; goat, fat; goat, meat; goat, meat byproducts; horse, fat; horse, meat; horse, meat byproducts, milk; sheep, fat; sheep, meat; and sheep, meat byproducts because of no expectation of
Section 408(b)(2)(A)(i) of FFDCA allows EPA to establish a tolerance (the legal limit for a pesticide chemical residue in or on a food) only if EPA determines that the tolerance is “safe.” Section 408(b)(2)(A)(ii) of FFDCA defines “safe” to mean that “there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue, including all anticipated dietary exposures and all other exposures for which there is reliable information.” This includes exposure through drinking water and in residential settings, but does not include occupational exposure. Section 408(b)(2)(C) of FFDCA requires EPA to give special consideration to exposure of infants and children to the pesticide chemical residue in establishing a tolerance and to “ensure that there is a reasonable certainty that no harm will result to infants and children from aggregate exposure to the pesticide chemical residue. . . .”
Consistent with FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), and the factors specified in FFDCA section 408(b)(2)(D), EPA has reviewed the available scientific data and other relevant information in support of this action. EPA has sufficient data to assess the hazards of and to make a determination on aggregate exposure for tioxazafen including exposure resulting from the tolerances established by this action. EPA's assessment of exposures and risks associated with tioxazafen follows.
EPA has evaluated the available toxicity data and considered its validity, completeness, and reliability as well as the relationship of the results of the studies to human risk. EPA has also considered available information concerning the variability of the sensitivities of major identifiable subgroups of consumers, including infants and children.
Tioxazafen has low acute toxicity by the oral, dermal and inhalation routes of exposure. It is a mild eye irritant, nonirritating to the skin, and is not a dermal sensitizer.
The adrenal gland in male and female rats was the primary target organ in subchronic and chronic oral toxicity studies. These effects were also observed in the dermal and inhalation (28- and 90-day) toxicity studies. In male rats, adrenal effects included increased adrenal weights and adrenal vacuolation. Although female rats exhibited decreased rather than increased adrenal weights, there were no corresponding histological effects in adrenals of females in the 2-generation reproductive study or the chronic toxicity study to indicate adversity of the finding. The available studies suggest that the male rat may be more sensitive than females to the adrenal effects of tioxazafen.
Evidence of neurotoxicity (
Tioxazafen did not result in developmental effects in either rats or rabbits, and therefore, there is no quantitative or qualitative susceptibility. In rats, the only maternal effects were decreased adrenal weights, and decreased food consumption. No histology was performed on the adrenal to assess potential functional effects. There were no maternal effects in the rabbit of toxicological significance. No offspring toxicity was noted up to 60 milligram/kilogram/day (mg/kg/day) (highest dose tested (HDT)) in the 2-generation reproductive toxicity study.
In an immunotoxicity rat study, decreased serum IgM response (not statistically significant) was noted at the high dose and decreasing median values exhibited a clear dose-response. These findings provide an indication of perturbation/dis-regulation of the immunologic response.
Long-term dietary exposure to high doses of tioxazafen was associated with the development of malignant thoracic hibernomas in female rats, hepatocellular tumors in male and female mice, and hemangiosarcomas in male mice. Based on the observation of tumors in 2 species and both sexes without an adequate mode of action, EPA classified tioxazafen as “likely to be carcinogenic to humans” with a linear cancer slope factor (Q1*) of 9.63 × 10
Specific information on the studies received and the nature of the adverse effects caused by tioxazafen as well as the no-observed-adverse-effect-level (NOAEL) and the lowest-observed-adverse-effect-level (LOAEL) from the toxicity studies can be found at
Once a pesticide's toxicological profile is determined, EPA identifies toxicological Point of Departures (PODs) and levels of concern to use in evaluating the risk posed by human exposure to the pesticide. For hazards that have a threshold below which there is no appreciable risk, the toxicological POD is used as the basis for derivation of reference values for risk assessment. PODs are developed based on a careful analysis of the doses in each toxicological study to determine the dose at which the NOAEL and the LOAEL are identified. Uncertainty/safety factors are used in conjunction with the POD to calculate a safe exposure level—generally referred to as a population-adjusted dose (PAD) or a reference dose (RfD)—and a safe margin of exposure (MOE). For non-threshold risks, the Agency assumes that any amount of exposure will lead to some degree of risk. Thus, the Agency estimates risk in terms of the probability of an occurrence of the adverse effect expected in a lifetime. For more information on the general principles EPA uses in risk characterization and a complete description of the risk assessment process, see
A summary of the toxicological endpoints for tioxazafen used for human risk assessment is shown in Table 1 of this unit.
1.
i.
Such effects were identified for tioxazafen. In estimating acute dietary exposure, EPA used food consumption information from the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, What We Eat in America, (NHANES/WWEIA). As to residue levels in food, EPA conducted an unrefined acute dietary assessment using tolerance-level residues, 100 PCT assumptions, and default processing factors.
ii.
iii.
iv.
2.
Based on the Pesticide in Water Calculator (PWC v1.52) consisting of a graphical user interface shell integrating PRZM v.5.02 and VVWMv.1.02.1, the estimated drinking water concentrations (EDWCs) of tioxazafen for acute exposures are estimated to be 4.89 parts per billion (ppb) for surface water and 0.0756 ppb for ground water. For chronic exposures for non-cancer assessments the EDWCs are estimated to be 0.61 ppb for surface water and there was no breakthrough for ground water. Chronic exposures for cancer assessments are estimated to be 0.38 ppb for surface water and there was no breakthrough for ground water.
Modeled estimates of drinking water concentrations were directly entered into the dietary exposure model. For acute dietary risk assessment, the water concentration value of 4.89 ppb was used to assess the contribution to drinking water. For chronic dietary risk assessment, the water concentration of value 0.61 ppb was used to assess the
3.
Tioxazafen is not registered for any specific use patterns that would result in residential exposure.
4.
EPA has not found tioxazafen to share a common mechanism of toxicity with any other substances, and tioxazafen does not appear to produce a toxic metabolite produced by other substances. For the purposes of this tolerance action, therefore, EPA has assumed that tioxazafen does not have a common mechanism of toxicity with other substances. For information regarding EPA's efforts to determine which chemicals have a common mechanism of toxicity and to evaluate the cumulative effects of such chemicals, see EPA's Web site at
1.
2.
3.
i. The toxicology database for tioxazafen is complete.
ii. Tioxazafen did not result in developmental effects in either rats or rabbits, therefore, there is no evidence of increased qualitative or quantitative susceptibility in the developing fetus. No offspring toxicity was noted up to 60 mg/kg/day (highest dose tested) in the 2-generation reproductive toxicity study.
iii. There is low concern for neurotoxicity. In the acute neurotoxicity study in the rat, decreased locomotor activity was noted and decreased hind limb splay was observed in the rat subchronic neurotoxicity study at week 3 evaluations; however, this effect was not considered adverse since there was no dose response relationship, the response was variable, nonpersistent, and not observed in the 90-day subchronic rat oral toxicity study, and no additional neurotoxicity data are required.
iv. There are no residual uncertainties identified in the exposure databases. The dietary food exposure assessments were performed based on 100 PCT and tolerance-level residues. EPA made conservative (protective) assumptions in the ground and surface water modeling used to assess exposure to tioxazafen in drinking water. These assessments will not underestimate the exposure and risks posed by tioxazafen.
EPA determines whether acute and chronic dietary pesticide exposures are safe by comparing aggregate exposure estimates to the acute PAD (aPAD) and chronic PAD (cPAD). For linear cancer risks, EPA calculates the lifetime probability of acquiring cancer given the estimated aggregate exposure. Short-, intermediate-, and chronic-term risks are evaluated by comparing the estimated aggregate food, water, and residential exposure to the appropriate PODs to ensure that an adequate MOE exists.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Adequate analytical methods are available to enforce the proposed tolerances for tioxazafen and benzamidine in plant commodities. The proposed plant enforcement method, Method 115G8064A, employs a single extraction and determinative step for both analytes. This method was successfully validated by an independent laboratory.
Adequate enforcement methodology (electrospray ionization liquid chromatography with mass spectrometric detection (ESI LC-MS/MS) in positive ion mode) is available to enforce the tolerance expression.
In making its tolerance decisions, EPA seeks to harmonize U.S. tolerances with international standards whenever possible, consistent with U.S. food safety standards and agricultural practices. EPA considers the
The Codex has not established an MRL for tioxazafen.
EPA received one comment on the Notice of Filing objecting, without any supporting information, to the establishment of these tioxazafen tolerances for concerns about the toxicity of chemicals generally. The Agency understands the commenter's concerns and recognizes that some individuals believe that pesticides should be banned from use on agricultural crops. The existing legal framework provided by section 408 of the FFDCA, however, states that tolerances may be set when persons seeking such tolerances or exemptions have demonstrated that the pesticide meets the safety stand imposed by that statute. EPA has evaluated the available data, assessed the effects of this chemical on human health, and determined that aggregate exposure to it will be safe. The commenter has not provided any information to support altering that safety finding.
Some of the petitioned-for tolerance levels in the Notice of Filing differ from those currently being set by the Agency. Specifically, the Agency has determined that no livestock tolerances are needed as there is no reasonable expectation of finite residues in those commodities. Further, for corn and cotton raw agricultural commodities, the appropriate tolerance level needs to be the sum of the level of quantification of tioxazafen and benzamidine (0.02 ppm) rather than 0.01 ppm.
Therefore, tolerances are established for residues of tioxazafen, in or on corn, field, forage at 0.02 ppm; corn, field, grain at 0.02 ppm; corn, field, stover at 0.02 ppm; cotton, gin byproducts at 0.02 ppm; cotton, undelinted seed at 0.02 ppm; soybean, forage at 0.15 ppm; Soybean, hay at 0.30 ppm; soybean, meal at 0.05 ppm and soybean, seed at 0.04 ppm.
This action establishes tolerances under FFDCA section 408(d) in response to a petition submitted to the Agency. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has exempted these types of actions from review under Executive Order 12866, entitled “Regulatory Planning and Review” (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993). Because this action has been exempted from review under Executive Order 12866, this action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, entitled “Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use” (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) or Executive Order 13045, entitled “Protection of Children from Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks” (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997). This action does not contain any information collections subject to OMB approval under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Since tolerances and exemptions that are established on the basis of a petition under FFDCA section 408(d), such as the tolerance in this final rule, do not require the issuance of a proposed rule, the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601
This action directly regulates growers, food processors, food handlers, and food retailers, not States or tribes, nor does this action alter the relationships or distribution of power and responsibilities established by Congress in the preemption provisions of FFDCA section 408(n)(4). As such, the Agency has determined that this action will not have a substantial direct effect on States or tribal governments, on the relationship between the national government and the States or tribal governments, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government or between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. Thus, the Agency has determined that Executive Order 13132, entitled “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999) and Executive Order 13175, entitled “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments” (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000) do not apply to this action. In addition, this action does not impose any enforceable duty or contain any unfunded mandate as described under Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) (2 U.S.C. 1501
This action does not involve any technical standards that would require Agency consideration of voluntary consensus standards pursuant to section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA) (15 U.S.C. 272 note).
Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Agricultural commodities, Pesticides and pests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Therefore, 40 CFR chapter I is amended as follows:
21 U.S.C. 321(q), 346a and 371.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Final rule.
We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), are issuing this final rule to comply with a court order that reinstates the removal of Federal protections for the gray wolf
This action is effective May 1, 2017. The United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit order dated March 3, 2017, and mandate dated April 25, 2017, removing Federal protections for the gray wolf in Wyoming had legal effect immediately upon filing of the mandate.
This final rule is available electronically at
For information on wolves in Wyoming, contact Tyler Abbott, Wyoming Field Office Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, 5353 Yellowstone Rd., Suite 308A, Cheyenne, WY 82009; telephone (307) 772-2374. Individuals who are hearing impaired or speech impaired may call the Federal Relay Service at 800-877-8337 for TTY assistance.
The Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (List), which is authorized by the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531
Various groups filed lawsuits challenging our 2012 final rule. On September 23, 2014, the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia vacated and set aside our 2012 final rule (
On March 3, 2017, the U.S. Court of Appeals, in a unanimous opinion, reversed the ruling of the U.S. District Court
This rulemaking is necessary to comply with the March 3, 2017, court order and April 25, 2017, mandate. Therefore, under these circumstances, the Director has determined, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(B), that prior notice and opportunity for public comment are impractical and unnecessary. The Director has further determined, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), that the court order and mandate constitute good cause to make this rule effective upon publication.
Per the March 3, 2017, court order and April 25, 2017, mandate, the protections of the ESA are removed for gray wolves in Wyoming. Additionally, the regulations under section 10(j) of the ESA at 50 CFR 17.84(i) and (n) designating Wyoming as a nonessential experimental population area are also removed.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation.
To comply with the court order and mandate discussed above, we amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the CFR, as set forth below:
16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; possession and trip limit implementation.
This action sets the initial possession and trip limits for Northeast multispecies common pool vessels for the 2017 fishing year. The regulations authorize the Regional Administrator to implement trip limits for common pool vessels in order to prevent exceeding the pertinent common pool quotas. This action is intended to optimize the harvest of Northeast regulated multispecies.
The possession and trip limit implementation is effective at 0001 hours on May 1, 2017, through April 30, 2018.
Spencer Talmage, Fishery Management Specialist, 978-281-9232.
The regulations at § 648.86(o) authorize the Regional Administrator (RA) to implement possession and trip limits for common pool vessels in order to prevent the overharvest of common pool quotas. Effective May 1, 2017, this action sets the initial possession and trip limits for the 2017 fishing year, as summarized in Tables 1 and 2 below. These possession and trip limits were developed after considering any changes to the common pool quota, preliminary 2017 sector rosters, and 2016 catch rates. These adjustments are intended to facilitate optimized harvest of the common pool quotas and prevent early trimester closures.
The initial 2017 possession and trip limits are the same as the initial 2016 limits, with the exception of four stocks (Georges Bank (GB) cod, Gulf of Maine (GOM) haddock, Southern New England/Mid-Atlantic (SNE/MA) yellowtail flounder, and witch flounder). The initial possession and trip limit for GB cod outside the Eastern U.S./Canada area and witch flounder are reduced relative to initial 2016 possession and trip limits to prevent early stock area closures in Trimester 1 as occurred in 2016. For GOM haddock and SNE/MA yellowtail flounder, the initial 2017 limits are higher than the initial 2016 limits to allow additional opportunities given that quota utilization was low for these stocks in 2016.
For Handgear A and Handgear B vessels, possession and trip limits for GB and GOM cod are tied to the possession and trip limits for groundfish days-at-sea (DAS) vessels. The default cod trip limit is 300 lb (136 kg) for Handgear A vessels and 75 lb (34 kg) for Handgear B vessels. If the GOM or GB cod landing limit for vessels fishing on a groundfish DAS drops below 300 lb (136 kg), then the respective Handgear A cod trip limit must be reduced to the same limit. Similarly, the Handgear B trip limit must be adjusted proportionally (rounded up to the nearest 25 lb (11 kg)) to the DAS limit. This action sets the trip limit of GOM cod to 25 lb (11 kg) per DAS, up to 100 lb (45 kg) per trip for vessels fishing on a groundfish DAS, which is 97 percent lower than the default limit specified in the regulations for these vessels (800 lb (363 kg) per DAS). As a result, the Handgear A and Handgear B trip limit for GOM cod is 25 lb (11 kg) per trip. This action sets the possession and trip limit of GB cod at 250 lb (136 kg) per DAS, up to 500 lb (227 kg) per trip for vessels fishing on a groundfish DAS outside the Eastern U.S./Canada Area. As a result, the Handgear A trip limit for GB cod is also set at 250 lb (136 kg) per trip, and the Handgear B trip limit is 25 lb (11 kg) per trip.
Weekly quota monitoring reports for the common pool fishery can be found on our Web site at:
As a reminder, Table 3 includes the common pool trimester Total Allowable Catches (TACs) for fishing year 2017. These trimester TACs are based on preliminary sector rosters. However, individual permit holders have until the end of the 2016 fishing year (April 30, 2017) to drop out of a sector and fish in the common pool fishery for the 2017 fishing year. Therefore, it is possible that the sector and common pool catch limits, including the trimester TACs, may change due to changes in sector rosters. If changes to sector rosters occur, updated catch limits and/or possession and trip limits will be announced as soon as possible in the 2017 fishing year to reflect the final sector rosters as of May 1, 2017. The regulations also require that any overages of the common pool quota be deducted from the respective quota in the following fishing year. If final fishing year 2016 catch information indicates the common pool exceeded its quota for any stock, we would reduce the common pool quota, as required, in a future action.
Additionally, we are working to publish a proposed rule for Framework Adjustment 56. If approved, Framework 56 would substantively increase the 2017 catch limit for witch flounder. In the Framework 56 proposed rule, we intend to propose a change to the common pool trip limit for witch flounder consistent with the recommended quota increase.
This action is required by 50 CFR part 648 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA, finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3) to waive prior notice and the opportunity for public comment and the 30-day delayed effectiveness period because it would be contrary to the public interest. The regulations at § 648.86(o) authorize the RA to adjust the Northeast multispecies possession and trip limits for common pool vessels in order to prevent the overharvest or underharvest of the pertinent common pool quotas. This action sets the initial common pool possession and trip limits on May 1, 2017, for the 2017 fishing year. The possession and trip limits
This would undermine management objectives of the Northeast Multispecies Fishery Management Plan and cause unnecessary negative economic impacts to the common pool fishery.
16 U.S.C. 1801
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Temporary rule; closure.
NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Greenland turbot in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands management area (BSAI). This action is necessary to prevent exceeding the 2017 Greenland turbot initial total allowable catch (ITAC) in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI.
Effective 1200 hrs, Alaska local time (A.l.t.), May 1, 2017, through 2400 hrs, A.l.t., December 31, 2017.
Steve Whitney, 907-586-7228.
NMFS manages the groundfish fishery in the BSAI according to the Fishery Management Plan for Groundfish of the Bering Sea and Aleutian Islands Management Area (FMP) prepared by the North Pacific Fishery Management Council under authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act. Regulations governing fishing by U.S. vessels in accordance with the FMP appear at subpart H of 50 CFR part 600 and 50 CFR part 679.
The 2017 Greenland turbot ITAC in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI is 106 metric tons (mt) as established by the final 2017 and 2018 harvest specifications for groundfish in the BSAI (82 FR 11826, February 27, 2017). The Regional Administrator has determined that the 2017 ITAC for Greenland turbot in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI is necessary to account for the incidental catch of this species in other anticipated groundfish fisheries for the 2017 fishing year. Therefore, in accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(i), the Regional Administrator establishes the directed fishing allowance for Greenland turbot in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI as zero mt. Consequently, in accordance with § 679.20(d)(1)(iii), NMFS is prohibiting directed fishing for Greenland turbot in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI.
After the effective date of this closure the maximum retainable amounts at § 679.20(e) and (f) apply at any time during a trip.
This action responds to the best available information recently obtained from the fishery. The Assistant Administrator for Fisheries, NOAA (AA), finds good cause to waive the requirement to provide prior notice and opportunity for public comment pursuant to the authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) as such requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest. This requirement is impracticable and contrary to the public interest as it would prevent NMFS from responding to the most recent fisheries data in a timely fashion and would delay the directed fishing closure of Greenland turbot in the Aleutian Islands subarea of the BSAI. NMFS was unable to publish a notice providing time for public comment because the most recent, relevant data only became available as April 25, 2017.
The AA also finds good cause to waive the 30-day delay in the effective date of this action under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3). This finding is based upon the reasons provided above for waiver of prior notice and opportunity for public comment.
This action is required by § 679.20 and is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866.
16 U.S.C. 1801
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, and -500 series airplanes. This proposed AD would require repetitive inspections for cracking in the skin lap splice at the lower fastener row, and repair if necessary. This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder (DAH) indicating that the lower skin at the skin lap splice lower fastener row is subject to widespread fatigue damage (WFD). We are proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by June 15, 2017.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
•
•
•
•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110 SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
James Guo, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5357; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
Fatigue damage can occur locally, in small areas or structural design details, or globally, in widespread areas. Multiple-site damage is widespread damage that occurs in a large structural element such as a single rivet line of a lap splice joining two large skin panels. Widespread damage can also occur in multiple elements such as adjacent frames or stringers. Multiple-site damage and multiple-element damage cracks are typically too small initially to be reliably detected with normal inspection methods. Without intervention, these cracks will grow, and eventually compromise the structural integrity of the airplane. This condition is known as WFD. It is associated with general degradation of large areas of structure with similar structural details and stress levels. As an airplane ages, WFD will likely occur, and will certainly occur if the airplane is operated long enough without any intervention.
The FAA's WFD final rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) became effective on January 14, 2011. The WFD rule requires certain actions to prevent structural failure due to WFD throughout the operational life of certain existing transport category airplanes and all of these airplanes that will be certificated in the future. For existing and future airplanes subject to the WFD rule, the rule requires that DAHs establish a limit of validity (LOV) of the engineering data that support the structural maintenance program. Operators affected by the WFD rule may not fly an airplane beyond its LOV, unless an extended LOV is approved.
The WFD rule (75 FR 69746, November 15, 2010) does not require identifying and developing maintenance actions if the DAHs can show that such actions are not necessary to prevent WFD before the airplane reaches the LOV. Many LOVs, however, do depend on accomplishment of future maintenance actions. As stated in the WFD rule, any maintenance actions necessary to reach the LOV will be mandated by airworthiness directives through separate rulemaking actions.
In the context of WFD, this action is necessary to enable DAHs to propose LOVs that allow operators the longest operational lives for their airplanes, and still ensure that WFD will not occur. This approach allows for an implementation strategy that provides flexibility to DAHs in determining the timing of service information development (with FAA approval), while providing operators with certainty regarding the LOV applicable to their airplanes.
We received a report indicating that, during window belt replacements, cracking was found in the lower skin at the stringer S-14 lap splice lower row between station (STA) 360 and STA 540, and between STA 727 and STA 908, on a Model 737-300 airplane. An additional 51 airplanes were inspected and 22 crack indications were reported on airplanes with 42,358 to 48,188 total flight cycles and 53,490 to 58,796 total flight hours. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the lower skin which, if not detected, could link up, resulting in reduced structural integrity of the airplane and consequent uncontrolled decompression of the airplane.
We reviewed Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017. The service information describes procedures for eddy current inspections for cracking at the skin lap splice in the lower fastener row, and repair if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all the relevant information and determined the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop in other products of the same type design.
This proposed AD would require accomplishing the actions specified in the service information described previously, except as discussed under “Differences Between this Proposed AD and the Service Information.” For information on the procedures and compliance times, see this service information at
Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017, specifies to contact the manufacturer for certain instructions, but this proposed AD would require using repair methods, modification deviations, and alteration deviations in one of the following ways:
• In accordance with a method that we approve; or
• Using data that meet the certification basis of the airplane, and that have been approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) whom we have authorized to make those findings.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 126 airplanes of U.S. registry. We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We have received no definitive data that would enable us to provide cost estimates for the on-condition actions specified in this proposed AD.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: “General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by June 15, 2017.
None.
This AD applies to The Boeing Company Model 737-300, -400, -500 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53; Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by an evaluation by the design approval holder indicating that the lower skin at the skin lap splice lower fastener row is subject to widespread fatigue damage. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracks in the lower skin, which, if not detected, could link up, resulting in reduced structural integrity of the airplane and consequent uncontrolled decompression of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Except as provided by paragraph (i) of this AD, at the applicable time specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017: Do external eddy current inspections at stringer S-14 on the left and right sides of the airplane (S-14L and S-14R) for any crack in the skin lap splice at the lower fastener row, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017. Repeat the inspections thereafter at the applicable times specified in paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017.
If any crack is found during any inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD, repair before further flight using a method approved in accordance with the procedures specified in paragraph (j) of this AD. Although Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017, specifies to contact Boeing for appropriate action and specifies that action as “RC” (Required for Compliance), this AD requires repair as specified in this paragraph.
(1) Where Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017, specifies a compliance time “after the original issue date of this service bulletin,” this AD requires compliance within the specified compliance time after the effective date of this AD.
(2) The Condition column of Table 1 and Table 2 of paragraph 1.E., “Compliance,” of Boeing Alert Service Bulletin 737-53A1365, dated January 23, 2017, refers to total flight cycles “at the original issue date of this service bulletin.” This AD, however, applies to the airplanes with the specified total flight cycles as of the effective date of this AD.
(1) The Manager, Los Angeles Aircraft Certification Office, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the ACO, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to:
(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.
(3) An AMOC that provides an acceptable level of safety may be used for any repair, modification, or alteration required by this AD if it is approved by the Boeing Commercial Airplanes Organization Designation Authorization (ODA) that has been authorized by the Manager, Los Angeles ACO, to make those findings. To be approved, the repair method, modification deviation, or alteration deviation must meet the certification basis of the airplane, and the approval must specifically refer to this AD.
(4) Except as required by paragraph (h) of this AD: For service information that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(4)(i) and (j)(4)(ii) of this AD apply.
(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.
(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.
(1) For more information about this AD, contact James Guo, Aerospace Engineer, Airframe Branch, ANM-120L, FAA, Los Angeles ACO, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712-4137; phone: 562-627-5357; fax: 562-627-5210; email:
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Boeing Commercial Airplanes, Attention: Contractual & Data Services (C&DS), 2600 Westminster Blvd., MC 110-SK57, Seal Beach, CA 90740-5600; telephone 562-797-1717; Internet
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM).
This action proposes to establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface at Hawthorne Industrial Airport, Hawthorne, NV, to support the development of Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations under standard instrument approach and departure procedures at the airport, for the safety of aircraft and management of airspace within the National Airspace System.
Comments must be received on or before June 15, 2017.
Send comments on this proposal to the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590; telephone: 1-800-647-5527, or (202) 366-9826. You must identify FAA Docket No. FAA-2017-0297; Airspace Docket No. 16-AWP-4, at the beginning of your comments. You may also submit comments through the Internet at
FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, and subsequent amendments can be viewed online at
FAA Order 7400.11, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, is published yearly and effective on September 15.
Tom Clark, Federal Aviation Administration, Operations Support Group, Western Service Center, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057; telephone (425) 203-4511.
The FAA's authority to issue rules regarding aviation safety is found in Title 49 of the United States Code. Subtitle I, Section 106 describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII, Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the agency's authority. This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart I, Section 40103. Under that section, the FAA is charged with prescribing regulations to assign the use of airspace necessary to ensure the safety of aircraft and the efficient use of airspace. This regulation is within the scope of that authority as it would establish Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the earth at Hawthorne Industrial Airport, Hawthorne, NV.
Interested parties are invited to participate in this proposed rulemaking by submitting such written data, views, or arguments, as they may desire. Comments that provide the factual basis supporting the views and suggestions presented are particularly helpful in developing reasoned regulatory decisions on the proposal. Comments are specifically invited on the overall regulatory, aeronautical, economic, environmental, and energy-related aspects of the proposal. Communications should identify both docket numbers and be submitted in triplicate to the address listed above. Persons wishing the FAA to acknowledge receipt of their comments on this notice must submit with those comments a self-addressed, stamped postcard on which the following statement is made: “Comments to Docket No. FAA-2017-0297/Airspace Docket No. 16-AWP-4”. The postcard will be date/time stamped and returned to the commenter.
All communications received before the specified closing date for comments will be considered before taking action on the proposed rule. The proposal contained in this notice may be changed in light of the comments received. A report summarizing each substantive public contact with FAA personnel concerned with this rulemaking will be filed in the docket.
An electronic copy of this document may be downloaded through the Internet at
You may review the public docket containing the proposal, any comments received, and any final disposition in person in the Dockets Office (see the
This document proposes to amend FAA Order 7400.11A, Airspace Designations and Reporting Points, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016. FAA Order 7400.11A is publicly available as listed in the
The FAA is proposing an amendment to Title 14 Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 71 by establishing Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within a 3.6-mile radius of Hawthorne Industrial Airport, Hawthorne, NV, and within 2 miles either side of a curved line extending southeast to approximately 15 miles east of the airport. This airspace is necessary to support IFR operations in standard instrument approach and departure procedures at the airport.
Class E airspace designations are published in paragraph 6005 of FAA Order 7400.11A, dated August 3, 2016, and effective September 15, 2016, which is incorporated by reference in 14 CFR 71.1. The Class E airspace designations listed in this document will be published subsequently in the Order.
The FAA has determined that this regulation only involves an established body of technical regulations for which frequent and routine amendments are necessary to keep them operationally current, is non-controversial and unlikely to result in adverse or negative comments. It, therefore: (1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866; (2) is not a “significant rule” under DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034; February 26, 1979); and (3) does not warrant preparation of a regulatory evaluation as the anticipated impact is so minimal. Since this is a routine matter that will only affect air traffic procedures and air navigation, it is certified that this rule, when promulgated, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
This proposal will be subject to an environmental analysis in accordance with FAA Order 1050.1F, “Environmental Impacts: Policies and Procedures” prior to any FAA final regulatory action.
Airspace, Incorporation by reference, Navigation (air).
Accordingly, pursuant to the authority delegated to me, the Federal Aviation Administration proposes to amend 14 CFR part 71 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40103, 40113, 40120; E.O. 10854, 24 FR 9565, 3 CFR, 1959-1963 Comp., p. 389.
That airspace extending upward from 700 feet above the surface within 3.6 miles of the Hawthorne Industrial Airport and within 2 miles each side of a line extending from lat. 38°32′25″ N., long. 118°37′26″ W.; to lat. 38°28′43″ N., long. 118°27′48″ W.; to lat. 38°28′49″ N., long. 118°24′19″ W.; to lat. 38°32′06″ N., long. 118°18′07″ W.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a state implementation plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maryland. This revision pertains to removing a discontinued Technical Memorandum 90-01 (TM 90-01) from Maryland's SIP, which is now superseded by a new continuous emission monitoring (CEM) regulation. Maryland previously used TM 90-01 to govern the CEM requirements for fuel burning equipment. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2017-0047 at
Gavin Huang, (215) 814-2042, or by email at
In May 2010, the State of Maryland through the Maryland Department of the Environment (MDE) discontinued the use of TM 90-01 “Continuous Emission Monitoring Policies and Procedures” and codified these requirements for CEMs in Maryland regulation COMAR 26.11.01.11 “Continuous Emission Monitoring Requirements.” MDE had been in the process of establishing unique requirements for CEMs, separate from the requirements for continuous opacity monitors (COMs), and broke out the requirements into separate COMAR regulations. On November 7, 2016 (81 FR 78048), EPA approved these separate regulations into Maryland's SIP.
On July 1, 2016, MDE submitted a SIP revision to remove discontinued TM 90-01 from Maryland's SIP because TM 90-01 had been superseded by COMAR 26.11.01.11. EPA previously approved TM 90-01 into Maryland's SIP on February 28, 1996.
On November 7, 2016 (81 FR 78048), EPA approved COMAR 26.11.01.11 into the Maryland SIP. This newly SIP approved regulation establishes general requirements, quality assurance provisions, and monitoring and compliance requirements for the installation of CEMs for each of the applicable source categories. TM 90-01 previously had addressed quality assurance provisions for CEMs and had also established levels of enforcement actions for Maryland for visible emissions exceedances based on a source's operating time during a calendar quarter, and allowed exceedances to occur without follow up enforcement for up to 10 percent of a source's operating time in addition to an existing 6-minute exclusion. Maryland's CEM quality assurance requirements are now in COMAR 26.11.01.11 which is in the Maryland SIP. The removal of TM 90-01, which contained enforcement exclusions related to the number of violations and data availability from CEMs and COMs, strengthens enforcement of Maryland's visible emissions standards. COMAR 26.11.01.11 does not contain any exclusions for the operation of CEMs.
Therefore, EPA is removing a moot memorandum from the SIP which has already been replaced by a regulatory requirement and thus this removal will not interfere with any CAA requirement, with any national ambient air quality standard (NAAQS), or with any reasonable further progress and the removal meets requirements in section 110(l) of the CAA. Due to the removal of TM 90-01, MDE has also removed a reference to TM 90-01 in COMAR 26.11.10.06 in section C(3)(b) and added a reference to COMAR 26.11.01.11 which EPA finds appropriate. This amendment to COMAR 26.11.10.06 will also be reflected in the SIP.
EPA is proposing to approve the July 1, 2016 Maryland SIP revision submittal, which seeks removal of discontinued TM 90-01 from the Maryland SIP in accordance with section 110 of the CAA. The CEM requirements for quality assurance, monitoring and other technical requirements under discontinued TM 90-01 have been superseded and codified under COMAR 26.11.01.11. EPA is soliciting public comments on the issues discussed in this document. These comments will be considered before taking final action.
In this proposed rulemaking, EPA is proposing to include in a final EPA rule regulatory text that includes incorporation by reference. In accordance with requirements of 1 CFR 51.5, EPA is proposing to incorporate by reference COMAR 26.11.01.11 in the amendment to COMAR
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, this proposed rulemaking to remove discontinued TM 90-01 from Maryland's SIP and include revised COMAR 26.11.10.06 in the SIP does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), because the SIP is not approved to apply in Indian country located in the state, and EPA notes that it will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Maine. The revision updates Maine's emissions reporting requirements for certain stationary sources that emit criteria pollutants. The intended effect of this action is to approve the revision into the Maine SIP. This action is being taken under the Clean Air Act (CAA).
Written comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2017-0024 at
David L. Mackintosh, Air Quality Planning Unit, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, EPA New England Regional Office, 5 Post Office Square—Suite 100, (Mail code OEP05-2), Boston, MA 02109-3912, tel. 617-918-1584, fax 617-918-0668, email
In the Final Rules Section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision submitted by the State of Rhode Island. This revision removes Air Pollution Control (APC) Regulation 41, entitled “NO
Written comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2016-0092 at
Alison C. Simcox, Air Quality Planning Unit, Air Programs Branch (Mail Code OEP05-02), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 1, 5 Post Office Square, Suite 100, Boston, Massachusetts 02109-3912; (617) 918-1684;
In the Final Rules section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve State Implementation Plan (SIP) revisions submitted by the State of Connecticut. The revisions establish reasonably available control technology (RACT) for two facilities that emit volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the state. Additionally, we are also proposing to approve Connecticut's request to withdraw seven previously-approved single source orders from the SIP.
Written comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R01-OAR-2016-0648 at
Bob McConnell, Environmental Engineer, Air Quality Planning Unit, Air Programs
In the Final Rules Section of this
For additional information, see the direct final rule which is located in the Rules Section of this
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to approve revisions to the Eastern Kern Air Pollution Control District (EKAPCD) and Imperial County Air Pollution Control District (ICAPCD) portions of the California State Implementation Plan (SIP). These revisions were submitted by the California Air Resources Board (CARB) in response to EPA's May 22, 2015 finding of substantial inadequacy and SIP call for certain provisions in the SIP related to affirmative defenses applicable to excess emissions during startup, shutdown, and malfunction (SSM) events. EPA is proposing approval of the SIP revisions because the Agency has determined that they are in accordance with the requirements for SIP provisions under the Clean Air Act (CAA or the Act).
Any comments must arrive by May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R09-OAR-2017-0096 at
Christine Vineyard, EPA Region IX, (415) 947-4125, [email protected].
Throughout this document, “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the EPA.
The EPA is proposing to approve revisions to the California SIP. The revisions will remove from the EKAPCD and ICAPCD portions of the California SIP provisions related to affirmative defenses that sources could assert in the event of enforcement actions for violations of SIP requirements during SSM events. Removal of the affirmative defense provisions from the SIP will make the EKAPCD and ICAPCD portions of the SIP consistent with CAA requirements with respect to this issue. EKAPCD and ICAPCD are retaining the affirmative defenses solely for state law purposes, outside of the EPA approved SIP. Removal of the affirmative defenses from the SIP is also consistent with the EPA policy for exclusion of “state law only” provisions from SIPs, and will serve to minimize any potential confusion about the inapplicability of the affirmative defense provisions in federal court enforcement actions. Table 1 lists the rules addressed by this proposal with the dates on which each rule was rescinded by the EKAPCD or ICAPCD and submitted by CARB in response to EPA's final action entitled “State Implementation Plans: Response to Petition for Rulemaking; Restatement and Update of EPA's SSM Policy Applicable to SIPs; Findings of Substantial Inadequacy; and SIP Calls To Amend Provisions Applying to Excess Emissions During Periods of Startup, Shutdown and Malfunction,” 80 FR 33839 (June 12, 2015), hereafter referred to as the “SSM SIP Action.”
On January 12, 2017, the EPA determined that the submittal for EKAPCD Rule 111 met the completeness criteria in 40 CFR part 51 Appendix V, and on September 28, 2016, the submittal for ICAPCD Rule 111 was deemed complete by operation of law under 40 CFR part 51 Appendix V. The completeness criteria must be met before formal EPA review of the submittals for approvability in accordance with applicable CAA requirements.
On June 12, 2015, pursuant to CAA section 110(k)(5), the EPA published the final SSM SIP Action finding that certain SIP provisions in 36 states were substantially inadequate to meet CAA requirements and called on those states to submit SIP revisions to address those inadequacies. 80 FR 33839. As required by the CAA, the EPA established a reasonable deadline (not to exceed 18 months) by which the affected states must submit such SIP revisions. In accordance with the SSM SIP Action, states were required to submit corrective revisions to their SIPs by November 22, 2016. The EPA's reasoning, legal authority, and responsibility under the CAA for issuing the SIP call to California can be found in the SSM SIP Action.
In the SSM SIP Action, the EPA determined that EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 include elements of an affirmative defense for excess emissions during malfunctions. Specifically, EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 contain affirmative defense provisions that preclude enforcement for excess emissions that would otherwise constitute a violation of the applicable SIP emission limitations. The EPA concluded that EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 operate to alter or affect the jurisdiction of federal courts in the event of an enforcement action, contrary to the enforcement structure of the CAA in section 113 and section 304. See 80 FR 33972 (June 12, 2015).
