Page Range | 64049-64343 | |
FR Document |
Page and Subject | |
---|---|
81 FR 64060 - Revised Medical Criteria for Evaluating Respiratory System Disorders | |
81 FR 64341 - Continuation of the National Emergency With Respect to Persons Who Commit, Threaten To Commit, or Support Terrorism | |
81 FR 64226 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 64142 - Sunshine Act; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 64049 - National Hispanic Heritage Month, 2016 | |
81 FR 64182 - Submission for OMB Review; 30-Day Comment Request; National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke Federal Interagency Traumatic Brain Injury Research (FITBIR) Data Access Request | |
81 FR 64211 - Sunshine Act Meeting | |
81 FR 64149 - Registration Review; Draft Ecological and/or Human Health Risk Assessments; Notice of Availability | |
81 FR 64256 - U.S. National Commission for UNESCO Notice of Teleconference Meeting | |
81 FR 64142 - Notice of Availability of Revised Methodology for Determining Average Prime Offer Rates | |
81 FR 64256 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Omar Diaby, aka Omar al-Diaby, aka Omar Omsen, aka Omar Oumsen, aka Oumar Diaby as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 64151 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Proposed Information Collection Request for the National Study of Nutrient Removal and Secondary Technologies: Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW) Screener Questionnaire | |
81 FR 64256 - E.O. 13224 Designation of Fathi Ahmad Mohammad Hammad, aka Fathi Ahmad Hammad, aka Fathy Ahmed Hamad, aka Fathi Hamad as a Specially Designated Global Terrorist | |
81 FR 64184 - Louisiana; Amendment No. 6 to Notice of a Major Disaster Declaration | |
81 FR 64060 - Current Good Manufacturing Practice, Hazard Analysis, and Risk-Based Preventive Controls for Human Food and Current Good Manufacturing Practice, Hazard Analysis, and Risk-Based Preventive Controls for Food for Animals; Definition of Qualified Auditor; Announcement of Effective Date | |
81 FR 64143 - Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS); Organizational Conflicts of Interest in Major Defense Acquisition Programs | |
81 FR 64256 - U.S. Department of State Advisory Committee on Private International Law: Public Meeting on Micro-, Small-, and Medium Sized Enterprises | |
81 FR 64145 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Educational Opportunity Centers Program (EOC) Annual Performance Report | |
81 FR 64135 - U.S. Smart Grid Solutions Toolkit | |
81 FR 64212 - Tennessee Valley Authority; Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Units 1 and 2 | |
81 FR 64209 - Environmental Properties Management; Cimarron Facility; Decommissioning Plan | |
81 FR 64204 - Proposed Information Collection Request Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations Eligibility Data Form: Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act and Veteran's Preference (USERRA/VP) | |
81 FR 64207 - Issuance of Updates to NUREG-1556 (Consolidated Guidance About Materials Licenses), Volumes 1 (Portable Gauges), 2 (Industrial Radiography), 3 (Sealed Sources and Devices), 4 (Fixed Gauges), 10 (Master Material Licenses), 15 (Changes of Control and Bankruptcy), and 19 (Reciprocity) | |
81 FR 64141 - Agency Information Collection Activities Under OMB Review | |
81 FR 64131 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 7-Mayaguez, Puerto Rico; Notification of Proposed Production Activity; MSD International GMBH (Puerto Rico Branch) LLC; Subzone 7G (Pharmaceuticals) Las Piedras, Puerto Rico | |
81 FR 64150 - National Advisory Council for Environmental Policy and Technology | |
81 FR 64189 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 64186 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 64183 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 64203 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Income and Eligibility Verification System Confidentiality | |
81 FR 64185 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 64187 - Proposed Flood Hazard Determinations | |
81 FR 64162 - International Drug Scheduling; Convention on Psychotropic Substances; Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs; 4-Methylethcathinone and Eleven Other Substances; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 64164 - Health Canada and United States Food and Drug Administration Joint Public Consultation on International Council for Harmonisation of Technical Requirements for Pharmaceuticals for Human Use; Public Meeting and Webcast | |
81 FR 64177 - A List of Biomarkers Used as Outcomes in Development of FDA-Approved New Molecular Entities and New Biological Therapeutics (October 2007 to December 2015); Establishment of a Public Docket | |
81 FR 64127 - Privacy Act System of Records, Amended System of Records | |
81 FR 64144 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Student Aid Internet Gateway (SAIG) Enrollment Document | |
81 FR 64183 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 64202 - Notice of Lodging of Proposed Consent Decree Under the Clean Water Act | |
81 FR 64147 - Boulder Canyon Project | |
81 FR 64066 - Security Zone; 22nd International Seapower Symposium, Goat Island, Newport, RI | |
81 FR 64068 - Security Zone; 22nd International Seapower Symposium Special Events, Rosecliff Mansion and Newport Marriott Hotel, Newport, RI | |
81 FR 64190 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Application for Asylum and for Withholding of Removal, Form I-589; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 64191 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Application for Waiver of Grounds of Inadmissibility, FormI-690; Extension, Without Change, of a Currently Approved Collection | |
81 FR 64139 - Multistakeholder Process on Internet of Things Security Upgradability and Patching | |
81 FR 64159 - RPG National Cross-Site Evaluation 30-Day Notice | |
81 FR 64205 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Call Report and Credit Union Profile | |
81 FR 64206 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request | |
81 FR 64192 - Draft Environmental Impact Statement; Indiana Department of Natural Resources Habitat Conservation Plan | |
81 FR 64257 - Qualification of Drivers; Exemption Applications; Diabetes Mellitus | |
81 FR 64110 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants: Proposed Rule To List the Maui's Dolphin as Endangered and the South Island Hector's Dolphin as Threatened Under the Endangered Species Act | |
81 FR 64094 - Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Proposed Rule To List Two Guitarfishes as Threatened | |
81 FR 64161 - Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request; Child Care and Development Fund Financial Report (ACF-696) for States and Territories | |
81 FR 64155 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 64157 - Proposed Data Collection Submitted for Public Comment and Recommendations | |
81 FR 64156 - Agency Forms Undergoing Paperwork Reduction Act Review | |
81 FR 64270 - Solicitation of Nomination for Appointment to the Veterans' Advisory Committee on Education (VACOE) | |
81 FR 64126 - Advisory Committee Meeting | |
81 FR 64146 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; Program for International Student Assessment (PISA 2018) Recruitment and Field Test | |
81 FR 64171 - Biosimilar User Fee Act; Public Meeting | |
81 FR 64175 - Progress Toward Implementing the Product Identification Requirements of the Drug Supply Chain Security Act; Public Meeting; Request for Comments | |
81 FR 64061 - Country-by-Country Reporting; Correction | |
81 FR 64195 - National Register of Historic Places; Notification of Pending Nominations and Related Actions | |
81 FR 64168 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Survey on the Occurrence of Foodborne Illness Risk Factors in Selected Institutional Foodservice and Retail Food Stores Facility Types | |
81 FR 64166 - Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Data To Support Social and Behavioral Research as Used by the Food and Drug Administration | |
81 FR 64083 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 64080 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (Formerly Known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Airplanes | |
81 FR 64205 - NASA Advisory Council; Science Committee; Planetary Science Subcommittee; Meeting | |
81 FR 64153 - Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority | |
81 FR 64196 - Certain Industrial Control System Software, Systems Using Same and Components Thereof; Institution of Investigation | |
81 FR 64143 - U.S. Strategic Command Strategic Advisory Group; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 64144 - Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 64230 - AB Private Credit Investors Corporation, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 64226 - OFS Capital Corporation, et al.; Notice of Application | |
81 FR 64197 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
81 FR 64247 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE Arca, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Deadline for Implementing Rule 6.61(a)(2) and (3) Until September 30, 2016 | |
81 FR 64249 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) Options Facility To Change the Liquidity Fee and Credit Structure for PIP and COPIP Transactions | |
81 FR 64238 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NYSE MKT LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Extend the Deadline for Implementing Rule 967.1NY(a)(2) and (3) Until September 30, 2016 | |
81 FR 64250 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) Options Facility To Change the Fees and Credits for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions | |
81 FR 64218 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; BOX Options Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend the Fee Schedule on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) Options Facility To Specify That All Complex Order Transactions Executed Through the Exchange's Auction Mechanisms Will Be Subject to Section I (Exchange Fees) and II (Liquidity Fees and Credits) | |
81 FR 64215 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board; Notice of Filing of Amendment No. 1 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment No. 1, To Establish the MSRB Academic Historical Transaction Data Product | |
81 FR 64240 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc.; Notice of Filing of Partial Amendment No. 1 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change Amending FINRA Rules 2210 (Communications With the Public), 2213 (Requirements for the Use of Bond Mutual Fund Volatility Ratings), and 2214 (Requirements for the Use of Investment Analysis Tools), as Modified by Partial Amendment No. 1 | |
81 FR 64234 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; Investors Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change To Amend Rule 11.340 To Modify Certain Data Collection Requirements of the Regulation NMS Plan To Implement a Tick Size Pilot Program | |
81 FR 64221 - Self-Regulatory Organizations; NASDAQ BX, Inc.; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of Proposed Rule Change Regarding Tiers Related to SPY Options | |
81 FR 64321 - System Safeguards Testing Requirements for Derivatives Clearing Organizations | |
81 FR 64092 - Privacy Act of 1974; Implementation | |
81 FR 64253 - Council on Underserved Communities Advisory Board: Meeting | |
81 FR 64198 - Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records | |
81 FR 64061 - Qualification Standards for Enlistment, Appointment, and Induction | |
81 FR 64126 - Beginning Farmers and Ranchers Advisory Committee | |
81 FR 64254 - Request for Information on Strategies for Improving Work Outcomes for Individuals With Musculoskeletal Disabilities | |
81 FR 64138 - Certain Cut-to-Length Carbon-Quality Steel Plate From the Republic of Korea: Final Results of Countervailing Duty Administrative Review and New Shipper Review; Calendar Year 2014 | |
81 FR 64206 - Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request | |
81 FR 64130 - Foreign-Trade Zone 122-Corpus Christi, Texas; Application for Expansion of Subzone 122J; Valero Refining Company; Nueces County, Texas | |
81 FR 64070 - Partial Approval and Partial Disapproval of Air Quality Implementation Plans; NJ; Infrastructure SIP Requirements for 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide, 2010 Sulfur Dioxide, and 2012 PM2.5 | |
81 FR 64130 - Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 119-Minneapolis, Minnesota Authorization of Production Activity SICK, Inc.; (Electronic Industrial Sensors, Encoders, Optical Readers and Monitoring Systems) Savage, Minnesota | |
81 FR 64135 - Stainless Steel Sheet and Strip From the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value and Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances | |
81 FR 64257 - Twenty Fourth Meeting of SC-217 Aeronautical Databases | |
81 FR 64154 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies; Correction | |
81 FR 64181 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Notice of Closed Meetings | |
81 FR 64182 - Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health & Human Development; Amended Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 64181 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 64180 - National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting | |
81 FR 64207 - Astronomy and Astrophysics Advisory Committee; Notice of Meeting | |
81 FR 64134 - Solid Fertilizer Grade Ammonium Nitrate From the Russian Federation; Final Results of Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; Final Determination of No Shipments; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 64131 - Certain Frozen Fish Fillets From the Socialist Republic of Vietnam: Preliminary Results and Partial Rescission of the Antidumping Duty Administrative Review; 2014-2015 | |
81 FR 64195 - Notice of Receipt of Complaint; Solicitation of Comments Relating to the Public Interest | |
81 FR 64154 - Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies | |
81 FR 64267 - Public Meeting Regarding NHTSA's Research Portfolio | |
81 FR 64180 - Receipt of Notice That a Patent Infringement Complaint Was Filed Against a Biosimilar Applicant | |
81 FR 64178 - S9 Nonclinical Evaluation for Anticancer Pharmaceuticals-Questions and Answers; International Council for Harmonisation; Draft Guidance for Industry; Availability | |
81 FR 64194 - Proposed Renewal of Information Collection: OMB Control Number 1084-0033, Private Rental Survey | |
81 FR 64072 - Air Plan Approval; Ohio; Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2012 PM2.5 | |
81 FR 64088 - Schedule of Fees for Consular Services, Department of State and Overseas Embassies and Consulates-Passport Services Fee Changes | |
81 FR 64051 - Airworthiness Directives; Airbus Airplanes | |
81 FR 64057 - Airworthiness Directives; Fokker Services B.V. Airplanes | |
81 FR 64053 - Airworthiness Directives; Viking Air Limited Airplanes | |
81 FR 64271 - System Safeguards Testing Requirements | |
81 FR 64265 - Reports, Forms, and Recordkeeping Requirements | |
81 FR 64266 - Reports, Forms, and Record Keeping Requirements | |
81 FR 64268 - Petition for Exemption From the Federal Motor Vehicle Theft Prevention Standard; Volkswagen Group of America, Inc. | |
81 FR 64085 - Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program | |
81 FR 64063 - Access to Classified Information by Historical Researchers and Certain Former Government Personnel | |
81 FR 64075 - Small Business Investment Companies (SBIC); Early Stage Initiative |
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration
Foreign-Trade Zones Board
International Trade Administration
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration
National Telecommunications and Information Administration
Defense Acquisition Regulations System
Western Area Power Administration
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Children and Families Administration
Food and Drug Administration
National Institutes of Health
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
Coast Guard
Federal Emergency Management Agency
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services
Fish and Wildlife Service
National Park Service
Veterans Employment and Training Service
Federal Aviation Administration
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
Internal Revenue Service
Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.
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Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2005-15-07 for certain Airbus Model A320-111 airplanes and Model A320-200 series airplanes. AD 2005-15-07 required installing insulator and cable ties to the electrical cables of the S routes at the gaps in the raceway in the wing trailing edge and the wing tip and wing root areas. This new AD requires additional modifications in the trailing edges of both wings. This new AD also removes airplanes from the applicability. This AD was prompted by reports of wire chafing in the left-hand wing trailing edge. We are issuing this AD to prevent wire chafing in the trailing edge of the wings, which could result in a short circuit in the vicinity of the fuel tanks, consequently resulting in a potential source of ignition in a fuel tank vapor space and consequent fuel tank explosion.
This AD is effective October 24, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of October 24, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 to supersede AD 2005-15-07, Amendment 39-14196 (70 FR 43024, July 26, 2005) (“AD 2005-15-07”). AD 2005-15-07 applied to certain Airbus Model A320-111 airplanes and Model A320-200 series airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0198, dated September 5, 2014 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A320-211, -212, and -231 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Prompted by an accident * * *, the FAA published Special Federal Aviation Regulation (SFAR) 88 [(66 FR 23086, May 7, 2001)], and the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) published Interim Policy INT/POL/25/12.
Prompted by that regulation, the results of an Airbus review of the A320 type design identified, on certain aeroplanes, a possible ignition source in fuel tank vapour space(s). That condition, if not corrected, could result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the aeroplane.
It was, therefore, decided to modify the cable routes of the wing trailing edge, aft of the rear spar and wing tip of those aeroplanes, to be applied in service in accordance with the instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin (SB) A320-24-1062 Revision 05. Following that decision, DGAC France issued AD F-2004-173 (EASA approval number 2004-10570) to require that modification.
After that AD was issued, it was found that additional work, introduced by Airbus SB A320-24-1062 Revision 05, was not included as part of the normal accomplishment instructions, which meant that the additional work might not be accomplished. Consequently, EASA issued AD 2008-0051, retaining the requirements of DGAC France AD F-2004-173 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2005-15-07], which was superseded, and required the accomplishment of the additional work in accordance with the instructions of Airbus SB A320-24-1062 Revision 06. EASA AD 2008-0051 was revised to reduce the Applicability and to add a clarification to paragraph (2).
After EASA AD 2008-0051R1 was issued, some operators reported wire chafing in the left hand wing trailing edge. Investigation
Prompted by these findings, Airbus developed two modifications to prevent any further wire chafing by introducing an additional protection at raceway gaps and a new cable standard in the trailing edges of both wings.
Airbus published SB A320-92-1049 and SB A320-92-1052 to make these modifications available for in-service application. At the time of incorporation of Airbus SB A320-24-1062, these two modifications were considered recommended only.
EASA recently determined that this condition, if not corrected, could lead to a short circuit on 115 volts in the vicinity of fuel tanks, consequently creating another risk of ignition source in a fuel tank vapour space.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD retains the requirements of EASA AD 2008-0051R1, which is superseded, and requires modifications to install the additional anti-chafing protection and the new cable standard.
This AD also removes Model A320-214, -232, and -233 airplanes from the applicability because those airplane models have been modified in production or in service. This AD also removes Model A320-111 airplanes from the applicability because those airplanes are no longer on the U.S. type certificate data sheet (there are no more A320-111 airplanes in service in the U.S. and none in storage). You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the available data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed, except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Airbus Service Bulletins A320-92-1049, Revision 01, dated November 28, 2011; A320-92-1052, dated December 5, 2007; and A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011.
Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1049, Revision 01, dated November 28, 2011, describes procedures for installing the additional anti-chafing protection.
Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1052, dated December 5, 2007, describes procedures for replacing the current electrical cable with the new standard one.
Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011, describes procedures for installing insulator and cable ties to the electrical cables of the S routes at the gaps in the raceway in the wing trailing edge and the wing tip and wing root areas.
This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 47 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2005-15-07, and retained in this AD take about 35 work-hours per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Required parts cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that were required by AD 2005-15-07 is $2,975 per product.
We also estimate that it would take about 76 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $13,000 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $914,620, or $19,460 per product.
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 24, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2005-15-07, Amendment 39-14196 (70 FR 43024, July 26, 2005) (“AD 2005-15-07”).
This AD applies to Airbus Model A320-211, -212, and -231 airplanes, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers except those on which Airbus Modification 22626 has been embodied in production.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 24, Electrical Power; and Code 92.
This AD was prompted by reports of wire chafing in the left-hand wing trailing edge. We are issuing this AD to prevent wire chafing in the trailing edge of the wings, which could result in a short circuit in the vicinity of the fuel tanks, consequently resulting in a potential source of ignition in a fuel tank vapor space and consequent fuel tank explosion.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (f) of AD 2005-15-07, with revised service information. Within 60 months after August 30, 2005 (the effective date of AD 2005-15-07), install insulator and cable ties to the electrical cables of the S routes at the gaps in the raceway in the wing trailing edge and the wing tip and wing root areas, in accordance with Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 05, dated June 27, 2002; or the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011. As of the effective date of this AD, only Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011, may be used.
Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, modify the trailing edges of both wings by accomplishing the actions specified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (h)(2) of this AD.
(1) Install the additional anti-chafing protection in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1049, Revision 01, dated November 28, 2011.
(2) Replace the current electrical cable with the new standard one in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1052, dated December 5, 2007. During the replacement, ensure that the anti-chafing protection specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1049, Revision 01, dated November 28, 2011, as required by paragraph (h)(1) of this AD, remains in place.
For airplanes on which the installation specified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 05, dated June 27, 2002, has been done: Within 60 months after the effective date of this AD, install insulators and cable ties, in accordance with “Modification—Additional Work (Introduced at Revision No. 06)” of the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011.
(1) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraphs (g) and (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 06, dated June 26, 2007, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
(2) This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (h) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1049, dated July 23, 2007, which is not incorporated by reference in this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2014-0198, dated September 5, 2014, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) Service information identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference is available at the addresses specified in paragraphs (m)(4) and (m)(5) of this AD.
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(3) The following service information was approved for IBR on October 24, 2016.
(i) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-24-1062, Revision 07, dated November 28, 2011.
(ii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1049, Revision 01, dated November 28, 2011.
(iii) Airbus Service Bulletin A320-92-1052, dated December 5, 2007. (4) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
(5) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(6) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Viking Air Limited Models DHC-2 Mk. I, DHC-2 Mk. II, and DHC-2 Mk. III airplanes. This AD results from mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) issued by an aviation authority of another country to identify and
This AD is effective October 24, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in the AD as of October 24, 2016.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
For service information identified in this AD, contact Viking Air Limited Technical Support, 1959 De Havilland Way, Sidney, British Columbia, Canada, V8L 5V5; Fax: 250-656-0673; telephone: (North America) (800) 663-8444; email:
Aziz Ahmed, Aerospace Engineer, FAA, New York Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), 1600 Stewart Avenue, Suite 410, Westbury, New York 11590; telephone: (516) 228-7329; fax: (516) 794-5531; email:
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Viking Air Limited Models DHC-2 Mk. I, DHC-2 Mk. II, and DHC-2 Mk. III airplanes. The NPRM was published in the
There have been a number of reports of corrosion and/or cracking at the elevator actuating lever on the control column, in the elevator control rod assemblies, and at the rod end plug.
Undetected corrosion and/or cracking of the elevator control rod assemblies or elevator actuating lever may lead to the failure of the components with consequent loss of aeroplane control.
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. The following presents the comments received on the NPRM (81 FR 11132, March 3, 2016) and the FAA's response to each comment.
Roger Braun requested allowance for inspecting the elevator control rod without removing it from the airplane.
The commenter stated that even though the inspection procedure in Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `C', dated July 17, 2015 (SB No. V2/0005, Rev. C), requires removing the elevator control rod, that doing so is excessively invasive and adds an increased risk of maintenance errors and/or damage to the part over simply inspecting it in place.
We do not agree with the commenter. The elevator control rod ends are not required to be removed from its assembly. Removal of the elevator control rod assembly is necessary to do the required inspections. Viking Air Limited and Transport Canada determined that removing the elevator control rod assembly is necessary to adequately do the inspection, and the process of removing the elevator control rod assembly does not pose additional risk to safety.
We have not changed the AD based on this comment.
Roger Braun requested to omit the requirement to revise the Airworthiness Limitation section and instead include the repetitive inspection in the final rule AD action. The commenter stated that it is very hard to find the compliance times for the repetitive inspections, which are embedded in the temporary revisions to be inserted into the Airworthiness Limitation section of the FAA-approved maintenance program. The commenter asked that instead of inserting continued airworthiness instructions into the manual, why not include the language “repeat inspection every 400 flight hours” in the AD actions?
We partially agree. We agree that the repetitive inspection requirements that are embedded in the temporary revisions are not clear or easy to understand. However, we disagree with writing the repetitive inspections into the AD because Viking Air Limited plans to have all the required inspections in their maintenance manual rather than dispersed over numerous other documents. We have determined that revising the Airworthiness Limitations section of the FAA-approved maintenance program to mandate the repetitive inspections is acceptable. To clarify the intent of the of the Airworthiness Limitations section, we have changed the heading of that section to Repetitive Inspection in order to make the repetitive inspections clear.
We have changed the AD based on this comment.
Roger Braun requested that the final rule AD action be changed to include an allowance for minor surface corrosion.
The commenter stated that the proposed AD and the related service information are vague in delineating what corrosion is considered unacceptable by stating if “any corrosion” is found, which would be an unrealistic standard. The commenter requested relief for minor surface corrosion.
We do not agree. Viking Air Limited and Transport Canada determined that all corrosion is unacceptable. Small surface corrosion must also be repaired following the SB No. V2/0005, Rev. C, dated July 17, 2015.
We have not changed the AD based on this comment.
Roger Braun requested clarification in the final rule AD action to clearly state that P/N C2FC619A-11 elevator control rod is not a life-limited part.
The commenter stated that it is not entirely clear in the proposed AD that elevator control rod, P/N C2FC619A-11, is not a life-limited part. The commenter requested further clarification in the final rule AD action specifying that there is no life limit on P/N C2FC619A-11.
We agree with the commenter and have added a statement in the AD to further clarify that the P/N C2CF619A-11 elevator control rod has no life limit.
We have changed the AD based on this comment.
Roger Braun requested relief for the repetitive inspection of the elevator control rods with a known date of manufacture, for example, 5 or 10 years.
We infer that the commenter wants the repetitive inspections changed from every 400 hours time-in-service (which is what is specified in the Temporary Revisions to the Airworthiness Limitations section) to a repetitive 5-year inspection.
We do not agree. Viking Air Limited and Transport Canada determined that damage can occur at any time. Therefore, no threshold is provided that will allow a certain period of time before the start of the repetitive inspection requirement.
We have not changed the AD based on this comment.
Mark Henshaw requested the repetitive inspections be yearly/12-month inspections. The commenter stated that he operated his airplane 400-500 hours per summer season, as most operators do. The commenter stated that the 400-hour recurring inspection will require the operators to remove the airplane from service, remove the pilot floor panel, pilot side panels, oil cooler cowl, side after cowl, unbolt the control column bearings and the inboard control column mount then remove it, pull the elevator control rod out of the airplane, and then do the elevator control rod inspection. We infer that the commenter is making the point that the inspection is very labor intensive. The commenter stated that this inspection would fit nicely into a yearly/12-month inspection criteria instead of what probably will fall right in the middle of their busy season when a 100-hour inspection may or may not have been scheduled. This inspection will add at least 4-6 hours (on a good night) to a routine 100-hour inspection.
The commenter requested an alternative of yearly/every 12 months, that way all the elevator control rods get looked at every year and nobody has to stop their airplane right in the middle of their busy season for this inspection.
The commenter stated that there has never been a requirement to remove the elevator control rod, and does agree that doing the inspection is great idea, but not every 400 hours.
We do not agree that yearly/12 month inspections are an acceptable level of safety to address the unsafe condition. The 400-hour inspection should assure that any damage will be detected before it rises to an unsafe level. Additionally, Viking Air Limited informed us that there are existing inspections specified in the applicable maintenance manuals around the same affected area as this AD that requires lifting of floor boards.
We have not changed the AD based on this comment.
We reviewed the relevant data, considered the comments received, and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting the AD with the changes described previously and minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Αre consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 11132, March 3, 2016) for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM (81 FR 11132, March 3, 2016).
We also determined that these changes will not increase the economic burden on any operator or increase the scope of the AD.
We reviewed Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `C', dated July 17, 2015; Temporary Revision No.: 2-38, dated March 4, 2015, of VIKING PSM NO.: 1-2-2, AIRCRAFT: DHC-2 BEAVER, SERIES: ALL, PUBLICATION: MAINTENANCE MANUAL; and Temporary Revision No.: 2T-14, dated March 4, 2015, of VIKING PSM NO.: 1-2T-2, AIRCRAFT: DHC-2 TURBO BEAVER, SERIES: ALL, PUBLICATION: MAINTENANCE MANUAL. The service information describes procedures for doing detailed visual inspections of the elevator control rod assemblies, the elevator actuating lever on the control column, and the control column torque tube for corrosion, cracking, and/or other damages. The service bulletin also describes procedures for repairing or replacing damaged parts. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD will affect 135 products of U.S. registry. We also estimate that it will take about 11.5 work-hours per product to comply with the basic inspection requirements of this AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour.
Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of the basic inspection requirements of this AD on U.S. operators to be $131,962.50, or $977.50 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 8 work-hours and require parts costing $1,859, for a cost of $2,539 per product. Contact Viking Air Limited at the address identified in the
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this AD:
(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,
(2) Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979),
(3) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and
(4) Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This airworthiness directive (AD) becomes effective October 24, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Viking Air Limited Models DHC-2 Mk. I, DHC-2 Mk. II, and DHC-2 Mk. III airplanes, all serial numbers, certificated in any category.
Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Code 27: Flight Controls.
This AD was prompted by mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI) originated by an aviation authority of another country to identify and correct an unsafe condition on an aviation product. The MCAI describes the unsafe condition as corrosion of the elevator control rod and of the elevator actuating lever on the control column. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct corrosion and/or cracking of the elevator control rod assemblies and the elevator actuating lever, which if not detected and corrected, could cause these components to fail. This failure could result in loss of control.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified in paragraphs (g) through (l) of this AD, including all subparagraphs, unless already done.
Within the next 120 days after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) or within the next 100 hours time-in-service (TIS) after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs first, do the following inspections in accordance with section I. PLANNING INFORMATION, paragraph D. of Viking DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision “C”, dated July 17, 2015:
(1) For airplanes with an installed elevator control rod assembly, part number (P/N) C2CF619A, do a detailed visual inspection of P/N C2CF619A for corrosion, cracking, and/or other damages.
(2) For airplanes with an installed elevator control rod assembly, P/N CT2CF1021-1, do a detailed visual inspection of P/N CT2CF1021-1 for corrosion, cracking, and/or other damages.
(3) For all airplanes, do a detailed visual inspection of the elevator actuating lever on the control column and the control column torque tube for corrosion, cracking and/or other damages.
Within the next 30 days after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), insert the following into the Airworthiness Limitations section of the FAA-approved maintenance program (
(1) Before further flight after the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD, if corrosion, cracking, or other damages are found, replace P/N C2CF619A with P/N C2CF619A-11 following section I. PLANNING INFORMATION, paragraph D. of Viking DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision “C”, dated July 17, 2015, or contact Viking Air Limited at the address specified in paragraph (o) of this AD for an FAA-approved repair and incorporate the repair.
(2) Within the next 120 days after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) or within the next 100 hours TIS after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs first, you may replace P/N C2CF619A with P/N C2CF619A-11 instead of doing the inspection required in paragraph (g)(1) of this AD. Do the replacement following section I. PLANNING INFORMATION, paragraph D. of Viking DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision “C”, dated July 17, 2015.
(3) After replacing P/N C2CF619A with P/N C2CF619A-11, you must still do the repetitive inspections of the elevator control rod assemblies following the Airworthiness Limitations section of the FAA-approved maintenance program (
(1) Before further flight after the inspection required in paragraph (g)(2) of this AD, if corrosion, cracking, or other damages are found, replace the elevator control rod assembly with P/N CT2CF1021-1 that has been inspected and is free of corrosion, cracking, or other damages following section I. PLANNING INFORMATION, paragraph D. of Viking DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision “C”, dated July 17, 2015, or contact Viking Air Limited at the address specified in paragraph (o) of this AD for an FAA-approved repair and incorporate the repair.
(2) After replacing or repairing P/N CT2CF1021-1, you must still do the repetitive inspections of the elevator control rod assemblies following the Airworthiness Limitations section of the FAA-approved maintenance program (
Before further flight after the inspection required in paragraph (g)(3) of this AD, if corrosion, cracking, or other damages are found, contact Viking Air Limited at the address specified in paragraph (o) of this AD for an FAA-approved repair and incorporate the repair.
As of October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), do not install P/N C2CF619A or C2CF619A-9 as a replacement part.
As of October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), elevator control rod assemblies, P/N C2CF619A, are life-limited to 15 years and must be replaced with P/N C2CF619A-11, which is not a life-limited part, at the following compliance time:
(1) If, as of October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), the age of the installed P/N C2CF619A is known, it must be replaced before exceeding the life limit or within the next 12 months after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), whichever occurs later.
(2) If, as of October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD), the age of the installed P/N C2CF619A is not known, it must be replaced within the next 12 months after October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD).
Credit will be given for the inspections required in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this AD if they were done before October 24, 2016 (the effective date of this AD) following Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `NC', dated March 26, 2012; Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `A', dated November 7, 2014; or Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `B', dated March 4, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to MCAI Transport Canada AD No. CF-2015-21, dated July 30, 2015; and Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `NC', dated March 26, 2012; Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `A', dated November 7, 2014; or Viking Air Limited DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision `B', dated March 4, 2015, for related information. You may examine the MCAI on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless the AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Viking DHC-2 Beaver Service Bulletin Number: V2/0005, Revision “C”, dated July 17, 2015.
(ii) Item 20A., of Part 3, in Appendix 2 of Temporary Revision No.: 2-38, dated March 4, 2015, into the VIKING PSM NO.: 1-2-2, AIRCRAFT: DHC-2 BEAVER, SERIES: ALL, PUBLICATION: MAINTENANCE MANUAL.
(iii) Item 20A., in Part 4, of Temporary Revision No.: 2T-14, dated March 4, 2015, into VIKING PSM NO.: 1-2T-2, AIRCRAFT: DHC-2 TURBO BEAVER, SERIES: ALL, PUBLICATION: MAINTENANCE MANUAL.
(3) For Viking Air Limited service information identified in this AD, contact Viking Air Limited Technical Support, 1959 De Havilland Way, Sidney, British Columbia, Canada, V8L 5V5; Fax: 250-656-0673; telephone: (North America) (800) 663-8444; email:
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Small Airplane Directorate, 901 Locust, Kansas City, Missouri 64106. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call (816) 329-4148. In addition, you can access this service information on the Internet at
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Final rule.
We are adopting a new airworthiness directive (AD) for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes. This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in a certain area of the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle. This AD requires a one-time inspection of the affected pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle, and corrective actions if necessary. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle that could lead to sudden inflight decompression of the airplane, resulting in injury to occupants.
This AD is effective October 24, 2016.
The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of certain publications listed in this AD as of October 24, 2016.
For service information identified in this final rule, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Tom Rodriguez, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1137; fax 425-227-1139.
We issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) to amend 14 CFR part 39 by adding an AD that would apply to all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes. The NPRM published in the
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0024, dated February 19, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and Mark 0100 airplanes. The MCAI states:
Service experience with the Fokker 100 type design has shown that cracking can occur in the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle on the right hand (RH) side at station 14911 (station 12447 for F28 Mark 0070) at stringer 67 of fuselage section 2, before reaching the existing threshold for inspection per ALS [Airworthiness Limitations Section] task 533016-00-03 (F28 Mark 0100) or task 533016-01-03 (F28 Mark 0070). Any cracks in this area are not visible from the outside (covered by fairing) until they reach a critical length.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to sudden in-flight decompression of the aeroplane, possibly resulting in injury to occupants.
To address this potential unsafe condition, Fokker Services published Service Bulletin (SB) SBF100-53-128, which provides inspection instructions to detect any crack in the affected area.
For the reasons described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of the affected pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle, and, depending on findings, accomplishment of applicable corrective action(s).
This [EASA] AD is considered to be an interim action and further AD action may follow, possibly to lower the current ALS task threshold, if justified by the inspection results.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
We gave the public the opportunity to participate in developing this AD. We received no comments on the NPRM or on the determination of the cost to the public.
We reviewed the relevant data and determined that air safety and the public interest require adopting this AD as proposed except for minor editorial changes. We have determined that these minor changes:
• Are consistent with the intent that was proposed in the NPRM for correcting the unsafe condition; and
• Do not add any additional burden upon the public than was already proposed in the NPRM.
We reviewed Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-128, dated November 12, 2014; and Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-129, dated February 16, 2015. The service information describes procedures for inspection of the affected pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle, and corrective actions if necessary. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
We estimate that this AD affects 8 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We also estimate that it will take about 1 work-hour per product to comply with the basic requirements of this AD, and 1 work-hour per product for reporting. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts will cost about $0 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this AD on U.S. operators to be $1,360, or $170 per product.
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions will take about 46 work-hours and require parts costing $2,000, for a cost of $5,910 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these actions.
A federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, nor shall a person be subject to penalty for failure to comply with a collection of information subject to the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act unless that collection of information displays a current valid OMB control number. The control number for the collection of information required by this AD is 2120-0056. The paperwork cost associated with this AD has been detailed in the Costs of Compliance section of this document and includes time for reviewing instructions, as well as completing and reviewing the collection of information. Therefore, all reporting associated with this AD is mandatory. Comments concerning the accuracy of this burden and suggestions for reducing the burden should be directed to the FAA at 800 Independence Ave. SW., Washington, DC 20591, ATTN: Information Collection Clearance Officer, AES-200.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures
We determined that this AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
This AD is effective October 24, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Fokker Services B.V. Model F28 Mark 0070 and F28 Mark 0100 airplanes, certificated in any category, all serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 53, Fuselage.
This AD was prompted by reports of cracking in the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct cracking of the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle that could lead to sudden inflight decompression of the airplane, resulting in injury to occupants.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
At the time specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Do a detailed inspection of the pressure bulkhead webplate and skin connection angle on the right-hand side at station 14911 (for Model F28 Mark 0100 airplanes) or station 12447 (for Model F28 Mark 0070 airplanes) at stringer 67 of fuselage section 2, as applicable, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-128, dated November 12, 2014. This AD does not require action for airplanes which, as of the effective date of this AD, have accumulated less than 30,000 flight cycles.
(1) If any crack is found in the skin connection angle, before further flight, repair the skin connection angle, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-129, dated February 16, 2015.
(2) If any crack is found in the pressure bulkhead webplate, before further flight, repair the pressure bulkhead webplate, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-129, dated February 16, 2015.
At the applicable time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, do the actions required by paragraph (g) of this AD.
(1) For airplanes that have accumulated less than 40,000 total flight cycles as of the effective date of this AD, do the actions in paragraph (g) of this AD within 2,000 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD.
(2) For airplanes that have accumulated 40,000 or more total flight cycles as of the effective date of this AD, do the actions in paragraph (g) of this AD within 750 flight cycles after the effective date of this AD.
Submit a report of the findings (both positive and negative) of the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD to Fokker Services B.V. Engineering, Quality Department P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
(1) If the inspection was done on or after the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the inspection.
(2) If the inspection was done before the effective date of this AD: Submit the report within 30 days after the effective date of this AD.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(3)
Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0024, dated February 19, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the service information listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.
(2) You must use this service information as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.
(i) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-128, dated November 12, 2014.
(ii) Fokker Service Bulletin SBF100-53-129, dated February 16, 2015.
(3) For service information identified in this AD, contact Fokker Services B.V., Technical Services Dept., P.O. Box 1357, 2130 EL Hoofddorp, the Netherlands; telephone +31 (0)88-6280-350; fax +31 (0)88-6280-111; email
(4) You may view this service information at the FAA, Transport Airplane Directorate, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 425-227-1221.
(5) You may view this service information that is incorporated by reference at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to:
In rule document 2016-13275, appearing on pages 37138-37153, in the issue of Thursday, June 9, 2016, make the following correction:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Final rule; announcement of effective date.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or we) is announcing the effective date for the definition of qualified auditor in the two final rules that appeared in the
The effective date of paragraph (2) of the definition of qualified auditor in 21 CFR 117.3 and in 21 CFR 507.3, which published in the
In the
In the
The final third-party certification rule (80 FR 74569) published in the
Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.
Correcting amendment.
This document contains corrections to final regulations (TD 9773) that were published in the
This correction is effective September 19, 2016 and is applicable on or after June 30, 2016.
Melinda E. Harvey of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (International) at (202) 317-6934 (not a toll-free number).
The final regulations (TD 9773) that are the subject of this correction are under section 1.6038-4 of the Internal Revenue Code.
As published, the final regulations (TD 9773) contain errors that may prove to be misleading and are in need of clarification.
Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
Accordingly, 26 CFR part 1 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:
26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *
(d) * * *
(3) * * *
(iv)
Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness, DoD.
Final rule.
This rule updates policies and responsibilities for basic entrance qualification standards for enlistment, appointment, and induction into the Armed Forces and delegates the authority to specify certain standards to the Secretaries of the Military Departments. It establishes the age, aptitude, character/conduct, citizenship, dependents, education, medical, physical fitness, and other disqualifying conditions that are causes for rejection from military service. Other standards may be prescribed in the event of mobilization or national emergency. This rule sets standards designed to ensure that individuals under consideration for enlistment, appointment, and/or induction are able to perform military duties successfully, and to select those who are the most suitable for Service life.
Dennis J. Drogo, (703) 697-9268.
On March 27, 2015 (80 FR 16269-16277), the Department of Defense published an interim final rule titled “Qualification Standards for Enlistment, Appointment, and Induction” for a 60-day public comment period. The comment period ended on May 26, 2015. Three public comments were received. This section addresses those comments.
Although no changes were made to the final rule based on public comments received, a few edits were made due to reorganization, to provide clarification in the definition of “Dependent” and the waiver process, and to fix some grammatical issues.
This rule updates policies and responsibilities for basic entrance qualification standards for enlistment, appointment, and induction into the Armed Forces and delegates the authority to specify certain standards to the Secretaries of the Military Departments.
This regulatory action establishes age, aptitude, character/conduct, citizenship, dependents, education, medical, physical fitness, and other disqualifying conditions that are causes for rejection from military service. Other standards may be prescribed in the event of mobilization or national emergency. This regulatory action also sets standards designed to ensure that individuals under consideration for enlistment, appointment, and/or induction are able to perform military duties successfully and to select those who are the most suitable for Service life; and removes provisions related to homosexual conduct.
Administrative costs are negligible. The benefit of publishing this final rule is that it establishes standards to ensure that those who are enlisted, appointed, or inducted are the best qualified to complete their prescribed training and the best able to adapt to the military life. Failure to maintain these standards would result in a high attrition of personnel and would significantly increase training costs. The success of today's All-volunteer military is dependent on this policy.
Executive Orders 13563 and 12866 direct agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distribute impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This final rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f) of Executive Order 12866.
Section 1532 of title 2, United States Code requires agencies to assess anticipated costs and benefits before issuing any rule whose mandates require spending in any 1 year of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. In 2014, that threshold is approximately $141 million. This rule will not mandate any requirements for State, local, or tribal governments, nor will it affect private sector costs.
The Department of Defense certifies that this final rule is not subject to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601) because it would not, if promulgated, have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Therefore, the Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, does not require us to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
It has been certified that 32 CFR part 66 does not impose additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The following existing clearances will be utilized:
The Department will continue to review its processes to identify collection instruments and consider how these collection tools may be improved and make revisions accordingly. The Department welcomes comments on how you think we can improve on our information collection activities.
Executive Order 13132 establishes certain requirements that an agency must meet when it promulgates a proposed rule (and subsequent final rule) that imposes substantial direct requirement costs on State and local governments, preempts State law, or otherwise has Federalism implications. This final rule will not have a substantial effect on State and local governments.
Armed forces, Qualification standards.
Accordingly, the interim final rule published at 80 FR 16269-16277 on March 27, 2015 is adopted as a final rule with the following changes:
10 U.S.C. 504, 505, 520, 532, 12102, 12201, and 12205.
(2) An unmarried step-child under the age of 18 living with the applicant.
(3) An unmarried biological child or unmarried adopted child of the applicant under the age of 18.
The revision reads as follows:
(a) Under the authority, direction, and control of the Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&R)), the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASD(M&RA)):
(1) Acts as an advisor to the USD(P&R) on the Reserve enlistment and appointment standards.
(2) Acts as an advisor to the USD(P&R) on the height and weight requirements of the standards in § 66.6.
(3) Ensures the U.S. Military Entrance Processing Command assists the Military Services in implementing the standards in § 66.6.
Central Intelligence Agency.
Final rule.
Consistent with Executive Order 13526, the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) is providing greater clarity about the procedures under which it may provide historical researchers and certain former Government personnel with access to classified CIA information. This rule is being issued as a final rule without prior notice of proposed rulemaking as allowed by the Administrative Procedure Act for rules of agency procedure and interpretation.
Effective September 19, 2016.
Joseph W. Lambert, (703) 613-1379.
Consistent with section 4.4 of Executive Order 13526, the CIA has revised its access regulations to more clearly set forth the procedures used to provide historical researchers and certain former Government personnel with access to classified CIA information. This rule is being issued as a final rule without prior notice of proposed rulemaking as allowed by the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(3)(A) for rules of agency procedure and interpretation.
Archives and records, Classified information, Historical records.
Executive Order 13526, 75 FR 707, 3 CFR 2010 Comp., p. 298-327 (or successor Orders).
(a)
(b)
(1) Requesting access to classified CIA information as historical researchers;
(2) Requesting access to classified CIA information as a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee; or
(3) Requesting access to classified CIA information as a former President or Vice President.
As used in this part:
For general information on this part, to inquire about access to CIA information under this part, or to make a formal request for such access, please direct your communication in writing to the Information and Privacy Coordinator, Central Intelligence Agency, Washington, DC 20505. Inquiries will also by accepted by facsimile at (703) 613-3007. For general information only, the telephone number is (703) 613-1287. Collect calls cannot be accepted.
The CIA welcomes suggestions, comments, or complaints with regard to its administration of the historical access provisions of Executive Order 13526. Members of the public shall address all such communications to the CIA Information and Privacy Coordinator. The CIA will respond as determined feasible and appropriate under the circumstances.
(a)
(2)
(b) Former Presidential and Vice Presidential appointees or designees. Any former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee as defined herein may also submit a request to be given access to any classified items which they originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity. Requests from such appointees or designees shall be in writing to the Coordinator and shall identify the records containing the classified information of interest. Such appointees or designees may also request approval for a research associate, but there is no entitlement to such enlargement of access and the decision in this regard shall be in the sole discretion of the Senior Agency Official.
(c) Former Presidents and Vice Presidents. Any former President or Vice President may submit a request for access to classified CIA information. Requests from former Presidents or Vice Presidents shall be in writing to the Coordinator and shall identify the records containing the classified information of interest. A former President or Vice President may also request approval for a research associate, but there is no entitlement to such enlargement of access and the decision in this regard shall be in the sole discretion of the Senior Agency Official
(a)
(b)
The Information and Privacy Coordinator shall within ten (10) days make a record of each request for access received under this part, acknowledge receipt to the requester in writing, and take the following actions:
(a)
(b)
(a)
(1) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security;
(2) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
(3) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript; and,
(4) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526.
(b)
(1) That the requester has previously occupied a senior policy-making position to which the requester was appointed or designated by the President or Vice President;
(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security;
(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
(5) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
(6) That access will be limited to items that the person originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee.
(c)
(1) That the requester has been selected as a research associate of a former President or Vice President, or of a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee;
(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security, and one factor in that determination is that an appropriate security check has been conducted and a security clearance or access has been issued by an appropriate U.S. Government agency;
(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
(5) That appropriate steps can be taken to ensure that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
(6) That, in the case of a former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee, access by the research associate will be limited to items that the Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee who selected the research associate originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving as a Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee.
(d)
(1) That a serious professional or scholarly research project by the requester is contemplated;
(2) That the access is consistent with the interest of national security, and one factor in that determination is that an appropriate security check has been conducted and a security clearance or access has been issued by an appropriate U.S. Government agency;
(3) That a nondisclosure agreement has been or will be executed by the requester, and other appropriate steps are taken to assure that classified information will not be disclosed or otherwise compromised;
(4) That a CIA prepublication review agreement has been or will be executed by the requester, which provides for a review of notes and any resulting manuscript;
(5) That the information requested is reasonably accessible and can be located and compiled with a reasonable effort;
(6) That it is reasonably expected that substantial and substantive Government documents and/or information will be amenable to declassification and release and/or publication;
(7) That sufficient resources are available for the administrative support of the historical researcher given current requirements; and,
(8) That the request cannot be satisfied to the same extent through requests for access to reasonably described records under the Freedom of Information Act or the Mandatory Declassification Review provisions of Executive Order 13526.
The ARP shall meet on a regular schedule and may take action when a simple majority of the total membership is present. A recommendation to the Senior Agency Official concerning whether or not to grant requests for access to classified CIA information by former Presidents or Vice Presidents, by former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees or designees, or by historical researchers shall be made by a majority vote of the members present.
(a) Upon receipt of a recommendation by the ARP concerning whether or not to grant access to classified CIA information under this part, the Senior Agency Official may, in his sole discretion, waive the need-to-know requirement and approve such access only if he or she:
(1) Determines in writing that access is consistent with the interests of national security;
(2) Takes appropriate steps to protect classified information from
(3) Limits any access granted to former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees and designees (or any research associate they select) to the items that the former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity.
(b) The Director of the Central Intelligence Agency reserves the authority to make a superseding decision concerning whether or not to waive the need-to-know requirement and to grant access to classified CIA information under this part in any case only if he or she:
(1) Determines in writing that access is consistent with the interests of national security;
(2) Takes appropriate steps to protect classified information from unauthorized disclosure or compromise, and ensures that the information is safeguarded in a manner consistent with Executive Order 13526; and,
(3) Limits any historical access granted to former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointees and designees (or any research associate they select) to the items that the former Presidential or Vice Presidential appointee or designee originated, reviewed, signed, or received while serving in that capacity.
(c) The Senior Agency Official also may make a determination that a successive request for historical access falls within the scope of an earlier waiver of the “need-to-know” criterion under section 4.4 of the Order, so long as the extant waiver is no more than two years old.
The Executive Secretary shall inform the requester of the final CIA decision and, if favorable, shall manage the access for such period of time as deemed required, but in no event for more than two years unless renewed by the Senior Agency Official, in accordance with the requirements of this part for waiving need-to-know and granting access in the first instance.
The Coordinator shall cancel any authorization and deny any further access whenever the Director of Security cancels the security clearance of any person who has been granted access to classified CIA information under the part; or whenever the Senior Agency Official, or the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency, determines that continued access would no longer be consistent with the requirements of this part; or at the conclusion of the authorized period of up to two years if there is no renewal under § 1909.11.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary security zone along the western shore of Goat Island, Newport, Rhode Island, including the vicinity of Newport Harbor Light at the northeastern point of Goat Island to and around the Goat Island Connector between Goat Island and Newport, Rhode Island, in conjunction with the 22nd International Seapower Symposium. Entry into this zone by any vessel or persons is prohibited unless specifically authorized by the Captain of the Port (COTP), Southeastern New England or the COTP's designated on-scene representative.
This rule is effective without actual notice from September 19, 2016 until September 23, 2016. For the purposes of enforcement, actual notice will be used from September 18, 2016 until September 19, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this temporary rule, call or email Mr. Edward G. LeBlanc at Sector Southeastern New England; telephone (401) 435-2351, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.”
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a NPRM with respect to this rule. Because of the sensitive security issues related to these special events, the Coast Guard was not aware of the final details with sufficient time to solicit public comments. Thus, waiting for a full comment period to run would inhibit the Coast Guard's ability to keep senior military leaders and government officials, along with the general public, safe from subversive acts directed at these high visibility special events. Providing a prolonged public notice and comment period is contrary to the public interest due to national security concerns.
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The Coast Guard is issuing this rule under authority in 33 U.S.C. 1231; which authorizes the Coast Guard to define Security Zones.
This action is intended to temporarily prohibit vessel traffic from transiting within 250 yards of the western shore of Goat Island and within a 250 yard radius of Newport Harbor Light at the northeastern point of Goat Island and extending to 250 yards on either side of the Goat Island Connector between Goat Island and Newport, Rhode Island, to ensure the security of attendees to the 22nd International Seapower Symposium by properly safeguarding against potential sabotage, subversive acts, or other threats.
The 22nd International Seapower Symposium is being held on Goat Island, Newport, RI, from September 18 through September 23, 2016. High level U.S. officials and delegates from over 125 countries are expected to attend. Goat Island, the site of the 22nd International Seapower Symposium, is waterfront property in Newport, Rhode Island, within the Captain of the Port, Southeastern New England zone.
This rule establishes a temporary 250-yard security zone in the navigable waters adjacent to the western shore of Goat Island and in the vicinity of Newport Harbor Light at the northeastern point of Goat Island and extending to 250 yards on either side of the Goat Island Connector between Goat Island and Newport, Rhode Island, where the 22nd International Seapower Symposium is being held from September 18 through September 23, 2016. Vessels and persons will be prohibited from entering this security zone during the 22nd International Seapower Symposium. The perimeter of the security zone along the western shore and northeast point of Goat Island will be clearly marked by six special purpose white buoys with orange stripes. It has been determined that the necessary security enhancements provided by this rule greatly outweigh any potential negative impacts. Public notifications will be made prior to and during the entire effective period of this security zone via marine information broadcasts and local notice to mariners.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders relating to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
This regulatory action determination is based on the size, location, duration of the event. The effect of this rule will be small, as the duration of the security zone is for only six days. Additionally, vessels may be permitted to transit and navigate in waters adjacent to this security zone, minimizing any adverse impact. Maritime advisories will be broadcast. The Coast Guard anticipates negligible negative impact on vessel traffic from this temporary security zone. It will be in effect for only six days and will only affect waters adjacent to the western shore, northeast end of Goat Island, and the Goat Island Connector where there are no major channels, slips, marinas, or other waterfront facilities for recreational or commercial traffic. Additionally, the security zone is in effect in mid- to late-September when there is reduced vessel activity in the vicinity of Goat Island and vessels can transit safely around the security zone and in all other waters of Newport Harbor.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the safety zone may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above, this rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions that may result in the expenditure by a State, local, or tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector of $100,000,000 (adjusted for inflation) or more in any one year. Though this rule does not result in such an expenditure, we do discuss the effects of this rule elsewhere in this preamble.
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD,
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reports and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) In accordance with the general regulations in § 165.33 of this part, entry into or movement within this zone is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, Southeastern New England.
(3) All persons and vessels shall comply with the Coast Guard Captain of the Port or designated on-scene patrol personnel.
(4) Upon being hailed by a Coast Guard vessel by siren, radio, flashing light or other means, the operator of the vessel shall proceed as directed.
(5) Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the zone on VHF-16.
Coast Guard, DHS.
Temporary final rule.
The Coast Guard is establishing a temporary 500-yard security zone on the waters adjacent to Rosecliff Mansion and the Newport Marriott Hotel, in Newport, Rhode Island, in conjunction with special events of the U.S. Navy's 22nd International Seapower Symposium. Vessels and people are prohibited from entering these security zones.
This rule is effective from 4 p.m. on September 20, 2016 through 11:30 p.m. on September 22, 2016.
To view documents mentioned in this preamble as being available in the docket, go to
If you have questions on this temporary rule, call or email Mr. Edward G. LeBlanc at Sector Southeastern New England, telephone (401) 435-2351, email
The Coast Guard is issuing this temporary final rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment pursuant to authority under section 4(a) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553(b)). This provision authorizes an agency to issue a rule without prior notice and opportunity to comment when the agency for good cause finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.”
Under 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for not publishing a NPRM with respect to this rule. Because of the sensitive security issues related to these special events, the Coast Guard was not aware of the final details with sufficient time to solicit public comments. Thus, waiting for a full comment period to run would inhibit the Coast Guard's ability to keep senior military leaders and government officials, along with the general public, safe from subversive acts directed at these high visibility special events. Providing a prolonged public notice and comment period is contrary
We are issuing this rule, and under 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3), the Coast Guard finds that good cause exists for making this rule effective less than 30 days after publication in the
The legal authority for this rule is 33 U.S.C. 1231 which authorizes the Coast Guard to define Security Zones.
The 22nd International Seapower Symposium is being held on Goat Island, Newport, RI, from September 18 to September 23, 2016. High level U.S. officials and delegates from over 125 countries are expected to attend. As part of the Symposium, special events are being held on the evenings of Tuesday, September 20 and Thursday, September 22, 2016, at Rosecliff Mansion and the Newport Marriott Hotel, respectively, which are waterfront properties in Newport, Rhode Island, and within the COTP, Southeastern New England zone. The COTP has determined that it is necessary to temporarily prohibit vessel traffic from transiting within 500 yards of Rosecliff Mansion (approximate position 41°-27′54″ N., 071°-18′18″ W.) and the Newport Marriott Hotel (approximate position 41°-29′23″ N., 071°-19′04″ W.), Newport, RI, to safeguard the symposium attendees against potential sabotage, subversive acts, or other threats.
For the reasons discussed above, this rule establishes temporary 500-yard security zones in the navigable waters adjacent to Rosecliff Mansion (approximate position 41°-27′54″ N., 071°-18′18″ W.) and the Newport Marriott Hotel (approximate position 41°-29′23″ N., 071°-19′04″ W.) respectively, in Newport, Rhode Island. These security zones will be effective and enforced at Rosecliff Mansion and the Newport Marriott Hotel from 4 p.m. to 11:30 p.m. on Tuesday, September 20 and Thursday, September 22, 2016, respectively. Vessels and persons will be prohibited from entering these security zones during this time.
We developed this rule after considering numerous statutes and executive orders related to rulemaking. Below we summarize our analyses based on these statutes and executive orders, and we discuss First Amendment rights of protestors.
Executive Orders 12866 and 13563 direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, of reducing costs, of harmonizing rules, and of promoting flexibility. This rule has not been designated a “significant regulatory action,” under Executive Order 12866. Accordingly, the rule has not been reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.
The Coast Guard expects the economic impact of this rule to be minimal, such that a full regulatory evaluation under the regulatory policies and procedures of DHS is unnecessary. The effect of this rule will be small, as the duration of the security zones is for only seven and a half hours on two separate evenings. Additionally, vessels may be permitted to transit and navigate in waters adjacent to this security zones, minimizing any adverse impact. Maritime advisories will be broadcasted.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, as amended, requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small entities during rulemaking. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses, not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with populations of less than 50,000. The Coast Guard certifies under 5 U.S.C. 605(b) that this rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
While some owners or operators of vessels intending to transit the security zones may be small entities, for the reasons stated in section V.A above this rule would not have a significant economic impact on any vessel owner or operator.
If you think that your business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction qualifies as a small entity and that this rule would have a significant economic impact on it, please submit a comment (see
Under section 213(a) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-121), we want to assist small entities in understanding this rule. If the rule would affect your small business, organization, or governmental jurisdiction and you have questions concerning its provisions or options for compliance, please contact the person listed in the
Small businesses may send comments on the actions of Federal employees who enforce, or otherwise determine compliance with, Federal regulations to the Small Business and Agriculture Regulatory Enforcement Ombudsman and the Regional Small Business Regulatory Fairness Boards. The Ombudsman evaluates these actions annually and rates each agency's responsiveness to small business. If you wish to comment on actions by employees of the Coast Guard, call 1-888-REG-FAIR (1-888-734-3247). The Coast Guard will not retaliate against small entities that question or complain about this rule or any policy or action of the Coast Guard.
This rule calls for no new collection of information under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520).
A rule has implications for federalism under Executive Order 13132, Federalism, if it has a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. We have analyzed this rule under that Order and have determined that it is consistent with the fundamental federalism principles and preemption requirements described in Executive Order 13132.
Also, this rule does not have tribal implications under Executive Order 13175, Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments, because it would not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes. If you believe this rule has implications for federalism or Indian tribes, please contact the person listed in the
The Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (2 U.S.C. 1531-1538) requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of their discretionary regulatory actions. In particular, the Act addresses actions
We have analyzed this rule under Department of Homeland Security Management Directive 023-01 and Commandant Instruction M16475.lD, which guide the Coast Guard in complying with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321-4370f), and have determined that this action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. This rule involves the establishment of temporary security zones for special events being held in conjunction with the 22nd International Seapower Symposium. Normally such actions are categorically excluded from further review under paragraph 34(g) of Figure 2-1 of Commandant Instruction M16475.lD. An environmental analysis checklist and Categorical Exclusion Determination are available in the docket where indicated under
The Coast Guard respects the First Amendment rights of protesters. Protesters are asked to contact the person listed in the
Harbors, Marine safety, Navigation (water), Reports and recordkeeping requirements, Security measures, and Waterways.
For the reasons discussed in the preamble, the Coast Guard amends 33 CFR part 165 as follows:
33 U.S.C. 1231; 50 U.S.C. 191; 33 CFR 1.05-1, 6.04-1, 6.04-6, and 160.5; Department of Homeland Security Delegation No. 0170.1.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) In accordance with the general regulations in 33 CFR 165.33 of this part, entry into or movement within these zones is prohibited unless authorized by the Captain of the Port, Southeastern New England.
(3) Any vessel permitted to enter these security zones shall comply with the Coast Guard Captain of the Port or designated on-scene patrol personnel.
(4) Upon being hailed by a U.S. Coast Guard vessel by siren, radio, flashing light or other means, the operator of the vessel shall proceed as directed.
(5) Persons and vessels may request permission to enter the zone on VHF-16.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is partially approving and partially disapproving elements of a New Jersey State Implementation Plan (SIP) submittal pertaining to the infrastructure requirements of section 110(a)(1) and (2) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 Nitrogen Dioxide (NO
This rule is effective on October 19, 2016.
The EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R02-OAR-2016-0389. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Kenneth Fradkin, 212-637-3702,
Throughout this document, “we”, “us”, and “our” means EPA.
This rulemaking addresses CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) requirements in New Jersey's infrastructure SIP submitted on October 17, 2014 to address applicable infrastructure requirements with respect to the 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO
The requirement for states to make a SIP submission of this type arises out of CAA section 110(a)(1). Pursuant to section 110(a)(1), states must make SIP submissions “within 3 years (or such shorter period as the Administrator may prescribe) after the promulgation of a national primary ambient air quality standard (or any revision thereof),” and these SIP submissions are to provide for the “implementation, maintenance, and enforcement” of such NAAQS. The statute directly imposes on states the duty to make these SIP submissions, and the requirement to make the submissions is not conditioned upon EPA's taking any action other than promulgating a new or revised NAAQS. Section 110(a)(2) includes a list of specific elements that “[e]ach such plan” submission must address. EPA commonly refers to such state plans as “infrastructure SIPs.” In particular, section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from contributing significantly to nonattainment of the NAAQS (commonly referred to as prong 1), or interfering with maintenance of the NAAQS (prong 2), in any another state. Section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requires SIPs to include provisions prohibiting any source or other type of emissions activity in one state from interfering with measures required to prevent significant deterioration (PSD) of air quality (prong 3) and to protect visibility (prong 4) in another state.
This rulemaking pertains only to the portion of the SIP submittal addressing section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II)(prongs 3 and 4). On March 30, 2016, New Jersey withdrew the portion of the submittal addressing 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(I) (prongs 1 and 2) for the 2008 Ozone NAAQS. EPA subsequently issued a Finding of Failure to Submit to New Jersey.
EPA proposed action on the October 17, 2014 submittal on July 27, 2016 (81 FR 49205). In that action, EPA proposed to disapprove the portions of New Jersey's October 17, 2014 SIP submission addressing prong 3 and proposed to approve the portions addressing prong 4 regarding CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i) requirements. No comments were received on the proposal. The reader is referred to the July 27, 2016 proposed rulemaking for a detailed discussion of New Jersey's submittal and EPA's review and proposed actions.
EPA is approving the portion of the October 17, 2014 SIP submittal from New Jersey pertaining to the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requirement for visibility (or prong 4) for the 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO
New Jersey has elected to comply with the Federal PSD requirements by accepting delegation of the Federal rules and has been successfully implementing this program for many years. However, EPA does not recognize a delegated PSD program as satisfying the Infrastructure SIP requirements. Therefore, EPA is disapproving New Jersey's submittal pertaining to the requirements of CAA section 110(a)(2)(D)(i)(II) requirement for PSD (or prong 3) for the 2008 Lead, 2008 Ozone, 2010 NO
This final action is not a “significant regulatory action” under the terms of Executive Order (EO) 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and was therefore not submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review.
This final action does not impose an information collection burden under the PRA because it does not contain any information collection activities.
I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA. This rule does not impose any requirements or create impacts on small entities. This partial SIP approval and partial SIP disapproval under CAA section 110 will not in-and-of itself create any new requirements but simply approves and disapproves certain state requirements for inclusion into the SIP.
This action does not contain any unfunded mandate as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The action imposes no enforceable duty on any state, local or tribal governments or the private sector.
This action does not have federalism implications. It will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175. This action does not apply on any Indian reservation land, any other area where the EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction, or non-reservation areas of Indian country. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.
The EPA interprets Executive Order 13045 as applying only to those regulatory actions that concern environmental health or safety risks that the EPA has reason to believe may disproportionately affect children, per the definition of “covered regulatory action” in section 2-202 of the Executive Order. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it merely partially approves and partially disapproves a SIP submittal from the State of New Jersey.
This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211, because it is not a
This rulemaking does not involve technical standards.
EPA believes the human health or environmental risk addressed by this action will not have potential disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects on minority, low-income or indigenous populations because it does not affect the level of protection provided to human health or the environment. This action merely partially approves and partially disapproves a SIP submittal from the State of New Jersey.
This action is subject to the CRA, and EPA will submit a rule report to each House of the Congress and to the Comptroller General of the United States prior to publication of the rule in the
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 18, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See CAA section 307(b)(2)).
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Intergovernmental relations, Incorporation by reference, Carbon monoxide, Lead, Nitrogen dioxide, Ozone, Particulate matter, Sulfur dioxide, Volatile organic compounds.
42 U.S.C. 7401
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(b)
(2)
(c) [Reserved]
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Final rule.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is approving elements of the state implementation plan (SIP) submission from Ohio regarding the infrastructure requirements of section 110 of the Clean Air Act (CAA) for the 2012 fine particulate matter (PM
This final rule is effective on October 19, 2016.
EPA has established a docket for this action under Docket ID No. EPA-R05-OAR-2015-0824. All documents in the docket are listed on the
Joseph Ko, Environmental Engineer, Attainment Planning and Maintenance, Air Programs Branch (AR-18J), Environmental Protection Agency, Region 5, 77 West Jackson Boulevard, Chicago, Illinois 60604, (312) 886-7947,
Throughout this document whenever “we,” “us,” or “our” is used, we mean EPA. This supplementary information section is arranged as follows:
This rulemaking addresses a submission from the Ohio Environmental Protection Agency (OEPA), describing its infrastructure SIP for the 2012 PM
Under sections 110(a)(1) and (2) of the CAA, states are required to submit infrastructure SIPs to ensure that their SIPs provide for implementation, maintenance, and enforcement of the NAAQS, including the 2012 PM
EPA highlighted this statutory requirement in an October 2, 2007, guidance document entitled “Guidance on SIP Elements Required Under Sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 1997 8-hour Ozone and PM
EPA is acting upon the SIP submission from OEPA that addresses the infrastructure requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) for the 2012 PM
EPA has historically referred to these SIP submissions made for the purpose of satisfying the requirements of CAA sections 110(a)(1) and 110(a)(2) as “infrastructure SIP” submissions. Although the term “infrastructure SIP” does not appear in the CAA, EPA uses the term to distinguish this particular type of SIP submission from submissions that are intended to satisfy other SIP requirements under the CAA, such as “nonattainment SIP” or “attainment plan SIP” submissions to address the nonattainment planning requirements of part D of title I of the CAA, “regional haze SIP” submissions required by EPA rule to address the visibility protection requirements of CAA section 169A, and nonattainment new source review (NNSR) permit program submissions to address the permit requirements of CAA, title I, part D.
This rulemaking will not cover four substantive areas that are not integral to acting on a state's infrastructure SIP submission: (i) Existing provisions related to excess emissions during periods of start-up, shutdown, or malfunction at sources, that may be contrary to the CAA and EPA's policies addressing such excess emissions (“SSM”); (ii) existing provisions related to “director's variance” or “director's discretion” that purport to permit revisions to SIP-approved emissions limits with limited public process or without requiring further approval by EPA, that may be contrary to the CAA (“director's discretion”); (iii) existing provisions for PSD programs that may be inconsistent with current requirements of EPA's “Final New Source Review (NSR) Improvement Rule,” 67 FR 80186 (December 31, 2002), as amended by 72 FR 32526 (June 13, 2007) (“NSR Reform”); and (iv) transport provisions under section 110(a)(2)(D). Instead, EPA has the authority to, and plans to, address each one of these substantive areas in separate rulemakings. A detailed history and interpretation of infrastructure SIP requirements can be found in EPA's May 13, 2014, proposed rule entitled, “Infrastructure SIP Requirements for the 2008 Lead NAAQS” in the section, “What is the scope of this rulemaking?” (
EPA is approving most elements of the submission from OEPA certifying that its current SIP is sufficient to meet the required infrastructure elements under sections 110(a)(1) and (2) for the 2012 PM
Under the CAA, the Administrator is required to approve a SIP submission that complies with the provisions of the CAA and applicable Federal regulations. 42 U.S.C. 7410(k); 40 CFR 52.02(a). Thus, in reviewing SIP submissions, EPA's role is to approve state choices, provided that they meet the criteria of the CAA. Accordingly, this action merely approves state law as meeting Federal requirements and does not impose additional requirements beyond those imposed by state law. For that reason, this action:
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to review by the Office of Management and Budget under Executive Orders 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993) and 13563 (76 FR 3821, January 21, 2011);
• Does not impose an information collection burden under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501
• Is certified as not having a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601
• Does not contain any unfunded mandate or significantly or uniquely affect small governments, as described in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4);
• Does not have Federalism implications as specified in Executive Order 13132 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999);
• Is not an economically significant regulatory action based on health or safety risks subject to Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997);
• Is not a significant regulatory action subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001);
• Is not subject to requirements of Section 12(d) of the National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act of 1995 (15 U.S.C. 272 note) because application of those requirements would be inconsistent with the CAA; and
• Does not provide EPA with the discretionary authority to address, as appropriate, disproportionate human health or environmental effects, using practicable and legally permissible methods, under Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994).
In addition, the SIP is not approved to apply on any Indian reservation land or in any other area where EPA or an Indian tribe has demonstrated that a tribe has jurisdiction. In those areas of Indian country, the rule does not have tribal implications and will not impose substantial direct costs on tribal governments or preempt tribal law as specified by Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000).
The Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801
Under section 307(b)(1) of the CAA, petitions for judicial review of this action must be filed in the United States Court of Appeals for the appropriate circuit by November 18, 2016. Filing a petition for reconsideration by the Administrator of this final rule does not affect the finality of this action for the purposes of judicial review nor does it extend the time within which a petition for judicial review may be filed, and shall not postpone the effectiveness of such rule or action. This action may not be challenged later in proceedings to enforce its requirements. (See section 307(b)(2).)
Environmental protection, Air pollution control, Incorporation by reference, Intergovernmental relations, Particulate matter, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.
40 CFR part 52 is amended as follows:
42 U.S.C. 7401
(e) * * *
U.S. Small Business Administration.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
In this proposed rule, SBA is making changes to its Early Stage Small Business Investment Company (SBIC) initiative, which was launched in 2012 as a 5-year effort as part of President Obama's Startup America Initiative. The intent of the initiative was to license and provide SBA-guaranteed leverage to Early Stage SBICs that would focus on making investments in early stage small businesses. Although 62 investment funds applied to the program, few satisfied SBA's licensing criteria. To date, SBA has only licensed five Early Stage SBICs. In an attempt to attract more qualified early stage fund managers, this rule proposes changes to the initiative with respect to licensing, non-SBA borrowing, and leverage eligibility. These proposed changes are based in part on feedback SBA received on an Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) that was published in March 2015. In addition, this rule reflects SBA's intention to continue licensing and providing SBA-guaranteed leverage to Early Stage SBICs beyond the 5-year term of the initiative, and proposes certain technical changes to SBA's Early Stage regulations.
Comments on the proposed rule must be received on or before October 19, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by RIN 3245-AG68, by any of the following methods:
SBA will post comments on
Theresa Jamerson, Office of Investment and Innovation, (202) 205-7563.
SBA invites comments, data, and information from all interested parties, including but not limited to investors, small businesses, advocacy groups, nongovernmental organizations, and legal representatives with relevant expertise on any and all aspects of this proposed rule. Comments that will provide the most assistance to SBA in developing these procedures will reference a specific portion of the proposed rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information, or authorities that support such recommended change. SBA is generally seeking comments on:
A. Proposed licensing requirements for Early Stage SBICs;
B. Proposed evaluation of Early Stage SBICs by SBA;
C. Proposed treatment of third-party debt of Early Stage SBICs;
D. Proposed maximum amount of leverage for Early Stage SBICs, both individually and annually in aggregate;
E. Constraints of equity versus debenture financing as articulated in the proposed rule;
F. Treatment of interest reserve, capital impairment, and cost of money in the proposed rule;
G. Alternative financing terms compared with those in the proposed rule, such as discounted debentures and longer-maturity debentures;
H. Access by non-leveraged SBICs to Early Stage SBIC leverage under the proposed rule;
I. Alignment of the proposed rule with early stage investment strategies, including the relatively long time horizons of early-stage investors in capital-intensive technologies; and
J. Other suggested changes that SBA has not included in this proposal.
SBA also invites comments on the economic and financial analyses supporting this rule.
In the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (Act), Congress created the Small Business Investment Company (SBIC) program to “stimulate and supplement the flow of private equity capital and long-term loan funds which small-business concerns need for the sound financing of their business operations and for their growth, expansion, and modernization, and which are not available in adequate supply . . . .” 15 U.S.C. 661. Congress intended that the program “be carried out in such manner as to insure the maximum participation of private financing sources.”
The standard Debenture requires semi-annual interest payments. Consequently, most SBICs finance later stage small businesses with positive operating cash flow, and most structure their investments as loans or mezzanine debt in an amount that is at least sufficient to cover the SBIC's Debenture interest payments. Early stage companies typically do not have positive operating cash flow and therefore cannot make current interest or dividend payments. As a result, investments in early stage companies do not fit naturally with the structure of debenture leverage.
Early stage businesses without the necessary assets or cash flow for
Since 2012, SBA has received 62 applications to the Early Stage SBIC program, but licensed only five Early Stage SBICs. Those applicants that were not licensed failed to meet SBA's licensing criteria. Many of these applicants had management teams with limited track records and few positive realizations. In order to determine the market need for SBA to continue licensing Early Stage SBICs past fiscal year 2016, SBA sought input from the public through an Advance Notice of Proposed Rule Making (ANPRM) on March 18, 2015 (80 FR 14034). In the ANPRM, SBA also sought input regarding what changes should be made to the program to attract qualified early stage fund managers.
Comments on the ANPRM and additional discussions SBA held with industry participants indicated that the program should be continued because funding gaps, especially in certain geographic areas and industries, continue to pose challenges for early stage businesses. Based on SBA's analysis of the financing data available on the PricewaterhouseCoopers' Moneytree Web site (
In comparison, based on financing data Early Stage SBICs reported in SBA Form 1031 (Portfolio Financing Report), Early Stage SBICs reported that over 69% of their financing dollars through September 2015 were invested in states other than California, New York, or Massachusetts. Also, Early Stage SBICs reported that investments they have made in early stage small businesses have resulted in net job growth. SBA compared job data submitted by the existing Early Stage SBICs on SBA Form 1031 at the time of first financing to that submitted on SBA Form 468 (Annual Financial Report) for the reporting period as of December 31, 2014. This data indicated that Early Stage SBIC portfolio companies increased job growth on a net basis by 48% from the date of initial Early Stage SBIC investment through the reporting period.
SBA received suggestions for program improvement both through the ANPRM and discussions with industry. This proposed rule incorporates some of those suggested changes.
The proposed rule would remove § 107.310 in its entirety. The current regulation sets forth two restrictions specific to the licensing of Early Stage SBICs. First, Early Stage SBIC applications may be submitted only during a limited timeframe identified in a Notice published in the
The second restriction set forth in current § 107.310 states that SBA will not consider an application from an applicant under Common Control with an existing Early Stage SBIC that has outstanding Debentures or Debenture commitments. This requirement was put in place to promote fund manager diversification and because the short term duration of the original initiative would not have given existing Early Stage SBICs time to realize investments sufficiently to qualify for a subsequent fund. Since the proposed rule would make the initiative an ongoing part of the SBIC program, SBA is proposing to remove this restriction. SBA would review requests for subsequent Early Stage licenses similar to other SBIC subsequent license requests, by considering such factors as the existing SBIC's investment cycle, operating and regulatory history of the existing SBIC, anticipated co-investment between the proposed and existing SBIC, realizations since the existing SBIC was licensed, forecasted realizations and repayment of leverage, and consistency of management teams and limited partners between the existing SBIC and applicant.
One of SBA's strategic goals, as set forth in the FY2014-2018 Strategic Plan, is to ensure inclusive entrepreneurship by expanding access and opportunity to small businesses and entrepreneurs, including women, minorities, veterans and other entrepreneurs, in communities where market gaps remain. SBA encourages fund managers with early stage investment strategies that focus on these diverse communities to apply for licensing as an Early Stage SBIC.
Current § 107.320 gives SBA the right to maintain diversification among Early Stage SBICs with respect to: (a) The year in which they commence operations, and (b) their geographic location. The proposed rule would clarify that diversification by geographic location would be with regard to where the fund would be investing rather than where the fund is located. Although SBA believes that Early Stage investors typically invest close to where they are located since they are often actively involved with their portfolio companies, this proposed change would clarify SBA's original intent.
Although current regulations allow standard SBICs to incur unsecured third party debt without SBA approval, current § 107.565 requires Early Stage SBICs to obtain prior SBA approval in order to have, incur or refinance any third party debt, whether secured or unsecured. This restriction was created because of the high risk profile of Early Stage SBICs. Even debt that is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Current § 107.1150(c) limits Early Stage SBICs to SBA-guaranteed leverage and leverage commitments of 100 percent of Regulatory Capital or $50 million, whichever is less. Originally, the $50 million maximum was set in order to provide increased diversity to the Early Stage SBIC portfolio. Comments to the Early Stage ANPRM indicated that a higher maximum would be more attractive to experienced early stage fund managers and suggested either $75 million or $100 million as a maximum leverage ceiling. Given that SBA's goal is still to keep the overall amount of Early Stage leverage to $200 million in any given year, SBA believes that $75 million is responsive to the feedback SBA has received and is a more appropriate amount than $100 million to help achieve diversification within the Early Stage program. This proposed maximum would be available to future Early Stage SBICs as well as existing Early Stage SBICs.
The proposed rule would change the references to $50 million in both § 107.1150(c)(1) and § 107.1150(c)(3)(iii) to $75 million to reflect the increase in SBA-guaranteed leverage.
It should be noted that SBA's approval of leverage commitments to, and draws by, Early Stage SBIC applicants would remain subject to SBA credit policies and SBA's overall SBIC Debenture leverage authorization. Also, as discussed above, under existing § 107.320, SBA will also continue to maintain the right to require diversification among Early Stage SBICs by year and geography as part of the evaluation of Early Stage SBICs in the licensing process.
The Office of Management and Budget has determined that this rule is a “significant” regulatory action under Executive Order 12866. The Regulatory Impact Analysis is set forth below.
As discussed above, early stage financing gaps remain, and SBA's Early Stage SBICs are financing these gaps and creating jobs. This proposed rule reflects SBA's intention to continue licensing and providing SBA-guaranteed leverage to Early Stage SBICs, and implements changes to improve the program and attract more qualified fund managers to continue to finance those gaps. Based on industry feedback, SBA believes that minor changes could improve the program without increasing credit risk to SBA. For example, removing the call process and accepting Early Stage SBIC applications on a rolling basis would allow fund managers to organize funds on their own timeline and allow fund managers
SBA considered making no changes to the Early Stage regulations and not issuing any further calls for Early Stage SBICs. However, based on industry feedback received through the ANPRM process, which is supported by industry statistics, gaps in the market place still remain for early stage financings. Because Early Stage SBICs are financing that gap and creating jobs, SBA decided to make the Early Stage program an ongoing part of the SBIC program and propose as part of this rule those changes suggested by industry that would not increase risk but would help to improve the program.
As part of the ANPRM process and discussions with industry, SBA received several suggested changes that the Agency either could not implement or chose not to implement primarily due to cost and risk. These include the following:
•
•
•
•
Furthermore, the existing Early Stage regulations already include adequate flexibility for Early Stage SBICs with respect to CIP. SBA previously operated a program that focused on equity investment called the Participating Securities program. That program generally allowed SBICs to have up to 85% maximum CIP in the first five years following the first issuance of leverage. In originally developing the Early Stage rule, SBA noted that SBA incurred leverage losses for most Participating Securities SBICs when the SBIC's CIP went over 85%. For the few Participating Securities SBICs that did fully repay SBA leverage, higher CIPs were often the result of the loss of “Class 2 Appreciation” on the SBIC's investments. Class 2 Appreciation, defined in § 107.1840(d)(3), relates to unrealized appreciation on securities that are non-public securities of a small business based on a new round of outside financing within the last 24 months. After 24 months, an SBIC's Class 2 Appreciation could “time out” and the SBIC would no longer receive credit for it in the CIP calculation.
•
•
•
The proposed rule reflects SBA's intent to continue licensing and providing SBA-guaranteed leverage to Early Stage SBICs, and would make material improvements to the program. Even though currently licensed Early Stage SBICs are eligible for almost $220 million in commitments, Early Stage SBICs have requested and been approved for less than $113 million in leverage commitments and have issued less than $44 million in Debentures through September 2015. Most venture funds have a 5-year investment period with follow-on financings in later years, so it is not unusual that these funds have not applied for or drawn all available leverage. SBA expects Early Stage SBICs to draw additional capital and leverage over a 5 to 7 year period to support financings and operational expenses, commensurate with this investment cycle. Despite the relatively small amount of leverage drawn, Early Stage SBICs have made over $94 million in financings to 46 small businesses through September 2015, with over half of the financing dollars reported in FY 2015. Since most Early Stage SBICs did not start reporting financings until 2014, and venture funds typically have a 5 year investment period, SBA expects funds to continue to make $50 to $75 million in financings per year for the next 2 to 3 years and then decline, unless new Early Stage SBICs are licensed.
As previously noted, the Early Stage program finances geographic funding gaps and creates jobs. Over 69% of Early Stage SBIC financing dollars went to states not in the traditional geographic hubs for venture capital financing. In addition, Early Stage SBIC financial reports filed with SBA for Early Stage SBICs' fiscal year 2014 showed a net gain in jobs of 48% in the small businesses Early Stage SBICs had invested in during 2014.
In terms of cost, since fiscal year 2012, the SBIC Debenture subsidy formulation model has taken into account Early Stage SBICs. Early Stage SBICs have a higher expected loss rate than standard SBICs, so the more leverage SBA allocates to Early Stage SBICs results in a proportionally higher annual charge. As noted in the April 27, 2012 final rule that established Early Stage SBICs (77 FR 25042), SBA allocated $150 million in leverage commitments (
This action meets applicable standards set forth in section 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of Executive Order 12988, Civil Justice Reform, to minimize litigation, eliminate ambiguity, and reduce burden. The action does not have retroactive or presumptive effect.
The rule will not have substantial direct effects on the States, or the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, for the purposes of Executive Order 13132, Federalism, SBA determines that this proposed rule has no federalism implications warranting the preparation of a federalism assessment.
This proposed rule was developed based on comments received on the ANPRM SBA issued in March 2015 (80 FR 14034) and several discussions with Early Stage participants and others in the industry. SBA issued the ANPRM to solicit comments and ideas on the Early Stage SBIC program and considered each comment it received. The proposed changes are a result of those comments.
SBA has determined that this rule proposes no additional reporting or recordkeeping requirements as defined by the Paperwork Reduction Act.
When an agency promulgates a rule, the Regulatory Flexibility Act requires the agency to prepare an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA), which describes the potential economic impact of the rule on small entities and alternatives that may minimize that impact. Section 605 of the RFA allows
This proposed rule would affect the existing five Early Stage SBICs, as well as all potential applicants, all of which are small entities. Although SBA is seeking to expand the number of participants, because of the limited amount of available leverage, even with future growth, the number of affected small entities will still be relatively low. SBA has determined that the impact on entities affected by the rule will not be significant. Because SBA's subsidy model already takes into account Early Stage SBICs and the proposed rule does not impact the current annual fee needed to keep the Debenture program at a zero subsidy cost, no cost impacts are expected.
Examination fees, Investment companies, Loan programs-business, Licensing fees, Small businesses.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, SBA proposes to amend part 107 of title 13 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:
15 U.S.C. 681, 683, 687(c), 687b, 687d, 687g, and 687m.
(b) The geographic location of projected investments based on the applicant's business plan.
(a)
(b)
(1) The third party debt is a line of credit with maximum availability limited to the lesser of:
(i) 20% of Regulatory Capital; or
(ii) Total unfunded binding commitments from Institutional Investors minus any such commitments used to fund the Interest Reserve under § 107.1181.
(2) The term of the line of credit does not exceed 24 months, but may be renewable, provided that each renewal does not exceed 24 months and you are in compliance with the conditions of this paragraph (b).
(3) The line of credit is held by a federally regulated financial institution.
(4) All borrowings under the line of credit:
(i) Are not secured third-party debt, as that term is defined in § 107.550(a);
(ii) Are for the purpose of maintaining your operating liquidity or providing funds for a particular Financing of a Small Business;
(iii) Must be fully repaid within 90 days after the date they are drawn; and
(iv) Must be fully paid off for at least 30 consecutive days during your fiscal year.
(c) * * *
(1) The total amount of any and all Leverage commitments you receive from SBA shall not exceed 100 percent of your highest Regulatory Capital or $75 million, whichever is less;
(3) * * *
(ii) $75 million.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to supersede Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2013-23-02, for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, CN-235-300, and C-295 airplanes. AD 2013-23-02 currently requires an inspection of the feeder cables of certain fuel booster pumps for damage (including, but not limited to, signs of electrical arcing and fuel leaks), and replacement if necessary. Since we issued AD 2013-23-02, we have determined that a modification is necessary to address the identified unsafe condition. This proposed AD would retain the requirements of AD 2013-23-02 and would also require modification of the electrical installation of the fuel booster pumps. We are proposing this AD to prevent damage to certain fuel booster pumps, which could create an ignition source in the fuel tank vapor space, and result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 3, 2016.
You may send comments by any of the following methods:
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•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact EADS CASA (Airbus Defense and Space), Services/Engineering Support, Avenida de
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Shahram Daneshmandi, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone: 425-227-1112; fax: 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
On October 31, 2013, we issued AD 2013-23-02, Amendment 39-17657 (78 FR 68688, November 15, 2013) (“AD 2013-23-02”). AD 2013-23-02 requires actions intended to address an unsafe condition on all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, CN-235-300, and C-295 airplanes.
Since we issued AD 2013-23-02, we have determined that a modification of the fuel booster pump is necessary to address the identified unsafe condition.
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA AD 2016-0014, dated January 14, 2016 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for all Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, CN-235-300, and C-295 airplanes. The MCAI states:
An occurrence with a CN-235 aeroplane was reported, involving an in-flight problem with the fuel transfer system. The results of the subsequent investigation revealed damage on the fuel booster pump electrical feeding cable and some burn marks on the pump body and plate (fairing) at the external side of the fuel tank; confirmed electrical arcing between the wire and pump body; and revealed fuel leakage onto the affected wire.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could create an ignition source in the fuel tank vapour space, possibly resulting in a fuel tank explosion and loss of the aeroplane.
To address this potential unsafe condition, EADS CASA (Airbus Military) issued All Operators Letter (AOL) 235-025 and AOL 295-025, providing inspection instructions for the affected fuel booster pumps, Part Number (P/N) 1C12-34 and P/N 1C12-46.
Consequently, EASA issued AD 2013-0186 [which corresponds to FAA AD 2013-23-02] to require a one-time [detailed visual] inspection of the affected fuel booster pumps to detect damage and, depending on findings, replacement of the fuel booster pump. That [EASA] AD also required reporting of all findings to EADS CASA for evaluation.
Since that [EASA] AD was issued, Airbus Defence and Space (D&S) developed [a] modification of the fuel boost pump electrical installation, available for in-service application through Airbus D&S Service Bulletin (SB) 235-28-0023. That modification involves improved protection of the output of affected fuel pump harness avoiding undesired electrical contacts and preventing potential arcing between the affected harness and metallic parts of the fuel boost cover.
For the reasons described above this [EASA] AD partially retains the requirements of EASA AD 2013-0186, which is superseded, and requires modification of the fuel pump electrical installation.
You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket on the Internet at
EADS CASA has issued Airbus Defense and Space Service Bulletin SB-235-28-0023C, Revision 01, dated October 27, 2015. The service information describes procedures for modification of the fuel booster pumps. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
Paragraph (3) of the MCAI specifies a modification for all airplanes. However, the MCAI only specifies service information for Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. We have determined that this modification only applies to Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes. Therefore, in paragraph (i) of this proposed AD we have identified Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 35 airplanes of U.S. registry.
The actions required by AD 2013-23-02, and retained in this proposed AD take about 4 work-hours per product, at an average labor rate of $85 per work-hour. Based on these figures, the estimated cost of the actions that are required by AD 2013-23-02 is $340 per product.
We also estimate that it would take about 8 work-hours per product to comply with the basic requirements of this proposed AD. The average labor rate is $85 per work-hour. Required parts would cost about $1,802 per product. Based on these figures, we estimate the cost of this proposed AD on
In addition, we estimate that any necessary follow-on actions would take about 3 work-hours and require parts costing $16,080, for a cost of $16,335 per product. We have no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need this action.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 3, 2016.
This AD replaces AD 2013-23-02, Amendment 39-17657 (78 FR 68688, November 15, 2013) (“AD 2013-23-02”).
This AD applies to Airbus Defense and Space S.A. (formerly known as Construcciones Aeronauticas, S.A.) Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, CN-235-300, and C-295 airplanes, certificated in any category, all manufacturer serial numbers.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 28, Fuel.
This AD was prompted by a report of an in-flight problem with the fuel transfer system. We are issuing this AD to prevent damage to certain fuel booster pumps, which could create an ignition source in the fuel tank vapor space, and result in a fuel tank explosion and consequent loss of the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (g) of AD 2013-23-02, with no changes. Within the times specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2) of this AD, as applicable: Perform a detailed visual inspection for damage (including, but not limited to, signs of electrical arcing and fuel leaks) of the electrical feeder cables of each fuel booster pump having part number (P/N) 1C12-34 or 1C12-46, in accordance with the instructions of Airbus Military All Operator Letter 235-025, dated July 29, 2013 (for Model CN-235 airplanes); or Airbus Military All Operator Letter 295-025, Revision 01, dated August 1, 2013 (for Model C-295 airplanes).
(1) For each fuel booster pump that has not been replaced as of December 2, 2013 (the effective date of AD 2013-23-02): Prior to the accumulation of 300 total flight hours or within 5 flight cycles after December 2, 2013, whichever occurs later.
(2) For each fuel booster pump that has been replaced as of December 2, 2013 (the effective date of AD 2013-23-02): Within 300 flight hours since the most recent fuel booster pump replacement, or within 5 flight cycles after December 2, 2013, whichever occurs later.
This paragraph restates the requirements of paragraph (h) of AD 2013-23-02, with no changes. If any damage (including, but not limited to, signs of electrical arcing and fuel leaks) is found during the inspection required by paragraph (g) of this AD: Within the time specified in paragraph (h)(1) or (h)(2) of this AD, replace the affected fuel booster pump with a serviceable pump, in accordance with Airbus Military All Operator Letter 235-025, dated July 29, 2013 (for Model CN-235 airplanes); or Airbus Military All Operator Letter 295-025, Revision 01, dated August 1, 2013 (for Model C-295 airplanes).
(1) Before further flight.
(2) Within 10 days following the inspection, provided that the airplane is operated under the conditions specified in Airbus Military All Operator Letter 235-025, dated July 29, 2013 (for Model CN-235 airplanes); or Airbus Military All Operator Letter 295-025, Revision 01, dated August 1, 2013 (for Model C-295 airplanes).
For Airbus Defense and Space S.A. Model CN-235, CN-235-100, CN-235-200, and CN-235-300 airplanes: Within 12 months after the effective date of this AD, modify the electrical installation of the fuel booster pumps, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Defense and Space Service Bulletin SB-235-28-0023C, Revision 01, dated October 27, 2015. Accomplishing the modification terminates the requirements of paragraphs (g) and (h) of this AD for that airplane.
This paragraph provides credit for actions required by paragraph (i) of this AD, if those actions were performed before the effective date of this AD using Airbus EADS CASA Service Bulletin SB-235-28-0023, dated March 14, 2014.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1)
(2)
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) AD 2016-0014, dated January 14, 2016, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact EADS CASA (Airbus Defense and Space), Services/Engineering Support, Avenida de Aragón 404, 28022 Madrid, Spain; telephone: +34 91 585 55 84; fax: +34 91 585 31 27; email:
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
We propose to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for certain Airbus Model A319-115, A319-132, A320-214, A320-232, A321-211, A321-213, and A321-231 airplanes. This proposed AD was prompted by a report of certain tie rod assemblies installed on the hinged fairing assembly of the main landing gear (MLG) with no cadmium plating on the rod end threads. This proposed AD would require a detailed inspection of certain tie rod assemblies installed on the hinged fairing assembly of the MLG for the presence of cadmium plating, and replacement of tie rod assemblies without cadmium plating. We are proposing this AD to detect and correct the absence of cadmium plating on the rod end threads of the tie rod assemblies. The absence of cadmium plating could lead to galvanic corrosion of the tie rod end threads, resulting in rod end failure, loss of a MLG door, and consequent damage to the airplane.
We must receive comments on this proposed AD by November 3, 2016.
You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:
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•
For service information identified in this NPRM, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
You may examine the AD docket on the Internet at
Sanjay Ralhan, Aerospace Engineer, International Branch, ANM-116, Transport Airplane Directorate, FAA, 1601 Lind Avenue SW., Renton, WA 98057-3356; telephone 425-227-1405; fax 425-227-1149.
We invite you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposed AD. Send your comments to an address listed under the
We will post all comments we receive, without change, to
The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), which is the Technical Agent for the Member States of the European Union, has issued EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0234, dated December 8, 2015 (referred to after this as the Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information, or “the MCAI”), to correct an unsafe condition for certain Airbus Model A319-115, A319-132, A320-214, A320-232, A321-211, A321-213, and A321-231 airplanes. The MCAI states:
A production quality issue was identified concerning tie rod assemblies, having Part Number (P/N) starting with D52840212000 or D52840212002, which are installed on the main landing gear (MLG) hinged fairing assembly. This quality issue affects the cadmium plating surface treatment which was inadvertently omitted from the rod end threads of the assembly. The absence of cadmium plating reduces the corrosion protection scheme.
This condition, if not detected and corrected, could lead to galvanic corrosion of
To address this unsafe condition, Airbus identified the affected [manufacturer serial number] MSN and issued [service bulletin] SB A320-52-1167 to provide inspection instructions.
For the reason described above, this [EASA] AD requires a one-time inspection of the affected MLG hinged fairing tie rod assemblies [for the presence of cadmium plating], and, depending on findings, replacement of the affected tie rod assembly.
Airbus has issued Service Bulletin A320-52-1167, dated August 6, 2015. The service information describes procedures for a detailed inspection for the presence of cadmium plating on tie rod assemblies having certain part numbers, and procedures for replacement of tie rod assemblies with no cadmium plating on the rod end threads. This service information is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the
This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country, and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to our bilateral agreement with the State of Design Authority, we have been notified of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI and service information referenced above. We are proposing this AD because we evaluated all pertinent information and determined an unsafe condition exists and is likely to exist or develop on other products of these same type designs.
We estimate that this proposed AD affects 20 airplanes of U.S. registry.
We estimate the following costs to comply with this proposed AD:
We estimate the following costs to do any necessary replacements that would be required based on the results of the proposed inspection. We have no way of determining the number of airplanes that might need these replacements:
According to the manufacturer, some of the costs of this proposed AD may be covered under warranty, thereby reducing the cost impact on affected individuals. We do not control warranty coverage for affected individuals. As a result, we have included all available costs in our cost estimate.
Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. “Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs,” describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.
We are issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in “Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements.” Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.
We determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:
1. Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866;
2. Is not a “significant rule” under the DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures (44 FR 11034, February 26, 1979);
3. Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska; and
4. Will not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.
Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.
Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.
We must receive comments by November 3, 2016.
None.
This AD applies to Airbus Model A319-115, A319-132, A320-214, A320-232, A321-211, A321-213, and A321-231 airplanes, certificated in any category, as identified in Airbus Service Bulletin A320-52-1167, dated August 6, 2015.
Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 52, Doors.
This AD was prompted by a report of certain tie rod assemblies installed on the hinged fairing assembly of the main landing gear (MLG) with no cadmium plating on the rod end threads. We are issuing this AD to detect and correct the absence of cadmium plating on the rod end threads of the tie rod assemblies. The absence of cadmium plating could lead to galvanic corrosion of the tie rod end threads, resulting in rod end failure, loss of a MLG door, and consequent damage to the airplane.
Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.
Within 80 months after the airplane's first flight, do a detailed inspection of each tie rod assembly having a part number (P/N) D52840212000 or D52840212002 at the MLG hinged fairing for the presence of cadmium plating (gold colored threads), in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-52-1167, dated August 6, 2015. If during the inspection any tie rod assembly is found that does not have cadmium plating, before further flight, replace the tie rod assembly with a serviceable part having the same part number and cadmium plating, in accordance with the Accomplishment Instructions of Airbus Service Bulletin A320-52-1167, dated August 6, 2015.
The following provisions also apply to this AD:
(1) Refer to Mandatory Continuing Airworthiness Information (MCAI) EASA Airworthiness Directive 2015-0234, dated December 8, 2015, for related information. This MCAI may be found in the AD docket on the Internet at
(2) For service information identified in this AD, contact Airbus, Airworthiness Office—EIAS, 1 Rond Point Maurice Bellonte, 31707 Blagnac Cedex, France; telephone +33 5 61 93 36 96; fax +33 5 61 93 44 51; email
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.
Notice of proposed order designating information as protected from disclosure.
This notice describes a proposed order through which the Federal Aviation Administration plans to designate a certain category of information as protected from public disclosure pursuant to a Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program. The Federal Aviation Administration is required to protect the information from disclosure to the public, including disclosure required by statute, such as the Freedom of Information Act, following issuance of an order designating the information as protected. The instant designation is intended to encourage participation in the Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program.
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2016.
Send comments identified by Docket Number FAA-2006-24855 using any of the following methods:
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•
•
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For questions concerning this action, contact Scott Crosier, ASI/Manager, Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program (VDRP), Air Carrier Training Systems and Voluntary Safety Programs Branch, AFS-280, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591; telephone: (703) 661-0278; email:
The FAA sets forth this designation pursuant to title 49 of the United States Code (49 U.S.C.) section 40123 and title 14, Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR), part 193.
On August 17, 2006, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) issued FAA Order 8000.89, Designation of Voluntary Disclosure Reporting Program (VDRP) Information as Protected from Public Disclosure under part 193. The FAA published the Notice of Order in the
This Proposed Order Designating Information as Protected from Disclosure will retain the current protection provided for disclosures under FAA Order 8000.89 while also designating disclosures to the agency by entities as provided in Advisory Circular (AC) 00-68 as protected from public disclosure in accordance with the provisions of part 193. The comment period for the contents of AC 00-68 opened on June 12, 2015 and closed on August 7, 2015.
Under 49 U.S.C. 40123, certain voluntarily provided safety and security information is protected from disclosure to encourage persons to provide the information to the FAA. The FAA must issue an order making certain findings before the information is protected from disclosure. The FAA's rules implementing that section are in part 193. If the Administrator issues an order designating information as protected under 49 U.S.C. 40123, that information will not be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) or other laws except as provided in 49 U.S.C. 40123, 14 CFR part 193, and the order designating the information as protected. This proposed order is issued under § 193.11, which sets out the notice procedure for designating information as protected.
A.
B.
C.
D.
The FAA proposes to designate information received under the VDRP as protected under 49 U.S.C. 40123 and 14 CFR 193.7 based on the following findings:
(1) Summary of why the FAA finds that the information will be provided voluntarily.
The FAA finds that the information will be provided voluntarily. No regulated entity is required to participate in the VDRP. Initiation of submissions under the VDRP are indicative of the willingness of regulated entities to identify and correct their own instances of regulatory noncompliance, develop long term comprehensive fixes or corrective action plans, and foster safe operating practices.
(2) Description of the type of information that may be voluntarily provided under the program and a summary of why the FAA finds that the information is safety or security related.
The information that would be voluntarily submitted under a VDRP is described in AC 00-58, as amended, AC 00-68, and AC 121-37. Because the Federal Aviation Regulations specify the minimum requirements for safety, and VDRP submissions entail violations of those regulations, the information is inherently safety related. It would include the following:
(a) Information contained in an initial notification to the FAA:
(b) Information contained in a detailed written report:
(c) FAA generated documentation and electronic information that is directly associated with an accepted VDRP submission, including, but not limited to:
(d) Information contained in a report submitted to the FAA under the informal voluntary disclosure reporting process described in AC 00-68, as amended, including, but not limited to:
(3) Summary of why the FAA finds that the disclosure of the information would inhibit persons from voluntarily providing that type of information.
The FAA finds that disclosure of the information would inhibit the voluntary provision of that type of information. Regulated entities are reluctant to voluntarily disclose instances of regulatory noncompliance if such submissions might be subject to public disclosure. A significant impediment to participation in the VDRP is concern over public disclosure of the information, and, if disclosed, the potential for it to be used for other than the system safety enhancement purposes for which the VDRP was created. Withholding such information from disclosure is consistent with the FAA's safety and security responsibilities because, unless the FAA can provide assurance that it will not be disclosed, regulated entities will be reluctant to participate in the program. Information received under the VDRP will be identified as such in each FAA line of business's central database used to track submissions. To encourage continued use of the VDRP, the FAA will not keep the identity of persons reporting, or detailed information about disclosures, under that program in any central database.
The FAA finds that by virtue of designating information provided under the VDRP as protected under part 193, the reluctance of regulated entities to participate due to concerns about possible disclosure of the information will be mitigated. In addition, FAA will be able to retain more information about the disclosures, including the identity of the reporters, in an FAA database, without negatively impacting participation in the VDRP. Disclosures under the VDRP enable the FAA to become aware of many more instances of regulatory noncompliance than it otherwise would and, moreover, the VDRP permits the FAA to assure that appropriate corrective action is taken. If regulated entities do not participate, the FAA and the public will be deprived of the opportunity to make the system safety improvements that receipt of the information otherwise enables.
(4) Summary of why the receipt of that type of information aids in fulfilling the FAA's safety and security responsibilities.
The FAA finds that receipt of VDRP information aids in fulfilling the FAA's safety and security responsibilities. A primary purpose of FAA regulations is to assure public safety. Because the VDRP identifies and corrects instances of regulatory noncompliance of which the FAA may be otherwise unaware, the program offers significant potential for enhancement of public safety. Receipt of this otherwise unavailable information would also provide the FAA with an improved basis for modifying procedures, policies, and regulations to improve safety and efficiency.
(5) Summary of why withholding such information from disclosure would be consistent with the FAA's safety and security responsibilities, including a statement as to the circumstances under which, and a summary of why, withholding such information from disclosure would not be consistent with the FAA's safety and security responsibilities, as described in § 193.9.
The FAA finds that withholding VDRP information provided to the FAA is consistent with the FAA's safety responsibilities. The VDRP specifically provides that appropriate corrective action must be taken by the regulated entity for all instances of regulatory noncompliance accepted under the program. To be accepted by the FAA, apparent violations disclosed under the program must be inadvertent, and, where applicable, must not indicate a lack, or reasonable question of a lack, of qualification of the regulated entity. Corrective action under the VDRP can be accomplished by the regulated entity and verified by the FAA without disclosure of the protected information. If the FAA determines that the steps taken by the entity are not those documented in the written report, the submission may be excluded from the VDRP, and appropriate legal enforcement action may be initiated.
The FAA will release information submitted under a VDRP as specified in part 193 and this proposed order. The FAA may disclose de-identified summary information to explain the need for changes in FAA policies, procedures, and regulations. The term “de-identified” means that the identity of the source of the information and the names of the regulated entity, employees, and other persons, as well as any other information that could be used to ascertain the identity of the submitter have been redacted. The FAA may disclose de-identified, summarized VDRP information that identifies a systemic problem in the aviation system, when other persons need to be advised of the problem so that they can take corrective action. The FAA may disclose de-identified aggregate statistical information concerning VDRP submissions. The FAA may disclose independently obtained information relating to any event disclosed in a VDRP report, unless the FAA determines that in the case of an accepted VDRP submission, release of such independently obtained information would be inconsistent with the provisions of this order, or would otherwise be prohibited by public law or regulation. The FAA also may disclose information concerning enforcement action taken for a regulatory violation initially identified in a VDRP submission, when that submission is not accepted by the FAA, or, if accepted, it is later excluded by the FAA because of the regulated entity's failure to comply with the criteria of the VDRP. The FAA also may disclose any information about a disclosure initially submitted under the VDRP that is not accepted, or accepted but later excluded because of the regulated entity's failure to comply with the criteria of the VDRP.
(6) Summary of how the FAA will distinguish information protected under part 193 from information the FAA receives from other sources.
In accordance with AC 00-58, as amended, AC 00-68, and AC 121-37, all
Accordingly, the FAA proposes to designate the above-described information submitted under a VDRP to be protected under 49 U.S.C. 40123 and part 193, when obtained by the FAA pursuant to an accepted VDRP submission.
The FAA invites interested persons to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written comments, data, or views. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. Before acting on this proposal, we will consider all comments we receive on or before the closing date for comments. We will consider comments filed late if it is possible to do so without incurring expense or delay. We may change this proposal in light of the comments we receive.
An electronic copy of rulemaking documents may be obtained from the Internet by—
1. Searching the Federal eRulemaking Portal (
2. Visiting the FAA's Regulations and Policies Web page at
3. Accessing the Government Printing Office's Web page at
Copies may also be obtained by sending a request to the Federal Aviation Administration, Aircraft Certification Office, AIR-1, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591, or by calling (202) 267-8235. Commenters must identify the docket or notice number of this rulemaking.
All documents the FAA considered in developing this proposed rule may be accessed from the Internet through the Federal eRulemaking Portal referenced in item (1) above.
Department of State.
Proposed rule.
The Department of State proposes an adjustment to the Schedule of Fees for Consular Services of the Department of State's Bureau of Consular Affairs (“Schedule of Fees” or “Schedule”) for the execution fee for passport books and cards. The Department is adjusting this fee in light of the findings of the most recent annual update to the Cost of Service Model to better align the fees for consular services with the costs of providing those services.
The Department of State will accept comments on this proposed rule until November 18, 2016.
Interested parties may submit comments to the Department by any of the following methods:
• Visit the
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• All comments should include the commenter's name, the organization the commenter represents, if applicable, and the commenter's address. If the Department is unable to read your comment for any reason, and cannot contact you for clarification, the Department may not be able to consider your comment. After the conclusion of the comment period, the Department will publish a Final Rule (in which it will address relevant comments) as expeditiously as possible.
James McDaniel, Management Analyst, Office of the Comptroller, Bureau of Consular Affairs, Department of State; phone: 202-485-6694, telefax: 202-485-6826; email:
The proposed rule makes a change to the Schedule of Fees. The Department sets and collects its fees based on the concept of full cost recovery. The Department completed its most recent review of current consular fees and will implement a change to the Schedule of Fees based on the costs of services calculated by the Fiscal Year 2014 update to the Cost of Service Model.
The Department of State derives the general authority to set fees based on the cost of the consular services it provides, and to charge those fees, from the general user charges statute, 31 U.S.C. 9701. See,
Several statutes address specific fees relating to passports. For instance, 22 U.S.C. 214(a) authorizes the Secretary of State to set the passport execution fee by regulation, and to authorize state and local government officials and the U.S. Postal Service to collect and retain the execution fee for each application for a passport accepted by such officials or the U.S. Postal Service.
Certain people are exempted by law or regulation from paying specific fees. They include, for instance, exemptions from the passport execution and application fees for officers or employees of the U.S. government proceeding abroad in the discharge of official duties and exemption from the passport execution fee if those officers or employees execute their application before a federal official. See 22 U.S.C. 214(a); 22 CFR 22.1; 22 CFR 51.52(b).
The Department last changed fees for passport services in an interim final rule
With certain exceptions—such as the reciprocal nonimmigrant visa issuance fee—the Department of State generally sets consular fees at an amount calculated to achieve recovery of the costs to the U.S. government of providing the consular service, in a manner consistent with general user charges principles, regardless of the specific statutory authority under which the fees are authorized. As set forth in OMB Circular A-25, as a general policy, each recipient should pay a reasonable user charge for government services, resources, or goods from which he or she derives a special benefit, at an amount sufficient for the U.S. government to recover the full costs to it of providing the service, resource, or good. See OMB Circular No. A-25, sec. 6(a)(2)(a). The OMB guidance covers all Federal Executive Branch activities that convey special benefits to recipients beyond those that accrue to the general public. See id., sections 4(a), 6(a)(1).
The Department reviews consular fees through an annual update to its Cost of Service Model to determine the appropriateness of each fee in light of OMB guidance. The Department proposes to make the change set forth below in the Schedule of Fees accordingly. The Cost of Service Model is an activity-based costing model that determines the current direct and indirect costs to the U.S. government associated with each consular good and service the Department provides. The model update identified the direct and indirect cost of the passport execution fee, and the update's results formed the basis of the change herein proposed to the Schedule.
To set fees in accordance with the general user charges principles, the Department must determine the true cost of providing consular services. Following guidance provided in “Managerial Cost Accounting Concepts and Standards for the Federal Government,” OMB's Statement #4 of Federal Accounting Standards (SFFAS #4), available at
The Government Accountability Office (GAO) defines activity-based costing as a “set of accounting methods used to identify and describe costs and required resources for activities within processes.” Because an organization can use the same staff and resources (computer equipment, production facilities, etc.) to produce multiple products or services, ABC models seek to identify and assign costs to processes and activities, and then to individual products and services through the identification of key cost drivers referred to as “resource drivers” and “activity drivers.” ABC models also seek to identify the amount of time an organization's personnel spend on each service and how much overhead cost (rent, utilities, facilities maintenance, etc.) is associated with delivering each service. ABC models require financial and accounting analysis, and modeling skills combined with a detailed understanding of an organization's business processes. ABC models require an organization to identify all activities required to produce a particular product or service (“activities”) and all resources consumed (costs) in the course of producing that product or service. An organization also must measure the quantity of resources consumed (“resource driver”); and the frequency and intensity of demand placed on activities to produce services (“activity driver”). SFFAS Statement #4 provides a detailed discussion of the use of cost accounting by the U.S. government.
The Department conducted periodic Cost of Service Studies using ABC methods to determine the costs of its consular services through 2009. In 2010, the Department moved to adopt an annually updated Cost of Service Model (CoSM) that measures all of its consular operations and costs, including all of the activities needed to provide consular services, whether fee-based or not. This provides a comprehensive and detailed look at all consular services and all services that the Department performs for other agencies in connection with its consular operations. The CoSM now includes approximately 80 distinct activities, and enables the Department to model its consular-related costs with a high degree of precision.
The Department uses three methods outlined in SFFAS Statement #4 (paragraph 149(2)) to assign resource costs to activities: (a) Direct tracing; (b) estimation based on surveys, interviews, or statistical sampling; and (c) allocations. The Department uses direct tracing to assign the cost of, for example, a physical passport book or the visa foil placed in a visa applicant's passport. Assigning costs to activities such as adjudicating a passport or visa application requires estimation based on surveys, interviews, or statistical sampling to determine who performs an activity and how long it takes. Indirect costs (overhead) in the CoSM are allocated according to the level of effort needed for a particular activity. Where possible, the model uses overhead cost pools to assign indirect costs only to related activities. For instance, the cost of rent for domestic passport agencies is assigned only to passport costs, not to visas or other services the Department provides only overseas. The Department allocates indirect support costs to each consular service by the portion of each cost attributable to consular activities. For example, the model allocates a portion of the cost of the Department's Bureau of Human Resources to consular services. The total amount of this allocation is based on the number of Bureau of Human Resources staff members who support Bureau of Consular Affairs personnel. In turn, this amount is allocated among the different consular services by the level of effort to provide them.
To assign labor costs, the Department relies on a variety of industry-standard estimation methodologies. To document how consular staff divide their time overseas, the Department conducts the Consular Overseas Data Collection (CODaC) survey of a representative sample of posts each year. The Department uses CODaC survey data in conjunction with volume data from more than 200 individual consular sections in consulates and embassies worldwide, to develop resource drivers to assign labor costs to activities. For consular activities that take place in the United States, the Department collects volume data from periodic workload reports, including Passport Agency Task Reports pulled from management databases that include Passport's Management Information System. Financial information is gathered from reports by the Bureau of Consular Affairs' Office of the Comptroller. The Department converts the cost and workload data it collects into resource drivers and activity drivers for each resource and activity.
Because approximately 70 percent of the workforce involved in providing consular services are full-time Federal employees, if demand for a service falls precipitously, the Department cannot
The costs the Department enters into the CoSM include every line item of costs, including items such as physical material for making passports and visas, salaries, rent, supplies, and IT hardware and software. The Department then determines a resource driver (from, for example, the responses to the CODaC survey) for each of these costs, as discussed above and enters the resource drivers and assignments into the model. The Department then selects an activity driver, such as the volume data discussed above, for each activity, in order to assign these costs to each service type. This process allows the model to calculate a total cost for each of the Schedule of Fees' line items for visa services, passport services, and overseas citizens services, and services for other government agencies and no-fee services. The model then divides this total cost by the total volume of the service or product in question in order to determine a final unit cost for the service or product. Projected costs for predictive years also are included to take account of changes in the size of consular staff, workload, and similar factors. The resulting database constitutes the CoSM. The Department continues to refine and update the CoSM in order to set fees commensurate with the cost of providing consular services. Because the CoSM is a complex series of iterative computer processes incorporating more than a million calculations, it is not reducible to a tangible form such as a document. Inputs are formatted in spreadsheets for entry into the ABC software package. The ABC software package itself is an industry standard commercial off-the-shelf product, SAP Business Objects. The software's output includes spreadsheets with raw unit costs, validation reports, and management reports.
A number of fees are set at levels other than cost. These include passport fees for minors, which are set below cost as a longstanding matter of policy, and the reduced Border Crossing Card Fee for Mexican Minors, which is set by law. The true cost of these services must be offset by other fees. These offsets are calculated on additional spreadsheets outside the model software. Final unit costs incorporate these offsets.
The last broad set of amendments to the Schedule of Fees occurred in 2014, though the Department has made some specific amendments to it since that time. Some fees, including the Immigrant Visa petition and the Immigrant Visa ineligibility waiver (items 31(a) and 35(c) respectively), are set by the Department of Homeland Security and were most recently updated by that agency on November 23, 2010. The change to the current Schedule of Fees is discussed below. The CoSM estimate discussed below is based on projected workload for Fiscal Year 2016, and the proposed fee has been rounded to make it easier to collect.
The Department proposes to increase the execution fee for passport books and cards from $25 to $35, excepting those persons who are exempted statutorily from paying the passport execution fee. The passport execution fee is applicable to all first-time passport applicants and certain other applicants who must apply in person, such as minors under the age of 16. Applicants apply in-person at post offices and other acceptance facilities, such as local clerks of court, and at the Department's passport offices. The passport execution fee includes the costs associated with accepting passport applications and fees in-person, including salaries, benefits, and an allocated portion of overhead including, but not limited to, rent, utilities, supplies, and equipment. The Department's CoSM showed that these costs were more than $33. The U.S. Postal Service—the acceptance agent for the majority of passport applications—regularly conducts a similar study and found that these costs were more than $34. See 22 U.S.C. 214(a); 22 CFR 51.51(b).
The $10 increase in the passport execution fee will result in a $10 increase to the cost to first-time passport applicants and certain applicants who must appear at post offices and other acceptance facilities such as local clerks of court. Individuals who apply for a passport renewal by mail will not see a fee increase.
The Department is publishing this rule as a proposed rule, with a 60-day provision for public comments.
The Department reviewed this proposed rule and, by approving it, certifies that it will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
This proposed rule will not result in the expenditure by state, local, and tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more in any year, and it will not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. Therefore, no actions were deemed necessary under the provisions of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1501-1504.
This proposed rule is a major rule as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
The Department has reviewed this proposed rule to ensure its consistency with the regulatory philosophy and principles set forth in the Executive Orders. OMB determined that this rule is significant under Executive Order 12866, and the Department confirmed that it is economically significant as defined by the Executive Order.
This proposed rule is necessary in light of the Department of State's CoSM finding that the cost of executing first-time passports is higher than the current fee. The Department is setting the fees in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 9701 and other applicable authority, as described in more detail above. See,
Details of the proposed fee change are as follows:
The Department of State does not anticipate that demand for passport services affected by this proposed rule will change significantly because of these fee changes, and welcomes public comment on that expectation.
The Department does not believe that passport application fees are a significant determining factor when U.S. citizens decide to travel internationally. The price of a passport book or card remains minor in comparison with other costs associated with foreign travel, given that taxes and surcharges alone on an international airfare can easily surpass $100. As a result, the Department does not believe passport demand will be significantly affected by increases of the size proposed.
This regulation will not have substantial direct effects on the states, on the relationship between the national government and the states, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. Therefore, in accordance with section 6 of Executive Order 13132, it is determined that this rule does not have sufficient federalism implications to require consultations or warrant the preparation of a federalism summary impact statement. The regulations implementing Executive Order 12372 regarding intergovernmental consultation on federal programs and activities do not apply to this regulation.
The Department determined that this proposed rulemaking will not have tribal implications, will not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian tribal governments, and will not preempt tribal law. Accordingly, the requirements of Executive Order 13175 do not apply to this rulemaking.
This information collection contained in this proposed rule is pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35. Information Collection 1405-0004, form DS-11 is related to this proposed rule. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking proposes an increase in the passport execution fee, from $25 to $35, based on the result of the Department CoSM, which found that the government's cost of executing a first-time passport is higher than the fee that the Department was charging an individual applicant. The CoSM is an activity-based costing model that determines the current direct and indirect costs to the U.S. government associated with each consular good and service the Department provides.
This information collection was renewed on August 30, 2016, with an expiration date of August 31, 2019. This notice request comments as it pertains to the proposed fee increase from $25 to $35.
• Direct comments to the Department of State Desk Officer in the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). You may submit comments by the following methods:
•
The DS-11 solicits data necessary for Passport Services to issue a U.S. passport (book and/or card format) pursuant to authorities granted to the Secretary of State by 22 U.S.C. 211a
The issuance of U.S. passports requires the determination of identity, nationality, and entitlement with reference to the provisions of Title III of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA) (8 U.S.C. 1401-1504), the 14th Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, other applicable treaties and laws, and implementing regulations at 22 CFR parts 50 and 51. The specific regulations pertaining to the Application for a U.S. passport are at 22 CFR 51.20 through 51.28.
The information collected on the DS-11 is used to facilitate the issuance of passports to U.S. citizens and nationals. The primary purpose of soliciting the information is to establish citizenship, identity, and entitlement to the issuance of the U.S. passport or related service, and to properly administer and enforce the laws pertaining to the issuance thereof.
Passport Services collects information from U.S. citizens and non-citizen nationals when they complete and submit the Application for a U.S. passport. Passport applicants can either download the DS-11 from the Internet or obtain one from an Acceptance Facility/Passport Agency. The form must be completed and executed at an acceptance facility or passport agency, and submitted with evidence of citizenship and identity.
Consular services, Fees, Passports.
Accordingly, for the reasons stated in the preamble, 22 CFR part 22 is proposed to be amended as follows:
8 U.S.C. 1101 note, 1153 note, 1183a note, 1351, 1351 note, 1714, 1714 note; 10 U.S.C. 2602(c); 11 U.S.C. 1157 note; 22 U.S.C. 214, 214 note, 1475e, 2504(a), 2651a, 4201, 4206, 4215, 4219, 6551; 31 U.S.C. 9701; Exec. Order 10,718, 22 FR 4632 (1957); Exec. Order 11,295, 31 FR 10603 (1966).
Federal Bureau of Investigation, United States Department of Justice.
Notice of proposed rulemaking.
Elsewhere in this issue of the
Comments must be received by October 19, 2016.
Address all comments to the U.S. Department of Justice, ATTN: Privacy Analyst, Office of Privacy and Civil Liberties, National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20530-0001 or facsimile 202-307-0693. To ensure proper handling, please reference the CPCLO Order No. on your correspondence. You may review an electronic version of the proposed rule at
Please note that the Department is requesting that electronic comments be submitted before midnight Eastern Daylight Savings Time on the day the comment period closes because
If you want to submit personally identifying information (such as your name, address, etc.) as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online or made available in the public docket, you must include the phrase “PERSONALLY IDENTIFYING INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also place all personally identifying information you do not want posted online or made available in the public docket in the first paragraph of your comment and identify what information you want redacted.
If you want to submit confidential business information as part of your comment, but do not want it to be posted online or made available in the public docket, you must include the phrase “CONFIDENTIAL BUSINESS INFORMATION” in the first paragraph of your comment. You must also prominently identify confidential business information to be redacted within the comment. If a comment has so much confidential business information that it cannot be effectively redacted, all or part of that comment
Personally identifying information and confidential business information identified and located as set forth above will be redacted and the comment, in redacted form, will be posted online and placed in the Department's public docket file. Please note that the Freedom of Information Act applies to all comments received. If you wish to inspect the agency's public docket file in person by appointment, please see the
Richard R. Brown, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Assistant General Counsel, Privacy and Civil Liberties Unit, Office of the General Counsel, J. Edgar Hoover Building, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001, telephone 202-324-3000.
The Presidential Memorandum—
In the Notice section of today's
In this rulemaking, the FBI proposes to exempt this Privacy Act system of records from certain provisions of the Privacy Act in order to avoid interference with the responsibilities of the FBI to detect, deter, and/or mitigate insider threats as established by federal law and policy. For an overview of the Privacy Act, see:
This proposed rule relates to individuals rather than small business entities. Pursuant to the requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, therefore, the proposed rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
The Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996, 5 U.S.C. 801
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), requires that the FBI consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. There are no current or new information collection requirements associated with this proposed rule. The records that are contributed to this system may be provided by individuals covered by this system, the FBI, DOJ, and United States Government components, other domestic and foreign government entities, or purchased from private entities, and sharing of this information electronically will not increase the paperwork burden on the public.
Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 103-3, 109 Stat. 48, requires Federal agencies to assess the effects of certain regulatory actions on State, local, and tribal governments, and the private sector. UMRA requires a written statement of economic and regulatory alternatives for proposed and final rules that contain Federal mandates. A “Federal mandate” is a new or additional enforceable duty, imposed on any State, local, or tribal government, or the private sector. If any Federal mandate causes those entities to spend, in aggregate, $100 million or more in any one year, the UMRA analysis is required. This proposed rule would not impose Federal mandates on any State, local, or tribal government or the private sector.
Administrative Practices and Procedures, Courts, Freedom of Information Act, and the Privacy Act.
Pursuant to the authority vested in the Attorney General by 5 U.S.C. 552a and delegated to me by Attorney General Order 2940-2008, it is proposed to amend 28 CFR part 16 as follows:
5 U.S.C. 301, 552, 552a, 552b(g), 553; 18 U.S.C. 4203(a)(1); 28 U.S.C. 509, 510, 534; 31 U.S.C. 3717, 9701.
(x) The following system of records is exempt from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4); (e)(1), (2) and (3); (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I); (e)(5) and (8); (f) and (g) of the Privacy Act:
(1) FBI Insider Threat Program Records (JUSTICE/FBI-023).
(2) These exemptions apply only to the extent that information in this system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Where compliance would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect the purpose of this system to detect, deter, and/or mitigate insider threats to national security or to the FBI, the applicable exemption may be waived by the FBI in its sole discretion.
(y) Exemptions from the particular subsections are justified for the following reasons:
(1) From subsection (c)(3), the requirement that an accounting be made available to the named subject of a record, because this system is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d). Also, because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosures from records concerning him/her would specifically reveal any insider threat-related interest in the individual by the FBI or agencies that are recipients of the disclosures. Revealing this information could compromise ongoing, authorized law enforcement and intelligence efforts, particularly efforts to identify and/or mitigate insider threats to national security or to the FBI. Revealing this
(2) From subsection (c)(4) notification requirements because this system is exempt from the access and amendment provisions of subsection (d) as well as the accounting of disclosures provision of subsection (c)(3). The FBI takes seriously its obligation to maintain accurate records despite its assertion of this exemption, and to the extent it, in its sole discretion, agrees to permit amendment or correction of FBI records, it will share that information in appropriate cases.
(3) From subsection (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4), (e)(4)(G) and (H), (e)(8), (f) and (g) because these provisions concern individual access to and amendment of law enforcement, intelligence and counterintelligence, and counterterrorism records and compliance could alert the subject of an authorized law enforcement or intelligence activity about that particular activity and the interest of the FBI and/or other law enforcement or intelligence agencies. Providing access could compromise information classified to protect national security; disclose information which would constitute an unwarranted invasion of another's personal privacy; reveal a sensitive investigative or intelligence technique; provide information that would allow a subject to avoid detection or apprehension; or constitute a potential danger to the health or safety of law enforcement personnel, confidential sources, or witnesses.
(4) From subsection (e)(1) because it is not always possible to know in advance what information is relevant and necessary for law enforcement and intelligence purposes. The relevance and utility of certain information that may have a nexus to insider threats to national security or to the FBI may not always be fully evident until and unless it is vetted and matched with other sources of information that are necessarily and lawfully maintained by the FBI.
(5) From subsections (e)(2) and (3) because application of these provisions could present a serious impediment to efforts to detect, deter and/or mitigate insider threats to national security or to the FBI and its personnel, facilities, resources, and activities. Application of these provisions would put the subject of an investigation on notice of the investigation and allow the subject an opportunity to engage in conduct intended to impede the investigative activity or avoid apprehension.
(6) From subsection (e)(4)(I), to the extent that this subsection is interpreted to require more detail regarding the record sources in this system than has been published in the
(7) From subsection (e)(5) because in the collection of information for authorized law enforcement and intelligence purposes, including efforts to detect, deter, and/or mitigate insider threats to national security or to the FBI and its personnel, facilities, resources, and activities, due to the nature of investigations and intelligence collection, the FBI often collects information that may not be immediately shown to be accurate, relevant, timely, and complete, although the FBI takes reasonable steps to collect only the information necessary to support its mission and investigations. Additionally, the information may aid in establishing patterns of activity and providing criminal or intelligence leads. It could impede investigative progress if it were necessary to assure relevance, accuracy, timeliness and completeness of all information obtained during the scope of an investigation. Further, some of the records in this system may come from other domestic or foreign government entities, or private entities, and it would not be administratively feasible for the FBI to vouch for the compliance of these agencies with this provision.
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; 12-month petition finding; request for comments.
We, NMFS, have completed a comprehensive status review under the Endangered Species Act (ESA) for the common guitarfish (
Comments on this proposed rule must be received by November 18, 2016. Public hearing requests must be made by November 3, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0082, by either of the following methods:
•
•
Brendan Newell, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources (OPR), Telephone: (301) 427-7710 or Marta Nammack, NMFS, (OPR), Telephone: (301) 427-8469.
On July 15, 2013, we received a petition from WildEarth Guardians to list 81 marine species as threatened or endangered under the ESA. This petition included species from many different taxonomic groups, and we prepared our 90-day findings in batches by taxonomic group. We found that the petitioned actions may be warranted for 27 of the 81 species and announced the initiation of status reviews for each of the 27 species (78 FR 63941, October 25, 2013; 78 FR 66675, November 6, 2013; 78 FR 69376, November 19, 2013; 79 FR 9880, February 21, 2014; and 79 FR 10104, February 24, 2014). This document addresses the findings for 2 of those 27 species: Common guitarfish (
We are responsible for determining whether species are threatened or endangered under the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
On February 7, 1996, NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS; together, the Services) adopted a policy describing what constitutes a distinct population segment (DPS) of a taxonomic species (the DPS Policy; 61 FR 4722). The DPS Policy identified two elements that must be considered when identifying a DPS: (1) The discreteness of the population segment in relation to the remainder of the species (or subspecies) to which it belongs; and (2) the significance of the population segment to the remainder of the species (or subspecies) to which it belongs. As stated in the DPS Policy, Congress expressed its expectation that the Services would exercise authority with regard to DPSs sparingly and only when the biological evidence indicates such action is warranted. Based on the scientific information available, we determined that the common guitarfish (
Section 3 of the ESA defines an endangered species as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as one “which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” We interpret an “endangered species” to be one that is presently in danger of extinction. A “threatened species,” on the other hand, is not presently in danger of extinction, but is likely to become so in the foreseeable future (that is, at a later time). In other words, the primary statutory difference between a threatened and endangered species is the timing of when a species may be in danger of extinction, either presently (endangered) or in the foreseeable future (threatened).
When we consider whether a species might qualify as threatened under the ESA, we must consider the meaning of the term “foreseeable future.” It is appropriate to interpret “foreseeable future” as the horizon over which predictions about the conservation status of the species can be reasonably relied upon. The foreseeable future considers the life history of the species, habitat characteristics, availability of data, particular threats, ability to predict threats, and the reliability to forecast the effects of these threats and future events on the status of the species under consideration. Because a species may be susceptible to a variety of threats for which different data are available, or which operate across different time scales, the foreseeable future is not necessarily reducible to a particular number of years.
Section 4(a)(1) of the ESA requires us to determine whether any species is endangered or threatened due to any of the following factors: the present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; disease or predation; the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. Under section (4)(b)(1)(A), we are also required to make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available, after conducting a review of the species' status and after taking into account efforts being made by any state or foreign nation to protect the species.
The status review for the two guitarfishes addressed in this finding was conducted by a NMFS biologist in the Office of Protected Resources. Henceforth, the status review report for these guitarfishes will be referenced in this preamble as “Newell (2016)”, and is available at
Newell (2016) provided an evaluation of the factors specified by section 4(a)(1)(A)-(E) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(1)(A)-(E)) (
The demographic risk analysis, mentioned above, is an assessment of the manifestation of past threats that
In conducting the threats assessment, Newell (2016) identified and summarized the section 4(a)(1) factors that are currently operating on the species and their likely impact on the biological status of the species. Newell (2016) also looked for future threats (where the impact on the species has yet to be manifested), and considered the reliability of forecasting the effects of these threats and future events on the status of these species. Using the findings from the demographic risk analysis and threats assessment, Newell (2016) evaluated the overall extinction risk of the species. Because species-specific information (such as current abundance) is sparse, qualitative “reference levels” of risk were used to describe extinction risk. The definitions of the qualitative “reference levels” of extinction risk were as follows: “Low Risk”—a species is at low risk of extinction if it is not at a moderate or high level of extinction risk (see “Moderate risk” and “High risk” below). A species may be at low risk of extinction if it is not facing threats that result in declining trends in abundance, productivity, spatial structure, or diversity. A species at low risk of extinction is likely to show stable or increasing trends in abundance and productivity with connected, diverse populations. “Moderate Risk”—a species is at moderate risk of extinction if it is on a trajectory that puts it at a high level of extinction risk in the foreseeable future (see description of “High Risk” below). A species may be at moderate risk of extinction due to projected threats or declining trends in abundance, productivity, spatial structure, or diversity. “High Risk”—a species with a high risk of extinction is at or near a level of abundance, productivity, spatial structure, and/or diversity that places its continued persistence in question. The demographics of a species at such a high level of risk may be highly uncertain and strongly influenced by stochastic or depensatory processes. (Stochastic processes are random processes evolving with time; depensatory processes are density-dependent processes where a decrease in a species' population leads to reduced reproductive success, such as by an increase in the rate of predation on eggs or young, or through the reduced likelihood of finding a mate.) Similarly, a species may be at high risk of extinction if it faces clear and present threats (
The draft status review report (Newell (2016)) was submitted to independent peer reviewers; comments and information received from peer reviewers were addressed and incorporated as appropriate before finalizing the draft report. The status review report is available on our Web site (see
Guitarfishes are cartilaginous fishes (class
In terms of reproduction,
Common guitarfish (
Blackchin guitarfish (
Historically the common guitarfish was known on all shores of the Mediterranean as well as the coastal eastern Atlantic from the Bay of Biscay (France) to Angola (Melendez & Macias 2007). Throughout its historical Mediterranean range this species has likely always been rare in most of the northwestern Mediterranean, and more common in the Levantine Sea and along the southern shore of the Mediterranean from southern Tunisia to Egypt (Abdel-Aziz
North of Egypt,
In the Atlantic, north of the strait of Gibraltar, the only records we found of this species were from checklists and museum records from Spain and Portugal (Bañón
Along the Atlantic coast of Africa, this species is found from Morocco to Angola. It is likely that this species is rare in Moroccan waters (Gulyugin
Little information about the status of
Historically, the blackchin guitarfish had a distribution similar to, but slightly more restricted than,
As with
North of Egypt,
North of Syria,
In the Atlantic, north of the Strait of Gibraltar, the only records we found of this species were from checklists and museum records from Spain and Portugal (Bañón
Along the Atlantic coast of Africa, this species is found from Morocco to Angola. It is likely rare in Moroccan waters (Gulyugin
Available information regarding historical, current, and potential threats to these two guitarfishes was thoroughly reviewed (see Newell (2016)). We find that the main threat to these species is overutilization for commercial purposes. This threat is exacerbated by both species' reproductive behavior. Mature adults, including near-term pregnant females, congregate in shallow waters to breed and give birth. This behavior is well understood and exploited by fishers throughout these species' ranges and exposes both species to capture by most demersal fishing gear types (Diop & Dossa 2011; Echwikhi
Both
Around the Balearic Islands, both
Additionally, Doderlein (1884) reported specimens of
Although we found no other evidence of extirpations, the best available information indicates significant declines of elasmobranchs in West Africa, with
Throughout these species' ranges there is not much information available on the species-specific threats to
The Mediterranean Sea receives heavy metals, pesticides, excess nutrients, and other pollutants in the form of run-off (Melendez & Macias 2007; Psomadakis
Pollution, habitat degradation, and development in the coastal zone are also of concern in some African countries within these species' ranges (Diop & Dossa 2011; Kasisi 2004). While pollution is a concern in portions of both species' ranges, the effects of pollution on elasmobranchs and marine food webs are not well understood (Melendez & Macias 2007). We found no information describing how marine pollution affects
The significant demersal trawling that occurred and continues to occur throughout the Mediterranean range of the two
Some information shows that these species are sensitive to habitat modification. Psomadakis
The primary threat to both of these species is commercial overutilization. This threat is difficult to quantify, as fisheries data on elasmobranch landings throughout both species' ranges has been drastically underreported (Clarke
The overutilization of these species is not concentrated in one area or fishery. Throughout portions of their ranges, they are, or were until recently, targeted for their fins, meat, or both (G. De Bruyne, Wildlife Conservation Society, Mayumba, pers. Comm. to B. Newell, NMFS, 26 June, 2016; Diop & Dossa 2011; Echwikhi
In West Africa, both species have been targeted by the shark fin fishery, which has led to both species becoming scarce in this region after a few decades of targeted fishing (Diop & Dossa 2011; Fowler & Cavanagh 2005). The explosion of the Chinese middle class at the end of the last century led to a rapid increase in demand for shark fin soup, a traditional Chinese dish desired for its alleged tonic properties and, most importantly, because it has served as an indicator of high societal status for centuries. Shark fins are one of the highest value seafood products in the world, especially compared to shark meat, which is widely regarded as low value (Dulvy
The majority of the commercial harvest information available for these species in the Atlantic pertains to the FAO Subregional Fisheries Commission (SRFC) member countries: Mauritania, Senegal, Gambia, Guinea, Guinea-Bissau, Sierra Leone, and Cape Verde. Outside of the SRFC countries, we also found information on fisheries in Morocco, Ghana, and Gabon. We found no data for either species in the following countries, which have Atlantic coastline that is considered in one or both species' ranges: France, Spain, Portugal, Liberia, Cote d'Ivoire, Togo, Benin, Nigeria, Cameroon, Equatorial Guinea, São Tomé and Príncipe, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Angola.
In the SRFC region, elasmobranchs, including
The SRFC subregion's international elasmobranch fishing industry is composed of industrial and artisanal fishing vessels, coastal processing facilities, and a robust trade network. Vessels are owned both by local fishermen and foreign investors (primarily Spanish). Owners have financed improvements in fishing technology (
In the SRFC region, Diop and Dossa (2011) report the importance of one or both
While the shark fin industry has been the major driver for elasmobranch declines in the SRFC countries, it is not the sole driver of overutilization of
As a result of the decades of sustained and widespread targeting of guitarfishes and other elasmobranchs in the SRFC region, combined with the increasing overall fishing effort, there has been an overall decrease in catch, with some species, such as sawfishes, lemon sharks and the African wedgefish, almost completely disappearing (Diop & Dossa 2011), and some species, including guitarfishes, becoming scarce (Diop & Dossa 2011; M. Ducrocq, Parcs Gabon, pers. comm. to J. Shultz, NMFS, 21 June, 2016; Ducrocq & Diop 2006). Based on survey and fisher interview data collected by the IUCN Guinea-Bissau Programme and the National Centro de Investigacao Pesqueira Applicada, both guitarfishes were the main targets of specialized fishing teams in Guinea-Bissau, and landings had declined substantially as of the late 1990s (Fowler & Cavanagh 2005; Tous
While Diop and Dossa (2011) characterized one or both species as being important, or landed in high numbers, in fisheries in Senegal, Mauritania, and Guinea-Bissau, the authors did not state a time period for these characterizations. As just discussed, significant declines in the overall abundance of guitarfishes have been reported in all of these countries (Diop & Dossa 2011; M. Ducrocq, Parcs Gabon, pers. comm. to J. Shultz, NMFS, 21 June, 2016; Fowler & Cavanagh 2005; Notarbartolo di Sciara
In Morocco, both species are likely rare; they are not targeted, but at least
In Gabon, both species are present in coastal waters, and are targeted by artisanal fishers using specialized gear for their meat and to supply the black market fin trade, which is connected to the West African fin trade. Both species are also targeted by recreational fishers (G. De Bruyne, Wildlife Conservation Society, Mayumba, pers. comm. to B. Newell, NMFS, 26 June, 2016). In the area of the village of Mayumba in southwest Gabon,
In contrast with the relatively recent and rapid exploitation of guitarfishes in the African Atlantic, primarily driven by the demand for shark fins, finning is not widely practiced in the Mediterranean (Hareide
General Fisheries Commission for the Mediterranean (GFCM) recommendation GFCM/36/2012/3, which is associated with the SPA/BD Protocol (see
Regardless of the efficacy of the SPA/BD Protocol prohibitions, the historical fishing pressure on
Between 1970 and 1985, reported Mediterranean and Black Sea chondrichthyan landings (which includes both guitarfishes) grew from 10,000 t to 25,000 t, and then declined to about 7,000 t annually in 2008 despite growing fishing effort (Bradai
The primary Mediterranean area where
Targeted fishing for guitarfishes in Tunisia likely began in the 1970s to mid-1980s (Capapé
In recent years, Gulf of Gabès fishermen who had targeted grouper using demersal longlines have shifted to targeting elasmobranchs as grouper abundance has declined, although in this fishery elasmobranchs were still reported as bycatch (Echwikhi
Just east of the Tunisian border, there are artisanal gillnet and longline elasmobranch fisheries based in Tarwah, Libya, that, as of 2000, primarily targeted sharks of the family
Along the eastern Mediterranean, guitarfishes are illegally targeted in Lebanon by artisanal fishers. From December 2012 to October 2014,
Throughout their entire Mediterranean ranges,
In Egypt, Mediterranean fisheries landings have generally been growing since the 1970s, as fishing technology has advanced and fishing effort has increased. There have been periods where landings dropped despite continued increases in fishing efforts (FAO 2016c; Samy-Kamal 2015). As a result there has been an increase in the landings of and demand for cartilaginous fishes bycatch, with guitarfishes (not reported at the species level) composing the majority of these landings, primarily as bycatch from shrimp trawls. Prior to 2005, shark and ray bycatch were usually discarded. From 2005 to 2006, landings of cartilaginous fishes jumped from around 500 tons to over 3,000 tons. Over the last 10 years, this production has remained high, although recently it decreased from over 3,000 tons annually in 2010 and 2011, to 1,843 tons in 2014 in spite of sustained fishing effort (A. Marbourk, NOS, pers. comm. to B. Newell, NMFS, 21 July, 2016). Most of the landings in Egypt occur in the Nile Delta region, which is highly suitable for trawling and includes Alexandria, where
In the waters of Cyprus, there was a large increase in coastal trawl fishing effort in the late 1980s. From 1985 to 1990, there was a spike in elasmobranch capture, primarily of dogfish, skates, and rays, followed by a sharp decline in capture after 1990. In response to a government fishing permit buy-back program, trawling effort has reduced substantially since the early 2000s (Hadjichristophorou 2006). In Israel, reported landings are low, approximately at the levels reported for Syria and Lebanon, and have been decreasing for decades (FAO 2016c), although Edelist (2014) considered the soft-bottomed habitat off Israel to be under intensive fishing pressure. Guitarfish are caught as bycatch by local fishermen, but there is little market for elasmobranch products because they are not kosher, thus their consumption is forbidden by Jewish law. Elasmobranch species are primarily caught as bycatch by local fishermen using trawls and bottom long-lines, and also purse seines and trammel nets (Golani 2006).
The magnitude of the threat to
There are some regional and national regulatory mechanisms that impact the conservation status of these species. In 2009, both species were listed on SPA/BD Protocol Annex III: List of Species Whose Exploitation is Regulated, which was adopted under the Barcelona Convention in 1995 (Bradai
In the Mediterranean, the efficacy of these and other protections is unclear, but it appears that countries have historically been slow to adopt and enforce the SPA/BD Protocol protections (Serena 2005). Italy, Greece, and Lebanon have promulgated regulations in accordance with the SPA/BD Protocol to protect species listed in Annex II (Bradai
In Egypt, which is also an important part of the range of at least
In the Atlantic African countries, as in the Mediterranean, artisanal fishing makes up a huge, growing proportion of the fishing activity. Until recently, this fishing sector has lacked species-specific data and strong management or regulations (De Bruyne 2015; Diop & Dossa 2011; Nunoo & Asiedu 2013). Along the Atlantic coast of Africa, all of the SRFC countries have passed regulations that offer some protection to either or both species. Cape Verde, Guinea, Gambia, and Sierra Leone have all banned finning. Mauritania has banned all elasmobranch fishing (except
In Gabon, a national marine planning effort called “Gabon Bleu,” which was established in 2012, seeks to improve management of marine resources across different stakeholder groups, including artisanal and industrial fishing. The country's 2005 Fisheries Code had established regulations that were not being followed, with reported non-compliance including the disconnection of vessel monitoring systems and the use of illegal monofilament nets by artisanal fishers. In 2012, under Gabon Bleu, all fishing activity was suspended, and all fishers who wished to resume work were required to sign an agreement that clearly defined the regulations and required their participation in fisheries research. Several arrests were made as a result of a crackdown on IUU fishing that included increased surveillance (De Bruyne 2015). Additionally, both species are considered “sensitive species” and cannot be targeted by fishers. Unfortunately, these regulations have not eliminated the black market for fins, so guitarfishes are still being targeted by artisanal fishers and illegally finned by demersal trawl fishers (G. De Bruyne, Wildlife Conservation Society, Mayumba, pers. comm. to B. Newell, NMFS, 28 June, 2016). In Mayumba National Park, only artisanal fishers have been allowed to operate, and sharks are no longer targeted (De Bruyne 2015). Recent efforts to improve monitoring of artisanal catches have also been made in Ghana (Nunoo & Asiedu 2013). Republic of the Congo, which shares Gabon's southern border, banned all shark fishing along its entire coastline in 2001 (Marine Conservation Institute 2016), although we found no information on the enforcement of this ban.
IUU fishing by foreign fleets is also a major challenge for sustainable fisheries management in Africa. The west coast of Africa has experienced some of the highest amounts of IUU fishing in the world for decades (Agnew
We found no regulatory information for Morocco, Liberia, Cote d'Ivoire, Togo, Benin, Nigeria, Cameroon, Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Angola. Overall, we found little information on the effectiveness of the current regulations in countries along the west coast of Africa and the Mediterranean, so it is difficult to assess how these regulations are impacting the extinction risk of both species. However, we do know that in the African Atlantic there has been rapid growth of unregulated or underregulated exploitation of both species. In addition, throughout both species' ranges IUU fishing is still prevalent, and there is an abundance of coastal, artisanal fishers, who can be difficult to regulate because of the novelty of efforts to regulate and manage fishers that have long been undermanaged or not regulated at all. Because of these factors, as well as the high catchability and low reproductive potential of these species, we conclude that the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms is likely contributing significantly to the extinction risk of both
Although there is no quantitative analysis of either species' abundance over time, and data for many demographic characteristics of
The common guitarfish faces demographic risks that significantly increase its risk of extinction in the foreseeable future. Although there is no species-specific quantitative analysis of
The limited productivity data on
In conclusion, although there is significant uncertainty regarding the current abundance of this species, the best available information indicates that the species has suffered substantial declines in many portions of its range where it was once common. Throughout almost all of this species' range, the threat of overutilization from industrial and artisanal fishing continues. Given the past evidence of fishery-driven extirpation in areas where this species was once common, and the still-practiced targeting of mature, breeding individuals, which has likely reduced the reproductive potential of these species, we find that continued fishing pressure poses a significant risk of endangering this species with extinction in the foreseeable future. Additionally, the regulations and conservation measures in place are likely inadequate to reverse the decline of this species. In summary, based on the best available information and the above analysis, we conclude that
The blackchin guitarfish faces demographic risks that significantly increase its risk of extinction in the foreseeable future. Although there is no species-specific quantitative analysis of
The limited productivity data on
In conclusion, although there is significant uncertainty regarding the current abundance of this species, the best available information indicates that the species has suffered substantial declines in many portions of its range where it was once common. Throughout almost all of this species' range, the threat of overutilization from industrial and artisanal fishing continues. Given the past evidence of fishery driven extirpation in areas where this species was once common, and the still-practiced targeting of mature, breeding individuals, which has likely reduced the reproductive potential of this species, we find that continued fishing pressure poses a significant risk of endangering this species with extinction in the foreseeable future. Additionally, the regulations and conservation measures in place are likely inadequate to reverse the decline of this species. In summary, based on the best available information and the above analysis, we conclude that
Throughout the ranges of
All SRFC countries except Gambia have adopted, or integrated into their fisheries management plans, a National Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) as part of the Sub-Regional Plan of Action for the Conservation of Sharks (SRPOA-Sharks) (Diop & Dossa 2011). With assistance from the International Union for the Conservation of Nature's Shark Specialist Group (IUCNSSG), these plans were developed under the recommendations of the FAO International Plan of Action for the Conservation and Management of Sharks (IPOA-SHARKS). IPOA-SHARKS seeks to ensure conservation and sustainable management of sharks with emphasis on quality data collection for management purposes (IUCNSSG 2016). In the SRFC, these plans are still in the early stage of implementation, and it remains to be seen how effective they will be in
The GFMC is one of the only FAO Regional Fisheries Management Organizations (RMFOs) with the competence to adopt spatial management measures in the high seas. However, many of these protections have focused on the deep sea (FAO 2016e), offering little conservation value to either species. In the early 2000s, Cyprus initiated a fishing license buy-back program, which likely reduced trawl impact on these species (Hadjichristophorou 2006), although we found little information on either species' status in Cyprian waters, so we cannot evaluate the conservation benefit of this action.
The Regional Activity Centre for Specially Protected Areas (RAC/SPA) and the Network of Marine Protection Area Managers in the Mediterranean (MedPAN) have been working with a diverse network of partners to establish a network of well-connected, well-managed MPAs that protect at least 10 percent of the Mediterranean Sea while representing the sea's biodiversity (Gabrié
There are also MPAs on the West Coast of Africa that might impact or have already impacted the status of these two guitarfish species. In the Banc d'Arguin National Park in Mauritania, the use of specialized gear such as guitarfish nets as well as the targeting of shark and ray species has been prohibited since 2003 (Diop & Dossa 2011). This allowed the local guitarfish populations to recover, but both species are still targeted outside of the park (M. Ducrocq, Parcs Gabon, pers. comm. to J. Shultz, NMFS, 21 June, 2016). Guinea-Bissau has banned shark fishing in all of its MPAs, including the Bijagos Archipelago, which includes important areas for both species (Cross 2015; Diop & Dossa 2011). Mayumba National Park in Gabon, where at least
There is significant uncertainty regarding the status of the current populations of both
Conservation measures provided for species listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA include recovery plans (16 U.S.C. 1533(f)); concurrent designation of critical habitat, if prudent and determinable (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(3)(A)) and consistent with implementing regulations; Federal agency requirements to consult with NMFS under section 7 of the ESA to ensure their actions do not jeopardize the species or result in adverse modification or destruction of critical habitat should it be designated (16 U.S.C. 1536); and, for endangered species, prohibitions on taking (16 U.S.C. 1538). Recognition of the species' plight through listing promotes conservation actions by Federal and state agencies, foreign entities, private groups, and individuals.
Section 7(a)(2) (16 U.S.C. 1536(a)(2)) of the ESA and NMFS/USFWS regulations require Federal agencies to consult with us to ensure that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of listed species or destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Section 7(a)(4) (16 U.S.C. 1536(a)(4)) of the ESA and NMFS/USFWS regulations also require Federal agencies to confer with us on actions likely to jeopardize the continued existence of species proposed for listing, or that result in the destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitat of those species. It is unlikely that the listing of these species under the ESA will increase the number of section 7 consultations, because these species occur outside of the United States and are unlikely to be affected by Federal actions.
Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1532(5)) as: (1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by a species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the ESA, on which are found those physical or biological features (a) essential to the conservation of the species and (b) that may require special management considerations or protection; and (2) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by a species at the time it is listed upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the
The best available scientific and commercial data as discussed above identify the geographical areas occupied by
On July 1, 1994, NMFS and FWS published a policy (59 FR 34272) that requires NMFS to identify, to the maximum extent practicable at the time a species is listed, those activities that would or would not constitute a violation of section 9 of the ESA. Because we are proposing to list the
We are proposing to list
To ensure that any final action resulting from this proposed rule to list the
(1) Information concerning the threats to the
(2) Taxonomic information on the species;
(3) Biological information (life history, genetics, population connectivity, etc.) on the species;
(4) Efforts being made to protect the species throughout their current ranges;
(5) Information on the commercial trade of the species;
(6) Historical and current distribution and abundance and trends for the species; and
(7) Any of the above information on either or both species from the following countries, from which we have very little information: Morocco, Liberia, Cote d'Ivoire, Ghana, Togo, Benin, Nigeria, Cameroon, Equatorial Guinea, São Tomé and Príncipe, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Angola, Algeria, and Syria.
We request that all information be accompanied by: (1) Supporting documentation, such as maps, bibliographic references, or reprints of pertinent publications; and (2) the submitter's name, address, and any association, institution, or business that the person represents.
In December 2004, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued a Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review establishing a minimum peer review standard. We solicited peer review comments on the draft common guitarfish and blackchin guitarfish status review report (Newell (2016)) from three scientists familiar with both guitarfish species. We received and reviewed these peer review comments, and incorporated them into both the draft status review report for the common guitarfish and blackchin guitarfish and this proposed rule. Peer reviewer comments on the draft status review are summarized in the peer review report, which is available at:
A complete list of references used in this proposed rule is available upon request (see
The 1982 amendments to the ESA, in section 4(b)(1)(A), restrict the information that may be considered when assessing species for listing. Based on this limitation of criteria for a listing decision and the opinion in
As noted in the Conference Report on the 1982 amendments to the ESA, economic impacts cannot be considered when assessing the status of a species. Therefore, the economic analysis requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act are not applicable to the listing process. In addition, this proposed rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866. This proposed rule does not contain a collection-of-information requirement for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
In accordance with E.O. 13132, we determined that this proposed rule does not have significant federalism effects and that a federalism assessment is not required. In keeping with the intent of the Administration and Congress to provide continuing and meaningful dialogue on issues of mutual state and Federal interest, this proposed rule will be given to the relevant governmental agencies in the countries in which the species occurs, and they will be invited to comment. We will confer with the U.S. Department of State to ensure appropriate notice is given to all foreign nations within the ranges of both species. As the process continues, we
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Transportation.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we propose to amend 50 CFR part 223 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1531-1543; subpart B, § 223.201-202 also issued under 16 U.S.C. 1361
(e) * * *
National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.
Proposed rule; request for comments.
We, NMFS, propose to list the Maui's dolphin (
Comments on this proposed rule must be received by November 18, 2016. Public hearing requests must be made by November 3, 2016.
You may submit comments on this document, identified by NOAA-NMFS-2016-0118, by either of the following methods:
•
•
You can find the petition, status review report,
Lisa Manning, NMFS, Office of Protected Resources,
On July 15, 2013, we received a petition from WildEarth Guardians to list 81 marine species or populations as endangered or threatened species under the ESA. We determined that the petition had sufficient merit for further consideration, and status reviews were initiated for 27 of the 81 species or populations, including the Hector's dolphin (
We are responsible for determining whether species are threatened or endangered under the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Section 3 of the ESA defines an endangered species as “any species which is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range” and a threatened species as one “which is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range.” We interpret an “endangered species” to be one that is presently in danger of extinction. A “threatened species,” on the other hand, is not presently in danger of extinction, but is likely to become so in the foreseeable future (that is, at a later time). In other words, the primary statutory difference between a threatened species and endangered species is the timing of when a species may be in danger of extinction, either presently (endangered) or in the foreseeable future (threatened).
When we consider whether a species might qualify as threatened under the ESA, we must consider the meaning of the term “foreseeable future.” It is appropriate to interpret “foreseeable future” as the horizon over which predictions about the conservation status of the species can be reasonably relied upon. The foreseeable future considers the life history of the species, habitat characteristics, availability of data, particular threats, ability to predict threats, and the reliability to forecast the effects of these threats and future events on the status of the species under consideration. Because a species may be susceptible to a variety of threats for which different data are available regarding the species' response to that threat, or which operate across different time scales, the foreseeable future is not necessarily reducible to a particular number of years.
Section 4(a)(1) of the ESA requires us to determine whether any species is endangered or threatened due to any one or a combination of the following five threat factors: The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; disease or predation; the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. We are also required to make listing determinations based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available, after conducting a review of the species' status and after taking into account efforts being made by any state or foreign nation to protect the species.
In assessing the extinction risk of these two subspecies, we considered demographic risk factors, such as those developed by McElhany et al. (2000), to organize and evaluate the forms of risks. The approach of considering demographic risk factors to help frame the consideration of extinction risk has been used in many of our previous status reviews (see
Scientific conclusions about the overall risk of extinction faced by Maui's dolphin and the SI Hector's dolphin under present conditions and in the foreseeable future are based on our evaluation of the subspecies' demographic risks and section 4(a)(1) threat factors. Our assessment of overall extinction risk considered the likelihood and contribution of each particular factor, synergies among contributing factors, and the cumulative impact of all demographic risks and threats on each subspecies.
Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the ESA requires the Secretary, when making a listing determination for a species, to take into consideration those efforts, if any, being made by any State or foreign nation, or any political subdivision of a State or foreign nation, to protect the species. Therefore, prior to making a listing determination, we also assess such protective efforts to determine if they are adequate to mitigate the existing threats.
Status reviews for Maui's dolphin and the SI Hector's dolphin were completed by NMFS staff from the Office of Protected Resources. To complete the status reviews, we compiled the best available data and information on the subspecies' biology, ecology, life history, threats, and conservation status by examining the petition and cited references, and by conducting a comprehensive literature search and review. We also considered information submitted to us in response to our petition finding. A single draft status review report was prepared for the two subspecies and submitted to three independent peer reviewers; comments and information received from peer reviewers were addressed and incorporated as appropriate into the draft report. The draft status review
The Hector's dolphin is one of the world's smallest dolphins and occurs only in the coastal waters of New Zealand. Hector's dolphins have short and stocky bodies, no external beak, and a relatively large fluke. They are easily distinguished by their distinctive black, white, and gray color patterns and their rounded dorsal fin, which has a shallowly sloping anterior edge and a convex posterior edge, and is unique to the genus (Dawson 2009). Lifespan is thought to be about 20 years (Slooten 1991, Secchi et al. 2004b), and several dolphins have been aged to a minimum of 22 years based on photo-identification data (Rayment et al. 2009a, Webster et al. 2009). Hector's dolphins have a varied diet that includes cephalopods, crustaceans, and small fish species; however, relatively few prey species appear to comprise the bulk of their diet. Stomach content analysis indicates that common prey species include red cod (
Females typically have their first calf at 7-9 years of age, and males likely reach sexual maturity at 6-9 years of age (Slooten 1991, Gormley 2009). Calving occurs in the austral spring and early summer, generally from November to February (Slooten and Dawson 1988, Slooten and Dawson 1994). Calves remain with their mothers for 1 to 2 years, although 2 years appears to be more common (Slooten and Dawson 1994). Females typically produce single calves every 2 to 4 years (Slooten and Dawson 1994), which gives a yearly birth rate between 0.33 and 0.5. Fecundity (
Hector's dolphins make few audible sounds, and their repertoire consists mainly of high frequency (112-130k Hz) clicks of either one or two short pulses (
Available data indicates that Hector's dolphins have small home ranges and high site fidelity (Bedjer and Dawson 2001, Bräger et al. 2002, Rayment et al. 2009a, Oremus et al. 2012). Based on multiple analyses of photo-identification data and genetic recapture data, the along-shore home range appears to be similar for both subspecies and is typically less than 50 km (Bräger et al. 2002, Rayment et al. 2009a, Oremus et al. 2012). Home ranges also do not appear to differ between males and females (Bräger et al. 2002, Rayment et al. 2009a).
Historically, Hector's dolphins are thought to have been present along almost the entire coastlines of both the North and South Islands of New Zealand (Cawthorn 1988, Russell 1999, Pichler 2002, MFish and DOC 2007a). The two subspecies probably became initially separated by the opening of Cook Strait during the late Pleistocene and Holocene interglacial periods, and this isolation was likely maintained through behavioral mechanisms such as natal philopatry and small home ranges (Pichler 2002, Baker et al., 2002, Dawson 2009). Currently, Maui's dolphins occur along the northwest coast of the North Island, between Maunganui Bluff in the north and Whanganui in the south (Currey et al. 2012). Occasional sightings and strandings have also been reported from areas farther south along the west coast as well as in areas such as Hawke Bay on the east coast of the North Island (Baker 1978, Russell 1999, Ferreira and Roberts 2003, Slooten et al. 2005, MFish and DOC 2007a, Du Fresne 2010). The SI Hector's dolphin currently has a fragmented distribution around the South Island (Dawson et al. 2004, Rayment et al. 2011b) and consists of at least three genetically distinct, regional populations (Pichler 2001, Pichler 2002, Hamner et al. 2012a). SI Hector's dolphins are most abundant around Banks Peninsula, Cloudy Bay, and Cliffords Bay on the east coast and along the central west coast. Distinct and localized populations also occur on the south coast in Te Waewae Bay, Toetoe Bay, and Porpoise Bay (Dawson and Slooten 1988b, Clement et al. 2011, Hamner et al. 2012a, Rodda 2014, Mackenzie and Clement 2014). The connectivity between these regional populations, especially the south coast populations, appears to be limited (Bejder and Dawson 2001, Hamner et al. 2012a). Hector's dolphins do not appear to occur offshore of or within the deep water fiords of Fiordland, although they have been sighted there on rare occasions (Dawson and Slooten 1988b, MFish and DOC 2007a).
Hector's dolphins are typically sighted within about 20 nautical miles (nmi; 37.0 km) of the shore and in water less than 100 m deep (Slooten et al. 2005, Mackenzie and Clement 2014, Rayment et al. 2011b, Mackenzie and Clement 2016). For the North Island, an extensive review by Du Fresne (2010) of both published scientific surveys and unpublished opportunistic sightings data indicates that Maui's dolphins are most frequently found within 4 nmi (7.4 km) of the coast but do occasionally occur at least as far as 7 nmi (13.0 km) offshore. Off the South Island, differences in distribution patterns have been observed for the west and east coasts that may be driven in part by differences in bathymetry or location of the shelf break. On the west coast, the 100 m isobath is always within 13 nmi (24.1 km) of the coast, and in some places as close as 5 nmi (9.3 km); whereas, off Banks Peninsula on the east coast, the 100 m isobath is 16 to 30 nmi (29.6 to 55.6 km) offshore (Rayment et al. 2011b). SI Hector's dolphins are typically within 8 nmi (14.8 km) from shore on the east coast of the South Island and within 3 nmi (5.6 km) from shore on the west coast (Rayment et al. 2010b, 2011b, Mackenzie and Clement 2013, Mackenzie and Clement 2016). However, SI Hector's dolphins have been sighted at least occasionally as far as about 20 nmi (37.0 km) from shore on both coasts (Rayment et al. 2010b, 2011b, MacKenzie and Clement 2016).
Seasonal changes in this nearshore distribution are evident for at least some populations of Hector's dolphins, with distributions often extending farther from shore in the winter relative to the warmer months. For example, based on aerial surveys that extended as far as 20 nmi offshore (37.0 km) of Banks Peninsula and were conducted over 3 years (2002, 2004, and 2005), Rayment et al. (2010b) found that winter sightings extended as far as 18.2 nmi (33.6 km) offshore, compared to 16.3 nmi (30.2 km) in summer; and, while only 7 percent of all dolphins were sighted beyond the 50 m isobath in summer, 44 percent of all dolphins were sighted beyond the 50 m isobath in winter. Slooten et al. (2005) report a similar change in distribution for Maui's dolphins between summer and winter aerial surveys conducted in 2004/2005. Similar seasonal changes in SI Hector's dolphin distribution relative to shore and water depth have also been detected in comparisons of summer and winter sightings data for the west coast of the South Island; however, the observed
Available information regarding historical, current, and potential threats to Maui's dolphins was thoroughly reviewed and is discussed in detail in the status review report (Manning and Grantz 2016). We summarize information regarding these threats below according to the factors specified in section 4(a)(1) of the ESA.
In August 2007, the New Zealand Department of Conservation (DOC) and the Ministry for Primary Industries (MPI, formerly called the Ministry of Fisheries or MFish) released a draft Threat Management Plan (TMP) for Hector's dolphins. This plan describes the nature and level of actual and potential threats to Maui's dolphins, as well as strategies to address those threats. In addition, in June 2012, DOC and MPI convened a risk assessment workshop to inform their review of the Maui's dolphin portion of the TMP. The results of this semi-quantitative risk assessment are available in the report by Currey et al. (2012). The report identifies, evaluates, and rates threats to Maui's dolphins based on scoring by an expert panel. Both the TMP and the risk assessment report greatly informed our assessment, as summarized below.
Threats to the habitat of Maui's dolphins include pollution, mining, oil and gas development activities, acoustic disturbance (Currey et al. 2012).
Persistent chemical pollutants are a concern for many cetacean species, which theoretically can accumulate high concentrations of contaminants due to their longevity, high trophic-level, and naturally high blubber content (Stockin et al. 2010). Contaminants are also specifically a concern for Hector's dolphins due to the dolphins' coastal distribution and thus close proximity to agricultural and industrial activities. Toxicological studies of contaminants, such as polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) and organochlorine (OC) pesticides, are limited for Maui's dolphins, and studies on emerging contaminants, such as brominated flame retardant (PBDEs) and perfluorinated chemicals, have yet to be done. Numerous studies on other cetacean species have linked contaminants, such as heavy metals, PCBs, and OC pesticides, with biological impacts, including endocrine disruption, reproductive impairment, immune suppression, and elevated infectious disease (
Pollution in the form of plastic marine debris from both marine and land-based sources can accumulate in, and degrade, Maui's dolphins' habitat. Plastics and other synthetic, non-biodegradable materials in the marine environment create the potential for entanglement, injury, and ingestion. Although data are lacking to evaluate whether and the extent to which this threat is impacting Maui's dolphins, Currey et al. (2012) did identify plastics as being likely to affect population trends over the next 5 years. Plastic bags have been identified as a concern in particular, because they may be mistaken for squid, a common prey item for Maui's dolphins.
Interest in marine minerals mining along the North Island of New Zealand has been growing in recent years, with prospecting and exploration occurring mainly from Manukua Harbor south to New Plymouth (Thompson 2012). Exploration activities have mainly targeted iron sands or titanomagnetite (Thompson 2012). According to New Zealand Petroleum and Minerals (NZPM), which is the government agency responsible for issuing mining permits for New Zealand's oil, gas and mineral resources, demand and exploration for petroleum (oil and gas) is also increasing, and multiple areas within the range of Maui's dolphins are covered under existing prospecting, exploration, and mining permits. Mineral mining activities involving the large scale removal of sediment from the seabed are likely to lead to relatively long term (3-10 year) changes to benthic community composition, thereby altering prey availability and benthic topography (Thompson 2012). Other potential, unintended side-effects include the mobilization and accidental spilling of contaminants and exposure to greater levels of vessel traffic (Thompson 2012). Acoustic disturbance, such as from seismic surveys, sonar, and drilling activities, also poses a potential threat to Maui's dolphins, because it may have negative physical or physiological effects, such as shifts in hearing thresholds, and may disrupt normal behaviors, including navigating, migrating, and feeding (Gordon et al. 2003; Thompson 2012).
The extent to which Maui's dolphins are currently being impacted by these and other habitat-related threats is assumed to be small. These threats have been characterized as having mainly sub-lethal effects, and combined, may currently be responsible for less than 4.5 percent of all Maui's dolphin mortalities (Currey et al. 2012). However, it is probable that Maui's dolphin habitat will become increasingly degraded as a result of pollution and acoustic and benthic disturbances due to increasing human pressure and demand for mineral and petroleum resources (MFish and DOC 2007b).
Overutilization of Maui's dolphins for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes does not appear to pose a significant threat to Maui's dolphin. Maui's dolphins have not been exploited commercially; although, Baker (1978, citing Abel et al. 1971) noted that, between 1969 and 1972, a few Hector's dolphins were taken for live exhibition at Marineland of New Zealand. It's not clear which subspecies was taken. Hector's dolphins have also apparently been taken for food, oil, and bait; however, the extent to which this occurred is unknown (Pichler et al. 2003).
There is some evidence that commercial dolphin-watching vessels and swim-with-dolphin operations cause behavioral changes in Hector's dolphins (Bejder et al. 1999, Constantine 1999, Martinez et al. 2012). Such tourism activities, however, seem to occur at a relatively low intensity within the range of Maui's dolphins and instead are much more concentrated elsewhere—mainly the Bay of Islands and the Bay of Plenty on the east coast of the North Island and various locations of the South Island (Martinez 2010b). Although tourism and the potential related impacts of boat strike, noise, and displacement were identified as threats in the risk assessment completed by Currey et al. (2012), the expert panel did not think these threats were likely to affect population trends within the next 5 years.
Predation of Hector's dolphins by several shark species, such as seven-gill sharks (
Disease is another known source of mortality for Hector's dolphins. In their evaluation, Currey et al. (2012) categorized natural disease, stress-induced disease, and domestic animal vectors as posing threats that are likely to have population level effects on Maui's dolphins within the next 5 years. Prevalence of infectious disease and associated behavioral impacts and mortality rates have not been well studied in Hector's dolphins, so the significance of this source of mortality remains unclear. Recently, Roe et al. (2013) found that 7 of 28 Hector's dolphins (25 percent), including 2 of 3 Maui's dolphins, collected between 2007 and 2011 and later necropsied had died as a result of
A number of regulatory measures have been put in place to address bycatch of Maui's dolphins. Although data on bycatch of Maui's dolphins are limited, fishery-related mortality has been identified as posing a significant threat to Maui's dolphins. The risk assessment completed by Currey et al. (2012) attributed 95.5 percent of the estimated human-caused mortalities forecasted to occur over the next 5 years to legal and illegal fishing-related activities. This translated into an estimated median of 4.97 Maui's dolphin mortalities per year due to fishing activities (95 percent confidence interval (CI) = 0.28—8.04). To help inform the risk assessment of Currey et al. (2012), Wade et al. (2012) calculated the Potential Biological Removal (PBR) for Maui's dolphins and estimated it as one dolphin mortality every 10 to 23 years. PBR, which is a management tool specific to the U.S. Marine Mammal Protection Act (MMPA) is used to evaluate allowable levels of human-caused mortality (Wade 1998; Wade et al. 2012). (PBR is defined under section 3 of the MMPA as the maximum number of animals, not including natural mortalities, that may be removed from a marine mammal stock while allowing that stock to reach or maintain its optimum sustainable population (16 U.S.C. 1362).) This analysis indicates that the estimated bycatch mortality of Maui's dolphins greatly exceeds PBR.
The DOC maintains a database of reports from the public of dead and stranded Hector's dolphins, and between 1921 and 2008, 45 percent of the reports for Maui's dolphins (4 of 11 dolphins) for which cause of death could be determined were found to have died due to “possible,” “probable,” or “known” entanglement (
Bycatch of Maui's dolphins occurs mainly in gillnet gear, but bycatch in trawl gear is likely also posing a threat (Bird and Palka 2013). Although commercial gillnetting had been practiced in New Zealand since 1930 (DOC and MFish 1994), fishing effort was low until the mid-1970s (Dawson 1991). By the 1980's, bycatch of dolphins in gillnets became a serious concern in New Zealand (Dawson and Slooten 2005). Eventually, in 2003, MFish began to address bycatch of Maui's dolphins by closing waters to set netting from Maunganui Bluff to Pariokariwa Point out to 4 nmi (7.4 km) and inside the entrance to the Manukau Harbor. Trawling was also prohibited out to 2 nmi (3.7 km) along most of this same stretch of coastline and out to 4 nmi within a short portion of the Maui's dolphin's core range (see Figure 7 in Manning and Grantz 2016). Commercial and recreational gillnetting continued within harbors and in the southern portion of the Maui's dolphin range.
In 2007, when the draft TMP was released, the MPI and DOC concluded that bycatch was still the most serious threat to Hector's dolphins. In 2008, MFish expanded protection for Maui's dolphins by extending the set netting closure out to 7 nmi (13.0 km; instead of 4 nmi (7.4 km)) and farther into Manukau Harbor. Then, in 2012, following an entanglement of a Maui's dolphin off Cape Egmont, an interim ban was put in place from Pariokariwa Point south to Hawera for all set netting out to 2 nmi (
This steady expansion of area-based, bycatch-reduction measures along the west coast of the North Island has resulted in a substantial level of protection for Maui's dolphins. However, bycatch remains a concern for Maui's dolphins, because current fisheries restrictions do not extend throughout their range and certain forms of fishing still occur within the core portion of the subspecies' range. In particular, commercial and non-commercial set netting occur within all west coast harbors, with all areas within the harbors, from intertidal areas to the deeper channels, being fished for species like flounder, mullet, and rig (MFish and DOC 2007b). Sightings data (Slooten et al. 2005) and passive acoustic data (Rayment et al. 2011a) indicate that Maui's dolphins occur at least occasionally within west coast harbors and therefore may be at risk of entanglement in these areas (MFish and DOC 2007b). In addition, the southern extension of the gillnetting prohibitions that was put in place in 2012 only extends out to 2 nmi (3.7 km) from shore, as opposed to the 7 nmi (13 km) boundary elsewhere along the west coast. Beyond 2 nmi, gillnetting is permitted in this portion of the range if an MPI observer is on board. Furthermore, the extension of the closed area in the southern portion of the
Before the protected area extensions in 2012, estimated bycatch was about 4.69 to 13.01 dolphins per year or about 75 times the PBR of 0.044-0.1 Maui's dolphins per year (Currey
A series of regulations have been put in place to address some of the threats associated with mining and petroleum industry activities. The West Coast North Island Marine Mammal Sanctuary (WCNIMMS) was established in 2008 as part of the draft TMP, and restrictions were put in place on seabed mining and acoustic seismic surveys within the sanctuary. In particular, seabed mineral mining was prohibited out to 2 nmi (3.7 km) along the full length of the sanctuary and out to 4 nmi (7.4 km) south of Raglan Harbor to north of Manakau Harbor. However, a large swath of the sanctuary, which extends out 12 nmi (22.2 km) from the coast, remains open to mining. A range of operational requirements has been specified for seismic surveying within the sanctuary (Gazette:
As indicated in the discussion above, there are gaps in the current regulatory protections for Maui's dolphins. Population viability analyses performed under previous management scenarios have predicted continued declines in abundance of Maui's dolphins or failure to recover (Burkhart and Slooten 2003, Slooten 2007a), as do more recent analyses under the current fisheries management regime (Slooten 2013). More recent modelling work also indicates that recovery of this subspecies will occur only under circumstances where human-induced mortality is extremely minimal (Wade et al. 2012; Slooten 2013). Therefore, we conclude that while the protections for Maui's dolphins have gradually increased from 2003 to present, there is insufficient evidence to conclude that current regulatory measures are adequate in terms of addressing threats to this subspecies.