On March 28, 2016 and December 6, 2016, ICAPCD and EKAPCD, respectively, made submittals in response to the SSM SIP Action. As noted above, the EPA found these submittals complete on September 28, 2016 and January 12, 2017, respectively. In the submittals, EKAPCD and ICAPCD requested that EPA revise the California SIP by removing EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 in their entirety from the California SIP. This approach is consistent with the EPA's interpretation of CAA requirements for SIP provisions.
In the SSM SIP Action, the EPA made a finding of substantial inadequacy and issued a SIP call with respect to EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 pursuant to CAA section 110(k)(5). In response, CARB submitted SIP revisions requesting the EPA to remove EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 from the California SIP in their entirety. Affirmative defense provisions like these are inconsistent with CAA requirements and removal of these provisions would strengthen the SIP. This action, if finalized, would remove the affirmative defense provisions from the EKAPCD and ICAPCD portions of the EPA-approved SIP for California. The EPA is proposing to find that these revisions are consistent with CAA requirements and that they adequately address the specific SIP deficiencies that the EPA identified in the SSM SIP Action with respect to the EKAPCD and ICAPCD portions of the California SIP.
The EPA is proposing to approve the California SIP revisions removing EKAPCD Rule 111 and ICAPCD Rule 111 from the EKAPCD and ICAPCD portions of the California SIP. The EPA is proposing approval of the SIP revisions because the Agency has determined that they are in accordance with the requirements for SIP provisions under the CAA. The EPA is not reopening the SSM SIP Action in this action and is taking comment only on whether this SIP revision is consistent with CAA requirements and whether it addresses the “substantial inadequacy” of the specific California SIP provisions identified in the SSM SIP Action.
Under the Clean Air Act, the Administrator is required to approve SIP submissions that comply with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, the EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the Clean Air Act. Accordingly, this proposed action merely proposes to approve state requests as meeting federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this proposed action:
• Is not a “significant regulatory action” subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993);
• does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the Clean Air Act; and
• does not provide the EPA with the discretionary authority to address disproportionate human health or environmental effects with practical, appropriate, and legally permissible methods under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Carbon monoxide, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency.
Proposed rule.
On August 26, 2016, the Commonwealth of Kentucky, through the Kentucky Energy and Environment Cabinet, Division for Air Quality (DAQ), submitted a request for the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to redesignate the Kentucky portion of the tri-state Cincinnati-Hamilton, Ohio-Kentucky-Indiana 2008 8-hour ozone nonattainment area (hereinafter referred to as the “Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area” or “Area”) to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and to approve the portions of the State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision containing a maintenance plan and base year emissions inventory for the Area. EPA is proposing to approve the Commonwealth's base year emissions inventory for the Kentucky portion of the Area; to approve the Commonwealth's plan for maintaining attainment of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in the Area, including motor vehicle emission budgets (MVEBs) for nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOC) for the years 2020 and 2030 for the Kentucky portion of the Area; and to redesignate the Kentucky portion of the Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. Through separate actions, EPA has approved the redesignation request and maintenance plan for the Ohio portion of the Area and has proposed to approve the redesignation request and maintenance plan for the Indiana portion of the Area.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R04-OAR-2016-0601 at
Richard Wong, Air Regulatory Management Section, Air Planning and Implementation Branch, Air, Pesticides and Toxics Management Division, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Region 4, 61 Forsyth Street SW., Atlanta, Georgia 30303-8960. Richard Wong may be reached by phone at (404) 562-8726 or via electronic mail at
EPA is proposing to take the following three separate, but related, actions: (1) To approve the base year emissions inventory for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS for the Kentucky portion of the Area and incorporate it into the Kentucky SIP; (2) to approve Kentucky's plan for maintaining the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS (maintenance plan), including the associated MVEBs for the Kentucky portion of the Area, and incorporate it into the SIP; and (3) to redesignate the Kentucky portion of the Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. The Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area is composed of portions of Boone, Campbell, and Kenton Counties in Kentucky; Butler, Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren Counties in Ohio; and a portion of Dearborn County in Indiana. These proposed actions are summarized below and described in greater detail throughout this notice of proposed rulemaking.
Based on the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS nonattainment designation for the Area, Kentucky was required to develop a nonattainment SIP revision addressing certain CAA requirements. Among other things, the Commonwealth was required to submit a SIP revision addressing base year emissions inventory requirements pursuant to CAA section 182(a)(1) for its portion of the Area. EPA is proposing to approve Kentucky's 2011 base year inventory as satisfying section 182(a)(1).
EPA is also proposing to approve Kentucky's maintenance plan for its portion of the Area as meeting the requirements of section 175A (such approval being one of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act) criteria for redesignation to attainment status). The maintenance plan is designed to keep the Area in attainment of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS through 2030. The maintenance plan includes 2020 and 2030 MVEBs for NOx and VOC for the Kentucky portion of the Area for transportation conformity purposes. EPA is proposing to approve these MVEBs and incorporate them into the Kentucky SIP.
EPA also proposes to determine that the Kentucky portion of the Area has met the requirements for redesignation under section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA. Accordingly, in this action, EPA is proposing to approve a request to change the legal designation of the portions of Boone, Campbell, and Kenton Counties within the Kentucky portion of the Area, as found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
EPA is also notifying the public of the status of EPA's adequacy process for the MVEBs for the Kentucky portion of the Area. The Adequacy comment period began on December 6, 2016, with EPA's posting of the availability of Kentucky's submissions on EPA's Adequacy Web site (
In summary, today's notice of proposed rulemaking is in response to Kentucky's August 26, 2016, redesignation request and associated SIP submission that address the specific issues summarized above and the necessary elements described in section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA for redesignation of the Kentucky portion of the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
On March 12, 2008, EPA revised both the primary and secondary NAAQS for ozone to a level of 0.075 parts per million (ppm) to provide increased protection of public health and the environment.
Effective July 20, 2012, EPA designated any area that was violating the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS based on the three most recent years (2008-2010) of air monitoring data as a nonattainment area.
The CAA provides the requirements for redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment. Specifically, section 107(d)(3)(E) of the CAA allows for redesignation providing that: (1) The Administrator determines that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS; (2) the Administrator has fully approved the applicable implementation plan for the area under section 110(k); (3) the Administrator determines that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the applicable SIP and applicable federal air pollutant control regulations and other permanent and enforceable reductions; (4) the Administrator has fully approved a maintenance plan for the area as meeting the requirements of section 175A; and (5) the state containing such area has met all requirements applicable to the area for purposes of redesignation under section 110 and part D of the CAA.
On April 16, 1992, EPA provided guidance on redesignation in the General Preamble for the Implementation of title I of the CAA Amendments of 1990 (57 FR 13498), and supplemented this guidance on April 28, 1992 (57 FR 18070). EPA has provided further guidance on processing redesignation requests in the following documents:
1. “Ozone and Carbon Monoxide Design Value Calculations,” Memorandum from Bill Laxton, Director, Technical Support Division, June 18, 1990;
2. “Maintenance Plans for Redesignation of Ozone and Carbon Monoxide Nonattainment Areas,” Memorandum from G. T. Helms, Chief, Ozone/Carbon Monoxide Programs Branch, April 30, 1992;
3. “Contingency Measures for Ozone and Carbon Monoxide (CO) Redesignations,” Memorandum from G. T. Helms, Chief, Ozone/Carbon Monoxide Programs Branch, June 1, 1992;
4. “Procedures for Processing Requests to Redesignate Areas to Attainment,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, September 4, 1992 (hereinafter referred to as the “Calcagni Memorandum”);
5. “State Implementation Plan (SIP) Actions Submitted in Response to Clean Air Act (CAA) Deadlines,” Memorandum from John Calcagni, Director, Air Quality Management Division, October 28, 1992;
6. “Technical Support Documents (TSDs) for Redesignation of Ozone and Carbon Monoxide (CO) Nonattainment Areas,” Memorandum from G. T. Helms, Chief, Ozone/Carbon Monoxide Programs Branch, August 17, 1993;
7. “State Implementation Plan (SIP) Requirements for Areas Submitting Requests for Redesignation to Attainment of the Ozone and Carbon Monoxide (CO) National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) On or After November 15, 1992,” Memorandum from Michael H. Shapiro, Acting Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, September 17, 1993;
8. “Use of Actual Emissions in Maintenance Demonstrations for Ozone and CO Nonattainment Areas,” Memorandum from D. Kent Berry, Acting Director, Air Quality Management Division, November 30, 1993;
9. “Part D New Source Review (Part D NSR) Requirements for Areas Requesting Redesignation to Attainment,” Memorandum from Mary D. Nichols, Assistant Administrator for Air and Radiation, October 14, 1994 (hereinafter referred to as the “Nichols Memorandum”); and
10. “Reasonable Further Progress, Attainment Demonstration, and Related Requirements for Ozone Nonattainment Areas Meeting the Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standard,” Memorandum from John S. Seitz, Director, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, May 10, 1995.
On August 26, 2016, Kentucky requested that EPA redesignate the Kentucky portion of the Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS and approve the associated SIP revision submitted on the same date containing the base year inventory and the maintenance plan for the Kentucky portion of the Area. As mentioned above, on May 4, 2016 (81 FR 26697), EPA determined that the entire Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area attained the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS by the attainment date based on 2012-2014 data. On December 16, 2016 (81 FR 91035), in redesignating the Ohio portion of the Area to attainment, EPA determined that the entire Area continued to attain the standard based on 2013-2015 data.
As stated above, in accordance with the CAA, EPA proposes to: (1) Approve the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS base year emissions inventory for the
Section 182(a)(1) of the CAA requires states to submit a comprehensive, accurate, and current inventory of actual emissions from all sources of the relevant pollutant or pollutants in each ozone nonattainment area. The section 182(a)(1) base year emissions inventory is defined in the SIP Requirements Rule
Kentucky selected 2011 as the base year for the CAA section 182(a)(1) emissions inventory which is the year corresponding with the first triennial inventory under 40 CFR part 51, subpart A. The emissions inventory is based on data developed and submitted by DAQ to EPA's 2011 National Emissions Inventory (NEI), and it contains data elements consistent with the detail required by 40 CFR part 51, subpart A.
Kentucky's emissions inventory for its portion of the Area provides 2011 anthropogenic emissions data for NO
NO
Point sources are large, stationary, identifiable sources of emissions that release pollutants into the atmosphere. The inventory contains actual point source emissions data for facilities located within the nonattainment boundary for the Kentucky portion of the Area based on the Kentucky Emissions Inventory database.
Area sources are small emission stationary sources which, due to their large number, collectively have significant emissions (
On-road mobile sources include vehicles used on roads for transportation of passengers or freight. Kentucky developed its on-road emissions inventory using EPA's Motor
Non-road mobile sources include vehicles, engines, and equipment used for construction, agriculture, recreation, and other purposes that do not use roadways (
For the reasons discussed above, EPA proposes to determine that Kentucky's emissions inventory meets the requirements under CAA section 182(a)(1) and the SIP Requirements Rule for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. Approval of Kentucky's redesignation request is contingent upon EPA's final approval of the base year emissions inventory for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
In accordance with the CAA, EPA proposes to approve the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS maintenance plan, including the associated MVEBs, and incorporate it into the Kentucky SIP and to redesignate the Kentucky portion of the Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. The five redesignation criteria provided under the CAA section 107(d)(3)(E) are discussed in greater detail for the Area in the following paragraphs in this section.
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the area has attained the applicable NAAQS.
On May 4, 2016 (81 FR 26697), EPA determined that the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area attained the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS by the attainment date. In that action, EPA reviewed complete, quality-assured, and certified monitoring data from monitoring stations in the Area for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS for 2012 through 2014 and determined that the design values for each monitor in the Area are less than the standard of 0.075 ppm for that time period. Further, on December 16, 2016, in association with the redesignation of the Ohio portion of the Area, EPA determined that the Area continued to attain the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS based on complete, quality-assured, and certified monitoring data from 2013 through 2015.
For this proposed action, EPA has reviewed 2016 preliminary monitoring data for the Area and proposes to find that the preliminary data does not indicate a violation of the NAAQS.
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the state has met all applicable requirements under section 110 and part D of title I of the CAA (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(v)) and that the state has a fully approved SIP under section 110(k) for the area (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii)). EPA proposes to find that Kentucky has met all applicable SIP requirements for the Kentucky portion of the Area under section 110 of the CAA (general SIP requirements) for purposes of redesignation. Additionally, EPA proposes to find that, if EPA approves the base year emissions inventory, the Kentucky SIP satisfies the criterion that it meets applicable SIP requirements for purposes of redesignation under part D of title I of the CAA in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(v) and the SIP is fully approved with respect to all requirements applicable for purposes of redesignation in accordance with section 107(d)(3)(E)(ii). In making these proposed determinations, EPA ascertained which requirements are applicable to the Area and, if applicable, that they are fully approved under section 110(k). SIPs must be fully approved only with respect to requirements that were applicable prior to submittal of the complete redesignation request.
Section 110(a)(2)(D) requires that SIPs contain certain measures to prevent sources in a state from significantly contributing to air quality problems in another state. To implement this provision, EPA has required certain states to establish programs to address the interstate transport of air pollutants. The section 110(a)(2)(D) requirements for a state are not linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classification in that state. EPA believes that the requirements linked with a particular nonattainment area's designation and classifications are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. The transport SIP submittal requirements, where applicable, continue to apply to a state regardless of the designation of any one particular area in the state. Thus, EPA does not believe that the CAA's interstate transport requirements should be construed to be applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation.
In addition, EPA believes that other section 110(a)(2) elements that are neither connected with nonattainment plan submissions nor linked with an area's attainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. The area will still be subject to these requirements after the area is redesignated. The section 110(a)(2) and part D requirements which are linked with a particular area's designation and classification are the relevant measures to evaluate in reviewing a redesignation request. This approach is consistent with EPA's existing policy on applicability (
Section 172(c)(4) requires the identification and quantification of allowable emissions for major new and modified stationary sources in a nonattainment area, and section 172(c)(5) requires permits for the construction and operation of new and modified major stationary sources in the area. EPA has determined that, since PSD requirements will apply after redesignation, areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a NSR program be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without part D NSR. A more detailed rationale for this view is described in the Nichols Memorandum.
Under section 182(a)(2)(A), states with ozone nonattainment areas that were designated prior to the enactment of the 1990 CAA amendments were required to submit, within six months of classification, all rules and corrections to existing VOC RACT rules that were required under section 172(b)(3) of the CAA (and related guidance) prior to the 1990 CAA amendments. The Area is not subject to the section 182(a)(2) RACT “fix up” because the Area was designated as nonattainment after the enactment of the 1990 CAA amendments. Furthermore, the Commonwealth complied with this requirement under the 1-hour ozone NAAQS.
Section 182(a)(2)(B) requires each state with a marginal ozone nonattainment area that implemented, or was required to implement, an inspection and maintenance (I/M) program prior to the 1990 CAA amendments to submit a SIP revision providing for an I/M program no less stringent than that required prior to the 1990 amendments or already in the SIP at the time of the amendments, whichever is more stringent. The Kentucky portion of the Area is not subject to the section 182(a)(2)(B) requirement because it was designated as nonattainment after the enactment of the 1990 CAA amendments and did not have an I/M program in place prior to those amendments.
Regarding the permitting and offset requirements of section 182(a)(2)(C) and section 182(a)(4), EPA has determined that areas being redesignated need not comply with the requirement that a NSR program be approved prior to redesignation, provided that the area demonstrates maintenance of the NAAQS without part D NSR, because PSD requirements will apply after redesignation. As discussed above, Kentucky has a PSD program and has demonstrated that the Area will be able to maintain the standard without part D NSR in effect. Therefore, EPA concludes that the Commonwealth need not have a fully approved part D NSR program prior to approval of the redesignation request.
Section 182(a)(3) requires states to submit periodic inventories and emissions statements. Section 182(a)(3)(A) requires states to submit a periodic inventory every three years. As discussed below in the section of this notice titled Criteria (4)(e),
EPA interprets the conformity SIP requirements
EPA has fully approved the Commonwealth's SIP for the Kentucky portion of the Area under section 110(k) of the CAA for all requirements applicable for purposes of redesignation with the exception of the 182(a)(1) emissions inventory. In today's proposed action, EPA is proposing to approve the Commonwealth's emissions inventory for the Kentucky portion of the Area and incorporate it into the Kentucky SIP.
EPA may rely on prior SIP approvals in approving a redesignation request (
As discussed above, EPA believes that the section 110 elements that are neither connected with nonattainment plan submissions nor linked to an area's nonattainment status are not applicable requirements for purposes of redesignation. With the exception of the section 182(a)(1) emissions inventory requirement, which is addressed in this proposal, EPA has approved all part D requirements applicable for purposes of this proposed redesignation.
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the air quality improvement in the area is due to permanent and enforceable reductions in emissions resulting from implementation of the SIP, applicable federal air pollution control regulations, and other permanent and enforceable reductions.
An analysis performed by the Lake Michigan Air Directors Consortium (LADCO) supports the Commonwealth's conclusion that the improvement in air quality is due to permanent and enforceable emission reductions and not favorable meteorology.
In addition, EPA evaluated temperatures and precipitation during the 2012-2015 ozone seasons for comparison to long-term climatological normals. Table 3, below, provides temperature and precipitation data for the Area for the 2012-2015 period. This data was obtained from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration's National Centers for Environmental Information (NCEI). Specifically, Table 3 provides overall average and average maximum ozone season temperatures and total ozone season precipitation; deviation from the mean 1948-2000 base period ozone season temperature and precipitation (termed the “anomaly”); and the rank of each year from the 69-year (1948-2016) period. A rank of 69 is given to the hottest or wettest year.
The data in Table 3 indicates that the 2012 ozone season had maximum daily temperatures well above normal while 2013-2015 had maximum daily temperatures near normal (within a degree of normal). Average maximum temperatures during the 2012 ozone season were the third warmest from the period of record (1948-2016). Overall average ozone season temperatures during the 2012-2015 period ranged from 0.3 to 2.7 degrees above normal. Total precipitation during the 2012 ozone season was below normal, the 2013 ozone season had above normal precipitation, and the 2014 and 2015 ozone seasons had near normal precipitation (within an inch of normal). Therefore, the 2012-2015 period does not appear to have been abnormally conducive to reduced ozone formation and further supports the conclusion that the improvement in air quality was not due to unusually favorable meteorology.
Federal measures enacted in recent years have resulted in permanent emission reductions in the Area. The federal measures that have been implemented include the following:
Numerous parties filed petitions for review of CSAPR, and on August 21, 2012, the D.C. Circuit vacated and remanded CSAPR to EPA.
On September 17, 2016, EPA finalized an update to the CSAPR ozone season program.
While the reduction in NO
EPA proposes to find that the improvements in air quality in the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area are due to real, permanent and enforceable reductions in NO
For redesignating a nonattainment area to attainment, the CAA requires EPA to determine that the area has a fully approved maintenance plan pursuant to section 175A of the CAA (CAA section 107(d)(3)(E)(iv)). In conjunction with its request to redesignate the Kentucky portion of the Area to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS, Kentucky submitted a SIP revision to provide for the maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS for at least 10 years after the effective date of redesignation to attainment. EPA has made the preliminary determination that this maintenance plan meets the requirements for approval under section 175A of the CAA.
Section 175A of the CAA sets forth the elements of a maintenance plan for areas seeking redesignation from nonattainment to attainment. Under section 175A, the plan must demonstrate continued attainment of the applicable NAAQS for at least 10 years after the Administrator approves a redesignation to attainment. Eight years after the redesignation, the state must submit a revised maintenance plan demonstrating that attainment will continue to be maintained for the 10 years following the initial 10-year period. To address the possibility of future NAAQS violations, the maintenance plan must contain contingency measures as EPA deems necessary to assure prompt correction of any future 2008 8-hour ozone violations. The Calcagni Memorandum provides further guidance on the content of a maintenance plan, explaining that a maintenance plan should address five requirements: The attainment emissions inventory, maintenance demonstration, monitoring, verification of continued attainment, and a contingency plan. As discussed more fully below, EPA has preliminarily determined that Kentucky's maintenance plan includes all the necessary components and is thus proposing to approve it as a revision to the Kentucky SIP.
As discussed above, EPA has determined that the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area has attained the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS based on quality-assured monitoring data for the 3-year period from 2012-2014 and is continuing to attain the standard based on 2013-2015 data.
The emissions inventory is composed of four major types of sources: Point, area, on-road mobile, and non-road mobile.
For area sources, emissions are estimated by multiplying an emission factor by some known indicator of collective activity such as production, number of employees, or population. For each projected year's inventory, area source emissions are changed by population growth, projected production growth, or estimated employment growth.
Non-road mobile sources include vehicles, engines, and equipment used for construction, agriculture, recreation, and other purposes that do not use roadways (
For on-road mobile sources, EPA's MOVES2014 mobile model was run to generate emissions. The MOVES2014 model includes the road class vehicle miles traveled (VMT) as an input file and can directly output the estimated emissions. For each projected year's inventory, the on-road mobile sources emissions are calculated by running the MOVES mobile model for the future year with the projected VMT to generate emissions that take into consideration expected federal tailpipe standards, fleet turnover, and new fuels.
The 2014 NO
The maintenance plan associated with the redesignation request includes a maintenance demonstration that:
(i) Shows compliance with and maintenance of the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS by providing information to support the demonstration that current and future emissions of NO
(ii) Uses 2014 as the attainment year and includes future emissions inventory projections for 2017, 2020, 2025, and 2030.
(iii) Identifies an “out year” at least 10 years after the time necessary for EPA to review and approve the maintenance plan. Per 40 CFR part 93, NO
(iv) Provides projected emissions inventories for the Kentucky portion of the Area, as shown in Tables 4 and 5, below.
Tables 4 and 5 summarize the 2014 and future projected emissions of NO
As discussed in section VI of this proposed rulemaking, a safety margin is the difference between the attainment level of emissions (from all sources) and the projected level of emissions (from all sources) in the maintenance plan. The attainment level of emissions is the level of emissions during one of the years in which the Area met the NAAQS. Kentucky selected 2014 as the attainment emissions inventory year for the Kentucky portion of the Area. Kentucky calculated safety margins in its submittal for years 2020 and 2030.
The Commonwealth has decided to allocate 15 percent of the available safety margin to the 2020 and 2030 MVEBs to allow for unanticipated growth in VMT, changes and uncertainty in vehicle mix assumptions, etc., that will influence the emission estimations. The MVEBs and safety margins are discussed further in Section VI of this proposed rulemaking.
There are eleven monitors measuring ozone in the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area, of which two are located in the Kentucky portion of the Area. In its maintenance plan, Kentucky has committed to continue operation of the monitors in the Kentucky portion of the Area in compliance with 40 CFR part 58 and has thus addressed the requirement for monitoring. EPA approved Kentucky's monitoring plan on October 25, 2016.
The Commonwealth of Kentucky, through DAQ, has the legal authority to enforce and implement the maintenance plan for the Kentucky portion of the Area. This includes the authority to adopt, implement, and enforce any subsequent emissions control contingency measures determined to be necessary to correct future ozone attainment problems. The Commonwealth has committed to track the progress of the maintenance plan by updating its emissions inventory at least once every three years and reviewing the updated emissions inventories for the Area using the latest emissions factors, models, and methodologies.
Under the AERR, DAQ is required to develop a comprehensive, annual, statewide emissions inventory every three years that is due twelve to eighteen months after the completion of the inventory year. The AERR inventory years match the base year and final year of the inventory for the maintenance plan, and are within one or two years of the interim inventory years of the maintenance plan. DAQ commits to compare the AERR inventories to the 2011 base year and 2030 projected maintenance year inventories to assess emissions trends, as necessary, and to assure continued compliance with the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in the Area.
Section 175A of the CAA requires that a maintenance plan include such contingency measures as EPA deems necessary to assure that the state will promptly correct a violation of the NAAQS that occurs after redesignation. The maintenance plan should identify the contingency measures to be adopted, a schedule and procedure for adoption and implementation, and a time limit for action by the state. A state should also identify specific indicators to be used to determine when the contingency measures need to be implemented. The maintenance plan must include a requirement that a state will implement all measures with respect to control of the pollutant that were contained in the SIP before redesignation of the area to attainment in accordance with section 175A(d).
As required by section 175A of the CAA, Kentucky has adopted a contingency plan to address possible future 8-hour ozone air quality problems. In the event that a measured value of the fourth highest maximum is 0.079 ppm or greater in any portion of the Area in a single ozone season, or if periodic emissions inventory updates reveal excessive or unanticipated growth greater than ten percent in ozone precursor emissions in the Area, the Commonwealth will conduct a study to determine whether the ozone value indicates a trend toward higher ozone values or whether the trend, if any, is likely to continue, and if so, the control measures necessary to reverse the trend. Implementation of necessary controls will take place as expeditiously as practicable and no later than 12 months from the conclusion of the most recent ozone season.
In the event that a two-year average of the fourth highest maximum values at a monitor in the Area is 0.076 ppm or greater and is not due to exceptional event, malfunction, or noncompliance with a permit condition or rule requirement, Kentucky, along with the metropolitan planning organization or regional council of governments, will determine additional control measures needed to assure future attainment of the ozone NAAQS. Measures that can be implemented in a short time will be selected in order to be in place within 18 months from the close of the ozone season.
In the event of a monitored violation of the 1997 8-hour ozone NAAQS in the Area, Kentucky commits to adopt one or more of the following contingency measures to re-attain the standard:
• Implementation of a program to require additional emissions reductions on stationary sources;
• Implementation of fuel programs, including incentives for alternative fuels;
• Restriction of certain roads or lanes to, or construction of such roads or lanes for use by, passenger buses or high-occupancy vehicles;
• Trip-reduction ordinances;
• Employer-based transportation management plans, including incentives;
• Programs to limit or restrict vehicle use in downtown areas, or other areas of emissions concentration, particularly during periods of peak use;
• Programs for new construction and major reconstructions of paths or tracks for use by pedestrians or by non-motorized vehicles when economically feasible and in the public interest.
Kentucky may implement other contingency measures if new control programs should be developed and deemed more advantageous for the Area. Prior to the implementation of any contingency measure not listed, the Commonwealth will solicit input from all interested and affected parties in the Area. Kentucky will adopt and implement contingency measures as quickly as possible, and no later than 18 months after the monitored violation. The Commonwealth will not implement a contingency measure without approval from EPA.
EPA preliminarily concludes that the maintenance plan adequately addresses the five basic components of a maintenance plan: The attainment emissions inventory, maintenance demonstration, monitoring, verification of continued attainment, and a contingency plan. Therefore, EPA proposes that the maintenance plan SIP revision submitted by Kentucky for the Commonwealth's portion of the Area meets the requirements of section 175A of the CAA and is approvable.
Under section 176(c) of the CAA, new transportation plans, programs, and projects, such as the construction of new highways, must “conform” to (
Under the CAA, states are required to submit, at various times, control strategy SIPs and maintenance plans for nonattainment areas. These control strategy SIPs (including RFP and attainment demonstration requirements) and maintenance plans create MVEBs (or in this case sub-area MVEBs) for criteria pollutants and/or their precursors to address pollution from cars and trucks. Per 40 CFR part 93, a MVEB must be established for the last year of the maintenance plan. A state may adopt MVEBs for other years as well. The MVEB is the portion of the total allowable emissions in the maintenance demonstration that is allocated to highway and transit vehicle use and emissions.
As part of the interagency consultation process on setting MVEBs, DAQ held discussions with interagency partners to determine what years to set MVEBs for the Kentucky portion of the Area. As noted above, a maintenance plan must establish MVEBs for the last year of the maintenance plan (in this case, 2030).
Kentucky chose to allocate 15 percent of the available safety margin to the NO
Through this rulemaking, EPA is proposing to approve the MVEBs for NO
When reviewing submitted “control strategy” SIPs or maintenance plans containing MVEBs, EPA may affirmatively find the MVEB contained therein adequate for use in determining transportation conformity. Once EPA affirmatively finds the submitted MVEB is adequate for transportation conformity purposes, that MVEB must be used by state and federal agencies in determining whether proposed transportation projects conform to the SIP as required by section 176(c) of the CAA.
EPA's substantive criteria for determining adequacy of a MVEB are set out in 40 CFR 93.118(e)(4). The process for determining adequacy consists of three basic steps: Public notification of a SIP submission, a public comment period, and EPA's adequacy determination. This process for determining the adequacy of submitted MVEBs for transportation conformity purposes was initially outlined in EPA's May 14, 1999, guidance, “Conformity Guidance on Implementation of March 2, 1999, Conformity Court Decision.” EPA adopted regulations to codify the adequacy process in the Transportation Conformity Rule Amendments for the “New 8-Hour Ozone and PM
As discussed earlier, Kentucky's maintenance plan includes NO
EPA intends to make its determination on the adequacy of the 2020 and 2030 MVEBs for the Kentucky portion of the Area for transportation conformity purposes in the near future by completing the adequacy process that was started on December 6, 2016. If EPA finds the 2020 and 2030 MVEBs adequate or approves them, the new MVEBs for NO
EPA's proposed actions establish the basis upon which EPA may take final action on the issues being proposed for approval today. Approval of Kentucky's redesignation request would change the legal designation of the portions of Boone, Campbell, and Kenton Counties that are within the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area, as found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS. Approval of Kentucky's associated SIP revision would also incorporate a plan for maintaining the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS in the Area through 2030 and a section 182(a)(1) base year emissions inventory for the Area into the Kentucky SIP. The maintenance plan establishes NO
EPA is proposing to: (1) Approve Kentucky's 2011 base year emissions inventory for the Kentucky portion of the Area as meeting the requirements of 182(a)(1) and incorporate this inventory into the SIP; (2) approve the maintenance plan for the Kentucky portion of the Area, including the NO
If finalized, approval of the redesignation request would change the official designation of the portions of Boone, Campbell, and Kenton Counties that are within the Cincinnati-Hamilton, OH-KY-IN Area, as found at 40 CFR part 81, from nonattainment to attainment for the 2008 8-hour ozone NAAQS.
Under the CAA, redesignation of an area to attainment and the accompanying approval of a maintenance plan under section 107(d)(3)(E) are actions that affect the status of a geographical area and do not impose any additional regulatory requirements on sources beyond those imposed by state law. A redesignation to attainment does not in and of itself create any new requirements, but rather results in the applicability of requirements contained in the CAA for areas that have been redesignated to attainment. Moreover, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the Act and applicable federal regulations.
• Are not significant regulatory actions subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• do not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• are certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• do not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• do not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• are not economically significant regulatory actions based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• are not significant regulatory actions subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• are not subject to requirements of section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• will not have disproportionate human health or environmental effects under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
The SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000), nor will it impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Volatile organic compounds.
Environmental protection, Air pollution control.
42 U.S.C. 7401
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Proposed rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is proposing to notify the public that it has received negative declarations for commercial and industrial solid waste incineration (CISWI) units within the State of Delaware, the District of Columbia, and the City of Philadelphia in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. These negative declarations certify that CISWI units subject to the requirements of sections 111(d) and 129 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) do not exist within the jurisdictional boundaries of the State of Delaware, the District of Columbia, and the City of Philadelphia in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. EPA is accepting the negative declarations in accordance with the requirements of the CAA. In the Final Rules section of this
Comments must be received in writing by May 31, 2017.
Submit your comments, identified by Docket ID No. EPA-R03-OAR-2016-0081 at
Mary Cate Opila, (215) 814-2041, or by email at
For further information regarding the negative declarations for CISWI units within the State of Delaware, the District of Columbia, and the City of Philadelphia in the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, please see the information provided in the direct final action, with the same title, that is located in the “Rules and Regulations” section of this
Environmental protection, Administrative practice and procedure, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Commercial and industrial solid waste incineration units.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice; Reopening of comment periods.
In the
Comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0387 and by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0231 must be received on or before May 19, 2017.
Follow the detailed instructions provided under
This document reopens public comment periods established in the two proposed rules issued in the
Even though EPA received requests for a lengthier extension of the comment periods, the Agency has concluded that a 30-day reopening of the comment period is sufficient. EPA has already provided for a substantial comment period, now totaling 90 days, for each of the two proposals. EPA has already extended the original 60-day comment period for the proposed rule in TCE in vapor degreasing for 30 days, from March 20, 2017, to April 19, 2017 (82 FR 10732, February 15, 2017). This notice provides the second extension of the comment period for that proposed rule. EPA proposed the rule on methylene chloride and NMP in paint and coating removal with a 90-day comment period, ending on April 19, 2017. Additionally, much of the technical bases for the proposals has been available to the public since the risk assessments for methylene chloride and TCE were published in 2014 and the risk assessment for NMP was published in 2015, and the commenters' expressed need for further extension was general in nature (
To submit comments, or access a docket, please follow the detailed instructions provided under
Environmental protection, Chemicals, Export notification, Hazardous substances, Import certification, Methylene Chloride, N-Methylpyrrolidone, Trichloroethylene, Recordkeeping.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Advance notice of proposed rulemaking; withdrawal.
FMCSA withdraws its April 27, 2016, advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) concerning the establishment of requirements for States to implement annual inspection programs for commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) designed or used to transport passengers (passenger-carrying CMVs). FMCSA sought information from all interested parties that would enable the Agency to assess the risks associated with improperly maintained or inspected passenger-carrying CMVs. The ANPRM also sought public comments concerning the effectiveness of the current FMCSA annual inspection standards, and data on the potential costs and benefits of a Federal requirement for each State to implement a mandatory inspection program. FMCSA inquired about how the Agency might incentivize States to adopt such programs. After reviewing all the public comments, and in consideration of the comments provided by individuals attending the three public listening sessions held in 2015, FMCSA has determined there is not enough data and information available to support moving forward with a rulemaking action.
The ANPRM “State Inspection Programs for Passenger-Carrier Vehicles,” published on April 27, 2016 (81 FR 24769), is withdrawn as of May 1, 2017.
Ms. Loretta Bitner, Chief, Commercial Passenger Carrier Safety Division at 202-385-2428, or via email at
In accordance with § 32710 of the Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) (Pub. L. 112-141, 126 Stat. 405, 815), FMCSA published an ANPRM in the
FMCSA requested information from commercial passenger carriers and other stakeholders in order to consider proposing a rule that would require the States to establish annual inspection programs for passenger-carrying CMVs. The requested information was necessary to assist FMCSA in quantifying the economic benefits and costs of potentially moving forward with establishing an inspection program and in assessing risks associated with improperly maintained or inspected passenger-carrying CMVs. The ANPRM also was intended to provide information on the effectiveness of existing Federal inspection requirements in mitigating risks and ensuring safe and proper operations.
• Existing State Mandatory Vehicle Inspection Programs for Passenger-Carrying CMVs.
• Measuring Effectiveness of Inspection Programs.
• Inspection Facilities and Locations.
• Costs.
• Uniformity of Mandatory Vehicle Inspections Programs.
• Current Federal Standards.
• Federal Authority.
The Agency received 22 public comments, with 10 commenters expressing general opposition to the mandatory State inspection requirement discussed in the ANPRM. Seven commenters supported the establishment of such a requirement; four commenters neither supported nor opposed a possible requirement, and one commenter's issue was out-of-scope. Many commenters indicated that the existing standards for annual inspections prescribed in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) or their own programs were sufficient. Commenters also indicated that current standards are effective at mitigating risk when properly enforced. Several commenters made their support contingent on factors such as uniformity in inspection standards, standardization of inspector training, a self-inspection option, and required reciprocity, whereby States would be required to recognize inspections conducted outside their States.
Several commenters, including State agencies in Michigan, Pennsylvania, and Texas, addressed questions aimed at measuring the effectiveness of inspection programs. However, none of these commenters was able to determine whether the establishment of an inspection program reduced the number of safety violations detected. Michigan's Department of Motor Vehicles indicated it improved its inspection process by educating carriers on the required State inspection criteria in 2013; it has since observed a 10% increase in vehicles passing their initial safety inspection.
Few commenters addressed how FMCSA might incentivize the States to establish mandatory inspection programs. The South Carolina Transport Police noted that a mandate would be a strain on its resources. The Michigan Department of Transportation noted that a program should be subsidized with Federal funding. A representative from Pennsylvania suggested providing additional Federal highway funding to those States with well-defined programs.
FMCSA withdraws the April 2016 ANPRM because the Agency is not aware of data or information that supports the development of a notice of proposed rulemaking to require the States to establish mandatory annual inspection programs for passenger-carrying vehicles.
The Agency held a series public listening sessions
The Agency does not foresee the availability of Federal funding to incentivize the States to adopt such programs under its existing grant programs.
United States African Development Foundation.
Notice of meeting.
The US African Development Foundation (USADF) will hold its quarterly meeting of the Board of Directors to discuss the agency's programs and administration.
The meeting date is Tuesday, May 9, 9:00 a.m. to 12:30 p.m.
The meeting location is USADF, 1400 I St. NW., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20005.
Marie-Cecile Groelsema, 202-233-8883.
Public Law 96-533 (22 U.S.C. 290h).
Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, USDA.
Notice of solicitation for membership.
We are giving notice that the Secretary of Agriculture is soliciting nominations for the National Wildlife Services Advisory Committee.
Consideration will be given to nominations received on or before June 30, 2017.
Nomination packages may be sent by postal mail or commercial delivery to The Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20250, Attn: Secretary's National Wildlife Services Advisory Committee. Nomination packages may also be emailed to
Ms. Carrie Joyce, Designated Federal Officer, WS, APHIS, 4700 River Road Unit 87, Riverdale, MD 20737; (301) 851-3999.
The National Wildlife Services Advisory Committee (the Committee) advises the Secretary of Agriculture on policies, program issues, and research needed to conduct the Wildlife Services program. The Committee also serves as a public forum enabling those affected by the Wildlife Services program to have a voice in the program's policies. The Committee Chairperson and Vice Chairperson shall be elected by the Committee from among its members.
We are soliciting nominations from interested organizations and individuals. An organization may nominate individuals from within or outside of its membership; alternatively, an individual may nominate herself or himself. Nomination packages should include a nomination form along with a cover letter or resume that documents the nominee's experience. Nomination forms are available on the Internet at
The Secretary will select members to obtain the broadest possible representation on the Committee, in accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. App. II) and U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) Regulation 1041-1. Equal opportunity practices, in line with the USDA policies, will be followed in all appointments to the Committee. To ensure that the recommendations of the Committee have taken into account the needs of the diverse groups served by the Department, membership should include, to the extent practicable, individuals with demonstrated ability to represent minorities, women, and persons with disabilities.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Every five years, pursuant to section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”), the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) and the International Trade Commission automatically initiate and conduct a review to determine whether revocation of a countervailing or antidumping duty order or termination of an investigation suspended under section 704 or 734 of the Act would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping or a countervailable subsidy (as the case may be) and of material injury.
The following Sunset Reviews are scheduled for initiation in June 2017 and will appear in that month's Notice of Initiation of Five-Year Sunset Reviews (“Sunset Reviews”).
The Department's procedures for the conduct of Sunset Reviews are set forth in 19 CFR 351.218. The Notice of Initiation of Five-Year (“Sunset”) Reviews provides further information regarding what is required of all parties to participate in Sunset Reviews.
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.103(c), the Department will maintain and make available a service list for these proceedings. To facilitate the timely preparation of the service list(s), it is requested that those seeking recognition as interested parties to a proceeding contact the Department in writing within 10 days of the publication of the Notice of Initiation.
Please note that if the Department receives a Notice of Intent to Participate from a member of the domestic industry within 15 days of the date of initiation, the review will continue. Thereafter, any interested party wishing to participate in the Sunset Review must provide substantive comments in response to the notice of initiation no later than 30 days after the date of initiation.
This notice is not required by statute but is published as a service to the international trading community.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
In accordance with section 751(c) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”), the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) is automatically initiating the five-year reviews (“Sunset Reviews”) of the antidumping and countervailing duty (“AD/CVD”) order(s) listed below. The International Trade Commission (“the Commission”) is publishing concurrently with this notice its notice of
Effective May 1, 2017.
The Department official identified in the
The Department's procedures for the conduct of Sunset Reviews are set forth in its
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.218(c), we are initiating Sunset Reviews of the following antidumping and countervailing duty order(s):
As a courtesy, we are making information related to sunset proceedings, including copies of the pertinent statute and Department's regulations, the Department's schedule for Sunset Reviews, a listing of past revocations and continuations, and current service lists, available to the public on the Department's Web site at the following address: “
This notice serves as a reminder that any party submitting factual information in an AD/CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
On April 10, 2013, the Department modified two regulations related to AD/CVD proceedings: The definition of factual information (19 CFR 351.102(b)(21)), and the time limits for the submission of factual information (19 CFR 351.301).
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.103(d), the Department will maintain and make available a public service list for these proceedings. Parties wishing to participate in any of these five-year reviews must file letters of appearance as discussed at 19 CFR 351.103(d)). To facilitate the timely preparation of the public service list, it is requested that those seeking recognition as interested parties to a proceeding submit an entry of appearance within 10 days of the publication of the Notice of Initiation.
Because deadlines in Sunset Reviews can be very short, we urge interested parties who want access to proprietary information under administrative protective order (“APO”) to file an APO application immediately following publication in the
Domestic interested parties, as defined in section 771(9)(C), (D), (E), (F), and (G) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.102(b), wishing to participate in a Sunset Review must respond not later than 15 days after the date of publication in the
If we receive an order-specific notice of intent to participate from a domestic interested party, the Department's regulations provide that
This notice of initiation is being published in accordance with section 751(c) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.218(c).
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
Brenda E. Waters, Office of AD/CVD Operations, Customs Liaison Unit, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230, telephone: (202) 482-4735.
Each year during the anniversary month of the publication of an antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation, an interested party, as defined in section 771(9) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”), may request, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.213, that the Department of Commerce (“the Department”) conduct an administrative review of that antidumping or countervailing duty order, finding, or suspended investigation.
All deadlines for the submission of comments or actions by the Department discussed below refer to the number of calendar days from the applicable starting date.
In the event the Department limits the number of respondents for individual examination for administrative reviews initiated pursuant to requests made for the orders identified below, the Department intends to select respondents based on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) data for U.S. imports during the period of review. We intend to release the CBP data under Administrative Protective Order (“APO”) to all parties having an APO
In the event the Department decides it is necessary to limit individual examination of respondents and conduct respondent selection under section 777A(c)(2) of the Act:
In general, the Department finds that determinations concerning whether particular companies should be “collapsed” (
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), a party that requests a review may withdraw that request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation of the requested review. The regulation provides that the Department may extend this time if it is reasonable to do so. In order to provide parties additional certainty with respect to when the Department will exercise its discretion to extend this 90-day deadline, interested parties are advised that, with regard to reviews requested on the basis of anniversary months on or after May 2017, the Department does not intend to extend the 90-day deadline unless the requestor demonstrates that an extraordinary circumstance prevented it from submitting a timely withdrawal request. Determinations by the Department to extend the 90-day deadline will be made on a case-by-case basis.
The Department is providing this notice on its Web site, as well as in its “Opportunity to Request Administrative Review” notices, so that interested parties will be aware of the manner in which the Department intends to exercise its discretion in the future.
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.213(b), an interested party as defined by section 771(9) of the Act may request in writing that the Secretary conduct an administrative review. For both antidumping and countervailing duty reviews, the interested party must specify the individual producers or exporters covered by an antidumping finding or an antidumping or countervailing duty order or suspension agreement for which it is requesting a review. In addition, a domestic interested party or an interested party described in section 771(9)(B) of the Act must state why it desires the Secretary to review those particular producers or exporters. If the interested party intends for the Secretary to review sales of merchandise by an exporter (or a producer if that producer also exports merchandise from other suppliers) which was produced in more than one country of origin and each country of origin is subject to a separate order, then the interested party must state specifically, on an order-by-order basis, which exporter(s) the request is intended to cover.
Note that, for any party the Department was unable to locate in prior segments, the Department will not accept a request for an administrative review of that party absent new information as to the party's location. Moreover, if the interested party who files a request for review is unable to locate the producer or exporter for which it requested the review, the interested party must provide an explanation of the attempts it made to locate the producer or exporter at the same time it files its request for review, in order for the Secretary to determine if the interested party's attempts were reasonable, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.303(f)(3)(ii).
As explained in
The Department no longer considers the non-market economy (NME) entity as an exporter conditionally subject to an antidumping duty administrative reviews.
All requests must be filed electronically in Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (“ACCESS”) on Enforcement and Compliance's ACCESS Web site at
The Department will publish in the
For the first administrative review of any order, there will be no assessment of antidumping or countervailing duties on entries of subject merchandise entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption during the relevant provisional-measures “gap” period of the order, if such a gap period is applicable to the period of review.
This notice is not required by statute but is published as a service to the international trading community.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
As a result of this sunset review, the Department of Commerce (“Department”) finds that revocation of the antidumping duty (“AD”) order on furfuryl alcohol from the People's Republic of China (“PRC”) would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of dumping at the dumping margins identified in the “Final Results of Review” section of this notice.
Effective May 1, 2017.
Keith Haynes, AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-5139.
On January 3, 2017, the Department published the notice of initiation of the fourth sunset review of the
The merchandise covered by this order is furfuryl alcohol (C
A complete discussion of all issues raised in this sunset review is provided in the accompanying Issues and Decision Memorandum, which is hereby adopted by this notice.
Pursuant to sections 751(c)(1) and 752(c)(1) and (3) of the Act, the Department determines that revocation of the antidumping duty order on furfuryl alcohol from the PRC would be likely to lead to a continuation or recurrence of dumping, and that the magnitude of the dumping margins likely to prevail would be weighted-average margins up to 50.43 percent.
This notice also serves as the only reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (“APO”) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Timely notification of the return or destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and terms of an APO is a violation which is subject to sanction.
We are issuing and publishing the results and notice in accordance with sections 751(c), 752(c), and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Office of Oceanic and Atmospheric Research (OAR), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice of public meeting.
This notice sets forth the schedule and proposed agenda of a forthcoming meeting of the Advisory Committee for the Sustained National Climate assessment. The members will discuss issues outlined in the section on Matters to be considered.
The meeting is scheduled for May 15, 2017 from 3:00 p.m. to 6:00 p.m. Eastern Standard Time. These times and the agenda topics described below are subject to change. Please refer to the Advisory Committee's Web site:
Conference call. Public access is available at: NOAA, SSMC 3 Room 10817, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD. Members of the public may participate virtually by registering at:
Dr. Cynthia Decker, Designated Federal Officer, SSMC3, Room 11230, 1315 East-West Hwy., Silver Spring, MD 20910; Email:
The Advisory Committee for the Sustained National Climate Assessment was established by a Decision Memorandum, dated August 20, 2015. The Committee's mission is to provide advice on sustained National Climate Assessment activities and products to the Under Secretary of Commerce for Oceans and Atmosphere (Under Secretary), who will forward the advice to the Director of the Office of Science Technology Policy (OSTP). The Committee will advise on the engagement of stakeholders and on sustained assessment activities and the quadrennial National Climate Assessment (NCA4) report.
Individuals or groups may register, submit written statements, and request to make oral comments, and/or request special accommodations by either of the following methods:
• Send an email message to
• Send paper statements to Dr. Cynthia Decker, Designated Federal Officer, SSMC3, Room 11230, 1315 East-West Hwy, Silver Spring, MD 20910.
Office of National Marine Sanctuaries (ONMS), National Ocean Service (NOS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Department of Commerce (DOC).
Notice and request for applications.
ONMS is seeking applications for vacant seats for seven of its 13 national marine sanctuary advisory councils and Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve Advisory Council (advisory councils). Vacant seats, including positions (
Applications are due before or by Wednesday, May 31, 2017.
Application kits are specific to each advisory council. As such, application kits must be obtained from and returned to the council-specific addresses noted below.
• Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council: Aubrie Fowler, NOAA Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary, University of California, Santa Barbara, Ocean Science Education Building 514, MC 6155, Santa Barbara, CA 93106; 805-893-6425; email
• Gray's Reef National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council: Chris Hines, NOAA Gray's Reef National Marine Sanctuary, 10 Ocean Science Circle, Savannah, GA 31411; 912-598-2397; email
• Hawaiian Islands Humpback Whale National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council: Shannon Ruseborn, NOAA Inouye Regional Center, NOS/ONMS/HIHWNMS/Shannon Ruseborn, 1845 Wasp Boulevard, Building 176, Honolulu, HI 96818; 808-725-5905; email
•
• Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council: Nichole Rodriguez, Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary, 99 Pacific Street, Building 455A, Monterey, CA 93940; 831-647-4206; email
• National Marine Sanctuary of American Samoa Advisory Council: Joseph Paulin, National Marine Sanctuary of American Samoa, Tauese P.F. Sunia Ocean Center, P.O. Box 4318, Pago Pago, AS 96799; 684-633-6400 extension 226; email
• Northwestern Hawaiian Islands Coral Reef Ecosystem Reserve Advisory Council: Nicole Evans, NOAA Inouye Regional Center, NOS/ONMS/PMNM/Nicole Evans, 1845 Wasp Boulevard, Building 176, Honolulu, HI 96818; 808-725-5818; email
• Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary Advisory Council: Elizabeth Stokes, Stellwagen Bank National Marine Sanctuary, 175 Edward Foster Road, Scituate, MA 02066; 781-545-8026 extension 6004; email
For further information on a particular national marine sanctuary advisory council, please contact the individual identified in the
ONMS serves as the trustee for a network of underwater parks encompassing more than 600,000 square miles of marine and Great Lakes waters from Washington state to the Florida Keys, and from Lake Huron to American Samoa. The network includes a system of 13 national marine sanctuaries and Papahānaumokuākea and Rose Atoll marine national monuments. National marine sanctuaries protect our nation's most vital coastal and marine natural and cultural resources, and through active research, management, and public engagement, sustain healthy environments that are the foundation for thriving communities and stable economies. One of the many ways ONMS ensures public participation in the designation and management of national marine sanctuaries is through the formation of advisory councils. National marine sanctuary advisory councils are community-based advisory groups established to provide advice and recommendations to the superintendents of national marine sanctuaries on issues including management, science, service, and stewardship; and to serve as liaisons between their constituents in the community and the sanctuary. Additional information on ONMS and its advisory councils can be found at
The following is a list of the vacant seats, including positions (
16 U.S.C. 1431
Office of Innovation and Improvement, Department of Education.
Notice; correction.
On April 25, 2017, we published in the
Kathryn Meeley, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW., Room 4W257, Washington, DC 20202-5970. Telephone: (202) 453-6818, or by email:
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
On April 25, 2017, we published in the
All other requirements and conditions stated in the notice inviting applications, as amended by the notice of correction, remain the same.
In FR Doc. No. 2017-08362, in the
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Department of Education (ED), National Center for Education Statistics (NCES).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ED is proposing a revision of an existing information collection.
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before May 31, 2017.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact NCES Information Collections at
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Federal Student Aid, Department of Education.
Notice.
The Secretary announces the annual updates to the tables used in the statutory Federal Need Analysis Methodology that determines a student's expected family contribution (EFC) for award year (AY) 2018-19 for these student financial aid programs. The intent of this notice is to alert the financial aid community and the broader public to these required annual updates used in the determination of student aid eligibility.
Marya Dennis, U.S. Department of Education, Room 63G2, Union Center Plaza, 830 First Street NE., Washington, DC 20202-5454. Telephone: (202) 377-3385.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf (TDD) or a text telephone (TTY), call the Federal Relay Service (FRS), toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
Part F of title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (HEA), specifies the criteria, data elements, calculations, and tables the Department of Education (Department) uses in the Federal Need Analysis Methodology to determine the EFC.
Section 478 of the HEA requires the Secretary to annually update the following four tables for price inflation—the Income Protection Allowance (IPA), the Adjusted Net Worth (NW) of a Business or Farm, the Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance, and the Assessment Schedules and Rates. The updates are based, in general, upon increases in the Consumer Price Index (CPI).
For AY 2018-19, the Secretary is charged with updating the IPA for parents of dependent students, adjusted NW of a business or farm, the education savings and asset protection allowance, and the assessment schedules and rates to account for inflation that took place between December 2016 and December 2017. However, because the Secretary must publish these tables before December 2017, the increases in the tables must be based on a percentage equal to the estimated percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for 2017. The Secretary must also account for any under- or over-estimation of inflation for the preceding year.
In developing the table values for the 2017-18 AY, the Secretary's assumed 2.1 percent increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2015 through December 2016 was the actual inflation for this time period. The Secretary estimates that the increase in the CPI-U for the period December 2016 through December 2017 will be 2.3 percent.
Additionally, section 601 of the College Cost Reduction and Access Act of 2007 (CCRAA, Pub. L. 110-84) amended sections 475 through 478 of the HEA affecting the IPA tables for the 2009-10 through 2012-13 AYs and required the Department to use a percentage of the estimated CPI to update the table in subsequent years. These changes to the IPA impact dependent students, as well as independent students with dependents other than a spouse and independent students without dependents other than a spouse. This notice includes the new 2018-19 AY values for the IPA tables, which reflect the CCRAA amendments. The updated tables are in sections 1 (Income Protection Allowance), 2 (Adjusted Net Worth of a Business or Farm), and 4 (Assessment Schedules and Rates) of this notice.
As provided for in section 478(d) of the HEA, the Secretary must also revise the education savings and asset protection allowances for each AY. The Education Savings and Asset Protection Allowance table for AY 2018-19 has been updated in section 3 of this notice.
Section 478(h) of the HEA also requires the Secretary to increase the amount specified for the employment expense allowance, adjusted for inflation. This calculation is based on increases in the Bureau of Labor Statistics' marginal costs budget for a two-worker family compared to a one-worker family. The items covered by this calculation are: Food away from home, apparel, transportation, and household furnishings and operations. The Employment Expense Allowance table for AY 2018-19 has been updated in section 5 of this notice.
The HEA requires the following annual updates:
1.
For each additional family member add $4,390. For each additional college student subtract $3,120.
The IPAs for independent students with dependents other than a spouse for AY 2018-19 are as follows:
For each additional family member add $6,200. For each additional college student subtract $4,400.
The IPAs for single independent students and independent students without dependents other than a spouse for AY 2018-19 are as follows:
2.
The portion of these assets included in the contribution calculation is computed according to the following schedule. This schedule is used for parents of dependent students, independent students without dependents other than a spouse, and independent students with dependents other than a spouse.
3.
4.
The parents' contribution for a dependent student is computed according to the following schedule:
The contribution for an independent student with dependents other than a spouse is computed according to the following schedule:
5.
The employment expense allowance for parents of dependent students, married independent students without dependents other than a spouse, and independent students with dependents other than a spouse is the lesser of $4,000 or 35 percent of earned income.
6.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
Office of the Chief Financial Officer, Department of Education.
Rescindment of System of Records Notice.
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, the Department of Education (Department) rescinds from its existing inventory of systems of records notices subject to the Privacy Act the system of records notice entitled “Files and Lists of Potential and Current Consultants, Grant Application Reviewers, Peer Reviewers, and Site Visitors” (18-03-04).
Submit your comments on this rescinded system of records notice on or before May 31, 2017.
This rescinded system of records will become effective May 1, 2017, unless it needs to be changed as a result of public comment.
Submit your comments through the Federal eRulemaking Portal or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. We will not accept comments submitted by fax or by email or those submitted after the comment period. To ensure that we do not receive duplicate copies, please submit your comments only once. In addition, please include the Docket ID at the top of your comments.
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Jennifer Sheriff-Parker, Executive Officer, Office of the Chief Financial Officer, U.S. Department of Education, 550 12th Street SW., Washington, DC 20202. Telephone: (202)245-8440.
If you use a telecommunications device for the deaf or a text telephone, call the Federal Relay Service, toll free, at 1-800-877-8339.
The Department rescinds one system of records notice from its inventory of record systems subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (Privacy Act) (5 U.S.C. 552a). The rescission is not within the purview of subsection (r) of the Privacy Act, which requires submission of a report on a new or altered system of records.
The following Privacy Act system of records notice is being rescinded because the records contained in this system of records notice are now maintained under the G5 System, which is currently covered by the System of Records Notice entitled “Education's Central Automated Processing System (EDCAPS)” (18-04-04) 80 FR 80331, 80336-80339 (Dec. 24, 2015):
1. Files and Lists of Potential and Current Consultants, Grant Application Reviewers, Peer Reviewers, and Site Visitors (18-03-04), last published in the
Thus, the records that were previously covered by this system of records notice will now be covered by the system of records notice for Education's Central Automated Processing System.
You may also access documents of the Department published in the
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Deputy Chief Financial Officer, Delegated the Duties of the Chief Financial Officer, rescinds the following system of records:
(18-03-04)
Files and Lists of Potential and Current Consultants, Grant Application Reviewers, Peer Reviewers, and Site Visitors.
The system of records notice entitled “Files and Lists of Potential and Current Consultants, Grant Application Reviewers, Peer Reviewers, and Site Visitors” was last published in its entirety in the
Office of Fossil Energy, Department of Energy.
Record of Decision.
The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE), Office of Fossil Energy (FE) announces its decision in Golden Pass Products LLC (GPP), FE Docket No. 12-156-LNG, to issue DOE/FE Order No. 3978 (Order No. 3978), granting long-term, multi-contract authorization for GPP to engage in the export of domestically produced liquefied natural gas (LNG). GPP seeks authorization to export the LNG by vessel from its proposed export project (GPP Export Project) to be constructed contiguous to and interconnected with the existing Golden Pass LNG Terminal (Terminal), a LNG import terminal owned and operated by Golden Pass LNG Terminal LLC (GPLNG). GPP is seeking to export this LNG by vessel to any country with which the United States does not have a free trade agreement (FTA) requiring national treatment for trade in natural gas, and with which trade is not prohibited by U.S. law or policy (non-FTA countries). Order No. 3978 is issued under section 3 of the Natural Gas Act (NGA) and 10 CFR part 590 of DOE's regulations.
The EIS and this Record of Decision (ROD) are available on DOE's National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) Web site at:
To obtain additional information about the
DOE prepared this ROD and Floodplain Statement of Findings pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 United States Code [U.S.C.] 4321,
GPP, a Delaware limited liability company with its principal place of business in Houston, Texas, proposes to construct liquefaction and export facilities (GPP Export Project) at the existing Golden Pass LNG Terminal located near Sabine Pass, Texas. The GPP Export Project will connect to the U.S. natural gas pipeline and transmission system through the proposed expansion of an existing natural gas pipeline (Pipeline Expansion Project) owned by GPP's affiliate, Golden Pass Pipeline LLC (GPPL)).
On October 26, 2012, GPP filed an application (Application) with DOE/FE seeking authorization to export domestically produced LNG in a volume equivalent to 740 Bcf/yr of natural gas to non-FTA countries. GPP stated this volume is equal to 15.6 million metric tons per annum (mtpa) of LNG based on a conversion factor of 47.256 Bcf per million metric tons. DOE/FE, however, uses a different conversion factor for U.S.-produced LNG (51.75 Bcf per million metric tons), resulting in an increased export volume.
In 2012, DOE/FE granted GPP's separate authorization to export LNG to FTA countries in a volume equivalent to 740 Bcf/yr of natural gas (2.02 Bcf/d) for a 25-year term.
Additionally, on July 7, 2014, GPP and GPPL filed their respective applications with FERC under sections 3 and 7(c) of the NGA for the siting, construction, and operation of the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project. On December 21, 2016, FERC issued an order granting GPP its requested section 3 authorization and GPPL its requested certificate of public convenience and necessity under section 7(c).
The GPP Export Project will be constructed contiguous to and interconnected with the existing Golden Pass LNG Terminal. GPP intends to construct and operate the export facilities to maximize use of the existing import terminal facilities, with the intent of preserving full import capability of those existing facilities while also creating the proposed new export capability. By locating the GPP Export Project on this existing industrial footprint, GPP states that environmental and community effects will be minimized.
The GPP Export Project primarily will consist of feed gas treatment facilities; three liquefaction trains (each with a liquefaction capacity of 5.2 mtpa of LNG, for a total liquefaction capacity of 15.6 mtpa); a flare system to support the liquefaction trains; a truck loading and unloading facility; refrigerant and condensate storage; safety and control systems; and a supply dock and alternate marine delivery facilities at the Terminal.
GPPL's Pipeline Expansion Project will require new pipeline and associated pipeline facilities in Calcasieu Parish, Louisiana, and in Jefferson and Orange Counties, Texas, to supply natural gas to the liquefaction facility from existing natural gas transmission pipelines. This Pipeline Expansion Project primarily will include the construction of 2.6 miles of a 24-inch-diameter pipeline loop on the existing GPPL pipeline; three new compressor stations and associated above ground facilities; and modifications to existing interconnections and metering facilities with five natural gas pipeline systems.
FERC was the lead federal agency and initiated the NEPA process by publishing a Notice of Intent (NOI) to prepare an EIS for the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project in FERC Docket No. PF13-14-000 on September 19, 2013. FERC conducted a single environmental review process that addressed both of these projects, and DOE participated as a cooperating agency in the preparation of the EIS. FERC issued the draft EIS on March 25, 2016, and published in the
The final EIS recommended that FERC subject any approval of the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project to 85 conditions to reduce the environmental impacts that would otherwise result from the Projects' construction and operation. Subsequently, the FERC Order authorized GPP and GPPL to site, construct, and operate their respective Projects subject to 83 environmental conditions (or mitigation measures) contained in the Appendix of the Order. Although FERC Staff had recommended 85 mitigation measures in the final EIS, FERC determined that GPP had met two of the requirements, and therefore omitted these two environmental mitigation measures from the Order. On that basis, FERC adopted 83 environmental mitigation measures as conditions to GPP's and GPPL's authorizations granted in the Order.
In accordance with 40 CFR 1506.3, after an independent review of FERC's final EIS, DOE/FE adopted FERC's final EIS (DOE/EIS-0501). The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency published a notice of the adoption on January 27, 2017 (82 FR 8613).
On June 4, 2014, DOE/FE published the
The 45-day comment period on the Draft Addendum closed on July 21, 2014. DOE/FE received 40,745 comments in 18 separate submissions, and considered those comments in issuing the final Addendum on August 15, 2014. DOE provided a summary of the comments received and responses to substantive comments in Appendix B of the Addendum. DOE/FE has incorporated the Draft Addendum, comments, and Addendum into the record in this proceeding.
The EIS assessed alternatives that could achieve the GPP Export Project's and Pipeline Expansion Project's objectives. The range of alternatives analyzed included the No-Action alternative, system alternatives, alternative terminal expansion sites, alternative supply dock sites, alternative terminal configurations and power sources, alternative pipeline routes, alternative pipeline expansion aboveground facility sites, alternative sites for pipe storage and contractor yards, and alternative compressor station design. Alternatives were evaluated and compared to the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project to determine if the alternatives were environmentally preferable.
In analyzing the No-Action Alternative, the EIS reviewed the effects and actions that could result if the proposed GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project were not constructed. The EIS determined that this alternative could result in the use or expansion of other existing or proposed LNG export projects and associated interstate natural gas pipeline systems, or in the construction of new infrastructure to meet the objectives of the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project. Any expansion of the existing or construction of the proposed systems/facilities would result in specific environmental impacts that could be less than, similar to, or greater than those associated with the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project depending on a variety of circumstances.
The EIS evaluated system alternatives that included an evaluation of the terminal expansion as well as the pipeline system. For the LNG export terminal, the EIS evaluated five existing LNG import terminals with approved, proposed, or planned status and 18 stand-alone LNG terminals that are approved, proposed, or planned along the Gulf Coast of the U.S. In order to be a viable alternative, it would have to meet the GPP Export Project's purpose and need of the terminal expansion, be technically feasible, and offer a significant environmental advantage over the proposed terminal expansion. Based on an evaluation of the alternatives, the EIS determined that each of the potential alternatives were not reasonable or lacked significant environmental advantage over GPP Export Project's design.
To serve as a viable pipeline system alternative to the Pipeline Expansion Project, the alternative would need to (1) transport all or part of the volume of the natural gas required for liquefaction at the terminal expansion; and (2) cause significantly less impact on the environment than the proposed pipeline expansion. Additionally, the natural gas provided by the system alternative must connect to the existing GPPL pipeline or directly to the terminal expansion. The EIS determined that no single pipeline in proximity to the existing Golden Pass LNG Terminal could supply the required natural gas supply delivery pressure. Any potential pipeline alternatives would require construction of a new lateral extension to the terminal expansion or an entirely new pipeline system to connect to supply. The impacts of constructing the alternatives would result in substantially greater impacts than those of the proposed pipeline expansion.
The EIS evaluated several terminal expansion site alternatives. The EIS analyzed the feasibility of constructing the terminal expansion based on the use of the existing infrastructure such as the LNG storage tanks, LNG carrier berths, or other associated facilities. The EIS considered that the construction and operation of alternative or new facilities would substantially increase the environmental impacts of the GPP Export Project compared to the proposed use of the existing infrastructure.
For the supply dock site alternatives, the EIS considered the following three sites in comparison to the proposed site: (1) Use of the existing import terminal ship slip; (2) improvements and use of an existing marine dock (Broussard Dock); and (3) improvements and use of an existing tug berth. Each of the three alternatives required either more construction in surrounding wetlands or required removing existing equipment to allow for re-construction of necessary facilities. Based on this analysis, the EIS concluded that the proposed supply dock was the environmentally preferred alternative.
For the alternative terminal configurations and power sources, the EIS was limited due to siting requirements in terminal configurations and analyzed two power source alternatives. Due to the regulatory siting requirements regarding thermal exclusion and vapor dispersion zones, the EIS was unable to determine an alternative configuration that still met these requirements. In terms of alternative power sources to the proposed gas-fired steam turbines generators on the liquefaction trains, the EIS considered the following: (1) Power produced by onsite steam generation plant; and (2) electrical power generated offsite. For both alternatives, higher carbon dioxide emissions and decreases in energy efficiency made the proposed power source the preferred option.
For the alternative pipeline routes, the EIS did not identify any environmental concerns that would require the need to identify and evaluate alternative pipeline routes to minimize environmental impacts. The proposed route would limit the environmental impacts and is the preferred alternative.
The EIS evaluated alternative sites for the proposed three compressor stations and associated aboveground facilities for the pipeline expansion. To assess alternative compressor station sites, the EIS considered the following seven factors: (1) Compression requirements; (2) distance from the nearest Noise Sensitive Areas; (3) use of upland areas to minimize impacts on wetlands; (4)
Regarding the associated aboveground facilities for the pipeline expansion, the proposed aboveground facilities were all within the existing GPPL pipeline right-of-way. As a result, the EIS did not identify any environmental concerns that indicated the need to evaluate alternative sites.
For alternative sites for pipe storage and contractor yard, the EIS considered one alternative to the proposed site. The alternative site consisted of land with varying commercial/industrial and agricultural uses. If the alternative site was selected, the agricultural use would be displaced. The proposed site, in comparison, is already previously distributed industrial-use land used for the construction of the existing GPPL pipeline. As a result, the alternative site did not offer a significant environmental advantage over the proposed site.
Finally, the EIS included an alternative compressor station design. Instead of the proposed gas-fired compressors, the alternative design evaluated the use of electric-powered compressors. When comparing the two designs, the EIS focused on the issue of additional infrastructure needed to power the electric-power compressor stations. Use of electricity would require each station to install varying lengths of distribution lines to the compressor stations and a substation and/or switch station to meet power requirements. Additionally, the electrical power could come from existing electrical generation plants with varying fuel uses. However, overall emissions reductions resulting from the use of electric-powered versus gas-powered compressor stations will vary depending on the fuel used. As a result, the EIS concluded the alternative did not offer a significant environmental advantage over the proposed compressor station design.
When compared against the other action alternatives assessed in the EIS, as discussed above, the proposed GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project are the environmentally preferred alternatives. While the No-Action Alternative would avoid the environmental impacts identified in the EIS, adoption of this alternative would not meet the GPP Export Project and Pipeline Expansion Project objectives.
DOE has decided to issue Order No. 3978 authorizing GPP to export domestically produced LNG by vessel from the GPP Export Project located near Sabine Pass, Jefferson County, Texas to non-FTA countries, in a volume up to the equivalent to 808 Bcf/yr of natural gas for a term of 20 years to commence on the earlier of the date of first commercial export or seven years from the date that the Order is issued.
Concurrently with this Record of Decision, DOE is issuing Order No. 3978, in which it finds that the requested authorization has not been shown to be inconsistent with the public interest, and that the Application should be granted subject to compliance with the terms and conditions set forth in the Order, including the 83 environmental conditions recommended in the EIS and adopted in the FERC Order at Appendix A. Additionally, this authorization is conditioned on GPP's compliance with any other mitigation measures imposed by other federal or state agencies.
DOE's decision is based upon the analysis of potential environmental impacts presented in the EIS, and DOE's determination in Order No. 3978 that the opponents of GPP's Application have failed to overcome the statutory presumption that the proposed export authorization is not inconsistent with the public interest. Although not required by NEPA, DOE/FE also considered the Addendum, which summarizes available information on potential upstream impacts associated with unconventional natural gas activities, such as hydraulic fracturing.
As a condition of its decision to issue Order No. 3978 authorizing GPP to export LNG to non-FTA countries, DOE is imposing requirements that will avoid or minimize the environmental impacts of the GPP Export Project. These conditions include the 83 environmental conditions recommended in the EIS and adopted in the FERC Order at Appendix A. Mitigation measures beyond those included in Order No. 3978 that are enforceable by other Federal and state agencies are additional conditions of Order No. 3978. With these conditions, DOE/FE has determined that all practicable means to avoid or minimize environmental harm from the GPP Export Project have been adopted.
DOE prepared this Floodplain Statement of Findings in accordance with DOE's regulations, entitled “Compliance with Floodplain and Wetland Environmental Review Requirements” (10 CFR part 1022). The required floodplain assessment was conducted during development and preparation of the EIS (see Section 4.1.4.1 of the EIS). The EIS determined that the proposed Golden Pass LNG export terminal site is within the 100-year floodplain, as are some portions of the pipeline expansion facilities and one compressor station. While the placement of these facilities within floodplains would be unavoidable, DOE has determined that the current design for the GPP Export Project minimizes floodplain impacts to the extent practicable.
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of filing.
On March 31, 2017, PSEG Power, LLC, as owner and operator of a new baseload electric generating powerplant, submitted a coal capability self-certification to the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to § 201(d) of the Powerplant and Industrial Fuel Use Act of 1978 (FUA), as amended, and DOE regulations. The FUA and regulations thereunder require DOE to publish a notice of filing of self-certification in the
Copies of coal capability self-certification filings are available for public inspection, upon request, in the Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Mail Code OE-20, Room 8G-024, Forrestal Building, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585.
Christopher Lawrence at (202) 586-5260.
Title II of FUA, as amended (42 U.S.C. 8301
The following owner of a proposed new baseload electric generating powerplant has filed a self-certification of coal-capability with DOE pursuant to FUA section 201(d) and in accordance with DOE regulations in 10 CFR 501.60, 61:
Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, DOE.
Notice of application.
RBC Energy Services LP (Applicant or RBC Energy) has applied to renew its authority to transmit electric energy from the United States to Canada pursuant to section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act.
Comments, protests, or motions to intervene must be submitted on or before May 31, 2017.
Comments, protests, motions to intervene, or requests for more information should be addressed to: Office of Electricity Delivery and Energy Reliability, Mail Code: OE-20, U.S. Department of Energy, 1000 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20585-0350. Because of delays in handling conventional mail, it is recommended that documents be transmitted by overnight mail, by electronic mail to
Exports of electricity from the United States to a foreign country are regulated by the Department of Energy (DOE) pursuant to sections 301(b) and 402(f) of the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7151(b), 7172(f)) and require authorization under section 202(e) of the Federal Power Act (16 U.S.C. 824a(e)).
On September 28, 2012, DOE issued Order No. EA-328-A to RBC Energy, which authorized the Applicant to transmit electric energy from the United States to Canada as a power marketer for a five-year term using existing international transmission facilities. That authority expires on September 26, 2017. On March 24, 2017, RBC Energy filed an application with DOE for renewal of the export authority contained in Order No. EA-328 for an additional five-year term.
In its application, RBC Energy states that it does not own or operate any electric generation or transmission facilities, and it does not have a franchised service area. The electric energy that RBC Energy proposes to export to Canada would be surplus energy purchased from third parties such as electric utilities and Federal power marketing agencies pursuant to voluntary agreements. The existing international transmission facilities to be utilized by RBC Energy have previously been authorized by Presidential Permits issued pursuant to Executive Order 10485, as amended, and are appropriate for open access transmission by third parties.
Comments and other filings concerning RBC Energy's application to export electric energy to Canada should be clearly marked with OE Docket No. EA-328-B. An additional copy is to be provided directly to both Chantal Marchese, Royal Bank of Canada, 200 Bay Street, 30th Floor, North Tower, Toronto, Ontario Canada M5J 2J5 and Marcus Chun, RBC Capital Markets, 200 Bay Street, 9th Floor, South Tower, Toronto, Ontario Canada M5J 2J2.
A final decision will be made on this application after the environmental impacts have been evaluated pursuant to DOE's National Environmental Policy Act Implementing Procedures (10 CFR part 1021) and after a determination is made by DOE that the proposed action will not have an adverse impact on the sufficiency of supply or reliability of the U.S. electric power supply system.
Copies of this application will be made available, upon request, for public inspection and copying at the address provided above, by accessing the program Web site at
Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy, U.S. Department of Energy.
Notice and request for comments.
The Department of Energy's (DOE) Office of Energy Efficiency and Renewable Energy (EERE), pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, intends to extend for three years with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), the EERE Environmental Questionnaire (OMB No. 1910-5175). Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of DOE, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of DOE's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be
Comments regarding this proposed information collection extension must be received on or before June 30, 2017. If you anticipate difficulty in submitting comments within that period, contact the person listed in
Written comments may be sent to Lisa Jorgensen at: U.S. Department of Energy, 15013 Denver West Parkway, Golden, CO 80401, by fax at (720-356-1790), or by email at
Requests for additional information or copies of the EERE Environmental Questionnaire should be directed to Lisa Jorgensen at
This information collection request contains:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8) There is no cost associated with reporting and recordkeeping.
National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321
U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), Department of Energy.
Agency information collection activities: Information collection extension; notice and request for comments.
The EIA, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, intends to extend with changes for three years with the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), the surveys in the Natural Gas Data Collection Program Package under OMB Control No. 1905-0175. This program provides information on the supply and disposition of natural gas within the United States.