Other threats identified in the 2012 risk assessment and characterized as being likely to affect population trends within the next 5 years include fishing vessel noise, disturbance, and trophic effects of fishing; however, these threats were considered to collectively make very limited contributions to the overall level of human-caused mortality (Currey et al. 2012). Although vessel traffic and its associated impacts of disturbance and boat strikes were considered to contribute little to annual mortality of Maui's dolphins, mortality due to vessel traffic was rated as having a 47.8 percent chance of exceeding PBR (Currey et al. 2012). Due to their coastal distribution and apparent attraction to small boats (Baker 1978, Slooten and Dawson 1988), the potential for boat strikes could be considered relatively high, but reports of boat strikes have been extremely rare (Stone and Yoshinaga 2000a). None of the reports within the DOC Incident Database from July 2008 to April 2016 are listed with boat strike as the cause of death.
Available information regarding historical, current, and potential threats to SI Hector's dolphins was thoroughly reviewed and is discussed in detail in the status review report (Manning and Grantz 2016). We summarize information regarding these threats below according to the factors specified in section 4(a)(1) of the ESA.
As discussed earlier for Maui's dolphins, persistent chemical pollutants are a concern for SI Hector's dolphins, which can theoretically accumulate high concentrations of contaminants due to their longevity, high trophic-level, and naturally high blubber content (Stockin et al. 2010). In cetaceans, biological impacts resulting from accumulation of contaminants such as heavy metals, PCBs, and organochlorine (OC) pesticides include endocrine disruption, reproductive impairment, immune suppression, and elevated infectious disease (
Plastic marine debris is also a concern for SI Hector's dolphins. Plastics and other synthetic, non-biodegradable materials in the marine environment create the potential for entanglement, injury, and ingestion by various marine species. As with other marine mammals, Hector's dolphins may become entangled and subsequently wounded, or have impaired foraging ability, and/or increased susceptibility to predation. Ingestion of plastics by marine species has been associated with a multitude of
Mining occurs along the west coast of the South Island where there are significant nearshore and beach deposits of ilmenite (mined mainly for titanium dioxide). The TMP for Hector's dolphins identified possible impacts of mining activity, including loss or reduction in prey species, noise, and vessel disturbance (MFish and DOC 2007b). Based on a search of the NZPM's map in June 2016 (
Prospecting permits for petroleum cover large areas along the southeastern coast of the South Island (
Overall, it is clear that SI Hector's dolphins are exposed to multiple habitat-related threats. However, the extent to which SI Hector's dolphins are being impacted—both individually and at a population level—by these habitat-related threats is not yet established due to insufficient data (MFish and DOC 2007b). It is possible that SI Hector's dolphin habitat will become increasingly degraded in the future with increasing human use of the coastal zone and its resources (MFish and DOC 2007b).
Hector's dolphins have not been systematically captured for any commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; although, as noted earlier, a few Hector's dolphins have been taken for live exhibition. While Hector's dolphins have also apparently been taken for food, oil, and bait, the extent to which this occurred is not known (Pichler et al. 2003).
There is growing evidence that overutilization in the form of commercial dolphin-watching and swim-with-dolphin operations, which are increasingly popular tourist activities in New Zealand, are a concern for SI Hector's dolphins. The majority of the commercial viewing and encounter operations in New Zealand occur around the South Island and are especially popular along the east coast off Kaikoura and within Akaroa Harbor, which have become major eco-tourist destinations in New Zealand (Martinez 2010b). Within Akaroa Harbor, and as of 2010, there were up to about 18 daily `swim-with' trips and 14 dolphin-watching trips per day between November and March that specifically targeted Hector's dolphins (Martinez 2010b). In addition to permitted commercial operations, opportunistic viewing also occurs by both commercial and recreational boaters.
Dolphin-watching and swim-with-dolphin operations have been shown to cause behavioral changes in Hector's dolphins (Bejder et al. 1999, Constantine 1999, Martinez et al. 2012). In a study of SI Hector's dolphins in Porpoise Bay, Bejder et al. (1999) found that while SI Hector's dolphins were not displaced by dolphin-watching tour boats, the dolphins did respond by approaching the boats, especially initially, and by forming significantly tighter groupings. A possible interpretation of the behavioral response of `bunching' is that the boat is perceived as some kind of threat and may in fact cause the animals some level of stress (Constantine 1999). In Akaroa Harbor, Martinez (2010b) found that both diving—which is considered a feeding behavior—and travelling were significantly disrupted by vessel interactions. Evidence also indicates that the use of sounds to attract Hector's dolphins to swimmers affects the behavior of the dolphins (Martinez et al. 2012). For example, both the number and the duration of close interactions or approaches by Hector's dolphins were significantly greater when a swimmer banged two rocks together underwater (Martinez et al. 2012). Such deliberate efforts to attract Hector's dolphins could have behavioral consequences such as disrupted or reduced foraging time, which in turn can have biological consequences (Martinez et al. 2012). For some regional dolphin populations, a relatively large portion of that population can be exposed to the tourist activities occurring in a particular harbor or area. For example, about 80 percent of the SI Hector's dolphins that were photo-identified in surveys around Banks Peninsula between 1985 and 2006 had alongshore home ranges that included Akaroa Harbor, and for half of these dolphins, Akaroa Harbor served as a core use or “hub” area (Rayment et al. 2009a).
Longer-term impacts of these tourism activities on SI Hector's dolphins are not yet clear but could include physiological stress, reduced energy intake, and possibly even reduced calving success. Linkages between immediate behavioral responses to vessel traffic and longer-term biological consequences have already been established for other species (
As previously mentioned, predation of Hector's dolphins by several shark species, such as broadnose seven-gill sharks (
Prevalence of infectious disease and associated impacts have not yet been well studied in Hector's dolphins, but recent evidence suggests that infectious disease may be a significant source of mortality for SI Hector's dolphins. In particular, Roe et al. (2013) found that out of 22 dolphins collected between 2007 and 2011 for which a definitive cause of death was established, a total of ten (45 percent) had died due to infectious disease (
As with Maui's dolphins, a number of regulatory measures have been put in place to address bycatch of SI Hector's dolphins. As previously noted, by the 1980's, bycatch of Hector's dolphins in commercial and recreational gillnets was recognized as a serious issue in New Zealand (Dawson and Slooten 2005). In the South Island, a region of particular concern was the Pegasus Bay and Canterbury Bight area along the east coast, where there was a known high degree of overlap between inshore gillnetting and a locally abundant population of SI Hector's dolphins. To begin to quantify the level of bycatch, Dawson (1991b) conducted fisherman interviews during 1984-1988 and found that at least 230 SI Hector's dolphins had died due to entanglement in commercial and recreational gillnets in the Pegasus Bay and Canterbury Bight region during this period. Ages of entangled dolphins that were physically examined (n=43) ranged from younger than 1 year to about 20 years old, but a high proportion (63 percent) were 3 years old or younger, suggesting that younger dolphins are especially vulnerable to entanglement (Dawson 1991b). Overall, this level of bycatch (
Released in 2007, the TMP for Hector's dolphins identified set gillnetting as the greatest source of human-caused mortality of Hector's dolphins but also discussed how SI Hector's dolphins are incidentally captured in other gear types (MFish and DOC 2007b). Between 1921 and when the TMP was released, the DOC Incident Database indicates there had been 19 reports of Hector's dolphin mortalities due to trawls, which corresponds to 9 percent of the reported incidents with a known cause of death. All 19 of these reports occurred off the South Island within 2 nmi (3.7 km) of shore (MFish and DOC 2007b). Entanglement deaths of SI Hector's dolphins have also occurred in pot traps (
In reaction to the growing concern over bycatch of Hector's dolphins, the DOC established the Banks Peninsula Marine Mammal Sanctuary (BPMMS) in 1988. When it was first established, the sanctuary extended from Sumner Head to the Rakaia River and out to 4 nmi (7.4 km), covering an area of about 1,140 sq km. All gillnetting within the sanctuary (with some harbor exceptions) was prohibited from November through February, and additional gear restrictions that applied throughout the remainder of the year essentially resulted in a year-round ban of commercial gillnetting within the sanctuary (Dawson and Slooten 1993). Additional restrictions on recreational gillnetting, such as limiting fishing to daylight hours only and requiring continuous tending of nets, were also enacted to help further reduce bycatch mortality. Based on fisheries observer data, bycatch in gillnets continued to occur to the immediate north and south of the sanctuary at unsustainable levels (Baird and Bradford 2000, Dawson and Slooten 2005), and there was little evidence of improved survival of SI Hector's dolphins within the sanctuary (Cameron et al. 1999). In recognition that further protection of SI Hector's dolphins was needed, the sanctuary boundaries were expanded in 2008 to the north and south and out to 12 nmi (22.2 km) offshore, but no restrictions on fishing activities were applied to the area beyond the original 4 nmi (7.4 km) sanctuary boundary (MFish and DOC 2007b, DOC 2008). The sanctuary currently encompasses about 4,130 sq. km and 389 km of coastline.
In addition to the expansion of BPMMS, a series of fishing restrictions were put in place in 2008 to reduce bycatch of SI Hector's dolphins elsewhere around the South Island. Along the east and south coasts, from Cape Jackson in the Marlborough Sounds to Sandhill Point east of Fiordland, commercial gillnetting was banned out to 4 nmi (7.4 km) from shore, except at Kaikoura, where it was banned out to 1 nmi (1.9 km), and in Te Waewae Bay, where it is banned out to about 9 nmi (16.7 km) from shore (MFish 2008). Recreational gillnetting was allowed to continue in specified harbors and estuaries; and, in the case of flatfishing (
Recently, in 2013, the DOC established the Akaroa Harbor Marine Reserve at the mouth of Akaroa Harbor on Banks Peninsula. This reserve includes about 512 hectares of habitat or about 12 percent of the total harbor area (
Despite the gradual increase in fishing restrictions around the South Island, exposure of SI Hector's dolphins to fishing activity remains fairly high
Evidence of continued bycatch around the South Island is available in the DOC Incident Database (
Evidence from multiple modelling efforts suggests that SI Hector's dolphins will continue to decline due to bycatch under the current management measures. For example, for the most recent assessment of the BPMMS population, which has benefited from almost three decades of protection, Gormley et al. (2012) conducted a mark-recapture analysis of photographically identified dolphins (n=462) from 1986 to 2006 to compare annual survival rates before and after establishment of the sanctuary and associated gillnetting restrictions. Results indicated that between the two time periods, mean survival probability increased by 5.4 percent (from 0.863 to 0.917), which corresponds to a 6 percent increase in population growth. However, the population projections using the post-sanctuary survival rate also corresponded to a mean annual population decrease of 0.5 percent per year, with only 41 percent of the model simulations resulting in a population increase (Gormley et al. 2012). As noted by Gormley et al. (2012), this finding is consistent with other research indicating that the BPMMS is too small to allow recovery of this SI Hector's dolphin population (Rayment et al. 2006, Slooten et al. 2006b, Slooten and Dawson 2008, Rayment et al. 2010b, Slooten and Dawson 2010). A population viability analysis by Slooten and Dawson (2010), which relied on commercial gillnet observer data for a portion of the east coast to estimate bycatch (from Baird and Bradford 2000), projected that the west coast population would continue to decline (by just over 1,000 individuals by 2050), the Banks Peninsula population would continue to decline, and the remainder of the east coast population would slowly increase (by 450 individuals by 2050). In a review of risk assessments for SI Hector's dolphins, Slooten and Davies (2012) found that despite differing modelling approaches and assumptions applied, the risk assessments were highly consistent and were in general agreement that recovery of SI Hector's dolphins is unlikely under the current level of protections.
Overall, based on the available information, the existing measures to address the threat of bycatch of SI Hector's dolphins appear inadequate, and we conclude that bycatch continues to pose a significant risk to this subspecies. The risk of bycatch in commercial and recreational trawl and gillnet fisheries remains high given the known distribution of the dolphins relative to areas closed to fishing, especially on the west and north coasts (Faustino et al. 2013, Slooten 2013). Although bycatch of SI Hector's dolphins has been slowed by the fisheries restrictions implemented in 2008, available risk analyses indicate that population decline is expected to continue (Slooten and Dawson 2010, Gormley et al. 2012, Slooten and Davies 2012). Finally, enforcement of the existing regulations may be insufficient. Illegal fishing has been reported for Banks Peninsula (Slooten and Davies 2012), and illegal fishing is discussed in the TMP (MFish and DOC 2007b). There are insufficient data available to evaluate the level of compliance with existing regulations.
Several management measures have been implemented to address some of the threats associated with mining and petroleum industry activities. For both petroleum and minerals mining activities, a permit is generally required from local authorities under the Resource Management Act 1991 for mining activities within New Zealand's territorial sea (within 12 nmi from the coast). For mining activities beyond the territorial sea, the Environmental Protection Authority (EPA) manages the environmental effects of activity under the Exclusive Economic Zone and Continental Shelf (Environmental Effects) Act 2012 (EEZ Act) and its regulations, which establish which activities require permits and impact assessments. Seismic surveys are permitted under the EEZ Act if they adhere to the Code of Conduct for Minimizing Acoustic Disturbance to Marine Mammals from Seismic Survey Operations (DOC 2013). In 2013, the DOC and MPI updated their seismic survey guidelines and announced a decision to make the code of conduct a mandatory standard. The mandatory code of conduct applies to Territorial waters, the EEZ of New Zealand, and within all marine mammal sanctuaries, and includes requirements for planning, operations, monitoring, and reporting. The 2013 code of conduct is currently undergoing review and may be further augmented to increase protections for Hector's dolphins and other species of concern. Discharge management plans associated with mining activities also must be approved under the Maritime Rules Part 200, Maritime New Zealand prior to drilling.
To help manage non-fishing-related threats to Hector's dolphins, the DOC expanded BPMMS in 2008 and established an additional three marine mammal sanctuaries- the Catlins Coast, Clifford and Cloudy Bay, and Te Waewae Bay Marine Mammal Sanctuaries (MMS). The Catlins Coast MMS lies along the south coast of the South Island (SCSI) between Three Brother's Point and Busy Point and extends 5 nmi to 6.9 nmi offshore. The sanctuary encompasses about 660 sq km of marine habitat and 161 km of coastline. The Clifford and Cloudy Bay MMS, which lies on the northeast coast,
Overall, while there is a clear regulatory process in place for reviewing and permitting mining activities, given the existing information, it is not clear whether existing management measures are adequate to minimize acoustic and other impacts to SI Hector's dolphins such that these activities do not pose a threat to the subspecies.
The dolphin-watching industry in New Zealand is regulated under the Marine Mammals Protection Regulations (MMPR), which were revised in 1992 in response to the growth in marine mammal-based tourism (Constantine (1999), citing Donoghue 1996). Among other provisions, these regulations govern the issuance of permits to commercial operators and, as discussed above, the behavior of vessels around dolphins. As a permit issuance criterion, commercial tour operators are required to ensure that their activities have “no significant adverse effect” on their targeted population (MMPR, 1992; Appendix 1.4). Given the high level of commercial dolphin watching operations in some portions of the SI Hector's dolphin's range, the repeat exposure of individual dolphins to vessels and/or `swim-with' activities, and the potential linkage to long-term biological consequences, it is possible that the current level of tourism is having a significant adverse impact on the subspecies. We find that there are insufficient data by which to verify that this permit issuance criterion is being met.
Pursuant to the MMPR, all boaters, both recreational and commercial, must adhere to certain rules when operating around marine mammals. For example, no more than 3 vessels and/or aircraft are allowed within 300 m of any marine mammal at the same time; speeds must be kept to `no wake' speeds when within 300 m of any marine mammal; swimmers are prohibited from swimming with dolphin pods with very young calves; and boats are prohibited from circling, obstructing, or cutting through any group (MMPR 1992, part 3). Compliance monitoring is limited and sufficient quantitative data are not available to assess compliance by commercial and recreational boaters with these regulations (MFish and DOC 2007b). Thus, it is difficult to determine whether these regulations, and the associated education and enforcement, adequately address boat-related disturbance and boat strikes, which are discussed further in the section below.
Other potential threats to SI Hector's dolphins include vessel noise, trophic effects of fishing, and climate change; however, there are no data available to assess how or whether these factors are contributing to the overall level of human-caused mortality or population trends. Boat strikes, however, are a documented source of mortality for Hector's dolphins, and the TMP identifies vessel traffic as a threat that can result in disturbance and mortality (MFish and DOC 2007b). Vessel traffic has increased around the South Island, especially in areas more densely populated by people, and reports of cetaceans with propeller scars have increased (Martinez 2010b). Stone and Yoshinaga (2000) reported the death of two calves on consecutive days in Akaroa Harbor. In 1999, two calves, both estimated to be younger than 4 weeks old, were recovered on successive days from Akaroa Harbor, and autopsy results confirmed that one calf was killed by collision with a boat and the other calf by a propeller strike (Stone and Yoshinaga 2000). Stone and Yoshinaga (2000) suggest that mother and calf pairs may be less capable of evading boats if they are approached. Although the specific cause of death was unknown, the TMP also states that there were an additional nine cases from around the South Island in which cause of death was some form of trauma (MFish and DOC 2007b). Overall, data are too limited to assess the rate of boat strikes, but existing information clearly indicates that boat strikes are contributing to the total level of human-caused mortality.
In our status review, data and information about demographic risks to Maui's dolphins were considered according to four categories—abundance and trends, population growth/productivity, spatial structure/connectivity, and genetic diversity. Each of these demographic threat categories was then rated according to the following qualitative scale:
In the sections below, we present information from Manning and Grantz (2016) to summarize the demographic risks facing Maui's dolphins.
Based on line-transect aerial surveys conducted in January 2004, Slooten et al. 2006a estimated a total population size of 111 Maui's dolphins (95 percent CI = 48-252). A more recent abundance estimate, derived through genetic mark-recapture analysis of samples collected in 2010 and 2011, is 55 dolphins over 1 year of age (95 percent CI: 48−69, Hamner et al. 2012b). This estimate is based on a genetic mark-recapture analysis using 37 biopsy samples collected in 2010 and 36 biopsy samples collected in 2011, which were genotyped across 20 variable microsatellite loci and analyzed in a closed-sample model (Lincoln-Peterson estimator with Chapman correction, Chapman 1951; Hamner et al. 2012b). Both of these estimates indicate that the abundance of Maui's dolphins is critically low.
Small populations can face higher risks of extinction from a range of factors, including stochastic demographic processes, genetic effects, and environmental catastrophes; and various theoretical abundance
Although historical abundance estimates are not available, Slooten (2007a) estimated population abundances for 1970 by back-calculating, using a population estimate of 117 dolphins (CV= 0.44) and estimates of fishing effort and rate of dolphin bycatch. Results suggest that the abundance of Maui's dolphins in 1970 was about 1,729 dolphins (CV= 0.51, Slooten 2007, Slooten and Dawson 2010). Martien et al. (1999) also projected numbers back to 1970 using an earlier abundance estimate published by Dawson and Slooten (1988;
Available evidence suggests that abundance of Maui's dolphins will continue to decline. For example, an annual rate of decline of 3.0 percent per year (95 percent CI: −11 percent to +6 percent) and an annual survival rate of 84 percent (95 percent CI = 0.75-0.90) was estimated by Hamner et al. (2012b). Although this result was somewhat equivocal given the large confidence interval, a projected decline is supported by the trend analysis conducted by Wade et al. (2012) using six different abundance estimates generated from 1985 to 2011. Wade et al. (2012) calculated a statistically significant declining trend of −3.2 percent per year from 1985 to 2011 (90 percent CI = −5.7 percent to −0.6 percent, p = 0.029).
Given a population abundance of fewer than 100 dolphins over one year of age, evidence of a very large historical decline, and evidence of possible continued decline, this demographic risk category was rated as posing a “very high risk” for the subspecies.
Fecundity (
Maui's dolphins are thought to have once ranged along the entire coast of the North Island (Russell 1999, Dawson et al. 2001b, Baker et al. 2002, Du Fresne 2010). The dolphins now occur only off the west coast of the North Island. While there is no indication of spatial structuring within the subspecies, data do indicate that home ranges of individuals are probably small (
Genetic diversity in Maui's dolphins is currently very low. Pichler (2002) analyzed microsatellite DNA for Maui's dolphins across six loci (n = 4 to 12) and reported an average of 1.5 alleles per locus, three of which were fixed (
Maui's dolphins are reproductively isolated from SI Hector's dolphins, and there has been no recent gene flow between the subspecies (Pichler et al. 2001, Hamner et al. 2012a). Based on analyses of mtDNA, the North Island subspecies has been isolated from the South Island populations for up to 16,000 years (Pichler et al. 2001). Hamner et al. (2012a) noted that some degree of inbreeding is inevitable for such a small, isolated population and also suggested that the significant deviation from a 1:1 sex ratio they observed for stranded Maui's dolphins, due to an excess of females in their sample (41 females of 68 total Maui's dolphins), may be an indication of deleterious inbreeding effects.
Overall, Maui's dolphins have very low genetic diversity, are genetically isolated, and are vulnerable to inbreeding depression and the accumulation of deleterious mutations, which are serious concerns that can hasten the extinction of small populations (Lunch et al. 1995, Frankham 2005, O'Grady et al. 2006). This demographic factor was rated as a “high risk” for Maui's dolphins.
In the sections below, we present information from Manning and Grantz (2016) on the demographic risks facing SI Hector's dolphins. As with Maui's dolphins, demographic risks to SI Hector's dolphins were considered according to the same four categories (abundance and trends, population growth/productivity, spatial structure/connectivity, and genetic diversity) and rated according to the same qualitative scale as defined above.
Various surveys have been completed for portions of the SI Hector's dolphin's range, each producing a separate, regional abundance estimate for the associated portion of the subspecies' range. (See Manning and Grantz (2016) for discussion of older surveys and abundance estimates.) The most recent abundance estimate for the west coast of the South Island (WCSI) is based on aerial surveys conducted by Mackenzie and Clement (2016) in 2014/2015 from Farewell Spit south to Milford Sound. These surveys included substantial effort in waters beyond 4 nmi (7.4 km) from shore and included an “outer” survey zone between 12 nmi and 20 nmi from shore (22.2-37.0 km, MacKenzie and Clement 2016). Based on these surveys, summer and winter abundance estimates of 5,490 dolphins (95% CI = 3,319-9,079) and 5,802 dolphins (95%
Despite the large confidence intervals associated with some of these recent abundance estimates, the data indicate that the total abundance of SI Hector's dolphins is greater than commonly applied theoretical abundances used as indicators of a high risk of extinction—
Populations of SI Hector's dolphins have, however, experienced substantial declines and available information suggests that the subspecies is likely to continue declining (Slooten and Lad 1991, Slooten et al. 1992, Burkhart and Slooten 2003). SI Hector's dolphin populations are estimated to have experienced declines of 20-73 percent since the 1970s following the expansion of commercial gillnetting in New Zealand (Slooten 2007, Davies et al. 2008, Slooten and Dawson 2010). Evidence of a historical decline is also provided by the findings of Pichler and Baker (2000), who detected a significant decline in mtDNA diversity (from
Overall, this demographic factor was rated as posing a “moderate risk” for SI Hector's dolphins.
Given an estimated lifespan of about 22 years, relatively late maturity (at 7-9 years), and low fecundity (0.165 to 0.25), Hector's dolphins are considered to have a low intrinsic population growth rate (Slooten 1991, Slooten and Lad 1991, Secchi and Fletcher 2004, Secchi et al. 2004b, Dawson 2009). Females may produce only four to seven calves over their lifetime. Estimates of the survival rate of SI Hector's dolphins ≥ 1 year old have ranged from 0.77 to 0.89 (Slooten and Lad 1991, Slooten et al. 1992, Slooten and Dawson 1994, Cameron et al. 1999). Based on simple Leslie matrix models, Slooten and Ladd (1991) estimated a maximum population growth rate of 0.018 to 0.049; whereas, Secchi and Fletcher (2004) estimated a much lower population growth rate of 0.0065. Projections of population growth, given estimated levels of human-caused mortality, have varied depending on the modelling approach and the study population, but results are generally consistent in indicating a continuing population decline (Slooten and Dawson 2010, Slooten and Davies 2012). Essentially, the available information indicates that population growth is too low to compensate for current mortality rates, and that mortality needs to be reduced in order to allow populations around the South Island to recover from past declines due to bycatch (Slooten 2013).
This demographic factor was rated as posing a “moderate risk” for SI Hector's dolphins.
Analyses of both mtDNA and microsatellite DNA indicate the existence of three distinct regional populations of SI Hector's dolphins—east, west, and south coast populations (Pichler et al. 1998, Pichler 2002, Hamner et al. 2012a). Each regional population is characterized by one or two high frequency mtDNA haplotypes, and hierarchical analyses of both mtDNA and microsatellite DNA data indicate strong genetic differentiation among the three regional populations (mtDNA F
Estimated migration rates for males and females among the three main regional populations are low and appear to be asymmetrical (Pichler 2002, Hamner et al. 2012a). Based on mtDNA, Pichler (2002) estimated long-term migration rates of less than one female per generation among regions, except between the west and south coasts where female migration rates were estimated to be between 2.7 and 3.7 female migrants per generation. Based on analyses of both mtDNA and microsatellite DNA, there also appears to be a low level of male-mediated gene flow, with the highest exchange appearing to occur from the south coast to the east coast (Hamner et al. 2012a). Analysis of levels of genetic differentiation among sample locations within regions suggests a “stepping-stone” model of gene flow in which there are low levels of migration between neighboring populations over distances shorter than 100 km and much more limited gene flow among the three larger regional populations (Pichler 2002; Hamner et al. 2012a). Hamner et al. (2012a) concluded that very rare migration events are facilitating gene
How the existing population structure and connectivity of SI Hector's dolphin populations influence extinction risk is unclear. The current distribution of SI Hector's dolphins as multiple populations with a low level of connectivity could potentially provide protection from local extirpation (for example, by a catastrophic event) while allowing for local adaptation, which could ultimately benefit long-term survival (Franklin 1980). Alternatively, restricted and asymmetrical dispersal among populations may mean there is very limited potential for one population to buffer against the loss of another local population and prevent further fragmentation (Pichler et al. 1998, Pichler 2001). The ongoing human-caused mortality and the slow population growth rate of SI Hector's dolphins are factors that favor this latter interpretation.
Overall, this demographic factor was rated as posing a “moderate risk” to SI Hector's dolphins.
Relative to other abundant dolphin species, genetic diversity of SI Hector's dolphins is low (Pichler and Baker 2000; Pichler 2002). Pichler and Baker (2000) reported haplotype (
As noted above, analysis of mtDNA samples for ECSI Hector's dolphins by Pichler and Baker (2000) indicated a significant decline in mitochondrial diversity between historical samples from 1870-1987 (
Guidelines commonly cited and applied in conservation biology are that, in a finite population and ignoring other ecological considerations, a minimum effective population size of at least 50 individuals is required to prevent the harmful effects of inbreeding, and an effective population size of at least 500 individuals is required to prevent the accumulation of deleterious recessive alleles and maintain genetic diversity over hundreds of years (Franklin 1980, Soulé 1980, Gilpin and Soulé 1986, Allendorf et al. 1987). Other theoretical analyses, however, suggests that these thresholds are too low and that well over 1,000 breeding adults per generation may instead be necessary to avoid extinction by “mutational meltdown” over time periods of 100 or more generations (Lynch et al. 1995). Given that effective population size is often about
Given the evidence of low and potentially declining genetic diversity, this demographic factor was rated as being a “moderate risk.”
In addition to the regulatory measures discussed above (
To help raise awareness and educate boaters about the regulations governing the operation of vessels around marine mammals, the DOC recently initated the ‘Sustainable Marine Mammal Actions in Recreation and Tourism'—or SMART program. Commercial operators who participate in the training course through this program are labelled `SMART operators' and are promoted to tourists as such. A training course for recreational boaters is also available. While this proactive program has likely improved boater awareness and on-the-water behavior to some degree, we have no data to evaluate the extent to which boater-associated impacts on Hector's dolphins have been reduced, and the available information indicates that dolphin-watching and `swim-with' activities are not benign activities even when conducted according to the existing regulations.
To help minimize fisheries interactions and bycatch, some voluntary practices have been used in some areas around the South Island since 2002. These measures include deployment of pingers and other modifications to fishing activities. However, the extent to which such voluntary measures are being implemented is unclear, and the efficacy of pingers in reducing bycatch of Hector's dolphins has not yet been clearly established (Dawson 1998, Stone et al. 2000b). The MPI also established a hotline for reporting violations of fishing restrictions; however, there are no data available to evaluate whether the hotline has contributed to improved enforcement or compliance with existing fishing regulations.
Although these efforts may be providing measurable protection for Hector's dolphins, there is no indication that these efforts are ameliorating threats, particularly the threats of bycatch and disease, such that the extinction risk of either subspecies is reduced. Therefore, we conclude that these protective efforts do not alter the extinction risk for either Maui's or SI Hector's dolphins. We are not aware of any other conservation measures for these subspecies and are soliciting additional information on any relevant conservation efforts through the public comment process on this proposed rule (see Public Comments Solicited below).
Maui's dolphins are currently at critically low abundance, and face additional demographic risks due to greatly reduced genetic diversity and a low population growth rate. Past declines, on the order of about 90 percent, have been driven largely by bycatch in gillnets. Maui's dolphins continue to face threats of bycatch, disease, and mining and seismic disturbances; and available evidence suggests the population will continue to
Under the New Zealand Threat Classification System, the SI Hector's dolphin has been formally classified as “nationally endangered,” which is the second-most threatened status within this classification system (Baker et al. 2010). The qualifier “conservation dependent” is also applied to SI Hector's dolphins, meaning that the subspecies is likely to move to the higher category of “nationally critical” if current management were to cease (Townsend et al. 2008, Baker et al. 2010).
Our review of the best available data indicates that the SI Hector's dolphin has experienced substantial population declines since the 1970s, has relatively low genetic diversity, a low intrinsic population growth rate, and a fragmented population structure. Although historical data are lacking, Slooten (2007a) estimated that the SI Hector's dolphin population has declined by about 73 percent between 1970 and 2007, and available population viability analyses indicate that the SI Hector's dolphin is likely to continue to decline unless bycatch mortality is reduced (Davies et al. 2008, Slooten and Davies 2012, Slooten 2013). Gormley et al. (2012) estimated that the Banks Peninsula population, which has benefited from almost three decades of protection, would continue to decline at a rate of about 0.5 percent per year despite significantly improved survival rates. Assuming an existing population abundance of about 14,849 dolphins (95 percent CI = 11,923-18,492), a constant rate of decline of 0.5 percent per year for the subspecies as a whole could result in a 50 percent decline in the population in about 138 years and an 80 percent decline in about 321 years. These are simply estimates based on the limited data available, however, and they do not establish any specific thresholds for determining when the subspecies may be in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The actual rate of decline of the subspecies remains unclear given the very limited bycatch mortality data available. A trend analysis based on survey data is also confounded by the fact that surveys have covered different portions of the range and have dramatically increased in sophistication and geographical scope over time. Thus, a precise analysis of the rate of decline and projection of time to extinction given multiple threats and demographic considerations is not currently possible.
Current levels of bycatch are contributing to the decline of this subspecies (Slooten and Davies 2012). Additional, lesser threats, such as disease and tourism impacts, are likely exacerbating the rate of decline and thereby contributing to the overall extinction risk of this subspecies. Given recent abundance estimates for the total population and evidence of a slowed rate of decline following expanded fisheries management measures, we find that this subspecies is not facing an imminent risk of extinction. However, historical declines and the projected decline for most populations, combined with a low population growth rate, low genetic diversity, limited population connectivity, and the ongoing threats of bycatch, disease, and tourism, provide a strong indication that this subspecies is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future assuming a status quo in conservation. We therefore propose to list this subspecies as threatened under the ESA.
Conservation measures provided for species listed as endangered or threatened under the ESA include the development and implementation of recovery plans (16 U.S.C. 1533(f)); designation of critical habitat, if prudent and determinable (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(3)(A)); a requirement that Federal agencies consult with NMFS under section 7 of the ESA to ensure their actions do not jeopardize the species or result in adverse modification or destruction of designated critical habitat (16 U.S.C. 1536); and prohibitions on “taking” (16 U.S.C. 1538). The prohibitions on “take,” including export and import, automatically apply to species listed as endangered. Prohibitions on take do not apply to species listed as threatened unless protective regulations are issued under section 4(d) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1533(d)). In the case of threatened species, section 4(d) of the ESA leaves it to the Secretary's discretion whether, and to what extent, to extend take prohibitions to the species. Section 4(d) protective regulations may prohibit, with respect to threatened species, some or all of the acts which section 9(a) of the ESA prohibits with respect to endangered species. We are not proposing such regulations at this time but may consider potential protective regulations pursuant to section 4(d) for the SI Hector's dolphin in a future rulemaking.
Recognition of the species' imperiled status through listing may also promote conservation actions by Federal and state agencies, foreign entities, private groups, and individuals.
On July 1, 1994, NMFS and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS) published a policy (59 FR 34272) that requires us to identify, to the maximum extent practicable at the time a species is listed, those activities that would or would not constitute a violation of section 9 of the ESA. The intent of this policy is to increase public awareness of the potential effects of species listings on proposed and ongoing activities.
If the Maui's dolphin is listed as endangered, all of the prohibitions of section 9(a)(1) of the ESA will apply to this subspecies. Section 9(a)(1) includes prohibitions against the import, export, use in foreign commerce, and “take” of the listed species. These prohibitions apply to all persons subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, including in the United States, its territorial sea, or on the high seas. Take is defined as “to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct.” Activities that could result in a violation of section 9 prohibitions for Maui's dolphins include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Delivering, receiving, carrying, transporting, or shipping in interstate or foreign commerce any individual or part, in the course of a commercial activity;
(2) Selling or offering for sale in interstate commerce any part, except antique articles at least 100 years old; and
(3) Importing or exporting Maui's dolphins or any parts of these dolphins.
Whether a violation results from a particular activity is entirely dependent upon the facts and circumstances of each incident. Further, an activity not
Section 7(a)(2) (16 U.S.C. 1536(a)(2)) of the ESA and joint NMFS/USFWS regulations require Federal agencies to consult with NMFS to ensure that activities they authorize, fund, or carry out are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of listed species or destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Section 7(a)(4) (16 U.S.C. 1536(a)(4)) of the ESA and NMFS/USFWS regulations also require Federal agencies to confer with us on actions likely to jeopardize the continued existence of species proposed for listing, or that are likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitat of those species. It is unlikely that the listing of these subspecies under the ESA will increase the number of section 7 consultations, because these subspecies occur outside of the United States and are unlikely to be affected by Federal actions.
Critical habitat is defined in section 3 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1532(5)) as: (1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by a species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the ESA, on which are found those physical or biological features (a) essential to the conservation of the species and (b) that may require special management considerations or protection; and (2) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by a species at the time it is listed if such areas are determined to be essential for the conservation of the species. Section 4(a)(3)(A) of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(3)(A)) requires that, to the extent prudent and determinable, critical habitat be designated concurrently with the listing of a species. However, critical habitat cannot be designated in foreign countries or other areas outside U.S. jurisdiction (50 CFR 424.12(g)). Maui's and SI Hector's dolphins are endemic to New Zealand and do not occur within areas under U.S. jurisdiction. There is no basis to conclude that any unoccupied areas under U.S. jurisdiction are essential for the conservation of either subspecies. Therefore, we do not intend to propose any critical habitat designations for either subspecies.
We must base our final listing determination on the best scientific and commercial data available. We cannot consider the economic effects of a listing determination. To help ensure that any final action resulting from this proposed rule will be accurate and based on the best available data, we are soliciting comments from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, the scientific community, industry, and any other interested parties on the draft status review report and proposed rule. See
Promulgation of any final regulation to list these subspecies will take into consideration the comments and any additional data we receive during the comment period, and this process may lead to a final regulation that differs from this proposal. We are especially seeking information regarding the following topics:
(1) New or updated data regarding threats to Maui's and SI Hector's dolphins, especially bycatch rates in commercial and recreational fisheries, bycatch in fishing gear types other than gillnets, compliance with fishing regulations, and trends in disease prevalence;
(2) New or updated population viability analyses that reflect the most recent abundance estimates for the subspecies;
(3) Current or planned activities within the range of these subspecies and their possible impacts on these species; and,
(4) Conservation efforts that are addressing threats to either subspecies.
We request that all information be accompanied by: (1) Supporting documentation, such as maps, bibliographic references, or reprints of pertinent publications; and (2) the submitter's name, address, and any association, institution, or business that the person represents.
In December 2004, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) issued a Final Information Quality Bulletin for Peer Review establishing a minimum peer review standard. We solicited peer review comments on the draft status review report (Manning and Gantz 2016) from three scientists with expertise on Hector's dolphins. We received and reviewed comments from these scientists, and their comments are incorporated into the draft status review report and this proposed rule. Their comments on the status review are summarized in the peer review report and available at
A complete list of the references used in this proposed rule is available upon request (see
Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the ESA restricts the information that may be considered when assessing species for listing and sets the basis upon which listing determinations must be made. Based on the requirements in section 4(b)(1)(A) of the ESA and the opinion in
As noted in the Conference Report on the 1982 amendments to the ESA, economic impacts cannot be considered when assessing the status of a species. Therefore, the economic analysis requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act are not applicable to the listing process.
In addition, this proposed rule is exempt from review under Executive Order 12866. This proposed rule does not contain a collection-of-information requirement for the purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act.
In accordance with E.O. 13132, we determined that this proposed rule does not have significant federalism effects and that a federalism assessment is not required. In keeping with the intent of the Administration and Congress to provide continuing and meaningful dialogue on issues of mutual state and Federal interest, this proposed rule will be given to the relevant governmental agencies in New Zealand, and they will be invited to comment. We will confer with the U.S. Department of State to ensure appropriate notice is given to New Zealand. As the process continues, we intend to continue engaging in informal and formal contact with the U.S. State Department, giving careful consideration to all written and oral comments received.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Transportation.
Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Transportation.
For the reasons set out in the preamble, we propose to amend 50 CFR parts 223 and 224 as follows:
16 U.S.C. 1531-1543; subpart B, § 223.201-202 also issued under 16 U.S.C. 1361
(e) * * *
16 U.S.C. 1531-1543 and 16 U.S.C 1361
(h) * * *
Office of Advocacy and Outreach, USDA.
Notice of public meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA), the Office of Advocacy and Outreach (OAO) is announcing a meeting of the Beginning Farmers and Ranchers Advisory Committee (BFRAC). The committee is being convened to consider issues involving barriers for beginning farmers and ranchers, including lending and access to U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) programs, resources, and land. The members will deliberate on recommendations to be prepared for USDA Secretarial consideration.
The committee meeting is scheduled for Thursday and Friday, September 29 and 30, 2016, from 8:30 a.m.-4:30 p.m. CST at the Cleveland Airport Marriott in Cleveland, Ohio. The meeting will be open to the public. All persons wishing to make comments during this meeting must check in between 8:30 a.m. and 9:30 a.m., and between 2:00 p.m. and 3:00 p.m. CST, on both days, at the registration table. All public commenters will be allowed a maximum of three minutes. If the number of registrants requesting to speak is greater than what can be reasonably accommodated during the scheduled open public meeting timeframe, speakers will be scheduled on a first-come basis. Public written comments for the committee's consideration may be submitted by close of business on September 22, 2016, to Mrs. Kenya Nicholas, Designated Federal Official, USDA OAO, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Room 520-A, Washington, DC 20250-0170, Phone (202) 720-6350, Fax (202) 720-7704, Email:
A listen-only line will be available during the entire meeting for all who wish to listen in on the meeting or make public comments through the following telephone number: 1 (888) 790-3101 and enter passcode 6995865. Members of the public may also submit written comments for consideration to the committee via email at:
This public advisory committee meeting will be held at the Cleveland Airport Marriott, 4277 West 150th Street, Cleveland, Ohio 44135. There will also be signs directing attendees to the meeting room.
Questions should be directed to Phyllis Morgan, Executive Assistant, OAO, 1400 Independence Avenue SW., Whitten Building, Room 520-A, Washington, DC 20250, Phone: (202) 720-6350; Fax: (202) 720-7704; email:
The BFRAC last met in Kansas City, Missouri, on August 3-4, 2015. The Secretary tasked the BFRAC with providing recommendations on access to land, farm business transition, and land tenure. They also considered issues around lending and credit in parsing statistics generated by USDA. Please visit our Web site at:
The public is asked to pre-register for the meeting by midnight on September 23, 2016. You may pre-register for the public meeting by submitting an email to
The agenda is as follows: Day 1: Committee discussions and public comments; Day 2: Committee discussions, public comments, and continued committee deliberations. Please visit the Beginning Farmers and Ranchers Advisory Committee Web site for the full agenda. All agenda topics and documents will be made available to the public by September 23, 2016, at:
Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration, USDA.
Notice of advisory committee meeting.
Pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act, this constitutes notice of the upcoming meeting of the Grain Inspection, Packers and Stockyards Administration (GIPSA) Grain Inspection Advisory Committee (Advisory Committee). The Advisory Committee meets annually to advise the GIPSA Administrator on the programs and services that GIPSA delivers under the U.S. Grain Standards Act. Recommendations by the Advisory Committee help GIPSA better meet the needs of its customers who operate in a dynamic and changing marketplace.
October 19, 2016, 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.; and October 20, 2016, 8:00 a.m. to Noon.
The Advisory Committee meeting will take place at the Albers Mill Building, 1200 NW Naito Parkway, Suite 240, Portland, Oregon 97209.
Requests to orally address the Advisory Committee during the meeting or written comments may be sent to: Administrator, GIPSA, U.S. Department of Agriculture, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW., STOP 3601, Washington, DC 20250-3601. Requests and comments may also be faxed to (202) 690-2173.
Terri L. Henry by phone at (202) 205-8281 or by email at
The purpose of the Advisory Committee is to provide advice to the GIPSA Administrator with respect to the implementation of the U.S. Grain Standards Act (7 U.S.C. 71-87k). Information about the Advisory Committee is available on the GIPSA Web site at
The agenda will include service delivery overview, quality assurance and compliance updates, field management overview, international program updates as they relate to outreach, and technology and science initiatives.
For a copy of the agenda please contact Terri L. Henry by phone at (202) 205-8281 or by email at
Public participation will be limited to written statements unless permission is received from the Committee Chairperson to orally address the Advisory Committee. The meeting will be open to the public.
Persons with disabilities who require alternative means of communication of program information or related accommodations should contact Terri L. Henry at the telephone number listed above.
U.S. Department of Commerce, Office of the Secretary.
Notice of an Amended Privacy Act System of Records: “COMMERCE/DEPT-25, Access Control and Identity Management System.”
In accordance with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, Title 5 United States Code (U.S.C.) 552a(e)(4) and (11); and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular A-130, Appendix I, Federal Agency Responsibilities for Maintaining Records About Individuals, the Department of Commerce proposes to amend the system of records entitled: “COMMERCE/DEPT-25, Access Control and Identity Management System.” Based on a review of the system of records notice, the Department is making necessary administrative updates to the sections entitled “SYSTEM LOCATION,” “SECURITY CLASSIFICATION,” and “NOTIFICATION PROCEDURE.”
The system of records becomes effective on September 19, 2016.
For a copy of the system of records please mail requests to: Michael J. Toland, Deputy Chief Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Officer and Department Privacy Act Officer, Office of Privacy and Open Government, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Room 52010, Washington, DC 20230.
Michael J. Toland, Deputy Chief FOIA Officer and Department Privacy Act Officer, Office of Privacy and Open Government, 1401 Constitution Ave. NW., Room 52010, Washington, DC 20230.
On May 8, 2015, the Department published a proposed new Privacy Act system of records notice in the
As a result of the Department's internal review of the notice covering this system of records, we became aware that the National Technical Information Service was not included under the “SYSTEM LOCATION” and “NOTIFICATION PROCEDURE” sections. We also became aware that incorrect information was provided for the “SECURITY CLASSIFICATION” section. For the aforementioned reasons, the Department publishes a notice of an amended system of records entitled: “COMMERCE/DEPT-25, Access Control and Identity Management System,” as published in the
OMB Circular A-130, Appendix I, indicates that minor changes to systems of records need not be reported. In this notice, we are making minor changes to the “COMMERCE/DEPT-25, Access Control and Identity Management System” system of records. Therefore, the Department has not filed a report describing the altered system of records covered by this notice with the Chair of the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs, the Chair of the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform, or the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, OMB.
Access Control and Identity Management System.
Unclassified, sensitive, for official use only, and classified.
a. For Office of Security, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Department of Commerce, Room 1033, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
b. For Office of Security, U.S. Census Bureau, Room 2J438, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Washington, DC 20233-3700.
c. For Office of Security, U.S. Census Bureau Indiana, Room 104, Building 66, 1201 E. 10th Street, Jeffersonville, IN 47132.
d. For Office of Security, National Institute of Standards and Technology, Room A-105, Building 318, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
e. For Office of Security, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Room G-101, SSMC- OFA543, 1335 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910.
f. For Office of Security, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Western Region, Building 1, 7600 Sand Point Way NE., Seattle, WA 38115.
g. For Office of Security, FirstNet, John W. Powell Federal Building, 12201 Sunrise Valley, Drive, Reston, VA 22091.
h. For Office of Security, U.S. Patent and Trademark Office, 600 Dulany Street, Madison Building, West, Alexandria, VA 22313.
i. For Office of the Secretary, Minority Business Development Agency, Economic and Statistics Administration, and Economic Development Administration: Office of the Secretary,
j. For U.S. Census Bureau, Chief Information Officer, 4600 Silver Hill Road, Suitland, MD 20746.
k. For Bureau of Industry and Security, Chief Information Officer, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
l. For International Trade Administration, Chief Information Officer, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
m. For National Institute of Standards and Technology, Chief Information Officer, 100 Bureau Drive, Gaithersburg, MD 20899.
n. For National Telecommunications and Information Administration, Chief Information Officer, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
o. For National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Chief Information Officer, 1305 East-West Highway, SSMC3, Silver Spring, MD 20910.
p. For U.S. Patent and Trademark Office, Chief Information Officer, 600 Dulany Street, Madison Building, Alexandria, VA 22314.
q. For Office of Inspector General, Chief Information Officer, Chief Information Officer, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
r. For National Technical Information Service, Office of the Chief Information Officer, Security Division, 5301 Shawnee Road., Alexandria, VA 22312.
Employees, contractors, and other affiliates requiring access to Department of Commerce electronic (including PKI-authenticated) and physical assets.
Records may include the individual's name; organization; work telephone number; cellular telephone number; home telephone number, work email; Federal agency Smart Card Number (FASC-N); social security number; employee number; status as an employee, contractor or other affiliation with the Department of Commerce; PIN number (encrypted); sign-in/out, badge-in/out, time-in/out, log-in/out data; computer transaction data to include, but not limited to, key stroke monitoring; IP address of access; logs of internet activity and records on the authentication of the access request; key fob identifier; token identifier; Personal Identity Verification (PIV) Card identifier; computer access login name; and any computer generated identifier assigned to a user.
5 U.S.C. 301; 35 U.S.C. 2; the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, Public Law 106-229; 28 U.S.C. 533-535; 44 U.S.C. 1301; Homeland Security Presidential Directive 12 and IRS Publication-1075.
Records in this system are used by authorized personnel to improve security for Department of Commerce physical facilities for purposes including: Ensuring process integrity; enabling employees to carry out their lawful and authorized responsibilities; verifying individuals' authorization to access buildings and facilities; creating a record of individuals' access to buildings and facilities; facilitating the issuance and retrieval of visitor and temporary badges; and providing statistical data on building and facility access patterns including electronic and physical sign/badge-in and sign/badge-out data for resource planning and emergency management purposes.
Records may also be used to secure electronic assets; to maintain accountability for issuance and disposition of security access; to maintain an electronic system to facilitate secure on-line communication between Federal automated systems, between Federal employees or contractors, and with the public, using digital signature technologies to authenticate and verify identity; to provide a means of access to electronic assets, desktops, and laptops; and to provide mechanisms for non- repudiation of personal identification and access to electronic systems, including but not limited to human resource, financial, procurement, travel and property systems, as well as systems containing information on intellectual property and other mission critical systems. The system also maintains records relating to the issuance of digital certificates utilizing public key cryptography to employees and contractors for the transmission of sensitive electronic material that requires protection.
1. Records in this system are accessed on a daily basis by authorized personnel to verify individuals' authorized access to buildings and facilities; electronic systems and computers; facilitate the issuance and retrieval of visitor and temporary badges; determine whether administrative action (including disciplinary action) should be taken regarding any employee, contractor, or visitor; and provide statistical data on computer information systems, building and facility access patterns including electronic and physical sign/badge-in and sign/badge-out data for resource planning, emergency management purposes, assuring the security of computer information systems, and implementing Executive Order 13587.
2. In the event that a system of records maintained by the Department to carry out its functions indicates or relates to a violation or potential violation of law or contract, whether civil, criminal or regulatory in nature, and whether arising by general statute or particular program statute or contract, or rule, regulation, or order issued pursuant thereto, or where necessary to protect an interest of the Department, the relevant records in the system of records may be referred, as a routine use, to the appropriate agency, whether Federal, state, local or foreign, charged with the responsibility of investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing the statute or contract, or rule, regulation or order issued pursuant thereto, or protecting the interest of the Department.
3. A record from this system of records may be disclosed to a Federal, state or local agency maintaining civil, criminal or other relevant enforcement information or other pertinent information, such as current licenses, if necessary to obtain information relevant to a Department decision concerning the assignment, hiring or retention of an individual, the issuance of a security clearance, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant or other benefit.
4. A record from this system of records may be disclosed to a Federal, state, local, or international agency, in response to its request, in connection with the assignment, hiring or retention of an individual, the issuance of a security clearance, the reporting of an investigation of an individual, the letting of a contract, or the issuance of a license, grant, or other benefit by the requesting agency, to the extent that the information is relevant and necessary to the requesting agency's decision on the matter.
5. A record from this system of records may be disclosed in the course of presenting evidence to a court, magistrate or administrative tribunal, including disclosures to opposing counsel in the course of settlement negotiations.
6. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to a Member of Congress submitting a request involving an individual when the individual has
7. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to the Office of Management and Budget in connection with the review of private relief legislation as set forth in OMB Circular No. A-19 at any stage of the legislative coordination and clearance process as set forth in that Circular.
8. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to the Department of Justice in connection with determining whether disclosure thereof is required by the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
9. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to a contractor of the Department having need for the information in the performance of the contract, but not operating a system of records within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 552a(m).
10. A record in this system may be transferred to the Office of Personnel Management for personnel research purposes; as a data source for management information; for the production of summary descriptive statistics and analytical studies in support of the function for which the records are collected and maintained; or for related manpower studies.
11. A record from this system of records may be disclosed to the Administrator, General Services, or his designee, during an inspection of records conducted by the General Services Administration as part of that agency's responsibility to recommend improvements in records management practices and programs, under authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906. Such disclosure shall be made in accordance with the GSA regulations governing inspection of records for this purpose, and any other relevant (
12. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to appropriate agencies, entities and persons when (1) it is suspected or determined that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (2) the DOC has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed compromise there is a risk of harm to economic or property interests, identity theft or fraud, or harm to the security or integrity of this system or whether systems or programs (whether maintained by the DOC or another agency or entity) that rely upon the compromised information; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the DOC's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and to prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
13. A record in this system of records may be disclosed to appropriate agencies, entities and persons for the purpose of performing audit or oversight operations as authorized by law, but only such information as is necessary and relevant to such audit or oversight function.
Not applicable.
Records in this system are on paper and/or in digital or other electronic form. Paper records are stored in secure rooms and storage cabinets and electronic records are stored as electronic/digital media and stored in secure file-servers within controlled environment. Both paper and electronic/digital records are accessed only by authorized personnel.
Records are retrieved by individual's name, employment status, organization and/or security access badge number, or other Department of Commerce identifier. Information may be retrieved from this system of records by automated search based on extant indices and automated capabilities utilized in the normal course of business.
Entrance to data centers and support organization offices is restricted to those employees whose work requires them to be there for the system to operate. Identification cards are verified to ensure that records are in areas accessible only to authorized personnel who are properly screened, cleared, and trained. Disclosure of electronic information through remote terminals is restricted through the use of passwords and sign-on protocols that are periodically changed. Reports produced from the remote printers are subject to the same privacy controls as other documents of like sensitivity. Electronic and digital certificates ensure secure local and remote access and allow only authorized employees, contractor employees, or other affiliated individuals to gain access to federal information assets available through secured systems access.
Access to sensitive records is available only to authorized employees and contractor employees responsible for the management of the system and/or employees of program offices who have a need for such information. Electronic records are password-protected or PKI-protected, consistent with the requirements of the Federal Information Security Management Act (Pub. L. 107-296), and associated OMB policies, standards and guidance from the National Institute of Standards and Technology, and the General Services Administration; all records are protected from unauthorized access through appropriate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.
Access is restricted on a “need to know” basis, utilization of PIV Card access, secure VPN for Web access, and locks on doors and approved storage containers. Buildings have security guards and secured doors. Entrances are monitored through electronic surveillance equipment.
Records are disposed of in accordance with the appropriate records disposition schedule approved by the Archivist of the United States.
System managers are the same as stated in the System Location section above.
An individual requesting notification of existence of records on himself or herself should send a signed, written inquiry to the locations listed below. The request letter should be clearly marked, “PRIVACY ACT REQUEST.” The written inquiry must be signed and notarized or submitted with certification of identity under penalty of perjury. Requesters should reasonably specify the record contents being sought.
An individual requesting access to records on himself or herself should send a signed, written inquiry to the same address as stated in the Notification Procedure section above. The request letter should be clearly marked, “PRIVACY ACT REQUEST.” The written inquiry must be signed and notarized or submitted with certification of identity under penalty of perjury. Requesters should specify the record contents being sought.
An individual requesting corrections or contesting information contained in his or her records must send a signed, written request inquiry to the same address as stated in the Notification Procedure section above. Requesters should reasonably identify the records, specify the information they are contesting and state the corrective action sought and the reasons for the correction with supporting justification showing how the record is incomplete, untimely, inaccurate, or irrelevant. The Department's rules for access, for contesting contents, and for appealing initial determination by the individual concerned appear in 15 CFR part 4, Appendix B.
The information contained in these records is provided by or verified by: The subject individual of the record, supervisors, other personnel documents, other Department systems, access log records and sensors and non-Federal sources such as private employers and their agents, along with those authorized by the individuals to furnish information.
Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), (k)(1), (k)(2), and (k)(5), all information and material in the record which meets the criteria of these subsections are exempted from the notice, access, and contest requirements under 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)3, (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f) of the agency regulations because of the necessity to exempt this information and material in order to accomplish the law enforcement function of the agency, to prevent disclosure of classified information as required by Executive Order 12958, as amended by Executive Order 13292, to assure the protection of the President, to prevent subjects of investigation from frustrating the investigatory process, to prevent the disclosure of investigative techniques, to fulfill commitments made to protect the confidentiality of information, and to avoid endangering these sources and law enforcement personnel.
An application has been submitted to the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board by the Port of Corpus Christi Authority, grantee of FTZ 122, requesting an expansion of Subzone 122J on behalf of Valero Refining Company. The application was submitted pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign-Trade Zones Act, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), and the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400). It was formally docketed on September 12, 2016.
Subzone 122J was approved on December 21, 1988 (Board Order 414, 53 FR 53041, December 30, 1988). The subzone currently consists of three sites located in Nueces County:
The applicant is requesting authority to expand Site 1 of the subzone to include an adjacent parcel (6.7 acres) located at 6601 Up River Road in Corpus Christi. No additional authorization for production activity has been requested at this time.
In accordance with the FTZ Board's regulations, Camille Evans of the FTZ Staff is designated examiner to review the application and make recommendations to the FTZ Board.
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is October 31, 2016. Rebuttal comments in response to material submitted during the foregoing period may be submitted during the subsequent 15-day period to November 14, 2016.
A copy of the application will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
On May 17, 2016, the Greater Metropolitan Area Foreign-Trade Zone
The notification was processed in accordance with the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR part 400), including notice in the
MSD International GMBH (Puerto Rico Branch) LLC (MSD), operator of Subzone 7G, submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board for its facility within Subzone 7G, in Las Piedras, Puerto Rico. The notification conforming to the requirements of the regulations of the FTZ Board (15 CFR 400.22) was received on August 29, 2016.
MSD currently has authority to produce certain pharmaceutical products and their intermediates within Subzone 7G. The current request would add a finished pharmaceutical product and foreign status materials/components to the scope of authority. Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), additional FTZ authority would be limited to the specific foreign-status materials/components and specific finished product described in the submitted notification (as described below) and subsequently authorized by the FTZ Board.
Production under FTZ procedures could exempt MSD from customs duty payments on the foreign-status materials/components used in export production. On its domestic sales, MSD would be able to choose the duty rate during customs entry procedures that applies to finished ertugliflozin/metformin pharmaceutical tablets for the treatment of type-2 diabetes (duty free) for the foreign-status materials/components noted below and in the existing scope of authority. Customs duties also could possibly be deferred or reduced on foreign-status production equipment.
The materials/components sourced from abroad include: Metformin hydrochloride and jet-milled ertugliflozin active ingredients (duty rates 3.7% and 6.5%).
Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the FTZ Board's Executive Secretary at the address below. The closing period for their receipt is October 31, 2016.
A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection at the Office of the Executive Secretary, Foreign-Trade Zones Board, Room 21013, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230-0002, and in the “Reading Room” section of the FTZ Board's Web site, which is accessible via
For further information, contact Diane Finver at
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department preliminarily determines that none of the mandatory respondents in this review qualify for a separate rate and are, therefore, considered a part of the Vietnam-Wide Entity for their exports of subject merchandise exported to the United States during the period of review (“POR”) August 1, 2014, through July 31, 2015. If these preliminary results are adopted in the final results, the Department will instruct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (“CBP”) to assess antidumping duties on all appropriate entries of subject merchandise during the POR. Interested parties are invited to comment on these preliminary results.
Effective September 19, 2016.
Kenneth Hawkins or Javier Barrientos, AD/CVD Operations, Office V, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone 202-482-6491 or 202-482-2243, respectively.
On September 30, 2014, the Department initiated the 12th administrative review of the antidumping duty order on fish fillets from Vietnam for the period August 1, 2014, through July 31, 2015.
The product covered by the order is frozen fish fillets, including regular, shank, and strip fillets and portions thereof, whether or not breaded or marinated, of the species
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.213(d)(1), the Department will rescind an administrative review, in whole or in part, if the parties that requested a review withdraw the request within 90 days of the date of publication of the notice of initiation. Between December 30, 2015 and January 4, 2016 we received timely withdrawal of review requests for 62 companies from Petitioner,
The Department has preliminarily determined that Ben Tre Aquaproduct Import and Export Joint Stock Company, CADOVIMEX II Seafood Import Export and Processing Joint Stock Company, and Hoang Long Seafood Processing Company Limited had no reviewable transactions during the POR. Consistent with our practice in non-market economy (“NME”) cases, we will not to rescind the review, in part, in this circumstance, but rather, complete the review with respect to these companies and issue appropriate instructions to CBP based on the final results of the review.
The Department is conducting this review in accordance with sections 751(a)(1)(B) and 751(a)(2)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (“the Act”). Constructed export prices and export prices have been calculated in accordance with section 772 of the Act. Because Vietnam is an NME within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act, NV has been calculated in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act.
For a full description of the methodology underlying our conclusions,
The Department preliminarily determines that the following weighted-average dumping margins exist for the period August 1, 2013, through July 31, 2014:
The
Interested parties may submit case briefs within 30 days after the date of publication of these preliminary results of review in the
Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.310(c), interested parties who wish to request a hearing must submit a written request to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance within 30 days of the date of publication of this notice. Requests should contain: (1) The party's name, address and telephone number; (2) the number of participants; and (3) a list of issues parties intend to discuss. Issues raised in the hearing will be limited to those raised in the respective case and rebuttal briefs. If a request for a hearing is made, the Department intends to hold the hearing at the U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street
The Department intends to issue the final results of this administrative review, which will include the results of our analysis of all issues raised in the case briefs, within 120 days of publication of these preliminary results in the
Upon issuance of the final results, the Department will determine, and CBP shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries covered by this review.
For any individually examined respondent whose weighted average dumping margin is above
The following cash deposit requirements will be effective upon publication of the final results of this review for shipments of the subject merchandise from Vietnam entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the publication date, as provided by sections 751(a)(2)(C) of the Act: (1) For the companies listed above that have a separate rate, the cash deposit rate will be that established in the final results of this review (except, if the rate is zero or
This notice also serves as a preliminary reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during the POR. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Department's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This preliminary determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
On May 13, 2016, the Department of Commerce (the Department) published the preliminary results of the administrative review of the antidumping duty order on solid fertilizer grade ammonium nitrate (ammonium nitrate) from the Russian Federation. We invited interested parties to comment; we received no comments or requests for a hearing. Therefore, for the final results, we continue to find that sales of subject merchandise by JSC Acron and its affiliate JSC Dorogobuzh (collectively, Acron) have not been made at prices below normal value (NV) during the period of review (POR). Further, we continue to find that MCC EuroChem and its affiliates OJSC NAK Azot and OJSC Nevinnomyssky Azot (collectively, EuroChem) made no shipments of subject merchandise during the POR.
Effective September 19, 2016.
Elizabeth Eastwood or David Crespo, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3874, or (202) 482-3693, respectively.
On May 13, 2016, the Department published the
The merchandise subject to this order is solid, fertilizer grade ammonium nitrate products. The merchandise subject to this order is classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) at subheadings 3102.30.00.00 and 3102.290000. Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise within the scope is dispositive.
As noted above, the Department received no comments concerning the
The Department will determine, and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) shall assess, antidumping duties on all appropriate entries in this review, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(b). The Department intends to issue assessment instructions directly to CBP 15 days after publication of these final results of review. Because we have calculated a zero margin for Acron, the only respondent with entries of subject merchandise during the POR, in the final results of this review, we will instruct CBP to liquidate the appropriate entries without regard to antidumping duties.
The Department clarified its “automatic assessment” regulation on May 6, 2003.
The Department notified CBP to discontinue the collection of cash deposits on entries of the subject merchandise, entered or withdrawn from warehouse, on or after August 20, 2016.
This notice also serves as a final reminder to importers of their responsibility under 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) to file a certificate regarding the reimbursement of antidumping duties prior to liquidation of the relevant entries during this review period. Failure to comply with this requirement could result in the Secretary's presumption that reimbursement of antidumping duties occurred and the subsequent assessment of double antidumping duties.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the return or destruction of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3), which continues to govern business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding. Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial
We are issuing and publishing this notice in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice and request for public comment.
The U.S. Department of Commerce announces the development of a toolkit to promote the deployment of U.S. smart grid technologies and services to be launched in FY2017. Through this Notice, the Department of Commerce seeks broad input from all interested stakeholders regarding the most frequently requested “use cases” by electric utilities for inclusion in a web-based
Written comments must be received on or before 4:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time (EDT) on October 1, 2016.
Written comments by be submitted by email to
Victoria Gunderson, Office of Energy & Environmental Industries, Room 4053, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230; phone 202-482-7890; fax 202-482-5665; email
The development of the
Because input received will be publicly available upon request, businesses or individuals responding to this notice should not include any business confidential. Final selection of included use cases into the Toolkit will not be attributed.
A subsequent
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.
The Department of Commerce (Department) preliminarily determines that imports of stainless steel sheet and strip (stainless sheet and strip) from the People's Republic of China (PRC) are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV). The period of investigation is July 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015. The estimated dumping margins are shown in the “Preliminary Determination” section of this notice. We invite interested parties to comment on this preliminary determination.
Effective September 19, 2016.
Toni Page at (202) 482-1398 or Lingjun Wang at (202) 482-2316, AD/CVD Operations, Office VII, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 14th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
The Department published the notice of initiation of this investigation on March 10, 2016.
The product covered by this investigation is stainless sheet and strip. For a complete description of the scope of this investigation,
In accordance with the
The Department published the notice of postponement of preliminary determination of this investigation on July 7, 2016.
The Department is conducting this investigation in accordance with section 731 of the Act. Furthermore, for purposes of this preliminary LTFV determination, the Department continues to treat the PRC as a non-market economy country within the meaning of section 771(18) of the Act. For a full discussion of the Department's methodology,
On May 6, 2015, pursuant to section 733(e)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.206, Petitioners timely filed an allegation that critical circumstances exist with respect to imports of stainless sheet and strip from the PRC. We preliminarily determine that critical circumstances exist for the separate rate companies and the PRC-wide entity. For a full description of the methodology and results of our analysis,
In the
The Department preliminarily determines that the following dumping margins exist:
As detailed in the Preliminary Decision Memorandum, Shanxi Taigang Stainless Steel Co., Ltd. and Tianjin Taigang Daming Metal Product Co., Ltd., two mandatory respondents in this investigation, did not demonstrate that they were entitled to a separate rate. Accordingly, we consider them to be part of the PRC-wide entity.
In accordance with section 733(d)(2) of the Act, we will direct U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) to suspend liquidation of all entries of stainless sheet and strip from the PRC as described in Appendix II, that are entered, or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of this notice in the
We will also instruct CBP, pursuant to section 733(d)(1)(B) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(d), to require a cash deposit as follows:
We will disclose the calculations performed to interested parties in this proceeding within five days of the date of announcement of this preliminary determination in accordance with 19 CFR 351.224(b). Case briefs or other written comments may be submitted to the Assistant Secretary for Enforcement and Compliance no later than 30 days after the publication of this preliminary determination in the
Parties who submit case briefs or rebuttal briefs in this proceeding are encouraged to submit with each argument: (1) A statement of the issue; (2) a brief summary of the argument; and (3) a table of authorities.
Interested parties who wish to request a hearing must do so in writing within 30 days after the publication of this preliminary determination in the
Parties must file their case and rebuttal briefs, and any requests for a hearing, electronically using ACCESS.
In accordance with section 733(f) of the Act, we are notifying the International Trade Commission (ITC) of our preliminary determination of sales at LTFV. If our final determination is affirmative, the ITC will determine before the later of 120 days after the date of this preliminary determination or 45 days after our final determination whether these imports are materially injuring, or threaten material injury to, the U.S. industry.
This determination is issued and published in accordance with sections 733(f) and 777(i)(I) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(c).
The merchandise covered by this investigation is stainless steel sheet and strip, whether in coils or straight lengths. Stainless steel is an alloy steel containing, by weight, 1.2 percent or less of carbon and 10.5 percent or more of chromium, with or without other elements. The subject sheet and strip is a flat-rolled product with a width that is greater than 9.5 mm and with a thickness of 0.3048 mm and greater but less than 4.75 mm, and that is annealed or otherwise heat treated, and pickled or otherwise descaled. The subject sheet and strip may also be further processed (
For purposes of the width and thickness requirements referenced above: (1) Where the nominal and actual measurements vary, a product is within the scope if application of either the nominal or actual measurement would place it within the scope based on the definitions set forth above; and (2) where the width and thickness vary for a specific product (
All products that meet the written physical description, and in which the chemistry quantities do not exceed any one of the noted element levels listed above, are within the scope of this investigation unless specifically excluded.
Subject merchandise includes stainless steel sheet and strip that has been further processed in a third country, including but not limited to cold-rolling, annealing, tempering, polishing, aluminizing, coating, painting, varnishing, trimming, cutting, punching, and/or slitting, or any other processing that would not otherwise remove the merchandise from the scope of the investigation if performed in the country of manufacture of the stainless steel sheet and strip.
Excluded from the scope of this investigation are the following: (1) Sheet and strip that is not annealed or otherwise heat treated and not pickled or otherwise descaled; (2) plate (
The products under investigation are currently classifiable under Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheadings 7219.13.0031, 7219.13.0051, 7219.13.0071, 7219.13.0081, 7219.14.0030, 7219.14.0065, 7219.14.0090, 7219.23.0030, 7219.23.0060, 7219.24.0030, 7219.24.0060, 7219.32.0005, 7219.32.0020, 7219.32.0025, 7219.32.0035, 7219.32.0036, 7219.32.0038, 7219.32.0042, 7219.32.0044, 7219.32.0045, 7219.32.0060, 7219.33.0005, 7219.33.0020, 7219.33.0025, 7219.33.0035, 7219.33.0036, 7219.33.0038, 7219.33.0042, 7219.33.0044, 7219.33.0045, 7219.33.0070, 7219.33.0080, 7219.34.0005, 7219.34.0020, 7219.34.0025, 7219.34.0030, 7219.34.0035, 7219.34.0050, 7219.35.0005, 7219.35.0015, 7219.35.0030, 7219.35.0035, 7219.35.0050, 7219.90.0010, 7219.90.0020, 7219.90.0025, 7219.90.0060, 7219.90.0080, 7220.12.1000, 7220.12.5000, 7220.20.1010, 7220.20.1015, 7220.20.1060, 7220.20.1080, 7220.20.6005, 7220.20.6010, 7220.20.6015, 7220.20.6060, 7220.20.6080, 7220.20.7005, 7220.20.7010, 7220.20.7015,
Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce
The Department of Commerce (the Department) completed the administrative review (AR) and new shipper review (NSR) of the countervailing duty (CVD) order on cut-to-length carbon-quality steel plate (CTL Plate) from the Republic of Korea for the January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, period of review (POR). Based on our analysis of the comments received, the Department determined that Dongkuk Steel Mill Co., Ltd. (DSM), the firm examined in the AR, and Hyundai Steel Company Ltd. (Hyundai Steel), the firm examined in the NSR, each received a
Effective September 19, 2016.
John Conniff at 202-482-1009 (for Hyundai Steel), or Jolanta Lawska at 202-482-8362 (for DSM), AD/CVD Operations, Office III, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20230.
On February 10, 2000, the Department published in the
The products covered by the order are certain hot-rolled carbon-quality steel: (1) Universal mill plates (
The merchandise subject to the order is currently classifiable in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) under subheadings: 7208.40.3030, 7208.40.3060, 7208.51.0030, 7208.51.0045, 7208.51.0060, 7208.52.0000, 7208.53.0000, 7208.90.0000, 7210.70.3000, 7210.90.9000, 7211.13.0000, 7211.14.0030, 7211.14.0045, 7211.90.0000, 7212.40.1000, 7212.40.5000, 7212.50.0000, 7225.40.3050, 7225.40.7000, 7225.50.6000, 7225.99.0090, 7226.91.5000, 7226.91.7000, 7226.91.8000, 7226.99.0000.
Although the HTSUS subheadings are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise covered by the order is dispositive.
The Department conducted this review in accordance with section 751(a)(1)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act). For the subsidy program found countervailable during the POR, we determine that there is a subsidy,
All issues raised in interested parties' case briefs, submitted in this proceeding, are addressed in the Issues and Decision Memorandum. A list of the issues raised by interested parties and to which we responded in the Issues and Decision Memorandum, is attached to this notice as Appendix I. The Issues and Decision Memorandum is a public document and is on file electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS). ACCESS is available to registered users at
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.221(b)(4)(i), we calculated an individual subsidy rate for DSM, the firm subject to the AR and Hyundai Steel, the firm subject to the NSR. For the period January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, we determine the total net countervailable subsidy rates for DSM and Hyundai are as follows:
We intend to disclose to parties in this proceeding the calculations performed for these final results within five days of the date of the publication of this notice in the
In accordance with 19 CFR 351.212(b)(2), the Department intends to issue assessment instructions to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) 15 days after the date of publication of these final results to liquidate shipments of subject merchandise produced by DSM and Hyundai Steel entered, or withdrawn form warehouse, for consumption on or after January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, without regard to CVDs because a
The Department also intends to instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of zero percent on shipments of the subject merchandise produced and/or exported by DSM and Hyundai Steel entered or withdrawn from warehouse, for consumption on or after the date of publication of the final results of this review. For all non-reviewed firms, we will instruct CBP to collect cash deposits of estimated countervailing duties at the most recent company-specific or all-others rate applicable to the company. These cash deposit requirements, when imposed, shall remain in effect until further notice.
This notice also serves as a reminder to parties subject to administrative protective order (APO) of their responsibility concerning the disposition of proprietary information disclosed under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(a)(3). Timely written notification of the return/destruction of APO materials or conversion to judicial protective order is hereby requested. Failure to comply with the regulations and the terms of an APO is a sanctionable violation.
We are issuing and publishing these final results in accordance with sections 751(a)(1) and 777(i)(1) of the Act.
National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce.
Notice of open meeting.
The National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) will convene meetings of a multistakeholder process concerning Internet of Things Security Upgradability and Patching. This Notice announces the first meeting, which is scheduled for October 19, 2016.
The meeting will be held on October 19, 2016, from 10:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m., Central Daylight Time.
The meeting will be held in the Trinity Ballroom at the Renaissance Austin Hotel, 9721 Arboretum Boulevard, Austin, Texas 78759.
Allan Friedman, National Telecommunications and Information Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW., Room 4725, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-4281; email:
In a separate but related matter in April 2016, NTIA, the Department's Internet Policy Task Force, and its Digital Economy Leadership Team sought comments on the benefits, challenges, and potential roles for the government in fostering the advancement of the Internet of Things.”
Many commenters emphasized the need for a secure lifecycle approach to IoT devices that considers the development, maintenance, and end-of-life phases and decisions for a device. On August 2, 2016, after reviewing these comments, NTIA announced that the next multistakeholder process on cybersecurity would be on IoT security upgradability and patching.
The matter of patching vulnerable systems is now an accepted part of cybersecurity.
To help realize the full innovative potential of IoT, users need reasonable assurance that connected devices, embedded systems, and their applications will be secure. A key part of that security is the mitigation of potential security vulnerabilities in IoT devices or applications through patching and security upgrades.
The ultimate objective of the multistakeholder process is to foster a market offering more devices and systems that support security upgrades through increased consumer awareness and understanding. Enabling a thriving market for patchable IoT requires common definitions so that manufacturers and solution providers have shared visions for security, and consumers know what they are purchasing. Currently, no such common, widely accepted definitions exist, so many manufacturers struggle to effectively communicate to consumers the security features of their devices. This is detrimental to the digital ecosystem as a whole, as it does not reward companies that invest in patching and it prevents consumers from making informed purchasing choices.
The immediate goal of this process will be to develop a broad, shared definition or set of definitions around security upgradability for consumer IoT, as well as strategies for communicating the security features of IoT devices to consumers. One initial step will be to explore and map out the many dimensions of security upgradability and patching for the relevant systems and applications. A goal will be to design and explore definitions that are easily understandable, while being backed by technical specifications and organizational practices and processes. A final step will be to develop a strategy to share these definitions throughout the broader development community, and ultimately with consumers. This may include raising awareness in the consumer space to help consumers understand security options and drive market forces.
Stakeholders will determine the shape of the conversation and the process. NTIA has announced that the scope of the discussion will be around consumer devices, but stakeholders will ultimately determine which technologies, sectors, and applications will be discussed in the process, and covered by the resulting definitions and framework.
While we anticipate a technical discussion in the process of exploring security upgrades, NTIA does not expect this discussion to develop new technical standards. This multistakeholder process is not a formal standards development process. Stakeholders may wish to use existing standards in their discussion and definitions, or may wish to call for new standards or standards processes as part of their recommendations.
Stakeholders will determine the exact nature of the outcome of this process. Because it is unlikely that a one-size-fits-all solution will be feasible in this dynamic space, stakeholders will need to determine how to scope and organize the work through sub-groups or other means. Success of the process will be evaluated by the extent to which stakeholders embrace and implement the consensus findings within their individual practices or organizations, and work to promulgate them throughout the community. Although the stakeholders determine the outcome of the process, it is important to note that the process will not result in a new law or regulation.
The October 19, 2016, meeting is intended to bring stakeholders together to share the range of views on security upgradability and patching, and to establish more concrete goals and structure of the process. The objectives of this first meeting are to: (1) Briefly review the importance of patching and the challenges in the existing ecosystem; (2) briefly share different perspectives on existing technologies and practices; (3) engage stakeholders in a discussion of key security upgrade dimensions, features, and concerns; (4) engage stakeholders in a discussion of logistical issues, including internal structures such as a small drafting committee or various working groups, and the location and frequency of future meetings; and (5) identify concrete goals and stakeholder work following the first meeting.
The main objective of further meetings will be to encourage and facilitate continued discussion among stakeholders to build out a mapping of the range of issues, and develop a consensus view of a consolidated set of potential definitions. Discussions will also cover best practices for sharing security information with consumers. This discussion may include circulation of stakeholder-developed strawman drafts and discussion of the appropriate scope of the initiative. Stakeholders may also agree on procedural work plans for the group, including additional meetings or modified logistics for future meetings. NTIA suggests that stakeholders consider setting clear deadlines for a working draft and a phase for external review of this draft,
More information about stakeholders' work will be available at:
The meeting is physically accessible to people with disabilities. Requests for sign language interpretation or other auxiliary aids should be directed to Allan Friedman at (202) 482-4281 or
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”), this notice announces that the Information Collection Request (“ICR”) abstracted below has been forwarded to the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”) for review and comment. The ICR describes the nature of the information collection and its expected costs and burden.
Comments must be submitted on or before October 19, 2016.
Comments regarding the burden estimated or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, may be submitted directly to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (“OIRA”) in OMB, within 30 days of the notice's publication, by email at
Comments may also be mailed to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503, or submitted through the Commission's Web site at
Comments may also be mailed to: Christopher Kirkpatrick, Secretary of the Commission, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581 or by Hand Delivery/Courier at the same address.
A copy of the supporting statements for the collection of information discussed above may be obtained by visiting
Melissa D'Arcy, Special Counsel, Division of Clearing and Risk, Commodity Futures Trading Commission, Three Lafayette Centre, 1155 21st Street NW., Washington, DC 20581; (202) 418-5086; email:
There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection.
44 U.S.C. 3501
Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
Notice of availability.
The Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) announces the availability of a revised methodology statement, entitled the “Methodology for Determining Average Prime Offer Rates.” The methodology statement describes the methodology used to calculate average prime offer rates for purposes of Regulation C and Regulation Z. The Bureau removed from the methodology statement the references to the sources of survey data used to calculate average prime offer rates.
The revised methodology statement is available on the Web site of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) at
Terry J. Randall, Counsel, Office of Regulations, at 202-435-7700.
The average prime offer rates (APORs) are annual percentage rates derived from average interest rates, points, and other loan pricing terms offered to borrowers by a representative sample of lenders for mortgage loans that have low-risk pricing characteristics. APORs have implications for data reporters under Regulation C and creditors under Regulation Z. Regulation C requires covered financial institutions to report, for certain transactions, the difference between a loan's annual percentage rate (APR) and the APOR for a comparable transaction.
The Bureau calculates APORs on a weekly basis according to a methodology statement that is available to the public and posts the APORs.
The Freddie Mac Primary Mortgage Market Survey® (PMMS) previously provided survey data for all four of the mortgage products that were used to calculate the weekly APORs. Earlier this year, Freddie Mac discontinued publishing the result for the one-year variable rate mortgage product. However, it provided the Bureau with data on the one-year variable rate mortgage product obtained using the same survey and calculation techniques as the PMMS. Beginning on July 7, 2016, the Bureau started using data provided by a survey conducted by HSH Associates (HSH) for the one-year variable rate mortgage product together with PMMS data on 30-year fixed rate mortgage, 15-year fixed rate mortgage, and five-year variable rate mortgage products to calculate the weekly APORs. The Bureau updated both the methodology statement
The Bureau will continue to post the survey data used to calculate APORs on the FFIEC Web site every week at
Thursday September 22, 2016, 9:30 a.m.-11:30 a.m.
Hearing Room 420, Bethesda Towers, 4330 East-West Highway, Bethesda, Maryland.
Commission Meeting—Open to the Public.
A live webcast of the Meeting can be viewed at
Todd A. Stevenson, Office of the Secretary, U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission, 4330 East West Highway, Bethesda, MD 20814, (301) 504-7923.
Defense Acquisition Regulations System, Department of Defense (DoD).
Notice and request for comments regarding a proposed revision of an approved information collection requirement.
In compliance with section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 35), DoD announces the proposed revision of a public information collection requirement and seeks public comment on the provisions thereof.
DoD will consider all comments received by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by OMB Control Number 0704-0477, using any of the following methods:
Comments received generally will be posted without change to
Ms. Amy Williams, at 571-372-6106. The information collection requirements addressed in this notice are available on the World Wide Web at:
This information collection includes requirements relating to DFARS subpart 209.5, Organizational and Consultant Conflicts of Interest, and the related provision at DFARS 252.209-7008, Notice of Prohibition Relegating to Organizational Conflict of Interest—Major Defense Acquisition Program. DFARS subpart 209.5 implements section 207 of the Weapons system Acquisition Reform Act of 2009 (Pub. L. 111-23). The provision at DFARS 252.209-7008, paragraph (d), requires an offeror to submit a mitigation plan if requesting an exemption from the statutory limitation on future contracting.
Department of Defense.
Notice of Federal Advisory Committee closed meeting.
The Department of Defense is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the U.S. Strategic Command Strategic Advisory Group. This meeting will be closed to the public.
Wednesday, October 5, 2016, from 8:00 a.m. to 4:00 p.m. and Thursday, October 6, 2016, from 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m.
Dougherty Conference Center, Building 432, 906 SAC Boulevard, Offutt AFB, Nebraska 68113.
Mr. John L. Trefz, Jr., Designated Federal Officer, (402) 294-4102, 901 SAC Boulevard, Suite 1F7, Offutt AFB, NE 68113-6030.
This meeting is being held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972 (5 U.S.C. App 2, Section 1), the Government in Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b), and 41 CFR 102-3.150.
Office of Economic Adjustment, Office of the Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics, DoD.
Notice.
In compliance with the
Consideration will be given to all comments received by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by any of the following methods:
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Any associated form(s) for this collection may be located within this same electronic docket and downloaded for review/testing. Follow the instructions at
To request more information on this proposed information collection or to obtain a copy of the proposal and associated collection instruments, please write to the Office of Economic Adjustment, Compliance and Integration, ATTN: Nia Hope, 2231 Crystal Drive, Suite 520, Arlington, VA 22202 at 703-697-2088.
Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 19, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
Office of Postsecondary Education (OPE), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 19, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Rachael Couch, 202-453-6078.
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
An Educational Opportunity Centers project may provide the following services:
(1) Public information campaigns designed to inform the community regarding opportunities for postsecondary education and training;
(2) Academic advice and assistance in course selection;
(3) Assistance in completing college admission and financial aid applications;
(4) Assistance in preparing for college entrance examinations;
(5) Education or counseling services designed to improve the financial literacy and economic literacy of students;
(6) Guidance on secondary school reentry or entry to a general educational development (GED) program or other alternative education program for secondary school dropouts;
(7) Individualized personal, career, and academic counseling;
(8) Tutorial services;
(9) Career workshops and counseling;
(10) Mentoring programs involving elementary or secondary school teachers, faculty members at institutions of higher education (IHEs), students, or any combination of these persons; and
(11) Programs and activities as described in items (1) through (10) that are specially designed for students who are limited English proficient, students from groups that are traditionally underrepresented in postsecondary education, students with disabilities, students who are homeless children and youths, students who are in foster care or are aging out of the foster care system, or other disconnected students.
(12) Other activities designed to meet the purposes of the EOC Program.
National Center for Education Statistics (NCES), Department of Education (ED).
Notice.
In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. chapter 3501
Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before October 19, 2016.
To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use
For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact NCES Information Collections at
The Department of Education (ED), in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. ED is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department of Education is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) Is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.
The Program for International Student Assessments (PISA) is an international assessment of 15-year-olds which focuses on assessing students' reading, mathematics, and science literacy. PISA was first administered in 2000 and is conducted every three years. The United States has participated in all of the previous cycles, and will participate in 2018 in order to track trends and to compare the performance of U.S. students with that of students in other education systems. PISA 2018 is sponsored by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). In the United States, PISA is conducted by the National Center for Education Statistics (NCES), within the U.S. Department of Education. In each administration of PISA, one of the subject areas (reading, mathematics, or science literacy) is the major domain and has the broadest content coverage, while the other two subjects are the minor domains. PISA emphasizes functional skills that students have acquired as they near the end of mandatory schooling (aged 15 years), and students' knowledge and
Western Area Power Administration, DOE.
Notice of approval for Fiscal Year 2017 base charge and rates.
In this notice, the Western Area Power Administration (WAPA) establishes the Fiscal Year (FY) 2017 base charge and rates for Boulder Canyon Project (BCP) electric service, as approved by the Deputy Secretary of Energy (Deputy Secretary). The base charge will provide sufficient revenue to cover all annual costs, including interest expense, and to repay investments within the allowable period.
The base charge and rates will be effective the first day of the first full billing period beginning on or after October 1, 2016, and will remain in effect through September 30, 2017, or until superseded.
Mr. Ronald E. Moulton, Regional Manager, Desert Southwest Region, Western Area Power Administration, P.O. Box 6457, Phoenix, AZ 85005-6457, (602) 605-2453, email
Hoover Dam, authorized by the Boulder Canyon Project Act (45 Stat. 1057, December 21, 1928), sits on the Colorado River along the Arizona and Nevada border. The Hoover Dam power plant has 19 generating units (two for plant use) and an installed capacity of 2,078,800 kilowatts (kW) (4,800 kW for plant use). High-voltage transmission lines and substations connect BCP power to consumers in southern Nevada, Arizona, and southern California. Electric service rates are adjusted annually using an existing rate formula established on April 19, 1996. The rate formula requires BCP power customers to pay a base charge (expressed in dollars), rather than a rate, for their power. The base charge is calculated to generate sufficient revenue to cover all annual costs, including interest expense, and to repay investments within allowable time periods. The base charge is allocated to each BCP power customer in proportion to its allocation of Hoover power. The composite power rate, expressed in mills per kilowatt-hour (mills/kWh), is calculated by dividing the base charge by energy sales in a year. However, it is the base charge and not the power rate that is used to calculate BCP customers' bills.
Rate Schedule BCP-F9 under Rate Order No. WAPA-171 was approved on an interim basis by the Deputy Secretary for a five-year period beginning October 1, 2015, and ending September 30, 2020.
The FY 2017 base charge for BCP electric service is $69,662,289, a 9.3 percent increase from the FY 2016 base charge of $63,735,856. The primary factors contributing to the change in the base charge are prior year carryover and total expenses. Prior year carryover, the difference between the previous year's base charge and expense, has decreased by $9 million, or 62.7 percent. Prior year carryover offset current year expenses, thereby reducing the base charge. In FY 2014, carryover increased significantly when customers repaid certain capitalized investments. Since that time carryover has steadily decreased, contributing to the increase in the FY 2017 base charge. Total expenses, which include operation, maintenance and replacement costs, increased by $6 million, or 9.2 percent, while other expenses such as the uprating credit program and Hoover Dam Visitor Center costs decreased by $10 million, or 37 percent. Despite the overall expense decrease of $4 million, the FY 2017 base charge is increasing due to the reduction of prior year carryover.
The FY 2017 composite rate of 19.63 mills/kWh increased 7.11 percent compared to the FY 2016 composite rate of 18.33 mills/kWh. The FY 2017 energy rate of 9.82 mills/kWh increased 7.11 percent compared to the FY 2016 energy rate of 9.17 mills/kWh. The FY 2017 capacity rate of $1.89/kW-month increased 9.8 percent compared to the FY 2016 capacity rate of $1.72/kW-month. Energy sales are forecast to increase 2 percent from FY 2016 while FY 2017 capacity sales are expected to decrease 0.5 percent due to poor hydrological conditions. The increase in the FY 2017 base charge is the primary driver behind the increases in the composite, energy and capacity rates. The base charge and rates were calculated using WAPA's FY 2016 Final Master Schedule which provides FY 2017 energy and capacity sales projections.
The following summarizes the steps taken by WAPA to ensure involvement of all interested parties in determining the base charge and rates:
1. A
2. Discussion of the proposal occurred at two informal BCP Contractor meetings held April 5, 2016, in Phoenix, Arizona and April 12, 2016, via web conference. Representatives from WAPA and the Bureau of Reclamation (Reclamation) explained the basis for the estimates used to calculate the base charge and rates and held a question and answer session.
3. At the public information forum held on April 27, 2016, in Phoenix, Arizona, WAPA and Reclamation representatives explained the proposed base charge and rates for FY 2017 and held a question and answer session at these informal meetings.
4. A public comment forum held on May 25, 2016, in Phoenix, Arizona, provided the public with an opportunity to comment for the record.
5. WAPA received several comments during the 90-day consultation and comment period ending July 5, 2016. Comments and responses, paraphrased for brevity when not affecting the meaning of the statement, are presented below.
The base charge and the resulting calculated rates for electric service are designed to recover expenses including operation and maintenance, payments to states, visitor services, the uprating program, replacements, investment repayment, and accumulated interest. WAPA's power repayment study (PRS) allocates the base charge for electric service equally between capacity and energy.
Information about this base charge and rate adjustment, including the PRS, comments, letters, memorandums, and other supporting material developed or maintained by WAPA and used to develop the FY 2017 base charge and rates is available for public review at the Desert Southwest Region, Western Area Power Administration, 615 South 43rd Avenue, Phoenix, AZ 85009. The information is also available on WAPA's Web site at
BCP electric service rates are developed under the Department of Energy Organization Act (42 U.S.C. 7101-7352), through which the power marketing functions of the Secretary of the Interior under the Reclamation Act of 1902 (ch. 1093, 32 Stat. 388), as amended and supplemented by subsequent enactments, particularly section 9(c) of the Reclamation Project Act of 1939 (43 U.S.C. 485h(c)), and other acts that specifically apply to the project involved, were transferred to and vested in the Secretary of Energy, acting by and through WAPA.
By Delegation Order No. 00-037.00A, effective October 25, 2013, the Secretary of Energy delegated: (1) The authority to develop power and transmission rates to the Administrator of WAPA; (2) the authority to confirm, approve, and place such rates into effect on an interim basis to the Deputy Secretary; and (3) the authority to confirm, approve, and place into effect on a final basis, to remand or to disapprove such rates to the FERC. Existing Department of Energy procedures for public participation in power rate adjustments (10 CFR part 903) were published on September 18, 1985 (50 FR 37835). Department of Energy procedures were followed by WAPA in developing the rate formula approved by FERC on December 11, 2015.
The Boulder Canyon Project Implementation Agreement (BCPIA) requires that WAPA determine the annual base charge and rates for the next fiscal year before October 1 of each rate year. The rates for the first rate year, and each fifth rate year thereafter, become effective provisionally upon approval by the Deputy Secretary subject to final approval by FERC. For all other rate years, as is the case for FY 2017, the rates become effective on a final basis upon approval by the Deputy Secretary.
In accordance with 10 CFR part 904, effective June 1, 1987, and the BCPIA, the rates are reviewed annually and adjusted to assure sufficient revenues are collected to achieve payment of all costs and financial obligations associated with the project. Each fiscal year, WAPA prepares a PRS for the BCP to update actual revenues and expenses, including interest, estimates of future revenues, operating expenses, and capitalized costs.
Consistent with procedures set forth in 10 CFR parts 903 and 904 and 18 CFR part 300, WAPA held a consultation and comment period. The notice of the proposed FY 2017 base charge and rates for electric service was published in the
Under Delegation Order Nos. 00-037.00A and 00-001.00F and in compliance with 10 CFR parts 903 and 904, I hereby approve the FY 2017 base charge and rates for BCP electric service
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
This notice announces the availability of EPA's draft human health and ecological risk assessments for the registration review of carfentrazone-ethyl, copper compounds, mineral acids, spinosad, and spinetoram and opens a public comment period on these documents. Registration review is EPA's periodic review of pesticide registrations to ensure that each pesticide continues to satisfy the statutory standard for registration, that is, the pesticide can perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment. As part of the registration review process, the Agency has completed comprehensive draft human health and/or ecological risk assessments for all chemicals listed in the Table of Unit III. After reviewing comments received during the public comment period, EPA will issue revised risk assessments, explain any changes to the draft risk assessments, and respond to comments and may request public input on risk mitigation before completing proposed registration review decisions for the chemicals listed in the Table of Unit III. Through this program, EPA is ensuring that each pesticide's registration is based on current scientific and other knowledge, including its effects on human health and the environment.
Comments must be received on or before November 18, 2016.
Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2015-0794, by one of the following methods:
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Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at
This action is directed to the public in general, and may be of interest to a wide range of stakeholders including environmental, human health, farm worker, and agricultural advocates; the chemical industry; pesticide users; and members of the public interested in the sale, distribution, or use of pesticides. Since others also may be interested, the Agency has not attempted to describe all the specific entities that may be affected by this action. If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this action to a particular entity, consult the Chemical Review Manager listed in the Table of Unit III.
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EPA is conducting its registration review of the chemicals listed in the Table of Unit III pursuant to section 3(g) of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Procedural Regulations for Registration Review at 40 CFR part 155, subpart C. Section 3(g) of FIFRA provides, among other things, that the registrations of pesticides are to be reviewed every 15 years. Under FIFRA, a pesticide product may be registered or remain registered only if it meets the statutory standard for registration given in FIFRA section 3(c)(5) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(5)). When used in accordance with widespread and commonly recognized practice, the pesticide product must perform its intended function without unreasonable adverse effects on the environment; that is, without any unreasonable risk to man or the environment, or a human dietary risk from residues that result from the use of a pesticide in or on food.
As directed by FIFRA section 3(g), EPA is reviewing the pesticide registrations for the chemicals listed in the Table in this Unit to ensure that they continue to satisfy the FIFRA standard for registration—that is, that these chemicals can still be used without unreasonable adverse effects on human health or the environment.
Pursuant to 40 CFR 155.53(c), EPA is providing an opportunity, through this notice of availability, for interested parties to provide comments and input concerning the Agency's draft human health and/or ecological risk assessments for the chemicals listed in the Table in this Unit. Such comments and input could address, among other things, the Agency's risk assessment methodologies and assumptions, as applied to these draft risk assessments. The Agency will consider all comments received during the public comment period and make changes, as appropriate, to the draft ecological and/or human health risk assessments. EPA will then issue revised risk assessments, explain any changes to the draft risk assessments, and respond to comments. In the
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• To ensure that EPA will consider data or information submitted, interested persons must submit the data or information during the comment period. The Agency may, at its discretion, consider data or information submitted at a later date.
• The data or information submitted must be presented in a legible and useable form. For example, an English translation must accompany any material that is not in English and a written transcript must accompany any information submitted as an audiographic or videographic record. Written material may be submitted in paper or electronic form.
• Submitters must clearly identify the source of any submitted data or information.
• Submitters may request the Agency to reconsider data or information that the Agency rejected in a previous review. However, submitters must explain why they believe the Agency should reconsider the data or information in the pesticide's registration review.
As provided in 40 CFR 155.58, the registration review docket for each pesticide case will remain publicly accessible through the duration of the registration review process; that is, until all actions required in the final decision on the registration review case have been completed.
7 U.S.C. 136
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice of advisory committee teleconference.
Under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92463, EPA gives notice of a public meeting of the National Advisory Council for Environmental Policy and Technology (NACEPT). NACEPT provides advice to the EPA Administrator on a broad range of environmental policy, technology, and management issues. NACEPT members represent academia, industry, non-governmental organizations, and state, local and tribal governments. The purpose of this meeting is for NACEPT to discuss the Council's draft report regarding actions that EPA should take in response to technological and sociological developments in the area of citizen science. A copy of the meeting agenda will be posted at
NACEPT will hold a public teleconference on October 17, 2016, from 12:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. (EDT).
The meeting will be held at the EPA Headquarters, William Jefferson Clinton Federal Building East, Room 1132, 1201 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20004.
Eugene Green, Designated Federal Officer,
Requests to make oral comments or to provide written comments to NACEPT should be sent to Eugene Green at
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Notice.
The Environmental Protection Agency is planning to submit an information collection request (ICR) for a mandatory survey, “Proposed Information Collection Request for the National Study of Nutrient Removal and Secondary Technologies: Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW) Screener Questionnaire” (EPA ICR No. 2553.01, OMB Control No. 2040-NEW). Before submitting the ICR to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act, EPA is soliciting public comments on specific aspects of the proposed information collection as described below. An Agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
Comments must be submitted on or before November 18, 2016.
Submit your comments, referencing Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2016-0404 online using
Dr. Paul Shriner, Engineering and Analysis Division (4303T), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW., Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-566-1076; email address:
EPA has established a public docket for this ICR under Docket ID No. EPA—EPA-HQ-OW-2016-0404, which is available at
Use
Pursuant to section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA, EPA specifically solicits comments and information to enable it to:
(i) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(ii) Evaluate the accuracy of the Agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(iii) Enhance the accuracy, quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(iv) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology (
You may find the following suggestions helpful for preparing your comments:
1. Explain your views as clearly as possible and provide specific examples.
2. Describe any assumptions that you used.
3. Provide copies of any technical information and/or data you used that support your views.
4. If you estimate potential burden or costs, explain how you arrived at the estimate that you provide.
5. Offer alternative ways to improve the collection activity.
6. Make sure to submit your comments by the deadline identified under
7. To ensure proper receipt by EPA, be sure to identify the docket ID number assigned to this action in the subject line on the first page of your response. You may also provide the name, date, and
The full study would be conducted in multiple phases over the course of four to five years, allowing for interactions with stakeholders and experts in each phase. The first phase of the study is a screener questionnaire which is the focus of this ICR.
To initiate this study, EPA first needs to update existing information on the universe of POTWs in the U.S., including tribally owned facilities, and collect basic information on the characteristics of these POTWs. There are no currently available datasets which identify all the POTWs in the country, or that identify which POTWs are conventional secondary treatment plants. These conventional secondary plants would then be the focus of study over the next four years to determine how efficiently these plants remove nutrients and how enhancements to operation and maintenance have improved that performance. EPA envisions conducting future surveys of a statistically representative sample of the population of secondary treatment plants but will not know the exact format of the collection until it receives data from this screener. Regardless of the method, EPA's objective is to create a database of the full population of POTWs in the U.S. and use that database for further statistical study of nutrient removal performance. EPA plans to make this database publically available—subject to confidentiality concerns that may arise. Currently only a small number of case studies are available documenting how secondary treatment plants can reduce nutrient discharges through enhanced operation and maintenance procedures. The study EPA is planning would provide statistically representative data on improved nutrient removal by secondary treatment plants resulting from changes in operation and maintenance. This study would help States and POTWs agree to and set well-informed and realistic nutrient load reduction targets for wastewater treatment facilities where appropriate, and provide information on the time and costs needed to make enhancements in operation and maintenance procedures.
EPA's Office of Water plans to administer the initial survey as a mandatory census of POTWs in the U.S. Clean Water Act Section 308 authority constitutes a broad authority
The rationale for conducting this effort as a mandatory census is two-fold. Currently there exist multiple, disparate databases containing information concerning various subsets of treatment facilities; however, each of these databases is incomplete with respect to identifying all facilities. In addition, each database has missing or incomplete data fields. Second, historic precedent indicates that voluntary survey designs have extremely low response rates and issues with bias. Both of these facts make getting an accurate, national profile of POTWs infeasible without making it mandatory to respond. EPA also intends to conduct up to 40 POTW site visits and up to 100 state and small municipality association phone contacts to solicit information on industry terminology, typical treatment trains and modes of operation, and nutrient removal technologies and operating practices, and this ICR addresses these activities as well.
EPA is limiting the information requested by the census to that which is necessary to create a complete population of POTWs and to identify basic information about that population. Questions include those necessary to identify and stratify the universe of POTWs and, within that population, the secondary treatment POTWs not designed specifically to remove nitrogen and phosphorus. A draft of the screener is available at Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OW-2016-0404 as part of today's request for comments (see
The draft screener makes use of multiple choice and yes/no questions, with the intention to use drop down menus and checkboxes from which respondents will choose the best answer. EPA is not including open-ended questions in the screener questionnaire which would likely be unwieldy due to the number and expected variation of responses and the extensive follow-up needed when entering the responses into a database. EPA intends to design the screener questionnaire as a web-based survey that POTWs can fill out and submit online. EPA intends to require the submittal of a signed certification form that will either be uploaded with the screener, or may be mailed directly to the Agency. EPA will provide a mechanism for POTWs to respond with a mailed response if they cannot access the internet. EPA is specifically soliciting comments on simplifying the census format. In addition, EPA is soliciting comments on EPA's approach to developing the mailing list, and has made a draft available in the Docket (see
The ICR provides a detailed explanation of the Agency's estimate, which is only briefly summarized here:
EPA will consider the comments received and amend the ICR, the screener questionnaire, and its approach as appropriate. During this public comment period, EPA will be working with stakeholders to refine the survey instrument and will revise the instrument as appropriate after considering the comments expressed during those interactions and in response to this notice. The final ICR package will then be submitted to OMB for review and approval pursuant to 5 CFR 1320.12. At that time, EPA will issue another
Federal Communications Commission.
Notice and request for comments.
As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collections. Comments are requested concerning: Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. No person shall be subject to
Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before November 18, 2016. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.
Direct all PRA comments to Cathy Williams, FCC, via email
For additional information about the information collection, contact Cathy Williams at (202) 418-2918.
The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841
The applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank indicated. The applications will also be available for inspection at the offices of the Board of Governors. Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)). If the proposal also involves the acquisition of a nonbanking company, the review also includes whether the acquisition of the nonbanking company complies with the standards in section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843). Unless otherwise noted, nonbanking activities will be conducted throughout the United States.
Unless otherwise noted, comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than October 13, 2016.
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414:
1.
2.
3.
B. Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City (Dennis Denney, Assistant Vice President) 1 Memorial Drive, Kansas City, Missouri 64198-0001:
1.
This notice corrects notice FR Doc. 2016-20773 published on page 59624 of the
Under the Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago heading, the entry for
Comments on this application must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors not later than September 23, 2016.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on the proposed revision of the National Electronic Health Records Survey (NEHRS), formerly approved as the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS) National Electronic Health Records Survey (NEHRS). This three year revision request includes an update to the currently approved questionnaire, the addition of a follow-up survey, and a survey name change deleting the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS) from the title. The purpose of NEHRS is to meet the needs and demands for statistical information about EHR adoption in physician offices in the United States.
Written comments must be received on or before November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0091 by any of the following methods:
•
•
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
The National Electronic Health Records Survey (NEHRS) (formerly approved as the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS) National Electronic Health Records Survey (NEHRS)) (OMB No. 0920-1015, Expires 04/30/2017)—Revision—National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
Section 306 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act (42 U.S.C. 242k), as amended, authorizes that the Secretary of Health and Human Services (DHHS), acting through NCHS, shall collect statistics on “utilization of health care” in the United States. NEHRS was originally designed as a mail supplement to the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS). Questions in NEHRS have been asked in NAMCS starting in 2001.
The purpose of NEHRS is to measure progress toward goals for electronic health records (EHRs) adoption. NEHRS target universe consists of all non-Federal office-based physicians (excluding those in the specialties of anesthesiology, radiology, and pathology) who are engaged in direct patient care.
NEHRS is the principal source of data on national and state-level EHR adoption in the United States. In 2008 and 2009, the sample size was 2,000 physicians annually. Starting in 2010, the annual sample size was increased five-fold, from 2,000 physicians to 10,302 physicians. The increased sample size allows for more reliable national estimates as well as state-level estimates on EHR adoption without having to be combined with NAMCS. For these reasons, in 2012 NEHRS became an independent survey, not as a supplement under NAMCS.
NEHRS collects information on characteristics of physician practices, the capabilities of EHRs in those practices, and intent to apply for meaningful use incentive payments. These data, together with trend data, may be used to monitor the adoption of EHR as well as accessing factors associated with EHR adoption.
Users of NEHRS data include, but are not limited to, Congressional offices, Federal agencies, state and local governments, schools of public health, colleges and universities, private industry, nonprofit foundations, professional associations, clinicians, researchers, administrators, and health planners.
There is no cost to the respondents other than their time.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has submitted the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The notice for the proposed information collection is published to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies concerning the proposed collection of information are encouraged. Your comments should address any of the following: (a) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (b) Evaluate the accuracy of the agencies estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (c) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
To request additional information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, call (404) 639-7570 or send an email to
Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge (OMB No. 0920-0976, exp. 7/31/2016)—Reinstatement with Change—National Center for Chronic Disease Prevention and Health Promotion (NCCDPHP), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
In September 2011, HHS launched the Million Hearts® initiative to prevent one million heart attacks and strokes by 2017. There is scientific evidence that provides general guidance on the types of system-based changes to clinical practice that can improve patient blood pressure control, but more information is needed to fully understand implementation practices so that they can be shared and promoted.
In 2013, CDC launched the Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge (OMB No. 0920-0976, exp. 7/31/2016). The Challenge is authorized by Public Law 111-358, the America Creating Opportunities to Meaningfully Promote Excellence in Technology, Education and Science Reauthorization Act of 2010 (COMPETES Act). The annual Challenge is designed to help CDC (1) identify clinical practices and health systems that have been successful in achieving high rates of hypertension control, and (2) develop models for dissemination. The Challenge is open to single practice providers, group practice providers, and healthcare systems.
In 2013, 2014, and 2015, CDC collected information needed to assess candidates for recognition through the Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge. A total of 59 public and private health care practices and systems were recognized as Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Champions for achieving exemplary levels of hypertension control in adults ages 18-85.
CDC plans to reinstate the Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge, with changes, for information collection beginning in 2017. Challenges were previously launched in late summer/early fall. The 2016 Challenge is scheduled to launch in February 2017, coinciding with American Heart Month. The nomination period will be open for approximately 60 days, with recognition of the 2016 Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Champions in the fall of 2017. A similar calendar year schedule is planned for 2018 (information collection and recognition for the 2017 Champions) and 2019 (information collection and recognition for the 2018 Champions).
Information collection supporting the Challenge will be conducted in three steps. First, interested providers or practices will complete a web-based nomination form which provides the minimum amount of data needed to demonstrate evidence of clinical success in achieving hypertension control, including: (a) Two point-in-time measures of the clinical hypertension control rate for the patient population, (b) the size of the clinic population served, (c) a description of the patient population served and geographic location, and (d) a description of the sustainable systems and strategies adopted to achieve and maintain hypertension control rates. The estimated burden for completing the nomination form is 30 minutes. CDC scientists or contractors will review each nomination form and assign a preliminary score.
In the second phase of assessment, nominees with the highest preliminary scores (finalists) will be asked to participate in a one-hour data verification process. The nominee will review the nomination form with a reviewer or abstractor, describe how information was obtained from the provider's (or practice's) electronic
In the third phase of the assessment, each remaining finalist will participate in a two-hour, semi-structured interview and provide detailed information about the patient population served, the geographic region served, and the strategies employed by the practice or health system to achieve exemplary rates of hypertension control, including barriers and facilitators for those strategies.
Based on experience with administration of the Challenge in previous years, CDC plans to eliminate the cash prize awarded to Champions in previous years, and to implement minor changes to the nomination form and the data verification form that will improve usability and data quality. There are no changes to the estimated burden per response. Finally, CDC anticipates an overall reduction in burden due to a reduction in the estimated number of nominees. During the period of this Reinstatement request, on an annual basis, CDC estimates that information will be collected from up to 500 nominees using the nomination form, at most 40 data verifications, and at most 40 semi-structured interviews.
CDC will use the information collected through the Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge to increase widespread attention to hypertension at the clinical practice level, improve understanding of successful and sustainable implementation strategies at the practice or health system level, bring visibility to organizations that invest in hypertension control, and motivate individual practices to strengthen their hypertension control efforts. Information collected through the Million Hearts® Hypertension Control Challenge will link success in clinical outcomes of hypertension control with information about procedures that can be used to achieve similar favorable outcomes so that the strategies can be replicated by other providers and health care systems.
OMB approval is requested for three years. Participation is voluntary and there are no costs to the respondents other than their time. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 370.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
Notice with comment period.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), as part of its continuing efforts to reduce public burden and maximize the utility of government information, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on proposed and/or continuing information collections, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. This notice invites comment on a proposed information collection plan entitled
Written comments must be received on or before November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CDC-2016-0088 by any of the following methods:
•
•
All public comment should be submitted through the Federal eRulemaking portal (
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the information collection plan and instruments, contact the Information Collection Review Office, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1600 Clifton Road NE., MS-D74, Atlanta, Georgia 30329; phone: 404-639-7570; Email:
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. In addition, the PRA also requires Federal agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and (e) estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information. Burden means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search data sources, to complete and review the collection of information; and to transmit or otherwise disclose the information.
Evaluation of Effectiveness of NIOSH Publications (OMB Control No. 0920-0544, Expired 4/30/2010)—Reinstatement with Change—National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
As mandated in the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (Pub. L. 91-596), the mission of the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) is to conduct research and investigations on work-related disease and injury and to disseminate information for preventing identified workplace hazards (Sections 20(a)(1) and (d), Attachment 1). NIOSH is proposing a two-year study to collect stakeholder feedback on the effectiveness of NIOSH products and their dissemination. This dual responsibility recognizes the need to translate research into workplace application if it is to impact worker safety and well-being.
NIOSH, through its communication efforts, seeks to promote greater awareness of occupational hazards and their control, influence public policy and regulatory action, shape national research priorities, change organizational practices and individual behavior, and ultimately, improve American working life. NIOSH's primary communication vehicle is its series of numbered publications catalogued by the Institute as Policy Documents, Technical Documents, and Educational Documents.
The aforementioned types of documents are available to the public through the use of mailing lists, NIOSH eNews, the NIOSH Web site, promotion at conferences, and by other means. In Fiscal Year 2015, combined digital downloads and hard copy distributions of NIOSH publications registered at over 790,000. Yet, these numbers tell little of whether the reports are reaching all of the appropriate audiences, or whether the information is perceived as credible and useful by the recipients. Therefore, a Customer Satisfaction Survey (CSS) was conducted in 2003 and a follow-up CSS in 2010 to assess customer satisfaction and perceived impact of NIOSH publications.
The proposed survey seeks to update the data collected for the 2010 survey (OMB Control No. 0920-0544) and gather data on outreach initiatives NIOSH has undertaken in recent years. The findings reported in 2010 confirmed that NIOSH continues to be a credible source of occupational safety and health information, NIOSH publications were being used more frequently than in previous years, and respondents are relying more on the NIOSH Web site and other electronic resources. With regard to having read or referred to a NIOSH product or resource in the past, 82% of the total respondents said they had, and responses grouped by organization—AAOHN (80%), ACOEM (71%), AIHA (90%), and ASSE (85%)—also show an increase. However, the 2010 CSS also revealed that the percentage of respondents who looked to NIOSH for OSH information dropped from 84% in 2003 to 76% in 2009 (when the 2010 survey data were collected).
Results from the 2010 CSS suggest that NIOSH needs to partner more with stakeholder associations to assess the needs of those in the OSH community who are not using NIOSH resources. Since then, NIOSH has established a partner database, which documents the private companies, professional associations, and labor unions listed as partners on various projects. Another recommendation is that NIOSH develop strategies to increase awareness of electronic resources and newsletters. NIOSH has since established additional notifications, such as the monthly Research Rounds (
The third recommendation from the 2010 survey was that NIOSH develop a broader range of tools that have direct application and provide clearer guidance on policy. In addition to being offered as a downloadable PDF document, the Pocket Guide to Chemical Hazards, NIOSH's most popular product, is being offered as a mobile app as well as a PDF document, both of which can be downloaded from the NIOSH Web site (
The currently proposed Customer Satisfaction and Impact (CSI) Survey, is an effort by the agency to obtain current estimates of consumer use/benefit from NIOSH communication products as a whole, as well as to determine the adequacy of the agency's circulation/delivery practices in light of changing distribution approaches and technologies. The CSI will account for changes in NIOSH publications, digital product formats, and new dissemination channels emerging since survey data were last collected. The CSI will also solicit more audience-based information that reflects the new media environment in which many NIOSH publications are offered. Such expansions will yield findings that show how well customer service practices at NIOSH have followed the 2003 and 2010 recommendations, as well as provide insights into how users seek and use
The survey will be directed to the community of occupational safety and health (OSH) professionals as well as business and trade association intermediaries as this audience represents the primary and traditional customer base for NIOSH information materials. Intermediaries use their connections to small businesses and other organizations to disseminate information to stakeholders who might not otherwise receive it. Intermediaries include occupational health service providers, labor organizations, chambers of commerce, and insurance companies.
NIOSH estimates that it will take 315 total burden hours to complete information collections, compared to 204 burden hours estimated for the 2010 CSS. There are no costs to the respondents other than their time.
Customer Satisfaction and Impact (CSI) Survey:
Children's Bureau, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
Proposed Information Collection Activity; Comment Request.
The RPG Cross-Site Evaluation includes the following components:
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3.
In addition to conducting local evaluations and participating in the RPG Cross-Site Evaluation, the RPG grantees are legislatively required to report performance indicators aligned with their proposed program strategies and activities. A key strategy of the RPG Cross-Site Evaluation is to minimize burden on the grantees by ensuring that the cross-site evaluation, which includes all grantees in a study that collects data to report on implementation, the partnerships, and participant characteristics and outcomes, fully meets the need for performance reporting. Thus, rather than collecting separate evaluation and performance indicator data, the grantees need only participate in the cross-site evaluation. In addition, using the standardized instruments that the Children's Bureau has specified will ensure that grantees have valid and reliable data on child and family outcomes for their local evaluations. The inclusion of an impact study conducted on a subset of grantees with rigorous designs will also provide the Children's Bureau, Congress, grantees, providers, and researchers with information about the effectiveness of RPG programs.
A 60-Day
In compliance with the requirements of Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Children's Bureau within the Administration for Children and Families is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above. Copies of the proposed collection of information can be obtained and comments may be forwarded by writing to Administration for Children and Families, Office of Planning, Research, and Evaluation, 330 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20416, Attn: ACF Reports Clearance Officer. Email address:
OMB is required to make a decision concerning the collection of information between 30 and 60 days after publication of this document in the
The form provides specific data regarding claims and provides a mechanism for States to request Child Care grant awards and to certify the availability of State matching funds. Failure to collect this data would seriously compromise ACF's ability to monitor Child Care and Development Fund expenditures. This information is also used to estimate outlays and may be used to prepare ACF budget submissions to Congress.
The previous information collection requirements related to the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act (ARRA) of 2009, (Pub. L.111-5) have been deleted from this reporting form.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is requesting interested persons to submit comments concerning abuse potential, actual abuse, medical usefulness, trafficking, and impact of scheduling changes on availability for medical use of 12 drug substances. These comments will be considered in preparing a response from the United States to the World Health Organization (WHO) regarding the abuse liability and diversion of these drugs. WHO will use this information to consider whether to recommend that certain international restrictions be placed on these drugs. This notice requesting comments is required by the Controlled Substances Act (the CSA).
Submit either electronic or written comments by October 4, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
James R. Hunter, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Controlled Substance Staff, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 5150, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-3156, email:
The United States is a party to the 1971 Convention on Psychotropic Substances (Psychotropic Convention). Article 2 of the Psychotropic Convention provides that if a party to the convention or WHO has information about a substance, which in its opinion may require international control or change in such control, it shall so notify the Secretary-General of the United Nations (the U.N. Secretary-General) and provide the U.N. Secretary-General
Section 201 of the CSA (21 U.S.C. 811) (Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970) provides that when WHO notifies the United States under Article 2 of the Psychotropic Convention that it has information that may justify adding a drug or other substances to one of the schedules of the Psychotropic Convention, transferring a drug or substance from one schedule to another, or deleting it from the schedules, the Secretary of State must transmit the notice to the Secretary of Health and Human Services (Secretary of HHS). The Secretary of HHS must then publish the notice in the
The Secretary of HHS received the following notice from WHO (non-relevant text removed):
The World Health Organization (WHO) presents its compliments to Member States and Associate Members and has the pleasure of informing that the Thirty-eighth Expert Committee on Drug Dependence (ECDD) will meet in Geneva from 14 to 18 November 2016 to review a number of substances with potential for dependence, abuse and harm to health, and will make recommendations to the U.N. Secretary-General, on the need for and level of international control of these substances.
At its 126th session in January 2010, the Executive Board approved the publication “Guidance on the WHO review of psychoactive substances for international control” (EB126/2010/REC1, Annex 6) which requires the Secretariat to request relevant information from Ministers of Health in Member States to prepare a report for submission to the ECDD. For this purpose, a questionnaire was designed to gather information on the legitimate use, harmful use, status of national control and potential impact of international control for each substance under evaluation. Member States are invited to collaborate, as in the past, in this process by providing pertinent information as requested in the questionnaire and concerning substances under review.
It would be appreciated if a person from the Ministry of Health could be designated as the focal point responsible for coordinating and answering the questionnaire. The designated focal point, and only this person, should access and complete the questionnaires:
1. U-47700;
2. Butyrfentanyl (Butyrylfentanyl);
3. 4-Methylethcathinone (4-MEC);
4. 3-Methylmethcathinone (3-methyl-N-methylcathinone; 3-MMC);
5. Ethylone (3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone; bk-MDEA; MDEC);
6. Pentedrone (α-Methylaminovalerophenone);
7. Ethylphenidate (EPH);
8. Methiopropamine (MPA);
9. MDMB-CHMICA;
10. 5F-APINACA (5F-AKB48);
11. JWH-073;
12. XLR-11 (5-Fluoro UR-144, 5F-UR-144).
For ease of reference a PDF version of the questionnaire in English, French and Spanish may be downloaded from the link
Replies to the questionnaire must reach the Secretariat by 20 September 2016 in order to facilitate analyses and preparation of the report before the planned meeting. Where there is a competent National Authority under the International Drug Control Treaties, it is kindly requested that the questionnaire be completed in collaboration with such body.
The summary information from the questionnaire will be published online as part of the report on the Web site for the 38th ECDD linked to the Department of Essential Medicines and Health Products (EMP).
The World Health Organization takes this opportunity to renew to Member States and Associate Members the assurance of its highest consideration.
HHS received an extension from WHO that replies to the questionnaire must reach the Secretariat by October 11, 2016. FDA has verified the Web site addresses contained in the WHO notice, as of the date this document publishes in the
U-47700 is a synthetic opioid drug developed in the 1970s. U-47700 is structurally related to the opioid AH-7921. U-47700 is selective for the µ-opioid receptor. U-47700 has never been studied on humans, but would be expected to produce effects similar to those of other potent opioid agonists, including strong analgesia, sedation, euphoria, constipation, itching, and respiratory depression which could be harmful or fatal. Overdoses and overdose fatalities have been directly attributed to U-47700 misuse. There have been reports of U-47700 being encountered in counterfeit pills. On September 7, 2016, the Drug Enforcement Administration issued a notice of intent to temporarily schedule U-47700 into schedule I pursuant to the temporary scheduling provisions of the Controlled Substances Act.
Butyrfentanyl (butyrylfentanyl) is a synthetic opioid and analog of fentanyl. Fentanyl is controlled in Schedule II of the CSA, and an active ingredient in drug products approved for medical use and marketed in the United States. Butyrylfentanyl has a pharmacological profile similar to that of fentanyl and other µ-opioid receptor agonists. Risks associated with abuse of butyrylfentanyl include development of substance use disorder, overdose, and death similar to that of other µ-opioid agonists. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is aware of at least 40 confirmed fatalities associated with butyrylfentanyl. It has no approved medical use in the United States. On May 12, 2016, butyrylfentanyl was temporarily placed into Schedule I of the CSA for 2 years upon finding that it posed an imminent hazard to the public safety. The Attorney General, though, may extend this temporary scheduling for up to 1 year.
4-Methylethcathinone (4-MEC), 3-Methylmethcathinone (3-methyl-N-methylcathinone; 3-MMC): 3-methyl-methcathinone (3-MMC), pentedrone, and ethylone (3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone; bk-MDEA; MDEC) are synthetic cathinones that are structurally and pharmacologically similar to amphetamine, 3-4 methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), cathinone, and other related substances. These substances are central nervous system stimulants with psychoactive properties similar to Schedule I and II amphetamine type substances. Public health risks associated with the use of synthetic cathinones suggest that these substances are associated with cardiac, psychiatric, and neurological symptoms that may lead to emergency department admissions, violent behaviors causing harm to self or others, or death. 4-MEC, 3-MMC, pentedrone, and ethylone have no known medical use in the United States. On March 7, 2014, the DEA published a final order in the
Ethylphenidate (EPH) is structurally related to methylphenidate. Methylphenidate is controlled in Schedule IV of the CSA, and an active ingredient in drug products approved for medical use and marketed in the United States. Ethylphenidate is not approved for medical use in the United States. Ethylphenidate is structurally related to methylphenidate are being marketed as novel psychoactive substances with psychoactive effects similar to methylphenidate, therefore posing similar health risks to the users. Ethylphenidate is a controlled substance in several European countries, and is not a controlled substance in the United States under the CSA.
Methiopropamine (MPA) is a structural analogue of the Schedule II controlled substance methamphetamine. Pharmacologically, it functions as a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and, secondarily, as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor. MPA is a thiophene based analog of methamphetamine. It has stimulant properties as an inhibitor of dopamine, norepinephrine transporters in the central nervous system. MPA was critically reviewed by the WHO at its 36th meeting of the Expert Committee on Drug Dependence in June 2014. It is not approved for medical use or controlled in the United States under the CSA, but is a controlled substance in the United Kingdom.
MDMB-CHMICA is an indole-based synthetic cannabinoid that is a potent full agonist at CB1 receptors and mimics functionally (biologically) the effects of the structurally unrelated delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), a Schedule I substance, and the main active ingredient of marijuana. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. MDMB-CHMICA use is associated with serious adverse events including death in several European countries. There are no commercial or approved medical uses for MDMB-CHMICA. MDMB-CHMICA is not controlled under the CSA, but may be treated as a “controlled substance analogue” under the CSA pursuant to 21 U.S.C 802(32)(A) and 813, and is a controlled substance in the State of Louisiana.
5F-APINACA (5F-AKB48) is a synthetic cannabinoid belonging to a chemical structural class with an indazole core. In vitro studies show that it binds to the cannabinoid CB1 receptors and displays agonist properties in functional assays, suggesting that it would share in vivo effects with delta-9-THC and various synthetic cannabinoids. There are no commercial or medical uses for 5F-APINACA. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. SF-APINACA is not a controlled substance under the CSA, but may be treated as a “controlled substance analogue” under the CSA pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 802(32)(A) and 813.
JWH-073 is an indole-based synthetic cannabinoid agonist without the classical cannabinoid chemical structure. Pharmacology studies have been conducted on this substance. Behavioral pharmacology studies show that JWH-073 has delta-9-THC-like activity in animals. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. On March 1, 2011, JWH-073 was temporarily controlled in Schedule I and on July 9, 2012, JWH-073 was permanently controlled as a Schedule I substance under the CSA.
XLR-11 (5-Fluoro-UR-144, 5F-UR-144) is an indole-based synthetic cannabinoid and acts as an agonist at cannabinoid CB1 receptors. Animal studies indicate that it mimics functionally (biologically) the effects of the structurally unrelated delta-9-THC, a Schedule I substance, and the main active ingredient of marijuana and numerous other Schedule I synthetic cannabinoids. Synthetic cannabinoids are marketed under the guise of “herbal incense,” and promoted by drug traffickers as legal alternatives to marijuana. On May 16, 2013, XLR-11 was temporarily placed under Schedule I and on May 11, 2016, XLR11 was permanently controlled as a Schedule I substance under the CSA.
As required by section 201(d)(2)(A) of the CSA, FDA, on behalf of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), invites interested persons to submit comments regarding the 12 named drugs. Any comments received will be considered by HHS when it prepares a scientific and medical evaluation of these drugs. HHS will forward a scientific and medical evaluation of these drugs to WHO, through the Secretary of State, for WHO's consideration in deciding whether to recommend international control/decontrol of any of these drugs. Such control could limit, among other things, the manufacture and distribution (import/export) of these drugs and could impose certain recordkeeping requirements on them.
Although FDA is, through this notice, requesting comments from interested persons which will be considered by HHS when it prepares an evaluation of these drugs, HHS will not now make any recommendations to WHO regarding whether any of these drugs should be subjected to international controls. Instead, HHS will defer such consideration until WHO has made official recommendations to the Commission on Narcotic Drugs, which are expected to be made in early 2017. Any HHS position regarding international control of these drugs will be preceded by another
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the document at either
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting and Webcast; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing a regional public meeting (which will also be Webcast) entitled “Health Canada and U.S. Food and Drug Administration Joint Public Consultation on International Council for Harmonisation of Technical
The public meeting will be held on October 24, 2016, from 1 p.m. to 3 p.m., EST. Registration to attend the meeting and requests for oral presentations must be received by October 21, 2016; see the
The meeting will be held at Sir Frederick G. Banting Research Centre, 251 Sir Frederick Banting Driveway, Ottawa, ON K1Y 0M1, Canada. It will also be broadcast on the Web allowing participants to join in person or via the Web.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Amanda Roache, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of Strategic Programs, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 1176, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-4548, email:
The ICH, formerly known as the International Conference on Harmonisation was established in 1990 as a joint regulatory/industry project to improve, through harmonization, the efficiency of the process for developing and registering new medicinal products in Europe, Japan, and the United States without compromising the regulatory obligations of safety and effectiveness. In 2015 the ICH was reformed to make the ICH a true global initiative that expands beyond the previous ICH members. More involvement from regulators around the world is expected, as they will join their counterparts from Europe, Japan, the United States, Canada, and Switzerland as ICH regulatory members. The reforms build on a 25-year track record of successful delivery of harmonized guidelines for global pharmaceutical development, and their regulation. In recent years, many important initiatives have been undertaken by regulatory authorities and industry associations to promote international harmonization of regulatory requirements. FDA has participated in many meetings designed to enhance harmonization and is committed to seeking scientifically based harmonized technical procedures for pharmaceutical development. One of the goals of harmonization is to identify and then reduce differences in technical requirements for medical product development among regulatory Agencies. ICH was organized to provide an opportunity for harmonization initiatives to be developed with input from both regulatory and industry representatives. The ICH process has achieved significant harmonization of
If you wish to attend the meeting, please register at the following Web site:
Interested persons may present data, information, or views orally or in writing on issues pending at the public Webinar. Public oral presentations will be scheduled between approximately 2:30 p.m. and 3 p.m. Time allotted for oral presentations may be limited to 5 minutes. Those desiring to make oral presentations should notify Amanda Roache (see
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
Understanding patients, consumers and health care professionals' perceptions and behaviors plays an important role in improving FDA's regulatory decisionmaking processes and communications impacting various stakeholders. The methods to be employed to achieve these goals include individual indepth interviews, general public focus group interviews, intercept interviews, self-administered surveys, gatekeeper surveys, and focus group interviews. The methods to be used serve the narrowly defined need for direct and informal opinion on a specific topic and as a qualitative and quantitative research tool, and have two major purposes:
1. To obtain information that is useful for developing variables and measures for formulating the basic objectives of social and behavioral research and;
2. To assess the potential effectiveness of FDA communications, behavioral interventions and other materials in reaching and successfully communicating and addressing behavioral change with their intended audiences.
FDA will use these methods to test and refine its ideas and to help develop communication and behavioral strategies research, but will generally conduct further research before making important decisions such as adopting new policies and allocating or redirecting significant resources to support these policies.
FDA's Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research, Office of the Commissioner, and any other Centers or Offices will use this mechanism to test communications and social and behavioral methods about regulated drug products on a variety of subjects related to consumer, patient, or healthcare professional perceptions, beliefs, attitudes, behaviors and use of drug and biological products and related materials, including, but not limited to, social and behavioral research, decisionmaking processes, and communication and behavioral change strategies.
Annually, FDA projects about 45 social and behavioral studies using the variety of test methods listed in this document. FDA is requesting this burden so as not to restrict the Agency's ability to gather information on public sentiment for its proposals in its regulatory and communications programs.
FDA estimates the burden of this collection of information as follows:
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (the PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the
Submit either electronic or written comments on the collection of information by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA PRA Staff, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A63, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852,
Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the
With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.
From 1998 to 2008, FDA's National Retail Food Team conducted a study to measure trends in the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors, preparation practices, and employee behaviors most commonly reported to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention as contributing factors to foodborne illness outbreaks at the retail level. Specifically, data was collected by FDA Specialists in retail and foodservice establishments at 5-year intervals (1998, 2003, and 2008) in order to observe and document trends in the occurrence of the following foodborne illness risk factors:
• Food from Unsafe Sources,
• Poor Personal Hygiene,
• Inadequate Cooking,
• Improper Holding/Time and Temperature, and
• Contaminated Equipment/Cross-Contamination.
FDA developed reports summarizing the findings for each of the three data collection periods (1998, 2003, and 2008) (Refs. 1 to 3). Data from all three data collection periods were analyzed to detect trends in improvement or regression over time and to determine whether progress had been made toward the goal of reducing the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors in selected retail and foodservice facility types (Ref. 4).
Using this 10-year survey as a foundation, in 2013-2014, FDA initiated a new study in full service and fast food restaurants. This study will span 10 years with additional data collections planned for 2017-2018 and 2021-2022.
FDA is currently collecting data in select institutional foodservice, schools, and retail food store facility types in 2015-2016. This proposed study will also span 10 years with additional data collections planned for 2019-2020 and 2023-2024.
The current data collection in selected institutional foodservice, schools, and retail food store facilities was initiated on October 1, 2016, with a target date for completion by December 31, 2016. FDA is requesting a 90 day extension to complete this data collection by March 31, 2017. The extension is being requested to ensure that the number of facilities included in the study provide a sufficient sample size to conduct statistically significant analysis.
The purpose of the study is to:
• Assist FDA with developing retail food safety initiatives and policies focused on the control of foodborne illness risk factors;
• Identify retail food safety work plan priorities and allocate resources to enhance retail food safety nationwide;
• Track changes in the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors in retail and foodservice establishments over time; and
• Inform recommendations to the retail and foodservice industry and State, local, tribal, and territorial regulatory professionals on reducing the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors.
The statutory basis for FDA conducting this study is derived from the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act) (42 U.S.C. 243, section 311(a)). Responsibility for carrying out the provisions of the PHS Act relative to food protection was transferred to the Commissioner of Food and Drugs in 1968 (21 CFR 5.10(a)(2) and (4)). Additionally, the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301
The objectives of the study are to:
• Identify the foodborne illness risk factors that are in most need of priority attention during each data collection period;
• Track trends in the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors over time;
• Examine potential correlations between operational characteristics of food establishments and the control of foodborne illness risk factors;
• Examine potential correlations between elements within regulatory retail food protection programs and the
• Evaluate the impact of industry food safety management systems in controlling the occurrence of foodborne illness risk factors.
The methodology to be used for this information collection is described as follows. To obtain a sufficient number of observations to conduct statistically significant analysis, FDA will conduct approximately 400 data collections in each facility type. This sample size has been calculated to provide for sufficient observations to be 95 percent confident that the compliance percentage is within 5 percent of the true compliance percentage.
A geographical information system database containing a listing of businesses throughout the United States provides the establishment inventory for the data collections. FDA samples establishments from the inventory based on the descriptions in table 1. FDA does not intend to sample operations that handle only prepackaged food items or conduct low-risk food preparation activities. The “FDA Food Code” contains a grouping of establishments by risk, based on the type of food preparation that is normally conducted within the operation (Ref. 5). The intent is to sample establishments that fall under risk categories 2 through 4.
FDA has approximately 25 Regional Retail Food Specialists (Specialists) who serve as the data collectors for the 10-year study. The Specialists are geographically dispersed throughout the United States and possess technical expertise in retail food safety and a solid understanding of the operations within each of the facility types to be surveyed. The Specialists are also standardized by FDA's Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition personnel in the application and interpretation of the FDA Food Code (Ref. 5).
Sampling zones have been established that are equal to the 150-mile radius around a Specialist's home location. The sample is selected randomly from among all eligible establishments located within these sampling zones. The Specialists are generally located in major metropolitan areas (
1. It provides a cross-section of urban and rural areas from which to sample the eligible establishments.
2. It represents a mix of small, medium, and large regulatory entities having jurisdiction over the eligible establishments.
3. It reduces overnight travel and therefore reduces travel costs incurred by the Agency to collect data.
The sample for each data collection period is evenly distributed among Specialists. Given that participation in the study by industry is voluntary and the status of any given randomly selected establishment is subject to change, substitute establishments have been selected for each Specialist for cases where the institutional foodservice, school, or retail food facility is misclassified, closed, or otherwise unavailable, unable, or unwilling to participate.
Prior to conducting the data collection, Specialists contact the State or local jurisdiction that has regulatory responsibility for conducting retail food inspections for the selected establishment. The Specialist verifies with the jurisdiction that the facility has been properly classified for the purposes of the study and is still in operation. The Specialist ascertains whether the selected facility is under legal notice from the State or local regulatory authority. If the selected facility is under legal notice, the Specialist will not conduct a data collection, and a substitute establishment will be used. An invitation is extended to the State or local regulatory authority to accompany the Specialist on the data collection visit.
A standard form is used by the Specialists during each data collection. The form is divided into three sections: Section 1—”Establishment Information”; Section 2—”Regulatory Authority Information”; and Section 3—”Foodborne Illness Risk Factor and Food Safety Management System Assessment”. The information in Section 1—”Establishment Information” of the form is obtained during an interview with the establishment owner or person in charge by the Specialist and includes a standard set of questions.
The information in Section 2—”Regulatory Authority Information” is obtained during an interview with the program director of the State or local jurisdiction that has regulatory responsibility for conducting inspections for the selected establishment. Section 3 includes three parts: Part A for tabulating the Specialists' observations of the food employees' behaviors and practices in limiting contamination, proliferation, and survival of food safety hazards; Part B for assessing the food safety management being implemented by the facility; and Part C for assessing the frequency and extent of food employee hand washing. The information in Part A is collected from the Specialists' direct observations of food employee behaviors and practices. Infrequent, nonstandard questions may be asked by the Specialists if clarification is needed on the food safety procedure or practice being observed. The information in Part B is collected by making direct observations and asking followup questions of facility management to obtain information on the extent to which the food establishment has developed and implemented food safety management systems. The information in Part C is collected by making direct observations of food employee hand washing. No questions are asked in the completion of Section 3, Part C of the form.
FDA collects the following information associated with the establishment's identity: Establishment name, street address, city, state, zip code, county, industry segment, and facility type. The establishment identifying information is collected to ensure the data collections are not duplicative. Other information related to the nature of the operation, such as seating capacity and number of employees per shift, is also collected. Data will be consolidated and reported in a manner that does not reveal the identity of any establishment included in the study.
FDA is working with the National Center for Food Protection and Defense to develop a Web-based platform in FoodSHIELD to collect, store, and analyze data for the Retail Risk Factor Study. Once developed, this platform will be accessible to State, local, territorial, and tribal regulatory jurisdictions to collect data relevant to their own risk factor studies. FDA is currently transitioning from the manual entry of data to the use of hand-held technology. Contingent upon the completion of the Web-based platform, FDA intends to pilot test the use of hand-held technology during its 2015-2016 risk factor study data collection in institutional foodservice, school, and retail food store facility types, with the goal to have it fully implemented by the next data collection in restaurant facility types that will occur in 2017-2018. When a data collector is assigned a specific establishment, he or she conducts the data collection and enters the information into the Web-based data platform. The interface will support the manual entering of data, as well as the ability to upload a fillable PDF.
The burden for this collection of information is as follows. For each data collection, the respondents includes: (1) The person in charge of the selected facility type (whether it be a health care facility, school, or supermarket/grocery store); and (2) the program director (or designated individual) of the respective regulatory authority. To provide the sufficient number of observations needed to conduct a statistically significant analysis of the data, FDA has determined that 400 data collections will be required in each of the three facility types. Therefore, the total number of responses will be 2,400 (400 data collections × 3 facility types × 2 respondents per data collection).
The burden associated with the completion of Sections 1 and 3 of the form is specific to the persons in charge of the selected facilities. It includes the time it will take the persons in charge to accompany the data collectors during the site visit and answer the data collectors' questions. The burden related to the completion of Section 2 of the form is specific to the program directors (or designated individuals) of the respective regulatory authorities. It includes the time it will take to answer the data collectors' questions and is the same regardless of the facility type.
To calculate the estimate of the hours per response, FDA uses the average data collection duration for similar facility types during FDA's 2008 Risk Factor Study (Ref. 3) plus an extra 30 minutes (0.5 hours) for the information collection related to Section 3, Part B of the form. FDA estimates that it will take the persons in charge of health care facility types, schools, and retail food stores 150 minutes (2.5 hours), 120 minutes (2 hours), and 180 minutes (3 hours), respectively, to accompany the data collectors while they complete Sections 1 and 3 of the form. FDA estimates that it will take the program director (or designated individual) of the respective regulatory authority 30 minutes (0.5 hours) to answer the questions related to Section 2 of the form. The total burden estimate for a data collection, including both the program director's and the person in charge's responses, in health care facility types is 180 minutes (150+30)(3 hours), in schools is 150 minutes (120+30)(2.5 hours), and in retail food stores is 210 minutes (180+30)(3.5 hours).
Based on the number of entry refusals from the 2013-2014 Risk Factor Study in the restaurant facility types, we estimate a refusal rate of 2 percent in the institutional foodservice and retail food store facility types. The estimate of the time per non-respondent is 5 minutes (0.08 hours) for the person in charge to listen to the purpose of the visit and provide a verbal refusal of entry.
The following references are on display in the Division of Dockets Management (see ADDRESSES) and are available for viewing by interested persons between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, and are available electronically at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing a public meeting to discuss proposed recommendations for the reauthorization of the Biosimilar User Fee Act (BsUFA) for fiscal years (FYs) 2018 through 2022. BsUFA authorizes FDA to collect fees and use them for the process for the review of biosimilar biological product applications. The current legislative authority for BsUFA expires in September 2017. At that time, new legislation will be required for FDA to continue collecting biosimilar
The public meeting will be held on October 20, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. Please register for the meeting by October 19, 2016, at
The meeting will be held at the FDA White Oak Campus, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 31 Conference Center, the Great Room (rm. 1503, Section A), Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Participants must enter through Building 1 and undergo security screening. For more information on parking and security procedures, please refer to
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
FDA will post the agenda approximately 5 days before the meeting at:
Amanda Roache, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 1176, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-4548, FAX: 301-847-8443,
FDA is announcing a public meeting to discuss proposed recommendations for the reauthorization of BsUFA, the legislation that authorizes FDA to collect user fees and use them for the process for the review of biosimilar biological product applications. The current authorization of the program (BsUFA I) expires in September 2017. Without new legislation, FDA will no longer be able to collect user fees for future fiscal years to fund the process for the review of biosimilar biological product applications. Section 744I(e)(2) of the FD&C Act (21 U.S.C. 379j-53(e)(2)) requires that after FDA holds negotiations with regulated industry, we do the following: (1) Present recommendations to the relevant Congressional committees, (2) publish recommendations in the
This notice, the 30-day comment period, and the public meeting will satisfy some of these requirements.
The purpose of the meeting is to hear the public's views on the proposed recommendations for the reauthorization of BsUFA II. The following information is provided to help potential meeting participants
BsUFA is a law that authorizes FDA to collect fees from drug companies that submit marketing applications for certain biosimilar biological products. BsUFA was originally enacted in 2012 as the Biosimilar User Fee Act (Pub. L. 112-144) for a period of 5 years.
BsUFA's intent is to provide additional revenues so that FDA can hire more staff, improve systems, and establish a better-managed biosimilar biological product review process to make important therapies available to patients sooner without compromising review quality or FDA's high standards for safety, efficacy, and quality. As part of FDA's agreement with industry during each reauthorization, the Agency agrees to certain performance goals. These goals apply to the process for the review of new biosimilar biological product applications, resubmissions of original applications, and new and resubmitted supplements to approved applications. Phased in over the 5 years of BsUFA I, the goals were to review and act on 90 percent of original biosimilar biological product application submissions within 10 months of receipt and resubmitted original biosimilar biological product applications within 6 months of receipt; to review and act on 90 percent of original supplements with clinical data within 10 months of receipt and resubmitted supplements with clinical data within 6 months of receipt; and review and act on 90 percent of manufacturing supplements within 6 months of receipt.
In preparing the proposed recommendations to Congress for BsUFA reauthorization, FDA conducted discussions with the regulated industry and consulted with stakeholders, as required by the law. We began the BsUFA reauthorization process by publishing a notice in the
Following the December 2015 public meeting, FDA conducted negotiations with the regulated industry from March 2016 through May 2016. FDA posted minutes of these meetings on its Web site at
The proposed enhancements for BsUFA II address many of the top priorities identified by public stakeholders, the regulated industry, and FDA. While some of the proposed enhancements are new, many either build on successful enhancements or refine elements from the existing program. The enhancements are proposed in the following areas: Review performance, meeting management, guidance development, and administrative areas (hiring and financial management). The full text of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter can be found here at
FDA and the regulated industry jointly identified an opportunity to reduce multiple review cycles for biosimilar biological products by increasing transparency and communication during the review process of a 351(k) application. For BsUFA II, it is therefore proposed to establish a model for the review of biosimilar biological products similar to the Program for Enhanced Review Transparency and Communication for New Molecular Entity New Drug Applications and original Biologics License Applications (the Program) that was established in the fifth authorization of the Prescription Drug User Fee Act (PDUFA).
The Program was first established for PDUFA in 2012. An interim assessment of the Program suggested that it has created conditions that enhance the ability of applicants and FDA reviewers to work toward application approval in the first cycle (see
The Program will allow for additional communication between FDA review teams and the applicants of biosimilar biological products in the form of pre-submission meetings, mid-cycle communications, and late-cycle meetings, while also adding 60 days to the review timeframe to accommodate this additional interaction.
This enhancement is described in section I.B. of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
When manufacturing facilities are not adequately identified, this may result in the need for FDA to conduct inspections late in the review process. This can adversely impact FDA's ability to complete application review within the performance goal timeframes. Accordingly, FDA proposes to extend the goal date for an original application or a supplement when FDA identifies a need to inspect a facility that was not included in a comprehensive and readily located list of manufacturing facilities. This enhancement is described in section I.A.5.b of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
Further clarity is needed regarding the types of clinical study protocols that may qualify for a Special Protocol Assessment and Agreement under BsUFA. Pharmacokinetic (PK) and Pharmacodynamic (PD) similarity studies should be added to the examples provided in the goals letter. It is proposed that the language in the goals is revised to include PK and PD similarity studies. This enhancement is described in section I.H.1.c of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
The review goal date for biosimilar prior approval manufacturing supplements is currently 6 months under BsUFA I, compared to 4 months for stand-alone biologics under PDUFA. Therefore, to increase consistency among user fee programs, it is proposed that prior approval manufacturing supplements are reviewed in 4 months, instead of 6 months, with a phased-in performance goal. The language for prior approval supplements is included in section I.A.3 of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
The enhancements in this section focus on FDA's ability to better manage meetings with sponsors of 351(k) applications. The details for these enhancements can be found in section
Currently, there is no mechanism to grant a meeting request and provide a written response in place of a face-to-face meeting, videoconference, or teleconference. From FY 2013 to FY2015, FDA provided written responses to sponsors for 16 out of 22 meetings that were denied or cancelled due to incomplete, premature, or unnecessary requests in order to support biosimilar development programs. Such responses are not on a user fee clock and are not tracked work. For BsUFA II, it is proposed that for BIA and BPD Type 2 meetings, the sponsor may request a written response to questions rather than a face-to-face meeting, videoconference, or teleconference. If a written response is deemed appropriate, FDA will notify the requester of the date it intends to send the written response. This date will be consistent with the timeframes specified for the specific meeting type.
The FDA has had challenges scheduling BPD type 2 meetings within the 75-day timeframe. Scheduling challenges occur due to an increasing number of Type 2 meetings to discuss novel and complex aspects of development that require extensive internal discussion. A review committee must address many of these aspects to ensure implementation of consistent scientific advice and policy concerning biosimilar development. Consequently, FDA is unable to answer and provide comprehensive responses to such questions at meetings within the 75-day timeframe. This results in unresolved issues and additional followup questions that ultimately leads to a delay in a sponsor's overall development program. To provide the necessary time for FDA discussions and to develop comprehensive responses, it is proposed that BPD Type 2 Meetings occur within 90 calendar days, instead of 75 days, from receipt of the meeting request and meeting package with a phased in performance goal. Additionally, it is proposed that the Agency will send preliminary responses to the sponsor's questions contained in the background package no later than five calendar days before the face-to-face videoconference or teleconference meeting date for BPD Type 2 and Type 3 meetings.
On average, five BIA meetings were scheduled per fiscal year from 2013 to 2015. The content of a BIA meeting is limited to a general discussion on whether a proposed product could be developed as a biosimilar product and to provide high-level advice on the expected content of the development program. Targeted advice on the adequacy of any comparative data or extensive advice for any aspect of an ongoing biosimilar development program is not expected to be provided in a BIA meeting. The current 90-day scheduling timeframe may no longer be appropriate and should be shortened. Therefore, it is proposed for BIA meetings to occur within 75 calendar days, instead of 90 days, from receipt of the meeting request and meeting package.
FDA has received feedback that additional clarity is needed on regulatory processes and the scientific criteria for biosimilar development and approval to provide certainty to industry and other stakeholders related to Agency expectations. Therefore, it is proposed that FDA revise its guidance entitled “Formal Meetings Between the FDA and Biosimilar Biological Product Sponsors or Applicants” and update the draft guidance entitled “Best Practices for Communication Between IND Sponsors and FDA During Drug Development” to include communications between IND sponsors and FDA during biosimilar biological product development. Additionally, it is proposed that FDA publish draft or final guidance on several issues related to biosimilar biological product development including considerations in demonstrating interchangeability with a reference product; statistical considerations for analytic similarity for biosimilar biological products; processes and further considerations related to post-approval manufacturing changes for biosimilar biological products; clinical pharmacology data to support a demonstration of biosimilarity to a reference product; nonproprietary naming of biological products; and labeling for biosimilar biological products. The proposed goals related to guidance development are described in sections I.I.6 and II of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
To speed and improve development of safe and effective biosimilar biological products for patients, FDA must hire and retain sufficient numbers and types of technical and scientific experts to efficiently conduct reviews of 351(k) applications. In order to strengthen this core function during BsUFA II, FDA proposes to implement a full time equivalent staff-based position management system capability and an online position classification system. In addition, FDA will complete implementation of corporate recruiting practices, augment hiring capacity with expert contractor support, establish a dedicated function for staffing of the human drug review program, establish clear goals for biosimilar review program hiring, and conduct comprehensive and continuous assessments of hiring and retention performance. These enhancements are described in section V of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
In order to accelerate patient access to safe and effective biosimilar biological products and ensure accuracy, consistency, and timeliness FDA needs a more focused and better resourced capacity to coordinate key legal, scientific, review, and outreach functions in FDA's development phase advice and premarket review. It is proposed that FDA strengthen its staff capacity to: (1) Develop new regulations and guidance to clarify scientific criteria for biosimilar development and approval, and to provide certainty to industry and other stakeholders on key regulatory issues including the scope of eligible biosimilar biological products; (2) develop or revise manuals of policy and procedures, standard operating procedures, and review templates to facilitate rapid update and application of new policies and guidance by review staff, and to develop and deliver timely, comprehensive training to all Center for Drug Evaluation and Research and Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research review staff and special government employees involved in the review of 351(k) BLAs; (3) deliver timely information to the public to improve public understanding of biosimilarity and interchangeability; and (4) deliver information concerning the date of first licensure and the reference product exclusivity expiry date, to be included in the Purple
FDA is committed to enhancing management of BsUFA resources and ensuring BsUFA user fee resources are administered, allocated, and reported in an efficient and transparent manner. In BsUFA II, FDA proposes to establish a resource capacity planning function to improve its ability to analyze current resource needs and project future resource needs, to modernize its time reporting approach, to conduct an evaluation of BsUFA program resource management, to publish a 5-year BsUFA financial plan with annual updates, and to convene an annual public meeting, beginning in FY 2019, to discuss the financial plan and progress towards the financial management enhancements. FDA also proposes to reduce the carryover balance to no greater than 21 weeks of the FY 2022 target revenue by the end of FY 2022. These enhancements are described in section IV of the proposed BsUFA II commitment letter.
The current BsUFA fee structure references PDUFA fees each fiscal year and calculates biosimilar biological product development program (BPD) fees based on the PDUFA application fee. FDA and industry agreed that the BsUFA II fee structure and the fee setting process could be updated to enhance the predictability and stability of fee amounts and revenues in a manner to improve FDA's ability to engage in long-term financial planning. To address these issues, FDA proposes to discontinue the reduction of the biosimilar biological product application fee by the cumulative BPD fees paid by sponsors, to discontinue the establishment and supplement fees, to rename the product fee as the BsUFA Program fee, to modify the Program fee billing date to minimize the need for multiple billing cycles, and to add a limitation that a sponsor shall not be assessed more than five BsUFA Program fees for a fiscal year for products identified in each distinct approved biosimilar biological product application held by that sponsor.
FDA and industry agreed that the BsUFA II user fee revenue amounts and fee amounts should be independent of PDUFA and based on BsUFA program costs. FDA proposes to establish fees to generate a total of $45 million in user fee revenue for FY 2018. However, FDA also proposes that it can adjust this amount when setting the user fee amounts published in the FY 2018
If you wish to attend this meeting, visit
The meeting will include a presentation by FDA and a series of invited panels representing different stakeholder groups identified in the statute (such as patient advocacy groups, consumer advocacy groups, health professionals, and regulated industry). We will also provide an opportunity for other organizations and individuals to make presentations at the meeting or to submit written comments to the docket before the meeting.
FDA will also hold an open public comment period at the meeting to give the public an opportunity to present their comments. Registration for open public comment will occur at the registration desk on the day of the meeting and workshop on a first-come, first-served basis.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of public meeting; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is announcing a public meeting entitled “Progress Toward Implementing the Product Identification Requirements of the Drug Supply Chain Security Act.” This public meeting is intended to provide members of the pharmaceutical distribution supply chain and other interested stakeholders an opportunity to share information with FDA about the efforts underway to implement the Drug Supply Chain Security Act's (DSCSA's) product identification requirements, including the use of product identifiers to enhance tracing at the product level.
The public meeting will be held on October 14, 2016, from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m. To permit the widest possible opportunity to obtain public comment, FDA is soliciting either electronic or written comments on all aspects of the public meeting topics. The deadline for submitting comments related to this public meeting is November 14, 2016.
The public meeting will be held at FDA's White Oak Campus,
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Daniel Bellingham, Office of Compliance, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 4285, Silver Spring, MD 20993, 301-796-3130, FAX: 301-847-8722, email:
On November 27, 2013, the DSCSA (Title II, Pub. L. 113-54) was signed into law. The DSCSA outlines critical steps to build an electronic, interoperable system by 2023 to identify and trace certain prescription drugs as they are distributed within the United States. This system will enhance FDA's ability to protect U.S. consumers from exposure to drugs that may be counterfeit, stolen, contaminated, or otherwise harmful by improving the detection and removal of potentially dangerous drugs from the drug supply chain.
Section 582(i) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (the FD&C Act) (21 U.S.C. 360eee-1), which was added by the DSCSA, directs FDA to hold at least five public meetings to enhance the safety and security of the pharmaceutical distribution supply chain and provide opportunities for comment from stakeholders. In carrying out these public meetings, FDA is required to prioritize topics necessary to inform the guidances described in section 582(h)(3) and (h)(4) related to unit-level tracing and standards for the interoperable data exchanges, respectively, and to take all reasonable and practicable measures to ensure the protection of confidential commercial information and trade secrets. FDA is also required to address each of the eight topics enumerated in section 582(i)(2) in at least one of the five required public meetings.
FDA will hold a public meeting on October 14, 2016, to provide members of the pharmaceutical distribution supply chain and other interested stakeholders an opportunity to share information about current practices and industry efforts to implement the DSCSA's product identification requirements, including the use of product identifiers. The format of the meeting involves presentations from the public and followup questions from an FDA panel. FDA will not be inviting specific presenters; rather, with this notice, FDA is soliciting presentations from interested stakeholders.
The main topic FDA is interested in discussing at the public meeting is the supply chain's progress toward implementing the DSCSA's product identification requirements, including best practices in each sector of the pharmaceutical distribution supply chain to conduct product tracing, verification, and product identification. This may include the processes needed to utilize the product identifiers to
Other topics of interest to FDA that may be presented at the public meeting include, but are not limited to:
• An assessment of the steps taken by supply chain members to build capacity for a unit-level system for electronic product tracing, including the impact on (1) the ability of the health care system to maintain patient access to medicines; (2) the scalability of such requirements, including as it relates to product lines; and (3) the capability of different sectors and subsectors, including both large and small businesses, to affix and utilize the product identifier; and
• information related to the secure, interoperable electronic data exchange among sectors within the pharmaceutical distribution supply chain.
FDA will post the agenda of the meeting at
Registration to attend is free and will be on a first-come, first-served basis. To register for the meeting either: (1) Email your registration information to
• “Registration for October 14, 2016, DSCSA meeting” in the subject line, and
• Registrant name, company or organization, address, phone number, and email address in the body of your email or mailing.
Registration requests should be received by October 6, 2016. Onsite registration on the day of the meeting, starting at 8 a.m., will be based on space availability. Seating will be limited; therefore, if registration meets the maximum capacity, FDA will post a notice closing meeting registration for the meeting on FDA's Web site at:
If you need special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Daniel Bellingham (see
Any person interested in presenting at the public meeting should include a request to present in a single email with a registration request (see section III. Registration). The request should specify the topic(s) that will be addressed in the presentation. FDA will do its best to accommodate requests for oral presentations. Individuals and organizations with common interests are encouraged to consolidate or coordinate their presentations and can submit a single request to present.
All requests to make oral presentations must be received by October 5, 2016. Time allotted for each presentation may be limited. If the number of registrants requesting to speak is greater than can be reasonably accommodated during the scheduled public comment session, FDA may conduct a lottery to determine the speakers for the public comment session. The contact person will notify interested persons regarding their request to speak by October 7, 2016. Presenters must email their presentation materials, if any, to
Portions of this public meeting will be recorded and Webcast on the day of the meeting. Information for how to access the Webcast will be available at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice; establishment of docket; request for comments.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the establishment of a docket to receive suggestions, recommendations, and comments from interested parties (such as academic researchers, regulated industries, consortia, and patient groups) on a list of biomarkers that were used as outcomes to develop FDA-approved new molecular entities (NMEs) and New Biological Therapeutics from October 2007 to December 2015. Comments received on this list will help FDA determine the utility of the list and may assist FDA in developing databases on biomarkers for drug development in the future.
Submit either electronic or written comments by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Marianne Noone, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 21, Rm. 4528, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 301-796-2600.
FDA is committed to support more efficient drug development by providing scientific, technical, and regulatory advice to stakeholders (such as to pharmaceutical industries, academia, patient advocacy groups, and consortia). As part of this commitment, FDA is providing a list of biomarkers that were used as outcomes in the development of FDA-approved NMEs and New Biological Therapeutics in different disease areas from October 2007 to December 2015. This list is intended to provide examples of biomarkers that were accepted and used as endpoints in clinical trials for drug and biologic approvals from October 2007 to December 2015. This list, along with brief background information, is accessible at Biomarkers Used as Outcomes in Development of FDA-Approved Therapeutics (October 2007 to December 2015).
FDA is soliciting suggestions and comments from stakeholders to determine the utility of the biomarker outcomes list and to identify any areas of improvement for disseminating information on biomarkers that have been used to support the approval of drugs or biologics. Specifically, FDA welcomes comments regarding the following two areas:
• Areas of improvement for communicating and disseminating information about biomarkers and their utility as drug development tools.
• The best approach for updating the biomarkers outcomes list, including any modifications of the list, in the future.
FDA will consider all comments submitted but will generally not respond directly to the person or organization submitting the comment.
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice of availability.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing the availability of a draft guidance entitled “S9 Nonclinical Evaluation for Anticancer Pharmaceuticals—Questions and Answers.” The draft questions and answers (Q&As) guidance was prepared under the auspices of the International Council for Harmonisation (ICH), formerly the International Conference on Harmonisation. The draft Q&As guidance provides recommendations for nonclinical studies for the development of pharmaceuticals, including both small molecule and biotechnology-derived products, intended to treat patients with cancer. The Q&As are intended to provide additional clarity for topics discussed in the ICH guidance entitled “S9 Nonclinical Evaluation for Anticancer Pharmaceuticals” (S9 guidance).
Although you can comment on any guidance at any time (see 21 CFR 10.115(g)(5)), to ensure that the Agency considers your comment on this draft guidance before it begins work on the final version of the guidance, submit either electronic or written comments on the draft guidance by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments as follows:
Submit electronic comments in the following way:
•
• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).
Submit written/paper submissions as follows:
•
• For written/paper comments submitted to the Division of Dockets Management, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”
• Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on
Submit written requests for single copies of this guidance to the Division of Drug Information, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration (CDER), 10001 New Hampshire Ave., Hillandale Building, 4th Floor, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002; or the Office of Communication, Outreach and Development, Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER), Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 71, Rm. 3128, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002. Send one self-addressed adhesive label to assist that office in processing your requests. The guidance may also be obtained by mail by calling CBER at 1-800-835-4709 or 240-402-8010. See the
In recent years, many important initiatives have been undertaken by regulatory authorities and industry associations to promote international harmonization of regulatory requirements. FDA has participated in many meetings designed to enhance harmonization and is committed to seeking scientifically based harmonized technical procedures for pharmaceutical development. One of the goals of harmonization is to identify and then reduce differences in technical requirements for drug development among regulatory agencies.
ICH was organized to provide an opportunity for harmonization initiatives to be developed with input from both regulatory and industry representatives. FDA also seeks input from consumer representatives and others. ICH is concerned with harmonization of technical requirements for the registration of pharmaceutical products for human use among regulators around the world. The six founding members of the ICH are the European Commission; the European Federation of Pharmaceutical Industries Associations; the Japanese Ministry of Health, Labour, and Welfare; the Japanese Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association; CDER and CBER, FDA; and the Pharmaceutical Research and Manufacturers of America. The Standing Members of the ICH Association include Health Canada and Swissmedic. Any party eligible as a Member in accordance with the ICH Articles of Association can apply for membership in writing to the ICH Secretariat. The ICH Secretariat, which coordinates the preparation of documentation, operates as an international nonprofit organization and is funded by the Members of the ICH Association.
The ICH Assembly is the overarching body of the Association and includes representatives from each of the ICH members and observers.
In the
The draft Q&As guidance provides guidance on implementing the S9 guidance. The Q&As were developed by the IWG to provide additional clarity for the nonclinical development of anticancer pharmaceuticals. Topics addressed in the draft Q&As guidance include the patient population covered by the S9 guidance, recovery groups in nonclinical studies, development of antibody-drug conjugates, juvenile animal studies, and the need for long-term toxicity studies when pharmaceutical development moves to patients with earlier stage diseases.
This draft guidance is being issued consistent with FDA's good guidance practices regulation (21 CFR 10.115). The draft guidance, when finalized, will represent the current thinking of FDA on “S9 Nonclinical Evaluation for Anticancer Pharmaceuticals—Questions and Answers.” It does not establish any rights for any person and is not binding on FDA or the public. You can use an alternative approach if it satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.
Persons with access to the Internet may obtain the document at
Food and Drug Administration, HHS.
Notice.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is publishing notice that an applicant for a proposed biosimilar product notified FDA that a patent infringement action was filed in connection with the applicant's biologics license application (BLA). Under the Public Health Service Act (PHS Act), an applicant for a proposed biosimilar product or interchangeable product must notify FDA within 30 days after the applicant was served with a complaint in a patent infringement action described under the PHS Act. FDA is required to publish notice of the complaint in the
Daniel Orr, Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Food and Drug Administration, 10903 New Hampshire Ave., Bldg. 51, Rm. 6208, Silver Spring, MD 20993-0002, 240-402-0979,
The Biologics Price Competition and Innovation Act of 2009 (BPCI Act) was enacted as part of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Pub. L. 111-148) on March 23, 2010. The BPCI Act amended the PHS Act and created an abbreviated licensure pathway for biological products shown to be biosimilar to, or interchangeable with, an FDA-licensed biological reference product. Section 351(k) of the PHS Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)), added by the BPCI Act, describes the requirements for a BLA for a proposed biosimilar product or a proposed interchangeable product (351(k) BLA). Section 351(
FDA has received notice of the following complaint under section 351(
FDA has only a ministerial role in publishing notice of a complaint received under section 351(
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meetings.
The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
Pursuant to section 10(d) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. App.), notice is hereby given of the following meeting.
The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
National Institutes of Health, HHS.
Notice.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below. This proposed information collection was previously published in the
Comments regarding this information collection are best assured of having their full effect if received within 30-days of the date of this publication.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, should be directed to the: Office of Management and Budget, Office of Regulatory Affairs,
To request more information on the proposed project or to obtain a copy of the data collection plans and instruments, contact: Dr. Sophia Jeon, Health Science Policy Analyst, Office of Science Policy and Planning (OSPP), NINDS, NIH, 31 Center Drive, Building 31, Room 8A03, Bethesda, MD 20892, or call non-toll-free number (301) 435-7571, or Email your request, including your address to:
The National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NINDS), National Institutes of Health, may not conduct or sponsor, and the respondent is not required to respond to, an information collection that has been extended, revised, or implemented on or after October 1, 1995, unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
In compliance with Section 3507(a)(1)(D) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the National Institutes of Health (NIH) has submitted to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) a request for review and approval of the information collection listed below.
There are two scenarios for completing the form. The first is where the Principal Investigator (PI) completes the entire FITBIR Informatics System Data Access Request form, and the second where the PI has the Research Assistant begins filling out the form and PI provides the final reviews and signs it. Burden for this collection of information is estimated to vary from 30-95 minutes per response. The estimated annual burden hours to complete the data request form are listed below.
OMB approval reinstatement is requested for 3 years. The total estimated annualized burden hours are 63.
Notice is hereby given of a change in the meeting of the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Special Emphasis Panel, October 18, 2016, 02:00 p.m. to October 18, 2016, 04:00 p.m., National Institutes of Health, 6710B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892 which was published in the
The meeting date has changed from October 18, 2016, 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. to October 26, 2016, 2:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. The meeting is closed to the public.
In compliance with Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 concerning opportunity for public comment on proposed collections of information, the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) will publish periodic summaries of proposed projects. To request more information on the proposed projects or to obtain a copy of the information collection plans, call the SAMHSA Reports Clearance Officer on (240) 276-1243.
Comments are invited on: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
The Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) is requesting an approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for an amendment to the FY 2016-2017 Uniform Application, Section III. Behavioral Health Assessment and Plan, C. Environmental Factors and Plan. The intent of this amendment is to gather information regarding the states' and jurisdictions' plans to implement elements of a syringe services program at 1 or more community-based organizations that receive amounts from the grant to provide substance use disorder treatment and recovery services to persons who inject drugs. In response to the emergence of prescription drug and heroin overdoses and associated deaths in many states and jurisdictions, SAMHSA issued guidance on April 2, 2014, to the states and jurisdictions regarding the use of SABG funds for prevention education and training regarding overdoses and the purchase of naloxone (Narcan®) and related materials to assemble overdose prevention kits.
Respondents are the 50 states and the jurisdictions (District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, American Samoa, Commonwealth of Northern Mariana Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Guam, Republic of Marshall Islands, Republic of Palau, and the Red Lake Band of Chippewa Indians of Minnesota).
The following reporting burden is based on estimates developed considering the State substance abuse and mental health authorities responsible for these activities and represents the average total hours to assemble, format, and produce the requested information.
Link for the application, Guidance, and Amendment:
Send comments to CAPT Gilbert Rose, SAMHSA SABG Team Lead, at
This notice supersedes the Notice dated September 7, 2016.
Federal Emergency Management Agency; DHS.
Notice; correction.
On June 13, 2016, FEMA published in the
Comments are to be submitted on or before December 19, 2016.
The Preliminary Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM), and where applicable, the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1621, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed in the table below, in accordance with Section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own, or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and are also used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP may only be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the table below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard determinations shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations will also be considered before the FIRM and FIS report are made final.
In the proposed flood hazard determination notice published at 81 FR 38199 in the June 13, 2016, issue of the
In this document, FEMA is publishing a table containing the accurate information. The information provided below should be used in lieu of that previously published.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
This notice amends the notice of a major disaster for the State of Louisiana (FEMA-4277-DR), dated August 14, 2016, and related determinations.
Dean Webster, Office of Response and Recovery, Federal Emergency Management Agency, 500 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-2833.
Notice is hereby given that, in a letter dated September 8, 2016, the President amended the cost-sharing arrangements regarding Federal funds provided under the authority of the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
I have determined that the damage in certain areas of the State of Louisiana resulting from severe storms and flooding during the period of August 11-31, 2016, is of sufficient severity and magnitude that special cost sharing arrangements are warranted regarding Federal funds provided under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121
Therefore, I amend my declaration of August 14, 2016, to authorize Federal funds for all categories of Public Assistance at 90 percent of total eligible costs.
This adjustment to State and local cost sharing applies only to Public Assistance costs including direct Federal assistance eligible for such adjustments under the law. The Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act specifically prohibits a similar adjustment for funds provided for Other Needs Assistance (section 408), and the Hazard Mitigation Grant Program (section 404). These funds will continue to be reimbursed at 75 percent of total eligible costs.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before December 19, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1648, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
Federal Emergency Management Agency; DHS.
Notice; correction.
On July 13, 2016, FEMA published in the
Comments are to be submitted on or before December 19, 2016.
The Preliminary Flood Insurance Rate Map (FIRM), and where applicable, the Flood Insurance Study (FIS) report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the table below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1630, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed in the table below, in accordance with Section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own, or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and are also used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP may only be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the table below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard determinations shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations will also be considered before the FIRM and FIS report are made final.
In the proposed flood hazard determination notice published at 81 FR 45295 in the July 13, 2016, issue of the
In this document, FEMA is publishing a table containing the accurate information. The information provided below should be used in lieu of that previously published.
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before December 19, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1644, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
I. Watershed-Based Studies:
II. Non-watershed-based studies:
Federal Emergency Management Agency, DHS.
Notice.
Comments are requested on proposed flood hazard determinations, which may include additions or modifications of any Base Flood Elevation (BFE), base flood depth, Special Flood Hazard Area (SFHA) boundary or zone designation, or regulatory floodway on the Flood Insurance Rate Maps (FIRMs), and where applicable, in the supporting Flood Insurance Study (FIS) reports for the communities listed in the table below. The purpose of this notice is to seek general information and comment regarding the preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report that the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) has provided to the affected communities. The FIRM and FIS report are the basis of the floodplain management measures that the community is required either to adopt or to show evidence of having in effect in order to qualify or remain qualified for participation in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). In addition, the FIRM and FIS report, once effective, will be used by insurance agents and others to calculate appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings and the contents of those buildings.
Comments are to be submitted on or before December 19, 2016.
The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, the FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables below. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. FEMA-B-1647, to Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
Rick Sacbibit, Chief, Engineering Services Branch, Federal Insurance and Mitigation Administration, FEMA, 400 C Street SW., Washington, DC 20472, (202) 646-7659, or (email)
FEMA proposes to make flood hazard determinations for each community listed below, in accordance with section 110 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, 42 U.S.C. 4104, and 44 CFR 67.4(a).
These proposed flood hazard determinations, together with the floodplain management criteria required by 44 CFR 60.3, are the minimum that are required. They should not be construed to mean that the community must change any existing ordinances that are more stringent in their floodplain management requirements. The community may at any time enact stricter requirements of its own or pursuant to policies established by other Federal, State, or regional entities. These flood hazard determinations are used to meet the floodplain management requirements of the NFIP and also are used to calculate the appropriate flood insurance premium rates for new buildings built after the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
The communities affected by the flood hazard determinations are provided in the tables below. Any request for reconsideration of the revised flood hazard information shown on the Preliminary FIRM and FIS report that satisfies the data requirements outlined in 44 CFR 67.6(b) is considered an appeal. Comments unrelated to the flood hazard determinations also will be considered before the FIRM and FIS report become effective.
Use of a Scientific Resolution Panel (SRP) is available to communities in support of the appeal resolution process. SRPs are independent panels of experts in hydrology, hydraulics, and other pertinent sciences established to review conflicting scientific and technical data and provide recommendations for resolution. Use of the SRP only may be exercised after FEMA and local communities have been engaged in a collaborative consultation process for at least 60 days without a mutually acceptable resolution of an appeal. Additional information regarding the SRP process can be found online at
The watersheds and/or communities affected are listed in the tables below. The Preliminary FIRM, and where applicable, FIS report for each community are available for inspection at both the online location and the respective Community Map Repository address listed in the tables. For communities with multiple ongoing Preliminary studies, the studies can be identified by the unique project number and Preliminary FIRM date listed in the tables. Additionally, the current effective FIRM and FIS report for each community are accessible online through the FEMA Map Service Center at
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
60-Day Notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration (USCIS) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment upon this proposed revision of a currently approved collection of information. In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the information collection notice is published in the
Comments are encouraged and will be accepted for 60 days until November 18, 2016.
All submissions received must include the OMB Control Number 1615-0067 in the subject box, the agency name and Docket ID USCIS-2007-0034. To avoid duplicate submissions, please use only
(1)
(2)
(3)
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha L. Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, telephone number 202-272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.
30-Day Notice.
The Department of Homeland Security (DHS), U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995. The information collection notice was previously published in the
The purpose of this notice is to allow an additional 30 days for public comments. Comments are encouraged and will be accepted until October 19, 2016. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.10.
Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice, especially regarding the estimated public burden and associated response time, must be directed to the OMB USCIS Desk Officer via email at
You may wish to consider limiting the amount of personal information that you provide in any voluntary submission you make. For additional information please read the Privacy Act notice that is available via the link in the footer of
USCIS, Office of Policy and Strategy, Regulatory Coordination Division, Samantha Deshommes, Chief, 20 Massachusetts Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20529-2140, Telephone number (202) 272-8377 (This is not a toll-free number. Comments are not accepted via telephone message). Please note contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. It is not for individual case status inquiries. Applicants seeking information about the status of their individual cases can check Case Status Online, available at the USCIS Web site at
You may access the information collection instrument with instructions, or additional information by visiting the Federal eRulemaking Portal site at:
(1) Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(4) Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
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(2)
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Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.
Notice of intent to prepare an environmental impact statement; notice of scoping meeting; and request for comments.
Pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA), we are advising the public that we intend to prepare an environmental impact statement (EIS) on a proposed Endangered Species Act (ESA) incidental take permit (ITP) application from the Indiana Department of Natural Resources (IDNR), Division of Forestry (DoF) for the federally endangered Indiana bat (
Public scoping will begin with the publication of this NOI in the
• September 30th, 6:00-9:00 p.m. at the Forestry Training Center on Morgan-Monroe State Forest. Directions: from the Forest Office at 6220 Forest Road, Martinsville, IN (see Google Maps), go 0.2 miles north on Forest Road and take the first road to the left (West), go 0.4 miles and park at 2nd building on the right. The Forestry Training Center is located approx. 6 miles south of Martinsville, IN.
Send written comments via U.S. mail to the Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Bloomington Field Office, 620 South Walker Street, Bloomington, IN 47403-2121; by facsimile to 812-334-4273; or by electronic mail to
Andrew King, by telephone at 812-334-4261, extension 1216, or email at
Indiana bats were listed as an endangered species under the ESA in 1967. The decline of this species has historically been attributed to loss and degradation of winter hibernation habitat and summer roosting habitat, human disturbance during hibernation, and possibly pesticides. A recent new threat to Indiana bats is white-nose syndrome (WNS), a disease caused by the fungus
The DoF conducts management activities on 13 State Forests and 2 State Recreation Areas covering approximately 158,000 acres of state-owned forest land in Indiana. These activities include maintenance of recreation trails, timber harvest, tree plantings, prescribed burning, and the use of specific chemicals such as herbicides and fertilizers. Management activities on these lands are designed for long-term sustainability and to enhance forest health and diversity, create wildlife habitat, provide recreational opportunities and to generate revenue from timber harvests that contribute to local and state economies. While many forest management activities benefit the conservation and recovery of the Indiana bat, some activities may adversely impact this species and their habitat during certain life stages.