The surveys covered by this information collection request include:
Comments regarding this proposed information collection must be received on or before June 30, 2017. If you anticipate difficulty in submitting comments within that period, contact the person listed in
Send written comments to Michael Kopalek, Natural Gas Downstream Team, Office of Petroleum and Biofuel Statistics, U.S. Energy Information Administration. To ensure receipt of the comments by the due date, submission by email (
Requests for additional information or copies of the any forms and instructions should be directed to Mr. Kopalek at the address listed above. Also, the draft forms and instructions are available on the EIA Web site at
This information collection request contains:
(1) OMB Control Number 1902-0175;
(2)
(3)
(4)
EIA, as part of its effort to comply with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. 3501
The natural gas surveys included in the Natural Gas Data Collection Program Package collect information on natural gas underground storage, supply, processing, transmission, distribution, consumption by sector, and consumer prices. This information is used to support public policy analyses of the natural gas industry and estimates generated from data collected on these surveys. The statistics generated from these surveys are posted to the EIA Web site (
Please refer to the proposed forms and instructions for more information about the purpose, who must report, when to report, where to submit, the elements to be reported, detailed instructions, provisions for confidentiality, and uses (including possible nonstatistical uses) of the information. For instructions on obtaining materials, see the
EIA requests a three-year extension of collection authority for each of the above-referenced surveys with proposed changes to Forms EIA-176, EIA-910, EIA-912 and minor changes to improve clarity in the instructions to Forms EIA-191, 757, and 857.
(4a) Proposed Changes to Information Collection:
Form EIA-176 collects data on natural, synthetic, and other supplemental gas supplies, disposition, and certain revenues by state. The proposed changes include:
a. Add a question in Part 3(B) asking respondents if they have an alternative-fueled vehicle fleet, and if so, what kind and how many vehicles comprise the fleet. This information will improve survey frame coverage and data accuracy reported on Form EIA-886,
b. Add a new section Part 3(E) to add a question for local distribution companies to provide all five-digit zip codes in their distribution territory where they deliver natural gas for end-use consumption. This information enables EIA to estimate the approximate service territory for a local distribution company. This information will allow EIA analysts and data customers to understand service territories associated with natural gas distributors. EIA has received inquiries for this information in the past;
c. Add a question in Part 3 (F) asking respondents for the names and zip codes of any aboveground liquefied (LNG) natural gas storage facilities that are owned by, operated by, or provide services to a survey respondent. EIA proposes to collect this information to facilitate collection of LNG data by providing a list of operators and their locations;
d. Discontinue collecting costs associated with purchase gas received within the service area. In the past, EIA spent substantial resources to validate this information. EIA has the capability to estimate values for this activity using monthly data. EIA proposes to delete this data element to reduce respondent reporting burden; and
e.
f. Add a question in Part 6 Line 12.5, “Vehicle fuel used in company fleet” to collect information on vehicle fuel for company vehicles. Based on cognitive testing of the EIA-176 form, respondents were reporting natural gas vehicle fuel for their own company fleet as company use. This affects the accuracy of the vehicle fuel volumes and prices reported in Part 6 Items 10.5 and 11.5. Company use volumes do not have associated revenue and should not be included in 10.5 and 11.5. Adding this question will give respondents an explicit place to report company-owned vehicle fuel volumes and improve the accuracy of vehicle fuel prices based on Part 6 Items 10.5 and 11.5.
Form EIA-191 collects data on the operations of all active underground storage facilities. EIA is proposing to make the following changes to Form EIA-191:
a. Remove “Other” as a response option under “type of facility” question in Part 3 of the survey form. Respondents have not utilized this category for classifying their facilities. This open ended facility category does not provide the intended utility for EIA so EIA proposes to delete it to reduce reporting burden.
Form EIA-757 collects information on the capacity, status, and operations of natural gas processing plants, and monitors constraints of natural gas processing plants during periods of supply disruption in areas affected by an emergency, such as a hurricane. Schedule A of the EIA-757 is used to collect data every three years. Schedule A collects information on baseline operating and capacity information from all respondents. Schedule A was used to collect information in 2015 and the next planned collection for Schedule A is 2018. Schedule B is activated as needed and collects data from a sample of respondents in affected areas as needed. Schedule B was last activated in 2012 when Hurricane Isaac damaged energy supply infrastructure along the Gulf Coast. A sample of approximately 20 plants reported in 2012 during that energy disruption. EIA is proposing to continue the collection of the same data elements on Form EIA-757 Schedules A and B in their present form with one minor protocol change:
a. Collect EIA-757 Schedule A data for new natural gas processing plants that opened and began operations between the current three-year data collection cycles. This minor protocol change allows EIA to maintain a current frame at all times rather than updating the survey frame every three years when a new data collection cycle begins.
Form EIA-857 collects data on the quantity and cost of natural gas delivered to distribution systems and the quantity and revenue of natural gas delivered to end-use consumers by market sector, on a monthly basis by state. EIA is not proposing any substantive changes to Form EIA-857.
Form EIA-910 collects information on natural gas sales from marketers in selected states that have active customer choice programs. EIA is requesting information on the volume and revenue for natural gas commodity sales and any receipts for distribution charges and taxes associated with the sale of natural gas.
Form EIA-912 collects information on weekly inventories of natural gas in underground storage facilities.
EIA proposes a permanent change in the confidentiality pledge to respondents to Forms EIA-910 and EIA-912. EIA revised its confidentiality pledge to Forms EIA-910 and EIA-912 survey respondents under the Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 (note)) (CIPSEA) in an emergency
The information you provide on Form EIA-xxx will be used for statistical purposes only and is confidential by law. In accordance with the Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act of 2002 and other applicable Federal laws, your responses will not be disclosed in identifiable form without your consent. Per the Federal Cybersecurity Enhancement Act of 2015, Federal information systems are protected from malicious activities through cybersecurity screening of transmitted data. Every EIA employee, as well as every agent, is subject to a jail term, a fine, or both if he or she makes public ANY identifiable information you reported.
EIA is not proposing any other substantive changes to Form EIA-910.
EIA proposes one additional change to Form EIA-912. EIA proposes to include an additional geographic data element for working gas collection and publication in the Lower 48 states:
a. Divide the “South Central” reporting region into “South Central Salt” and “South Central Nonsalt.” Currently EIA categorizes storage operators as either Salt facilities or Nonsalt facilities and allocates their volumes entirely to that region. This proposed change would require respondents to allocate volumes in their reported data between Salt facilities and Nonsalt facilities; this would improve the accuracy of EIA's published estimates on underground storage. For example, under the current methodology, volumes reported by a respondent with majority salt storage would be allocated entirely to the “South Central Salt” region, even if nearly half of their volumes were stored in nonsalt facilities. Currently, operators with more than 15 billion cubic feet (Bcf) of storage capacity in the South Central region report volumes separately between Salt facilities or Nonsalt facilities. This proposed change will require all operators in the reporting sample to report the same way.
(5)
EIA-176 consists of 2,050 respondents.
EIA-191 consists of 145 respondents.
EIA-757 consists of 600 respondents.
EIA-857 consists of 330 respondents.
EIA-910 consists of 100 respondents.
EIA- 912 consists of 95 respondents.
(6)
(7)
(8)
Section 13(b) of the Federal Energy Administration Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-275, codified as 15 U.S.C. 772(b) and the DOE Organization Act of 1977, P.L. 95-91, codified at 42 U.S.C. 7101
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before June 30, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the PRA of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections.
Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The disclosures are intended to ensure that consumers receive information regarding the terms and conditions associated with these services before they enter into contracts to subscribe to them.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before June 30, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.
The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
Written comments should be submitted on or before June 30, 2017. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contacts below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
47 CFR 73.1942 requires broadcast licensees and 47 CFR 76.206 requires cable television systems to disclose any station practices offered to commercial advertisers that enhance the value of advertising spots and different classes of time (immediately preemptible, preemptible with notice, fixed, fire sale, and make good). These rule sections also require licensees and cable TV systems to calculate the lowest unit charge. Broadcast stations and cable systems are also required to review their advertising records throughout the election period to determine whether compliance with these rule sections require that candidates receive rebates or credits.
47 CFR 76.1611 requires cable systems to disclose to candidates information about rates, terms, conditions and all value-enhancing discount privileges offered to commercial advertisers.
Federal Election Commission.
999 E Street NW., Washington, DC (Ninth Floor).
This meeting will be open to the public.
The April 27, 2017 meeting was canceled.
Judith Ingram, Press Officer, Telephone: (202) 694-1220.
Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
Notice of meeting.
If you plan to attend the ASC Meeting in person, we ask that you send an email to
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The application also will be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 10(c)(4)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(4)(B)). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than May 26, 2017.
A.
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2.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than May 30, 2017.
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Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning environmentally sound products.
Submit comments on or before June 30, 2017.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0134, Environmentally Sound Products, by any of the following methods:
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Mr. Charles Gray, Procurement Analyst, Governmentwide Acquisition Policy, GSA, 703-795-6328 or
OMB clearance 9000-0134 supports the information collection requirement contained in 52.223-9, Estimate of Percentage of Recovered Material Content for EPA-designated Items. Section 6002 of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Public Law 94-580, (42 U.S.C. 6962), requires Federal agencies to develop affirmative procurement programs to ensure that items composed of recovered materials will be purchased to the maximum extent practicable. An agency's affirmative procurement program must include: (1) A recovered materials preference program and an agency promotion program for the preference program; (2) a program for requiring estimates of the total percentage of recovered materials used in the performance of a contract, certification of minimum recovered material content used, and where appropriate and reasonable, verification procedures for estimates and certifications; and (3) annual review and monitoring of the effectiveness of an agency's affirmative procurement program.
For items the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has designated as produced or that can be produced from recovered material, agencies are required to track the percentaage of recovered material content used during contract performance. This requirement applies whenever an acquisition sets forth minimum percentages of recovered materials; when the price of the item exceeds $10,000; or when the aggregate amount paid for the item or functionally equivalent items in the preceding fiscal year was $10,000 or more.
Pursuant to FAR clause 52.223-9, when the contract requires the delivery of or use of an EPA-designated item, contractors shall report the estimated percentage of total recovered material content delivered or used, at contract completion. The clause is included in solicitations and contracts exceeding $150,000, except for acquisitions of commercially-available, off-the-shelf (COTS) items.
Public Comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technilogical collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Please cite OMB control No. 9000-0134, Environmentally Sound Products, in all correspondence.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection concerning subcontractor requests for bonds. A notice was published in the
Submit comments on or before May 31, 2017.
Submit comments regarding this burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including suggestions for reducing this burden to: Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for GSA, Room 10236, NEOB, Washington, DC 20503. Additionally submit a copy to GSA by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Cecelia L. Davis, Procurement Analyst, Acquisition Policy Division, at 202-219-0202 or email
Part 28 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) contains guidance related to insuring against damages under Federal contracts (
This information collection is mandated by Section 806 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Years 1992 and 1993 (Pub. L. 102-190), as amended by Section 2091 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act of 1994 (Pub. L. 103-335). The clause at 52.228-12, Prospective Subcontractor Requests for Bonds, implements Section 806(a)(3) of Public Law 102-190, as amended, which states that, upon the request of a prospective subcontractor or supplier offering to furnish labor or material under a construction contract for which a payment bond has been furnished pursuant to 40 U.S.C. 31, the contractor shall promptly provide a copy of such payment bond to the requestor.
Given that payment bonds, in conjunction with performance bonds, are used to secure the contractor's obligations, thereby assuring that payments are made to subcontractors and vendors under the contract, the requester will use information on payment bonds to determine whether to engage in business with that prime contractor.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
Department of Defense (DOD), General Services Administration (GSA), and National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Notice of request for public comments regarding an extension to an existing OMB clearance.
Under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Regulatory Secretariat Division will be submitting to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request to review and approve an extension of a previously approved information collection requirement concerning Request for Authorization of Additional Classification and Rate, Standard Form (SF) 1444.
Submit comments on or before June 30, 2017.
Submit comments identified by Information Collection 9000-0089 by any of the following methods:
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Ms. Zenaida Delgado, Procurement Analyst, Federal Acquisition Policy Division, GSA, 202-969-7207 or email
Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 22.406 prescribes labor standards for federally financed and assisted construction contracts subject to the Davis-Bacon and Related Acts (DBRA), as well as labor standards for non-construction contracts subject to the Contract Work Hours and Safety Standards Act (CWHSSA).
The recordkeeping requirements in this regulation, FAR 22.406, reflect the requirements cleared under OMB control numbers 1235-0023, 1235-0008, and 1235-0018 for 29 CFR 5.5(a)(1)(i), 5.5(c), and 5.15 (records to be kept by employers under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)). The regulation at 29 CFR 516 reflects the basic recordkeeping and reporting requirements for the laws administered by the Department of Labor Wage and Hour Division.
FAR 22.406-3, implements the recordkeeping and information collection requirements prescribed in 29 CFR 5.5(a)(1)(ii) cleared under OMB control number 1235-0023 (also prescribed at 48 CFR 22.406 under OMB control number 9000-0089), by providing SF 1444, Request for Authorization of Additional Classification and Rate, for the contractor and the Government to enter the recordkeeping and information collection data required by 29 CFR 5.5(a)(1)(ii) prior to transmitting the data to the Department of Labor.
This SF 1444 places no further burden on the contractor or the Government other than the information collection burdens already cleared by OMB for 29 CFR 5.
Public comments are particularly invited on: Whether this collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of functions of the FAR, and whether it will have practical utility; whether our estimate of the public burden of this collection of information is accurate, and based on valid assumptions and methodology; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and ways in which we can minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, through the use of appropriate technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Assessment of Targeted Training and Technical Assistance (TTA) Efforts on the Implementation of Comprehensive Cancer Control—New—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) National Comprehensive Cancer Control Program (NCCCP) has been a primary funder for state and community-based cancer control interventions since its inception in the late 1990s. In addition, CDC's Office on Smoking and Health (OSH) also has worked to build state health department infrastructure and capacity to conduct coordinated comprehensive tobacco prevention and control activities which contribute to cancer health outcomes through the provision of funding to state health departments and local partners through the Nation State Based Tobacco Control Program (NSTB).
In striving to build capacity and maximize the impact of CDC's funded programs, CDC has focused on developing and implementing innovative programs to enhance the training and technical assistance (TTA) delivered to NCCCP and NSBT grantee programs. CDC funds 10 organizations under two cooperative agreements: The Consortium of National Networks to Impact Populations Experiencing Tobacco-Related and Cancer Health Disparities (DP13-1314), and National Support to Enhance Implementation of Comprehensive Cancer Control Activities (DP13-1315). Under these cooperative agreements, DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 awardees provide TTA to state NCCCP and NSBT grantees to support local implementation of high-impact public health strategies. Using two different TTA models, DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 aim to impact both short- and long-term outcomes on the awardee, NCCCP program, and population levels.
CDC proposes to conduct an assessment of the DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 cooperative agreements to: (1) Increase CDC's understanding of the TTA provided to NCCCP and NSTB grantees across both cooperative agreements, (2) help identify the extent to which core elements of the TTA were administered, and (3) determine the elements of TTA across both cooperative agreements that show promise for improving NCCCP and NSTB capacity. There are no other data collection efforts currently underway to assess implementation of the two TTA models or their perceived effectiveness.
This information collection request will involve three complementary data collection efforts: (1) Case studies of DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 awardees (consisting of interviews with DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 program managers/directors, evaluators, and partners); (2) a cross-sectional web-based survey administered to NCCCP and NSBT program directors, coalition members, and partners; and (3) in-depth interviews with selected NCCCP and NSBT program directors, staff, coalition members, and partners who received a high volume of TTA from one or more of the DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 awardees. The case studies will be used to explore how DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 awardees are implementing their respective cooperative agreements and administering TTA to NCCCP and NSBT grantees; the factors that affect the implementation of specific TTA components; and the extent to which each cooperative agreement was able to achieve planned short-term outcomes. The Web-based survey will inform CDC's understanding of the reach of DP13-1314 and DP13-1315 TTA efforts; elicit information from NCCCP and/or NSBT programs and coalitions about the TTA received, including type, dosage, frequency and format; and assess the perceptions of the effectiveness of the TTA provided in building capacity to achieve intended outcomes. The in-depth interviews with “high-volume” TTA users will facilitate an in-depth exploration of the type and quality of TTA activities received; perceived quality of TTA and its contributions to NCCCP and NSBT grantee program implementation, and achievement of CDC priorities and goals.
CDC will use findings from the assessment to inform development of future TTA efforts that utilize the core elements across the two models to more effectively and efficiently support NCCCP's partner organizations.
OMB approval is requested for 2 years. Participation is voluntary and respondents will not receive incentives for participation. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 231.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing effort to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the Study to Explore Early Development, Teen Follow-Up Study (SEED Teen).
Written comments must be received on or before June 30, 2017.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2017-0042 by any of the following methods:
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To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact Leroy A. Richardson, Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 6501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of the information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and/or included in the request for Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval. Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information. Written comments should be received within 60 days of this notice.
Study to Explore Early Development, Teen Follow-Up Study (SEED Teen)—New—National Center on Birth Defects and Developmental Disabilities (NCBDDD), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impairments in social interaction and communication and stereotyped behaviors and interests. The U.S. prevalence of ASD is estimated at 1% to 2%. In addition to the profound, lifelong impacts on individuals' functioning given the core deficits in social-communication abilities, a high proportion of children with ASD also have one or more other developmental impairments such as intellectual disability or attention-deficit-hyperactivity-disorder and children with ASDs have higher than expected
Historically, young children have been the focus of ASD research: Diagnosis and symptom detection at young ages, prenatal or early-life risk factors, and the effect of early intervention programs. Meanwhile, the number of children diagnosed with ASD each year has steadily increased and, as children age, the prevalence of adults diagnosed with ASD will likewise increase for several decades. Despite this ongoing demographic shift —which some have called “the autism tsunami”—there has been relatively little research on ASD in adolescence and adulthood.
While there is research showing that the majority of ASD diagnoses made in early childhood are retained in adolescence with mostly stable in symptom severity, there are major gaps in our understanding of the health, functioning, and experiences of adolescents with ASD and other developmental disabilities. Many of these topics are especially relevant to public health: Adolescents and adults with ASD have been shown to have frequent health problems, high healthcare utilization and specialized service needs, high caregiving burden, require substantial supports to perform daily activities, are likely to be bullied, or isolated from society, and are likely to have food allergies or put on restrictive diets of questionable benefit. Many of these problems emerge after early childhood, and more studies are needed to estimate the frequency, severity, and predictive factors for these important outcomes in diverse cohorts of individuals with autism and other developmental conditions.
SEED Teen is a follow-up study of children who participated in the first phase of the SEED case-control study (SEED 1) in 2007-2011 when they were 2 to 5 years of age. SEED includes one of the largest cohorts of children assembled with ASD. Children will be identified from four SEED sites in Georgia, Maryland, North Carolina, and Pennsylvania. Three groups of children will be included: Children with ASD, children with other developmental (non-ASD) conditions (DD comparison group), and children from the general population who were initially sampled from birth records (POP comparison group).
The children and parents previously enrolled in SEED 1 represent a unique opportunity to better understand the long-term trajectory of children identified as having ASD at early ages. Mothers or other primary caregivers who participated in SEED 1 will be re-contacted when their child is 13-17 years of age and asked to complete two self-administered questionnaires (SEED Teen Health and Development Survey and the Social Responsiveness Scale) about their child's health, development, education, and current functioning. Information from this study will allow researchers to assess the long-term health and functioning of children with ASD and other developmental disabilities, family impacts associated with ASD and other DDs, and service needs and use associated with having and ASD and other DDs, particularly during the teen years.
We estimate that 1,410 SEED families are potentially eligible to participate in SEED Teen. Reading the letter and other materials in the invitation mailing will take approximately five minutes. We estimate that a minimum of 60% of parents/caregivers sent the invitation mailing or will be successfully contacted and participate in the invitation call (approximately 15 minutes). We estimate that 80% of the families who participate in the invitation call will meet the eligibility criteria for SEED Teen and 70% of those will enroll in SEED Teen. We assume all enrolled families will complete the follow-up call to confirm data collection packet receipt (approximately 10 minutes) and will review the materials in the data collection packet. Finally, we estimate that 90% of enrolled parents/caregivers will complete two self-administered questionnaires (SEED Teen Health and Development Survey and the Social Responsiveness Scale) and two supplemental consent forms. The two questionnaires will take approximately 60 minutes to complete, plus an additional 5 minutes to read and sign the informed consent. Therefore, we estimate the total burden hours are 911. There are no costs to participants other than their time.
The Office of Child Support Enforcement (OCSE) within the Administration for Children and Families (ACF) is proposing data collection activity as part of the Procedural Justice Informed Alternatives to Contempt Demonstration (PJAC). In September 2016, OCSE issued grants to six child support agencies to provide alternative approaches to the contempt process with the goal of increasing parents' compliance with child support orders by building trust and confidence in the child support agency and its processes. PJAC is a five-year project (the first year of which is dedicated to planning) that will allow grantees to learn whether incorporating principles of procedural justice into child support business practices increases reliable child support payments. In addition to increasing reliable payments, the PJAC intervention aims to reduce arrears, minimize the need for continued enforcement actions and sanctions, and reduce the inefficient use of contempt proceedings.
The PJAC evaluation will yield information about the efficacy of applying procedural justice principles via a set of alternative services to the current contempt process. It will generate extensive knowledge regarding how PJAC programs operate, the effects the programs have, and whether their benefits exceed their costs. The information gathered will be critical to informing future policy decisions related to contempt.
The PJAC evaluation will include the following three interconnected components or “studies”:
1.
2.
3.
Respondents for the first information collection phase include study participants and grantee staff and community partners. Specific respondents per instrument are noted in the burden table below.
In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chap 35), the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to the Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington DC 20201. Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
Indian Health Service, HHS.
Notice; extension of comment period.
This document extends the comment period for the Tolowa Dee ni' redesignation of the Tribe's Service Delivery Area (SDA), which was published in the
The comment period for the proposed SDA expansion published in the March 31, 2017,
Because of staff and resource limitations, we cannot accept comments by facsimile (FAX) transmission. You may submit comments in one of four ways (please choose only one of the ways listed):
1.
2.
Please allow sufficient time for mailed comments to be received before the close of the comment period.
3.
4.
If you intend to deliver your comments to the Rockville address, please call telephone number (301) 443-1116 in advance to schedule your arrival with a staff member.
Comments will be made available for public inspection at the Rockville address from 8:30 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., Monday-Friday, two weeks after publication of this notice.
Terri Schmidt, Acting Director, Office of Resource Access and Partnerships, Indian Health Service, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mailstop: 10E85C, Rockville, Maryland 20857. Telephone 301-443-2694 (This is not a toll free number).
As applicable to the Tribes, these regulations provide that, unless otherwise designated, a PRC Service Delivery Area shall consist of a county which includes all or part of a reservation and any county or counties which have a common boundary with the reservation, 42 CFR 136.22(a)(6) (2016). The regulations also provide that after consultation with the Tribal governing body or bodies on those reservations included within the PRC Service Delivery Area, the Secretary may from time to time, re-designate areas within the United States for inclusion in or exclusion from a PRC Service Delivery Area. The regulations require that certain criteria must be considered before any re-designation is made. The criteria are as follows:
(1) The number of Indians residing in the area proposed to be so included or excluded;
(2) Whether the Tribal governing body has determined that Indians residing in the area near the reservation are socially and economically affiliated with the Tribes;
(3) The geographic proximity to the reservation of the area whose inclusion or exclusion is being considered; and
(4) The level of funding which would be available for the provision of PRC.
Additionally, the regulations require that any re-designation of a PRC Service Delivery Area must be made in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 553). In compliance with this requirement, we are publishing this proposal and requesting public comments.
Congress designated the entire state of California as a PRC Service Delivery Area, excluding certain counties, under section 810 of the Indian Healthcare Improvement Act, Public Law 94-437, as amended (25 U.S.C. 1680). IHS has utilized the congressionally established PRC Service Delivery Area for the purposes of administering PRC benefits to members of the Tribe. Thus, members of the Tribe who reside outside of the statutorily established California PRC Service Delivery Area do not reside within the Tolowa Dee-ni's current PRC Service Delivery Area and are currently not eligible for PRC services.
IHS has historically established PRC Service Delivery Areas in accordance with Congressional intent but has preserved regulatory flexibility to re-designate areas as appropriate for inclusion in or exclusion from PRC service delivery under PRC regulations. One of the criteria for such re-designations is the geographic proximity of the expanded area to the existing reservation or service delivery area. Here, IHS proposes to expand the Tribe's PRC Service Delivery Area beyond the geographic description in 25 U.S.C. 1680 to include a county adjacent to the Tribe's existing PRC Service Delivery Area, in a neighboring state. There are already PRC Service Delivery Areas that include part of the state of California and part of another state, for example, Cocopah Tribe of Arizona, (Yuma, Arizona, and Imperial, California); Colorado River Indian Tribes of the Colorado River Indian Reservation, Arizona and California, (La Paz, Arizona; Riverside, California; San Bernardino, California; and Yuma, Arizona); Fort Mojave Indian Tribe of Arizona, California and Nevada, (Nevada; Mohave, Arizona; San Bernardino, California); and the Quechan Tribe of Fort Yuma Indian Reservation, California and Arizona, (Yuma, Arizona; and Imperial, California).
The Tolowa Dee-ni' Nation has a significant number of members who are not residents of California. According to the Tribe's estimates, 177 enrolled Tolowa Dee-ni' members are non-residents who remain actively involved with the Tribe, and reside in Curry County in the State of Oregon and are not currently eligible for PRC care.
Under 42 CFR 136.23, those otherwise eligible Indians who do not reside on a reservation, but reside within a PRC Service Delivery Area must be either members of the Tribe or other IHS beneficiaries who maintain close economic and social ties with the Tribe. In this case, in applying the aforementioned PRC Service Delivery Area re-designation criteria required by operative regulations codified at 42 CFR part 136, subpart C, the following findings are made:
1. By expanding, the Tribe estimates the current eligible population will be increased by 177.
2. The Tribe has determined that these 177 individuals are members of the Tribe and they are socially and economically affiliated with the Tribe.
3. The expanded area including Curry County in the State of Oregon maintains a common boundary with the State of California and the statutorily created California PRC Service Delivery Area.
4. Generally, the Tribal members located in Curry County in the State of Oregon currently do not use the Indian health system for their PRC health care needs. The Tribe will use its existing Federal allocation for PRC funds to provide services to the expanded population. No additional financial resources will be allocated by IHS to the Tribe to provide services to Tribal members residing in Curry County in the State of Oregon.
This comment period is being extended to allow all interested parties the opportunity to comment on the proposed SDA. Therefore, we are extending the comment period until June 30, 2017.
The Indian Health Service (IHS) is accepting competitive grant applications for the Tribal Management Grant (TMG) program. This program is authorized under 25 U.S.C. 5322(b)(2) and 25 U.S.C. 5322(e) of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (ISDEAA), Public Law (Pub. L.) 93-638, as amended. This program is described in the Catalog of Federal Domestic Assistance (CFDA) under 93.228.
The TMG Program is a competitive grant program that is capacity building and developmental in nature and has been available for Federally-recognized Indian Tribes and Tribal organizations (T/TO) since shortly after the passage of the ISDEAA in 1975. It was established to assist T/TO to prepare for assuming all or part of existing IHS programs, functions, services, and activities (PFSAs) and further develop and improve their health management capability. The TMG Program provides competitive grants to T/TO to establish goals and performance measures for current health programs; assess current management capacity to determine if new components are appropriate; analyze programs to determine if T/TO management is practicable; and develop infrastructure systems to manage or organize PFSAs.
The purpose of this IHS grant announcement is to announce the availability of the TMG Program to enhance and develop health management infrastructure and assist T/TO in assuming all or part of existing IHS PSFAs through a Title I contract and assist established Title I contractors and Title V compactors to further develop and improve their management capability. In addition, TMGs are available to T/TO under the authority of 25 U.S.C. 5322(e) for (1) obtaining technical assistance from providers designated by the T/TO (including T/TO that operate mature contracts) for the purposes of program planning and evaluation, including the development of any management systems necessary for contract management and the development of cost allocation plans for indirect cost rates; and (2) planning, designing, monitoring, and evaluating Federal programs serving the T/TO, including Federal administrative functions.
Grant.
The total amount of funding identified for the current fiscal year (FY) 2017 is approximately $2,412,000. Individual award amounts are anticipated to be between $50,000 and $100,000. The amount of funding available for new and competing continuation awards issued under this announcement is subject to the availability of appropriations and budgetary priorities of the Agency. The IHS is under no obligation to make awards that are selected for funding under this announcement.
Approximately 16-18 awards will be issued under this program announcement.
The project periods vary based on the project type selected. Project periods could run from one, two, or three years and will run consecutively from the earliest anticipated start date of September 1, 2017 through August 31, 2018 for one year projects; September 1, 2017 through August 31, 2019 for two year projects; and September 1, 2017 through August 31, 2020 for three year projects. Please refer to “Eligible TMG Project Types, Maximum Funding Levels and Project Periods” below for additional details. State the number of years for the project period and include the exact dates.
I.
“Tribal organization” means the recognized governing body of any Indian tribe; any legally established organization of Indians which is controlled, sanctioned, or chartered by such governing body or which is democratically elected by the adult members of the Indian community to be served by such organization and which includes the maximum participation of Indians in all phases of its activities. 25 U.S.C. 5304(
Tribal organizations must provide proof of non-profit status.
1. FEASIBILITY STUDY (Maximum funding/project period: $70,000/12 months)
The Feasibility Study must include a study of a specific IHS program or segment of a program to determine if Tribal management of the program is possible. The study shall present the planned approach, training, and resources required to assume Tribal management of the program. The study must include the following four components:
• Health needs and health care services assessments that identify existing health care services and delivery systems, program divisibility issues, health status indicators, unmet needs, volume projections, and demand analysis.
• Management analysis of existing management structures, proposed management structures, implementation plans and requirements, and personnel staffing requirements and recruitment barriers.
• Financial analysis of historical trends data, financial projections and new resource requirements for program management costs and analysis of potential revenues from Federal/non-Federal sources.
• Decision statement/report that incorporates findings, conclusions and recommendations; the presentation of the study and recommendations to the Tribal governing body for determination regarding whether Tribal assumption of program(s) is desirable or warranted.
2. PLANNING (Maximum funding/project period: $50,000/12 months)
Planning projects entail a collection of data to establish goals and performance measures for the operation of current health programs or anticipated PFSAs under a Title I contract. Planning projects will specify the design of health programs and the management systems (including appropriate policies and procedures) to accomplish the health priorities of the T/TO. For example, planning projects could include the development of a Tribal Specific Health Plan or a Strategic Health Plan, etc. Please note that updated Healthy People information and Healthy People 2020 objectives are available in electronic format at the following Web site:
3. EVALUATION STUDY (Maximum funding/project period: $50,000/12 months)
The Evaluation Study must include a systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of data for the purpose of determining the value of a program. The extent of the evaluation study could relate to the goals and objectives, policies and procedures, or programs regarding targeted groups. The evaluation study could also be used to determine the effectiveness and efficiency of a Tribal program operation (
4. HEALTH MANAGEMENT STRUCTURE (Average funding/project period: $100,000/12 months; maximum funding/project period: $300,000/36 months)
The first year maximum funding level is limited to $150,000 for multi-year projects. The Health Management Structure component allows for implementation of systems to manage or organize PFSAs. Management structures include health department organizations, health boards, and financial management systems, including systems for accounting, personnel, third-party billing, medical records, management information systems, etc. This includes the design, improvement, and correction of management systems that address weaknesses identified through quality control measures, internal control reviews, and audit report findings under required financial audits and ISDEAA requirements.
For the minimum standards for the management systems used by Indian T/TO when carrying out self-determination contracts, please see 25 CFR part 900, Contracts Under the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, Subpart F—“Standards for Tribal or Tribal Organization Management Systems,” §§ 900.35-900.60. For operational provisions applicable to carrying out self-governance compacts, please see 42 CFR part 137, Tribal Self-Governance, Subpart I,—“Operational Provisions” §§ 137.160-137.220.
Please see Section IV “Application and Submission Information” for information on how to obtain a copy of the TMG application package.
To be eligible for this “New/Competing, Continuation Announcement,” an applicant must be one of the following as defined by 25 U.S.C. 5304:
i. An Indian Tribe, as defined by 25 U.S.C. 5304(e); or
ii. A Tribal organization, as defined by 25 U.S.C. 5304(
Please refer to Section IV.2 (Application and Submission Information/Subsection 2, Content and Form of Application Submission) for additional proof of applicant status documents required such as Tribal resolutions, proof of non-profit status, etc.
The IHS does not require matching funds or cost sharing for grants or cooperative agreements.
If application budgets exceed the highest dollar amount outlined under the “Estimated Funds Available” section within this funding announcement, the application will be considered ineligible and will not be reviewed for further consideration. If deemed ineligible, IHS will not return the application. The applicant will be notified by email by the Division of Grants Management (DGM) of this decision.
The following documentation is required.
A. An Indian Tribe or Tribal organization that is proposing a project affecting another Indian Tribe must include
An official signed Tribal resolution must be received by the DGM prior to a Notice of Award being issued to any applicant selected for funding. However, if an official signed Tribal
B. Tribal organizations applying for technical assistance and/or training grants must submit documentation that the Tribal organization is applying upon the request of the Indian Tribe/Tribes it intends to serve.
C. Documentation for Priority I participation requires a copy of the
D. Documentation for Priority II participation requires a copy of the most current transmittal letter and Attachment A from the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), Office of Inspector General (OIG), National External Audit Review Center (NEAR). See “FUNDING PRIORITIES” below for more information. If an applicant is unable to locate a copy of the most recent transmittal letter or needs assistance with audit issues, information or technical assistance may be obtained by contacting the IHS, Office of Finance and Accounting, Division of Audit at (301) 443-1270, or the NEAR help line at (800) 732-0679 or (816) 426-7720. Federally-recognized Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations not subject to Single Audit Act requirements must provide a financial statement identifying the Federal dollars in the footnotes. The financial statement must also identify specific weaknesses/recommendations that will be addressed in the TMG proposal and that are related to 25 CFR part 900, subpart F—“Standards for Tribal and Tribal Organization Management Systems.”
E. Documentation of Consortium participation—If an Indian Tribe submitting an application is a member of an eligible intertribal consortium, the Tribe must:
• PRIORITY I—Any Indian Tribe that has received Federal recognition (including restored, funded, or unfunded) within the past five years, specifically received during or after March 2012, will be considered Priority I.
• PRIORITY II—Federally-recognized Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations submitting a competing continuation application or a new application for the sole purpose of addressing audit material weaknesses will be considered Priority II.
Priority II participation is only applicable to the Health Management Structure project type. For more information, see “Eligible TMG Project Types, Maximum Funding Levels and Project Periods” in Section II.
• PRIORITY III—Eligible Direct Service and Title I Federally-recognized Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations submitting a competing continuation application or a new application will be considered Priority III.
• PRIORITY IV—Eligible Title V Self Governance Federally-recognized Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations submitting a competing continuation or a new application will be considered Priority IV.
The funding of approved Priority I applicants will occur before the funding of approved Priority II applicants. Priority II applicants will be funded before approved Priority III applicants. Priority III applicants will be funded before Priority IV applicants. Funds will be distributed until depleted.
Audit finding means deficiencies which the auditor is required by 45 CFR 75.516, to report in the schedule of findings and questioned costs.
Material weakness—“Statements on Auditing Standards 115” defines material weakness as a deficiency, or combination of deficiencies, in internal control, such that there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement of the entity's financial statements will not be prevented, or detected and corrected on a timely basis.
Significant deficiency—Statements on Auditing Standards 115 defines significant deficiency as a deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, in internal control that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention by those charged with governance.
The audit findings are identified in Attachment A of the transmittal letter received from the HHS/OIG/NEAR. Please identify the material weaknesses to be addressed by underlining the item(s) listed on the Attachment A.
Federally-recognized Indian Tribes or Tribal organizations not subject to Single Audit Act requirements must provide a financial statement identifying the Federal dollars received in the footnotes. The financial statement should also identify specific weaknesses/recommendations that will be addressed in the TMG proposal and that are related to 25 CFR part 900, subpart F—“Standards for Tribal and Tribal Organization Management Systems.”
Organizations claiming non-profit status must submit proof. A copy of the 501(c)(3) Certificate must be received with the application submission by the Application Deadline Date listed under the Key Dates section on page one of this announcement.
An applicant submitting any of the above additional documentation after the initial application submission due date is required to ensure the information was received by the IHS DGM by obtaining documentation confirming delivery (
The application package and detailed instructions for this announcement can be found at
Questions regarding the electronic application process may be directed to Mr. Paul Gettys at (301) 443-2114 or (301) 443-5204.
The applicant must include the project narrative as an attachment to the
• Table of contents.
• Abstract (one page) summarizing the project.
• Application forms:
○ SF-424, Application for Federal Assistance.
○ SF-424A, Budget Information—Non-Construction Programs.
○ SF-424B, Assurances—Non-Construction Programs.
• Budget Justification and Narrative (must be single spaced and not exceed five pages).
• Project Narrative (must be single spaced and not exceed 15 pages).
○ Background information on the organization.
○ Proposed scope of work, objectives, and activities that provide a description of what will be accomplished, including a one-page Timeframe Chart.
• Tribal resolution.
• 501(c)(3) Certificate (if applicable).
• Position descriptions for key personnel.
• Contractor/Consultant resumes or qualifications and scope of work.
• Disclosure of Lobbying Activities (SF-LLL).
• Certification Regarding Lobbying (GG-Lobbying Form).
• Copy of current Negotiated Indirect Cost rate (IDC) agreement (required) in order to receive IDC.
• Organizational Chart (optional).
• Documentation of current Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Financial Audit (if applicable).
○ Email confirmation from Federal Audit Clearinghouse (FAC) that audits were submitted; or
○ Face sheets from audit reports. These can be found on the FAC Web site:
All Federal-wide public policies apply to IHS grants and cooperative agreements with exception of the discrimination policy.