The net effect of forest management on Indiana bats may vary depending on the type, scale, and timing of various practices. Unlike forest conversion where habitat is permanently removed, the DoF's forest management practices are designed to promote and sustain suitable forested bat habitat on the landscape, and adverse impacts typically are temporary in nature. The primary potential benefit of forest management to the species is perpetuating forests on the landscape that provide suitable roosting and foraging habitat. Impacts from timber harvest, which can range from the selective removal of individual trees to small clearcuts, can range from positive (
The HCP will incorporate avoidance, minimization, mitigation, monitoring, and reporting measures aimed at addressing the impact of take caused by certain forest and property management activities occurring on approximately 158,000 acres of state-owned land managed by the DoF. The forest and property management activities included in the DoF HCP are timber harvesting, prescribed burning, timber stand improvement, and the construction and maintenance of roads, trails, and recreation and operational facilities. Potential measures to avoid, minimize, and mitigate impacts to Indiana bats may include, but are not limited to, retention of potential roost trees, sustained supply of future roost trees, protection of known roost trees, leave-tree designation near perennial streams, seasonal tree-felling restrictions around known hibernacula, and set-back distances for the protection of hibernacula entrances. The requested term of the ITP is 20 years.
Section 9 of the ESA prohibits “take” of fish and wildlife species listed as endangered under section 4 (16 U.S.C. 1538, and 1533, respectively). The ESA implementing regulations extend, under certain circumstances, the prohibition of take to threatened species (50 CFR 17.31). Under section 3 of the ESA, the term “take” means to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or attempt to engage in any such conduct (16 U.S.C. 1532(19)).
Under section 10 of the ESA, the Service may issue permits to authorize incidental take of federally listed fish and wildlife species. “Incidental take” is defined by the ESA as “take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, carrying out an otherwise lawful activity.” To obtain an ITP, an applicant must submit an HCP to the Service that specifies (1) the impact that will likely result from the taking; (2) what steps the applicant will take to monitor, minimize and mitigate the impacts, the funding that will be available to implement such steps and the procedures to be used to deal with changed circumstances; (3) what alternative actions to the taking the applicant considered and the reasons why the alternatives are not being utilized; and (4) how the applicant will carry out any other measures that we may require as being necessary or appropriate for purposes of the HCP. 50 CFR 17.22(b)(1)(iii); 50 CFR 17.32(b)(1)(iii)(C). If we find, after opportunity for public comment, with respect to the permit application and the related HCP that (1) the taking will be incidental; (2) the applicant will, to the maximum extent practicable, minimize and mitigate the impacts of such taking; (3) the applicant will ensure that adequate funding for the HCP will be provided, as well as procedures to deal with unforeseen circumstances; (4) the taking will not appreciably reduce the likelihood of the survival and recovery of the species in the wild; and (5) the measures, if any, required by us will be carried out; and we have received assurances that the plan will be implemented, then we will issue the DoF its requested permit. 50 CFR 17.22, 17.32(b)(2)(i).
The purpose of an HCP and subsequent issuance of an ITP is to authorize the incidental take of threatened or endangered species, not to authorize the underlying activities that result in take. This process ensures that the effects of the authorized incidental take will be adequately minimized and mitigated to the maximum extent practicable (Final Handbook for Habitat Conservation Planning and Incidental Take Permitting Process (61 FR 63854, December 2, 1996)).
NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321
We request data, comments, information, and suggestions from the public, other concerned governmental agencies, the scientific community, Tribes, industry, and any other interested party on this notice. We will consider all comments we receive with respect to complying with the requirements of NEPA and the development of the HCP and ITP. We seek comments particularly related to:
(1) Information concerning the range, distribution, population size, and population trends of Indiana bats and other federally listed species in Indiana;
(2) Additional biological information concerning Indiana bats and other federally listed species that occur in Indiana that could be affected by activities on State-owned forest land;
(3) Relevant data and information concerning timber management practices and bat interactions;
(4) Current or planned forest management activities and their possible impacts on Indiana bats and other federally listed species in Indiana;
(5) The presence of facilities within the project planning area that are eligible to be listed on the National Register of Historic Places, or whether other historical, archeological, or traditional cultural properties may be present; and
(6) Any other environmental issues that we should consider with regard to the HCP coverage area and potential ITP issuance.
We are seeking information to assist us in the development of the EIS and the associated HCP. We will develop a draft EIS based on a complete ITP application, draft HCP, and public comments received through this early scoping effort. We may solicit additional public, agency, and Tribal input to identify the nature and scope of the potentially significant environmental issues that should be addressed in the EIS. We will publish a notice of availability for the draft EIS and draft HCP, and seek additional public comments, before completing our final analysis to determine whether to issue an ITP to the DoF.
All comments received, including names and addresses, will become part of the administrative record and will be available to the public. Before including your address, phone number, electronic mail address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—will be publicly available. If you submit a hardcopy comment that includes personal identifying information, you may request at the top of your document that we withhold this information from public review. However, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
We provide this notice under section 10 of the ESA (16 U.S.C. 1531
Office of the Secretary, Office of Acquisition and Property Management.
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, the Office of Acquisition and Property Management, Office of the Secretary, Department of the Interior, has submitted an information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) to continue the collection of information for the “Private Rental Survey” OMB Control No. 1084-0033. The information collection request (ICR) describes the nature of the information collection and the expected burden and cost.
OMB has up to 60 days to approve or disapprove the information collection request, but may respond after 30 days; therefore, public comments should be submitted to OMB by October 19, 2016, in order to be assured of consideration.
Submit comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Department of the Interior (1084-0033), by telefax at (202) 395-5806 or via email to
To request more information on this information collection or to obtain a copy of the collection instrument, please write or call Laura Walters, Quarters Rental Program Manager, 7301 W Mansfield Ave, MS D-2910, Denver, CO 80235, or fax: 303-969-6634, or by email to
Office of Management and Budget (OMB) regulations at 5 CFR 1320, which implement the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-131), require that interested members of the public and affected parties have an opportunity to comment on information collection and recordkeeping activities. This notice identifies an information collection activity that the Office of Acquisition and Property Management has submitted to OMB for renewal.
Title 5 of the U.S. Code section 5911 authorizes Federal agencies to provide housing for Government employees under specified circumstances. In compliance with OMB Circular A-45 (Revised), Rental and Construction of Government Quarters, a review of private rental market housing rates is required at least once every 5 years to ensure that the rental, utility charges, and charges for related services to occupants of Government Furnished Housing (GFH) are comparable to corresponding charges in the private sector. To avoid unnecessary duplication and inconsistent rental rates, the Department of the Interior, Office of the Secretary, Interior Business Center (on behalf of the Office of Acquisition and Property Management), conducts housing surveys in support of employee housing management programs for the Departments of the Interior (DOI), Agriculture, Commerce, Homeland Security, Justice, Transportation, Health and Human Services, and Veterans Affairs. In this survey, two collection forms are used: OS-2000 covering “Houses—Apartments—Mobile Homes,” and OS-2001 covering “Trailer Spaces.”
This collection of information provides data that is essential for DOI and the other Federal agencies to manage GFH in accordance with the requirements of OMB Circular A-45 (Revised). If this information were not collected from the public, DOI and the other Federal agencies providing GFH would be required to use professional real estate appraisals of private market rental costs, again, in accordance with OMB Circular A-45.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) As required under 5 CFR 1320.8(d), a
The Department of the Interior invites comments on:
(a) Whether the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(b) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the collection and the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(c) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
(d) Ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other collection techniques.
“Burden” means the total time, effort, or financial resources expended by persons to generate, maintain, retain, disclose or provide information to or for a Federal agency. This includes the time needed to review instructions; to develop, acquire, install and utilize technology and systems for the purpose of collecting, validating and verifying information, processing and maintaining information, and disclosing and providing information; to train personnel and to be able to respond to a collection of information, to search
While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget control number.
National Park Service, Interior.
Notice.
The National Park Service is soliciting comments on the significance of properties nominated before August 20, 2016, for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places.
Comments should be submitted by October 4, 2016.
Comments may be sent via U.S. Postal Service to the National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1849 C St. NW., MS 2280, Washington, DC 20240; by all other carriers, National Register of Historic Places, National Park Service, 1201 Eye St. NW., 8th floor, Washington, DC 20005; or by fax, 202-371-6447.
The properties listed in this notice are being considered for listing or related actions in the National Register of Historic Places. Nominations for their consideration were received by the National Park Service before August 20, 2016. Pursuant to section 60.13 of 36 CFR part 60, written comments are being accepted concerning the significance of the nominated properties under the National Register criteria for evaluation.
Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
60.13 of 36 CFR part 60.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of R2 Semiconductor, Inc. on September 12, 2016. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain integrated circuits with voltage regulators and products containing same. The complaint names as respondents Intel Corporation of Santa Clara, CA; Intel Ireland Ltd. of Ireland; Intel Products Vietnam Co., Ltd. of Vietnam; Intel Israel 74 Ltd. of Israel; Intel Malaysia Sdn. Berhad of Malaysia; Intel China, Ltd. of China; Dell, Inc. of Round Rock, TX; Dell Technologies Inc. of Round Rock, TX; HP Inc. of Palo Alto, CA; and Hewlett Packard Enterprise Co. of Palo Alto, CA. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, cease and desist orders and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) Explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3174”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that a complaint was filed with the U.S. International Trade Commission on August 5, 2016, under section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, 19
The complainant requests that the Commission institute an investigation and, after the investigation, issue a limited exclusion order and cease and desist orders.
The complaint, except for any confidential information contained therein, is available for inspection during official business hours (8:45 a.m. to 5:15 p.m.) in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Room 112, Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. Hearing impaired individuals are advised that information on this matter can be obtained by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on (202) 205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at (202) 205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at
The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, telephone (202) 205-2560.
Authority: The authority for institution of this investigation is contained in section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and in section 210.10 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.10 (2016).
(1) Pursuant to subsection (b) of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, an investigation be instituted to determine whether there is a violation of subsection (a)(1)(B) of section 337 in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, or the sale within the United States after importation of certain industrial control system software, systems using the same, and components thereof by reason of infringement of one or more of claims 1, 9, and 10 of the '226 patent; claims 21, 25-27, and 30-35 of the '817 patent; claims 1-5, 7, 10, and 23-26 of the '960 patent; claims 1 and 3-6 the '225 patent; claims 1-3, 9, 13-16, 20 and 21 of the '704 patent; claims 1-6, 8-10, 12, 13, 15, and 16 of the '196 patent; claims 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 15, 17-19, 21, and 25 of the '585 patent; claims 1, 3-5, and 7-15 of the '800 patent, and whether an industry in the United States exists as required by subsection (a)(2) of section 337;
(2) Pursuant to Commission Rule 210.50(b)(1), 19 CFR 210.50(b)(1), the presiding administrative law judge shall take evidence or other information and hear arguments from the parties or other interested persons with respect to the public interest in this investigation, as appropriate, and provide the Commission with findings of fact and a recommended determination on this issue, which shall be limited to the statutory public interest factors set forth in 19 U.S.C. 1337(d)(1), (f)(1), (g)(1);
(3) For the purpose of the investigation so instituted, the following are hereby named as parties upon which this notice of investigation shall be served:
(a) The complainant is: Rockwell Automation, Inc., 1201 South 2nd Street, Milwaukee, WI 53204-2410.
(b) The respondents are the following entities alleged to be in violation of section 337, and are the parties upon which the complaint is to be served: 3S-smart Software Solutions, GmbH, Memminger Str. 151, 87439 Kempten, Germany; Advantech Corporation, 380 Fairview Way, Milpitas, CA 95035; Advantech Co., Ltd., No. 1, Alley 20, Lane 26, Rueiguang Road, Neihu District, Taipei City, Taiwan.
(c) The Office of Unfair Import Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Suite 401, Washington, DC 20436; and
(4) For the investigation so instituted, the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. International Trade Commission, shall designate the presiding Administrative Law Judge.
Responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation must be submitted by the named respondents in accordance with section 210.13 of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, 19 CFR 210.13. Pursuant to 19 CFR 201.16(e) and 210.13(a), such responses will be considered by the Commission if received not later than 20 days after the date of service by the Commission of the complaint and the notice of investigation. Extensions of time for submitting responses to the complaint and the notice of investigation will not be granted unless good cause therefor is shown.
Failure of a respondent to file a timely response to each allegation in the complaint and in this notice may be deemed to constitute a waiver of the right to appear and contest the allegations of the complaint and this notice, and to authorize the administrative law judge and the Commission, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the complaint and this notice and to enter an initial determination and a final determination containing such findings, and may result in the issuance of an exclusion order or a cease and desist order or both directed against the respondent.
By order of the Commission.
U.S. International Trade Commission.
Notice.
Notice is hereby given that the U.S. International Trade Commission has received a complaint entitled
Lisa R. Barton, Secretary to the Commission, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20436, telephone (202) 205-2000. The public version of the complaint can be accessed on the Commission's
General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its Internet server at United States International Trade Commission (USITC) at
The Commission has received a complaint and a submission pursuant to § 210.8(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure filed on behalf of Silicon Genesis Corporation on May 26, 2016. The complaint alleges violations of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1337) in the importation into the United States, the sale for importation, and the sale within the United States after importation of certain silicon-on-insulator wafers. The complaint names as respondent Soitec, S.A. of France. The complainant requests that the Commission issue a limited exclusion order, a cease and desist order, and impose a bond upon respondents' alleged infringing articles during the 60-day Presidential review period pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1337(j).
Proposed respondents, other interested parties, and members of the public are invited to file comments, not to exceed five (5) pages in length, inclusive of attachments, on any public interest issues raised by the complaint or § 210.8(b) filing. Comments should address whether issuance of the relief specifically requested by the complainant in this investigation would affect the public health and welfare in the United States, competitive conditions in the United States economy, the production of like or directly competitive articles in the United States, or United States consumers.
In particular, the Commission is interested in comments that:
(i) explain how the articles potentially subject to the requested remedial orders are used in the United States;
(ii) identify any public health, safety, or welfare concerns in the United States relating to the requested remedial orders;
(iii) identify like or directly competitive articles that complainant, its licensees, or third parties make in the United States which could replace the subject articles if they were to be excluded;
(iv) indicate whether complainant, complainant's licensees, and/or third party suppliers have the capacity to replace the volume of articles potentially subject to the requested exclusion order and/or a cease and desist order within a commercially reasonable time; and
(v) explain how the requested remedial orders would impact United States consumers.
Written submissions must be filed no later than by close of business, eight calendar days after the date of publication of this notice in the
Persons filing written submissions must file the original document electronically on or before the deadlines stated above and submit 8 true paper copies to the Office of the Secretary by noon the next day pursuant to § 210.4(f) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 210.4(f)). Submissions should refer to the docket number (“Docket No. 3153”) in a prominent place on the cover page and/or the first page. (
Any person desiring to submit a document to the Commission in confidence must request confidential treatment. All such requests should be directed to the Secretary to the Commission and must include a full statement of the reasons why the Commission should grant such treatment.
This action is taken under the authority of section 337 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1337), and of §§ 201.10 and 210.8(c) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure (19 CFR 201.10, 210.8(c)).
By order of the Commission.
Federal Bureau of Investigation, United States Department of Justice
Notice of a new system of records.
Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-130, the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), a component of the United States Department of Justice (Department or DOJ), proposes to establish a new system of records titled, “FBI Insider Threat Program Records (ITPR),” JUSTICE/FBI-023, to establish certain capabilities to detect, deter, and mitigate threats by FBI personnel including, but not limited to, employees, Joint Task Force Members, contractors, detailees, assignees, and interns, with authorized access to FBI facilities, information systems, or Classified information. FBI personnel assigned to the FBI Insider Threat Prevention and Detection Program (ITPDP) will use the system to facilitate management of insider threat inquiries and activities associated with inquiries and referrals; identify potential threats to FBI resources and information assets; track referrals of potential insider threats to internal and external partners; and provide statistical reports and meet other insider threat reporting requirements. The FBI is concurrently
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4) and (11), the public is given a 30-day period in which to comment. Therefore, please submit any comments by October 19, 2016.
The public, OMB, and Congress are invited to submit any comments to the U.S. Department of Justice, ATTN: Privacy Analyst, Office of Privacy and Civil Liberties, National Place Building, 1331 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20530-0001, or by facsimile at 202-307-0693. To ensure proper handling, please reference the above CPCLO Order No. on your correspondence.
Richard R. Brown, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Assistant General Counsel, Privacy and Civil Liberties Unit, Office of the General Counsel, J. Edgar Hoover Building, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001, telephone (202) 324-3000.
The FBI has created a system of records, known as the FBI Insider Threat Program Records (ITPR), to manage insider threat matters within the FBI. Presidential Executive Order (E.O.) 13587,
The Presidential Memorandum—
In accordance with Privacy Act requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(r), the Department of Justice has provided a report to OMB and to Congress on this new system of records.
FBI Insider Threat Program Records (ITPR).
This system includes both Classified and Unclassified information.
Records may be maintained at all locations at which the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) operates or at which FBI operations are supported, including: J. Edgar Hoover Bldg., 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001; FBI Academy and FBI Laboratory, Quantico, VA 22135; FBI Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, 1000 Custer Hollow Rd., Clarksburg, WV 22602-4843; and FBI field offices, legal attaches, information technology centers, and other components as listed on the FBI's Internet Web site,
The categories of individuals covered by this system are persons with authorized access to FBI facilities, information systems, or Classified information, including but not limited to present and former FBI employees, Joint Task Force Members, contractors, detailees, assignees, and interns.
An insider threat is defined as the threat that any person with authorized access to any FBI resource, to include personnel, facilities, information, equipment, networks, or systems may use his/her authorized access, wittingly or unwittingly, to do harm to the security of the United States, including damage to the United States through espionage, terrorism, unauthorized disclosure of national security information, or through the loss or degradation of FBI resources or capabilities.
A. All relevant counterintelligence and security databases and files, including personnel security files, polygraph examination reports, facility access records, security violation files, travel records, foreign contact reports, and financial disclosure filings.
B. All relevant Unclassified and Classified network information generated by Information Assurance elements, including, but not limited to, personnel usernames and aliases, levels of network access, audit data, unauthorized use of removable media, print logs, and other data needed for clarification or resolution of an insider threat concern.
C. All relevant Human Resources databases and files including, but not limited to: Personnel files, payroll and voucher files, outside work and activities requests, disciplinary files, and personal contact records, as may be necessary for resolving or clarifying insider threat matters.
Executive Order (E.O.) 12968,
To monitor, detect, deter, and/or mitigate FBI insider threats. The FBI has established the FBI ITPDP and this system of records in order to implement the requirements of E.O. 13587,
In addition to those disclosures generally permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), relevant information contained in this system of records may be disclosed as a routine use, under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(3), in accordance with the blanket routine uses established for FBI record systems.
A. Where a record, either alone or in conjunction with other information, indicates a violation or potential violation of law—criminal, civil, or regulatory in nature—the relevant records may be referred to the appropriate federal, state, local, territorial, tribal, or foreign law enforcement authority or other appropriate entity charged with the responsibility for investigating or prosecuting such violation or charged with enforcing or implementing such law.
B. To a governmental entity lawfully engaged in collecting law enforcement, law enforcement intelligence, or national security intelligence information for such purposes when determined to be relevant by the FBI.
C. To any person, organization, or governmental entity in order to notify them of a potential terrorist threat for the purpose of guarding against or responding to such threat.
D. To an agency of a foreign government or international agency or entity where the FBI determines that the information is relevant to the recipient's responsibilities, dissemination serves the best interests of the U.S. Government, and where the purpose in making the disclosure is compatible with the purpose for which the information was collected.
E. To any entity or individual where there is reason to believe the recipient is or could become the target of a particular criminal activity, conspiracy, or other threat, to the extent the information is relevant to the protection of life, health, or property. Information may similarly be disclosed to other recipients to the extent the information is relevant to the protection of life, health, or property.
F. To appropriate agencies, entities, and persons when (1) the FBI suspects or has confirmed that the security or confidentiality of information in the system of records has been compromised; (2) the FBI has determined that as a result of the suspected or confirmed compromise there is a risk of harm to economic or property interests, identity theft or fraud, or harm to the security or integrity of this system or other systems or programs (whether maintained by the FBI or another agency or entity) that rely upon the compromised information; and (3) the disclosure made to such agencies, entities, and persons is reasonably necessary to assist in connection with the FBI's efforts to respond to the suspected or confirmed compromise and prevent, minimize, or remedy such harm.
G. To contractors, grantees, experts, consultants, detailees, students, or others performing or working on a contract, service, grant, cooperative agreement, or other assignment for the FBI, when necessary to accomplish an agency function related to this system of records.
H. To the news media or members of the general public in furtherance of a legitimate law enforcement or public safety function as determined by the FBI and, where applicable, consistent with 28 CFR 50.2, unless it is determined that release of the specific information in the context of a particular case would constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
I. In an appropriate proceeding before a court, grand jury, or administrative or adjudicative body, when the FBI determines that the records are arguably relevant to the proceeding; or in an appropriate proceeding before an administrative or adjudicative body when the adjudicator determines the records to be relevant to the proceeding.
J. To an actual or potential party to litigation or the party's authorized representative for the purpose of negotiation or discussion of such matters as settlement, plea bargaining, or informal discovery proceedings.
K. To such recipients and under such circumstances and procedures as are mandated by federal statute or treaty.
L. To a Member of Congress or staff acting upon the Member's behalf when the Member or staff requests the information on behalf of, and the request of, the individual who is the subject of the record.
M. To any agency, organization, or individual for the purposes of performing authorized audit or oversight operations of the FBI and meeting related reporting requirements.
N. To the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) for purposes of records management inspections conducted under the authority of 44 U.S.C. 2904 and 2906.
O. To a former employee of the FBI for purposes of: Responding to an official inquiry by a federal, state, or local government entity or professional licensing authority, in accordance with applicable FBI or Department of Justice regulations; or facilitating communications with a former
P. To the White House (the President, Vice President, their staffs, and other entities of the Executive Office of the President (EOP)), and, during Presidential transitions, the President-elect and Vice President-elect and their designees for appointment, employment, security, and access purposes compatible with the purposes for which the records were collected by the FBI,
Q. To complainants and/or victims to the extent necessary to provide such persons with information and explanations concerning the progress and/or results of the investigations or cases arising from the matters of which they complained and/or of which they were a victim.
R. To appropriate officials and employees of a federal agency or entity that requires information relevant to a decision concerning the hiring, appointment, or retention of an employee; the assignment, detail, or deployment of an employee; the issuance, renewal, suspension, or revocation of a security clearance; the execution of a security or suitability investigation; the letting of a contract; or the issuance of a grant or benefit.
S. To federal, state, local, tribal, territorial, foreign, or international licensing agencies or associations, when the FBI determines the information is relevant to the suitability or eligibility of an individual for a license or permit.
T. To designated officers and employees of state, local, territorial, or tribal law enforcement or detention agencies in connection with the hiring or continued employment of an employee or contractor, where the employee or contractor would occupy or occupies a position of public trust as a law enforcement officer or detention officer having direct contact with the public or with prisoners or detainees, to the extent that the information is relevant to the recipient agency's decision.
U. To such agencies, entities, and persons as is necessary to ensure the continuity of government functions in the event of any actual or potential disruption of normal government operations. This use encompasses all manner of such situations in which government operations may be disrupted, including: Military, terrorist, cyber, or other attacks, natural or manmade disasters, and other national or local emergencies; inclement weather and other acts of nature; infrastructure/utility outages; failures, renovations, or maintenance of buildings or building systems; problems arising from planning, testing or other development efforts; and other operational interruptions. This also includes all related pre-event planning, preparation, backup/redundancy, training and exercises, and post-event operations, mitigation, and recovery.
V. To any person or entity, if necessary to elicit information or cooperation from the recipient for use by the FBI in the performance of an authorized law enforcement, national security, or intelligence function.
None.
Records in this system are stored on paper and/or in electronic form. Electronic records are stored in enterprise information technology platforms and networks, databases and/or on hard disks, removable storage devices or other electronic media. Paper records may be stored in individual file folders and file cabinets with controlled access, or other appropriate GSA-approved security containers. Classified information is stored in accordance with applicable legal, administrative, and other requirements.
Information in this system may be retrieved by an individual's name, user ID, email address, Social Security number, unique employee identifier, as well as by use of key word search terms, including the names of persons with whom covered individuals have interacted or to whom they have been linked.
Records are maintained in secure, restricted areas and are accessed only by authorized personnel. Physical security protections include guarded and locked facilities requiring badges and passwords for access and other physical and technological safeguards (such as role-based access and strong passwords) to prevent unauthorized access. All visitors must be accompanied by authorized staff personnel at all times. Highly Classified or sensitive privacy information is electronically transmitted on secure lines and in encrypted form to prevent interception and interpretation. Users accessing system components through mobile or portable computers or electronic devices such as laptop computers, multi-purpose cell phones, and personal digital assistants (PDAs) must comply with the FBI's remote access policy, which requires encryption. All FBI employees receive a complete background investigation prior to being hired. Other persons with authorized access to system records receive comparable vetting. All personnel are required to undergo privacy and annual information security training, and are cautioned about divulging confidential information or any information contained in FBI files. Failure to abide by this provision violates DOJ regulations and may violate certain civil and criminal statutes providing for penalties of fine or imprisonment or both. As a condition of employment, FBI personnel also sign nondisclosure agreements which encompass both Classified and Unclassified information and remain in force even after FBI employment. Employees who resign or retire are also cautioned about divulging information acquired in their FBI capacity.
Records in this system are maintained and destroyed in accordance with applicable schedules and procedures
Director, Federal Bureau of Investigation, 935 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20535-0001.
Same as RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES, below.
The Attorney General has exempted this system of records from the notification, access, and contest procedures of the Privacy Act. These exemptions apply only to the extent that the information in this system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Where compliance would not appear to interfere with or adversely affect the purposes of the system, or the overall law enforcement/intelligence process, the applicable exemption (in whole or in part) may be waived by the FBI in its sole discretion.
All requests for access should follow the guidance provided on the FBI's Web site at
Individuals desiring to contest or amend information maintained in the system should direct their requests according to the RECORD ACCESS PROCEDURES listed above, stating clearly and concisely what information is being contested, the reasons for contesting it, and the proposed amendment to the information sought. The envelope and letter should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Amendment Request” and comply with 28 CFR § 16.46. Some information may be exempt from contesting record procedures as described in the EXEMPTIONS CLAIMED FOR THE SYSTEM paragraph. An individual who is the subject of a record in this system may amend those records that are not exempt. A determination whether a record may be amended will be made at the time a request is received.
Information may be provided by individuals covered by this system, the FBI, DOJ and United States Government components, other domestic and foreign government entities, or obtained from private entities.
The Attorney General has exempted this system of records from subsection (c)(3) and (4); (d)(1), (2), (3) and (4); (e)(1), (2), and (3); (e)(4) (G), (H) and (I); (e)(5) and (8); (f) and (g) of the Privacy Act. These exemptions apply only to the extent that information in the system is subject to exemption pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k). Rules are being promulgated in accordance with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 553(b), (c), and (e) and have been published in today's
On September 13, 2016, a proposed Consent Decree in
The proposed Consent Decree between the parties resolves the United States' claims that Total Petroleum violated the Clean Water Act and permits it holds under the Act at Total Petroleum's Bulk Fuels Terminal in Guaynabo, Puerto Rico. The proposed Consent Decree requires Total Petroleum to undertake work at its facility to comply with the Act and the permits it holds, to pay a $345,000 civil penalty, and to undertake a project to improve aquatic habitat in the nearby San Juan Harbor.
The publication of this notice opens a period for public comment on the proposed Consent Decree. Comments should be addressed to the Assistant Attorney General, Environment and Natural Resources Division, and should refer to:
During the public comment period, the proposed Consent Decree may be examined and downloaded at this Justice Department Web site:
Please enclose a check or money order for $18.25 (25 cents per page
Notice.
The Department of Labor (DOL) is submitting the Employment and Training Administration (ETA) sponsored information collection request (ICR) titled, “Income and Eligibility Verification System Confidentiality,” to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval for continued use, without change, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), 44 U.S.C. 3501
The OMB will consider all written comments that agency receives on or before October 19, 2016.
A copy of this ICR with applicable supporting documentation; including a description of the likely respondents, proposed frequency of response, and estimated total burden may be obtained free of charge from the
Submit comments about this request by mail or courier to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Attn: OMB Desk Officer for DOL-ETA, Office of Management and Budget, Room 10235, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503; by Fax: 202-395-5806 (this is not a toll-free number); or by email:
Contact Michel Smyth by telephone at 202-693-4129, TTY 202-693-8064, (these are not toll-free numbers) or by email at
44 U.S.C. 3507(a)(1)(D).
This ICR seeks to extend PRA authority for the Income and Eligibility Verification System (IEVS) Confidentiality information collection. More specifically, this ICR relates to information collections established by the Deficit Reduction Act of 1984 (DRA), which created an IEVS for the exchange of information among State agencies administering specific programs. IEVS covered programs include Temporary Assistance for Needy Families; Medicaid; Food Stamps; Supplemental Security Income; Unemployment Compensation; and any State program approved under Social Security Act (SSA) titles I, X, XIV, or XVI. Under the DRA, participating programs must exchange information to the extent it is useful and productive in verifying eligibility and benefit amounts that assist the child support program and the Secretary of Health and Human Services in verifying eligibility and benefit amounts under SSA titles II and XVI. On September 27, 2006, the ETA issued a final rule regarding the Confidentiality and Disclosure of State Unemployment Compensation Information.
This information collection is subject to the PRA. A Federal agency generally cannot conduct or sponsor a collection of information, and the public is generally not required to respond to an information collection, unless it is approved by the OMB under the PRA and displays a currently valid OMB Control Number. In addition, notwithstanding any other provisions of law, no person shall generally be subject to penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information that does not display a valid Control Number.
OMB authorization for an ICR cannot be for more than three (3) years without renewal, and the current approval for this collection is scheduled to expire on September 30, 2016. The DOL seeks to extend PRA authorization for this information collection for three (3) more years, without any change to existing requirements. The DOL notes that existing information collection requirements submitted to the OMB receive a month-to-month extension while they undergo review. For additional substantive information about this ICR, see the related notice published in the
Interested parties are encouraged to send comments to the OMB, Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs at the address shown in the
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS), Labor.
Notice.
The Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on a proposed collection of information by the agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the
Comments are to be submitted by November 18, 2016.
Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
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• Receipt of submissions, whether by U.S. Mail, email, or FAX transmittal, will not be acknowledged; however, the sender may request confirmation that a submission has been received, by telephoning VETS at (202) 693-4731 (VOICE) (this is not a toll-free number) or (202) 693-4760 (TTY/TDD).
All comments received, including any personal information provided, will be available for public inspection during normal business hours at the above address. People needing assistance to review comments will be provided with appropriate aids such as readers or print magnifiers.
Kenan Torrans, Deputy Director, Compliance and Investigations, VETS, U.S. Department of Labor, Room S-1316, 200 Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20210, or by email at:
The VETS USERRA/VP Form 1010 (VETS-1010 Form) is used to file complaints with the Department of Labor's Veterans' Employment and Training Service (VETS) under either the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA) or the laws and regulations related to Veterans' Preference (VP) in Federal employment. On October 13, 1994, the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA), Public Law 103-353, 108 Stat. 3150 was signed into law. Contained in Title 38, U.S.C. 4301-4335, USERRA is the replacement for the Veterans' Reemployment Rights (VRR) law. The purposes of USERRA laws and regulations are: To minimize disruption to the lives of persons who perform service in the uniformed services (including the National Guard and Reserves), as well as to their employers, their fellow employees, and their communities, by providing for prompt reemployment of such persons upon completion of such service; to encourage individuals to participate in non-career uniformed service by eliminating and minimizing the disadvantages to civilian careers and employment which can result from such service; and to prohibit discrimination in employment and acts of reprisal against persons because of their obligations in the uniformed services, prior service, intention to join the uniformed services, filing of a USERRA claim, seeking assistance concerning an alleged USERRA violation, testifying in a proceeding, or otherwise assisting in an investigation of a USERRA claim. The Veterans Employment Opportunities Act (VEOA) of 1998, Public Law 105-339, 12 Stat. 3182, contained in Title 5 U.S.C. 3330a-3330c, authorizes the Secretary of Labor to provide assistance to preference eligible individuals who believe their rights under the veterans' preference laws have been violated, and to investigate claims filed by those individuals. The purposes of veterans' preference laws include: To provide preference for certain veterans over others in Federal hiring from competitive lists of applicants; to allow access and open up Federal job opportunities to veterans that might otherwise be closed to the public; and to provide preference eligible veterans with preference over others in retention during reductions in force in Federal agencies. VETS has an electronic complaint form, the VETS e1010, available on our Web site at:
VETS is soliciting comments concerning the proposed information collection in the VETS-1010 Form. The Department of Labor is particularly interested in comments which:
• Evaluate whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
• Evaluate the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
• Enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and
• Minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology.
This notice requests an extension of the current Office of Management and Budget approval of the paperwork requirements for VETS-1010 Form.
Comments submitted in response to this notice will be summarized and included in the request for the Office of Management and Budget approval of the information collection request.
Comments will become a matter of public record.
National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Notice of meeting.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Public Law 92-463, as amended, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announces a meeting of the Planetary Science Subcommittee of the NASA Advisory Council (NAC). This Subcommittee reports to the Science Committee of the NAC. The meeting will be held for the purpose of soliciting, from the scientific community and other persons, scientific and technical information relevant to program planning.
Thursday, September 29, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m., and Friday, September 30, 2016, 8:30 a.m.-5:00 p.m., Local Time.
NASA Headquarters, Room 5H41, 300 E Street SW., Washington, DC 20546.
Ms. Ann Delo, Science Mission Directorate, NASA Headquarters, Washington, DC 20546, (202) 358-0750, fax (202) 358-2779, or
The meeting will be open to the public up to the capacity of the meeting room. This meeting is also available telephonically and by WebEx. You must use a touch-tone phone to participate in this meeting. Any interested person may call the USA toll free number 1-877-918-9234 or toll number 1-630-395-0299, passcode 4532334, for both days. The WebEx link is
Attendees will be requested to sign a register and to comply with NASA Headquarters security requirements, including the presentation of a valid picture ID to Security before access to NASA Headquarters. Due to the Real ID Act, any attendees with drivers licenses issued from non-compliant states must present a second form of ID. Non-compliant states are: American Samoa, Minnesota, Missouri, and Washington. Foreign nationals attending this meeting will be required to provide a copy of their passport and visa in addition to providing the following information no less than 10 days prior to the meeting: Full name; gender; date/place of birth; citizenship; passport information (number, country, telephone); visa information (number, type, expiration date); employer/affiliation information (name of institution, address, country, telephone); title/position of attendee. To expedite admittance, attendees with U.S. citizens and Permanent Residents (green card holders) can provide full name and citizenship status 3 working days in advance by contacting Ann Delo via email at
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice and request for comment.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA), as part of a continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burden, invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on a revision of a previously approved collection, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13, 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35).
Written comments should be received on or before November 18, 2016 to be assured consideration.
Interested persons are invited to submit written comments on the information collection to Dawn Wolfgang, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314; Fax No. 703-519-8579; or Email at
Requests for additional information should be directed to the address above.
Revisions are being made to NCUA Forms 5300, Call Report, and 4501A, Credit Union Profile, to capture applicable data implemented by amendments to 12 CFR part 723, Member Business Loans; Commercial Lending. Changes involve moving loan details to a separate page and revising the Call Report loans and business lending, and Credit Union Profile programs and services sections to reflect “commercial” lending terminology. The
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on September 14, 2016.
National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
Notice.
The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and clearance in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, Public Law 104-13, on or after the date of publication of this notice.
Comments should be received on or before October 19, 2016 to be assured of consideration.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, or any other aspect of the information collection, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to (1) Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for NCUA, New Executive Office Building, Room 10235, Washington, DC 20503, or email at
Copies of the submission may be obtained by emailing
By Gerard Poliquin, Secretary of the Board, the National Credit Union Administration, on September 14, 2016.
National Science Foundation.
Notice and request for comments.
The National Science Foundation (NSF) is announcing plans to request renewal of the Survey of Doctorate Recipients (OMB No.: 3145-0020). In accordance with the requirement of section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-13), we are providing opportunity for public comment on this action. After obtaining and considering public comment, NSF will prepare the submission requesting that OMB approve clearance of this collection for three years.
Written comments on this notice must be received by November 18, 2016 to be assured consideration. Comments received after that date will be considered to the extent practicable.
Contact Suzanne H. Plimpton, Reports Clearance Officer, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Boulevard, Suite 1265, Arlington, Virginia 22230; telephone (703) 292-7556; or send email to
The National Science Foundation Act of 1950, as subsequently amended, includes a statutory charge to “. . . provide a central clearinghouse for the collection, interpretation, and analysis of data on scientific and engineering resources, and to provide a source of information for policy formulation by other agencies of the Federal Government.” The SDR is designed to comply with these mandates by providing information on the supply and utilization of the nation's doctoral level scientists and engineers.
The survey data will be collected in conformance with the Confidential Information Protection and Statistical Efficiency Act of 2002 and the individual's response to the survey is voluntary. NSF will ensure that all information collected will be kept strictly confidential and will be used only for statistical purposes.
In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, as amended), the National Science Foundation announces the following meeting:
Astronomy and Astrophysics Advisory Committee (#13883).
National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22230, Stafford II, Room 555-II.
Open.
Dr. Christopher Davis, Program Director, Division of Astronomical Sciences, Suite 1045, National Science Foundation, 4201 Wilson Blvd., Arlington, VA 22230. Telephone: 703-292-4910.
To provide advice and recommendations to the National Science Foundation (NSF), the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) on issues within the field of astronomy and astrophysics that are of mutual interest and concern to the agencies.
To hear presentations of current programming by representatives from NSF, NASA, DOE and other agencies relevant to astronomy and astrophysics; to discuss current and potential areas of cooperation between the agencies; to formulate recommendations for continued and new areas of cooperation and mechanisms for achieving them.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
NUREG; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued Revision 2 to NUREG-1556, Volumes 1 and 3 and Revision 1 to NUREG-1556, Volumes 2, 4, 10, 15, and 19, revising licensing guidance for various materials licenses. These documents have been updated to include information on updated regulatory requirements, safety culture, security of radioactive materials, protection of sensitive information, and
Volume 3 was published in September 2015. Volume 2 was published in February 2016. Volumes 1, 10, 15, and 19 were published in June 2016. Volume 4 was published in July 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID numbers [NRC-2012-0121, NRC-2013-0104, NRC-2011-0265, NRC-2013-0052, NRC-2014-0068, NRC-2014-0057 and NRC-2013-0186] when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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These NUREG-1556 volumes are also available on the NRC's public Web site on the: “Consolidated Guidance About Materials Licenses (NUREG-1556)” page at
Anthony McMurtray, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards; U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2746; email:
The NRC issued revisions to these NUREG volumes to provide guidance to existing materials licensees and to applicants preparing a license application for various materials licenses. These NUREG volumes also provide the NRC staff with criteria for evaluating license applications. The purpose of this notice is to notify the public that the NUREG-1556 volumes listed in this FRN were issued as Final Reports.
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 1, Revision 2 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 2, Revision 1 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 3, Revision 2 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 4, Revision 1 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 10, Revision 1 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 15, Revision 1 in the
The NRC published a notice of the availability of the Draft Report for Comment version of NUREG-1556, Volume 19, Revision 1 in the
These NUREG volumes are rules as defined in the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801-808). However, the Office of Management and Budget has not found these to be major rules as defined in the Congressional Review Act.
The documents identified in the following table are available to interested persons through one or more of the following methods, as indicated.
For the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
License amendment application; notice of opportunity to request a hearing and to petition for leave to intervene.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has received a license amendment application from Environmental Properties Management (EPM or the licensee) for the Cimarron Facility, located near Crescent, Oklahoma. The licensee is requesting an amendment to its Source and Byproduct Materials License SNM-928 to authorize decommissioning of the Cimarron Facility for unrestricted release.
A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be filed by November 18, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0196 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Kenneth Kalman, Office of Nuclear Material Safety and Safeguards, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-6664; email:
By letter dated May 4, 1995, the NRC received a license amendment request from Cimarron Corporation (the licensee at that time) to amend its license SNM-928 to incorporate its decommissioning plan. The NRC requested comment on the decommissioning plan (60 FR 46315; September 6, 1995). The NRC completed its review of the decommissioning plan, and issued a finding of no significant impact in the
The current licensee, EPM, submitted a license amendment request to the NRC on December 31, 2015 (ADAMS Package Accession No. ML16230A614), which, if approved, would amend Source and Byproduct Materials License SNM-928 to authorize decommissioning of the Cimarron Facility near Crescent, Oklahoma for unrestricted release. On April 7, 2016, the NRC requested additional information from EPM regarding the license amendment request (ADAMS Accession No. ML16091A427). By letter dated May 20, 2015 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16168A097), EPM submitted supplemental information in response to the NRC's request.
On September 6, 2016, the NRC found the application acceptable for a technical review (ADAMS Accession No. ML16197A056). Prior to reaching a decision on the amendment request, the NRC will need to make the findings required by the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act) and the NRC's regulations. The NRC's findings will be documented in a safety evaluation report and an environmental assessment. The environmental assessment will be the subject of a subsequent notice in the
Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any persons (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by this action may file a request for a hearing and a petition to intervene (petition) with respect to issuance of the amendment to the subject facility operating license or combined license. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should
As required by 10 CFR 2.309, a petition shall set forth with particularity the interest of the petitioner in the proceeding, and how that interest may be affected by the results of the proceeding. The petition should specifically explain the reasons why intervention should be permitted with particular reference to the following general requirements: (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the petitioner; (2) the nature of the petitioner's right under the Act to be made a party to the proceeding; (3) the nature and extent of the petitioner's property, financial, or other interest in the proceeding; and (4) the possible effect of any decision or order which may be entered in the proceeding on the petitioner's interest. The petition must also set forth the specific contentions which the petitioner seeks to have litigated at the proceeding.
Each contention must consist of a specific statement of the issue of law or fact to be raised or controverted. In addition, the petitioner shall provide a brief explanation of the bases for the contention and a concise statement of the alleged facts or expert opinion which support the contention and on which the petitioner intends to rely in proving the contention at the hearing. The petitioner must also provide references to those specific sources and documents of which the petitioner is aware and on which the petitioner intends to rely to establish those facts or expert opinion to support its position on the issue. The petition must include sufficient information to show that a genuine dispute exists with the applicant on a material issue of law or fact. Contentions shall be limited to matters within the scope of the amendment under consideration. The contention must be one which, if proven, would entitle the petitioner to relief. A petitioner who fails to satisfy these requirements with respect to at least one contention will not be permitted to participate as a party.
Those permitted to intervene become parties to the proceeding, subject to any limitations in the order granting leave to intervene, and have the opportunity to participate fully in the conduct of the hearing with respect to resolution of that person's admitted contentions, including the opportunity to present evidence and to submit a cross-examination plan for cross-examination of witnesses, consistent with the NRC's regulations, policies, and procedures.
Petitions for leave to intervene must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Requests for hearing, petitions for leave to intervene, and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the 60-day deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i)-(iii).
If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration. The final determination will serve to decide when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves no significant hazards consideration, the Commission may issue the amendment and make it immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing held would take place after issuance of the amendment. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of any amendment unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.
A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(1).
The petition should state the nature and extent of the petitioner's interest in the proceeding. The petition should be submitted to the Commission by November 18, 2016. The petition must be filed in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document, and should meet the requirements for petitions set forth in this section, except that under 10 CFR 2.309(h)(2) a State, local governmental body, or Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof does not need to address the standing requirements in 10 CFR 2.309(d) if the facility is located within its boundaries. A State, local governmental body, Federally-recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may also have the opportunity to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c).
If a hearing is granted, any person who does not wish, or is not qualified, to become a party to the proceeding may, in the discretion of the presiding officer, be permitted to make a limited appearance pursuant to the provisions of 10 CFR 2.315(a). A person making a limited appearance may make an oral or written statement of position on the issues, but may not otherwise participate in the proceeding. A limited appearance may be made at any session of the hearing or at any prehearing conference, subject to the limits and conditions as may be imposed by the presiding officer. Details regarding the opportunity to make a limited appearance will be provided by the presiding officer if such sessions are scheduled.
All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including a request for hearing, a petition for leave to intervene, any motion or other document filed in the proceeding prior to the submission of a request for hearing or petition to intervene (hereinafter “petition”), and documents filed by interested governmental entities participating under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with the NRC's E-Filing rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562, August 3, 2012). The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases to mail copies on electronic storage media. Participants may not submit paper copies of their filings unless they seek an exemption in accordance with the procedures described below.
To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at
Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public Web site at
Once a participant has obtained a digital ID certificate and a docket has been created, the participant can then submit a petition. Submissions should be in Portable Document Format (PDF). Additional guidance on PDF submissions is available on the NRC's public Web site at
A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public Web site at
Participants who believe that they have a good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted by: (1) First class mail addressed to the Office of the Secretary of the Commission, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff; or (2) courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service to the Office of the Secretary, Sixteenth Floor, One White Flint North, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland, 20852, Attention: Rulemaking and Adjudications Staff. Participants filing a document in this manner are responsible for serving the document on all other participants. Filing is considered complete by first-class mail as of the time of deposit in the mail, or by courier, express mail, or expedited delivery service upon depositing the document with the provider of the service. A presiding officer, having granted an exemption request from using E-Filing, may require a participant or party to use E-Filing if the presiding officer subsequently determines that the reason for granting the exemption from use of E-Filing no longer exists.
Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket which is available to the public at
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
September 19, 26, October 3, 10, 17, 24, 2016.
Commissioners' Conference Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland.
Public and Closed.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of September 26, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
There are no meetings scheduled for the week of October 10, 2016.
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
This meeting will be webcast live at the Web address—
The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Denise McGovern at 301-415-0681 or via email at
The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the Internet at:
The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings, or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
Members of the public may request to receive this information electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555 (301-415-1969), or email
Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
Exemption; issuance.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an exemption in response to a March 10, 2016, request, as supplemented by letter dated June 24, 2016, from the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA or the licensee). The exemption permits a one-time reallocation of surplus funds from the nuclear decommissioning trust funds (DTFs) for the Sequoyah Nuclear Plant (SQN), Units 1 and 2, to the DTFs for the Browns Ferry Nuclear Plant (BFN), Units 1, 2, and 3, and the Watts Bar Nuclear Plant (WBN), Units 1 and 2.
This exemption was issued on September 9, 2016.
Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2016-0199 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly-available information related to this document using any of the following methods:
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Andrew Hon, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-8480; email:
The Commission's regulations at §§ 50.75 and 50.82 of title 10 of the
In accordance with 10 CFR 50.12, “Specific exemptions,” TVA has, by letter dated March 10, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16071A237), as supplemented by letter dated June 24, 2016 (ADAMS Accession No. ML16179A346), requested that the NRC grant it a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 50.75(h)(2) and 10 CFR 50.82(a)(8) so that it may reallocate surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2. TVA stated that the purpose of
The TVA asserted that special circumstances are present that warrant the grant of the requested exemption. Specifically, TVA stated, in part, that the reallocation of surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2 is consistent with the underlying purpose of the NRC's decommissioning rules, which is to provide reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available to complete decommissioning and thus protect the public and the environment (61 FR 39278, 39281; July 29, 1996). Additionally, TVA claimed that compliance with an interpretation of the regulations that would prohibit the proposed reallocation of surplus funds would result in undue hardship and other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulations were adopted. Finally, TVA stated that the requested exemption from 10 CFR 50.75(h)(2) and 10 CFR 50.82(a)(8) would be a one-time exemption and that TVA will continue to comply with the external sinking fund method of decommissioning funding assurance in accordance with 10 CFR 50.75(e)(1)(ii).
In accordance with 10 CFR 50.12, the Commission may, upon application by any interested person or upon its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 50 when (1) the exemptions are authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and are consistent with the common defense and security; and (2) any of the special circumstances listed in 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2) are present. These special circumstances are:
(i) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances conflicts with other rules or requirements of the Commission; or
(ii) Application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule; or
(iii) Compliance would result in undue hardship or other costs that are significantly in excess of those contemplated when the regulation was adopted, or that are significantly in excess of those incurred by others similarly situated; or
(iv) The exemption would result in benefit to the public health and safety that compensates for any decrease in safety that may result from the grant of the exemption; or
(v) The exemption would provide only temporary relief from the applicable regulation and the licensee or applicant has made good faith efforts to comply with the regulation; or
(vi) There is present any other material circumstance not considered when the regulation was adopted for which it would be in the public interest to grant an exemption. If such condition is relied on exclusively for satisfying paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the exemption may not be granted until the Executive Director for Operations has consulted with the Commission.
In accordance with 10 CFR 50.12, the NRC may grant an exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR part 50, if the exemption is authorized by law. The exemption requested in this instance is authorized by law because no other prohibition of law exists to preclude the activities which would be authorized by the exemption. Specifically, the requested exemption would allow the one-time reallocation of surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2 such that each fund would separately satisfy the NRC's minimum funding assurance requirements with a projected excess available to address site-specific costs to decommission the facility. In addition to the NRC's regulations at 10 CFR 50.75 and 10 CFR 50.82, from which TVA is requesting an exemption, the regulations of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) at 18 CFR 35.32 and 18 CFR 35.33 also address the use of nuclear power plant DTFs. It states in 18 CFR 35.32(a)(6), in pertinent part, that “[a]bsent the express authorization of the [FERC], no part of the assets of the [DTF] may be used for, or diverted to, any purpose other than to fund the costs of decommissioning the nuclear power plant to which the [DTF] relates, and to pay administrative costs and other incidental expenses, including taxes, of the Fund.” It states in 18 CFR 35.33, in pertinent part, that the trustee of the DTF may use the DTF assets only to “[s]atisfy the liability of a utility for decommissioning costs of the nuclear power plant to which the [DTF] relates as provided by [18 CFR] 35.32; and [p]ay administrative costs and other incidental expenses, including taxes, of the [DTF] as provided by [18 CFR] 35.32.”
The underlying purpose of the NRC's decommissioning rules is to provide reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available to complete decommissioning and thus protect the
The requested exemption to allow a one-time reallocation of surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2, to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2 will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety because, as reallocated, each of these DTFs would separately satisfy the minimum formula amount with a projected excess available to address site-specific costs to decommission the facility. This was verified by the NRC staff, which independently performed a decommissioning funding assurance analysis for each unit, using the proposed DTF reallocation amounts. The analysis included an independent calculation of the formula amount for each unit using the equation and adjustment factor in 10 CFR 50.75(c) and the most recent labor and energy and waste burial data available from the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, and NUREG-1307, “Report on Waste Burial Charges” (ADAMS Accession No. ML13023A030), respectively, and an independent fund growth analysis through the permanent termination of operations (assuming an annual real rate of return of 5%, as allowed by 10 CFR 50.75(e)(1)(ii) and authorized by the TVA Board of Directors, TVA's rate-setting authority). In each calculation, the NRC staff found that the projected fund balance for each of the reallocated DTFs exceeded the NRC's formula amount, which is, by rule, the minimum requirement to demonstrate reasonable assurance of funds for decommissioning. Moreover, TVA has rate-setting authority and the requested exemption does not foreclose the option for ratepayer contributions in order to fund any potential future shortfalls. Therefore, the NRC staff concludes that there is reasonable assurance that the bulk amount of the funds necessary to complete radiological decommissioning will be available for each unit after the proposed reallocation and, thus, that the requested exemption will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety.
The requested exemption would grant a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 50.75(h)(2) and 10 CFR 50.82(a)(8) to allow the reallocation of surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2. Neither the regulation nor the proposed exemption has any relation to security issues. Therefore, the common defense and security is not impacted by the requested exemption.
Special circumstances, in accordance with 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii), are present whenever application of the regulation in the particular circumstances would not serve the underlying purpose of the rule or is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the rule. As explained above, the underlying purpose of the NRC's decommissioning rules is to provide reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available to complete decommissioning. This underlying purpose is achieved by requiring power reactor licensees to cover, using one of the methods of 10 CFR 50.75(e), an amount which may be more, but not less, than the formula amount, to report biennially regarding the amount covered and whether adjustment is necessary, and to make disbursements or payments from a DTF only for decommissioning activities. Under the particular circumstances, however, prohibiting the proposed reallocation of funds is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of the decommissioning regulations of maintaining reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available to complete decommissioning.
The TVA proposed to reallocate funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2. Although this would be prohibited by a strict interpretation of the NRC's decommissioning rules, such a prohibition is not necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of those rules because, as reallocated, each of the DTFs would separately satisfy the minimum formula amount with a projected excess available to address site-specific costs to decommission the facility. As discussed above, this was verified by the NRC staff, which independently performed a decommissioning funding assurance analysis for each unit, using the proposed DTF reallocation amounts, and found that the projected fund balance for each DTF, as reallocated, would exceed the NRC minimum funding assurance requirements. Therefore, the NRC staff concludes that prohibiting the proposed reallocation of funds through the application of 10 CFR 50.75(h)(2) and 10 CFR 50.82(a)(8) would not be necessary to achieve the underlying purpose of these regulations; instead, the proposed reallocation would provide reasonable assurance that adequate funds will be available for the radiological decommissioning of the reactors.
With respect to its impact on the quality of the human environment, the NRC has determined that the issuance of the exemption discussed herein meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25). Under 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25), the granting of an exemption from the requirements of any regulation of 10 CFR Chapter I is an action that is a categorical exclusion provided that: (i) There is no significant hazards consideration; (ii) there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite; (iii) there is no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure; (iv) there is no significant construction impact; (v)
The exemption allows the licensee to reallocate surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2. Neither the regulation nor the exemption has any relation to the operation of the facilities. Therefore, the Director, Division of Operating Reactor Licensing, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, has determined that approval of the exemption request involves no significant hazards consideration because it does not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. Similarly, as a result of the exemption, which is not related to facility operation, there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite and there is no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure. The exempted regulation is not associated with construction, so there is no significant construction impact. The exempted regulation does not concern the source term (
Based on the above, the NRC staff concludes that the exemption meets the eligibility criteria for the categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25). Therefore, in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with the approval of this exemption request.
The NRC has determined that, pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12(a), the exemption is authorized by law, will not present an undue risk to the public health and safety, and is consistent with the common defense and security. Also, special circumstances pursuant to 10 CFR 50.12(a)(2)(ii) are present. Therefore, the NRC hereby grants TVA a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 50.75(h)(2) and 10 CFR 50.82(a)(8) to allow the requested reallocation of surplus funds from the DTFs for SQN Units 1 and 2 to the DTFs for BFN Units 1, 2, and 3 and WBN Units 1 and 2.
For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
On June 30, 2016, the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (the “MSRB” or “Board”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “SEC” or “Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”)
The Commission received two comment letters on the proposed rule change.
The proposed rule change consists of proposed amendments to the MSRB's facility for the Real-Time Transaction Reporting System (“RTRS”) to establish an historical data product to provide institutions of higher education (“academic institutions”) with post-trade municipal securities transaction data collected through RTRS (“MSRB Academic Historical Transaction Data Product,” hereafter referred to as “RTRS Academic Data Product”) for purchase.
MSRB Rule G-14 requires dealers to report trade information to the RTRS on all executed transactions in municipal securities within 15 minutes of the time of trade, with limited exceptions.
As stated in the Notice of Filing, after careful consideration of the comments received in response to the Request for Comment, the MSRB decided to make the RTRS Academic Data Product available only to academic institutions, to include anonymous dealer identifiers therein, and to populate the new data product with the same transactions included in the RTRS historical data sets currently available with the exclusion of list offering price and takedown transactions.
The MSRB stated in the Notice of Filing that the effective date of the proposed rule change will be announced in a regulatory notice to be published no later than 90 days from the date of this Order, and such effective date will be no later than 270 days following publication of the regulatory notice announcing Commission approval of the proposed rule change.
As noted previously, the Commission received two comment letters on the proposed rule change, and the MSRB Response Letter. One commenter—SIFMA—generally supported the proposed rule change, while the other commenter—BDA—generally opposed the proposed rule change.
While generally supportive of the proposed rule change, SIFMA expressed the view that the MSRB could make modifications to provide additional protections against the potential for reverse engineering the data without impeding its goals of promoting academic access and research.
BDA, however, argued that the proposed rule change would expose dealers and their customers to unnecessary risks.
SIFMA and BDA offered differing views on the MSRB's efforts to mitigate the risk of reverse engineering of the historical trade data provided to academics. SIFMA approved of the MSRB's decision to exclude list offering price and takedown transactions from the data product and noted that such exclusion would mitigate the risk of reverse engineering.
With respect to protecting dealer identities, both SIFMA and BDA reiterated their respective suggestions that the MSRB make the transaction data available according to groupings of comparable dealers instead of on an individual level, arguing that masked dealer identifiers might not effectively protect dealer identities.
SIFMA and BDA also offered suggestions regarding strengthening and enforcing the proposed user agreements. SIFMA urged the MSRB to develop “robust operational frameworks around the execution and ongoing oversight of user agreements . . . [in order to] further mitigate concerns of reverse engineering and information leakage.”
In response to these comments, the MSRB stated that it “continues to believe that the proposed rule change strikes the appropriate balance between addressing risks regarding potential reverse engineering with facilitating the ability of academic researchers to study the market for municipal securities.”
In response to BDA's data security-related comments, the MSRB stated that it “understands and appreciates” BDA's data security concerns and agrees that it cannot guarantee the security of data provided to academics through the proposed RTRS Academic Data Product.
(1) a prohibition on reverse engineering; (2) a provision requiring the use of commercially
In response to BDA's FOIA law-related comments, the MSRB recognized the possibility that certain recipients of RTRS Academic Data Product data might be subject to FOIA laws that could require the disclosure of certain trade data but, notwithstanding such risk, noted that federal and state FOIA laws include a variety of exemptions that would likely prevent disclosure of data delivered to users of the RTRS Academic Data Product.
The Commission has carefully considered the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, the comments letters received, and the MSRB Response Letter. The Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with the requirements of the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder applicable to the MSRB.
In particular, the Commission finds that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 15B(b)(2)(C) of the Act,
In approving the proposed rule change, the Commission has also considered the impact of the proposed rule change on efficiency, competition, and capital formation.
For the reasons noted above, the Commission believes that the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning Amendment No. 1, including whether the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No.1, is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, prior to the 30th day after the date of publication of Amendment No. 1 in the
As noted by the MSRB, Amendment No. 1 is consistent with the purpose of the proposed rule change and does not raise any significant new issues not already addressed by commenters.
For the foregoing reasons, the Commission finds good cause for approving the proposed rule change, as modified by Amendment No. 1, on an accelerated basis, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Act.
For the Commission, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule to specify that all Complex Order transactions executed through the Exchange's auction mechanisms will be subject to Section I (Exchange Fees) and II (Liquidity Fees and Credits) of the BOX Fee Schedule. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section III (Complex Order Transaction Fees) to specify that all Complex Order transactions executed through the Exchange's auction mechanisms will be subject to Section I (Exchange Fees) and II (Liquidity Fees and Credits) of the BOX Fee Schedule.
Generally, Complex Order transactions are subject to the fees and credits set forth in Section III (Complex Order Transaction Fees) of the BOX Fee Schedule while transactions executed through the Facilitation and Solicitation auction mechanisms are subject to Sections I (Exchange Fees) and II (Liquidity Fees and Credits). The Exchange proposes to add language that clarifies that Complex Order transactions executed through the COPIP and Facilitation auction mechanism
Under Section I (Exchange Fees), the Exchange proposes the following fees for Complex Order transactions executed through the Facilitation auction mechanism. For Agency Orders
The Exchange then proposes to treat Complex Order transactions executed through the Facilitation mechanisms in the same manner as single legged Facilitation transactions for liquidity fees and credits, which are applied in addition to any applicable exchange fees as described in Section I of the Fee
Complex Order transactions executed through the Facilitation mechanism will be assessed a “removal” credit only if the Agency Order does not trade with their contra order. Responses to Complex Order transactions executed through the Facilitation mechanism shall be charged the “add” fee.
Finally, the Exchange is proposing to make additional non-substantive changes to the Fee Schedule. Specifically, the Exchange is renumbering certain footnotes to accommodate the above proposed changes to the Fee Schedule.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that the proposal to specify that Complex Order transactions executed through the Exchange's COPIP and Facilitation mechanisms are subject to fees and credits in Sections I (Exchange Fees) and II (Liquidity Fees and Credits) is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The new ability for Complex Order transactions to execute through the Facilitation Auction mechanism is similar to Complex Orders executing through the COPIP. As such, the Exchange believes it is reasonable for the fees for Complex Orders executed through the Facilitation mechanism to mimic the current COPIP transaction fees.
Currently, the Exchange does not charge any market participant a fee for their Facilitation Orders; however the Exchange charges varying fees for Responses in the Facilitation mechanism depending on the account type of the response. The Exchange believes it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge higher exchange fees for responders to Complex Orders in the Facilitation auction than for initiators of these orders. The Exchange believes its proposed fees are reasonable as they are identical to the fees charged for single legged orders executed through the Facilitation auction mechanism on the Exchange.
The Exchange also believes that charging Professional Customers and Broker Dealers higher fees than Public Customers for Complex Order Responses in the Facilitation auction mechanism is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Professional Customers, while Public Customers by virtue of not being Broker Dealers, generally engage in trading activity more similar to Broker Dealer proprietary trading accounts. The Exchange believes that the higher level of trading activity from these Participants will draw a greater amount of BOX system resources, and the Exchange aims to recover its costs by assessing Professional Customers and Broker Dealers higher fees for these orders.
The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to charge Public Customers less than Market Makers, Broker Dealers and Professional Customers for their Complex Order Responses to the Facilitation Auction mechanism. The securities markets generally, and BOX in particular, have historically aimed to improve markets for investors and develop various features within the market structure for Public Customer benefit. The Exchange believes that charging lower fees to Public Customers is reasonable and, ultimately, will benefit all Participants trading on the Exchange by attracting Public Customer order flow.
Finally, the Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for BOX Market Makers to be assessed lower fees than Professional Customers and Broker Dealers for Complex Order Responses in the Facilitation auction mechanism because of the significant contributions to overall market quality that Market Makers provide. Specifically, Market Makers can provide higher volumes of liquidity and lowering their fees will help attract a higher level of Market Maker order flow to the BOX Book and create liquidity, which the Exchange believes will ultimately benefit all Participants trading on BOX.
The Exchange believes the proposed liquidity fees and credits for Complex Orders executed through the Facilitation auction mechanism are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Specifically, the Exchange believes the liquidity fees and credits fee structure aims to attract order flow to the Facilitation mechanism, potentially providing greater liquidity within the overall BOX Market to the benefit of all BOX market participants. The Exchange notes that the proposed fees and credits for Complex Order transactions executed through the Facilitation mechanism offset one another in any particular transaction. The result is that BOX will collect a fee from Participants that add liquidity on BOX and credit another Participant an equal amount for removing liquidity. Stated otherwise, the collection of these liquidity fees will not directly result in revenue to BOX,
The Exchange continues to believe it is reasonable to establish different fees and credits for Facilitation transactions in Penny Pilot Classes compared to transactions in Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange makes this distinction throughout the BOX Fee Schedule, including the liquidity fees and credits for PIP and COPIP Transactions. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to establish higher fees and credits for Non-Penny Pilot Classes because these Classes are typically less actively traded and have wider spreads. The Exchange believes that offering a higher rebate will incentivize order flow in Non-Penny Pilot issues on the Exchange, ultimately benefitting all Participants trading on BOX.
Further, the Exchange continues to believe it is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to only assess liquidity fees and credits on Agency Orders that do not trade with their contra order, and the Responses to these Orders. As stated above, liquidity fees and credits are meant to incentivize order flow, and the Exchange believes incentives are not necessary for internalized orders in these mechanisms that only trade against their contra order. Additionally, other Exchanges also make this distinction in their Facilitation auction mechanism.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing exchanges. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed change is designed to provide greater specificity and precision within the Fee Schedule with respect to the fees that will be applicable to Complex Order transactions executed through the Exchange's Facilitation auction mechanism.
The Exchange believes that adopting these fees will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. The proposed fees are meant to mimic the fees currently assessed for single legged orders executed through the Facilitation auction mechanism. Submitting an order through an auction mechanism is entirely voluntary and Participants can determine which type of order they wish to submit, if any, to the Exchange.
Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed fees will enhance competition between exchanges because it is designed to allow the Exchange to better compete with other exchanges for Complex Order flow. In this regard, the new feature which allows Complex Order transactions to execute through the Facilitation mechanism is being introduced by the Exchange and BOX is unable to absolutely determine the impact that the proposed fees proposed herein will have on trading. That said, however, the Exchange believes that the proposed fees would not impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
The Exchange proposes to amend its Options Pricing at Chapter XV Section 2, entitled “BX Options Market—Fees and Rebates,” which governs pricing for BX members using the BX Options Market (“BX Options”). The Exchange proposes to modify fees and rebates (per executed contract) for options overlying Standard and Poor's® Depositary Receipts/SPDRs® (“SPY”)
While changes to the Pricing Schedule pursuant to this proposal are effective upon filing, the Exchange has designated these changes to be operative on September 1, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Chapter XV, Section 2, to modify fees and rebates (per executed contract) for options overlying SPY to: (a) Adopt two additional rebate Tiers applicable to Rebate to Remove Liquidity, and modify the existing volume criteria and rebate amounts per Tier; and (b) modify Note 1 through Note 6; within the SPY Options Tier Schedule. The Tiers, described below along with the Notes, together make up the “SPY Options Tier Schedule.” The proposed SPY Options Tier Schedule rebates would apply to Customers
Currently, Chapter XV, Section 2, subsection (1), has a SPY Options Tier Schedule that has three Tiers and six Notes. The Exchange proposes in the current filing to modify the Tiers and Notes to give BX Participants (“Participants”) additional rebate and fee options, and each specific change is described in detail below.
In Change 1, the Exchange proposes modifications to its current SPY Options Tier Schedule
Today, Tier 1 to the Rebate to Remove Liquidity indicates that a Participant [sic] removes less than 1500 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.10 per contract. The Exchange proposes to modify Tier 1 so that going forward a Participant that removes less than 500 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.01 per contract.
Today, Tier 2 to the Rebate to Remove Liquidity indicates that a Participant [sic] removes 1500 to not more than 2999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.42 per contract. The Exchange
Today, Tier 3 to the Rebate to Remove Liquidity indicates that a Participant [sic] removes more than 2999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.51 per contract. The Exchange proposes to modify Tier 3 to the Rebate to Remove Liquidity so that going forward a Participant that removes 1000 to not more than 1999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.35 per contract.
The Exchange also proposes two new Tiers that are similar in structure to the existing Tiers. The Exchange proposes new Tier 4 applicable to Rebate to Remove Liquidity so that a Participant that removes 2000 to not more than 3999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.43 per contract. The Exchange also proposes new Tier 5 applicable to Rebate to Remove Liquidity so that a Participant that removes more than 3999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.52 per contract. Thus, instead of offering Participants rebates of $0.10 to $0.51 per contract over three Tiers, as proposed Participants will be offered rebates of $0.01 to $0.52 per contract over five Tiers.
The Exchange believes that proposed Change 1 is reasonable because, by more finely tuning the rebates to volume (
As proposed, the Rebate to Remove Liquidity, which is in the SPY Options Tier Schedule in Chapter XV, Section 2 subsection (1), will read as follows:
There are currently six Notes regarding certain fees to add and remove liquidity within the SPY Options Tier Schedule. The language of each of these Notes will remain the same, but commensurate with the above-discussed Tier modifications the Exchange proposes to modestly change the fees and rebates in the Notes.
Today, Note 1 indicates that Firm fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.33 per contract, regardless of counterparty. The Exchange proposes to modify Note 1 so that going forward the Firm fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.41 per contract, regardless of counterparty.
Today, Note 2 indicates that Non-Customer fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.46 per contract, regardless of counterparty. The Exchange proposes to modify Note 2 so that going forward the Non-Customer fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.44 per contract, regardless of counterparty.
Today, Note 3 indicates that BX Options Market Maker fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.46 per contract when trading with Firm, Non-Customer, or BX Options Market Maker. The Exchange proposes to modify Note 3 so that going forward the BX Options Market Maker fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.44 per contract when trading with Firm, Non-Customer, or BX Options Market Maker.
Today, Note 4 indicates that Customer fee to add liquidity in SPY Options when contra to another Customer will be $0.33 per contract. There will be no fee or rebate for Customer SPY Options that add liquidity when contra to Firm, BX Options Market Maker or Non Customer.
Today, Note 5 indicates that BX Options Market Maker fee to add liquidity and BX Options Market Maker fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will each be $0.44 per contract when trading with Customer. The Exchange proposes to modify Note 5 so that going forward the BX Options Market Maker fee to add liquidity and BX Options Market Maker fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will each be $0.39 per contract when trading with Customer.
Today, Note 6 indicates that BX Options Market Maker fee to add liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.10 per contract when trading with Firm, BX Options Market Maker or Non Customer. The Exchange proposes to modify Note 6 so that going forward the BX Options Market Maker fee to add liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.14 per contract when trading with Firm, BX Options Market Maker or Non Customer.
The Exchange believes that proposed Change 2, together with the effort in proposed Change 1 to more finely tune the Rebate to Remove Liquidity to volume Tiers, is reasonable in light of the overall Exchange effort to incentivize Participants to bring SPY Options liquidity to the Exchange.
As proposed, Notes 1 through 6 to the Rebates to Remove Liquidity, which are in the SPY Options Tier Schedule in Chapter XV, Section 2 subsection (1), will read as follows:
•
•
•
•
•
•
The Exchange is proposing the changes because it believes that they will provide even greater incentives for execution of SPY Options contracts on the BX Options Market. The Exchange believes that its proposal should provide increased opportunities for participation in SPY Options executions on the Exchange, facilitating the ability of the Exchange to bring together participants and encourage more robust competition for orders.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6 of the Act,
The Commission and the courts have repeatedly expressed their preference for competition over regulatory intervention in determining prices, products, and services in the securities markets. In Regulation NMS, while adopting a series of steps to improve the current market model, the Commission highlighted the importance of market forces in determining prices and SRO revenues and, also, recognized that current regulation of the market system “has been remarkably successful in promoting market competition in its broader forms that are most important to investors and listed companies.”
Likewise, in
Further, “[n]o one disputes that competition for order flow is `fierce.' . . . As the SEC explained, `[i]n the U.S. national market system, buyers and sellers of securities, and the broker-dealers that act as their order-routing agents, have a wide range of choices of where to route orders for execution'; [and] `no exchange can afford to take its market share percentages for granted' because `no exchange possesses a monopoly, regulatory or otherwise, in the execution of order flow from broker dealers'. . . .”
The Exchange believes that its proposal should provide increased opportunities for participation in SPY Options executions on the Exchange, facilitating the ability of the Exchange to bring together participants and encourage more robust competition for orders.
The Exchange believes that the proposed change is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory for the following reasons.
In Change 1, the Exchange proposes modifications to its current SPY Options Tier Schedule to indicate that this particular schedule will have additional Tiers 4 and 5 to Rebate to Remove Liquidity. The Exchange proposes also to modify existing Tiers 1 through 3 to Rebate to Remove Liquidity. These proposed changes will enable rebates of $0.01 to $0.52 per contract over five Tiers in terms of Rebate to Remove Liquidity, whereas now the rebates are $0.10 to $0.51 per contract over three Tiers. The proposed five Tier structure for Rebate to Remove Liquidity is reasonable because it offers a more graduated Tier structure to further incentivize Participants to bring SPY Options volume to the Exchange. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to modify the Tiers because they will be applied uniformly to all similarly situated Participants. This is further discussed below.
Tier 1 would offer the smallest Rebate to Remove Liquidity ($0.01 per contract) for removing the smallest number or [sic] SPY Options contracts, and the Tiers would be graduated so that Tier 5 would offer the largest Rebate to Remove Liquidity ($0.52 per contract) for removing the largest number or [sic] SPY Options contracts. Going forward, as discussed in detail above, the proposed Tiers would be as follows: Tier 1—a Participant that removes less than 500 (now 1,500) SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.01 per contract (now $0.10 per contract); Tier 2—a Participant that removes 500 to not more than 999 (now 1500 to not more than 2999) SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.10 per contract (now $0.42 per contract); Tier 3—a Participant that removes 1000 to not more than 1999 (now more than 2999) SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.35 per contract (now $0.51 per contract); new Tier 4—a Participant that removes 2000 to not more than 3999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.43 per contract; and new Tier 5—a Participant that removes more than 3999 SPY Options contracts per day in the customer range can earn a rebate of $0.52 per contract. Thus, as proposed, Participants will be offered rebates of $0.01 per contract to $0.52 per contract over five Tiers.
The Exchange believes that proposed Change 1 is reasonable because, by more finely graduating the Customer Rebate to Remove Liquidity to volume (
SPY Options are among the very highest volume options traded on the Exchange. The Exchange believes that the proposed new and modified Tiers to the Rebate to Remove Liquidity in the SPY Options Tier Schedule applicable to these high-volume options are reasonable because they continue to reflect a structure that is not novel in the options markets but rather is similar to that of other options markets and competitive with what is offered by other exchanges.
Expanding SPY Option Tiers for Rebate to Remove Liquidity is reasonable because it encourages market participant behavior through progressive tiered fees and rebates using an accepted methodology among options exchanges.
In Change 2 the Exchange proposes to modify six Notes regarding certain fees to add liquidity and fees to remove liquidity. The language of each of these Notes will remain the same, but the Exchange proposes to modestly increase or decrease the amount of the fees and rebates [sic] as discussed below. The Exchange believes that this is reasonable. The Exchange believes it is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory to update the Notes because they will be applied uniformly to all similarly situated Participants.
Going forward, as discussed in detail above, the proposed Notes would be as follows: Note 1—Firm fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.41 (now $0.33) per contract, regardless of counterparty; Note 2—Non-Customer fee to add liquidity and fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.44 (now $0.46) per contract, regardless of counterparty; Note 3—BX Options Market Maker fee to remove liquidity in SPY Options will be $0.44 (now $0.46) per contract when trading with Firm, Non-Customer, or BX Options Market Maker. [sic]; Note 4—Customer fee to add liquidity in SPY Options when contra to another Customer will be $0.38 (now $0.33) per contract;
The fee and rebate schedule as proposed continues to reflect differentiation among different market participants. The Exchange believes that the differentiation is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory, as well as reasonable, and notes that unlike others (
The Exchange believes that proposed Change 2, together with the effort in proposed Change 1 to more finely tune the Rebate to Remove Liquidity to volume Tiers, is reasonable in light of the overall Exchange effort to incentivize Participants to bring SPY Options liquidity to the Exchange. The Exchange believes that proposed Change 2 to modify the Notes applicable to SPY Options Tier Schedule is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory because it will be applied uniformly to all similarly situated Participants.
The Exchange believes that by making the proposed changes it is incentivizing Participants to trade more SPY Options volume to the Exchange to further enhance liquidity in this market.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the Exchange does not believe that its proposal to make changes to its SPY Options fees and rebates to add new Tiers 4 and 5 and modify existing Tiers 1, 2, and 3 to Rebate to Remove Liquidity, and to adjust applicable Notes 1 through 6, will impose any undue burden on competition, as discussed below.
The Exchange operates in a highly competitive market in which many sophisticated and knowledgeable market participants can readily and do send order flow to competing exchanges if they deem fee levels or rebate incentives at a particular exchange to be excessive or inadequate. Additionally, new competitors have entered the market and still others are reportedly entering the market shortly. These market forces ensure that the Exchange's fees and rebates remain competitive with the fee structures at other trading platforms. In that sense, the Exchange's proposal is actually pro-competitive because the Exchange is simply continuing its fees and rebates and enhancing Tiers with Notes applicable to Rebate to Remove Liquidity for SPY Options in order to attract trading such options on the Exchange and remain competitive in the current environment.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. In terms of inter-market competition, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing venues if they deem fee levels at a particular venue to be excessive, or rebate opportunities available at other venues to be more favorable. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually adjust its fees to remain competitive with other exchanges and with alternative trading systems that have been exempted from compliance with the statutory standards applicable to exchanges. Because competitors are free to modify their own fees in response, and because market participants may readily adjust their order routing practices, the Exchange believes that the degree to which fee changes in this market may impose any burden on competition is extremely limited. In terms of intra-market competition, the Exchange notes that price differentiation among different market participants operating on the Exchange (
In this instance, the proposed changes to the fees and rebates for execution of contracts on the Exchange, and establishing SPY Options Tiers with Notes for such fees and rebates, do not impose a burden on competition because the Exchange's execution and routing services are completely voluntary and subject to extensive competition from other exchanges.. [sic] If the changes proposed herein are unattractive to market participants, it is likely that the Exchange will lose market share as a result. Accordingly, the Exchange does not believe that the proposed changes will impair the ability of members or competing order execution venues to maintain their competitive standing in the financial markets. Additionally, the changes proposed herein are pro-competitive to the extent that they continue to allow the Exchange to promote and maintain order executions.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Act.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the Government in the Sunshine Act, Public Law 94-409, that the Securities and Exchange Commission will hold a closed meeting on Thursday, September 22, 2016 at 2 p.m.
Commissioners, Counsel to the Commissioners, the Secretary to the Commission, and recording secretaries will attend the closed meeting. Certain staff members who have an interest in the matters also may be present.
The General Counsel of the Commission, or her designee, has certified that, in her opinion, one or more of the exemptions set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(3), (5), (7), 9(B) and (10) and 17 CFR 200.402(a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(7), (a)(9)(ii) and (a)(10), permit consideration of the scheduled matter at the closed meeting.
Commissioner Piwowar, as duty officer, voted to consider the items listed for the closed meeting in closed session.
The subject matter of the closed meeting will be:
Institution and settlement of injunctive actions;
Institution and settlement of administrative proceedings; and
Other matters relating to enforcement proceedings.
At times, changes in Commission priorities require alterations in the scheduling of meeting items.
For further information and to ascertain what, if any, matters have been added, deleted or postponed, please contact Brent J. Fields from the Office of the Secretary at (202) 551-5400.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act permitting certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and under rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order to permit certain business development companies (each, a “BDC”) and certain closed end investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with affiliated investment funds.
OFS Capital Corporation (“OFS BDC”); Hancock Park Corporate Income, Inc. (“Hancock BDC” and together with OFS BDC, the “Existing Regulated Funds”); OFS Capital Management, LLC (“OFS Adviser”); OFSI Fund V, LTD., OFSI Fund VI, LTD., and OFSI Fund VII, LTD. (each an “Existing Affiliated Fund”); and OFS SBIC I LP (the “Existing SBIC Subsidiary”).
The application was filed on January 15, 2016, and amended on June 8, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on October 11, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F St. NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants: 10 S. Wacker Drive, Suite 2500, Chicago, Illinois 60606, Attention: Jeffrey A. Cerny.
Kieran G. Brown, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6773 or Daniele Marchesani, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Division of Investment Management, Chief Counsel's Office).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. OFS BDC, a Delaware corporation, is organized as a closed-end management investment company that has elected to be regulated as a BDC under section 54(a) of the Act.
2. Hancock BDC, a Maryland corporation, was organized on December 8, 2015, for the purpose of operating as an externally managed, closed-end management investment company which will elect to be regulated as a BDC under section 54(a) of the Act. Structured as a private BDC, Hancock BDC seeks to generate current income and, to a lesser extent, capital appreciation primarily through debt investments and, to a lesser extent, equity investments.
3. OFS Adviser, a Delaware limited liability company, is registered with the Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”) and serves as investment adviser to the Existing Regulated Funds.
4. Each of the Existing Affiliated Funds is a Cayman “collateralized loan obligation” fund for which OFS Adviser acts as the adviser pursuant to a collateral management agreement between the relevant Existing Affiliated Fund and OFS Adviser. The Existing Affiliated Funds' portfolios are comprised predominantly of senior secured “club” and syndicated loans made to U.S. companies (both public and private). In reliance on the exclusion from the definition of “investment company” provided by section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of the 1940 Act,
5. Applicants seek an order (“Order”) to permit one or more Regulated Funds
6. The Existing SBIC Subsidiary is a Delaware limited partnership that is licensed by the Small Business Administration (the “SBA”) to operate under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (the “SBA Act”) as a small business investment company (an “SBIC”). The Existing SBIC Subsidiary is a Wholly-Owned Investment Sub of OFS BDC.
7. Applicants state that a Wholly-Owned Investment Sub would be prohibited from investing in a Co-Investment Transaction with any Affiliated Fund or Regulated Fund because it would be a company controlled by its parent Regulated Fund for purposes of section 57(a)(4) and rule 17d-1. Applicants request that each Wholly-Owned Investment Sub be permitted to participate in Co-Investment Transactions in lieu of its parent Regulated Fund and that the Wholly-Owned Investment Sub's participation in any such transaction be treated, for purposes of the requested order, as though the parent Regulated Fund were participating directly.
8. When considering Potential Co-Investment Transactions for any Regulated Fund, the applicable Adviser will consider only the Objectives and Strategies, investment policies, investment positions, capital available for investment as described in the application (“Available Capital”), and other pertinent factors applicable to that Regulated Fund.
9. Other than pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, and after making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the Adviser will present each Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the proposed allocation to the directors of the Board eligible to vote under section 57(o) of the Act (“Eligible Directors”), and the “required majority,” as defined in section 57(o) of the Act (“Required Majority”)
10. With respect to the pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments provided in conditions 7 and 8, a Regulated Fund may participate in a pro rata disposition or Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if, among other things: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition or Follow-On Investment, as the case may be; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than through share ownership in one of the Regulated Funds.
12. If the Advisers, the principal owners of any of the Advisers (the “Principals”), or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the Advisers or the Principals, and the Affiliated Funds (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25 percent of the outstanding voting shares of a Regulated Fund (the “Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as required under condition 14. Applicants believe that this condition will ensure that the Non-Interested Directors will act independently in evaluating the Co-Investment Program, because the ability of the Advisers or the Principals to influence the Non-Interested Directors by a suggestion, explicit or implied, that the Non-Interested Directors can be removed will be limited significantly. The Non-Interested Directors will evaluate and approve any such independent party, taking into account its qualifications, reputation for independence, cost to the shareholders, and other factors that they deem relevant.
1. Section 57(a)(4) of the Act prohibits certain affiliated persons of a BDC from participating in joint transactions with the BDC or a company controlled by a BDC in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Under section 57(b)(2) of the Act, any person who is directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with a BDC is subject to section 57(a)(4). Applicants submit that each of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds could be deemed to be a person related to each Regulated Fund in a manner described by section 57(b) by virtue of being under common control. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will be deemed to apply to transactions subject to section 57(a)(4). Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 also applies to joint transactions with Regulated Funds that are BDCs. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act are applicable to Regulated Funds that are registered closed-end investment companies.
2. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit affiliated persons of a registered investment company from participating in joint transactions with the company unless the Commission has granted an order permitting such transactions. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
3. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, the Regulated Funds would be, in some circumstances, limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants believe that the proposed terms and conditions will ensure that the Co-Investment Transactions are consistent with the protection of each Regulated Fund's shareholders and with the purposes intended by the policies and provisions of the Act. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions will be consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and on a basis that is not different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
Applicants agree that the Order will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Each time an Adviser considers a Potential Co-Investment Transaction for an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund that falls within a Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies, the Regulated Fund's Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for such Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
2. (a) If the Adviser deems a Regulated Fund's participation in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine an appropriate level of investment for the Regulated Fund.
(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Adviser to be invested by the applicable Regulated Fund in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's Available Capital, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each. The applicable Adviser will provide the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund with information concerning each participating party's Available Capital to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the Regulated Fund's investments for compliance with these allocation procedures.
(c) After making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the applicable Adviser will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction (including the amount proposed to be invested by each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund) to the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will co-invest with one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds only if, prior to the Regulated Fund's participation in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, a Required Majority concludes that:
(i) The terms of the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its shareholders and do not involve overreaching in respect of the Regulated Fund or its shareholders on the part of any person concerned;
(ii) the Potential Co-Investment Transaction is consistent with:
(A) The interests of the shareholders of the Regulated Fund; and
(B) the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;
(iii) the investment by any other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds would not disadvantage the Regulated Fund, and participation by the Regulated Fund would not be on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds; provided that, if any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund itself, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors or the right to have a board
(A) The Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any;
(B) the applicable Adviser agrees to, and does, provide periodic reports to the Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company; and
(C) any fees or other compensation that any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund or any affiliated person of any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund receives in connection with the right of the Affiliated Fund or a Regulated Fund to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among the participating Affiliated Funds (who each may, in turn, share its portion with its affiliated persons) and the participating Regulated Funds in accordance with the amount of each party's investment; and
(iv) the proposed investment by the Regulated Fund will not benefit the Advisers, the Affiliated Funds or the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of any of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by condition 13, (B) to the extent permitted by section 17(e) or 57(k) of the Act, as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C).
3. Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
4. The applicable Adviser will present to the Board of each Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, a record of all investments in Potential Co-Investment Transactions made by any of the other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds during the preceding quarter that fell within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why the investment opportunities were not offered to the Regulated Fund. All information presented to the Board pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of the Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
5. Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with condition 8,
6. A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, settlement date, and registration rights will be the same for each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund. The grant to an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this condition 6, if conditions 2(c)(iii)(A), (B) and (C) are met.
7. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security that was acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed disposition at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to participation by each Regulated Fund in the disposition.
(b) Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the participating Affiliated Funds and Regulated Funds.