A. Project Narrative: This narrative should be a separate Word document that is no longer than 15 pages and must: Be single-spaced, be type written, have consecutively numbered pages, use black type not smaller than 12 points, and be printed on one side only of standard size 8
Be sure to succinctly answer all questions listed under the evaluation criteria (refer to Section V.1, Evaluation criteria in this announcement) and place all responses and required information in the correct section (noted below), or they shall not be considered or scored. These narratives will assist the Objective Review Committee (ORC) in becoming familiar with the applicant's activities and accomplishments prior to this possible grant award. If the narrative exceeds the page limit, only the first 15 pages will be reviewed. The 15-page limit for the narrative does not include the work plan, standard forms, Tribal resolutions, table of contents, budget, budget justifications, narratives, and/or other appendix items.
There are three parts to the narrative: Part A—Program Information; Part B—Program Planning and Evaluation; and Part C—Program Report. See below for additional details about what must be included in the narrative.
Section 1: Needs
Describe how the T/TO has determined the need to either enhance or develop its management capability to either assume PFSAs or not in the interest of self-determination. Note the progression of previous TMG projects/awards if applicable.
Section 1: Program Plans
Describe fully and clearly the direction the T/TO plans to take with the selected TMG project type in addressing their health management infrastructure including how the T/TO plans to demonstrate improved health and services to the community or communities it serves. Include proposed timelines.
Section 2: Program Evaluation
Describe fully and clearly the improvements that will be made by the T/TO that will impact their management capability or prepare them for future improvements to their organization that will allow them to manage their health care system and identify the anticipated or expected benefits for the Tribe.
Section 1: Describe major accomplishments over the last 24 months.
Please identify and describe significant program achievements associated with the delivery of quality health services. Provide a comparison of the actual accomplishments to the goals established for the project period, or if applicable, provide justification for the lack of progress.
Section 2: Describe major activities over the last 24 months.
Please identify and summarize recent major health related project activities of the work done during the project period.
This narrative must include a line item budget with a narrative justification for all expenditures identifying reasonable allowable, allocable costs necessary to accomplish the goals and objectives as outlined in the project narrative. Budget should match the scope of work described in the project narrative.
Applications must be submitted electronically through
If technical challenges arise and assistance is required with the electronic application process, contact
Executive Order 12372 requiring intergovernmental review is not applicable to this program.
• Pre-award costs are not allowable.
• The available funds are inclusive of direct and appropriate indirect costs.
• Only one grant will be awarded per applicant.
• IHS will not acknowledge receipt of applications.
• The TMG may not be used to support recurring operational programs or to replace existing public and private resources. Funding received under a recurring Public Law 93-638 contract cannot be totally supplanted or totally replaced. Exception is allowed to charge a portion or percentage of salaries of
• Ineligible Project Activities—The inclusion of the following projects or activities in an application will render the application ineligible.
○ Planning and negotiating activities associated with the intent of a Tribe to enter the IHS Self-Governance Project. A separate grant program is administered by the IHS for this purpose. Prospective applicants interested in this program should contact Ms. Anna Johnson, Policy Analyst, Office of Tribal Self-Governance, Indian Health Service, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 08E05, Rockville, MD, 20857, (301) 443-7821, and request information concerning the “Tribal Self-Governance Program Planning Cooperative Agreement Announcement” or the “Negotiation Cooperative Agreement Announcement.”
○ Projects related to water, sanitation, and waste management.
○ Projects that include direct patient care and/or equipment to provide those medical services to be used to establish or augment or continue direct patient clinical care. Medical equipment that is allowable under the Special Diabetes Program for Indians is not allowable under the TMG Program.
○ Projects that include recruitment efforts for direct patient care services.
○ Projects that include long-term care or provision of any direct services.
○ Projects that include tuition, fees, or stipends for certification or training of staff to provide direct services.
○ Projects that include pre-planning, design, and planning of construction for facilities, including activities relating to program justification documents.
○ Projects that propose more than one project type. Refer to Section II, “Award Information,” specifically “Eligible TMG Project Types, Maximum Funding Levels and Project Periods” for more information. An example of a proposal with more than one project type that would be considered ineligible may include the creation of a strategic health plan (defined by TMG as a planning project type) and improving third-party billing structures (defined by TMG as a health management structure project type). Multi-year applications that include in the first year planning, evaluation, or feasibility activities with the remainder of the project years addressing management structure are also deemed ineligible.
○ Any Alaska Native Village that is neither a Title I nor a Title V organization and does not have the legal authority to contract services under the ISDEAA as it is affiliated with one of the Alaska health corporations as a consortium member and has all of its IHS funding for the Village administered through an Alaska health corporation, a Title V compactor, is not eligible for consideration under the TMG program.
Moreover, Congress has reenacted its moratorium in Alaska on new contracting under the ISDEAA with Alaska Native Tribes that do not already have contracts or compacts with the IHS under this Act. See the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2014 (Jan. 17, 2014), Public Law 113-76, 128 Stat. 5, 343-44: SEC. 424. (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law and until October 1, 2018, the Indian Health Service may not disburse funds for the provision of health care services pursuant to Public Law 93-638 (25 U.S.C. 5301
Consequently, Alaska Native Villages will not have any opportunity to enter into an ISDEAA contract with the IHS until this law lapses on October 1, 2018.
• Other Limitations—A current TMG recipient cannot be awarded a new, renewal, or competing continuation grant for any of the following reasons:
○ The grantee will be administering two TMGs at the same time or have overlapping project/budget periods;
○ The current project is not progressing in a satisfactory manner;
○ The current project is not in compliance with program and financial reporting requirements; or
○ The applicant has an outstanding delinquent Federal debt. No award shall be made until either:
The delinquent account is paid in full; or
A negotiated repayment schedule is established and at least one payment is received.
All applications must be submitted electronically. Please use the
If the applicant needs to submit a paper application instead of submitting electronically through
Once the waiver request has been approved, the applicant will receive a confirmation of approval email containing submission instructions and the mailing address to submit the application. A copy of the written approval must be submitted along with the hardcopy of the application that is mailed to DGM. Paper applications that are submitted without a copy of the signed waiver from the Director of the DGM will not be reviewed or considered for funding. The applicant will be notified via email of this decision by the Grants Management Officer of the DGM. Paper applications must be received by the DGM no later than 5:00 p.m., EDT, on the Application Deadline Date listed in the Key Dates section on page one of this announcement. Late applications will not be accepted for processing or considered for funding. Applicants that do not adhere to the timelines for System for Award Management (SAM) and/or
Please be aware of the following:
• Please search for the application package in
• If you experience technical challenges while submitting your application electronically, please contact
• Upon contacting
• Applicants are strongly encouraged not to wait until the deadline date to begin the application process through
• Please use the optional attachment feature in
• All applicants must comply with any page limitation requirements described in this funding announcement.
• After electronically submitting the application, the applicant will receive an automatic acknowledgment from
• Email applications will not be accepted under this announcement.
All IHS applicants and grantee organizations are required to obtain a DUNS number and maintain an active registration in the SAM database. The DUNS number is a unique 9-digit identification number provided by D&B which uniquely identifies each entity. The DUNS number is site specific; therefore, each distinct performance site may be assigned a DUNS number. Obtaining a DUNS number is easy, and there is no charge. To obtain a DUNS number, you may access it through
All HHS recipients are required by the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act of 2006, as amended (“Transparency Act”), to report information on sub-awards. Accordingly, all IHS grantees must notify potential first-tier sub-recipients that no entity may receive a first-tier sub-award unless the entity has provided its DUNS number to the prime grantee organization. This requirement ensures the use of a universal identifier to enhance the quality of information available to the public pursuant to the Transparency Act.
Organizations that were not registered with Central Contractor Registration and have not registered with SAM will need to obtain a DUNS number first and then access the SAM online registration through the SAM home page at
Additional information on implementing the Transparency Act, including the specific requirements for DUNS and SAM, can be found on the IHS Grants Management, Grants Policy Web site:
The instructions for preparing the application narrative also constitute the evaluation criteria for reviewing and scoring the application. Weights assigned to each section are noted in parentheses. The 15-page narrative should include only the first year of activities; information for multi-year projects should be included as an appendix. See “Multi-Year Project Requirements” at the end of this section for more information. The narrative section should be written in a manner that is clear to outside reviewers unfamiliar with prior related activities of the applicant. It should be well organized, succinct, and contain all information necessary for reviewers to understand the project fully. Points will be assigned to each evaluation criteria adding up to a total of 100 points. A minimum score of 60 points is required for funding. Points are assigned as follows:
(1) Describe the T/TO's current health operation. Include what programs and services are currently provided (
(2) Describe the population to be served by the proposed project. Include the number of eligible IHS beneficiaries who currently use the services.
(3) Describe the geographic location of the proposed project including any geographic barriers to the health care users in the area to be served.
(4) Identify all TMGs received since FY 2012, dates of funding and a summary of project accomplishments. State how previous TMG funds facilitated the progression of health development relative to the current proposed project. (Copies of reports will not be accepted.)
(5) Identify the eligible project type and priority group of the applicant.
(6) Explain the need/reason for the proposed project by identifying specific gaps or weaknesses in services or infrastructure that will be addressed by the proposed project. Explain how these gaps/weaknesses have been assessed.
(7) If the proposed project includes information technology (
(8) Describe the effect of the proposed project on current programs (
(9) Address how the proposed project relates to the purpose of the TMG Program by addressing the appropriate description that follows:
• Identify if the T/TO is an IHS Title I contractor. Address if the self-determination contract is a master contract of several programs or if individual contracts are used for each program. Include information regarding whether or not the Tribe participates in a consortium contract (
• Identify if the T/TO is not a Title I organization. Address how the proposed project will enhance the organization's management capabilities, what programs and services the organization is currently seeking to contract and an anticipated date for contract.
• Identify if the T/TO is an IHS Title V compactor. Address when the T/TO entered into the compact and how the proposed project will further enhance the organization's management capabilities.
(1) Identify the proposed project objective(s) addressing the following:
• Objectives must be measureable and (if applicable) quantifiable.
• Objectives must be results oriented.
• Objectives must be time-limited.
Example: By installing new third-party billing software, the Tribe will increase the number of bills processed by 15 percent at the end of 12 months.
(2) Address how the proposed project will result in change or improvement in program operations or processes for each proposed project objective. Also address what tangible products are expected from the project (
(3) Address the extent to which the proposed project will build local capacity to provide, improve, or expand services that address the need(s) of the target population.
(4) Submit a work plan in the Appendix which includes the following information:
• Provide the action steps on a timeline for accomplishing the proposed project objective(s).
• Identify who will perform the action steps.
• Identify who will supervise the action steps taken.
• Identify what tangible products will be produced during and at the end of the proposed project.
• Identify who will accept and/or approve work products during the duration of the proposed project and at the end of the proposed project.
• Include any training that will take place during the proposed project and who will be providing and attending the training.
• Include evaluation activities planned in the work plans.
(5) If consultants or contractors will be used during the proposed project, please include the following information in their scope of work (or note if consultants/contractors will not be used):
• Educational requirements.
• Desired qualifications and work experience.
• Expected work products to be delivered on a timeline.
If a potential consultant/contractor has already been identified, please include a resume in the Appendix.
(6) Describe what updates (
Each proposed objective requires an evaluation component to assess its progression and ensure its completion. Also, include the evaluation activities in the work plan.
Describe the proposed plan to evaluate both outcomes and processes. Outcome evaluation relates to the results identified in the objectives, and process evaluation relates to the work plan and activities of the project.
(1) For outcome evaluation, describe:
• What will the criteria be for determining success of each objective?
• What data will be collected to determine whether the objective was met?
• At what intervals will data be collected?
• Who will collect the data and their qualifications?
• How will the data be analyzed?
• How will the results be used?
(2) For process evaluation, describe:
• How will the project be monitored and assessed for potential problems and needed quality improvements?
• Who will be responsible for monitoring and managing project improvements based on results of ongoing process improvements and their qualifications?
• How will ongoing monitoring be used to improve the project?
• Describe any products, such as manuals or policies, that might be developed and how they might lend themselves to replication by others.
• How will the organization document what is learned throughout the project period?
(3) Describe any evaluation efforts planned after the grant period has ended.
(4) Describe the ultimate benefit to the Tribe that is expected to result from this project. An example of this might be the ability of the Tribe to expand preventive health services because of increased billing and third party payments.
This section outlines the broader capacity of the organization to complete the project outlined in the work plan. It includes the identification of personnel responsible for completing tasks and the chain of responsibility for successful completion of the projects outlined in the work plan.
(1) Describe the organizational structure of the T/TO beyond health care activities, if applicable.
(2) Provide information regarding plans to obtain management systems if the T/TO does not have an established management system currently in place that complies with 25 CFR part 900, subpart F, “Standards for Tribal or Tribal Organization Management Systems.” State if management systems are already in place and how long the systems have been in place.
(3) Describe the ability of the organization to manage the proposed project. Include information regarding similarly sized projects in scope and financial assistance as well as other grants and projects successfully completed.
(4) Describe what equipment (
(5) List key personnel who will work on the project. Include all titles of key personnel in the work plan. In the Appendix, include position descriptions and resumes for all key personnel. Position descriptions should clearly describe each position and duties, indicating desired qualifications and experience requirements related to the proposed project. Resumes must indicate that the proposed staff member is qualified to carry out the proposed project activities. If a position is to be filled, indicate that information on the proposed position description.
(6) Address how the T/TO will sustain the position(s) after the grant expires if the project requires additional personnel (
(7) If the personnel are to be only partially funded by this grant, indicate the percentage of time to be allocated to the project and identify the resources used to fund the remainder of the individual's salary.
(1) Provide a categorical budget for each of the 12-month budget periods requested.
(2) If indirect costs are claimed, indicate and apply the current negotiated rate to the budget. Include a copy of the rate agreement in the Appendix.
(3) Provide a narrative justification explaining why each categorical budget
For projects requiring a second and/or third year, include only Year 2 and/or Year 3 narrative sections (objectives, evaluation components and work plan) that differ from those in Year 1. For every project year, include a full budget justification and a detailed, itemized categorical budget showing calculation methodologies for each item. The same weights and criteria which are used to evaluate a one-year project or the first year of a multi-year project will be applied when evaluating the second and third years of a multi-year application. A weak second and/or third year submission could negatively impact the overall score of an application and result in elimination of the proposed second and/or third years with a recommendation for only a one-year award.
• Work plan, logic model and/or time line for proposed objectives.
• Position descriptions for key staff.
• Resumes of key staff that reflect current duties.
• Consultant or contractor proposed scope of work and letter of commitment (if applicable).
• Current Indirect Cost Agreement.
• Organizational chart.
• Additional documents to support narrative (
Each application will be prescreened by the DGM staff for eligibility and completeness as outlined in the funding announcement. Applications that meet the eligibility criteria shall be reviewed for merit by the ORC based on evaluation criteria in this funding announcement. The ORC could be composed of both Tribal and Federal reviewers appointed by the IHS program to review and make recommendations on these applications. The technical review process ensures selection of quality projects in a national competition for limited funding. Incomplete applications and applications that are non-responsive to the eligibility criteria will not be referred to the ORC. The applicant will be notified via email of this decision by the Grants Management Officer of the DGM. Applicants will be notified by DGM, via email, to outline minor missing components (
To obtain a minimum score for funding by the ORC, applicants must address all program requirements and provide all required documentation.
The Notice of Award (NoA) is a legally binding document signed by the Grants Management Officer and serves as the official notification of the grant award. The NoA will be initiated by the DGM in our grant system, GrantSolutions (
Applicants who received a score less than the recommended funding level for approval (60 points) and were deemed to be disapproved by the ORC, will receive an Executive Summary Statement from the ODSCT within 30 days of the conclusion of the ORC outlining the strengths and weaknesses of their application submitted. The summary statement will be sent to the Authorized Organizational Representative that is identified on the face page (SF-424) of the application. The ODSCT will also provide additional contact information as needed to address questions and concerns as well as provide technical assistance if desired.
Approved but unfunded applicants that met the minimum scoring range and were deemed by the ORC to be “Approved,” but were not funded due to lack of funding, will have their applications held by DGM for a period of one year. If additional funding becomes available during the course of FY 2017 the approved but unfunded application may be re-considered by the awarding program office for possible funding. The applicant will also receive an Executive Summary Statement from the IHS program office within 30 days of the conclusion of the ORC.
Any correspondence other than the official NoA signed by an IHS grants management official announcing to the project director that an award has been made to their organization is not an authorization to implement their program on behalf of IHS.
Grants are administered in accordance with the following regulations and policies:
A. The criteria as outlined in this program announcement.
B. Uniform Administrative Regulations for Grants:
• Uniform Administrative Requirements for HHS Awards, located at 45 CFR part 75.
C. Grants Policy:
• HHS Grants Policy Statement, Revised 01/07.
D. Cost Principles:
• Uniform Administrative Requirements for HHS Awards, “Cost Principles,” located at 45 CFR part 75, subpart E.
E. Audit Requirements:
• Uniform Administrative Requirements for HHS Awards, “Audit Requirements,” located at 45 CFR part 75, subpart F.
This section applies to all grant recipients that request reimbursement of indirect costs (IDC) in their grant application. In accordance with HHS Grants Policy Statement, Part II-27, IHS requires applicants to obtain a current IDC rate agreement prior to award. The rate agreement must be prepared in accordance with the applicable cost principles and guidance as provided by the cognizant agency or office. A current rate covers the applicable grant activities under the current award's budget period. If the current rate is not on file with the DGM at the time of award, the IDC portion of the budget will be restricted. The restrictions remain in place until the current rate is provided to the DGM.
Generally, IDC rates for IHS grantees are negotiated with the Division of Cost Allocation (DCA)
The grantee must submit required reports consistent with the applicable deadlines. Failure to submit required reports within the time allowed may result in suspension or termination of an active grant, withholding of additional awards for the project, or other enforcement actions such as withholding of payments or converting to the reimbursement method of payment. Continued failure to submit required reports may result in one or both of the following: (1) The imposition of special award provisions; and (2) the non-funding or non-award of other eligible projects or activities. This requirement applies whether the delinquency is attributable to the failure of the grantee organization or the individual responsible for preparation of the reports. Per DGM policy, all reports are required to be submitted electronically by attaching them as a “Grant Note” in GrantSolutions. Personnel responsible for submitting reports will be required to obtain a login and password for GrantSolutions. Please see the Agency Contacts list in section VII for the systems contact information.
The reporting requirements for this program are noted below.
Program progress reports are required semi-annually within 30 days after the budget period ends. These reports must include a brief comparison of actual accomplishments to the goals established for the period, or, if applicable, provide sound justification for the lack of progress, and other pertinent information as required. A final report must be submitted within 90 days of expiration of the budget/project period.
Federal Financial Report FFR (SF-425), Cash Transaction Reports are due 30 days after the close of every calendar quarter to the Payment Management Services, HHS at
Grantees are responsible and accountable for accurate information being reported on all required reports: The Progress Reports and Federal Financial Report.
This award may be subject to the Transparency Act sub-award and executive compensation reporting requirements of 2 CFR part 170.
The Transparency Act requires the OMB to establish a single searchable database, accessible to the public, with information on financial assistance awards made by Federal agencies. The Transparency Act also includes a requirement for recipients of Federal grants to report information about first-tier sub-awards and executive compensation under Federal assistance awards.
IHS has implemented a Term of Award into all IHS Standard Terms and Conditions, NoAs and funding announcements regarding the FSRS reporting requirement. This IHS Term of Award is applicable to all IHS grant and cooperative agreements issued on or after October 1, 2010, with a $25,000 sub-award obligation dollar threshold met for any specific reporting period. Additionally, all new (discretionary) IHS awards (where the project period is made up of more than one budget period) and where: (1) The project period start date was October 1, 2010 or after and (2) the primary awardee will have a $25,000 sub-award obligation dollar threshold during any specific reporting period will be required to address the FSRS reporting.
For the full IHS award term implementing this requirement and additional award applicability information, visit the DGM Grants Policy Web site at:
Recipients of Federal financial assistance (FFA) from HHS must administer their programs in compliance with Federal civil rights law. This means that recipients of HHS funds must ensure equal access to their programs without regard to a person's race, color, national origin, disability, age and, in some circumstances, sex and religion. This includes ensuring your programs are accessible to persons with limited English proficiency. HHS provides guidance to recipients of FFA on meeting their legal obligation to take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to their programs by persons with limited English proficiency. Please see
The HHS Office for Civil Rights (OCR) also provides guidance on complying with civil rights laws enforced by HHS. Please see
Pursuant to 45 CFR 80.3(d), an individual shall not be deemed subjected to discrimination by reason of his/her exclusion from benefits limited by federal law to individuals eligible for benefits and services from the IHS.
Recipients will be required to sign the HHS-690 Assurance of Compliance form which can be obtained from the following Web site:
The IHS is required to review and consider any information about the applicant that is in the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS) before making any award in excess of the simplified acquisition threshold (currently $150,000) over the period of performance. An applicant may review and comment on any information about itself that a federal awarding agency previously entered. IHS will consider any comments by the applicant, in addition to other information in FAPIIS in making a judgment about the applicant's integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards when completing the review of risk posed by applicants as described in 45 CFR 75.205.
As required by 45 CFR part 75 Appendix XII of the Uniform Guidance, non-federal entities (NFEs) are required to disclose in FAPIIS any information about criminal, civil, and administrative proceedings, and/or affirm that there is no new information to provide. This applies to NFEs that receive Federal awards (currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts) greater than $10,000,000 for any period of time during the period of performance of an award/project.
As required by 2 CFR part 200 of the Uniform Guidance, and the HHS implementing regulations at 45 CFR part 75, effective January 1, 2016, the IHS must require a non-federal entity or an applicant for a Federal award to disclose, in a timely manner, in writing to the IHS or pass-through entity all violations of Federal criminal law involving fraud, bribery,or gratutity violations potentially affecting the Federal award.
Submission is required for all applicants and recipients, in writing, to the IHS and to the HHS Office of Inspector General all information related to violations of Federal criminal law involving fraud, bribery, or gratuity violations potentially affecting the Federal award. 45 CFR 75.113.
Disclosures must be sent in writing to: U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Indian Health Service, Division of Grants Management, ATTN: Robert Tarwater, Director, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mailstop 09E70, Rockville, Maryland 20857.
(Include “Mandatory Grant Disclosures” in subject line)
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Inspector General, ATTN: Mandatory Grant Disclosures, Intake Coordinator, 330 Independence Avenue SW., Cohen Building, Room 5527, Washington, DC 20201.
(Include “Mandatory Grant Disclosures” in subject line).
Failure to make required disclosures can result in any of the remedies described in 45 CFR 75.371 Remedies for noncompliance, including suspension or debarment (See 2 CFR parts 180 & 376 and 31 U.S.C. 3321).
1. Questions on the programmatic issues may be directed to: Roselyn Tso, Acting Director, Office of Direct Service and Contracting Tribes, Indian Health Service, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 08E17, Rockville, MD 20857, Telephone: (301) 443-1104, Email:
2. Questions on grants management and fiscal matters may be directed to:
Ms. Vanietta Armstrong, Grants Management Specialist, Indian Health Service, OMS/DGM, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 09E70, Rockville, MD 20857, Telephone: (301) 443-4792, Fax: (301) 594-0899, Email:
3. Questions on systems matters may be directed to: Mr. Paul Gettys, Grant Systems Coordinator, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 09E70, Rockville, MD 20857, Phone: (301) 443-2114; or the DGM main line (301) 443-5204, Fax: (301) 594-0899, E-Mail:
The Public Health Service strongly encourages all cooperative agreement and contract recipients to provide a smoke-free workplace and promote the non-use of all tobacco products. In addition, Public Law 103-227, the Pro-Children Act of 1994, prohibits smoking in certain facilities (or in some cases, any portion of the facility) in which regular or routine education, library, day care, health care, or early childhood development services are provided to children. This is consistent with the HHS mission to protect and advance the physical and mental health of the American people.
Dated: April 24, 2017.
RADM Chris Buchanan, R.E.H.S., M.P.H.
Assistant Surgeon General, USPHS Acting Director
The PHS strongly encourages all cooperative agreement and contract recipients to provide a smoke-free workplace and promote the non-use of all tobacco products. In addition, Public Law 103-227, the Pro-Children Act of 1994, prohibits smoking in certain facilities (or in some cases, any portion of the facility) in which regular or routine education, library, day care, health care, or early childhood development services are provided to children. This is consistent with the HHS mission to protect and advance the physical and mental health of the American people.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30-days of the date of this application.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to the: Office of Management and Budget, Office of Regulatory Affairs,
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments or contact: Dr. Paula Y. Goodwin, Special Assistant to the Director, Office of Extramural Programs, OER, NIH, 6705 Rockledge Drive, Suite 350, Bethesda, MD 20892, or call non-toll-free number (301) 496-9232 or Email your request, including your address to:
The Office of Extramural Programs (OEP), Office of Extramural Research (OER), National Institutes of Health (NIH), may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the NIH has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.
OMB approval is requested for 3 years. There are no costs to respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 1911.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, Department of Health and Human Services.
Notice of Establishment of the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC).
The Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary), in accordance with section 6031 of the 21st Century Cures Act, announces the establishment of the Interdepartmental Serious Mental Illness Coordinating Committee (ISMICC). The Secretary designated the Assistant Secretary for
Established March 15, 2017.
Pamela Foote, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, 5600 Fishers Lane, 14E53C, Rockville, MD 20857; telephone: 240-276-1279; email:
The ISMICC is established in accordance with section 6031 of the 21st Century Cures Act, and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. App., as amended, to report to the Secretary, Congress, and any other relevant federal department or agency on advances in serious mental illness (SMI) and serious emotional disturbance (SED), research related to the prevention of, diagnosis of, intervention in, and treatment and recovery of SMIs, SEDs, and advances in access to services and support for adults with SMI or children with SED. The Secretary designated the Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use as Chair of the ISMICC. In addition, the ISMICC will evaluate the effect federal programs related to serious mental illness have on public health, including public health outcomes such as (A) rates of suicide, suicide attempts, incidence and prevalence of SMIs, SEDs, and substance use disorders, overdose, overdose deaths, emergency hospitalizations, emergency room boarding, preventable emergency room visits, interaction with the criminal justice system, homelessness, and unemployment; (B) increased rates of employment and enrollment in educational and vocational programs; (C) quality of mental and substance use disorders treatment services; or (D) any other criteria as may be determined by the Secretary. Finally, the ISMICC will make specific recommendations for actions that agencies can take to better coordinate the administration of mental health services for adults with SMI or children with SED. Not later than 1(one) year after the date of enactment of the 21st Century Cures Act, and 5 (five) years after such date of enactment, the ISMICC shall submit a report to Congress and any other relevant federal department or agency.
This ISMICC will consist of federal members listed below or their designees and non-federal public members.
• The Secretary;
• The Assistant Secretary for Mental Health and Substance Use;
• The Attorney General;
• The Secretary of the Department of Veterans Affairs;
• The Secretary of the Department of Defense;
• The Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban Development;
• The Secretary of the Department of Education;
• The Secretary of the Department of Labor;
• The Administrator of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; and
• The Commissioner of the Social Security Administration.
• At least two individuals who have received treatment for a diagnosis of a SMI;
• A parent or legal guardian of an adult with a history of SMI or a child with a history of SED;
• A representative of a leading research, advocacy, or service organization for adults with SMI;
• At least two members who are one of the following:
○ A licensed psychiatrist with experience treating SMI;
○ A licensed psychologist with experience in treating SMI or SED;
○ A licensed clinical social worker with experience treating SMIs or SEDs; or
○ A licensed psychiatric nurse, nurse practitioner, or physician's assistant with experience in treating SMIs or SEDs.
• A licensed mental health professional with a specialty in treating children and adolescents with a SED;
• A mental health professional who has research or clinical mental health experience in working with minorities;
• A mental health professional who has research or clinical mental health experience in working with medically underserved populations;
• A state certified mental health peer support specialist;
• A judge with experience in adjudicating cases related to criminal justice or SMI;
• A law enforcement officer or corrections officer with extensive experience in interfacing with adults with a SMI, children with SED, or individuals in a mental health crisis; and
• An individual with experience providing services for homeless individuals and working with adults with SMI, children with a SED, or individuals in a mental health crisis.
The term of office of a non-federal member of the ISMICC shall be for three years, subject to reappointment to serve for one or more additional three year terms. If a vacancy occurs in the ISMICC among the members, the Secretary shall make an appointment to fill such vacancy within 90 days from the date the vacancy occurs. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term shall be appointed for the remainder of such term. A member may serve after the expiration of the member's term until a successor has been appointed. Initial appointments shall be made in such a manner as to ensure that the terms of the members not all expire in the same year. The ISMICC is required to meet twice per year. The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration shall provide orientation and training for new members of the ISMICC for their effective participation in the functions of the ISMICC.
A separate
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) notifies federal agencies of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITF) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines
A notice listing all currently HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs is published in the
If any laboratory or IITF has withdrawn from the HHS National Laboratory Certification Program (NLCP) during the past month, it will be listed at the end and will be omitted from the monthly listing thereafter.
This notice is also available on the Internet at
Giselle Hersh, Division of Workplace Programs, SAMHSA/CSAP, 5600 Fishers Lane, Room 16N03A, Rockville, Maryland 20857; 240-276-2600 (voice).
The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) notifies federal agencies of the laboratories and Instrumented Initial Testing Facilities (IITF) currently certified to meet the standards of the Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs (Mandatory Guidelines). The Mandatory Guidelines were first published in the
The Mandatory Guidelines were initially developed in accordance with Executive Order 12564 and section 503 of Public Law 100-71. The “Mandatory Guidelines for Federal Workplace Drug Testing Programs,” as amended in the revisions listed above, requires strict standards that laboratories and IITFs must meet in order to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens for federal agencies.
To become certified, an applicant laboratory or IITF must undergo three rounds of performance testing plus an on-site inspection. To maintain that certification, a laboratory or IITF must participate in a quarterly performance testing program plus undergo periodic, on-site inspections.
Laboratories and IITFs in the applicant stage of certification are not to be considered as meeting the minimum requirements described in the HHS Mandatory Guidelines. A HHS-certified laboratory or IITF must have its letter of certification from HHS/SAMHSA (formerly: HHS/NIDA), which attests that it has met minimum standards.
In accordance with the Mandatory Guidelines dated November 25, 2008 (73 FR 71858), the following HHS-certified laboratories and IITFs meet the minimum standards to conduct drug and specimen validity tests on urine specimens:
*The Standards Council of Canada (SCC) voted to end its Laboratory Accreditation Program for Substance Abuse (LAPSA) effective May 12, 1998. Laboratories certified through that program were accredited to conduct forensic urine drug testing as required by U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations. As of that date, the certification of those accredited Canadian laboratories will continue under DOT authority. The responsibility for conducting quarterly performance testing plus periodic on-site inspections of those LAPSA-accredited laboratories was transferred to the U.S. HHS, with the HHS' NLCP contractor continuing to have an active role in the performance testing and laboratory inspection processes. Other Canadian laboratories wishing to be considered for the NLCP may apply directly to the NLCP contractor just as U.S. laboratories do.
Upon finding a Canadian laboratory to be qualified, HHS will recommend that DOT certify the laboratory (
Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee teleconference meeting.
The Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee will meet via teleconference, to complete the discussions from its March 22-23, 2017, meetings on various issues related to the training and fitness of merchant marine personnel. The teleconference will be open to the public.
The full Committee is scheduled to meet by teleconference on Tuesday, May 16, 2017, from 11 a.m. until 2 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time. Please note that this teleconference may adjourn early if the Committee has completed its business.
To join the teleconference, contact the individual listed in the
For information on facilities or services for individuals with disabilities or to request special assistance at the meeting, contact the Alternate Designated Federal Officer as soon as possible using the contact information provided in the
Lieutenant Junior Grade James Fortin, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Ave SE., Stop 7509, Washington, DC 20593-7509, telephone 202-372-1128, fax 202-372-8385 or
Notice of this meeting is given under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 United States Code Appendix.
The Merchant Marine Personnel Advisory Committee was established under authority of section 310 of the Howard Coble Coast Guard and Maritime Transportation Act of 2014, codified at Title 46, United States Code, section 8108, and chartered under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Title 5, United States Code, Appendix). The Committee acts solely in an advisory capacity to the Secretary of the Department of Homeland Security through the Commandant of the Coast Guard on matters relating to personnel in the United States merchant marine, including training, qualifications, certification, documentation, and fitness standards and other matters as assigned by the Commandant. The Committee shall also review and comment on proposed Coast Guard regulations and policies relating to personnel in the United States merchant marine, including training, qualifications, certification, documentation, and fitness standards; may be given special
The agenda for the May 16, 2017, full Committee teleconference meeting is as follows:
(1) Introduction.
(2) Designated Federal Officer announcements.
(3) Roll call of Committee members and determination of a quorum.
(4) New Business.
(a) New task statement, Military Education, Training and Assessment for STCW and National Mariner Endorsements;
(b) New task statement, Review and comment on the “Guidelines for Issuing Endorsements for Tankerman PIC Restricted to Fuel Transfers on Towing Vessels” policy letter (CG-MMC Policy Letter No. 01-17);
(c) New task statement, Provide input to MARAD's working group that will examine and assess the size of the pool of U.S. mariners necessary to support the U.S. flag fleet in times of national emergency; and
(d) New task statement, Communication between External Stakeholders and the Mariner Credentialing Program.
(e) New task statement, Fundamental requirement for Officers to read and write in English.
(5) Report summaries and recommendations from the following working groups:
(a) Task Statement 87, Review of policy documents providing guidance on the implementation of the December 24, 2013 International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers rulemaking;
(b) Task Statement 95, Recommendations Regarding Training Requirements for Officer Endorsements for Master or Mate (Pilot) of Towing Vessels, except Assistance Towing and Apprentice Mate (Steersman) of Towing Vessels, in Inland Service;
(c) Task Statement 96, Review and comment on the course and program approval requirements including 46 CFR 10.402, 10.403, 10.407 and NVIC 03-14 guidelines for approval of training courses and programs;
(d) Task Statement 97, Develop and recommend the specifications for a Designated Examiner, Qualified Assessor and Designated Medical Examiner online verification tool so that the public, mariners and shipping companies can verify the Designated Examiner, Qualified Assessor and Designated Medical Examiners for Coast Guard approval of individuals to perform the functions of those positions;
(e) New task statement, Military Education, Training and Assessment for STCW and National Mariner Endorsements;
(f) New task statement, Review and comment on the “Guidelines for Issuing Endorsements for Tankerman PIC Restricted to Fuel Transfers on Towing Vessels” policy letter (CG-MMC Policy Letter No. 01-17);
(g) New task statement, Provide input to MARAD's working group that will examine and assess the size of the pool of U.S. mariners necessary to support the U.S. flag fleet in times of national emergency; and
(h) New task statement, Communication between External Stakeholders and the Mariner Credentialing Program.
(6) Public comment period.
(7) Discussion of working group recommendations. The Committee will review the information presented on each issue, deliberate on any recommendations presented by the working groups, and approve/formulate recommendations. The Committee will also close any completed tasks. Official action on these recommendations may be taken on this date.
(8) Closing remarks.
(9) Adjournment of meeting.
A copy of all meeting documentation will be available at
Public comments will be limited to three minutes per speaker. Please note that the public comment periods will end following the last call for comments. Please contact Lieutenant Junior Grade James Fortin, listed in the
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than May 31, 2017 to be assured of consideration).
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to the CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted no later than May 31, 2017 to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to the CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day notice and request for comments; Extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than May 31, 2017) to be assured of consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on this proposed information collection to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget. Comments should be addressed to the OMB Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security, and sent via electronic mail to
Requests for additional information should be directed to the CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Those wishing to claim duty-free treatment under this program must prepare a declaration of compliance which identifies and details the costs of the beneficiary components of production and non-beneficiary components of production to show that the 50% value content requirement was satisfied. The information collected under the Haiti Hope Act is provided for in 19 CFR 10.848.
U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day Notice and request for comments; extension of an existing collection of information.
The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted (no later than June 30, 2017) to be assured of consideration.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0037 in the subject line and the agency name. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1) Email. Submit comments to:
(2) Mail. Submit written comments to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177.
Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to CBP Paperwork Reduction Act Officer, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, 90 K Street NE., 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, or via email
CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 et seq). Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Office of the Assistant Secretary for Housing—Federal Housing Commissioner, HUD.
Notice.
This notice advises the public that HUD is deferring implementation of the Small Building Risk Sharing Program authorized by Section 542(b) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, to facilitate the financing of small multifamily properties.
Donald Billingsley, Office of Multifamily Housing Programs, Office of Production, Department of Housing and Urban Development, 451 7th Street SW., Room 6148, Washington, DC 20410; email address
The “Small Building Risk Sharing Initiative Final Notice” (Final Notice) was published on July 16, 2015 at 80 FR 42105, following an initial notice published for public comment on November 4, 2013, at 78 FR 66043. The Final Notice announced implementation of an Initiative under the Risk Sharing Program, authorized by Section 542(b) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, to facilitate the financing of small multifamily properties.
While applications were received pursuant to the Final Notice, HUD never implemented the program. In addition, it is not clear whether the program is still needed under current economic conditions. HUD therefore indefinitely defers the applicability of the Final Notice implementing the Small Buildings Risk Sharing Program (the “Initiative”) under Section 542(b) of the
(a) If the Initiative is still needed to provide debt financing to small, affordable properties, or whether the availability of long-term, low-cost permanent financing to support small properties has increased substantially since the Initiative was first proposed, specifically through new and expanded federally backed financing programs offered through Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac;
(b) The regulatory requirements and restrictions that would be imposed on property owners/borrowers participating in the Initiative regarding tenant rents and incomes, and whether these requirements would impose unfair and inappropriate economic burden on small property owners who provide affordable market rents but do not otherwise receive a government funded housing subsidy;
(c) Whether existing Federal Housing Administration multifamily lending programs, including the newly expanded Tax Credit Pilot Program which supports new construction and substantial rehabilitation projects, adequately serve the debt financing needs of small properties that support affordable rental housing; and,
(d) If the provisions of the Initiative as published adequately account for HUD's share of risk assumed for loans originated under the Initiative, or need to be modified in a revised Initiative notice.