(c) A Regulated Fund may participate in such disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition; (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in such dispositions on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); and (iii) the Board of the Regulated Fund is provided on a quarterly basis with a list of all dispositions made in accordance with this condition. In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(d) Each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund will bear its own expenses in connection with any such disposition.
8. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in a portfolio company whose securities were acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed Follow-On Investment, by each Regulated Fund.
(b) A Regulated Fund may participate in such Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application). In all other cases, the Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(c) If, with respect to any Follow-On Investment:
(i) The amount of the opportunity is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and
(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable Adviser to be invested by the applicable Regulated Fund in the Follow-On Investment, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity; then the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's Available Capital, up to the maximum amount proposed to be invested by each.
(d) The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other conditions set forth in this application.
9. The Non-Interested Directors of each Regulated Fund will be provided quarterly for review all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Non-Interested Directors may determine whether all investments made during the preceding quarter, including those investments that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the conditions of the Order. In addition, the Non-Interested Directors will consider at least annually the continued appropriateness for the Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions.
10. Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f) of the Act.
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will also be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise an “affiliated person” (as defined in the Act) of an Affiliated Fund.
12. The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the Advisers under their respective investment advisory agreements with Affiliated Funds and the Regulated Funds, be shared by the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or to be acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
13. Any transaction fee (including break-up or commitment fees but excluding broker's fees contemplated by section 17(e) or 57(k) of the Act, as applicable), received in connection with a Co-Investment Transaction will be distributed to the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds on a pro rata basis based on the amounts they invested or committed, as the case may be, in such Co-Investment Transaction. If any transaction fee is to be held by an Adviser pending consummation of the transaction, the fee will be deposited into an account maintained by such Adviser at a bank or banks having the qualifications prescribed in section 26(a)(1) of the Act, and the account will earn a competitive rate of interest that will also be divided pro rata among the participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds based on the amounts they invest in such Co-Investment Transaction. None of the Affiliated Funds, the Advisers, the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of the Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds will receive additional compensation or remuneration of any kind as a result of or in connection with a Co-Investment Transaction (other than (a) in the case of the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds, the pro rata transaction fees described above and fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C); and (b) in the case of an Adviser, investment advisory fees paid in accordance with the agreement between the Adviser and the Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund.
14. If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25% of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any other matter under either the 1940 Act or applicable State law affecting the Board's composition, size or manner of election.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”).
Notice of application for an order under sections 17(d) and 57(i) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Act”) and rule 17d-1 under the Act permitting certain joint transactions otherwise prohibited by sections 17(d) and 57(a)(4) of the Act and under rule 17d-1 under the Act.
Applicants request an order to permit a business development company (“BDC”) and certain closed end investment companies to co-invest in portfolio companies with each other and with affiliated investment funds.
AB Private Credit Investors Corporation (“AB BDC I”), AB Private Credit Investors Middle Market Direct Lending Fund, L.P. (“AB PCI Fund I”), AB Energy Opportunity Fund, L.P. (“AB Energy Fund,” and together with AB PCI Fund I, the “Existing Affiliated Funds”), and AB Private Credit Investors LLC (“AB-PCI”), on behalf of itself and its successors.
The application was filed on April 30, 2015, and amended on October 5, 2015 and May 24, 2016.
An order granting the requested relief will be issued unless the Commission orders a hearing. Interested persons may request a hearing by writing to the Commission's Secretary and serving applicants with a copy of the request, personally or by mail. Hearing requests should be received by the Commission by 5:30 p.m. on October 7, 2016, and should be accompanied by proof of service on applicants, in the form of an affidavit or, for lawyers, a certificate of service. Pursuant to rule 0-5 under the Act, hearing requests should state the nature of the writer's interest, any facts bearing upon the desirability of a hearing on the matter, the reason for the request, and the issues contested. Persons who wish to be notified of a hearing may request notification by writing to the Commission's Secretary.
Brent J. Fields, Secretary, U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F St. NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090. Applicants, 1345 Avenue of the Americas, New York, NY 10105.
Christine Y. Greenlees, Senior Counsel, at (202) 551-6879, or Mary Kay Frech, Branch Chief, at (202) 551-6821 (Chief Counsel's Office, Division of Investment Management).
The following is a summary of the application. The complete application may be obtained via the Commission's Web site by searching for the file number, or for an applicant using the Company name box, at
1. AB BDC I, a Maryland corporation, is organized as a closed-end management investment company that will elect to be regulated as a BDC under section 54(a) of the Act prior to the effectiveness of the requested order.
2. AB PCI Fund I is a Delaware limited partnership that is exempt from registration pursuant to section 3(c)(7) of the Act. AB PCI Fund I's investment objective and strategies are to generate both current income and long-term capital appreciation through debt and equity investments.
3. AB Energy Fund is a Delaware limited partnership that is exempt from registration pursuant to section 3(c)(7) of the Act. AB Energy Fund's investment objective and strategies are to generate attractive risk-adjusted returns, through current income and capital gains, by capitalizing on private and public debt and equity investment opportunities in North American oil and gas producers.
4. AB-PCI, a Delaware limited liability company, is registered with the Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (the “Advisers Act”). AB-PCI is a wholly-owned subsidiary of AllianceBernstein L.P., a New York based global asset management firm. AB-PCI will serve as investment adviser to AB BDC I and currently serves as investment adviser to the Existing Affiliated Funds.
5. Applicants seek an order (“Order”) to permit one or more Regulated Funds
6. Applicants state that any of the Regulated Funds may, from time to time, form one or more Wholly-Owned Investment Subs.
7. When considering Potential Co-Investment Transactions for any Regulated Fund, the applicable AB-PCI Adviser will consider only the Objectives and Strategies, investment policies, investment positions, capital available for investment, and other pertinent factors applicable to that Regulated Fund. The Board of each Regulated Fund, including the Non-Interested Directors has (or will have prior to relying on the requested Order) determined that it is in the best interests of the Regulated Fund to participate in the Co-Investment Transaction.
8. Other than pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as provided in conditions 7 and 8, and after making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the AB-PCI Adviser will present each Potential Co-Investment Transaction and the proposed allocation to the directors of the Board eligible to vote under section 57(o) of the Act (“Eligible Directors”), and the “required majority,” as defined in section 57(o) of the Act (“Required Majority”)
9. With respect to the pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments provided in conditions 7 and 8, a Regulated Fund may participate in a pro rata disposition or Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if, among other things: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition or Follow-On Investment, as the case may be; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved that Regulated Fund's participation in pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund. If the Board does not so approve, any such disposition or Follow-On Investment will be submitted to the Regulated Fund's Eligible Directors. The Board of any Regulated Fund may at any time rescind, suspend or qualify its approval of pro rata dispositions and Follow-On Investments with the result that all dispositions and/or Follow-On Investments must be submitted to the Eligible Directors.
10. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will have a financial interest in any Co-Investment Transaction, other than through share ownership in one of the Regulated Funds.
11. Applicants also represent that if an AB-PCI Adviser or its principals, or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with an AB-PCI Adviser or its principals, and the Affiliated Funds (collectively, the “Holders”) own in the aggregate more than 25% of the outstanding voting shares of a Regulated Fund (the “Shares”), then the Holders will vote such Shares as required under condition 14.
1. Section 57(a)(4) of the Act prohibits certain affiliated persons of a BDC from participating in joint transactions with the BDC or a company controlled by a BDC in contravention of rules as prescribed by the Commission. Under section 57(b)(2) of the Act, any person who is directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with a BDC is subject to section 57(a)(4). Applicants submit that each of the Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds could be deemed to be a person related to each Regulated Fund in a manner described by section 57(b) by virtue of being under common control. Section 57(i) of the Act provides that, until the Commission prescribes rules under section 57(a)(4), the Commission's rules under section 17(d) of the Act applicable to registered closed-end investment companies will be deemed to apply to transactions subject to section 57(a)(4). Because the Commission has not adopted any rules under section 57(a)(4), rule 17d-1 also applies to joint transactions with Regulated Funds that are BDCs. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act are applicable to Regulated Funds that are registered closed-end investment companies.
2. Section 17(d) of the Act and rule 17d-1 under the Act prohibit affiliated persons of a registered investment company from participating in joint transactions with the company unless the Commission has granted an order permitting such transactions. In passing upon applications under rule 17d-1, the Commission considers whether the company's participation in the joint transaction is consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and the extent to which such participation is on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
3. Applicants state that in the absence of the requested relief, the Regulated Funds would be, in some circumstances, limited in their ability to participate in attractive and appropriate investment opportunities. Applicants believe that the proposed terms and conditions will ensure that the Co-Investment Transactions are consistent with the protection of each Regulated Fund's shareholders and with the purposes intended by the policies and provisions of the Act. Applicants state that the Regulated Funds' participation in the Co-Investment Transactions will be consistent with the provisions, policies, and purposes of the Act and on a basis that is not different from or less advantageous than that of other participants.
Applicants agree that the Order will be subject to the following conditions:
1. Each time an AB-PCI Adviser considers a Potential Co-Investment Transaction for an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund that falls within a Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies, the Regulated Fund's AB-PCI Adviser will make an independent determination of the appropriateness of the investment for such Regulated Fund in light of the Regulated Fund's then-current circumstances.
2. (a) If the AB-PCI Adviser deems a Regulated Fund's participation in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction to be appropriate for the Regulated Fund, it will then determine an appropriate level of investment for the Regulated Fund.
(b) If the aggregate amount recommended by the applicable AB-PCI Adviser to be invested by the applicable Regulated Fund in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the other participating Regulated Funds and Affiliated Funds, collectively, in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the investment opportunity, the investment opportunity will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each. The applicable AB-PCI Adviser will provide the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund with information concerning each participating party's available capital to assist the Eligible Directors with their review of the Regulated Fund's investments for
(c) After making the determinations required in conditions 1 and 2(a), the applicable AB-PCI Adviser will distribute written information concerning the Potential Co-Investment Transaction (including the amount proposed to be invested by each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund) to the Eligible Directors of each participating Regulated Fund for their consideration. A Regulated Fund will co-invest with one or more other Regulated Funds and/or one or more Affiliated Funds only if, prior to the Regulated Fund's participation in the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, a Required Majority concludes that:
(i) The terms of the Potential Co-Investment Transaction, including the consideration to be paid, are reasonable and fair to the Regulated Fund and its shareholders and do not involve overreaching in respect of the Regulated Fund or its shareholders on the part of any person concerned;
(ii) the Potential Co-Investment Transaction is consistent with:
(A) The interests of the shareholders of the Regulated Fund; and
(B) the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies;
(iii) the investment by any other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds would not disadvantage the Regulated Fund, and participation by the participating Regulated Fund would not be on a basis different from or less advantageous than that of other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds; provided that, if any other Regulated Fund or Affiliated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund itself, gains the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors or the right to have a board observer or any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company, such event shall not be interpreted to prohibit the Required Majority from reaching the conclusions required by this condition (2)(c)(iii), if:
(A) The Eligible Directors will have the right to ratify the selection of such director or board observer, if any;
(B) the applicable AB-PCI Adviser agrees to, and does, provide periodic reports to the Regulated Fund's Board with respect to the actions of such director or the information received by such board observer or obtained through the exercise of any similar right to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company; and
(C) any fees or other compensation that any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund or any affiliated person of any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund receives in connection with the right of an Affiliated Fund or a Regulated Fund to nominate a director or appoint a board observer or otherwise to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will be shared proportionately among the participating Affiliated Funds (who each may, in turn, share its portion with its affiliated persons) and the participating Regulated Funds in accordance with the amount of each party's investment; and
(iv) the proposed investment by the Regulated Fund will not benefit the AB-PCI Advisers, the Affiliated Funds or the other Regulated Funds or any affiliated person of any of them (other than the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction), except (A) to the extent permitted by condition 13, (B) to the extent permitted by section 17(e) or 57(k) of the Act, as applicable, (C) indirectly, as a result of an interest in the securities issued by one of the parties to the Co-Investment Transaction, or (D) in the case of fees or other compensation described in condition 2(c)(iii)(C).
3. Each Regulated Fund has the right to decline to participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction or to invest less than the amount proposed.
4. The applicable AB-PCI Adviser will present to the Board of each Regulated Fund, on a quarterly basis, a record of all investments in Potential Co-Investment Transactions made by any of the other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds during the preceding quarter that fell within the Regulated Fund's then-current Objectives and Strategies that were not made available to the Regulated Fund, and an explanation of why the investment opportunities were not offered to the Regulated Fund. All information presented to the Board pursuant to this condition will be kept for the life of the Regulated Fund and at least two years thereafter, and will be subject to examination by the Commission and its staff.
5. Except for Follow-On Investments made in accordance with condition 8,
6. A Regulated Fund will not participate in any Potential Co-Investment Transaction unless the terms, conditions, price, class of securities to be purchased, settlement date, and registration rights will be the same for each participating Regulated Fund and Affiliated Fund. The grant to an Affiliated Fund or another Regulated Fund, but not the Regulated Fund, of the right to nominate a director for election to a portfolio company's board of directors, the right to have an observer on the board of directors or similar rights to participate in the governance or management of the portfolio company will not be interpreted so as to violate this condition 6, if conditions 2(c)(iii)(A), (B) and (C) are met.
7. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund elects to sell, exchange or otherwise dispose of an interest in a security that was acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable AB-PCI Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed disposition at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to participation by each Regulated Fund in the disposition.
(b) Each Regulated Fund will have the right to participate in such disposition on a proportionate basis, at the same price and on the same terms and conditions as those applicable to the participating Affiliated Funds and Regulated Funds.
(c) A Regulated Fund may participate in such disposition without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such disposition is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the disposition; (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in such dispositions on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application); and (iii) the Board of the Regulated Fund is provided on a quarterly basis with a list of all dispositions made in accordance with this condition. In all other cases, the AB-PCI Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such disposition solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(d) Each Affiliated Fund and each Regulated Fund will bear its own expenses in connection with any such disposition.
8. (a) If any Affiliated Fund or any Regulated Fund desires to make a Follow-On Investment in a portfolio company whose securities were acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction, the applicable AB-PCI Advisers will:
(i) Notify each Regulated Fund that participated in the Co-Investment Transaction of the proposed transaction at the earliest practical time; and
(ii) formulate a recommendation as to the proposed participation, including the amount of the proposed Follow-On Investment, by each Regulated Fund.
(b) A Regulated Fund may participate in such Follow-On Investment without obtaining prior approval of the Required Majority if: (i) The proposed participation of each Regulated Fund and each Affiliated Fund in such investment is proportionate to its outstanding investments in the issuer immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and (ii) the Board of the Regulated Fund has approved as being in the best interests of the Regulated Fund the ability to participate in Follow-On Investments on a pro rata basis (as described in greater detail in the application). In all other cases, the AB-PCI Adviser will provide its written recommendation as to the Regulated Fund's participation to the Eligible Directors, and the Regulated Fund will participate in such Follow-On Investment solely to the extent that a Required Majority determines that it is in the Regulated Fund's best interests.
(c) If, with respect to any Follow-On Investment:
(i) The amount of the opportunity is not based on the Regulated Funds' and the Affiliated Funds' outstanding investments immediately preceding the Follow-On Investment; and
(ii) the aggregate amount recommended by the AB-PCI Adviser to be invested by each Regulated Fund in the Follow-On Investment, together with the amount proposed to be invested by the participating Affiliated Funds in the same transaction, exceeds the amount of the opportunity; then the amount invested by each such party will be allocated among them pro rata based on each participant's capital available for investment in the asset class being allocated, up to the amount proposed to be invested by each.
(d) The acquisition of Follow-On Investments as permitted by this condition will be considered a Co-Investment Transaction for all purposes and subject to the other conditions set forth in the application.
9. The Non-Interested Directors of each Regulated Fund will be provided quarterly for review all information concerning Potential Co-Investment Transactions and Co-Investment Transactions, including investments made by other Regulated Funds or Affiliated Funds that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, so that the Non-Interested Directors may determine whether all investments made during the preceding quarter, including those investments that the Regulated Fund considered but declined to participate in, comply with the conditions of the Order. In addition, the Non-Interested Directors will consider at least annually the continued appropriateness for the Regulated Fund of participating in new and existing Co-Investment Transactions.
10. Each Regulated Fund will maintain the records required by section 57(f)(3) of the Act as if each of the Regulated Funds were a BDC and each of the investments permitted under these conditions were approved by the Required Majority under section 57(f) of the Act.
11. No Non-Interested Director of a Regulated Fund will also be a director, general partner, managing member or principal, or otherwise an “affiliated person” (as defined in the Act) of an Affiliated Fund.
12. The expenses, if any, associated with acquiring, holding or disposing of any securities acquired in a Co-Investment Transaction (including, without limitation, the expenses of the distribution of any such securities registered for sale under the Securities Act) will, to the extent not payable by the AB-PCI Advisers under their respective investment advisory agreements with Affiliated Funds and the Regulated Funds, be shared by the Regulated Funds and the Affiliated Funds in proportion to the relative amounts of the securities held or to be acquired or disposed of, as the case may be.
13. Any transaction fee
14. If the Holders own in the aggregate more than 25% of the Shares of a Regulated Fund, then the Holders will vote such Shares as directed by an independent third party when voting on (1) the election of directors; (2) the removal of one or more directors; or (3) any other matter under either the Act or applicable State law affecting the Board's composition, size or manner of election.
For the Commission, by the Division of Investment Management, under delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
Pursuant to the provisions of Section 19(b)(1) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
IEX has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. IEX has requested that the SEC waive the 30-day operative period so that the proposed rule change can become operative on August 30, 2016.
The text of the proposed rule change is available at the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statement may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The self-regulatory organization has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
On August 25, 2014, FINRA, and several other self-regulatory organizations (the “Participants”) filed with the Commission, pursuant to Section 11A of the Act
The Plan is designed to allow the Commission, market participants, and the public to study and assess the impact of increment conventions on the liquidity and trading of the common stock of small-capitalization companies. Each Participant is required to comply, and to enforce compliance by its member organizations, as applicable, with the provisions of the Plan.
The Plan provides for the creation of a group of Pilot Securities, which shall be placed in a control group and three separate test groups, with each subject to varying quoting and trading increments. Pilot Securities in the control group will be quoted at the current tick size increment of $0.01 per share and will trade at the currently permitted increments. Pilot Securities in the first test group will be quoted in $0.05 minimum increments but will continue to trade at any price increment that is currently permitted.
The Plan also requires a Trading Center
With respect to Market Makers, Appendix B.III requires a Participant that is a national securities exchange to collect daily Market Maker Registration statistics. Appendix B.IV requires a Participant to collect data related to Market Maker participation with respect to each Market Maker engaging in trading activity on a Trading Center operated by the Participant. Appendix C.I requires a Participant to collect data related to Market Maker profitability from each Market Maker for which it is the DEA. Appendix C.II requires the Participant, as DEA, to aggregate the Appendix C.I data, and to transmit this data to the Commission.
The Commission approved the Pilot on a two-year basis, with implementation to begin no later than
On July 28, 2016, IEX filed with the Commission a proposed rule change to adopt IEX Rule 11.340(b) to implement the data collection requirements of the Plan and also requested that the Commission grant it certain specified exemptions that were previously provided to other Plan Participants prior to the time that IEX became a Plan Participant.
IEX will also shortly submit a proposed rule change to implement the quoting and trading requirements of the Plan.
IEX now proposes to further amend Rule 11.340(b) to modify additional data collection and reporting requirements.
The second change relates to the reporting of daily market quality statistics pursuant to Appendix B.I. Currently, Appendix B.I sets forth categories of orders, including market orders, marketable limit orders, and inside-the-quote resting limit orders, for which daily market quality statistics must be reported. IEX and the other Participants have determined that it is appropriate to include an order type for limit orders priced more than $0.10 away from the NBBO for purposes of Appendix B reporting. IEX therefore proposes to amend Supplementary Material .06 to provide that limit orders priced more than $0.10 away from the NBBO shall be included as an order type for purposes of Appendix B reporting, and shall be assigned the number (22). These orders are not currently required to be reported pursuant to Appendix B, and IEX and the other Participants believe that requiring the reporting of such orders will produce a more comprehensive data set.
The third change relates to the reporting of market quality statistics pursuant to Appendix B.I for a variety of order types, including inside-the-quote resting limit orders (12), at-the-quote resting limit orders (13), and near-the-quote resting limit orders (within $0.10 of the NBBO) (14). IEX and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to require Trading Centers to report all orders that fall within these categories, and not just those orders that are “resting.” IEX therefore, proposes to amend Supplementary Material .06 to make this change.
In the fourth change, IEX proposes to add new Supplementary Material .08 to modify the manner in which market maker participation statistics are calculated. Currently, Appendix B.IV provides that market maker participation statistics shall be calculated based on share participation, trade participation, cross-quote share (trade) participation, inside-the-quote share (trade) participation, at-the-quote share (trade) participation, and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation. IEX and the other Participants have determined that it is appropriate to add the count of the number of Market Makers used in the calculation of share (trade) participation to each category. FINRA [sic] is therefore proposing this change as part of Supplementary Material .10. In addition, Appendix B.IV(b) and (c) currently require that, when aggregating across Market Makers, share participation and trade participation shall be calculated using the share-weighted average and trade-weighted average, respectively. IEX and the other Participants believe that it is more appropriate to calculate share and trade participation by providing the total count of shares or trades, as applicable, rather than weighted averages, and IEX is therefore proposing this change as part of Supplementary Material .10.
The fifth change relates to the NBBO that a Trading Center is required to use when performing certain quote-related calculations. When calculating cross-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(d) and inside-the-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(e), the Plan requires the Trading Center to utilize the NBBO at the time of the trade for both share and trade participation calculations. When calculating at-the-quote share (trade) participation and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation pursuant to Appendix B.IV(f) and (g), the Plan allows the Trading Center to utilize the National Best Bid of National Best Offer (NBBO) at the time of or immediately before the trade for both share and trade participation calculations. IEX and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to calculate all quote participation (cross-quote share (trade) participation, inside-the-quote share (trade) participation, at-the-quote share (trade) participation and outside-the-quote share (trade) participation) solely by reference to the NBBO in effect immediately prior to the trade. IEX therefore proposes to make this change as part of Supplementary Material .08.
Finally, IEX proposes to change the end date until which the Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities shall be used to fulfill the Plan's data collection requirements. Currently, Supplementary Material .10 provides that Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities are the securities designated by the Participants for purposes of the data collection requirements described in Items I, II and IV of Appendix B and Item I of Appendix C to the Plan for the period beginning six months prior to the Pilot Period and ending on the trading day immediately preceding the Pilot Period. IEX and the other Participants believe that it is appropriate to use the Pilot Securities to satisfy the Plan's data collection requirements prior to the commencement of the Pilot. According, IEX is revising Supplementary Material .10 (which will be re-numbered as Supplementary Material .11) to provide that the Pre-Pilot Data Collection Securities shall be used to satisfy the Plan's data collection requirements through thirty-one days prior to the Pilot Period, after which time the Pilot Securities shall be used for purposes of the data collection requirements.
As noted in Item 2 of this filing, IEX has filed the proposed rule change for immediate effectiveness. IEX has requested that the SEC waive the 30-day operative period so that the proposed rule change can become operative on August 30, 2016.
IEX believes that the proposed rule change is consistent with the provisions of Section 6 of the Act,
IEX believes that this proposal is consistent with the Act because it implements and clarifies the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist IEX in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. In approving the Plan, the SEC noted that the Pilot was an appropriate, data-driven test that was designed to evaluate the impact of a wider tick size on trading, liquidity, and the market quality of securities of smaller capitalization companies, and was therefore in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. IEX believes that this proposal is in furtherance of the objectives of the Plan, as identified by the SEC, and is therefore consistent with the Act because the proposal implements and clarifies the requirements of the Plan.
IEX notes that the proposed rule change implements the provisions of the Plan, and is designed to assist IEX in meeting its regulatory obligations pursuant to the Plan. IEX also notes that, other than the change to require use of the Pilot Securities beginning thirty days prior to the beginning of the Pilot Period, the proposed changes will not affect the data collection and reporting requirements for members that operate Trading Centers; the proposed changes will only affect how IEX and other Participants that operate Trading Centers collect and report data. IEX notes that, with respect to the change to require the use of the Pilot Securities beginning thirty days prior to the start of the Pilot Period, the proposed change reduces the number of securities on which affected members otherwise would have been required to collect data pursuant to the Plan and IEX Rule 11.340(b). In addition, the proposed rule change applies equally to all similarly situated members. Therefore, IEX does not believe that the proposed rule change will result in any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Written comments were neither solicited nor received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
The Commission believes that waiving the 30-day operative delay is consistent with the protection of investors and the public interest because it will allow IEX to implement the proposed rules immediately thereby preventing delays in the implementation of the Plan. The Commission notes that the Plan is scheduled to start on October 3, 2016. Therefore, the Commission hereby waives the 30-day operative delay and designates the proposed rule change to be operative upon filing with the Commission.
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Brent J. Fields, Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to extend the deadline for implementing Rule 967.1NY(a)(2) and (3) until September 30, 2016 The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to extend the deadline for implementing Rule 967.1NY(a)(2) and (3) until September 30, 2016. The Exchange has not met the current implementation deadline of July 31, 2016.
In March 2015, the Commission approved Rule 967.1NY, which provides a price protection risk mechanism for Market Maker quotes.
In March 2016, because the Exchange had not yet implemented the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, the Exchange extended the deadline to implement Rule 967.1NY(a)(2) and (3) until July 31, 2016 (the “July 31st Deadline”).
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposal promotes just and equitable principles of trade and removes impediments to, and perfects the mechanism of, a free and open market and a national market system because an extension of the July 31st Deadline would enable the Exchange to complete its implementation of the technology related to the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, which is currently being implemented as part of a larger technology release. Moreover, the proposed extension would update the rule to reflect the extended deadline for implementation.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather, to extend the July 31st Deadline for implementing the functionality related to the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, which is currently being implemented as part of a larger technology release.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
On May 25, 2016, Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, Inc. (“FINRA”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”), pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”)
The proposed rule change was published for comment in the
This order provides notice of filing of Partial Amendment No. 1 and approves the proposal, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, on an accelerated basis.
In April 2014, FINRA launched a retrospective review of its communications with the public rules to assess their effectiveness and efficiency. In December 2014, FINRA published a report on the assessment phase of the review.
Pursuant to these recommendations, FINRA initially is proposing amendments to the filing requirements in FINRA Rule 2210 and FINRA Rule 2214 and the content and disclosure requirements in FINRA Rule 2213.
FINRA Rule 2210(c)(1)(A) currently requires new FINRA members to file with FINRA retail communications used in any electronic or other public media at least 10 business days prior to use. This requirement extends for one year from the effective date of the firm's membership. This new firm filing requirement only applies to broadly disseminated retail communications, such as generally accessible Web sites, print media communications, and television and radio commercials.
In its initial proposal, FINRA stated its belief that that the requirement for new members to file their broadly disseminated retail communications serves a useful purpose, since new members may not be as familiar with the standards that apply to retail communications as more established members, but that the requirement to file these communications at least 10 business days prior to use can delay members' abilities to communicate with the public in a timely manner. For example, if a new member wishes to update its public Web site with new information, the member must first file the proposed update with FINRA and wait at least 10 business days before it can post this update on its Web site. FINRA stated that such a delay may hinder its ability to communicate important information to its existing and prospective customers.
FINRA stated that it believed it could continue to protect investors from potential harm without imposing this time delay on new members by reviewing new members' communications on a post-use, rather than a pre-use, basis. FINRA had found a post-use filing requirement to be an effective investor protection approach for retail communications with similar risk profiles as FINRA typically sees from new members. Accordingly, FINRA initially proposed to revise the new member filing requirement to require new members to file retail communications used in electronic or other public media within 10 business days of first use for a one-year period, rather than requiring these filings at least 10 business days prior to use.
FINRA currently requires members to file the management's discussion of fund performance (“MDFP”) portion of a registered investment company shareholder report if the report is distributed or made available to prospective investors.
Although Rule 2210 does not contain any express filing exclusion for investment company shareholder reports, FINRA has not required members to file portions of shareholder reports other than the MDFP, such as the financial statements or schedules of portfolio investments. FINRA has not regarded these other parts of investment company shareholder reports to be subject to the filing requirements of Rule 2210, since they serve a regulatory purpose rather than promoting the sale of investment company securities.
Investment companies already must file shareholder reports with the SEC,
Rule 2210(c)(7)(F) currently excludes from filing “prospectuses, preliminary prospectuses, fund profiles, offering circulars and similar documents that have been filed with the SEC or any state,
Accordingly, FINRA is proposing to amend Rule 2210(c)(7)(F) to make this intent more clear, and to avoid any confusion concerning the phrase “or that is exempt from such registration.” As revised, Rule 2210(c)(7)(F) would exclude from filing, among other things, “similar offering documents concerning securities offerings that are exempt from SEC or state registration requirements.” While FINRA believes that this amendment will clarify this filing exclusion, it does not believe that it represents a substantive change to the current filing exclusion for unregistered securities' offering documents.
A member that files a retail communication for a registered investment company that contains a fund performance ranking or performance comparison must include a copy of the ranking or comparison used in the retail communication.
FINRA Rule 2210(c)(3)(A) requires members to file within 10 business days of first use retail communications “concerning” registered investment companies. FINRA proposes to revise this filing requirement to cover only retail communications that promote a specific registered investment company or family of registered investment companies. Thus, members would no longer be required to file generic investment company retail communications.
An example of such a generic communication would be a retail communication that describes different mutual fund types and features but does not discuss the benefits of a specific fund or fund family. This type of material typically is intended to educate the public about investment companies in general or the types of products that a member offers, and thus does not present the same risks of including potentially misleading information as promotional communications about specific funds or fund families.
“Investment analysis tools” are interactive technological tools that produce simulations and statistical analyses that present the likelihood of various investment outcomes if certain investments are made or certain investment strategies or styles are undertaken. Pursuant to FINRA Rules 2210(c)(3)(C) and 2214(a), members that intend to offer an investment analysis tool must file templates for written reports produced by, or retail communications concerning, the tool, within 10 business days of first use. Rule 2214 also requires members to provide FINRA with access to the tool itself, and provide customers with specific disclosures when members communicate about the tool, use the tool or provide written reports generated by the tool.
Since Rule 2214 became effective in 2005,
Members are not required to file retail communications that are based on templates that were previously filed
Through its review of updated fund fact sheets and other similar templates, FINRA has found that certain narrative information has not presented significant risk to investors, and that these narrative updates typically are consistent with applicable standards. In particular, narrative updates that are not predictive in nature and merely describe market events that occurred during the period covered by the communication, or that merely describe changes in a fund's portfolio, rarely have presented significant investor risks. In addition, members often will update narrative information concerning a registered investment company, such as a description of a fund's investment objectives, based on information that is sourced from the fund's regulatory documents filed with the SEC. In both cases, FINRA believes that the costs associated with filing these types of narrative updates exceed the investor benefits associated with FINRA staff review of these updates.
Accordingly, FINRA proposes to expand the template filing exclusion also to allow members to include updated non-predictive narrative descriptions of market events during the period covered by the communication and factual descriptions of portfolio changes without having to refile the template, as well as updated information that is sourced from a registered investment company's regulatory documents filed with the SEC.
FINRA Rule 2213 permits members to use communications that include ratings provided by independent third parties that address the sensitivity of the net asset value of an open-end management investment company's bond portfolio to changes in market conditions and the general economy, subject to a number of requirements. For example, these communications must be accompanied or preceded by the bond fund's prospectus and contain specific disclosures. Members currently must file retail communications that include bond mutual fund volatility ratings at least 10 business days prior to first use, and withhold them from publication or circulation until any changes specified by FINRA have been made.
FINRA believes that some of these requirements have discouraged members from including bond fund volatility ratings in their communications due to the significant compliance burdens associated with doing so, and the level of disclosures required to accompany such ratings. FINRA has found that, since Rule 2213 first became effective in 2000,
Given that bond fund volatility ratings may provide useful information to investors, and that Rule 2213 as currently drafted appears to have discouraged members from including these ratings in their communications, FINRA believes it is appropriate to revise the rule to reduce some of these burdens while continuing to include requirements that it believes will protect investors. Accordingly, FINRA proposes to modify some of Rule 2213's requirements.
Consistent with the filing requirements for other retail communications about specific registered investment companies, the proposal would no longer require a retail communication that includes a bond fund volatility rating to be accompanied or preceded by a prospectus for the fund, and would permit members to file these communications within 10 business days of first use rather than prior to use.
FINRA believes that the requirement that any retail communication including a bond fund volatility rating be accompanied or preceded by a fund prospectus increases the burdens associated with these communications without adding commensurate investor protection. Except in rare circumstances due to operational hardship, all mutual fund prospectuses are available online, and thus an investor can easily access the prospectus, if needed.
Similarly, FINRA believes that requiring members to file these retail communications at least 10 business days prior to use and to withhold them from publication or circulation until any changes specified by the Department have been made does not provide appreciably greater investor protection. According to FINRA, this pre-use filing requirement inhibits a member's ability to circulate retail communications containing volatility ratings in a timely manner. Moreover, members still would be required to file these communications within 10 business days of first use, so that if they contain misleading content, the Department staff can take appropriate measures to correct any problems, such as recommending changes to the communication, or directing the member to cease using the communication with the public. FINRA has found a post-use filing requirement to be an effective investor protection approach for most retail communications with similar risk profiles.
The proposal also would streamline the content and disclosure requirements. In particular, the amendments would eliminate the requirements: (1) That all disclosures be contained in a separate Disclosure Statement; (2) to disclose all current bond mutual fund volatility ratings that have been issued with respect to the fund; (3) to explain the reason for any change in the current rating from the most recent prior rating; (4) to describe the criteria and methodologies used to determine the rating; (5) to include a statement that not all bond funds have volatility ratings; and (6) to include a statement that the portfolio may have changed since the date of the rating.
FINRA believes that many of these requirements are unnecessary in light of the content requirements that still will apply to such retail communications. For example, members still would not be permitted to refer to a volatility rating as a “risk” rating, and would have
FINRA believes that, as long as the required disclosures are provided, it is not necessary that they appear in a separate Disclosure Statement. FINRA also believes it is unnecessary to disclose all other current volatility ratings assigned to the advertised fund, since this requirement is not imposed under other similar rules. For example, FINRA Rule 2214 allows members to provide fund ranking information without also requiring the member to disclose all rankings assigned by other ranking entities. The other disclosure requirements add little understanding about the rating presented, while adding voluminous text to the retail communication. In addition, if an investor does seek more information about the criteria and methodology used to create the rating, this information will be available via a hyperlink to a separate Web site.
In response to comments
As noted above, the Commission received five comment letters on the proposed rule change
While two commenters generally supported the proposal, both encouraged FINRA to continue its retrospective review of its rules governing communications with the public to address other areas.
In its response, FINRA stated that it continues to consider additional action on its retrospective review of the communications rules, including those raised by commenters on this proposal.
FINRA Rule 2210(c)(1)(A) currently requires new FINRA members to file with FINRA retail communications used in any electronic or other public media at least 10 business days prior to use. This requirement extends for one year from the effective date of the firm's membership. This new firm filing requirement only applies to broadly disseminated retail communications, such as generally accessible Web sites, print media communications, and television and radio commercials. The initial proposal would have modified this requirement to permit new members to file these retail communications within 10 business days of first use for a one-year period, rather than requiring these filings at least 10 business days prior to use.
One commenter strongly opposed the proposed change to the new member filing requirement.
Another commenter supported the proposed change to the new member filing requirement from a pre-use to a post-use requirement, but argued that FINRA should go further and eliminate the filing requirement entirely in some circumstances.
In response to the suggestion by one commenter that FINRA eliminate the new member filing requirement in certain circumstances and narrow it in others, FINRA noted that the current rule already contains a mechanism to provide regulatory relief in the kinds of circumstances the commenter cited.
After considering all of the comments, FINRA stated that it has determined not to amend its current new member filing requirements at this time.
FINRA currently requires members to file the management's discussion of fund performance (“MDFP”) portion of a registered investment company shareholder report if the report is distributed or made available to prospective investors. FINRA proposes to exclude from the FINRA filing requirements the MDFP by adding an express exclusion for annual or semi-annual reports that have been filed with the SEC in compliance with applicable requirements.
Two commenters supported this proposed change.
In its response, FINRA stated that it maintains that the MDFP portion of shareholder reports should be excluded from the filing requirements.
FINRA Rule 2210(c)(3)(A) requires members to file within 10 business days of first use retail communications “concerning” registered investment companies. FINRA proposes to revise this filing requirement to cover only retail communications that promote a specific registered investment company or family of registered investment companies. Thus, members would no longer be required to file generic investment company retail communications.
Two commenters supported this proposed change.
Under current rules, members are not required to file retail communications that are based on templates that were previously filed with FINRA but changed only to update recent statistical or other non-narrative information.
FINRA's proposal would expand the template filing exclusion also to allow members to include updated, non-predictive narrative descriptions of market events that occurred during the period covered by the communication and factual descriptions of portfolio changes without having to re-file the template. Similarly, a template could include information that is sourced from a registered investment company's regulatory documents filed with the Commission without triggering a requirement to re-file.
Two commenters supported this proposed change, but recommended amending the proposal.
The second commenter recommended that the filing exclusion cover modifications limited to narrative factual changes provided by any “ranking entity,” as such term is defined in FINRA Rule 2212(a).
One commenter opposed this change entirely, arguing that FINRA should review any narrative descriptions included in retail communications for misleading information.
In its response, FINRA disagreed that Rule 2210 should exclude from filing
Further, FINRA stated that it does not agree that the template filing exclusion should be based on whether narrative factual changes are provided by a ranking entity as defined in Rule 2212.
FINRA stated that it does not agree that the template filing exclusion also should cover commentary.
Finally, FINRA stated that it does not believe the enforcement cases cited by one commenter support its opposition to revising the template filing exclusion.
Moreover, FINRA noted, the FINRA Rule 2210 content standards apply regardless of whether a member re-files a retail communication with FINRA.
FINRA Rule 2213 permits members to use communications that include ratings provided by independent third parties that address the sensitivity of the net asset value of a bond mutual fund's portfolio to changes in market conditions and the general economy, subject to a number of requirements. These requirements include that the communication be accompanied or preceded by the fund's prospectus, that it be filed at least 10 business days prior to use with FINRA, and that it include a number of disclosures. FINRA has proposed to revise these requirements by no longer requiring such communications to be accompanied or preceded by a fund prospectus, by allowing members to file such communications within 10 business days of first use rather than 10 days prior to use, and by streamlining some of the content standards and required disclosures.
One commenter opposed these changes on the ground that recent enforcement actions involving the sale of bond funds demonstrate that bond funds should be highly regulated.
In addition, FINRA stated that the proposed changes would not alter a FINRA member's obligation to file retail communications concerning bond mutual funds.
After careful review of the proposed rule change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, the comment letters,
As stated in the Notice, FINRA believes that the proposal will “enhance the efficiency” of its communications with the public rules “with no reduction in investor protection.”
Taking into consideration the comments and FINRA's response and proposed partial amendment, the Commission believes that the proposal is consistent with the Exchange Act. The Commission believes that the proposal promotes regulatory efficiency by selectively streamlining content and disclosure requirements for retail communications without undermining strong regulatory protections for investors.
The Commission further believes that FINRA's response, as discussed in more detail above, appropriately addressed commenters' concerns and adequately explained its reasons for modifying its proposal to maintain the current pre-use filing requirement for new member retail communications. The Commission believes that this modification responds to one of the primary concerns raised by the commenter opposing the proposal on the grounds that changing to a post-use filing requirement for new members would not provide adequate investor protection, and that a pre-use filing requirement has a deterrent effect on bad actors.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposal, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, is consistent with the Exchange Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
The Commission finds good cause to approve the proposed rule change, as modified by Partial Amendment No. 1, prior to the thirtieth day after the date of publication of notice of the amended proposal in the
Accordingly, the Commission finds good cause, pursuant to Section 19(b)(2) of the Exchange Act,
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1)
The Exchange proposes to extend the deadline for implementing Rule 6.61(a)(2) and (3) until September 30, 2016. The proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the self-regulatory organization included statements concerning the purpose of, and basis for, the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of those statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant parts of such statements.
The Exchange is proposing to extend the deadline for implementing Rule 6.61 (a)(2) and (3) until September 30, 2016. The Exchange has not met the current implementation deadline of July 31, 2016.
In March 2015, the Commission approved Rule 6.61, which provides a price protection risk mechanism for Market Maker quotes.
In March 2016, because the Exchange had not yet implemented the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, the Exchange extended the deadline to implement Rule 6.61(a)(2) and (3) until July 31, 2016 (the “July 31st Deadline”).
The proposed rule change is consistent with Section 6(b) of the
Specifically, the Exchange believes the proposal promotes just and equitable principles of trade and removes impediments to, and perfects the mechanism of, a free and open market and a national market system because an extension of the July 31st Deadline would enable the Exchange to complete its implementation of the technology related to the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, which is currently being implemented as part of a larger technology release. Moreover, the proposed extension would update the rule to reflect the extended deadline for implementation.
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. The proposed rule change is not designed to address any competitive issues, but rather, to extend the July 31st Deadline for implementing the functionality related to the Underlying Stock Price/Strike Price Check, which is currently being implemented as part of a larger technology release.
No written comments were solicited or received with respect to the proposed rule change.
Because the foregoing proposed rule change does not: (i) Significantly affect the protection of investors or the public interest; (ii) impose any significant burden on competition; and (iii) become operative for 30 days from the date on which it was filed, or such shorter time as the Commission may designate, it has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)
A proposed rule change filed under Rule 19b-4(f)(6)
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is: (i) Necessary or appropriate in the public interest; (ii) for the protection of investors; or (iii) otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule change [sic] the liquidity fee and credit structure for PIP and COPIP Transactions on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on September 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend Section II.A. of the BOX Fee Schedule to make changes to the liquidity fees and credits for PIP and COPIP Transactions.
Unlike Public Customer PIP and COPIP transactions, liquidity fees and credits for Non-Public Customer PIP and COPIP transactions are only assessed if the Non-Public Customer PIP or COPIP Order does not trade with its contra order (the Primary Improvement Order). Under the current structure, if there are responses in the PIP or COPIP the “removal” credit is applied to the portion of the Non-Public Customer PIP or COPIP Order that does not trade with its Primary Improvement Order, and the Improvement Order responses are charged the “add” fee. The Exchange proposes to adjust the fee structure and instead apply any “removal” credits to the Primary Improvement Order instead of the Non-Public Customer PIP or COPIP Order. Improvement Order responses will continue to be charged the “add” fee and the liquidity fee and credit rates remain unchanged.
For example, if a Broker Dealer submits a PIP Order for the account of a Non-Public Customer to buy 100 contracts in the PIP and there are no responders, the PIP Order would execute against the matching Primary Improvement Order to sell 100 contracts and neither Order would be assessed a liquidity fee or credit. If, instead, the same PIP Order receives an Improvement Order response to sell 75 contracts, the PIP Order would execute against the Improvement Order for 75 contracts and the Primary Improvement Order for 25 contracts. Liquidity fees and credits would be assessed on the 75 contracts which executed against the Improvement Order, and under the proposed change, the Broker Dealer's Primary Improvement Order, rather than the PIP Order, would receive a removal credit for the 75 contracts. Accordingly, the Improvement Order response would be charged the add fee for the 75 contracts, the same as it would be today. The Exchange notes that there continue to be no liquidity fees or credits assessed on the remaining 25 contracts.
The Exchange also proposes to make other non-substantive edits to Section II.A. to clarify and support the proposed change.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5)of the Act,
The Exchange believes amending the Liquidity Fees and Credits for Non-Public Customer PIP and COPIP transactions is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Liquidity fees and credits on BOX do not directly result in revenue to BOX, but are meant to incentivize Participants to attract order flow. The current PIP and COPIP liquidity fee and credit structure is designed to incentivize valuable Public Customer PIP and COPIP Order flow, which the Exchange does not believe is necessary or appropriate for Non-Public Customer PIP and COPIP Order flow. The proposed change will shift the liquidity credit to the Primary Improvement Order that is submitting the Non-Public Customer PIP or COPIP Order to the auction for price improvement. The Exchange believes this is equitable and not unfairly discriminatory as the Initiating Participant no longer receives the benefit of a guaranteed execution against a Public Customer's PIP or COPIP Order
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. Specifically, the Exchange believes that amending where the liquidity credit is applied in Non-Public Customer PIP and COPIP Transactions will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes will result in these Participants being credited appropriately for these transactions.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing exchanges. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the “Act”),
The Exchange is filing with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) a proposed rule change to amend the Fee Schedule to make a number of changes to the fees and credits for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions on the BOX Market LLC (“BOX”) options facility. While changes to the fee schedule pursuant to this proposal will be effective upon filing, the changes will become operative on September 1, 2016. The text of the proposed rule change is available from the principal office of the Exchange, at the Commission's Public Reference Room and also on the Exchange's Internet Web site at
In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in Sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.
The Exchange proposes to amend the Fee Schedule for trading on BOX to make a number of changes to the fees and credits for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions.
The Exchange proposes to remodel the fee structure for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions. Currently, Facilitation and Solicitation transactions are assessed per contract fees based upon account type and whether the order is a: (i) Agency Order;
First, the Exchange proposes to restructure the Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions fee schedule to differentiate between fees assessed in Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange then proposes to adjust certain fees throughout the Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions fee structure. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to increase the fees assessed for Non-Public Customers
The proposed Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions fee structure will be as follows:
Next, the Exchange proposes to establish Section I.C.1, Facilitation and Solicitation Transaction Rebate which will provide a $0.10 per contract rebate to Agency Orders executed through the Facilitation and Solicitation Auction Mechanisms where at least one party is a Non-Public Customer. For example, a Public Customer Agency Order that executes against a Non-Public Customer Order through the Facilitation Auction mechanism would receive a $0.10 rebate. Further, a Public Customer Agency Order that executes against a Public Customer Order through the Facilitation Auction mechanism would not receive a rebate.
The Exchange then proposes to amend Section II.B. of the BOX Fee Schedule, (Liquidity Fees and Credits for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions). Specifically, the Exchange proposes to decrease the fees and credits for Facilitation and Solicitation transactions in both Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange proposes to decrease the fees for adding liquidity in Facilitation and Solicitation transactions to $0.75 from $0.95 in Non-Penny Pilot Classes, and to $0.25 from $0.40 in Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange also proposes to decrease the credits for removing liquidity in Facilitation and Solicitation transactions. Specifically, the Exchange proposes to decrease the credit to $0.75 from $1.00 in Non-Penny Pilot Classes, and $0.25 from $0.45 in Penny Pilot Classes.
The Exchange believes that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of Section 6(b) of the Act, in general, and Section 6(b)(4) and 6(b)(5) of the Act,
The Exchange believes that remodeling the fee structure for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. In particular, the proposed revisions will allow the Exchange to apply separate fees for certain transactions in Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes, a distinction that is made in many other sections of the BOX Fee Schedule, including Section I.A (Non-Auction Transactions) and Section III.A (All Complex Orders).
The Exchange also believes the proposed fees for Non-Public Customers for Agency Orders and Facilitation and Solicitation Orders in Penny or Non-Penny Pilot Classes are reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. Professional Customers and Broker Dealers and Market Makers are not currently charged for Agency Orders and Facilitation and Solicitation Orders. The proposal increases the fees for all Non-Public Customers to $0.15 for both Agency Orders and Facilitation and Solicitation Orders in Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange believes these fees are reasonable as they are in line with another exchange in the industry.
The Exchange believes that charging Professional Customers and Broker Dealers and Market Makers more than Public Customers for Agency Orders and Facilitation and Solicitation Orders is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The securities markets generally, and BOX in particular, have historically aimed to improve markets for investors and develop various features within the market structure for Public Customer benefit. The Exchange believes that charging lower fees to Public Customers in Facilitation and Solicitation transactions is reasonable and, ultimately, will benefit all Participants trading on the Exchange by attracting Public Customer order flow.
The Exchange also believes the proposed fees for Responses in the Solicitation or Facilitation Auction Mechanisms in Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes are reasonable, and equitable. The proposal changes the fees to $0.25 and $0.40 in Penny and Non-Penny Pilot Classes, respectively, regardless of account type. Moreover, the proposed fees are competitive with fees charged by another options exchange.
The Exchange believes it is reasonable to establish different fees for Facilitation and Solicitation transactions in Penny Pilot Classes compared to transactions in Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange makes this distinction throughout the BOX Fee Schedule, including the Exchange Fees for PIP and COPIP Transactions. The Exchange believes it is reasonable to establish higher fees for Non-Penny Pilot Classes because these Classes are typically less actively traded and have wider spreads.
The Exchange also believes that establishing a $0.10 per contract rebate to Agency Orders executed through the Facilitation and Solicitation Auction Mechanisms where at least one party is a Non-Public Customer is reasonable, equitable and not unfairly discriminatory. The Exchange believes that it is reasonable and equitable to provide the opportunity to receive a rebate to incentivize Participants to direct Facilitation and Solicitation order flow to the Exchange, which will result [sic] ultimately benefit all Participant [sic] trading on the Exchange. The Exchange believes it is reasonable and appropriate that “Public Customer to Public Customer” transactions do not receive the proposed rebate, as these orders are never assessed Facilitation and Solicitation transaction fees and therefore should not also receive the benefit of the rebate. Further, the Exchange believes that the rebate is reasonable and equitable because other exchanges offer a similar distinction in Facilitation and Solicitation rebates.
The Exchange believes that lowering the liquidity fees and rebates for Facilitation and Solicitation transactions is reasonable and equitable. Under the proposed change the fee for adding liquidity will be lowered to $0.75 from $0.95 (Non-Penny Pilot Class) and to $0.25 from $0.40 (Penny Pilot Class). Accordingly, the credit for removing liquidity will be lowered to $0.75 from $1.00 (Non-Penny Pilot Class) and to $0.25 from $0.45 (Penny Pilot Class). The Exchange also notes that the proposed liquidity fees and credits for Facilitation or Solicitation transactions are not unfairly discriminatory because they apply equally to all Participants.
BOX believes that the changes to Facilitation and Solicitation transaction liquidity fees and credits are equitable and not unfairly discriminatory in that they apply to all categories of participants and across all account types. The Exchange notes that liquidity fees and credits on BOX are meant to offset one another in any particular transaction. The liquidity fees and credits do not directly result in revenue to BOX, but will simply allow BOX to provide the credit incentive to Participants to attract order flow. The Exchange believes it is appropriate to provide incentives to market participants to use the Facilitation and Solicitation auction mechanisms, because doing so may result in greater liquidity on BOX which would benefit all market participants. Further, the Exchange believes that the proposed changes are reasonable as they are in line with another exchange in the industry.
Finally, the Exchange believes it is reasonable to establish different fees and credits for Facilitation and Solicitation transactions in Penny Pilot Classes compared to transactions in Non-Penny Pilot Classes. The Exchange makes this distinction throughout the BOX Fee
The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.
The Exchange believes that the proposed adjustments to the Facilitation and Solicitation Transaction fees will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. Rather, BOX believes that the changes will result in the Participants being charged appropriately for their Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions and are designed to enhance competition in these auction mechanisms. Submitting an order is entirely voluntary and Participants can determine which type of order they wish to submit, if any, to the Exchange.
The Exchange believes that the proposed rebate for Facilitation and Solicitation transactions will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. The Exchange believes the proposed rebate is attractive to market participants and is similar to rebates offered by other exchanges.
The Exchange also believes that amending the proposed liquidity fees and credits for Facilitation and Solicitation Transactions will not impose a burden on competition among various Exchange Participants. The Exchange believes that the proposed changes will result with these Participants being charged or credited appropriately for these transactions.
Finally, the Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily favor competing exchanges. In such an environment, the Exchange must continually review, and consider adjusting, its fees and credits to remain competitive with other exchanges. For the reasons described above, the Exchange believes that the proposed rule change reflects this competitive environment.
No written comments were either solicited or received.
The foregoing rule change has become effective pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A)(ii) of the Exchange Act
At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend the rule change if it appears to the Commission that the action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or would otherwise further the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission shall institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule should be approved or disapproved.
Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:
• Use the Commission's Internet comment form (
• Send an email to
• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE., Washington, DC 20549-1090.
For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA).
Notice of open Federal Advisory Committee meetings.
The SBA is issuing this notice to announce the location, date, time and agenda for the initial meeting of the
The meeting will be held on Friday, October 14, 2016, at 2:00 p.m. EST.
The meeting will be held at the U.S. Small Business Administration, in the Administrator's Large Conference Room, located at 409 3rd St. SW., Suite 7000, Washington, DC 20416.
The meeting is open to the public however advance notice of attendance is requested. Anyone wishing to be a listening participant must contact Amadi Anene by phone or email. His contact information is Amadi Anene, Senior Advisor to the Administrator, 409 Third Street SW., Washington, DC 20416, Phone, 202-205-0067 or email,
Additionally, if you need accommodations because of a disability or require additional information, please contact Amadi Anene at the information above.
Pursuant to section 10(a) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Appendix 2), SBA announces the meeting of the Council on Underserved Communities Advisory Board. This Board provides advice and counsel to the SBA Administrator and Associate Administrator. CUC members will examine the obstacles facing small businesses in underserved communities and recommend to SBA policy and programmatic changes to help strengthen SBA's programs and services to these communities.
The purpose of this meeting is to discuss following issues pertaining to the CUC Advisory Board.:
Social Security Administration.
Request for information.
The Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015 amended section 234 of the Social Security Act, which authorizes us to plan and implement new demonstration projects that waive certain Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) program requirements in order to evaluate strategies for improving work outcomes for SSDI beneficiaries and applicants. This request for information (RFI) seeks public input on possible demonstration projects designed to improve employment and earnings outcomes for individuals with musculoskeletal impairments. The input we receive will inform our deliberations about the possible design of a future demonstration project using the section 234 authority.
Comments must be received by November 18, 2016.
You may submit comments by any one of three methods—Internet, fax, or mail. Do not submit the same comments multiple times or by more than one method. Regardless of which method you choose, please state that your comments refer to Docket No. SSA-2016-0036 so that we may associate your comments with the correct docket.
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Comments are available for public viewing on the Federal eRulemaking portal at
Susan Wilschke, Deputy Associate Commissioner for Research, Demonstration, and Employment Support, Office of Retirement and Disability Policy, Social Security Administration, 6401 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, MD 21235-6401, (410) 966-8906, for information about this notice. For information on eligibility or filing for benefits, call our national toll-free number, 1-800-772-1213 or TTY 1-800-325-0778, or visit our Internet site, Social Security Online, at
The SSDI program provides financial support for disabled individuals and their dependents. In 2015, the SSDI program provided more than $140 billion in benefits to 10.8 million Americans.
This request for information offers interested parties, including States, community-based and other non-profit organizations, philanthropic organizations, researchers, and members of the public, the opportunity to provide information and recommendations on effective approaches for improving employment and earnings outcomes for individuals with musculoskeletal impairments. For the purposes of this notice, “musculoskeletal impairments” means any impairment included in section 1.00 of our Listing of Impairments, 20 CFR part 404, app. 1, affecting the musculoskeletal system and connective tissue. Impairments in this section include, but are not limited to, major joint dysfunction, spinal disorders, amputation, and soft tissue injuries.
Musculoskeletal impairments are the primary diagnosis for 31 percent of all SSDI disabled workers and for 36 percent of disabled workers awarded SSDI in 2014.
Researchers and policy experts have suggested that it we may find it useful to conduct a demonstration project related to musculoskeletal impairments. For example, as part of the Committee for a Responsible Federal Budget's (CRFB) SSDI Solutions series, several researchers proposed a demonstration project involving health care and work supports for approximately 12 weeks after an individual's work is disrupted, but before he or she applies for SSDI.
We expect that public input provided in response to this request will provide us with information that will allow us to determine if a musculoskeletal demonstration project will be useful and, if so, what interventions may be most valuable to consider in the demonstration project design. For example, a demonstration project could test whether coordinating and providing services can have a positive impact on a worker's ability to remain in the workforce. Those services may include case management, care coordination, and communication assistance between the employer, worker, medical providers, and others. Importantly, a potential demonstration project related to musculoskeletal impairments would improve the evidentiary base for future potential SSDI program reforms.
If we decide to pursue a musculoskeletal demonstration project, we would likely issue a contract for demonstration project implementation and evaluation.
Through this notice, we are soliciting feedback from interested parties on the potential value of a demonstration project related to providing health and work supports to individuals with musculoskeletal impairments, and on design aspects of a demonstration project aimed at improving employment and earnings outcomes for these individuals. Responses to this request will inform our decisions about whether to pursue a new demonstration project, and how such a project may be designed. This notice is for our internal planning purposes only and should not be construed as a solicitation or as an obligation on our part or on the part of any participating Federal agencies. We ask respondents to address the following questions, where possible, in the context of the discussion in this document. You do not need to address every question and should focus on those that relate to your expertise or perspectives. To the extent possible, please clearly indicate which question(s) you address in your response.
1. What specific programs or practices have shown promise at the State or local level to assist workers with musculoskeletal impairments to remain in or re-enter the workforce?
2. What programs and practices might be especially applicable to individuals who might be enrolled in SSDI in the absence of interventions, and how might those programs and practices be incorporated into a potential demonstration project?
1. Should we target specific types of musculoskeletal impairments in a demonstration project? If so, which ones, and why those?
2. What is an appropriate age range of individuals with musculoskeletal impairments for us to consider targeting for a demonstration project? Why?
3. Which populations should we consider targeting? How can we identify these populations? How many individuals enter these populations per year?
4. What types of sites (for example, State vocational rehabilitation agencies, medical practices, etc.) would be the most beneficial for us to consider including in a demonstration project?
5. Are there sites we could look to as exemplars based on current practices for serving individuals with musculoskeletal impairments? What evidence exists to suggest these sites are effectively providing early intervention services for workers with musculoskeletal impairments?
6. How might we consider structuring a demonstration project to investigate the potential for screening workers for their likelihood of responding to employment supports?
7. What types of health services should we consider for workers with musculoskeletal impairments?
8. When should these services be provided?
9. To what extent should we prioritize certain services, whether case management, care coordination, or other on-site work support services?
10. Are there rehabilitative and pain management healthcare delivery models that we should consider combining with other work support services? What specific healthcare practices and models should we avoid or discourage?
11. What are the best ways to involve workers with disabilities in planning and implementing a demonstration project in order to ensure that demonstration project services will be effective in meeting their needs?
12. What health service program designs and interventions demonstrate promise for improving long-term employment outcomes for workers with musculoskeletal impairments? What evidence supports these interventions?
13. What specific employment related interventions related to skill development, job training, job placement, or pre- and post-placement services should we consider for individuals with musculoskeletal impairments?
14. What employment program designs and interventions demonstrate promise for improving long-term employment outcomes for workers with musculoskeletal impairments? What evidence supports these interventions?
We ask that each respondent include the name and address of his or her institution or affiliation, if any, and the name, title, mailing and email addresses, and telephone number of a contact person for his or her institution or affiliation, if any.
By submitting material in response to this notice, you agree to grant us a worldwide, royalty-free, perpetual, irrevocable, nonexclusive license to use the material, and to post it publicly. Further, you agree that you own, have a valid license, or are otherwise authorized to provide the material to us. You should not provide any material you consider confidential or proprietary in response to this notice. We will not
The U.S. National Commission for UNESCO (“Commission”) will hold a conference call on Tuesday, October 11, 2016, from 1:00 p.m. until 2:00 p.m. Eastern Daylight Time. The purpose of the teleconference meeting is to consider the recommendations of the Commission's World Heritage Subcommittee. The Subcommittee was asked to provide recommendations of sites for consideration to be listed on the U.S. World Heritage Tentative List. This list will be the basis for U.S. nominations for inscription onto UNESCO's World Heritage List. The recommendations resulting from this discussion will be forwarded from the Department of State to the Department of the Interior. More information on the World Heritage Tentative List process can be found at
The National Commission may be contacted via email at
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the entity known as Omar Diaby, also known as Omar al-Diaby, also known as Omar Omsen, also known as Omar Oumsen, also known as Oumar Diaby, committed, or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
Acting under the authority of and in accordance with section 1(b) of Executive Order 13224 of September 23, 2001, as amended by Executive Order 13268 of July 2, 2002, and Executive Order 13284 of January 23, 2003, I hereby determine that the individual known as Fathi Ahmad Mohammad Hammad, also known as Fathi Ahmad Hammad, also known as Fathy Ahmed Hamad, also known as Fathi Hamad, committed or poses a significant risk of committing, acts of terrorism that threaten the security of U.S. nationals or the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States.
Consistent with the determination in section 10 of Executive Order 13224 that prior notice to persons determined to be subject to the Order who might have a constitutional presence in the United States would render ineffectual the blocking and other measures authorized in the Order because of the ability to transfer funds instantaneously, I determine that no prior notice needs to be provided to any person subject to this determination who might have a constitutional presence in the United States, because to do so would render ineffectual the measures authorized in the Order.
This notice shall be published in the
The Office of the Assistant Legal Adviser for Private International Law, Department of State, gives notice of a public meeting to discuss ongoing work in the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) related to micro, small, and medium sized enterprises. The public meeting will take place on Thursday, September 29, 2016, from 9:30 a.m. until 12:00 p.m. EDT. This is not a meeting of the full Advisory Committee.
In 2013 UNCITRAL established a working group aimed at reducing the legal obstacles faced by MSMEs throughout their life cycle, and in particular those in developing countries. UNCITRAL further directed that the work should start with a focus on the legal issues surrounding the simplification of incorporation. At its upcoming session, the UNCITRAL MSME Working Group will consider draft recommendations on a legislative guide for a limited liability organization (UN Doc. A/CN.9/WG.I/WP.99 and Add.1). The draft text, along with the reports of earlier sessions of the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).
Twenty Seventh Meeting of the SC-217 Aeronautical Databases.
The FAA is issuing this notice to advise the public of a meeting of Twenty Seventh Meeting of SC-217 Aeronautical Databases.
The meeting will be held November 29 to December 2, 2016, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
The meeting will be held at: 202 Burlington Road, Bedford, MA 01730-1420.
Karan Hoffmann at
Pursuant to section 10(a) (2) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (Pub. L. 92-463, 5 U.S.C., App.), notice is hereby given for a meeting of the Twenty Seventh Meeting of SC-217 Aeronautical Databases. The agenda will include the following:
For those able to attend, a working group session will be held to progress on action items ahead of the plenary.
Attendance is open to the interested public but limited to space availability. With the approval of the chairman, members of the public may present oral statements at the meeting. Persons wishing to present statements or obtain information should contact the person listed in the
Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), Department of Transportation.
Notice of applications for exemptions; request for comments.
FMCSA announces receipt of applications from 58 individuals for exemption from the prohibition against persons with insulin-treated diabetes mellitus (ITDM) operating commercial motor vehicles (CMVs) in interstate commerce. If granted, the exemptions would enable these individuals with ITDM to operate CMVs in interstate commerce.
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2016.
You may submit comments bearing the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) Docket No. FMCSA-2016-0220 using any of the following methods:
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Christine A. Hydock, Chief, Medical Programs Division, (202) 366-4001,
Under 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA may grant an exemption from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations for a 2-year period if it finds “such exemption would likely achieve a level of safety that is equivalent to or greater than the level that would be achieved absent such exemption.” The statute also allows the Agency to renew exemptions at the end of the 2-year period. The 58 individuals listed in this notice have recently requested such an exemption from the diabetes prohibition in 49 CFR 391.41(b)(3), which applies to drivers of CMVs in interstate commerce. Accordingly, the Agency will evaluate the qualifications of each applicant to determine whether granting the exemption will achieve the required level of safety mandated by statute.
Mr. Banta, 67, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Banta understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Banta meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Barker, 59, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Barker understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Barker meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a CDL from Michigan.
Mr. Bartlett, 45, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bartlett understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bartlett meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Iowa.
Ms. Begay, 57, has had ITDM since 2003. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. Her endocrinologist certifies that Ms. Begay understands diabetes management and monitoring has stable control of her diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Ms. Begay meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). Her ophthalmologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. She holds an operator's license from Utah.
Mr. Boehning, 58, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Boehning understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Boehning meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Indiana.
Mr. Bracken, 63, has had ITDM since 2000. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Bracken understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Bracken meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Brennan, 55, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist
Mr. Brown, 47, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Brown understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Brown meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Oklahoma.
Mr. Brown, 62, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Brown understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Brown meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Maine.
Mr. Coon, 54, has had ITDM since 2009. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Coon understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Coon meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from California.
Mr. Cox, 66, has had ITDM since 2003. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Cox understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Cox meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from North Carolina.
Mr. Downie, 55, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Downie understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Downie meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Eagen, 47, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Eagen understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Eagen meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Figueroa, 52, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Figueroa understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Figueroa meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Grasso, 51, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Grasso understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Grasso meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Massachusetts.
Mr. Graves, 75, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no
Mr. Grimes, 47, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Grimes understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Grimes meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Tennessee.
Mr. Hardin, 75, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hardin understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hardin meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Hargis, 50, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hargis understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hargis meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Missouri.
Mr. Haskins, 61, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Haskins understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Haskins meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Virginia.
Mr. Hayes, 52, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hayes understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hayes meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Oklahoma.
Mr. Hess, 21, has had ITDM since 2002. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hess understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hess meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Washington.
Mr. Hewson, 29, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Hewson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Hewson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from North Dakota.
Ms. Holzwarth, 64, has had ITDM since 2011. Her endocrinologist examined her in 2016 and certified that she has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. Her endocrinologist certifies that Ms. Holzwarth understands diabetes management and monitoring has stable control of her diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Ms. Holzwarth meets the requirements of the vision
Mr. Jacklin, 47, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jacklin understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jacklin meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Wisconsin.
Mr. Janney, 70, has had ITDM since 2001. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Janney understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Janney meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Delaware.
Mr. Jones, 37, has had ITDM since 2004. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Jones understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Jones meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Kentucky.
Mr. Kline, 60, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Kline understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Kline meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Ohio.
Mr. Langford, 55, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Langford understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Langford meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Oregon.
Mr. Lipovsky, 27, has had ITDM since 2006. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Lipovsky understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Lipovsky meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Connecticut.
Mr. Manley, 45, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Manley understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Manley meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Mattas, 32, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mattas understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mattas meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. McGuire, 51, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or
Mr. Mejia, 67, has had ITDM since 2013. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Mejia understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Mejia meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Washington.
Mr. Morgan, 39, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Morgan understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Morgan meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from North Carolina.
Mr. Olden, 31, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Olden understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Olden meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Pennsylvania.
Mr. Patrick, 61, has had ITDM since 2012. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Patrick understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Patrick meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from New York.
Mr. Persinger, 46, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Persinger understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Persinger meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Wyoming.
Mr. Peterson, 30, has had ITDM since 1999. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Peterson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Peterson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Nebraska.
Mr. Ramper, 62, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Ramper understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Ramper meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Maryland.
Mr. Rodriguez, 56, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Rodriguez understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Rodriguez meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Wisconsin.
Mr. Rowell, 58, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him
Mr. Shreeve, 55, has had ITDM since 1974. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Shreeve understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Shreeve meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Tennessee.
Mr. Smith, 49, has had ITDM since 1999. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Smith understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Smith meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Texas.
Mr. Stock, 49, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Stock understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Stock meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Wisconsin.
Mr. Taylor, 53, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Taylor understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Taylor meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Ohio.
Mr. Thacker, 25, has had ITDM since 1995. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Thacker understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Thacker meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Kentucky.
Mr. Tillman, 56, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Tillman understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Tillman meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Florida.
Mr. Tomlinson, 27, has had ITDM since 1992. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Tomlinson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Tomlinson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Georgia.
Mr. Walters, 62, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Walters understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Walters meets the
Mr. Watkins, 26, has had ITDM since 1994. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Watkins understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Watkins meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class B CDL from Vermont.
Mr. Williams, 53, has had ITDM since 2011. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Williams understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Williams meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Mississippi.
Mr. Wilson, 34, has had ITDM since 2007. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wilson understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wilson meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from West Virginia.
Mr. Wine, 57, has had ITDM since 2016. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wine understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wine meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from Iowa.
Mr. Witcraft, 51, has had ITDM since 2015. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Witcraft understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Witcraft meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from South Dakota.
Mr. Witzel, 33, has had ITDM since 2010. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Witzel understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Witzel meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has stable nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from South Carolina.
Mr. Woodward, 53, has had ITDM since 1990. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Woodward understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Woodward meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His ophthalmologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds a Class A CDL from New York.
Mr. Wynn, 29, has had ITDM since 2014. His endocrinologist examined him in 2016 and certified that he has had no severe hypoglycemic reactions resulting in loss of consciousness, requiring the assistance of another person, or resulting in impaired cognitive function that occurred without warning in the past 12 months and no recurrent (2 or more) severe hypoglycemic episodes in the last 5 years. His endocrinologist certifies that Mr. Wynn understands diabetes management and monitoring, has stable control of his diabetes using insulin, and is able to drive a CMV safely. Mr. Wynn meets the requirements of the vision standard at 49 CFR 391.41(b)(10). His optometrist examined him in 2016 and certified that he does not have diabetic retinopathy. He holds an operator's license from Texas.
In accordance with 49 U.S.C. 31136(e) and 31315, FMCSA requests public comment from all interested persons on the exemption petitions described in this notice. We will consider all comments received before the close of
FMCSA notes that section 4129 of the Safe, Accountable, Flexible and Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users requires the Secretary to revise its diabetes exemption program established on September 3, 2003 (68 FR 52441).
Section 4129 requires: (1) Elimination of the requirement for 3 years of experience operating CMVs while being treated with insulin; and (2) establishment of a specified minimum period of insulin use to demonstrate stable control of diabetes before being allowed to operate a CMV.
In response to section 4129, FMCSA made immediate revisions to the diabetes exemption program established by the September 3, 2003 notice. FMCSA discontinued use of the 3-year driving experience and fulfilled the requirements of section 4129 while continuing to ensure that operation of CMVs by drivers with ITDM will achieve the requisite level of safety required of all exemptions granted under 49 U.S.C.. 31136 (e).
Section 4129(d) also directed FMCSA to ensure that drivers of CMVs with ITDM are not held to a higher standard than other drivers, with the exception of limited operating, monitoring and medical requirements that are deemed medically necessary.
The FMCSA concluded that all of the operating, monitoring and medical requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified, were in compliance with section 4129(d). Therefore, all of the requirements set out in the September 3, 2003 notice, except as modified by the notice in the
You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. FMCSA recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in the body of your document so that FMCSA can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to
We will consider all comments and material received during the comment period. FMCSA may issue a final determination at any time after the close of the comment period.
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble, go to
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation.
Request for public comment on extension of a currently approved collection of information.
The Department of Transportation (DOT) invites public comments about our intention to request the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) renewed approval for an existing collection of information for brake fluid labeling in 49 CFR 571.116, “Motor Vehicle Brake Fluids.” Under procedures established by the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before seeking OMB approval, Federal agencies must solicit public comment on proposed collections of information, including extensions and reinstatement of previously approved collections. This existing collection involves labeling requirements for manufacturers and packagers of brake fluids, as well as packagers of hydraulic system mineral oils. The information to be collected will be used to and/or is necessary to insure the following: The contents of the container are clearly stated; these fluids are used for their intended purpose only; and, the containers are properly disposed of when empty. The
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2016.
Comments must refer to the docket number cited at the beginning of this notice, and may be submitted by any of the following methods:
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Mr. Patrick Hallan, (202) 366-9146, NHTSA, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200
Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, before an agency submits a proposed collection of information to OMB for approval, it must first publish a document in the
(1) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility;
(2) The accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;
(3) How to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected;
(4) How to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology,
In compliance with these requirements, NHTSA published a notice on March 2, 2016, in the
NHTSA asks for public comments on the following collection of information:
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995; 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35, as amended; and 49 CFR 1.95.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation.
Notice and request for comments.
In compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501
Comments must be received on or before October 19, 2016.
Send comments regarding the burden estimate, including suggestions for reducing the burden, to the Office of Management and Budget, Attention: Desk Officer for the Office of the Secretary of Transportation, 725 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20503.
Complete copies of each request for collection of information may be obtained at no charge from Johanna Lowrie, U.S. Department of Transportation, NHTSA, Room W43-410, 1200 New Jersey Ave. SE., Washington, DC 20590. Ms. Lowrie's telephone number is (202) 366-5269. Please identify the relevant collection of information by referring to its OMB Control Number.
The information collected annually by the agency includes the following:
• Vehicle make, model, body style, certification type, projected sales volume, availability date, etc.,
• Crashworthiness features (
• Crash avoidance features (
• Automatic crash notification systems,
• Event data recorders,
• Automatic door locks (ADL),
• Anti-theft devices,
• Static Stability Factor (SSF) rating information,
• Lower Anchors and Tethers for Children (LATCH) restraint system, and
• Side air bag information that would include whether the side air bags meet the requirements from the Technical Working Group (TWG) on Out-of-Position occupants.
NHTSA has another information collection to obtain data related to motor vehicle compliance with the agency's Federal motor vehicle safety standards. Although the consumer information collection data is distinct and unique from the compliance data, respondents to both collections are the same. Thus, the consumer information collection is closely coordinated with the compliance collection to enable responders to assemble the data more efficiently. The burden is further made easier by sending out electronic files to the respondents in which the data is entered and electronically returned to the agency.
The consumer information collected will be used on the agency's Web site (
Comments to OMB are most effective if OMB receives them within 30 days of publication.
44 U.S.C. 3506(c); delegation of authority at 49 CFR 1.50.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation.
Announcement of public meeting.
NHTSA is announcing a public meeting to present information describing our vehicle and behavioral safety research portfolio and outline the activities we plan to pursue over the next 12 to 16 months. Each year, NHTSA executes a broad array of research in the areas of crash avoidance, electronics systems safety, biomechanics, crashworthiness, and behavioral research. The purpose of this meeting is to present and describe research projects in these areas that the agency will be focusing on to enhance safety.
NHTSA will hold the public meeting on September 27, 2016, in Detroit, MI. The meeting will start at 10:00 a.m. and continue until 4:00 p.m., local time. Check-in (through security) will begin at 9 a.m.
The meeting will be held at the Patrick V. McNamara Federal Building located at 477 Michigan Avenue, Detroit, MI 48226, Bottom Floor. This facility is accessible to individuals with disabilities.
If you have questions about the public meeting, please contact Inez Finley at 937-666-3289, by email at
Should it be necessary to cancel the meeting due to inclement weather or other emergency, NHTSA will take all available measures to notify registered participants.
NHTSA will conduct the public meeting informally, and technical rules of evidence will not apply. We will arrange for a written transcript of the meeting and keep the official record open for 30 days after the meeting to allow submission of public comments. You may make arrangements for copies of the transcripts directly with the court reporter, and the transcript will also be posted in the docket when it becomes available.
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Each year, NHTSA executes a broad array of research in the areas of crash avoidance, electronics systems safety, biomechanics, crashworthiness, and behavioral research. The purpose of this meeting is to present and describe research projects in these areas that the agency will be focusing on over the next year or more to enhance vehicle safety. For more information on NHTSA's research programs, please visit our Web site at:
NHTSA will provide information on the following topics during the morning and afternoon sessions of the meeting.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), Department of Transportation (DOT).
Grant of petition for exemption.
This document grants in full the Volkswagen Group of America, Inc.'s (Volkswagen) petition for exemption of the mid-size sports utility vehicle (SUV) line in accordance with 49 CFR part 543,
The exemption granted by this notice is effective beginning with the 2018 model year (MY).
Ms. Carlita Ballard, Office of International Policy, Fuel Economy and Consumer Programs, NHTSA, West Building, W43-439, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE., Washington, DC 20590. Ms. Ballard's phone number is (202) 366-5222. Her fax number is (202) 493-2990.
In a petition dated April 28, 2016, Volkswagen requested an exemption from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard for its mid-size SUV line beginning with MY 2018. The petition requested an exemption from parts-marking pursuant to 49 CFR part 543,
Under 49 CFR part 543.5(a), a manufacturer may petition NHTSA to grant an exemption for one vehicle line per model year. In its petition, Volkswagen provided a detailed description and diagram of the identity, design, and location of the components of the antitheft device for its mid-size SUV line. Volkswagen stated that its MY 2018 mid-size SUV line will be installed with its fifth generation, transponder-based electronic engine immobilizer antitheft device as standard equipment on the entire vehicle line. Key components of the antitheft device will include an immobilizer, engine control unit (ECU), instrument cluster, warning sign, reading coil and an adapted transponder ignition key (key fob). Volkswagen also stated that it will offer an audible and visible alarm system as optional equipment on its mid-size SUV line.
Volkswagen's submission is considered a complete petition as required by 49 CFR 543.7, in that it meets the general requirements contained in § 543.5 and the specific content requirements of § 543.6.
In addressing the specific content requirements of 543.6, Volkswagen provided information on the reliability and durability of its proposed device. To ensure reliability and durability of the device, Volkswagen stated that the antitheft device has been tested for compliance to its corporate
Volkswagen stated that its immobilizer device is aimed to actively incorporate the engine control unit into the evaluation and monitoring process. Volkswagen also stated that activation of its immobilizer device occurs automatically after the engine is switched off. Deactivation of the immobilizer device occurs when the ignition is turned on or the key fob is recognized by the immobilizer control unit. Specifically, when turning on the ignition on/off switch, the key transponder sends a fixed code to the immobilizer control unit. If this is identified as the correct code, a variable code is generated in the immobilizer control unit and sent to the transponder. Volkswagen stated that a secret arithmetic process is then started according to a set of specific equations and that a new variable code is generated every time the immobilizer goes through the secret computing process. The results of the computing process are evaluated in the control unit and if verified, the vehicle key is acknowledged as correct. The engine control unit then sends a variable code to the immobilizer control unit for mutual identification. If all the data matches, the vehicle can be started.
In support of its belief that its antitheft device will be as or more effective in reducing and deterring vehicle theft than the parts-marking requirement, Volkswagen referenced the effectiveness of immobilizer devices installed on other vehicles for which NHTSA has granted exemptions. Specifically, Volkswagen referenced information from the Highway Loss Data Institute which showed that BMW vehicles experienced theft loss reductions resulting in a 73% decrease in relative claim frequency and a 78% lower average loss payment per claim for vehicles equipped with an immobilizer. Volkswagen also stated that the National Crime Information Center's (NCIC) theft data showed that there was a 70% reduction in theft experienced when comparing the MY 1987 Ford Mustang vehicle thefts (with immobilizers) to MY 1995 Ford Mustang vehicle thefts (without immobilizers). Additionally, Volkswagen stated that the proposed device is similar to the antitheft device installed on the Audi Q5 and the Lexus RX vehicle lines. The agency granted in full the petition for the Audi Q5 vehicle line beginning with model year 2009, (see 73 FR 18606, April 4, 2008), and the Lexus RX vehicle line beginning with MY 2017, (see 81 FR 8592, February 19, 2016). The agency notes that the average theft rate for the Audi Q5 vehicle line using three MYs' data (MYs 2012 through 2013) is 0.5014 respectively. There is no current theft rate data available for Volkswagen's new mid-size SUV line. The agency agrees that the device is substantially similar to devices installed on other vehicle lines for which the agency has already granted exemptions.
Based on the evidence submitted by Volkswagen, the agency believes that the antitheft device for the mid-size SUV line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR 541). The agency concludes that the device will provide four of the five types of performance listed in § 543.6(a)(3): Promoting activation; preventing defeat or circumvention of the device by unauthorized persons; preventing operation of the vehicle by unauthorized entrants; and ensuring the reliability and durability of the device.
Pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 33106 and 49 CFR 543.7 (b), the agency grants a petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of Part 541, either in whole or in part, if it determines that, based upon substantial evidence, the standard equipment antitheft device is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of Part 541. The agency finds that Volkswagen has provided adequate reasons for its belief that the antitheft device for the mid-size SUV line is likely to be as effective in reducing and deterring motor vehicle theft as compliance with the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard (49 CFR part 541). This conclusion is based on the information Volkswagen provided about its antitheft device.
For the foregoing reasons, the agency hereby grants in full Volkswagen's petition for exemption for the Volkswagen mid-size SUV line from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541. The agency notes that 49 CFR part 541, Appendix A-1, identifies those lines that are exempted from the Theft Prevention Standard for a given model year. 49 CFR part 543.7(f) contains publication requirements incident to the disposition of all Part 543 petitions. Advanced listing, including the release of future product nameplates, the beginning model year for which the petition is granted and a general description of the antitheft device is necessary in order to notify law enforcement agencies of new vehicle lines exempted from the parts-marking requirements of the Theft Prevention Standard. As a condition to the formal granting of Volkswagen's petition for exemption from the parts-marking requirements of 49 CFR part 541 for the MY 2018 mid-size SUV line, the agency fully expects Volkswagen to notify the agency of the nameplate for the vehicle line prior to its introduction into the United States commerce for sale.
If Volkswagen decides not to use the exemption for this line, it must formally notify the agency. If such a decision is made, the line must be fully marked according to the requirements under 49 CFR parts 541.5 and 541.6 (marking of major component parts and replacement parts).
NHTSA notes that if Volkswagen wishes in the future to modify the device on which this exemption is based, the company may have to submit a petition to modify the exemption. Part 543.7(d) states that a Part 543 exemption applies only to vehicles that belong to a line exempted under this part and equipped with the antitheft device on which the line's exemption is based. Further, Part 543.9(c)(2) provides for the submission of petitions “to modify an exemption to permit the use of an antitheft device similar to but differing from the one specified in that exemption.”
The agency wishes to minimize the administrative burden that Part 543.9(c)(2) could place on exempted vehicle manufacturers and itself. The agency did not intend in drafting Part 543 to require the submission of a modification petition for every change to the components or design of an antitheft device. The significance of many such changes could be
Notice.
The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA), Education Service is seeking nominations of qualified candidates to be considered for appointment as a member of the Veterans' Advisory Committee on Education (VACOE). The Committee is authorized by statute, 38 U.S.C. 3692, and operates under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. App. 2. The Committee provides advice to the Secretary of Veterans Affairs on the administration of education and training programs, like the Post-9/11 GI Bill, and recommends new and improved education benefit programs and services for Veterans and Servicepersons, Reservists and Guard personnel, and for dependents of Veterans under chapters 30, 32, 33, 35, and 36 of title 38, and chapters 1606 of title 10, United States Code. The Committee submits its recommendations and reports to the Secretary and may also submit its reports to Congress.
The Secretary appoints Committee members and determines the length of terms in which Committee members may serve. A term of service for any member may not exceed two years. The Secretary can reappoint members for additional terms, but individual members cannot serve more than two consecutive terms. Each year, there are several vacancies on the Committee as members' terms expire. Education Service is seeking candidates who reflect the population the Committee serves.
In accordance with the Office of Management and Budget guidance, federally registered lobbyists may not serve on Federal advisory committees in their individual capacity. Additional information regarding this issue can be found at
All nominations for membership on the Committee must be received by October 15, 2016, no later than 4:00 p.m., Eastern Standard Time. Packages received after this time will not be considered for the current membership cycle.
All nominations should be mailed to VACOE, Designated Federal Officer (DFO), Barrett Y. Bogue, Department of Veterans Affairs, 810 Vermont Ave. NW., (223D), Washington, DC 20420, or emailed to
Mr. Barrett Y. Bogue, Designated Federal Officer, Department of Veterans Affairs, Veterans Benefits Administration (223D), 810 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20420, telephone (202) 461-9800 or email at
The Committee is currently comprised of 10 members. The Committee consists of members appointed by the Secretary from the general public, including: Representatives of women Veterans; individuals who are recognized authorities in fields of education; representatives of Veterans with service-connected disabilities, including at least one female Veteran with a service-connected disability and at least one male Veteran with a service-connected disability; and Veterans who are recently separated from service in the Armed Forces.
The Committee meets at least once annually, which may include a site visit to a military installation. In accordance with Federal Travel Regulations, VA will cover travel expenses—to include per diem—for all members of the Committee, for any travel associated with official Committee duties.
The Department makes every effort to ensure that the membership of VA federal advisory committees is fairly balanced in terms of points of view represented and the Committee's function. To the extent possible, the Secretary seeks members who have diverse professional and personal qualifications, including but not limited to prior military experience and military deployments, experience working with Veterans education and in large and complex organizations, and subject matter expertise in the subject areas described above. We ask that nominations include information of this type so that VA can ensure a balanced Committee membership. Appointments to this Committee shall be made without discrimination based on a person's race, color, religion, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. Nominations must state that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the Committee and appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership.
Requirements for Nomination Submission: Nominations should be typed, 12 point font (one nomination per nominator). A nomination package should include:
(1) A cover letter from the nominator that clearly states the name and affiliation of the nominee, the basis for the nomination (
(2) a current resume that is no more than four pages in length, including name, mailing address, telephone numbers, and email address; the resume should show professional work experience, and Veterans service involvement, especially service that involves Veterans' education issues.
(3) the nominee's curriculum vitae, any relevant Veterans service activities she/he is currently engaged in, the military branch affiliation and timeframe of military service (if applicable).
(4) a summary of the nominee's experience and qualifications relative to the membership considerations described above.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Final rule.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission” or “CFTC”) is adopting final rules amending its current system safeguards rules for designated contract markets, swap execution facilities, and swap data repositories, by enhancing and clarifying current provisions relating to system safeguards risk analysis and oversight and cybersecurity testing, and adding new provisions concerning certain aspects of cybersecurity testing. The final rules clarify the Commission's current system safeguards rules for all designated contract markets, swap execution facilities, and swap data repositories by specifying and defining the types of cybersecurity testing essential to fulfilling system safeguards testing obligations. These testing types are vulnerability testing, penetration testing, controls testing, security incident response plan testing, and enterprise technology risk assessment. The final rules also clarify current rule provisions respecting: The categories of risk analysis and oversight that statutorily-required programs of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight must address; system safeguards-related books and records obligations; the scope of system safeguards testing; internal reporting and review of testing results; and remediation of vulnerabilities and deficiencies. In addition, the final rules adopt new provisions set forth in the Commission's Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, applicable to covered designated contract markets (as defined) and all swap data repositories, establishing minimum frequency requirements for conducting certain types of cybersecurity testing, and requiring performance of certain tests by independent contractors.