Office of the Secretary, Secretary's Indian Water Rights Office.
30-day notice and request for comments.
The Secretary's Indian Water Rights Office (SIWRO) has submitted an information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to complete a new information collection to identify and track social and economic changes that occur as a result of the implementation of enacted Indian water rights settlements (IWRS).
The OMB is required to respond to this information collection request within 60 days but may respond after 30 days. For maximum consideration, written comments should be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Please submit comments by either fax (202) 395-5806 or email (
To request a copy of the information collection request, any explanatory information and related forms, see the contact information provided in the
The Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) and OMB regulations at 5 CFR part 1320 provide that an agency may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. Until OMB approves a collection of information, you are not obligated to respond. In order to obtain and renew an OMB control number, Federal agencies are required to seek public comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities (see 5 CFR 1320.8(d) and 1320.12(a)).
As required at 5 CFR 1320.8(d), the SIWRO published a 60-day notice in the
1. The following are examples of the types of questions that SIWRO may use in the information collection: Was the infrastructure included in the agreement put in place; is the infrastructure functioning as expected; if water leasing is allowed for under the agreement is such leasing taking place, and with whom; what are the perceived benefits to the tribal nations, local communities and other parties to the settlement; to what extent have economic and social benefits been realized from any infrastructure or other arrangements or agreements implemented pursuant to the settlement; are the benefits of the actions taken under the settlement expected to continue in the future; have there been any unintended consequences of the actions taken under the settlement. If commenters would like specific questions asked during the targeted interviews, SIWRO encourages that those questions be submitted as comments on this ICR.
2. Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper functioning of the SIWRO, including whether the information will have practical utility;
3. The accuracy of the SIWRO's estimate of the burden of collecting the information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
4. The quality, utility and clarity of the information to be collected; and
5. How to minimize the information collection burden on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other forms of information technology.
Please send comments as directed under
The following information pertains to this request:
Indian reserved water rights are vested property rights for which the United States has a trust responsibility, with the United States holding legal title to such water in trust for the benefit of Indian tribes. Federal policy supports the resolution of disputes regarding Indian water rights through negotiated settlements. Settlement of Indian water rights disputes breaks down barriers and helps create conditions that improve water resources management by providing certainty as to the rights of all water users who are parties to the disputes. At a time of increasing competition for Federal funds, it is important to quantify and describe the economic impacts and net benefits of the implementation of enacted Indian water rights settlements.
The estimated burdens are itemized in the following table:
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted reviews pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on high pressure steel cylinders from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.
Effective May 1, 2017. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is May 31, 2017. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by July 13, 2017.
Mary Messer (202-205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
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Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Carol McCue Verratti, Deputy Agency Ethics Official, at 202-205-3088.
No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 17-5-385, expiration date June 30, 2017. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436.
(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.
(2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the
(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.
(4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping and countervailing duty orders on the
(5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the
(6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the
(7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the
(8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the
(9) If you are a U.S. producer of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the
(d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the
(e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the
(10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the
(a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping or countervailing duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of
(b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of
(c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping and/or countervailing duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of
(11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of
(12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the
(13)
This proceeding is being conducted under authority of Title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice of opportunity to provide written comments in connection with the Commission's eighth annual review.
The U.S. International Trade Commission (Commission) has announced its schedule, including deadlines for filing written submissions, in connection with the preparation of its eighth annual review in investigation No. 332-503,
June 30, 2017: Deadline for filing written submissions. September 28, 2017: Transmittal of eighth report to House Committee on Ways and Means and Senate Committee on Finance.
All Commission offices, including the Commission's hearing rooms, are located in the United States International Trade Commission Building, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC. All written submissions, including statements, and briefs, should be addressed to the Secretary, United States International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. The public file for this investigation may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at
Project Leader Laura Rodriguez (202-205-3499 or
Section 404(d) directs the Commission to conduct an annual review of the program to evaluate the effectiveness of the program and make recommendations for improvements. The Commission is required to submit its reports containing the results of its reviews to the House Committee on Ways and Means and the Senate Committee on Finance. Copies of the Commission's first seven annual reviews are available on the Commission's Web site at
The Commission instituted this investigation pursuant to section 332(g) of the Tariff Act of 1930 to facilitate docketing of submissions and also to facilitate public access to Commission records through the Commission's EDIS electronic records system.
The Commission will not include any confidential business information in the report that it sends to the Committees or makes available to the public. However, all information, including confidential business information, submitted in this investigation may be disclosed to and used: (i) By the Commission, its employees and Offices, and contract personnel (a) for developing or maintaining the records of this or a related proceeding, or (b) in internal investigations, audits, reviews, and evaluations relating to the programs, personnel, and operations of the Commission including under 5 U.S.C. Appendix 3; or (ii) by U.S. government employees and contract personnel for cybersecurity purposes. The Commission will not otherwise disclose any confidential business information in a manner that would reveal the operations of the firm supplying the information.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
May 5, 2017 at 11:00 a.m.
Room 101, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, Telephone: (202) 205-2000.
Open to the public.
1.
2. Minutes.
3. Ratification List.
4. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-571-572 and 731-TA-1347-1348 (Preliminary) (Biodiesel from Argentina and Indonesia). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determinations on May 8, 2017; views of the Commission are currently scheduled to be completed and filed on May 15, 2017.
5. Vote in Inv. Nos. 701-TA-561 and 731-TA-1317-1318, 1321-1325, and 1327 (Final) (Carbon and Alloy Steel Cut-to-Length Plate from Austria, Belgium, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Korea, and Taiwan). The Commission is currently scheduled to complete and file its determination and views of the Commission by May 17, 2017.
6.
In accordance with Commission policy, subject matter listed above, not disposed of at the scheduled meeting, may be carried over to the agenda of the following meeting.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Correction of notice.
Correction is made to the April 19, 2017, Notice of Institution of Investigation, which was published on April 25, 2017 (82 FR 19081). The Notice incorrectly states under the section
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on March 27, 2017, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, on behalf of LG Electronics, Inc. of the Republic of Korea; LG Electronics Alabama, Inc. of Huntsville Alabama; and LG Electronics MobileComm U.S.A., Inc. of Englewood Cliffs, New Jersey. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 based upon the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain LTE wireless communication devices and components thereof by reason of infringement of certain claims of U.S. Patent No. 7,916,714 (“the '714 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 8,107,456 (“the '456 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 9,191,173 (“the '173 patent”); U.S. Patent No. 9,225,572 (“the '572 patent”); and U.S. Patent No. 8,891,560 (“the '560 patent”). The complaint further alleges that an industry in the United States exists as required by the applicable Federal Statute.
The complainants request that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders.
The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street, SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server at
The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.
The authority for institution of this investigation is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19 U.S.C. 1337 and in section 210.10 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10 (2016).
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain LTE wireless communication devices and components thereof by reason of infringement of one or more of claims 1-3 and 7-9 of the '714 patent; claims 1-4, 7, 10-13, and 16 of the '456 patent; claims 1, 2, 4, 11, 12, and 14 of the '173 patent; claims 1-3, 5-9, 11-14, and 16-19 of the '572 patent; and claims 1-6 of the '560 patent, and whether an industry in the United States exists as
(2) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(1), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(1), the presiding administrative law judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties and other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1), (f)(1), (g)(1);
(3) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainants are:
(b) The respondents are the following entities alleged to be in violation of section 337, and are the parties upon which the complaint is to be served:
(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and
(4) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted a review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on tin- and chromium-coated steel sheet from Japan would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.
Effective May 1, 2017. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is May 31, 2017. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by July 13, 2017.
Mary Messer (202-205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
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Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Carol McCue Verratti, Deputy Agency Ethics Official, at 202-205-3088.
No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 17-5-386, expiration date June 30, 2017. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436.
(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.
(2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the
(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.
(4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping duty order on the
(5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the
(6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the
(7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the
(8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the
(9) If you are a U.S. producer of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the
(d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the
(e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the
(10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the
(a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of
(b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of
(c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of
(11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of
(12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the
(13) (Optional) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the
This proceeding is being conducted under authority of title VII of the
By order of the Commission.
United States International Trade Commission.
Notice.
The Commission hereby gives notice that it has instituted a review pursuant to the Tariff Act of 1930 (“the Act”), as amended, to determine whether revocation of the antidumping duty order on foundry coke from China would be likely to lead to continuation or recurrence of material injury. Pursuant to the Act, interested parties are requested to respond to this notice by submitting the information specified below to the Commission.
Effective May 1, 2017. To be assured of consideration, the deadline for responses is May 31, 2017. Comments on the adequacy of responses may be filed with the Commission by July 13, 2017.
Mary Messer (202-205-3193), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
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Former Commission employees who are seeking to appear in Commission five-year reviews are advised that they may appear in a review even if they participated personally and substantially in the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation. The Commission's designated agency ethics official has advised that a five-year review is not the same particular matter as the underlying original investigation, and a five-year review is not the same particular matter as an earlier review of the same underlying investigation for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207, the post employment statute for Federal employees, and Commission rule 201.15(b) (19 CFR 201.15(b)), 79 FR 3246 (Jan. 17, 2014), 73 FR 24609 (May 5, 2008). Consequently, former employees are not required to seek Commission approval to appear in a review under Commission rule 19 CFR 201.15, even if the corresponding underlying original investigation or an earlier review of the same underlying investigation was pending when they were Commission employees. For further ethics advice on this matter, contact Carol McCue Verratti, Deputy Agency Ethics Official, at 202-205-3088.
No response to this request for information is required if a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) number is not displayed; the OMB number is 3117 0016/USITC No. 17-5-384, expiration date June 30, 2017. Public reporting burden for the request is estimated to average 15 hours per response. Please send comments regarding the accuracy of this burden estimate to the Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436.
(1) The name and address of your firm or entity (including World Wide Web address) and name, telephone number, fax number, and Email address of the certifying official.
(2) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is an interested party under 19 U.S.C. 1677(9) and if so, how, including whether your firm/entity is a U.S. producer of the
(3) A statement indicating whether your firm/entity is willing to participate in this proceeding by providing information requested by the Commission.
(4) A statement of the likely effects of the revocation of the antidumping duty order on the
(5) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. producers of the
(6) A list of all known and currently operating U.S. importers of the
(7) A list of 3-5 leading purchasers in the U.S. market for the
(8) A list of known sources of information on national or regional prices for the
(9) If you are a U.S. producer of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. production of the
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of U.S. commercial shipments of the
(d) the quantity and value of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of the
(e) the value of (i) net sales, (ii) cost of goods sold (COGS), (iii) gross profit, (iv) selling, general and administrative (SG&A) expenses, and (v) operating income of the
(10) If you are a U.S. importer or a trade/business association of U.S. importers of the
(a) The quantity and value (landed, duty-paid but not including antidumping duties) of U.S. imports and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total U.S. imports of
(b) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. commercial shipments of
(c) the quantity and value (f.o.b. U.S. port, including antidumping duties) of U.S. internal consumption/company transfers of
(11) If you are a producer, an exporter, or a trade/business association of producers or exporters of the
(a) Production (quantity) and, if known, an estimate of the percentage of total production of
(b) Capacity (quantity) of your firm(s) to produce the
(c) the quantity and value of your firm's(s') exports to the United States of
(12) Identify significant changes, if any, in the supply and demand conditions or business cycle for the
(13) (OPTIONAL) A statement of whether you agree with the above definitions of the
This proceeding is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.61 of the Commission's rules.
By order of the Commission.
Notice is hereby given that, on March 29, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and HEDGE IV intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On February 14, 2017, HEDGE IV filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
Notice is hereby given that, on March 22, 2017, pursuant to Section 6(a) of the National Cooperative Research and Production Act of 1993, 15 U.S.C. 4301
No other changes have been made in either the membership or planned activity of the group research project. Membership in this group research project remains open, and AIM Photonics intends to file additional written notifications disclosing all changes in membership.
On June 16, 2016, AIM Photonics filed its original notification pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Act. The Department of Justice published a notice in the
The last notification was filed with the Department on December 23, 2016. A notice was published in the
Employee Benefits Security Administration, Labor.
Notice of proposed exemption.
This document contains notices of pendency before the Department of Labor (the Department) of proposed exemption from certain of the prohibited transaction restrictions of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA or the Act) and/or the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code). This notice includes the following proposed exemption: D-11845, Rosetree & Company 401(k) Plan and Trust.
All interested persons are invited to submit written comments or requests for a hearing on the pending exemption within May 31, 2017.
Comments and requests for a hearing should state: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the person making the comment or request, and (2) the nature of the person's interest in the exemption and the manner in which the person would be adversely affected by the exemption. A request for a hearing must also state the issues to be addressed and include a general description of the evidence to be presented at the hearing.
All written comments and requests for a hearing (at least three copies) should be sent to the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), Office of Exemption Determinations, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Suite 400, Washington, DC 20210. Attention: Application No. __, stated in each Notice of Proposed Exemption. Interested persons are also invited to submit comments and/or hearing requests to EBSA via email or FAX. Any such comments or requests should be sent either by email to:
The proposed exemption was requested in an application filed pursuant to section 408(a) of the Act and/or section 4975(c)(2) of the Code, and in accordance with procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, 66644, October 27, 2011).
The application contains representations with regard to the proposed exemption which are summarized below. Interested persons are referred to the applications on file with the Department for a complete statement of the facts and representations.
Based on the facts and representations set forth in the application, the Department is considering granting an exemption under section 4975(c)(2) of the Code and in accordance with the procedures set forth in 29 CFR part 2570, subpart B (76 FR 66637, 66644, October 27, 2011).
If the proposed exemption is granted, the sanctions resulting from the application of section 4975(c)(1)(B) of the Code, shall not apply to the proposed guarantee (the Guarantee) by
(a) The Loan is made for purposes of the Plan acquiring and rehabilitating investment property from an unrelated third party through Kurtson;
(b) The Loan is made on commercially reasonable terms;
(c) The debt service and value to loan ratio for the Loan, and for any future Loan, are based primarily on the characteristics of the property serving as collateral for such Loan (the Collateral Property);
(d) The Lender and the Loan servicer (the Loan Servicer) are unrelated to Mr. Rosenbaum and the Plan;
(e) The Lender has a pre-existing Loan service arrangement with the Loan Servicer, and maintains this relationship for the duration of the Loan;
(f) Mr. Rosenbaum does not receive any compensation or derive any personal benefit from the Collateral Property;
(g) For the duration of the Loan or any future Loan, the Collateral Property is not used by or leased to: (1) any other disqualified persons with respect to the Plan; (2) Rosetree or any affiliate of Rosetree; or (3) any person or entity in which Mr. Rosenbaum may have an interest that would affect his best judgment as a Plan fiduciary;
(h) The Guarantee is a condition that is: (1) customarily required in similar transactions between Kurtson and the Lender, and is not unique to the Loan or to the specific parties to the Loan; and (2) solely due to a regulatory requirement of the National Credit Union Administration that is imposed upon credit unions, including GLCU;
(i) If the Plan defaults on a Loan, Mr. Rosenbaum pays the balance of such Loan, and has no recourse against the Plan for repayment;
(j) No interest or any fee is charged to Kurtson or the Plan in connection with the Guarantee; and
(k) The Guarantee is not part of an agreement, arrangement, or understanding in which Mr. Rosenbaum causes the assets of the Plan to be used in a manner that is designed to benefit himself or any person who has an interest which would affect the exercise of Mr. Rosenbaum's best judgment as a fiduciary of the Plan.
1. The Plan is a 401(k) Plan sponsored by Rosetree, a licensed CPA firm, insurance agency, and registered investment adviser. Mr. Rosenbaum (the Applicant) is the sole shareholder and employee of Rosetree. He performs all of Rosetree's operations and receives periodic compensation. Mr. Rosenbaum is also the sole participant in the Plan, as well as the Plan administrator and trustee. As of March 31, 2016, the Plan had approximately $480,000 in total assets.
2. Kurtson is a real estate operating company that is wholly owned by the Plan. Kurtson currently owns three investment properties, including a 3-unit apartment building located at 1842 S. Drake, Chicago, Illinois (the Collateral Property), which is rented to unrelated parties. Mr. Rosenbaum performs administrative duties for Kurtson, but he receives no compensation for his services.
3. The Plan contemplates entering into a Loan from GLCU, a credit union based in Bannockburn, Illinois. As of December 31, 2015, GLCU had $719 million in assets.
4. Spectrum Business Resources, LLC (Spectrum) is GLCU's loan servicing agent in Lisle, Illinois. As the Loan Servicer for several member credit unions, Spectrum identifies potential borrowers, prepares loan write-ups for the credit union loan committees, prepares loan documents and maintains correspondence and relationships with the borrowers. Both GLCU and Spectrum are unrelated to the Plan and Mr. Rosenbaum.
5. Kurtson seeks an initial Loan from GLCU in order to acquire and rehabilitate a new investment property that will serve as the Collateral Property for the Loan. A Loan proposal (the Loan Proposal) from Spectrum, which specifies the terms and conditions under which the requested financing will be provided to Kurtson, states that “GLCU will provide up to a $90,000, secured, guaranteed commercial mortgage on the [Collateral Property], [which will require] 60 monthly payments of principal and interest through maturity in 5 years, based on a 20-year amortization schedule, at a 5.95% fixed interest rate.” The Loan Proposal also provides that “the Loan amount will not exceed 75% of the appraised value of the [Collateral Property].”
6. In addition to the Collateral Property, the collateral for the Loan will consist of an assignment of rents on the Collateral Property by Kurtson to GLCU. Other terms of the Loan Proposal require an appraisal of the Collateral Property prior to the formal approval of such Loan, to confirm a minimum market value of $120,000. Further, pursuant to credit union regulations, the Loan will require a written Guarantee from Mr. Rosenbaum.
7. With respect to fees and other expenses associated with the Loan, the Applicant represents that there will be a processing fee of $250. In addition, Kurtson will be required to reimburse GLCU for all costs associated with the transaction, including but not limited to attorney's fees, appraisal fees, recording fees, title insurance costs, survey costs, searches, documentation fees, and any other costs and fees associated with the transaction. The Loan will not have any prepayment penalties.
Although the Loan Proposal allows for a Loan amount of up to $90,000, Kurtson will obtain a Loan for $80,000, resulting in a value to loan ratio of 150%. The Loan would represent approximately 14.29% of the Plan's assets.
8. The Applicant anticipates that the Plan will engage in additional Loans of a similar nature in the future. Accordingly, Kurtson will obtain all future Loans from the Lender under similar, commercially-reasonable terms, subject to changes in market conditions that would affect the interest rate. The debt service and value to loan ratio for the Loan, and for any future Loan, will be based primarily on the characteristics of the Collateral Property.
In addition, the Lender and the Loan Servicer will be unrelated to Mr. Rosenbaum and the Plan. Although, the Lender may not have a pre-existing loan service arrangement with the Loan Servicer, it will maintain this relationship with Spectrum for the duration of a Loan. Further, Mr. Rosenbaum will not receive any compensation or derive any personal benefit from the Collateral Property. Finally, the Collateral Property for the Loan or any future Loan, may not be used by or leased to: (a) any other disqualified persons with respect to the Plan; (b) Rosetreee or any affiliate of Rosetree; or (c) any person or entity in which Mr. Rosenbaum may have an interest that would affect his best judgment as a Plan fiduciary.
9. The Collateral Property for the initial Loan has been appraised by Steven F. Eggler, a Certified Residential Real Estate Appraiser, of C.A. Benson and Associates, Inc., which is located in La Grange Park, Illinois. Mr. Eggler represents that he has no interest in the Collateral Property and no bias with respect to the participants in the proposed transaction, or with respect to Rosetree, the Plan, or Kurtson. Mr. Eggler also represents that his employment and/or compensation for performing the appraisal or any future appraisals was not conditioned on any agreement or understanding that he would report (or present analysis, supporting), among other things, a predetermined specific value, a predetermined minimum value, a range or direction in value, or a value that favors the cause of any party.
10. In an appraisal report dated September 30, 2014 (the 2014 Appraisal), Mr. Eggler certifies that he developed his opinion of the market value of the Collateral Property based solely on the Sales Comparison and Income Approaches to valuation. As of September 23, 2014, Mr. Eggler placed the fair market value of the Collateral Property at $120,000, under the Sales Comparison Approach, and at $117,000, under the Income Approach. After reconciling both valuations, Mr. Eggler ultimately determined that the Collateral Property was worth $120,000, as of September 30, 2014.
11. In a statement dated May 31, 2016, Charles A. Benson, Jr., SRA of C. A. Benson and Associates, Inc., who was the supervisory appraiser for the 2014 Appraisal, provided an update to the sales data discussed in the 2014 Appraisal, as it applies to the Collateral Property. As noted in the 2014 Appraisal, Mr. Benson represents that the average sale price of a 2-4 unit [in the $100,000-200,000 price range] in the North Lawndale community, where the Collateral Property is located, was $136,171 over the 12-month period prior to the 2014 Appraisal. According to Mr. Benson, in the ensuing 12 month period, the average sale price for properties in the same price range as the Collateral Property was $131,287, which represented a 3.6% decline in value. Mr. Benson also represents that from September 25, 2015 to May 10, 2016, the average sale price of properties that were comparable to the Collateral Property was $137,953. According to Mr. Benson, this amount represents a 1.3% increase from the average sale price noted in the 2014 Appraisal. Mr. Benson explains that this price difference reflects a small decrease in the year after the 2014 Appraisal, followed by an increase to a level that was slightly higher than what was noted in the 2014 Appraisal. Overall, Mr. Benson represents that market conditions in the area have stabilized since the 2014 Appraisal.
The Applicant represents that any investment property used by the Applicant as Collateral Property to support a future Loan will be similarly valued by a qualified, independent appraiser.
13. Mr. Rosenbaum represents that he is an experienced real estate investor. As a former Partner in charge of the Chicago Real Estate practice of Coopers & Lybrand (now Price Waterhouse Coopers), Mr. Rosenbaum states that he has been a senior executive at other real estate industry entities, and that he personally owns ten properties that are similar to the Collateral Property.
It is Mr. Rosenbaum's opinion that, given the current investment environment, real estate investments of this type provide higher rates of return and less risk than other investments available. Mr. Rosenbaum is also of the view that the proposed Loans will enable the Plan to earn a higher rate of return by investing in an additional property, which would not be obtainable if the exemption request is denied.
14. As represented above, the Loan Proposal requires Mr. Rosenbaum's Guarantee. Accordingly, the Applicant is requesting an administrative exemption from the Department that will allow Mr. Rosenbaum to provide a Guarantee for the Loan that Kurtson, a wholly-owned entity of the Plan and thus, a Plan asset, is requesting from GLCU, as well as for future Loans from Lenders, which may include GLCU. The proposed Loan will be made on commercially reasonable terms, and both the debt service and value to loan ratios for the Loan from GLCU indicate that the Loan will be based primarily upon the characteristics of the Collateral Property that is being financed for purposes of the Loan. The Applicant represents that, although the Plan is dealing with GLCU, an independent lender, Mr. Rosenbaum is being asked by GLCU to participate as a Loan guarantor. The Applicant represents that the proposed Guarantee is solely due to a regulatory requirement of the National Credit Union Administration
Notwithstanding the regulatory requirement, the Applicant believes that with respect to the Loan, the Collateral Property provides adequate collateral and cash flow to repay the Loan without relying upon Mr. Rosenbaum's personal credit or funds.
No interest or any fee will be charged to Kurtson or the Plan in connection with the Guarantee. In addition, the Guarantee will not be part of an agreement, arrangement, or understanding in which Mr. Rosenbaum causes the assets of the Plan to be used in a manner that is designed to benefit himself or any person who has an interest which would affect the exercise of Mr. Rosenbaum's best judgment as a fiduciary of the Plan.
The Applicant also requests exemptive relief for Mr. Rosenbaum's Guarantee of certain future Loans that may be made to Kurtson by a Lender. As represented above, the debt service and value to loan ratios for all future Loans will be based primarily upon the characteristics of the Collateral Property for the specific Loan.
15. Section 4975(c)(1)(B) of the Code prohibits any direct or indirect lending
17. The Applicant states that the proposed exemption is administratively feasible in that it covers a specific factual situation that will not require ongoing monitoring by the Department. In addition, the Applicant states that the proposed exemption is in the best interests of the Plan and Mr. Rosenbaum as the sole participant because the Loan will allow the Plan to invest in another property in which the rate of return will be substantially higher for the Plan than investing in traditional assets, such as the stock market, and with less risk.
Further, the Applicant represents that the proposed exemption is protective of the rights of Mr. Rosenbaum as the sole Plan participant because the Loan is made by an unrelated, third party to the Plan and guaranteed by Mr. Rosenbaum in his individual capacity. In addition, the Applicant represents that no interest or fee is charged to Kurtson or the Plan in connection with the Guarantee.
18. In summary, the Applicant represents that the proposed transaction satisfies the statutory criteria of section 4975(c)(2) of the Code because:
(a) The Loan will be made for purposes of the Plan acquiring and rehabilitating investment property from an unrelated third party through Kurtson;
(b) The Loan will be made on commercially reasonable terms;
(c) The debt service and value to loan ratio for the Loan, and for any future Loan, will be based primarily on the characteristics of the Collateral Property;
(d) The Lender and the Loan Servicer will be unrelated to Mr. Rosenbaum and the Plan;
(e) The Lender will have a pre-existing Loan service arrangement with the Loan Servicer, and will maintain this relationship for the duration of the Loan;
(f) Mr. Rosenbaum will not receive any compensation or derive any personal benefit from the Collateral Property;
(g) For the duration of the Loan or any future Loan, the Collateral Property will not be used by or leased to: (1) any other disqualified persons with respect to the Plan; (2) Rosetree or any affiliate of Rosetree; or (3) any person or entity in whom Mr. Rosenbaum may have an interest that would affect his best judgment as a Plan fiduciary;
(h) The Guarantee will be a condition that is: (1) customarily required in similar transactions between Kurtson and the Lender, and will not be unique to the Loan or to the specific parties to the Loan; and (2) solely due to a regulatory requirement of the National Credit Union Administration that is imposed upon credit unions, including GLCU;
(i) If the Plan defaults on a Loan, Mr. Rosenbaum will pay the balance of each Loan and will have no recourse against the Plan for repayment;
(j) No interest or any fee will be charged to Kurtson or the Plan in connection with the Guarantee; and
(k) The Guarantee will not be part of an agreement, arrangement, or understanding in which Mr. Rosenbaum causes the assets of the Plan to be used in a manner that is designed to benefit himself or any person who has an interest which would affect the exercise of Mr. Rosenbaum's best judgment as a fiduciary of the Plan.
As Mr. Rosenbaum is the sole participant and beneficiary of the Plan, it has been determined that there is no need to distribute the Notice of Proposed Exemption (Notice) to interested persons. Therefore, comments and requests for a hearing must be received by the Department within thirty (30) days of the publication of this Notice in the
All comments will be made available to the public.
Ms. Anna Mpras Vaughan of the Department, telephone (202) 693-8565. (This is not a toll-free number.)
The attention of interested persons is directed to the following:
(1) The fact that a transaction is the subject of an exemption under section 408(a) of the Act and/or section 4975(c)(2) of the Code does not relieve a fiduciary or other party in interest or disqualified person from certain other provisions of the Act and/or the Code, including any prohibited transaction provisions to which the exemption does not apply and the general fiduciary responsibility provisions of section 404 of the Act, which, among other things, require a fiduciary to discharge his duties respecting the plan solely in the interest of the participants and beneficiaries of the plan and in a prudent fashion in accordance with section 404(a)(1)(b) of the Act; nor does it affect the requirement of section 401(a) of the Code that the plan must operate for the exclusive benefit of the employees of the employer maintaining the plan and their beneficiaries;
(2) Before an exemption may be granted under section 408(a) of the Act and/or section 4975(c)(2) of the Code, the Department must find that the exemption is administratively feasible, in the interests of the plan and of its participants and beneficiaries, and protective of the rights of participants and beneficiaries of the plan;
(3) The proposed exemption, if granted, will be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any other provisions of the Act and/or the Code, including statutory or administrative exemptions and transitional rules. Furthermore, the fact that a transaction is subject to an administrative or statutory exemption is not dispositive of whether the transaction is in fact a prohibited transaction; and
(4) The proposed exemption, if granted, will be subject to the express condition that the material facts and representations contained in the application are true and complete, and that the application accurately describes all material terms of the transaction which is the subject of the exemption.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.
Notice of competition and request for applications for the OSHA Training Institute Education Centers Program.
This notice announces the opportunity for interested non-profit organizations, including qualifying educational institutions, trade associations, labor unions, and community-based and faith-based organizations that are not an agency of a state or local government to submit applications to become an OSHA Training Institute Education Center and deliver standard classroom instruction on a regional basis. State or local government-supported institutions of higher education are eligible to apply. Eligible organizations can apply independently or in partnership with other eligible organizations, but in such a case, a lead organization must be identified along with a list of any consortium partners. Current OSHA-authorized OSHA Training Institute Education Centers required to renew their status must submit a new application in order to maintain their OSHA Training Institute Education Center status. If the corporate identity of an applicant, or its membership have changed, the new entity must submit an application. Applications will only be accepted during the solicitation period and will be rated on a competitive basis. Complete application instructions are contained in this notice.
This notice also contains information on a proposal conference designed to provide potential applicants with information about the OSHA Training Institute Education Centers Program. The conference will clarify OSHA expectations for OSHA Training Institute Education Centers, courses and methods of instruction, as well as administrative and program requirements for OSHA Training Institute Education Centers and the OSHA Outreach Training Program. Applicants are strongly encouraged to attend the proposal conference.
OSHA will enter into five-year, non-financial cooperative agreements with successful applicants. These authorization agreements are intended solely to facilitate the ongoing monitoring and evaluation of safety training provided by authorized OSHA Training Institute Education Centers. These cooperative agreements will not constitute a grant or financial assistance instrument, and OSHA will provide no compensation to authorized OSHA Training Institute Education Centers. Such non-financial cooperative agreements are renewable, at the Government's sole option, for one five-year period, if the organization has performed satisfactorily during the initial term.
Applications (three copies) must be received no later than 4:30 p.m. Central Time on June 30, 2017. Requests for extension of this application deadline will not be granted.
A proposal conference will be held on May 17, 2017, at the OSHA Directorate of Training and Education, 2020 South Arlington Heights Rd., Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102. Attendees are required to pre-register for this conference. Specific details are discussed in the Proposal Conference section of this notice.
Submit applications (three copies) to the OSHA Directorate of Training and Education, Office of Training Programs and Administration, Attn: James Brock, 2020 South Arlington Heights Rd., Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102.
Applicants selected to be OSHA Training Institute Education Centers must attend a mandatory orientation meeting to be held at the OSHA Directorate of Training and Education, 2020 South Arlington Heights Rd., Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102 at a time and date to be determined.
Any questions regarding this opportunity should be directed to: James Brock, OSHA Training Institute Education Centers Program Manager, email address
The
DTE, located in Arlington Heights, Illinois, supports the Agency's mission and performance goals of securing safe and healthy workplaces and increasing workers' voice in the workplace through the development and delivery of training courses and educational programs. The Directorate has three distinct functional areas: the OSHA Training Institute (OTI), the Office of Training Programs and Administration, and the Office of Training Educational Development. The Directorate provides training for federal and state compliance officers and state consultants. The Directorate administers three distinct external training programs including the OSHA Training Institute (OTI) Education Centers Program, the Outreach Training Program, and the Susan Harwood Training Grants Program. The Directorate also develops training and educational materials that support OTI courses and the Agency's compliance assistance initiatives.
OTI, located in Arlington Heights, Illinois, is OSHA's primary training provider. OTI conducts over 50 unique course offerings on an annual basis. Training includes job hazard recognition as well as OSHA standards, policies, and procedures for persons responsible for enforcing or directly
The OTI Education Centers are a national network of non-profit organizations authorized by OSHA to deliver occupational safety and health training to private and public sector workers, supervisors, and employers on behalf of OSHA. The OTI Education Centers Program was initiated in 1992 when OSHA began partnering with other training and educational institutions to conduct OSHA courses. The OTI Education Centers Program supports OSHA's training and education mission through a variety of safety and health programs.
OTI Education Center courses include OSHA standards and Outreach Training Program trainer and update courses. The OTI Education Centers offer more than 50 courses on various safety and health topics including recordkeeping, machine guarding, confined space, electrical standards, ergonomics, safety and health management, and fall protection. Information regarding the OTI Education Centers Program background, including a complete list of current organizations, OSHA numbered course offerings, and descriptions can be found on the OSHA Web site at:
OTI Education Centers are selected through a national competitive process and receive no funding from OSHA; they support their OSHA training through their normal tuition and fee structures. OTI Education Centers are located in all OSHA Regions and work closely with OSHA Regional and Area offices to meet the needs of the regional constituency. OTI Education Centers are encouraged to conduct courses at host site organizations in addition to their own facilities and are required to conduct courses in all states and U.S. territories within their Region. Host site organizations must be non-profit organizations. OTI Education Centers are responsible for authorizing Outreach trainers, processing Outreach trainer card requests, and conducting Outreach trainer monitoring activity for the OSHA Outreach Training Program.
The OSHA Outreach Training Program was established during the early years of the Agency to provide an overview of OSHA and to disseminate basic occupational safety and health workplace hazard information to workers using independent authorized trainers. Courses are intended to provide information on worker rights and employer responsibilities, and focus on work-related hazards. Outreach Training Program courses do not focus on or teach OSHA standards. Workers who complete the construction industry, general industry, maritime industry, or disaster site worker Outreach courses receive OSHA student course completion cards from the authorized trainer who conducted the training. OSHA Outreach Trainers are authorized exclusively through the OTI Education Centers. OTI Education Centers are responsible for administering the Outreach Training Program, including issuing course completion cards to authorized Outreach trainers and conducting monitoring activity such as record audits and training observations.
The Outreach Training Program is a voluntary program. OSHA recommends Outreach Training Program courses as an introduction to occupational safety and health hazard recognition for workers. Although a voluntary program, some cities and states have enacted laws mandating the training. In addition, some employers, unions, organizations, or other jurisdictions may also require this training. Please note that Outreach Training Program courses do not meet specific training requirements contained in OSHA standards. The OSHA Outreach Training Program requirements and procedures contain instructions and information for Outreach Trainers. Among the items addressed in the requirements and procedures are course topic requirements, minimum lengths for course topics, advertising restrictions, records retention, and reporting requirements. OSHA Outreach Training Program requirements and procedures are located at:
OTI Education Centers are responsible for the following:
(1) Adhere to all OSHA/DTE program requirements, policies, and procedures.
(2) Develop and update course curriculum to support learning objectives determined by OSHA/DTE.
(3) Ensure instructors are qualified in the courses/subjects they will be teaching in accordance with OSHA instructor qualification policies.
(4) Meet annual program goals that include the following:
(a) Conduct a minimum number of courses per month and achieve annual student training goals and objectives as established by OSHA/DTE. Program goals are evaluated and revised on an annual basis. For the federal fiscal year 2017, each OTI Education Center is expected to train 1,700 students annually.
(b) Provide standard classroom instruction training throughout their Region and target underserved areas identified by OSHA/DTE.
(c) Conduct courses on a year-round basis with each required, elective, and short course being offered in accordance with annual program goals. Required, elective, and short courses are subject to change.
(5) Publicize and promote the availability of courses to ensure attendance and the delivery of the scheduled courses.
(6) Register students, provide course materials, and issue course completion certificates to students. This includes:
(a) Ensuring students have met all prerequisites prior to registration.
(b) Collecting and retaining student registration and attendance records in accordance with OSHA/DTE guidelines.
(7) Comply with reporting requirements as identified by OSHA/DTE. This includes:
(a) Providing OSHA/DTE with monthly training summary reports.
(b) Providing OSHA/DTE with training and instructor records for quarterly audits, semi-annual, and annual performance reporting.
(c) Collecting student surveys from students in accordance with OSHA procedures and providing that data to OSHA as requested.
(8) Administer Outreach Training Program activities. This includes:
(a) Distributing student cards to authorized Outreach Training Program trainers.
(b) Monitoring OSHA Outreach trainers including conducting record audits and training observations.
(c) Responding and processing exception requests in accordance with Outreach Training Program requirements.
(9) Attend the semiannual OSHA Training Institute Education Centers Directors' Meetings.
(10) Collaborate with other OTI Education Centers including mandatory participation on project teams and providing financial and personnel
(11) Provide dedicated staff for the program management and administration.
DTE is responsible for the following:
(1) Develop program policies, procedures, and requirements.
(2) Provide answers and technical assistance on questions regarding OSHA policy and program requirements.
(3) Provide OTI Education Centers with learning objectives for courses to be presented.
(4) For select courses, provide curriculum and test questions.
(5) Coordinate the development of new OTI Education Center courses.
(6) Monitor the performance of the OTI Education Centers through on-site program visits, conference calls, training observations, and examination of course reports and attendance records.
(7) Coordinate the efforts of the OTI Education Center Program Executive Committee.
(8) Evaluate the effectiveness of the OTI Education Centers and provide each organization with an annual performance appraisal.
(9) Conduct investigations of alleged OTI Education Center non-compliance with the Non-Financial Cooperative Agreement and OSHA policies and procedures.
OSHA is a federal agency within the United States. The Agency covers workers and employers in the 50 United States and certain territories and jurisdictions under federal authority. Those jurisdictions include the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Guam, Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Wake Island, Johnston Island, and the Outer Continental Shelf Lands as defined in the Outer Continental Shelf Lands Act.
There is currently at least one OTI Education Center in each OSHA Region. However, OSHA may elect to select more than one OTI Education Center in some or all OSHA Regions. The OSHA Regions contain the following states and U.S. territories.
For this notice of competition, special consideration may be given to applicant organizations with physical locations in the following major metropolitan areas that may be underserved by existing OTI Education Centers (the list is in alpha order, not order of preference):
Submissions that are not in accordance with the application submission requirements listed below will not be considered. The application must include the following:
(1)
(a) Contact information including the following:
• The name, address, and phone number of the lead organization and all consortium partners. A post office box will not be accepted.
• The name, title, address, telephone number, and email address of the program director who can answer questions regarding the application.
(b) Information on which OTI Education Center courses may be offered and any relevant language or target audience information.
(2)
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
OSHA does not have a predetermined number of organizations to be selected to act as authorized OTI Education Centers. The number of organizations selected will be determined on a competitive basis using the selection criteria contained in this announcement.
Applications that meet the factors listed in the “Applicant Eligibility” section above will be reviewed by a technical panel based on the criteria listed below.
(a) Explicit commitment of company president, Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Board of Regents, or other governing body of the organization to fully utilize all available organizational resources necessary to support a large-scale occupational safety and health training program.
(b)
(i) Include a signed Letter of Commitment from company president, Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Board of Regents, or other governing body of the organization detailing how they will support the initial startup, the short-term viability and the long-term growth of an OTI Education Center.
(ii) Clearly state the metrics and outcomes your organization will use to formally evaluate and assess the success of an OTI Education Center program.
(a) Experience delivering occupational safety and health training in the construction, general, and maritime industries.
(b) Experience training adults.
(c) Ability to deliver required, elective, and short OTI Education Center courses; (See Appendix A for a current list of required, elective and short OTI Education Center courses).
(d) Provision for a systematic process for developing and updating occupational safety and health curriculum to support learning objectives provided by OSHA.
(e) Resources for supporting a large-scale occupational safety and health training program, such as appropriate management, instructional staff, and administrative staff to fulfill all program requirements including marketing, registration, student training materials, instruction, reporting, and Outreach card administration.
(f)
(i) Describe experience delivering occupational safety and health training including the number of classes offered, number of students taught in each class, and number of student contact hours for each course during the last three calendar years.
(ii) Include copies of catalogs and other marketing materials that provide descriptive material about occupational safety and health training courses.
(iii) Describe ability to deliver OTI Education Center courses including required, elective, and short courses. Please note the required, elective and short course offerings are subject to change. A current list of required, elective and short courses may be found at Appendix A. The complete list of courses and descriptions is available online at
(iv) Indicate the number of occupational safety and health courses for which your organization has developed curriculum, including the title and student contact hours for each course, within the last three calendar years.
(v) Indicate the number of instructor-led in-person classroom training occupational safety and health courses your organization has conducted, including title, student contact hours, and number of trainees within the last three calendar years.
(vi) Describe organization's process for evaluating course content as it relates to student learning outcomes and process for reviewing and updating curriculum and course materials.
(vii) Demonstrate that your organization is capable of providing in-person classroom training throughout the OSHA Region in which the lead organization and consortium partner(s) are physically located.
(a) Staff experience in delivering training courses to adults in occupational safety and health in construction, general industry, and maritime.
(b) Staff experience in occupational safety and health subjects including the application of OSHA standards to the recognition, avoidance, abatement, and prevention of workplace hazards.
(c) Professional certifications related to occupational safety and health held by staff such as such as Certified Safety Professional, Professional Engineer, or Certified Industrial Hygienist.
(d) Staff experience in managing and administering a training program including student registration and enrollment, student communications, course preparation, records maintenance, and marketing.
(e)
(i) Include an organizational chart of the department responsible for training. Indicate number and titles of staff positions that will be dedicated to the OTI Education Center Program along with the expected annual number of man-hours that will be allocated to the Program.
(ii) Describe staff knowledge of and experience with OSHA standards and their application to hazard recognition and hazard abatement.
(iii) Describe organization's process for evaluating instructors' effectiveness in the classroom. Provide copies of evaluation measures, checklists, and forms used to evaluate instructors.
(iv) Include resumes for instructors responsible for conducting OSHA courses and current staff. Provide position descriptions for positions to be filled.
(a) Ability to conduct standard classroom instruction training in multiple locations within the OSHA Region.
(b) Classroom facilities available for presentation of the courses, including room capacity, availability of audiovisual equipment, and appropriate laboratories and other facilities available for hands-on exercises.
(c) Availability of testing center, evaluation center, or comparable facility.
(d) Provisions for accessibility for persons with disabilities.
(e) Accessibility of the training facility to population centers, including such factors as distance from a major airport, transportation from the airport to hotels, and distance from the interstate system.
(f) Availability and affordability of lodging and accommodations, food service, and restaurants available both in the area in which the classes will be held and in the area where the hotels are located. Lodging rates are based on GSA per diem rates located at
(g) Availability of local transportation, including how students will be transported between the hotels and classes using hotel shuttles, public transportation, or other means.
(h)
(i) Describe the accessibility of the training facility for students within local commuting area.
(ii) Clearly identify that your organization has classrooms, laboratories, and testing facilities available. Training facilities must be under the direct control of the applicant. Floor plans are encouraged and may be included as an attachment.
(iii) Include such items as distance from a major airport, number of airlines serving the airport, transportation from the airport to hotels, and distance from the interstate system.
(iv) Provide a representative listing of hotels available for student accommodation and give sample room rates. Explain how students will be transported between the hotels and classes. Describe the food service and restaurants available both in the area in which the classes will be held and in the area where the hotels are located.
(v) Describe the organization's ability and plan to provide off-site host-site training within their respective Region including procedures to assure that classroom facilities and accommodations are adequate. Off-site training includes the ability to conduct courses at sites other than your own facility and in other states and U.S. territories within your OSHA region. Host-site training organizations must be non-profit organizations and proof of non-profit status is required.
(a) Experience in marketing training to adults.
(b) Ability to effectively market occupational safety and health training programs.
(c) Utilization of various media to support marketing efforts.
(d) Ability to solicit and deliver training on a contract basis.
(e) Resources sufficient to support participation in national industry conferences in order to market training programs.
(f)
(i) Explain the procedures for marketing your organization's training courses and recruiting adult learners.
(ii) Include examples of current course marketing materials such as catalogs, flyers, brochures, emails, Web site urls and screen shots, postcards, use of social media, and any other associated relevant materials.
(iii) Explain how your organization will promote its status as an OTI Education Center.
(iv) Describe your organization's experience in exhibiting at conferences and trade shows.
(a) Ability to administer a large-scale occupational safety and health training program, including clerical and support staff, and customer service capabilities, to fulfill all program requirements and meet customer needs.
(b) Ability to administer the Outreach Training Program, including processing card requests for Outreach trainers and conducting Outreach monitoring activities such as record audits and training observations.
(c) Ability to compile and submit reports and other training data.
(d) Applicants must be capable of providing mandatory reports consistent with current OSHA requirements, including the capability to submit reports in Excel format on a template provided by OSHA/DTE. Please note, OSHA periodically revises reporting requirements.
(e) Ability to respond to inquiries from OSHA and the public.
(f) Ability to manage student records.
(g)
(i) Describe registration procedures including provisions for course cancellation, furnishing students with course materials, verifying course prerequisites are met in advance of registration, and tuition or fee collection processes.
(ii) Describe capabilities to process and issue course completion documents to students and collect related fees.
(iii) Describe personnel and resources available to conduct Outreach monitoring activities, including record audits and training observations.
(iv) Include information about organization's record retention policy, ability to issue replacement course completion documents, and collect related fees. Please note OSHA requires records to be maintained for a minimum of five years. OTI Education Centers may establish a longer retention policy.
(v) Explain what procedures will be implemented for reporting to OSHA/DTE.
(vi) Provide specific details regarding the organization's full-time customer service staff, capabilities, and/or planned approach for responding to questions from students; handling questions and concerns related to occupational safety and health; resolving problems associated with a course, whether received via student satisfaction surveys or direct communication from a student; and issuing replacement course completion certificates in a timely manner, including verification of student identity and training completion.
(vii) Provide a copy of the organization's tuition and fee schedule; explain how tuition or fees will be computed for each OTI Education Center numbered course, referencing the organization's tuition and fee schedule; and describe tuition and fee procedures including provisions for the collection of tuition, cancellation fees, and issuing refunds.
OSHA utilizes Kirkpatrick's Levels of Evaluation as described below. Each OTI Education Center is responsible for collecting and submitting student surveys.
(a) Ability to administer student surveys in a classroom setting.
(b) Ability to administer exams and ensure test integrity.
(c) Ability to assess the effectiveness of the training after an elapsed time period using a follow-up impact survey.
(d) Ability to summarize and report evaluation results.
(e)
(i) Describe the organization's experience in conducting evaluation of training programs.
(ii) Describe organization's experience in administering student surveys. Provide examples of student surveys presently in use.
(iii) Describe organization's experience in administering classroom exams and the process for ensuring test integrity.
(iv) Describe organization's experience conducting follow-up evaluations that measure behavior and/or results.
Applicants may join with one or more other non-profit organizations in their Region to apply as a consortium. A training or education institution may elect to apply for this program in partnership with a safety and health organization that is not primarily a training organization. For example, a university could enter into an agreement with a labor union that provides for the use of university classrooms and faculty supplemented by union safety and health professionals. All consortium partners must be physically located in the same OSHA region. Partners must designate a lead organization that will be responsible for program reporting and Outreach Training Program administration including Outreach card distribution.
OSHA provides no funding to OTI Education Centers. OTI Education Centers Program participants are expected to support their training through their normal tuition and fee structures.
Selected applicants will sign five-year non-financial cooperative agreements with OSHA. Such an agreement may be renewed without additional competition for just one additional five-year period, provided that: (1) OSHA found the OTI Education Center's performance during the cooperative agreement to be satisfactory; and (2) the OTI Education Center has not altered its existing membership of constituent organizations (
The agency reserves the right to revoke the authorization of an OTI Education Center. Either party may terminate the cooperative agreement with advance written notice, provided both parties continue to meet all obligations of the agreement for the duration of the advance notice period.
A proposal conference will be held to provide potential applicants with information about the OTI Education Centers Program. The conference will also clarify OSHA expectations for OTI Education Centers, courses and methods of instruction, as well as administrative and program requirements for OTI Education Centers and the OSHA Outreach Training Program. Attendance at the proposal conference is not mandatory, but applicants are strongly encouraged to attend.
The proposal conference is scheduled for May 17, 2017, at the OSHA Directorate of Training and Education, 2020 S. Arlington Heights Rd., Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102.
It is required for all attendees to register for this proposal conference. Applicants interested in attending this conference must register through the following link:
(1) Name and street address of the organization;
(2) Name, title, telephone number, and email address of the attendees
Registration information must be submitted no later than June 30, 2017.
Applications must be submitted to the attention of James Brock, Program Manager, Office of Training Programs and Administration, OSHA Directorate of Training and Education, 2020 S. Arlington Heights Rd., Arlington Heights, Illinois 60005-4102.
The submission is to consist of three copies of the application. Applications may be bound. The program narrative must not exceed 30 double-spaced pages. Attachments will not be included in the page count. Applications must be double-spaced, in 12-point font, with all pages numbered, including attachments. Attachments must only include essential documents that are relevant to this program.
Applications must be received by the OSHA Directorate of Training and Education no later than 4:30 p.m., Central Time, on June 30, 2017. Requests for extension to this application deadline will not be granted.
Applications will be reviewed by technical panels comprised of OSHA staff. The technical panels will review applications based on criteria listed in this notice to determine which applicants best meet the stated requirements. As part of the evaluation and selection process, OSHA may request additional information from applicants. This may include written requests for clarification, phone or in-person interviews, access to existing programs, and on-site visits of applicant facilities. OSHA will attempt to select qualified applicants who have the ability to provide training throughout their region based on program needs. The panels' recommendations to the Assistant Secretary are advisory in nature. The final decision will be made by the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.
Applicants will be notified by a representative of the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health if their organization is selected as an OSHA Training Institute Education Center. Applicants selected to be OSHA Training Institute Education Centers must attend a mandatory orientation meeting at the Directorate of Training and Education in Arlington Heights, Illinois at a time and date to be provided after selection.
An organization may not deliver OSHA Training Institute Education Center courses until the program has been authorized, the organization has signed a non-financial cooperative agreement with OSHA, and the organization has participated in the orientation meeting.
Information submitted in the respondent's application is not considered confidential. Organization's application data may be releasable under the Freedom of Information Act.
Interested parties must submit an application as discussed under section “Application Submission Requirements.” According to the Paperwork Reduction Act, an Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and no persons are required to respond to, a collection of information unless such collection displays a valid OMB control
The application was previously reviewed and approved for use by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13). The assigned OMB control number is 1218-0262.
The Department of Labor is committed to conducting a transparent selection process and publicizing information about program outcomes. Applications or abstracts may be posted on public Web sites as a means of promoting and sharing innovative ideas.
Applicants will be notified in writing if their organization is not selected to be an OSHA Training Institute Education Center.
All decisions by the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health are final. The Department of Labor does not provide an appeal procedure for applicants that are not selected.
Section 21 of the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (29 U.S.C. 670)
National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).
Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice at least once monthly of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when agencies no longer need them for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives of the United States and to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking administrative, legal, research, or other value. NARA publishes notice in the
NARA must receive requests for copies in writing by May 31, 2017. Once NARA finishes appraising the records, we will send you a copy of the schedule
You may request a copy of any records schedule identified in this notice by contacting Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA) using one of the following means:
You must cite the control number, which appears in parentheses after the name of the agency that submitted the schedule, and a mailing address. If you would like an appraisal report, please include that in your request.
Margaret Hawkins, Director, by mail at Records Appraisal and Agency Assistance (ACRA); National Archives and Records Administration; 8601 Adelphi Road; College Park, MD 20740-6001, by phone at 301-837-1799, or by email at
NARA publishes notice in the
Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records on paper, film, magnetic tape, and other media. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing records retention periods and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. These schedules provide for timely transfer into the National Archives of historically valuable records and authorize the agency to dispose of all other records after the agency no longer needs them to conduct its business. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.
The schedules listed in this notice are media neutral unless otherwise specified. An item in a schedule is media neutral when an agency may apply the disposition instructions to records regardless of the medium in which it creates or maintains the records. Items included in schedules submitted to NARA on or after December 17, 2007, are media neutral unless the item is expressly limited to a specific medium. (See 36 CFR 1225.12(e).)
Agencies may not destroy Federal records without Archivist of the United States' approval. The Archivist approves destruction only after thoroughly considering the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value.
In addition to identifying the Federal agencies and any subdivisions requesting disposition authority, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records (or notes that the schedule has agency-wide applicability when schedules cover records that may be accumulated throughout an agency); provides the control number assigned to each schedule, the total number of schedule items, and the number of temporary items (the records proposed for destruction); and includes a brief description of the temporary records. The records schedule itself contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their disposition. If NARA staff has prepared an appraisal memorandum for the schedule, it also includes information about the records. You may request additional information about the disposition process at the addresses above.
1. Department of Agriculture, Farm Service Agency (DAA-0145-2017-0002, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Case files related to the Rural Environmental Program to include administrative and financial records.
2. Department of Health and Human Services, Indian Health Service (DAA-0513-2017-0001, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Patient information and medical imagery records.
3. Department of Health and Human Services, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (DAA-0511-2016-0004, 27 items, 21 temporary items). System records of the Suicide Prevention Data Center. Proposed for permanent retention are datasets relating to suicide prevention, outreach, and awareness.
4. Department of Homeland Security, Immigration and Customs Enforcement (DAA-0567-2016-0007, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Records related to travel visas, including VIP referral and visa security program records.
5. Department of Homeland Security, Immigration and Customs Enforcement (DAA-0567-2017-0003, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Master files of an electronic information system used to track, process, and respond to audits, inspections, and reviews.
6. Department of Homeland Security, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (DAA-0566-2016-0018, 20 items, 18 temporary items). Applications and requests for family-based adjustment of immigration status and supporting documentation when incomplete or incorrectly submitted, abandoned, denied, terminated, withdrawn, administratively closed, approved and not used, and approved and conferring a benefit lasting two years or less. Proposed for permanent retention are requests for adjustment of status for benefits lasting more than two years when approved, and when approved and used.
7. Department of Homeland Security, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (DAA-0566-2017-0009, 15 items, 15 temporary items). Applications, petitions, and requests for non-immigrant status adjustment, including extension requests, changes to a different non-immigrant status, and reinstatement of student status.
8. Department of Homeland Security, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (DAA-0566-2017-0020, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records of naturalized citizens' renunciation of U.S. citizenship that are used to update the agency's index system.
9. Department of Homeland Security, United States Customs and Border Protection (DAA-0568-2017-0006, 8 items, 8 temporary items). Records related to international trade and travel, including shipment of goods, customs broker licensure, sale of abandoned goods, Foreign Trade Zone admission, merchandise control, and scientific laboratory operations.
10. Department of Justice, Agency-wide (DAA-0060-2017-0016, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Background material and internal clearance records relating to agency directives, policy, and instructions.
11. Department of the Navy, United States Marine Corps (DAA-0127-2017-0003, 2 items, 2 temporary items). Records relating to an electronic information system used for training in the execution of environmental policies and procedures.
12. Department of the Navy, United States Marine Corps (DAA-0127-2017-0005, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Records
13. National Archives and Records Administration, Agency-wide (DAA-0064-2017-0001, 1 item, 1 temporary item). Background and feeder reports related to strategic, performance, and accountability plans.
14. National Archives and Records Administration, Legislative Archives, Presidential Libraries, and Museum Services (DAA-0064-2017-0002, 4 items, 3 temporary items). Records related to the public release and special access notifications of Presidential records. Proposed for permanent retention are records covering notable persons.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; withdrawal by applicant.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has granted the request of Pacific Gas and Electric Company (PG&E) to withdraw its application dated May 12, 2016, for the proposed amendments to Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-80 and DPR-82 for Diablo Canyon Power Plant (DCPP), Units 1 and 2. The proposed amendments would have modified the DCPP Technical Specifications (TSs) to adopt Nuclear Energy Institute (NEI) 94-01, Revision 2A, “Industry Guideline for Implementing Performance-Based Option of 10 CFR part 50, Appendix J.”
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0151 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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•
•
Balwant K. Singal, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-3016, email:
The NRC has granted the request of PG&E to withdraw its application dated May 12, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16146A100), for the proposed amendments to Facility Operating License Nos. DPR-80 and DPR-82 for DCPP, Units 1 and 2, located in San Luis Obispo County, California.
The proposed amendments would have modified DCPP, Units 1 and 2, TS 5.5.16, “Containment Leakage Rate Testing Program,” to replace the reference to Regulatory Guide 1.163, “Performance-Based Containment Leak-Test Program,” September 1995 (ADAMS Accession No. ML003740058), and 10 CFR part 50, Appendix J, Option B, “Performance-Based Requirements,” with a reference to NEI 94-01, Revision 2-A, “Industry Guideline for Implementing Performance-Based Option of 10 CFR part 50, Appendix J,” October 2008 (ADAMS Accession No. ML100620847). In addition, the proposed amendments would have modified TS 5.5.16 to remove an exception under paragraph 5.16.a.3 for a one-time 15-year Type A test interval.
The Commission has previously issued a proposed finding that the amendment involves no significant hazards determination published in the
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation.
Notice of intent to request extension of OMB approval without change.
The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) intends to request that the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) extend approval, under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, of its collection of information for Annual Reporting under OMB control number 1212-0057, which expires on June 30, 2017. This notice informs the public of PBGC's intent and solicits public comment on the collection of information.
Comments must be submitted by June 30, 2017.
Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Copies of the collection of information and comments may be obtained without charge by writing to the Disclosure Division of the Office of the General Counsel, Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation, 1200 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20005-4026, or by calling 202-326-4040 during normal
Jo Amato Burns (
Annual reporting to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), the Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA), and the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) is required by law for most employee benefit plans. For example, section 4065 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 requires annual reporting to PBGC for pension plans covered by title IV of ERISA. To accommodate these filing requirements, PBGC, IRS, and EBSA have jointly promulgated the Form 5500 Series, which includes the Form 5500 Annual Return/Report of Employee Benefit Plan and the Form 5500-SF Short Form Annual Return/Report of Small Employee Benefit Plan.
The collection of information has been approved by OMB under control number 1212-0057 through June 30, 2017. PBGC intends to request that OMB extend its approval for three years without change. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
PBGC estimates that it will receive approximately 23,700 Form 5500 and Form 5500-SF filings per year under this collection of information. PBGC further estimates that the total annual burden of this collection of information will be 1,200 hours and $1,655,000.
PBGC is soliciting public comments to—
• evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodologies and assumptions used;
• enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Postal Regulatory Commission.
Notice.
The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning negotiated service agreements. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.
Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at
David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.
The Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition or removal of a negotiated service agreement from the market dominant or the competitive product list, or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the market dominant or the competitive product list.
Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, the title of each Postal Service request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each request.
The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's Web site (
The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) in the captioned docket(s) are consistent with the policies of title 39. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern market dominant product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3622, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3010, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. For request(s) that the Postal Service states concern competitive product(s), applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3015, and 39 CFR part 3020, subpart B. Comment deadline(s) for each request appear in section II.
1.
2.
This Notice will be published in the
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Section 32(a)(2) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a 31(a)(2)) (“Act”) requires that the selection of a registered management investment company's or registered face-amount certificate company's (collectively, “funds”) independent public accountant be submitted to shareholders for ratification or rejection. Rule 32a-4 under the Investment Company Act (17 CFR 270.32a-4) exempts a fund from this requirement if, among other things, the fund has an audit committee consisting entirely of independent directors. The rule permits continuing oversight of a fund's accounting and auditing processes by an independent audit committee in place of a shareholder vote.
Among other things, in order to rely on rule 32a-4, a fund's board of directors must adopt an audit committee charter and must preserve that charter, and any modifications to the charter, permanently in an easily accessible place. The purpose of these conditions is to ensure that Commission staff will be able to monitor the duties and responsibilities of an audit committee of a fund relying on the rule.
Commission staff estimates that on average the board of directors takes 15 minutes to adopt the audit committee charter. Commission staff has estimated that with an average of 8 directors on the board,
Because virtually all existing funds have now adopted audit committee charters, the annual one-time collection of information burden associated with adopting audit committee charters is limited to the burden incurred by newly established funds. Commission staff estimates that fund sponsors establish approximately 112 new funds each year,
When funds adopt an audit committee charter in order to rely on rule 32a-4, they also may incur one-time costs related to hiring outside counsel to prepare the charter. Commission staff estimates that those costs average approximately $1500 per fund.
The estimates of average burden hours and costs are made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and are not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. The collections of information required by rule 32a-4 are necessary to obtain the benefits of the rule. The Commission is seeking OMB approval, because an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 17a-22 requires all registered clearing agencies to file with the
The respondents to Rule 17a-22 are registered clearing agencies. The frequency of filings made by clearing agencies pursuant to Rule 17a-22 varies but on average there are approximately 200 filings per year per active clearing agency. There are seven active registered clearing agencies. The Commission staff estimates that each response requires approximately .25 hours (fifteen minutes), which represents the time it takes for a staff person at the clearing agency to properly identify a document subject to the rule, print and makes copies, and mail that document to the Commission. Thus, the total annual burden for all active clearing agencies is 350 hours (7 clearing agencies multiplied by 200 filings per clearing agency multiplied by .25 hours) and a total of 50 hours (1400 responses multiplied by .25 hours, divided by 7 active clearing agencies) per year are expended by each respondent to comply with the rule.
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”) (44 U.S.C. 3501
Rule 101 prohibits distribution participants from purchasing activities at specified times during a distribution of securities. Persons otherwise covered by this rule may seek to use several applicable exceptions such as a calculation of the average daily trading volume of the securities in distribution, the maintenance of policies regarding information barriers between their affiliates, and the maintenance of a written policy regarding general compliance with Regulation M for de minimus transactions.
There are approximately 1550 respondents per year that require an aggregate total of 30,218 hours to comply with this rule. Each respondent makes an estimated 1 annual response. Each response takes on average approximately 19.495 hours to complete. Thus, the total compliance burden per year is 30,218 burden hours. The total estimated internal labor compliance cost for the respondents is approximately $1,964,170.00, resulting in an internal cost of compliance for each respondent per response of approximately $1267.21 (
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information under the PRA unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site:
On February 22, 2017, Chicago Board Options Exchange, Incorporated (“CBOE” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
First, the Exchange proposes to amend its Bylaws relating to the Board of Directors (“Board”) size range. Currently, Section 3.1 of the Bylaws provides that the Board shall consist of not less than 12 and not more than 16 directors. The Exchange proposes to change the Board size range such that the Board shall consist of no less than five directors. The Exchange also proposes to make conforming changes to its Certificate of Incorporation by amending subparagraph (b) of Article Fifth to also provide that the Board shall consist of not less than five directors and to eliminate the current referenced range of 12 to 16 directors.
Second, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the Exchange-level Compensation Committee. CBOE is proposing to delete Section 4.3 of the Bylaws, which provides for the CBOE Compensation Committee, and to delete a reference to the CBOE Compensation Committee in Section 4.1(a) of the Bylaws (which lists the required Board committees). CBOE also proposes to eliminate the reference to the CBOE Compensation Committee in Section 5.11 of the Bylaws, which provides that officers are entitled to salaries, compensation or reimbursement as shall be fixed or allowed from time to time by the Board unless otherwise delegated to the Board's Compensation Committee or to senior management. The Exchange justifies eliminating the CBOE Compensation Committee because its functions largely are duplicative of those of the Compensation Committee of its parent company, CBOE Holdings.
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act,
In particular, the Commission notes that the proposal to require at least five directors for the Board, rather than a required range of not less than 12 and not more than 16, is comparable to the board size requirements stipulated in the bylaws of at least one other exchange, which was approved by the Commission.
With regard to the proposal to eliminate the CBOE Compensation Committee, the Commission notes that this change is comparable to the governing structures of other exchanges, which the Commission has previously approved.
For the reasons noted above, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) requests for extension of the previously approved collections of information discussed below.
Rule 17f-5 (17 CFR 270.17f-5) under the Investment Company Act of 1940 [15 U.S.C. 80a] (the “Act”) governs the custody of the assets of registered management investment companies (“funds”) with custodians outside the United States. Under rule 17f-5, a fund or its foreign custody manager (as delegated by the fund's board) may maintain the fund's foreign assets in the care of an eligible fund custodian under certain conditions. If the fund's board delegates to a foreign custody manager authority to place foreign assets, the fund's board must find that it is reasonable to rely on each delegate the board selects to act as the fund's foreign custody manager. The delegate must agree to provide written reports that notify the board when the fund's assets are placed with a foreign custodian and when any material change occurs in the fund's custody arrangements. The delegate must agree to exercise reasonable care, prudence, and diligence, or to adhere to a higher standard of care. When the foreign custody manager selects an eligible foreign custodian, it must determine that the fund's assets will be subject to reasonable care if maintained with that custodian, and that the written contract that governs each custody arrangement will provide reasonable care for fund assets. The contract must contain certain specified provisions or others that provide at least equivalent care. The foreign custody manager must establish a system to monitor the performance of the contract and the appropriateness of continuing to maintain assets with the eligible foreign custodian.
The collection of information requirements in rule 17f-5 are intended to provide protection for fund assets maintained with a foreign bank custodian whose use is not authorized by statutory provisions that govern fund custody arrangements,
The requirements that the foreign custody manager determine that fund assets will be subject to reasonable care with the eligible foreign custodian and under the custody contract, and that each contract contain specified provisions or equivalent provisions, are intended to ensure that the delegate has evaluated the level of care provided by the custodian, that it weighs the adequacy of contractual provisions, and that fund assets are protected by minimal contractual safeguards. The requirement that the foreign custody manager establish a monitoring system is intended to ensure that the manager periodically reviews each custody arrangement and takes appropriate action if developing custody risks may threaten fund assets.
Commission staff estimates that each year, approximately 97 registrants
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act. The estimate is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) a request for extension of the previously approved collection of information discussed below.
Section 19(b) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) (15 U.S.C. 80a-19(b)) authorizes the Commission to regulate registered investment company (“fund”) distributions of long-term capital gains made more frequently than once every twelve months. Accordingly, rule 19b-1 under the Act (17 CFR 270.19b-1) regulates the frequency of fund distributions of capital gains. Rule 19b-1(c) states that the rule does not apply to a unit investment trust (“UIT”) if it is engaged exclusively in the business of investing in certain eligible securities (generally, fixed-income securities), provided that: (i) The capital gains distribution falls within one of five categories specified in the rule
Commission staff estimates that five funds will file an application under rule 19b-1(e) each year.
Commission staff estimates that there is no hour burden associated with complying with the collection of information component of rule 19b-1(c).
As noted above, Commission staff understands that funds that file an application under rule 19b-1(e) generally use outside counsel to prepare the application.
The Commission staff estimates that there are approximately 2,579 UITs
An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
The title of the collection of information is: “Exemption for Certain Multi-State Investment Advisers (Rule 203A-2(d)).” Its currently approved OMB control number is 3235-0689. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
Pursuant to section 203A of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Act”) (15 U.S.C. 80b-3a), an investment adviser that is regulated or required to be regulated as an investment adviser in the state in which it maintains its principal office and place of business is prohibited from registering with the Commission unless that adviser has at least $25 million in assets under management or advises a Commission-registered investment company. Section 203A also prohibits from Commission registration an adviser that: (i) Has assets under management between $25 million and $100 million; (ii) is required to be registered as an investment adviser with the state in which it maintains its principal office and place of business; and (iii) if registered, would be subject to examination as an adviser by that state (a “mid-sized adviser”). A mid-sized adviser that otherwise would be prohibited may register with the Commission if it would be required to register with 15 or more states. Similarly, Rule 203A-2(d) under the Act (17 CFR 275.203a-2(d)) provides that the prohibition on registration with the Commission does not apply to an investment adviser that is required to register in 15 or more states. An investment adviser relying on this exemption also must: (i) Include a representation on Schedule D of Form ADV that the investment adviser has concluded that it must register as an investment adviser with the required number of states; (ii) undertake to withdraw from registration with the Commission if the adviser indicates on an annual updating amendment to Form ADV that it would be required by the laws of fewer than 15 states to register as an investment adviser with the state; and (iii) maintain in an easily accessible place a record of the states in which the investment adviser has determined it would, but for the exemption, be required to register for a period of not less than five years from the filing of a Form ADV relying on the rule.
Respondents to this collection of information are investment advisers required to register in 15 or more states absent the exemption that rely on rule 203A-2(d) to register with the Commission. The information collected under rule 203A-2(d) permits the Commission's examination staff to determine an adviser's eligibility for registration with the Commission under this exemptive rule and is also necessary for the Commission staff to use in its examination and oversight program. This collection of information is codified at 17 CFR 275.203a-2(d) and is mandatory to qualify for and maintain Commission registration eligibility under rule 203A-2(d). Responses to the recordkeeping requirements under rule 203A-2(d) in the context of the Commission's examination and oversight program are generally kept confidential.
The estimated number of investment advisers subject to the collection of information requirements under the rule is 142. These advisers will incur an average one-time initial burden of approximately 8 hours, and an average ongoing burden of approximately 8 hours per year, to keep records sufficient to demonstrate that they meet the 15-state threshold. These estimates are based on an estimate that each year an investment adviser will spend approximately 0.5 hours creating a record of its determination whether it must register as an investment adviser with each of the 15 states required to rely on the exemption, and approximately 0.5 hours to maintain these records. Accordingly, we estimate that rule 203A-2(d) results in an annual aggregate burden of collection for SEC-registered investment advisers of a total of 1,136 hours. Estimates of average burden hours are made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and are not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget a request for extension of the previously approved collection of information discussed below.
Section 17(d) (15 U.S.C. 80a-17(d)) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (“Act”) authorizes the Commission to adopt rules that protect funds and their security holders from overreaching by affiliated persons when the fund and the affiliated person participate in any joint enterprise or other joint arrangement or profit-sharing plan. Rule 17d-1 under the Act (17 CFR 270.17d-1) prohibits funds and their affiliated persons from participating in a joint enterprise, unless an application regarding the transaction has been filed with and approved by the Commission. Paragraph (d)(3) of the rule provides an exemption from this requirement for any loan or advance of credit to, or acquisition of securities or other property of, a small business concern, or any agreement to do any of the foregoing (“investments”) made by a small business investment company (“SBIC”) and an affiliated bank, provided that reports about the investments are made on forms the Commission may prescribe. Rule 17d-2 (17 CFR 270.17d-2) designates Form N-17D-1 (17 CFR 274.200) (“form”) as the form for reports required by rule 17d-1.
SBICs and their affiliated banks use form N-17D-1 to report any contemporaneous investments in a small business concern. The form provides shareholders and persons seeking to make an informed decision about investing in an SBIC an opportunity to learn about transactions of the SBIC that have the potential for self dealing and other forms of overreaching by affiliated persons at the expense of shareholders.
Form N-17D-1 requires SBICs and their affiliated banks to report identifying information about the small business concern and the affiliated bank. The report must include, among other things, the SBIC's and affiliated bank's outstanding investments in the small business concern, the use of the proceeds of the investments made during the reporting period, any changes in the nature and amount of the affiliated bank's investment, the name of any affiliated person of the SBIC or the affiliated bank (or any affiliated person of the affiliated person of the SBIC or the affiliated bank) who has any interest in the transactions, the basis of the affiliation, the nature of the interest, and the consideration the affiliated person has received or will receive.
Up to two SBICs may file the form in any year.
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
On March 1, 2017, Fixed Income Clearing Corporation (“FICC”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) advance notice SR-FICC-2017-802 (“Advance
Section 806(e)(1)(G) of the Clearing Supervision Act provides that FICC may implement the changes if it has not received an objection to the proposed changes within 60 days of the later of (i) the date that the Commission receives the Advance Notice or (ii) the date that any additional information requested by the Commission is received,
Pursuant to Section 806(e)(1)(H) of the Clearing Supervision Act, the Commission may extend the review period of an advance notice for an additional 60 days, if the changes proposed in the advance notice raise novel or complex issues, subject to the Commission providing the clearing agency with prompt written notice of the extension.
Here, as the Commission has not requested any additional information, the date that is 60 days after FICC filed the Advance Notice with the Commission is April 30, 2017. However, the Commission finds the Advance Notice complex because the material aspects of the proposal are detailed, substantial, and are interrelated with other risk management practices at FICC, and therefore finds it appropriate to extend the review period of the Advance Notice for an additional 60 days under Section 806(e)(1)(H) of the Clearing Supervision Act.
Accordingly, the Commission, pursuant to Section 806(e)(1)(H) of the Clearing Supervision Act,
By the Commission.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to delay implementation of simultaneous complex order auctions in the same complex strategy in connection with a system migration to Nasdaq INET technology.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
ISE offers various complex order auctions that are designed to provide members an opportunity to trade and to potentially receive price improvement for complex orders that are entered on the Exchange, including an “Exposure” auction pursuant to Rule 722(b)(3)(iii), a Complex Price Improvement Mechanism (“PIM”) pursuant to Supplementary Material .09 to Rule 723, a Complex Facilitation Mechanism pursuant to Supplementary Material .08 to Rule 716, and Complex Solicited Order Mechanism also pursuant to Supplementary Material .08 to Rule 716.
The purpose of the proposed rule change is to delay implementation of simultaneous complex order auctions in the same complex strategy in connection with a system migration to Nasdaq INET technology.
Today, only one PIM may be ongoing at any given time in a series or complex strategy, and PIMs are not permitted to queue or overlap in any manner;
Nevertheless, other options exchanges do not offer the same functionality for simultaneous complex order auctions in a complex strategy provided by the Exchange. The Exchange's affiliate, Nasdaq Phlx, LLC (“Phlx”), for example, does not allow the initiation of a Complex Order Live Auction (“COLA”) when there is already a Price Improvement XL (“PIXL”) auction already ongoing in the strategy.
In order to give the Exchange additional time to develop and test this functionality, the Exchange proposes to delay the implementation of simultaneous complex order auctions in the same complex strategy in connection with the migration of the trading system to the INET platform. With the proposed change, only one complex order auction may be ongoing at any given time in a complex strategy, and such auctions will not queue or overlap in any manner. For PIM, Facilitation, or Solicitation auctions, the Exchange will reject a complex order auction of the same or different auction type in a complex strategy that is initiated while another complex order auction is ongoing in that complex strategy.
The Exchange believes that implementing simultaneous complex order auctions in the same complex strategy at a later date will not have a significant impact on members as it is rare for multiple complex order auctions in a complex strategy to be ongoing at a particular time. This is particularly the case today due to the recent decrease in the Exchange's auction timers to 100 milliseconds.
The proposed rule change will be implemented on the Exchange's new INET trading system, which is scheduled to launch in Q2 2017.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder that are applicable to a national securities exchange, and, in particular, with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act as it will provide additional time for the Exchange to rebuild this technology on the INET platform. By delaying the implementation of simultaneous complex order auctions in a complex strategy, the Exchange will have additional time to test and implement this functionality. The Exchange will provide members with ample notice of the delayed implementation of this functionality in an Options Trader Alert, and will continue to provide notifications to members to ensure clarity about the availability of this functionality with the symbol migration. The Exchange will also issue an Options Trader Alert indicating when simultaneous complex order auctions in a complex strategy will become available on the INET platform.
The Exchange does not anticipate that the proposed rule change will have any meaningful impact with respect to members' ability to execute complex order auctions as similar restrictions are already in place on other options exchanges.
In accordance with Section 6(b)(8) of the Act,
No written comments were either solicited or received.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) (“Paperwork Reduction Act”), the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “Commission”) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) a request for extension of the previously approved collections of information discussed below.