Rachel Berdansky, Deputy Director, Division of Market Oversight, 202-418-5429,
On December 15, 2015, the Commission issued a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“NPRM”) proposing to amend its system safeguards rules for designated contract markets (“DCMs”), swap execution facilities (“SEFs”), and swap data repositories (“SDRs”).
As detailed in the NPRM, cyber threats to the financial sector continue to expand, increasing the need for enhanced cybersecurity testing. Such testing should focus on the entity's ability to detect, contain, respond to, and recover from cyber attacks. It should also address detection, containment, and recovery from compromise of data integrity—perhaps the greatest threat with respect to financial sector data—in addition to compromise of data availability or confidentiality. As noted in the NPRM, cybersecurity testing is a well-established best practice both generally and for financial sector entities.
Cybersecurity testing is also supported internationally. The recently published
Testing is an integral component of any cyber resilience framework. All elements of a cyber resilience framework should be
The NPRM identified two principal goals. The first goal was clarification of current cybersecurity testing requirements for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, along with clarification, amplification, and harmonization of other current system safeguards rule provisions. The second goal was the addition of new rule provisions for covered DCMs (as defined) and SDRs, establishing minimum frequency requirements for conducting certain types of cybersecurity testing, and requiring performance of certain tests by independent contractors.
The system safeguards provisions of the Commodity Exchange Act (“Act” or “CEA”) and Commission regulations applicable to all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs require these entities to maintain a program of risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current regulations for DCMs and SDRs and its guidance for SEFs provide that such entities should follow best practices in addressing the categories which their programs of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight are required to include.
The NPRM proposed amending the current system safeguards rules requiring all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to maintain a business continuity-disaster recovery plan and emergency procedures, by adding a requirement for such plans and procedures to be updated as frequently as required by appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum at least annually.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs contain a provision addressing required production of system safeguards-related documents to the Commission on request.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that each such entity must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The NPRM proposed that covered DCMs (as defined) and all SDRs would be subject to new minimum testing frequency requirements with respect to some of the proposed types of system safeguards testing.
The NPRM also clarified the current testing requirements for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs by specifying and defining three other aspects of risk analysis and oversight programs that are necessary to fulfillment of the testing requirements and achievement of their purposes.
The NPRM proposed that the scope of all testing and assessment required by the Commission's system safeguards regulations for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs should be broad enough to include all testing of automated systems and controls necessary to identify any vulnerability which, if exploited or accidentally triggered, could enable an intruder or unauthorized user or insider to interfere with the entity's operations or with fulfillment of its statutory and regulatory responsibilities; to impair or degrade the reliability, security, or capacity of the entity's automated systems; to add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the entity's regulated activities; or to undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the entity's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
The NPRM called for a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's senior management and its Board of Directors receive and review reports of the results of all testing and assessment required by Commission rules.
The NPRM called for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to analyze the results of the testing and assessment required by the applicable system safeguards rules, in order to identify all vulnerabilities and deficiencies in its systems, and to remediate those vulnerabilities and deficiencies to the extent necessary to enable it to fulfill the applicable system safeguards requirements and meet its statutory and regulatory obligations.
The NPRM defined “covered DCM” as a DCM whose annual total trading volume is five percent or more of the annual total trading volume of all DCMs regulated by the Commission.
The comment period for the NPRM closed on February 23, 2016. The Commission received nine comment letters addressing the NPRM. Comments were provided by: The Chicago Mercantile Exchange (“CME”) Group DCMs, the CME SEF, and the CME SDR (collectively, “CME”); Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) Futures U.S., ICE Swap Trade, and ICE Trade Vault (collectively, “ICE”); the Minneapolis Grain Exchange (“MGEX”); the North American Derivatives Exchange (“Nadex”); the CBOE Futures Exchange (“CFE”); the Depository Trust and Clearing Corporation Data Repository (“DDR”); Tradeweb Markets LLC (“Tradeweb”); the Wholesale Markets Broker's Association, Americas (“WMBAA”), whose members include BGC SEF, GFI SEF, Tradition SEF, and Tullett Prebon SEF; and FireEye, a third-party cybersecurity service provider.
Most commenters expressed broad support for the proposed system safeguards testing rules. ICE stated that it supports the Commission's efforts to improve, clarify, and enhance its rules relating to system safeguards and address cybersecurity testing, calling clarification and enhancement of these rules in response to escalating and evolving cybersecurity threats “timely and welcome,” and noting that cybersecurity and system safeguards are paramount to the functioning of the derivatives markets. MGEX said it appreciates and supports the efforts the Commission has put forth to address the growing risk that cyber threats pose to trading markets. Nadex stated that it “commends the Commission's undertaking of this endeavor,” that it agrees with the general thrust of the proposed rule, and that it appreciates the Commission's efforts to clarify and enhance the current system safeguards regulations, align requirements with industry standards, and ensure that registrants are meeting compliance thresholds. CFE noted its agreement with the NPRM's approach featuring principles-based testing standards deeply rooted in industry best practices. DDR commended the Commission for its efforts to strengthen system safeguards and cybersecurity testing, and called the proposed rules “constructive steps in addressing key issues.” Tradeweb stated that it strongly supports the principles-based testing standards in the NPRM. WMBAA said that it appreciates the Commission's efforts to clarify current system safeguards rule and cybersecurity testing requirements.
Many commenters also offered suggestions and recommendations for clarification or modification of specific NPRM provisions. These comments are addressed as appropriate in connection with the discussion below of the final rule provisions to which they relate. Certain comments requested further clarification relating to definitions provided in the NPRM. Any definitional changes in the final rule are provided for clarification only and do not impose new substantive obligations not included in the NPRM.
The NPRM included an Advanced Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“ANPRM”) concerning Commission consideration of whether to propose in a future NPRM that the most systemically important SEFs should be subject to the same minimum testing frequency and independent contractor testing requirements proposed in the NPRM for covered DCMs and SDRs.
The Commission received several comments concerning the ANPRM.
Tradeweb called for careful consideration by the Commission, in dialogue with the SEFs to whom any proposal would potentially apply, before issuance of an NPRM on this subject. Tradeweb suggested that, because the SEF market is still in an early stage of development and a covered SEF concept could have a disproportionate impact on the commercial viability of certain SEFs, both the definition of “covered SEF” and the potential costs and benefits involved would require further study and discussion with the industry. To that end, Tradeweb urged the Commission to convene a roundtable or working group of SEFs to discuss the nature and scope of any future SEF-specific system safeguards NPRM before moving forward with such a proposal. Tradeweb advised the Commission to consider the cross-border scope and impact of any future NPRM, and to solicit comment from international regulators either independently or as part of the suggested roundtable or working group.
Several commenters suggested that any future requirements proposed should apply to all SEFs. Tradeweb called for any future proposal to avoid putting certain SEFs at a competitive disadvantage, and to cover all SEFs rather than only systemically important SEFS. WMBAA recommended that the Commission decline to propose a “covered SEF” concept, arguing that: (1) SEF operations do not raise the same systemic concerns attendant on failure of major DCMs or DCOs; (2) products traded on SEFs are fungible across multiple platforms; (3) in the present early stage of the SEF market, individual SEFs could be “covered” one year but not the next, leading to uncertainty; and (4) the present unsettled nature of the SEF regulatory environment would make adoption of a “covered SEF” concept premature. CME called for the Commission to adopt the same risk based system safeguards requirements for all SEFs, leaving testing frequency to be determined by risk analysis, and avoiding an independent contractor testing requirement.
Tradeweb and WMBAA also suggested that the costs associated with imposition of “covered SEF” requirements could well exceed any benefits derived. However, no commenters offered specific information concerning possible costs.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments received concerning the ANPRM. The Commission agrees with the comments suggesting that further consideration and consultation with both the industry and other relevant regulators and stakeholders would be appropriate and helpful before issuance of any future NPRM regarding “covered SEFs.” The Commission also notes the current lack of specific cost and benefit information regarding this concept, and the current absence of a consensus on how “covered SEF” would be best defined in light of the characteristics of swaps and the swap market. Accordingly, the Commission will engage in appropriate consultation prior to determining whether to issue a future NPRM regarding “covered SEFs.”
As noted above, the NPRM proposed clarification of what is already required of all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs regarding the categories which their programs of risk analysis and oversight must address, by further defining the six categories addressed by the current rules.
The Commission received three comments on this topic. Two commenters, CME and DDR, concurred with the NPRM's addition of the category of enterprise risk analysis and governance to the list of categories that programs of risk analysis and oversight must address, and suggested clarifications in this respect. CME stated that it recognizes the importance of effective Board oversight, and asked the Commission to confirm that such oversight may appropriately be delegated to Board level committees. CME also asked the Commission to confirm that the final rule will allow regulated entities flexibility of organizational design concerning how their programs of risk analysis and oversight address the enterprise risk management and governance category, and will not require that an entity's enterprise risk management function conduct all components of this category. DDR agreed with the Commission that active supervision of system safeguards by both senior management and the Board of Directors promotes more efficient, effective, and reliable risk management, and will better position regulated entities to strengthen the integrity, resiliency, and availability of their automated systems. Noting its agreement that regulated entities should give their boards access to the appropriate system safeguards and cyber resiliency information so as to enable effective oversight, DDR suggested that the final rules should acknowledge that there are multiple ways a regulated entity can ensure that its board is appropriately informed. One commenter, MGEX, questioned why this NPRM proposed adding the category of enterprise risk management and governance, while the Commission's parallel Notice of Proposed Rulemaking addressed to DCOs did not, citing this as an inconsistency between the two NPRMs.
MGEX commented that the NPRM proposed a requirement for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to have a program of risk analysis and oversight, without defining such a program. MGEX also stated that the lists of topics specified in the NPRM as included in each category to be addressed in the required program of risk analysis and oversight were overly prescriptive, citing as an example the list of topics the NPRM specified as included in the category of information security. MGEX suggested that the specified categories should be principles-based and should look to evolving best practices.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning addition of the category of enterprise risk analysis and governance to the list of categories which must be addressed by the program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight which the CEA requires all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to establish and maintain. For the reasons set forth below, the Commission is adopting the list of categories as proposed.
The Commission continues to believe that addition of the category of enterprise risk analysis and governance is appropriate because this clarifies a requirement already implicit in the statutory mandate to maintain a program of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight.
The Commission agrees with the comments acknowledging the importance of effective Board of Directors oversight of system safeguards, which the Commission believes is essential to establishing and maintaining the top-down, organization-wide culture of adherence to cybersecurity principles that is required for resilience in today's cybersecurity threat environment. In addition, the Commission agrees with CME's comment that Board of Directors oversight of system safeguards may appropriately be delegated to a Board-level committee or committees, and with DDR's comment that there are a variety of ways in which a DCM, SEF, or SDR can ensure that its Board is sufficiently and appropriately informed to enable it to provide appropriate system safeguards and cybersecurity oversight. In the Commission's view, providing the Board with information sufficient to enable it to provide active, appropriate, knowledgeable, and effective oversight of system safeguards and cybersecurity is the key in this regard.
The Commission has also considered and evaluated MGEX's comment asserting that the NPRM proposed establishment of a requirement for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to have a program of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight, without defining such a program, and its comment concerning the lists of topics specified in the NPRM as included in each category to be addressed in the required program of risk analysis and oversight. The requirement for regulatees to have a program of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight was mandated by Congress in the CEA itself, and thus is required by law.
The Commission agrees with MGEX that the required categories of risk analysis and oversight should be principles-based, but disagrees that the NPRM lists of topics included in each category consist of static lists of controls. As set out in detail in the NPRM, each of the aspects cited in the NPRM for the various categories that the required program of risk analysis and oversight must address is rooted in generally accepted standards and best practices.
The NPRM retained the substance of the Commission's current system safeguards rule provision calling for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to adhere to generally accepted standards and best practices in their required programs of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight. The only change proposed in the NPRM was language adjustment to clarify that such adherence is mandatory for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs.
Several commenters, including CME, Nadex, DDR, Tradeweb, and WMBAA, agreed with the Commission that an entity's program of risk analysis and oversight should follow generally accepted standards and best practices. CME requested that the Commission confirm that generally accepted best practices not explicitly cited in the NPRM may also be used in this regard. CME also asked the Commission to confirm that the intent of this provision is that a regulated entity should take generally accepted best practices into account as it designs a program of risk analysis and oversight tailored to its risks and its appropriate analysis of those risks, rather than to codify particular best practices.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the requirement that a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's required program of risk analysis and oversight should follow generally accepted standards and best practices. For the reasons set forth below, the Commission is adopting this provision as proposed.
As CME asked the Commission to confirm, the best practices cited in the NPRM do not constitute an exclusive or codified list.
The Commission's current rules concerning the business continuity-disaster recovery (“BC-DR”) plans of DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs require that these entities maintain BC-DR plans and resources, emergency procedures, and backup facilities sufficient to enable timely recovery and resumption of their operations and fulfillment of their responsibilities and obligations as registrants, and specify recovery time. The NPRM proposed further alignment of these provisions with generally accepted standards and best practices by adding a requirement for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to update their BC-DR plans and emergency procedures at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually.
CME stated that it agreed with the Commission's proposal to require updating of BC-DR plans and emergency procedures at least annually and more frequently if necessitated by other circumstances.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comment concerning the frequency of updates to BC-DR plans and emergency procedures, with which it agrees. As noted above, updating such plans at a frequency determined by risk analysis but no less frequently than annually is supported by generally accepted standards and best practices. The Commission is adopting this provision as proposed.
As noted above, the Commission's current system safeguards rules for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs contain a provision addressing required production of system safeguards-related documents to the Commission on request.
Two commenters, CME and WMBAA, recognized the Commission's established authority to require production of records, but asked the Commission to continue to work with DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to find ways that highly sensitive system safeguards-related materials can be made available to Commission staff in ways that maximize protection of their confidentiality. WMBAA suggested that this could be accomplished in appropriate cases by having CFTC staff review highly sensitive information at a registrant's location or in a non-electronic, non-reproducible format.
ICE, suggested that, with respect to parent firms that own both CFTC-regulated and non-CFTC-regulated entities, the Commission should avoid requiring production of documents discussing risks at the firm-wide level, and limit its production requests to documents focused solely on the risks of CFTC-regulated entities. In contrast, WMBAA noted that a registrant's systems, such as SEF systems, are often a subset of a larger financial services company's systems, and share cybersecurity defenses, procedures, and testing with the parent entity as a whole, rather than standing alone with respect to cybersecurity. WMBAA suggested that it would be contrary to best practices for CFTC oversight to focus solely on the risks and cybersecurity protections of the CFTC-regulated entity's systems, without considering the related systems and protections of the parent entity.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the books and records provisions of the NPRM. For the reasons set forth below, the Commission is adopting these provisions as proposed.
The established requirements of the Commission's regulations regarding production of books and records are essential to the Commission's ability to fulfill its oversight responsibilities. The Commission also recognizes that the cybersecurity and system safeguards information of DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs can be sensitive. As noted by commenters, Commission staff conducting cybersecurity oversight work regularly with regulated entities to find ways for sensitive cybersecurity information to be made available to the Commission while minimizing the risk of inappropriate disclosure.
The Commission has also considered and evaluated the comments concerning production of books and records that address the system safeguards risks and cybersecurity protections of parent companies. The Commission agrees with WMBAA's observation that the automated systems, programs of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight, cybersecurity defenses and testing, and BC-DR plans and resources of CFTC-regulated DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs owned by parent financial sector companies that also own entities not regulated by the Commission are frequently shared across the parent company. Indeed, this is presently the case with respect to the parent companies of all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs regulated by the Commission which are subsidiaries of a parent company. The Commission disagrees with ICE's suggestion that production of books and records addressing parent-wide system safeguards risks and risk analysis and oversight programs should not be required. Production of all of the books and records specified in the NPRM books and records provision is already required by the Act and Commission regulations, notably by Commission regulation § 1.31.
The provisions of the NPRM addressing automated system testing by DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs retained the language of the Commission's current rules requiring these entities to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing and review of their automated systems to ensure their reliability, security, and adequate scalable capacity.
For the purposes of the testing sections of the Commission's system safeguards rules, the NPRM defined the following terms relating to system safeguards testing and assessment by DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs: Controls; controls testing; enterprise technology risk assessment; external penetration testing; internal penetration testing; key controls; security incident; security incident response plan; security incident response plan testing; and vulnerability testing. With respect to testing by DCMs, the NPRM also defined the following term: Covered designated contract market.
Five commenters, CME, ICE, MGEX, DDR, and WMBAA, provided comments concerning some of the definitions proposed in the NPRM.
(1) External and internal penetration testing.
ICE recommended that the definitions of external and internal penetration testing specify that such testing should include scenario or capture-the-flag testing intended to compromise the system holistically via all available means including technical exploit, social engineering, and lateral traversal. ICE also suggested that the Commission clarify that penetration testing is not intended to include application-specific tests, and recommended that the final rule should avoid specifying parameters for internal penetration testing, in order to allow each regulated entity to determine its own testing methodology. Tradeweb suggested that external penetration testing should be defined to mean penetration testing conducted over the internet. WMBAA suggested that the final rule should not focus on testing from a SEF system's perimeter, but should focus on all the systems supporting the SEF's functionality, whether those of the SEF itself or of its parent company.
As part of its recommendation that the final rule eliminate all requirements for controls testing (addressed in the discussion of controls testing below), ICE recommended that the final rule should remove the proposed definitions of controls and key controls.
MGEX commented that the definitional distinction between covered and non-covered DCMs is a valuable concept that recognizes the lower systemic risk posed by smaller entities.
The NPRM defined “security incident” as a cyber security or physical security event that actually or potentially jeopardizes automated system operation, reliability, security, or capacity, or the availability, confidentiality, or integrity of data. No comments were received concerning the NPRM definition. However, the Commission received a comment from the Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”) concerning the identical definition included in the parallel Notice of Proposed Rulemaking issued by the Commission on December 15, 2015, proposing to amend its system safeguards rules for DCOs.
Some comments also addressed terms that were used but not defined in the NPRM. Although the NPRM did not define the terms “recovery” or “resumption,” DDR commented that, in its view, the NPRM distinguished between resumption of critical functions following a cyber incident on the one hand, and recovery in the sense of restoration of capabilities or services impaired due to a cyber event. Noting that this distinction is consistent with the definitions of these terms in the CMPI-IOSCO Guidance on Cyber Resilience for Financial Market Infrastructures—Consultative Report of November 24, 2015,
CME, ICE, and MGEX commented concerning the NPRM's use of the terms “independent contractor” and “independent professional.” CME asserted that neither term is clearly defined in either the Commission's current rules or the NPRM. ICE called on the Commission to clarify in the final rule that entity employee groups such as the internal audit function are considered to be independent professionals not responsible for the development of operation of the systems or capabilities tested or assessed in the area of system safeguards. While not commenting directly on these definitions, MGEX expressed the view that having independent testing performed is a key and costly feature proposed in the NPRM.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the definitions proposed in the NPRM. For the reasons discussed below, the final rule will amend the definition of security incident, and otherwise retain the definitions as proposed.
The Commission agrees with ICE's suggestion that penetration testing that attempts to compromise an entity's systems holistically through means including technical exploit, social engineering, and lateral traversal is appropriate to today's cybersecurity threat environment. The Commission also agrees with ICE's recommendation that the final rule should avoid specifying particular internal penetration testing parameters in order to give DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs flexibility in determining their particular methodology for such testing, and believes that approach is also appropriate regarding external penetration testing. Best practices indicate that with respect to penetration testing, entities should regularly “update the list of attack techniques and exploitable vulnerabilities used in penetration testing based on an organizational assessment of risk or when significant new vulnerabilities or threats are identified and reported.”
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments for and against the NPRM's definitional distinction between covered and non-covered DCMs. The Commission continues to believe that the NPRM's proposed requirements regarding the minimum frequencies at which various types of cybersecurity testing should be conducted and regarding the use of independent contractors to perform specified tests are important and appropriate in today's cybersecurity threat environment. As noted in the NPRM, these requirements aim to strengthen the objectivity and reliability of the testing and assessment information available to the Commission regarding system safeguards, and to ensure the effectiveness and timeliness of both cybersecurity testing and programs of risk analysis and oversight.
The Commission declines CME's suggestion that it rely on DCM volume reports submitted pursuant to part 16 of the Commission's regulations. The Commission notes that while it receives daily trade information from DCMs pursuant to part 16, it does not receive total annual trading volume information from DCMs.
The Commission has considered and evaluated OCC's comment concerning the definition of “security incident” included in the Commission's parallel NPRM proposing amendment of its system safeguards rules for DCOs. The Commission is amending the definition as the comment suggested, defining security incident as a cyber security or physical security event that “actually jeopardizes or has a significant likelihood of jeopardizing” automated systems or data. The definition included in the DCO NPRM is identical to the one included in the NPRM regarding DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. The Commission issued the two NPRMs simultaneously and in parallel, and intended that the final rules issued in connection with both NPRMs should be closely aligned. Accordingly, the Commission believes the comment received is germane to both final rules. The Commission also notes that the amendment of this definition does not expand the definition's reach but rather narrows it somewhat, and therefore lightens any costs or burdens involved to at least some degree.
With respect to DDR's comment regarding the terms “recovery” and “resumption,” the Commission notes that the NPRM did not, and the final rule will not, define these terms or make any change to the language or the requirements of the Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, or SDRs regarding recovery and resumption of operations and fulfillment of responsibilities and obligations as a registered entity.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the various comments concerning the terms “independent contractor” and “independent professional” used in the NPRM.
Accordingly, for purposes of the current system safeguards rules, independent contractors are qualified system safeguards professionals who are not employees of the DCM, SEF, or SDR. The current rules use the terms independent contractor and employee as they are legally defined and generally used.
With respect to system safeguards testing, the current rules provide that employees conducting required testing must be independent in that they are not employees responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested. The Commission believes that this distinction between employees with sufficient independence to appropriately conduct required system safeguards testing and those who lack such independence is also sufficiently clear, and does not require additional definition. The NPRM used, and the final rule will retain, this language from the current system safeguards rules. Where this requirement is included, the testing in question must be conducted by employees who are independent, which means employees not responsible for developing or operating what is being tested.
One clarification may be helpful with respect to testing required to be performed by independent contractors, as distinct from testing performed by persons performing the internal audit function. As noted above, the internal audit function is a required aspect of the enterprise risk management and governance category which must be included in the program of risk analysis and oversight that a DCM, SEF, or SDR must maintain. It is an integral part of, and a responsibility of, the regulated entity, whether carried out in-house or outsourced. The NPRM proposed required testing by independent contractors in part to give the Commission's system safeguards oversight a third source of system safeguards information on which to rely, in addition to the entity's employees and its internal audit function.
The NPRM called for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct vulnerability testing of a scope sufficient to satisfy the requirements in the proposed rule.
Several commenters, including CME, ICE, and Nadex, agreed that the NPRM's call for vulnerability testing was appropriate, because such testing is critical to identification and remediation of cybersecurity vulnerabilities. CME stated that vulnerability testing, of a scope aligned with risk analysis, should be embedded in an organization's systems development life cycle, in order to promote a culture of awareness as early and close to the first line of defense as possible.
Commenters, including CME and ICE, supported the minimum quarterly vulnerability testing frequency requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs. CME noted that at least quarterly testing is likely to be an appropriate frequency for most organizations where critical assets are concerned. Regarding the requirement to test as often as indicated by appropriate risk analysis, CME agreed that vulnerability testing frequency should be aligned with appropriate risk analysis. MGEX called for the final rule to leave the frequency of vulnerability testing to be determined by regulatees. ICE argued that regulatees should not be subject to a formal risk assessment to potentially determine a higher vulnerability testing frequency. Nadex asked the Commission to confirm that the level of detail in the risk assessment used to determine appropriate vulnerability testing frequency is that called for by generally accepted standards and best practices.
Commenters raised no issue with the NPRM requirement for vulnerability testing to include automated vulnerability scanning. ICE called for removal of the requirement for automated scanning to include authenticated scanning, arguing that this requirement would increase the cost and time of a scan, increase risk through creation of an operating system login on a new system, and have limited utility in the context of financial system infrastructure.
A number of commenters argued that the use of independent contractors for vulnerability testing could undesirably increase risks. CME suggested that outsider access to systems can broaden both operations risk and the risk of disclosure of sensitive information, and noted that there is a limited supply of independent contractors with appropriate qualifications for vulnerability testing. ICE commented that vulnerability scanners can be hazardous to systems, can cause issues during deployment, and require a high level of care to avoid live system jeopardy, including both intimate network knowledge and change control interaction. In short, ICE stated, third-party vulnerability scanning would be costly and potentially dangerous without adding value. DDR stated that vulnerability testing by independent contractors would introduce unnecessary risk to critical infrastructure and heighten the risk of systems outages. These commenters therefore requested that the final rule eliminate the independent contractor requirement for vulnerability testing, and permit such testing to be conducted by entity employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested. CME suggested that allowing such employees to conduct vulnerability testing has been proven effective, allows testing by those with the greatest knowledge and experience concerning the systems tested, and has the benefit of promoting an organizational culture of cybersecurity awareness. DDR recommended that SDR employees conduct vulnerability testing, and that independent contractors review testing procedures to confirm that they are effective and consonant with industry standards.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning vulnerability testing. For the reasons set out below, the final rule will call for vulnerability testing and include the proposed vulnerability testing frequency requirements, but will not require that automated vulnerability scanning include authenticated scanning, and will not require the use of independent contractors as proposed.
The Commission agrees with commenters that vulnerability testing is critical to identification and remediation of cybersecurity vulnerabilities. It is an essential component of an effective program of risk analysis and oversight, and an essential means of fulfilling the testing requirements of the Commission's current system safeguards rules.
The Commission agrees with the comments supporting the minimum quarterly vulnerability testing requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs, and agrees that, in today's cybersecurity environment, most organizations should conduct such testing at least quarterly. The Commission also agrees that, beyond the minimum frequency proposed for covered DCMs and SDRs, all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs should conduct vulnerability testing as frequently as indicated by appropriate risk analysis. The Commission disagrees with the suggestion that the frequency of vulnerability testing should simply be left to these entities themselves. It is essential for such testing to be conducted as frequently as indicated by analysis of a particular entity's risks, which is likely in most cases to call for testing at least quarterly. The risk analysis referred to in the NPRM in this connection is the appropriate risk analysis which each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct and maintain as an integral part of the program of risk analysis and oversight that the CEA requires. ICE apparently misunderstood the NPRM as calling for a separate, formal risk analysis made for the specific purpose of determining vulnerability testing frequency. That is not required; what is required is vulnerability testing as often as indicated by the ongoing, appropriate risk analysis inherent in a regulatee's required program of risk analysis and oversight. As provided in the current system safeguards rules and in the NPRM, the program of risk analysis required of a DCM, SEF, or SDR, and the risk analyses inherent in that program, are indeed to be conducted in light of generally accepted standards and best practices.
No commenters disagreed with the proposed requirement for vulnerability testing to include automated
The Commission has carefully considered the multiple comments suggesting that use of independent contractors for vulnerability testing could undesirably increase risks, raise hazards for automated systems, and increase costs and dangers without adding value. The Commission has also noted the comment that vulnerability testing conducted by employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested has been proven effective, provides expertise valuable in vulnerability testing, and promotes an organizational culture of cybersecurity awareness. For these reasons, and in order to reduce costs and burdens to the extent practicable while still achieving the purposes of the CEA and of the NPRM, the final rule does not include the proposed requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs to have some vulnerability testing conducted by independent contractors. Instead, the final rule permits all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct all required vulnerability testing by using either independent contractors or entity employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested. The Commission acknowledges the value of DDR's recommendation that independent contractors evaluate the effectiveness of the regulatee's vulnerability testing procedures and their consistency with best practices. While the final rule's vulnerability testing provisions will not incorporate such a requirement, the Commission observes that such independent validation of vulnerability testing procedures should likely be included as part of a regulatee's controls testing program.
The NPRM called for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct external penetration testing of a scope sufficient to satisfy the requirements in the proposed rule.
Commenters raised no issue with the NPRM's call for external penetration testing. CME noted that penetration testing is a significant component of the program to identify and minimize sources of operational risk required of all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. CME also approved the flexibility concerning penetration test design provided in the NPRM. Nadex noted its agreement with the NPRM's penetration testing requirement.
Commenters also raised no issue with the requirement for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct external penetration testing at a frequency determined by appropriate risk analysis. CME noted that many risk based factors should inform the frequency of such testing. Several commenters also supported the annual minimum frequency requirement for external penetration testing by covered DCMs and SDRs. CME stated that annual external penetration testing generally will be appropriate, ICE stated that it agrees with the annual requirement, and Nadex agreed with the NPRM's penetration testing requirements. MGEX called for the final rule to leave the frequency of external penetration testing to be determined by regulatees. ICE argued that regulatees should not be subject to a formal risk assessment to potentially determine a higher penetration testing frequency.
Most commenters raised no issue with the requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs to have the required annual external penetration test conducted by independent contractors. DDR commented generally that an SDR should have flexibility regarding whether to have testing conducted by independent contractors or employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested, based on the risks of that SDR.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning external penetration testing. For the reasons discussed below, the final rule will include the NPRM provisions regarding such testing as proposed.
The Commission agrees with commenters that external penetration testing is a significant and essential component of an effective program of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight. Such testing is an essential means of fulfilling the testing requirement in the Commission's current system safeguards rules.
The Commission agrees with the comment that many risk based factors should inform the frequency of external penetration testing, and notes that this is true for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. The Commission also agrees with the comments supporting the minimum frequency requirement of annual external penetration testing by covered DCMs and SDRs. As noted in the NPRM, this requirement is supported by generally accepted standards and best practices, which make it clear that such testing at least annually is essential to adequate system safeguards in today's cybersecurity environment. For this reason, the Commission disagrees with the suggestion that the frequency of such testing by covered DCMs and SDRs should be left to determination by those entities themselves. The proposal's minimum requirement was for a single
In determining the final rule's provisions regarding external penetration testing by independent contractors, the Commission has noted that, as set forth above, most commenters raised no issue with this requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs. As noted in the NPRM, generally accepted standards and best practices make it clear that independent testing by third party service providers is an essential component of an adequate testing regime, and that this is notably the case with respect to penetration testing.
The NPRM called for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct internal penetration testing of a scope sufficient to satisfy the requirements in the proposed rule.
Commenters raised no issue with the NPRM's call for internal penetration testing. As noted above concerning external penetration testing, CME noted that penetration testing generally is a significant component of the program to identify and minimize sources of operational risk required of all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, and approved the flexibility concerning penetration test design provided in the NPRM. Also as noted above, Nadex stated its agreement with the NPRM's penetration testing requirements.
Commenters also raised no issue with the requirement for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by appropriate risk analysis. As noted above, CME stated that many risk based factors should inform the frequency of penetration testing generally. With respect to the requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct internal penetration testing at least annually, ICE stated agreement with the proposal. Nadex agreed with the proposed penetration testing requirements generally. On the basis that that there is a scarcity of potential employees with the skill set required to conduct internal penetration testing without introducing risks into the production environment and other sensitive environments, CME suggested making annual internal penetration testing an objective rather than a requirement, so that covered DCMs and SDRs can prioritize truly effective testing over less skilled testing done merely to satisfy the annual requirement. As noted above, MGEX called for the final rule to leave the frequency of penetration testing to be determined by regulatees. ICE argued that regulatees should not be subject to a formal risk assessment to potentially determine a higher penetration testing frequency.
Commenters raised no issue with the NPRM provision giving all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs the choice of whether to have internal penetration testing performed by independent contractors or by employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning internal penetration testing. For the reasons discussed below, the final rule will include the NPRM's internal penetration testing provisions as proposed.
The Commission agrees with commenters that external penetration testing is a significant and essential component of an effective program of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight. Such testing is an essential means of fulfilling the testing requirement in the Commission's current system safeguards rules.
The Commission agrees with the comment that many risk based factors should inform the frequency of internal penetration testing, and notes that this is true for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. It also agrees with the comments supporting the minimum frequency requirement of annual internal penetration testing by covered DCMs and SDRs. As noted in the NPRM, this requirement, like the parallel requirement regarding external penetration testing, is supported by generally accepted standards and best practices, which make it clear that such testing at least annually is essential to adequate system safeguards in today's cybersecurity environment.
The Commission continues to believe, as provided in the NPRM, that it is appropriate to give all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs the choice of whether to have internal penetration testing performed by independent contractors or by employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested.
The NPRM called for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to conduct controls testing of a scope sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in the proposed rule, including testing of each control included in the entity's program of risk analysis and oversight.
CME and Nadex approved of the NPRM's call for controls testing. CME stated that the NPRM correctly identified controls testing as a crucial part of a program of risk analysis and oversight, and agreed with the categories which the current rules and the NPRM specify as included in such a program. CME also agreed with the NPRM's flexible approach to using best practices to inform the design and implementation of controls testing in light of risk analysis. ICE called for the final rule to eliminate the requirement for controls testing, arguing that many controls do not require testing, that few organizations have a static universe of controls, and that control weaknesses will come to light in vulnerability and penetration testing. Tradeweb asked the Commission to provide further guidance on how controls testing differs from vulnerability testing, whether Service Organization Controls (“SOC”) 1 and 2 reports prepared in accordance with the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants' Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements (“SSAE”) Number 16 could be used for controls testing purposes, and whether penetrations tests could be used to fulfill controls testing requirements.
Regarding the minimum controls testing frequency of every two years proposed for covered DCMs and SDRs, CME commented that some less critical controls do not warrant testing on a two-year cycle, and cited best practices permitting controls testing on a three-year cycle. CME suggested that the final rule should call for the minimum controls testing frequency for covered DCMs and SDRs to be determined by risk analysis (as the NPRM proposed for non-covered DCMs and SEFs), or alternatively that a minimum frequency cycle of three years would be a reasonable alternative to the NPRM's proposed two-year cycle. CME suggested that, while many organizations will implement a two-year schedule for at least the testing of key controls, either of CME's proposed alternatives would make controls testing more cost effective, and increase focus on the most critical controls.
CME commented that effective testing of key controls can be done by employees not responsible for development or operation of the controls tested, as well as by independent contractors, and that such independent employees' familiarity with the organization's controls can improve the efficiency and effectiveness of controls testing. Accordingly, CME suggested that, while independent contractor controls testing may be beneficial, the final rule should not exclude controls testing by independent employees, for example employees such as internal audit staff. DDR also commented that, where the NPRM proposed to require independent contractor testing, the final rule should give flexibility to use either independent contractors or independent employees. ICE suggested that the final rule should not require key controls testing at all. In support, ICE argued that the concept of key controls is not universally adopted; that risk analysis relies on testing of all controls in concert; that a testing requirement directed at key controls could result in organizations documenting fewer controls; and that the key controls testing proposal would impose a large burden for little or no practical improvement in security. MGEX stated that the NPRM required testing of all controls on a rolling basis by independent contractors every two years.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning controls testing. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission is adopting the NPRM's requirement for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct testing of all their system safeguards-related controls, its requirement for such testing by all such entities to be conducted as often as indicated by appropriate risk analysis, and its requirement for independent contractor testing of the key controls of covered DCMs and SDRs. However, for the reasons discussed below concerning controls testing frequency, the Commission is modifying the proposed controls testing minimum frequency requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs, to call for testing of their key controls—including independent contractor testing of such controls—within a three-year rather than a two-year period.
The Commission agrees with commenters that controls testing is a crucial part of a program of risk analysis and oversight and that best practices should inform the design and implementation of controls testing in light of risk analysis. In today's rapidly-changing cybersecurity threat environment, regular, ongoing controls testing that verifies over time the effectiveness of each system safeguards control used by a DCM, SEF, or SDR is essential to ensuring the continuing overall efficacy of the entity's system safeguards. The Commission disagrees with the suggestion that the final rule should not require any controls testing. As noted in the NPRM, generally accepted standards and best practices call for such testing.
The Commission has noted the best practices cited by CME supporting controls testing on a three-year cycle. After due consideration, the Commission agrees that a three-year rather than two-year minimum controls testing frequency requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs may reduce costs and burdens, while providing beneficial flexibility in overall controls testing program design and still ensuring that the fundamental purposes of the CEA and the Commission's system safeguards rules are achieved. The NPRM called for covered DCMs and SDRs, as well as non-covered DCMs and SEFs, to conduct controls testing as frequently as appropriate risk analysis requires.
The Commission agrees with the comments noting that testing of key controls by both independent contractors and employees not responsible for development or operation of the controls tested can be valuable and effective. As noted in the NPRM, best practices recognize the value of, and recommend, both such approaches.
The NPRM called for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to conduct security incident response plan (“SIRP”) testing of a scope sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in the proposed rule.
Several commenters agreed with the NPRM's call for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to maintain and test a SIRP meeting the requirements in the proposal. CME called SIRPs an important tool for all entities in their efforts to be ready to face inevitable cyber attacks. CME noted its appreciation for the proposal's flexibility for entities to design their SIRP testing in light of their risk analysis, and for the proposal's approval of coordination of SIRP testing with other types of testing. ICE and Nadex also stated support for the NPRM's SIRP testing provision. However, while Tradeweb stated that having a SIRP is essential to the functioning of a SEF, it argued that the SIRP testing requirement should be reduced to annual review and approval of the SIRP by a SEF employee responsible for information security.
No commenters expressed disagreement with the proposed requirement for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct SIRP testing as often as indicated by appropriate risk analysis. Regarding the proposed requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs to test their SIRPs once a year at a minimum, CME commented that at least annual SIRP testing is appropriate in today's cybersecurity environment.
No commenters expressed disagreement with the proposed general requirement giving DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs the choice of whether to have SIRP testing conducted by independent contractors or employees. However, CME suggested that the final rule should permit SIRP testing to be led by an independent employee who is not responsible for development or operation of what is tested but who is responsible for design of the SIRP itself. CME stated that this would allow the entity to leverage its employees with expertise in crisis and risk management and in incident response and planning, for both planning and testing purposes, in a way that is optimal for the entity's system safeguards.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning SIRP testing. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission is adopting the proposed requirements for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to maintain a SIRP (as defined and described) and test it as often as indicated by appropriate risk analysis, and the proposed requirement for each covered DCM and SDR to conduct SIRP testing at least annually. It is modifying the proposed provisions regarding who may conduct SIRP testing, to permit testing to be led or conducted either by independent contractors or by any entity employee.
The Commission agrees with commenters that maintaining and testing a SIRP is important for effective system safeguards in today's cybersecurity environment. The Commission confirms that the proposed SIRP testing requirement is indeed intended to give DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs flexibility concerning the format and design of their SIRP testing, and concerning its coordination with other types of testing, so long as the entity's SIRP testing is consonant with appropriate risk analysis and enables fulfillment of the proposed scope requirements. The Commission disagrees with the suggestion that the requirement to test the SIRP should be reduced to mere annual review and approval of the SIRP by an employee responsible for information security. As noted in the NPRM, best practices emphasize that SIRP testing is crucial to effective cyber incident response in today's cybersecurity environment.
The Commission notes that no commenters disagreed with the requirement to conduct SIRP testing as often as indicated by appropriate risk analysis, and agrees with the comment that at least annual SIRP testing is appropriate for covered DCMs and SDRs in today's cybersecurity environment.
The Commission has considered the suggestion that allowing SIRP testing to be led by an employee responsible for design of the SIRP itself could improve system safeguards in general and SIRP testing in particular. The Commission believes that this could provide useful benefits and flexibility to DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, without impairing the purposes of the CEA and the Commission's regulations which SIRP testing is designed to advance. In addition, SIRP testing differs from the other types of testing specified in the final rule, in that what is tested is not automated systems but the security incident response plan itself, or in other words what people do if a security incident happens. Accordingly, the final rule calls for SIRP testing by all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to be conducted by either independent contractors or employees, without restricting which employees may lead or conduct the testing.
The NPRM called for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to conduct enterprise technology risk assessment (“ETRA”) of a scope sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in the proposed rule.
CME agreed that regular risk assessments should drive ongoing efforts to address cyber risks. Nadex stated its general agreement with the proposed ETRA requirement. ICE argued that the ETRA requirement is already adequately addressed by current Commission rules, and called for omission of the ETRA requirement in the final rule. ICE also argued that the proposed ETRA requirement is not cyber-specific and does not focus on the confidentiality, availability, or integrity of data. Tradeweb agreed that assessment of technology risks is essential, but argued that the ETRA requirement is duplicative of the other proposed testing requirements.
CME suggested that ETRAs would benefit from incorporating the results of controls testing and other testing, and suggested that it would be beneficial and less costly to align the requirement for completing an ETRA with the applicable frequency requirement for controls testing. Nadex requested clarification of whether the ETRA could incorporate the results of other required
No commenters expressed disagreement with the NPRM provision calling for ETRAs to be conducted by either independent contractors or employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities assessed. ICE suggested that ETRAs should be carried out by enterprise risk program staff rather than information security staff.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning ETRAs. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission is adopting the proposed requirements, but is adding a provision in the final rule stating that a DCM, SEF, or SDR that has conducted an enterprise technology risk assessment as required may conduct subsequent assessments by updating the previous assessment.
The Commission agrees with the comment that regular risk assessments should drive ongoing efforts to address cyber risks. The Commission continues to believe that conducting regular ETRAs is essential to meeting the testing requirements of its current system safeguards rules and maintaining system safeguards resiliency in today's cybersecurity environment. Regular, ongoing identification, estimation, and prioritization of risks that could result from impairment of the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data and information or the reliability, security, and capacity of automated systems is crucial to effective system safeguards. As noted in the NPRM, regular performance of ETRAs is a well-established best practice.
While the Commission agrees that the results of other types of testing can usefully inform ETRAs, the Commission believes that, as best practices provide, regularly updated ETRAs are crucial to the effectiveness of system safeguards in today's rapidly changing cybersecurity environment. The Commission therefore does not accept the suggestion that ETRAs should only be required as often as a complete cycle of controls testing is completed, not least because the final rule is adopting the suggestion to lengthen that cycle to three rather than two years. The Commission reiterates that the results of other required forms of system safeguards testing can and should be incorporated in ETRAs, and in turn should be informed and driven by ETRAs. Because ETRAs that provide current assessment of current risks are essential to effective programs of system safeguards risk analysis and oversight, as discussed above, the Commission disagrees with the suggestion that annual review and reapproval of previous assessments would be sufficient. However, the Commission believes that thorough updating of a previous assessment conducted in compliance with the ETRA requirements set out in the NPRM can be sufficient to fulfill the purposes of an appropriate ETRA, and can reduce costs and burdens without impairment of the purposes of the CEA and the system safeguards rules. Accordingly the final rule clarifies that such updating of a previous fully compliant ETRA, in light of current risks and circumstances, can fulfill the ETRA requirement. The Commission emphasizes that best practices require all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to conduct risk assessment and monitoring on an ongoing basis, as frequently as the entity's risks and circumstances require. The final rule requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs to prepare a written assessment on at least an annual basis does not eliminate the need for a covered DCM or SDR to conduct risk assessment and monitoring on an ongoing basis, as best practices require. Rather, the minimum frequency requirement is intended to formalize the risk assessment process and ensure that it is documented at a minimum frequency.
The NPRM's call for ETRAs to be conducted by either independent contractors or employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities assessed drew no objections from commenters. The Commission also notes that the NPRM did not prescribe whether enterprise risk program staff, information security staff, or both should conduct ETRAs, but deliberately left flexibility to DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs in this regard, so long as the employees conducting the ETRA have the independence specified.
The NPRM called for the scope of all system safeguards testing and assessment to be broad enough to include all testing of automated systems and controls necessary to identify any vulnerability which, if triggered, could enable an intruder or unauthorized user to take any of a number of undesirable actions.
A number of commenters suggested that the scope provisions of the NPRM were overbroad, and that the proposed requirement to perform “all” testing necessary to identify “any” vulnerability was impossible to achieve in practice. CME argued that it is infeasible to conduct testing to identify
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the testing scope provision of the NPRM.
The Commission does not intend the scope provision of the testing rule to create any sort of strict liability standard with respect to system safeguards testing. On the contrary, the Commission recognizes that in today's cybersecurity environment no entity can be expected to be immune from cyber intrusions. As noted in the NPRM, one fundamental goal of the Commission's system safeguards and cybersecurity testing rules is enhancing regulatees' ability to detect, contain, respond to, and recover from cyber intrusion when they happen.
The Commission also recognizes that no program of cybersecurity testing can be expected to detect every possible vulnerability or avenue of intrusion. Here, too, the touchstone is what system safeguards testing a reasonable and prudent DCM, SEF, or SDR would conduct in light of generally accepted standards and best practices, and in light of informed risk analysis appropriate to the circumstances and risks faced by the DCM, SEF or SDR in question. The Commission evaluates, and will continue to evaluate, system safeguards testing in that light.
Given today's rapidly changing cyber threat environment and the resulting continuous evolution of generally accepted standards and best practices with respect to system safeguards, the Commission does not believe it would be appropriate to label compliance with any one source of best practices as written at a particular point in time as a “safe harbor” with respect to system safeguards compliance. The Commission believes that the appropriate way to address the concerns underlying the comments seeking designation of such safe harbors is the standard discussed above: Reasonable and prudent system safeguards testing in light of generally accepted standards and best practices, and in light of informed risk analysis appropriate to the circumstances and risks faced by the DCM, SEF or SDR in question.
The Commission disagrees with the comment asking confirmation that the current cybersecurity threat analysis a DCM, SEF, or SDR should consider in designing its system safeguards testing is limited to the organization's internal risk assessments. As noted in the NPRM, a DCM, SEF, or SDR acting as a reasonable and prudent regulatee would act in light of best practices and the current cybersecurity threat environment should obtain and consider threat analysis available from outside sources in addition to conducting its own threat analysis.
For those reasons, the Commission agrees with the comments suggesting that the scope provisions of the final rule should call for testing scope to be based on appropriate risk and threat analysis. In order to provide the clarity requested by commenters, the final rule calls for the scope of system safeguards testing to include the testing that the regulatee's program of risk analysis and oversight and its current cybersecurity threat analysis indicate is necessary to identify risks and vulnerabilities that could enable the deleterious actions by intruders or unauthorized users listed in the scope provisions of the proposed rules. The Commission agrees with the comments suggesting that this approach will avoid imposing undue burdens and costs, while supporting the purposes of the CEA and the Commission's system safeguards rule.
The NPRM called for DCM, SEF, and SDR senior management and boards of directors to receive and review reports setting forth the results of the testing and assessment required by the system safeguards rules.
Several commenters agreed with the NPRM's call for oversight of system safeguards and cybersecurity by boards of directors and senior management. CME and MGEX recognized the importance of effective board oversight and the need to keep the board and senior management up to date in this regard. DDR said it agreed with the Commission that active board and senior management supervision of system safeguards promotes more efficient, effective, and reliable risk management. However, ICE argued that internal reporting and review of test results should be limited to reports to senior management, and that boards of directors should not be required to review even high-level, high-priority test findings, but instead should only be apprised of enterprise-level high risk issues when identified thresholds (unspecified by ICE) are crossed.
Commenters requested clarification concerning what level of detail the NPRM called for boards and senior management to review in terms of test results. ICE, MGEX, and Nadex noted that test result reports can be voluminous, technical, and complex, and that requiring boards and senior management to review each such document could produce an undue burden without commensurate benefits. MGEX and Nadex therefore asked the Commission to clarify in the final rule that what is required is board and management review of appropriate summaries and compilations of test and assessment results. DDR suggested it should be the regulatee's responsibility to provide the board and senior management with the level of test result information appropriate for enabling their effective oversight of system safeguards. DDR asked the Commission to confirm in the final rule that there are multiple ways this can be done. Nadex also asked the Commission to clarify that board consideration of test results in the course of regularly scheduled meetings would be an acceptable way of fulfilling this requirement.
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the internal reporting and review provision of the NPRM.
The Commission agrees with the comments recognizing the importance of effective board of directors and senior management of system safeguards, and the resulting need to keep the board and senior management informed appropriately concerning the results of cybersecurity testing and assessment. In today's cybersecurity threat environment, active board and senior management supervision of system safeguards is essential to the enterprise-wide, effective risk management that the CEA and Commission regulations require of DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. Such active supervision would be impossible if board members and senior managers were not appropriately apprised of the results of cybersecurity testing and assessment, and thus lacked an essential level of knowledge of the organization's system safeguards risks. As noted in the NPRM, generally accepted standards and best practices emphasize the importance of board and senior management oversight of cybersecurity, and make it clear that the absence of proactive board and senior management involvement in cybersecurity can make regulatees more vulnerable to successful cyber attacks.
The Commission also agrees with the comments suggesting that test result reports can be voluminous, technical, and complex, and that effective board of directors and senior management oversight of system safeguards does not require board or senior management review of every detail of each such report. The Commission further agrees with the comments suggesting that DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs should provide their boards and senior management with a level of test result information that enables their effective, knowledgeable oversight of cybersecurity and system safeguards in light of the risks faced by their organizations. While the internal reporting and review provision of the final rule requires that the board receive and review test results, it does not prevent an organization from including additional, clarifying documents, such as executive summaries or compilations, with the required reports. Board and senior management review of appropriate summaries and compilations of test and assessment results can be an effective and acceptable way of fulfilling the internal reporting and review requirement, provided that such summaries give board members and senior management sufficiently detailed information to enable them to conduct effective and informed oversight. The appropriate level of information should also enable boards and senior management to fulfill this provision's requirement for them to evaluate the overall effectiveness of testing and assessment protocols, and direct and oversee appropriate remediation of issues identified through their review of test results. As noted in the NPRM, best practices call for boards and senior management to review the overall effectiveness of the testing program.
The NPRM called for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to analyze the results of the testing and assessment required by the system safeguards rules in order to identify all vulnerabilities and deficiencies in its systems.
Nadex and Tradeweb suggested that the proposed requirement to identify and remediate “all” vulnerabilities and deficiencies in a regulatee's systems was impossible to achieve in practice. Nadex observed that other discussion in the NPRM indicated Commission intent to
The Commission has considered and evaluated the comments concerning the remediation provision of the NPRM. For the reasons discussed below, the Commission is modifying the remediation provision in the final rule require DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to: (1) Identify and document the vulnerabilities and deficiencies revealed by the testing called for in the system safeguards rules; and (2) conduct and document an appropriate analysis of the risks presented, in order to determine and document whether to remediate or accept each such risk. The Commission is adopting the requirement for the entity to remediate such risks in a timely manner in light of appropriate risk analysis as proposed.
The Commission agrees with commenters that a requirement calling for a DCM, SEF, or SDR to remediate all vulnerabilities and deficiencies could be read as overbroad and impossible in practice. As suggested in a comment, the intent of the NPRM remediation provision was in fact to require remediation of the vulnerabilities and deficiencies disclosed through the regulatee's program of risk analysis and oversight, which includes testing of appropriate scope. In response to the comments received, the Commission is narrowing the remediation requirement to address remediation or acceptance of the vulnerabilities and deficiencies of which the entity is aware or through an appropriate program of risk analysis and oversight should be aware, rather than the remediation of all vulnerabilities and deficiencies. This revision is being made to reduce burdens and costs to the extent possible without impairing the purposes of the CEA and the Commission's system safeguards regulations. Best practices call for organizations to conduct appropriate risk analysis with respect to vulnerabilities and deficiencies disclosed by testing, in order to determine whether to remediate or accept the risks presented.
The Commission is aware that appropriate and effective remediation following a cyber attack often must proceed over a reasonable period of time, determined by the nature of the intrusion and the mitigation steps needed, and it takes this fact into account in determining whether remediation is timely. The Commission does not believe it is practicable to codify specific periods of time as constituting timely remediation, since what is timely and appropriate depends on the particular circumstances and risks involved in a given situation.
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”) requires federal agencies, in promulgating rules, to consider the impact of those rules on small entities.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”)
As discussed below, the final rules contain provisions that qualify as collections of information, for which the Commission has already sought and obtained control numbers from OMB. The titles for these collections of information are “Part 38—Designated Contract Markets” (OMB Control Number 3038-0052), “Part 37—Swap Execution Facilities” (OMB Control Number 3038-0074), and “Part 49—Swap Data Repositories; Registration and Regulatory Requirements” (OMB Control Number 3038-0086). With the exception of § 38.1051(n) that requires all DCMs to submit annual trading volume information to the Commission, the final rules will not impose any new recordkeeping or reporting requirements that are not already accounted for in existing collections 3038-0052,
As stated in the NPRM, all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs are already subject to
The final DCM rules will require a new information collection which is covered by OMB Control No. 3038-0052. Commission regulation § 38.1051(n) requires each DCM to provide to the Commission its annual total trading volume for calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter. This information is required for 2015 within 30 calendar days of the effective date of the final rules, and for 2016 and subsequent years by January 31 of the following calendar year.
The Commission requested comment concerning the accuracy of its estimate concerning the proposed reporting requirements in § 38.1051(n).
Currently, there are 15 registered DCMs that will be required to comply with the annual trading volume information. Consistent with its estimate in the NPRM, the Commission estimates that the information collection required associated with the final rule will impose an average of 0.5 hours annually per respondent.
The final rule requiring the submission of annual trading volume information to the Commission will result in an annual cost burden of approximately $24.80 per respondent.
Accordingly, the Commission intends to amend existing collection 3038-0052 to account for the submission of annual trading volume information to the Commission. The amendment will add an estimated annual burden of 7.5 hours to the existing collection, which currently includes an annual reporting burden of 8,670 hours. Therefore, the new annual reporting burden for collection 3038-0052 will be 8,677.5 hours.
Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its discretionary actions before promulgating a regulation under the CEA or issuing certain orders.
To further the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits imposed by its regulations, the Commission invited comments from the public on all aspects of the Consideration of Costs and Benefits section of the NPRM. The Commission specifically invited responses to a series of questions regarding costs and benefits, and specifically invited commenters to provide data or other information quantifying such costs and benefits. The Commission received one comment that provided quantitative information pertaining to the costs associated with certain proposed provisions.
As stated in the NRPM, Commission staff collected preliminary information from some DCMs and SDRs regarding their current costs associated with conducting vulnerability testing, external and internal penetration testing, controls testing, and enterprise technology risk assessments (“DMO Preliminary Survey”).
The Commission recognizes that any economic effects, including costs and benefits, should be evaluated with reference to a baseline that accounts for current regulatory requirements. As stated in the NPRM, the baseline for this cost and benefit consideration is the set of current requirements under the Act and the Commission's regulations for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs.
The final rules clarify the system safeguards and cybersecurity testing requirements for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, by specifying and defining five types of system safeguards testing that a DCM, SEF, or SDR necessarily must perform to fulfill the testing requirement. For the following reasons, the Commission believes that the final rules calling for each DCM, SEF, and SDR to conduct each of these types of testing and assessment will not impose any new costs on DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs. Each of the types of testing and assessment required under the final rules—vulnerability testing, penetration testing, controls testing, security incident response plan testing, and enterprise technology risk assessment—is a generally recognized best practice for system safeguards. Moreover, the Commission believes that it is essentially impossible for a DCM, SEF, or SDR to fulfill its current obligation to conduct testing sufficient to ensure the reliability, security, and capacity of its automated systems without conducting each type of testing addressed by the final rules. This has been true since before the testing requirements of the Act and the current regulations were adopted, and it would be true today even if the Commission were not adopting the final rules.
The Commission believes that new costs will be imposed by the minimum testing frequency and independent contractor requirements for covered DCMs and SDRs included in the final rules. In addition, the final rules that make it mandatory for all DCMs (covered and non-covered), SEFs, and SDRs to follow best practices, ensure testing independence, and coordinate BC-DR plans will also impose new costs. As discussed more fully below in Section C.3.b., the language in the final rules make these currently recommended provisions mandatory and the Commission believes this modification will result in new costs relative to current practice. Finally, the Commission believes that the final rules requiring all DCMs (covered and non-covered), SEFs, and SDRs to update BC-DR plans and emergency procedures no less frequently than annually, and the requirement for all DCMs to report their total annual trading volume to the Commission each year will also impose new costs relative to the current requirements.
The Commission expects that the costs and benefits may vary somewhat among the covered DCMs and SDRs. For example, some covered DCMs and SDRs are larger or more complex than others, and the new requirements may impact covered DCMs and SDRs differently depending on their size and the complexity of their systems.
While certain costs are amenable to quantification, other costs are not easily estimated, such as the costs to the public or market participants in the event of a cybersecurity incident at a DCM, SEF, or SDR. The public interest is served by these critical infrastructures performing their functions. The final regulations are intended to mitigate the frequency and severity of system security breaches or functional failures, and therefore, provide an important if unquantifiable benefit to the public interest.
The discussion of costs and benefits that follows begins with a summary of each final rule and a consideration of the corresponding costs and benefits and the associated comments. At the conclusion of this discussion, the Commission considers the costs and benefits of the rules collectively in light of the five factors set forth in section 15(a) of the CEA.
The final rules concerning the categories of risk analysis and oversight clarify what is already required of all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs regarding the categories which their programs of risk analysis and oversight must address by further defining the six categories addressed by the current rules. The six categories are: (1) Information security; (2) Business-continuity disaster recovery planning and resources; (3) Capacity and performance planning; (4) Systems operations; (5) Systems development and quality assurance; and (6) Physical security and environmental controls. In addition, the final rules add and define enterprise risk management as a seventh category.
MGEX stated that because the categories of risk analysis and oversight identified by the Commission in the DCM, SEF, and SDR NPRM differ from the Commission's parallel DCO NPRM, the lack of consistency increases the compliance burden of a combined DCM and DCO entity. The Commission acknowledges that its DCM, SEF, and SDR NPRM included the additional category of enterprise risk management and governance.
MGEX also argued that because the two NPRMs differ on the component parts of a program of risk analysis and oversight, it is difficult to conclude that these programs are pre-existing requirements that do not have a cost of compliance. The Commission disagrees with MGEX. As noted in the DCO NPRM, DCO's face a wider array of risks than DCMs, and therefore enterprise risk management requirements for DCOs are not limited to the system safeguards context, but need to be addressed in a more comprehensive fashion and possibly in a future rulemaking.
MGEX further argued that the specific and itemized content of some of the categories of risk analysis and oversight are overly prescriptive and should be principles based. MGEX noted information security controls as one example that is overly prescriptive. The Commission agrees with MGEX that the categories of risk analysis and oversight should be principles based, but disagrees with MGEX's assertion that the NPRM lists of topics included in each category consist of a static list of controls. As set out in detail in the NPRM, each of the aspects of the various categories that the program of risk analysis and oversight must address is rooted in generally accepted standards and best practices.
CME requested that the Commission confirm that the final rule will allow regulated entities flexibility of organizational design concerning how their programs of risk analysis and oversight address enterprise risk management and governance, and will not require that an entity's enterprise risk management function conduct all components of this category. As discussed in the preamble, the Commission confirms that the addition of enterprise risk management and governance does not require that the listed elements of this category be conducted through a particular organizational structure; rather, the final rule provides flexibility in this regard.
The primary benefit of the final rules is clarity to all DCMs, SDRs, and SEFs with regard to administering their programs of risk analysis and oversight. The final rules provide definitions for each category of risk analysis and oversight and highlight important aspects of each category that are recognized as best practices. An important benefit of the adherence-to-best-practices approach taken in the Commission's final system safeguards rules is that best practices can evolve over time as the cybersecurity field evolves. In addition, the Commission believes that all seven categories of risk analysis and oversight are essential to maintaining effective system safeguards in today's cybersecurity threat environment.
The final rules make mandatory for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs the provisions concerning best practices, testing independence, and coordination of BC-DR plans recommended but not made mandatory in the Commission's current rules.
The Commission did not receive any comments addressing the costs of these provisions. The Commission's current rules for DCMs and SDRs, and its guidance for SEFs, provide that such entities should follow best practices in addressing the categories which their programs of risk analysis and oversight are required to include.
Making the provisions concerning following best practices, ensuring testing independence, and coordinating BC-DR plans mandatory will align the system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs with the Commission's system safeguards rules for DCOs, which already contain mandatory provisions in these respects. As stated in the preamble, the Commission believes that the requirement to follow generally accepted standards and best practices is one of the most important requirements of its system safeguards rules. Best practices can evolve over time, in light of the changing cybersecurity threat environment. The agility that a best practices approach provides is crucial to effective resilience with respect to cybersecurity and system safeguards. Further, the ongoing development and evolution of best practices benefits from private sector expertise and input, as well as from public sector contributions. Such private sector expertise and input is important to effective cybersecurity. The Commission also observes that requiring financial sector entities to follow best practices with respect to system safeguards and cybersecurity is an effective key to harmonizing the oversight of cybersecurity conducted by different financial regulators. The Commission also believes that clarity concerning what is required benefits DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, and the public interest.
The final rules require a DCM, SEF, or SDR to update its BC-DR plan and emergency procedures at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually.
The Commission did not receive any comments addressing the costs of this aspect of the proposed rules. The Commission's current system safeguards rules provide that DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must maintain BC-DR plans and emergency procedures, but do not specify a frequency in which such plans and procedures must be updated.
The Commission notes that updating BC-DR plans and emergency procedures at least annually is a generally accepted best practice, as it follows NIST and other standards. These standards highlight the importance of updating such plans and procedures at least annually to help enable the organization to better prepare for cyber security incidents. Specifically, the NIST standards provide that once an organization has developed a BC-DR plan, “the organization should implement the plan and review it at least annually to ensure the organization is following the roadmap for maturing the capability and fulfilling their [sic] goals for incident response.”
The final rules require a DCM, SEF, or SDR, in accordance with Commission regulation § 1.31,
The Commission believes that the final rules do not impose any new costs.
Although the Commission did not receive any comments specifically addressing the costs of the books and records obligations, two commenters addressed whether, and in what circumstances, books and records obligations would reach the parent firm. ICE commented that with respect to parent firms that own both CFTC-regulated and non-CFTC-regulated entities, the Commission should avoid requiring production of documents discussing risks at the firm-wide level. To this end, ICE argued that the Commission should limit its production requests to documents focused solely on the risks of CFTC-regulated entities. However, WMBAA observed that the automated systems, programs of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight, cybersecurity defenses and testing, and BC-DR plans and resources of CFTC-regulated DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs owned by parent financial sector companies that also own entities not regulated by the Commission are frequently shared across the parent company. The Commission agrees with WMBAA's comment, and notes that this is presently the case with respect to all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs regulated by the Commission that are owned by the same parent company. Thus, the Commission disagrees with ICE's suggestion that production of books and records addressing parent-wide system safeguards risks and risk analysis and oversight programs should not be required. A system safeguards document that is a book and record of a DCM, SEF, or SDR is required to be produced as a book and record subject to the Commission's rules, regardless of whether the parent company decides to share resources among CFTC regulated and non-CFTC regulated entities. The production of all of the books and records specified in the NPRM books and records provisions is already required by the Act and Commission regulations.
The recordkeeping requirements for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs allow the Commission to effectively monitor a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's system safeguards program and compliance with the Act and the Commission's regulations. In addition, such requirements enable Commission staff to perform examinations of DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, and identify practices that may be inconsistent with the Act and Commission regulations. Further, making all system safeguard-related documents available to the Commission upon request informs the Commission of areas of potential weaknesses, or persistent or recurring problems, across DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs.
The final rules include definitions for the following terms: (1) Controls; (2) controls testing; (3) enterprise technology risk assessment; (4) external penetration testing; (5) internal penetration testing; (6) key controls; (7) security incident; (8) security incident response plan; (9) security incident response plan testing; and (10) vulnerability testing. Additionally, § 38.105(h)(1) includes the definition for covered DCM.
The definitions specified in the final rules provide context to the specific system safeguard tests and assessments that a DCM, SEF, or SDR is required to conduct on an ongoing basis. Accordingly, the costs and benefits of these terms are attributable to the substantive testing requirements and are discussed in the cost and benefit considerations related to the final rules describing the requirements for each test. However, the Commission notes that some comments addressed terms that were used but not defined in the NPRM and are relevant to the consideration of costs for the final rules. In particular, as discussed in the preamble, CME, ICE, and MGEX commented concerning the NPRM's use of the terms “independent contractor” and “independent professional.” CME asserted that neither term is clearly defined in either the Commission's existing rules or the NPRM. ICE called on the Commission to clarify in the final rule that entity employee groups such as the internal audit function are considered to be independent professionals not responsible for the development of operation of the systems or capabilities tested or assessed in the area of system safeguards. ICE stated that not allowing internal auditors to conduct certain system safeguards or information security testing could add substantial costs to the regulated entities. While not commenting directly on these definitions, MGEX expressed the view that having independent testing performed is a key and costly feature proposed in the NPRM.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs and SDRs and its current system safeguards rules and guidance for SEFs provide that independent contractors are qualified system safeguards professionals who are not employees of the DCM, SEF, or SDR.
As discussed in the preamble, one clarification may be helpful with respect to testing required to be performed by independent contractors, as distinct from testing performed by persons performing the internal audit function. The internal audit function is a required aspect of the enterprise risk management governance category which must be included in the program of risk analysis and oversight that a DCM, SEF, or SDR must maintain. It is an integral part of, and a responsibility of, the regulated entity, whether carried out in-house or outsourced. The NPRM proposed required testing by independent contractors in part to give the Commission' system safeguards oversight a third source of system safeguards information on which to rely, in addition to the entity's employees and its internal audit function.
The final rules define vulnerability testing as testing of a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's automated systems to determine what information may be discoverable through a reconnaissance analysis of those systems and what vulnerabilities may be present on those systems. Additionally, the final rules require a DCM, SEF, or SDR to conduct vulnerability testing that is sufficient to satisfy the testing scope requirements in new §§ 38.1051(k), 37.1401(k), and 49.24(l), at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. Moreover, such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning and follow best practices in this regard. At a minimum, covered DCMs and SDRs are required to conduct vulnerability testing no less frequently than quarterly. For all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs, vulnerability testing may be conducted by either independent contractors or employees of the entity that are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve these statutory requirements, each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The NPRM called for vulnerability testing to include automated vulnerability scanning, conducted on an authenticated basis where indicated by appropriate risk analysis, with compensating controls where scanning is conducted on an unauthenticated basis.
The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct vulnerability testing no less frequently than quarterly.
The NPRM called for covered DCMs and SDRs to engage independent contractors to conduct two of the quarterly vulnerability tests each year.
The Commission did not receive comments addressing the total costs for conducting vulnerability testing. As discussed above in the costs section concerning the minimum frequency requirement, the final rules will impose new costs on covered DCMs and SDRs. The data collected from the DMO Preliminary Survey, suggests that on average, a covered DCM or SDR currently spends approximately $3,495,000 annually on vulnerability testing. As stated in the NPRM, the Commission recognizes that the actual costs may vary widely as a result of numerous factors including, the size of the organization, the complexity of the automated systems, and the scope of the test.
Vulnerability testing identifies, ranks, and reports vulnerabilities that, if exploited, may result in an intentional or unintentional compromise of a system.
With respect to the minimum frequency requirement for covered DCMs and SDRs, the Commission believes that such entities have a significant incentive to conduct vulnerability testing at least quarterly in order to identify the latest threats to the organization and reduce the likelihood that attackers could exploit vulnerabilities. Best practices also support the requirement that vulnerability testing be conducted no less frequently than quarterly. For example, PCI DSS standards provide that entities should run internal and external network vulnerability scans “at
The final rules define external penetration testing as attempts to penetrate a DCM's, SEF's or SDR's automated systems from outside the systems' boundaries to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. Additionally, the final rules require a DCM, SEF, or SDR to conduct external penetration testing that is sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in new §§ 38.1051(k), 37.1401(k), and 49.24(l), at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, covered DCMs and SDRs are required to conduct external penetration testing no less frequently than annually. Covered DCMs and SDRs also are required to engage independent contractors to perform the required annual external penetration test, although the entity could have other external penetration testing conducted by employees who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve these statutory requirements, each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct external penetration testing no less frequently than annually. The Commission's current rules require DCMs and SDRs to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing of their automated systems.
The final rules also require that the annual external penetration test conducted by a covered DCM or SDR be conducted by an independent contractor. Current Commission regulations §§ 38.1051(h) and 49.24(j) provide that testing of automated systems should be conducted by qualified, independent professionals.
DDR commented generally that an SDR should have flexibility regarding whether to have testing conducted by independent contractors or employees not responsible for the development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested, based on the risks of that SDR. The Commission disagrees with DDR's comment. As discussed more fully in the preamble and noted below in the benefits section related to this provision, the Commission believes that the independent viewpoint and approach provided by independent contractors, who can conduct a penetration test from the perspective of an outside adversary uncolored by insider assumptions or blind spots, will benefit covered DCM and SDR programs of risk analysis and oversight. The Commission also notes that best
The Commission did not receive any comments addressing the total costs for conducting external penetration testing. CME, however, estimated that the independent contractor requirements in the Proposal, which apply to external penetration testing, will result in an additional cost of $1.1 million every two years. The data collected from the DMO Preliminary Survey suggests that on average a covered DCM or SDR spends approximately $244,625 annually on external penetration testing. The Commission recognizes that the actual costs may vary widely as a result of many factors, including the size of the organization, the complexity of the automated systems, and the scope of the test. Where a covered DCM or SDR does not currently use an independent contractor to conduct the external penetration test, the Commission expects that such entities may incur some additional minor costs as a result of the need to establish and implement internal policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to address the workflow associated with the test. For example, the Commission expects that such policies and procedures may include communication and cooperation between the entity and independent contractor, communication and cooperation between the entity's legal, business, technology, and compliance departments, appropriate authorization to remediate vulnerabilities identified by the independent contractor, implementation of the measures to address such vulnerabilities, and verification that these measures are effective and appropriate. Covered DCMs and SDRs that currently do not use independent contractors for the external penetration test may also need to dedicate time to reviewing and revising their current policies and procedures to ensure that they are sufficient in the context of the new requirements. The Commission believes that any costs incurred by the entities as result of such review will be minor.
External penetration testing benefits DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs by identifying the extent to which their systems can be compromised before an attack is identified.
The requirement for annual external penetration testing at covered DCMs and SDRs to be performed by an independent contractor is intended to ensure that these entities' system safeguards programs of risk analysis and oversight include the benefits provided when independent contractors perform such testing. The Commission believes that independent contractor testing has particular value with respect to external penetration testing because the test is conducted from the viewpoint of an outsider and against the current tactics, techniques, and threat vectors of current threat actors as revealed by current threat intelligence.
The final rules define internal penetration testing as attempts to penetrate a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's automated systems from inside the systems' boundaries to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. Additionally, the final rules require a DCM, SEF, or SDR to conduct internal penetration testing that is sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in new §§ 38.1051(k), 37.1401(k), and 49.24(l), at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, covered DCMs and SDRs are required to conduct the internal penetration testing no less frequently than annually. All DCM, SEFs, or SDRs may engage independent contractors to conduct the test, or the entity may use employees of the entity who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve these statutory requirements, each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The Commission continues to believe, as provided in the NPRM, that it is appropriate to give all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs the flexibility of whether to have internal penetration testing performed by independent contractors or by employees not responsible for
The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct internal penetration testing no less frequently than annually. The Commission's current rules require DCMs and SDRs to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing of their automated systems.
The Commission did not receive comments addressing the total costs for conducting internal penetration testing. However, based on the data from the DMO Preliminary Survey, the Commission estimates that the current average cost for a covered DCM or SDR conducting internal penetration testing is approximately $410,625 annually. The Commission recognizes that the actual costs may vary significantly as a result of numerous factors, including the size of the organization, the complexity of the automated systems, and the scope of the test. The Commission also recognizes that large DCMs and SDRs may undertake an evaluation, on an initial and ongoing basis, regarding internal policies and procedures for internal penetration testing that may need to be revised. The Commission believes that these costs will be minor.
By attempting to penetrate a DCM's, SEF's or SDR's automated systems from inside the systems' boundaries, internal penetration tests allow the respective entities to assess system vulnerabilities from attackers that penetrate their perimeter defenses and from trusted insiders, such as former employees and contractors. In addition to being an industry best practice, the Commission believes that annual internal penetration testing is important because such potential attacks by trusted insiders generally pose a unique and substantial threat due to their more sophisticated understanding of a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's systems. Moreover, “[a]n advanced persistent attack may involve an outsider gaining a progressively greater foothold in a firm's environment, effectively becoming an insider in the process. For this reason, it is important to perform penetration testing against both external and internal interfaces and systems.”
As discussed above in the costs section for this provision, the final rules address the required minimum frequency for covered DCMs and SDRs to perform internal penetration testing. Best practices support both external and internal penetration testing on at least an annual basis. NIST calls for at least annual penetration testing of an organization's network and systems.
The final rules define controls testing as an assessment of the DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's market controls to determine whether such controls are implemented correctly, are operating as intended, and are enabling the entity to meet the system safeguard requirements established by the respective chapters. Additionally, the final rules require a DCM, SEF, or an SDR to conduct controls testing that is sufficient to satisfy the scope requirements in new §§ 38.1051(k), 37.1401(k), and 49.24(l), at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. Covered DCMs and SDRs are required to test the key controls in the entity's risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every three years. Such testing may be conducted on a rolling basis over the course of the minimum three-year period or over a minimum period determined by an appropriate risk analysis, whichever is shorter. Covered DCMs and SDRs also are required to engage independent contractors to test and assess their key controls no less frequently than every three years. The entities may conduct any other controls testing by using either independent contractors or employees of the DCM or SDR who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve these statutory requirements, each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The final rules require a covered DCM or SDR to test each key control included in its program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every three years rather than the two-year cycle proposed in the NPRM. The Commission's current rules require DCMs and SDRs to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing of their automated systems.
The final rules also require a DCM or SDR to engage an independent contractor to test and assess the key controls no less frequently than every three years. Current Commission regulations §§ 38.1051(h) and 49.24(j) provide that testing of automated systems should be conducted by qualified, independent professionals. The qualified independent professionals may be independent contractors or employees of a DCM or SDR as long as they are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested. Accordingly, the final rules will impose new costs relative to the requirements of the current rules.
Based on the information from the DMO Preliminary Survey, the Commission estimates that the average cost for a covered DCM or SDR to conduct controls testing is approximately $2,724,000 annually.
Controls testing is essential in determining risk to an organization's operations and assets, to individuals, to other organizations, and to the nation resulting from the use of the organization's systems.
As noted above in the costs section for this provision, the final rules require a covered DCM or SDR to test each key control included in its program of system safeguards-related risk analysis oversight no less frequently than every three years. The Commission believes that it is essential for each key control to be tested at least this often in order to confirm the continuing adequacy of the entity's system safeguards in today's cybersecurity threat environment. Additionally, the frequency requirement would benefit the affected entities by providing additional clarity concerning what is required of them in this respect. The final rules also permit such testing to be conducted on a rolling basis over the course of the three-year period or over a minimum period determined by an appropriate risk analysis, whichever is shorter. The rolling basis provision is designed to provide a covered DCM or SDR flexibility in conducting the key controls testing during the required minimum frequency period. This flexibility is intended to reduce burdens to the extent possible while still ensuring the needed minimum testing frequency. The Commission also notes that testing on a rolling basis is consistent with industry best practices.
Additionally, the final rules require a covered DCM or SDR to engage independent contractors to test and assess each of the entity's key controls no less frequently than every three years. Independent testing of key controls is consistent with best practices. Significantly, the NIST Standards note the important benefits of independent testing and call for controls testing to include assessment by independent assessors, free from actual or perceived conflicts of interest, in order to validate the completeness, accuracy, integrity, and reliability of test results.
The final rules define security incident response testing as testing of a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's security incident plan to determine the plan's effectiveness, identifying its potential weaknesses or deficiencies, enabling regular plan updating and improvement, and maintaining organizational preparedness and resiliency with respect to security incidents. In addition, the methods of conducting security incident response plan testing may include checklist completion, walk-through or table-top exercises, simulations, and comprehensive exercises. The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct such testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually. All DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs may conduct such testing by engaging either independent contractors or employees of the entity.
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve
As noted in the preamble, Tradeweb agreed that having a security incident response plan is essential to the functioning of a SEF, but suggested that the plan need only be reviewed annually and approved by an individual at the SEF in charge of information security. Tradeweb commented that requiring repeated testing of such plans is burdensome and unduly costly. The Commission disagrees with the suggestion that the requirement to test the security incident response plan should be reduced to mere annual review and approval of the plan by an employee responsible for information security. Best practices emphasize that security incident response plan testing is crucial to effective cyber incident response in today's cybersecurity environment.
The NPRM called for all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to have security incident response plan testing by either independent contractors or employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities tested.
The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct security incident response plan testing at least annually. The Commission's current rules require DCMs and SDRs to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing of their automated systems.
The Commission did not receive any comments addressing the costs of conducting security incident response plan testing for covered DCMs and SDRs. To the extent that the final rules impose additional costs on covered DCMs and SDRs, the Commission believes that such costs may vary widely as result of numerous factors, including the size of the organization, the complexity of its automated systems, and the scope of the test.
Security incident response plans, and adequate testing of such plans, reduce the damage caused by breaches of a DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's network security. Network security breaches are highly likely to have a substantial negative impact on an entity's operations. They can increase costs through lost productivity, lost current and future market participation or swap data reporting, compliance penalties, and damage to the DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's reputation and brand. Moreover, the longer a cyber intrusion continues, the more its impact may be compounded.
The final rules provide clarity to covered DCMs and SDRs concerning the minimum testing frequency for security incident response plans. The Commission believes that the frequency requirement would increase the likelihood that these entities could mitigate the duration and impact in the event of a security incident by making them better prepared for such an incident. Therefore, a covered DCM or SDR may also be better positioned to reduce any potential impacts to its automated system operation, reliability, security, or capacity; or the availability, confidentiality, or integrity of its futures and swaps data.
The final rules define enterprise technology risk assessment as an assessment that includes an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities in the context
As stated in the NPRM and above in the Baseline discussion, the Act requires each DCM, SEF, and SDR to develop and maintain a program of system safeguards-related risk analysis and oversight to identify and minimize sources of operational risk.
The Commission's current system safeguards rules for DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs mandate that, in order to achieve these statutory requirements, each DCM, SEF, and SDR must conduct testing and review sufficient to ensure that its automated systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
The Commission did not receive any comments addressing the costs of the proposed rules which called for ETRAs to be conducted by either independent contractors or employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities. The Commission is adopting the proposed requirements and all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs will have the same flexibility in the final rules.
The final rules require covered DCMs and SDRs to conduct ETRAs at least annually. The Commission's current rules require DCMs and SDRs to conduct regular, periodic, objective testing of their automated systems.
CME estimated that the Commission's proposed ETRA requirement would result in an additional cost of $500,000 every two years. Based on the information from the DMO Preliminary Survey, the current average cost for covered DCMs and SDRs conducting the assessment is approximately $1,347,950 annually. However, the Commission notes that actual costs may vary widely among the affected entities due to the size of the organization, the complexity of the automated systems, and the scope of the assessment. The Commission recognizes that the affected entities may undertake an evaluation, on an initial and ongoing basis, regarding internal policies and procedures that may need to be revised. If such an evaluation is required, the Commission believes that any incremental costs will be minor.
The Commission believes that ETRAs are an essential component of a comprehensive system safeguard program. ETRAs can be viewed as a strategic approach through which DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs identify risks and align their systems goals accordingly. The Commission believes that these requirements are necessary to support a strong risk management framework, thereby helping to protect DCMs, SEFs, SDRs, and market participants, and helping to mitigate the risk of market disruptions.
The final rules provide clarity to covered DCMs and SDRs concerning the
The final rules provide that the scope for all system safeguards testing and assessment must be broad enough to include the testing of automated systems and controls that the entity's required program of risk analysis and oversight and its current cybersecurity threat analysis indicate is necessary to identify risks and vulnerabilities that could enable an intruder or unauthorized user or insider to: (1) Interfere with the entity's operations or with fulfillment of the entity's statutory and regulatory responsibilities; (2) impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the entity's automated systems; (3) add to, delete, augment, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the entity's regulated activities; or (4) undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the entity's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
The Commission believes that the costs and benefits associated with the scope for testing and assessment are generally attributable to the substantive testing requirements; therefore they are generally discussed in the cost and benefit considerations related to the rules describing the requirements for each test or assessment. However, as discussed in the preamble, a number of commenters suggested that the scope provisions of the NPRM were overbroad, and that the proposed requirement to perform “all” testing necessary to identify “any” vulnerability was impossible to achieve in practice. CME suggested that the NPRM's overbroad scope provision could impose outsized costs without yielding commensurate benefits. In order to provide the clarity requested by commenters, the final rules call for the scope of system safeguards testing to be based on appropriate risk and threat analysis. In other words, it should include the testing that the regulatee's program of risk analysis and oversight and its current cybersecurity threat analysis indicate is necessary to identify risks and vulnerabilities that could enable the deleterious actions by intruders or unauthorized users listed in the scope provisions of the proposed rules. The Commission agrees with the comments suggesting that this approach avoids imposing undue burdens and costs, while supporting the purposes of the CEA and the Commission's system safeguards rules.
The final rules require the senior management and the Board of Directors of the DCM, SEF, or SDR to receive and review reports setting forth the results of all testing and assessment required by the respective sections. In addition, the final rules require the DCM, SEF, or SDR to establish and follow appropriate procedures for the remediation of issues identified through such review, as provided in §§ 38.1051(m), 37.1401(m), and 49.24(n) (Remediation), and for evaluation of the effectiveness of testing and assessment protocols.
The final rules clarify the testing requirements by specifying and defining certain aspects of DCM, SEF, and SDR risk analysis and oversight programs that are necessary to fulfillment of the testing requirements and achievement of their purposes. As stated in the NPRM, this clarification includes review of system safeguard testing and assessments by senior management and the DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's Board of Directors, which is recognized as best practice for system safeguards.
ICE, MGEX, and Nadex commented that test result reports can be voluminous, technical, and complex, and that requiring boards and senior management to review each such document could produce an undue burden without commensurate benefits. As discussed in the preamble, the Commission notes that effective board of directors and senior management oversight of system safeguards does not require board or senior management review of every detail of each such report. Board and senior management review of appropriate summaries and compilations of test and assessment results can be an effective and acceptable way of fulfilling the internal reporting and review requirement, provided that such summaries give board members and senior management sufficiently detailed information to enable them to conduct effective and informed oversight. The appropriate level of information should also enable boards and senior management to evaluate the overall effectiveness of testing and assessment protocols, and direct and oversee appropriate remediation of issues identified through their review of test results.
The Commission believes that internal reporting and review are an essential component of a comprehensive and effective system safeguard program. While senior management and the DCM's, SEF's, or SDR's board of directors will have to devote resources to reviewing testing and assessment reports, active supervision by senior management and the board of directors promotes responsibility and accountability by affording them greater opportunity to evaluate the effectiveness of the testing and assessment protocols. Moreover, the attention by the board of directors and senior management should help to promote a focus on such reviews and issues, and enhance communication and coordination regarding such reviews and issues among the business, technology, legal,
The final rules require DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs to identify and document the vulnerabilities and deficiencies in the entity's systems revealed by the testing and assessment in the respective sections. The entity shall conduct and document an appropriate risk analysis of the risks presented by such vulnerabilities and deficiencies, to determine and document whether to remediate or accept each risk. When an entity determines to remediate a vulnerability or deficiency, it must remediate in a timely manner given the nature and magnitude of the associated risk. The Commission did not receive any comments regarding the costs and benefits of the proposed rules.
The final rules clarify the testing requirements by specifying and defining certain aspects of DCM, SEF, and SDR risk analysis and oversight programs that are necessary to fulfillment of the testing requirements and achievement of their purposes. This clarification includes remediation. As stated in the NPRM, remediation of vulnerabilities and deficiencies revealed by cybersecurity testing is a best practice and a fundamental purpose of such testing.
Nadex and Tradeweb suggested that the proposed requirement to identify and remediate “all” vulnerabilities and deficiencies in a regulatee's systems was impossible to achieve in practice. Nadex observed that other discussion in the NPRM indicated Commission intent to require remediation of vulnerabilities and deficiencies identified in the testing results, and suggested amending the final rule to make this clear. Noting that remediation after a cyber attack often takes time, Tradeweb argued that regulatees should not be penalized for that fact, and requested Commission guidance on what constitutes timely remediation, perhaps including specification that remediation over nine to twelve months would be timely. As discussed in the preamble, the Commission agrees with commenters that a requirement calling for a DCM, SEF, or SDR to remediate all vulnerabilities and deficiencies could be read as overbroad and impossible in practice. Accordingly, the Commission is narrowing the remediation requirement to address remediation or acceptance of the vulnerabilities and deficiencies of which an entity is aware or through an appropriate program of risk analysis and oversight should be aware, rather than the remediation of all vulnerabilities and deficiencies. This revision is being made to reduce burdens and costs to the extent possible without impairing the purposes of the CEA and the Commission's system safeguards regulations.
The aspect of the final rules that could impose a slight additional cost relative to the proposed rules is the explicit requirement that all DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs document the vulnerabilities and deficiencies in its systems revealed by the required testing and assessment, document an appropriate analysis of the risks presented by such vulnerabilities, and document its decision concerning whether to remediate or accept each risk and the remediation steps chosen. As stated in the preamble, the NPRM proposal to require identification of vulnerabilities was intended to include their documentation. Effective remediation would be impossible without documentation of both the vulnerabilities in question and the remediation steps needed. However, because documentation was not explicitly required in the proposal, the Commission is treating the documentation requirement in the final rules as a possible slight additional cost. The Commission notes, however, that the narrowing of remediation requirement in the final rules represents a considerable reduction in burdens and costs and will more than offset the burdens and costs associated with the documentation requirement.
The Commission believes that effective remediation is a critical component of a comprehensive and effective system safeguard program. Moreover, remediation may reduce the frequency and severity of systems disruptions and breaches. In addition, remediation helps to ensure that DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs dedicate appropriate resources to address system safeguard-related deficiencies in a timely fashion. Remediation also places an emphasis on mitigating harm to market participants while promoting market integrity. Without a requirement for timely remediation, the impact of vulnerabilities or deficiencies identified by the testing or assessment could persist and have a detrimental effect on the futures and swaps markets generally as well as market participants.
The final rule requires each DCM to provide its annual total trading volume to the Commission for calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter. This information is required for 2015 within 30 calendar days of the effective date of the final version of this rule, and required for 2016 and subsequent years by January 31 of the following calendar year.
As discussed in the PRA section, the Commission did not receive any comments concerning the accuracy of its estimate that each DCM would spend approximately $22.00 annually to comply with the proposed requirement. However, CME stated that the Commission should consider alternatives to the reporting requirements in proposed § 38.1051(n) because the Commission currently receives daily trade reports regarding volume pursuant to DCM Core Principle 8 and part 16 of the Commission's regulations. The Commission notes that while it receives daily trade information from DCMs pursuant to part 16, it does not receive total annual trading volume
The Commission believes that it is necessary to require all DCMs to provide the Commission with annual trading volume information. Otherwise, the Commission would be unable to accurately evaluate whether a particular DCM would be subject to the enhanced covered DCM requirements. As stated in the final rule, the Commission will provide each DCM with its percentage of the combined annual trading volume of all DCMs regulated by the Commission for the preceding calendar year within 60 calendar days of the effective date of the final rule, and for subsequent years by February 28. Therefore, all DCMs will receive certainty from the Commission regarding whether they must comply with the provisions applicable to covered DCMs. This requirement will support more accurate application of the final rules.
The Commission believes that the final rules will benefit the futures and swaps markets by promoting more robust automated systems and therefore fewer disruptions and market-wide closures, systems compliance issues, and systems intrusions. Fewer disruptions mean that investors will be able to trade more predictably, reducing the likelihood of investors facing difficulty in, for example, liquidating positions. Because automated systems play a central and critical role in today's electronic financial market environment, oversight of DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs with respect to automated systems is an essential part of effective oversight of both futures and swaps markets. In addition, providing the Commission with reports concerning system safeguards testing and assessments required by the rules will facilitate the Commission's oversight of futures and swaps markets, augment the Commission's efforts to monitor systemic risk, and will further the protection of market participants and the public by helping to ensure that automated systems are available, reliable, secure, have adequate scalable capacity, and are effectively overseen. As a result, the Commission also expects fewer interruptions to the systems that directly support the respective entities, including matching engines, regulatory and surveillance systems, and the dissemination of market data, which should help ensure compliance with the relevant statutory and regulatory obligations. Moreover, market participants will benefit from systems that are secure and able to protect their anonymity with respect to positions in the marketplace and other aspects of their personally-identifiable information.
A DCM or SEF that has system safeguard policies and procedures in place, including the timely remediation of vulnerabilities and deficiencies in light of appropriate risk analysis, will promote overall market confidence and could lead to greater market efficiency, competitiveness, and perceptions of financial integrity. Safeguarding the reliability, security, and capacity of DCM, SEF, and SDR computer systems is essential to mitigation of systemic risk for the nation's financial sector as a whole. A comprehensive testing program capable of identifying operational risks will enhance the efficiency, and financial integrity of the markets by increasing the likelihood that trading remains uninterrupted and transactional data and positions are not lost.
Any interruption in trading on a DCM or SEF can distort the price discovery process by preventing prices from adjusting to new information. Similarly, any interruption in the operations of an SDR will reduce the transparency of swap prices, thereby making it more difficult for traders to observe prices, and leading to the potential for higher trading costs. Interruptions in SDR operations also hamper the Commission's ability to examine potential price discrepancies and other trading inconsistencies in the swaps market. Therefore, reliable functioning computer systems and networks are essential in protecting the price discovery process. The Commission believes that the final rules will reduce the incidence and severity of automated system security breaches and functional failures. In addition, the Commission views the final rules as likely to facilitate the price discovery process by mitigating the risk of operational market interruptions from disjoining forces of supply and demand. The presence of thorough system safeguards testing signals to the market that a DCM or SEF is a financially sound place to trade, thus attracting greater liquidity which leads to more accurate price discovery.
The final rules will benefit the risk management practices of both the regulated entities and the participants who use the facilities of those entities. Participants who use DCMs or SEFs to manage commercial price risks should benefit from markets that behave in an orderly and controlled fashion. If prices move in an uncontrolled fashion due to a cybersecurity incident, those who manage risk may be forced to exit the market as a result of unwarranted margin calls or deterioration of their capital. In addition, those who want to enter the market to manage risk may only be able to do so at prices that do not reflect the actual supply and demand fundamentals due to the effects of a cybersecurity incident. Relatedly, participants may have greater confidence in their ability to unwind positions because market disruptions would be less common. With respect to SDRs, the Commission believes that the ability of participants in the swaps market to report swap transactions to an SDR likewise serve to allow participants to better observe swap prices, hence lowering trading costs. Fewer interruptions of SDR operations also serve to improve regulators' ability to monitor risk management practices through better knowledge of open positions and SDR services related to various trade, collateral, and risk management practices. The Commission notes regulator access (both domestic and foreign) to the data held by an SDR is essential for regulators to be able to monitor the swap market and certain participants relating to systemic risk.
Section 15(b) of the CEA requires the Commission to take into consideration the public interest to be protected by the antitrust laws and endeavor to take the least anticompetitive means of achieving the objectives of the CEA in issuing any order or adopting any Commission rule or regulation. The Commission does not anticipate that the amendments adopted herein would promote or result in anticompetitive consequences or behavior.
For final rules issued by the Commission and published in the
The Commission received comments concerning when full compliance with the provisions of the system safeguards testing requirements rule should be enforced for designated contract markets, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities. Tradeweb suggested that the Commission specify an adequate implementation period of 9 to 12 months for the final rule, to allow regulatees sufficient time to prepare and implement additional policies and procedures needed to comply with the rule. CFE commented that the Commission should provide an implementation period sufficient to allow regulatees to review the final rules, compare them with their current testing and current risk analysis and oversight programs, and implement any changes needed. CFE noted that when the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC”) adopted its comparable Regulation Systems Compliance and Integrity (“Regulation SCI”), that regulation became effective 60 days after
The Commission has considered these comments, agrees with them, and has determined to provide an effective date and compliance dates for system safeguards testing effectively incorporating commenters' suggestions, as set forth below.
The Commission notes that various aspects of the final rule require compliance within a specified period of time, such as performance of certain types of testing quarterly or annually. A starting point is needed for measurement of such periods. Because cybersecurity testing is crucial to resilience in today's cybersecurity threat environment, the Commission believes that prudence and protection of the public interest require starting the “clock” for measuring the periods within which the various types of testing required by the final rule must be conducted as soon as possible, by setting the earliest possible effective date for the rule. Starting the clock in this way does not mean that instant compliance is required; rather, the effective date provides the starting point for measuring the implementation period provided between the effective date and the compliance date on which a given provision of the rule is enforceable. Within this implementation period, a regulated entity can review the rule's requirements, compare them with current testing and risk analysis and oversight practices, implement any needed changes, and come into compliance with the rule.
For these reasons, the Commission has determined to set the effective date of this final rule as the date of its publication in the
1. For vulnerability testing, the compliance date shall be 180 calendar days after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must be conducting vulnerability testing that complies with this final rule by that compliance date.
2. For both external and internal penetration testing, the compliance date shall be one year after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must conduct and complete penetration testing that complies with this final rule by that compliance date. Covered DCMs and SDRs must engage an independent contractor to conduct and complete penetration testing that complies with this final rule by that compliance date.
3. For controls testing, the compliance date shall be one year after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must be conducting controls testing that complies with this final rule by that compliance date. Covered DCMs and SDRs must engage an independent contractor to conduct and complete testing of all key controls within three years of the effective date.
4. For SIRP testing, the compliance date shall be 180 days after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must have a SIRP and complete testing of the SIRP by that compliance date.
5. For enterprise technology risk assessment, the compliance date shall be one year after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must complete an ETRA that complies with this final rule by that compliance date.
6. For required updating of BC-DR plans and emergency procedures, the compliance date shall be one year after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must complete an update of their BC-DR plans and emergency procedures by that compliance date.
7. For required production by DCMs of their annual total trading volume, the compliance date shall be 30 calendar days after the effective date.
8. For system safeguards books and records requirements, the compliance date shall be the effective date.
9. For all other aspects of the final rule, the compliance date shall be one year after the effective date. DCMs, SEFs, and SDRs must be in full compliance with the final rule by that compliance date.
System safeguards testing requirements.
For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission amends 17 CFR chapter I as follows:
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 5, 6, 6c, 7, 7a-2, 7b-3, and 12a, as amended by Titles VII and VIII of the Dodd Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
The revisions and additions read as follows:
(a) A swap execution facility's program of risk analysis and oversight with respect to its operations and automated systems shall address each of the following categories of risk analysis and oversight:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(b) In addressing the categories of risk analysis and oversight required under paragraph (a) of this section, a swap execution facility shall follow generally accepted standards and best practices with respect to the development, operation, reliability, security, and capacity of automated systems.
(c) A swap execution facility shall maintain a business continuity-disaster recovery plan and business continuity-disaster recovery resources, emergency procedures, and backup facilities sufficient to enable timely recovery and resumption of its operations and resumption of its ongoing fulfillment of its responsibilities and obligations as a swap execution facility following any disruption of its operations. Such responsibilities and obligations include, without limitation: Order processing and trade matching; transmission of matched orders to a designated clearing organization for clearing, where appropriate; price reporting; market surveillance; and maintenance of a comprehensive audit trail. A swap execution facility's business continuity-disaster recovery plan and resources generally should enable resumption of trading and clearing of swaps executed on or pursuant to the rules of the swap execution facility during the next business day following the disruption. Swap execution facilities determined by the Commission to be critical financial markets are subject to more stringent requirements in this regard, set forth in § 40.9 of this chapter. A swap execution facility shall update its business continuity-disaster recovery plan and emergency procedures at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually.
(g) As part of a swap execution facility's obligation to produce books and records in accordance with § 1.31 of this chapter, Core Principle 10 (Recordkeeping and Reporting), and §§ 37.1000 and 37.1001, a swap execution facility shall provide to the Commission the following system safeguards-related books and records, promptly upon the request of any Commission representative:
(1) Current copies of its business continuity-disaster recovery plans and other emergency procedures;
(2) All assessments of its operational risks or system safeguards-related controls;
(3) All reports concerning system safeguards testing and assessment required by this chapter, whether performed by independent contractors or by employees of the swap execution facility; and
(4) All other books and records requested by Commission staff in connection with Commission oversight of system safeguards pursuant to the Act or Commission regulations, or in connection with Commission maintenance of a current profile of the swap execution facility's automated systems.
(5) Nothing in § 37.1401(g) shall be interpreted as reducing or limiting in any way a swap execution facility's obligation to comply with Core Principle 10 (Recordkeeping and Reporting) or with § 1.31 of this chapter or with §§ 37.1000 or 37.1001.
(h) A swap execution facility shall conduct regular, periodic, objective testing and review of its automated systems to ensure that they are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity. It shall also conduct regular, periodic testing and review of its business continuity-disaster recovery capabilities. Such testing and review shall include, without limitation, all of the types of testing set forth in paragraph (h) of this section.
(1)
(2)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct such vulnerability testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis.
(ii) Such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning, which shall follow generally accepted best practices.
(iii) A swap execution facility shall conduct vulnerability testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap execution facility who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(3)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct such external penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis.
(ii) A swap execution facility shall conduct external penetration testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap execution facility who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(4)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct such internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis.
(ii) A swap execution facility shall conduct internal penetration testing by engaging independent contractors, or by using employees of the swap execution facility who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(5)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. Such testing may be conducted on a rolling basis.
(ii) A swap execution facility shall conduct controls testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap execution facility who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(6)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct such security incident response plan testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis.
(ii) A swap execution facility's security incident response plan shall include, without limitation, the swap execution facility's definition and classification of security incidents, its policies and procedures for reporting security incidents and for internal and external communication and information sharing regarding security incidents, and the hand-off and escalation points in its security incident response process.
(iii) A swap execution facility may coordinate its security incident response plan testing with other testing required by this section or with testing of its other business continuity-disaster recovery and crisis management plans.
(iv) A swap execution facility may conduct security incident response plan testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap execution facility.
(7)
(i) A swap execution facility shall conduct enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. A swap execution facility that has conducted an enterprise technology risk assessment that complies with this section may conduct subsequent assessments by updating the previous assessment.
(ii) A swap execution facility may conduct enterprise technology risk assessments by using independent contractors or employees of the swap execution facility who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed.
(i) To the extent practicable, a swap execution facility shall:
(1) Coordinate its business continuity-disaster recovery plan with those of the market participants it depends upon to provide liquidity, in a manner adequate to enable effective resumption of activity in its markets following a disruption causing activation of the swap execution facility's business continuity-disaster recovery plan;
(2) Initiate and coordinate periodic, synchronized testing of its business continuity-disaster recovery plan with those of the market participants it depends upon to provide liquidity; and
(3) Ensure that its business continuity-disaster recovery plan takes into account the business continuity-disaster recovery plans of its telecommunications, power, water, and other essential service providers.
(k)
(1) Interfere with the swap execution facility's operations or with fulfillment of its statutory and regulatory responsibilities;
(2) Impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the swap execution facility's automated systems;
(3) Add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the swap execution facility's regulated activities; or
(4) Undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the swap execution facility's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
(l)
(m)
7 U.S.C. 1a, 2, 6, 6a, 6c, 6d, 6e, 6f, 6g, 6i, 6j, 6k, 6l, 6m, 6n, 7, 7a-2, 7b, 7b-1, 7b-3, 8, 9, 15, and 21, as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
(a) A designated contract market's program of risk analysis and oversight with respect to its operations and automated systems shall address each of the following categories of risk analysis and oversight:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(b) In addressing the categories of risk analysis and oversight required under paragraph (a) of this section, a designated contract market shall follow generally accepted standards and best practices with respect to the development, operation, reliability, security, and capacity of automated systems.
(c) A designated contract market shall maintain a business continuity-disaster recovery plan and business continuity-disaster recovery resources, emergency procedures, and backup facilities sufficient to enable timely recovery and resumption of its operations and resumption of its ongoing fulfillment of its responsibilities and obligations as a designated contract market following any disruption of its operations. Such responsibilities and obligations include, without limitation: Order processing and trade matching; transmission of matched orders to a designated clearing organization for clearing; price reporting; market surveillance; and maintenance of a comprehensive audit trail. The designated contract market's business continuity-disaster recovery plan and resources generally should enable resumption of trading and clearing of the designated contract market's products during the next business day following the disruption. Designated contract markets determined by the Commission to be critical financial markets are subject to more stringent requirements in this regard, set forth in § 40.9 of this chapter. Electronic trading is an acceptable backup for open outcry trading in the event of a disruption. A designated contract market shall update its business continuity-disaster recovery plan and emergency procedures at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually.
(g) As part of a designated contract market's obligation to produce books and records in accordance with § 1.31 of this chapter, Core Principle 18 (Recordkeeping), and §§ 38.950 and 38.951, a designated contract market shall provide to the Commission the following system safeguards-related books and records, promptly upon the request of any Commission representative:
(1) Current copies of its business continuity-disaster recovery plans and other emergency procedures;
(2) All assessments of its operational risks or system safeguards-related controls;
(3) All reports concerning system safeguards testing and assessment required by this chapter, whether performed by independent contractors or by employees of the designated contract market; and
(4) All other books and records requested by Commission staff in connection with Commission oversight of system safeguards pursuant to the Act or Commission regulations, or in connection with Commission maintenance of a current profile of the designated contract market's automated systems.
(5) Nothing in this paragraph (g) shall be interpreted as reducing or limiting in any way a designated contract market's obligation to comply with Core Principle 18 (Recordkeeping) or with § 1.31 of this chapter, or with § 38.950 or § 38.951.
(h) A designated contract market shall conduct regular, periodic, objective testing and review of its automated systems to ensure that they are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity. It shall also conduct regular, periodic testing and review of its business continuity-disaster recovery capabilities. Such testing and review shall include, without limitation, all of the types of testing set forth in this paragraph (h). A covered designated contract market, as defined in this section, shall be subject to the additional requirements regarding minimum testing frequency and independent contractor testing set forth in this paragraph (h).
(1)
(2)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct such vulnerability testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct such vulnerability testing no less frequently than quarterly.
(ii) Such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning, which shall follow generally accepted best practices.
(iii) A designated contract market shall conduct vulnerability testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(3)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct such external penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct such external penetration testing no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A covered designated contract market shall engage independent contractors to conduct the required annual external penetration test. The covered designated contract market may conduct other external penetration testing by using employees of the covered designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(iii) A designated contract market which is not a covered designated contract market shall conduct external penetration testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(4)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct such internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct such internal penetration testing no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A designated contract market shall conduct internal penetration testing by engaging independent contractors, or by using employees of the designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(5)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. Such testing may be conducted on a rolling basis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct testing of its key controls no less frequently than every three years. The covered designated contract market may conduct testing of its key controls on a rolling basis over the course of three years or the period determined by such risk analysis, whichever is shorter.
(ii) A covered designated contract market shall engage independent contractors to test and assess the key controls included in its program of risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every three years. The covered designated contract market may conduct any other controls testing required by this section by using independent contractors or employees of the covered designated contract market who are not responsible for development or
(iii) A designated contract market which is not a covered designated contract market shall conduct controls testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(6)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct such security incident response plan testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct such security incident response plan testing no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A designated contract market's security incident response plan shall include, without limitation, the designated contract market's definition and classification of security incidents, its policies and procedures for reporting security incidents and for internal and external communication and information sharing regarding security incidents, and the hand-off and escalation points in its security incident response process.
(iii) A designated contract market may coordinate its security incident response plan testing with other testing required by this section or with testing of its other business continuity-disaster recovery and crisis management plans.
(iv) A designated contract market may conduct security incident response plan testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the designated contract market.
(7)
(i) A designated contract market shall conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. At a minimum, a covered designated contract market shall conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment no less frequently than annually. A designated contract market that has conducted an enterprise technology risk assessment that complies with this section may conduct subsequent assessments by updating the previous assessment.
(ii) A designated contract market may conduct enterprise technology risk assessments by using independent contractors or employees of the designated contract market who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed.
(i) To the extent practicable, a designated contract market shall:
(k)
(1) Interfere with the designated contract market's operations or with fulfillment of its statutory and regulatory responsibilities;
(2) Impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the designated contract market's automated systems;
(3) Add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the designated contract market's regulated activities; or
(4) Undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the designated contract market's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
(l)
(m)
(n)
(2) Each designated contract market shall provide to the Commission for calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter its annual total trading volume, providing this information for 2015 within 30 calendar days of the effective date of the final version of this rule, and for 2016 and subsequent years by January 31 of the following calendar year. For calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter, the Commission shall provide to each designated contract market the percentage of the combined annual total trading volume of all designated contract markets regulated by the Commission which is constituted by that designated contract market's annual total trading volume, providing this information for 2015 within 60 calendar days of the effective date of the final version of this rule, and for 2016 and subsequent years by February 28 of the following calendar year.
7 U.S.C. 12a and 24a, as amended by Title VII of the Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. No. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010), unless otherwise noted.
(b) A swap data repository's program of risk analysis and oversight with respect to its operations and automated systems shall address each of the following categories of risk analysis and oversight:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(c) In addressing the categories of risk analysis and oversight required under paragraph (b) of this section, a swap data repository shall follow generally accepted standards and best practices with respect to the development, operation, reliability, security, and capacity of automated systems.
(d) A swap data repository shall maintain a business continuity-disaster recovery plan and business continuity-disaster recovery resources, emergency procedures, and backup facilities sufficient to enable timely recovery and resumption of its operations and resumption of its ongoing fulfillment of its duties and obligations as a swap data repository following any disruption of its operations. Such duties and obligations include, without limitation: The duties set forth in § 49.19, and maintenance of a comprehensive audit trail. The swap data repository's business continuity-disaster recovery plan and resources generally should enable resumption of the swap data repository's operations and resumption of ongoing fulfillment of the swap data repository's duties and obligations during the next business day following the disruption. A swap data repository shall update its business continuity-disaster recovery plan and emergency procedures at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually.
(i) As part of a swap data repository's obligation to produce books and records in accordance with §§ 1.31 and 45.2 of this chapter, and § 49.12, a swap data repository shall provide to the Commission the following system safeguards-related books and records, promptly upon the request of any Commission representative:
(1) Current copies of its business continuity-disaster recovery plans and other emergency procedures;
(2) All assessments of its operational risks or system safeguards-related controls;
(3) All reports concerning system safeguards testing and assessment required by this chapter, whether performed by independent contractors or by employees of the swap data repository; and
(4) All other books and records requested by Commission staff in connection with Commission oversight of system safeguards pursuant to the Act or Commission regulations, or in connection with Commission maintenance of a current profile of the swap data repository's automated systems.
(5) Nothing in paragraph (i) of this section shall be interpreted as reducing or limiting in any way a swap data repository's obligation to comply with §§ 1.31 and 45.2 of this chapter, or with § 49.12.
(j) A swap data repository shall conduct regular, periodic, objective testing and review of its automated systems to ensure that they are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity. It shall also conduct regular, periodic testing and review of its business continuity-disaster recovery capabilities. Such testing and review shall include, without limitation, all of the types of testing set forth in this paragraph.
(1)
(2)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct such vulnerability testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than quarterly.
(ii) Such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning, which shall follow generally accepted best practices.
(iii) A swap data repository shall conduct vulnerability testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap data repository who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(3)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct such external penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A swap data repository shall engage independent contractors to conduct the required annual external penetration test. The swap data repository may conduct other external penetration testing by using employees of the swap data repository who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(4)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct such internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A swap data repository shall conduct internal penetration testing by engaging independent contractors, or by using employees of the swap data repository who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(5)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. Such testing may be conducted on a rolling basis. A swap data repository shall conduct testing of its key controls no less frequently than every three years. The swap data repository may conduct testing of its key controls on a rolling basis over the course of three years or the period determined by such risk analysis, whichever is shorter.
(ii) A swap data repository shall engage independent contractors to test and assess the key controls included in its program of risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every three years. The swap data repository may conduct any other controls testing required by this section by using independent contractors or employees of the swap data repository who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(6)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct such security incident response plan testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A swap data repository's security incident response plan shall include, without limitation, the swap data repository's definition and classification of security incidents, its policies and procedures for reporting security incidents and for internal and external communication and information sharing regarding security incidents, and the hand-off and escalation points in its security incident response process.
(iii) A swap data repository may coordinate its security incident response plan testing with other testing required by this section or with testing of its other business continuity-disaster recovery and crisis management plans.
(iv) A swap data repository may conduct security incident response plan testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the swap data repository.
(7)
(i) A swap data repository shall conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually. A swap data repository that has conducted an enterprise technology risk assessment
(ii) A swap data repository may conduct enterprise technology risk assessments by using independent contractors or employees of the swap data repository who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed.
(k) To the extent practicable, a swap data repository shall:
(l)
(1) Interfere with the swap data repository's operations or with fulfillment of its statutory and regulatory responsibilities;
(2) Impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the swap data repository's automated systems;
(3) Add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the swap data repository's regulated activities; or
(4) Undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the swap data repository's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
(m)
(n)
The following appendices will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
On this matter, Chairman Massad and Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo voted in the affirmative. No Commissioner voted in the negative.
I strongly support the two rules the Commission has finalized today.
The risk of cyberattack probably represents the single greatest threat to the stability and integrity of our markets today. Instances of cyberattacks are all too familiar both inside and outside the financial sector. Today, they often are motivated not just by those with a desire to profit, but by those with a desire deliberately to disrupt or destabilize orderly operations.
That is why these system safeguard rules are so important. The rules we have finalized today will apply to the core infrastructure in our markets—the exchanges, clearinghouses, trading platforms, and trade repositories. And they will ensure that those private companies are regularly evaluating cyber risks and testing their cybersecurity and operational risk defenses. While our rules already require this generally, the measures we approved today add greater definition—not by being overly prescriptive, but by setting some principles-based standards, and requiring specific types of testing, all rooted in industry best practices.
I've said many times that as regulators, we must not just look backwards to address the causes of past failures or crises. We also must look ahead—ahead to the new opportunities and challenges facing our markets. Financial markets constantly evolve, and we must ensure our regulatory framework is adapting to these changes.
These new rules are one good example of how we are looking ahead and addressing these new challenges. They will serve as a strong and important complement to the many other steps being taken by regulators and market participants to address cybersecurity. For example, government agencies and market participants are already working together to share information about potential threats and risks—and learn from one another.
I want to thank all those who provided feedback on the proposed rules the Commission approved last December. We received a number of thoughtful comments from market participants, most of which expressed broad support for the proposals. Commenters also highlighted some areas of concern, and we made adjustments based on that feedback. For example, we have reduced the frequency of controls testing and narrowed the instances where independent contractor testing is required. We have also clarified definitions of key terms, and made clear that the scope of required testing will be based on appropriate risk and threat analysis.
I also thank Commission staff for their hard work on these measures, particularly our staff in the Division of Market Oversight and Division of Clearing and Risk, as well as the support that is always provided by staff in the Office of General Counsel, the Office of Chief Economist and other staff who comment on the rules. I also thank my fellow Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo for their support of and suggestions regarding these final rules.
I will be voting yes on both systems safeguards rules. There is not much more to say than what I said when these rules were proposed on December 10, 2015.
As I noted when they were proposed, there are many aspects of these proposals that I like:
First, they set up a comprehensive testing regime by: (a) Defining the types of cybersecurity testing essential to fulfilling system safeguards testing obligations, including vulnerability testing, penetration testing, controls testing, security incident response plan testing, and enterprise technology risk assessment; (b) requiring internal reporting and review of testing results; and (c) mandating remediation of vulnerabilities and deficiencies. Further, for certain significant entities, based on trading volume, it requires heightened measures such as minimum frequency requirements for conducting certain testing, and specific requirements for the use of independent contractors.
Second, there is a focus on governance—requiring, for instance, that firms' Board of Directors receive and review all reports setting forth the results of all testing. And third, these rulemakings are largely based on well-regarded, accepted best practices for cybersecurity, including The National Institute of Standards and Technology Framework for Improving Critical
I was also an early proponent of including all registered entities, including SEFs, in this rule. I am glad to see them included, and look forward to the staff roundtable to discuss how to apply heightened standards to the significant SEFs. Thank you and I look forward to the staff's presentation.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
Final rule.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (“Commission”) is adopting enhanced requirements for testing by a derivatives clearing organization (“DCO”) of its system safeguards, as well as additional amendments to reorder and renumber certain paragraphs within the regulations and make other minor changes to improve the clarity of the rule text.
Eileen A. Donovan, Deputy Director, 202-418-5096,
Section 5b(c)(2) of the Commodity Exchange Act (“CEA”)
Regulation 39.18 implements Core Principle I and, among other things, specifies: (1) The requisite elements, standards, and resources of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight with respect to its operations and automated systems; (2) the requirements for a DCO's business continuity and disaster recovery plan, emergency procedures, and physical, technological, and personnel resources described therein; (3) the responsibilities, obligations, and recovery time objective of a DCO following a disruption of its operations; and (4) other system safeguards requirements related to reporting, recordkeeping, testing, and coordination with a DCO's clearing members and service providers.
On December 23, 2015, the Commission proposed to enhance its system safeguards requirements for DCOs by revising § 39.18 to require specific types of testing, and specifying the minimum frequency with which such testing must be performed. The Commission also proposed additional amendments to reorder and renumber certain paragraphs and make other minor changes to improve the clarity of the rule text, as well as corresponding technical corrections to § 39.34 (the “Proposal”).
The comment period for the Proposal ended on February 22, 2016. The Commission received seven substantive comment letters in response to the Proposal
In the Proposal, the Commission described the well-documented increase in cyber threats, and the need to enhance its existing requirements for cybersecurity testing in light of this increase.
Cybersecurity testing is a well-established best practice generally and for financial sector entities. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (“NIST”) Framework for Improving Critical Infrastructure Cybersecurity calls for testing of cybersecurity response and recovery plans and cybersecurity detection processes and procedures.
The Commission notes that § 39.18(j)(1)(i) currently requires DCOs to conduct regular, periodic, and objective testing and review of their automated systems to ensure that these systems are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity. This requirement must be satisfied by following, at a minimum, generally accepted standards and industry best practices. The final rule being adopted by the Commission herein clarify these requirements by identifying particular types of testing required by relevant generally accepted standards and industry best practices. The Commission is requiring that independent contractors conduct certain testing and specifying a minimum frequency for each testing type, but otherwise is not changing the regulatory requirement for DCOs as it exists today. The additional clarity provided by the specific testing and frequency requirements as well as the independent contractor requirements will help DCOs increase their cyber resiliency and operate in a safe and efficient manner.
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define “vulnerability testing” as testing of a DCO's automated systems to determine what information may be discoverable through a reconnaissance analysis of those systems and what vulnerabilities may be present on those systems. Proposed § 39.18(e)(2) would require the testing to be of a scope sufficient to satisfy the testing scope requirements of proposed § 39.18(e)(8). Proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(i) would require a DCO to conduct vulnerability testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than quarterly. Under proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(ii), the vulnerability tests would have to include automated vulnerability scanning, which would have to be conducted on an authenticated basis where indicated by an appropriate risk analysis. Proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(iii) would require a DCO to engage independent contractors to conduct two of the required quarterly tests each year. The other vulnerability tests could be conducted by employees of the DCO who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
CME Group, Inc. (“CME”) supported the proposed frequency for the required vulnerability testing. CME stated that testing on at least a quarterly basis is likely an appropriate frequency for most organizations for their most critical assets. Intercontinental Exchange, Inc. (“ICE”) supported a quarterly requirement, but believes that DCOs that meet the quarterly requirement should not be subject to a formal risk assessment to potentially determine a higher testing frequency as the Commission has not provided evidence that a higher frequency is warranted.
Minneapolis Grain Exchange (“MGEX”) stated that frequency of testing should be determined by the frequency of system changes and the scope of exposure, and should not be reduced to a static minimum. NGX stated that quarterly vulnerability testing is too costly for smaller DCOs, and should be required semi-annually instead.
The Commission does not believe it is prudent to change the frequency requirement for vulnerability tests. The requirement to conduct vulnerability tests at a frequency based on a risk analysis and at least quarterly is based on industry standards
North American Derivatives Exchange, Inc. (“Nadex”) stated that the rule should be clarified to provide that the expected level of detail contained in the risk analysis used to determine the required frequency of overall testing should be based on what is considered reasonable in the industry. The Commission does not believe a clarification is necessary because the rule as proposed is appropriately based on industry standards.
ICE argued that the Commission should eliminate the authenticated vulnerability scanning requirement on the basis that it will increase the cost and time of a scan, increase risk by requiring an operating system login to be created and maintained on a new system, and increase the quantity of findings, potentially diluting and obscuring important results.
The Commission agrees with ICE that an explicit requirement for authenticated scanning should be removed from the regulation. Therefore, the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(ii) as follows (added text in italics), “Such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning,
Several DCOs did not support the independent contractor requirement, arguing that internal teams should be allowed to conduct vulnerability testing. ICE noted that internal parties have the most knowledge and experience with the systems.
CME, ICE, and MGEX argued that there are inherent risks in providing outside parties access to critical systems and sensitive information. Specifically, MGEX stated that it is concerned about the breadth and volume of proprietary information that vendors would have access to in order to perform the testing required, because having vast quantities of industry information in the hands of vendors may actually cause greater risk of harm as vendors may be at greater risk of a cyber incident.
ICE, LCH.Clearnet Group (“LCH”), The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”), and MGEX all noted significant costs associated with hiring outside contractors to conduct vulnerability tests. LCH and MGEX further stated that this requirement is especially burdensome to smaller DCOs.
MGEX opposed the proposed requirement that only independent contractors or employees who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested may conduct vulnerability testing. Specifically, MGEX stated that smaller organizations like itself may not have qualified individuals outside of the IT department who would have the
OCC believes that requiring a DCO to use an independent contractor to perform vulnerability testing during the same year that such person is performing external penetration testing would unnecessarily increase costs without an added benefit, because vulnerability testing is largely subsumed within external penetration testing.
As explained in the Proposal, the Commission believes it is important that vulnerability testing be conducted from the perspective of an outsider, and as a result does not agree with MGEX that internal employees responsible for development or operation of the tested systems or capabilities should be permitted to conduct the tests. The Commission agrees with various commenters, however, that the regulation should permit but not require a DCO to use independent contractors to conduct the required vulnerability testing. As a result, the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(iii) as follows (added text in italics), “A derivatives clearing organization shall
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define “external penetration testing” as “attempts to penetrate a [DCO's] automated systems from outside the systems' boundaries to identify and exploit vulnerabilities,” and proposed § 39.18(e)(3) would require the testing to be of a scope sufficient to satisfy the testing scope requirements of proposed § 39.18(e)(8). Proposed § 39.18(e)(3)(i) would require a DCO to conduct external penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually. The proposed rule would also provide that independent contractors must perform the required annual external penetration test on behalf of the DCO. However, other external penetration testing could be performed by appropriately qualified DCO employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
ICE and Nadex supported requiring external penetration testing as a part of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight. OCC generally supported external penetration testing by independent third parties. ICE and CME supported performing the testing annually.
ICE suggested that the Commission should amend the definition of “external penetration testing” to include specific types of testing. The Commission is declining to do so. Requiring specific tests would be overly prescriptive and could stifle the development of new, more advanced testing methods. Accordingly, upon review of the comments, the Commission is adopting § 39.18(e)(3) and the definition of “external penetration testing” as proposed.
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define “internal penetration testing” as “attempts to penetrate a [DCO's] automated systems from inside the systems' boundaries to identify and exploit vulnerabilities.” Proposed § 39.18(e)(4) would require the testing to be of a scope sufficient to satisfy the testing scope requirements of proposed § 39.18(e)(8). Proposed § 39.18(e)(4)(i) would require a DCO to conduct internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually. The test could be conducted by independent contractors, or by appropriately qualified DCO employees not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
ICE and Nadex supported requiring internal penetration testing as a part of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight.
ICE suggested that the Commission should amend the definition of “internal penetration testing” to include specific types of testing. As with external penetration testing, the Commission is declining to require specific forms of internal penetration tests. Requiring specific tests would be overly prescriptive and could stifle the development of new, more advanced testing methods.
CME stated that DCOs may find it challenging to recruit and retain employees capable of conducting internal penetration testing without introducing unnecessary risks into production and other sensitive environments, because there is a scarcity of qualified professionals with those skills. As a result, CME argued the Commission should clarify that conducting annual internal penetration tests should be an objective, and not a strict requirement, so that DCOs can prioritize effective testing done by independent employees over conducting testing at least annually simply to comply with a prescriptive testing frequency requirement. ICE stated that the Commission should be silent on parameters for voluntary internal testing, allowing each DCO to determine its own methodology for such testing.
The Commission disagrees with CME's suggestion that internal penetration testing should be merely an objective. The requirement for internal penetration testing is based on industry standards.
MGEX stated that the required frequency of testing should be determined by the frequency of systems changes and the scope of exposure, and should not be reduced to a static minimum. The Commission declines to amend the regulation in response to MGEX's comment, and notes that that the frequency requirement in final § 39.18(e)(4)(i) is based on industry standards and is not overly prescriptive.
Accordingly, upon review of the comments, the Commission is adopting § 39.18(e)(4) and the definition of
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define “controls testing” as an assessment of the DCO's controls to determine whether such controls are implemented correctly, are operating as intended, and are enabling the DCO to meet the requirements of § 39.18. Proposed § 39.18(e)(5) would require such testing to be of a scope sufficient to satisfy the testing scope requirements of proposed § 39.18(e)(8). Proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(i) would require a DCO to conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than every two years.
Pursuant to proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(ii), a DCO would be required to engage independent contractors to test and assess its “key controls,” which would be defined in proposed § 39.18(a) as controls that an appropriate risk analysis determines are either critically important for effective system safeguards or intended to address risks that evolve or change more frequently and therefore require more frequent review to ensure their continuing effectiveness in addressing such risks. A DCO may conduct any other non-key controls testing by using independent contractors or employees of the DCO who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
CME and Nadex supported requiring controls testing as a part of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight.
ICE recommended that the Commission remove the controls testing requirements and the definition of “key controls.” ICE stated that attempting to mandate controls testing will result in inconsistent and confused implementation, distract from useful security activity, and generate a superset of results that are already published in a more focused fashion through vulnerability, external penetration, internal penetration, or security response plan testing. Moreover, ICE believes that the proposed controls testing requirements are already adequately addressed in existing rules, both in the U.S. and globally, and through current examination coverage. ICE added that the concept of a key control is not universally adopted, and that the goal is not to test such controls, but to eliminate reliance on them. ICE believes that the key controls proposal imposes a large burden for little to no practical improvement in security.
Despite ICE's comments, the Commission is adopting the controls testing requirement, which is based on industry standards.
CME and OCC stated that the costs of requiring controls testing every two years outweigh the benefits. CME stated that DCOs should be able to test in line with their risk analysis, which may result in a cycle of longer than two years. CME stated that a three-year cycle requirement would be more appropriate.
OCC agreed with the proposed testing frequency as applied to key controls. However, OCC stated that, consistent with relevant industry best practices, the Commission should alternatively consider permitting a DCO to determine the frequency of controls testing based on the level of risk a control is determined to present following an appropriate controls risk analysis.
The Commission agrees with CME and OCC that requiring controls testing no less frequently than every two years is not necessary. The Commission further agrees with CME that three years is a more appropriate minimum requirement and is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(i) as follows (added text in italics), “A [DCO] shall conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but
CME stated that requiring non-employee independent contractors to test key controls, without involvement by employees, may not provide the most effective or efficient means for continued key controls testing and enhancement. CME also stated that internal audit staff can provide a strong and independent third line of defense where the department is independent from management, objective in its findings, professional, and able to have free and unlimited access to the books, records, and people of a company. CME further stated that while involving external resources may be beneficial, doing so should not exclude participation by employees not involved in the development or operation of the controls, systems, or capabilities being tested.
OCC recommended that DCOs be permitted to use independent contractors or independent employees to test and assess the effectiveness of key controls because, in contrast to penetration testing, key controls testing does not require specialized expertise. Moreover, OCC believes independent employees are more knowledgeable about the DCO's business, risk profile, and control environment generally, making them better positioned to perform effective testing of key controls. OCC suggests that, at a minimum, the Commission should make clear that whenever an independent contractor is used to perform testing, the independent contractor is not required to work in isolation but rather alongside independent employees of the DCO.
The Commission believes that independent testing provides critical
Based on the changes to proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(i), the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(ii) in part as follows (added text in italics), “A [DCO] shall engage independent contractors to test and assess the key controls included in the [DCO]'s program of risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define “security incident response plan testing” as testing of a DCO's security incident response plan to determine the plan's effectiveness, identifying its potential weaknesses or deficiencies, enabling regular plan updating and improvement, and maintaining organizational preparedness and resiliency with respect to security incidents. Methods of conducting security incident response plan testing would include, but not be limited to, checklist completion, walk-through or table-top exercises, simulations, and comprehensive exercises.
Proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(i) would require a DCO to conduct the testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but at a minimum no less frequently than annually. Proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(ii) would require the DCO's security incident response plan to include, without limitation, the DCO's definition and classification of security incidents, its policies and procedures for reporting security incidents and for internal and external communication and information sharing regarding security incidents, and the hand-off and escalation points in its security incident response process. Proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(iii) would also permit the DCO to coordinate its security incident response plan testing with other testing required by the regulation or with testing of its other business continuity-disaster recovery and crisis management plans. Moreover, proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(iv) would permit the DCO to conduct security incident response plan testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
CME, ICE, and Nadex supported requiring security incident response plan testing as a part of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight.
CME stated that employees responsible for incident response, who would not be responsible for the development or operation of the functional systems or capabilities being tested, should be permitted to both design a DCO's plan and be responsible for testing the plan. CME stated that a DCO should be able to leverage its employees with expertise in crisis and risk management, and incident response and planning, for both planning and testing purposes.
The Commission agrees with CME that the employees who develop a security incident response plan should be permitted to test the plan. To allow DCOs additional flexibility regarding security incident response plan testing, the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(iv) by deleting “who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.” This revision allows security incident response plan testing to be conducted by either independent contractors or employees, without restricting which employees may lead or conduct the testing.
OCC noted that under the proposed rules, “security incident” is defined as “a cybersecurity or physical security event that actually or potentially jeopardizes automated system operation, reliability, security, or capacity, or the availability, confidentiality or integrity of data.” OCC argued that the inclusion of the term “potentially” renders the definition vague, and could be interpreted to include most, if not all, cybersecurity events experienced by a DCO. OCC suggested that the Commission revise its definition to either: (i) Defer to the DCO's definition as set forth in its risk analysis plan; or (ii) replace “potentially jeopardizes” with “has a significant likelihood of jeopardizing.”
The Commission recognizes OCC's concern and is amending the proposed definition of “security incident” as follows (added text in italics), “Security incident means a cybersecurity or physical security event that actually
Proposed § 39.18(a) would define an “enterprise technology risk assessment” as a written assessment that includes, but is not limited to, an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities in the context of mitigating controls. Proposed § 39.18(a) would also provide that an enterprise technology risk assessment identifies, estimates, and prioritizes risks to a DCO's operations or assets, or to market participants, individuals, or other entities, resulting from impairment of the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of data and information or the reliability, security, or capacity of automated systems.
Proposed § 39.18(e)(7) would require such assessment to be of a scope sufficient to satisfy the requirements of proposed § 39.18(e)(8). Proposed § 39.18(e)(7)(i) would require DCOs to conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually. Proposed § 39.18(e)(7)(ii) would permit a DCO to use independent contractors or employees of the DCO not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed to conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment.
Nadex requested that the Commission clarify whether information related to the enterprise technology risk assessment could be combined with the regular testing results presented to management and the board of directors based on the internal reporting and review requirements.
In response to Nadex's comment, the Commission is clarifying that the information required under the regulation can be presented to management and the board of directors in the manner each DCO deems
ICE recommended that the Commission not adopt the enterprise technology risk assessment requirements. ICE stated that attempting to mandate enterprise technology risk assessments will result in inconsistent and confused implementation, distract from useful security activity, and generate a superset of results that are already published in a more focused fashion through vulnerability, external penetration, internal penetration or security response plan testing. Moreover, ICE believes that the proposed enterprise technology risk assessment requirements are already adequately addressed in existing rules, both in the U.S. and globally, and through current examination coverage.
CME supported requiring DCOs to conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment as a part of a DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight, but believes an assessment should be required at least every two years, rather than annually, to match the controls testing cycle.
The Commission is adopting the enterprise technology risk assessment requirements generally as proposed. The regulation is based on industry standards
The Commission is, however, revising proposed § 39.18(e)(7)(i) to read as follows (added text in italics), “A [DCO] shall conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
CME suggested that the Commission permit DCOs to allow internal groups outside of the enterprise risk management function to handle components of the enterprise technology risk assessment.
ICE stated that the enterprise technology risk assessment should be the function of an enterprise risk program separate from the information security groups.
In response to the comments, the Commission emphasizes that the final regulation provides flexibility regarding who may conduct the enterprise technology risk assessment. If a DCO chooses not to use independent contractors, the enterprise technology risk assessment may be conducted by employees who are not responsible for the development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed.
Proposed § 39.18(e)(8) would provide that the scope of all system safeguards testing and assessment required by § 39.18 must be broad enough to include all testing of automated systems, networks, and controls necessary to identify any vulnerability which, if exploited or accidentally triggered, could enable an intruder or unauthorized user or insider to: (1) Interfere with the entity's operations or with fulfillment of the entity's statutory and regulatory responsibilities; (2) impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the entity's automated systems; (3) add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the entity's regulated activities; or (4) undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the entity's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
CME and Nadex stated that the requirement to identify “any vulnerability” that could compromise “any data,” or allow an intruder to undertake “any other unauthorized action” is too broad. CME argued that in being so broad, the Commission undermines the value of a risk-based approach. Nadex suggested that the proposed requirement be amended to limit responsibility to a reasonableness standard.
The Commission agrees that the proposed language is overly broad and undermines a risk-based approach to system safeguards testing. Therefore, the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(8) as follows (added text in italics), “The scope of testing and assessment required by this section shall be broad enough to include
Nadex noted that the “current cybersecurity threat analysis” the DCO would use to assess its possible adversaries' capabilities could be interpreted to include not only the DCO's internal risk assessment, but also warnings/notices generated from third party entities. Nadex requested that the Commission confirm that the “current cybersecurity threat analysis” refers only to the DCO's internal risk assessment.
The Commission does not believe that a DCO preparing a cybersecurity threat assessment can appropriately ignore available external warnings or notices. Thus, contrary to Nadex's recommendation, the Commission is clarifying that a DCO is required to consider reasonably available external analyses when preparing a current cybersecurity threat assessment.
CME stated that adopting regulations requiring DCOs to identify “any vulnerability” underlies an assumption that DCOs falling victim to the most sophisticated threats are singularly responsible for being attacked. Therefore, CME recommended that the Commission adopt safe harbors for DCOs who seek to comply with their core principle responsibilities in order to encourage DCOs to seek out partnerships and best serve the common goal of improving the industry's overall state of cyber resilience.
In light of the revisions to proposed § 39.18(e)(8) discussed above, the Commission declines to provide a “safe harbor” for DCOs “who seek to comply with their core principle responsibilities.” As the revisions make clear, the Commission is not seeking to hold DCOs strictly liable for every cyber attack they might face.
Proposed § 39.18(e)(9) would provide that both the senior management and the board of directors of the DCO must receive and review reports setting forth the results of the testing and assessment
Nadex stated that reports generated based on system testing are often lengthy and technical, and that requiring management and the board to review technical testing results would require individuals in those positions to have a level of technical knowledge and sophistication that may not otherwise be required of the position. Therefore, Nadex requested that the Commission clarify whether a narrative executive summary would satisfy the proposed requirement. Additionally, Nadex requested that the Commission clarify whether the reports may be presented to the board at its regularly scheduled quarterly meetings.
CME, MGEX, and OCC stated that a DCO's board of directors should be able to delegate the review required by proposed § 39.18(e)(9) to a board-level committee.
In response to Nadex, the Commission notes that providing a DCO's board with a narrative executive summary is not sufficient to satisfy the requirements of the regulation. Consistent with generally accepted best practices, the final regulation requires that the board must instead receive and review the technical reports containing testing results and assessments.
Proposed § 39.18(e)(10) would require a DCO to analyze the results of the testing and assessment required by § 39.18 to identify all vulnerabilities and deficiencies in its systems. The proposed regulation would require a DCO to remediate those vulnerabilities and deficiencies to the extent necessary to enable it to fulfill its statutory and regulatory obligations. In addition, the remediation would have to be timely in light of appropriate risk analysis with respect to the risks presented by such vulnerabilities and deficiencies.
Nadex stated that while it agrees with the proposed remediation requirements generally, the language requiring identification of “all” vulnerabilities and deficiencies would essentially impose strict liability on the firm for any breach of its security.
In response to Nadex's comment, the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(10) as follows, “A [DCO] shall identify
The Commission believes that the terms “remediate” and “accept” provide the universe of appropriate responses to identified vulnerabilities and deficiencies. Industry standards outlining potential responses to cyber risks speak in terms of mitigating, accepting, avoiding, and sharing or transfer
Nadex also urged the Commission to establish safe harbor provisions offering protection where it is apparent the DCO has acted in good faith and maintains reasonable standards, consistent with at least the minimum requirements prescribed by the regulations, to prevent, monitor, detect, and address internal and external cyber threats. In light of the revisions to § 39.18(e)(10), the Commission does not believe the addition of any safe harbor provision is necessary. The final regulation imposes specific system safeguards testing and remediation requirements, and does not seek to hold DCOs strictly liable for every cyber attack.
Proposed § 39.18(a) would revise the definition of “recovery time objective” to make the language consistent with that used elsewhere in § 39.18.
OCC stated that it agrees with the 2-hour recovery time objective for physical events, but believes that a reasonableness standard is more appropriate for cybersecurity events.
The Commission received several general comments on the proposed rule. CME, ICE, LCH, MGEX, and Nadex generally expressed support for the Commission's rulemaking efforts.
ICE, MGEX, and OCC favored a principles-based approach, and argue that the Commission's approach is overly prescriptive. Specifically, OCC suggested that the Commission adopt a framework similar to SEC Regulation Systems Compliance and Integrity, which allows registrants to design their own compliance plans using industry standards that meet specified requirements that further the goals intended by the regulation.
CME noted that it is important to allow entities, especially those operating within multiple jurisdictions, the flexibility to look to the best practices and standards that are most appropriate for addressing their unique risks, noting that best practices and generally accepted standards were not designed for the financial services industry.
MGEX stated that the expanded definition of “information security” in proposed § 39.18(b)(2) is overly prescriptive, and that this “check-the-box” list would not keep up with evolving markets, potentially giving the Commission a false sense of security.
The Commission declines to alter its approach of basing this regulation on industry standards. This approach results in a regulation that is not overly prescriptive and will provide DCOs with flexibility to design systems and testing procedures based on the best practices that are most appropriate for that DCO's risks.
ICE, LCH, and OCC stated that it is important for the Commission to consider harmonizing its regulations with international standards for system safeguards testing. Specifically, OCC stated that it is concerned that systemically important clearing houses that are subject to multiple regulatory regimes will face compliance challenges, particularly during regulatory exams, if regulators fail to coordinate and align on a common set of guidelines or standards.
As stated above, the Commission believes that this regulation's reliance on industry standards will provide DCOs, including those subject to multiple regulatory regimes, with flexibility to design systems and testing procedures based on the best practices that are most appropriate for that DCO's risks. Additionally, the Commission notes that the rule is consistent with the Guidance on Cyber Resilience for Financial Market Infrastructures published by the Committee on Payments and Market Infrastructures (“CPMI”) and the International Organization of Securities Commissions (“IOSCO”) (together, “CPMI-IOSCO”). The report sets out internationally agreed upon guidelines designed to help financial market infrastructures, including central counterparties, enhance their cyber resilience.
MGEX noted that because it is registered with the Commission as both a DCO and a DCM, it cannot avail itself of the benefits of the 5% carve-out from the definition of “covered designated contract market” provided in the Commission's proposed regulation applicable to DCMs.
MGEX also stated that the Commission should more closely harmonize its DCO and DCM cybersecurity requirements. For example, with respect to business continuity and disaster recovery plans, DCMs are required to coordinate with members and other market participants upon whom the DCM depends to provide liquidity, while a DCO is required to coordinate with its clearing members. MGEX believes these requirements should be harmonized and provide for coordination with other entities deemed appropriate by an organization. MGEX is concerned that if clearing members or other participants are required to coordinate extensively with DCMs or DCOs there will be an incentive for them to work with fewer organizations.
The Commission has worked to harmonize the regulations applicable to DCOs and DCMs, and as a result, the regulations track each other very closely. The Commission declines, however, to impose lighter regulation on those DCOs that are also DCMs, but are not covered DCMs. Unlike DCMs, DCOs hold member and customer funds, as well as records of member and customer positions, which would be at risk in the event of a cyber attack. Therefore the Commission believes that all DCOs must satisfy a uniform set of requirements with respect to system safeguards. With respect to the coordination requirement, DCMs and DCOs by their nature have different interested parties, and the need for a DCO to coordinate its business continuity and disaster recovery plan with its clearing members has not changed as a result of this rulemaking.
CME, ICE, and MGEX stated that internal audit groups should be permitted to continue in their current roles at those DCOs. CME noted that industry standards and best practices recognize that independence is determined not by employment, but impartiality. MGEX stated that the independence requirements present a competitive disadvantage for smaller entities that cannot afford full-time independent staff.
The Commission believes that the regulation adequately addresses the use of independent employees in carrying out the requirements of the regulation, and declines to make any changes to specifically address the use of internal audit personnel. In addition, the Commission does not believe it is necessary to change the independence requirements for DCOs that do not want to pay for full-time independent staff to conduct various required activities, as those DCOs are free to engage outside consultants to conduct activities that do not warrant full-time hires.
In the Proposal, the Commission requested comment on whether it should define the term “independent contractor” and if so, how it should define the term. LCH recommended that the Commission provide further guidance or a specific definition of “independent contractor” to maintain a consistent approach by all DCOs, but did not identify any specific lack of clarity that may result from use of the term absent a Commission definition. After consideration, the Commission is clarifying that as used in § 39.18, the term independent contractor does not include employees of a DCO's parent or
ICE stated that the Commission should only require regulated entities, and not the entire firm of which the regulated entity is a part, to produce books and records relevant to a particular examination. According to ICE, overly burdensome production requirements will limit the regulated entities from having open and honest conversations related to risk. For example, risk is often discussed at a firm-wide level and not by a specific regulated entity. ICE contends that discussion regarding risks for non-CFTC regulated companies is not of interest to the Commission, and jeopardizes the confidentiality of those non-CFTC regulated companies. Further, ICE believes that CFTC requests for information from non-CFTC regulated companies would likely cause conflicts with other regulators and could violate foreign laws or regulations.
The Commission believes that document production obligations during the course of an examination are beyond the scope of the rulemaking, but notes that Commission registrants are expected to produce required materials to the Commission regardless of whether that information resides at the registrant, at a related entity, or at an outside consultant. In many cases, a DCO shares system safeguard programs with other entities within the corporate structure. In these instances, the Commission will continue to require production of all books and records relating to the system safeguards of DCOs, including those relating to the system safeguards risks and risk analysis and oversight programs of parent companies where such risks or such programs are shared in whole or in part by a DCO.
CME stated that removing language from the current version of § 39.18 that expressly provides that a DCO is “free to seek indemnification” from outside service providers reduces certainty for the industry. CME added that because there is nothing within the regulation to prohibit the use of indemnification, as the Commission itself acknowledges, the Commission should not unnecessarily remove the certainty the current language provides.
The Commission does not believe the “free to seek indemnification” language suggested by CME is necessary and is not changing the proposed regulation in this regard. Nothing in the final rule suggests that a DCO could not seek indemnification, and the Commission need not address the legal rights of DCOs with respect to third parties.
MGEX stated that the systems development requirements contained in proposed § 39.18(b)(2)(v) should be required on an “as needed” or “as reasonable” basis. The Commission is declining to make changes to § 39.18(b)(2)(v) based on MGEX's suggestion. Information regarding systems development and quality assurance is appropriately part of the DCO's program of risk analysis and oversight. If a DCO believes that it does not have any information to include on this topic in its program of risk analysis and oversight, it can document that position, and the basis for it, in the program.
LCH stated that in setting a compliance date, the Commission should consider the size and complexity of a DCO as well as the resources a DCO will need to procure in order to comply with the new regulations. The Commission has determined the following compliance dates on a provision-by-provision basis, determining appropriate compliance dates that it believes all DCOs, regardless of their size, complexity, or resources, should reasonably be able to meet.
All of the regulations adopted herein will be effective upon publication in the
DCOs must comply with the following provisions 180 days after the effective date: Vulnerability testing—§ 39.18(e)(2); and security incident response plan testing—§ 39.18(e)(6).
DCOs must comply with the following provisions 1 year after the effective date: external penetration testing—§ 39.18(e)(3); internal penetration testing—§ 39.18(e)(4); controls testing—§ 39.18(e)(5); and enterprise technology risk assessment—§ 39.18(e)(7).
The Regulatory Flexibility Act (“RFA”) requires that agencies consider whether the regulations they propose will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and, if so, provide a regulatory flexibility analysis respecting the impact.
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (“PRA”)
The final rule contains provisions that would qualify as collections of information, for which the Commission has already sought and obtained a control number from the Office of Management and Budget (“OMB”). The title for this collection of information is “Risk Management Requirements for Derivatives Clearing Organizations” (OMB Control Number 3038-0076). Responses to this collection of information are mandatory. As discussed in the Proposal, the
The Commission notes that DCOs are already subject to system safeguard-related recordkeeping and reporting requirements. As discussed in the Proposal, the Commission is amending and renumbering current § 39.18(i) as § 39.18(f), to clarify the system safeguard recordkeeping and reporting requirements for DCOs. The regulation requires DCOs, in accordance with § 1.31,
Section 15(a) of the CEA requires the Commission to consider the costs and benefits of its actions before promulgating a regulation under the CEA or issuing certain orders.
To further the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits imposed by its regulation, the Commission invited comments from the public on the costs and benefits associated with the proposed regulation, and included a series of specific requests for comment related to the potential costs and benefits resulting from, or arising out of, requiring DCOs to comply with the proposed changes to § 39.18.
As an initial matter, the Commission considers the incremental costs and benefits of this regulation, meaning the costs and benefits that are above the current system safeguard practices and requirements under the CEA and the Commission's regulations for DCOs. Where reasonably feasible, the Commission has endeavored to estimate quantifiable costs and benefits. Where quantification is not feasible, the Commission identifies and describes costs and benefits qualitatively.
As discussed in the Proposal, the Commission believes that cyber threats to the financial sector have expanded dramatically in recent years.
The Commission recognizes that any economic effects, including costs and benefits, should be compared to a baseline that accounts for current regulatory requirements. The baseline for this cost and benefit consideration is the set of requirements under the CEA and the Commission's regulations for DCOs. Currently, § 39.18(j)(1)(i) requires a DCO to conduct regular, periodic, and objective testing and review of its automated systems to ensure that they are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
In addition to referencing generally accepted standards and industry best practices, this cost and benefit discussion uses information provided by DCOs in connection with a survey of DCO system safeguard costs and practices conducted by Commission staff (“February 2015 DCR Survey”).
In general, the final regulation clarifies existing system safeguards requirements under current § 39.18 by identifying specific testing required by industry best practices. To the extent the final rule imposes new requirements and thus additional costs, the primary costs will result from more frequent testing, including some testing that must be carried out by independent contractors on behalf of the DCO. As a result, the final rule may increase operational costs for DCOs by requiring additional resources. In addition, the Commission notes that some DCOs are larger or more complex than others, and the requirements may impact DCOs differently depending on their size and the complexity of their systems. Thus, the Commission expects that the costs and benefits may vary somewhat among DCOs. The Commission is sensitive to the economic effects of the regulation, including costs and benefits.
While certain costs are amenable to quantification, other costs cannot be reasonably estimated, such as the costs to the public or market participants in the event of a cybersecurity incident at a DCO. The Commission's final regulation is intended to further mitigate the frequency and severity of system security breaches or functional failures, and therefore, serve an important, if unquantifiable, public benefit. Although the benefits of effective regulation are difficult to value in dollar terms, the Commission believes that they are no less important to consider given the Commission's mission to protect market participants and the public and to promote market integrity.
The discussion of costs and benefits that follows begins with a discussion of the comments received regarding the costs and benefits of the Proposal generally. Following the general discussion, the Commission provides a summary of changes to the proposed rule that resulted in the final rule, discusses the costs and benefits of the final rule, and where relevant, the costs of the final rule relative to the Proposal and addresses comments specific to the costs and benefits of each proposal. At the conclusion of this discussion, the Commission considers the costs and benefits of the final regulation collectively in light of the five factors set forth in section 15(a) of the CEA.
CME estimates that the proposed rule would cost CME Group approximately $7.2 million over a two-year period. CME noted that its cost estimate also includes the Commission's proposal applicable to DCMs and does not separately estimate costs for clearing, trading, or data reporting. As described more fully below, the Commission is adopting the final regulation with modifications in certain key areas, which should result in less cost and burden for DCOs relative to the Proposal.
LCH recommended that the Commission consider the complexity created by multiple standards coming into effect in different major jurisdictions within the same timeframe. LCH stated that although international DCOs will achieve compliance against the highest minimum standards, the lead time for building testing programs and supportive compliance controls to meet many sets of new standards could be longer for larger and more complex DCOs than for smaller, regional DCO operations. The Commission agrees with LCH and, as discussed above in section III, has set individualized compliance dates for different aspects of the regulation. The Commission believes that all DCOs, regardless of their size, complexity, or resources, should generally be able to comply by the specified dates.
MGEX stated that some entities may incur additional costs due to the divergence between the Commission's proposed rules for DCMs and DCOs, including the programs of risk analysis and oversight and coordination of the business continuity and disaster recovery plan with industry participants. The Commission notes that the rules for DCMs and DCOs are largely harmonized, and that differences in the programs of risk analysis and oversight for DCOs and DCMs are largely attributable to the different risks faced by the two types of entities. The new rules applicable to DCMs require that the program of risk analysis and oversight include enterprise risk management and governance applicable specifically to security and technology, but as noted in the Proposal, any parallel requirements for DCOs must be addressed in a more comprehensive fashion involving more than the system safeguards context alone, and thus are not appropriate for this rulemaking.
LCH and MGEX stated that the Commission should consider the size and complexity of the DCO in calculating the cost of the proposed requirements. Specifically, MGEX noted that $8,383,222, a figure drawn from the notice of proposed rulemaking for the system safeguards rules applicable to DCMs, is “excessively punitive” for smaller entities. It further stated that organizations like MGEX cannot bear these costs, and that the Commission should not require them to comply because they present lower overall risk to the industry, and have dramatically smaller exposure to vulnerabilities compared to SIDCOs. The Commission notes that the figure cited by MGEX is not an estimate of new costs arising from this rulemaking. It was instead an average calculated from preliminary information collected from some DCMs and SDRs regarding their current costs associated with conducting vulnerability testing, external and internal penetration testing, controls testing, and enterprise technology risk assessments. The Commission nevertheless acknowledges that this rulemaking will impose new costs on DCOs beyond the current cost of compliance, and recognizes that the actual costs may vary widely as a result of numerous factors including the size of the organization, the complexity of the automated systems, and the scope of the test. The Commission has attempted to limit costs for smaller DCOs by providing the flexibility to design systems and testing procedures that are
CME and LCH noted that the shortage of skilled professionals could increase costs directly and indirectly as a result of the proposed rule. The Commission notes that where appropriate, the final rule provides additional flexibility regarding the ability of DCOs to choose whether to use internal or external personnel to conduct certain tests.
MGEX noted that implementation on the scale required by this rulemaking will include significant personnel and non-personnel resources. These additional costs include IT and operations personnel costs, purchase of software and hardware, legal and compliance costs, and the cost of third-party testing vendors. MGEX anticipated that its costs will go up two or three times if the rulemakings are made final in their proposed form, explaining that the highest cost of compliance would result from hiring of independent contractors/professionals. As discussed more fully below and in the Proposal, the Commission acknowledges that there will be some increases in the costs described by MGEX. In the final rule, the Commission, where appropriate, has provided DCOs with additional flexibility regarding who may conduct certain tests. The Commission notes, however, that many of the costs described by MGEX are attributable to compliance with the current rule and not to additional requirements imposed by this rulemaking. For example, the requirement to conduct testing with independent contractors or independent employees already exists under current § 39.18(j)(2). Further, based on industry standards, current § 39.18 requires DCOs to conduct external penetration testing using an independent contractor.
This section discusses cost and benefit considerations related to the final rule, including those aspects of the regulation that have changed since the proposed rule, and those aspects of the regulation on which the Commission received comments.
As discussed above in section II(A), the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(2)(ii) to remove the explicit requirement for authenticated scanning where indicated by appropriate risk analysis. The final rule requires that a DCO conduct automated vulnerability scanning, which complies with generally accepted best practices. The Commission is also revising § 39.18(e)(2)(iii) to remove the proposed requirement that two of the required quarterly vulnerability tests be conducted by independent contractors. Under the final rule, all four required tests may be conducted by independent contractors or employees of the DCO who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested. The Commission is otherwise finalizing § 39.18(e)(2) and the definition of “vulnerability testing” as proposed, and the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits associated with those sections does not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
NGX commented that compliance with the proposed rule would not be inordinately costly relative to the benefits, with the exception of the requirements in § 39.18(e)(2)(i) to conduct vulnerability testing on a quarterly basis. NGX estimates that testing quarterly would cost over $100,000 more per year than testing annually, and stated that the costs were not warranted because little changes from quarter to quarter. The Commission notes that industry best practices state that vulnerability testing should be conducted “at least quarterly.”
The Commission has determined not to adopt the proposed requirement for authenticated scanning where indicated by appropriate risk analysis in the final § 39.18(e)(2)(ii). The rule as adopted will require automated vulnerability scanning to comply with best practices. Because current § 39.18 requires DCOs to comply with industry best practices, the Commission does not believe that DCOs will incur additional costs as a result of the adoption of § 39.18(e)(2)(ii).
ICE, LCH, OCC, and MGEX all noted significant costs associated with hiring outside contractors to conduct vulnerability tests. OCC believes that requiring a DCO to use an independent contractor to perform vulnerability testing during the same year that such person is performing external penetration testing would unnecessarily increase costs without an added benefit, because vulnerability testing is largely subsumed within external penetration testing. As discussed above, the Commission has determined not to adopt the proposed independent contractor requirement in final § 39.18(e)(2)(iii). Under the final rule, all required testing may be done by an independent contractor or by independent employees. The final rule is thus consistent with current § 39.18(j)(2), which requires systems safeguards testing to be conducted by independent contractors or independent employees of the DCO. Because final § 39.18(e)(2)(iii) does not change the current requirement, it will not impose additional costs on DCOs.
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the benefits of vulnerability testing and believes the benefits of final § 39.18(e)(2) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(B), the Commission is adopting § 39.18(e)(3) and the definition of “external penetration testing” as proposed. The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs or benefits of external penetration testing. The Commission believes that the costs and benefits of § 39.18(e)(3) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(C), the Commission is adopting § 39.18(e)(4) and the definition of “internal penetration testing” as proposed. The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs or benefits of internal penetration testing. The Commission believes that the costs and benefits of § 39.18(e)(4) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(D), the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(i) to remove a prescribed two-year minimum testing period for all controls testing, and instead require that (a) key controls be tested every three years; and (b) non-key controls be tested at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis. The Commission is making a corresponding change to proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(ii) to require that independent contractors test each key control at least every three
CME and OCC stated that the costs of requiring controls testing every two years outweigh the benefits. As discussed above, the Commission is adopting proposed § 39.18(e)(5)(i) with modifications to require key controls testing to be conducted at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than every three years. The Commission has determined not to adopt the proposed minimum frequency requirement for non-key controls. As discussed in the Proposal, the Commission acknowledges that the minimum frequency requirement for key controls testing may increase costs for DCOs. The Commission notes, however, that the February 2015 DCR Survey indicated that most DCOs currently conduct controls testing at least annually and some DCOs may not face an increase in costs based on this requirement. Further, because of the modifications from the Proposal, the testing frequency for some DCOs could be reduced, and therefore may be less costly relative to the Proposal.
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the benefits of controls testing and believes the benefits of final § 39.18(e)(5) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(E), the Commission is amending the definition of “security incident” in proposed § 39.18(a) in order to provide additional clarity. Further, the Commission is adopting proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(iv) with modifications to remove the restrictions on which employees are permitted to conduct security incident response plan testing. The Commission is otherwise finalizing § 39.18(e)(6) as well as the definitions of “security incident response plan” and “security incident response plan testing” as proposed, and the Commission's consideration of the costs and benefits associated with those sections does not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
The Commission does not believe that the changes to the definition of “security incident” will affect the costs of the rule. As explained in the Proposal, the Commission does not believe proposed § 39.18(e)(6)(iv) will impose new costs on DCOs, because it is consistent with current § 39.18(j)(2). Further, without the proposed restrictions regarding which employees may conduct security incident response plan testing, § 39.18(e)(6)(iv) as finalized may lower costs for some DCOs by providing flexibility that does not exist in the current rule.
The Commission did not receive any comments related to the costs of security incident response plan testing.
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the benefits of security incident response plan testing and believes that the benefits of final § 39.18(e)(6) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
In the Proposal, the Commission concluded that proposed § 39.18(e)(7) is consistent with current industry standards
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs or benefits of enterprise technology risk assessment testing. The Commission believes that the costs and benefits of final § 39.18(e)(7) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(G), the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(8) to state that that the scope of testing and assessment required by § 39.18 shall be broad enough to include the testing of automated systems and controls that a DCO's required program of risk analysis and oversight and its current cybersecurity threat analysis indicate is necessary to identify risks and vulnerabilities that could enable an intruder or unauthorized user or insider to: (1) Interfere with the entity's operations or with fulfillment of the entity's statutory and regulatory responsibilities; (2) impair or degrade the reliability, security, or adequate scalable capacity of the entity's automated systems; (3) add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the entity's regulated activities; and (4) undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the entity's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
In the Proposal, the Commission discussed the costs of proposed § 39.18(e)(8) in relation to each substantive testing requirement. In each case, the Commission concluded that proposed § 39.18(e)(8) would not impose new costs on DCOs. The Commission believes that the changes to proposed § 39.18(e)(8) narrow the scope of testing in the final rule. Rather than requiring that DCOs test all automated systems and controls necessary to identify any of the enumerated risks and vulnerabilities, the scope of testing under the final rule is determined by a DCO's required program of risk analysis and oversight and its current cybersecurity threat analysis. Therefore, the Commission does not believe that final § 39.18(e)(8) will impose new costs on DCOs compared to the proposed rule or the current rule. The Commission believes this risk-based approach will result in improved and more cost-effective testing.
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs or benefits of the scope of testing.
As discussed above in section II(H), the Commission is adopting § 39.18(e)(9) as proposed. The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs or benefits of internal reporting and review. The Commission believes that the costs and benefits of final § 39.18(e)(9) do not differ from those discussed in the Proposal.
As discussed above in section II(I), the Commission is revising proposed § 39.18(e)(10) to require a DCO to
The final rule makes clear that a DCO is only required to consider remediation of those vulnerabilities and deficiencies revealed through testing, rather than all vulnerabilities and deficiencies. Further, the final rule specifically allows DCOs to accept certain risks presented by vulnerabilities and deficiencies when that is appropriate based on an analysis of the risk presented. These changes to the Proposal will, if anything, result in lower costs to DCOs relative to the proposed rule. In any event, responding to vulnerabilities and deficiencies revealed by cybersecurity testing is an industry best practice,
The aspect of the final rule that could impose additional costs on DCOs relative to the current rule is the express requirement that DCOs document the vulnerabilities and deficiencies in its systems revealed by the required testing and assessment, document an appropriate analysis of the risks presented by such vulnerabilities, and document whether to remediate or accept each risk. DCOs would have been required under the proposed rule to analyze their testing results to determine the extent of their required remediation, so the difference in the final rule is the express documentation requirement. The express requirement that DCOs document their analysis imposes at most a slight additional cost on DCOs, particularly given that DCOs would likely have documented the required analysis even absent the express requirement.
The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the costs of remediation.
The documentation requirement described above has the joint benefits of helping to ensure that DCOs carefully consider whether to remediate or accept risks, and of allowing the Commission to review the thought process behind these significant decisions. The Commission did not receive any comments specific to the benefits of remediation.
In addition to the discussion above, the Commission has evaluated the costs and benefits of § 39.18 in light of the specific considerations identified in section 15(a) of the CEA as follows:
Automated systems are critical to a DCO's operations, which provide essential counterparty credit risk protection to market participants and the investing public. Final § 39.18 is designed to further enhance DCOs' risk analysis programs in order to ensure that such automated systems are reliable, secure, and have an adequate scalable capacity. Accordingly, the Commission believes that the final rule will further help protect the derivatives markets by promoting more robust automated systems and therefore fewer disruptions and market-wide closures, systems compliance issues, and systems intrusions. Preventing disruptions helps to ensure that market participants will have continuous access to central clearing.
Additionally, providing the Commission with reports concerning the system safeguards testing and assessments required by the final regulation will further facilitate the Commission's oversight of derivatives markets, augment the Commission's efforts to monitor systemic risk, and will further the protection of market participants and the public by helping to ensure that a DCO's automated systems are available, reliable, secure, have adequate scalable capacity, and are effectively overseen.
The costs of this rulemaking would be mitigated by the countervailing benefits of improved design, more efficient and effective processes, and enhanced planning that would lead to increased safety and soundness of DCOs and the reduction of systemic risk, which protect market participants and the public from the adverse consequences that would result from a DCO's failure or a disruption in its functioning.
The amendments to § 39.18 will help preserve the efficiency and financial integrity of the derivatives markets by promoting comprehensive oversight and testing of a DCO's operations and automated systems. Specifically, the amendments will further reduce the probability of a cyber attack that could lead to a disruption in clearing services which could, in turn, cause disruptions to the efficient functioning and financial integrity of the derivatives markets. Preventing cyber attacks could prevent monetary losses to DCOs, and thereby help protect their financial integrity.
The Commission does not anticipate the final rule to have a significant impact on the competitiveness of the derivatives markets.
The Commission does not anticipate the amendments to § 39.18 to have a direct effect on the price discovery process. However, ensuring that DCOs' automated systems function properly to clear trades protects the price discovery process to the extent that a prolonged disruption or suspension in clearing at a DCO may cause potential market participants to refrain from trading.
The amendments to § 39.18 will strengthen and promote sound risk management practices across DCOs. Specifically, the amendments will build upon the current system safeguards requirements by ensuring that tests of DCOs' key system safeguards are conducted at minimum intervals and, where appropriate, by independent professionals. The applicable tests are each recognized by industry best practices as essential components of a sound risk management program. Moreover, the benefits of the final rule will be shared by market participants and the investing public as DCOs, by their nature, serve to provide such parties with counterparty credit risk protection.
In addition, reliably functioning computer systems and networks are crucial to comprehensive risk management, and being able to request reports of the system safeguards testing required by the final regulation will assist the Commission in its oversight of DCOs and will bolster the Commission's ability to assess systemic risk levels.
The Commission notes the public interest in promoting and protecting public confidence in the safety and security of the financial markets. DCOs are essential to risk management in the financial markets, both systemically and on an individual firm level. Regulation 39.18, by explicating current requirements and identifying several additional key tests and assessments, promotes the ability of DCOs to perform these functions free from disruption due to both internal and external threats to its systems.
Commodity futures, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, System safeguards.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission amends 17 CFR part 39 as follows:
7 U.S.C. 2, 7a-1, and 12a; 12 U.S.C. 5464; 15 U.S.C. 8325.
(a)
(b)
(i) The development of appropriate controls and procedures; and
(ii) The development of automated systems that are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity.
(2)
(i) Information security, including, but not limited to, controls relating to: Access to systems and data (including, least privilege, separation of duties, account monitoring and control); user and device identification and authentication; security awareness training; audit log maintenance, monitoring, and analysis; media protection; personnel security and screening; automated system and communications protection (including, network port control, boundary defenses, encryption); system and information integrity (including, malware defenses, software integrity monitoring); vulnerability management; penetration testing; security incident response and management; and any other elements of information security included in generally accepted best practices;
(ii) Business continuity and disaster recovery planning and resources, including, but not limited to the controls and capabilities described in paragraph (c) of this section; and any other elements of business continuity
(iii) Capacity and performance planning, including, but not limited to, controls for monitoring the derivatives clearing organization's systems to ensure adequate scalable capacity (including, testing, monitoring, and analysis of current and projected future capacity and performance, and of possible capacity degradation due to planned automated system changes); and any other elements of capacity and performance planning included in generally accepted best practices;
(iv) Systems operations, including, but not limited to, system maintenance; configuration management (including, baseline configuration, configuration change and patch management, least functionality, inventory of authorized and unauthorized devices and software); event and problem response and management; and any other elements of system operations included in generally accepted best practices;
(v) Systems development and quality assurance, including, but not limited to, requirements development; pre-production and regression testing; change management procedures and approvals; outsourcing and vendor management; training in secure coding practices; and any other elements of systems development and quality assurance included in generally accepted best practices; and
(vi) Physical security and environmental controls, including, but not limited to, physical access and monitoring; power, telecommunication, and environmental controls; fire protection; and any other elements of physical security and environmental controls included in generally accepted best practices.
(3)
(4)
(c)
(2)
(3)
(i) Coordinate its business continuity and disaster recovery plan with those of its clearing members, in a manner adequate to enable effective resumption of daily processing, clearing, and settlement of transactions following a disruption;
(ii) Initiate and coordinate periodic, synchronized testing of its business continuity and disaster recovery plan with those of its clearing members; and
(iii) Ensure that its business continuity and disaster recovery plan takes into account the plans of its providers of essential services, including telecommunications, power, and water.
(d)
(i) Using its own employees as personnel, and property that it owns, licenses, or leases; or
(ii) Through written contractual arrangements with another derivatives clearing organization or other service provider.
(2)
(3)
(e)
(i) Its automated systems to ensure that they are reliable, secure, and have adequate scalable capacity; and
(ii) Its business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities, using testing protocols adequate to ensure that the derivatives clearing organization's backup resources are sufficient to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
(2)
(i) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct such vulnerability testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than quarterly.
(ii) Such vulnerability testing shall include automated vulnerability scanning, which shall follow generally accepted best practices.
(iii) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct vulnerability testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the derivatives clearing organization who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(3)
(i) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct such external penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A derivatives clearing organization shall engage independent contractors to conduct the required annual external penetration test. A derivatives clearing organization may conduct other external penetration testing by using employees of the derivatives clearing organization
(4)
(i) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct such internal penetration testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct internal penetration testing by engaging independent contractors, or by using employees of the derivatives clearing organization who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(5)
(i) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct controls testing, which includes testing of each control included in its program of risk analysis and oversight, at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but shall test and assess key controls no less frequently than every three years. A derivatives clearing organization may conduct such testing on a rolling basis over the course of the required period.
(ii) A derivatives clearing organization shall engage independent contractors to test and assess the key controls included in the derivatives clearing organization's program of risk analysis and oversight no less frequently than every three years. A derivatives clearing organization may conduct any other controls testing required by this section by using independent contractors or employees of the derivatives clearing organization who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being tested.
(6)
(i) The derivatives clearing organization shall conduct such security incident response plan testing at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually.
(ii) The derivatives clearing organization's security incident response plan shall include, without limitation, the derivatives clearing organization's definition and classification of security incidents, its policies and procedures for reporting security incidents and for internal and external communication and information sharing regarding security incidents, and the hand-off and escalation points in its security incident response process.
(iii) The derivatives clearing organization may coordinate its security incident response plan testing with other testing required by this section or with testing of its other business continuity-disaster recovery and crisis management plans.
(iv) The derivatives clearing organization may conduct security incident response plan testing by engaging independent contractors or by using employees of the derivatives clearing organization.
(7)
(i) A derivatives clearing organization shall conduct an enterprise technology risk assessment at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually. A derivatives clearing organization that has conducted an enterprise technology risk assessment that complies with this section may conduct subsequent assessments by updating the previous assessment.
(ii) A derivatives clearing organization may conduct enterprise technology risk assessments by using independent contractors or employees of the derivatives clearing organization who are not responsible for development or operation of the systems or capabilities being assessed.
(8)
(i) Interfere with the derivatives clearing organization's operations or with fulfillment of its statutory and regulatory responsibilities;
(ii) Impair or degrade the reliability, security, or capacity of the derivatives clearing organization's automated systems;
(iii) Add to, delete, modify, exfiltrate, or compromise the integrity of any data related to the derivatives clearing organization's regulated activities; or
(iv) Undertake any other unauthorized action affecting the derivatives clearing organization's regulated activities or the hardware or software used in connection with those activities.
(9)
(10)
(f)
(1) Current copies of the derivatives clearing organization's business continuity and disaster recovery plan and other emergency procedures. Such plan and procedures shall be updated at a frequency determined by an appropriate risk analysis, but no less frequently than annually;
(2) All assessments of the derivatives clearing organization's operational risks or system safeguards-related controls;
(3) All reports concerning testing and assessment required by this section, whether conducted by independent contractors or by employees of the derivatives clearing organization; and
(4) All other documents requested by staff of the Division of Clearing and Risk, or any successor division, in connection with Commission oversight of system safeguards pursuant to the Act or Commission regulations, or in connection with Commission maintenance of a current profile of the
(5) Nothing in paragraph (f) of this section shall be interpreted as reducing or limiting in any way a derivatives clearing organization's obligation to comply with § 1.31 of this chapter.
(g)
(1) Any hardware or software malfunction, security incident, or targeted threat that materially impairs, or creates a significant likelihood of material impairment, of automated system operation, reliability, security, or capacity; or
(2) Any activation of the derivatives clearing organization's business continuity and disaster recovery plan.
(h)
(1) Planned changes to the derivatives clearing organization's automated systems that may impact the reliability, security, or capacity of such systems; and
(2) Planned changes to the derivatives clearing organization's program of risk analysis and oversight.
(a) Notwithstanding § 39.18(c)(2), the business continuity and disaster recovery plan described in § 39.18(c)(1) for each systemically important derivatives clearing organization and subpart C derivatives clearing organization shall have the objective of enabling, and the physical, technological, and personnel resources described in § 39.18(c)(1) shall be sufficient to enable, the systemically important derivatives clearing organization or subpart C derivatives clearing organization to recover its operations and resume daily processing, clearing, and settlement no later than two hours following the disruption, for any disruption including a wide-scale disruption.
(b) * * *
(3) The provisions of § 39.18(d) shall apply to these resource requirements.
(c) Each systemically important derivatives clearing organization and subpart C derivatives clearing organization must conduct regular, periodic tests of its business continuity and disaster recovery plans and resources and its capacity to achieve the required recovery time objective in the event of a wide-scale disruption. The provisions of § 39.18(e) shall apply to such testing.
The following appendices will not appear in the Code of Federal Regulations.
On this matter, Chairman Massad and Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo voted in the affirmative. No Commissioner voted in the negative.
I strongly support the two rules the Commission has finalized today.
The risk of cyberattack probably represents the single greatest threat to the stability and integrity of our markets today. Instances of cyberattacks are all too familiar both inside and outside the financial sector. Today, they often are motivated not just by those with a desire to profit, but by those with a desire deliberately to disrupt or destabilize orderly operations.
That is why these system safeguard rules are so important. The rules we have finalized today will apply to the core infrastructure in our markets—the exchanges, clearinghouses, trading platforms, and trade repositories. And they will ensure that those private companies are regularly evaluating cyber risks and testing their cybersecurity and operational risk defenses. While our rules already require this generally, the measures we approved today add greater definition—not by being overly prescriptive, but by setting some principles-based standards, and requiring specific types of testing, all rooted in industry best practices.
I've said many times that as regulators, we must not just look backwards to address the causes of past failures or crises. We also must look ahead—ahead to the new opportunities and challenges facing our markets. Financial markets constantly evolve, and we must ensure our regulatory framework is adapting to these changes.
These new rules are one good example of how we are looking ahead and addressing these new challenges. They will serve as a strong and important complement to the many other steps being taken by regulators and market participants to address cybersecurity. For example, government agencies and market participants are already working together to share information about potential threats and risks—and learn from one another.
I want to thank all those who provided feedback on the proposed rules the Commission approved last December. We received a number of thoughtful comments from market participants, most of which expressed broad support for the proposals. Commenters also highlighted some areas of concern, and we made adjustments based on that feedback. For example, we have reduced the frequency of controls testing and narrowed the instances where independent contractor testing is required. We have also clarified definitions of key terms, and made clear that the scope of required testing will be based on appropriate risk and threat analysis.
I also thank Commission staff for their hard work on these measures, particularly our staff in the Division of Market Oversight and Division of Clearing and Risk, as well as the support that is always provided by staff in the Office of General Counsel, the Office of Chief Economist and other staff who comment on the rules. I also thank my fellow Commissioners Bowen and Giancarlo for their support of and suggestions regarding these final rules.
I will be voting yes on both systems safeguards rules. There is not much more to say than what I said when these rules were proposed on December 10, 2015.
As I noted when they were proposed, there are many aspects of these proposals that I like:
I was also an early proponent of including all registered entities, including SEFs, in this rule. I am glad to see them included, and look forward to the staff roundtable to discuss how to apply heightened standards to the significant SEFs. Thank you and I look forward to the staff's presentation.
Good regulation should be balanced. It should have a positive impact on the marketplace while mitigating costs to the extent possible. I believe today's system safeguards final rule for derivatives clearing organizations (DCOs) generally achieves such balance although I have concerns about the cost impact on smaller DCOs.
As I have said, cyber and system security is one of the most important issues facing markets today in terms of integrity and financial stability.
While the final rule generally takes the right approach, I am concerned about its cost on smaller DCOs. I have expressed my concern about the cost of regulation on smaller market participants on numerous past occasions.
I note approvingly that the Commission has alleviated some burdens from the proposed rulemaking such as increasing the frequency of key controls testing from two years to three years, removing the requirement for independent contractors to conduct vulnerability testing and removing the explicit requirement for authenticated scanning, among other requirements.
I support the final DCO system safeguards rule despite concerns about its costs. Although I would have preferred that the rule take a less one-size-fits-all approach, I am a firm supporter of effective cyber and system security policies and procedures given the serious threat that cyber belligerents pose. I commend staff for their hard work and generally practical approach to system safeguards for DCOs. I also appreciate that they responded to many comments in an effort to reduce some of the burdens of the final rule. I therefore vote to adopt this rule.
Category | Regulatory Information | |
Collection | Federal Register | |
sudoc Class | AE 2.7: GS 4.107: AE 2.106: | |
Publisher | Office of the Federal Register, National Archives and Records Administration |