Rule 17f-7 (17 CFR 270.17f-7) permits a fund under certain conditions to maintain its foreign assets with an eligible securities depository, which has to meet minimum standards for a depository. The fund or its investment adviser generally determines whether the depository complies with those requirements based on information provided by the fund's primary custodian (a bank that acts as global custodian). The depository custody arrangement also must meet certain conditions. The fund or its adviser must receive from the primary custodian (or its agent) an initial risk analysis of the depository arrangements, and the fund's contract with its primary custodian must state that the custodian will monitor risks and promptly notify the fund or its adviser of material changes in risks. The primary custodian and other custodians also are required to agree to exercise at least reasonable care, prudence, and diligence.
The collection of information requirements in rule 17f-7 are intended to provide workable standards that protect funds from the risks of using foreign securities depositories while assigning appropriate responsibilities to the fund's primary custodian and investment adviser based on their capabilities. The requirement that the foreign securities depository meet specified minimum standards is intended to ensure that the depository is subject to basic safeguards deemed appropriate for all depositories. The requirement that the fund or its adviser must receive from the primary custodian (or its agent) an initial risk analysis of the depository arrangements, and that the fund's contract with its primary custodian must state that the custodian will monitor risks and promptly notify the fund or its adviser of material changes in risks, is intended to provide essential information about custody risks to the fund's investment adviser as necessary for it to approve the continued use of the depository. The requirement that the primary custodian agree to exercise reasonable care is intended to provide assurances that its services and the information it provides will meet an appropriate standard of care.
The staff estimates that each of approximately 992 investment advisers
The estimate of average burden hours is made solely for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act and is not derived from a comprehensive or even a representative survey or study of the costs of Commission rules and forms. Compliance with the collection of information requirements of the rule is necessary to obtain the benefit of relying on the rule's permission for funds to maintain their assets in foreign custodians. The information provided under rule 17f-7 will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Form N-8B-4 (17 CFR 274.14) is the form used by face-amount certificate companies to comply with the filing and disclosure requirements imposed by Section 8(b) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8(b)). Among other items, Form N-8B-4 requires disclosure of the following information about the face-amount certificate company: Date and form of organization; controlling persons; current business and contemplated changes to the company's business; investment, borrowing, and lending policies, as well as other fundamental policies; securities issued by the company; investment adviser; depositaries; management personnel; compensation paid to directors, officers, and certain employees; and financial statements. The Commission uses the information provided in the collection of information to determine compliance with Section 8(b) of the Investment Company Act of 1940.
Form N-8B-4 and the burden of compliance have not changed since the last approval. Each registrant files Form N-8B-4 for its initial filing and does not file post-effective amendments to Form N-8B-4.
The information provided on Form N-8B-4 is mandatory. The information provided on Form N-8B-4 will not be kept confidential. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number.
The public may view the background documentation for this information collection at the following Web site,
On February 22, 2017, C2 Options Exchange, Incorporated (“Exchange” or “C2”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
First, the Exchange proposes to amend its Bylaws relating to the Board of Directors (“Board”) size range. Currently, Section 3.1 of the Bylaws provides that the Board shall consist of not less than 12 and not more than 16 directors. The Exchange proposes to change the Board size range such that the Board shall consist of no less than five directors. The Exchange also proposes to make conforming changes to its Certificate of Incorporation by amending subparagraph (b) of Article Fifth to also provide that the Board shall consist of not less than five directors and to eliminate the current referenced range of 12 to 16 directors.
Second, the Exchange proposes to eliminate the Exchange-level Compensation Committee. C2 is proposing to delete Section 4.3 of the Bylaws, which provides for the C2 Compensation Committee, and to delete a reference to the C2 Compensation Committee in Section 4.1(a) of the Bylaws (which lists the required Board committees). C2 also proposes to eliminate the reference to the C2 Compensation Committee in Section 5.11 of the Bylaws, which provides that officers are entitled to salaries, compensation or reimbursement as shall be fixed or allowed from time to time by the Board unless otherwise delegated to the Board's Compensation Committee or to senior management. The Exchange justifies eliminating the C2 Compensation Committee because its functions largely are duplicative of
After careful review, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of Section 6 of the Act,
In particular, the Commission notes that the proposal to require at least five directors for the Board, rather than a required range of not less than 12 and not more than 16, is comparable to the board size requirements stipulated in the bylaws of at least one other exchange, which was approved by the Commission.
With regard to the proposal to eliminate the C2 Compensation Committee, the Commission notes that this change is comparable to the governing structures of other exchanges, which the Commission has previously approved.
For the reasons noted above, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Small Business Administration.
30-Day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), which requires agencies to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before May 31, 2017.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030
SBA regulations at 13 CFR, Section 120.830 requires CDCs to submit an annual report which contains financial statements, operational and management information. This information is used by SBA's district offices, Office of Credit Risk Management, and Office of Financial Assistance to obtain information from the CDCs that is used to evaluate whether CDCs are operating according to the statutes, regulations and policies governing the CDC loan program (504 program).
Comments may be submitted on (a) whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
A copy of the Form OMB 83-1, supporting statement, and other documents submitted to OMB for review may be obtained from the Agency Clearance Officer.
Small Business Administration.
30-day notice.
The Small Business Administration (SBA) is publishing this notice to comply with requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), which requires agencies to submit proposed reporting and recordkeeping requirements to OMB for review and approval, and to publish a notice in the
Submit comments on or before May 31, 2017.
Comments should refer to the information collection by name and/or OMB Control Number and should be sent to:
Curtis Rich, Agency Clearance Officer, (202) 205-7030,
Section 7(a) of the Small Business Act authorizes the Small Business Administration to guaranty loans in each of the 7(a) Programs. The regulations covering these and other loan programs at 13 CFR part 120 require certain information from loan applicants and lenders that is used to determine program eligibility and compliance.
SBA is requesting comments on (a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the agency to properly perform its functions; (b) whether the burden estimates are accurate; (c) whether there are ways to minimize the burden, including through the use of automated techniques or other forms of information technology; and (d) whether there are ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information.
The Department of State has renewed the charter of the Advisory Committee on International Economic Policy (“the Committee”).
The Committee provides advice on opportunities and challenges in international economic policy, including performance of the following functions: (a) To provide information and advice on the effective integration of economic interests into overall foreign policy; (b) to appraise the role of international economic institutions; and (c) to provide information and advice on the Department of State's role in advancing U.S. economic and commercial interests in the global economy. The Committee's activities are advisory only.
The Committee is established under the general authority of the Secretary of State and the Department of State as set forth in Title 22 of the United States Code, in particular section 2656 of that Title and consistent with Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C., Appendix).
For additional information, contact Alan Krill, Bureau of Economic and Business Affairs, at (202) 647-2231, or
The Surface Transportation Board has received a request from a Ph.D. candidate at Duke University. (WB17-18—4/23/17) for permission to use unmasked data from the Board's 1984-2010 Carload Waybill Samples. A copy of this request may be obtained from the Office of Economics.
The waybill sample contains confidential railroad and shipper data;
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of intent of waiver with respect to land; Flying Cloud Airport, Minneapolis, Minnesota.
The FAA is considering a proposal to change 4.53 acres of airport land from aeronautical use to non-aeronautical use and to authorize the lease of airport property located at Flying Cloud Airport, Minneapolis, Minnesota. The aforementioned land is not needed for aeronautical use. The property is located northeast of the airport's Gate H and south of Pioneer Trail. This parcel has been vacant since the 1950's with drainage ditches on three sides. The proposed use of the property is to lease the parcel for development of commercial/retail space.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
Documents are available for review by appointment at the FAA Dakota-Minnesota Airports District Office, Nancy Nistler, Program Manager, 6020 28th Avenue South, Suite 102, Minneapolis, MN 55450 Telephone: (612) 253-4638/Fax: (612) 253-4611.
Nancy Nistler, Program Manager, Federal Aviation Administration, Dakota-Minnesota Airports District Office, 6020 28th Avenue South, Suite 102, Minneapolis, MN 55450 Telephone: (612) 253-4638/Fax: (612) 253-4611.
In accordance with section 47107(h) of Title 49, United States Code, this notice is required to be published in the
The property is currently vacant, unimproved land maintained for compatible land use surrounding the airfield. The property was acquired by the Metropolitan Airports Commission in 1957-1958. The southeastern portion was acquired through the use of federal funds and the northwestern portion was purchased without the use of federal funds. The proposed non-aeronautical land use would be for compatible commercial/retail development, allowing the airport to become more self-sustaining. The airport will receive fair market value for the lease of this property.
The disposition of proceeds from the lease of the airport property will be in accordance with FAA's Policy and Procedures Concerning the Use of Airport Revenue, published in the
This notice announces that the FAA is considering the release of the subject airport property at the Flying Cloud Airport, Minneapolis, Minnesota from its obligations to be maintained for aeronautical purposes. Approval does not constitute a commitment by the FAA to financially assist in the change in use of the subject airport property nor a determination of eligibility for grant-in-aid funding from the FAA.
Commencing at the southeast corner of said Section 21; thence South 89 degrees 00 minutes 14 seconds West, assumed bearing, along the south line of said south half of the Southeast Quarter 1037.26 feet to a point on the southwesterly right of way line of Pioneer Trail, also known as Hennepin County State Aid Highway No. 1; thence North 57 degrees 43 minutes 08 seconds West along said right of way 25.45 feet; thence North 63 degrees 25 minutes 46 seconds West along said right of way 25.89 feet; thence northwesterly along said right of way 195.78 feet along a tangential curve, concave to the southwest center angle 00 degrees 59 minutes 01 seconds, radius 11,405.16 feet; thence North 64 degrees 24 minutes 47 seconds West along said right of way, tangent to said curve 326.10 feet; thence South 68 degrees 03 minutes 41 seconds West along said right of way 41.17 feet; thence South 24 degrees 58 minutes 15 seconds West 47.31 feet; thence southerly 83.43 feet along a tangential curve, concave to the east, central angle 47 degrees 19 minutes 37 seconds, radius 101.00 feet; thence southerly 118.21 feet along a reverse curve, concave to the west, central angle 47 degrees 18 minutes 52 seconds, radius 143.14 feet; thence South 24 degrees 57 minutes 30 seconds West, along tangent 134.18 feet; thence South 78 degrees 58 minutes 39 seconds East 607.83 feet; thence North 26 degrees 07 minutes 23 seconds East 224.82 feet to said southwesterly right of way line, thence North 63 degrees 25 minutes 46 seconds West along said right of way 7.57 feet; thence North 57 degrees 43 minutes 08 seconds West along said right of way 65.00 feet to the point of beginning.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of receipt and acceptance for review.
The FAA has completed its review of the St. Louis Lambert International Airport (STL) preliminary application for participation in the Airport Privatization Pilot Program. The preliminary application is accepted for review, with a filing date of March 22, 2017. The City of St. Louis, the airport sponsor, may proceed with the necessary steps to select a private operator, negotiate an agreement and submit a final application to the FAA for exemption under the pilot program.
Kevin C. Willis, Director, Airport Compliance and Management Analysis,
Title 49 U.S.C. 47134 establishes an airport privatization pilot program and authorizes the Department of Transportation to grant exemptions from certain Federal statutory and regulatory requirements for up to ten airport privatization projects. The application procedures require the FAA to publish a notice in the
Title 49 U.S.C. 47134 authorizes the Secretary of Transportation, and through delegation, the FAA Administrator, to exempt a sponsor of a public use airport that has received Federal assistance, from certain Federal requirements in connection with the privatization of the airport by sale or lease to a private party. Specifically, the Administrator may exempt the sponsor from all or part of the requirements to use airport revenues for airport-related purposes, to pay back a portion of Federal grants upon the sale or lease of an airport, and to return airport property deeded by the Federal Government upon transfer of the airport. The Administrator is also authorized to exempt the private purchaser or lessee from the requirement to use all airport revenues for airport-related purposes, to the extent necessary to permit the purchaser or lessee to earn compensation from the operations of the airport.
On September 16, 1997, the FAA issued a Notice of procedures to be used in applications for exemption under the Airport Privatization Pilot Program (62 FR 48693). A request for participation in the pilot program must be initiated by the filing of either a preliminary or final application for exemption with the FAA.
The City of St. Louis submitted a preliminary application to the FAA for St. Louis Lambert International Airport on March 22, 2017; the preliminary application is accepted for review, with the same filing date. The City may select a private operator, negotiate an agreement and submit a final application to the FAA for exemption.
If the FAA accepts the final application for review, the application will be made available for public review and comment for a 60-day period.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Request for information on holder of supplemental type certificates (STC's) prior to FAA declaring STC abandoned.
This Notice requests the current holder(s)—or their heirs—of STC's SA401SW, Full flow oil filter; SE325SW, Full flow oil filter; SE419SW, Full flow oil filter; come forward and identify themselves before the FAA declares these STC's abandoned.
We must receive all correspondence by October 30, 2017.
Send all correspondence on this issue to: Federal Aviation Administration, Chicago Aircraft Certification Office, 2300 East Devon Avenue, Room 107, Des Plaines, IL 60018.
The FAA has received a third party request for the release of data for STC's SA401SW, SE325SW, and SE419SW under the provisions the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552. The FAA cannot release the requested data without the permission of the STC holder. The STC holder last listed on the certificate record is the Superior Flow Company, Division of A & E Manufacturing Inc.; Detroit, MI. The FAA has been unsuccessful in contacting the Superior Flow Company by telephone, email, and/or certified mail. There has been no activity with this STC holder for more than 3 years.
If you are the owner, or heir, or a transferee of STC's SA401SW, SE325SW, or SE419SW, or have any knowledge regarding who may now hold STC's SA401SW, SE325SW, or SE419SW, please contact JoWanna Jenkins using a method described in the
If we do not receive any response by October 30, 2017, we will consider STC's SA401SW, SE325SW, and SE419SW abandoned and we will accordingly proceed with the release of the requested data. This notice is issued in accordance with Section 302 of the FAA Modernization and Reform Act of 2012, Public Law 112-95,
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of final disposition.
FMCSA announces its decision to renew exemptions of 97 individuals from its prohibition in the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) from operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. The exemptions enable these individuals with ITDM to continue to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Each group of renewed exemptions was effective on the dates stated in the discussions below and will expire on the dates stated in the discussions below.
Ms. Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, 202-366-4001,
You may see all the comments online through the Federal Document Management System (FDMS) at:
On March 7, 2017, FMCSA published a notice announcing its decision to renew exemptions for 97 individuals from the insulin-treated diabetes mellitus prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) to operate a CMV in interstate commerce and requested comments from the public (82 FR 12899). The public comment period ended on April 6, 2017, and no comments were received.
As stated in the previous notice, FMCSA has evaluated the eligibility of these applicants and determined that renewing these exemptions would achieve a level of safety equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved by complying with the current regulation 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
The physical qualification standard for drivers regarding diabetes found in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3) states that a person is physically qualified to drive a CMV if that person has no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of diabetes mellitus currently requiring insulin for control.
FMCSA received no comments in this preceding.
Based upon its evaluation of the 97 renewal exemption applications and that no comments were received, FMCSA confirms its' decision to exempt the following drivers from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3).
As of September 16, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 76 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (79 FR 47702; 79 FR 47711; 79 FR 63210; 79 FR 63219):
The drivers were included in one of the following docket Nos: FMCSA-2014-0019; FMCSA-2014-0020. Their exemptions are effective as of September 16, 2016, and will expire on September 16, 2018.
As of September 20, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 13 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (75 FR 42477; 75 FR 57329):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2010-0188. Their exemptions are effective as of September 20, 2016, and will expire on September 20, 2018.
As of September 27, 2016, and in accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, the following 8 individuals have satisfied the renewal conditions for obtaining an exemption from the rule prohibiting drivers with ITDM from driving CMVs in interstate commerce (77 FR 46149; 77 FR 59450):
The drivers were included in docket No. FMCSA-2012-0164. Their exemptions are effective as of September 27, 2016, and will expire on September 27, 2018.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31315, each exemption will be valid for two years from the effective date unless revoked earlier by FMCSA. The exemption will be revoked if the following occurs: (1) The person fails to comply with the terms and conditions of the exemption; (2) the exemption has resulted in a lower level of safety than was maintained prior to being granted; or (3) continuation of the exemption would not be consistent with the goals and objectives of 49 U.S.C. 31136 and 31315.
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOT.
Notice of application for exemption; request for comments.
FMCSA announces that the U.S. Custom Harvesters, Inc. (USCHI) has requested an exemption from the “K” intrastate restriction on commercial driver's licenses (CDLs) held by custom harvester drivers operating in interstate commerce. The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs) exempt drivers of commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) controlled and operated by a person engaged in interstate custom harvesting, including the requirement that drivers be at least 21 years old. However, many younger custom harvester drivers hold CDLs with an intrastate-only (or “K”) restriction. This has caused drivers of USCHI member companies to be cited during roadside inspections in a different State, as some officers interpret the “K” restriction to mean that the license is invalid outside the State of issuance, even when the younger driver is operating under the custom harvester exemption. This is an issue not only for individual drivers, but also for the custom harvester employing those drivers, whose safety record is adversely affected. FMCSA requests public comment on USCHI's application for exemption.
Comments must be received on or before May 31, 2017.
You may submit comments identified by Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Number FMCSA-2017-0133 by any of the following methods:
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• Each submission must include the Agency name and the docket number for this notice. Note that DOT posts all comments received without change to
For information concerning this notice, contact Mr. Tom Yager, Chief, FMCSA Driver and Carrier Operations Division; Office of Carrier, Driver and Vehicle Safety Standards; Telephone: 614-942-6477. Email:
FMCSA encourages you to participate by submitting comments and related materials.
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this notice (FMCSA-2017-0133), indicate the specific section of this document to which the comment applies, and provide a reason for suggestions or recommendations. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so the Agency can contact you if it has questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comments online, go to
FMCSA has authority under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315 to grant exemptions from certain parts of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs). FMCSA must publish a notice of each exemption request in the
The Agency reviews safety analyses and public comments submitted, and determines whether granting the exemption would likely achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 381.305). The decision of the Agency must be published in the
Custom harvesters are businesses that supply the equipment and labor to assist farmers with harvesting during their busiest seasons. Typically, there are two different classes of operations, grain harvesting and forage harvesting. A grain harvester uses combines to harvest wheat, corn, barley, canola, sunflowers, soybeans, and grain sorghum, among others. These crop products are transported to an elevator or on-farm storage, where the crop is stored and later transported elsewhere to be processed into products for public use. A forage harvester uses a chopper to harvest whole-plant crops such as corn, sorghum, milo, triticale, and alfalfa. These crops are used for silage to feed livestock in dairies and feedlots. Some operators harvest crops such as cotton that require other specialized equipment. Custom harvesters travel from State to State and can spend from a few days to several months cutting crops for one farmer.
USCHI states that custom harvesters are experiencing a problem with the exemption they have utilized since the early 1970s (49 CFR 391.2(a)). Under this provision, drivers of CMVs controlled and operated by a person engaged in custom harvesting are exempt from all of part 391, including the requirement to be at least 21 years of age to operate a CMV in interstate commerce. USCHI members frequently employ drivers 18-21 years of age, who are issued CDLs with a “K” restriction that makes the license valid only for operations within the issuing State (49 CFR 383.153(a)(10)(vii)). The problem arises when law enforcement officers interpret the “K” restriction to mean that the license is invalid outside the issuing State, even though section 391.2(a) exempts younger custom harvester drivers from the 21-year-old age requirement when operating in interstate commerce. This has caused drivers employed by some of USCHI's members to be cited for CDL violations during inspections. This an issue not only for the individual driver, but also for the custom harvester employer, whose safety record is adversely affected.
Therefore, USCHI asks that the Agency grant an exemption under the following terms and conditions:
(1) Drivers for custom harvesters operating in interstate commerce shall be exempt from any intrastate-only “K” restriction on their CDLs (49 CFR 383.153(a)(10)(vii));
(2) Drivers to be included in this exemption are identified in 49 CFR 391.2 as those operating a CMV to:
(1) Transport farm machinery, supplies, or both, to or from a farm for custom-harvesting operations on a farm; or
(2) Transport custom-harvested crops to storage or market.
In its application, USCHI cites regulatory guidance to 49 CFR 383.155, entitled “Special topics—State Reciprocity,” which reads as follows: “Question 1: May a State place an `intrastate only' or similar restriction on the CDL of a driver who certifies that he or she is not subject to part 391?; Guidance: Yes; however, this restriction would not apply to drivers in interstate commerce who are excepted or exempted from part 391 under the provisions of parts 390 or 391.” USCHI believes that this guidance clearly indicates that the “intrastate only” restriction should not be applied to custom harvester drivers; however, USCHI states that this guidance does not seem to have been widely circulated among State law enforcement personnel or is not followed consistently.
To ensure that the driver is authentically operating as a custom harvester, USCHI specifies that he/she should be able to provide at least three of the following methods of verification:
• The driver shall have on hand a valid custom harvesting document such as a current date agricultural commodity scale sheet, a current date custom harvesting load sheet, an official company document stating the company purpose, etc.;
• The CMV may have license plates specific to custom harvesting, or the verbiage “Harvesting” may be part of the business signage on the vehicle;
• The CMV must be designed to haul a harvested agricultural commodity or equipment for harvesting, or be a support vehicle for custom-harvesting operations such as a service truck;
• The CMV may be hauling a harvested agricultural commodity or equipment for the purpose of custom harvesting;
• The CMV may have newly harvested commodity or remnants on board;
• The driver will provide a verifiable location of current harvesting operation or delivery location for a harvested commodity.
One requirement of any exemption issued under 49 CFR part 381 is that it be likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation. In this case interstate operations by custom harvester drivers is already authorized by 49 CFR 391.2(a), but could be construed as prohibited by the conflicting requirements of 49 CFR 383.153(a)(10)(vii). By clarifying the nature of permitted transportation, USCHI believes this exemption would not have any impact on safe operation of CMVs and is therefore likely to achieve a level of safety equivalent to, or greater than, the level that would be achieved by the current regulation (49 CFR 391.2(a)).
USCHI requests the exemption for the maximum available period of five years. A copy of USCHI's application for exemption is available for review in the docket for this notice.
Under part 211 of Title 49 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), this document provides the public notice that on February 28, 2017, and March 27, 2017, the Sacramento Regional Transit District (RT) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) for an extension of an amendment to its existing waiver of compliance from certain provisions of the Federal
RT seeks to modify and extend the terms and conditions of its shared use waivers for portions of its rail fixed guideway public transit Blue Line and Gold Line (also known as Folsom Line) that share corridors, including highway-rail grade crossings, with the Union Pacific Railroad (UP).
FRA most recently granted conditional relief to RT from the regulatory sections specified above in 2012. FRA notes that the relief from the requirements of 49 CFR part 222 is currently applicable only at the 17 shared highway-rail grade crossings on the Gold Line. On August 4, 2015, RT extended its Blue Line to Cosumnes River College Station, adding four station stops. RT would like to expand the scope of all relief granted to date to include this Blue Line extension to Cosumnes River College Station.
This Blue Line extension added one additional shared grade crossing at Meadowview Road. After crossing Meadowview Road, the light rail alignment immediately moves out of the shared right-of-way and into exclusive RT right-of-way. For the short distance that the Blue Line extension is in the shared corridor with UP, there is a 50-foot track separation between the two rail operations. Due to the distance separating the tracks in the shared corridor, RT does not require special procedures for operating past either stopped or moving UP trains.
RT states that the Meadowview crossing was redesigned to accommodate RT's light rail system, was placed into service with the approval of the California Public Utilities Commission, and was added to RT's Operations and Maintenance Agreement with UP covering joint operations in the shared corridor. There have been no significant incidents involving the Meadowview crossing since RT began its operations. RT notes that this crossing is also a part of the City of Sacramento's quiet zone for this corridor.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment and a public hearing, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by June 15, 2017 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Issued in Washington, DC.
Under part 211 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), this document provides the public notice that on January 18, 2017, the Middletown & Hummelstown Railroad Company (MIDH) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) for a waiver of compliance from certain provisions of the Federal railroad safety regulations at 49 CFR part 230, Steam Locomotive Inspection and Maintenance Standards. FRA assigned the petition Docket Number FRA-2017-0008.
Specifically, MIDH's letter requests relief from performing the 1,472 service day inspection (SDI) for No. 91, a 2-6-0 “Mogul” type steam locomotive built by the Canadian Locomotive Company in 1910 for the Canadian National Railway. MIDH's request pertains to the inspection of the boiler every 15 calendar years or 1,472 service days, as required by 49 CFR 230.17. MIDH is requesting an additional 19 calendar months before performing a 1,472 SDI. The previous SDI was completed on May 30, 2002, and expires on May 30, 2017. Granting relief will allow No. 91 an SDI period of 16 calendar years and 7 calendar months while not exceeding 1,472 service days. MIDH operated No. 91 from 2002 to 2009. It has been stored in serviceable condition, but has not operated since 2009 due to the lack of an experienced mechanical staff. MIDH's justification for requesting relief is that No. 91 has only operated for a total of 116 service days within the 15-calendar year period.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by June 15, 2017 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Issued in Washington, DC.
Under part 211 of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), this document provides the public notice that on November 21, 2016, Ellis and Eastern Company (EE) petitioned the Federal Railroad Administration (FRA) for an extension to its existing waiver of compliance in Docket Number FRA-2009-0071. The existing waiver provides EE relief from the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 21103(a)(4), which, in part, requires a train employee to receive 48 hours off duty after initiating an on-duty period for 6 consecutive days. The waiver allows the 7 train employees of EE to receive 24 hours off duty after initiating an on-duty period for 6 consecutive days.
A copy of the petition, as well as any written communications concerning the petition, is available for review online at
Interested parties are invited to participate in these proceedings by submitting written views, data, or comments. FRA does not anticipate scheduling a public hearing in connection with these proceedings since the facts do not appear to warrant a hearing. If any interested parties desire an opportunity for oral comment and a public hearing, they should notify FRA, in writing, before the end of the comment period and specify the basis for their request.
All communications concerning these proceedings should identify the appropriate docket number and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Communications received by June 15, 2017 will be considered by FRA before final action is taken. Comments received after that date will be considered if practicable.
Anyone can search the electronic form of any written communications and comments received into any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the document, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.). Under 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its processes. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to
Issued in Washington, DC.
Maritime Administration, Department of Transportation.
Notice and request for comments.
The Maritime Administration (MARAD) invites public comment on methods to improve the prevention of, and response to sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct, as well as methods to improve the shipboard climate during the United States Merchant Marine Academy Midshipman Sea Year experience. The purpose of this public notice is to gather comments to assist in the development of a statutorily mandated report to Congress with actionable recommendations.
The deadline to submit comments is June 30, 2017. See
Comments should refer to the docket number above and submitted by one of the following methods:
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Paul Gilmour, Acting Deputy Director, Office of Training Ships, Innovation, and Outreach, Maritime Administration, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, Washington, DC 20590; (202) 366-1882; email:
Section 3513 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2017 (NDAA) requires MARAD to convene a Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Working Group (SAPR) that will prepare a report to Congress. The statute requires the SAPR Working Group to examine methods to improve the prevention of, and response to, sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct, as well as methods to improve the shipboard climate, particularly in the context of the Sea Year experience of United States Merchant Marine Academy cadets. To assist in the process, MARAD is seeking public input to focus on the following seven (7) issues:
1. Options that could promote a climate of honor and respect, and a culture that is intolerant of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct and those who commit it, with operators of vessels of the United States;
2. Strategies to raise awareness of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct with operators of vessels of the United States;
3. Options that could be implemented by the operators of vessels of the United States that would remove any barriers to the reporting of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct that occurs during a cadet's Sea Year experience and protect the victim's confidentiality;
4. Potential program or policy to improve the prevention of, and response to, incidents of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct;
5. Potential program or policy requiring crews to complete a sexual harassment and sexual assault prevention and response training program before the cadet's Sea Year that includes—
(A) fostering a shipboard climate—
(i) that does not tolerate sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct;
(ii) in which persons assigned to vessel crews are encouraged to intervene to prevent such potential incidents; and
(iii) that encourages victims to report any incident of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct; and
(B) promoting an understanding of the needs of, and the resources available to, a victim after an incident of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct;
6. Other feasible changes to Sea Year training at the Academy, and corresponding changes to curricula, to improve prevention of and response to incidents of sexual harassment, sexual assault, and other inappropriate conduct; and
7. How vessel operators could ensure the confidentiality of a report of sexual harassment, sexual assault, or other inappropriate conduct in order to protect the victim and prevent retribution.
1. We have opened a docket at
2. You may submit your inputs identified by DOT Docket Number MARAD-2017-0079 by any of the following methods: Web site/Federal eRulemaking Portal, Fax, Mail or Hand Delivery. Please use only one of these means for each submission. All submissions must include the agency name and docket number for this matter. Specific instructions follow.
3. For the Web site/Federal eRulemaking Portal, go to
4. For submission by telefacsimile/FAX, transmit your agenda topic, comment or idea to (202) 493-2251. Be sure to identify the submission by DOT Docket Number MARAD-2017-0079.
5. Submissions by Mail or Hand Delivery should go to Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., West Building, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590, between 9:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m., Monday through Friday, except on Federal holidays. If you submit your inputs by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8
6. If you FAX, mail, or hand deliver your input we recommend that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a telephone number in the body of your document so that we can contact you if we have questions regarding your submission.
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8. For access to the docket to read background documents or inputs received, go to
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, to
5 U.S.C. 610; E.O. 13563, 76 FR 3821, Jan. 21 2011; E.O. 12866, 58 FR 51735, Oct. 4, 1993.
By Order of the Executive Director.
Departmental Offices, Department of Treasury.
Notice.
The Terrorism Risk Insurance Act requires the Secretary of the Treasury to collect, from insurers that participate in the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program, information regarding insurance coverage for terrorism losses. The information is to be used by the Secretary in connection with reports analyzing various aspects of the Program. Participating insurers are directed to report information identified in a series of forms approved by the Office of Management and Budget through a web portal that has been established for that purpose. Participating insurers are required to respond to this data call, subject to certain exceptions identified in this Notice.
Certain data must be submitted not later than May 15, 2017, with the balance of any remaining information to be provided by October 1, 2017.
Participating insurers will submit the identified data after registration at a web portal that has been established for this data collection. A link to the Web site where participating insurers can commence the registration process can be found at
Richard Ifft, Senior Insurance Regulatory Policy Analyst, Federal Insurance Office, Room 1410, Department of Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20220, at (202) 622-2922 (this is not a toll-free number), Kevin Meehan, Senior Insurance Regulatory Policy Analyst, Federal Insurance Office, 202-622-7009 (not a toll free number), or Lindsey Baldwin, Senior Policy Analyst, Federal Insurance Office, 202-622-3220 (this is not a toll-free number). Persons who have difficulty hearing or speaking may access these numbers via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Relay Service at (800) 877-8339.
Congress enacted the Terrorism Risk Insurance Act of 2002 (TRIA)
TRIA originally authorized the Program for a three-year period ending December 31, 2005. The Program has since been reauthorized three times, most recently in the Terrorism Risk Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2015 (2015 Reauthorization Act),
Treasury conducted a voluntary data call in 2016, to avoid inadvertently imposing an unanticipated level of burden on participating insurers. In that year, before implementing regulations were effective, Treasury utilized a single reporting template approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) on an emergency basis without a formal public notice and comment period. Data collected from the insurers that elected to respond to this request formed the basis for Treasury's first report under the 2015 Reauthorization Act addressing the effectiveness of the Program.
On December 21, 2016, Treasury issued Final Rules concerning, among other things, its data collection authorities under the Program.
The collection templates proposed for use in calendar year 2017 are based upon the form created for use in calendar year 2016, although certain changes were made based upon experience derived from the 2016 voluntary data call. The principal
Each form is accompanied by a separate “data dictionary” applicable to the form, which contains specific instructions to complete each data element. In its initial notice seeking public comment, Treasury set forth the general instructions concerning what type of form each participating insurer must complete.
Commenters made a number of suggestions concerning the manner in which data should be collected and provided specific suggestions concerning individual data elements and the instructions concerning those elements. Several commenters
Several commenters requested that Treasury delay the data collection deadline. In support of this request, commenters cited the fact that this is the first year of mandatory collection, and that a delayed reporting date would allow insurers more time to verify and compile information, leading to more accurate submissions.
Treasury selected the data reporting deadline of May 15 in the Program Rules in response to comments indicating that the initial proposed date of March 1 interfered with pre-existing state insurance data production requirements. Treasury chose May 15 as the latest date to obtain the necessary data and still reasonably complete its statutory reporting obligations, which are due each year on June 30.
To address the concerns raised by commenters while still meeting its statutory obligations, Treasury will, for 2017 only, limit the amount of data that needs to be provided by May 15, 2017 by all insurers to general registration, premium and policy counts, policy exposures, and reinsurance (the information that is reportable by small insurers).
One commenter suggested that the reporting forms were not geared to reporting by Federally-approved insurers that are subject to the Program.
Several commenters suggested the establishment of a telephone “helpline”
Treasury also received a number of written comments addressing technical changes or questions concerning the reporting forms. In response, Treasury has modified the instructions in a number of ways to clarify the information sought, and in some cases to reduce the burden of reporting that might otherwise be presented by the collection as originally proposed (for example, by adding fields to allow insurers to report unallocated values that have not been specifically coded within the insurer's existing systems).
Treasury, through an insurance statistical aggregator, has established the web portal identified above, through which insurers will be able to submit the identified data. Reporting insurers should visit this link in order to register for the 2017 data collection. Copies of the collection forms (image files only) are also available at the link identified above; however, reporting insurers will obtain the fillable forms that they will use for reporting directly from the data aggregator once they register for the data collection process. As noted above, reporting insurers are required to submit completed data forms containing data related to premium and policy counts, policy exposures, and reinsurance no later than May 15, 2017; the remaining data requested must be submitted no later than October 1, 2017. The insurance statistical aggregator will provide instructions on how to submit completed forms, and will also be available to answer questions related to the completion of the forms.
All information submitted via the web portal is subject to the confidentiality and data protection provisions of TRIA and the Program Rules, as well as to section 552 of title 5, United States Code, including any exceptions thereunder. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, (44 U.S.C 3501
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) gives notice under Public Law 92-463; Title 5 U.S.C. App. 2 (Federal Advisory Committee Act) that the subcommittees of the Joint Biomedical Laboratory Research and Development and Clinical Science Research and Development Services Scientific Merit Review Board (JBL/CS SMRB) will meet from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. on the dates indicated below (unless otherwise listed):
The purpose of the subcommittees is to provide advice on the scientific quality, budget, safety and mission relevance of investigator-initiated research proposals submitted for VA merit review evaluation. Proposals submitted for review include various medical specialties within the general areas of biomedical, behavioral and clinical science research.
These subcommittee meetings will be closed to the public for the review, discussion, and evaluation of initial and renewal research proposals, which involve reference to staff and consultant critiques of research proposals. Discussions will deal with scientific merit of each proposal and qualifications of personnel conducting the studies, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Additionally, premature disclosure of research information could significantly obstruct implementation of proposed agency action regarding the research proposals. As provided by subsection 10(d) of Public Law 92-463, as amended by Public Law 94-409, closing the subcommittee meetings is in accordance with Title 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(6) and (9)(B).
Those who would like to obtain a copy of the minutes from the closed subcommittee meetings and rosters of the subcommittee members should contact Holly Krull, Ph.D., Manager, Merit Review Program (10P9B), Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, at (202) 632-8522 or email at
(b) The Secretary shall examine whether these regulations and guidance documents comply with Federal laws that prohibit the Department from exercising any direction, supervision, or control over areas subject to State and local control, including:
(c) The Secretary shall, as appropriate and consistent with applicable law, rescind or revise any regulations that are identified pursuant to subsection (b) of this section as inconsistent with statutory prohibitions. The Secretary shall also rescind or revise any guidance documents that are identified pursuant to subsection (b) of this section as inconsistent with statutory prohibitions. The Secretary shall, to the extent consistent with law, publish any proposed regulations and withdraw or modify any guidance documents pursuant to this subsection no later than 300 days after the date of this order.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
(b) In conducting the review described in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall consult and coordinate with, as appropriate, the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of Agriculture, the Secretary of Commerce, the Secretary of Energy, the Secretary of Homeland Security, and the heads of any other executive departments or agencies concerned with areas designated under the Act.
(c) In conducting the review described in subsection (a) of this section, the Secretary shall, as appropriate, consult and coordinate with the Governors of States affected by monument designations or other relevant officials of affected State, tribal, and local governments.
(d) Within 45 days of the date of this order, the Secretary shall provide an interim report to the President, through the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for Domestic Policy, and the Chairman of the Council on Environmental Quality, summarizing the findings of the review described in subsection (a) of this section with respect to Proclamation 9558 of December 28, 2016 (Establishment of the Bears Ears National Monument), and such other designations as the Secretary determines to be appropriate for inclusion in the interim report. For those designations, the interim report shall include recommendations for such Presidential actions, legislative proposals, or other actions consistent with law as the Secretary may consider appropriate to carry out the policy set forth in section 1 of this order.
(e) Within 120 days of the date of this order, the Secretary shall provide a final report to the President, through the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, the Assistant to the President for Economic Policy, the Assistant to the President for Domestic Policy, and the Chairman of the Council on Environmental Quality, summarizing the findings of the review described in subsection (a) of this section. The final report shall include recommendations for such Presidential actions, legislative proposals, or other actions consistent with law as the Secretary may consider appropriate to carry out the policy set forth in section 1 of this order.
(b) This order shall be implemented consistent with applicable law and subject to the availability of appropriations.
(c) This order is not intended to, and does not, create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, or any other person.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |